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Capital IconMinnesota Legislature

HF 11

1st Engrossment - 91st Legislature, 2020 1st Special Session (2019 - 2020) Posted on 06/18/2020 07:43pm

KEY: stricken = removed, old language.
underscored = added, new language.

Current Version - 1st Engrossment

Line numbers 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 1.13 1.14 1.15 1.16 1.17 1.18 1.19 1.20 1.21 1.22 1.23 1.24 1.25 1.26 1.27 1.28 1.29 1.30 1.31 1.32 1.33 1.34 1.35 1.36 1.37 1.38 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5 2.6 2.7 2.8 2.9 2.10 2.11 2.12 2.13 2.14 2.15 2.16 2.17 2.18 2.19 2.20 2.21 2.22 2.23 2.24 2.25 2.26 2.27 2.28 2.29 2.30 2.31 2.32 2.33 2.34 2.35 2.36 2.37 2.38 2.39 2.40 2.41 2.42 2.43 2.44 2.45 2.46 2.47 2.48 2.49 2.50 2.51 2.52 2.53 2.54 2.55 2.56 2.57 2.58 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9 3.10 3.11 3.12 3.13 3.14 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.19 3.20 3.21 3.22 3.23 3.24 3.25 3.26 3.27 3.28 3.29 3.30 3.31 3.32 3.33 3.34 3.35 3.36 3.37 3.38 3.39 3.40 3.41 3.42 3.43 3.44 3.45 3.46 3.47 3.48 3.49 3.50 3.51 3.52 3.53 3.54 3.55 3.56 3.57 3.58 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.8 4.9 4.10 4.11 4.12 4.13 4.14
4.15 4.16
4.17 4.18 4.19 4.20 4.21 4.22 4.23 4.24 4.25 4.26 4.27 4.28 4.29 4.30 4.31 4.32 4.33
4.34
5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9 5.10 5.11 5.12 5.13 5.14 5.15 5.16 5.17 5.18 5.19 5.20 5.21 5.22 5.23 5.24 5.25 5.26 5.27 5.28 5.29 5.30 5.31 6.1 6.2 6.3 6.4 6.5 6.6 6.7 6.8 6.9 6.10 6.11 6.12 6.13 6.14 6.15 6.16 6.17 6.18 6.19 6.20 6.21 6.22 6.23 6.24 6.25 6.26 6.27 6.28 6.29 6.30 6.31 6.32 6.33 7.1 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.5 7.6 7.7 7.8 7.9 7.10 7.11 7.12 7.13 7.14 7.15 7.16 7.17 7.18 7.19 7.20 7.21 7.22 7.23 7.24 7.25 7.26 7.27 7.28 7.29 7.30 7.31 8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.11 8.12 8.13
8.14 8.15 8.16 8.17 8.18 8.19 8.20 8.21 8.22 8.23 8.24
8.25
8.26 8.27 8.28 8.29 8.30
9.1 9.2 9.3 9.4 9.5 9.6
9.7
9.8 9.9 9.10 9.11 9.12 9.13 9.14 9.15 9.16 9.17 9.18 9.19 9.20 9.21 9.22 9.23 9.24 9.25 9.26 9.27 9.28 9.29 9.30 9.31 9.32
10.1 10.2 10.3 10.4 10.5 10.6 10.7 10.8 10.9 10.10 10.11 10.12 10.13 10.14 10.15 10.16 10.17 10.18 10.19 10.20 10.21 10.22 10.23 10.24 10.25 10.26 10.27 10.28 10.29
11.1 11.2 11.3 11.4 11.5 11.6 11.7 11.8 11.9 11.10 11.11 11.12 11.13 11.14 11.15 11.16 11.17
11.18
11.19 11.20 11.21 11.22 11.23 11.24 11.25 11.26 11.27 11.28 11.29 11.30 11.31 11.32 12.1 12.2 12.3 12.4 12.5 12.6 12.7 12.8 12.9 12.10 12.11 12.12 12.13 12.14 12.15 12.16 12.17 12.18 12.19 12.20 12.21 12.22 12.23 12.24 12.25 12.26 12.27 12.28 12.29 12.30 12.31 12.32 13.1 13.2 13.3 13.4 13.5 13.6 13.7 13.8 13.9 13.10 13.11 13.12 13.13 13.14 13.15 13.16 13.17 13.18 13.19 13.20 13.21 13.22
13.23
13.24 13.25 13.26 13.27 13.28 13.29 13.30 13.31 14.1 14.2 14.3 14.4 14.5 14.6 14.7 14.8 14.9 14.10 14.11 14.12 14.13 14.14 14.15 14.16 14.17 14.18 14.19 14.20 14.21 14.22 14.23 14.24 14.25 14.26 14.27 14.28 14.29 15.1 15.2 15.3 15.4 15.5 15.6 15.7 15.8 15.9 15.10 15.11 15.12 15.13 15.14 15.15 15.16 15.17 15.18 15.19 15.20 15.21 15.22 15.23 15.24 15.25 15.26 15.27 15.28 15.29 15.30 15.31 16.1 16.2 16.3 16.4 16.5 16.6 16.7 16.8 16.9
16.10
16.11 16.12 16.13 16.14 16.15 16.16 16.17 16.18 16.19 16.20 16.21 16.22 16.23 16.24 16.25 16.26 16.27 16.28 16.29 16.30 16.31 16.32 17.1 17.2 17.3 17.4 17.5 17.6 17.7 17.8 17.9 17.10 17.11 17.12 17.13 17.14 17.15 17.16 17.17 17.18 17.19 17.20 17.21 17.22 17.23 17.24 17.25 17.26 17.27 17.28 17.29 17.30 17.31 18.1 18.2 18.3 18.4 18.5 18.6 18.7 18.8 18.9 18.10 18.11 18.12 18.13 18.14 18.15 18.16 18.17 18.18 18.19 18.20 18.21 18.22 18.23 18.24 18.25 18.26 18.27 18.28 18.29 18.30 18.31 18.32 18.33 18.34 19.1 19.2 19.3 19.4 19.5 19.6 19.7 19.8 19.9 19.10 19.11 19.12 19.13 19.14 19.15 19.16 19.17 19.18 19.19 19.20 19.21 19.22 19.23 19.24 19.25 19.26 19.27 19.28 19.29 19.30 19.31 19.32 20.1 20.2 20.3 20.4 20.5 20.6 20.7 20.8 20.9 20.10 20.11 20.12 20.13 20.14 20.15 20.16 20.17 20.18 20.19 20.20 20.21 20.22 20.23 20.24 20.25 20.26 20.27 20.28 20.29 20.30 20.31 20.32 20.33 20.34 21.1 21.2 21.3 21.4 21.5 21.6 21.7 21.8 21.9 21.10 21.11 21.12 21.13 21.14 21.15 21.16 21.17 21.18 21.19 21.20 21.21 21.22 21.23 21.24 21.25 21.26 21.27 21.28 21.29 21.30 21.31 21.32 22.1 22.2 22.3 22.4 22.5 22.6 22.7 22.8 22.9 22.10 22.11 22.12 22.13 22.14 22.15 22.16 22.17 22.18 22.19 22.20 22.21 22.22 22.23 22.24 22.25 22.26 22.27 22.28 22.29 22.30 22.31 23.1 23.2 23.3 23.4 23.5 23.6 23.7 23.8 23.9 23.10 23.11 23.12 23.13 23.14 23.15 23.16 23.17 23.18 23.19 23.20 23.21 23.22 23.23 23.24 23.25 23.26 23.27 23.28 23.29 23.30 23.31 23.32 23.33 24.1 24.2 24.3 24.4 24.5 24.6 24.7 24.8 24.9 24.10 24.11
24.12
24.13 24.14 24.15 24.16 24.17 24.18
24.19
24.20 24.21 24.22 24.23 24.24 24.25 24.26 24.27 24.28 24.29 25.1 25.2 25.3 25.4 25.5 25.6 25.7 25.8 25.9 25.10 25.11 25.12
25.13
25.14 25.15
25.16 25.17 25.18 25.19 25.20 25.21 25.22 25.23 25.24 25.25 25.26 25.27 25.28 25.29 25.30 25.31 26.1 26.2 26.3 26.4 26.5 26.6 26.7 26.8 26.9 26.10 26.11 26.12 26.13 26.14 26.15 26.16 26.17 26.18 26.19 26.20 26.21 26.22 26.23 26.24 26.25 26.26 26.27 26.28 26.29 26.30 26.31 27.1 27.2 27.3 27.4 27.5 27.6 27.7 27.8 27.9 27.10 27.11 27.12 27.13 27.14 27.15 27.16 27.17 27.18 27.19 27.20 27.21 27.22 27.23 27.24 27.25 27.26 27.27 27.28 27.29 27.30 28.1 28.2 28.3 28.4 28.5 28.6 28.7 28.8 28.9 28.10 28.11 28.12 28.13 28.14 28.15 28.16 28.17 28.18 28.19 28.20 28.21 28.22 28.23 28.24 28.25 28.26 28.27 28.28 28.29 28.30 28.31 28.32 28.33 29.1 29.2 29.3
29.4
29.5 29.6 29.7 29.8 29.9 29.10 29.11 29.12 29.13 29.14 29.15 29.16 29.17 29.18 29.19
29.20 29.21 29.22 29.23 29.24 29.25 29.26 29.27 29.28 29.29 29.30 29.31 29.32 29.33 30.1 30.2 30.3 30.4 30.5 30.6 30.7 30.8 30.9 30.10 30.11 30.12 30.13 30.14 30.15 30.16 30.17 30.18 30.19 30.20 30.21 30.22 30.23 30.24 30.25 30.26 30.27 30.28 30.29 30.30 30.31 30.32 31.1 31.2 31.3 31.4 31.5 31.6 31.7 31.8 31.9 31.10 31.11 31.12 31.13 31.14 31.15 31.16 31.17 31.18 31.19 31.20 31.21 31.22 31.23 31.24 31.25 31.26 31.27 31.28 31.29 31.30 31.31 32.1 32.2 32.3 32.4 32.5 32.6 32.7 32.8 32.9 32.10 32.11 32.12 32.13 32.14 32.15 32.16 32.17 32.18 32.19 32.20 32.21 32.22 32.23 32.24 32.25 32.26 32.27 32.28 32.29 32.30 32.31 32.32 32.33 32.34 33.1 33.2 33.3 33.4 33.5 33.6 33.7 33.8 33.9 33.10 33.11 33.12 33.13 33.14 33.15 33.16 33.17 33.18 33.19 33.20 33.21 33.22
33.23 33.24 33.25
33.26 33.27 33.28 33.29 33.30 33.31 34.1 34.2 34.3 34.4 34.5 34.6 34.7 34.8 34.9 34.10 34.11 34.12 34.13 34.14 34.15 34.16 34.17 34.18 34.19 34.20 34.21 34.22 34.23 34.24 34.25 34.26 34.27 34.28 34.29 34.30 34.31 34.32 34.33 35.1 35.2 35.3 35.4 35.5 35.6 35.7 35.8 35.9 35.10 35.11 35.12 35.13 35.14 35.15 35.16 35.17 35.18 35.19 35.20 35.21 35.22 35.23 35.24 35.25 35.26 35.27 35.28 35.29 35.30 35.31 35.32 35.33 35.34 36.1 36.2 36.3 36.4 36.5 36.6 36.7 36.8 36.9 36.10 36.11 36.12 36.13 36.14 36.15 36.16 36.17 36.18 36.19 36.20 36.21 36.22 36.23 36.24 36.25 36.26 36.27 36.28 36.29 36.30 36.31 36.32 37.1 37.2 37.3 37.4 37.5 37.6 37.7 37.8 37.9 37.10 37.11 37.12 37.13 37.14 37.15 37.16 37.17 37.18 37.19 37.20 37.21 37.22 37.23 37.24 37.25 37.26 37.27 37.28 37.29 37.30 37.31 37.32 38.1 38.2 38.3 38.4 38.5 38.6 38.7 38.8 38.9 38.10 38.11 38.12 38.13 38.14 38.15 38.16 38.17 38.18
38.19
38.20 38.21 38.22 38.23 38.24 38.25 38.26 38.27 38.28 38.29 38.30 39.1 39.2 39.3 39.4 39.5 39.6 39.7 39.8 39.9 39.10 39.11 39.12 39.13 39.14
39.15 39.16 39.17 39.18 39.19 39.20 39.21 39.22 39.23 39.24
39.25
39.26 39.27 39.28 39.29 39.30 39.31 40.1 40.2 40.3 40.4 40.5 40.6 40.7 40.8
40.9
40.10 40.11 40.12 40.13 40.14
40.15
40.16 40.17 40.18 40.19 40.20 40.21 40.22 40.23
40.24
40.25 40.26 40.27 40.28 40.29 40.30 41.1 41.2
41.3
41.4 41.5
41.6 41.7 41.8 41.9 41.10 41.11 41.12 41.13 41.14 41.15 41.16 41.17 41.18 41.19 41.20 41.21 41.22 41.23 41.24 41.25 41.26 41.27 41.28 41.29 41.30 41.31 41.32 42.1 42.2 42.3 42.4 42.5 42.6 42.7 42.8 42.9 42.10 42.11 42.12 42.13 42.14 42.15 42.16 42.17 42.18 42.19 42.20 42.21 42.22 42.23 42.24 42.25 42.26 42.27 42.28 42.29 42.30 42.31 43.1 43.2 43.3 43.4 43.5 43.6 43.7 43.8 43.9 43.10 43.11 43.12 43.13 43.14 43.15 43.16 43.17 43.18 43.19 43.20 43.21 43.22 43.23 43.24 43.25 43.26 43.27 43.28 43.29 43.30 43.31 43.32 43.33 43.34 44.1 44.2 44.3 44.4 44.5
44.6 44.7 44.8 44.9 44.10 44.11 44.12 44.13 44.14 44.15 44.16 44.17 44.18 44.19 44.20 44.21 44.22 44.23 44.24 44.25 44.26 44.27 44.28 44.29 44.30 44.31 45.1 45.2 45.3 45.4 45.5 45.6 45.7 45.8 45.9 45.10 45.11 45.12 45.13 45.14 45.15 45.16 45.17 45.18 45.19 45.20 45.21 45.22 45.23 45.24 45.25 45.26 45.27 45.28 45.29 45.30 45.31 46.1 46.2 46.3 46.4 46.5
46.6 46.7 46.8 46.9
46.10 46.11 46.12 46.13 46.14 46.15 46.16 46.17 46.18 46.19 46.20 46.21 46.22 46.23 46.24 46.25 46.26 46.27 46.28 46.29 46.30 46.31 47.1 47.2 47.3 47.4 47.5 47.6 47.7 47.8 47.9 47.10 47.11 47.12 47.13 47.14 47.15 47.16 47.17 47.18 47.19 47.20 47.21 47.22 47.23 47.24 47.25 47.26 47.27 47.28 47.29 47.30 47.31 47.32 48.1 48.2 48.3 48.4
48.5 48.6 48.7 48.8 48.9 48.10 48.11 48.12 48.13 48.14 48.15 48.16 48.17 48.18 48.19 48.20 48.21 48.22 48.23 48.24 48.25 48.26 48.27 48.28 48.29 48.30 48.31 48.32 48.33 49.1 49.2 49.3 49.4 49.5 49.6 49.7 49.8 49.9 49.10 49.11
49.12 49.13 49.14 49.15 49.16 49.17 49.18 49.19 49.20 49.21 49.22 49.23 49.24 49.25 49.26 49.27 49.28 49.29 49.30 49.31 49.32 50.1 50.2 50.3 50.4 50.5 50.6 50.7 50.8 50.9 50.10 50.11 50.12 50.13 50.14 50.15 50.16 50.17
50.18 50.19 50.20 50.21 50.22 50.23 50.24 50.25 50.26 50.27 50.28 50.29 50.30 50.31 51.1 51.2 51.3 51.4 51.5 51.6 51.7 51.8 51.9 51.10 51.11 51.12 51.13 51.14 51.15 51.16 51.17 51.18 51.19 51.20 51.21 51.22 51.23 51.24 51.25 51.26 51.27 51.28 51.29 51.30 51.31 51.32 51.33 52.1 52.2 52.3 52.4 52.5 52.6 52.7
52.8 52.9 52.10 52.11 52.12 52.13
52.14 52.15 52.16 52.17 52.18 52.19 52.20 52.21 52.22 52.23 52.24 52.25 52.26 52.27 52.28 52.29 52.30 52.31 52.32 53.1 53.2 53.3
53.4 53.5 53.6 53.7 53.8 53.9 53.10 53.11 53.12 53.13 53.14 53.15
53.16 53.17 53.18 53.19 53.20 53.21 53.22 53.23 53.24 53.25
53.26 53.27 53.28 53.29 53.30 54.1 54.2 54.3 54.4 54.5 54.6 54.7 54.8 54.9 54.10 54.11 54.12 54.13 54.14 54.15 54.16 54.17 54.18 54.19 54.20 54.21 54.22 54.23 54.24 54.25 54.26 54.27 54.28 54.29 54.30 54.31 54.32 55.1 55.2 55.3 55.4 55.5 55.6 55.7 55.8 55.9 55.10 55.11 55.12 55.13 55.14 55.15 55.16 55.17 55.18 55.19 55.20 55.21 55.22 55.23
55.24 55.25 55.26 55.27 55.28 55.29 55.30 55.31 55.32 55.33 56.1 56.2 56.3 56.4 56.5 56.6 56.7 56.8 56.9 56.10 56.11 56.12 56.13 56.14 56.15 56.16 56.17 56.18 56.19 56.20 56.21 56.22 56.23 56.24 56.25 56.26 56.27 56.28 56.29 56.30 56.31 56.32 56.33 57.1 57.2 57.3 57.4
57.5 57.6 57.7 57.8 57.9 57.10 57.11 57.12 57.13 57.14 57.15 57.16 57.17 57.18 57.19 57.20 57.21 57.22 57.23 57.24 57.25 57.26 57.27 57.28 57.29 57.30
57.31
58.1 58.2 58.3 58.4 58.5 58.6 58.7 58.8 58.9 58.10 58.11 58.12 58.13 58.14 58.15 58.16 58.17 58.18 58.19
58.20
58.21 58.22 58.23 58.24 58.25 58.26 58.27 58.28 58.29 58.30 59.1 59.2 59.3 59.4 59.5 59.6 59.7 59.8 59.9 59.10 59.11 59.12 59.13 59.14 59.15 59.16 59.17 59.18
59.19
59.20 59.21 59.22 59.23 59.24 59.25 59.26 59.27 59.28 59.29 59.30 59.31 59.32 60.1 60.2 60.3 60.4 60.5 60.6
60.7
60.8 60.9 60.10 60.11 60.12 60.13 60.14 60.15 60.16 60.17 60.18 60.19 60.20 60.21
60.22
60.23 60.24 60.25 60.26 60.27 60.28 60.29 60.30 61.1 61.2 61.3 61.4 61.5 61.6 61.7 61.8 61.9 61.10 61.11 61.12 61.13 61.14 61.15 61.16 61.17 61.18 61.19 61.20 61.21 61.22 61.23 61.24 61.25 61.26 61.27 61.28 61.29 61.30 62.1 62.2 62.3 62.4 62.5 62.6 62.7 62.8 62.9 62.10 62.11 62.12 62.13 62.14 62.15 62.16 62.17 62.18 62.19 62.20 62.21 62.22 62.23 62.24 62.25 62.26 62.27 62.28 62.29 62.30 62.31 63.1 63.2
63.3
63.4 63.5 63.6 63.7 63.8 63.9 63.10 63.11 63.12 63.13 63.14 63.15 63.16 63.17 63.18 63.19 63.20 63.21 63.22 63.23 63.24 63.25 63.26 63.27 63.28 63.29 63.30 63.31 63.32 64.1 64.2 64.3 64.4 64.5 64.6 64.7 64.8 64.9 64.10 64.11 64.12 64.13 64.14 64.15 64.16 64.17 64.18
64.19
64.20 64.21 64.22 64.23 64.24 64.25 64.26 64.27 64.28 64.29 64.30 64.31 64.32 65.1 65.2 65.3 65.4 65.5 65.6 65.7 65.8 65.9 65.10 65.11 65.12 65.13 65.14 65.15 65.16 65.17 65.18 65.19 65.20
65.21 65.22 65.23 65.24 65.25 65.26 65.27 65.28 65.29 65.30 65.31 66.1 66.2 66.3 66.4 66.5 66.6 66.7 66.8 66.9 66.10 66.11 66.12 66.13 66.14 66.15 66.16 66.17 66.18 66.19 66.20 66.21 66.22 66.23 66.24 66.25
66.26
66.27 66.28 66.29 66.30 66.31 66.32 66.33 67.1 67.2 67.3 67.4 67.5 67.6 67.7 67.8 67.9 67.10 67.11 67.12 67.13 67.14 67.15 67.16 67.17 67.18 67.19 67.20 67.21 67.22 67.23 67.24 67.25 67.26 67.27 67.28 67.29 67.30 67.31 67.32 68.1 68.2 68.3 68.4
68.5 68.6 68.7
68.8 68.9 68.10 68.11 68.12 68.13 68.14 68.15 68.16 68.17 68.18 68.19 68.20 68.21 68.22 68.23 68.24 68.25 68.26 68.27 68.28 68.29 68.30 68.31 68.32 68.33 69.1 69.2 69.3 69.4 69.5 69.6 69.7 69.8
69.9 69.10 69.11 69.12 69.13 69.14 69.15 69.16 69.17 69.18 69.19 69.20 69.21 69.22 69.23 69.24 69.25 69.26 69.27 69.28 69.29 69.30 69.31 69.32 69.33 70.1 70.2 70.3 70.4 70.5 70.6 70.7 70.8 70.9 70.10 70.11 70.12 70.13 70.14 70.15 70.16 70.17 70.18 70.19 70.20 70.21 70.22 70.23 70.24 70.25 70.26 70.27 70.28 70.29 70.30 70.31 71.1 71.2 71.3 71.4 71.5 71.6 71.7 71.8 71.9 71.10 71.11 71.12 71.13 71.14 71.15 71.16 71.17 71.18 71.19 71.20 71.21 71.22 71.23 71.24 71.25
71.26 71.27 71.28 71.29 72.1 72.2 72.3 72.4
