Section | Headnote |
---|---|
609.001 | MS 2006 [Renumbered 15.001] |
GENERAL PRINCIPLES | |
609.01 | NAME AND CONSTRUCTION. |
609.015 | SCOPE AND EFFECT. |
609.02 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.025 | JURISDICTION OF STATE. |
609.03 | PUNISHMENT WHEN NOT OTHERWISE FIXED. |
609.031 | [Repealed, 1983 c 331 s 11] |
609.032 | [Repealed, 1983 c 331 s 11] |
609.033 | MAXIMUM PENALTIES; MISDEMEANORS. |
609.0331 | MAXIMUM PENALTIES; PETTY MISDEMEANORS. |
609.0332 | MAXIMUM PENALTY; PETTY MISDEMEANOR ORDINANCE VIOLATIONS. |
609.034 | MAXIMUM PENALTY; ORDINANCE VIOLATIONS. |
609.0341 | MAXIMUM FINES FOR GROSS MISDEMEANORS; FELONIES. |
609.035 | CRIME PUNISHABLE UNDER DIFFERENT PROVISIONS. |
609.04 | CONVICTION OF LESSER OFFENSE. |
609.041 | PROOF OF PRIOR CONVICTIONS. |
609.045 | FOREIGN CONVICTION OR ACQUITTAL. |
609.05 | LIABILITY FOR CRIMES OF ANOTHER. |
609.055 | CAPABILITY OF CHILDREN TO COMMIT CRIME. |
609.06 | AUTHORIZED USE OF FORCE. |
609.065 | JUSTIFIABLE TAKING OF LIFE. |
609.066 | AUTHORIZED USE OF DEADLY FORCE BY PEACE OFFICERS. |
609.075 | INTOXICATION AS DEFENSE. |
609.08 | DURESS. |
609.085 | SENDING WRITTEN COMMUNICATION. |
609.09 | COMPELLING TESTIMONY; IMMUNITY FROM PROSECUTION. |
609.092 | JUVENILE PETTY OFFENDERS; USE OF RESTORATIVE JUSTICE. |
609.093 | [Repealed, 2013 c 108 art 3 s 48] |
SENTENCES | |
609.095 | LIMITS OF SENTENCES. |
609.10 | SENTENCES AVAILABLE. |
609.101 | SURCHARGE ON FINES, ASSESSMENTS; MINIMUM FINES. |
609.102 | LOCAL CORRECTIONAL FEES; IMPOSITION BY COURT. |
609.103 | [Repealed, 2008 c 299 s 28] |
609.104 | FINE AND SURCHARGE COLLECTION. |
609.105 | SENTENCE OF IMPRISONMENT. |
609.1055 | OFFENDERS WITH SERIOUS AND PERSISTENT MENTAL ILLNESS; ALTERNATIVE PLACEMENT. |
609.106 | HEINOUS CRIMES. |
609.107 | MANDATORY PENALTY FOR CERTAIN MURDERERS. |
609.108 | Subdivisions renumbered, repealed, or no longer in effect |
609.109 | Subdivisions renumbered, repealed, or no longer in effect |
609.1095 | INCREASED SENTENCES FOR CERTAIN DANGEROUS AND REPEAT FELONY OFFENDERS. |
609.11 | MINIMUM SENTENCES OF IMPRISONMENT. |
609.113 | [Repealed, 1999 c 216 art 3 s 10] |
609.115 | PRESENTENCE INVESTIGATION. |
609.116 | Subdivisions renumbered, repealed, or no longer in effect |
609.117 | DNA ANALYSIS OF CERTAIN OFFENDERS REQUIRED. |
609.118 | FINGERPRINTING REQUIRED. |
609.119 | [Repealed, 2005 c 136 art 12 s 12] |
609.12 | PAROLE OR DISCHARGE. |
609.125 | SENTENCE FOR MISDEMEANOR OR GROSS MISDEMEANOR. |
609.13 | CONVICTIONS OF FELONY OR GROSS MISDEMEANOR; WHEN DEEMED MISDEMEANOR OR GROSS MISDEMEANOR. |
609.131 | CERTIFICATION OF MISDEMEANOR AS PETTY MISDEMEANOR. |
609.132 | CONTINUANCE FOR DISMISSAL. |
609.135 | STAY OF IMPOSITION OR EXECUTION OF SENTENCE. |
609.1351 | PETITION FOR CIVIL COMMITMENT. |
609.1352 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 6 s 16] |
609.14 | REVOCATION OF STAY. |
609.145 | CREDIT FOR PRIOR IMPRISONMENT. |
609.15 | MULTIPLE SENTENCES. |
609.152 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 6 s 16] |
609.153 | INCREASED PENALTIES FOR CERTAIN MISDEMEANORS. |
609.155 | [Repealed, 1978 c 723 art 1 s 19] |
609.16 | [Repealed, 1978 c 723 art 1 s 19] |
609.165 | RESTORATION OF CIVIL RIGHTS; POSSESSION OF FIREARMS AND AMMUNITION. |
609.166 | [Repealed, 1996 c 408 art 9 s 10] |
609.167 | [Repealed, 1996 c 408 art 9 s 10] |
609.168 | [Repealed, 1996 c 408 art 9 s 10] |
ANTICIPATORY CRIMES | |
609.17 | ATTEMPTS. |
609.175 | CONSPIRACY. |
HOMICIDE; BODILY HARM; SUICIDE | |
609.18 | DEFINITION. |
609.184 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 6 s 16] |
609.185 | MURDER IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.19 | MURDER IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.195 | MURDER IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.196 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 6 s 16] |
609.20 | MANSLAUGHTER IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.205 | MANSLAUGHTER IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.21 | Subdivisions renumbered, repealed, or no longer in effect |
609.2111 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.2112 | CRIMINAL VEHICULAR HOMICIDE. |
609.2113 | CRIMINAL VEHICULAR OPERATION; BODILY HARM. |
609.2114 | CRIMINAL VEHICULAR OPERATION; UNBORN CHILD. |
609.215 | SUICIDE. |
609.22 | [Repealed, 1979 c 258 s 25] |
CRIMES AGAINST THE PERSON | |
609.221 | ASSAULT IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.222 | ASSAULT IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.223 | ASSAULT IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.2231 | ASSAULT IN THE FOURTH DEGREE. |
609.2232 | CONSECUTIVE SENTENCES FOR ASSAULTS COMMITTED BY STATE PRISON INMATES. |
609.2233 | FELONY ASSAULT MOTIVATED BY BIAS; INCREASED STATUTORY MAXIMUM SENTENCE. |
609.224 | ASSAULT IN THE FIFTH DEGREE. |
609.2241 | KNOWING TRANSFER OF COMMUNICABLE DISEASE. |
609.2242 | DOMESTIC ASSAULT. |
609.2243 | SENTENCING; REPEAT DOMESTIC ASSAULT. |
609.2244 | PRESENTENCE DOMESTIC ABUSE INVESTIGATIONS. |
609.2245 | FEMALE GENITAL MUTILATION; PENALTIES. |
609.2246 | [Repealed, 2013 c 43 s 32] |
609.2247 | DOMESTIC ASSAULT BY STRANGULATION. |
609.225 | [Repealed, 1979 c 258 s 25] |
609.226 | HARM CAUSED BY DOG. |
609.227 | DANGEROUS ANIMALS DESTROYED. |
609.228 | GREAT BODILY HARM CAUSED BY DISTRIBUTION OF DRUGS. |
609.229 | CRIME COMMITTED FOR BENEFIT OF GANG. |
609.23 | MISTREATMENT OF PERSONS CONFINED. |
609.231 | MISTREATMENT OF RESIDENTS OR PATIENTS. |
609.232 | CRIMES AGAINST VULNERABLE ADULTS; DEFINITIONS. |
609.2325 | CRIMINAL ABUSE. |
609.233 | CRIMINAL NEGLECT. |
609.2335 | FINANCIAL EXPLOITATION OF VULNERABLE ADULT. |
609.2336 | DECEPTIVE OR UNFAIR TRADE PRACTICES; ELDERLY OR DISABLED VICTIMS. |
609.234 | FAILURE TO REPORT. |
609.235 | USE OF DRUGS TO INJURE OR FACILITATE CRIME. |
609.24 | SIMPLE ROBBERY. |
609.245 | AGGRAVATED ROBBERY. |
609.25 | KIDNAPPING. |
609.251 | DOUBLE JEOPARDY; KIDNAPPING. |
609.255 | FALSE IMPRISONMENT. |
609.26 | DEPRIVING ANOTHER OF CUSTODIAL OR PARENTAL RIGHTS. |
609.265 | ABDUCTION. |
CRIMES AGAINST UNBORN CHILDREN | |
609.266 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.2661 | MURDER OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.2662 | MURDER OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.2663 | MURDER OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.2664 | MANSLAUGHTER OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.2665 | MANSLAUGHTER OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.267 | ASSAULT OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.2671 | ASSAULT OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.2672 | ASSAULT OF UNBORN CHILD IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.268 | INJURY OR DEATH OF UNBORN CHILD IN COMMISSION OF CRIME. |
609.269 | EXCEPTION. |
609.2691 | OTHER CONVICTIONS NOT BARRED. |
CRIMES OF COMPULSION | |
609.27 | COERCION. |
609.275 | ATTEMPT TO COERCE. |
609.28 | INTERFERING WITH RELIGIOUS OBSERVANCE. |
SEXUAL AND LABOR TRAFFICKING CRIMES | |
609.281 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.282 | LABOR TRAFFICKING. |
609.283 | UNLAWFUL CONDUCT WITH RESPECT TO DOCUMENTS IN FURTHERANCE OF LABOR OR SEX TRAFFICKING. |
609.284 | LABOR OR SEX TRAFFICKING CRIMES; DEFENSES; CIVIL LIABILITY; CORPORATE LIABILITY. |
609.29 | [Repealed, 1975 c 374 s 13] |
609.291 | [Repealed, 1975 c 374 s 13] |
609.292 | [Repealed, 1975 c 374 s 13] |
SEX CRIMES | |
609.293 | SODOMY. |
609.294 | BESTIALITY. |
609.295 | [Repealed, 1975 c 374 s 13] |
609.296 | [Repealed, 1975 c 374 s 13] |
609.31 | LEAVING STATE TO EVADE ESTABLISHMENT OF PATERNITY. |
609.32 | [Repealed, 1979 c 255 s 9] |
609.321 | PROSTITUTION AND SEX TRAFFICKING; DEFINITIONS. |
609.322 | SOLICITATION, INDUCEMENT, AND PROMOTION OF PROSTITUTION; SEX TRAFFICKING. |
609.323 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 2 s 33] |
609.3232 | PROTECTIVE ORDER AUTHORIZED; PROCEDURES; PENALTIES. |
609.324 | PATRONS; PROSTITUTES; HOUSING INDIVIDUALS ENGAGED IN PROSTITUTION; PENALTIES. |
609.3241 | PENALTY ASSESSMENT AUTHORIZED. |
609.3242 | PROSTITUTION CRIMES COMMITTED IN SCHOOL OR PARK ZONES; INCREASED PENALTIES. |
609.3243 | LOITERING WITH INTENT TO PARTICIPATE IN PROSTITUTION. |
609.325 | DEFENSES. |
609.326 | EVIDENCE. |
609.33 | DISORDERLY HOUSE. |
609.34 | FORNICATION. |
609.341 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.342 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.343 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.344 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.345 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT IN THE FOURTH DEGREE. |
609.3451 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT IN THE FIFTH DEGREE. |
609.3452 | [Renumbered 609.3457] |
609.3453 | CRIMINAL SEXUAL PREDATORY CONDUCT. |
609.3455 | DANGEROUS SEX OFFENDERS; LIFE SENTENCES; CONDITIONAL RELEASE. |
609.3456 | USE OF POLYGRAPHS FOR SEX OFFENDERS ON PROBATION OR CONDITIONAL RELEASE. |
609.3457 | SEX OFFENDER ASSESSMENT. |
609.346 | [Repealed, 1998 c 367 art 6 s 16] |
609.3461 | [Renumbered 609.117] |
609.347 | EVIDENCE IN CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT CASES. |
609.3471 | RECORDS PERTAINING TO VICTIM IDENTITY CONFIDENTIAL. |
609.348 | MEDICAL PURPOSES; EXCLUSION. |
609.349 | VOLUNTARY RELATIONSHIPS. |
609.35 | COSTS OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION. |
609.351 | APPLICABILITY TO PAST AND PRESENT PROSECUTIONS. |
609.352 | SOLICITATION OF CHILDREN TO ENGAGE IN SEXUAL CONDUCT; COMMUNICATION OF SEXUALLY EXPLICIT MATERIALS TO CHILDREN. |
609.353 | JURISDICTION. |
CRIMES AGAINST THE FAMILY | |
609.355 | BIGAMY. |
609.36 | ADULTERY. |
609.364 | [Repealed, 1985 c 286 s 24] |
609.3641 | [Repealed, 1985 c 286 s 24] |
609.3642 | [Repealed, 1985 c 286 s 24] |
609.3643 | [Repealed, 1985 c 286 s 24] |
609.3644 | [Repealed, 1985 c 286 s 24] |
609.365 | INCEST. |
609.37 | [Repealed, 1993 c 340 s 60] |
609.375 | NONSUPPORT OF SPOUSE OR CHILD. |
609.3751 | DISCHARGE AND DISMISSAL. |
609.376 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.377 | MALICIOUS PUNISHMENT OF CHILD. |
609.378 | NEGLECT OR ENDANGERMENT OF CHILD. |
609.3785 | UNHARMED NEWBORNS LEFT AT A SAFE PLACE; AVOIDANCE OF PROSECUTION. |
609.379 | PERMITTED ACTIONS. |
609.38 | STAYED SENTENCE. |
CRIMES AGAINST THE GOVERNMENT | |
609.385 | TREASON. |
609.39 | MISPRISION OF TREASON. |
609.395 | STATE MILITARY FORCES; INTERFERING WITH, OBSTRUCTING, OR OTHER. |
609.396 | UNAUTHORIZED PRESENCE AT CAMP RIPLEY. |
609.40 | FLAGS. |
609.405 | [Repealed, 1987 c 10 s 1] |
609.41 | FALSE TAX STATEMENT. |
CRIMES AFFECTING PUBLIC OFFICER OR EMPLOYEE |
|
609.415 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.42 | BRIBERY. |
609.425 | CORRUPTLY INFLUENCING LEGISLATOR. |
609.43 | MISCONDUCT OF PUBLIC OFFICER OR EMPLOYEE. |
609.435 | OFFICER NOT FILING SECURITY. |
609.44 | PUBLIC OFFICE; ILLEGALLY ASSUMING; NONSURRENDER. |
609.445 | FAILURE TO PAY OVER STATE FUNDS. |
609.45 | PUBLIC OFFICER; UNAUTHORIZED COMPENSATION. |
609.455 | PERMITTING FALSE CLAIMS AGAINST GOVERNMENT. |
609.456 | REPORTING TO STATE AUDITOR AND LEGISLATIVE AUDITOR REQUIRED. |
609.46 | [Repealed, 1983 c 359 s 151] |
609.465 | PRESENTING FALSE CLAIMS TO PUBLIC OFFICER OR BODY. |
609.466 | MEDICAL ASSISTANCE FRAUD. |
609.47 | INTERFERENCE WITH PROPERTY IN OFFICIAL CUSTODY. |
609.475 | IMPERSONATING A MILITARY SERVICE MEMBER, VETERAN, OR PUBLIC OFFICIAL. |
609.4751 | IMPERSONATING A PEACE OFFICER. |
CRIMES AGAINST THE ADMINISTRATION OF JUSTICE |
|
609.48 | PERJURY. |
609.485 | ESCAPE FROM CUSTODY. |
609.486 | COMMISSION OF CRIME WHILE WEARING OR POSSESSING BULLET-RESISTANT VEST. |
609.487 | FLEEING PEACE OFFICER; MOTOR VEHICLE; OTHER. |
609.49 | RELEASE, FAILURE TO APPEAR. |
609.491 | FAILURE TO APPEAR; PETTY MISDEMEANOR. |
609.493 | SOLICITATION OF MENTALLY IMPAIRED PERSONS. |
609.494 | SOLICITATION OF JUVENILES. |
609.495 | AIDING AN OFFENDER. |
609.496 | CONCEALING CRIMINAL PROCEEDS. |
609.497 | ENGAGING IN BUSINESS OF CONCEALING CRIMINAL PROCEEDS. |
609.4971 | WARNING SUBJECT OF INVESTIGATION. |
609.4975 | WARNING SUBJECT OF SURVEILLANCE OR SEARCH. |
609.498 | TAMPERING WITH WITNESS. |
609.50 | OBSTRUCTING LEGAL PROCESS, ARREST, OR FIREFIGHTING. |
609.501 | FUNERAL OR BURIAL SERVICE; PROHIBITED ACTS. |
609.502 | INTERFERENCE WITH DEAD BODY; REPORTING. |
609.504 | DISARMING PEACE OFFICER. |
609.505 | FALSELY REPORTING CRIME. |
609.5051 | CRIMINAL ALERT NETWORK; FALSE OR MISLEADING INFORMATION PROHIBITED. |
609.506 | PROHIBITING GIVING PEACE OFFICER FALSE NAME. |
609.507 | FALSELY REPORTING CHILD ABUSE. |
609.508 | FALSE INFORMATION TO FINANCIAL INSTITUTION. |
609.51 | SIMULATING LEGAL PROCESS. |
609.515 | MISCONDUCT OF JUDICIAL OR HEARING OFFICER. |
THEFT AND RELATED CRIMES | |
609.52 | THEFT. |
609.521 | POSSESSION OF SHOPLIFTING GEAR. |
609.523 | RETURN OF STOLEN PROPERTY TO OWNERS. |
609.525 | BRINGING STOLEN GOODS INTO STATE. |
609.526 | PRECIOUS METAL AND SCRAP METAL DEALERS; RECEIVING STOLEN PROPERTY. |
609.527 | IDENTITY THEFT. |
609.528 | POSSESSION OR SALE OF STOLEN OR COUNTERFEIT CHECK; PENALTIES. |
609.529 | MAIL THEFT. |
609.53 | RECEIVING STOLEN PROPERTY. |
609.531 | FORFEITURES. |
609.5311 | FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY ASSOCIATED WITH CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES. |
609.5312 | FORFEITURE OF PROPERTY ASSOCIATED WITH DESIGNATED OFFENSES. |
609.5313 | FORFEITURE BY JUDICIAL ACTION; PROCEDURE. |
609.5314 | ADMINISTRATIVE FORFEITURE OF CERTAIN PROPERTY SEIZED IN CONNECTION WITH A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES SEIZURE. |
609.5315 | DISPOSITION OF FORFEITED PROPERTY. |
609.5316 | SUMMARY FORFEITURES. |
609.5317 | REAL PROPERTY; SEIZURES. |
609.5318 | FORFEITURE OF VEHICLES USED IN DRIVE-BY SHOOTINGS. |
609.5319 | FINANCIAL INSTITUTION SECURED INTEREST. |
609.532 | ATTACHMENT OF DEPOSITED FUNDS. |
609.535 | ISSUANCE OF DISHONORED CHECKS. |
609.54 | EMBEZZLEMENT OF PUBLIC FUNDS. |
609.541 | PROTECTION OF LIBRARY PROPERTY. |
609.545 | MISUSING CREDIT CARD TO SECURE SERVICES. |
609.546 | MOTOR VEHICLE TAMPERING. |
609.55 | [Repealed, 1989 c 290 art 7 s 14] |
609.551 | RUSTLING AND LIVESTOCK THEFT; PENALTIES. |
609.552 | UNAUTHORIZED RELEASE OF ANIMALS. |
609.555 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
DAMAGE OR TRESPASS TO PROPERTY | |
609.556 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.56 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
609.561 | ARSON IN THE FIRST DEGREE. |
609.562 | ARSON IN THE SECOND DEGREE. |
609.563 | ARSON IN THE THIRD DEGREE. |
609.5631 | ARSON IN THE FOURTH DEGREE. |
609.5632 | ARSON IN THE FIFTH DEGREE. |
609.5633 | USE OF IGNITION DEVICES; PETTY MISDEMEANOR. |
609.564 | EXCLUDED FIRES. |
609.5641 | WILDFIRE ARSON. |
609.565 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
609.57 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
609.575 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
609.576 | NEGLIGENT FIRES; DANGEROUS SMOKING. |
609.58 | [Repealed, 1983 c 321 s 4] |
609.581 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.582 | BURGLARY. |
609.583 | SENTENCING; FIRST BURGLARY OF DWELLING. |
609.585 | DOUBLE JEOPARDY. |
609.586 | POSSESSION OF CODE-GRABBING DEVICES; PENALTY. |
609.59 | POSSESSION OF BURGLARY OR THEFT TOOLS. |
609.591 | DAMAGE TO TIMBER OR WOOD PROCESSING AND RELATED EQUIPMENT. |
609.592 | POSSESSION OF TIMBER DAMAGE DEVICES. |
609.593 | DAMAGE OR THEFT TO ENERGY TRANSMISSION OR TELECOMMUNICATIONS EQUIPMENT. |
609.594 | DAMAGE TO PROPERTY OF CRITICAL PUBLIC SERVICE FACILITIES, UTILITIES, AND PIPELINES. |
609.595 | DAMAGE TO PROPERTY. |
609.596 | KILLING OR HARMING PUBLIC SAFETY DOG. |
609.597 | ASSAULTING OR HARMING POLICE HORSE; PENALTIES. |
609.599 | EXPOSING DOMESTIC ANIMALS TO DISEASE. |
609.60 | [Repealed, 1989 c 5 s 18] |
609.605 | TRESPASS. |
609.6055 | TRESPASS ON CRITICAL PUBLIC SERVICE FACILITY; UTILITY; OR PIPELINE. |
609.6057 | GEOGRAPHIC RESTRICTION. |
609.606 | UNLAWFUL OUSTER OR EXCLUSION. |
609.61 | [Repealed, 1976 c 124 s 10] |
609.611 | INSURANCE FRAUD. |
609.612 | EMPLOYMENT OF RUNNERS. |
609.615 | DEFEATING SECURITY ON REALTY. |
609.62 | DEFEATING SECURITY ON PERSONALTY. |
609.621 | PROOF OF CONCEALMENT OF PROPERTY BY OBLIGOR OF SECURED PROPERTY. |
FORGERY AND RELATED CRIMES | |
609.625 | AGGRAVATED FORGERY. |
609.63 | FORGERY. |
609.631 | CHECK FORGERY; OFFERING FORGED CHECK. |
609.632 | COUNTERFEITING OF CURRENCY. |
609.635 | OBTAINING SIGNATURE BY FALSE PRETENSE. |
609.64 | RECORDING, FILING OF FORGED INSTRUMENT. |
609.645 | FRAUDULENT STATEMENTS. |
609.65 | FALSE CERTIFICATION BY NOTARY PUBLIC. |
609.651 | STATE LOTTERY FRAUD. |
609.652 | FRAUDULENT DRIVERS' LICENSES AND IDENTIFICATION CARDS; PENALTY. |
609.655 | [Repealed, 1976 c 112 s 2] |
CRIMES AGAINST PUBLIC SAFETY AND HEALTH | |
609.66 | DANGEROUS WEAPONS. |
609.661 | PENALTY FOR SET GUNS; SWIVEL GUNS. |
609.662 | SHOOTING VICTIM; DUTY TO RENDER AID. |
609.663 | DISPLAY OF HANDGUN AMMUNITION. |
609.665 | SPRING GUNS. |
609.666 | NEGLIGENT STORAGE OF FIREARMS. |
609.667 | FIREARMS; REMOVAL OR ALTERATION OF SERIAL NUMBER. |
609.668 | EXPLOSIVE AND INCENDIARY DEVICES. |
609.669 | CIVIL DISORDER. |
609.67 | MACHINE GUNS AND SHORT-BARRELED SHOTGUNS. |
609.671 | ENVIRONMENT; CRIMINAL PENALTIES. |
609.672 | PERMISSIVE INFERENCE; FIREARMS IN AUTOMOBILES. |
609.675 | EXPOSURE OF UNUSED REFRIGERATOR OR CONTAINER TO CHILDREN. |
609.68 | UNLAWFUL DEPOSIT OF GARBAGE, LITTER, OR LIKE. |
609.681 | UNLAWFUL SMOKING. |
609.684 | ABUSE OF TOXIC SUBSTANCES. |
609.685 | SALE OF TOBACCO TO CHILDREN. |
609.6855 | SALE OF NICOTINE DELIVERY PRODUCTS TO CHILDREN. |
609.686 | FALSE FIRE ALARMS; TAMPERING WITH OR INJURING FIRE ALARM SYSTEM. |
PUBLIC MISCONDUCT OR NUISANCE | |
609.687 | ADULTERATION. |
609.688 | ADULTERATION BY BODILY FLUID. |
609.705 | UNLAWFUL ASSEMBLY. |
609.71 | RIOT. |
609.712 | REAL AND SIMULATED WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION. |
609.713 | THREATS OF VIOLENCE. |
609.714 | CRIMES COMMITTED IN FURTHERANCE OF TERRORISM. |
609.715 | PRESENCE AT UNLAWFUL ASSEMBLY. |
609.72 | DISORDERLY CONDUCT. |
609.725 | [Repealed, 2005 c 136 art 17 s 53] |
609.735 | CONCEALING IDENTITY. |
609.74 | PUBLIC NUISANCE. |
609.745 | PERMITTING PUBLIC NUISANCE. |
609.746 | INTERFERENCE WITH PRIVACY. |
609.747 | [Repealed, 1993 c 326 art 2 s 34] |
609.7475 | FRAUDULENT OR OTHERWISE IMPROPER FINANCING STATEMENTS. |
609.748 | HARASSMENT; RESTRAINING ORDER. |
609.749 | STALKING; PENALTIES. |
609.7495 | PHYSICAL INTERFERENCE WITH SAFE ACCESS TO HEALTH CARE. |
GAMBLING | |
609.75 | GAMBLING; DEFINITIONS. |
609.755 | GAMBLING; MISDEMEANOR. |
609.76 | GAMBLING; GROSS MISDEMEANOR; FELONY. |
609.761 | OPERATIONS PERMITTED. |
609.762 | FORFEITURE OF GAMBLING DEVICES, PRIZES AND PROCEEDS. |
609.763 | LAWFUL GAMBLING FRAUD. |
CRIMES AGAINST REPUTATION | |
609.765 | CRIMINAL DEFAMATION. |
609.77 | FALSE INFORMATION TO NEWS MEDIA. |
CRIMES RELATING TO COMMUNICATIONS | |
609.774 | EMERGENCY COMMUNICATIONS; KIDNAPPINGS. |
609.775 | DIVULGING TELEPHONE OR TELEGRAPH MESSAGE; NONDELIVERY. |
609.776 | INTERFERENCE WITH EMERGENCY COMMUNICATIONS. |
609.78 | EMERGENCY TELEPHONE CALLS AND COMMUNICATIONS. |
609.785 | [Repealed, 1990 c 494 s 7] |
609.79 | OBSCENE OR HARASSING TELEPHONE CALLS. |
609.795 | LETTER, TELEGRAM, OR PACKAGE; OPENING; HARASSMENT. |
609.80 | INTERFERING WITH CABLE COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS. |
609.805 | [Repealed, 2007 c 47 s 1; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 19] |
CRIMES RELATING TO BUSINESS | |
609.806 | INTERFERING WITH INTERNET TICKET SALES. |
609.807 | EVENT TICKETS; PROHIBITED ACTS. |
609.81 | [Repealed, 1996 c 404 s 18] |
609.815 | MISCONDUCT OF JUNK OR SECONDHAND DEALER. |
609.816 | WRONGFUL EMPLOYMENT AT A CHILD CARE CENTER. |
609.82 | FRAUD IN OBTAINING CREDIT. |
609.821 | FINANCIAL TRANSACTION CARD FRAUD. |
RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE FRAUD | |
609.822 | RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE FRAUD. |
MISCELLANEOUS CRIMES | |
609.825 | BRIBERY OF PARTICIPANT OR OFFICIAL IN CONTEST. |
609.83 | FALSELY IMPERSONATING ANOTHER. |
609.849 | RAILROAD THAT OBSTRUCTS TREATMENT OF INJURED WORKER. |
609.85 | CRIMES AGAINST RAILROAD EMPLOYEES AND PROPERTY; PENALTY. |
609.851 | FALSE TRAFFIC SIGNAL. |
609.855 | CRIMES INVOLVING TRANSIT; SHOOTING AT TRANSIT VEHICLE. |
609.856 | USE OF POLICE RADIOS DURING COMMISSION OF CRIME; PENALTIES. |
609.857 | DISCHARGING A LASER AT AN AIRCRAFT. |
CRIMES AGAINST COMMERCE | |
609.86 | COMMERCIAL BRIBERY. |
609.87 | COMPUTER CRIME; DEFINITIONS. |
609.88 | COMPUTER DAMAGE. |
609.89 | COMPUTER THEFT. |
609.891 | UNAUTHORIZED COMPUTER ACCESS. |
609.8911 | REPORTING VIOLATIONS. |
609.8912 | CRIMINAL USE OF ENCRYPTION. |
609.8913 | FACILITATING ACCESS TO COMPUTER SECURITY SYSTEM. |
609.892 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.893 | TELECOMMUNICATIONS AND INFORMATION SERVICES FRAUD; CRIME DEFINED. |
609.894 | CELLULAR TELEPHONE COUNTERFEITING; CRIMES DEFINED. |
609.895 | COUNTERFEITED INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY; PENALTIES. |
609.896 | CRIMINAL USE OF REAL PROPERTY. |
RACKETEER INFLUENCED AND CORRUPT ORGANIZATIONS (RICO) | |
609.901 | CONSTRUCTION OF RACKETEERING PROVISIONS. |
609.902 | DEFINITIONS. |
609.903 | RACKETEERING. |
609.904 | CRIMINAL PENALTIES. |
609.905 | CRIMINAL FORFEITURE. |
609.907 | PRESERVATION OF PROPERTY SUBJECT TO FORFEITURE. |
609.908 | DISPOSITION OF FORFEITURE PROCEEDS. |
609.909 | ADDITIONAL RELIEF AVAILABLE. |
609.910 | RELATION TO OTHER SANCTIONS. |
609.911 | CIVIL REMEDIES. |
609.912 | NOTICE TO OTHER PROSECUTING AUTHORITIES. |
This chapter may be cited as the Criminal Code of 1963. Its provisions shall be construed according to the fair import of its terms, to promote justice, and to effect its purposes which are declared to be:
(1) to protect the public safety and welfare by preventing the commission of crime through the deterring effect of the sentences authorized, the rehabilitation of those convicted, and their confinement when the public safety and interest requires; and
(2) to protect the individual against the misuse of the criminal law by fairly defining the acts and omissions prohibited, authorizing sentences reasonably related to the conduct and character of the convicted person, and prescribing fair and reasonable postconviction procedures.
Common law crimes are abolished and no act or omission is a crime unless made so by this chapter or by other applicable statute, but this does not prevent the use of common law rules in the construction or interpretation of the provisions of this chapter or other statute. Crimes committed prior to September 1, 1963, are not affected thereby.
Unless expressly stated otherwise, or the context otherwise requires, the provisions of this chapter also apply to crimes created by statute other than in this chapter.
"Crime" means conduct which is prohibited by statute and for which the actor may be sentenced to imprisonment, with or without a fine.
"Felony" means a crime for which a sentence of imprisonment for more than one year may be imposed.
"Misdemeanor" means a crime for which a sentence of not more than 90 days or a fine of not more than $1,000, or both, may be imposed.
"Gross misdemeanor" means any crime which is not a felony or misdemeanor. The maximum fine which may be imposed for a gross misdemeanor is $3,000.
"Petty misdemeanor" means a petty offense which is prohibited by statute, which does not constitute a crime and for which a sentence of a fine of not more than $300 may be imposed.
"Conviction" means any of the following accepted and recorded by the court:
(1) a plea of guilty; or
(2) a verdict of guilty by a jury or a finding of guilty by the court.
"Dangerous weapon" means any firearm, whether loaded or unloaded, or any device designed as a weapon and capable of producing death or great bodily harm, any combustible or flammable liquid or other device or instrumentality that, in the manner it is used or intended to be used, is calculated or likely to produce death or great bodily harm, or any fire that is used to produce death or great bodily harm.
As used in this subdivision, "flammable liquid" means any liquid having a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 pounds per square inch (absolute) at 100 degrees Fahrenheit but does not include intoxicating liquor as defined in section 340A.101. As used in this subdivision, "combustible liquid" is a liquid having a flash point at or above 100 degrees Fahrenheit.
"Bodily harm" means physical pain or injury, illness, or any impairment of physical condition.
"Substantial bodily harm" means bodily injury which involves a temporary but substantial disfigurement, or which causes a temporary but substantial loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or which causes a fracture of any bodily member.
"Great bodily harm" means bodily injury which creates a high probability of death, or which causes serious permanent disfigurement, or which causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ or other serious bodily harm.
(1) When criminal intent is an element of a crime in this chapter, such intent is indicated by the term "intentionally," the phrase "with intent to," the phrase "with intent that," or some form of the verbs "know" or "believe."
(2) "Know" requires only that the actor believes that the specified fact exists.
(3) "Intentionally" means that the actor either has a purpose to do the thing or cause the result specified or believes that the act performed by the actor, if successful, will cause that result. In addition, except as provided in clause (6), the actor must have knowledge of those facts which are necessary to make the actor's conduct criminal and which are set forth after the word "intentionally."
(4) "With intent to" or "with intent that" means that the actor either has a purpose to do the thing or cause the result specified or believes that the act, if successful, will cause that result.
(5) Criminal intent does not require proof of knowledge of the existence or constitutionality of the statute under which the actor is prosecuted or the scope or meaning of the terms used in that statute.
(6) Criminal intent does not require proof of knowledge of the age of a minor even though age is a material element in the crime in question.
"Assault" is:
(1) an act done with intent to cause fear in another of immediate bodily harm or death; or
(2) the intentional infliction of or attempt to inflict bodily harm upon another.
"Second or subsequent violation" or "second or subsequent offense" means that prior to the commission of the violation or offense, the actor has been adjudicated guilty of a specified similar violation or offense.
"Probation" means a court-ordered sanction imposed upon an offender for a period of supervision no greater than that set by statute. It is imposed as an alternative to confinement or in conjunction with confinement or intermediate sanctions. The purpose of probation is to deter further criminal behavior, punish the offender, help provide reparation to crime victims and their communities, and provide offenders with opportunities for rehabilitation.
"Qualified domestic violence-related offense" includes a violation of or an attempt to violate sections 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of domestic abuse order for protection); 609.185 (first-degree murder); 609.19 (second-degree murder); 609.221 (first-degree assault); 609.222 (second-degree assault); 609.223 (third-degree assault); 609.2231 (fourth-degree assault); 609.224 (fifth-degree assault); 609.2242 (domestic assault); 609.2245 (female genital mutilation); 609.2247 (domestic assault by strangulation); 609.342 (first-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.343 (second-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.344 (third-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.345 (fourth-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.748, subdivision 6 (violation of harassment restraining order); 609.749 (stalking); 609.78, subdivision 2 (interference with an emergency call); 617.261 (nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images); and 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order); and similar laws of other states, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, and United States territories.
"Ammunition" means ammunition or cartridge cases, primers, bullets, or propellent powder designed for use in any firearm. Ammunition does not include ornaments, curiosities, or souvenirs constructed from or resembling ammunition or ammunition components that are not operable as ammunition.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.02; 1969 c 735 s 3; Ex1971 c 27 s 42,43; 1977 c 355 s 2; 1979 c 258 s 2,3; 1983 c 274 s 14; 1983 c 331 s 4,5; 1985 c 167 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 307 s 1,2; 1987 c 329 s 3; 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1; 1989 c 5 s 1,2; 1992 c 571 art 6 s 10; 1993 c 326 art 5 s 6; 1997 c 239 art 9 s 34; 1Sp1997 c 2 s 59,60; 1999 c 194 s 5; 2000 c 488 art 5 s 2,3; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 10 s 7; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 8; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 12; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 2; 2010 c 299 s 14; 2012 c 227 s 1; 2015 c 65 art 3 s 16; 2016 c 126 s 3
A person may be convicted and sentenced under the law of this state if the person:
(1) commits an offense in whole or in part within this state; or
(2) being without the state, causes, aids or abets another to commit a crime within the state; or
(3) being without the state, intentionally causes a result within the state prohibited by the criminal laws of this state.
It is not a defense that the defendant's conduct is also a criminal offense under the laws of another state or of the United States or of another country.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.025; Ex1971 c 27 s 44; 1986 c 444
If a person is convicted of a crime for which no punishment is otherwise provided the person may be sentenced as follows:
(1) If the crime is a felony, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both; or
(2) If the crime is a gross misdemeanor, to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both; or
(3) If the crime is a misdemeanor, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both; or
(4) If the crime is other than a misdemeanor and a fine is imposed but the amount is not specified, to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or to imprisonment for a specified term of not more than six months if the fine is not paid.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.03; 1969 c 735 s 4; 1977 c 355 s 3; 1983 c 331 s 6; 1986 c 444; 2000 c 488 art 5 s 4
Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $700 as a penalty for a misdemeanor shall, on or after August 1, 2000, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $1,000.
A law of this state that provides, on or after August 1, 2000, for a maximum penalty of $200 for a petty misdemeanor is considered to provide for a maximum fine of $300.
From August 1, 2000, if a state law or municipal charter sets a limit of $200 or less on the fines that a statutory or home rule charter city, town, county, or other political subdivision may prescribe for an ordinance violation that is defined as a petty misdemeanor, that law or charter is considered to provide that the political subdivision has the power to prescribe a maximum fine of $300 for the petty misdemeanor violation.
Any law of this state or municipal charter which limits the power of any statutory or home rule charter city, town, county, or other political subdivision to prescribe a maximum fine of $700 or less for an ordinance shall on or after August 1, 2000, be deemed to provide that the statutory or home rule charter city, town, county, or other political subdivision has the power to prescribe a maximum fine of $1,000.
Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $1,000 or for a maximum sentence of imprisonment of one year or which is defined as a gross misdemeanor shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $3,000 and for a maximum sentence of imprisonment of one year.
(a) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $2,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $4,000.
(b) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $3,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $5,000.
(c) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $5,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $10,000.
(d) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $7,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $14,000.
(e) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $10,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $20,000.
(f) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $15,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $30,000.
(g) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $20,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $35,000.
(h) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $25,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $40,000.
(i) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $30,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $45,000.
(j) Any law of this state which provides for a maximum fine of $40,000 shall, on or after August 1, 1983, be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $50,000.
Except as provided in subdivisions 2, 3, 4, and 5, and in sections 609.2114, subdivision 3, 609.251, 609.2691, 609.486, 609.494, 609.585, and 609.856, and Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, subdivision 1b, if a person's conduct constitutes more than one offense under the laws of this state, the person may be punished for only one of the offenses and a conviction or acquittal of any one of them is a bar to prosecution for any other of them. All the offenses, if prosecuted, shall be included in one prosecution which shall be stated in separate counts.
(a) When a person is being sentenced for a violation of a provision listed in paragraph (e), the court may sentence the person to a consecutive term of imprisonment for a violation of any other provision listed in paragraph (e), notwithstanding the fact that the offenses arose out of the same course of conduct, subject to the limitation on consecutive sentences contained in section 609.15, subdivision 2, and except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (f).
(b) When a person is being sentenced for a violation of section 171.09, 171.20, 171.24, or 171.30, the court may not impose a consecutive sentence for another violation of a provision in chapter 171.
(c) When a person is being sentenced for a violation of section 169.791 or 169.797, the court may not impose a consecutive sentence for another violation of a provision of sections 169.79 to 169.7995.
(d) This subdivision does not limit the authority of the court to impose consecutive sentences for crimes arising on different dates or to impose a consecutive sentence when a person is being sentenced for a crime and is also in violation of the conditions of a stayed or otherwise deferred sentence under section 609.135.
(e) This subdivision applies to misdemeanor and gross misdemeanor violations of the following if the offender has two or more prior impaired driving convictions as defined in section 169A.03 within the past ten years:
(1) section 169A.20, subdivision 1, 1a, 1b, or 1c, driving while impaired;
(2) section 169A.20, subdivision 2, test refusal;
(3) section 169.791, failure to provide proof of insurance;
(4) section 169.797, failure to provide vehicle insurance;
(5) section 171.09, violation of condition of restricted license;
(6) section 171.20, subdivision 2, operation after revocation, suspension, cancellation, or disqualification;
(7) section 171.24, driving without valid license; and
(8) section 171.30, violation of condition of limited license.
(f) When a court is sentencing an offender for a violation of section 169A.20 and a violation of an offense listed in paragraph (e), and the offender has five or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents, as defined in section 169A.03, within the past ten years, the court shall sentence the offender to serve consecutive sentences for the offenses, notwithstanding the fact that the offenses arose out of the same course of conduct.
[See Note.]
Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction of a violation of section 609.165 or 624.713, subdivision 1, clause (2), is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct.
Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction of a violation of sections 609.561 to 609.563 or 609.5641 is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct when the defendant is shown to have violated sections 609.561 to 609.563 or 609.5641 for the purpose of concealing any other crime.
For purposes of the Sentencing Guidelines, a violation of sections 609.561 to 609.563 or 609.5641 is a crime against the person.
Notwithstanding subdivision 1, a prosecution or conviction for violating section 609.487 is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct. If an offender is punished for more than one crime as authorized by this subdivision and the court imposes consecutive sentences for the crimes, the consecutive sentences are not a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
Notwithstanding subdivision 1, a prosecution or conviction for committing a violation of sections 609.342 to 609.345 with force or violence is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct. If an offender is punished for more than one crime as authorized by this subdivision and the court imposes consecutive sentences for the crimes, the consecutive sentences are not a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.035; 1983 c 139 s 1; 1986 c 388 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 111 s 1; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 13; 1994 c 615 s 23; 1996 c 408 art 4 s 2,3; 1997 c 239 art 8 s 28,29; 1999 c 194 s 6; 1999 c 216 art 3 s 4-6; 2000 c 311 art 4 s 1; 2000 c 478 art 2 s 4; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 12 s 16; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 14; 2009 c 83 art 2 s 37; 2014 c 180 s 9
NOTE: Subdivision 2, paragraph (f), was found unconstitutional in State v. Blooflat, 671 N.W.2d 591 (Minn. Ct. App. 2003).
Upon prosecution for a crime, the actor may be convicted of either the crime charged or an included offense, but not both. An included offense may be any of the following:
(1) A lesser degree of the same crime; or
(2) An attempt to commit the crime charged; or
(3) An attempt to commit a lesser degree of the same crime; or
(4) A crime necessarily proved if the crime charged were proved; or
(5) A petty misdemeanor necessarily proved if the misdemeanor charge were proved.
A conviction or acquittal of a crime is a bar to further prosecution of any included offense, or other degree of the same crime.
In a criminal prosecution in which the degree of the crime or the penalty for the crime depends, in whole or in part, on proof of the existence of a prior conviction, if the defendant contests the existence of or factual basis for a prior conviction, proof of it is established by competent and reliable evidence, including a certified court record of the conviction.
If an act or omission in this state constitutes a crime under both the laws of this state and the laws of another jurisdiction, a conviction or acquittal of the crime in the other jurisdiction shall not bar prosecution for the crime in this state unless the elements of both law and fact are identical.
A person is criminally liable for a crime committed by another if the person intentionally aids, advises, hires, counsels, or conspires with or otherwise procures the other to commit the crime.
A person liable under subdivision 1 is also liable for any other crime committed in pursuance of the intended crime if reasonably foreseeable by the person as a probable consequence of committing or attempting to commit the crime intended.
A person who intentionally aids, advises, hires, counsels, or conspires with or otherwise procures another to commit a crime and thereafter abandons that purpose and makes a reasonable effort to prevent the commission of the crime prior to its commission is not liable if the crime is thereafter committed.
A person liable under this section may be charged with and convicted of the crime although the person who directly committed it has not been convicted, or has been convicted of some other degree of the crime or of some other crime based on the same act, or if the person is a juvenile who has not been found delinquent for the act.
For purposes of this section, a crime also includes an act committed by a juvenile that would be a crime if committed by an adult.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), children of the age of 14 years or over but under 18 years may be prosecuted for a felony offense if the alleged violation is duly certified for prosecution under the laws and court procedures controlling adult criminal violations or may be designated an extended jurisdiction juvenile in accordance with the provisions of chapter 260B. A child who is 16 years of age or older but under 18 years of age is capable of committing a crime and may be prosecuted for a felony if:
(1) the child has been previously certified on a felony charge pursuant to a hearing under section 260B.125, subdivision 2, or pursuant to the waiver of the right to such a hearing, or prosecuted pursuant to this subdivision; and
(2) the child was convicted of the felony offense or offenses for which the child was prosecuted or of a lesser included felony offense.