72.5 72.6 72.7 72.8 72.9 72.10 72.11 72.12 72.13 72.14 72.15 72.16 72.17 72.18 72.19 72.20 72.21 72.22 72.23 72.24 72.25 72.26 72.27 72.28 72.29 72.30 72.31 73.1 73.2 73.3 73.4 73.5 73.6 73.7 73.8 73.9 73.10 73.11 73.12 73.13 73.14 73.15 73.16 73.17 73.18 73.19 73.20 73.21 73.22 73.23 73.24 73.25 73.26 73.27 73.28 73.29 73.30 73.31 73.32 74.1 74.2 74.3 74.4 74.5 74.6 74.7 74.8 74.9
74.10 74.11 74.12 74.13 74.14 74.15 74.16 74.17 74.18 74.19 74.20 74.21 74.22 74.23 74.24 74.25 74.26 74.27 74.28 74.29 74.30 74.31 75.1 75.2 75.3 75.4 75.5 75.6 75.7 75.8 75.9 75.10 75.11 75.12 75.13 75.14 75.15 75.16 75.17 75.18 75.19 75.20 75.21 75.22 75.23 75.24 75.25 75.26 75.27 75.28 75.29 75.30 75.31 75.32 75.33 76.1 76.2 76.3 76.4 76.5 76.6 76.7 76.8 76.9 76.10 76.11
76.12 76.13 76.14 76.15 76.16 76.17 76.18 76.19 76.20 76.21 76.22 76.23 76.24 76.25 76.26 76.27 76.28 76.29 76.30 76.31 76.32 76.33 77.1 77.2 77.3 77.4 77.5 77.6 77.7 77.8 77.9 77.10 77.11
77.12 77.13 77.14 77.15 77.16 77.17 77.18 77.19 77.20 77.21 77.22 77.23 77.24 77.25 77.26 77.27 77.28 77.29 77.30 77.31 77.32 78.1 78.2 78.3 78.4 78.5 78.6 78.7 78.8 78.9 78.10 78.11 78.12 78.13 78.14 78.15 78.16 78.17 78.18 78.19 78.20 78.21 78.22 78.23 78.24 78.25 78.26 78.27 78.28 78.29 78.30 78.31 78.32 78.33 79.1 79.2 79.3 79.4 79.5 79.6 79.7 79.8 79.9 79.10 79.11 79.12 79.13 79.14 79.15 79.16 79.17 79.18 79.19 79.20 79.21 79.22 79.23 79.24 79.25 79.26 79.27 79.28 79.29 79.30 79.31 80.1 80.2 80.3 80.4 80.5 80.6 80.7 80.8 80.9 80.10 80.11 80.12 80.13 80.14 80.15 80.16 80.17 80.18 80.19 80.20 80.21 80.22 80.23 80.24 80.25 80.26
80.27 80.28 80.29 80.30
81.1 81.2 81.3 81.4 81.5 81.6 81.7 81.8 81.9 81.10 81.11
81.12 81.13 81.14 81.15 81.16 81.17 81.18 81.19 81.20 81.21 81.22
81.23 81.24 81.25 81.26 81.27 81.28 81.29 81.30 81.31 81.32 81.33 82.1 82.2 82.3 82.4 82.5 82.6 82.7 82.8 82.9 82.10 82.11 82.12 82.13 82.14 82.15 82.16 82.17 82.18 82.19 82.20 82.21 82.22 82.23 82.24 82.25 82.26 82.27 82.28 82.29 82.30 82.31 82.32 82.33 82.34 82.35 83.1 83.2 83.3 83.4 83.5 83.6 83.7 83.8 83.9 83.10 83.11 83.12 83.13 83.14 83.15 83.16 83.17 83.18 83.19 83.20 83.21 83.22 83.23
83.24 83.25 83.26 83.27 83.28
83.29
83.30 83.31 83.32 84.1 84.2 84.3 84.4 84.5 84.6 84.7 84.8 84.9 84.10
84.11
84.12 84.13 84.14 84.15
84.16 84.17
84.18 84.19 84.20 84.21 84.22 84.23 84.24 84.25 84.26 84.27 84.28 84.29 84.30 84.31 85.1 85.2 85.3 85.4 85.5 85.6 85.7 85.8 85.9 85.10 85.11 85.12 85.13 85.14 85.15 85.16 85.17 85.18 85.19 85.20 85.21 85.22 85.23 85.24 85.25 85.26 85.27 85.28 85.29 85.30 85.31 85.32 85.33
86.1
86.2 86.3 86.4 86.5 86.6 86.7 86.8 86.9 86.10 86.11 86.12 86.13 86.14 86.15 86.16 86.17 86.18 86.19 86.20 86.21 86.22 86.23 86.24 86.25 86.26 86.27 86.28 86.29 86.30 86.31 86.32
86.33
87.1 87.2 87.3
87.4 87.5 87.6 87.7 87.8 87.9 87.10 87.11 87.12 87.13 87.14 87.15 87.16 87.17 87.18 87.19 87.20 87.21 87.22 87.23 87.24 87.25 87.26 87.27 87.28 87.29 87.30 87.31 87.32 87.33 87.34 87.35 88.1 88.2 88.3 88.4 88.5 88.6 88.7 88.8 88.9 88.10 88.11 88.12 88.13 88.14 88.15 88.16 88.17 88.18 88.19 88.20 88.21 88.22 88.23 88.24 88.25 88.26 88.27 88.28 88.29 88.30 88.31 88.32 88.33 88.34 89.1 89.2
89.3 89.4 89.5 89.6 89.7 89.8 89.9 89.10 89.11 89.12 89.13 89.14 89.15 89.16 89.17 89.18 89.19 89.20
89.21 89.22 89.23 89.24 89.25 89.26 89.27 89.28 89.29 89.30 89.31 90.1 90.2 90.3 90.4 90.5 90.6 90.7 90.8 90.9 90.10 90.11 90.12 90.13 90.14 90.15 90.16 90.17 90.18 90.19 90.20 90.21 90.22 90.23 90.24 90.25 90.26 90.27 90.28 90.29 90.30 90.31 90.32 91.1 91.2 91.3 91.4 91.5 91.6 91.7 91.8 91.9 91.10 91.11 91.12 91.13 91.14 91.15 91.16 91.17 91.18 91.19 91.20 91.21 91.22 91.23 91.24 91.25 91.26 91.27 91.28 91.29 91.30 91.31 91.32 92.1 92.2 92.3 92.4 92.5 92.6 92.7 92.8
92.9 92.10 92.11 92.12 92.13 92.14 92.15 92.16 92.17 92.18 92.19 92.20 92.21 92.22 92.23 92.24 92.25 92.26 92.27 92.28 92.29 92.30 92.31 92.32 92.33 93.1 93.2 93.3 93.4 93.5 93.6 93.7 93.8 93.9 93.10 93.11 93.12 93.13 93.14 93.15 93.16 93.17 93.18 93.19 93.20 93.21 93.22 93.23 93.24 93.25 93.26 93.27 93.28 93.29 93.30 93.31 93.32 94.1 94.2 94.3 94.4 94.5 94.6 94.7 94.8 94.9 94.10 94.11 94.12 94.13 94.14 94.15 94.16 94.17 94.18 94.19 94.20 94.21 94.22 94.23 94.24 94.25 94.26 94.27 94.28 94.29 94.30 94.31 95.1 95.2 95.3 95.4 95.5 95.6 95.7 95.8 95.9 95.10 95.11 95.12 95.13 95.14 95.15 95.16 95.17 95.18 95.19 95.20 95.21 95.22 95.23 95.24 95.25 95.26 95.27 95.28 95.29 95.30 95.31 95.32 95.33 96.1 96.2 96.3 96.4 96.5 96.6 96.7 96.8 96.9 96.10 96.11 96.12 96.13 96.14 96.15 96.16 96.17 96.18 96.19 96.20 96.21 96.22 96.23 96.24 96.25 96.26 96.27 96.28 96.29 96.30 96.31 96.32 96.33 96.34
97.1 97.2 97.3 97.4 97.5 97.6 97.7 97.8 97.9 97.10 97.11 97.12 97.13 97.14 97.15 97.16 97.17 97.18 97.19 97.20 97.21 97.22
97.23 97.24 97.25 97.26 97.27 97.28 97.29 97.30 97.31 97.32 97.33 98.1 98.2 98.3 98.4 98.5 98.6 98.7 98.8 98.9 98.10 98.11 98.12 98.13 98.14 98.15 98.16 98.17 98.18 98.19 98.20 98.21 98.22 98.23 98.24 98.25 98.26 98.27 98.28 98.29 98.30 98.31 98.32 99.1 99.2 99.3 99.4 99.5 99.6 99.7 99.8 99.9 99.10 99.11 99.12 99.13 99.14 99.15
99.16 99.17 99.18 99.19 99.20 99.21 99.22 99.23 99.24 99.25 99.26 99.27 99.28 99.29 99.30 100.1 100.2 100.3 100.4 100.5 100.6 100.7 100.8 100.9 100.10 100.11 100.12 100.13 100.14 100.15 100.16 100.17 100.18 100.19 100.20 100.21 100.22 100.23 100.24 100.25 100.26 100.27
100.28 100.29 100.30 100.31 100.32 101.1 101.2 101.3 101.4 101.5 101.6 101.7 101.8 101.9 101.10 101.11 101.12 101.13 101.14 101.15 101.16 101.17 101.18 101.19 101.20 101.21 101.22 101.23 101.24 101.25 101.26 101.27 101.28 101.29 101.30 101.31 102.1 102.2 102.3 102.4 102.5 102.6 102.7 102.8 102.9 102.10 102.11 102.12 102.13 102.14 102.15 102.16 102.17 102.18 102.19 102.20
102.21 102.22 102.23 102.24 102.25 102.26 102.27 102.28 102.29 102.30 102.31 102.32 103.1 103.2 103.3 103.4 103.5 103.6 103.7 103.8 103.9 103.10 103.11 103.12
103.13 103.14 103.15 103.16 103.17 103.18 103.19 103.20 103.21 103.22 103.23 103.24 103.25 103.26 103.27 103.28 103.29 103.30 103.31 103.32 103.33 104.1 104.2 104.3 104.4 104.5 104.6 104.7 104.8 104.9 104.10 104.11 104.12 104.13 104.14 104.15 104.16 104.17 104.18 104.19 104.20 104.21 104.22 104.23 104.24 104.25 104.26 104.27 104.28 104.29 104.30 104.31 104.32 105.1 105.2 105.3 105.4 105.5 105.6 105.7
105.8 105.9
105.10 105.11 105.12 105.13
105.14
105.15 105.16 105.17 105.18 105.19 105.20 105.21 105.22 105.23 105.24 105.25 105.26 105.27 105.28 105.29 105.30 105.31 105.32 106.1 106.2 106.3 106.4 106.5 106.6 106.7 106.8 106.9 106.10 106.11 106.12 106.13 106.14 106.15 106.16 106.17 106.18 106.19 106.20 106.21 106.22 106.23 106.24 106.25 106.26 106.27 106.28 106.29 106.30 106.31 106.32 106.33 107.1 107.2 107.3 107.4 107.5 107.6 107.7 107.8 107.9 107.10 107.11 107.12 107.13
107.14
107.15 107.16 107.17 107.18 107.19 107.20 107.21 107.22 107.23 107.24 107.25 107.26 107.27 107.28 107.29 107.30 107.31 108.1 108.2 108.3 108.4 108.5 108.6 108.7 108.8 108.9 108.10 108.11 108.12 108.13 108.14 108.15 108.16 108.17 108.18 108.19 108.20 108.21 108.22 108.23 108.24 108.25 108.26 108.27
108.28
109.1 109.2 109.3 109.4 109.5 109.6 109.7 109.8 109.9 109.10 109.11 109.12 109.13 109.14 109.15 109.16 109.17 109.18 109.19 109.20 109.21 109.22 109.23 109.24 109.25 109.26 109.27 109.28 109.29 109.30 109.31 109.32 109.33 110.1 110.2 110.3 110.4 110.5 110.6 110.7 110.8 110.9 110.10 110.11 110.12 110.13 110.14 110.15 110.16 110.17 110.18 110.19 110.20 110.21 110.22 110.23 110.24 110.25 110.26 110.27 110.28 110.29 110.30 110.31 110.32 110.33 110.34 111.1 111.2 111.3 111.4 111.5 111.6 111.7 111.8 111.9 111.10 111.11 111.12 111.13 111.14 111.15 111.16 111.17 111.18 111.19 111.20 111.21 111.22 111.23 111.24 111.25 111.26 111.27 111.28 111.29 111.30 111.31 111.32 111.33 111.34 112.1 112.2 112.3 112.4 112.5 112.6 112.7 112.8 112.9 112.10 112.11 112.12 112.13 112.14 112.15 112.16 112.17 112.18 112.19 112.20 112.21 112.22 112.23 112.24
112.25
112.26 112.27 112.28 112.29 112.30 112.31
113.1 113.2 113.3 113.4
113.5 113.6 113.7 113.8 113.9
113.10 113.11 113.12 113.13 113.14 113.15
113.16 113.17 113.18 113.19 113.20 113.21 113.22 113.23 113.24 113.25 113.26 113.27 113.28 113.29 113.30 114.1 114.2 114.3 114.4 114.5 114.6 114.7 114.8 114.9 114.10 114.11 114.12 114.13 114.14
114.15 114.16 114.17 114.18 114.19
114.20 114.21 114.22 114.23 114.24 114.25 114.26 114.27 114.28 114.29 114.30 114.31 115.1 115.2 115.3 115.4 115.5 115.6 115.7 115.8 115.9 115.10 115.11 115.12 115.13 115.14 115.15 115.16 115.17 115.18 115.19 115.20 115.21 115.22 115.23 115.24 115.25 115.26 115.27 115.28 115.29 115.30 116.1 116.2 116.3 116.4 116.5 116.6 116.7 116.8 116.9 116.10 116.11 116.12 116.13 116.14 116.15 116.16 116.17 116.18 116.19 116.20 116.21 116.22 116.23 116.24 116.25 116.26 116.27 116.28 116.29 116.30 116.31 116.32 116.33 117.1 117.2 117.3 117.4 117.5 117.6 117.7 117.8 117.9 117.10 117.11 117.12 117.13 117.14 117.15
117.16 117.17 117.18 117.19 117.20 117.21 117.22 117.23 117.24 117.25 117.26 117.27 117.28 117.29 117.30 117.31 117.32 118.1 118.2 118.3
118.4 118.5 118.6 118.7 118.8 118.9 118.10 118.11 118.12 118.13 118.14 118.15 118.16 118.17 118.18 118.19 118.20 118.21 118.22 118.23 118.24 118.25
118.26 118.27 118.28 118.29 118.30 119.1 119.2 119.3 119.4 119.5 119.6 119.7 119.8 119.9 119.10 119.11 119.12 119.13 119.14 119.15 119.16 119.17 119.18 119.19 119.20 119.21 119.22 119.23 119.24 119.25 119.26 119.27 119.28 119.29 119.30 119.31 119.32 120.1 120.2 120.3 120.4 120.5 120.6 120.7 120.8 120.9 120.10 120.11 120.12 120.13 120.14 120.15 120.16 120.17 120.18 120.19 120.20 120.21 120.22
120.23 120.24 120.25 120.26 120.27 120.28 120.29
121.1 121.2 121.3 121.4 121.5 121.6 121.7 121.8 121.9 121.10 121.11 121.12 121.13 121.14 121.15 121.16 121.17 121.18 121.19 121.20 121.21 121.22 121.23 121.24 121.25 121.26 121.27 121.28 121.29 121.30 121.31 122.1 122.2 122.3 122.4 122.5 122.6 122.7
122.8 122.9 122.10 122.11 122.12 122.13 122.14 122.15 122.16 122.17 122.18 122.19 122.20 122.21 122.22
122.23 122.24 122.25 122.26 122.27 122.28 122.29 122.30 122.31 123.1 123.2 123.3 123.4 123.5 123.6 123.7 123.8 123.9 123.10 123.11 123.12 123.13 123.14 123.15 123.16 123.17 123.18 123.19 123.20 123.21 123.22 123.23 123.24 123.25 123.26 123.27 123.28
123.29 123.30 123.31 124.1 124.2 124.3 124.4 124.5 124.6 124.7 124.8 124.9 124.10 124.11 124.12 124.13 124.14
124.15 124.16 124.17 124.18 124.19 124.20 124.21 124.22 124.23 124.24 124.25 124.26 124.27 124.28 124.29 124.30 124.31 124.32 124.33 125.1 125.2 125.3
125.4 125.5 125.6 125.7 125.8 125.9 125.10 125.11 125.12 125.13 125.14
125.15 125.16 125.17 125.18 125.19 125.20 125.21 125.22 125.23 125.24 125.25 125.26 125.27 125.28 125.29 125.30 125.31 126.1 126.2 126.3 126.4 126.5 126.6 126.7 126.8 126.9 126.10
126.11 126.12 126.13 126.14 126.15 126.16 126.17 126.18 126.19 126.20 126.21 126.22 126.23 126.24 126.25 126.26 126.27 126.28 126.29 126.30 126.31 127.1 127.2 127.3 127.4 127.5 127.6 127.7 127.8 127.9 127.10 127.11 127.12 127.13 127.14 127.15 127.16 127.17 127.18 127.19 127.20 127.21 127.22 127.23 127.24 127.25 127.26 127.27 127.28 127.29 127.30 127.31 128.1 128.2 128.3 128.4 128.5 128.6 128.7 128.8 128.9 128.10 128.11 128.12 128.13 128.14 128.15 128.16 128.17 128.18 128.19 128.20 128.21 128.22 128.23 128.24
128.25 128.26 128.27 128.28 128.29 128.30 128.31 128.32 129.1 129.2 129.3 129.4 129.5 129.6 129.7 129.8 129.9 129.10 129.11 129.12 129.13 129.14 129.15 129.16 129.17 129.18 129.19 129.20 129.21 129.22 129.23 129.24 129.25 129.26 129.27 129.28 129.29 129.30 129.31 129.32 129.33 130.1 130.2 130.3 130.4
130.5 130.6 130.7 130.8 130.9 130.10 130.11 130.12 130.13 130.14 130.15 130.16 130.17 130.18 130.19 130.20 130.21 130.22 130.23 130.24 130.25 130.26 130.27 130.28 130.29 130.30 130.31 131.1 131.2 131.3 131.4 131.5 131.6 131.7 131.8 131.9 131.10 131.11 131.12 131.13 131.14 131.15 131.16 131.17 131.18 131.19 131.20 131.21 131.22 131.23 131.24 131.25 131.26 131.27 131.28 131.29 131.30 131.31 131.32 132.1 132.2 132.3 132.4 132.5 132.6 132.7 132.8 132.9 132.10 132.11 132.12 132.13 132.14 132.15 132.16 132.17 132.18 132.19 132.20 132.21 132.22 132.23 132.24 132.25 132.26 132.27 132.28 132.29 132.30 132.31
133.1 133.2 133.3 133.4 133.5 133.6 133.7 133.8 133.9
133.10 133.11 133.12 133.13 133.14 133.15 133.16 133.17 133.18 133.19
133.20 133.21 133.22 133.23 133.24 133.25 133.26 133.27 133.28 133.29 133.30 133.31 133.32 133.33 134.1 134.2
134.3 134.4 134.5 134.6 134.7 134.8 134.9 134.10 134.11 134.12 134.13 134.14
134.15 134.16 134.17 134.18 134.19 134.20 134.21 134.22 134.23 134.24 134.25 134.26 134.27 134.28 134.29 134.30
135.1 135.2 135.3 135.4 135.5 135.6 135.7 135.8 135.9 135.10 135.11 135.12 135.13
135.14 135.15 135.16 135.17 135.18 135.19 135.20 135.21 135.22 135.23 135.24 135.25 135.26 135.27 135.28 135.29
135.30 135.31 135.32 135.33 136.1 136.2 136.3 136.4 136.5 136.6 136.7 136.8 136.9 136.10 136.11 136.12 136.13 136.14 136.15 136.16 136.17 136.18 136.19 136.20 136.21 136.22 136.23 136.24 136.25 136.26 136.27 136.28 136.29 136.30 136.31 136.32 136.33
137.1 137.2 137.3 137.4 137.5 137.6 137.7 137.8 137.9 137.10 137.11 137.12 137.13 137.14 137.15 137.16 137.17 137.18 137.19 137.20 137.21 137.22 137.23 137.24 137.25 137.26 137.27
137.28 137.29 137.30 137.31 137.32 137.33 138.1 138.2 138.3 138.4 138.5 138.6 138.7
138.8
138.9 138.10 138.11 138.12 138.13 138.14 138.15 138.16 138.17 138.18 138.19 138.20 138.21
138.22
138.23 138.24 138.25 138.26 138.27 138.28 138.29 138.30 138.31 138.32
139.1 139.2 139.3 139.4 139.5 139.6 139.7