(b) A child who is alleged to have committed murder in the first degree after becoming 16 years of age is capable of committing a crime and may be prosecuted for the felony. This paragraph does not apply to a child alleged to have committed attempted murder in the first degree after becoming 16 years of age.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.055; 1992 c 571 art 7 s 12; 1994 c 576 s 45; 1995 c 226 art 3 s 47; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2
Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, reasonable force may be used upon or toward the person of another without the other's consent when the following circumstances exist or the actor reasonably believes them to exist:
(1) when used by a public officer or one assisting a public officer under the public officer's direction:
(a) in effecting a lawful arrest; or
(b) in the execution of legal process; or
(c) in enforcing an order of the court; or
(d) in executing any other duty imposed upon the public officer by law; or
(2) when used by a person not a public officer in arresting another in the cases and in the manner provided by law and delivering the other to an officer competent to receive the other into custody; or
(3) when used by any person in resisting or aiding another to resist an offense against the person; or
(4) when used by any person in lawful possession of real or personal property, or by another assisting the person in lawful possession, in resisting a trespass upon or other unlawful interference with such property; or
(5) when used by any person to prevent the escape, or to retake following the escape, of a person lawfully held on a charge or conviction of a crime; or
(6) when used by a parent, guardian, teacher, or other lawful custodian of a child or pupil, in the exercise of lawful authority, to restrain or correct such child or pupil; or
(7) when used by a school employee or school bus driver, in the exercise of lawful authority, to restrain a child or pupil, or to prevent bodily harm or death to another; or
(8) when used by a common carrier in expelling a passenger who refuses to obey a lawful requirement for the conduct of passengers and reasonable care is exercised with regard to the passenger's personal safety; or
(9) when used to restrain a person with a mental illness or a person with a developmental disability from self-injury or injury to another or when used by one with authority to do so to compel compliance with reasonable requirements for the person's control, conduct, or treatment; or
(10) when used by a public or private institution providing custody or treatment against one lawfully committed to it to compel compliance with reasonable requirements for the control, conduct, or treatment of the committed person.
Deadly force may not be used against peace officers who have announced their presence and are performing official duties at a location where a person is committing a crime or an act that would be a crime if committed by an adult.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.06; 1986 c 444; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 4; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 12; 2002 c 221 s 46; 2013 c 59 art 3 s 16; 2013 c 62 s 28
The intentional taking of the life of another is not authorized by section 609.06, except when necessary in resisting or preventing an offense which the actor reasonably believes exposes the actor or another to great bodily harm or death, or preventing the commission of a felony in the actor's place of abode.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.065; 1978 c 736 s 1; 1986 c 444
For the purposes of this section, "deadly force" means force which the actor uses with the purpose of causing, or which the actor should reasonably know creates a substantial risk of causing, death or great bodily harm. The intentional discharge of a firearm, other than a firearm loaded with less lethal munitions and used by a peace officer within the scope of official duties, in the direction of another person, or at a vehicle in which another person is believed to be, constitutes deadly force. "Less lethal munitions" means projectiles which are designed to stun, temporarily incapacitate, or cause temporary discomfort to a person. "Peace officer" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1.
Notwithstanding the provisions of section 609.06 or 609.065, the use of deadly force by a peace officer in the line of duty is justified only when necessary:
(1) to protect the peace officer or another from apparent death or great bodily harm;
(2) to effect the arrest or capture, or prevent the escape, of a person whom the peace officer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe has committed or attempted to commit a felony involving the use or threatened use of deadly force; or
(3) to effect the arrest or capture, or prevent the escape, of a person whom the officer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe has committed or attempted to commit a felony if the officer reasonably believes that the person will cause death or great bodily harm if the person's apprehension is delayed.
An act committed while in a state of voluntary intoxication is not less criminal by reason thereof, but when a particular intent or other state of mind is a necessary element to constitute a particular crime, the fact of intoxication may be taken into consideration in determining such intent or state of mind.
Except as provided in section 609.20, clause (3), when any crime is committed or participated in by two or more persons, any one of whom participates only under compulsion by another engaged therein, who by threats creates a reasonable apprehension in the mind of such participator that in case of refusal that participator is liable to instant death, such threats and apprehension constitute duress which will excuse such participator from criminal liability.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.08; 1986 c 444
When the sending of a letter or other written communication is made an offense, the offense is complete upon deposit of the letter or communication in any official depository of mail or given to another for the purpose of delivery to the receiver.
The offense is committed in both the county in which the letter is so deposited or given and the county in which it is received by the person for whom it is intended.
In any criminal proceeding, including a grand jury proceeding, paternity proceeding, or proceeding in juvenile court, if it appears a person may be entitled to refuse to answer a question or produce evidence of any other kind on the ground that the person may be incriminated thereby, and if the prosecuting attorney, in writing, requests the chief judge of the district or a judge of the court in which the proceeding is pending to order that person to answer the question or produce the evidence, the judge, after notice to the witness and hearing, shall so order if the judge finds that to do so would not be contrary to the public interest and would not be likely to expose the witness to prosecution in another state or in the federal courts.
After complying, and if, but for this section, the witness would have been privileged to withhold the answer given or the evidence produced by the witness, no testimony or other information compelled under the order, or any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information may be used against the witness in any criminal case, but the witness may be prosecuted or subjected to penalty or forfeiture for any perjury, false swearing or contempt committed in answering, or in failing to answer, or in producing, or failing to produce, evidence in accordance with the order.
In every case not provided for in subdivision 1 and in which it is provided by law that a witness shall not be excused from giving testimony tending to be self-incriminating, no person shall be excused from testifying or producing any papers or documents on the ground that doing so may tend to criminate the person or subject the person to a penalty or forfeiture; but no testimony or other information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information may be used against the witness in any criminal case, except for perjury committed in such testimony.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.09; 1969 c 661 s 1; 1981 c 293 s 1; 1986 c 444
(a) This subdivision applies to a child alleged to be a juvenile petty offender who:
(1) has not been previously adjudicated delinquent or as a petty offender;
(2) has not previously participated in or completed a diversion program for an offense;
(3) has not previously been placed on probation without an adjudication for an offense or received a continuance under section 260B.198, subdivision 7; and
(4) agrees to successfully complete a restorative justice program under this section.
(b) Subject to subdivision 6, the prosecutor shall refer a child described in paragraph (a) to a restorative justice program or provider that has been included on the approved provider list described in subdivision 4. The program or provider shall arrange an appropriate outcome for the matter using restorative justice concepts. The program or provider shall involve the victim of the offense in the proceedings. If the victim is unwilling or unable to proceed, or if there is no identifiable victim, the program or provider shall ensure that someone serves as a proxy for the victim. The program or provider and child, along with other participants, shall agree in writing to an appropriate sanction for the child. The sanction may include any of the dispositions authorized in section 260B.235, if appropriate, along with any other sanctions agreed to.
If a person fails to comply with the settlement agreement, the person shall be referred back to the court for further proceedings.
Upon the successful completion by a person of the sanctions agreed to in the settlement agreement, the program or provider shall notify the court and the court shall dismiss the charge against the person.
The prosecutor shall maintain a list of approved restorative justice programs and providers to which persons may be referred under this section.
If a restorative justice program or provider that is tailored in a more culturally specific manner to the person is on the list of approved providers under subdivision 4, and the prosecutor is referring the person to a restorative justice program or provider under this section, the prosecutor shall refer the person to the more appropriate program or provider.
This section applies only in jurisdictions where suitable restorative justice programs and providers are available and are able to accept the referral. This section does not apply if a prosecutor has determined that a nonrestorative justice diversion program is more appropriate for the person. In addition, this section does not apply to cases involving domestic violence or domestic assault.
(a) The legislature has the exclusive authority to define crimes and offenses and the range of the sentences or punishments for their violation. No other or different sentence or punishment shall be imposed for the commission of a crime than is authorized by this chapter or other applicable law.
(b) Except as provided in section 152.18 or 609.375, or upon agreement of the parties, a court may not refuse to adjudicate the guilt of a defendant who tenders a guilty plea in accordance with Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 15, or who has been found guilty by a court or jury following a trial.
(c) Paragraph (b) does not supersede Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 26.04.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.095; 1998 c 367 art 6 s 1; 2001 c 158 s 6
(a) Upon conviction of a felony and compliance with the other provisions of this chapter the court, if it imposes sentence, may sentence the defendant to the extent authorized by law as follows:
(1) to life imprisonment; or
(2) to imprisonment for a fixed term of years set by the court; or
(3) to both imprisonment for a fixed term of years and payment of a fine; or
(4) to payment of a fine without imprisonment or as an intermediate sanction on a stayed sentence; or
(5) to payment of court-ordered restitution in addition to either imprisonment or payment of a fine, or both; or
(6) to payment of a local correctional fee as authorized under section 609.102 in addition to any other sentence imposed by the court.
(b) If the court imposes a fine or orders restitution under paragraph (a), payment is due on the date imposed unless the court otherwise establishes a due date or a payment plan.
(a) As used in this section, "restitution" includes:
(1) payment of compensation to the victim or the victim's family; and
(2) if the victim is deceased or already has been fully compensated, payment of money to a victim assistance program or other program directed by the court.
"Restitution" includes payment of compensation to a government entity that incurs loss as a direct result of a crime.
(b) When the defendant does not pay the entire amount of court-ordered restitution and the fine at the same time, the court may order that all restitution shall be paid before the fine is paid.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.10; 1978 c 723 art 1 s 13; 1984 c 610 s 1; 1992 c 571 art 11 s 12; 1995 c 244 s 10; 1996 c 408 art 7 s 2; 1997 c 239 art 7 s 16; 2009 c 83 art 2 s 39
Notwithstanding any other law, when a court sentences a person convicted of violating section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.2231, 609.224, 609.2242, 609.267, 609.2671, 609.2672, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, or 609.345, it must impose a fine of not less than 30 percent of the maximum fine authorized by law nor more than the maximum fine authorized by law.
The court shall collect the portion of the fine mandated by this subdivision and forward 70 percent of it to a local victim assistance program that provides services locally in the county in which the crime was committed. The court shall forward the remaining 30 percent to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund. If more than one victim assistance program serves the county in which the crime was committed, the court may designate on a case-by-case basis which program will receive the fine proceeds, giving consideration to the nature of the crime committed, the types of victims served by the program, and the funding needs of the program. If no victim assistance program serves that county, the court shall forward 100 percent of the fine proceeds to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund. Fine proceeds received by a local victim assistance program must be used to provide direct services to crime victims.
The minimum fine required by this subdivision is in addition to the surcharge or assessment required by section 357.021, subdivision 6, and is in addition to any sentence of imprisonment or restitution imposed or ordered by the court.
As used in this subdivision, "victim assistance program" means victim witness programs within county attorney offices or any of the following programs: crime victim crisis centers, victim-witness programs, battered women shelters and nonshelter programs, and sexual assault programs.
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, when a court sentences a person convicted of a controlled substance crime under sections 152.021 to 152.025 and 152.0262, it must impose a fine of not less than 30 percent of the maximum fine authorized by law nor more than the maximum fine authorized by law.
(b) The minimum fine required by this subdivision is in addition to the surcharge or assessment required by section 357.021, subdivision 6, and is in addition to any sentence of imprisonment or restitution imposed or ordered by the court.
(c) The court shall collect the fine mandated by this subdivision and forward 70 percent of it to a local drug abuse prevention or intervention program existing or being implemented in the county in which the crime was committed. The court shall forward the remaining 30 percent to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund. If more than one drug abuse prevention or intervention program serves the county in which the crime was committed, the court may designate on a case-by-case basis which program will receive the fine proceeds, giving consideration to the community in which the crime was committed, the funding needs of the program, the number of peace officers in each community certified to teach the program, and the number of children served by the program in each community. If no drug abuse prevention or intervention program serves communities in that county, the court shall forward 100 percent of the fine proceeds to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund.
(d) The minimum fines required by this subdivision shall be collected as are other fines. Fine proceeds received by a local drug abuse prevention or intervention program must be used to support that program, and may be used for salaries of program staff or peace officers certified to teach the program. The program must report receipt and use of money generated under this subdivision to the state court administrator by January 15 of each year. The state court administrator must make this information available upon request.
(e) As used in this subdivision, "drug abuse prevention or intervention program" and "program" include:
(1) the drug abuse resistance education program described in section 299A.33;
(2) a drug abuse education and prevention program that includes the following components:
(i) instruction for students enrolled in kindergarten through grade six that is designed to teach students to recognize and resist pressures to experiment with controlled substances and alcohol;
(ii) provisions for parental involvement;
(iii) classroom instruction by uniformed law enforcement personnel;
(iv) the use of positive student leaders to influence younger students not to use drugs; and
(v) an emphasis on activity-oriented techniques designed to encourage student-generated responses to problem-solving situations; and
(3) a juvenile court program that:
(i) provides intervention strategies to reduce drug abuse and criminal behavior in juvenile offenders; and
(ii) promotes local drug abuse prevention efforts within the community.
Notwithstanding any other law:
(1) when a court sentences a person convicted of a felony that is not listed in subdivision 2 or 3, it must impose a fine of not less than 30 percent of the maximum fine authorized by law nor more than the maximum fine authorized by law; and
(2) when a court sentences a person convicted of a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor that is not listed in subdivision 2, it must impose a fine of not less than 30 percent of the maximum fine authorized by law nor more than the maximum fine authorized by law, unless the fine is set at a lower amount on a uniform fine schedule established by the Judicial Council in consultation with affected state and local agencies. This schedule shall be promulgated not later than September 1 of each year and shall become effective on January 1 of the next year unless the legislature, by law, provides otherwise.
The minimum fine required by this subdivision is in addition to the surcharge or assessment required by section 357.021, subdivision 6, and is in addition to any sentence of imprisonment or restitution imposed or ordered by the court.
(a) The court may not waive payment of the minimum fine required by this section.
(b) If the defendant qualifies for the services of a public defender or the court finds on the record that the convicted person is indigent or that immediate payment of the fine would create undue hardship for the convicted person or that person's immediate family, the court may reduce the amount of the minimum fine to not less than $50. Additionally, the court may permit the defendant to perform community work service in lieu of a fine.
(c) The court also may authorize payment of the fine in installments.
1981 c 360 art 2 s 50; 1983 c 262 art 1 s 6; 1Sp1985 c 13 s 366; 1986 c 442 s 15; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 463 s 2; 1Sp1986 c 1 art 8 s 15; 1987 c 244 s 1; 1987 c 404 s 189; 1989 c 264 s 2; 1989 c 335 art 4 s 99; 1991 c 279 s 24,41; 1991 c 345 art 1 s 106; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 2,3; 1993 c 192 s 105; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 14; art 12 s 8-12,18; art 13 s 20-22; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 8-10; 1996 c 305 art 1 s 119; 1997 c 7 art 2 s 61; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 4; 1998 c 367 art 8 s 10; 2001 c 71 s 1-4; 2003 c 112 art 2 s 50; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 2 s 6; 2005 c 136 art 7 s 21; 2006 c 260 art 5 s 50; 2008 c 277 art 1 s 93; 2009 c 83 art 2 s 40,41; 2009 c 101 art 2 s 109
As used in this section, "local correctional fee" means a fee for local correctional services established by a local correctional agency under section 244.18.
When a court places a person convicted of a crime under the supervision and control of a local correctional agency, that agency may collect a local correctional fee based on the local correctional agency's fee schedule adopted under section 244.18.
(a) Any portion of a fine, surcharge, court cost, restitution, or fee that the defendant fails to pay by the due date may be referred for collection under section 480.15, subdivision 10c. If the defendant has agreed to a payment plan but fails to pay an installment when due, the entire amount remaining becomes due and payable and may be referred for collection under section 480.15, subdivision 10c.
(b) The defendant may contest the referral for collection based on inability to pay by requesting a hearing no later than the due date. The defendant shall be notified in writing at sentencing that under section 480.15, subdivision 10c, the court may refer the case for collection for nonpayment, and collection costs may be added to the amount due. The defendant shall also be notified in writing of the right to contest a referral for collection. The state court administrator shall develop the notice language.
(a) A defendant's obligation to pay court-ordered fines, surcharges, court costs, restitution, and fees shall survive after the due date for a period set by the Judicial Council.
(b) Any change in the collection period established by the Judicial Council shall be effective on court-ordered fines, surcharges, court costs, restitution, and fees imposed on or after July 1, 2009.
(c) The period relating to a defendant's obligation to pay restitution under paragraph (a) does not limit the victim's right to collect restitution through other means such as a civil judgment.
(d) Nothing in this subdivision extends the period of a defendant's stay of sentence imposition or execution.
A felony sentence to imprisonment for more than one year shall commit the defendant to the custody of the commissioner of corrections.
The commissioner of corrections shall determine the place of confinement in a prison, reformatory, or other facility of the Department of Corrections established by law for the confinement of convicted persons and prescribe reasonable conditions and rules for their employment, conduct, instruction, and discipline within or without the facility.
A sentence to imprisonment for a period of one year or any lesser period shall be to a workhouse, work farm, county jail, or other place authorized by law.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.105; 1985 c 248 s 70; 1Sp1997 c 2 s 61; 1999 c 126 s 10; 1999 c 194 s 7,8; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 5 s 7-9; 2009 c 83 art 3 s 19
When a court intends to commit an offender with a serious and persistent mental illness, as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 20, paragraph (c), to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for imprisonment at a state correctional facility, either when initially pronouncing a sentence or when revoking an offender's probation, the court, when consistent with public safety, may instead place the offender on probation or continue the offender's probation and require as a condition of the probation that the offender successfully complete an appropriate supervised alternative living program having a mental health treatment component. This section applies only to offenders who would have a remaining term of imprisonment after adjusting for credit for prior imprisonment, if any, of more than one year.
(a) As used in this section, "heinous crime" means:
(1) a violation or attempted violation of section 609.185 or 609.19;
(2) a violation of section 609.195 or 609.221; or
(3) a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, or 609.344, if the offense was committed with force or violence.
(b) "Previous conviction" means a conviction in Minnesota for a heinous crime or a conviction elsewhere for conduct that would have been a heinous crime under this chapter if committed in Minnesota. The term includes any conviction that occurred before the commission of the present offense of conviction, but does not include a conviction if 15 years have elapsed since the person was discharged from the sentence imposed for the offense.
The court shall sentence a person to life imprisonment without possibility of release under the following circumstances:
(1) the person is convicted of first-degree murder under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (1), (2), (4), or (7);
(2) the person is convicted of committing first-degree murder in the course of a kidnapping under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3); or
(3) the person is convicted of first-degree murder under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), (5), or (6), and the court determines on the record at the time of sentencing that the person has one or more previous convictions for a heinous crime.
[See Note.]
1998 c 367 art 2 s 6; art 6 s 3,15; 2002 c 401 art 1 s 13; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 5; art 17 s 9; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 98
NOTE: Subdivision 2 as applied to juvenile defendants was severed and the previous version of that subdivision revived in Jackson v. State, 883 N.W.2d 272 (Minn. 2016).
When a person is convicted of violating section 609.19 or 609.195, the court shall sentence the person to the statutory maximum sentence for the offense if the person was previously convicted of a heinous crime as defined in section 609.106 and 15 years have not elapsed since the person was discharged from the sentence imposed for that conviction. The court may not stay the imposition or execution of the sentence, notwithstanding section 609.135.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Conviction" means any of the following accepted and recorded by the court: a plea of guilty, a verdict of guilty by a jury, or a finding of guilty by the court. The term includes a conviction by any court in Minnesota or another jurisdiction.
(c) "Prior conviction" means a conviction that occurred before the offender committed the next felony resulting in a conviction and before the offense for which the offender is being sentenced under this section.
(d) "Violent crime" means a violation of or an attempt or conspiracy to violate any of the following laws of this state or any similar laws of the United States or any other state: sections 152.137; 609.165; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.2112; 609.2113; 609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.228; 609.235; 609.24; 609.245; 609.25; 609.255; 609.2661; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.2665; 609.267; 609.2671; 609.268; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.498, subdivision 1; 609.561; 609.562; 609.582, subdivision 1; 609.66, subdivision 1e; 609.687; and 609.855, subdivision 5; any provision of sections 609.229; 609.377; 609.378; 609.749; and 624.713 that is punishable by a felony penalty; or any provision of chapter 152 that is punishable by a maximum sentence of 15 years or more; or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21.
Whenever a person is convicted of a violent crime that is a felony, and the judge is imposing an executed sentence based on a Sentencing Guidelines presumptive imprisonment sentence, the judge may impose an aggravated durational departure from the presumptive imprisonment sentence up to the statutory maximum sentence if the offender was at least 18 years old at the time the felony was committed, and:
(1) the court determines on the record at the time of sentencing that the offender has two or more prior convictions for violent crimes; and
(2) the fact finder determines that the offender is a danger to public safety. The fact finder may base its determination that the offender is a danger to public safety on the following factors:
(i) the offender's past criminal behavior, such as the offender's high frequency rate of criminal activity or juvenile adjudications, or long involvement in criminal activity including juvenile adjudications; or
(ii) the fact that the present offense of conviction involved an aggravating factor that would justify a durational departure under the Sentencing Guidelines.
(a) Unless a longer mandatory minimum sentence is otherwise required by law or the court imposes a longer aggravated durational departure under subdivision 2, a person who is convicted of a violent crime that is a felony must be committed to the commissioner of corrections for a mandatory sentence of at least the length of the presumptive sentence under the Sentencing Guidelines if the court determines on the record at the time of sentencing that the person has two or more prior felony convictions for violent crimes. The court shall impose and execute the prison sentence regardless of whether the guidelines presume an executed prison sentence.
Any person convicted and sentenced as required by this subdivision is not eligible for probation, parole, discharge, or work release, until that person has served the full term of imprisonment imposed by the court, notwithstanding sections 241.26, 242.19, 243.05, 244.04, 609.12, and 609.135.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "violent crime" does not include a violation of section 152.023 or 152.024.
Whenever a person is convicted of a felony, and the judge is imposing an executed sentence based on a Sentencing Guidelines presumptive imprisonment sentence, the judge may impose an aggravated durational departure from the presumptive sentence up to the statutory maximum sentence if the factfinder determines that the offender has five or more prior felony convictions and that the present offense is a felony that was committed as part of a pattern of criminal conduct.
1998 c 367 art 6 s 7; 2005 c 136 art 7 s 16; art 16 s 11,12; 2014 c 180 s 9
All commitments to the commissioner of corrections for imprisonment of the defendant are without minimum terms except when the sentence is to life imprisonment as required by law and except as otherwise provided in this chapter.
Any defendant convicted of an offense listed in subdivision 9 in which the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of the offense, used, whether by brandishing, displaying, threatening with, or otherwise employing, a dangerous weapon other than a firearm, shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than one year plus one day, nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law. Any defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense in which the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of the offense, used a dangerous weapon other than a firearm, shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than three years nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), any defendant convicted of an offense listed in subdivision 9 in which the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of the offense, had in possession or used, whether by brandishing, displaying, threatening with, or otherwise employing, a firearm, shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than three years, nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law. Any defendant convicted of a second or subsequent offense in which the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of the offense, had in possession or used a firearm shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than five years, nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law.
(b) Any defendant convicted of violating section 609.165 or 624.713, subdivision 1, clause (2), shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than five years, nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law.
Notwithstanding section 609.035, whenever a defendant is subject to a mandatory minimum sentence for a felony violation of chapter 152, other than a violation of section 152.021, subdivision 2b, clause (1), or a violation of chapter 152 sentenced under section 152.021, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), and is also subject to this section, the minimum sentence imposed under this section shall be consecutive to that imposed under chapter 152.
Any defendant convicted and sentenced as required by this section is not eligible for probation, parole, discharge, or supervised release until that person has served the full term of imprisonment as provided by law, notwithstanding the provisions of sections 242.19, 243.05, 244.04, 609.12 and 609.135.
The question of whether the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of commission of an offense listed in subdivision 9, used a firearm or other dangerous weapon or had in possession a firearm shall be determined by the fact finder at the time of a verdict or finding of guilt at trial or the entry of a plea of guilty based upon the record of the trial or the plea of guilty. The fact finder shall also determine whether the defendant has been convicted of a second or subsequent offense in which the defendant or an accomplice, at the time of commission of an offense listed in subdivision 9, used a firearm or other dangerous weapon or had in possession a firearm.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), prior to the time of sentencing, the prosecutor may file a motion to have the defendant sentenced without regard to the mandatory minimum sentences established by this section. The motion shall be accompanied by a statement on the record of the reasons for it. When presented with the motion, or on its own motion, the court may sentence the defendant without regard to the mandatory minimum sentences established by this section if the court finds substantial and compelling reasons to do so. A sentence imposed under this subdivision is a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
(b) The court may not, on its own motion or the prosecutor's motion, sentence a defendant without regard to the mandatory minimum sentences established by this section if the defendant previously has been convicted of an offense listed in subdivision 9 in which the defendant used or possessed a firearm or other dangerous weapon.
(c) The court may not, on its own motion or the prosecutor's motion, sentence a defendant without regard to the mandatory minimum sentences established by subdivision 5, if the defendant was convicted of a crime under section 152.021, subdivision 1, or 152.022, subdivision 1, and the person or an accomplice possessed on their person or within immediate reach, or used, whether by brandishing, displaying, threatening with, or otherwise employing, a firearm.
The crimes for which mandatory minimum sentences shall be served as provided in this section are: murder in the first, second, or third degree; assault in the first, second, or third degree; burglary; kidnapping; false imprisonment; manslaughter in the first or second degree; aggravated robbery; simple robbery; first-degree or aggravated first-degree witness tampering; criminal sexual conduct under the circumstances described in sections 609.342, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f); 609.343, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f); and 609.344, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (e) and (h) to (j); escape from custody; arson in the first, second, or third degree; drive-by shooting under section 609.66, subdivision 1e; stalking under section 609.749, subdivision 3, clause (3); possession or other unlawful use of a firearm or ammunition in violation of section 609.165, subdivision 1b, or 624.713, subdivision 1, clause (2), a felony violation of chapter 152; or any attempt to commit any of these offenses.
Beginning on July 1, 1994, every county attorney shall collect and maintain the following information on criminal complaints and prosecutions within the county attorney's office in which the defendant is alleged to have committed an offense listed in subdivision 9 while possessing or using a firearm:
(1) whether the case was charged or dismissed;
(2) whether the defendant was convicted of the offense or a lesser offense; and
(3) whether the mandatory minimum sentence required under this section was imposed and executed or was waived by the prosecutor or court.
No later than July 1 of each year, beginning on July 1, 1995, the county attorney shall forward this information to the Sentencing Guidelines commission upon forms prescribed by the commission.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.11; 1969 c 743 s 1; 1971 c 845 s 15; 1974 c 32 s 1; 1975 c 378 s 8; 1977 c 130 s 2; 1978 c 723 art 2 s 2; 1979 c 258 s 1; 1981 c 227 s 1-7; 1983 c 274 s 15; 1986 c 351 s 5; 1989 c 290 art 3 s 27,28; 1991 c 279 s 25; 1993 c 326 art 13 s 23; 1994 c 576 s 46; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 5-8; 1996 c 408 art 4 s 4,5; 1997 c 96 s 4; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 4,5; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 13; 2010 c 299 s 14; 2015 c 65 art 3 s 17; 2016 c 160 s 16,17
(a) When a defendant has been convicted of a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor, the court may, and when the defendant has been convicted of a felony, the court shall, before sentence is imposed, cause a presentence investigation and written report to be made to the court concerning the defendant's individual characteristics, circumstances, needs, potentialities, criminal record and social history, the circumstances of the offense and the harm caused by it to others and to the community. At the request of the prosecutor in a gross misdemeanor case, the court shall order that a presentence investigation and report be prepared. The investigation shall be made by a probation officer of the court, if there is one; otherwise it shall be made by the commissioner of corrections. The officer conducting the presentence or predispositional investigation shall make reasonable and good faith efforts to contact and provide the victim with the information required under section 611A.037, subdivision 2. Presentence investigations shall be conducted and summary hearings held upon reports and upon the sentence to be imposed upon the defendant in accordance with this section, section 244.10, and the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
(b) When the crime is a violation of sections 609.561 to 609.563, 609.5641, or 609.576 and involves a fire, the report shall include a description of the financial and physical harm the offense has had on the public safety personnel who responded to the fire. For purposes of this paragraph, "public safety personnel" means the state fire marshal; employees of the Division of the State Fire Marshal; firefighters, regardless of whether the firefighters receive any remuneration for providing services; peace officers, as defined in section 626.05, subdivision 2; individuals providing emergency management services; and individuals providing emergency medical services.
(c) When the crime is a felony violation of chapter 152 involving the sale or distribution of a controlled substance, the report may include a description of any adverse social or economic effects the offense has had on persons who reside in the neighborhood where the offense was committed.
(d) The report shall also include the information relating to crime victims required under section 611A.037, subdivision 1. If the court directs, the report shall include an estimate of the prospects of the defendant's rehabilitation and recommendations as to the sentence which should be imposed. In misdemeanor cases the report may be oral.
(e) When a defendant has been convicted of a felony, and before sentencing, the court shall cause a sentencing worksheet to be completed to facilitate the application of the Minnesota Sentencing Guidelines. The worksheet shall be submitted as part of the presentence investigation report.
(f) When a person is convicted of a felony for which the Sentencing Guidelines presume that the defendant will be committed to the commissioner of corrections under an executed sentence and no motion for a sentencing departure has been made by counsel, the court may, when there is no space available in the local correctional facility, commit the defendant to the custody of the commissioner of corrections, pending completion of the presentence investigation and report. When a defendant is convicted of a felony for which the Sentencing Guidelines do not presume that the defendant will be committed to the commissioner of corrections, or for which the Sentencing Guidelines presume commitment to the commissioner but counsel has moved for a sentencing departure, the court may commit the defendant to the commissioner with the consent of the commissioner, pending completion of the presentence investigation and report. The county of commitment shall return the defendant to the court when the court so orders.
The Supreme Court shall promulgate rules uniformly applicable to all district courts for the form and contents of sentencing worksheets. These rules shall be promulgated by and effective on January 2, 1982.
If the defendant has been convicted of a crime for which a mandatory sentence of life imprisonment is provided by law, the probation officer of the court, if there is one, otherwise the commissioner of corrections, shall forthwith make a postsentence investigation and make a written report as provided by subdivision 1.
If the defendant has been convicted of a felony, including a felony for which a mandatory life sentence is required by law, the court shall cause a sentencing worksheet as provided in subdivision 1 to be completed and forwarded to the Sentencing Guidelines Commission.
For the purpose of this section, "mandatory life sentence" means a sentence under section 609.106, subdivision 2; 609.185; 609.3455; 609.385, subdivision 2; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, subdivision 3, and governed by section 244.05.
All criminal justice agencies shall make available at no cost to the probation officer or the commissioner of corrections the criminal record and other relevant information relating to the defendant which they may have, when requested for the purposes of subdivisions 1 and 2.
(a) Any report made pursuant to subdivision 1 shall be, if written, provided to counsel for all parties before sentence. The written report shall not disclose confidential sources of information unless the court otherwise directs. On the request of the prosecuting attorney or the defendant's attorney a summary hearing in chambers shall be held on any matter brought in issue, but confidential sources of information shall not be disclosed unless the court otherwise directs. If the presentence report is given orally the defendant or the defendant's attorney shall be permitted to hear the report.
(b) Any report made under subdivision 1 or 2 shall be provided to counsel for the defendant for purposes of representing the defendant on any appeal or petition for postconviction relief. The reports shall be provided by the court and the commissioner of corrections at no cost to the defendant or the defendant's attorney.
If the defendant is sentenced to the commissioner of corrections, a copy of any report made pursuant to this section and not made by the commissioner shall accompany the commitment. If the defendant is sentenced to a local correctional agency or facility, a copy of the report must be provided to that agency or facility.
Except as provided in subdivisions 4 and 5 or as otherwise directed by the court any report made pursuant to this section shall not be disclosed.
If imposition of sentence is stayed by reason of an appeal taken or to be taken, the presentence investigation provided for in this section shall not be made until such stay has expired or has otherwise been terminated.
(a) If a person is convicted of a felony, the probation officer shall determine in the report prepared under subdivision 1 whether or not alcohol or drug use was a contributing factor to the commission of the offense. If so, the report shall contain the results of a chemical use assessment conducted in accordance with this subdivision. The probation officer shall make an appointment for the defendant to undergo the chemical use assessment if so indicated.
(b) The chemical use assessment report must include a recommended level of care for the defendant in accordance with the criteria contained in rules adopted by the commissioner of human services under section 254A.03, subdivision 3. The assessment must be conducted by an assessor qualified under rules adopted by the commissioner of human services under section 254A.03, subdivision 3. An assessor providing a chemical use assessment may not have any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in shared financial gain with a treatment provider, except as authorized under section 254A.19, subdivision 3. If an independent assessor is not available, the probation officer may use the services of an assessor authorized to perform assessments for the county social services agency under a variance granted under rules adopted by the commissioner of human services under section 254A.03, subdivision 3.
(a) If a person is convicted of theft under section 609.52, embezzlement of public funds under section 609.54, or forgery under section 609.625, 609.63, or 609.631, the probation officer shall determine in the report prepared under subdivision 1 whether or not compulsive gambling contributed to the commission of the offense. If so, the report shall contain the results of a compulsive gambling assessment conducted in accordance with this subdivision. The probation officer shall make an appointment for the offender to undergo the assessment if so indicated.
(b) The compulsive gambling assessment report must include a recommended level of treatment for the offender if the assessor concludes that the offender is in need of compulsive gambling treatment. The assessment must be conducted by an assessor qualified either under Minnesota Rules, part 9585.0040, subpart 1, item C, or qualifications determined to be equivalent by the commissioner, to perform these assessments or to provide compulsive gambling treatment. An assessor providing a compulsive gambling assessment may not have any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in shared financial gain with a treatment provider. If an independent assessor is not available, the probation officer may use the services of an assessor with a financial interest or referral relationship as authorized under rules adopted by the commissioner of human services under section 245.98, subdivision 2a.
(c) The commissioner of human services shall reimburse the assessor for each compulsive gambling assessment at a rate established by the commissioner. To the extent practicable, the commissioner shall standardize reimbursement rates for assessments. The commissioner shall reimburse the assessor after receiving written verification from the probation officer that the assessment was performed and found acceptable.
(a) When a defendant appears in court and is convicted of a crime, the court shall inquire whether the defendant is currently serving in or is a veteran of the armed forces of the United States.
(b) If the defendant is currently serving in the military or is a veteran and has been diagnosed as having a mental illness by a qualified psychiatrist or clinical psychologist or physician, the court may:
(1) order that the officer preparing the report under subdivision 1 consult with the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, Minnesota Department of Veterans Affairs, or another agency or person with suitable knowledge or experience, for the purpose of providing the court with information regarding treatment options available to the defendant, including federal, state, and local programming; and
(2) consider the treatment recommendations of any diagnosing or treating mental health professionals together with the treatment options available to the defendant in imposing sentence.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.115; 1978 c 723 art 2 s 3; 1979 c 233 s 23,24; 1981 c 312 s 1,2; 1983 c 262 art 2 s 3-5; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 331 s 8; 1988 c 669 s 1; 1989 c 117 s 1; 1990 c 602 art 8 s 1; 1991 c 279 s 26; 1991 c 336 art 2 s 42; 1993 c 339 s 23; 1994 c 636 art 6 s 25; 1997 c 239 art 8 s 30; 1998 c 407 art 8 s 7; 1999 c 126 s 11; 2000 c 468 s 28; 2005 c 136 art 14 s 14; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37; 2007 c 147 art 8 s 32; art 12 s 12; 2008 c 299 s 18; 2010 c 236 s 1; 2012 c 212 s 7
If an offender has not already done so, the court shall order an offender to provide a biological specimen for the purpose of DNA analysis as defined in section 299C.155 when:
(1) the court sentences a person charged with committing or attempting to commit a felony offense and the person is convicted of that offense or of any offense arising out of the same set of circumstances; or
(2) the juvenile court adjudicates a person a delinquent child who is petitioned for committing or attempting to commit a felony offense and is adjudicated delinquent for that offense or any offense arising out of the same set of circumstances.
The biological specimen or the results of the analysis shall be maintained by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension as provided in section 299C.155.
The commissioner of corrections or local corrections authority shall order a person to provide a biological specimen for the purpose of DNA analysis before completion of the person's term of imprisonment when the person has not provided a biological specimen for the purpose of DNA analysis and the person:
(1) was initially charged with committing or attempting to commit a felony offense and was convicted of that offense or of any offense arising out of the same set of circumstances, or the person has a past felony conviction in this or any other state; or
(2) is serving a term of imprisonment in this state under a reciprocal agreement although convicted in another state of committing or attempting to commit a felony offense or of any offense arising out of the same set of circumstances if the person was initially charged with committing or attempting to commit a felony offense. The commissioner of corrections or local corrections authority shall forward the sample to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.
When the state accepts an offender from another state under the interstate compact authorized by section 243.1605, the acceptance is conditional on the offender providing a biological specimen for the purposes of DNA analysis as defined in section 299C.155, if the offender was initially charged with committing or attempting to commit a felony offense and was convicted of that offense or of any offense arising out of the same set of circumstances. The specimen must be provided under supervision of staff from the Department of Corrections or a Community Corrections Act county within 15 business days after the offender reports to the supervising agent. The cost of obtaining the biological specimen is the responsibility of the agency providing supervision.
(a) Upon motion of a prosecuting authority, a court shall issue an order to show cause why an offender who should have been ordered or required to provide a biological specimen under this section but did not, should not now be ordered to provide one for the purposes of DNA analysis. This subdivision applies if the offender's sentence or supervision has expired. The prosecuting authority shall provide the court with an affidavit that:
(1) identifies the offender by name and date of birth;
(2) identifies the offender's last known address;
(3) identifies the offender's charged offense, offense of conviction, and date of conviction; and
(4) indicates that the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension database of biological specimens has been searched and the offender has not previously provided a biological specimen for DNA analysis under this chapter.
(b) The order to show cause shall direct the offender to appear before the court within 30 days after the order is served. The prosecutor shall serve the order to show cause upon the offender in the same manner as a civil summons. The offender may avoid appearing before the court by appearing at a place and time designated in the order and voluntarily providing the specimen.
(c) Upon the offender's appearance before the court, and after an opportunity to be heard, the court may issue an order directing the offender to provide the specimen.
(d) If the offender has failed to provide the specimen or appear before the court and the prosecuting authority makes a sufficient showing that the offender was properly served with the order to show cause, the court may issue an order:
(1) requiring the offender to submit the specimen within 30 days from the date of the order at a designated location;
(2) including the designated location's address, telephone number, and regular hours of operation; and
(3) authorizing, if the offender fails or refuses to comply with the order to provide a specimen, a peace officer to detain and bring the offender before the court as soon as practicable to show cause why the specimen should not be obtained.
(e) The local corrections authority shall mail the order in paragraph (d) to the offender's last known address.
1989 c 290 art 4 s 16; 1991 c 232 s 2; 1991 c 285 s 11; 1993 c 326 art 10 s 15; art 13 s 32; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 12,13; art 6 s 15; 1999 c 216 art 3 s 7-9; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 9 s 6; 2005 c 136 art 12 s 9; 2008 c 299 s 19; 2010 c 256 s 1
(a) When a person is convicted of a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor, as defined in section 299C.10, subdivision 1, or is adjudicated delinquent for a felony or gross misdemeanor, the court shall order the offender to immediately report to the law enforcement agency responsible for the collection of fingerprint and other identification data required under section 299C.10, regardless of the sentence imposed or executed.
(b) Paragraph (a) does not apply if the person is remanded to the custody of a law enforcement agency or if the identification data was collected prior to the conviction or adjudication for the offense.
(c) A person who fails to obey a court order under paragraph (a) is subject to probation revocation, contempt of court, or any other appropriate remedy.
(d) This section does not limit or restrict any other statutory requirements or local policies regarding the collection of identification data.
A person sentenced to the commissioner of corrections for imprisonment for a period less than life may be paroled or discharged at any time without regard to length of the term of imprisonment which the sentence imposes when in the judgment of the commissioner of corrections, and under the conditions the commissioner imposes, the granting of parole or discharge would be most conducive to rehabilitation and would be in the public interest.
If a sentence of more than five years has been imposed on a defendant for a crime authorizing a sentence of not more than ten years, the commissioner of corrections shall grant the defendant parole no later than the expiration of five years of imprisonment, less time granted for good behavior, unless the commissioner determines with or without hearing that the defendant's parole would not be conducive to rehabilitation or would not be in the public interest.
All sentences to the commissioner of corrections for the imprisonment of the defendant are subject to the laws relating to parole and the powers of the commissioner of corrections, except as modified in subdivisions 1 and 2, and to all other laws relating to persons in said institutions and their imprisonment.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.12; 1973 c 654 s 15; 1975 c 271 s 6; 1983 c 274 s 18; 1986 c 444
(a) Upon conviction of a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor the court, if sentence is imposed, may, to the extent authorized by law, sentence the defendant:
(1) to imprisonment for a definite term; or
(2) to payment of a fine without imprisonment or as an intermediate sanction on a stayed sentence; or
(3) to both imprisonment for a definite term and payment of a fine; or
(4) to payment of court-ordered restitution in addition to either imprisonment or payment of a fine, or both; or
(5) to payment of a local correctional fee as authorized under section 609.102 in addition to any other sentence imposed by the court; or
(6) to perform work service in a restorative justice program in addition to any other sentence imposed by the court.
(b) If the court imposes a fine or orders restitution under paragraph (a), payment is due on the date imposed unless the court otherwise establishes a due date or a payment plan.
(a) As used in this section, "restitution" includes:
(1) payment of compensation to the victim or the victim's family; and
(2) if the victim is deceased or already has been fully compensated, payment of money to a victim assistance program or other program directed by the court.
"Restitution" includes payment of compensation to a government entity that incurs loss as a direct result of a crime.
(b) When the defendant does not pay the entire amount of court-ordered restitution and the fine at the same time, the court may order that all restitution shall be paid before the fine is paid.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.125; 1971 c 25 s 91; 1984 c 610 s 2; 1992 c 571 art 11 s 14; 1995 c 244 s 11; 1996 c 408 art 7 s 3; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 6; art 7 s 17; 2009 c 83 art 2 s 43
Notwithstanding a conviction is for a felony:
(1) the conviction is deemed to be for a misdemeanor or a gross misdemeanor if the sentence imposed is within the limits provided by law for a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor as defined in section 609.02; or
(2) the conviction is deemed to be for a misdemeanor if the imposition of the prison sentence is stayed, the defendant is placed on probation, and the defendant is thereafter discharged without a prison sentence.
Notwithstanding that a conviction is for a gross misdemeanor, the conviction is deemed to be for a misdemeanor if:
(1) the sentence imposed is within the limits provided by law for a misdemeanor as defined in section 609.02; or
(2) if the imposition of the sentence is stayed, the defendant is placed on probation, and the defendant is thereafter discharged without sentence.
If a defendant is convicted of a misdemeanor and is sentenced, or if the imposition of sentence is stayed, and the defendant is thereafter discharged without sentence, the conviction is deemed to be for a misdemeanor for purposes of determining the penalty for a subsequent offense.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.13; 1971 c 937 s 21; 1986 c 435 s 6; 1986 c 444; 1993 c 326 art 2 s 10
Except as provided in subdivision 2, an alleged misdemeanor violation must be treated as a petty misdemeanor if the prosecuting attorney believes that it is in the interest of justice that the defendant not be imprisoned if convicted and certifies that belief to the court at or before the time of arraignment or pretrial hearing, and the court approves of the certification motion. Prior to the appointment of a public defender to represent a defendant charged with a misdemeanor, the court shall inquire of the prosecutor whether the prosecutor intends to certify the case as a petty misdemeanor. The defendant's consent to the certification is not required. When an offense is certified as a petty misdemeanor under this section, the defendant is not eligible for the appointment of a public defender.
Subdivision 1 does not apply to a misdemeanor violation of section 169A.20; 171.09, subdivision 1, paragraph (g); 171.306, subdivision 6; 609.224; 609.2242; 609.226; 609.324, subdivision 3; 609.52; or 617.23, or an ordinance that conforms in substantial part to any of those sections. A violation described in this subdivision must be treated as a misdemeanor unless the defendant consents to the certification of the violation as a petty misdemeanor.
Notwithstanding any other law, a conviction for a violation that was originally charged as a misdemeanor and was treated as a petty misdemeanor under subdivision 1 or the Rules of Criminal Procedure may not be used as the basis for charging a subsequent violation as a gross misdemeanor rather than a misdemeanor.
1987 c 329 s 6; 1992 c 513 art 4 s 48; 1995 c 259 art 3 s 8; 2000 c 478 art 2 s 7; 2010 c 366 s 15; 2012 c 187 art 1 s 71; 2012 c 212 s 8
The decision to offer or agree to a continuance of a criminal prosecution is an exercise of prosecutorial discretion resting solely with the prosecuting attorney.
(a) Except when a sentence of life imprisonment is required by law, or when a mandatory minimum sentence is required by section 609.11, any court may stay imposition or execution of sentence and:
(1) may order intermediate sanctions without placing the defendant on probation; or
(2) may place the defendant on probation with or without supervision and on the terms the court prescribes, including intermediate sanctions when practicable. The court may order the supervision to be under the probation officer of the court, or, if there is none and the conviction is for a felony or gross misdemeanor, by the commissioner of corrections, or in any case by some other suitable and consenting person. Unless the court directs otherwise, state parole and probation agents and probation officers may impose community work service or probation violation sanctions, consistent with section 243.05, subdivision 1; sections 244.196 to 244.199; or 401.02, subdivision 5.
No intermediate sanction may be ordered performed at a location that fails to observe applicable requirements or standards of chapter 181A or 182, or any rule promulgated under them.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, subdivision 6, and section 609.14, the term "intermediate sanctions" includes but is not limited to incarceration in a local jail or workhouse, home detention, electronic monitoring, intensive probation, sentencing to service, reporting to a day reporting center, chemical dependency or mental health treatment or counseling, restitution, fines, day-fines, community work service, work service in a restorative justice program, work in lieu of or to work off fines and, with the victim's consent, work in lieu of or to work off restitution.
(c) A court may not stay the revocation of the driver's license of a person convicted of violating the provisions of section 169A.20.
(d) If the court orders a fine, day-fine, or restitution as an intermediate sanction, payment is due on the date imposed unless the court otherwise establishes a due date or a payment plan.
If the court orders payment of restitution as a condition of probation and if the defendant fails to pay the restitution in accordance with the payment schedule or structure established by the court or the probation officer, the prosecutor or the defendant's probation officer may, on the prosecutor's or the officer's own motion or at the request of the victim, ask the court to hold a hearing to determine whether or not the conditions of probation should be changed or probation should be revoked. The defendant's probation officer shall ask for the hearing if the restitution ordered has not been paid prior to 60 days before the term of probation expires. The court shall schedule and hold this hearing and take appropriate action, including action under subdivision 2, paragraph (g), before the defendant's term of probation expires.
Nothing in this subdivision limits the court's ability to refer the case to collections under section 609.104 when a defendant fails to pay court-ordered restitution.
If the court orders a defendant to undergo treatment as a condition of probation and if the defendant fails to successfully complete treatment at least 60 days before the term of probation expires, the prosecutor or the defendant's probation officer may ask the court to hold a hearing to determine whether the conditions of probation should be changed or probation should be revoked. The court shall schedule and hold this hearing and take appropriate action, including action under subdivision 2, paragraph (h), before the defendant's term of probation expires.
(a) If the conviction is for a felony other than section 609.2113, subdivision 1 or 2, or 609.2114, subdivision 2, or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, subdivision 1a, paragraph (b) or (c), the stay shall be for not more than four years or the maximum period for which the sentence of imprisonment might have been imposed, whichever is longer.
(b) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor violation of section 169A.20, 609.2113, subdivision 3, or 609.3451, or for a felony described in section 609.2113, subdivision 1 or 2, or 609.2114, subdivision 2, the stay shall be for not more than six years. The court shall provide for unsupervised probation for the last year of the stay unless the court finds that the defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the last year.
(c) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (b), the stay shall be for not more than two years.
(d) If the conviction is for any misdemeanor under section 169A.20; 609.746, subdivision 1; 609.79; or 617.23; or for a misdemeanor under section 609.2242 or 609.224, subdivision 1, in which the victim of the crime was a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, the stay shall be for not more than two years. The court shall provide for unsupervised probation for the second year of the stay unless the court finds that the defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the second year.
(e) If the conviction is for a misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (d), the stay shall be for not more than one year.
(f) The defendant shall be discharged six months after the term of the stay expires, unless the stay has been revoked or extended under paragraph (g), or the defendant has already been discharged.
(g) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under paragraphs (a) to (f), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to one year if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1a, that:
(1) the defendant has not paid court-ordered restitution in accordance with the payment schedule or structure; and
(2) the defendant is likely to not pay the restitution the defendant owes before the term of probation expires.
This one-year extension of probation for failure to pay restitution may be extended by the court for up to one additional year if the court finds, at another hearing conducted under subdivision 1a, that the defendant still has not paid the court-ordered restitution that the defendant owes.
Nothing in this subdivision limits the court's ability to refer the case to collections under section 609.104.
(h) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under paragraphs (a) to (f), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to three years if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1c, that:
(1) the defendant has failed to complete court-ordered treatment successfully; and
(2) the defendant is likely not to complete court-ordered treatment before the term of probation expires.
The court shall report to the commissioner of public safety any stay of imposition or execution granted in the case of a conviction for an offense in which a motor vehicle, as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 42, is used.
The court may, as a condition of probation, require the defendant to serve up to one year incarceration in a county jail, a county regional jail, a county work farm, county workhouse or other local correctional facility, or require the defendant to pay a fine, or both. The court may allow the defendant the work release privileges of section 631.425 during the period of incarceration.
If a person is convicted of assaulting a spouse or other person with whom the person resides, and the court stays imposition or execution of sentence and places the defendant on probation, the court must condition the stay upon the defendant's participation in counseling or other appropriate programs selected by the court.
(a) Until a judicial district has adopted standards under section 629.72, subdivision 2a, paragraph (b), governing electronic monitoring devices used to protect victims of domestic abuse, a court within the judicial district, as a condition of a stay of imposition or execution of a sentence, may not order an offender convicted of a crime described in paragraph (b) to use an electronic monitoring device to protect a victim's safety.
(b) This subdivision applies to the following crimes, if committed by the defendant against a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2:
(1) violations of orders for protection issued under chapter 518B;
(2) assault in the first, second, third, or fifth degree under section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, or 609.224; or domestic assault under section 609.2242;
(3) criminal damage to property under section 609.595;
(4) disorderly conduct under section 609.72;
(5) harassing telephone calls under section 609.79;
(6) burglary under section 609.582;
(7) trespass under section 609.605;
(8) criminal sexual conduct in the first, second, third, fourth, or fifth degree under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3451;
(9) terroristic threats under section 609.713;
(10) stalking under section 609.749;
(11) violations of harassment restraining orders under section 609.748;
(12) violations of domestic abuse no contact orders under section 629.75; and
(13) interference with an emergency call under section 609.78, subdivision 2.
(c) The location data associated with the victim and offender are security information as defined in section 13.37. Location data maintained by a law enforcement agency, probation authority, prosecutorial agency, or court services department may be shared among those agencies to develop and monitor conditions of a stayed sentence under this section.
(d) A violation of a location restriction by an offender in a situation involving a victim and offender who are both mobile does not automatically constitute a violation of the conditions of the offender's stayed sentence.
[See Note.]
A court staying imposition or execution of a sentence that does not include a term of incarceration as a condition of the stay shall order other intermediate sanctions where practicable.
An offender may not demand execution of sentence in lieu of a stay of imposition or execution of sentence if the offender will serve less than nine months at the state institution. This subdivision does not apply to an offender who will be serving the sentence consecutively or concurrently with a previously imposed executed felony sentence.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.135; 1971 c 244 s 2; 1976 c 341 s 3; 1977 c 349 s 1; 1977 c 355 s 6; 1978 c 723 art 2 s 4; 1978 c 724 s 1; 1981 c 9 s 2; 1981 c 227 s 8; 1983 c 264 s 9; 1984 c 610 s 3,4; 1985 c 242 s 4; 1986 c 372 s 5; 1986 c 435 s 7-9; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 463 s 3; 1987 c 220 s 1; 1989 c 21 s 3; 1989 c 253 s 1; 1990 c 579 s 3,4; 1991 c 272 s 6; 1991 c 279 s 27,28; 1992 c 570 art 1 s 25; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 10; art 6 s 11,12; 1993 c 326 art 10 s 12,13; art 13 s 24; 1994 c 615 s 24; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 11; 1995 c 259 art 3 s 9,10; 1996 c 408 art 7 s 4; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 7; art 5 s 8,9; 1Sp1997 c 2 s 62; 1998 c 367 art 7 s 10; 1999 c 194 s 9; 2000 c 478 art 2 s 7; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 6 s 5; art 9 s 18; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 14; art 5 s 17; 2009 c 83 art 2 s 44-46; 2014 c 180 s 9; 2014 c 263 s 1; 2014 c 270 s 1
NOTE: The amendment to subdivision 5a by Laws 2014, chapter 263, section 1, expires August 1, 2017. Laws 2014, chapter 263, section 1, the effective date.
When a court sentences a person under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3453, or 609.3455, subdivision 3a, the court shall make a preliminary determination whether in the court's opinion a petition under chapter 253D may be appropriate and include the determination as part of the sentencing order. If the court determines that a petition may be appropriate, the court shall forward its preliminary determination along with supporting documentation to the county attorney.
1989 c 290 art 4 s 9; 1992 c 571 art 3 s 7; 1Sp1994 c 1 art 2 s 32; 1998 c 367 art 6 s 15; 2005 c 136 art 4 s 5; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 47; 2013 c 49 s 22
(a) When it appears that the defendant has violated any of the conditions of probation or intermediate sanction, or has otherwise been guilty of misconduct which warrants the imposing or execution of sentence, the court may without notice revoke the stay and direct that the defendant be taken into immediate custody.
(b) When it appears that the defendant violated any of the conditions of probation during the term of the stay, but the term of the stay has since expired, the defendant's probation officer or the prosecutor may ask the court to initiate probation revocation proceedings under the Rules of Criminal Procedure at any time within six months after the expiration of the stay. The court also may initiate proceedings under these circumstances on its own motion. If proceedings are initiated within this six-month period, the court may conduct a revocation hearing and take any action authorized under rule 27.04 at any time during or after the six-month period.
(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 609.135 or any law to the contrary, after proceedings to revoke the stay have been initiated by a court order revoking the stay and directing either that the defendant be taken into custody or that a summons be issued in accordance with paragraph (a), the proceedings to revoke the stay may be concluded and the summary hearing provided by subdivision 2 may be conducted after the expiration of the stay or after the six-month period set forth in paragraph (b). The proceedings to revoke the stay shall not be dismissed on the basis that the summary hearing is conducted after the term of the stay or after the six-month period. The ability or inability to locate or apprehend the defendant prior to the expiration of the stay or during or after the six-month period shall not preclude the court from conducting the summary hearing unless the defendant demonstrates that the delay was purposefully caused by the state in order to gain an unfair advantage.
The defendant shall thereupon be notified in writing and in such manner as the court directs of the grounds alleged to exist for revocation of the stay of imposition or execution of sentence. If such grounds are brought in issue by the defendant, a summary hearing shall be held thereon at which the defendant is entitled to be heard and to be represented by counsel.
(a) A probation agent must present the court with local options to address and correct the violation including, but not limited to, inpatient chemical dependency treatment when the defendant at a summary hearing provided by subdivision 2 is:
(1) a nonviolent controlled substance offender;
(2) subject to supervised probation;
(3) appearing based on a technical violation; and
(4) admitting or found to have violated any of the conditions of probation.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "nonviolent controlled substance offender" is a person who meets the criteria described under section 244.0513, subdivision 2, clauses (1), (2), and (5), and "technical violation" has the meaning given in section 244.196, subdivision 6.
If any of such grounds are found to exist the court may:
(1) if imposition of sentence was previously stayed, again stay sentence or impose sentence and stay the execution thereof, and in either event place the defendant on probation or order intermediate sanctions pursuant to section 609.135, or impose sentence and order execution thereof; or
(2) if sentence was previously imposed and execution thereof stayed, continue such stay and place the defendant on probation or order intermediate sanctions in accordance with the provisions of section 609.135, or order execution of the sentence previously imposed.
If none of such grounds are found to exist, the defendant shall be restored to liberty under the previous order of the court.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.14; 1984 c 610 s 5,6; 1986 c 444; 1990 c 579 s 5; 1993 c 326 art 10 s 14; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 17; 2017 c 95 art 3 s 12
When a person has been imprisoned pursuant to a conviction which is set aside and is thereafter convicted of a crime growing out of the same act or omission, the period of imprisonment to which the person is sentenced is reduced by the period of the prior imprisonment and the time earned thereby in diminution of sentence.
A sentence of imprisonment upon conviction of a felony is reduced by the period of confinement of the defendant following the conviction and before the defendant's commitment to the commissioner of corrections for execution of sentence unless the court otherwise directs.
When a person is to be committed to the commissioner, the person's probation officer must provide to the court, prior to the sentencing hearing, the amount of time the person has in credit for prior imprisonment. The court must pronounce credit for prior imprisonment at the time of sentencing.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.145; 1978 c 723 art 1 s 14; 1986 c 444; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 5 s 11
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), when separate sentences of imprisonment are imposed on a defendant for two or more crimes, whether charged in a single indictment or information or separately, or when a person who is under sentence of imprisonment in this state is being sentenced to imprisonment for another crime committed prior to or while subject to such former sentence, the court in the later sentences shall specify whether the sentences shall run concurrently or consecutively. If the court does not so specify, the sentences shall run concurrently.
(b) When a court imposes sentence for a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor offense and specifies that the sentence shall run consecutively to any other sentence, the court may order the defendant to serve time in custody for the consecutive sentence in addition to any time in custody the defendant may be serving for any other offense, including probationary jail time or imprisonment for any felony offense.
(c) An inmate of a state prison who is convicted of committing an assault within the correctional facility is subject to the consecutive sentencing provisions of section 609.2232.
If the court specifies that the sentence shall run consecutively and all of the sentences are for misdemeanors, the total of the sentences shall not exceed one year. If the sentences are for a gross misdemeanor and one or more misdemeanors, the total of the sentences shall not exceed two years. If all of the sentences are for gross misdemeanors, the total of the sentences shall not exceed four years.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.15; 1992 c 571 art 2 s 8; 1993 c 326 art 13 s 26; 1994 c 615 s 25; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 8; art 9 s 35; 1Sp1997 c 2 s 63; 1999 c 194 s 10
This section applies to the following misdemeanor-level crimes: sections 152.093 (manufacture or delivery of drug paraphernalia prohibited); 152.095 (advertisement of drug paraphernalia prohibited); 609.324 (prostitution); 609.3243 (loitering with intent to participate in prostitution); 609.546 (motor vehicle tampering); 609.595 (damage to property); and 609.66 (dangerous weapons); misdemeanor-level violations of section 609.605 (trespass); and violations of local ordinances prohibiting the unlawful sale or possession of controlled substances.
Notwithstanding rule 6.01 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer acting without a warrant who has decided to proceed with the prosecution of a person for committing a crime described in subdivision 1 may arrest and take the person into custody if the officer has reason to believe the person has a prior conviction for any crime described in subdivision 1.
Notwithstanding the statutory maximum penalty otherwise applicable to the offense, a person who commits a misdemeanor-level crime described in subdivision 1 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the court determines at the time of sentencing that the person has two or more prior convictions in this or any other state for any of the crimes described in subdivision 1.
A prosecuting authority who is responsible for filing charges against or prosecuting a person arrested under the circumstances described in subdivision 2 shall make reasonable efforts to notify the complaining witness of the final outcome of the criminal proceeding that resulted from the arrest including, where appropriate, the decision to dismiss or not file charges against the arrested person.
When a person has been deprived of civil rights by reason of conviction of a crime and is thereafter discharged, such discharge shall restore the person to all civil rights and to full citizenship, with full right to vote and hold office, the same as if such conviction had not taken place, and the order of discharge shall so provide.
The order of discharge must provide that a person who has been convicted of a crime of violence, as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 5, is not entitled to ship, transport, possess, or receive a firearm or ammunition for the remainder of the person's lifetime. Any person who has received such a discharge and who thereafter has received a relief of disability under United States Code, title 18, section 925, or whose ability to possess firearms and ammunition has been restored under subdivision 1d, shall not be subject to the restrictions of this subdivision.
(a) Any person who has been convicted of a crime of violence, as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 5, and who ships, transports, possesses, or receives a firearm or ammunition, commits a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
(b) A conviction and sentencing under this section shall be construed to bar a conviction and sentencing for a violation of section 624.713, subdivision 2.
(c) The criminal penalty in paragraph (a) does not apply to any person who has received a relief of disability under United States Code, title 18, section 925, or whose ability to possess firearms and ammunition has been restored under subdivision 1d.
A person prohibited by state law from shipping, transporting, possessing, or receiving a firearm or ammunition because of a conviction or a delinquency adjudication for committing a crime of violence may petition a court to restore the person's ability to possess, receive, ship, or transport firearms and otherwise deal with firearms and ammunition.
The court may grant the relief sought if the person shows good cause to do so and the person has been released from physical confinement.
If a petition is denied, the person may not file another petition until three years have elapsed without the permission of the court.
The discharge may be:
(1) by order of the court following stay of sentence or stay of execution of sentence; or
(2) upon expiration of sentence.
This section does not apply to a forfeiture of and disqualification for public office as provided in section 609.42, subdivision 2.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.165; 1973 c 654 s 15; 1975 c 271 s 6; 1978 c 723 art 1 s 15; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 276 s 1; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 9; 1996 c 408 art 4 s 7; 1998 c 376 s 5; 2003 c 28 art 3 s 3-5; 2005 c 83 s 1; 2015 c 65 art 3 s 18
Whoever, with intent to commit a crime, does an act which is a substantial step toward, and more than preparation for, the commission of the crime is guilty of an attempt to commit that crime, and may be punished as provided in subdivision 4.
An act may be an attempt notwithstanding the circumstances under which it was performed or the means employed to commit the crime intended or the act itself were such that the commission of the crime was not possible, unless such impossibility would have been clearly evident to a person of normal understanding.
It is a defense to a charge of attempt that the crime was not committed because the accused desisted voluntarily and in good faith and abandoned the intention to commit the crime.
Whoever attempts to commit a crime may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the maximum sentence provided for the crime is life imprisonment, to not more than 20 years; or
(2) for any other attempt, to not more than one-half of the maximum imprisonment or fine or both provided for the crime attempted, but such maximum in any case shall not be less than imprisonment for 90 days or a fine of $100.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.17; 1986 c 444
Whoever conspires with another to cause a third person to be arrested or prosecuted on a criminal charge knowing the charge to be false is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Whoever conspires with another to commit a crime and in furtherance of the conspiracy one or more of the parties does some overt act in furtherance of such conspiracy may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the crime intended is a misdemeanor, by a sentence to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $300, or both; or
(2) if the crime intended is murder in the first degree or treason, to imprisonment for not more than 20 years; or
(3) if the crime intended is any other felony or a gross misdemeanor, to imprisonment or to payment of a fine of not more than one-half the imprisonment or fine provided for that felony or gross misdemeanor or both.
This section applies if:
(1) the defendant in this state conspires with another outside of this state; or
(2) the defendant outside of this state conspires with another in this state; or
(3) the defendant outside of this state conspires with another outside of this state and an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy is committed within this state by either of them; or
(4) the defendant in this state conspires with another in this state.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.175; 1971 c 23 s 37,38; 1975 c 279 s 1
For the purposes of sections 609.185, 609.19, 609.2661, and 609.2662, "premeditation" means to consider, plan or prepare for, or determine to commit, the act referred to prior to its commission.
(a) Whoever does any of the following is guilty of murder in the first degree and shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life:
(1) causes the death of a human being with premeditation and with intent to effect the death of the person or of another;
(2) causes the death of a human being while committing or attempting to commit criminal sexual conduct in the first or second degree with force or violence, either upon or affecting the person or another;
(3) causes the death of a human being with intent to effect the death of the person or another, while committing or attempting to commit burglary, aggravated robbery, kidnapping, arson in the first or second degree, a drive-by shooting, tampering with a witness in the first degree, escape from custody, or any felony violation of chapter 152 involving the unlawful sale of a controlled substance;
(4) causes the death of a peace officer, prosecuting attorney, judge, or a guard employed at a Minnesota state or local correctional facility, with intent to effect the death of that person or another, while the person is engaged in the performance of official duties;
(5) causes the death of a minor while committing child abuse, when the perpetrator has engaged in a past pattern of child abuse upon a child and the death occurs under circumstances manifesting an extreme indifference to human life;
(6) causes the death of a human being while committing domestic abuse, when the perpetrator has engaged in a past pattern of domestic abuse upon the victim or upon another family or household member and the death occurs under circumstances manifesting an extreme indifference to human life; or
(7) causes the death of a human being while committing, conspiring to commit, or attempting to commit a felony crime to further terrorism and the death occurs under circumstances manifesting an extreme indifference to human life.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clause (4), "prosecuting attorney" has the meaning given in section 609.221, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (4).
(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clause (4), "judge" has the meaning given in section 609.221, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (5).
(d) For purposes of paragraph (a), clause (5), "child abuse" means an act committed against a minor victim that constitutes a violation of the following laws of this state or any similar laws of the United States or any other state: section 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.224; 609.2242; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.377; 609.378; or 609.713.
(e) For purposes of paragraph (a), clause (6), "domestic abuse" means an act that:
(1) constitutes a violation of section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, 609.2242, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.713, or any similar laws of the United States or any other state; and
(2) is committed against the victim who is a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
(f) For purposes of paragraph (a), clause (7), "further terrorism" has the meaning given in section 609.714, subdivision 1.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.185; 1975 c 374 s 1; 1981 c 227 s 9; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 662 s 2; 1989 c 290 art 2 s 11; 1990 c 583 s 4; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 5; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 19; 1995 c 244 s 12; 1995 c 259 art 3 s 12; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 7; 2000 c 437 s 5; 2002 c 401 art 1 s 15; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 10; 2014 c 302 s 1
Whoever does either of the following is guilty of murder in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 40 years:
(1) causes the death of a human being with intent to effect the death of that person or another, but without premeditation; or
(2) causes the death of a human being while committing or attempting to commit a drive-by shooting in violation of section 609.66, subdivision 1e, under circumstances other than those described in section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3).
Whoever does either of the following is guilty of unintentional murder in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 40 years:
(1) causes the death of a human being, without intent to effect the death of any person, while committing or attempting to commit a felony offense other than criminal sexual conduct in the first or second degree with force or violence or a drive-by shooting; or
(2) causes the death of a human being without intent to effect the death of any person, while intentionally inflicting or attempting to inflict bodily harm upon the victim, when the perpetrator is restrained under an order for protection and the victim is a person designated to receive protection under the order. As used in this clause, "order for protection" includes an order for protection issued under chapter 518B; a harassment restraining order issued under section 609.748; a court order setting conditions of pretrial release or conditions of a criminal sentence or juvenile court disposition; a restraining order issued in a marriage dissolution action; and any order issued by a court of another state or of the United States that is similar to any of these orders.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.19; 1981 c 227 s 10; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 6; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 16; 1996 c 408 art 4 s 8; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 8; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 99
(a) Whoever, without intent to effect the death of any person, causes the death of another by perpetrating an act eminently dangerous to others and evincing a depraved mind, without regard for human life, is guilty of murder in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 25 years.
(b) Whoever, without intent to cause death, proximately causes the death of a human being by, directly or indirectly, unlawfully selling, giving away, bartering, delivering, exchanging, distributing, or administering a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II, is guilty of murder in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 25 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $40,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.195; 1977 c 130 s 3; 1981 c 227 s 11; 1987 c 176 s 1
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of manslaughter in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both:
(1) intentionally causes the death of another person in the heat of passion provoked by such words or acts of another as would provoke a person of ordinary self-control under like circumstances, provided that the crying of a child does not constitute provocation;
(2) violates section 609.224 and causes the death of another or causes the death of another in committing or attempting to commit a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor offense with such force and violence that death of or great bodily harm to any person was reasonably foreseeable, and murder in the first or second degree was not committed thereby;
(3) intentionally causes the death of another person because the actor is coerced by threats made by someone other than the actor's coconspirator and which cause the actor reasonably to believe that the act performed by the actor is the only means of preventing imminent death to the actor or another;
(4) proximately causes the death of another, without intent to cause death by, directly or indirectly, unlawfully selling, giving away, bartering, delivering, exchanging, distributing, or administering a controlled substance classified in Schedule III, IV, or V; or
(5) causes the death of another in committing or attempting to commit a violation of section 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child), and murder in the first, second, or third degree is not committed thereby.
As used in this section, a "person of ordinary self-control" does not include a person under the influence of intoxicants or a controlled substance.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.20; 1981 c 227 s 12; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 3; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 176 s 2; 1988 c 604 s 1; 1995 c 244 s 13; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 13
A person who causes the death of another by any of the following means is guilty of manslaughter in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both:
(1) by the person's culpable negligence whereby the person creates an unreasonable risk, and consciously takes chances of causing death or great bodily harm to another; or
(2) by shooting another with a firearm or other dangerous weapon as a result of negligently believing the other to be a deer or other animal; or
(3) by setting a spring gun, pit fall, deadfall, snare, or other like dangerous weapon or device; or
(4) by negligently or intentionally permitting any animal, known by the person to have vicious propensities or to have caused great or substantial bodily harm in the past, to run uncontrolled off the owner's premises, or negligently failing to keep it properly confined; or
(5) by committing or attempting to commit a violation of section 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child), and murder in the first, second, or third degree is not committed thereby.
If proven by a preponderance of the evidence, it shall be an affirmative defense to criminal liability under clause (4) that the victim provoked the animal to cause the victim's death.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.205; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 294 s 6; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 5; 1995 c 244 s 14
(a) For purposes of sections 609.2111 to 609.2114, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(b) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning given in section 609.52, subdivision 1, and includes attached trailers.
(c) "Controlled substance" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 4.
(d) "Hazardous substance" means any chemical or chemical compound that is listed as a hazardous substance in rules adopted under chapter 182.
(e) "Qualified prior driving offense" includes a prior conviction:
(1) for a violation of section 169A.20 under the circumstances described in section 169A.24 or 169A.25;
(2) under section 609.2112, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); 609.2113, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); 2, clauses (2) to (6); or 3, clauses (2) to (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); or 2, clauses (2) to (6);
(3) under Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); or
(4) under Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 609.21, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); 2, clauses (2) to (6); 2a, clauses (2) to (6); 2b, clauses (2) to (6); 3, clauses (2) to (6); or 4, clauses (2) to (6).
1990 c 602 art 4 s 1; 1996 c 442 s 33; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 11; 2014 c 180 s 6,9; 2016 c 109 s 1
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person is guilty of criminal vehicular homicide and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the person causes the death of a human being not constituting murder or manslaughter as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the collision leaves the scene of the collision in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the death was caused by the defective maintenance.
(b) If a person is sentenced under paragraph (a) for a violation under paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), occurring within ten years of a qualified prior driving offense, the statutory maximum sentence of imprisonment is 15 years.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.21; 1983 c 12 s 1; 1984 c 622 s 24; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 4,11; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 6; art 10 s 7; 1990 c 602 art 4 s 1; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 14; 1996 c 442 s 33; 2004 c 283 s 13; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 7,8,10; 2014 c 180 s 4,9; 2014 c 186 s 2; 2016 c 109 s 2
A person is guilty of criminal vehicular operation resulting in great bodily harm and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the person causes great bodily harm to another not constituting attempted murder or assault as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the accident leaves the scene of the accident in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the injury was caused by the defective maintenance.
A person is guilty of criminal vehicular operation resulting in substantial bodily harm and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the person causes substantial bodily harm to another as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the accident leaves the scene of the accident in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the injury was caused by the defective maintenance.
A person is guilty of criminal vehicular operation resulting in bodily harm and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the person causes bodily harm to another as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the accident leaves the scene of the accident in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the injury was caused by the defective maintenance.
It shall be an affirmative defense to a charge under subdivisions 1, clause (6); 2, clause (6); and 3, clause (6), that the defendant used the controlled substance according to the terms of a prescription issued for the defendant in accordance with sections 152.11 and 152.12.
1983 c 12 s 1; 1984 c 622 s 25; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 4,11; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 7; art 10 s 7; 1990 c 602 art 4 s 1; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 15,16; 1996 c 442 s 33; 2004 c 283 s 13; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 7,8,10; 2014 c 180 s 5,7,9
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person is guilty of criminal vehicular operation resulting in death to an unborn child and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the person causes the death of an unborn child as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the accident leaves the scene of the accident in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the injury was caused by the defective maintenance.
(b) If a person is sentenced under paragraph (a) for a violation under paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), occurring within ten years of a qualified prior driving offense, the statutory maximum sentence of imprisonment is 15 years.
A person is guilty of criminal vehicular operation resulting in injury to an unborn child and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the person causes the great bodily harm to an unborn child subsequently born alive as a result of operating a motor vehicle:
(1) in a grossly negligent manner;
(2) in a negligent manner while under the influence of:
(i) alcohol;
(ii) a controlled substance; or
(iii) any combination of those elements;
(3) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;
(4) while having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, as measured within two hours of the time of driving;
(5) in a negligent manner while knowingly under the influence of a hazardous substance;
(6) in a negligent manner while any amount of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II, or its metabolite, other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
(7) where the driver who causes the accident leaves the scene of the accident in violation of section 169.09, subdivision 1 or 6; or
(8) where the driver had actual knowledge that a peace officer had previously issued a citation or warning that the motor vehicle was defectively maintained, the driver had actual knowledge that remedial action was not taken, the driver had reason to know that the defect created a present danger to others, and the injury was caused by the defective maintenance.
A prosecution for or a conviction of a crime under this section relating to causing death or injury to an unborn child is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct.
1986 c 388 s 3,4; 1989 c 290 art 10 s 7; 1990 c 602 art 4 s 1; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 17,18; 1996 c 442 s 33; 2004 c 283 s 13; 2007 c 54 art 3 s 8,9,10; 2014 c 180 s 8,9; 2016 c 109 s 3
Whoever intentionally advises, encourages, or assists another in taking the other's own life may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
[See Note.]
Whoever intentionally advises, encourages, or assists another who attempts but fails to take the other's own life may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both.
(a) A health care provider, as defined in section 145B.02, subdivision 6, who administers, prescribes, or dispenses medications or procedures to relieve another person's pain or discomfort, even if the medication or procedure may hasten or increase the risk of death, does not violate this section unless the medications or procedures are knowingly administered, prescribed, or dispensed to cause death.
(b) A health care provider, as defined in section 145B.02, subdivision 6, who withholds or withdraws a life-sustaining procedure in compliance with chapter 145B or 145C or in accordance with reasonable medical practice does not violate this section.
A cause of action for injunctive relief may be maintained against any person who is reasonably believed to be about to violate or who is in the course of violating this section by any person who is:
(1) the spouse, parent, child, or sibling of the person who would commit suicide;
(2) an heir or a beneficiary under a life insurance policy of the person who would commit suicide;
(3) a health care provider of the person who would commit suicide;
(4) a person authorized to prosecute or enforce the laws of this state; or
(5) a legally appointed guardian or conservator of the person who would have committed suicide.
A person given standing by subdivision 4, clause (1), (2), or (5), or the person who would have committed suicide, in the case of an attempt, may maintain a cause of action against any person who violates or who attempts to violate subdivision 1 or 2 for compensatory damages and punitive damages as provided in section 549.20. A person described in subdivision 4, clause (4), may maintain a cause of action against a person who violates or attempts to violate subdivision 1 or 2 for a civil penalty of up to $50,000 on behalf of the state. An action under this subdivision may be brought whether or not the plaintiff had prior knowledge of the violation or attempt.
Reasonable attorney fees shall be awarded to the prevailing plaintiff in a civil action brought under subdivision 4 or 5.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.215; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1992 c 577 s 6-9; 1998 c 399 s 37
NOTE: The words "advises" and "encourages" were severed from subdivision 1 as unconstitutional in State v. Melchert-Dinkel, 844 N.W.2d 13 (Minn. 2014).
Whoever assaults another and inflicts great bodily harm may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
(a) Whoever assaults a peace officer, prosecuting attorney, judge, or correctional employee by using or attempting to use deadly force against the officer, attorney, judge, or employee while the person is engaged in the performance of a duty imposed by law, policy, or rule may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
(b) A person convicted of assaulting a peace officer, prosecuting attorney, judge, or correctional employee as described in paragraph (a) shall be committed to the commissioner of corrections for not less than ten years, nor more than 20 years. A defendant convicted and sentenced as required by this paragraph is not eligible for probation, parole, discharge, work release, or supervised release, until that person has served the full term of imprisonment as provided by law, notwithstanding the provisions of sections 241.26, 242.19, 243.05, 244.04, 609.12, and 609.135. Notwithstanding section 609.135, the court may not stay the imposition or execution of this sentence.
(c) As used in this subdivision:
(1) "correctional employee" means an employee of a public or private prison, jail, or workhouse;
(2) "deadly force" has the meaning given in section 609.066, subdivision 1;
(3) "peace officer" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1;
(4) "prosecuting attorney" means an attorney, with criminal prosecution or civil responsibilities, who is the attorney general, a political subdivision's elected or appointed county or city attorney, or a deputy, assistant, or special assistant of any of these; and
(5) "judge" means a judge or justice of any court of this state that is established by the Minnesota Constitution.
1979 c 258 s 4; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 8; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 10; 2014 c 302 s 2
Whoever assaults another with a dangerous weapon may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both.
Whoever assaults another with a dangerous weapon and inflicts substantial bodily harm may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
1979 c 258 s 5; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 53 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 9; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 7
Whoever assaults another and inflicts substantial bodily harm may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever assaults a minor may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the perpetrator has engaged in a past pattern of child abuse against the minor. As used in this subdivision, "child abuse" has the meaning given it in section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (5).
Whoever assaults a victim under the age of four, and causes bodily harm to the child's head, eyes, or neck, or otherwise causes multiple bruises to the body, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1979 c 258 s 6; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 10; 1990 c 542 s 17; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 20; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 100
(a) As used in this subdivision, "peace officer" means a person who is licensed under section 626.845, subdivision 1, and effecting a lawful arrest or executing any other duty imposed by law.
(b) Whoever physically assaults a peace officer is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(c) Whoever commits either of the following acts against a peace officer is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $6,000, or both: (1) physically assaults the officer if the assault inflicts demonstrable bodily harm; or (2) intentionally throws or otherwise transfers bodily fluids or feces at or onto the officer.
Whoever assaults any of the following persons and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both:
(1) a member of a municipal or volunteer fire department or emergency medical services personnel unit in the performance of the member's duties; or
(2) a physician, nurse, or other person providing health care services in a hospital emergency department.
Whoever assaults and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm on an employee of the Department of Natural Resources who is engaged in forest fire activities is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
Whoever commits either of the following acts against an employee of a correctional facility as defined in section 241.021, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), against a prosecuting attorney as defined in section 609.221, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (4), against a judge as defined in section 609.221, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (5), or against a probation officer or other qualified person employed in supervising offenders while the person is engaged in the performance of a duty imposed by law, policy, or rule is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both:
(1) assaults the person and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm; or
(2) intentionally throws or otherwise transfers bodily fluids or feces at or onto the person.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "secure treatment facility" includes facilities listed in sections 253B.02, subdivision 18a, and 253D.02, subdivision 13.
(b) Whoever, while committed under chapter 253D, Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.185, or Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10, commits either of the following acts against an employee or other individual who provides care or treatment at a secure treatment facility while the person is engaged in the performance of a duty imposed by law, policy, or rule is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both:
(1) assaults the person and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm; or
(2) intentionally throws or otherwise transfers bodily fluids or feces at or onto the person.
(c) Whoever, while committed under section 253B.18, or admitted under the provision of section 253B.10, subdivision 1, commits either of the following acts against an employee or other individual who supervises and works directly with patients at a secure treatment facility while the person is engaged in the performance of a duty imposed by law, policy, or rule, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both:
(1) assaults the person and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm; or
(2) intentionally throws or otherwise transfers urine, blood, semen, or feces onto the person.
(d) The court shall commit a person convicted of violating paragraph (b) to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for not less than one year and one day. The court may not, on its own motion or the prosecutor's motion, sentence a person without regard to this paragraph. A person convicted and sentenced as required by this paragraph is not eligible for probation, parole, discharge, work release, or supervised release, until that person has served the full term of imprisonment as provided by law, notwithstanding the provisions of sections 241.26, 242.19, 243.05, 244.04, 609.12, and 609.135.
(e) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence provided in paragraph (b), when a court sentences a person to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for a violation of paragraph (b), the court shall provide that after the person has been released from prison, the commissioner shall place the person on conditional release for five years. The terms of conditional release are governed by sections 244.05 and 609.3455, subdivision 6, 7, or 8; and Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109.
(a) Whoever assaults another because of the victim's or another's actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of paragraph (a) within five years of a previous conviction under paragraph (a) is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year and a day or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
Whoever assaults a school official while the official is engaged in the performance of the official's duties, and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. As used in this subdivision, "school official" includes teachers, school administrators, and other employees of a public or private school.
A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) assaults an agricultural inspector, occupational safety and health investigator, child protection worker, public health nurse, animal control officer, or probation or parole officer while the employee is engaged in the performance of a duty mandated by law, court order, or ordinance;
(2) knows that the victim is a public employee engaged in the performance of the official public duties of the office; and
(3) inflicts demonstrable bodily harm.
(a) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) assaults a community crime prevention group member while the member is engaged in neighborhood patrol;
(2) should reasonably know that the victim is a community crime prevention group member engaged in neighborhood patrol; and
(3) inflicts demonstrable bodily harm.
(b) As used in this subdivision, "community crime prevention group" means a community group focused on community safety and crime prevention that:
(1) is organized for the purpose of discussing community safety and patrolling community neighborhoods for criminal activity;
(2) is designated and trained by the local law enforcement agency as a community crime prevention group; or
(3) interacts with local law enforcement regarding community safety issues.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "vulnerable adult" has the meaning given in section 609.232, subdivision 11.
(b) Whoever assaults and inflicts demonstrable bodily harm on a vulnerable adult, knowing or having reason to know that the person is a vulnerable adult, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) assaults a reserve officer as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (e), who is engaged in the performance of official public duties at the direction of, under the control of, or on behalf of a peace officer or supervising law enforcement officer or agency; and
(2) should reasonably know that the victim is a reserve officer engaged in the performance of official public duties of the peace officer, or supervising law enforcement officer or agency.
(a) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) assaults an employee or contractor of a utility or the United States Postal Service while the employee or contractor is engaged in the performance of the employee's or contractor's duties;
(2) should reasonably know that the victim is an employee or contractor of a utility or the postal service who is:
(i) performing duties of the victim's employment; or
(ii) fulfilling the victim's contractual obligations; and
(3) inflicts demonstrable bodily harm.
(b) As used in this subdivision, "utility" has the meaning given it in section 609.594, subdivision 1, clause (3).
(a) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if (1) the person assaults a transit operator, or intentionally throws or otherwise transfers bodily fluids onto a transit operator; and (2) the transit operator is acting in the course of the operator's duties and is operating a transit vehicle, aboard a transit vehicle, or otherwise responsible for a transit vehicle. A person convicted under this paragraph may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, "transit operator" means a driver or operator of a transit vehicle that is used to provide any of the following services:
(1) public transit, as defined in section 174.22, subdivision 7;
(2) light rail transit service;
(3) special transportation service under section 473.386, whether provided by the Metropolitan Council or by other providers under contract with the council; or
(4) commuter rail service.
1983 c 169 s 1; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 185 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 252 s 9; 1989 c 261 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 11; 1991 c 121 s 1; 1991 c 279 s 29; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 8; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 21; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 19,20; 1997 c 180 s 5; 1997 c 239 art 9 s 36; 2000 c 441 s 1; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 8 s 8; 2004 c 184 s 1,2; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 11; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 15; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37; 2011 c 28 s 7; 2011 c 85 s 1,2; 2013 c 49 s 22; 2013 c 96 s 2; 2013 c 133 s 1; 2014 c 302 s 3; 2015 c 23 s 1; 2016 c 93 s 1
If an inmate of a state correctional facility is convicted of violating section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.2231, or 609.224, while confined in the facility, the sentence imposed for the assault shall be executed and run consecutively to any unexpired portion of the offender's earlier sentence. The inmate is not entitled to credit against the sentence imposed for the assault for time served in confinement for the earlier sentence. The inmate shall serve the sentence for the assault in a state correctional facility even if the assault conviction was for a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor.
A person who violates section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223 because of the victim's or another person's actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin is subject to a statutory maximum penalty of 25 percent longer than the maximum penalty otherwise applicable.
Whoever does any of the following commits an assault and is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) commits an act with intent to cause fear in another of immediate bodily harm or death; or
(2) intentionally inflicts or attempts to inflict bodily harm upon another.
(a) Whoever violates the provisions of subdivision 1 against the same victim within ten years of a previous qualified domestic violence-related offense conviction or adjudication of delinquency is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of subdivision 1 within three years of a previous qualified domestic violence-related offense conviction or adjudication of delinquency is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(a) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223, the court shall determine and make written findings on the record as to whether:
(1) the defendant owns or possesses a firearm; and
(2) the firearm was used in any way during the commission of the assault.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in section 609.2242, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), a person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1, 1992, of assault in the fifth degree if the offense was committed within three years of a previous conviction under sections 609.221 to 609.224, unless three years have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any other violation of section 609.224. Property rights may not be abated but access may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a pistol in violation of this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(a) Whoever violates the provisions of subdivision 1 against the same victim within ten years of the first of any combination of two or more previous qualified domestic violence-related offense convictions or adjudications of delinquency is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of subdivision 1 within three years of the first of any combination of two or more previous qualified domestic violence-related offense convictions or adjudications of delinquency is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1979 c 258 s 7; 1983 c 169 s 2; 1985 c 159 s 1; 1987 c 329 s 7; 1992 c 537 s 1,2; 1992 c 571 art 6 s 13; 1993 c 326 art 2 s 11,12; 1Sp1993 c 5 s 2,3; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 10; 1995 c 229 art 2 s 1; 1995 c 259 art 3 s 13,14; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 21,22; 2000 c 437 s 6,7; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 10 s 8,9; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 16,17; 2011 c 28 s 8
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(a) "Communicable disease" means a disease or condition that causes serious illness, serious disability, or death; the infectious agent of which may pass or be carried from the body of one person to the body of another through direct transmission.
(b) "Direct transmission" means predominately sexual or blood-borne transmission.
(c) "A person who knowingly harbors an infectious agent" refers to a person who receives from a physician or other health professional:
(1) advice that the person harbors an infectious agent for a communicable disease;
(2) educational information about behavior which might transmit the infectious agent; and
(3) instruction of practical means of preventing such transmission.
(d) "Transfer" means to engage in behavior that has been demonstrated epidemiologically to be a mode of direct transmission of an infectious agent which causes the communicable disease.
(e) "Sexual penetration" means any of the acts listed in section 609.341, subdivision 12, when the acts described are committed without the use of a latex or other effective barrier.
It is a crime, which may be prosecuted under section 609.17, 609.185, 609.19, 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.2231, or 609.224, for a person who knowingly harbors an infectious agent to transfer, if the crime involved:
(1) sexual penetration with another person without having first informed the other person that the person has a communicable disease;
(2) transfer of blood, sperm, organs, or tissue, except as deemed necessary for medical research or if disclosed on donor screening forms; or
(3) sharing of nonsterile syringes or needles for the purpose of injecting drugs.
It is an affirmative defense to prosecution, if it is proven by a preponderance of the evidence, that:
(1) the person who knowingly harbors an infectious agent for a communicable disease took practical means to prevent transmission as advised by a physician or other health professional; or
(2) the person who knowingly harbors an infectious agent for a communicable disease is a health care provider who was following professionally accepted infection control procedures.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to be a defense to a criminal prosecution that does not allege a violation of subdivision 2.
Data protected by section 13.3805, subdivision 1, and information collected as part of a Health Department investigation under sections 144.4171 to 144.4186 may not be accessed or subpoenaed by law enforcement authorities or prosecutors without the consent of the subject of the data.
Whoever does any of the following against a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, commits an assault and is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) commits an act with intent to cause fear in another of immediate bodily harm or death; or
(2) intentionally inflicts or attempts to inflict bodily harm upon another.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 within ten years of a previous qualified domestic violence-related offense conviction or an adjudication of delinquency is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(a) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247, the court shall determine and make written findings on the record as to whether:
(1) the assault was committed against a family or household member, as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2;
(2) the defendant owns or possesses a firearm; and
(3) the firearm was used in any way during the commission of the assault.
(b) If the court determines that the assault was of a family or household member, and that the offender owns or possesses a firearm and used it in any way during the commission of the assault, it shall order that the firearm be summarily forfeited under section 609.5316, subdivision 3.