139.8 139.9 139.10 139.11 139.12 139.13 139.14 139.15 139.16 139.17 139.18 139.19 139.20 139.21 139.22 139.23 139.24 139.25 139.26 139.27 139.28 139.29 139.30 139.31 140.1 140.2 140.3 140.4 140.5 140.6 140.7 140.8 140.9 140.10 140.11 140.12 140.13 140.14 140.15 140.16 140.17 140.18 140.19 140.20 140.21 140.22 140.23 140.24 140.25 140.26 140.27 140.28 140.29 140.30 140.31 140.32 141.1 141.2 141.3 141.4 141.5 141.6 141.7 141.8 141.9 141.10 141.11 141.12 141.13 141.14 141.15 141.16 141.17 141.18 141.19 141.20 141.21 141.22 141.23 141.24 141.25 141.26 141.27 141.28
141.29 141.30 141.31 141.32 142.1 142.2 142.3 142.4 142.5 142.6 142.7 142.8 142.9 142.10
142.11
142.12 142.13 142.14 142.15 142.16 142.17 142.18 142.19 142.20 142.21 142.22 142.23 142.24 142.25 142.26 142.27 142.28 142.29 142.30 142.31 143.1 143.2 143.3 143.4 143.5 143.6 143.7 143.8 143.9 143.10 143.11 143.12 143.13 143.14 143.15 143.16 143.17 143.18 143.19 143.20 143.21 143.22 143.23 143.24 143.25 143.26 143.27 143.28 143.29 143.30 143.31 144.1 144.2 144.3 144.4 144.5 144.6 144.7 144.8 144.9 144.10 144.11 144.12 144.13 144.14 144.15 144.16 144.17 144.18 144.19 144.20 144.21 144.22
144.23 144.24 144.25 144.26 144.27 144.28 144.29 144.30 144.31 144.32 145.1 145.2 145.3 145.4 145.5 145.6 145.7 145.8 145.9 145.10 145.11 145.12 145.13 145.14
145.15 145.16 145.17 145.18 145.19 145.20 145.21 145.22 145.23 145.24 145.25 145.26 145.27 145.28 145.29 146.1 146.2 146.3 146.4 146.5 146.6 146.7 146.8 146.9 146.10 146.11 146.12 146.13 146.14 146.15 146.16 146.17 146.18 146.19 146.20 146.21 146.22 146.23 146.24 146.25 146.26
146.27 146.28 146.29 146.30 147.1 147.2 147.3 147.4 147.5 147.6 147.7 147.8 147.9 147.10 147.11 147.12 147.13 147.14 147.15 147.16 147.17 147.18
147.19 147.20 147.21 147.22 147.23 147.24 147.25 147.26 147.27 147.28 147.29 147.30 147.31 148.1 148.2 148.3 148.4 148.5 148.6 148.7 148.8 148.9 148.10 148.11 148.12 148.13 148.14 148.15 148.16 148.17 148.18 148.19 148.20 148.21 148.22 148.23 148.24 148.25 148.26 148.27 148.28 148.29 148.30 148.31 148.32 148.33 149.1 149.2 149.3 149.4 149.5 149.6 149.7 149.8 149.9 149.10 149.11 149.12 149.13 149.14 149.15 149.16 149.17 149.18 149.19 149.20 149.21 149.22 149.23 149.24 149.25 149.26 149.27 149.28 149.29 149.30 149.31 149.32 149.33
150.1 150.2 150.3 150.4 150.5 150.6 150.7 150.8 150.9 150.10 150.11 150.12 150.13 150.14 150.15 150.16 150.17 150.18 150.19 150.20
150.21 150.22 150.23 150.24 150.25 150.26 150.27 150.28 150.29 150.30 151.1 151.2 151.3 151.4 151.5 151.6 151.7 151.8 151.9 151.10 151.11 151.12 151.13 151.14 151.15 151.16 151.17 151.18 151.19 151.20 151.21 151.22 151.23 151.24 151.25 151.26 151.27 151.28 151.29 151.30 151.31 152.1 152.2 152.3 152.4 152.5 152.6 152.7 152.8 152.9 152.10 152.11 152.12 152.13 152.14 152.15 152.16 152.17 152.18 152.19 152.20 152.21 152.22 152.23 152.24 152.25 152.26 152.27 152.28 152.29 152.30 152.31 153.1 153.2 153.3 153.4 153.5
153.6 153.7 153.8 153.9 153.10 153.11 153.12 153.13 153.14 153.15 153.16 153.17 153.18 153.19 153.20 153.21 153.22 153.23 153.24 153.25 153.26 153.27 153.28 153.29 153.30 153.31 154.1 154.2 154.3 154.4 154.5 154.6 154.7 154.8 154.9 154.10 154.11 154.12 154.13 154.14 154.15 154.16 154.17 154.18 154.19 154.20 154.21 154.22 154.23
154.24 154.25 154.26 154.27
154.28 154.29 154.30 154.31 155.1 155.2
155.3 155.4 155.5 155.6 155.7
155.8 155.9 155.10 155.11 155.12 155.13 155.14 155.15 155.16 155.17 155.18 155.19 155.20 155.21 155.22 155.23 155.24 155.25 155.26 155.27 155.28 155.29 155.30 155.31 156.1 156.2 156.3 156.4 156.5 156.6
156.7 156.8 156.9 156.10 156.11 156.12 156.13 156.14 156.15 156.16 156.17 156.18 156.19 156.20 156.21 156.22 156.23 156.24 156.25 156.26 156.27 156.28 156.29 156.30 156.31 156.32 157.1 157.2 157.3 157.4 157.5 157.6 157.7 157.8
157.9 157.10 157.11 157.12 157.13 157.14 157.15 157.16
157.17 157.18 157.19 157.20 157.21 157.22 157.23
157.24 157.25 157.26 157.27 157.28 157.29 157.30
158.1 158.2 158.3 158.4 158.5 158.6 158.7 158.8
158.9 158.10 158.11 158.12 158.13 158.14 158.15 158.16 158.17 158.18 158.19 158.20 158.21 158.22 158.23 158.24 158.25 158.26 158.27 158.28 158.29 158.30 158.31 158.32 158.33 159.1 159.2 159.3 159.4 159.5 159.6 159.7 159.8 159.9 159.10 159.11 159.12 159.13 159.14 159.15 159.16 159.17 159.18 159.19 159.20 159.21 159.22
159.23 159.24 159.25 159.26 159.27
159.28 159.29 159.30 159.31 160.1 160.2
160.3
160.4 160.5 160.6 160.7 160.8 160.9 160.10 160.11 160.12 160.13 160.14 160.15 160.16 160.17 160.18 160.19 160.20 160.21 160.22 160.23 160.24 160.25 160.26 160.27
160.28
160.29 160.30 160.31 161.1 161.2 161.3 161.4 161.5
161.6
161.7 161.8 161.9 161.10 161.11 161.12 161.13 161.14 161.15 161.16 161.17 161.18 161.19 161.20 161.21 161.22 161.23 161.24 161.25 161.26 161.27 161.28 161.29 161.30 161.31 161.32 162.1 162.2 162.3 162.4 162.5 162.6 162.7 162.8 162.9 162.10 162.11 162.12 162.13 162.14 162.15 162.16 162.17 162.18 162.19 162.20 162.21 162.22 162.23 162.24 162.25 162.26
162.27
162.28 162.29 162.30 162.31 163.1 163.2 163.3 163.4 163.5 163.6 163.7 163.8 163.9 163.10 163.11 163.12 163.13
163.14 163.15 163.16 163.17 163.18 163.19 163.20 163.21 163.22 163.23 163.24 163.25 163.26 163.27 163.28 163.29 163.30 163.31 163.32 163.33
164.1 164.2 164.3 164.4 164.5 164.6 164.7 164.8
164.9 164.10 164.11 164.12 164.13 164.14 164.15 164.16 164.17 164.18 164.19 164.20
164.21
164.22 164.23 164.24 164.25 164.26 164.27 164.28 164.29
164.30
165.1 165.2 165.3 165.4 165.5 165.6 165.7 165.8
165.9
165.10 165.11 165.12 165.13 165.14 165.15 165.16 165.17 165.18
165.19
165.20 165.21 165.22 165.23 165.24 165.25 165.26
165.27
166.1 166.2 166.3 166.4 166.5 166.6 166.7 166.8 166.9 166.10 166.11 166.12 166.13 166.14 166.15 166.16 166.17 166.18 166.19 166.20 166.21 166.22 166.23 166.24 166.25 166.26 166.27
166.28
167.1 167.2 167.3 167.4 167.5 167.6 167.7 167.8 167.9
167.10 167.11 167.12 167.13 167.14 167.15 167.16 167.17 167.18 167.19 167.20 167.21 167.22 167.23 167.24 167.25 167.26 167.27 167.28 167.29 167.30 167.31 167.32 167.33 167.34 168.1 168.2 168.3 168.4 168.5 168.6 168.7 168.8 168.9 168.10 168.11 168.12 168.13 168.14 168.15 168.16 168.17 168.18 168.19 168.20 168.21 168.22 168.23 168.24 168.25 168.26 168.27 168.28 168.29 168.30 168.31 168.32 168.33 168.34 168.35 169.1 169.2 169.3 169.4 169.5 169.6 169.7 169.8 169.9 169.10 169.11 169.12 169.13 169.14 169.15 169.16 169.17 169.18 169.19 169.20 169.21 169.22 169.23 169.24 169.25 169.26 169.27 169.28 169.29 169.30 169.31 169.32 169.33 169.34 170.1 170.2 170.3 170.4 170.5 170.6 170.7 170.8 170.9 170.10 170.11 170.12 170.13 170.14 170.15 170.16 170.17 170.18 170.19 170.20
170.21
170.22 170.23 170.24 170.25 170.26 170.27 170.28 170.29 170.30 170.31 170.32 171.1 171.2 171.3 171.4 171.5 171.6 171.7 171.8 171.9 171.10 171.11 171.12 171.13 171.14 171.15 171.16 171.17
171.18
171.19 171.20 171.21 171.22 171.23 171.24 171.25 171.26 171.27 171.28 171.29 171.30 171.31 172.1 172.2 172.3 172.4 172.5 172.6 172.7 172.8 172.9 172.10 172.11 172.12 172.13 172.14 172.15 172.16 172.17 172.18 172.19 172.20 172.21 172.22 172.23 172.24 172.25 172.26 172.27 172.28 172.29 172.30 172.31 172.32 173.1 173.2 173.3 173.4 173.5 173.6 173.7 173.8 173.9 173.10 173.11 173.12 173.13 173.14 173.15 173.16 173.17 173.18 173.19 173.20 173.21 173.22 173.23 173.24 173.25
173.26
173.27 173.28 173.29 173.30 173.31 173.32 173.33 174.1 174.2 174.3 174.4 174.5 174.6 174.7 174.8 174.9 174.10 174.11 174.12 174.13 174.14 174.15 174.16 174.17 174.18 174.19 174.20 174.21 174.22 174.23 174.24 174.25 174.26 174.27 174.28 174.29 174.30 174.31 174.32 175.1 175.2 175.3 175.4 175.5 175.6 175.7 175.8 175.9 175.10 175.11 175.12 175.13 175.14 175.15 175.16 175.17 175.18 175.19 175.20 175.21 175.22 175.23 175.24 175.25 175.26 175.27 175.28 175.29 175.30 175.31 175.32 175.33 176.1 176.2 176.3 176.4 176.5 176.6 176.7 176.8 176.9 176.10 176.11 176.12 176.13 176.14 176.15 176.16 176.17 176.18 176.19 176.20 176.21 176.22 176.23 176.24 176.25 176.26 176.27 176.28 176.29 176.30 176.31 176.32 177.1 177.2 177.3 177.4 177.5 177.6 177.7 177.8 177.9 177.10 177.11 177.12 177.13 177.14 177.15 177.16 177.17 177.18 177.19 177.20 177.21 177.22 177.23 177.24 177.25 177.26 177.27 177.28 177.29 177.30 177.31 178.1 178.2 178.3 178.4 178.5 178.6 178.7 178.8 178.9 178.10 178.11 178.12 178.13 178.14 178.15 178.16 178.17 178.18 178.19 178.20 178.21 178.22 178.23 178.24 178.25 178.26 178.27 178.28
178.29
179.1 179.2 179.3 179.4 179.5 179.6 179.7 179.8 179.9 179.10 179.11 179.12 179.13 179.14 179.15 179.16 179.17 179.18 179.19 179.20 179.21 179.22 179.23 179.24 179.25 179.26 179.27
179.28
179.29 179.30 179.31 179.32 179.33 180.1 180.2 180.3 180.4 180.5 180.6 180.7 180.8 180.9 180.10 180.11 180.12 180.13 180.14 180.15 180.16 180.17 180.18 180.19 180.20 180.21 180.22 180.23 180.24 180.25 180.26 180.27 180.28 180.29 180.30 181.1 181.2 181.3 181.4 181.5 181.6 181.7 181.8 181.9 181.10 181.11 181.12 181.13 181.14 181.15 181.16 181.17 181.18 181.19
181.20
181.21 181.22 181.23 181.24 181.25 181.26 181.27 181.28 181.29 181.30 181.31 182.1 182.2 182.3 182.4 182.5 182.6 182.7 182.8 182.9 182.10 182.11 182.12 182.13
182.14
182.15 182.16 182.17 182.18 182.19 182.20 182.21 182.22 182.23 182.24 182.25 182.26 182.27 182.28 182.29 182.30 182.31 182.32 183.1 183.2 183.3 183.4 183.5 183.6 183.7 183.8 183.9 183.10
183.11
183.12 183.13 183.14 183.15 183.16 183.17 183.18 183.19 183.20 183.21 183.22 183.23 183.24 183.25 183.26 183.27 183.28 183.29 183.30 183.31 183.32 184.1 184.2 184.3 184.4
184.5
184.6 184.7 184.8 184.9 184.10 184.11
184.12
184.13 184.14 184.15 184.16 184.17 184.18
184.19
184.20 184.21 184.22 184.23 184.24 184.25 184.26 184.27 184.28 184.29 184.30 185.1 185.2
185.3
185.4 185.5 185.6 185.7 185.8 185.9 185.10 185.11 185.12 185.13 185.14 185.15 185.16 185.17 185.18 185.19 185.20 185.21 185.22 185.23 185.24 185.25 185.26 185.27 185.28 185.29 185.30 185.31 185.32 186.1 186.2 186.3 186.4 186.5 186.6 186.7 186.8 186.9 186.10 186.11 186.12 186.13 186.14 186.15 186.16 186.17 186.18 186.19 186.20 186.21 186.22 186.23 186.24 186.25
186.26
186.27 186.28 186.29 186.30 186.31 186.32 187.1 187.2 187.3 187.4 187.5 187.6 187.7 187.8 187.9 187.10 187.11 187.12 187.13 187.14 187.15 187.16 187.17 187.18 187.19 187.20 187.21 187.22 187.23 187.24 187.25 187.26 187.27 187.28 187.29 187.30 187.31 187.32 188.1 188.2 188.3 188.4 188.5 188.6 188.7 188.8 188.9 188.10 188.11 188.12 188.13 188.14 188.15 188.16 188.17 188.18 188.19 188.20 188.21 188.22
188.23
188.24 188.25 188.26 188.27 188.28 188.29 188.30 188.31 188.32 189.1 189.2 189.3 189.4 189.5 189.6 189.7 189.8 189.9 189.10 189.11 189.12 189.13 189.14 189.15 189.16 189.17 189.18 189.19 189.20 189.21 189.22 189.23 189.24 189.25 189.26 189.27 189.28
189.29
189.30 189.31 189.32 190.1 190.2 190.3 190.4 190.5 190.6 190.7 190.8 190.9 190.10
190.11
190.12 190.13 190.14 190.15 190.16 190.17 190.18 190.19 190.20 190.21 190.22 190.23 190.24 190.25 190.26 190.27 190.28 190.29 190.30 190.31 190.32
191.1
191.2 191.3 191.4 191.5 191.6 191.7 191.8 191.9 191.10 191.11 191.12 191.13 191.14 191.15 191.16
191.17
191.18 191.19 191.20 191.21 191.22 191.23 191.24 191.25 191.26 191.27 191.28 191.29
192.1 192.2 192.3 192.4 192.5 192.6 192.7 192.8 192.9 192.10 192.11 192.12 192.13 192.14 192.15 192.16 192.17 192.18 192.19 192.20 192.21 192.22
192.23 192.24 192.25 192.26 192.27 192.28 192.29 192.30 192.31 193.1 193.2 193.3 193.4 193.5 193.6 193.7 193.8 193.9 193.10 193.11 193.12 193.13 193.14 193.15 193.16 193.17 193.18 193.19 193.20
193.21 193.22 193.23 193.24 193.25 193.26 193.27 193.28 193.29 193.30 193.31 194.1 194.2 194.3 194.4 194.5 194.6 194.7 194.8 194.9 194.10 194.11 194.12 194.13 194.14 194.15
194.16 194.17 194.18 194.19 194.20 194.21 194.22 194.23 194.24 194.25 194.26 194.27 194.28 194.29 194.30
195.1 195.2 195.3 195.4 195.5 195.6
195.7 195.8
195.9 195.10
195.11 195.12 195.13 195.14 195.15 195.16 195.17 195.18 195.19 195.20 195.21 195.22
195.23 195.24 195.25 195.26 195.27 195.28 195.29 195.30 195.31 196.1 196.2 196.3 196.4 196.5 196.6 196.7 196.8
196.9 196.10 196.11 196.12 196.13
196.14 196.15 196.16 196.17 196.18
196.19 196.20 196.21 196.22 196.23 196.24 196.25 196.26 196.27 196.28 197.1 197.2 197.3 197.4 197.5
197.6 197.7 197.8 197.9 197.10 197.11 197.12 197.13
197.14 197.15 197.16 197.17 197.18 197.19 197.20 197.21 197.22 197.23 197.24 197.25 197.26 197.27 197.28 197.29 197.30 197.31 198.1 198.2 198.3 198.4 198.5
198.6 198.7 198.8 198.9
198.10 198.11 198.12 198.13 198.14 198.15 198.16 198.17 198.18 198.19 198.20 198.21 198.22 198.23 198.24 198.25
198.26 198.27 198.28 198.29 198.30 198.31 199.1 199.2 199.3
199.4 199.5 199.6 199.7 199.8 199.9 199.10
199.11 199.12 199.13
199.14 199.15 199.16 199.17 199.18
199.19 199.20 199.21 199.22 199.23
199.24 199.25 199.26 199.27 199.28 199.29 200.1 200.2 200.3 200.4 200.5 200.6
200.7 200.8 200.9 200.10 200.11 200.12 200.13 200.14 200.15
200.16 200.17 200.18 200.19 200.20 200.21 200.22
200.23 200.24 200.25 200.26 200.27 200.28 200.29 200.30 200.31
201.1 201.2 201.3 201.4 201.5 201.6 201.7 201.8 201.9 201.10 201.11 201.12 201.13 201.14
201.15 201.16 201.17 201.18 201.19 201.20 201.21 201.22 201.23 201.24 201.25 201.26 201.27 201.28 201.29 201.30 201.31 201.32 201.33 202.1 202.2 202.3 202.4 202.5 202.6 202.7 202.8 202.9 202.10 202.11 202.12 202.13 202.14
202.15 202.16 202.17 202.18 202.19 202.20 202.21 202.22 202.23
202.24 202.25 202.26 202.27 202.28 202.29 202.30 202.31 202.32 203.1 203.2 203.3 203.4 203.5 203.6 203.7 203.8 203.9 203.10 203.11 203.12 203.13 203.14 203.15 203.16 203.17 203.18 203.19 203.20 203.21 203.22 203.23 203.24 203.25 203.26 203.27 203.28 203.29 203.30 203.31 203.32 203.33 204.1 204.2 204.3 204.4 204.5 204.6
204.7 204.8 204.9 204.10 204.11 204.12 204.13 204.14 204.15 204.16 204.17 204.18 204.19 204.20 204.21 204.22 204.23 204.24 204.25
204.26 204.27 204.28 204.29 204.30 204.31 204.32 204.33 205.1 205.2 205.3 205.4 205.5 205.6 205.7 205.8 205.9 205.10 205.11 205.12
205.13 205.14 205.15 205.16 205.17 205.18 205.19 205.20 205.21 205.22 205.23 205.24 205.25 205.26 205.27 205.28 205.29 205.30 205.31 205.32 206.1 206.2 206.3 206.4 206.5 206.6 206.7 206.8 206.9 206.10 206.11 206.12 206.13 206.14 206.15 206.16 206.17 206.18 206.19 206.20 206.21 206.22 206.23 206.24 206.25
206.26 206.27 206.28 206.29 206.30 206.31 206.32 207.1 207.2 207.3 207.4 207.5 207.6 207.7 207.8 207.9 207.10 207.11 207.12 207.13 207.14 207.15 207.16 207.17 207.18 207.19 207.20 207.21 207.22 207.23 207.24 207.25 207.26 207.27 207.28 207.29 207.30
207.31 207.32 207.33 208.1 208.2 208.3 208.4 208.5 208.6 208.7 208.8
208.9 208.10 208.11 208.12 208.13 208.14 208.15 208.16 208.17 208.18 208.19 208.20 208.21 208.22 208.23 208.24 208.25 208.26 208.27 208.28 208.29 208.30 208.31 209.1 209.2 209.3 209.4 209.5 209.6 209.7 209.8 209.9 209.10 209.11 209.12 209.13 209.14 209.15 209.16 209.17 209.18 209.19 209.20 209.21 209.22 209.23 209.24 209.25 209.26 209.27 209.28 209.29 209.30
209.31 209.32 209.33 210.1 210.2 210.3 210.4 210.5 210.6 210.7 210.8 210.9 210.10 210.11 210.12 210.13 210.14 210.15 210.16 210.17 210.18 210.19 210.20 210.21 210.22 210.23
210.24 210.25 210.26 210.27 210.28 210.29 210.30
210.31 210.32 210.33 211.1 211.2 211.3 211.4 211.5
211.6 211.7 211.8 211.9 211.10 211.11 211.12 211.13 211.14 211.15 211.16 211.17 211.18 211.19 211.20 211.21 211.22 211.23
211.24 211.25 211.26 211.27 211.28 211.29 211.30 211.31 211.32 212.1 212.2 212.3 212.4 212.5 212.6 212.7 212.8 212.9 212.10 212.11 212.12 212.13 212.14 212.15 212.16 212.17 212.18 212.19 212.20 212.21 212.22 212.23 212.24 212.25 212.26 212.27 212.28 212.29 212.30 212.31 212.32 212.33 213.1 213.2 213.3 213.4 213.5 213.6 213.7 213.8 213.9 213.10 213.11 213.12 213.13 213.14 213.15 213.16 213.17 213.18 213.19 213.20 213.21 213.22 213.23 213.24 213.25 213.26 213.27 213.28 213.29 213.30 213.31 213.32 213.33 214.1 214.2 214.3 214.4 214.5 214.6 214.7 214.8 214.9 214.10 214.11 214.12 214.13 214.14 214.15 214.16 214.17 214.18 214.19 214.20 214.21 214.22 214.23 214.24 214.25 214.26 214.27 214.28 214.29 214.30 214.31 214.32 214.33 215.1 215.2 215.3 215.4 215.5 215.6 215.7 215.8 215.9 215.10 215.11 215.12 215.13 215.14 215.15 215.16 215.17 215.18 215.19 215.20 215.21 215.22 215.23 215.24 215.25 215.26 215.27 215.28
215.29 215.30 215.31 215.32 215.33 216.1 216.2 216.3 216.4
216.5 216.6 216.7 216.8 216.9 216.10 216.11 216.12 216.13 216.14 216.15
216.16 216.17 216.18 216.19 216.20 216.21 216.22 216.23
216.24 216.25 216.26 216.27 216.28 216.29 216.30 216.31 216.32 217.1 217.2 217.3 217.4 217.5 217.6 217.7 217.8 217.9 217.10 217.11 217.12 217.13 217.14 217.15 217.16 217.17 217.18 217.19 217.20 217.21 217.22 217.23 217.24 217.25 217.26 217.27 217.28 217.29 217.30 217.31 217.32 217.33 217.34 218.1 218.2 218.3 218.4 218.5 218.6 218.7 218.8 218.9 218.10 218.11 218.12 218.13 218.14 218.15 218.16 218.17 218.18 218.19 218.20 218.21 218.22 218.23 218.24 218.25 218.26 218.27 218.28 218.29 218.30 218.31 218.32 218.33
219.1 219.2 219.3 219.4 219.5 219.6 219.7 219.8 219.9 219.10 219.11 219.12 219.13 219.14 219.15 219.16 219.17 219.18 219.19 219.20 219.21 219.22 219.23 219.24 219.25 219.26 219.27 219.28 219.29 219.30 219.31 219.32 219.33
220.1 220.2 220.3 220.4 220.5 220.6 220.7 220.8 220.9 220.10 220.11 220.12 220.13 220.14 220.15 220.16 220.17 220.18 220.19 220.20 220.21 220.22 220.23 220.24 220.25 220.26 220.27 220.28
220.29 220.30 220.31 220.32 220.33 221.1 221.2 221.3 221.4 221.5 221.6 221.7 221.8 221.9 221.10 221.11 221.12 221.13 221.14 221.15 221.16 221.17 221.18 221.19 221.20 221.21 221.22 221.23
221.24 221.25 221.26 221.27 221.28 221.29 221.30 221.31 221.32 221.33
222.1 222.2 222.3 222.4 222.5 222.6
222.7 222.8 222.9 222.10 222.11 222.12 222.13 222.14
222.15 222.16 222.17 222.18 222.19 222.20 222.21 222.22 222.23 222.24 222.25 222.26 222.27 222.28 222.29 222.30 222.31 223.1 223.2 223.3 223.4 223.5 223.6 223.7 223.8 223.9 223.10 223.11 223.12 223.13 223.14 223.15 223.16 223.17 223.18
223.19 223.20 223.21 223.22 223.23 223.24 223.25 223.26 223.27 223.28 223.29 223.30 223.31 223.32 223.33
224.1 224.2 224.3 224.4 224.5 224.6
224.7 224.8 224.9 224.10 224.11 224.12 224.13 224.14 224.15 224.16 224.17 224.18 224.19 224.20 224.21
224.22 224.23 224.24 224.25 224.26 224.27
224.28 224.29 224.30 224.31 224.32 225.1 225.2 225.3 225.4 225.5 225.6 225.7 225.8 225.9 225.10 225.11 225.12 225.13 225.14 225.15 225.16 225.17 225.18 225.19 225.20 225.21 225.22 225.23 225.24 225.25 225.26 225.27 225.28 225.29 225.30 225.31 225.32 225.33 225.34 225.35 226.1 226.2 226.3 226.4 226.5 226.6 226.7 226.8 226.9 226.10 226.11 226.12
226.13 226.14 226.15 226.16 226.17 226.18 226.19 226.20 226.21
226.22 226.23 226.24 226.25 226.26 226.27 226.28 226.29 226.30
227.1 227.2 227.3 227.4 227.5 227.6
227.7 227.8 227.9 227.10 227.11 227.12 227.13 227.14 227.15 227.16 227.17 227.18 227.19 227.20 227.21 227.22 227.23 227.24 227.25 227.26 227.27 227.28 227.29 227.30 227.31 227.32 228.1 228.2 228.3 228.4 228.5 228.6 228.7 228.8 228.9 228.10 228.11 228.12 228.13 228.14 228.15 228.16 228.17 228.18 228.19 228.20 228.21 228.22 228.23 228.24 228.25 228.26 228.27 228.28 228.29 228.30 228.31 228.32 228.33 229.1 229.2 229.3 229.4 229.5 229.6 229.7 229.8 229.9 229.10 229.11 229.12 229.13 229.14 229.15 229.16 229.17 229.18 229.19 229.20 229.21 229.22 229.23 229.24 229.25 229.26 229.27 229.28 229.29 229.30 229.31 229.32 229.33 230.1 230.2 230.3 230.4 230.5 230.6 230.7 230.8 230.9 230.10 230.11 230.12 230.13 230.14 230.15 230.16 230.17 230.18 230.19 230.20 230.21 230.22 230.23 230.24 230.25 230.26 230.27 230.28 230.29 230.30 230.31 230.32 230.33 230.34 231.1 231.2 231.3 231.4 231.5 231.6 231.7 231.8 231.9 231.10 231.11 231.12 231.13 231.14 231.15 231.16 231.17 231.18 231.19 231.20 231.21 231.22 231.23 231.24 231.25 231.26 231.27 231.28 231.29 231.30 231.31 231.32 231.33 232.1 232.2 232.3 232.4 232.5 232.6 232.7 232.8 232.9 232.10 232.11 232.12 232.13 232.14 232.15 232.16 232.17 232.18 232.19 232.20 232.21 232.22 232.23 232.24 232.25 232.26 232.27 232.28 232.29 232.30 232.31 232.32 232.33 232.34 233.1 233.2 233.3 233.4 233.5 233.6 233.7 233.8 233.9 233.10 233.11 233.12
233.13 233.14 233.15 233.16 233.17 233.18 233.19 233.20 233.21 233.22 233.23 233.24
233.25 233.26 233.27 233.28 233.29 233.30 233.31 233.32 233.33
234.1 234.2 234.3 234.4 234.5 234.6 234.7 234.8 234.9 234.10 234.11
234.12 234.13 234.14 234.15 234.16
234.17 234.18 234.19 234.20
234.21 234.22 234.23 234.24 234.25 234.26 234.27 234.28 234.29
235.1 235.2 235.3 235.4 235.5 235.6 235.7 235.8 235.9 235.10 235.11 235.12 235.13 235.14 235.15 235.16 235.17 235.18 235.19 235.20 235.21 235.22 235.23 235.24 235.25 235.26 235.27 235.28 235.29 235.30 235.31 235.32 235.33 236.1 236.2 236.3 236.4 236.5 236.6 236.7 236.8 236.9 236.10 236.11 236.12 236.13 236.14 236.15 236.16 236.17 236.18 236.19 236.20 236.21 236.22 236.23 236.24 236.25 236.26 236.27 236.28 236.29 236.30 236.31 236.32 236.33 236.34 237.1 237.2 237.3 237.4 237.5 237.6 237.7 237.8 237.9 237.10 237.11 237.12 237.13 237.14 237.15 237.16
237.17 237.18 237.19 237.20 237.21 237.22 237.23 237.24 237.25 237.26 237.27 237.28 237.29 237.30 237.31 237.32 237.33 237.34 238.1 238.2 238.3 238.4 238.5 238.6 238.7 238.8 238.9 238.10 238.11 238.12 238.13 238.14 238.15 238.16 238.17 238.18 238.19 238.20 238.21 238.22 238.23 238.24 238.25 238.26 238.27 238.28 238.29
238.30 238.31 238.32 239.1 239.2
239.3 239.4 239.5 239.6 239.7 239.8 239.9 239.10 239.11 239.12 239.13 239.14 239.15 239.16 239.17
239.18 239.19 239.20 239.21 239.22 239.23 239.24 239.25 239.26
239.27 239.28 239.29 239.30 239.31 240.1 240.2 240.3 240.4 240.5 240.6 240.7 240.8 240.9 240.10 240.11 240.12 240.13 240.14
240.15 240.16 240.17 240.18 240.19 240.20 240.21 240.22 240.23 240.24 240.25
240.26 240.27 240.28 240.29 240.30 240.31 240.32 240.33 241.1 241.2 241.3 241.4 241.5 241.6 241.7 241.8 241.9 241.10 241.11 241.12 241.13 241.14 241.15 241.16 241.17 241.18 241.19 241.20 241.21 241.22 241.23 241.24 241.25 241.26 241.27 241.28 241.29 241.30 241.31 241.32 241.33 241.34 242.1 242.2
242.3 242.4 242.5 242.6 242.7 242.8 242.9 242.10 242.11 242.12 242.13 242.14 242.15 242.16 242.17 242.18 242.19 242.20 242.21 242.22 242.23 242.24 242.25
242.26 242.27 242.28 242.29 242.30 242.31 242.32 243.1 243.2
243.3 243.4 243.5 243.6 243.7 243.8 243.9 243.10 243.11 243.12 243.13 243.14 243.15 243.16 243.17 243.18 243.19
243.20 243.21 243.22 243.23 243.24 243.25 243.26
243.27 243.28 243.29 243.30 243.31 244.1 244.2 244.3 244.4
244.5 244.6 244.7 244.8 244.9 244.10 244.11 244.12 244.13 244.14 244.15 244.16 244.17 244.18
244.19 244.20 244.21 244.22 244.23 244.24 244.25 244.26 244.27 244.28 244.29 244.30 244.31 244.32 245.1 245.2 245.3
245.4 245.5 245.6 245.7 245.8 245.9 245.10 245.11 245.12 245.13 245.14 245.15 245.16 245.17 245.18 245.19 245.20 245.21 245.22 245.23 245.24 245.25 245.26 245.27 245.28 245.29 245.30 245.31
246.1 246.2 246.3 246.4 246.5 246.6 246.7 246.8 246.9 246.10 246.11 246.12 246.13 246.14 246.15 246.16 246.17 246.18 246.19 246.20 246.21 246.22 246.23 246.24 246.25 246.26 246.27 246.28 246.29 246.30
247.1 247.2 247.3 247.4 247.5 247.6 247.7 247.8 247.9 247.10
247.11 247.12 247.13 247.14 247.15 247.16 247.17 247.18 247.19 247.20
247.21 247.22 247.23 247.24 247.25 247.26 247.27 247.28 247.29 247.30
248.1 248.2 248.3 248.4 248.5 248.6 248.7 248.8 248.9 248.10 248.11 248.12 248.13 248.14 248.15 248.16 248.17 248.18 248.19 248.20 248.21 248.22 248.23 248.24 248.25 248.26 248.27 248.28 248.29 248.30 248.31
249.1 249.2 249.3 249.4 249.5 249.6 249.7 249.8 249.9 249.10 249.11 249.12 249.13 249.14 249.15 249.16 249.17 249.18 249.19 249.20 249.21 249.22 249.23 249.24 249.25 249.26 249.27 249.28 249.29 249.30 249.31 249.32 249.33
250.1 250.2 250.3 250.4 250.5 250.6 250.7 250.8 250.9 250.10 250.11 250.12 250.13 250.14 250.15 250.16 250.17 250.18 250.19 250.20 250.21
250.22 250.23 250.24 250.25 250.26 250.27 250.28 250.29 250.30 250.31 250.32 250.33 250.34 251.1 251.2 251.3 251.4 251.5 251.6 251.7 251.8 251.9 251.10 251.11
251.12 251.13 251.14 251.15 251.16 251.17 251.18 251.19
251.20 251.21 251.22 251.23 251.24 251.25 251.26 251.27 251.28 251.29 251.30 251.31 251.32 251.33 252.1 252.2 252.3 252.4 252.5 252.6 252.7
252.8 252.9 252.10 252.11 252.12 252.13 252.14 252.15 252.16 252.17 252.18 252.19 252.20 252.21 252.22 252.23 252.24 252.25 252.26 252.27 252.28 252.29 252.30 252.31 252.32
253.1 253.2 253.3 253.4 253.5 253.6 253.7 253.8 253.9 253.10 253.11 253.12 253.13 253.14 253.15 253.16 253.17 253.18 253.19 253.20 253.21 253.22 253.23 253.24 253.25
253.26 253.27 253.28 253.29 253.30 253.31 253.32 253.33 253.34 254.1 254.2 254.3 254.4 254.5 254.6 254.7 254.8 254.9 254.10 254.11 254.12 254.13 254.14 254.15 254.16 254.17 254.18 254.19 254.20 254.21 254.22 254.23 254.24 254.25 254.26
254.27 254.28 254.29 254.30 254.31 254.32 255.1 255.2 255.3 255.4 255.5 255.6 255.7 255.8 255.9 255.10 255.11 255.12 255.13 255.14 255.15 255.16 255.17 255.18 255.19 255.20 255.21 255.22 255.23 255.24 255.25 255.26 255.27 255.28 255.29 255.30 255.31 255.32 255.33 255.34 256.1 256.2 256.3 256.4 256.5 256.6
256.7 256.8 256.9 256.10 256.11 256.12 256.13 256.14 256.15 256.16 256.17 256.18 256.19 256.20 256.21 256.22 256.23
256.24 256.25 256.26 256.27 256.28 256.29 256.30 256.31 257.1 257.2 257.3 257.4
257.5 257.6 257.7 257.8 257.9 257.10 257.11 257.12
257.13 257.14 257.15 257.16 257.17 257.18 257.19 257.20 257.21 257.22 257.23 257.24 257.25 257.26 257.27 257.28 257.29 257.30
258.1 258.2 258.3 258.4 258.5 258.6 258.7
258.8 258.9 258.10 258.11 258.12 258.13 258.14 258.15 258.16 258.17 258.18 258.19 258.20
258.21 258.22 258.23 258.24 258.25 258.26 258.27 258.28 258.29 258.30 258.31 258.32 258.33
259.1 259.2 259.3 259.4 259.5 259.6 259.7 259.8 259.9 259.10 259.11
259.12 259.13 259.14 259.15 259.16 259.17 259.18 259.19 259.20 259.21 259.22 259.23 259.24 259.25 259.26 259.27 259.28 259.29 259.30 259.31 259.32 259.33 259.34 260.1 260.2 260.3 260.4 260.5 260.6 260.7 260.8 260.9 260.10 260.11 260.12 260.13
260.14 260.15 260.16 260.17 260.18 260.19 260.20
260.21 260.22 260.23 260.24 260.25 260.26 260.27 260.28 260.29 260.30 260.31
261.1 261.2 261.3 261.4 261.5 261.6
261.7 261.8 261.9 261.10 261.11 261.12 261.13 261.14 261.15 261.16 261.17
261.18 261.19 261.20 261.21 261.22
261.23 261.24 261.25 261.26 261.27 261.28 261.29
262.1 262.2 262.3 262.4 262.5 262.6
262.7 262.8 262.9 262.10 262.11
262.12 262.13 262.14 262.15 262.16 262.17 262.18 262.19 262.20 262.21 262.22
262.23 262.24 262.25 262.26 262.27 262.28 262.29 262.30 262.31 262.32 263.1 263.2 263.3 263.4 263.5
263.6 263.7 263.8 263.9 263.10 263.11 263.12 263.13 263.14 263.15 263.16 263.17 263.18 263.19 263.20 263.21
263.22 263.23 263.24 263.25 263.26 263.27 263.28 263.29 263.30 263.31 263.32 263.33 264.1 264.2 264.3 264.4 264.5 264.6 264.7 264.8
264.9 264.10 264.11 264.12 264.13 264.14 264.15 264.16 264.17 264.18 264.19 264.20
264.21 264.22 264.23 264.24 264.25
264.26 264.27 264.28 264.29 264.30 264.31 264.32
265.1 265.2 265.3 265.4 265.5 265.6 265.7 265.8 265.9