(c) When a person is convicted of assaulting a family or household member and is determined by the court to have used a firearm in any way during commission of the assault, the court may order that the person is prohibited from possessing any type of firearm for any period longer than three years or for the remainder of the person's life. A person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. At the time of the conviction, the court shall inform the defendant for how long the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm and that it is a gross misdemeanor to violate this paragraph. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.
(d) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), when a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.224 and the court determines that the victim was a family or household member, the court shall inform the defendant that the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm for three years from the date of conviction and that it is a gross misdemeanor offense to violate this prohibition. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.
(e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), a person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1, 1992, or a firearm if a person has been convicted on or after August 1, 2014, of domestic assault under this section or assault in the fifth degree under section 609.224 and the assault victim was a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, unless three years have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any other violation of this section or section 609.224. Property rights may not be abated but access may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a firearm in violation of this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(f) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b) and (h), when a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247 and the court determines that the assault was against a family or household member, the court shall order the defendant to transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary, unless the court prohibits the person from possessing a firearm for the remainder of the person's life under paragraph (c). A temporary firearm transfer only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer ownership or title. A defendant may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with the defendant. If a defendant makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the defendant a reasonable fee to store the person's firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified by certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. For temporary firearms transfers under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency, federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period imposed under this subdivision, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to a person shall comply with state and federal law. If a defendant permanently transfers the defendant's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the defendant and may charge the defendant a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is not required to accept a person's firearm under this paragraph. The court shall order that the person surrender all permits to carry and purchase firearms to the sheriff.
(g) A defendant who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (f) must file proof of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that the defendant permanently transferred the defendant's firearms to the third party or agreeing to temporarily store the defendant's firearms until such time as the defendant is legally permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and model of all firearms transferred by the defendant to the third party. The third party shall acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly responsible under section 624.7144 if the defendant gains access to a transferred firearm while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the defendant. The proof of transfer must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include the name of the defendant, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all transferred firearms. The defendant shall provide the court with a signed and notarized affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph.
(h) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247, and the court determines that the assault was against a family or household member, the court shall determine by a preponderance of the evidence if the person poses an imminent risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk, the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of all firearms in the person's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the defendant's firearms and shall return the firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the person, transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph, the agency shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for affidavits or proofs of transfer established in paragraph (g). The agency shall file all affidavits or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (f) and (g) as if accepting transfer from the defendant. If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the defendant within three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the defendant's firearms. A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms.
Whoever violates the provisions of this section or section 609.224, subdivision 1, within ten years of the first of any combination of two or more previous qualified domestic violence-related offense convictions or adjudications of delinquency is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1995 c 259 art 3 s 15; 2000 c 437 s 8,9; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 10 s 10,11; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 12; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 18,19; 2013 c 47 s 3; 2014 c 213 s 3
A person convicted of gross misdemeanor domestic assault under section 609.2242, subdivision 2, shall be sentenced to a minimum of 20 days imprisonment, at least 96 hours of which must be served consecutively. The court may stay execution of the minimum sentence required under this subdivision on the condition that the person sentenced complete anger therapy or counseling and fulfill any other condition, as ordered by the court; provided, however, that the court shall revoke the stay of execution and direct the person to be taken into immediate custody if it appears that the person failed to attend or complete the ordered therapy or counseling, or violated any other condition of the stay of execution. If the court finds at the revocation hearing required under section 609.14, subdivision 2, that the person failed to attend or complete the ordered therapy, or violated any other condition of the stay of execution, the court shall order execution of the sentence previously imposed.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), in determining an appropriate disposition for felony domestic assault under section 609.2242, subdivision 4, the court shall presume that a stay of execution with at least a 45-day period of incarceration as a condition of probation shall be imposed. If the court imposes a stay of execution with a period of incarceration as a condition of probation, at least 15 days must be served consecutively.
(b) If the defendant's criminal history score, determined according to the Sentencing Guidelines, indicates a presumptive executed sentence, that sentence shall be imposed unless the court departs from the Sentencing Guidelines pursuant to section 244.10. A stay of imposition of sentence under this paragraph may be granted only if accompanied by a statement on the record of the reasons for it.
A presentence domestic abuse investigation must be conducted and a report submitted to the court by the corrections agency responsible for conducting the investigation when:
(1) a defendant is convicted of an offense described in section 518B.01, subdivision 2;
(2) a defendant is arrested for committing an offense described in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, but is convicted of another offense arising out of the same circumstances surrounding the arrest; or
(3) a defendant is convicted of a violation against a family or household member of: (a) an order for protection under section 518B.01; (b) a harassment restraining order under section 609.748; (c) section 609.79, subdivision 1; or (d) section 609.713, subdivision 1.
(a) The Department of Corrections shall establish minimum standards for the report, including the circumstances of the offense, impact on the victim, the defendant's prior record, characteristics and history of alcohol and chemical use problems, and amenability to domestic abuse programs. The report is classified as private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12. Victim impact statements are confidential.
(b) The report must include:
(1) a recommendation on any limitations on contact with the victim and other measures to ensure the victim's safety;
(2) a recommendation for the defendant to enter and successfully complete domestic abuse programming and any aftercare found necessary by the investigation, including a specific recommendation for the defendant to complete a domestic abuse counseling program or domestic abuse educational program under section 518B.02;
(3) a recommendation for chemical dependency evaluation and treatment as determined by the evaluation whenever alcohol or drugs were found to be a contributing factor to the offense;
(4) recommendations for other appropriate remedial action or care or a specific explanation why no level of care or action is recommended; and
(5) consequences for failure to abide by conditions set up by the court.
A domestic abuse investigation required by this section must be conducted by the local Corrections Department or the commissioner of corrections. The corrections agent shall have access to any police reports or other law enforcement data relating to the current offense or previous offenses that are necessary to complete the evaluation. A corrections agent conducting an investigation under this section may not have any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in shared financial gain with a treatment provider. An appointment for the defendant to undergo the investigation must be made by the court, a court services probation officer, or court administrator as soon as possible.
1996 c 408 art 3 s 24; 1997 c 239 art 7 s 18; 1998 c 367 art 5 s 6,7; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 10 s 12
Except as otherwise permitted in subdivision 2, whoever knowingly circumcises, excises, or infibulates, in whole or in part, the labia majora, labia minora, or clitoris of another is guilty of a felony. Consent to the procedure by a minor on whom it is performed or by the minor's parent is not a defense to a violation of this subdivision.
A surgical procedure is not a violation of subdivision 1 if the procedure:
(1) is necessary to the health of the person on whom it is performed and is performed by: (i) a physician licensed under chapter 147; (ii) a physician in training under the supervision of a licensed physician; or (iii) a certified nurse midwife practicing within the nurse midwife's legal scope of practice; or
(2) is performed on a person who is in labor or who has just given birth and is performed for medical purposes connected with that labor or birth: (i) by a physician licensed under chapter 147; (ii) a physician in training under the supervision of a licensed physician; or (iii) a certified nurse midwife practicing within the nurse midwife's legal scope of practice.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Family or household members" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.
(c) "Strangulation" means intentionally impeding normal breathing or circulation of the blood by applying pressure on the throat or neck or by blocking the nose or mouth of another person.
Unless a greater penalty is provided elsewhere, whoever assaults a family or household member by strangulation is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
A person who causes great or substantial bodily harm to another by negligently or intentionally permitting any dog to run uncontrolled off the owner's premises, or negligently failing to keep it properly confined is guilty of a misdemeanor. A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent violation of this section involving the same dog is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
If the owner of a dangerous dog, as defined under section 347.50, subdivision 2, has been convicted of a misdemeanor under section 347.55, and the same dog causes bodily injury to a person other than the owner, the owner is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
If proven by a preponderance of the evidence, it shall be an affirmative defense to liability under subdivision 1 or 2 that the victim provoked the dog to cause the victim's bodily harm.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "service animal" means an animal individually trained or being trained to do work or perform tasks for the benefit of an individual with a disability.
(b) A person who negligently or intentionally (1) permits the person's dog to run uncontrolled off the person's premises, or (2) fails to keep the person's dog properly confined or controlled; and as a result the dog causes bodily harm to a service animal or otherwise renders a service animal unable to perform its duties, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(c) The court shall order a person convicted of violating this subdivision to pay restitution for the costs and expenses resulting from the crime. Costs and expenses include, but are not limited to, the service animal user's loss of income, veterinary expenses, transportation costs, and other expenses of temporary replacement assistance services, and service animal replacement or retraining costs incurred by a school, agency, or individual. If the court finds that the convicted person is indigent, the court may reduce the amount of restitution to a reasonable level or order it paid in installments.
(d) This subdivision does not preclude a person from seeking any available civil remedies for an act that violates this subdivision.
1985 c 294 s 7; 1988 c 711 s 8; 1989 c 37 s 13; 2004 c 159 s 1,2
When a person has been charged with a violation of section 609.205, clause (4), or 609.226, subdivision 2 or 3, or a gross misdemeanor violation of section 609.226, subdivision 1, the court shall order that the animal which caused the death or injury be seized by the appropriate local law enforcement agency. The animal shall be killed in a proper and humane manner if the person has been convicted of the crime for which the animal was seized. The owner of the animal shall pay the cost of confining and killing the animal. This section shall not preempt local ordinances with more restrictive provisions.
Whoever proximately causes great bodily harm by, directly or indirectly, unlawfully selling, giving away, bartering, delivering, exchanging, distributing, or administering a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
As used in this section, "criminal gang" means any ongoing organization, association, or group of three or more persons, whether formal or informal, that:
(1) has, as one of its primary activities, the commission of one or more of the offenses listed in section 609.11, subdivision 9;
(2) has a common name or common identifying sign or symbol; and
(3) includes members who individually or collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of criminal activity.
A person who commits a crime for the benefit of, at the direction of, in association with, or motivated by involvement with a criminal gang, with the intent to promote, further, or assist in criminal conduct by gang members is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3.
(a) If the crime committed in violation of subdivision 2 is a felony, the statutory maximum for the crime is five years longer than the statutory maximum for the underlying crime. If the crime committed in violation of subdivision 2 is a felony, and the victim of the crime is a child under the age of 18 years, the statutory maximum for the crime is ten years longer than the statutory maximum for the underlying crime.
(b) If the crime committed in violation of subdivision 2 is a misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(c) If the crime committed in violation of subdivision 2 is a gross misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $15,000, or both.
(a) Unless a longer mandatory minimum sentence is otherwise required by law, or the court imposes a longer aggravated durational departure, or a longer prison sentence is presumed under the Sentencing Guidelines and imposed by the court, a person convicted of a crime described in subdivision 3, paragraph (a), shall be committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for not less than one year plus one day.
(b) Any person convicted and sentenced as required by paragraph (a) is not eligible for probation, parole, discharge, work release, or supervised release until that person has served the full term of imprisonment as provided by law, notwithstanding the provisions of sections 242.19, 243.05, 244.04, 609.12, and 609.135.
Whoever, being in charge of or employed in any institution, whether public or private, intentionally abuses or ill-treats any person confined therein who is mentally or physically disabled or who is involuntarily confined therein by order of court or other duly constituted authority may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
Whoever, being in charge of or employed in any facility required to be licensed under the provisions of sections 144.50 to 144.58, or 144A.02, intentionally abuses, ill-treats, or culpably neglects any patient or resident therein to the patient's or resident's physical detriment may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
1973 c 688 s 9; 1976 c 173 s 60; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
As used in sections 609.2325, 609.233, 609.2335, and 609.234, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given.
"Caregiver" means an individual or facility who has responsibility for the care of a vulnerable adult as a result of a family relationship, or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a vulnerable adult voluntarily, by contract, or by agreement.
(a) "Facility" means a hospital or other entity required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58; a nursing home required to be licensed to serve adults under section 144A.02; a home care provider licensed or required to be licensed under sections 144A.43 to 144A.482; a residential or nonresidential facility required to be licensed to serve adults under sections 245A.01 to 245A.16; or a person or organization that exclusively offers, provides, or arranges for personal care assistance services under the medical assistance program as authorized under sections 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, 256B.0651, 256B.0653, and 256B.0654.
(b) For home care providers and personal care attendants, the term "facility" refers to the provider or person or organization that exclusively offers, provides, or arranges for personal care services, and does not refer to the client's home or other location at which services are rendered.
"Immediately" means as soon as possible, but no longer than 24 hours from the time of initial knowledge that the incident occurred has been received.
"Legal authority" includes, but is not limited to:
(1) a fiduciary obligation recognized elsewhere in law, including pertinent regulations;
(2) a contractual obligation; or
(3) documented consent by a competent person.
"Maltreatment" means any of the following:
(1) abuse under section 609.2325;
(2) neglect under section 609.233; or
(3) financial exploitation under section 609.2335.
"Operator" means any person whose duties and responsibilities evidence actual control of administrative activities or authority for the decision making of or by a facility.
"Person" means any individual, corporation, firm, partnership, incorporated and unincorporated association, or any other legal, professional, or commercial entity.
"Report" means a statement concerning all the circumstances surrounding the alleged or suspected maltreatment, as defined in this section, of a vulnerable adult which are known to the reporter at the time the statement is made.
"Therapeutic conduct" means the provision of program services, health care, or other personal care services done in good faith in the interests of the vulnerable adult by: (1) an individual, facility or employee, or person providing services in a facility under the rights, privileges, and responsibilities conferred by state license, certification, or registration; or (2) a caregiver.
"Vulnerable adult" means any person 18 years of age or older who:
(1) is a resident inpatient of a facility;
(2) receives services at or from a facility required to be licensed to serve adults under sections 245A.01 to 245A.15, except that a person receiving outpatient services for treatment of chemical dependency or mental illness, or one who is committed as a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually dangerous person under chapter 253B, is not considered a vulnerable adult unless the person meets the requirements of clause (4);
(3) receives services from a home care provider required to be licensed under sections 144A.43 to 144A.482; or from a person or organization that exclusively offers, provides, or arranges for personal care assistance services under the medical assistance program as authorized under sections 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, 256B.0651 to 256B.0654, and 256B.0659; or
(4) regardless of residence or whether any type of service is received, possesses a physical or mental infirmity or other physical, mental, or emotional dysfunction:
(i) that impairs the individual's ability to provide adequately for the individual's own care without assistance, including the provision of food, shelter, clothing, health care, or supervision; and
(ii) because of the dysfunction or infirmity and the need for assistance, the individual has an impaired ability to protect the individual from maltreatment.
1995 c 229 art 2 s 2; 2009 c 79 art 6 s 19; 2014 c 262 art 4 s 9; art 5 s 6; 2016 c 158 art 1 s 202,203
(a) A caregiver who, with intent to produce physical or mental pain or injury to a vulnerable adult, subjects a vulnerable adult to any aversive or deprivation procedure, unreasonable confinement, or involuntary seclusion, is guilty of criminal abuse and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3.
This paragraph does not apply to therapeutic conduct.
(b) A caregiver, facility staff person, or person providing services in a facility who engages in sexual contact or penetration, as defined in section 609.341, under circumstances other than those described in sections 609.342 to 609.345, with a resident, patient, or client of the facility is guilty of criminal abuse and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3.
For the purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that:
(1) the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult under sections 144.651, 144A.44, chapter 145B, 145C, or 252A, or sections 253B.03 or 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult or, where permitted under law, to provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation; this paragraph does not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:
(i) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or
(ii) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct;
(2) the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult; or
(3) the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with: (i) a person, including a facility staff person, when a consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or (ii) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship.
(a) A person who violates subdivision 1, paragraph (a), may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the act results in the death of a vulnerable adult, imprisonment for not more than 15 years or payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both;
(2) if the act results in great bodily harm, imprisonment for not more than ten years or payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both;
(3) if the act results in substantial bodily harm or the risk of death, imprisonment for not more than five years or payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both; or
(4) in other cases, imprisonment for not more than one year or payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) A person who violates subdivision 1, paragraph (b), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
A caregiver or operator who intentionally neglects a vulnerable adult or knowingly permits conditions to exist that result in the abuse or neglect of a vulnerable adult is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. For purposes of this section, "abuse" has the meaning given in section 626.5572, subdivision 2, and "neglect" means a failure to provide a vulnerable adult with necessary food, clothing, shelter, health care, or supervision.
A caregiver or operator who intentionally deprives a vulnerable adult of necessary food, clothing, shelter, health care, or supervision, when the caregiver or operator is reasonably able to make the necessary provisions, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3 if:
(1) the caregiver or operator knows or has reason to know the deprivation could likely result in substantial bodily harm or great bodily harm to the vulnerable adult; or
(2) the deprivation occurred over an extended period of time.
A vulnerable adult is not neglected or deprived under subdivision 1 or 1a for the sole reason that:
(1) the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult under sections 144.651, 144A.44, 253B.03, or 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, or chapter 145B, 145C, or 252A, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult or, where permitted under law, to provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation; this paragraph does not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:
(i) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or
(ii) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct;
(2) the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult; or
(3) the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with: (i) a person including a facility staff person when a consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or (ii) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship.
A person who violates subdivision 1a may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the conduct results in great bodily harm to the vulnerable adult, imprisonment for not more than ten years or payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both; or
(2) if the conduct results in substantial bodily harm to the vulnerable adult, imprisonment for not more than five years or payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
It shall be an affirmative defense to a prosecution under subdivision 1 or 1a, if proven by a preponderance of evidence, that:
(1) the defendant is an individual employed by a facility or operator and does not have managerial or supervisory authority, and was unable to reasonably make the necessary provisions because of inadequate staffing levels, inadequate supervision, or institutional policies;
(2) the defendant is a facility, an operator, or an employee of a facility or operator in a position of managerial or supervisory authority, and did not knowingly, intentionally, or recklessly permit criminal acts by its employees or agents that resulted in the harm to the vulnerable adult; or
(3) the defendant is a caregiver and failed to perform acts necessary to prevent the applicable level of harm, if any, to the vulnerable adult because the caregiver was acting reasonably and necessarily to provide care to another identified vulnerable adult.
For these affirmative defenses, a defendant bears only the burden of production. A defendant's failure to meet the burden of production does not relieve the state of its burden of persuasion as to all elements of the offense.
Whoever does any of the following acts commits the crime of financial exploitation:
(1) in breach of a fiduciary obligation recognized elsewhere in law, including pertinent regulations, contractual obligations, documented consent by a competent person, or the obligations of a responsible party under section 144.6501 intentionally:
(i) fails to use the real or personal property or other financial resources of the vulnerable adult to provide food, clothing, shelter, health care, therapeutic conduct, or supervision for the vulnerable adult;
(ii) uses, manages, or takes either temporarily or permanently the real or personal property or other financial resources of the vulnerable adult, whether held in the name of the vulnerable adult or a third party, for the benefit of someone other than the vulnerable adult; or
(iii) deprives either temporarily or permanently a vulnerable adult of the vulnerable adult's real or personal property or other financial resources, whether held in the name of the vulnerable adult or a third party, for the benefit of someone other than the vulnerable adult; or
(2) in the absence of legal authority:
(i) acquires possession or control of an interest in real or personal property or other financial resources of a vulnerable adult, whether held in the name of the vulnerable adult or a third party, through the use of undue influence, harassment, or duress;
(ii) forces, compels, coerces, or entices a vulnerable adult against the vulnerable adult's will to perform services for the profit or advantage of another; or
(iii) establishes a relationship with a fiduciary obligation to a vulnerable adult by use of undue influence, harassment, duress, force, compulsion, coercion, or other enticement.
(a) Nothing in this section requires a facility or caregiver to provide financial management or supervise financial management for a vulnerable adult except as otherwise required by law.
(b) If the actor knew or had reason to know that the vulnerable adult lacked capacity to consent, consent is not a defense to a violation of this section.
A person who violates subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), item (i), may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3. A person who violates subdivision 1, clause (2), item (ii) or (iii), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
In any prosecution under this section, the value of the money or property or services received by the defendant within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of subdivision 3; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this subdivision.
As used in this section:
(1) "charitable solicitation law violation" means a violation of sections 309.50 to 309.61;
(2) "consumer fraud law violation" means a violation of sections 325F.68 to 325F.70;
(3) "deceptive trade practices law violation" means a violation of sections 325D.43 to 325D.48;
(4) "false advertising law violation" means a violation of section 325F.67;
(5) "disabled person" means a person who has an impairment of physical or mental function or emotional status that substantially limits one or more major life activities;
(6) "major life activities" means functions such as caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working; and
(7) "senior citizen" means a person who is 65 years of age or older.
It is a gross misdemeanor for any person to commit a charitable solicitation law violation, a consumer fraud law violation, a deceptive trade practices law violation, or a false advertising law violation if the person knows or has reason to know that the person's conduct:
(1) is directed at one or more disabled persons or senior citizens; and
(2) will cause or is likely to cause a disabled person or a senior citizen to suffer loss or encumbrance of a primary residence, principal employment or other major source of income, substantial loss of property set aside for retirement or for personal or family care and maintenance, substantial loss of pension, retirement plan, or government benefits, or substantial loss of other assets essential to the victim's health or welfare.
The attorney general has statewide jurisdiction to prosecute violations of this section. This jurisdiction is concurrent with that of the local prosecuting authority responsible for prosecuting gross misdemeanors in the place where the violation was committed.
Any mandated reporter who is required to report under section 626.557, who knows or has reason to believe that a vulnerable adult is being or has been maltreated, as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 15, and who does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) intentionally fails to make a report;
(2) knowingly provides information which is false, deceptive, or misleading; or
(3) intentionally fails to provide all of the material circumstances surrounding the incident which are known to the reporter when the report is made.
It is a gross misdemeanor for a person who is mandated to report under section 626.557, who knows or has reason to believe that a vulnerable adult is being or has been maltreated, as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 15, to intentionally fail to make a report if:
(1) the person knows the maltreatment caused or contributed to the death or great bodily harm of a vulnerable adult; and
(2) the failure to report causes or contributes to the death or great bodily harm of a vulnerable adult or protects the mandated reporter's interests.
Whoever administers to another or causes another to take any poisonous, stupefying, overpowering, narcotic or anesthetic substance with intent thereby to injure or to facilitate the commission of a crime may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever, having knowledge of not being entitled thereto, takes personal property from the person or in the presence of another and uses or threatens the imminent use of force against any person to overcome the person's resistance or powers of resistance to, or to compel acquiescence in, the taking or carrying away of the property is guilty of robbery and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.24; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whoever, while committing a robbery, is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the victim to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon, or inflicts bodily harm upon another, is guilty of aggravated robbery in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both.
Whoever, while committing a robbery, implies, by word or act, possession of a dangerous weapon, is guilty of aggravated robbery in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
Whoever, for any of the following purposes, confines or removes from one place to another, any person without the person's consent or, if the person is under the age of 16 years, without the consent of the person's parents or other legal custodian, is guilty of kidnapping and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2:
(1) to hold for ransom or reward for release, or as shield or hostage; or
(2) to facilitate commission of any felony or flight thereafter; or
(3) to commit great bodily harm or to terrorize the victim or another; or
(4) to hold in involuntary servitude.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the victim is released in a safe place without great bodily harm, to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both; or
(2) if the victim is not released in a safe place, or if the victim suffers great bodily harm during the course of the kidnapping, or if the person kidnapped is under the age of 16, to imprisonment for not more than 40 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $50,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.25; 1979 c 258 s 8; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 24
Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction of the crime of kidnapping is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed during the time of the kidnapping.
As used in this section, the following term has the meaning given it unless specific content indicates otherwise.
"Caretaker" means an individual who has responsibility for the care of a child as a result of a family relationship, or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a child.
Whoever, knowingly lacking lawful authority to do so, intentionally confines or restrains someone else's child under the age of 18 years without consent of the child's parent or legal custodian, or any other person without the person's consent, is guilty of false imprisonment and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
(a) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker who intentionally subjects a child under the age of 18 years to unreasonable physical confinement or restraint by means including but not limited to, tying, locking, caging, or chaining for a prolonged period of time and in a cruel manner which is excessive under the circumstances, is guilty of unreasonable restraint of a child and, except as provided in paragraph (b) or (c), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) If the confinement or restraint results in demonstrable bodily harm, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both.
(c) If the confinement or restraint results in substantial bodily harm, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.255; 1983 c 217 s 2; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 655 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 12; 2012 c 175 s 2
Whoever intentionally does any of the following acts may be charged with a felony and, upon conviction, may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 6:
(1) conceals a minor child from the child's parent where the action manifests an intent substantially to deprive that parent of parental rights or conceals a minor child from another person having the right to parenting time or custody where the action manifests an intent to substantially deprive that person of rights to parenting time or custody;
(2) takes, obtains, retains, or fails to return a minor child in violation of a court order which has transferred legal custody under chapter 260, 260B, or 260C to the commissioner of human services, a child-placing agency, or the local social services agency;
(3) takes, obtains, retains, or fails to return a minor child from or to the parent in violation of a court order, where the action manifests an intent substantially to deprive that parent of rights to parenting time or custody;
(4) takes, obtains, retains, or fails to return a minor child from or to a parent after commencement of an action relating to child parenting time or custody but prior to the issuance of an order determining custody or parenting time rights, where the action manifests an intent substantially to deprive that parent of parental rights;
(5) retains a child in this state with the knowledge that the child was removed from another state in violation of any of the above provisions;
(6) refuses to return a minor child to a parent or lawful custodian and is at least 18 years old and more than 24 months older than the child;
(7) causes or contributes to a child being a habitual truant as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 19, and is at least 18 years old and more than 24 months older than the child;
(8) causes or contributes to a child being a runaway as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 28, and is at least 18 years old and more than 24 months older than the child; or
(9) is at least 18 years old and resides with a minor under the age of 16 without the consent of the minor's parent or lawful custodian.
It is an affirmative defense if a person charged under subdivision 1 proves that:
(1) the person reasonably believed the action taken was necessary to protect the child from physical or sexual assault or substantial emotional harm;
(2) the person reasonably believed the action taken was necessary to protect the person taking the action from physical or sexual assault;
(3) the action taken is consented to by the parent, stepparent, or legal custodian seeking prosecution, but consent to custody or specific parenting time is not consent to the action of failing to return or concealing a minor child; or
(4) the action taken is otherwise authorized by a court order issued prior to the violation of subdivision 1.
The defenses provided in this subdivision are in addition to and do not limit other defenses available under this chapter or chapter 611.
To the extent that it states that subdivision 2 creates affirmative defenses to a charge under this section, subdivision 2 clarifies the original intent of the legislature in enacting Laws 1984, chapter 484, section 2, and does not change the substance of this section. Subdivision 2 does not modify or alter any convictions entered under this section before August 1, 1988.
A person who violates this section may be prosecuted and tried either in the county in which the child was taken, concealed, or detained or in the county of lawful residence of the child.
A child who has been concealed, obtained, or retained in violation of this section shall be returned to the person having lawful custody of the child or shall be taken into custody pursuant to section 260C.175, subdivision 1, clause (2), item (ii). In addition to any sentence imposed, the court may assess any expense incurred in returning the child against any person convicted of violating this section. The court may direct the appropriate county welfare agency to provide counseling services to a child who has been returned pursuant to this subdivision.
A felony charge brought under this section shall be dismissed if:
(a) the person voluntarily returns the child within 48 hours after taking, detaining, or failing to return the child in violation of this section; or
(b)(1) the person taking the action and the child have not left the state of Minnesota; and (2) within a period of seven days after taking the action, (i) a motion or proceeding under chapter 518, 518A, 518B, 518C, or 518D is commenced by the person taking the action, or (ii) the attorney representing the person taking the action has consented to service of process by the party whose rights are being deprived, for any motion or action pursuant to chapter 518, 518A, 518B, 518C, or 518D.
Clause (a) does not apply if the person returns the child as a result of being located by law enforcement authorities.
This subdivision does not prohibit the filing of felony charges or an offense report before the expiration of the 48 hours.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) and subdivision 5, whoever violates this section may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both; or
(2) to imprisonment for not more than four years or to payment of a fine of not more than $8,000, or both, if the court finds that:
(i) the defendant committed the violation while possessing a dangerous weapon or caused substantial bodily harm to effect the taking;
(ii) the defendant abused or neglected the child during the concealment, detention, or removal of the child;
(iii) the defendant inflicted or threatened to inflict physical harm on a parent or lawful custodian of the child or on the child with intent to cause the parent or lawful custodian to discontinue criminal prosecution;
(iv) the defendant demanded payment in exchange for return of the child or demanded to be relieved of the financial or legal obligation to support the child in exchange for return of the child; or
(v) the defendant has previously been convicted under this section or a similar statute of another jurisdiction.
(b) A violation of subdivision 1, clause (7), is a gross misdemeanor. The county attorney shall prosecute violations of subdivision 1, clause (7).
Any violation of this section shall be reported pursuant to section 626.556, subdivision 3a.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.26; 1967 c 570 s 1; 1979 c 263 s 1; 1984 c 484 s 2; 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58; 1985 c 227 s 1,2; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 445 s 1,2; 1986 c 463 s 4,5; 1987 c 246 s 1-3; 1988 c 523 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 7 s 3,4; 1991 c 285 s 10; 1994 c 631 s 31; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 25,26; 1999 c 86 art 1 s 78; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2; 2000 c 444 art 2 s 45,46; 2001 c 178 art 1 s 44; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 105; 2005 c 164 s 29; 1Sp2005 c 7 s 28
Whoever, for the purpose of marriage, takes a person under the age of 18 years, without the consent of the parents, guardian, or other person having legal custody of such person is guilty of abduction and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
The definitions in this section apply to sections 609.2114, subdivisions 1 and 2, and 609.2661 to 609.2691:
(a) "Unborn child" means the unborn offspring of a human being conceived, but not yet born.
(b) "Whoever" does not include the pregnant woman.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of murder of an unborn child in the first degree and must be sentenced to imprisonment for life:
(1) causes the death of an unborn child with premeditation and with intent to effect the death of the unborn child or of another;
(2) causes the death of an unborn child while committing or attempting to commit criminal sexual conduct in the first or second degree with force or violence, either upon or affecting the mother of the unborn child or another; or
(3) causes the death of an unborn child with intent to effect the death of the unborn child or another while committing or attempting to commit burglary, aggravated robbery, kidnapping, arson in the first or second degree, tampering with a witness in the first degree, or escape from custody.
Whoever does either of the following is guilty of murder of an unborn child in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 40 years:
(1) causes the death of an unborn child with intent to effect the death of that unborn child or another, but without premeditation; or
(2) causes the death of an unborn child, without intent to effect the death of any unborn child or person, while committing or attempting to commit a felony offense other than criminal sexual conduct in the first or second degree with force or violence.
Whoever, without intent to effect the death of any unborn child or person, causes the death of an unborn child by perpetrating an act eminently dangerous to others and evincing a depraved mind, without regard for human or fetal life, is guilty of murder of an unborn child in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 25 years.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both:
(1) intentionally causes the death of an unborn child in the heat of passion provoked by such words or acts of another as would provoke a person of ordinary self-control under like circumstances;
(2) causes the death of an unborn child in committing or attempting to commit a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor offense with such force or violence that death of or great bodily harm to any person or unborn child was reasonably foreseeable, and murder of an unborn child in the first or second degree was not committed thereby; or
(3) intentionally causes the death of an unborn child because the actor is coerced by threats made by someone other than the actor's coconspirator and which cause the actor to reasonably believe that the act performed by the actor is the only means of preventing imminent death to the actor or another.
1986 c 388 s 9; 1986 c 444
A person who causes the death of an unborn child by any of the following means is guilty of manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both:
(1) by the actor's culpable negligence whereby the actor creates an unreasonable risk and consciously takes chances of causing death or great bodily harm to an unborn child or a person;
(2) by shooting the mother of the unborn child with a firearm or other dangerous weapon as a result of negligently believing her to be a deer or other animal;
(3) by setting a spring gun, pit fall, deadfall, snare, or other like dangerous weapon or device; or
(4) by negligently or intentionally permitting any animal, known by the person to have vicious propensities or to have caused great or substantial bodily harm in the past, to run uncontrolled off the owner's premises, or negligently failing to keep it properly confined.
If proven by a preponderance of the evidence, it shall be an affirmative defense to criminal liability under clause (4) that the mother of the unborn child provoked the animal to cause the unborn child's death.
Whoever assaults a pregnant woman and inflicts great bodily harm on an unborn child who is subsequently born alive may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
Whoever assaults a pregnant woman and inflicts substantial bodily harm on an unborn child who is subsequently born alive may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
As used in this section, "substantial bodily harm" includes the birth of the unborn child prior to 37 weeks gestation if the child weighs 2,500 grams or less at the time of birth. "Substantial bodily harm" does not include the inducement of the unborn child's birth when done for bona fide medical purposes.
Whoever does any of the following commits an assault of an unborn child in the third degree and is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) commits an act with intent to cause fear in a pregnant woman of immediate bodily harm or death to the unborn child; or
(2) intentionally inflicts or attempts to inflict bodily harm on an unborn child who is subsequently born alive.
Whoever, in the commission of a felony or in a violation of section 609.224, 609.2242, 609.23, 609.231, 609.2325, or 609.233, causes the death of an unborn child is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine not more than $30,000, or both. As used in this subdivision, "felony" does not include a violation of sections 609.185 to 609.2114, 609.221 to 609.2231, or 609.2661 to 609.2665.
Whoever, in the commission of a felony or in a violation of section 609.23, 609.231, 609.2325 or 609.233, causes great or substantial bodily harm to an unborn child who is subsequently born alive, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both. As used in this subdivision, "felony" does not include a violation of sections 609.2112 to 609.2114, 609.221 to 609.2231, or 609.267 to 609.2672.
1986 c 388 s 14; 1995 c 229 art 4 s 17,18; 1995 c 259 art 3 s 16; 2014 c 180 s 9
Sections 609.2661 to 609.268 do not apply to any act described in section 145.412.
Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction under sections 609.2661 to 609.268 is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct.
Whoever orally or in writing makes any of the following threats and thereby causes another against the other's will to do any act or forbear doing a lawful act is guilty of coercion and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2:
(1) a threat to unlawfully inflict bodily harm upon, or hold in confinement, the person threatened or another, when robbery or attempt to rob is not committed thereby; or
(2) a threat to unlawfully inflict damage to the property of the person threatened or another; or
(3) a threat to unlawfully injure a trade, business, profession, or calling; or
(4) a threat to expose a secret or deformity, publish a defamatory statement, or otherwise to expose any person to disgrace or ridicule; or
(5) a threat to make or cause to be made a criminal charge, whether true or false; provided, that a warning of the consequences of a future violation of law given in good faith by a peace officer or prosecuting attorney to any person shall not be deemed a threat for the purposes of this section; or
(6) a threat to commit a violation under section 617.261.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both if neither the pecuniary gain received by the violator nor the loss suffered by the person threatened or another as a result of the threat exceeds $300, or the benefits received or harm sustained are not susceptible of pecuniary measurement; or
(2) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if such pecuniary gain or loss is more than $300 but less than $2,500; or
(3) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if such pecuniary gain or loss is $2,500, or more.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.27; 1971 c 23 s 40; 1977 c 355 s 7; 1983 c 359 s 87; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72; 2016 c 126 s 4
Whoever makes a threat within the meaning of section 609.27, subdivision 1, clauses (1) to (6), but fails to cause the intended act or forbearance, commits an attempt to coerce and may be punished as provided in section 609.17.
Whoever, by threats or violence, intentionally prevents another person from performing any lawful act enjoined upon or recommended to the person by the religion which the person professes is guilty of a misdemeanor.
A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who intentionally and physically obstructs any individual's access to or egress from a religious establishment. This subdivision does not apply to the exclusion of a person from the establishment at the request of an official of the religious organization.
For purposes of subdivision 2, a "religious establishment" is a building used for worship services by a religious organization and clearly identified as such by a posted sign or other means.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.28; 1971 c 23 s 41; 1986 c 444; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 27
As used in sections 609.281 to 609.284, the following terms have the meanings given.
"Blackmail" means a threat to expose any fact or alleged fact tending to cause shame or to subject any person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule.
"Debt bondage" means the status or condition of a debtor arising from a pledge by the debtor of the debtor's personal services or those of a person under the debtor's control as a security for debt, if the value of those services as reasonably assessed is not applied toward the liquidation of the debt or the length and nature of those services are not respectively limited and defined.
"Forced labor or services" means labor or services that are performed or provided by another person and are obtained or maintained through an actor's:
(1) threat, either implicit or explicit, scheme, plan, or pattern, or other action intended to cause a person to believe that, if the person did not perform or provide the labor or services, that person or another person would suffer bodily harm or physical restraint;
(2) physically restraining or threatening to physically restrain a person;
(3) abuse or threatened abuse of the legal process;
(4) knowingly destroying, concealing, removing, confiscating, or possessing any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person; or
(5) use of blackmail.
"Labor trafficking" means:
(1) the recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring, enticement, provision, obtaining, or receipt of a person by any means, for the purpose of:
(i) debt bondage or forced labor or services;
(ii) slavery or practices similar to slavery; or
(iii) the removal of organs through the use of coercion or intimidation; or
(2) receiving profit or anything of value, knowing or having reason to know it is derived from an act described in clause (1).
"Labor trafficking victim" means a person subjected to the practices in subdivision 5.
Whoever knowingly engages in the labor trafficking of an individual who is under the age of 18 is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $40,000, or both.
Whoever knowingly engages in the labor trafficking of another is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
In a prosecution under this section the consent or age of the victim is not a defense.
Unless the person's conduct constitutes a violation of section 609.282, a person who knowingly destroys, conceals, removes, confiscates, or possesses any actual or purported passport or other immigration document, or any other actual or purported government identification document, of another person:
(1) in the course of a violation of section 609.282 or 609.322;
(2) with intent to violate section 609.282 or 609.322; or
(3) to prevent or restrict or to attempt to prevent or restrict, without lawful authority, a person's liberty to move or travel, in order to maintain the labor or services of that person, when the person is or has been a victim of a violation of section 609.282 or 609.322;
is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2.
A person who violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the crime involves a victim under the age of 18, to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of $20,000, or both; or
(2) in other cases, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
In a prosecution under this section the consent or age of the victim is not a defense.
In an action under this section the consent or age of the victim is not a defense.
A labor trafficking victim may bring a cause of action against a person who violates section 609.282 or 609.283. The court may award damages, including punitive damages, reasonable attorney fees, and other litigation costs reasonably incurred by the victim. This remedy is in addition to potential criminal liability.
If a corporation or other business enterprise is convicted of violating section 609.282, 609.283, or 609.322, in addition to the criminal penalties described in those sections and other remedies provided elsewhere in law, the court may, when appropriate:
(1) order its dissolution or reorganization;
(2) order the suspension or revocation of any license, permit, or prior approval granted to it by a state agency; or
(3) order the surrender of its charter if it is organized under Minnesota law or the revocation of its certificate to conduct business in Minnesota if it is not organized under Minnesota law.
"Sodomy" means carnally knowing any person by the anus or by or with the mouth.
NOTE: The Hennepin County District Court found section 609.293 unconstitutional as applied to private, noncommercial acts by consenting adults in Doe v. Ventura, No. 01-489 (4th Dist. Ct. Hennepin County, May 15, 2001). In Devescovi v. Ventura, 195 F. Supp. 2d 1146 (D. Minn. 2002), the United States District Court found that, since the decision was not appealed, the Hennepin County District Court decision is binding state law.
Whoever carnally knows a dead body or an animal or bird is guilty of bestiality, which is a misdemeanor. If knowingly done in the presence of another the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000 or both.
1967 c 507 s 5; 1971 c 23 s 42; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whoever with intent to evade proceedings to establish his paternity leaves the state knowing that a woman with whom he has had sexual intercourse is pregnant or has given birth within the previous 60 days to a living child may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both.
For the purposes of sections 609.321 to 609.325, the following terms have the meanings given.
"Business of prostitution" means any arrangement between or organization of two or more persons, acting other than as prostitutes or patrons, who commit acts punishable under sections 609.321 to 609.324.
"Patron" means an individual who engages in prostitution by hiring, offering to hire, or agreeing to hire another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
"Place of prostitution" means a house or other place where prostitution is practiced.
"Promotes the prostitution of an individual" means any of the following wherein the person knowingly:
(1) solicits or procures patrons for a prostitute;
(2) provides, leases or otherwise permits premises or facilities owned or controlled by the person to aid the prostitution of an individual;
(3) owns, manages, supervises, controls, keeps or operates, either alone or with others, a place of prostitution to aid the prostitution of an individual;
(4) owns, manages, supervises, controls, operates, institutes, aids or facilitates, either alone or with others, a business of prostitution to aid the prostitution of an individual;
(5) admits a patron to a place of prostitution to aid the prostitution of an individual; or
(6) transports an individual from one point within this state to another point either within or without this state, or brings an individual into this state to aid the prostitution of the individual.
"Sex trafficking" means:
(1) receiving, recruiting, enticing, harboring, providing, or obtaining by any means an individual to aid in the prostitution of the individual; or
(2) receiving profit or anything of value, knowing or having reason to know it is derived from an act described in clause (1).
"Sex trafficking victim" means a person subjected to the practices in subdivision 7a.
"Prostitute" means an individual who engages in prostitution by being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
"Prostitution" means hiring, offering to hire, or agreeing to hire another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact, or being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
"Sexual contact" means any of the following acts, if the acts can reasonably be construed as being for the purpose of satisfying the actor's sexual impulses:
(i) the intentional touching by an individual of a prostitute's intimate parts; or
(ii) the intentional touching by a prostitute of another individual's intimate parts.
"Sexual penetration" means any of the following acts, if for the purpose of satisfying sexual impulses: sexual intercourse, cunnilingus, fellatio, anal intercourse, or any intrusion however slight into the genital or anal openings of an individual's body by any part of another individual's body or any object used for the purpose of satisfying sexual impulses. Emission of semen is not necessary.
A "public place" means a public street or sidewalk, a pedestrian skyway system as defined in section 469.125, subdivision 4, a hotel, motel, steam room, sauna, massage parlor, shopping mall and other public shopping areas, or other place of public accommodation, a place licensed to sell intoxicating liquor, wine, nonintoxicating malt beverages, or food, or a motor vehicle located on a public street, alley, or parking lot ordinarily used by or available to the public though not used as a matter of right and a driveway connecting such a parking lot with a street or highway.
"Place of public accommodation" means a business, accommodation, refreshment, entertainment, recreation, or transportation facility of any kind, whether licensed or not, whose goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations are extended, offered, sold, or otherwise made available to the public.
A "prior qualified human trafficking-related offense" means a conviction or delinquency adjudication within the ten years from the discharge from probation or parole immediately preceding the current offense for a violation of or an attempt to violate section 609.322, subdivision 1 (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking in the first degree); 609.322, subdivision 1a (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking in the second degree); 609.282 (labor trafficking); or 609.283 (unlawful conduct with respect to documents in furtherance of labor or sex trafficking).
1979 c 255 s 1; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 291 s 242; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 19-23; 2009 c 137 s 3-6; 2009 c 170 s 1; 1Sp2011 c 1 art 5 s 1-3
(a) Whoever, while acting other than as a prostitute or patron, intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $50,000, or both:
(1) solicits or induces an individual under the age of 18 years to practice prostitution;
(2) promotes the prostitution of an individual under the age of 18 years;
(3) receives profit, knowing or having reason to know that it is derived from the prostitution, or the promotion of the prostitution, of an individual under the age of 18 years; or
(4) engages in the sex trafficking of an individual under the age of 18 years.
(b) Whoever violates paragraph (a) or subdivision 1a may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 25 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $60,000, or both, if one or more of the following aggravating factors are present:
(1) the offender has committed a prior qualified human trafficking-related offense;
(2) the offense involved a sex trafficking victim who suffered bodily harm during the commission of the offense;
(3) the time period that a sex trafficking victim was held in debt bondage or forced labor or services exceeded 180 days; or
(4) the offense involved more than one sex trafficking victim.
Whoever, while acting other than as a prostitute or patron, intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $40,000, or both:
(1) solicits or induces an individual to practice prostitution;
(2) promotes the prostitution of an individual;
(3) receives profit, knowing or having reason to know that it is derived from the prostitution, or the promotion of the prostitution, of an individual; or
(4) engages in the sex trafficking of an individual.
Subdivisions 1, paragraph (a), clause (3), and 1a, clause (3), do not apply to:
(1) a minor who is dependent on an individual acting as a prostitute and who may have benefited from or been supported by the individual's earnings derived from prostitution; or
(2) a parent over the age of 55 who is dependent on an individual acting as a prostitute, who may have benefited from or been supported by the individual's earnings derived from prostitution, and who did not know that the earnings were derived from prostitution; or
(3) the sale of goods or services to a prostitute in the ordinary course of a lawful business.
Acts by the defendant in violation of any one or more of the provisions in this section within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of this section; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this subdivision.