265.10 265.11 265.12 265.13 265.14 265.15 265.16 265.17 265.18 265.19 265.20 265.21 265.22
265.23 265.24 265.25 265.26 265.27 265.28 265.29 265.30 265.31 265.32 266.1 266.2 266.3 266.4 266.5 266.6 266.7 266.8 266.9 266.10 266.11 266.12 266.13 266.14 266.15 266.16 266.17
266.18 266.19 266.20 266.21 266.22 266.23 266.24 266.25 266.26 266.27 266.28 266.29 266.30 266.31 266.32 266.33
267.1 267.2 267.3 267.4 267.5 267.6 267.7 267.8 267.9 267.10 267.11 267.12 267.13 267.14
267.15 267.16 267.17
267.18 267.19 267.20 267.21 267.22
267.23 267.24 267.25 267.26 267.27 267.28 268.1 268.2 268.3 268.4 268.5 268.6 268.7 268.8 268.9 268.10 268.11 268.12 268.13 268.14 268.15 268.16 268.17 268.18 268.19 268.20 268.21 268.22 268.23 268.24 268.25 268.26 268.27 268.28 268.29 268.30 268.31 268.32 268.33 269.1 269.2 269.3 269.4 269.5 269.6 269.7 269.8 269.9 269.10 269.11 269.12 269.13 269.14 269.15 269.16 269.17 269.18 269.19 269.20 269.21 269.22 269.23 269.24 269.25
269.26 269.27 269.28 269.29 269.30 269.31 269.32 269.33 269.34 270.1 270.2 270.3 270.4 270.5 270.6 270.7 270.8 270.9 270.10 270.11 270.12 270.13 270.14 270.15 270.16 270.17 270.18 270.19 270.20
270.21 270.22 270.23 270.24
270.25 270.26 270.27 270.28
271.1 271.2
271.3 271.4 271.5 271.6 271.7 271.8 271.9 271.10 271.11 271.12 271.13 271.14 271.15 271.16 271.17 271.18 271.19 271.20 271.21 271.22 271.23 271.24 271.25 271.26 271.27
271.28 271.29 271.30 271.31 272.1 272.2 272.3 272.4 272.5 272.6 272.7 272.8 272.9 272.10 272.11 272.12 272.13 272.14 272.15 272.16 272.17 272.18 272.19 272.20 272.21 272.22 272.23 272.24 272.25 272.26 272.27 272.28 272.29 272.30 272.31 272.32 272.33 272.34 272.35 273.1 273.2 273.3 273.4 273.5 273.6 273.7 273.8 273.9 273.10 273.11 273.12 273.13 273.14 273.15 273.16 273.17 273.18 273.19 273.20 273.21 273.22 273.23 273.24 273.25 273.26 273.27 273.28 273.29 273.30 273.31 273.32 273.33 274.1 274.2 274.3 274.4
274.5 274.6 274.7 274.8 274.9 274.10 274.11 274.12 274.13 274.14 274.15 274.16 274.17 274.18 274.19 274.20 274.21 274.22 274.23 274.24 274.25 274.26 274.27 274.28 274.29 274.30 274.31 275.1 275.2 275.3 275.4 275.5 275.6 275.7 275.8 275.9 275.10 275.11 275.12 275.13 275.14 275.15 275.16 275.17 275.18 275.19 275.20 275.21 275.22 275.23 275.24 275.25 275.26 275.27 275.28 275.29 276.1 276.2 276.3 276.4 276.5 276.6 276.7 276.8 276.9 276.10 276.11 276.12 276.13 276.14 276.15 276.16 276.17 276.18 276.19 276.20 276.21 276.22 276.23 276.24 276.25 276.26 276.27 276.28 276.29 276.30 276.31 276.32 276.33 277.1 277.2 277.3 277.4 277.5 277.6 277.7 277.8 277.9 277.10 277.11 277.12 277.13 277.14 277.15 277.16 277.17 277.18 277.19 277.20 277.21 277.22 277.23 277.24 277.25 277.26 277.27 277.28 277.29 277.30 277.31 277.32 277.33 277.34 278.1 278.2 278.3 278.4 278.5 278.6 278.7 278.8 278.9 278.10 278.11 278.12 278.13 278.14 278.15 278.16 278.17 278.18 278.19 278.20 278.21 278.22 278.23 278.24 278.25 278.26 278.27 278.28 278.29 278.30 278.31 279.1 279.2 279.3 279.4 279.5 279.6 279.7 279.8 279.9 279.10 279.11 279.12 279.13 279.14 279.15 279.16 279.17 279.18 279.19 279.20 279.21 279.22 279.23 279.24 279.25 279.26 279.27 279.28 279.29 279.30 279.31 280.1 280.2 280.3 280.4 280.5 280.6 280.7 280.8 280.9 280.10 280.11 280.12 280.13 280.14 280.15 280.16 280.17 280.18 280.19 280.20 280.21 280.22 280.23
280.24 280.25 280.26 280.27 280.28
280.29 280.30 280.31 281.1 281.2
281.3 281.4 281.5 281.6 281.7 281.8 281.9 281.10 281.11 281.12 281.13 281.14 281.15 281.16 281.17 281.18 281.19 281.20 281.21 281.22 281.23 281.24 281.25 281.26 281.27 281.28 281.29 281.30 281.31 281.32 281.33
282.1 282.2 282.3 282.4 282.5 282.6 282.7 282.8 282.9 282.10 282.11 282.12 282.13 282.14 282.15 282.16 282.17 282.18 282.19 282.20 282.21
282.22 282.23 282.24 282.25 282.26 282.27 282.28 282.29 282.30 282.31 282.32 283.1 283.2 283.3 283.4 283.5 283.6 283.7 283.8 283.9 283.10 283.11 283.12
283.13 283.14 283.15 283.16 283.17 283.18 283.19 283.20 283.21 283.22 283.23 283.24
283.25 283.26 283.27 283.28 283.29 283.30 283.31 283.32 283.33 284.1 284.2 284.3 284.4
284.5 284.6 284.7 284.8 284.9 284.10 284.11 284.12 284.13 284.14 284.15 284.16 284.17 284.18 284.19 284.20 284.21 284.22 284.23 284.24 284.25 284.26 284.27 284.28
285.1 285.2 285.3 285.4 285.5 285.6 285.7 285.8 285.9 285.10 285.11 285.12 285.13 285.14 285.15 285.16 285.17 285.18 285.19 285.20 285.21 285.22 285.23 285.24 285.25 285.26 285.27 285.28 285.29 285.30 285.31 285.32 285.33 285.34 286.1 286.2 286.3 286.4 286.5 286.6 286.7 286.8 286.9 286.10 286.11 286.12
286.13 286.14 286.15 286.16 286.17 286.18 286.19 286.20 286.21
286.22 286.23 286.24 286.25 286.26 286.27 286.28 286.29 286.30 286.31 286.32 287.1 287.2 287.3 287.4 287.5 287.6 287.7 287.8 287.9 287.10 287.11 287.12 287.13 287.14 287.15 287.16 287.17 287.18 287.19 287.20 287.21 287.22 287.23 287.24 287.25 287.26 287.27 287.28 287.29 287.30 287.31 287.32 287.33 288.1 288.2 288.3 288.4 288.5 288.6 288.7 288.8 288.9
288.10 288.11 288.12 288.13 288.14 288.15 288.16 288.17 288.18 288.19 288.20
288.21 288.22 288.23 288.24 288.25 288.26 288.27
288.28 288.29 288.30 288.31 289.1 289.2 289.3 289.4 289.5 289.6 289.7 289.8 289.9 289.10 289.11 289.12 289.13 289.14 289.15 289.16 289.17 289.18 289.19 289.20 289.21
289.22 289.23 289.24 289.25 289.26
289.27 289.28 289.29 289.30 289.31 289.32 290.1 290.2 290.3 290.4 290.5 290.6 290.7 290.8
290.9 290.10 290.11 290.12 290.13 290.14 290.15 290.16 290.17 290.18 290.19 290.20 290.21 290.22 290.23 290.24 290.25 290.26 290.27 290.28 290.29 290.30 290.31 290.32 291.1 291.2 291.3 291.4 291.5 291.6 291.7 291.8 291.9 291.10 291.11 291.12 291.13 291.14 291.15 291.16 291.17 291.18 291.19 291.20 291.21 291.22 291.23 291.24 291.25 291.26 291.27 291.28 291.29 291.30 291.31 291.32 292.1 292.2 292.3 292.4 292.5 292.6 292.7 292.8 292.9 292.10 292.11 292.12 292.13 292.14 292.15 292.16 292.17 292.18 292.19 292.20 292.21 292.22 292.23 292.24 292.25 292.26 292.27 292.28 292.29 292.30 292.31 292.32 293.1 293.2 293.3 293.4 293.5 293.6 293.7 293.8 293.9 293.10 293.11 293.12 293.13 293.14 293.15
293.16 293.17 293.18 293.19 293.20 293.21
293.22 293.23 293.24 293.25 293.26 293.27 293.28 293.29 293.30 293.31 293.32 293.33 294.1 294.2 294.3 294.4 294.5 294.6 294.7 294.8 294.9 294.10 294.11 294.12 294.13 294.14 294.15 294.16 294.17 294.18 294.19 294.20 294.21 294.22 294.23 294.24 294.25 294.26 294.27 294.28 294.29 294.30 294.31 294.32 294.33 295.1 295.2 295.3 295.4 295.5 295.6 295.7 295.8 295.9 295.10 295.11 295.12 295.13 295.14 295.15 295.16 295.17 295.18 295.19 295.20 295.21 295.22 295.23 295.24 295.25 295.26 295.27 295.28 295.29 295.30 295.31 295.32 295.33 295.34 296.1 296.2 296.3 296.4 296.5 296.6 296.7 296.8 296.9
296.10 296.11 296.12 296.13 296.14 296.15 296.16 296.17 296.18 296.19 296.20 296.21 296.22 296.23 296.24 296.25 296.26 296.27 296.28 296.29 296.30 296.31 297.1 297.2 297.3 297.4 297.5
297.6 297.7 297.8 297.9 297.10 297.11 297.12 297.13 297.14 297.15 297.16 297.17 297.18 297.19 297.20 297.21 297.22 297.23 297.24 297.25 297.26 297.27 297.28 297.29 297.30 297.31 297.32 297.33 298.1 298.2 298.3 298.4 298.5 298.6 298.7 298.8 298.9 298.10 298.11 298.12 298.13 298.14 298.15 298.16 298.17 298.18 298.19 298.20 298.21 298.22 298.23 298.24 298.25 298.26 298.27
298.28 298.29 298.30 298.31 298.32 298.33 299.1 299.2 299.3 299.4
299.5 299.6 299.7 299.8 299.9 299.10
299.11 299.12 299.13 299.14 299.15 299.16 299.17 299.18
299.19 299.20 299.21 299.22 299.23 299.24 299.25 299.26 299.27 299.28 299.29 299.30 299.31 300.1 300.2 300.3 300.4 300.5 300.6 300.7 300.8 300.9 300.10 300.11 300.12 300.13 300.14 300.15 300.16 300.17 300.18 300.19 300.20 300.21 300.22 300.23 300.24 300.25 300.26 300.27 300.28 300.29 300.30 300.31 300.32 300.33 300.34 300.35 301.1 301.2 301.3 301.4 301.5 301.6 301.7 301.8 301.9 301.10 301.11 301.12 301.13 301.14 301.15 301.16
301.17 301.18 301.19 301.20 301.21 301.22 301.23 301.24 301.25 301.26 301.27 301.28 301.29 301.30 301.31 301.32 301.33 301.34 302.1 302.2 302.3 302.4 302.5 302.6 302.7 302.8 302.9 302.10 302.11 302.12 302.13 302.14 302.15 302.16 302.17 302.18
302.19 302.20 302.21 302.22 302.23 302.24 302.25 302.26 302.27 302.28 302.29 302.30 302.31 302.32 302.33 303.1 303.2 303.3 303.4 303.5 303.6 303.7 303.8 303.9 303.10 303.11 303.12 303.13 303.14 303.15 303.16 303.17 303.18 303.19 303.20 303.21 303.22 303.23 303.24 303.25 303.26 303.27 303.28 303.29 303.30 303.31 303.32 304.1 304.2 304.3 304.4 304.5 304.6 304.7 304.8 304.9 304.10 304.11 304.12 304.13 304.14 304.15 304.16 304.17 304.18 304.19 304.20 304.21 304.22 304.23 304.24 304.25 304.26 304.27 304.28 304.29 304.30 304.31 304.32 304.33 304.34 305.1 305.2 305.3 305.4 305.5 305.6 305.7 305.8 305.9 305.10 305.11 305.12 305.13 305.14 305.15 305.16 305.17 305.18 305.19 305.20 305.21 305.22 305.23 305.24 305.25 305.26 305.27 305.28 305.29 305.30 305.31 305.32 305.33 305.34 306.1 306.2 306.3 306.4 306.5 306.6 306.7 306.8 306.9 306.10 306.11
306.12 306.13 306.14 306.15 306.16 306.17 306.18 306.19 306.20 306.21 306.22 306.23 306.24 306.25 306.26 306.27 306.28 306.29 306.30 306.31 306.32 307.1 307.2 307.3 307.4 307.5 307.6 307.7 307.8 307.9 307.10 307.11 307.12 307.13 307.14 307.15 307.16 307.17 307.18
307.19 307.20 307.21 307.22 307.23 307.24 307.25 307.26 307.27 307.28 307.29 307.30 307.31 307.32 307.33 308.1 308.2 308.3 308.4 308.5 308.6 308.7 308.8 308.9 308.10 308.11 308.12 308.13
308.14 308.15 308.16 308.17 308.18 308.19 308.20 308.21 308.22 308.23 308.24 308.25 308.26 308.27 308.28 308.29 308.30 308.31 308.32 308.33 308.34 309.1 309.2 309.3 309.4 309.5 309.6 309.7 309.8 309.9 309.10 309.11 309.12 309.13 309.14 309.15 309.16 309.17 309.18 309.19 309.20 309.21 309.22 309.23 309.24 309.25 309.26 309.27 309.28 309.29 309.30 309.31 309.32 309.33 309.34 309.35 310.1 310.2 310.3 310.4 310.5 310.6 310.7 310.8 310.9 310.10 310.11 310.12 310.13 310.14 310.15 310.16 310.17 310.18 310.19 310.20 310.21 310.22 310.23 310.24 310.25 310.26 310.27 310.28 310.29 310.30 310.31 310.32 310.33 310.34 311.1 311.2 311.3 311.4 311.5 311.6 311.7 311.8 311.9
311.10 311.11 311.12 311.13 311.14 311.15 311.16 311.17 311.18 311.19 311.20 311.21 311.22 311.23 311.24 311.25 311.26 311.27 311.28 311.29 311.30 311.31 311.32 311.33 312.1 312.2 312.3 312.4 312.5 312.6 312.7 312.8 312.9 312.10 312.11 312.12
312.13 312.14 312.15 312.16 312.17 312.18 312.19 312.20 312.21 312.22 312.23 312.24 312.25 312.26 312.27 312.28 312.29 312.30 312.31 312.32 312.33 313.1 313.2 313.3 313.4 313.5 313.6 313.7 313.8 313.9 313.10 313.11 313.12 313.13 313.14 313.15 313.16 313.17 313.18 313.19 313.20 313.21 313.22 313.23 313.24 313.25 313.26 313.27 313.28 313.29 313.30 313.31 313.32 314.1 314.2 314.3 314.4 314.5 314.6 314.7 314.8 314.9 314.10 314.11 314.12 314.13 314.14 314.15 314.16 314.17 314.18 314.19 314.20 314.21 314.22 314.23 314.24 314.25 314.26 314.27 314.28 314.29 314.30 314.31 314.32 314.33 315.1 315.2 315.3 315.4 315.5 315.6 315.7 315.8 315.9 315.10 315.11 315.12 315.13 315.14 315.15 315.16 315.17 315.18 315.19 315.20 315.21 315.22 315.23 315.24 315.25 315.26 315.27 315.28 315.29 315.30 315.31 315.32 315.33 315.34 316.1 316.2 316.3 316.4 316.5 316.6 316.7 316.8 316.9 316.10 316.11 316.12 316.13 316.14 316.15 316.16 316.17 316.18 316.19 316.20 316.21 316.22 316.23 316.24 316.25 316.26 316.27 316.28 316.29 316.30 316.31 316.32 316.33 317.1 317.2 317.3 317.4 317.5 317.6 317.7 317.8 317.9 317.10 317.11 317.12 317.13 317.14 317.15 317.16 317.17 317.18 317.19 317.20 317.21 317.22 317.23 317.24 317.25 317.26 317.27 317.28 317.29 317.30 317.31 318.1 318.2 318.3 318.4 318.5 318.6
318.7 318.8 318.9 318.10 318.11 318.12 318.13 318.14 318.15 318.16 318.17 318.18 318.19 318.20 318.21 318.22 318.23 318.24 318.25 318.26 318.27 318.28 318.29 318.30 318.31 318.32 318.33 319.1 319.2 319.3 319.4 319.5 319.6 319.7 319.8 319.9 319.10 319.11 319.12 319.13 319.14 319.15 319.16 319.17 319.18 319.19 319.20 319.21 319.22 319.23 319.24 319.25 319.26 319.27 319.28 319.29 319.30 319.31 319.32 320.1 320.2 320.3 320.4 320.5 320.6 320.7 320.8 320.9 320.10 320.11 320.12 320.13 320.14 320.15 320.16 320.17
320.18 320.19 320.20 320.21 320.22 320.23 320.24 320.25 320.26 320.27 320.28 320.29 320.30 320.31 320.32 321.1 321.2 321.3 321.4 321.5 321.6 321.7 321.8 321.9 321.10 321.11 321.12 321.13 321.14
321.15 321.16 321.17 321.18 321.19 321.20 321.21 321.22 321.23 321.24 321.25 321.26 321.27 321.28
321.29 321.30 321.31 322.1 322.2 322.3 322.4
322.5 322.6
322.7 322.8 322.9 322.10 322.11 322.12 322.13 322.14 322.15 322.16 322.17 322.18 322.19 322.20 322.21 322.22 322.23 322.24 322.25 322.26 322.27 322.28 322.29 322.30 322.31 323.1 323.2 323.3 323.4 323.5 323.6 323.7 323.8 323.9 323.10 323.11 323.12 323.13 323.14 323.15 323.16 323.17 323.18 323.19 323.20 323.21 323.22 323.23 323.24 323.25 323.26 323.27 323.28 323.29 323.30 323.31 323.32 323.33 324.1 324.2 324.3 324.4 324.5 324.6 324.7 324.8 324.9 324.10 324.11 324.12
324.13 324.14 324.15 324.16 324.17 324.18 324.19 324.20 324.21 324.22 324.23 324.24
324.25 324.26 324.27 324.28 324.29 324.30 324.31 324.32 324.33 325.1 325.2
325.3 325.4 325.5 325.6 325.7 325.8 325.9 325.10 325.11 325.12 325.13 325.14 325.15 325.16 325.17 325.18 325.19 325.20 325.21 325.22 325.23 325.24 325.25 325.26 325.27 325.28 325.29 325.30 325.31