1979 c 255 s 2; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 448 s 2; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 9; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 12-14; 2000 c 431 s 2; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 10 s 1; 2009 c 137 s 7
Any parent or guardian who knows or has reason to believe that a person, while acting as other than a prostitute or patron, is inducing, coercing, soliciting, or promoting the prostitution of the parent or guardian's minor child, or is offering or providing food, shelter, or other subsistence for the purpose of enabling the parent or guardian's minor child to engage in prostitution, may seek an order for protection in the manner provided in this section.
An application for relief under this section shall be filed in the juvenile court. Actions under this section shall be given docket priority by the court.
A petition for relief shall allege the existence of a circumstance or circumstances described in subdivision 1, and shall be accompanied by an affidavit made under oath stating the specific facts and circumstances from which relief is sought. The court shall provide simplified forms and clerical assistance to help with the writing and filing of a petition under this section.
(a) Upon receipt of the petition, the court shall order a hearing which shall be held no later than 14 days from the date of the order. Personal service shall be made upon the respondent not less than five days before the hearing. In the event that personal service cannot be completed in time to give the respondent the minimum notice required under this paragraph, the court may set a new hearing date.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a), service may be made by one week published notice, as provided under section 645.11, provided the petitioner files with the court an affidavit stating that an attempt at personal service made by a sheriff was unsuccessful because the respondent is avoiding service by concealment or otherwise, and that a copy of the petition and notice of hearing has been mailed to the respondent at the respondent's residence or that the residence is not known to the petitioner. Service under this paragraph is complete seven days after publication. The court shall set a new hearing date if necessary to allow the respondent the five-day minimum notice required under paragraph (a).
Upon notice and hearing, the court may order the respondent to return the minor child to the residence of the child's parents or guardian, and may order that the respondent cease and desist from committing further acts described in subdivision 1 and cease to have further contact with the minor child. Any relief granted by the court in the order for protection shall be for a fixed period of time determined by the court.
Any order issued under this section shall be served personally on the respondent. Upon the request of the petitioner, the court shall order the sheriff to assist in the execution or service of the order for protection.
(a) A violation of an order for protection shall constitute contempt of court and be subject to the penalties provided under chapter 588.
(b) Any person who willfully fails to return a minor child as required by an order for protection issued under this section commits an act which manifests an intent substantially to deprive the parent or guardian of custodial rights within the meaning of section 609.26, clause (3).
(a) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $40,000, or both:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 13 years;
(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 13 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact; or
(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to be under the age of 13 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
(b) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 16 years but at least 13 years;
(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 16 years but at least 13 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact; or
(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to be under the age of 16 years but at least 13 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
(c) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 18 years but at least 16 years;
(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 18 years but at least 16 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact; or
(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to be under the age of 18 years but at least 16 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
Any person, other than one related by blood, adoption, or marriage to the minor, who permits a minor to reside, temporarily or permanently, in the person's dwelling without the consent of the minor's parents or guardian, knowing or having reason to know that the minor is engaging in prostitution may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both; except that, this subdivision does not apply to residential placements made, sanctioned, or supervised by a public or private social service agency.
Whoever, while acting as a patron, intentionally does any of the following while in a public place is guilty of a gross misdemeanor:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual 18 years of age or older; or
(2) hires, offers to hire, or agrees to hire an individual 18 years of age or older to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 4, a person who is convicted of violating this subdivision must, at a minimum, be sentenced to pay a fine of at least $1,500.
(a) Whoever, while acting as a patron, intentionally does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual 18 years of age or older; or
(2) hires, offers to hire, or agrees to hire an individual 18 years of age or older to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact. Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 4, a person who is convicted of violating this paragraph must, at a minimum, be sentenced to pay a fine of at least $500.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of this subdivision within two years of a previous prostitution conviction for violating this section or section 609.322 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 4, a person who is convicted of violating this paragraph must, at a minimum, be sentenced as follows:
(1) to pay a fine of at least $1,500; and
(2) to serve 20 hours of community work service.
The court may waive the mandatory community work service if it makes specific, written findings that the community work service is not feasible or appropriate under the circumstances of the case.
The court may order a person convicted of violating subdivision 2 or 3 to perform community work service in lieu of all or a portion of the minimum fine required under those subdivisions if the court makes specific, written findings that the convicted person is indigent or that payment of the fine would create undue hardship for the convicted person or that person's immediate family. Community work service ordered under this subdivision is in addition to any mandatory community work service ordered under subdivision 3.
(a) When a court sentences a person convicted of violating this section while acting as a patron, the court shall determine whether the person used a motor vehicle during the commission of the offense and whether the person has previously been convicted of violating this section or section 609.322. If the court finds that the person used a motor vehicle during the commission of the offense, it shall forward its finding along with an indication of whether the person has previously been convicted of a prostitution offense to the commissioner of public safety who shall record the finding on the person's driving record. Except as provided in paragraph (b), the finding is classified as private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, but is accessible for law enforcement purposes.
(b) If the person has previously been convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.322, the finding is public data.
Whoever, while acting as a prostitute, intentionally does any of the following while in a public place is guilty of a gross misdemeanor:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual 18 years of age or older; or
(2) is hired, offers to be hired, or agrees to be hired by an individual 18 years of age or older to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
(a) Whoever, while acting as a prostitute, intentionally does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) engages in prostitution with an individual 18 years of age or older; or
(2) is hired, offers to be hired, or agrees to be hired by an individual 18 years of age or older to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of this subdivision within two years of a previous prostitution conviction for violating this section or section 609.322 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
1979 c 255 s 4; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 448 s 5,6; 1990 c 463 s 1-4; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 10 s 5; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72; 2009 c 137 s 8,9; 2009 c 170 s 2-4; 1Sp2011 c 1 art 5 s 4-7; 2015 c 65 art 6 s 11; 2016 c 189 art 4 s 15
(a) When a court sentences an adult convicted of violating section 609.322 or 609.324, while acting other than as a prostitute, the court shall impose an assessment of not less than $500 and not more than $750 for a violation of section 609.324, subdivision 2, or a misdemeanor violation of section 609.324, subdivision 3; otherwise the court shall impose an assessment of not less than $750 and not more than $1,000. The assessment shall be distributed as provided in paragraph (c) and is in addition to the surcharge required by section 357.021, subdivision 6.
(b) The court may not waive payment of the minimum assessment required by this section. If the defendant qualifies for the services of a public defender or the court finds on the record that the convicted person is indigent or that immediate payment of the assessment would create undue hardship for the convicted person or that person's immediate family, the court may reduce the amount of the minimum assessment to not less than $100. The court also may authorize payment of the assessment in installments.
(c) The assessment collected under paragraph (a) must be distributed as follows:
(1) 40 percent of the assessment shall be forwarded to the political subdivision that employs the arresting officer for use in enforcement, training, and education activities related to combating sexual exploitation of youth, or if the arresting officer is an employee of the state, this portion shall be forwarded to the commissioner of public safety for those purposes identified in clause (3);
(2) 20 percent of the assessment shall be forwarded to the prosecuting agency that handled the case for use in training and education activities relating to combating sexual exploitation activities of youth; and
(3) 40 percent of the assessment must be forwarded to the commissioner of health to be deposited in the safe harbor for youth account in the special revenue fund and are appropriated to the commissioner for distribution to crime victims services organizations that provide services to sexually exploited youth, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 31.
(d) A safe harbor for youth account is established as a special account in the state treasury.
1986 c 448 s 7; 1990 c 463 s 5; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 28; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 32; art 8 s 11; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 10 s 2; 1Sp2010 c 1 art 14 s 17; 1Sp2011 c 1 art 4 s 7; 2016 c 189 art 15 s 23
As used in this section:
(1) "park zone" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 12a; and
(2) "school zone" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 14a, and also includes school bus stops established by a school board under section 123B.88, while school children are waiting for the bus.
Any person who commits a violation of section 609.324 while acting other than as a prostitute while in a school or park zone may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the crime committed is a felony, the statutory maximum for the crime is three years longer than the statutory maximum for the underlying crime;
(2) if the crime committed is a gross misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both; and
(3) if the crime committed is a misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
A person who loiters in a public place with intent to participate in prostitution is guilty of a misdemeanor.
It shall be no defense to a prosecution under section 609.322 that an individual solicited or induced to practice prostitution or whose prostitution was promoted, did not actually engage in prostitution.
Consent or mistake as to age shall be no defense to prosecutions under section 609.322 or 609.324.
It shall be no defense to actions under section 609.322 that the individual solicited or induced to practice prostitution, or whose prostitution was promoted, had engaged in prostitution prior to that solicitation, inducement, or promotion.
The fact that an undercover operative or law enforcement officer was involved in the detection or investigation of an offense shall not be a defense to a prosecution under section 609.324.
It is an affirmative defense to a charge under section 609.324, subdivision 6 or 7, if the defendant proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant is a labor trafficking victim, as defined in section 609.281, or a sex trafficking victim, as defined in section 609.321, and that the defendant committed the acts underlying the charge as a result of being a labor trafficking or sex trafficking victim.
1979 c 255 s 5; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 29; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 32; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 25; 2015 c 65 art 6 s 12,13
The marital privilege provided for in section 595.02 shall not apply in any proceeding under section 609.322.
For the purpose of this section, "disorderly house" means a building, dwelling, place, establishment, or premises in which actions or conduct habitually occur in violation of laws relating to:
(1) the sale of intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor;
(2) gambling;
(3) prostitution as defined in section 609.321, subdivision 9, or acts relating to prostitution; or
(4) the sale or possession of controlled substances as defined in section 152.01, subdivision 4.
No person may own, lease, operate, manage, maintain, or conduct a disorderly house, or invite or attempt to invite others to visit or remain in the disorderly house. A violation of this subdivision is a gross misdemeanor.
(a) If a person is convicted of a first violation of subdivision 2, in addition to any sentence of imprisonment authorized by subdivision 2 which the court may impose, the court shall impose a fine of not less than $300 nor more than $3,000.
(b) If a person is convicted of a second violation of subdivision 2, in addition to any sentence of imprisonment authorized by subdivision 2 which the court may impose, the court shall impose a fine of not less than $500 nor more than $3,000.
(c) If a person is convicted of a third or subsequent violation of subdivision 2, in addition to any sentence of imprisonment authorized by subdivision 2 which the court may impose, the court shall impose a fine of not less than $1,000 nor more than $3,000.
Evidence of unlawful sales of intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor, of unlawful possession or sale of controlled substances, of prostitution or acts relating to prostitution, or of gambling or acts relating to gambling, is prima facie evidence of the existence of a disorderly house. Evidence of sales of intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor between the hours of 1:00 a.m. and 8:00 a.m., while a person is within a disorderly house, is prima facie evidence that the person knew it to be a disorderly house.
Subdivisions 1 to 4 do not prohibit or restrict a local governmental unit from imposing more restrictive provisions.
When a person is charged under this section with owning or leasing a disorderly house, the court may require as a condition of pretrial release that the defendant bring an eviction action against a lessee who has violated the covenant not to allow drugs established by section 504B.171.
1967 c 507 s 10; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 277 s 1; 1989 c 77 s 1; 1991 c 193 s 3; 1991 c 249 s 31; 1999 c 199 art 2 s 33; 2003 c 2 art 2 s 18
When any man and single woman have sexual intercourse with each other, each is guilty of fornication, which is a misdemeanor.
For the purposes of sections 609.341 to 609.351, the terms in this section have the meanings given them.
"Force" means the infliction, attempted infliction, or threatened infliction by the actor of bodily harm or commission or threat of any other crime by the actor against the complainant or another, which (a) causes the complainant to reasonably believe that the actor has the present ability to execute the threat and (b) if the actor does not have a significant relationship to the complainant, also causes the complainant to submit.
(a) "Consent" means words or overt actions by a person indicating a freely given present agreement to perform a particular sexual act with the actor. Consent does not mean the existence of a prior or current social relationship between the actor and the complainant or that the complainant failed to resist a particular sexual act.
(b) A person who is mentally incapacitated or physically helpless as defined by this section cannot consent to a sexual act.
(c) Corroboration of the victim's testimony is not required to show lack of consent.
"Intimate parts" includes the primary genital area, groin, inner thigh, buttocks, or breast of a human being.
"Mentally impaired" means that a person, as a result of inadequately developed or impaired intelligence or a substantial psychiatric disorder of thought or mood, lacks the judgment to give a reasoned consent to sexual contact or to sexual penetration.
"Mentally incapacitated" means that a person under the influence of alcohol, a narcotic, anesthetic, or any other substance, administered to that person without the person's agreement, lacks the judgment to give a reasoned consent to sexual contact or sexual penetration.
"Personal injury" means bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7, or severe mental anguish or pregnancy.
"Physically helpless" means that a person is (a) asleep or not conscious, (b) unable to withhold consent or to withdraw consent because of a physical condition, or (c) unable to communicate nonconsent and the condition is known or reasonably should have been known to the actor.
"Position of authority" includes but is not limited to any person who is a parent or acting in the place of a parent and charged with any of a parent's rights, duties or responsibilities to a child, or a person who is charged with any duty or responsibility for the health, welfare, or supervision of a child, either independently or through another, no matter how brief, at the time of the act. For the purposes of subdivision 11, "position of authority" includes a psychotherapist.
(a) "Sexual contact," for the purposes of sections 609.343, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f), and 609.345, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (e), and (h) to (o), includes any of the following acts committed without the complainant's consent, except in those cases where consent is not a defense, and committed with sexual or aggressive intent:
(i) the intentional touching by the actor of the complainant's intimate parts, or
(ii) the touching by the complainant of the actor's, the complainant's, or another's intimate parts effected by a person in a position of authority, or by coercion, or by inducement if the complainant is under 13 years of age or mentally impaired, or
(iii) the touching by another of the complainant's intimate parts effected by coercion or by a person in a position of authority, or
(iv) in any of the cases above, the touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the intimate parts, or
(v) the intentional touching with seminal fluid or sperm by the actor of the complainant's body or the clothing covering the complainant's body.
(b) "Sexual contact," for the purposes of sections 609.343, subdivision 1, clauses (g) and (h), and 609.345, subdivision 1, clauses (f) and (g), includes any of the following acts committed with sexual or aggressive intent:
(i) the intentional touching by the actor of the complainant's intimate parts;
(ii) the touching by the complainant of the actor's, the complainant's, or another's intimate parts;
(iii) the touching by another of the complainant's intimate parts;
(iv) in any of the cases listed above, touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the intimate parts; or
(v) the intentional touching with seminal fluid or sperm by the actor of the complainant's body or the clothing covering the complainant's body.
(c) "Sexual contact with a person under 13" means the intentional touching of the complainant's bare genitals or anal opening by the actor's bare genitals or anal opening with sexual or aggressive intent or the touching by the complainant's bare genitals or anal opening of the actor's or another's bare genitals or anal opening with sexual or aggressive intent.
"Sexual penetration" means any of the following acts committed without the complainant's consent, except in those cases where consent is not a defense, whether or not emission of semen occurs:
(1) sexual intercourse, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal intercourse; or
(2) any intrusion however slight into the genital or anal openings:
(i) of the complainant's body by any part of the actor's body or any object used by the actor for this purpose;
(ii) of the complainant's body by any part of the body of the complainant, by any part of the body of another person, or by any object used by the complainant or another person for this purpose, when effected by a person in a position of authority, or by coercion, or by inducement if the child is under 13 years of age or mentally impaired; or
(iii) of the body of the actor or another person by any part of the body of the complainant or by any object used by the complainant for this purpose, when effected by a person in a position of authority, or by coercion, or by inducement if the child is under 13 years of age or mentally impaired.
"Complainant" means a person alleged to have been subjected to criminal sexual conduct, but need not be the person who signs the complaint.
"Coercion" means the use by the actor of words or circumstances that cause the complainant reasonably to fear that the actor will inflict bodily harm upon the complainant or another, or the use by the actor of confinement, or superior size or strength, against the complainant that causes the complainant to submit to sexual penetration or contact against the complainant's will. Proof of coercion does not require proof of a specific act or threat.
"Significant relationship" means a situation in which the actor is:
(1) the complainant's parent, stepparent, or guardian;
(2) any of the following persons related to the complainant by blood, marriage, or adoption: brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, first cousin, aunt, uncle, nephew, niece, grandparent, great-grandparent, great-uncle, great-aunt; or
(3) an adult who jointly resides intermittently or regularly in the same dwelling as the complainant and who is not the complainant's spouse.
"Psychotherapist" means a person who is or purports to be a physician, psychologist, nurse, chemical dependency counselor, social worker, marriage and family therapist, licensed professional counselor, or other mental health service provider; or any other person, whether or not licensed by the state, who performs or purports to perform psychotherapy.
"Psychotherapy" means the professional treatment, assessment, or counseling of a mental or emotional illness, symptom, or condition.
"Emotionally dependent" means that the nature of the former patient's emotional condition and the nature of the treatment provided by the psychotherapist are such that the psychotherapist knows or has reason to know that the former patient is unable to withhold consent to sexual contact or sexual penetration by the psychotherapist.
"Therapeutic deception" means a representation by a psychotherapist that sexual contact or sexual penetration by the psychotherapist is consistent with or part of the patient's treatment.
"Special transportation service" means motor vehicle transportation provided on a regular basis by a public or private entity or person that is intended exclusively or primarily to serve individuals who are vulnerable adults or disabled. Special transportation service includes, but is not limited to, service provided by buses, vans, taxis, and volunteers driving private automobiles.
"Predatory crime" means a felony violation of section 609.185 (first-degree murder), 609.19 (second-degree murder), 609.195 (third-degree murder), 609.20 (first-degree manslaughter), 609.205 (second-degree manslaughter), 609.221 (first-degree assault), 609.222 (second-degree assault), 609.223 (third-degree assault), 609.24 (simple robbery), 609.245 (aggravated robbery), 609.25 (kidnapping), 609.255 (false imprisonment), 609.498 (tampering with a witness), 609.561 (first-degree arson), or 609.582, subdivision 1 (first-degree burglary).
"Secure treatment facility" has the meaning given in sections 253B.02, subdivision 18a, and 253D.02, subdivision 13.
1975 c 374 s 2; 1977 c 130 s 8; 1979 c 258 s 9-11; 1981 c 51 s 1; 1982 c 385 s 1; 1982 c 469 s 9; 1984 c 525 s 3; 1984 c 588 s 5,6; 1985 c 24 s 3,4; 1985 c 286 s 14; 1985 c 297 s 1-5; 1986 c 351 s 6,7; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 198 s 1-3; 1987 c 347 art 1 s 22; 1988 c 413 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 4 s 11; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 17-19; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 30-33; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 18; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 5,6; 2001 c 210 s 21; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 106; 2002 c 381 s 1; 2003 c 118 s 22; 2005 c 56 s 1; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 10,11; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 3; 2009 c 59 art 1 s 5; 2010 c 270 s 1; 2013 c 49 s 22
A person who engages in sexual penetration with another person, or in sexual contact with a person under 13 years of age as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 11, paragraph (c), is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the first degree if any of the following circumstances exists:
(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is more than 36 months older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(b) the complainant is at least 13 years of age but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than 48 months older than the complainant and in a position of authority over the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(c) circumstances existing at the time of the act cause the complainant to have a reasonable fear of imminent great bodily harm to the complainant or another;
(d) the actor is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;
(e) the actor causes personal injury to the complainant, and either of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish sexual penetration; or
(ii) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired, mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;
(f) the actor is aided or abetted by one or more accomplices within the meaning of section 609.05, and either of the following circumstances exists:
(i) an accomplice uses force or coercion to cause the complainant to submit; or
(ii) an accomplice is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the complainant reasonably to believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;
(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was under 16 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense; or
(h) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was under 16 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration, and:
(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the penetration;
(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or
(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.
Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, a person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 30 years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $40,000, or both.
(b) Unless a longer mandatory minimum sentence is otherwise required by law or the Sentencing Guidelines provide for a longer presumptive executed sentence, the court shall presume that an executed sentence of 144 months must be imposed on an offender convicted of violating this section. Sentencing a person in a manner other than that described in this paragraph is a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
(c) A person convicted under this section is also subject to conditional release under section 609.3455.
Except when imprisonment is required under section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, if a person is convicted under subdivision 1, clause (g), the court may stay imposition or execution of the sentence if it finds that:
(a) a stay is in the best interest of the complainant or the family unit; and
(b) a professional assessment indicates that the offender has been accepted by and can respond to a treatment program.
If the court stays imposition or execution of sentence, it shall include the following as conditions of probation:
(1) incarceration in a local jail or workhouse;
(2) a requirement that the offender complete a treatment program; and
(3) a requirement that the offender have no unsupervised contact with the complainant until the offender has successfully completed the treatment program unless approved by the treatment program and the supervising correctional agent.
1975 c 374 s 3; 1981 c 51 s 2; 1983 c 204 s 1; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 24 s 5; 1985 c 286 s 15; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 290 art 4 s 12; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 14; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 34; 1995 c 186 s 99; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 7; art 6 s 15; 2000 c 311 art 4 s 2; 2000 c 437 s 10; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 12,13; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37
A person who engages in sexual contact with another person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the second degree if any of the following circumstances exists:
(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is more than 36 months older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense. In a prosecution under this clause, the state is not required to prove that the sexual contact was coerced;
(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than 48 months older than the complainant and in a position of authority over the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(c) circumstances existing at the time of the act cause the complainant to have a reasonable fear of imminent great bodily harm to the complainant or another;
(d) the actor is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses or threatens to use the dangerous weapon to cause the complainant to submit;
(e) the actor causes personal injury to the complainant, and either of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish the sexual contact; or
(ii) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired, mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;
(f) the actor is aided or abetted by one or more accomplices within the meaning of section 609.05, and either of the following circumstances exists:
(i) an accomplice uses force or coercion to cause the complainant to submit; or
(ii) an accomplice is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;
(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was under 16 years of age at the time of the sexual contact. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense; or
(h) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was under 16 years of age at the time of the sexual contact, and:
(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the contact;
(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or
(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.
Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, a person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 25 years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both.
(b) Unless a longer mandatory minimum sentence is otherwise required by law or the Sentencing Guidelines provide for a longer presumptive executed sentence, the court shall presume that an executed sentence of 90 months must be imposed on an offender convicted of violating subdivision 1, clause (c), (d), (e), (f), or (h). Sentencing a person in a manner other than that described in this paragraph is a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
(c) A person convicted under this section is also subject to conditional release under section 609.3455.
Except when imprisonment is required under section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, if a person is convicted under subdivision 1, clause (g), the court may stay imposition or execution of the sentence if it finds that:
(a) a stay is in the best interest of the complainant or the family unit; and
(b) a professional assessment indicates that the offender has been accepted by and can respond to a treatment program.
If the court stays imposition or execution of sentence, it shall include the following as conditions of probation:
(1) incarceration in a local jail or workhouse;
(2) a requirement that the offender complete a treatment program; and
(3) a requirement that the offender have no unsupervised contact with the complainant until the offender has successfully completed the treatment program unless approved by the treatment program and the supervising correctional agent.
1975 c 374 s 4; 1979 c 258 s 12; 1981 c 51 s 3; 1983 c 204 s 2; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 24 s 6; 1985 c 286 s 16; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 290 art 4 s 13; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 15; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 8; art 6 s 15; 2000 c 437 s 11; 2002 c 381 s 2; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 14,15; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37
A person who engages in sexual penetration with another person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the third degree if any of the following circumstances exists:
(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is no more than 36 months older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant shall be a defense;
(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than 24 months older than the complainant. In any such case if the actor is no more than 120 months older than the complainant, it shall be an affirmative defense, which must be proved by a preponderance of the evidence, that the actor reasonably believes the complainant to be 16 years of age or older. In all other cases, mistake as to the complainant's age shall not be a defense. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(c) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish the penetration;
(d) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired, mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;
(e) the complainant is at least 16 but less than 18 years of age and the actor is more than 48 months older than the complainant and in a position of authority over the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(f) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration, and:
(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the penetration;
(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or
(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.
Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(h) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient of the psychotherapist and the sexual penetration occurred:
(i) during the psychotherapy session; or
(ii) outside the psychotherapy session if an ongoing psychotherapist-patient relationship exists.
Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(i) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a former patient of the psychotherapist and the former patient is emotionally dependent upon the psychotherapist;
(j) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient or former patient and the sexual penetration occurred by means of therapeutic deception. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(k) the actor accomplishes the sexual penetration by means of deception or false representation that the penetration is for a bona fide medical purpose. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(1) the actor is or purports to be a member of the clergy, the complainant is not married to the actor, and:
(i) the sexual penetration occurred during the course of a meeting in which the complainant sought or received religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort from the actor in private; or
(ii) the sexual penetration occurred during a period of time in which the complainant was meeting on an ongoing basis with the actor to seek or receive religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort in private. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(m) the actor is an employee, independent contractor, or volunteer of a state, county, city, or privately operated adult or juvenile correctional system, or secure treatment facility, or treatment facility providing services to clients civilly committed as mentally ill and dangerous, sexually dangerous persons, or sexual psychopathic personalities, including, but not limited to, jails, prisons, detention centers, or work release facilities, and the complainant is a resident of a facility or under supervision of the correctional system. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(n) the actor provides or is an agent of an entity that provides special transportation service, the complainant used the special transportation service, and the sexual penetration occurred during or immediately before or after the actor transported the complainant. Consent by the complainant is not a defense; or
(o) the actor performs massage or other bodywork for hire, the complainant was a user of one of those services, and nonconsensual sexual penetration occurred during or immediately before or after the actor performed or was hired to perform one of those services for the complainant.
Except as otherwise provided in section 609.3455, a person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both; or
(2) if the person was convicted under subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and if the actor was no more than 48 months but more than 24 months older than the complainant, to imprisonment for not more than five years or a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
A person convicted under this section is also subject to conditional release under section 609.3455.
Except when imprisonment is required under section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, if a person is convicted under subdivision 1, clause (f), the court may stay imposition or execution of the sentence if it finds that:
(a) a stay is in the best interest of the complainant or the family unit; and
(b) a professional assessment indicates that the offender has been accepted by and can respond to a treatment program.
If the court stays imposition or execution of sentence, it shall include the following as conditions of probation:
(1) incarceration in a local jail or workhouse;
(2) a requirement that the offender complete a treatment program; and
(3) a requirement that the offender have no unsupervised contact with the complainant until the offender has successfully completed the treatment program unless approved by the treatment program and the supervising correctional agent.
1975 c 374 s 5; 1979 c 258 s 13; 1983 c 204 s 3; 1984 c 588 s 7; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 24 s 7; 1985 c 286 s 17; 1985 c 297 s 6; 1986 c 351 s 8; 1986 c 444; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 80; 1987 c 94 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 4 s 14; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 16,17; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 20; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 35; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 9; art 6 s 15; 2000 c 437 s 12; 2001 c 210 s 22; 2002 c 381 s 3; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 16,17; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 4; 2010 c 270 s 2; 2014 c 259 s 5,6
A person who engages in sexual contact with another person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree if any of the following circumstances exists:
(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is no more than 36 months older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age or consent to the act by the complainant is a defense. In a prosecution under this clause, the state is not required to prove that the sexual contact was coerced;
(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than 48 months older than the complainant or in a position of authority over the complainant. Consent by the complainant to the act is not a defense. In any such case, if the actor is no more than 120 months older than the complainant, it shall be an affirmative defense which must be proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the actor reasonably believes the complainant to be 16 years of age or older. In all other cases, mistake as to the complainant's age shall not be a defense;
(c) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish the sexual contact;
(d) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired, mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;
(e) the complainant is at least 16 but less than 18 years of age and the actor is more than 48 months older than the complainant and in a position of authority over the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(f) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual contact. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual contact, and:
(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the contact;
(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or
(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.
Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;
(h) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient of the psychotherapist and the sexual contact occurred:
(i) during the psychotherapy session; or
(ii) outside the psychotherapy session if an ongoing psychotherapist-patient relationship exists. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(i) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a former patient of the psychotherapist and the former patient is emotionally dependent upon the psychotherapist;
(j) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient or former patient and the sexual contact occurred by means of therapeutic deception. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(k) the actor accomplishes the sexual contact by means of deception or false representation that the contact is for a bona fide medical purpose. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(1) the actor is or purports to be a member of the clergy, the complainant is not married to the actor, and:
(i) the sexual contact occurred during the course of a meeting in which the complainant sought or received religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort from the actor in private; or
(ii) the sexual contact occurred during a period of time in which the complainant was meeting on an ongoing basis with the actor to seek or receive religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort in private. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(m) the actor is an employee, independent contractor, or volunteer of a state, county, city, or privately operated adult or juvenile correctional system, or secure treatment facility, or treatment facility providing services to clients civilly committed as mentally ill and dangerous, sexually dangerous persons, or sexual psychopathic personalities, including, but not limited to, jails, prisons, detention centers, or work release facilities, and the complainant is a resident of a facility or under supervision of the correctional system. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;
(n) the actor provides or is an agent of an entity that provides special transportation service, the complainant used the special transportation service, the complainant is not married to the actor, and the sexual contact occurred during or immediately before or after the actor transported the complainant. Consent by the complainant is not a defense; or
(o) the actor performs massage or other bodywork for hire, the complainant was a user of one of those services, and nonconsensual sexual contact occurred during or immediately before or after the actor performed or was hired to perform one of those services for the complainant.
Except as otherwise provided in section 609.3455, a person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both. A person convicted under this section is also subject to conditional release under section 609.3455.
Except when imprisonment is required under section 609.3455; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, if a person is convicted under subdivision 1, clause (f), the court may stay imposition or execution of the sentence if it finds that:
(a) a stay is in the best interest of the complainant or the family unit; and
(b) a professional assessment indicates that the offender has been accepted by and can respond to a treatment program.
If the court stays imposition or execution of sentence, it shall include the following as conditions of probation:
(1) incarceration in a local jail or workhouse;
(2) a requirement that the offender complete a treatment program; and
(3) a requirement that the offender have no unsupervised contact with the complainant until the offender has successfully completed the treatment program unless approved by the treatment program and the supervising correctional agent.
1975 c 374 s 6; 1976 c 124 s 9; 1979 c 258 s 14; 1981 c 51 s 4; 1983 c 204 s 4; 1984 c 588 s 8; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 24 s 8; 1985 c 286 s 18; 1985 c 297 s 7; 1986 c 351 s 9; 1986 c 444; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 81; 1987 c 94 s 2; 1989 c 290 art 4 s 15; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 18,19; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 21; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 36; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 10; art 6 s 15; 2000 c 437 s 13; 2001 c 210 s 23; 2002 c 381 s 4; 2005 c 136 art 2 s 18,19; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 5; 2010 c 270 s 3
A person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree:
(1) if the person engages in nonconsensual sexual contact; or
(2) the person engages in masturbation or lewd exhibition of the genitals in the presence of a minor under the age of 16, knowing or having reason to know the minor is present.
For purposes of this section, "sexual contact" has the meaning given in section 609.341, subdivision 11, paragraph (a), clauses (i), (iv), and (v), but does not include the intentional touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the buttocks. Sexual contact also includes the intentional removal or attempted removal of clothing covering the complainant's intimate parts or undergarments, and the nonconsensual touching by the complainant of the actor's intimate parts, effected by the actor, if the action is performed with sexual or aggressive intent.
A person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to a payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(a) A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both, if the person violates this section within seven years of:
(1) a previous conviction for violating subdivision 1, clause (2), a crime described in paragraph (b), or a statute from another state in conformity with any of these offenses; or
(2) the first of two or more previous convictions for violating subdivision 1, clause (1), or a statute from another state in conformity with this offense.
(b) A previous conviction for violating section 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3453; 617.23, subdivision 2, clause (2), or subdivision 3; or 617.247 may be used to enhance a criminal penalty as provided in paragraph (a).
1988 c 529 s 2; 1990 c 492 s 1; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 19; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 26,27; 1998 c 367 art 3 s 11; 2014 c 270 s 2; 2015 c 65 art 6 s 14
A person is guilty of criminal sexual predatory conduct if the person commits a predatory crime that was motivated by the offender's sexual impulses or was part of a predatory pattern of behavior that had criminal sexual conduct as its goal.
(a) Except as provided in section 609.3455, the statutory maximum sentence for a violation of subdivision 1 is: (1) 25 percent longer than for the underlying predatory crime; or (2) 50 percent longer than for the underlying predatory crime, if the violation is committed by a person with a previous sex offense conviction, as defined in section 609.3455, subdivision 1.
(b) In addition to the sentence imposed under paragraph (a), the person may also be sentenced to the payment of a fine of not more than $20,000.
(c) A person convicted under this section is also subject to conditional release under section 609.3455.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Conviction" includes a conviction as an extended jurisdiction juvenile under section 260B.130 for a violation of, or an attempt to violate, section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, or 609.3453, if the adult sentence has been executed.
(c) "Extreme inhumane conditions" mean situations where, either before or after the sexual penetration or sexual contact, the offender knowingly causes or permits the complainant to be placed in a situation likely to cause the complainant severe ongoing mental, emotional, or psychological harm, or causes the complainant's death.
(d) A "heinous element" includes:
(1) the offender tortured the complainant;
(2) the offender intentionally inflicted great bodily harm upon the complainant;
(3) the offender intentionally mutilated the complainant;
(4) the offender exposed the complainant to extreme inhumane conditions;
(5) the offender was armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and used or threatened to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;
(6) the offense involved sexual penetration or sexual contact with more than one victim;
(7) the offense involved more than one perpetrator engaging in sexual penetration or sexual contact with the complainant; or
(8) the offender, without the complainant's consent, removed the complainant from one place to another and did not release the complainant in a safe place.
(e) "Mutilation" means the intentional infliction of physical abuse designed to cause serious permanent disfigurement or permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the functions of any bodily member or organ, where the offender relishes the infliction of the abuse, evidencing debasement or perversion.
(f) A conviction is considered a "previous sex offense conviction" if the offender was convicted and sentenced for a sex offense before the commission of the present offense.
(g) A conviction is considered a "prior sex offense conviction" if the offender was convicted of committing a sex offense before the offender has been convicted of the present offense, regardless of whether the offender was convicted for the first offense before the commission of the present offense, and the convictions involved separate behavioral incidents.
(h) "Sex offense" means any violation of, or attempt to violate, section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, 609.3453, or any similar statute of the United States, this state, or any other state.
(i) "Torture" means the intentional infliction of extreme mental anguish, or extreme psychological or physical abuse, when committed in an especially depraved manner.
(j) An offender has "two previous sex offense convictions" only if the offender was convicted and sentenced for a sex offense committed after the offender was earlier convicted and sentenced for a sex offense and both convictions preceded the commission of the present offense of conviction.
(a) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum penalty otherwise applicable to the offense, the court shall sentence a person convicted under section 609.342, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), (d), (e), (f), or (h); or 609.343, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), (d), (e), (f), or (h), to life without the possibility of release if:
(1) the fact finder determines that two or more heinous elements exist; or
(2) the person has a previous sex offense conviction for a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, or 609.344, and the fact finder determines that a heinous element exists for the present offense.
(b) A fact finder may not consider a heinous element if it is an element of the underlying specified violation of section 609.342 or 609.343. In addition, when determining whether two or more heinous elements exist, the fact finder may not use the same underlying facts to support a determination that more than one element exists.
(a) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum penalty otherwise applicable to the offense, the court shall sentence a person to imprisonment for life if the person is convicted under section 609.342, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), (d), (e), (f), or (h), or 609.343, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), (d), (e), (f), or (h); and the fact finder determines that a heinous element exists.
(b) The fact finder may not consider a heinous element if it is an element of the underlying specified violation of section 609.342 or 609.343.
(a) A court shall commit a person to the commissioner of corrections for a period of time that is not less than double the presumptive sentence under the sentencing guidelines and not more than the statutory maximum, or if the statutory maximum is less than double the presumptive sentence, for a period of time that is equal to the statutory maximum, if:
(1) the court is imposing an executed sentence on a person convicted of committing or attempting to commit a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453;
(2) the fact finder determines that the offender is a danger to public safety; and
(3) the fact finder determines that the offender's criminal sexual behavior is so engrained that the risk of reoffending is great without intensive psychotherapeutic intervention or other long-term treatment or supervision extending beyond the presumptive term of imprisonment and supervised release.
(b) The fact finder shall base its determination that the offender is a danger to public safety on any of the following factors:
(1) the crime involved an aggravating factor that would justify a durational departure from the presumptive sentence under the sentencing guidelines;
(2) the offender previously committed or attempted to commit a predatory crime or a violation of section 609.224 or 609.2242, including:
(i) an offense committed as a juvenile that would have been a predatory crime or a violation of section 609.224 or 609.2242 if committed by an adult; or
(ii) a violation or attempted violation of a similar law of any other state or the United States; or
(3) the offender planned or prepared for the crime prior to its commission.
(c) As used in this section, "predatory crime" has the meaning given in section 609.341, subdivision 22.
(a) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum penalty otherwise applicable to the offense, the court shall sentence a person to imprisonment for life if the person is convicted of violating section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453 and:
(1) the person has two previous sex offense convictions;
(2) the person has a previous sex offense conviction and:
(i) the fact finder determines that the present offense involved an aggravating factor that would provide grounds for an upward durational departure under the sentencing guidelines other than the aggravating factor applicable to repeat criminal sexual conduct convictions;
(ii) the person received an upward durational departure from the sentencing guidelines for the previous sex offense conviction; or
(iii) the person was sentenced under this section or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.108, for the previous sex offense conviction; or
(3) the person has two prior sex offense convictions, and the fact finder determines that the prior convictions and present offense involved at least three separate victims, and:
(i) the fact finder determines that the present offense involved an aggravating factor that would provide grounds for an upward durational departure under the sentencing guidelines other than the aggravating factor applicable to repeat criminal sexual conduct convictions;
(ii) the person received an upward durational departure from the sentencing guidelines for one of the prior sex offense convictions; or
(iii) the person was sentenced under this section or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.108, for one of the prior sex offense convictions.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a court may not sentence a person to imprisonment for life for a violation of section 609.345, unless the person's previous or prior sex offense convictions that are being used as the basis for the sentence are for violations of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, or 609.3453, or any similar statute of the United States, this state, or any other state.
At the time of sentencing under subdivision 3 or 4, the court shall specify a minimum term of imprisonment, based on the sentencing guidelines or any applicable mandatory minimum sentence, that must be served before the offender may be considered for supervised release.
Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence otherwise applicable to the offense and unless a longer conditional release term is required in subdivision 7, when a court commits an offender to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453, the court shall provide that, after the offender has been released from prison, the commissioner shall place the offender on conditional release for ten years.
(a) When a court sentences an offender under subdivision 3 or 4, the court shall provide that, if the offender is released from prison, the commissioner of corrections shall place the offender on conditional release for the remainder of the offender's life.
(b) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence otherwise applicable to the offense, when the court commits an offender to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453, and the offender has a previous or prior sex offense conviction, the court shall provide that, after the offender has been released from prison, the commissioner shall place the offender on conditional release for the remainder of the offender's life.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), an offender may not be placed on lifetime conditional release for a violation of section 609.345, unless the offender's previous or prior sex offense conviction is for a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, or 609.3453, or any similar statute of the United States, this state, or any other state.
(a) The provisions of this subdivision relating to conditional release apply to all sex offenders sentenced to prison for a violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453. Except as provided in this subdivision, conditional release of sex offenders is governed by provisions relating to supervised release. The commissioner of corrections may not dismiss an offender on conditional release from supervision until the offender's conditional release term expires.
(b) The conditions of release may include successful completion of treatment and aftercare in a program approved by the commissioner, satisfaction of the release conditions specified in section 244.05, subdivision 6, and any other conditions the commissioner considers appropriate. The commissioner shall develop a plan to pay the cost of treatment of a person released under this subdivision. The plan may include co-payments from offenders, third-party payers, local agencies, or other funding sources as they are identified. This section does not require the commissioner to accept or retain an offender in a treatment program. Before the offender is placed on conditional release, the commissioner shall notify the sentencing court and the prosecutor in the jurisdiction where the offender was sentenced of the terms of the offender's conditional release. The commissioner also shall make reasonable efforts to notify the victim of the offender's crime of the terms of the offender's conditional release.
(c) If the offender fails to meet any condition of release, the commissioner may revoke the offender's conditional release and order that the offender serve all or a part of the remaining portion of the conditional release term in prison. An offender, while on supervised release, is not entitled to credit against the offender's conditional release term for time served in confinement for a violation of release.
The provisions of this section do not affect the applicability of Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.108, to crimes committed before August 1, 2005, or the validity of sentences imposed under Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.108.
Except as provided in subdivision 2, 3, 3a, or 4, if a person is convicted under sections 609.342 to 609.345 or 609.3453 within 15 years of a previous sex offense conviction, the court shall commit the defendant to the commissioner of corrections for not less than three years, nor more than the maximum sentence provided by law for the offense for which convicted, notwithstanding sections 242.19, 243.05, 609.11, 609.12, and 609.135. The court may stay the execution of the sentence imposed under this subdivision only if it finds that a professional assessment indicates the offender is accepted by and can respond to treatment at a long-term inpatient program exclusively treating sex offenders and approved by the commissioner of corrections. If the court stays the execution of a sentence, it shall include the following as conditions of probation:
(1) incarceration in a local jail or workhouse; and
(2) a requirement that the offender successfully complete the treatment program and aftercare as directed by the court.
2005 c 136 art 2 s 21; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 22,23; art 4 s 14; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 6; 2013 c 86 art 3 s 10; 2013 c 96 s 3-5
(a) A court may order as an intermediate sanction under section 609.135 and the commissioner of corrections may order as a condition of release under section 244.05 or 609.3455 that an offender under supervision for a sex offense submit to polygraphic examinations to ensure compliance with the terms of probation or conditions of release.
(b) The court or commissioner may order the offender to pay all or a portion of the costs of the examinations. The fee may be waived if the offender is indigent or if payment would result in an economic hardship to the offender's immediate family.
When a person is convicted of a sex offense, the court shall order an independent professional assessment of the offender's need for sex offender treatment to be completed before sentencing. The court may waive the assessment if: (1) the Sentencing Guidelines provide a presumptive prison sentence for the offender, or (2) an adequate assessment was conducted prior to the conviction. An assessor providing an assessment for the court must be experienced in the evaluation and treatment of sex offenders.
When a person is convicted of a felony-level sex offense, and the person has previously been convicted of a sex offense regardless of the penalty level, the court shall order a sex offender assessment to be completed by the Minnesota security hospital. The assessment must contain the facts upon which the assessment conclusion is based, with reference to the offense history of the offender or the severity of the current offense, the social history of the offender, and the results of an examination of the offender's mental status unless the offender refuses to be examined. The assessment conclusion may not be based on testing alone. Upon completion, the assessment must be forwarded to the court and the commissioner of corrections. The court shall consider the assessment when sentencing the offender and, if applicable, when making the preliminary determination regarding the appropriateness of a civil commitment petition under section 609.1351.
Notwithstanding sections 13.384, 13.85, 144.291 to 144.298, 260B.171, 260C.171, or 626.556, the assessor has access to the following private or confidential data on the person if access is relevant and necessary for the assessment:
(1) medical data under section 13.384;
(2) corrections and detention data under section 13.85;
(3) health records under sections 144.291 to 144.298;
(4) juvenile court records under sections 260B.171 and 260C.171; and
(5) local welfare agency records under section 626.556.
Data disclosed under this section may be used only for purposes of the assessment and may not be further disclosed to any other person, except as authorized by law.
If the assessment indicates that the offender is in need of and amenable to sex offender treatment, the court shall include in the sentence a requirement that the offender undergo treatment, unless the court sentences the offender to prison.
1992 c 571 art 1 s 20; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2; 1999 c 227 s 22; 2001 c 210 s 24-26; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 66; 2005 c 136 art 3 s 23; art 4 s 11; 2007 c 147 art 10 s 15
In a prosecution under sections 609.342 to 609.3451; 609.3453; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, the testimony of a victim need not be corroborated.
In a prosecution under sections 609.342 to 609.3451; 609.3453; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, there is no need to show that the victim resisted the accused.
In a prosecution under sections 609.342 to 609.3451, 609.3453; 609.365; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, evidence of the victim's previous sexual conduct shall not be admitted nor shall any reference to such conduct be made in the presence of the jury, except by court order under the procedure provided in subdivision 4. The evidence can be admitted only if the probative value of the evidence is not substantially outweighed by its inflammatory or prejudicial nature and only in the circumstances set out in paragraphs (a) and (b). For the evidence to be admissible under paragraph (a), subsection (i), the judge must find by a preponderance of the evidence that the facts set out in the accused's offer of proof are true. For the evidence to be admissible under paragraph (a), subsection (ii) or paragraph (b), the judge must find that the evidence is sufficient to support a finding that the facts set out in the accused's offer of proof are true, as provided under Rule 901 of the Rules of Evidence.
(a) When consent of the victim is a defense in the case, the following evidence is admissible:
(i) evidence of the victim's previous sexual conduct tending to establish a common scheme or plan of similar sexual conduct under circumstances similar to the case at issue. In order to find a common scheme or plan, the judge must find that the victim made prior allegations of sexual assault which were fabricated; and
(ii) evidence of the victim's previous sexual conduct with the accused.
(b) When the prosecution's case includes evidence of semen, pregnancy, or disease at the time of the incident or, in the case of pregnancy, between the time of the incident and trial, evidence of specific instances of the victim's previous sexual conduct is admissible solely to show the source of the semen, pregnancy, or disease.
The accused may not offer evidence described in subdivision 3 except pursuant to the following procedure:
(a) A motion shall be made by the accused at least three business days prior to trial, unless later for good cause shown, setting out with particularity the offer of proof of the evidence that the accused intends to offer, relative to the previous sexual conduct of the victim;
(b) If the court deems the offer of proof sufficient, the court shall order a hearing out of the presence of the jury, if any, and in such hearing shall allow the accused to make a full presentation of the offer of proof;
(c) At the conclusion of the hearing, if the court finds that the evidence proposed to be offered by the accused regarding the previous sexual conduct of the victim is admissible under subdivision 3 and that its probative value is not substantially outweighed by its inflammatory or prejudicial nature, the court shall make an order stating the extent to which evidence is admissible. The accused may then offer evidence pursuant to the order of the court;
(d) If new information is discovered after the date of the hearing or during the course of trial, which may make evidence described in subdivision 3 admissible, the accused may make an offer of proof pursuant to clause (a) and the court shall order an in camera hearing to determine whether the proposed evidence is admissible by the standards herein.
In a prosecution under sections 609.342 to 609.3451; 609.3453; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, the court shall not instruct the jury to the effect that:
(a) It may be inferred that a victim who has previously consented to sexual intercourse with persons other than the accused would be therefore more likely to consent to sexual intercourse again; or
(b) The victim's previous or subsequent sexual conduct in and of itself may be considered in determining the credibility of the victim; or
(c) Criminal sexual conduct is a crime easily charged by a victim but very difficult to disprove by an accused because of the heinous nature of the crime; or
(d) The jury should scrutinize the testimony of the victim any more closely than it should scrutinize the testimony of any witness in any felony prosecution.
(a) In a prosecution under sections 609.342 to 609.3451; 609.3453; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, involving a psychotherapist and patient, evidence of the patient's personal or medical history is not admissible except when:
(1) the accused requests a hearing at least three business days prior to trial and makes an offer of proof of the relevancy of the history; and
(2) the court finds that the history is relevant and that the probative value of the history outweighs its prejudicial value.
(b) The court shall allow the admission only of specific information or examples of conduct of the victim that are determined by the court to be relevant. The court's order shall detail the information or conduct that is admissible and no other evidence of the history may be introduced.
(c) Violation of the terms of the order is grounds for mistrial but does not prevent the retrial of the accused.
Rule 412 of the Rules of Evidence is superseded to the extent of its conflict with this section.
1975 c 374 s 8; 1984 c 588 s 10; 1985 c 297 s 8; 1986 c 351 s 12; 1986 c 444; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 72; 1987 c 114 s 1; 1997 c 239 art 5 s 10; 1998 c 367 art 6 s 8-12; 2005 c 136 art 4 s 6; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37
Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no data contained in records or reports relating to petitions, complaints, or indictments issued pursuant to section 609.322, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453, which specifically identifies a victim who is a minor shall be accessible to the public, except by order of the court. Nothing in this section authorizes denial of access to any other data contained in the records or reports, including the identity of the defendant.
1984 c 573 s 9; 1985 c 119 s 1; 1986 c 351 s 13; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 73; 1987 c 331 s 9; 1992 c 571 art 1 s 26; 1993 c 13 art 1 s 49; 2005 c 136 art 4 s 7; 2015 c 65 art 6 s 15
Sections 609.342 to 609.3451; 609.3453; and Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, do not apply to sexual penetration or sexual contact when done for a bona fide medical purpose.
1975 c 374 s 9; 1981 c 273 s 5; 1986 c 351 s 14; 1998 c 367 art 6 s 13; 2005 c 136 art 4 s 8; 2007 c 13 art 3 s 37
A person does not commit criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342, clauses (a) and (b), 609.343, clauses (a) and (b), 609.344, clauses (a), (b), (d), (e), and (n), and 609.345, clauses (a), (b), (d), (e), and (n), if the actor and complainant were adults cohabiting in an ongoing voluntary sexual relationship at the time of the alleged offense, or if the complainant is the actor's legal spouse, unless the couple is living apart and one of them has filed for legal separation or dissolution of the marriage. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit or restrain the prosecution for any other offense committed by one legal spouse against the other.
1975 c 374 s 10; 1978 c 772 s 62; 1980 c 544 s 2; 1986 c 351 s 15; 1986 c 444; 2002 c 381 s 5
(a) Costs incurred by a county, city, or private hospital or other emergency medical facility or by a private physician for the examination of a victim of criminal sexual conduct when the examination is performed for the purpose of gathering evidence shall be paid by the county in which the criminal sexual conduct occurred. These costs include, but are not limited to, full cost of the rape kit examination, associated tests relating to the complainant's sexually transmitted disease status, and pregnancy status.
(b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the duties, responsibilities, or liabilities of any insurer, whether public or private. However, a county may seek insurance reimbursement from the victim's insurer only if authorized by the victim. This authorization may only be sought after the examination is performed. When seeking this authorization, the county shall inform the victim that if the victim does not authorize this, the county is required by law to pay for the examination and that the victim is in no way liable for these costs or obligated to authorize the reimbursement.
(c) The applicability of this section does not depend upon whether the victim reports the offense to law enforcement or the existence or status of any investigation or prosecution.
1975 c 374 s 11; 1981 c 273 s 6; 1986 c 351 s 16; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 75; 2002 c 381 s 6; 2003 c 116 s 3
Except for section 609.347, crimes committed prior to August 1, 1975, are not affected by its provisions.
As used in this section:
(a) "child" means a person 15 years of age or younger;
(b) "sexual conduct" means sexual contact of the individual's primary genital area, sexual penetration as defined in section 609.341, or sexual performance as defined in section 617.246; and
(c) "solicit" means commanding, entreating, or attempting to persuade a specific person in person, by telephone, by letter, or by computerized or other electronic means.
A person 18 years of age or older who solicits a child or someone the person reasonably believes is a child to engage in sexual conduct with intent to engage in sexual conduct is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 4.
A person 18 years of age or older who uses the Internet, a computer, computer program, computer network, computer system, an electronic communications system, or a telecommunications, wire, or radio communications system, or other electronic device capable of electronic data storage or transmission to commit any of the following acts, with the intent to arouse the sexual desire of any person, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 4:
(1) soliciting a child or someone the person reasonably believes is a child to engage in sexual conduct;
(2) engaging in communication with a child or someone the person reasonably believes is a child, relating to or describing sexual conduct; or
(3) distributing any material, language, or communication, including a photographic or video image, that relates to or describes sexual conduct to a child or someone the person reasonably believes is a child.
A person may be convicted of an offense under subdivision 2a if the transmission that constitutes the offense either originates within this state or is received within this state.
(a) Mistake as to age is not a defense to a prosecution under this section.
(b) The fact that an undercover operative or law enforcement officer was involved in the detection or investigation of an offense under this section does not constitute a defense to a prosecution under this section.
A person convicted under subdivision 2 or 2a is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
A violation or attempted violation of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, 609.3453, or 609.352 may be prosecuted in any jurisdiction in which the violation originates or terminates.
In this section "cohabit" means to live together under the representation or appearance of being married.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of bigamy and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both:
(1) knowingly having a prior marriage that is not dissolved, contracts a marriage in this state; or
(2) contracts a marriage with another in this state with knowledge that the prior marriage of the other is not dissolved; or
(3) marries another outside this state with knowledge that either of them has a prior marriage that has not been dissolved, and then cohabits with the other in this state.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.355; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
When a married woman has sexual intercourse with a man other than her husband, whether married or not, both are guilty of adultery and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
No prosecution shall be commenced under this section except on complaint of the husband or the wife, except when such husband or wife lacks the mental capacity, nor after one year from the commission of the offense.
It is a defense to violation of this section if the marital status of the woman was not known to the defendant at the time of the act of adultery.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.36; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 2013 c 59 art 3 s 17
Whoever has sexual intercourse with another nearer of kin to the actor than first cousin, computed by rules of the civil law, whether of the half or the whole blood, with knowledge of the relationship, is guilty of incest and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.365; 1986 c 444
Whoever is legally obligated to provide court-ordered support to a spouse or child, whether or not the child's custody has been granted to another, and knowingly omits and fails to do so is guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.
A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if:
(1) the violation continues for a period in excess of 90 days but not more than 180 days; or
(2) the person is in arrears in court-ordered child support or maintenance payments, or both, in an amount equal to or greater than six times but less than nine times the person's total monthly support and maintenance payments.
A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a felony and upon conviction may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both, if:
(1) the violation continues for a period in excess of 180 days; or
(2) the person is in arrears in court-ordered child support or maintenance payments, or both, in an amount equal to or greater than nine times the person's total monthly support and maintenance payments.
A person may not be charged with violating this section unless there has been an attempt to obtain a court order holding the person in contempt for failing to pay support or maintenance under chapter 518 or 518A. This requirement is satisfied by a showing that reasonable attempts have been made at service of the order.
A person who violates this section may be prosecuted and tried in the county in which the support obligor resides or in the county in which the obligee or the child resides.
Upon conviction under this section, a defendant may obtain work release only upon the imposition of an automatic income withholding order, and may be required to post a bond in avoidance of jail time and conditioned upon payment of all court-ordered support owed. Nonpayment of court-ordered support is a violation of any probation granted following conviction under subdivision 2a.
It is an affirmative defense to criminal liability under this section if the defendant proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the omission and failure to provide court-ordered support were with lawful excuse.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.375; 1971 c 23 s 44; 1971 c 507 s 1; 1976 c 2 s 151; 1981 c 31 s 19; 1993 c 340 s 54,55; 1994 c 630 art 11 s 17-20; 1995 c 257 art 3 s 15; 1997 c 245 art 1 s 31; 2001 c 158 s 7-11; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72; 2005 c 164 s 29; 1Sp2005 c 7 s 28; 2014 c 242 s 1-3
A person is eligible for a discharge and dismissal under this section, if the person:
(1) has not been previously convicted of a felony under the laws of this state or elsewhere;
(2) has not been previously convicted of a violation of section 609.375 or of a similar offense in this state or elsewhere;
(3) has not previously participated in or completed a diversion program relating to a charge of violating section 609.375; and
(4) has not previously been placed on probation without a judgment of guilty for violation of section 609.375.
For a person eligible under subdivision 1 who is charged with violating section 609.375, the court may after trial or upon a plea of guilty, without entering a judgment of guilty and with the consent of the person, defer further proceedings and place the person on probation upon such reasonable conditions as it may require and for a period not to exceed the maximum sentence provided for the violation. At a minimum, the conditions must require the defendant to:
(1) provide the public authority responsible for child support enforcement with an affidavit attesting to the defendant's present address, occupation, employer, current income, assets, and account information, as defined in section 13B.06; and
(2) execute a written payment agreement regarding both current support and arrearages that is approved by the court.
In determining whether to approve a payment agreement under clause (2), the court shall apply the provisions of chapter 518A consistent with the obligor's ability to pay.
Upon violation of a condition of the probation, including a failure to comply with the written payment agreement approved by the court under subdivision 2, clause (2), the court may enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided in law.
The court may, in its discretion, dismiss the proceedings against the person and discharge the person from probation before the expiration of the maximum period prescribed for the person's probation but may do so only if the full amount of any arrearages has been brought current.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, "not public" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 8a.
(b) If during the period of probation the person does not violate any of the conditions of the probation, then upon expiration of the period the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against that person. Discharge and dismissal under this subdivision shall be without court adjudication of guilt, but a not public record of it shall be retained by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension for the purpose of use by the courts in determining the merits of subsequent proceedings against the person. The not public record may also be opened only upon court order for purposes of a criminal investigation, prosecution, or sentencing. Upon request by law enforcement, prosecution, or corrections authorities, the bureau shall notify the requesting party of the existence of the not public record and the right to seek a court order to open it pursuant to this section. The court shall forward a record of any discharge and dismissal under this section to the bureau which shall make and maintain the not public record of it as provided under this section. The discharge or dismissal shall not be deemed a conviction for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime or for any other purpose.
For the purposes of sections 609.255 and 609.376 to 609.38, the following terms have the meanings given unless specific content indicates otherwise.
"Caretaker" means an individual who has responsibility for the care of a child as a result of a family relationship or who has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of the care of a child.
"Complainant" means a person alleged to have been a victim of a violation of section 609.255, subdivision 3, 609.377, or 609.378, but need not be the person who signs the complaint.
A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker who, by an intentional act or a series of intentional acts with respect to a child, evidences unreasonable force or cruel discipline that is excessive under the circumstances is guilty of malicious punishment of a child and may be sentenced as provided in subdivisions 2 to 6.
If the punishment results in less than substantial bodily harm, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
Whoever violates the provisions of subdivision 2 during the time period between a previous conviction or adjudication for delinquency under this section or sections 609.221 to 609.2231, 609.224, 609.2242, 609.342 to 609.345, or 609.713, and the end of five years following discharge from sentence or disposition for that conviction or adjudication may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or a fine of $10,000, or both.
If the punishment is to a child under the age of four and causes bodily harm to the head, eyes, neck, or otherwise causes multiple bruises to the body, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or a fine of $10,000, or both.
If the punishment results in substantial bodily harm, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
If the punishment results in great bodily harm, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
1983 c 217 s 4; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1988 c 655 s 2; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 16; 1990 c 542 s 18; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 37; 2000 c 437 s 14
(a)(1) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker who willfully deprives a child of necessary food, clothing, shelter, health care, or supervision appropriate to the child's age, when the parent, guardian, or caretaker is reasonably able to make the necessary provisions and the deprivation harms or is likely to substantially harm the child's physical, mental, or emotional health is guilty of neglect of a child and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both. If the deprivation results in substantial harm to the child's physical, mental, or emotional health, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both. If a parent, guardian, or caretaker responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child, this treatment or care is "health care," for purposes of this clause.
(2) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker who knowingly permits the continuing physical or sexual abuse of a child is guilty of neglect of a child and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) A parent, legal guardian, or caretaker who endangers the child's person or health by:
(1) intentionally or recklessly causing or permitting a child to be placed in a situation likely to substantially harm the child's physical, mental, or emotional health or cause the child's death; or
(2) knowingly causing or permitting the child to be present where any person is selling, manufacturing, possessing immediate precursors or chemical substances with intent to manufacture, or possessing a controlled substance, as defined in section 152.01, subdivision 4, in violation of section 152.021, 152.022, 152.023, 152.024, or 152.0262; is guilty of child endangerment and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
If the endangerment results in substantial harm to the child's physical, mental, or emotional health, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
This paragraph does not prevent a parent, legal guardian, or caretaker from causing or permitting a child to engage in activities that are appropriate to the child's age, stage of development, and experience, or from selecting health care as defined in subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
(c) A person who intentionally or recklessly causes a child under 14 years of age to be placed in a situation likely to substantially harm the child's physical health or cause the child's death as a result of the child's access to a loaded firearm is guilty of child endangerment and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
If the endangerment results in substantial harm to the child's physical health, the person may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
It is a defense to a prosecution under subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2), or paragraph (b), that at the time of the neglect or endangerment there was a reasonable apprehension in the mind of the defendant that acting to stop or prevent the neglect or endangerment would result in substantial bodily harm to the defendant or the child in retaliation.
1983 c 217 s 5; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1989 c 282 art 2 s 199; 1992 c 571 art 4 s 11; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 22; 2002 c 314 s 6; 2005 c 136 art 7 s 21
A person may leave a newborn with an employee at a safe place, as defined in section 145.902, in this state pursuant to section 260C.139, subdivision 4, without being subjected to prosecution for that act, provided that:
(1) the newborn was born within seven days of being left at the safe place, as determined within a reasonable degree of medical certainty;
(2) the newborn is left in an unharmed condition; and
(3) in cases where the person leaving the newborn is not the newborn's mother, the person has the mother's approval to do so.
Reasonable force may be used upon or toward the person of a child without the child's consent when the following circumstance exists or the actor reasonably believes it to exist:
(a) when used by a parent, legal guardian, teacher, or other caretaker of a child or pupil, in the exercise of lawful authority, to restrain or correct the child or pupil; or
(b) when used by a teacher or other member of the instructional, support, or supervisory staff of a public or nonpublic school upon or toward a child when necessary to restrain the child from self-injury or injury to any other person or property.
For any violation of section 609.255, subdivision 3, 609.377, or 609.378 for which the Sentencing Guidelines establish a presumptive executed sentence, the court may stay imposition or execution of the sentence if it finds that a stay is in the best interest of the complainant or the family unit and that the defendant is willing to participate in any necessary or appropriate treatment. In determining an appropriate sentence when there is a family relationship between the complainant and the defendant, the court shall be guided by the policy of preserving and strengthening the family unit whenever possible.
"Levying war" includes an act of war or an insurrection of several persons with intent to prevent, by force and intimidation, the execution of a statute of the state, or to force its repeal. It does not include either a conspiracy to commit an act of war or a single instance of resistance for a private purpose to the execution of a law.
Any person owing allegiance to this state who does either of the following is guilty of treason against this state and shall be sentenced to life imprisonment:
(1) levies war against this state; or
(2) adheres to the enemies of this state, giving them aid and comfort.
No person shall be convicted of treason except on the testimony of two witnesses to the same overt act, or on the person's confession in open court.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.385; 1986 c 444
Whoever, owing allegiance to this state and having knowledge of the commission of treason against this state, does not, as soon as may be, disclose and make it known to the governor or a judge of the Supreme Court, Court of Appeals, or district court, is guilty of misprision of treason against this state and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.39; 1983 c 247 s 208; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11
Whoever, when the United States is at war, does either of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both:
(1) intentionally makes or conveys false reports or statements with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the military or naval forces of this state; or
(2) intentionally causes or incites insubordination, disloyalty, mutiny, or refusal of duty in the military or naval forces of this state, or obstructs the recruiting or enlistment service of this state.
A person is guilty of a misdemeanor if the person intentionally and without authorization of the adjutant general enters or is present on the Camp Ripley Military Reservation.
A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to not more than five years imprisonment or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if:
(1) the person intentionally enters or is present in an area at the Camp Ripley Military Reservation that is posted by order of the adjutant general as restricted for weapon firing or other hazardous military activity; and
(2) the person knows that doing so creates a risk of death, bodily harm, or serious property damage.
In this section "flag" means anything which is or purports to be the Stars and Stripes, the United States shield, the United States coat of arms, the Minnesota state flag, or a copy, picture, or representation of any of them.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) intentionally and publicly mutilates, defiles, or casts contempt upon the flag; or
(2) places on or attaches to the flag any word, mark, design, or advertisement not properly a part of such flag or exposes to public view a flag so altered; or
(3) manufactures or exposes to public view an article of merchandise or a wrapper or receptacle for merchandise upon which the flag is depicted; or
(4) uses the flag for commercial advertising purposes.
This section does not apply to flags depicted on written or printed documents or periodicals or on stationery, ornaments, pictures, or jewelry, provided there are not unauthorized words or designs on such flags and provided the flag is not connected with any advertisement.
Whoever, in making any statement, oral or written, which is required or authorized by law to be made as a basis of imposing, reducing, or abating any tax or assessment, intentionally makes any statement as to any material matter which the maker of the statement knows is false may be sentenced, unless otherwise provided by law, to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.41; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
As used in sections 609.415 to 609.465, and 609.515,
(1) "Public officer" means:
(a) an executive or administrative officer of the state or of a county, municipality or other subdivision or agency of the state;
(b) a member of the legislature or of a governing board of a county, municipality, or other subdivision of the state, or other governmental instrumentality within the state;
(c) a judicial officer;
(d) a hearing officer;
(e) a law enforcement officer; or
(f) any other person exercising the functions of a public officer.
(2) "Public employee" means a person employed by or acting for the state or a county, municipality, or other subdivision or governmental instrumentality of the state for the purpose of exercising their respective powers and performing their respective duties, and who is not a public officer. Public employee includes a member of a charter commission.
(3) "Judicial officer" means a judge, court commissioner, referee, or any other person appointed by a judge or court to hear or determine a cause or controversy.
(4) "Hearing officer" means any person authorized by law or private agreement to hear or determine a cause or controversy who is not a judicial officer.
(5) "Political subdivision" means a county, town, statutory or home rule charter city, school district, special service district, or other municipal corporation of the state of Minnesota.
A person who has been elected, appointed, or otherwise designated as a public officer or public employee is deemed such officer or employee although the person has not yet qualified therefor or entered upon the duties thereof.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.415; 1983 c 359 s 88; 1986 c 444; 1992 c 592 s 16; 2002 c 352 s 13
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of bribery and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both:
(1) offers, gives, or promises to give, directly or indirectly, to any person who is a public officer or employee any benefit, reward or consideration to which the person is not legally entitled with intent thereby to influence the person's performance of the powers or duties as such officer or employee; or
(2) being a public officer or employee, requests, receives or agrees to receive, directly or indirectly, any such benefit, reward or consideration upon the understanding that it will have such an influence; or
(3) offers, gives, or promises to give, directly or indirectly any such benefit, reward, or consideration to a person who is a witness or about to become a witness in a proceeding before a judicial or hearing officer, with intent that the person's testimony be influenced thereby, or that the person will not appear at the proceeding; or
(4) as a person who is, or is about to become such witness requests, receives, or agrees to receive, directly or indirectly, any such benefit, reward, or consideration upon the understanding that the person's testimony will be so influenced, or that the person will not appear at the proceeding; or
(5) accepts directly or indirectly a benefit, reward or consideration upon an agreement or understanding, express or implied, that the acceptor will refrain from giving information that may lead to the prosecution of a crime or purported crime or that the acceptor will abstain from, discontinue, or delay prosecution therefor, except in a case where a compromise is allowed by law.
Any public officer who is convicted of violating or attempting to violate subdivision 1 shall forfeit the public officer's office and be forever disqualified from holding public office under the state.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.42; 1976 c 178 s 2; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whoever by menace, deception, concealment of facts, or other corrupt means, attempts to influence the vote or other performance of duty of any member of the legislature or person elected thereto may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
A public officer or employee who does any of the following, for which no other sentence is specifically provided by law, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both:
(1) intentionally fails or refuses to perform a known mandatory, nondiscretionary, ministerial duty of the office or employment within the time or in the manner required by law; or
(2) in the capacity of such officer or employee, does an act knowing it is in excess of lawful authority or knowing it is forbidden by law to be done in that capacity; or
(3) under pretense or color of official authority intentionally and unlawfully injures another in the other's person, property, or rights; or
(4) in the capacity of such officer or employee, makes a return, certificate, official report, or other like document having knowledge it is false in any material respect.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.43; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whoever intentionally performs the functions of a public officer without having executed and duly filed the required security is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Whoever intentionally and without lawful right thereto, exercises a function of a public office or, having held such office and the right thereto having ceased, refuses to surrender the office or its seal, books, papers, or other incidents to a successor or other authority entitled thereto may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.44; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whoever receives money on behalf of or for the account of the state or any of its agencies or subdivisions and intentionally refuses or omits to pay the same to the state or its agency or subdivision entitled thereto, or to an officer or agent authorized to receive the same, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.445; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 17
Whoever is a public officer or public employee and under color of office or employment intentionally asks, receives, or agrees to receive a fee or other compensation in excess of that allowed by law or where no such fee or compensation is allowed, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.45; 1971 c 23 s 47; 1986 c 444
A public officer or employee who audits, allows, or pays any claim or demand made upon the state or subdivision thereof or other governmental instrumentality within the state which the public officer or employee knows is false or fraudulent in whole or in part, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.455; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
Whenever a public employee or public officer of a political subdivision, charter commission, or local public pension plan governed by sections 424A.091 to 424A.096 or chapter 354A, discovers evidence of theft, embezzlement, unlawful use of public funds or property, or misuse of public funds by a charter commission or any person authorized to expend public funds, the employee or officer shall promptly report to law enforcement and shall promptly report in writing to the state auditor a detailed description of the alleged incident or incidents. Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other statute related to the classification of government data, the public employee or public officer shall provide data or information related to the alleged incident or incidents to the state auditor and law enforcement, including data classified as not public.
Whenever an employee or officer of the state, University of Minnesota, or other organization listed in section 3.971, subdivision 6, discovers evidence of theft, embezzlement, or unlawful use of public funds or property, the employee or officer shall, except when to do so would knowingly impede or otherwise interfere with an ongoing criminal investigation, promptly report in writing to the legislative auditor a detailed description of the alleged incident or incidents.
1992 c 592 s 17; 1999 c 99 s 21,23; 2002 c 352 s 14; 2013 c 35 s 1; 2013 c 111 art 5 s 80
Whoever, with intent to defraud, presents a claim or demand, with knowledge that it is false in whole or in part, for audit, allowance or payment to a public officer or body authorized to make such audit, allowance or payment is guilty of an attempt to commit theft of public funds and may be sentenced accordingly.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.465; 1986 c 444
Any person who, with the intent to defraud, presents a claim for reimbursement, a cost report or a rate application, relating to the payment of medical assistance funds pursuant to chapter 256B, to the state agency, which is false in whole or in part, is guilty of an attempt to commit theft of public funds and may be sentenced accordingly.
Whoever intentionally takes, damages, or destroys any personal property held in custody by an officer or other person under process of law may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
Whoever falsely impersonates an active or reserve component military service member, veteran, or public official with intent to wrongfully obtain money, property, or any other tangible benefit is guilty of a misdemeanor.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.475; 1971 c 23 s 49; 1986 c 444; 2017 c 95 art 3 s 13
Whoever falsely impersonates a peace officer with intent to mislead another into believing that the impersonator is actually an officer is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 while committing any of the following acts is guilty of a gross misdemeanor:
(1) gaining access to a public building or government facility that is not open to the public;
(2) without legal authority, directing or ordering another person to act or refrain from acting;
(3) violating section 169.64, subdivision 2, 3, or 4, or the siren provisions of section 169.68; or
(4) operating a motor vehicle marked:
(i) with the word or words "police," "patrolman," "sheriff," "deputy," "trooper," "state patrol," "conservation officer," "agent," or "marshal"; or
(ii) with any lettering, marking, or insignia, or colorable imitation thereof, including, but not limited to, stars, badges, or shields identifying the vehicle as a law enforcement vehicle, and which a reasonable person would believe is a law enforcement vehicle governed under section 169.98, subdivision 1.
Whoever violates this section within five years of a previous violation of this section is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both.
Whoever makes a false material statement not believing it to be true in any of the following cases is guilty of perjury and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 4:
(1) in or for an action, hearing or proceeding of any kind in which the statement is required or authorized by law to be made under oath or affirmation;
(2) in any writing which is required or authorized by law to be under oath or affirmation;
(3) in any writing made according to section 358.115;
(4) in any writing made according to section 358.116; or
(5) in any other case in which the penalties for perjury are imposed by law and no specific sentence is otherwise provided.
It is not a defense to a violation of this section that:
(1) the oath or affirmation was taken or administered in an irregular manner; or
(2) the declarant was not competent to give the statement; or
(3) the declarant did not know that the statement was material or believed it to be immaterial; or
(4) the statement was not used or, if used, did not affect the proceeding for which it was made; or
(5) the statement was inadmissible under the law of evidence.
When the declarant has made two inconsistent statements under such circumstances that one or the other must be false and not believed by the declarant when made, it shall be sufficient for conviction under this section to charge and the jury to find that, without determining which, one or the other of such statements was false and not believed by the declarant. The period of limitations for prosecution under this subdivision runs from the first such statement.
Whoever violates this section may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the false statement was made upon the trial of a felony charge, or upon an application for an explosives license or use permit, to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both; or
(2) in all other cases, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
A violation of subdivision 1, clause (4), may be prosecuted in the county where the statement, under penalty of perjury, was signed, or the county of the district court in which the statement was filed.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.48; 1971 c 845 s 16; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 18; 2010 c 295 s 2; 2014 c 204 s 9; 2017 c 95 art 2 s 15
"Escape" includes departure without lawful authority and failure to return to custody following temporary leave granted for a specific purpose or limited period.
Whoever does any of the following may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 4:
(1) escapes while held pursuant to a lawful arrest, in lawful custody on a charge or conviction of a crime, or while held in lawful custody on an allegation or adjudication of a delinquent act;
(2) transfers to another, who is in lawful custody on a charge or conviction of a crime, or introduces into an institution in which the latter is confined, anything usable in making such escape, with intent that it shall be so used;
(3) having another in lawful custody on a charge or conviction of a crime, intentionally permits the other to escape;
(4) escapes while in a facility designated under section 253B.18, subdivision 1, pursuant to a court commitment order after a finding of not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency of a crime against the person, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 4a. Notwithstanding section 609.17, no person may be charged with or convicted of an attempt to commit a violation of this clause;
(5) escapes while in or under the supervision of a facility designated under section 246B.01, subdivision 2a; 246B.02; 253B.18, subdivision 1; 253D.07, subdivision 3; or Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10;
(6) escapes while on pass status or provisional discharge according to section 253B.18 or chapter 253D; or
(7) escapes while a civilly committed sex offender in the Minnesota sex offender program as defined in section 246B.01, subdivision 1a, or subject to a court hold order under chapter 253D.
For purposes of clauses (1) and (7), "escapes while held in lawful custody" or "escapes while a civilly committed sex offender in the Minnesota sex offender program" includes absconding from electronic monitoring or removing an electronic monitoring device from the person's body.
This section does not apply to a person who is free on bail or who is on parole or probation, or subject to a stayed sentence or stayed execution of sentence, unless the person (1) has been taken into actual custody upon revocation of the parole, probation, or stay of the sentence or execution of sentence, (2) is in custody in a county jail or workhouse as a condition of a stayed sentence, or (3) is subject to electronic monitoring as a condition of parole, probation, or supervised release.
A felony charge brought under subdivision 2, clause (4) shall be dismissed if the person charged voluntarily returns to the facility within 30 days after a reasonable effort has been made to provide written notice to the person that failure to return within 30 days may result in felony charges being filed.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 3a, whoever violates this section may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the person who escapes is in lawful custody for a felony, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both;
(2) if the person who escapes is in lawful custody after a finding of not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency of a crime against the person, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 4a, to imprisonment for not more than one year and one day or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both;
(3) if the person who escapes is in lawful custody for a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor, or if the person who escapes is in lawful custody on an allegation or adjudication of a delinquent act, to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both;
(4) if the person who escapes is under civil commitment under section 253B.18, to imprisonment for not more than one year and one day or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both; or
(5) if the person who escapes is under a court hold, civil commitment, or supervision under chapter 253D, Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.185, or Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
(b) If the escape was a violation of subdivision 2, clause (1), (2), or (3), and was effected by violence or threat of violence against a person, the sentence may be increased to not more than twice those permitted in paragraph (a), clauses (1) and (3).
(c) Unless a concurrent term is specified by the court, a sentence under this section shall be consecutive to any sentence previously imposed or which may be imposed for any crime or offense for which the person was in custody when the person escaped.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), if a person who was committed to the commissioner of corrections under section 260B.198 escapes from the custody of the commissioner while 18 years of age, the person's sentence under this section shall commence on the person's 19th birthday or on the person's date of discharge by the commissioner of corrections, whichever occurs first. However, if the person described in this clause is convicted under this section after becoming 19 years old and after having been discharged by the commissioner, the person's sentence shall commence upon imposition by the sentencing court.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), if a person who is in lawful custody on an allegation or adjudication of a delinquent act while 18 years of age escapes from a local juvenile correctional facility, the person's sentence under this section begins on the person's 19th birthday or on the person's date of discharge from the jurisdiction of the juvenile court, whichever occurs first. However, if the person described in this paragraph is convicted after becoming 19 years old and after discharge from the jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the person's sentence begins upon imposition by the sentencing court.
(f) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), any person who escapes or absconds from electronic monitoring or removes an electric monitoring device from the person's body is guilty of a crime and shall be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to a payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both. A person in lawful custody for a violation of section 609.185, 609.19, 609.195, 609.20, 609.205, 609.2112, 609.2113, 609.2114, 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.2231, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, or civil commitment under chapter 253D, or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, and who escapes or absconds from electronic monitoring or removes an electronic monitoring device while under sentence may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.485; 1969 c 248 s 1; 1971 c 23 s 50; 1982 c 557 s 10; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 385 s 1-3; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 515 s 2,3; 1990 c 499 s 7,8; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 38,39; 1995 c 226 art 2 s 20,21; 1996 c 305 art 1 s 120,121; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 28,29; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2; 2000 c 441 s 2,3; 2002 c 314 s 7,8; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 26,27; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 24,25; 2009 c 111 s 14,15; 2011 c 76 art 1 s 66; 2011 c 102 art 2 s 3; 2013 c 49 s 22; 2014 c 180 s 9
A person who commits or attempts to commit a gross misdemeanor or felony while wearing or possessing a bullet-resistant vest is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, shall be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both. Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction under this section is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct.
As used in this section, "bullet-resistant vest" means a bullet-resistant garment that provides ballistic and trauma protection.
For purposes of this section, the term "flee" means to increase speed, extinguish motor vehicle headlights or taillights, refuse to stop the vehicle, or use other means with intent to attempt to elude a peace officer following a signal given by any peace officer to the driver of a motor vehicle.
For purposes of this section, "peace officer" means:
(1) an employee of a political subdivision or state law enforcement agency who is licensed by the Minnesota Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training, charged with the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the general criminal laws of the state and who has the full power of arrest, and shall also include the Minnesota State Patrol and Minnesota conservation officers;
(2) an employee of a law enforcement agency of a federally recognized tribe, as defined in United States Code, title 25, section 450b(e), who is licensed by the Minnesota Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training; or
(3) a member of a duly organized state, county, or municipal law enforcement unit of another state charged with the duty to prevent and detect crime and generally enforce criminal laws, and granted full powers of arrest.
For purposes of this section, "motor vehicle" has the meaning given it in section 169.011, subdivision 42, and includes a snowmobile, as defined in section 84.81, off-road recreational vehicles as defined in section 169A.03, subdivision 16, and motorboats as defined in section 169A.03, subdivision 13.
Whoever by means of a motor vehicle flees or attempts to flee a peace officer who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty, and the perpetrator knows or should reasonably know the same to be a peace officer, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years and one day or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
Whoever flees or attempts to flee by means of a motor vehicle a peace officer who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty, and the perpetrator knows or should reasonably know the same to be a peace officer, and who in the course of fleeing in a motor vehicle or subsequently by other means causes the death of a human being not constituting murder or manslaughter or any bodily injury to any person other than the perpetrator may be sentenced to imprisonment as follows:
(a) if the course of fleeing results in death, to imprisonment for not more than 40 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $80,000, or both; or
(b) if the course of fleeing results in great bodily harm, to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both; or
(c) if the course of fleeing results in substantial bodily harm, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
When a person is convicted of operating a motor vehicle in violation of subdivision 3 or 4, or an ordinance in conformity with those subdivisions, the court shall notify the commissioner of public safety and order the commissioner to revoke the driver's license of the person.
Whoever, for the purpose of avoiding arrest, detention, or investigation, or in order to conceal or destroy potential evidence related to the commission of a crime, attempts to evade or elude a peace officer, who is acting in the lawful discharge of an official duty, by means of running, hiding, or by any other means except fleeing in a motor vehicle, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
1981 c 37 s 2; 1981 c 312 s 4; 1984 c 445 s 2,3; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 78; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 712 s 6; 1989 c 290 art 6 s 19; 1990 c 449 s 1; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 30; 1997 c 226 s 44; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 13; 1Sp1997 c 2 s 64; 2000 c 411 s 1,2; 2000 c 478 art 2 s 7; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 8 s 23; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 28; 2011 c 32 s 1
(a) A person charged with or convicted of a felony and released from custody, with or without bail or recognizance, who intentionally fails to appear when required after having been notified that a failure to appear for a court appearance is a criminal offense, or after having been released on an order or condition that the releasee personally appear when required with respect to the charge or conviction, is guilty of a crime for failure to appear and may be sentenced to not more than one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment or fine, or both, provided for the underlying crime for which the person failed to appear, but this maximum sentence shall, in no case, be less than a term of imprisonment of one year and one day or a fine of $1,500, or both.
(b) A felony charge under this subdivision may be filed upon the person's nonappearance. However, the charge must be dismissed if the person who fails to appear voluntarily surrenders within 48 hours after the time required for appearance. This paragraph does not apply if the offender appears as a result of being apprehended by law enforcement authorities.
(a) A person who intentionally fails to appear for a juvenile court disposition is guilty of a felony if:
(1) the person was prosecuted in juvenile court for an offense that would have been a felony if committed by an adult;
(2) the juvenile court made findings pursuant to an admission in court or after trial;
(3) the person was released from custody on condition that the person appear in the juvenile court for a disposition in connection with the offense; and
(4) the person was notified that failure to appear is a criminal offense.
(b) A person who violates the provisions of this subdivision is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
A person charged with a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor who intentionally fails to appear in court for trial on the charge after having been notified that a failure to appear for a court appearance is a criminal offense, or after having been released on an order or condition that the releasee personally appear for trial when required with respect to the charge, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
If proven by a preponderance of the evidence, it is an affirmative defense to a violation of subdivision 1, 1a, or 2 that the person's failure to appear in court as required was due to circumstances beyond the person's control.
A violation of this section is prosecuted by the prosecuting authority who was responsible for prosecuting the offense in connection with which the person failed to appear in court.
Upon conviction of a defendant for a violation of subdivision 1 or 2, the court may order as part of the sentence that the defendant pay the costs incurred by the prosecuting authority or governmental agency due to the defendant's failure to appear. The court may order this payment in addition to any other penalty authorized by law which it may impose. A defendant shall pay the entire amount of any restitution ordered and fine imposed before paying costs ordered under this subdivision. The order for payment of these costs may be enforced in the same manner as the sentence, or by execution against property. When collected, the costs must be paid into the treasury of the county of conviction.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.49; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1989 c 333 s 4; 1994 c 576 s 47,48; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 16; 1999 c 28 s 1-3
If a person fails to appear in court on a charge that is a petty misdemeanor, the failure to appear is considered a plea of guilty and waiver of the right to trial, unless the person appears in court within ten days and shows that the person's failure to appear was due to circumstances beyond the person's control.
A complaint charging a person with a petty misdemeanor must include a conspicuous notice of the provisions of subdivision 1.
A person is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2 if the person solicits a mentally impaired person to commit a criminal act.
(a) A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a misdemeanor if the intended criminal act is a misdemeanor, and is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the intended criminal act is a gross misdemeanor.
(b) A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a felony if the intended criminal act is a felony, and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one-half the statutory maximum term for the intended criminal act or to payment of a fine of not more than one-half the maximum fine for the intended criminal act, or both.
As used in this section:
(1) "mentally impaired person" means a person who, as a result of inadequately developed or impaired intelligence or a substantial psychiatric disorder of thought or mood, lacks the judgment to give a reasoned consent to commit the criminal act; and
(2) "solicit" means commanding, entreating, or attempting to persuade a specific person.
A person is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2 if the person is an adult and solicits or conspires with a minor to commit a crime or delinquent act or is an accomplice to a minor in the commission of a crime or delinquent act.
(a) A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a misdemeanor if the intended criminal act is a misdemeanor or would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, and is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the intended criminal act is a gross misdemeanor or would be a gross misdemeanor if committed by an adult.
(b) A person who violates subdivision 1 is guilty of a felony if the intended criminal act is a felony or would be a felony if committed by an adult, and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one-half the statutory maximum term for the intended criminal act or to payment of a fine of not more than one-half the maximum fine for the intended criminal act, or both.
Notwithstanding section 609.04, a prosecution for or conviction under this section is not a bar to conviction of or punishment for any other crime committed by the defendant as part of the same conduct.
Notwithstanding any provision of the Sentencing Guidelines, the court may provide that a sentence imposed for a violation of this section shall run consecutively to any sentence imposed for the intended criminal act. A decision by the court to impose consecutive sentences under this subdivision is not a departure from the Sentencing Guidelines.
"Solicit" means commanding, entreating, or attempting to persuade a specific person.
(a) Whoever harbors, conceals, aids, or assists by word or acts another whom the actor knows or has reason to know has committed a crime under the laws of this or another state or of the United States with intent that such offender shall avoid or escape from arrest, trial, conviction, or punishment, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both if the crime committed or attempted by the other person is a felony.
(b) Whoever knowingly harbors, conceals, or aids a person who is on probation, parole, or supervised release because of a felony level conviction and for whom an arrest and detention order has been issued, with intent that the person evade or escape being taken into custody under the order, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both. As used in this paragraph, "arrest and detention order" means a written order to take and detain a probationer, parolee, or supervised releasee that is issued under section 243.05, subdivision 1; 244.195; or 401.025.
Whoever intentionally aids another person whom the actor knows or has reason to know has committed a criminal act, by destroying or concealing evidence of that crime, providing false or misleading information about that crime, receiving the proceeds of that crime, or otherwise obstructing the investigation or prosecution of that crime is an accomplice after the fact and may be sentenced to not more than one-half of the statutory maximum sentence of imprisonment or to payment of a fine of not more than one-half of the maximum fine that could be imposed on the principal offender for the crime of violence. For purposes of this subdivision, "criminal act" means an act that is a crime listed in section 609.11, subdivision 9, under the laws of this or another state, or of the United States, and also includes an act that would be a criminal act if committed by an adult.
(a) Unless the person is convicted of the underlying crime, a person who assumes responsibility for a criminal act with the intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent a criminal investigation may be sentenced to not more than one-half of the statutory maximum sentence of imprisonment or to payment of a fine of not more than one-half of the maximum fine that could be imposed on the principal offender for the criminal act.
(b) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to impair the right of any individual or group to engage in speech protected by the United States Constitution or the Minnesota Constitution.
An offense committed under subdivision 1 or 3 may be prosecuted in:
(1) the county where the aiding or obstructing behavior occurred; or
(2) the county where the underlying criminal act occurred.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.495; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1993 c 326 art 4 s 25; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 14; art 9 s 51; 1Sp2001 c 8 art 8 s 24,25; 2002 c 348 s 2; 2006 c 260 art 1 s 26; 2016 c 158 art 1 s 204
A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced under subdivision 2 if the person:
(1) conducts a transaction involving a monetary instrument or instruments with a value exceeding $5,000; and
(2) knows or has reason to know that the monetary instrument or instruments represent the proceeds of, or are derived from the proceeds of, the commission of a felony under this chapter or chapter 152 or an offense in another jurisdiction that would be a felony under this chapter or chapter 152 if committed in Minnesota.
A person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $100,000, or both.
For purposes of this section, "monetary instrument" means United States currency and coin; the currency and coin of a foreign country; a bank check, cashier's check, traveler's check, money order, stock, investment security, or negotiable instrument in bearer form or otherwise in the form by which title to the instrument passes upon delivery; gold, silver, or platinum bullion or coins; and diamonds, emeralds, rubies, or sapphires.
Subdivision 1 does not preclude the payment or receipt of reasonable attorney fees.
A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced under subdivision 2 if the person knowingly initiates, organizes, plans, finances, directs, manages, supervises, or otherwise engages in a business that has as a primary or secondary purpose concealing money or property that was gained as a direct result of the commission of a felony under this chapter or chapter 152, or of an offense committed in another jurisdiction that would be a felony under this chapter or chapter 152 if committed in Minnesota.
A person convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000,000, or both.
Whoever, having knowledge that a subpoena has been issued under sections 8.16 and 388.23, and with intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent the investigation for which the subpoena was issued, gives notice or attempts to give notice of the issuance of the subpoena or the production of the documents to a person, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever, having knowledge that an investigative or law enforcement officer has been authorized or has applied for authorization under chapter 626A to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication, and with intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent interception, gives notice or attempts to give notice of the possible interception to a person, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever, having knowledge that an investigative or law enforcement officer has been authorized or has applied for authorization under chapter 626A to install and use a pen register or a trap and trace device, and with intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent the purposes for which the installation and use is being made, gives notice or attempts to give notice of the installation or use to any person, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever, having knowledge that a peace officer has been issued or has applied for the issuance of a search warrant, and with intent to obstruct, impede, or prevent the search, gives notice or attempts to give notice of the search or search warrant to any person, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of tampering with a witness in the first degree and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 1a:
(a) intentionally prevents or dissuades or intentionally attempts to prevent or dissuade by means of force or threats of injury to any person or property, a person who is or may become a witness from attending or testifying at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(b) by means of force or threats of injury to any person or property, intentionally coerces or attempts to coerce a person who is or may become a witness to testify falsely at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(c) intentionally causes injury or threatens to cause injury to any person or property in retaliation against a person who was summoned as a witness at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law, within a year following that trial, proceeding, or inquiry or within a year following the actor's release from incarceration, whichever is later;
(d) intentionally prevents or dissuades or attempts to prevent or dissuade, by means of force or threats of injury to any person or property, a person from providing information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime;
(e) by means of force or threats of injury to any person or property, intentionally coerces or attempts to coerce a person to provide false information concerning a crime to law enforcement authorities; or
(f) intentionally causes injury or threatens to cause injury to any person or property in retaliation against a person who has provided information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime within a year of that person providing the information or within a year of the actor's release from incarceration, whichever is later.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine not to exceed $10,000.