326.1 326.2 326.3 326.4 326.5 326.6 326.7 326.8 326.9 326.10 326.11 326.12 326.13 326.14 326.15 326.16 326.17 326.18 326.19 326.20 326.21 326.22 326.23 326.24 326.25 326.26 326.27 326.28 326.29 326.30 326.31 326.32 326.33 326.34 327.1 327.2 327.3 327.4 327.5 327.6 327.7 327.8 327.9 327.10 327.11 327.12 327.13 327.14 327.15 327.16 327.17 327.18 327.19 327.20 327.21 327.22 327.23 327.24 327.25 327.26 327.27 327.28 327.29 327.30 327.31 327.32 327.33 328.1 328.2 328.3 328.4 328.5 328.6 328.7 328.8 328.9 328.10 328.11 328.12 328.13 328.14 328.15 328.16 328.17 328.18 328.19 328.20 328.21 328.22 328.23 328.24 328.25 328.26 328.27 328.28 328.29 328.30 328.31 328.32 328.33 329.1 329.2 329.3 329.4 329.5 329.6 329.7 329.8 329.9 329.10 329.11 329.12 329.13 329.14 329.15 329.16 329.17 329.18 329.19 329.20 329.21 329.22 329.23 329.24 329.25 329.26 329.27 329.28 329.29
329.30 329.31 329.32 329.33 329.34 330.1 330.2
330.3 330.4 330.5 330.6 330.7
330.8 330.9 330.10 330.11 330.12 330.13 330.14 330.15 330.16 330.17 330.18 330.19 330.20 330.21 330.22 330.23 330.24 330.25 330.26 330.27 330.28 330.29 330.30 330.31 330.32 331.1 331.2 331.3 331.4 331.5 331.6 331.7 331.8 331.9
331.10 331.11 331.12 331.13 331.14 331.15 331.16 331.17 331.18 331.19 331.20 331.21
331.22 331.23 331.24 331.25 331.26 331.27 331.28 331.29 331.30 332.1 332.2 332.3
332.4 332.5 332.6 332.7 332.8 332.9 332.10 332.11 332.12 332.13 332.14 332.15 332.16 332.17 332.18 332.19 332.20 332.21 332.22 332.23 332.24 332.25 332.26 332.27 332.28 332.29 332.30 332.31 332.32 333.1 333.2 333.3 333.4 333.5 333.6 333.7 333.8 333.9 333.10 333.11 333.12 333.13 333.14 333.15 333.16 333.17 333.18
333.19 333.20 333.21 333.22 333.23 333.24 333.25 333.26 333.27 333.28
333.29 333.30 333.31 334.1 334.2 334.3 334.4 334.5 334.6 334.7 334.8
334.9 334.10 334.11 334.12 334.13 334.14 334.15 334.16 334.17 334.18 334.19 334.20 334.21 334.22 334.23 334.24 334.25 334.26 334.27 334.28 334.29 334.30 334.31 334.32 334.33 334.34 335.1 335.2 335.3 335.4 335.5 335.6 335.7 335.8 335.9 335.10 335.11 335.12 335.13 335.14 335.15 335.16 335.17 335.18 335.19 335.20 335.21 335.22 335.23 335.24
335.25 335.26 335.27 335.28 335.29 335.30 335.31 335.32 336.1 336.2 336.3 336.4 336.5 336.6 336.7 336.8 336.9 336.10 336.11 336.12 336.13 336.14 336.15 336.16 336.17 336.18 336.19 336.20 336.21 336.22 336.23 336.24 336.25 336.26 336.27 336.28 336.29 336.30 336.31 336.32 336.33 337.1 337.2 337.3 337.4 337.5 337.6 337.7 337.8 337.9 337.10 337.11 337.12 337.13 337.14 337.15 337.16 337.17 337.18 337.19 337.20 337.21 337.22 337.23 337.24 337.25
337.26 337.27 337.28 337.29 337.30 337.31 337.32 337.33 337.34 338.1 338.2 338.3 338.4 338.5 338.6 338.7 338.8 338.9 338.10 338.11 338.12 338.13 338.14 338.15 338.16 338.17 338.18 338.19 338.20 338.21 338.22 338.23 338.24 338.25 338.26 338.27 338.28 338.29 338.30 338.31 338.32 338.33 338.34 339.1 339.2 339.3 339.4 339.5 339.6 339.7 339.8 339.9 339.10
339.11 339.12 339.13 339.14 339.15 339.16 339.17 339.18 339.19 339.20 339.21 339.22 339.23 339.24 339.25 339.26 339.27 339.28 339.29 339.30 339.31 339.32
340.1 340.2 340.3 340.4 340.5 340.6
340.7 340.8 340.9 340.10 340.11 340.12 340.13 340.14 340.15 340.16
340.17 340.18 340.19 340.20 340.21 340.22 340.23 340.24 340.25 340.26
340.27 340.28 340.29 340.30 340.31 341.1 341.2 341.3 341.4 341.5 341.6 341.7 341.8 341.9 341.10 341.11 341.12 341.13 341.14 341.15 341.16 341.17 341.18 341.19 341.20 341.21 341.22 341.23 341.24 341.25 341.26 341.27 341.28 341.29 341.30 341.31 341.32 341.33 341.34 342.1 342.2
342.3 342.4 342.5 342.6 342.7 342.8 342.9 342.10 342.11 342.12 342.13 342.14 342.15 342.16 342.17 342.18 342.19 342.20 342.21 342.22 342.23
342.24 342.25 342.26 342.27 342.28 342.29 342.30 343.1 343.2 343.3 343.4 343.5 343.6 343.7 343.8 343.9 343.10 343.11 343.12 343.13 343.14 343.15 343.16 343.17 343.18 343.19 343.20 343.21 343.22 343.23 343.24 343.25 343.26 343.27 343.28 343.29 343.30 343.31 344.1 344.2 344.3 344.4 344.5 344.6 344.7 344.8 344.9 344.10 344.11 344.12 344.13 344.14
344.15 344.16 344.17 344.18 344.19 344.20 344.21 344.22 344.23 344.24 344.25 344.26 344.27 344.28
344.29 344.30 344.31 345.1 345.2 345.3 345.4 345.5 345.6 345.7 345.8 345.9 345.10 345.11 345.12 345.13 345.14 345.15 345.16 345.17 345.18 345.19 345.20 345.21 345.22 345.23 345.24 345.25 345.26 345.27
345.28 345.29 345.30 345.31 346.1 346.2 346.3 346.4 346.5 346.6 346.7 346.8 346.9 346.10 346.11 346.12 346.13 346.14 346.15 346.16 346.17 346.18 346.19 346.20 346.21 346.22 346.23 346.24 346.25
346.26 346.27 346.28 346.29 346.30 346.31 347.1 347.2
347.3 347.4 347.5 347.6
347.7 347.8 347.9 347.10 347.11 347.12 347.13 347.14 347.15 347.16 347.17
347.18 347.19 347.20 347.21
347.22 347.23 347.24 347.25 347.26 347.27 347.28 347.29 347.30 347.31 348.1 348.2
348.3 348.4 348.5 348.6 348.7 348.8 348.9 348.10 348.11 348.12 348.13 348.14 348.15 348.16 348.17 348.18 348.19 348.20 348.21 348.22 348.23 348.24 348.25 348.26 348.27 348.28 348.29 348.30 348.31 348.32 348.33 348.34 349.1 349.2 349.3 349.4
349.5 349.6 349.7
349.8 349.9 349.10 349.11 349.12
349.13 349.14 349.15 349.16 349.17 349.18 349.19 349.20 349.21 349.22 349.23 349.24 349.25
349.26 349.27 349.28 349.29 350.1 350.2 350.3 350.4 350.5 350.6 350.7 350.8 350.9 350.10 350.11 350.12 350.13 350.14 350.15 350.16 350.17 350.18 350.19 350.20 350.21 350.22 350.23 350.24 350.25 350.26 350.27 350.28 350.29 351.1 351.2 351.3 351.4 351.5 351.6 351.7 351.8 351.9 351.10 351.11 351.12 351.13 351.14 351.15 351.16 351.17 351.18 351.19 351.20 351.21 351.22 351.23 351.24 351.25 351.26 351.27 351.28 351.29 351.30 351.31 351.32 351.33 351.34 352.1 352.2 352.3 352.4 352.5 352.6 352.7 352.8 352.9 352.10 352.11
352.12 352.13 352.14 352.15 352.16 352.17 352.18 352.19 352.20 352.21 352.22 352.23 352.24 352.25 352.26 352.27
352.28 352.29 352.30 352.31 352.32 352.33 353.1 353.2 353.3 353.4 353.5 353.6 353.7 353.8 353.9 353.10 353.11 353.12 353.13 353.14 353.15 353.16 353.17 353.18 353.19 353.20 353.21 353.22 353.23 353.24 353.25 353.26 353.27 353.28 353.29 353.30 353.31 353.32 353.33 354.1 354.2 354.3
354.4 354.5 354.6 354.7 354.8 354.9 354.10 354.11 354.12 354.13 354.14 354.15 354.16 354.17 354.18
354.19 354.20 354.21 354.22 354.23 354.24 354.25 354.26 354.27
355.1 355.2 355.3 355.4 355.5 355.6 355.7 355.8 355.9 355.10 355.11 355.12 355.13 355.14 355.15 355.16 355.17 355.18 355.19 355.20 355.21 355.22 355.23 355.24 355.25
355.26 355.27 355.28 355.29 355.30 355.31 355.32 355.33 356.1 356.2
356.3 356.4 356.5 356.6 356.7 356.8 356.9 356.10 356.11 356.12 356.13 356.14 356.15 356.16 356.17 356.18 356.19 356.20 356.21 356.22 356.23 356.24 356.25 356.26 356.27 356.28 356.29 356.30 356.31 356.32 356.33 357.1 357.2 357.3 357.4 357.5 357.6 357.7 357.8 357.9 357.10 357.11 357.12 357.13 357.14 357.15 357.16 357.17 357.18 357.19 357.20 357.21 357.22 357.23 357.24 357.25 357.26 357.27 357.28 357.29 357.30 357.31 357.32 357.33 358.1 358.2 358.3 358.4 358.5 358.6 358.7 358.8 358.9 358.10 358.11 358.12 358.13 358.14 358.15 358.16 358.17 358.18 358.19 358.20 358.21 358.22 358.23 358.24 358.25 358.26 358.27 358.28
358.29 358.30 358.31 358.32 358.33 359.1 359.2 359.3 359.4 359.5 359.6 359.7
359.8 359.9 359.10 359.11 359.12 359.13 359.14 359.15 359.16 359.17 359.18 359.19 359.20 359.21 359.22 359.23 359.24 359.25 359.26 359.27 359.28 359.29 359.30 359.31 359.32 359.33 359.34 360.1 360.2 360.3 360.4 360.5 360.6 360.7 360.8 360.9 360.10 360.11 360.12 360.13 360.14 360.15 360.16 360.17 360.18 360.19 360.20 360.21 360.22 360.23 360.24 360.25 360.26 360.27 360.28 360.29 360.30 360.31 360.32 360.33 360.34 361.1 361.2 361.3 361.4 361.5 361.6 361.7 361.8 361.9 361.10 361.11 361.12 361.13 361.14 361.15 361.16 361.17 361.18
361.19 361.20 361.21 361.22 361.23 361.24 361.25
361.26 361.27 361.28 361.29 361.30 361.31 362.1 362.2 362.3 362.4 362.5 362.6 362.7 362.8 362.9 362.10 362.11 362.12 362.13 362.14 362.15 362.16 362.17 362.18 362.19 362.20 362.21 362.22 362.23 362.24 362.25 362.26 362.27 362.28 362.29 362.30 362.31 362.32 363.1 363.2 363.3
363.4 363.5 363.6 363.7 363.8 363.9 363.10 363.11 363.12 363.13 363.14
363.15 363.16 363.17 363.18 363.19 363.20 363.21 363.22 363.23 363.24 363.25 363.26 363.27 363.28 363.29 363.30 364.1 364.2 364.3 364.4 364.5 364.6 364.7 364.8 364.9 364.10 364.11 364.12 364.13 364.14 364.15 364.16 364.17 364.18 364.19 364.20 364.21 364.22 364.23
364.24 364.25 364.26 364.27 364.28 364.29 364.30 364.31 364.32 365.1 365.2 365.3 365.4 365.5
365.6 365.7 365.8 365.9 365.10 365.11 365.12 365.13 365.14 365.15 365.16 365.17 365.18 365.19 365.20 365.21 365.22 365.23 365.24 365.25 365.26 365.27 365.28 365.29 365.30 365.31 365.32 365.33 366.1 366.2 366.3 366.4 366.5 366.6 366.7 366.8 366.9 366.10 366.11 366.12 366.13 366.14 366.15 366.16 366.17 366.18 366.19 366.20 366.21 366.22 366.23 366.24
366.25 366.26 366.27 366.28 366.29 366.30 366.31 366.32 366.33 367.1 367.2 367.3 367.4 367.5 367.6 367.7 367.8 367.9 367.10 367.11 367.12 367.13 367.14 367.15 367.16 367.17 367.18 367.19 367.20 367.21 367.22 367.23 367.24 367.25 367.26 367.27 367.28 367.29
367.30 367.31 367.32 368.1 368.2 368.3 368.4 368.5 368.6 368.7 368.8 368.9 368.10 368.11 368.12 368.13 368.14 368.15 368.16 368.17 368.18 368.19 368.20 368.21 368.22 368.23 368.24 368.25 368.26 368.27 368.28 368.29 368.30 368.31 369.1 369.2 369.3 369.4 369.5 369.6 369.7 369.8 369.9 369.10 369.11 369.12 369.13 369.14
369.15 369.16 369.17 369.18 369.19 369.20 369.21 369.22 369.23 369.24 369.25 369.26 369.27 369.28 369.29 369.30 369.31 369.32 370.1 370.2 370.3 370.4 370.5 370.6 370.7 370.8 370.9 370.10 370.11 370.12 370.13 370.14 370.15 370.16 370.17 370.18 370.19 370.20 370.21 370.22 370.23 370.24 370.25 370.26 370.27 370.28 370.29 370.30 370.31 370.32 370.33
371.1 371.2 371.3 371.4 371.5 371.6 371.7 371.8 371.9 371.10 371.11 371.12 371.13 371.14
371.15 371.16 371.17 371.18 371.19 371.20 371.21 371.22 371.23 371.24
371.25 371.26 371.27 371.28 371.29 371.30 371.31 371.32 372.1 372.2 372.3 372.4 372.5 372.6 372.7 372.8 372.9 372.10 372.11 372.12 372.13 372.14 372.15 372.16 372.17 372.18 372.19 372.20 372.21 372.22 372.23 372.24
372.25 372.26 372.27 372.28 372.29 372.30 372.31 372.32 373.1 373.2 373.3 373.4 373.5
373.6 373.7 373.8 373.9 373.10 373.11 373.12 373.13 373.14 373.15 373.16 373.17 373.18 373.19 373.20 373.21 373.22 373.23 373.24 373.25 373.26 373.27 373.28 373.29 373.30 373.31 373.32 374.1 374.2 374.3 374.4 374.5 374.6 374.7 374.8 374.9 374.10 374.11 374.12 374.13 374.14 374.15 374.16 374.17 374.18 374.19 374.20 374.21 374.22
374.23 374.24 374.25 374.26 374.27 374.28 374.29 374.30 374.31 374.32
375.1 375.2 375.3 375.4 375.5 375.6 375.7 375.8 375.9 375.10
375.11 375.12 375.13 375.14 375.15 375.16 375.17 375.18 375.19 375.20 375.21 375.22 375.23 375.24 375.25 375.26 375.27 375.28 375.29 375.30 375.31 375.32
376.1 376.2 376.3 376.4 376.5 376.6 376.7 376.8 376.9 376.10 376.11 376.12 376.13 376.14 376.15 376.16 376.17 376.18 376.19 376.20 376.21 376.22 376.23 376.24 376.25 376.26 376.27 376.28 376.29 376.30
377.1 377.2 377.3 377.4 377.5 377.6 377.7 377.8 377.9 377.10 377.11 377.12 377.13 377.14 377.15 377.16 377.17 377.18 377.19 377.20 377.21 377.22 377.23 377.24 377.25 377.26 377.27 377.28 377.29 377.30 377.31 377.32 377.33 378.1 378.2 378.3 378.4 378.5 378.6 378.7 378.8 378.9 378.10 378.11 378.12 378.13 378.14 378.15 378.16 378.17
378.18 378.19 378.20 378.21 378.22 378.23 378.24 378.25 378.26 378.27 378.28 378.29 378.30 378.31 378.32 379.1 379.2 379.3 379.4 379.5 379.6 379.7 379.8 379.9 379.10 379.11 379.12 379.13 379.14 379.15 379.16 379.17 379.18
379.19 379.20 379.21 379.22 379.23 379.24 379.25 379.26 379.27 379.28 379.29 379.30 379.31 379.32 380.1 380.2 380.3 380.4 380.5 380.6 380.7 380.8 380.9 380.10 380.11 380.12 380.13 380.14 380.15 380.16 380.17 380.18 380.19 380.20 380.21 380.22
380.23 380.24 380.25 380.26
380.27 380.28 380.29 380.30 380.31 381.1 381.2 381.3 381.4
381.5 381.6 381.7 381.8 381.9 381.10 381.11 381.12 381.13 381.14
381.15 381.16 381.17 381.18 381.19 381.20 381.21
381.22 381.23 381.24 381.25 381.26 381.27 381.28 381.29 381.30 382.1 382.2 382.3 382.4 382.5 382.6 382.7 382.8 382.9 382.10 382.11 382.12 382.13 382.14 382.15 382.16 382.17 382.18 382.19 382.20 382.21 382.22 382.23 382.24 382.25
382.26 382.27 382.28 382.29 382.30 383.1 383.2 383.3 383.4 383.5 383.6 383.7 383.8 383.9 383.10 383.11 383.12 383.13 383.14 383.15 383.16 383.17 383.18 383.19 383.20 383.21 383.22 383.23 383.24 383.25 383.26 383.27 383.28 383.29 383.30 384.1 384.2 384.3 384.4 384.5 384.6 384.7 384.8 384.9 384.10 384.11 384.12 384.13 384.14 384.15 384.16 384.17
384.18 384.19 384.20 384.21 384.22 384.23 384.24 384.25 384.26 384.27 384.28 384.29 384.30 385.1 385.2 385.3 385.4 385.5 385.6 385.7 385.8 385.9 385.10
385.11 385.12 385.13 385.14 385.15 385.16 385.17 385.18
385.19 385.20 385.21 385.22 385.23 385.24 385.25 385.26
385.27 385.28 385.29 385.30 385.31 386.1 386.2 386.3 386.4 386.5
386.6 386.7 386.8 386.9 386.10 386.11 386.12 386.13
386.14 386.15 386.16 386.17 386.18 386.19 386.20 386.21 386.22 386.23 386.24 386.25 386.26 386.27 386.28 386.29 386.30 387.1 387.2 387.3 387.4 387.5 387.6 387.7 387.8 387.9 387.10
387.11 387.12 387.13 387.14 387.15 387.16 387.17 387.18 387.19 387.20 387.21 387.22 387.23 387.24 387.25 387.26 387.27 387.28 387.29 387.30 388.1 388.2 388.3 388.4 388.5 388.6 388.7 388.8 388.9 388.10 388.11 388.12 388.13 388.14 388.15 388.16 388.17
388.18 388.19 388.20 388.21 388.22 388.23 388.24 388.25 388.26 388.27 388.28 388.29 388.30 389.1 389.2 389.3 389.4 389.5 389.6 389.7 389.8
389.9 389.10 389.11 389.12 389.13 389.14 389.15 389.16 389.17 389.18 389.19
389.20 389.21 389.22 389.23 389.24 389.25 389.26 389.27 389.28 389.29 389.30 389.31 389.32 390.1 390.2 390.3 390.4 390.5 390.6 390.7 390.8 390.9 390.10 390.11 390.12 390.13 390.14 390.15