(a) A person is guilty of aggravated first-degree witness tampering if the person causes or, by means of an implicit or explicit credible threat, threatens to cause great bodily harm or death to another in the course of committing any of the following acts intentionally:
(1) preventing or dissuading or attempting to prevent or dissuade a person who is or may become a witness from attending or testifying at any criminal trial or proceeding;
(2) coercing or attempting to coerce a person who is or may become a witness to testify falsely at any criminal trial or proceeding;
(3) retaliating against a person who was summoned as a witness at any criminal trial or proceeding within a year following that trial or proceeding or within a year following the actor's release from incarceration, whichever is later;
(4) preventing or dissuading or attempting to prevent or dissuade a person from providing information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime;
(5) coercing or attempting to coerce a person to provide false information concerning a crime to law enforcement authorities; or
(6) retaliating against any person who has provided information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime within a year of that person providing the information or within a year of the actor's release from incarceration, whichever is later.
(b) A person convicted of committing any act prohibited by paragraph (a) may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of tampering with a witness in the second degree and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3:
(a) intentionally prevents or dissuades or intentionally attempts to prevent or dissuade by means of any act described in section 609.27, subdivision 1, clause (3), (4), or (5), a person who is or may become a witness from attending or testifying at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(b) by means of any act described in section 609.27, subdivision 1, clause (3), (4), or (5), intentionally coerces or attempts to coerce a person who is or may become a witness to testify falsely at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(c) intentionally prevents or dissuades or attempts to prevent or dissuade by means of any act described in section 609.27, subdivision 1, clause (3), (4), or (5), a person from providing information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime; or
(d) by means of any act described in section 609.27, subdivision 1, clause (3), (4), or (5), intentionally coerces or attempts to coerce a person to provide false information concerning a crime to law enforcement authorities.
(a) Unless a greater penalty is applicable under subdivision 1, 1b, or 2, whoever does any of the following is guilty of tampering with a witness in the third degree and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3:
(1) intentionally prevents or dissuades or intentionally attempts to prevent or dissuade by means of intimidation, a person who is or may become a witness from attending or testifying at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(2) by means of intimidation, intentionally influences or attempts to influence a person who is or may become a witness to testify falsely at any trial, proceeding, or inquiry authorized by law;
(3) intentionally prevents or dissuades or attempts to prevent or dissuade by means of intimidation, a person from providing information to law enforcement authorities concerning a crime; or
(4) by means of intimidation, intentionally influences or attempts to influence a person to provide false information concerning a crime to law enforcement authorities.
(b) In a prosecution under this subdivision, proof of intimidation may be based on a specific act or on the totality of the circumstances.
(a) Whoever violates subdivision 2 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(b) Whoever violates subdivision 2a is guilty of a misdemeanor.
1976 c 178 s 1; 1983 c 262 art 2 s 6; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1987 c 194 s 1,2; 1995 c 244 s 18; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 15,16; 2010 c 299 s 6,7
Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2:
(1) obstructs, hinders, or prevents the lawful execution of any legal process, civil or criminal, or apprehension of another on a charge or conviction of a criminal offense;
(2) obstructs, resists, or interferes with a peace officer while the officer is engaged in the performance of official duties;
(3) interferes with or obstructs a firefighter while the firefighter is engaged in the performance of official duties;
(4) interferes with or obstructs a member of an ambulance service personnel crew, as defined in section 144E.001, subdivision 3a, who is providing, or attempting to provide, emergency care; or
(5) by force or threat of force endeavors to obstruct any employee of the Department of Revenue while the employee is lawfully engaged in the performance of official duties for the purpose of deterring or interfering with the performance of those duties.
A person convicted of violating subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if (i) the person knew or had reason to know that the act created a risk of death, substantial bodily harm, or serious property damage; or (ii) the act caused death, substantial bodily harm, or serious property damage; to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both;
(2) if the act was accompanied by force or violence or the threat thereof, and is not otherwise covered by clause (1), to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both; or
(3) in other cases, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.50; 1969 c 1013 s 1; 1971 c 23 s 51; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 470 s 18; 1988 c 584 s 1; 1989 c 5 s 4; 1991 c 103 s 1; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 17; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 29; 2008 c 304 s 1
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Family or household" has the meaning given to family or household member in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.
(c) "Funeral ceremony" has the meaning given in section 149A.02, subdivision 18.
(d) "Funeral procession" means two or more motor vehicles that identify themselves by using regular lights and by keeping themselves in close formation, one of which contains the body of a deceased person, enroute to or from a funeral ceremony or a graveside service.
(e) "Graveside service" has the meaning given in section 149A.02, subdivision 24.
(f) "Memorial service" has the meaning given in section 149A.02, subdivision 28.
(g) "Targeted residential picketing" has the meaning given in section 609.748, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), but does not require more than one act or that acts be committed on more than one occasion.
(a) Whoever does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) with intent to disrupt a funeral ceremony, graveside service, or memorial service, protests or pickets within 500 feet of the burial site or the entrance to a facility or location being used for the service or ceremony, within one hour prior to, during, or one hour following the service or ceremony;
(2) with intent to disrupt a funeral procession, impedes or attempts to impede a vehicle that is part of the procession;
(3) intentionally blocks or attempts to block access to a funeral ceremony, graveside service, or memorial service; or
(4) knowingly engages in targeted residential picketing at the home or domicile of any surviving member of the deceased person's family or household on the date of the funeral ceremony, graveside service, or memorial service.
(b) Whoever is convicted of a violation of paragraph (a) following a previous conviction for a violation of paragraph (a) or a similar statute from another state or the United States is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
A person who violates subdivision 2 is liable to a surviving member of the deceased person's family or household for damages caused by the violation. A surviving member of the deceased person's family or household may also bring an action for injunctive relief and other appropriate relief or remedial compensation. In an action brought under this subdivision, a prevailing plaintiff may recover attorney fees.
A person is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced under subdivision 1a if the person interferes with the body or scene of death with intent to:
(1) conceal the body;
(2) conceal evidence; or
(3) otherwise mislead the coroner or medical examiner.
A person convicted under subdivision 1, clause (2) or (3), is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. A person convicted under subdivision 1, clause (1), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $5,000 or both.
(a) A person in charge of a cemetery who has knowledge that the body of a deceased person interred in the cemetery has been unlawfully removed shall:
(1) immediately report the occurrence to local law enforcement authorities; and
(2) inform the next of kin of the deceased person, if known, within three business days of the discovery of the body's removal unless the person making the report has been instructed in writing by law enforcement authorities that informing the next of kin would compromise an active law enforcement investigation.
(b) A person who violates paragraph (a), clause (1) or (2), is guilty of a misdemeanor.
As used in this section, "defensive device" includes a firearm; a dangerous weapon; an authorized tear gas compound, as defined in section 624.731, subdivision 1; an electronic incapacitation device, as defined in section 624.731, subdivision 1; a club or baton; and any item issued by a peace officer's employer to the officer to assist in the officer's protection.
Whoever intentionally takes possession of a defensive device being carried by a peace officer or from the area within the officer's immediate control, without the officer's consent while the officer is engaged in the performance of official duties, is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3.
A person who violates this section is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years, payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Whoever informs a law enforcement officer that a crime has been committed or otherwise provides information to an on-duty peace officer, knowing that the person is a peace officer, regarding the conduct of others, knowing that it is false and intending that the officer shall act in reliance upon it, is guilty of a misdemeanor. A person who is convicted a second or subsequent time under this section is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(a) Whoever informs, or causes information to be communicated to, a peace officer, whose responsibilities include investigating or reporting police misconduct, that a peace officer, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), has committed an act of police misconduct, knowing that the information is false, is guilty of a crime and may be sentenced as follows:
(1) up to the maximum provided for a misdemeanor if the false information does not allege a criminal act; or
(2) up to the maximum provided for a gross misdemeanor if the false information alleges a criminal act.
(b) The court shall order any person convicted of a violation of this subdivision to make full restitution of all reasonable expenses incurred in the investigation of the false allegation unless the court makes a specific written finding that restitution would be inappropriate under the circumstances. A restitution award may not exceed $3,000.
Whoever uses the criminal alert network under section 299A.61 to disseminate information regarding the commission of a crime knowing that it is false or misleading, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Whoever with intent to obstruct justice gives a fictitious name other than a nickname, or gives a false date of birth, or false or fraudulently altered identification card to a peace officer, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), when that officer makes inquiries incident to a lawful investigatory stop or lawful arrest, or inquiries incident to executing any other duty imposed by law, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Whoever with intent to obstruct justice gives the name and date of birth of another person to a peace officer, as defined in subdivision 1, when the officer makes inquiries incident to a lawful investigatory stop or lawful arrest, or inquiries incident to executing any other duty imposed by law, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
Whoever in any criminal proceeding with intent to obstruct justice gives a fictitious name, other than a nickname, or gives a false date of birth to a court official is guilty of a misdemeanor. Whoever in any criminal proceeding with intent to obstruct justice gives the name and date of birth of another person to a court official is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. "Court official" includes a judge, referee, court administrator, or any employee of the court.
A person is guilty of a misdemeanor who:
(1) informs another person that a person has committed sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect of a child, as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2;
(2) knows that the allegation is false or is without reason to believe that the alleged abuser committed the abuse or neglect; and
(3) has the intent that the information influence a child custody hearing.
A person is guilty of a misdemeanor if the person informs a financial institution, orally or in writing, that one or more of the person's blank checks or debit cards have been lost or stolen, knowing or having reason to know that the information is false.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) sends or delivers to another any document which simulates a summons, complaint, or court process with intent thereby to induce payment of a claim; or
(2) prints, distributes, or offers for sale any such document knowing or intending that it shall be so used.
This section does not prohibit the printing, distribution or sale of blank forms of legal documents for use in judicial proceedings.
Whoever does any of the following, when the act is not in violation of section 609.42, is guilty of a misdemeanor:
(1) being a judicial or hearing officer, does either of the following:
(a) agrees with or promises another to determine a cause or controversy or issue pending or to be brought before the officer for or against any party; or
(b) intentionally obtains or receives and uses information relating thereto contrary to the regular course of the proceeding; and
(2) induces a judicial or hearing officer to act contrary to the provisions of this section.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.515; 1971 c 23 s 54; 1986 c 444
In this section:
(1) "Property" means all forms of tangible property, whether real or personal, without limitation including documents of value, electricity, gas, water, corpses, domestic animals, dogs, pets, fowl, and heat supplied by pipe or conduit by municipalities or public utility companies and articles, as defined in clause (4), representing trade secrets, which articles shall be deemed for the purposes of Extra Session Laws 1967, chapter 15 to include any trade secret represented by the article.
(2) "Movable property" is property whose physical location can be changed, including without limitation things growing on, affixed to, or found in land.
(3) "Value" means the retail market value at the time of the theft, or if the retail market value cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacement of the property within a reasonable time after the theft, or in the case of a theft or the making of a copy of an article representing a trade secret, where the retail market value or replacement cost cannot be ascertained, any reasonable value representing the damage to the owner which the owner has suffered by reason of losing an advantage over those who do not know of or use the trade secret. For a check, draft, or other order for the payment of money, "value" means the amount of money promised or ordered to be paid under the terms of the check, draft, or other order. For a theft committed within the meaning of subdivision 2, clause (5), items (i) and (ii), if the property has been restored to the owner, "value" means the value of the use of the property or the damage which it sustained, whichever is greater, while the owner was deprived of its possession, but not exceeding the value otherwise provided herein. For a theft committed within the meaning of subdivision 2, clause (9), if the property has been restored to the owner, "value" means the rental value of the property, determined at the rental rate contracted by the defendant or, if no rental rate was contracted, the rental rate customarily charged by the owner for use of the property, plus any damage that occurred to the property while the owner was deprived of its possession, but not exceeding the total retail value of the property at the time of rental.
(4) "Article" means any object, material, device or substance, including any writing, record, recording, drawing, sample specimen, prototype, model, photograph, microorganism, blueprint or map, or any copy of any of the foregoing.
(5) "Representing" means describing, depicting, containing, constituting, reflecting or recording.
(6) "Trade secret" means information, including a formula, pattern, compilation, program, device, method, technique, or process, that:
(i) derives independent economic value, actual or potential, from not being generally known to, and not being readily ascertainable by proper means by, other persons who can obtain economic value from its disclosure or use, and
(ii) is the subject of efforts that are reasonable under the circumstances to maintain its secrecy.
(7) "Copy" means any facsimile, replica, photograph or other reproduction of an article, and any note, drawing, or sketch made of or from an article while in the presence of the article.
(8) "Property of another" includes property in which the actor is co-owner or has a lien, pledge, bailment, or lease or other subordinate interest, property transferred by the actor in circumstances which are known to the actor and which make the transfer fraudulent as defined in section 513.44, property possessed pursuant to a short-term rental contract, and property of a partnership of which the actor is a member, unless the actor and the victim are husband and wife. It does not include property in which the actor asserts in good faith a claim as a collection fee or commission out of property or funds recovered, or by virtue of a lien, setoff, or counterclaim.
(9) "Services" include but are not limited to labor, professional services, transportation services, electronic computer services, the supplying of hotel accommodations, restaurant services, entertainment services, advertising services, telecommunication services, and the supplying of equipment for use including rental of personal property or equipment.
(10) "Motor vehicle" means a self-propelled device for moving persons or property or pulling implements from one place to another, whether the device is operated on land, rails, water, or in the air.
(11) "Motor fuel" has the meaning given in section 604.15, subdivision 1.
(12) "Retailer" has the meaning given in section 604.15, subdivision 1.
(a) Whoever does any of the following commits theft and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3:
(1) intentionally and without claim of right takes, uses, transfers, conceals or retains possession of movable property of another without the other's consent and with intent to deprive the owner permanently of possession of the property; or
(2) with or without having a legal interest in movable property, intentionally and without consent, takes the property out of the possession of a pledgee or other person having a superior right of possession, with intent thereby to deprive the pledgee or other person permanently of the possession of the property; or
(3) obtains for the actor or another the possession, custody, or title to property of or performance of services by a third person by intentionally deceiving the third person with a false representation which is known to be false, made with intent to defraud, and which does defraud the person to whom it is made. "False representation" includes without limitation:
(i) the issuance of a check, draft, or order for the payment of money, except a forged check as defined in section 609.631, or the delivery of property knowing that the actor is not entitled to draw upon the drawee therefor or to order the payment or delivery thereof; or
(ii) a promise made with intent not to perform. Failure to perform is not evidence of intent not to perform unless corroborated by other substantial evidence; or
(iii) the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement, a rate application, or a cost report used to establish a rate or claim for payment for medical care provided to a recipient of medical assistance under chapter 256B, which intentionally and falsely states the costs of or actual services provided by a vendor of medical care; or
(iv) the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement for providing treatment or supplies required to be furnished to an employee under section 176.135 which intentionally and falsely states the costs of or actual treatment or supplies provided; or
(v) the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement for providing treatment or supplies required to be furnished to an employee under section 176.135 for treatment or supplies that the provider knew were medically unnecessary, inappropriate, or excessive; or
(4) by swindling, whether by artifice, trick, device, or any other means, obtains property or services from another person; or
(5) intentionally commits any of the acts listed in this subdivision but with intent to exercise temporary control only and:
(i) the control exercised manifests an indifference to the rights of the owner or the restoration of the property to the owner; or
(ii) the actor pledges or otherwise attempts to subject the property to an adverse claim; or
(iii) the actor intends to restore the property only on condition that the owner pay a reward or buy back or make other compensation; or
(6) finds lost property and, knowing or having reasonable means of ascertaining the true owner, appropriates it to the finder's own use or to that of another not entitled thereto without first having made reasonable effort to find the owner and offer and surrender the property to the owner; or
(7) intentionally obtains property or services, offered upon the deposit of a sum of money or tokens in a coin or token operated machine or other receptacle, without making the required deposit or otherwise obtaining the consent of the owner; or
(8) intentionally and without claim of right converts any article representing a trade secret, knowing it to be such, to the actor's own use or that of another person or makes a copy of an article representing a trade secret, knowing it to be such, and intentionally and without claim of right converts the same to the actor's own use or that of another person. It shall be a complete defense to any prosecution under this clause for the defendant to show that information comprising the trade secret was rightfully known or available to the defendant from a source other than the owner of the trade secret; or
(9) leases or rents personal property under a written instrument and who:
(i) with intent to place the property beyond the control of the lessor conceals or aids or abets the concealment of the property or any part thereof; or
(ii) sells, conveys, or encumbers the property or any part thereof without the written consent of the lessor, without informing the person to whom the lessee sells, conveys, or encumbers that the same is subject to such lease or rental contract with intent to deprive the lessor of possession thereof; or
(iii) does not return the property to the lessor at the end of the lease or rental term, plus agreed-upon extensions, with intent to wrongfully deprive the lessor of possession of the property; or
(iv) returns the property to the lessor at the end of the lease or rental term, plus agreed-upon extensions, but does not pay the lease or rental charges agreed upon in the written instrument, with intent to wrongfully deprive the lessor of the agreed-upon charges.
For the purposes of items (iii) and (iv), the value of the property must be at least $100.
Evidence that a lessee used a false, fictitious, or not current name, address, or place of employment in obtaining the property or fails or refuses to return the property or pay the rental contract charges to lessor within five days after written demand for the return has been served personally in the manner provided for service of process of a civil action or sent by certified mail to the last known address of the lessee, whichever shall occur later, shall be evidence of intent to violate this clause. Service by certified mail shall be deemed to be complete upon deposit in the United States mail of such demand, postpaid and addressed to the person at the address for the person set forth in the lease or rental agreement, or, in the absence of the address, to the person's last known place of residence; or
(10) alters, removes, or obliterates numbers or symbols placed on movable property for purpose of identification by the owner or person who has legal custody or right to possession thereof with the intent to prevent identification, if the person who alters, removes, or obliterates the numbers or symbols is not the owner and does not have the permission of the owner to make the alteration, removal, or obliteration; or
(11) with the intent to prevent the identification of property involved, so as to deprive the rightful owner of possession thereof, alters or removes any permanent serial number, permanent distinguishing number or manufacturer's identification number on personal property or possesses, sells or buys any personal property knowing or having reason to know that the permanent serial number, permanent distinguishing number or manufacturer's identification number has been removed or altered; or
(12) intentionally deprives another of a lawful charge for cable television service by:
(i) making or using or attempting to make or use an unauthorized external connection outside the individual dwelling unit whether physical, electrical, acoustical, inductive, or other connection; or by
(ii) attaching any unauthorized device to any cable, wire, microwave, or other component of a licensed cable communications system as defined in chapter 238. Nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit the electronic video rerecording of program material transmitted on the cable communications system by a subscriber for fair use as defined by Public Law 94-553, section 107; or
(13) except as provided in clauses (12) and (14), obtains the services of another with the intention of receiving those services without making the agreed or reasonably expected payment of money or other consideration; or
(14) intentionally deprives another of a lawful charge for telecommunications service by:
(i) making, using, or attempting to make or use an unauthorized connection whether physical, electrical, by wire, microwave, radio, or other means to a component of a local telecommunication system as provided in chapter 237; or
(ii) attaching an unauthorized device to a cable, wire, microwave, radio, or other component of a local telecommunication system as provided in chapter 237.
The existence of an unauthorized connection is prima facie evidence that the occupier of the premises:
(A) made or was aware of the connection; and
(B) was aware that the connection was unauthorized;
(15) with intent to defraud, diverts corporate property other than in accordance with general business purposes or for purposes other than those specified in the corporation's articles of incorporation; or
(16) with intent to defraud, authorizes or causes a corporation to make a distribution in violation of section 302A.551, or any other state law in conformity with it; or
(17) takes or drives a motor vehicle without the consent of the owner or an authorized agent of the owner, knowing or having reason to know that the owner or an authorized agent of the owner did not give consent; or
(18) intentionally, and without claim of right, takes motor fuel from a retailer without the retailer's consent and with intent to deprive the retailer permanently of possession of the fuel by driving a motor vehicle from the premises of the retailer without having paid for the fuel dispensed into the vehicle.
(b) Proof that the driver of a motor vehicle into which motor fuel was dispensed drove the vehicle from the premises of the retailer without having paid for the fuel permits the factfinder to infer that the driver acted intentionally and without claim of right, and that the driver intended to deprive the retailer permanently of possession of the fuel. This paragraph does not apply if: (1) payment has been made to the retailer within 30 days of the receipt of notice of nonpayment under section 604.15; or (2) a written notice as described in section 604.15, subdivision 4, disputing the retailer's claim, has been sent. This paragraph does not apply to the owner of a motor vehicle if the vehicle or the vehicle's license plate has been reported stolen before the theft of the fuel.
Whoever commits theft may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $100,000, or both, if the property is a firearm, or the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000 and the conviction is for a violation of subdivision 2, clause (3), (4), (15), or (16), or section 609.2335, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), item (i); or
(2) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the value of the property or services stolen exceeds $5,000, or if the property stolen was an article representing a trade secret, an explosive or incendiary device, or a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II pursuant to section 152.02 with the exception of marijuana; or
(3) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if any of the following circumstances exist:
(a) the value of the property or services stolen is more than $1,000 but not more than $5,000; or
(b) the property stolen was a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V pursuant to section 152.02; or
(c) the value of the property or services stolen is more than $500 but not more than $1,000 and the person has been convicted within the preceding five years for an offense under this section, section 256.98; 268.182; 609.24; 609.245; 609.53; 609.582, subdivision 1, 2, or 3; 609.625; 609.63; 609.631; or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence for the offense, or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence; or
(d) the value of the property or services stolen is not more than $1,000, and any of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the property is taken from the person of another or from a corpse, or grave or coffin containing a corpse; or
(ii) the property is a record of a court or officer, or a writing, instrument or record kept, filed or deposited according to law with or in the keeping of any public officer or office; or
(iii) the property is taken from a burning, abandoned, or vacant building or upon its removal therefrom, or from an area of destruction caused by civil disaster, riot, bombing, or the proximity of battle; or
(iv) the property consists of public funds belonging to the state or to any political subdivision or agency thereof; or
(v) the property stolen is a motor vehicle; or
(4) to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the value of the property or services stolen is more than $500 but not more than $1,000; or
(5) in all other cases where the value of the property or services stolen is $500 or less, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both, provided, however, in any prosecution under subdivision 2, clauses (1), (2), (3), (4), and (13), the value of the money or property or services received by the defendant in violation of any one or more of the above provisions within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of this subdivision; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this paragraph.
If a violation of this section creates a reasonably foreseeable risk of bodily harm to another, the penalties described in subdivision 3 are enhanced as follows:
(1) if the penalty is a misdemeanor or a gross misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both; and
(2) if the penalty is a felony, the statutory maximum sentence for the offense is 50 percent longer than for the underlying crime.
When determining the sentence for a person convicted of theft by wrongfully obtaining public assistance, as defined in section 256.98, subdivision 1, the court shall consider the fact that, under section 256.98, subdivision 8, the person will be disqualified from receiving public assistance as a result of the person's conviction.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.52; 1967 c 178 s 1; Ex1967 c 15 s 1-3; 1971 c 23 s 55; 1971 c 25 s 92; 1971 c 697 s 1; 1971 c 717 s 1; 1971 c 796 s 1; 1971 c 845 s 14; 1975 c 244 s 1; 1976 c 112 s 1; 1976 c 188 s 6; 1977 c 396 s 1; 1978 c 674 s 60; 1979 c 258 s 15; 1981 c 120 s 1; 1981 c 299 s 1; 1983 c 238 s 1; 1983 c 331 s 10; 1984 c 419 s 1; 1984 c 466 s 1; 1984 c 483 s 1; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 5; 1985 c 243 s 7,8; 1986 c 378 s 1; 1986 c 435 s 10; 1986 c 444; 1987 c 254 s 9; 1987 c 329 s 8-10; 1988 c 712 s 7; 1989 c 290 art 7 s 5; 1991 c 279 s 32; 1991 c 292 art 5 s 80; 1992 c 510 art 2 s 14; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 41; 1995 c 244 s 20; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 31,32; 1997 c 66 s 79; 1997 c 239 art 3 s 17; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 18; 1999 c 76 s 1,2; 1999 c 218 s 2; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 31; 2007 c 54 art 2 s 8,9; 2009 c 119 s 9; 2012 c 173 s 5,6
(a) As used in this section, an "electronic article surveillance system" means any electronic device or devices that are designed to detect the unauthorized removal of marked merchandise from a store.
(b) Whoever has in possession any device, gear, or instrument designed to assist in shoplifting or defeating an electronic article surveillance system with intent to use the same to shoplift and thereby commit theft may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
Photographs of property, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, over which a person is alleged to have exerted unauthorized control or to have otherwise obtained unlawfully, are competent evidence if the photographs are admissible into evidence under all rules of law governing the admissibility of photographs into evidence. The photographic record, when satisfactorily identified, is as admissible in evidence as the property itself.
The photographs may bear a written description of the property alleged to have been wrongfully taken, the name of the owner of the property taken, the name of the accused, the name of the arresting law enforcement officer, the date of the photograph, and the signature of the photographer.
A law enforcement agency which is holding property over which a person is alleged to have exerted unauthorized control or to have otherwise obtained unlawfully may return that property to its owner if:
(1) the appropriately identified photographs are filed and retained by the law enforcement agency;
(2) satisfactory proof of ownership of the property is shown by the owner;
(3) a declaration of ownership is signed under penalty of perjury; and
(4) a receipt for the property is obtained from the owner upon delivery by the law enforcement agency.
If the recovered property has a value in excess of $150, then the owner shall retain possession for at least 14 days to allow the defense attorney to examine the property.
Whoever brings property into the state which the actor has stolen outside the state, or received outside of the state knowing it to have been stolen, may be sentenced in accordance with the provisions of section 609.52, subdivision 3. The actor may be charged, indicted, and tried in any county, but not more than one county, into or through which the actor has brought such property.
Property is stolen within the meaning of this section if the act by which the owner was deprived of property was a criminal offense under the laws of the state in which the act was committed and would constitute a theft under this chapter if the act had been committed in this state.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.525; 1986 c 444
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "precious metal dealer" has the meaning given in section 325F.731, subdivision 2; and
(2) "scrap metal dealer" has the meaning given in section 325E.21, subdivision 1.
Any precious metal dealer or scrap metal dealer or any person employed by a dealer, who receives, possesses, transfers, buys, or conceals any stolen property or property obtained by robbery, knowing or having reason to know the property was stolen or obtained by robbery, may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the value of the property received, bought, or concealed is $1,000 or more, to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $50,000, or both;
(2) if the value of the property received, bought, or concealed is less than $1,000 but more than $500, to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $25,000, or both;
(3) if the value of the property received, bought, or concealed is $500 or less, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.
Any person convicted of violating this section a second or subsequent time within a period of one year may be sentenced as provided in clause (1).
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "Direct victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), whose identity has been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of this section.
(c) "False pretense" means any false, fictitious, misleading, or fraudulent information or pretense or pretext depicting or including or deceptively similar to the name, logo, Web site address, e-mail address, postal address, telephone number, or any other identifying information of a for-profit or not-for-profit business or organization or of a government agency, to which the user has no legitimate claim of right.
(d) "Identity" means any name, number, or data transmission that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific individual or entity, including any of the following:
(1) a name, Social Security number, date of birth, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number;
(2) unique electronic identification number, address, account number, or routing code; or
(3) telecommunication identification information or access device.
(e) "Indirect victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), other than a direct victim.
(f) "Loss" means value obtained, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3), and expenses incurred by a direct or indirect victim as a result of a violation of this section.
(g) "Unlawful activity" means:
(1) any felony violation of the laws of this state or any felony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States; and
(2) any nonfelony violation of the laws of this state involving theft, theft by swindle, forgery, fraud, or giving false information to a public official, or any nonfelony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States.
(h) "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on a computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card.
(i) "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, onto the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, or any electronic medium that allows an authorized transaction to occur.
(j) "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that:
(1) is issued to an authorized card user; and
(2) allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive credit, money, a good, a service, or anything of value.
A person who transfers, possesses, or uses an identity that is not the person's own, with the intent to commit, aid, or abet any unlawful activity is guilty of identity theft and may be punished as provided in subdivision 3.
A person who violates subdivision 2 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the offense involves a single direct victim and the total, combined loss to the direct victim and any indirect victims is $250 or less, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (5);
(2) if the offense involves a single direct victim and the total, combined loss to the direct victim and any indirect victims is more than $250 but not more than $500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (4);
(3) if the offense involves two or three direct victims or the total, combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $500 but not more than $2,500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (3);
(4) if the offense involves more than three but not more than seven direct victims, or if the total combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $2,500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (2); and
(5) if the offense involves eight or more direct victims; or if the total, combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000; or if the offense is related to possession or distribution of pornographic work in violation of section 617.246 or 617.247; the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (1).
(a) A direct or indirect victim of an identity theft crime shall be considered a victim for all purposes, including any rights that accrue under chapter 611A and rights to court-ordered restitution.
(b) The court shall order a person convicted of violating subdivision 2 to pay restitution of not less than $1,000 to each direct victim of the offense.
(c) Upon the written request of a direct victim or the prosecutor setting forth with specificity the facts and circumstances of the offense in a proposed order, the court shall provide to the victim, without cost, a certified copy of the complaint filed in the matter, the judgment of conviction, and an order setting forth the facts and circumstances of the offense.
(a) A person who has learned or reasonably suspects that a person is a direct victim of a crime under subdivision 2 may initiate a law enforcement investigation by contacting the local law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction where the person resides, regardless of where the crime may have occurred. The agency must prepare a police report of the matter, provide the complainant with a copy of that report, and may begin an investigation of the facts, or, if the suspected crime was committed in a different jurisdiction, refer the matter to the law enforcement agency where the suspected crime was committed for an investigation of the facts.
(b) If a law enforcement agency refers a report to the law enforcement agency where the crime was committed, it need not include the report as a crime committed in its jurisdiction for purposes of information that the agency is required to provide to the commissioner of public safety pursuant to section 299C.06.
(a) A person who, with intent to obtain the identity of another, uses a false pretense in an e-mail to another person or in a Web page, electronic communication, advertisement, or any other communication on the Internet, is guilty of a crime.
(b) Whoever commits such offense may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
(c) In a prosecution under this subdivision, it is not a defense that:
(1) the person committing the offense did not obtain the identity of another;
(2) the person committing the offense did not use the identity; or
(3) the offense did not result in financial loss or any other loss to any person.
(a) A person who uses a scanning device or reencoder without permission of the cardholder of the card from which the information is being scanned or reencoded, with the intent to commit, aid, or abet any unlawful activity, is guilty of a crime.
(b) A person who possesses, with the intent to commit, aid, or abet any unlawful activity, any device, apparatus, equipment, software, material, good, property, or supply that is designed or adapted for use as a scanning device or a reencoder is guilty of a crime.
(c) Whoever commits an offense under paragraph (a) or (b) may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 627.01, an offense committed under subdivision 2, 5a, or 5b may be prosecuted in:
(1) the county where the offense occurred;
(2) the county of residence or place of business of the direct victim or indirect victim; or
(3) in the case of a violation of subdivision 5a or 5b, the county of residence of the person whose identity was obtained or sought.
In any prosecution under subdivision 2, the value of the money or property or services the defendant receives or the number of direct or indirect victims within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of subdivision 3; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this subdivision.
1999 c 244 s 2; 2000 c 354 s 3; 2003 c 106 s 1-3; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 8 s 9; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 32-36; 2010 c 293 s 2-4
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "Direct victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), from whom a check is stolen or whose name or other identifying information is contained in a counterfeit check.
(c) "Indirect victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), other than a direct victim.
(d) "Loss" means value obtained, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3), and expenses incurred by a direct or indirect victim as a result of a violation of this section.
A person who sells, possesses, receives, or transfers a check that is stolen or counterfeit, knowing or having reason to know the check is stolen or counterfeit, is guilty of a crime and may be punished as provided in subdivision 3.
A person who violates subdivision 2 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the offense involves a single direct victim and the total, combined loss to the direct victim and any indirect victims is $250 or less, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (5);
(2) if the offense involves a single direct victim and the total, combined loss to the direct victim and any indirect victims is more than $250 but not more than $500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (4);
(3) if the offense involves two or three direct victims or the total, combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $500 but not more than $2,500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (3); and
(4) if the offense involves four or more direct victims, or if the total, combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $2,500, the person may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (2).
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "Mail" means a letter, postal card, package, bag, or other sealed article addressed to another.
(c) "Mail depository" means a mail box, letter box, or mail receptacle; a post office or station of a post office; a mail route; or a postal service vehicle.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of mail theft and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3:
(1) intentionally and without claim of right removes mail from a mail depository;
(2) intentionally and without claim of right takes mail from a mail carrier;
(3) obtains custody of mail by intentionally deceiving a mail carrier, or other person who rightfully possesses or controls the mail, with a false representation which is known to be false, made with intent to deceive and which does deceive a mail carrier or other person who possesses or controls the mail;
(4) intentionally and without claim of right removes the contents of mail addressed to another;
(5) intentionally and without claim of right takes mail, or the contents of mail, that has been left for collection on or near a mail depository; or
(6) receives, possesses, transfers, buys, or conceals mail obtained by acts described in clauses (1) to (5), knowing or having reason to know the mail was obtained illegally.
A person convicted under subdivision 2 may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to a payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.
Except as otherwise provided in section 609.526, any person who receives, possesses, transfers, buys or conceals any stolen property or property obtained by robbery, knowing or having reason to know the property was stolen or obtained by robbery, may be sentenced in accordance with the provisions of section 609.52, subdivision 3.
Any person who has been injured by a violation of subdivision 1 or section 609.526 may bring an action for three times the amount of actual damages sustained by the plaintiff or $1,500, whichever is greater, and the costs of suit and reasonable attorney's fees.
In this section, "value" has the meaning defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3).
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.53; 1973 c 669 s 1; 1979 c 232 s 1,2; 1981 c 333 s 14-17; 1982 c 613 s 1-4; 1984 c 483 s 2; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1987 c 384 art 1 s 46,47; 1989 c 290 art 7 s 7,8
For the purpose of sections 609.531 to 609.5318, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(a) "Conveyance device" means a device used for transportation and includes, but is not limited to, a motor vehicle, trailer, snowmobile, airplane, and vessel and any equipment attached to it. The term "conveyance device" does not include property which is, in fact, itself stolen or taken in violation of the law.
(b) "Weapon used" means a dangerous weapon as defined under section 609.02, subdivision 6, that the actor used or had in possession in furtherance of a crime.
(c) "Property" means property as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (1).
(d) "Contraband" means property which is illegal to possess under Minnesota law.
(e) "Appropriate agency" means the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, the Department of Commerce Fraud Bureau, the Minnesota Division of Driver and Vehicle Services, the Minnesota State Patrol, a county sheriff's department, the Three Rivers Park District park rangers, the Department of Natural Resources Division of Enforcement, the University of Minnesota Police Department, the Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit, a city, metropolitan transit, or airport police department; or a multijurisdictional entity established under section 299A.642 or 299A.681.
(f) "Designated offense" includes:
(1) for weapons used: any violation of this chapter, chapter 152 or 624;
(2) for driver's license or identification card transactions: any violation of section 171.22; and
(3) for all other purposes: a felony violation of, or a felony-level attempt or conspiracy to violate, section 325E.17; 325E.18; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.2112; 609.2113; 609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.2231; 609.2335; 609.24; 609.245; 609.25; 609.255; 609.282; 609.283; 609.322; 609.342, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f); 609.343, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f); 609.344, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (e), and (h) to (j); 609.345, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (e), and (h) to (j); 609.352; 609.42; 609.425; 609.466; 609.485; 609.487; 609.52; 609.525; 609.527; 609.528; 609.53; 609.54; 609.551; 609.561; 609.562; 609.563; 609.582; 609.59; 609.595; 609.611; 609.631; 609.66, subdivision 1e; 609.671, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, 8, and 12; 609.687; 609.821; 609.825; 609.86; 609.88; 609.89; 609.893; 609.895; 617.246; 617.247; or a gross misdemeanor or felony violation of section 609.891 or 624.7181; or any violation of section 609.324; or a felony violation of, or a felony-level attempt or conspiracy to violate, Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21.
(g) "Controlled substance" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 4.
(h) "Prosecuting authority" means the attorney who is responsible for prosecuting an offense that is the basis for a forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5318.
Sections 609.531 to 609.5318 must be liberally construed to carry out the following remedial purposes:
(1) to enforce the law;
(2) to deter crime;
(3) to reduce the economic incentive to engage in criminal enterprise;
(4) to increase the pecuniary loss resulting from the detection of criminal activity; and
(5) to forfeit property unlawfully used or acquired and divert the property to law enforcement purposes.
(a) Property subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5318 may be seized by the appropriate agency upon process issued by any court having jurisdiction over the property. Property may be seized without process if:
(1) the seizure is incident to a lawful arrest or a lawful search;
(2) the property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the state in a criminal injunction or forfeiture proceeding under this chapter; or
(3) the appropriate agency has probable cause to believe that the delay occasioned by the necessity to obtain process would result in the removal or destruction of the property and that:
(i) the property was used or is intended to be used in commission of a felony; or
(ii) the property is dangerous to health or safety.
If property is seized without process under item (i), the prosecuting authority must institute a forfeiture action under section 609.5313 as soon as is reasonably possible.
(b) When property is seized, the officer must provide a receipt to the person found in possession of the property; or in the absence of any person, the officer must leave a receipt in the place where the property was found, if reasonably possible.
All right, title, and interest in property subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5318 vests in the appropriate agency upon commission of the act or omission giving rise to the forfeiture. Any property seized under sections 609.531 to 609.5318 is not subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the custody of the appropriate agency subject to the orders and decrees of the court having jurisdiction over the forfeiture proceedings. When property is so seized, the appropriate agency shall use reasonable diligence to secure the property and prevent waste and may do any of the following:
(1) place the property under seal;
(2) remove the property to a place designated by it; and
(3) in the case of controlled substances, require the state Board of Pharmacy to take custody of the property and remove it to an appropriate location for disposition in accordance with law.
(a) If the owner of property that has been seized under sections 609.531 to 609.5318 seeks possession of the property before the forfeiture action is determined, the owner may give security or post bond payable to the appropriate agency in an amount equal to the retail value of the seized property. On posting the security or bond, the seized property must be returned to the owner and the forfeiture action shall proceed against the security as if it were the seized property. This subdivision does not apply to contraband property or property being held for investigatory purposes.
(b) If the owner of a motor vehicle that has been seized under this section seeks possession of the vehicle before the forfeiture action is determined, the owner may surrender the vehicle's certificate of title in exchange for the vehicle. The motor vehicle must be returned to the owner within 24 hours if the owner surrenders the motor vehicle's certificate of title to the appropriate agency, pending resolution of the forfeiture action. If the certificate is surrendered, the owner may not be ordered to post security or bond as a condition of release of the vehicle. When a certificate of title is surrendered under this provision, the agency shall notify the Department of Public Safety and any secured party noted on the certificate. The agency shall also notify the department and the secured party when it returns a surrendered title to the motor vehicle owner.
(a) An action for forfeiture is a civil in rem action and is independent of any criminal prosecution, except as provided in this subdivision.
(b) An asset is subject to forfeiture by judicial determination under sections 609.5311 to 609.5318 only if:
(1) a person is convicted of the criminal offense related to the action for forfeiture; or
(2) a person is not charged with a criminal offense under chapter 152 related to the action for forfeiture based in whole or in part on the person's agreement to provide information regarding the criminal activity of another person.
For purposes of clause (1), an admission of guilt to an offense chargeable under chapter 152, a sentence under section 152.152, a stay of adjudication under section 152.18, or a referral to a diversion program for an offense chargeable under chapter 152 is considered a conviction.
(c) The appropriate agency handling the judicial forfeiture may introduce into evidence in the judicial forfeiture case in civil court the agreement in paragraph (b), clause (2).
(d) The appropriate agency handling the judicial forfeiture bears the burden of proving by clear and convincing evidence that the property is an instrument or represents the proceeds of the underlying offense.
Prior to the entry of a court order disposing with the forfeiture action, any person who has an interest in forfeited property may file with the prosecuting authority a petition for remission or mitigation of the forfeiture. The prosecuting authority may remit or mitigate the forfeiture upon terms and conditions the prosecuting authority deems reasonable if the prosecuting authority finds that: (1) the forfeiture was incurred without willful negligence or without any intention on the part of the petitioner to violate the law; or (2) extenuating circumstances justify the remission or mitigation of the forfeiture.
(a) By December 1, 2010, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, after consulting with the Minnesota County Attorneys Association, the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association, the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, and the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, shall develop a model policy that articulates best practices for forfeiture and is designed to encourage the uniform application of forfeiture laws statewide. At a minimum, the policy shall address the following:
(1) best practices in pursuing, seizing, and tracking forfeitures;
(2) type and frequency of training for law enforcement on forfeiture laws; and
(3) situations in which forfeitures should not be pursued.
(b) By December 1, 2010, the Minnesota County Attorneys Association, after consulting with the attorney general, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association, the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, and the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, shall develop a model policy that articulates best practices for forfeiture and is designed to encourage the uniform application of forfeiture laws statewide. At a minimum, the policy shall address the following:
(1) statutory role of prosecuting authorities in forfeiture procedures;
(2) best practices for timely and fair resolution of forfeiture cases;
(3) type and frequency of training for prosecuting authorities on forfeiture laws; and
(4) situations in which forfeitures should not be pursued.
(c) By December 1, 2010, the Minnesota County Attorneys Association and the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board shall forward an electronic copy of its respective model policy to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees having jurisdiction over criminal justice and civil law policy.
(d) By March 1, 2011, the chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency and every prosecution office in the state shall adopt and implement a written policy on forfeiture that is identical or substantially similar to the model policies developed under paragraphs (a) and (b). The written policy shall be made available to the public upon request.
1984 c 625 s 1; 1985 c 160 s 2; 1Sp1985 c 16 art 2 s 15; 1986 c 351 s 17; 1986 c 444; 1986 c 446 s 4; 1987 c 267 s 2; 1988 c 665 s 5-10; 1988 c 712 s 8; 1989 c 95 s 1; 1989 c 290 art 3 s 29; 1989 c 305 s 4; 1990 c 494 s 2; 1991 c 199 art 1 s 85; 1991 c 323 s 1; 1991 c 347 art 3 s 3; 1993 c 221 s 6; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 5; art 4 s 27,28; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 11; 1999 c 142 s 1; 1999 c 244 s 3; 2000 c 354 s 5; 2004 c 295 art 1 s 16; 2005 c 82 s 12; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 8; art 17 s 37; 2008 c 287 art 1 s 112; 2008 c 363 art 6 s 10; 2010 c 383 s 4; 2010 c 391 s 7-11; 2012 c 128 s 16,17,26; 2013 c 135 art 3 s 22; 2014 c 201 s 1; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 102; 2015 c 65 art 6 s 16
All controlled substances that were manufactured, distributed, dispensed, or acquired in violation of chapter 152 are subject to forfeiture under this section, except as provided in subdivision 3 and section 609.5316.
(a) All property, real and personal, that has been used, or is intended for use, or has in any way facilitated, in whole or in part, the manufacturing, compounding, processing, delivering, importing, cultivating, exporting, transporting, or exchanging of contraband or a controlled substance that has not been lawfully manufactured, distributed, dispensed, and acquired is subject to forfeiture under this section, except as provided in subdivision 3.
(b) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize real property for the purposes of forfeiture under paragraph (a).
[See Note.]
(a) A conveyance device is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the retail value of the controlled substance is $75 or more and the conveyance device is associated with a felony-level controlled substance crime.
(b) Real property is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the retail value of the controlled substance or contraband is $2,000 or more.
(c) Property used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the owner of the property is a consenting party to, or is privy to, the use or intended use of the property as described in subdivision 2.
(d) Property is subject to forfeiture under this section only if its owner was privy to the use or intended use described in subdivision 2, or the unlawful use or intended use of the property otherwise occurred with the owner's knowledge or consent.
(e) Forfeiture under this section of a conveyance device or real property encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party unless the secured party had knowledge of or consented to the act or omission upon which the forfeiture is based. A person claiming a security interest bears the burden of establishing that interest by clear and convincing evidence.
(f) Forfeiture under this section of real property is subject to the interests of a good faith purchaser for value unless the purchaser had knowledge of or consented to the act or omission upon which the forfeiture is based.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraphs (d), (e), and (f), property is not subject to forfeiture based solely on the owner's or secured party's knowledge of the unlawful use or intended use of the property if: (1) the owner or secured party took reasonable steps to terminate use of the property by the offender; or (2) the property is real property owned by the parent of the offender, unless the parent actively participated in, or knowingly acquiesced to, a violation of chapter 152, or the real property constitutes proceeds derived from or traceable to a use described in subdivision 2.
(h) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize a conveyance device or real property, for the purposes of forfeiture under paragraphs (a) to (g).
(a) All books, records, and research products and materials, including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data that are used, or intended for use in the manner described in subdivision 2 are subject to forfeiture.
(b) All property, real and personal, that represents proceeds derived from or traceable to a use described in subdivision 2 is subject to forfeiture.
1988 c 665 s 11; 1989 c 290 art 3 s 30; 1989 c 305 s 5,6; 1992 c 533 s 2; 1993 c 6 s 5; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 6; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 9,10; 2010 c 391 s 12
NOTE: Subdivision 2 was found unconstitutional as applied to homestead property in Torgelson v. Real Property, 749 N.W.2d 24 (Minn. 2008).
(a) All personal property is subject to forfeiture if it was used or intended for use to commit or facilitate the commission of a designated offense. All money and other property, real and personal, that represent proceeds of a designated offense, and all contraband property, are subject to forfeiture, except as provided in this section.
(b) All money used or intended to be used to facilitate the commission of a violation of section 609.322 or 609.324 or a violation of a local ordinance substantially similar to section 609.322 or 609.324 is subject to forfeiture.
(c) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize real property for the purposes of forfeiture under paragraph (a).
(a) As used in this subdivision, "property" has the meaning given in section 609.87, subdivision 6.
(b) When a computer or a component part of a computer is used or intended for use to commit or facilitate the commission of a designated offense, the computer and all software, data, and other property contained in the computer are subject to forfeiture unless prohibited by the Privacy Protection Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 2000aa to 2000aa-12, or other state or federal law.
(c) Regardless of whether a forfeiture action is initiated following the lawful seizure of a computer and related property, if the appropriate agency returns hardware, software, data, or other property to the owner, the agency may charge the owner for the cost of separating contraband from the computer or other property returned, including salary and contract costs. The agency may not charge these costs to an owner of a computer or related property who was not privy to the act or omission upon which the seizure was based, or who did not have knowledge of or consent to the act or omission, if the owner:
(1) requests from the agency copies of specified legitimate data files and provides sufficient storage media; or
(2) requests the return of a computer or other property less data storage devices on which contraband resides.
(a) Property used by a person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the owner of the property is a consenting party to, or is privy to, the commission of a designated offense.
(b) Property is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the owner was privy to the act or omission upon which the forfeiture is based, or the act or omission occurred with the owner's knowledge or consent.
(c) Property encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party unless the party had knowledge of or consented to the act or omission upon which the forfeiture is based. A person claiming a security interest bears the burden of establishing that interest by clear and convincing evidence.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c), property is not subject to forfeiture based solely on the owner's or secured party's knowledge of the act or omission upon which the forfeiture is based if the owner or secured party took reasonable steps to terminate use of the property by the offender.
(a) A motor vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this subdivision if it was used to commit or facilitate, or used during the commission of, a violation of section 609.324 or a violation of a local ordinance substantially similar to section 609.324. A motor vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this subdivision only if the offense is established by proof of a criminal conviction for the offense. Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, a forfeiture under this subdivision is governed by sections 609.531, 609.5312, and 609.5313.
(b) When a motor vehicle subject to forfeiture under this subdivision is seized in advance of a judicial forfeiture order, a hearing before a judge or referee must be held within 96 hours of the seizure. Notice of the hearing must be given to the registered owner within 48 hours of the seizure. The prosecuting authority shall certify to the court, at or in advance of the hearing, that it has filed or intends to file charges against the alleged violator for violating section 609.324 or a local ordinance substantially similar to section 609.324. After conducting the hearing, the court shall order that the motor vehicle be returned to the owner if:
(1) the prosecuting authority has failed to make the certification required by paragraph (b);
(2) the owner of the motor vehicle has demonstrated to the court's satisfaction that the owner has a defense to the forfeiture, including but not limited to the defenses contained in subdivision 2; or
(3) the court determines that seizure of the vehicle creates or would create an undue hardship for members of the owner's family.
(c) If the defendant is acquitted or prostitution charges against the defendant are dismissed, neither the owner nor the defendant is responsible for paying any costs associated with the seizure or storage of the vehicle.
(d) A vehicle leased or rented under section 168.27, subdivision 4, for a period of 180 days or less is not subject to forfeiture under this subdivision.
(e) For purposes of this subdivision, seizure occurs either:
(1) at the date at which personal service of process upon the registered owner is made; or
(2) at the date when the registered owner has been notified by certified mail at the address listed in the Minnesota Department of Public Safety computerized motor vehicle registration records.
(f) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not participate in paragraphs (a) to (e).
(a) A motor vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this subdivision if it was used to commit a violation of section 609.487 and endanger life or property. A motor vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this subdivision only if the offense is established by proof of a criminal conviction for the offense. Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, a forfeiture under this subdivision is governed by sections 609.531, 609.5312, 609.5313, and 609.5315, subdivision 6.
(b) When a motor vehicle subject to forfeiture under this subdivision is seized in advance of a judicial forfeiture order, a hearing before a judge or referee must be held within 96 hours of the seizure. Notice of the hearing must be given to the registered owner within 48 hours of the seizure. The prosecuting authority shall certify to the court, at or in advance of the hearing, that it has filed or intends to file charges against the alleged violator for violating section 609.487. After conducting the hearing, the court shall order that the motor vehicle be returned to the owner if:
(1) the prosecuting authority has failed to make the certification required by this paragraph;
(2) the owner of the motor vehicle has demonstrated to the court's satisfaction that the owner has a defense to the forfeiture, including but not limited to the defenses contained in subdivision 2; or
(3) the court determines that seizure of the vehicle creates or would create an undue hardship for members of the owner's family.
(c) If the defendant is acquitted or the charges against the defendant are dismissed, neither the owner nor the defendant is responsible for paying any costs associated with the seizure or storage of the vehicle.
(d) A vehicle leased or rented under section 168.27, subdivision 4, for a period of 180 days or less is not subject to forfeiture under this subdivision.
(e) A motor vehicle that is an off-road recreational vehicle as defined in section 169A.03, subdivision 16, or a motorboat as defined in section 169A.03, subdivision 13, is not subject to paragraph (b).
(f) For purposes of this subdivision, seizure occurs either:
(1) at the date at which personal service of process upon the registered owner is made; or
(2) at the date when the registered owner has been notified by certified mail at the address listed in the Minnesota Department of Public Safety computerized motor vehicle registration records.
(g) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize a motor vehicle for the purposes of forfeiture under paragraphs (a) to (f).
1988 c 665 s 12; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 7; art 4 s 29; 1994 c 465 art 1 s 59; 1995 c 244 s 21; 2000 c 466 s 5; 2000 c 478 art 2 s 7; 1Sp2003 c 2 art 4 s 25,26; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 11-13; art 17 s 38; 2012 c 128 s 26; 2013 c 80 s 1
(a) The forfeiture of property under sections 609.5311 and 609.5312 is governed by this section. A separate complaint must be filed against the property stating the act, omission, or occurrence giving rise to the forfeiture and the date and place of the act or occurrence. Within 60 days from when the seizure occurs, the prosecuting authority shall notify the owner or possessor of the property of the action, if known or readily ascertainable. The action must be captioned in the name of the prosecuting authority or the prosecuting authority's designee as plaintiff and the property as defendant. Upon motion by the prosecuting authority, a court may extend the time period for sending notice for a period not to exceed 90 days for good cause shown.
(b) If notice is not sent in accordance with paragraph (a), and no time extension is granted or the extension period has expired, the appropriate agency shall return the property to the person from whom the property was seized, if known. An agency's return of property due to lack of proper notice does not restrict the right of the agency to commence a forfeiture proceeding at a later time. The agency shall not be required to return contraband or other property that the person from whom the property was seized may not legally possess.
(a) The following are presumed to be subject to administrative forfeiture under this section:
(1) all money, precious metals, and precious stones found in proximity to:
(i) controlled substances;
(ii) forfeitable drug manufacturing or distributing equipment or devices; or
(iii) forfeitable records of manufacture or distribution of controlled substances;
(2) all conveyance devices containing controlled substances with a retail value of $100 or more if possession or sale of the controlled substance would be a felony under chapter 152; and
(3) all firearms, ammunition, and firearm accessories found:
(i) in a conveyance device used or intended for use to commit or facilitate the commission of a felony offense involving a controlled substance;
(ii) on or in proximity to a person from whom a felony amount of controlled substance is seized; or
(iii) on the premises where a controlled substance is seized and in proximity to the controlled substance, if possession or sale of the controlled substance would be a felony under chapter 152.
(b) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize items listed in paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (3), for the purposes of forfeiture.
(c) A claimant of the property bears the burden to rebut this presumption.
(a) Forfeiture of property described in subdivision 1 that does not exceed $50,000 in value is governed by this subdivision. Within 60 days from when seizure occurs, all persons known to have an ownership, possessory, or security interest in seized property must be notified of the seizure and the intent to forfeit the property. In the case of a motor vehicle required to be registered under chapter 168, notice mailed by certified mail to the address shown in Department of Public Safety records is deemed sufficient notice to the registered owner. The notification to a person known to have a security interest in seized property required under this paragraph applies only to motor vehicles required to be registered under chapter 168 and only if the security interest is listed on the vehicle's title. Upon motion by the appropriate agency or the prosecuting authority, a court may extend the time period for sending notice for a period not to exceed 90 days for good cause shown.
(b) Notice may otherwise be given in the manner provided by law for service of a summons in a civil action. The notice must be in writing and contain:
(1) a description of the property seized;
(2) the date of seizure; and
(3) notice of the right to obtain judicial review of the forfeiture and of the procedure for obtaining that judicial review, printed in English. This requirement does not preclude the appropriate agency from printing the notice in other languages in addition to English.
Substantially the following language must appear conspicuously in the notice:
"WARNING: You will automatically lose the above-described property and the right to be heard in court if you do not file a lawsuit and serve the prosecuting authority within 60 days. You may file your lawsuit in conciliation court if the property is worth $15,000 or less; otherwise, you must file in district court. You may not have to pay a filing fee for your lawsuit if you are unable to afford the fee. You do not have to pay a conciliation court fee if your property is worth less than $500."
(c) If notice is not sent in accordance with paragraph (a), and no time extension is granted or the extension period has expired, the appropriate agency shall return the property to the person from whom the property was seized, if known. An agency's return of property due to lack of proper notice does not restrict the agency's authority to commence a forfeiture proceeding at a later time. The agency shall not be required to return contraband or other property that the person from whom the property was seized may not legally possess.
(a) Within 60 days following service of a notice of seizure and forfeiture under this section, a claimant may file a demand for a judicial determination of the forfeiture. The demand must be in the form of a civil complaint and must be filed with the court administrator in the county in which the seizure occurred, together with proof of service of a copy of the complaint on the prosecuting authority for that county, and the standard filing fee for civil actions unless the petitioner has the right to sue in forma pauperis under section 563.01. The claimant may serve the complaint on the prosecuting authority by any means permitted by court rules. If the value of the seized property is $15,000 or less, the claimant may file an action in conciliation court for recovery of the seized property. If the value of the seized property is less than $500, the claimant does not have to pay the conciliation court filing fee. No responsive pleading is required of the prosecuting authority and no court fees may be charged for the prosecuting authority's appearance in the matter. The district court administrator shall schedule the hearing as soon as practicable after, and in any event no later than 90 days following, the conclusion of the criminal prosecution. The proceedings are governed by the Rules of Civil Procedure.
(b) The complaint must be captioned in the name of the claimant as plaintiff and the seized property as defendant, and must state with specificity the grounds on which the claimant alleges the property was improperly seized and the plaintiff's interest in the property seized. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, an action for the return of property seized under this section may not be maintained by or on behalf of any person who has been served with a notice of seizure and forfeiture unless the person has complied with this subdivision.
(c) If the claimant makes a timely demand for judicial determination under this subdivision, the appropriate agency must conduct the forfeiture under section 609.531, subdivision 6a. The limitations and defenses set forth in section 609.5311, subdivision 3, apply to the judicial determination.
(d) If a demand for judicial determination of an administrative forfeiture is filed under this subdivision and the court orders the return of the seized property, the court shall order that filing fees be reimbursed to the person who filed the demand. In addition, the court may order sanctions under section 549.211. If the court orders payment of these costs, they must be paid from forfeited money or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property from the appropriate law enforcement and prosecuting agencies in the same proportion as they would be distributed under section 609.5315, subdivision 5.
1988 c 665 s 14; 1989 c 290 art 3 s 31; 1991 c 323 s 2,3; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 8,9; 1997 c 213 art 2 s 5; 1999 c 225 s 3,4; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 14; 2010 c 391 s 14,15; 2011 c 76 art 1 s 67; 2012 c 128 s 18,19; 2014 c 201 s 2
(a) Subject to paragraph (b), if the court finds under section 609.5313, 609.5314, or 609.5318 that the property is subject to forfeiture, it shall order the appropriate agency to do one of the following:
(1) unless a different disposition is provided under clause (3) or (4), either destroy firearms, ammunition, and firearm accessories that the agency decides not to use for law enforcement purposes under clause (8), or sell them to federally licensed firearms dealers, as defined in section 624.7161, subdivision 1, and distribute the proceeds under subdivision 5 or 5b;
(2) sell property that is not required to be destroyed by law and is not harmful to the public and distribute the proceeds under subdivision 5 or 5b;
(3) sell antique firearms, as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 3, to the public and distribute the proceeds under subdivision 5 or 5b;
(4) destroy or use for law enforcement purposes semiautomatic military-style assault weapons, as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 7;
(5) take custody of the property and remove it for disposition in accordance with law;
(6) forward the property to the federal drug enforcement administration;
(7) disburse money as provided under subdivision 5, 5b, or 5c; or
(8) keep property other than money for official use by the agency and the prosecuting agency.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the Hennepin or Ramsey County sheriff may not sell firearms, ammunition, or firearms accessories if the policy is disapproved by the applicable county board.
(c) If property is sold under paragraph (a), the appropriate agency shall not sell property to: (1) an officer or employee of the agency that seized the property or to a person related to the officer or employee by blood or marriage; or (2) the prosecuting authority or any individual working in the same office or a person related to the authority or individual by blood or marriage.
(d) Sales of forfeited property under this section must be conducted in a commercially reasonable manner.
If property is forfeited administratively under section 609.5314 or 609.5318 and no demand for judicial determination is made, the appropriate agency shall provide the prosecuting authority with a copy of the forfeiture or evidence receipt, the notice of seizure and intent to forfeit, a statement of probable cause for forfeiture of the property, and a description of the property and its estimated value. Upon review and certification by the prosecuting authority that (1) the appropriate agency provided a receipt in accordance with section 609.531, subdivision 4, or 626.16; (2) the appropriate agency served notice in accordance with section 609.5314, subdivision 2, or 609.5318, subdivision 2; and (3) probable cause for forfeiture exists based on the officer's statement, the appropriate agency may dispose of the property in any of the ways listed in subdivision 1.
(a) Property kept under this section may be used only in the performance of official duties of the appropriate agency or prosecuting agency and may not be used for any other purpose. If an appropriate agency keeps a forfeited motor vehicle for official use, it shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the motor vehicle is available for use and adaptation by the agency's officers who participate in the drug abuse resistance education program.
(b) Proceeds from the sale of property kept under this subdivision must be disbursed as provided in subdivision 5.
Property that consists of proceeds derived from or traced to the commission of a designated offense or a violation of section 609.66, subdivision 1e, must be applied first to payment of seizure, storage, forfeiture, and sale expenses, and to satisfy valid liens against the property; and second, to any court-ordered restitution before being disbursed as provided under subdivision 5.
The money or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property, after payment of seizure, storage, forfeiture, and sale expenses, and satisfaction of valid liens against the property, must be distributed as follows:
(1) 70 percent of the money or proceeds must be forwarded to the appropriate agency for deposit as a supplement to the agency's operating fund or similar fund for use in law enforcement;
(2) 20 percent of the money or proceeds must be forwarded to the prosecuting authority that handled the forfeiture for deposit as a supplement to its operating fund or similar fund for prosecutorial purposes; and
(3) the remaining ten percent of the money or proceeds must be forwarded within 60 days after resolution of the forfeiture to the state treasury and credited to the general fund. Any local police relief association organized under chapter 423 which received or was entitled to receive the proceeds of any sale made under this section before the effective date of Laws 1988, chapter 665, sections 1 to 17, shall continue to receive and retain the proceeds of these sales.
The proceeds from the sale of motor vehicles forfeited under section 609.5312, subdivision 3, after payment of seizure, storage, forfeiture, and sale expenses, and satisfaction of valid liens against the vehicle, shall be distributed as follows:
(1) 40 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the appropriate agency for deposit as a supplement to the agency's operating fund or similar fund for use in law enforcement;
(2) 20 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the prosecuting authority that handled the forfeiture for deposit as a supplement to its operating fund or similar fund for prosecutorial purposes; and
(3) the remaining 40 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the city treasury for distribution to neighborhood crime prevention programs.
(a) Except as provided in subdivision 5c, for forfeitures resulting from violations of section 609.282, 609.283, or 609.322, the money or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property, after payment of seizure, storage, forfeiture, and sale expenses, and satisfaction of valid liens against the property, must be distributed as follows:
(1) 40 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the appropriate agency for deposit as a supplement to the agency's operating fund or similar fund for use in law enforcement;
(2) 20 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the prosecuting authority that handled the forfeiture for deposit as a supplement to its operating fund or similar fund for prosecutorial purposes; and
(3) the remaining 40 percent of the proceeds must be forwarded to the commissioner of public safety and are appropriated to the commissioner for distribution to crime victims services organizations that provide services to victims of trafficking offenses.
(b) By February 15 of each year, the commissioner of public safety shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees or divisions having jurisdiction over criminal justice funding on the money collected under paragraph (a), clause (3). The report must indicate the following relating to the preceding calendar year:
(1) the amount of money appropriated to the commissioner;
(2) how the money was distributed by the commissioner; and
(3) what the organizations that received the money did with it.
Money forfeited under section 609.5312, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), must be distributed as follows:
(1) 40 percent must be forwarded to the appropriate agency for deposit as a supplement to the agency's operating fund or similar fund for use in law enforcement;
(2) 20 percent must be forwarded to the prosecuting authority that handled the forfeiture for deposit as a supplement to its operating fund or similar fund for prosecutorial purposes; and
(3) the remaining 40 percent must be forwarded to the commissioner of health to be deposited in the safe harbor for youth account in the special revenue fund and is appropriated to the commissioner for distribution to crime victims services organizations that provide services to sexually exploited youth, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 31.
(a) For each forfeiture occurring in the state regardless of the authority for it, the appropriate agency and the prosecuting authority shall provide a written record of the forfeiture incident to the state auditor. The record shall include the amount forfeited, the statutory authority for the forfeiture, its date, a brief description of the circumstances involved, and whether the forfeiture was contested. For controlled substance and driving while impaired forfeitures, the record shall indicate whether the forfeiture was initiated as an administrative or a judicial forfeiture. The record shall also list the number of firearms forfeited and the make, model, and serial number of each firearm forfeited. The record shall indicate how the property was or is to be disposed of.
(b) An appropriate agency or the prosecuting authority shall report to the state auditor all instances in which property seized for forfeiture is returned to its owner either because forfeiture is not pursued or for any other reason.
(c) Reports shall be made on a monthly basis in a manner prescribed by the state auditor. The state auditor shall report annually to the legislature on the nature and extent of forfeitures.
(d) For forfeitures resulting from the activities of multijurisdictional law enforcement entities, the entity on its own behalf shall report the information required in this subdivision.
(e) The prosecuting authority is not required to report information required by this subdivision unless the prosecuting authority has been notified by the state auditor that the appropriate agency has not reported it.
The agency shall make best efforts for a period of 90 days after the seizure of an abandoned or stolen firearm to protect the firearm from harm and return it to the lawful owner.
1988 c 665 s 15; 1989 c 290 art 3 s 32; 1989 c 335 art 4 s 100; 1990 c 499 s 9; 1992 c 513 art 4 s 49; 1993 c 326 art 1 s 10-12; art 4 s 30; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 12-15; art 4 s 29; 1999 c 148 s 1,2; 2005 c 136 art 17 s 39,40; 2010 c 391 s 16-18; 2012 c 128 s 20-23,26; 2013 c 80 s 2-4; 1Sp2017 c 6 art 10 s 137
Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, if the property is contraband, the property must be summarily forfeited and either destroyed or used by the appropriate agency for law enforcement purposes. Upon summary forfeiture, weapons used must be destroyed by the appropriate agency unless the agency decides to use the weapons for law enforcement purposes or sell the weapons in a commercially reasonable manner to federally licensed firearms dealers, as defined in section 624.7161, subdivision 1. If a weapon is sold under this subdivision, the proceeds must be distributed under section 609.5315, subdivision 5 or 5b.
(a) Controlled substances listed in Schedule I that are possessed, transferred, sold, or offered for sale in violation of chapter 152, are contraband and must be seized and summarily forfeited. Controlled substances listed in Schedule I that are seized or come into the possession of peace officers, the owners of which are unknown, are contraband and must be summarily forfeited.
(b) Species of plants from which controlled substances in Schedules I and II may be derived that have been planted or cultivated in violation of chapter 152 or of which the owners or cultivators are unknown, or that are wild growths, may be seized and summarily forfeited to the state. The appropriate agency or its authorized agent may seize the plants if the person in occupancy or in control of land or premises where the plants are growing or being stored fails to produce an appropriate registration or proof that the person is the holder of appropriate registration.
Weapons used are contraband and must be summarily forfeited to the appropriate agency upon conviction of the weapon's owner or possessor for a controlled substance crime; for any offense of this chapter or chapter 624, or for a violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01, subdivision 14. Bullet-resistant vests, as defined in section 609.486, worn or possessed during the commission or attempted commission of a crime are contraband and must be summarily forfeited to the appropriate agency upon conviction of the owner or possessor for a controlled substance crime or for any offense of this chapter. Telephone cloning paraphernalia used in a violation of section 609.894, and automated sales suppression devices, phantom-ware, and other devices containing an automated sales suppression or phantom-ware device or software used in violation of section 289A.63, subdivision 12, are contraband and must be summarily forfeited to the appropriate agency upon a conviction.
1988 c 665 s 16; 1990 c 439 s 2; 1994 c 636 art 3 s 16,17; 1996 c 331 s 1; 1996 c 408 art 4 s 9; 2012 c 127 s 1; 2014 c 201 s 3; 1Sp2017 c 1 art 12 s 4
(a) When contraband or a controlled substance manufactured, distributed, or acquired in violation of chapter 152 is seized on residential rental property incident to a lawful search or arrest, the prosecuting authority shall give the notice required by this subdivision to (1) the landlord of the property or the fee owner identified in the records of the county assessor, and (2) the agent authorized by the owner to accept service pursuant to section 504B.181. The notice is not required during an ongoing investigation. The notice shall state what has been seized and specify the applicable duties and penalties under this subdivision. The notice shall state that the landlord who chooses to assign the right to bring an eviction action retains all rights and duties, including removal of a tenant's personal property following issuance of the writ of recovery and delivery of the writ to the sheriff for execution. The notice shall also state that the landlord may contact the prosecuting authority if threatened by the tenant. Notice shall be sent by certified letter, return receipt requested, within 30 days of the seizure. If receipt is not returned, notice shall be given in the manner provided by law for service of summons in a civil action.
(b) Within 15 days after notice of the first occurrence, the landlord shall bring, or assign to the prosecuting authority of the county in which the real property is located, the right to bring an eviction action against the tenant. The assignment must be in writing on a form prepared by the prosecuting authority. Should the landlord choose to assign the right to bring an eviction action, the assignment shall be limited to those rights and duties up to and including delivery of the writ of recovery to the sheriff for execution.
(c) Upon notice of a second occurrence on any residential rental property owned by the same landlord in the same county and involving the same tenant, and within one year after notice of the first occurrence, the property is subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531, 609.5311, 609.5313, and 609.5315, unless an eviction action has been commenced as provided in paragraph (b) or the right to bring an eviction action was assigned to the prosecuting authority as provided in paragraph (b). If the right has been assigned and not previously exercised, or if the prosecuting authority requests an assignment and the landlord makes an assignment, the prosecuting authority may bring an eviction action rather than an action for forfeiture.
(d) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize real property for the purposes of forfeiture as described in paragraphs (a) to (c).
Nothing in subdivision 1 prevents the prosecuting authority from proceeding under section 609.5311 whenever that section applies.
It is a defense against a proceeding under subdivision 1, paragraph (b), that the tenant had no knowledge or reason to know of the presence of the contraband or controlled substance or could not prevent its being brought onto the property.
It is a defense against a proceeding under subdivision 1, paragraph (c), that the landlord made every reasonable attempt to evict a tenant or to assign the prosecuting authority the right to bring an eviction action against the tenant, or that the landlord did not receive notice of the seizure.
This section shall not apply if the retail value of the controlled substance is less than $100, but this section does not subject real property to forfeiture under section 609.5311 unless the retail value of the controlled substance is: (1) $1,000 or more; or (2) there have been two previous controlled substance seizures involving the same tenant.
1989 c 305 s 7; 1991 c 193 s 4; 1992 c 533 s 3; 1999 c 199 art 2 s 34; 2003 c 2 art 2 s 19,20; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 15; 2012 c 128 s 26; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
(a) If the prosecuting authority establishes by clear and convincing evidence that a motor vehicle was used in a violation of section 609.66, subdivision 1e, the vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this section upon a conviction for the same offense.
(b) The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit shall not seize a motor vehicle for the purposes of forfeiture under paragraph (a).
(a) The registered owner of the vehicle must be notified of the seizure and intent to forfeit the vehicle within seven days after the seizure. Notice by certified mail to the address shown in Department of Public Safety records is deemed to be sufficient notice to the registered owner.
(b) The notice must be in writing and:
(1) contain a description of the property seized;
(2) contain the date of seizure; and
(3) be printed in English. This requirement does not preclude the appropriate agency from printing the notice in other languages in addition to English.
(c) Substantially, the following language must appear conspicuously in the notice:
"WARNING: You will automatically lose the above-described property and the right to be heard in court if you do not file a lawsuit and serve the prosecuting authority within 60 days. You may file your lawsuit in conciliation court if the property is worth $15,000 or less; otherwise, you must file in district court. You may not have to pay a filing fee for your lawsuit if you are unable to afford the fee. You do not have to pay a conciliation court fee if your property is worth less than $500."
(a) Within 60 days following service of a notice of seizure and forfeiture, a claimant may demand a judicial determination of the forfeiture. If a related criminal proceeding is pending, the 60-day period begins to run at the conclusion of those proceedings.
(b) The demand must be in the form of a civil complaint as provided in section 609.5314, subdivision 3, except as otherwise provided in this section.
(c) If the claimant makes a timely demand for judicial determination under this subdivision, the appropriate agency must conduct the forfeiture under subdivision 4.
(a) If a judicial determination of the forfeiture is requested, a separate complaint must be filed against the vehicle, stating the specific act giving rise to the forfeiture and the date, time, and place of the act. The action must be captioned in the name of the prosecuting authority or the prosecuting authority's designee as plaintiff and the property as defendant.
(b) If a demand for judicial determination of an administrative forfeiture is filed and the court orders the return of the seized property, the court shall order that filing fees be reimbursed to the person who filed the demand. In addition, the court may order the payment of reasonable costs, expenses, attorney fees, and towing and storage fees. If the court orders payment of these costs, they must be paid from forfeited money or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property from the appropriate law enforcement and prosecuting agencies in the same proportion as they would be distributed under section 609.5315, subdivision 5.
(a) A vehicle used by a person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the owner is a consenting party to, or is privy to, the commission of the act giving rise to the forfeiture.
(b) A vehicle is subject to forfeiture under this section only if the registered owner was privy to the act upon which the forfeiture is based, the act occurred with the owner's knowledge or consent, or the act occurred due to the owner's gross negligence in allowing another to use the vehicle.
(c) A vehicle encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party unless the party had knowledge of or consented to the act upon which the forfeiture is based. A person claiming a security interest bears the burden of establishing that interest by clear and convincing evidence.
1993 c 326 art 1 s 13; 1993 c 366 s 9; 2005 c 136 art 13 s 16; 2012 c 128 s 24-26; 2014 c 201 s 4
Property that is subject to a bona fide security interest, based upon a loan or other financing arranged by a bank, credit union, or any other financial institution, is subject to the interest of the bank, credit union, or other financial institution in any forfeiture proceeding that is based upon a violation of any provision of this chapter or the commission of any other criminal act. The security interest must be established by clear and convincing evidence.
Upon application by the prosecuting authority, a court may issue an attachment order directing a financial institution to freeze some or all of the funds or assets deposited with or held by the financial institution by or on behalf of an account holder charged with the commission of a felony.
The application of the prosecuting authority required by this section must contain:
(1) a copy of a criminal complaint issued by a court of competent jurisdiction that alleges the commission of a felony by the account holder;
(2) a statement of the actual financial loss caused by the account holder in the commission of the alleged felony, if not already stated in the complaint; and
(3) identification of the account holder's name and financial institution account number.
If the court finds that (1) there is probable cause that the account holder was involved in the commission of a felony; (2) the accounts of the account holder are specifically identified; (3) there was a loss of $10,000 or more as a result of the commission of the alleged felony; and (4) it is necessary to freeze the account holder's funds or assets to ensure eventual restitution to victims of the alleged offense, the court may order the financial institution to freeze all or part of the account holder's deposited funds or assets so that the funds or assets may not be withdrawn or disposed of until further order of the court.
Upon receipt of the order authorized by this section, a financial institution must not permit any funds or assets that were frozen by the order to be withdrawn or disposed of until further order of the court.
(a) The account holder may, upon notice and motion, have a hearing to contest the freezing of funds or assets and to seek the release of all or part of them.
(b) The account holder is entitled to an order releasing the freeze by showing:
(1) that the account holder has posted a bond or other adequate surety, guaranteeing that, upon conviction, adequate funds or assets will be available to pay complete restitution to victims of the alleged offense;
(2) that there is no probable cause to believe that the account holder was involved in the alleged offense;
(3) that the amount of funds or assets frozen is more than is necessary to pay complete restitution to all victims of the alleged offense;
(4) that a joint account holder who is not involved in the alleged criminal activity has deposited all or part of the funds or assets; or
(5) that the funds or assets should be returned in the interests of justice.
(c) It is not grounds for the release of funds or assets that the particular accounts frozen do not contain funds or assets that were proceeds from or used in the commission of the alleged offense.
(a) If the account holder is convicted of a felony or a lesser offense, the funds or assets may be used to pay complete restitution to victims of the offense. The court may order the financial institution to remit all or part of the frozen funds or assets to the court.
(b) If the account holder is acquitted or the charges are dismissed, the court must issue an order releasing the freeze on the funds or assets.
The freeze permitted by this section expires 24 months after the date of the court's initial attachment order unless the time limit is extended by the court in writing upon a showing of good cause by the prosecution.
Within ten days after a court issues an attachment order under this section, the prosecutor shall send a copy of the order to the account holder's last known address or to the account holder's attorney, if known.
For the purpose of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(a) "Check" means a check, draft, order of withdrawal, or similar negotiable or nonnegotiable instrument.
(b) "Credit" means an arrangement or understanding with the drawee for the payment of a check.
Whoever issues a check which, at the time of issuance, the issuer intends shall not be paid, is guilty of issuing a dishonored check and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2a. In addition, restitution may be ordered by the court.
(a) A person who is convicted of issuing a dishonored check under subdivision 2 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the value of the dishonored check, or checks aggregated under paragraph (b), is more than $500;
(2) to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the value of the dishonored check, or checks aggregated under paragraph (b), is more than $250 but not more than $500; or
(3) to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both, if the value of the dishonored check, or checks aggregated under paragraph (b), is not more than $250.
(b) In a prosecution under this subdivision, the value of dishonored checks issued by the defendant in violation of this subdivision within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying this section. When two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the dishonored checks was issued for all of the offenses aggregated under this paragraph.
Any of the following is evidence sufficient to sustain a finding that the person at the time the person issued the check intended it should not be paid:
(1) proof that, at the time of issuance, the issuer did not have an account with the drawee;
(2) proof that, at the time of issuance, the issuer did not have sufficient funds or credit with the drawee and that the issuer failed to pay the check within five business days after mailing of notice of nonpayment or dishonor as provided in this subdivision; or
(3) proof that, when presentment was made within a reasonable time, the issuer did not have sufficient funds or credit with the drawee and that the issuer failed to pay the check within five business days after mailing of notice of nonpayment or dishonor as provided in this subdivision.
Notice of nonpayment or dishonor that includes a citation to and a description of the penalties in this section shall be sent by the payee or holder of the check to the maker or drawer by certified mail, return receipt requested, or by regular mail, supported by an affidavit of service by mailing, to the address printed on the check. Refusal by the maker or drawer of the check to accept certified mail notice or failure to claim certified or regular mail notice is not a defense that notice was not received.
The notice may state that unless the check is paid in full within five business days after mailing of the notice of nonpayment or dishonor, the payee or holder of the check will or may refer the matter to proper authorities for prosecution under this section.
An affidavit of service by mailing shall be retained by the payee or holder of the check.
If the check has been protested, the notice of protest is admissible as proof of presentation, nonpayment, and protest, and is evidence sufficient to sustain a finding that there was a lack of funds or credit with the drawee.
This section does not apply to a postdated check or to a check given for a past consideration, except a payroll check or a check issued to a fund for employee benefits.
A drawee shall release the information specified below to any state, county, or local law enforcement or prosecuting authority which certifies in writing that it is investigating or prosecuting a complaint against the drawer under this section or section 609.52, subdivision 2, clause (3), item (i), and that 15 days have elapsed since the mailing of the notice of dishonor required by subdivisions 3 and 8. This subdivision applies to the following information relating to the drawer's account:
(1) documents relating to the opening of the account by the drawer and to the closing of the account;
(2) notices regarding nonsufficient funds, overdrafts, and the dishonor of any check drawn on the account within a period of six months of the date of request;
(3) periodic statements mailed to the drawer by the drawee for the periods immediately prior to, during, and subsequent to the issuance of any check which is the subject of the investigation or prosecution; or
(4) the last known home and business addresses and telephone numbers of the drawer.
The drawee shall release all of the information described in clauses (1) to (4) that it possesses within ten days after receipt of a request conforming to all of the provisions of this subdivision. The drawee may not impose a fee for furnishing this information to law enforcement or prosecuting authorities.
A drawee is not liable in a criminal or civil proceeding for releasing information in accordance with this subdivision.
(a) A drawee shall release the information specified in paragraph (b), clauses (1) to (3) to the payee or holder of a check that has been dishonored who makes a written request for this information and states in writing that the check has been dishonored and that 30 days have elapsed since the mailing of the notice described in subdivision 8 and who accompanies this request with a copy of the dishonored check and a copy of the notice of dishonor.
The requesting payee or holder shall notify the drawee immediately to cancel this request if payment is made before the drawee has released this information.
(b) This subdivision applies to the following information relating to the drawer's account:
(1) whether at the time the check was issued or presented for payment the drawer had sufficient funds or credit with the drawee, and whether at that time the account was open, closed, or restricted for any reason and the date it was closed or restricted;
(2) the last known home address and telephone number of the drawer. The drawee may not release the address or telephone number of the place of employment of the drawer unless the drawer is a business entity or the place of employment is the home; and
(3) a statement as to whether the aggregated value of dishonored checks attributable to the drawer within six months before or after the date of the dishonored check exceeds $250; for purposes of this clause, a check is not dishonored if payment was not made pursuant to a stop payment order.
The drawee shall release all of the information described in clauses (1) to (3) that it possesses within ten days after receipt of a request conforming to all of the provisions of this subdivision. The drawee may require the person requesting the information to pay the reasonable costs, not to exceed 15 cents per page, of reproducing and mailing the requested information.
(c) A drawee is not liable in a criminal or civil proceeding for releasing information in accordance with this subdivision.
The provisions of subdivisions 6 and 7 are not applicable unless the notice to the maker or drawer required by subdivision 3 states that if the check is not paid in full within five business days after mailing of the notice, the drawee will be authorized to release information relating to the account to the payee or holder of the check and may also release this information to law enforcement or prosecuting authorities.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.535; 1967 c 466 s 1; 1971 c 23 s 56; 1974 c 106 s 1,2; 1981 c 202 s 1; 1981 c 247 s 1-3; 1983 c 225 s 10; 1984 c 436 s 34; 1985 c 140 s 3; 1986 c 444; 1988 c 527 s 2,3; 1991 c 256 s 11-13; 1992 c 569 s 26; 1999 c 218 s 3; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 72
Whoever does an act which constitutes embezzlement under the provisions of Minnesota Constitution, article XI, section 13 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the value of the funds so embezzled is $2,500, or less, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both; or
(2) if such value is more than $2,500, to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
1963 c 753 art 1 s 609.54; 1976 c 2 s 172; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11
A person who intentionally, and without permission from library personnel damages any books, maps, pictures, manuscripts, films, or other property of any public library or library belonging to the state or to any political subdivision is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.
A person who intentionally, and without permission from library personnel removes any books, maps, pictures, manuscripts, films, or other property of any public library or library belonging to the state or to any political subdivision is guilty of a misdemeanor.
A person who detains a book, periodical, pamphlet, film, or other property belonging to any public library, or to a library belonging to the state or any political subdivision, for more than 60 days after notice in writing to return it, given after the expiration of the library's stated loan period for the material, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor. The written notice shall be sent by mail to the last known address of the person detaining the material. The notice shall state the type of material borrowed, the title of the material, the author's name, the library from which the material was borrowed, and the date by which the material was to have been returned to the library. The notice shall include a statement indicating that if the material is not returned within 60 days after the written notice the borrower will be in violation of this section.
For regional libraries the county attorney for the county in which the offense occurred shall prosecute violations of subdivisions 1 to 3.
Whoever obtains the services of another by the intentional unauthorized use of a credit card issued or purporting to be issued by an organization for use as identification in purchasing services is guilty of a misdemeanor.
A person is guilty of a misdemeanor who intentionally:
(1) rides in or on a motor vehicle knowing that the vehicle was taken and is being driven by another without the owner's permission; or
(2) tampers with or enters into or on a motor vehicle without the owner's permission.
Whoever intentionally and without claim of right shoots, kills, takes, uses, transfers, conceals or retains possession of live cattle, swine or sheep or the carcasses thereof belonging to another without the other's consent and with the intent to permanently deprive the owner thereof may be sentenced as follows:
(a) if the value of the animals which are shot, killed, taken, used, transferred, concealed, or retained exceeds $2,500, the defendant may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years, and may be fined up to $20,000;
(b) if the value of the animals which are shot, killed, taken, used, transferred, concealed, or retained exceeds $300 but is less than $2,500, the defendant may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years, and may be fined up to $10,000;
(c) if the value of the animals which are shot, killed, taken, used, transferred, concealed, or retained is $300 or less, the defendant may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $300 or both.
Whoever knowingly buys, sells, transports, or otherwise handles cattle, swine, or sheep illegally acquired under subdivision 1 or knowingly aids or abets another in the violation of subdivision 1 shall be sentenced as in subdivision 1, clauses (a), (b), and (c).
In any prosecution under this section the value of the animals which are shot, killed, taken, used, transferred, concealed, or retained within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of this section.
Any person who has been injured by violation of this section may bring an action for three times the amount of actual damages sustained by the plaintiff, costs of suit and reasonable attorney's fees.
1975 c 314 s 2; 1977 c 355 s 8; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444
A person who intentionally and without permission releases an animal lawfully confined for science, research, commerce, or education is guilty of a misdemeanor. A second or subsequent offense by the same person is a gross misdemeanor.
For the purposes of sections 609.556 to 609.576 and 609.611, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given them.
"Property of another" means a building or other property, whether real or personal, in which a person other than the accused has an interest which the accused has no authority to defeat or impair even though the accused may also have an interest in the building or property.
"Building" in addition to its ordinary meaning includes any tent, watercraft, structure or vehicle that is customarily used for overnight lodging of a person or persons. If a building consists of two or more units separately secured or occupied, each unit shall be deemed a separate building.
Whoever unlawfully by means of fire or explosives, intentionally destroys or damages any building that is used as a dwelling at the time the act is committed, whether the inhabitant is present therein at the time of the act or not, or any building appurtenant to or connected with a dwelling whether the property of the actor or of another, commits arson in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
Whoever unlawfully by means of fire or explosives, intentionally destroys or damages any building not included in subdivision 1, whether the property of the actor or another commits arson in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to a fine of not more than $35,000, or both if:
(a) another person who is not a participant in the crime is present in the building at the time and the defendant knows that; or
(b) the circumstances are such as to render the presence of such a person therein a reasonable possibility.
(a) Whoever unlawfully by means of fire or explosives, intentionally destroys or damages any building not included in subdivision 1, whether the property of the actor or another, commits arson in the first degree if a flammable material is used to start or accelerate the fire. A person who violates this paragraph may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
(b) As used in this subdivision:
(1) "combustible liquid" means a liquid having a flash point at or above 100 degrees Fahrenheit;
(2) "flammable gas" means any material which is a gas at 68 degrees Fahrenheit or less and 14.7 psi of pressure and which: (i) is ignitable when in a mixture of 13 percent or less by volume with air at atmospheric pressure; or (ii) has a flammable range with air at atmospheric pressure of at least 12 percent, regardless of the lower flammable limit;
(3) "flammable liquid" means any liquid having a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 pounds per square inch (absolute) at 100 degrees Fahrenheit, but does not include intoxicating liquor as defined in section 340A.101;
(4) "flammable material" means a flammable or combustible liquid, a flammable gas, or a flammable solid; and
(5) "flammable solid" means any of the following three types of materials:
(i) wetted explosives;
(ii) self-reactive materials that are liable to undergo heat-producing decomposition; or
(iii) readily combustible solids that may cause a fire through friction or that have a rapid burning rate as determined by specific flammability tests.
1976 c 124 s 4; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1986 c 444; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 42; 1995 c 186 s 100; 1999 c 176 s 1
Whoever unlawfully by means of fire or explosives, intentionally destroys or damages any building not covered by section 609.561, no matter what its value, or any other real or personal property valued at more than $1,000, whether the property of the actor or another, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
1976 c 124 s 5; 1979 c 258 s 16; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 141 s 2; 1986 c 444; 1993 c 326 art 5 s 7
Whoever unlawfully by means of fire or explosives, intentionally destroys or damages any real or personal property may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of $10,000, or both, if:
(a) the property intended by the accused to be damaged or destroyed had a value of more than $300 but less than $1,000; or
(b) property of the value of $300 or more was unintentionally damaged or destroyed but such damage or destruction could reasonably have been foreseen; or
(c) the property specified in clauses (a) and (b) in the aggregate had a value of $300 or more.
1976 c 124 s 6; 1977 c 355 s 9; 1979 c 258 s 17; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11; 1985 c 141 s 3; 1993 c 326 art 5 s 8
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Multiple unit residential building" means a building containing two or more apartments.
(c) "Public building" means a building such as a hotel, hospital, motel, dormitory, sanitarium, nursing home, theater, stadium, gymnasium, amusement park building, school or other building used for educational purposes, museum, restaurant, bar, correctional institution, place of worship, or other building of public assembly.
Whoever intentionally by means of fire or explosives sets fire to or burns or causes to be burned any personal property in a multiple unit residential building or public building and arson in the first, second, or third degree was not committed is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
Whoever intentionally by means of fire or explosives sets fire to or burns or causes to be burned any real or personal property of value is guilty of a misdemeanor and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.
A student who uses an ignition device, including a butane or disposable lighter or matches, inside an educational building and under circumstances where there is an obvious risk of fire, and arson in the first, second, third, or fourth degree was not committed, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor. This section does not apply if the student uses the device in a manner authorized by the school.
For the purposes of this section, "student" has the meaning given in section 123B.41, subdivision 11.
A person does not violate section 609.561, 609.562, 609.563, or 609.5641 if the person sets a fire pursuant to a validly issued license or permit or with written permission from the fire department of the jurisdiction where the fire occurs.
A person who intentionally sets a fire to burn out of control on land of another containing timber, underbrush, grass, or other vegetative combustible material is guilty of