390.16 390.17 390.18 390.19 390.20 390.21 390.22 390.23 390.24 390.25 390.26 390.27 390.28 390.29 390.30 390.31 390.32
391.1 391.2 391.3 391.4 391.5 391.6 391.7 391.8 391.9 391.10 391.11 391.12 391.13 391.14 391.15 391.16 391.17 391.18 391.19 391.20 391.21 391.22 391.23 391.24 391.25 391.26 391.27 391.28 391.29 391.30 391.31 391.32 391.33 391.34 391.35 392.1 392.2 392.3 392.4 392.5 392.6 392.7 392.8 392.9 392.10 392.11 392.12 392.13 392.14 392.15 392.16 392.17 392.18 392.19 392.20 392.21
392.22 392.23 392.24 392.25 392.26 392.27 392.28 392.29 392.30 392.31 392.32 392.33 392.34 392.35 393.1 393.2 393.3 393.4 393.5 393.6 393.7 393.8 393.9 393.10 393.11 393.12 393.13 393.14 393.15 393.16 393.17 393.18 393.19 393.20 393.21 393.22 393.23 393.24 393.25 393.26 393.27 393.28 393.29 393.30 394.1 394.2 394.3 394.4 394.5 394.6 394.7 394.8 394.9 394.10 394.11 394.12 394.13 394.14 394.15 394.16 394.17 394.18 394.19 394.20 394.21 394.22 394.23 394.24 394.25 394.26 394.27 394.28 394.29 394.30 394.31 394.32 394.33 395.1 395.2 395.3 395.4 395.5 395.6 395.7 395.8 395.9
395.10 395.11 395.12 395.13 395.14 395.15 395.16 395.17 395.18 395.19 395.20 395.21 395.22 395.23 395.24 395.25 395.26 395.27 395.28 395.29 395.30 395.31 395.32 395.33 395.34 396.1 396.2 396.3 396.4 396.5 396.6 396.7 396.8 396.9 396.10 396.11 396.12 396.13 396.14 396.15 396.16 396.17 396.18 396.19 396.20 396.21 396.22 396.23
396.24 396.25 396.26 396.27 396.28 396.29 396.30 396.31 396.32 396.33 397.1 397.2 397.3 397.4 397.5 397.6 397.7 397.8 397.9 397.10 397.11 397.12 397.13 397.14 397.15 397.16 397.17 397.18 397.19 397.20 397.21 397.22 397.23 397.24 397.25 397.26 397.27 397.28 397.29 397.30 397.31 397.32 397.33 398.1 398.2 398.3 398.4 398.5 398.6 398.7 398.8 398.9 398.10 398.11 398.12 398.13 398.14 398.15 398.16 398.17 398.18 398.19 398.20 398.21 398.22 398.23 398.24 398.25 398.26 398.27 398.28 398.29 398.30 398.31 398.32 398.33 398.34 399.1 399.2 399.3 399.4 399.5 399.6 399.7 399.8 399.9 399.10 399.11 399.12 399.13 399.14 399.15 399.16 399.17 399.18 399.19 399.20 399.21
399.22 399.23 399.24 399.25 399.26 399.27 399.28 399.29 399.30 399.31 399.32 399.33 400.1 400.2 400.3 400.4 400.5 400.6 400.7 400.8 400.9 400.10 400.11 400.12 400.13 400.14 400.15 400.16 400.17 400.18 400.19 400.20 400.21 400.22 400.23 400.24
400.25 400.26 400.27 400.28 400.29 400.30 400.31 400.32 400.33 400.34 401.1 401.2 401.3 401.4 401.5 401.6 401.7 401.8 401.9 401.10 401.11 401.12 401.13 401.14 401.15 401.16 401.17 401.18 401.19 401.20 401.21 401.22 401.23 401.24 401.25 401.26 401.27 401.28 401.29 401.30 401.31 401.32 401.33 401.34 401.35 402.1 402.2 402.3 402.4 402.5 402.6 402.7 402.8 402.9 402.10 402.11 402.12 402.13 402.14 402.15 402.16 402.17 402.18 402.19 402.20 402.21 402.22 402.23 402.24 402.25 402.26 402.27 402.28 402.29 402.30
402.31 402.32 402.33 402.34 403.1 403.2 403.3 403.4 403.5 403.6 403.7 403.8 403.9 403.10 403.11 403.12 403.13 403.14 403.15 403.16 403.17 403.18 403.19 403.20 403.21 403.22 403.23
403.24 403.25 403.26 403.27 403.28 403.29 403.30 403.31 403.32
404.1 404.2 404.3 404.4 404.5 404.6 404.7 404.8 404.9 404.10 404.11 404.12 404.13 404.14 404.15 404.16 404.17 404.18 404.19 404.20 404.21 404.22 404.23 404.24 404.25 404.26 404.27 404.28
404.29 404.30 404.31 405.1 405.2 405.3 405.4 405.5 405.6 405.7 405.8 405.9 405.10 405.11 405.12 405.13 405.14 405.15 405.16 405.17 405.18 405.19 405.20 405.21 405.22 405.23 405.24 405.25 405.26 405.27 405.28 405.29 405.30 405.31 405.32 406.1 406.2 406.3 406.4 406.5 406.6 406.7 406.8 406.9 406.10 406.11 406.12 406.13 406.14 406.15
406.16 406.17 406.18 406.19 406.20 406.21 406.22 406.23 406.24 406.25
406.26 406.27 406.28 406.29 406.30 406.31 406.32
407.1 407.2 407.3 407.4 407.5 407.6 407.7 407.8 407.9 407.10 407.11 407.12 407.13 407.14 407.15 407.16 407.17 407.18 407.19 407.20 407.21 407.22 407.23 407.24 407.25 407.26 407.27 407.28 407.29 408.1 408.2 408.3 408.4 408.5 408.6 408.7 408.8 408.9 408.10 408.11 408.12 408.13 408.14 408.15 408.16 408.17 408.18 408.19 408.20 408.21 408.22 408.23 408.24 408.25 408.26 408.27
408.28 408.29 408.30 408.31 408.32
409.1 409.2 409.3 409.4 409.5 409.6 409.7 409.8 409.9 409.10 409.11
409.12 409.13 409.14 409.15 409.16 409.17 409.18 409.19 409.20 409.21 409.22 409.23 409.24 409.25 409.26 409.27 409.28 409.29 409.30 409.31 409.32 410.1 410.2 410.3 410.4 410.5 410.6 410.7 410.8 410.9 410.10 410.11 410.12 410.13 410.14 410.15 410.16 410.17 410.18 410.19 410.20 410.21
410.22 410.23 410.24 410.25 410.26 410.27 410.28 410.29 410.30 410.31 411.1 411.2 411.3 411.4 411.5 411.6 411.7 411.8 411.9 411.10 411.11 411.12 411.13 411.14 411.15 411.16 411.17 411.18 411.19 411.20 411.21 411.22 411.23 411.24 411.25 411.26 411.27 411.28 411.29 411.30 411.31 412.1 412.2 412.3
412.4 412.5 412.6 412.7
412.8 412.9 412.10 412.11 412.12 412.13 412.14 412.15 412.16 412.17
412.18 412.19 412.20 412.21 412.22 412.23 412.24 412.25 412.26 412.27 412.28 412.29 413.1 413.2 413.3 413.4 413.5 413.6 413.7 413.8 413.9
413.10 413.11 413.12 413.13 413.14 413.15 413.16 413.17 413.18 413.19 413.20 413.21 413.22 413.23
413.24 413.25 413.26 413.27 413.28 413.29 413.30 413.31 414.1 414.2 414.3 414.4
414.5 414.6 414.7 414.8 414.9 414.10 414.11 414.12 414.13 414.14 414.15 414.16 414.17 414.18 414.19 414.20 414.21 414.22 414.23 414.24
414.25 414.26 414.27 414.28 414.29 414.30 415.1 415.2 415.3 415.4 415.5 415.6 415.7 415.8
415.9 415.10 415.11 415.12 415.13 415.14 415.15 415.16
415.17 415.18 415.19 415.20 415.21 415.22 415.23 415.24 415.25 415.26 415.27 415.28 415.29 415.30 415.31 415.32 416.1 416.2 416.3 416.4 416.5 416.6 416.7 416.8 416.9 416.10 416.11 416.12 416.13 416.14 416.15 416.16 416.17 416.18 416.19 416.20 416.21 416.22 416.23 416.24 416.25 416.26 416.27 416.28 416.29 416.30 416.31 416.32 417.1 417.2 417.3 417.4 417.5 417.6 417.7 417.8 417.9 417.10 417.11 417.12 417.13 417.14 417.15 417.16 417.17 417.18 417.19 417.20 417.21 417.22 417.23 417.24 417.25 417.26 417.27 417.28 417.29 417.30 417.31 417.32 417.33 418.1 418.2 418.3 418.4 418.5 418.6 418.7 418.8 418.9 418.10 418.11 418.12 418.13 418.14 418.15 418.16 418.17 418.18 418.19 418.20 418.21 418.22 418.23 418.24 418.25 418.26 418.27 418.28 418.29 418.30 419.1 419.2 419.3 419.4 419.5 419.6 419.7 419.8 419.9 419.10 419.11 419.12 419.13 419.14 419.15 419.16 419.17 419.18 419.19 419.20 419.21 419.22
419.23 419.24 419.25 419.26 419.27 419.28 419.29 419.30 419.31 419.32 419.33 419.34 420.1 420.2 420.3 420.4 420.5 420.6 420.7 420.8 420.9 420.10 420.11 420.12 420.13 420.14 420.15 420.16 420.17 420.18 420.19 420.20 420.21 420.22 420.23 420.24 420.25 420.26
420.27 420.28 420.29 420.30 420.31 420.32 420.33 420.34
421.1 421.2 421.3 421.4 421.5 421.6 421.7 421.8 421.9 421.10 421.11 421.12 421.13 421.14 421.15 421.16 421.17 421.18 421.19 421.20 421.21 421.22 421.23 421.24 421.25 421.26 421.27 421.28 421.29 421.30 421.31 421.32 422.1 422.2 422.3 422.4 422.5 422.6 422.7 422.8 422.9 422.10 422.11 422.12 422.13 422.14 422.15 422.16 422.17 422.18 422.19 422.20 422.21 422.22 422.23 422.24 422.25 422.26 422.27 422.28 422.29 422.30 422.31 422.32 422.33 422.34 422.35 423.1 423.2 423.3 423.4 423.5 423.6 423.7 423.8 423.9 423.10 423.11 423.12 423.13 423.14 423.15 423.16 423.17 423.18 423.19
423.20 423.21 423.22 423.23 423.24
423.25 423.26 423.27 423.28 423.29 424.1 424.2
424.3 424.4 424.5 424.6 424.7 424.8 424.9 424.10 424.11 424.12 424.13 424.14 424.15 424.16 424.17 424.18 424.19 424.20 424.21 424.22 424.23 424.24 424.25 424.26 424.27 424.28 424.29 424.30 424.31 424.32 425.1 425.2 425.3 425.4 425.5 425.6 425.7 425.8 425.9 425.10 425.11 425.12 425.13 425.14 425.15 425.16 425.17 425.18 425.19 425.20 425.21 425.22 425.23 425.24 425.25 425.26 425.27 425.28
425.29 425.30 426.1 426.2 426.3 426.4 426.5 426.6 426.7
426.8 426.9 426.10 426.11 426.12 426.13 426.14
426.15 426.16 426.17 426.18 426.19 426.20 426.21 426.22 426.23 426.24 426.25 426.26 426.27 426.28 426.29 426.30 426.31 427.1 427.2 427.3 427.4 427.5 427.6 427.7 427.8 427.9 427.10 427.11 427.12 427.13 427.14 427.15 427.16 427.17 427.18 427.19 427.20 427.21 427.22
427.23 427.24 427.25 427.26 427.27 427.28 427.29 427.30
428.1 428.2 428.3 428.4 428.5 428.6 428.7 428.8 428.9 428.10 428.11 428.12
428.13 428.14 428.15 428.16 428.17 428.18 428.19 428.20 428.21 428.22 428.23 428.24 428.25 428.26 428.27 428.28 428.29 428.30 428.31 428.32 428.33 428.34 429.1 429.2 429.3 429.4 429.5 429.6 429.7 429.8 429.9 429.10 429.11 429.12 429.13 429.14 429.15 429.16 429.17 429.18 429.19 429.20 429.21 429.22 429.23 429.24 429.25 429.26 429.27 429.28 429.29 429.30 429.31 429.32 429.33 429.34 430.1 430.2 430.3 430.4 430.5 430.6 430.7 430.8 430.9 430.10 430.11 430.12 430.13 430.14 430.15 430.16 430.17 430.18 430.19 430.20 430.21 430.22 430.23 430.24 430.25 430.26 430.27 430.28 430.29 430.30 430.31 430.32 431.1 431.2 431.3 431.4 431.5 431.6 431.7 431.8 431.9 431.10 431.11 431.12 431.13 431.14 431.15 431.16 431.17 431.18 431.19 431.20 431.21
431.22 431.23 431.24 431.25 431.26 431.27 431.28 431.29 431.30 431.31 431.32 431.33 431.34 432.1 432.2 432.3 432.4 432.5 432.6 432.7 432.8
432.9 432.10 432.11 432.12 432.13 432.14 432.15 432.16 432.17 432.18 432.19 432.20 432.21 432.22 432.23 432.24 432.25
432.26 432.27 432.28 432.29 432.30
433.1 433.2 433.3 433.4 433.5 433.6 433.7 433.8 433.9 433.10 433.11 433.12 433.13 433.14 433.15 433.16 433.17 433.18 433.19 433.20 433.21 433.22 433.23 433.24 433.25 433.26 433.27 433.28 433.29 433.30 433.31 433.32 433.33 433.34 434.1 434.2 434.3 434.4 434.5 434.6 434.7 434.8 434.9 434.10 434.11 434.12 434.13 434.14 434.15 434.16 434.17 434.18 434.19 434.20 434.21 434.22 434.23 434.24 434.25 434.26 434.27 434.28 434.29 434.30 434.31 434.32 434.33 435.1 435.2 435.3 435.4 435.5 435.6 435.7 435.8 435.9 435.10 435.11 435.12 435.13 435.14 435.15 435.16 435.17 435.18 435.19 435.20 435.21 435.22 435.23 435.24 435.25 435.26 435.27 435.28 435.29 435.30 435.31 435.32 435.33 435.34 436.1 436.2 436.3 436.4 436.5 436.6 436.7
436.8 436.9 436.10 436.11 436.12 436.13 436.14 436.15 436.16 436.17 436.18 436.19 436.20 436.21 436.22 436.23 436.24 436.25 436.26 436.27 436.28 436.29 436.30 436.31 436.32 437.1 437.2 437.3 437.4 437.5 437.6 437.7 437.8 437.9 437.10 437.11 437.12 437.13 437.14
437.15 437.16 437.17 437.18 437.19 437.20 437.21 437.22 437.23 437.24 437.25 437.26 437.27 437.28 437.29 437.30 437.31 437.32 438.1 438.2 438.3 438.4 438.5 438.6 438.7 438.8 438.9 438.10 438.11 438.12 438.13 438.14 438.15 438.16 438.17 438.18 438.19 438.20 438.21 438.22 438.23 438.24 438.25 438.26 438.27 438.28 438.29 438.30 438.31 438.32 438.33 439.1 439.2 439.3 439.4 439.5 439.6 439.7 439.8 439.9 439.10 439.11 439.12 439.13 439.14 439.15 439.16 439.17 439.18 439.19 439.20
439.21 439.22 439.23 439.24 439.25 439.26
439.27 439.28 439.29 439.30 439.31 439.32 440.1 440.2 440.3 440.4 440.5 440.6 440.7 440.8
440.9 440.10 440.11 440.12 440.13 440.14 440.15 440.16 440.17 440.18 440.19 440.20 440.21 440.22 440.23 440.24 440.25
440.26 440.27 440.28 440.29 440.30 440.31 440.32 441.1 441.2 441.3 441.4 441.5 441.6
441.7 441.8 441.9 441.10 441.11 441.12 441.13 441.14 441.15 441.16 441.17 441.18 441.19 441.20
441.21 441.22 441.23 441.24 441.25 441.26 441.27 441.28 441.29 441.30 441.31 441.32 441.33 442.1 442.2 442.3 442.4 442.5 442.6 442.7 442.8 442.9 442.10 442.11 442.12 442.13 442.14 442.15 442.16 442.17 442.18 442.19 442.20
442.21 442.22 442.23 442.24 442.25 442.26 442.27 442.28 442.29 442.30 442.31 442.32 442.33 442.34 443.1 443.2 443.3 443.4 443.5 443.6 443.7 443.8 443.9 443.10 443.11 443.12 443.13 443.14 443.15 443.16 443.17 443.18
443.19 443.20 443.21 443.22 443.23 443.24 443.25 443.26 443.27 443.28 443.29 443.30 443.31 443.32 443.33 444.1 444.2 444.3 444.4 444.5 444.6 444.7 444.8 444.9 444.10 444.11 444.12 444.13 444.14 444.15 444.16 444.17 444.18 444.19 444.20 444.21 444.22 444.23 444.24 444.25 444.26 444.27 444.28 444.29 444.30 444.31 444.32 444.33 445.1 445.2 445.3 445.4 445.5 445.6 445.7 445.8 445.9 445.10 445.11 445.12 445.13 445.14 445.15 445.16 445.17 445.18 445.19 445.20 445.21 445.22 445.23 445.24 445.25 445.26 445.27 445.28 445.29 445.30 445.31 445.32 445.33 445.34 446.1 446.2 446.3 446.4 446.5 446.6 446.7 446.8 446.9 446.10 446.11 446.12 446.13 446.14 446.15 446.16 446.17 446.18 446.19 446.20 446.21 446.22 446.23 446.24 446.25 446.26 446.27 446.28 446.29 446.30 446.31 446.32 446.33 446.34 447.1 447.2 447.3 447.4 447.5 447.6 447.7 447.8 447.9 447.10 447.11
447.12 447.13 447.14 447.15 447.16 447.17 447.18 447.19 447.20 447.21 447.22 447.23 447.24 447.25 447.26 447.27 447.28 447.29 447.30 447.31 447.32 447.33 448.1 448.2 448.3
448.4 448.5 448.6
448.7 448.8 448.9 448.10 448.11 448.12 448.13 448.14 448.15 448.16 448.17 448.18
448.19 448.20 448.21
448.22 448.23 448.24 448.25 448.26 448.27 448.28 449.1
449.2 449.3 449.4 449.5 449.6 449.7 449.8 449.9 449.10 449.11 449.12 449.13 449.14 449.15 449.16 449.17 449.18 449.19 449.20 449.21 449.22 449.23
449.24 449.25 449.26 449.27 449.28 449.29 449.30 450.1 450.2 450.3 450.4 450.5 450.6 450.7 450.8 450.9 450.10 450.11 450.12 450.13 450.14
450.15 450.16 450.17 450.18 450.19
450.20 450.21 450.22 450.23 450.24 450.25 450.26 450.27 450.28 450.29 450.30 450.31 450.32 450.33 451.1 451.2 451.3 451.4 451.5 451.6 451.7 451.8 451.9 451.10 451.11 451.12 451.13 451.14 451.15 451.16 451.17 451.18 451.19 451.20 451.21 451.22 451.23 451.24 451.25 451.26 451.27 451.28 451.29 451.30 451.31 451.32 451.33 451.34 451.35 452.1 452.2 452.3 452.4 452.5 452.6 452.7 452.8 452.9 452.10 452.11 452.12 452.13 452.14 452.15 452.16 452.17 452.18 452.19 452.20 452.21 452.22 452.23 452.24 452.25 452.26 452.27 452.28 452.29 452.30 452.31 452.32 452.33 452.34 453.1 453.2 453.3 453.4 453.5 453.6 453.7 453.8 453.9 453.10 453.11 453.12 453.13 453.14 453.15 453.16 453.17 453.18 453.19 453.20 453.21 453.22 453.23 453.24
453.25 453.26 453.27 453.28

A bill for an act
relating to human services; modifying provisions relating to child care, foster care,
disability services, community supports, civil commitment, maltreatment of minors,
child protection, and child support; expanding definition of providers for child
care assistance program; requiring students in foster care who change schools to
be enrolled within seven days; requiring responsible social services agencies to
initiate and facilitate phone calls between parents and foster care providers for
children in out-of-home placement; requiring responsible social services agencies
to coordinate prenatal alcohol exposure screenings for children in foster care;
directing the commissioner of human services to modify a report and develop
training; modifying provisions relating to child care services grants; clarifying
commissioner authority to waive child care assistance program provider
requirements during declared disaster; modifying family day care training
requirements; requiring local agencies to use a universal form to process family
day care variance requests and post variance policies publicly; modifying
background study requirements for guardians and conservators; modifying the
definition of supervision in child care center settings; extending sunset for Cultural
and Ethnic Communities Leadership Council; extending the corporate adult foster
care moratorium exception for a fifth bed until 2020; modifying timelines for
intensive support service planning; permitting delegation of competency evaluations
of direct support staff; modifying the training requirements for direct support staff
providing licensed home and community-based services; codifying an existing
grant program for fetal alcohol disorder prevention activities; codifying existing
consumer-directed community supports laws; clarifying the excess income standard
for medical assistance; extending end date for first three years of life demonstration
project; permitting certain advanced practice registered nurses and physician
assistants to order home health services under medical assistance; codifying existing
session law governing consumer-directed community supports; modifying
provisions regarding post-arrest community-based service coordination; birth to
age eight pilot project participation requirements; eliminating requirement to
involve state medical review agent in determination and documentation of medically
necessary psychiatric residential treatment facility services; requiring establishment
of per diem rate per provider of youth psychiatric residential treatment services;
permitting facilities or licensed professionals to submit billing for arranged services;
changing definition relating to children's mental health crisis response services;
modifying intensive rehabilitative mental health services requirements and provider
standards; establishing state policy regarding services offered to people with
disabilities; modifying existing direction to the commissioner of human services
regarding proposing changes to the home and community-based waivers; modifying
requirements for service planning for home and community-based services;
restoring a notice requirement when MnCHOICES assessments are required for
personal care assistance services; modifying definitions, requirements, and
eligibility for long-term care consultation services; modifying case management
requirements for individuals receiving services through the home and
community-based services waivers; modifying the definition of community-living
setting; modifying provisions regarding medical assistance covered services for
certified community behavioral health clinics and officer-involved
community-based care coordination; modifying eligibility for children's mental
health respite grants; removing certain categories from being exempt from foster
care initial license moratorium; modifying background study provisions related
to child foster care, children's residential facilities, foster residence settings, and
housing support; modifying provisions relating to home and community-based
services; modifying provisions governing state-operated community-based services
environment and safety; clarifying circumstances for termination of state-operated
services for individuals with complex behavioral needs; removing provision limiting
medical assistance coverage for intensive mental health outpatient treatment to
adults; modifying provisions relating to withdrawal management, substance use
disorder, housing support, and general assistance programs; authorizing correction
of housing support payments; modifying definition of qualified professional for
purposes of applying for housing support and general assistance; allowing minor
consent to homeless and sexually exploited youth services under specified
circumstances; authorizing imposition of fine for repeat violations of chemical
dependency or substance abuse disorder treatment program requirements; modifying
provisions relating to foster care out-of-home and qualified residential treatment
program placements; directing commissioner of human services to consider
continuous licenses for family day care providers; instructing the revisor of statutes
to modify references to the Disability Linkage Line; modifying provisions
governing civil commitment; modifying the procedure for recreational license
suspension and reinstatement; modifying child welfare provisions; reorganizing
and clarifying sections regarding child maltreatment and neglect; authorizing
engagement services pilot project; requiring reports; amending Minnesota Statutes
2018, sections 13.32, subdivision 3; 13.3805, subdivision 3; 13.43, subdivision
14; 13.82, subdivisions 8, 9, 17; 13.821; 13.84, subdivision 9; 13.871, subdivision
6; 13.88; 119B.21; 119B.26; 120B.22, subdivision 2; 125A.0942, subdivision 4;
135A.15, subdivision 10; 144.225, subdivision 2b; 144.343, subdivision 4;
144.7065, subdivision 10; 144.7068; 144A.472, subdivision 1; 144A.479,
subdivision 6; 144A.4796, subdivision 6; 144H.16, subdivision 1; 144H.18,
subdivision 3; 145.902, subdivision 3; 145.952, subdivision 2; 146A.025; 148E.240,
subdivision 7; 148F.13, subdivision 12; 148F.205, subdivision 1; 153B.70; 214.103,
subdivision 8; 214.104; 245.4871, by adding a subdivision; 245.4885, subdivision
1; 245.8261, subdivision 9; 245A.02, subdivision 2c; 245A.04, subdivisions 5, 9;
245A.06, subdivision 8; 245A.07, subdivision 5; 245A.08, subdivision 2a;
245A.085; 245A.11, subdivisions 2a, 7b; 245A.50, as amended; 245C.02,
subdivision 5, by adding subdivisions; 245C.03, by adding a subdivision; 245C.04,
subdivision 1, as amended, by adding a subdivision; 245C.05, subdivision 6;
245C.10, by adding subdivisions; 245C.14, by adding a subdivision; 245C.15,
subdivision 4; 245C.16, subdivisions 1, 2; 245C.17, subdivisions 1, 3, by adding
a subdivision; 245C.18; 245C.21, subdivision 2; 245C.24, subdivision 4; 245C.25;
245C.27, subdivisions 1, 2; 245C.28, subdivision 1; 245C.29, subdivision 1;
245C.31, subdivision 1; 245C.32, subdivision 2; 245D.02, subdivision 11, as
amended, by adding a subdivision; 245D.04, subdivision 3; 245D.06, subdivisions
1, 2, 6; 245D.071, subdivision 3; 245D.081, subdivision 2; 245D.09, subdivisions
4, 4a; 245D.10, subdivision 3a; 245D.32, subdivision 5; 245F.02, subdivisions 7,
14; 245F.04, subdivision 1; 245F.06, subdivision 2; 245F.12, subdivisions 2, 3;
245F.15, subdivisions 3, 5; 245F.16, subdivisions 1, 2; 245F.18; 245G.02,
subdivision 2; 245G.03, subdivision 1; 245G.09, subdivision 1; 245G.10,
subdivision 3; 245G.11, subdivisions 3, 4; 245G.13, subdivision 2; 253B.02,
subdivisions 4b, 7, 8, 9, 10, 13, 16, 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, by adding a subdivision;
253B.03, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4a, 5, 6, 6b, 6d, as amended, 7, 10; 253B.04,
subdivisions 1, 1a, 2; 253B.045, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 6; 253B.06, subdivisions 1,
2, as amended, 3; 253B.07, subdivisions 1, 2, 2a, 2b, 2d, 3, 5, 7; 253B.08,
subdivisions 1, 2a, 5, 5a; 253B.09, subdivisions 1, 2, 3a, 5; 253B.092; 253B.0921;
253B.095, subdivision 3; 253B.097, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 6; 253B.10; 253B.12,
subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 7; 253B.13, subdivision 1; 253B.14; 253B.141; 253B.15,
subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 3, 3a, 3b, 3c, 5, 7, 9, 10, by adding a subdivision; 253B.16;
253B.17; 253B.18, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4a, 4b, 4c, 5, 5a, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 14,
15; 253B.19, subdivision 2; 253B.20, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 6; 253B.21,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 253B.212, subdivisions 1, 1a, 1b, 2; 253B.22, subdivisions
1, 2, 3, 4; 253B.23, subdivisions 1, 1b, 2; 253B.24; 253D.02, subdivision 6;
253D.07, subdivision 2; 253D.10, subdivision 2; 253D.28, subdivision 2; 254A.09;
256.01, subdivisions 12, 15; 256.0112, subdivision 10; 256.041, subdivision 10;
256.045, subdivisions 3, 3b, 4; 256.82, subdivision 2; 256.87, subdivision 8;
256.975, subdivision 12; 256B.0621, subdivision 4; 256B.0625, subdivisions 5l,
33, 56a; 256B.0652, subdivision 10; 256B.0653, subdivisions 4, 5, 7; 256B.0654,
subdivisions 1, as amended, 2a, as amended, 3, as amended, 4, as amended;
256B.0911, subdivision 1; 256B.092, subdivision 1a; 256B.0941, subdivisions 1,
3; 256B.0944, subdivision 1; 256B.0945, subdivision 1; 256B.0947, subdivisions
2, 4, 5, 6; 256B.0949, subdivisions 2, 5, 6, 9, 13, 14, 15, 16; 256B.0951, subdivision
5; 256B.0954; 256B.097, subdivisions 4, 6; 256B.49, subdivisions 16, 23; 256B.77,
subdivision 17; 256B.85, subdivision 12a; 256D.02, subdivision 17; 256E.21,
subdivision 5; 256E.35; 256F.10, subdivisions 1, 4; 256I.03, subdivisions 3, 14;
256I.05, subdivisions 1c, 1n, 8; 256I.06, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision;
256J.08, subdivision 73a, as amended; 256L.07, subdivision 4; 256M.10,
subdivision 2; 256M.40, subdivision 1; 256M.41, subdivision 1; 256N.02,
subdivision 14a; 256N.21, subdivisions 2, 5; 256N.24, subdivision 4; 256P.01, by
adding a subdivision; 257.0725; 257.0764; 257.70; 260.012; 260.761, subdivision
2; 260B.171, subdivision 6; 260C.007, subdivisions 3, 5, 6, 13, by adding
subdivisions; 260C.150, subdivision 3; 260C.157, subdivision 3; 260C.171,
subdivision 3; 260C.177; 260C.202; 260C.204; 260C.209, subdivision 2; 260C.212,
subdivisions 1, 4a, 12, by adding a subdivision; 260C.219; 260C.221; 260C.227;
260C.4412; 260C.503, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 260D.01; 260D.02,
subdivisions 3, 5; 388.051, subdivision 2; 518.005, subdivision 5; 518.165,
subdivisions 2, 5; 518A.53, subdivision 11; 518A.68; 518A.685; 524.5-118; 595.02,
subdivisions 1, 2; 609.26, subdivision 7; 609.3457, subdivision 2; 609.379,
subdivision 2; 609.507; 609.7495, subdivision 1; 611A.203, subdivision 4; 611A.90,
subdivision 1; 626.557, subdivision 9d; Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement,
sections 13.46, subdivisions 3, 4; 119B.011, subdivision 19; 122A.20, subdivision
2; 122A.40, subdivision 13; 122A.41, subdivision 6; 144A.4796, subdivision 2;
148B.593; 243.166, subdivision 7; 245.4889, subdivision 1; 245.735, subdivision
3; 245A.02, subdivision 18; 245A.03, subdivision 7; 245A.07, subdivision 3;
245A.145, subdivision 1; 245A.149; 245A.16, subdivision 1; 245A.40, subdivisions
1, 7; 245C.03, subdivision 1; 245C.05, subdivision 4; 245C.08, subdivision 1;
245C.13, subdivision 2; 245D.071, subdivision 5; 245D.09, subdivision 5; 245G.12;
245G.13, subdivision 1; 245H.11, as amended; 254A.03, subdivision 3, as amended;
254B.04, subdivision 1; 254B.05, subdivision 1; 256.01, subdivision 14b; 256B.056,
subdivision 5c; 256B.0625, subdivision 5m; 256B.064, subdivision 2; 256B.0711,
subdivision 1; 256B.0911, subdivisions 1a, 3a, 3f; 256B.092, subdivision 1b;
256B.49, subdivisions 13, 14; 256B.85, subdivision 10; 256I.04, subdivision 2b;
256S.01, subdivision 6; 256S.19, subdivision 4; 260B.198, subdivision 1; 260C.139,
subdivision 3; 260C.178, subdivision 1; 260C.201, subdivision 6; 260C.212,
subdivision 2; 299C.093; Laws 2016, chapter 189, article 15, section 29; Laws
2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 7, section 33, subdivisions 2, 3; Laws
2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 86; article 14, section 2,
subdivision 33; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters
120A; 253B; 254A; 256B; 256K; 260; 260C; proposing coding for new law as
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 260E; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2018, sections
245F.02, subdivision 20; 253B.02, subdivisions 6, 12a; 253B.05, subdivisions 1,
2, 2b, 3, 4; 253B.064; 253B.065; 253B.066; 253B.09, subdivision 3; 253B.12,
subdivision 2; 253B.15, subdivision 11; 253B.20, subdivision 7; 626.556,
subdivisions 1, 3, 3a, 3c, 3d, 3f, 4, 4a, 5, 6, 6a, 7, 7a, 8, 9, 10a, 10b, 10c, 10d, 10e,
10f, 10g, 10h, 10i, 10j, 10k, 10l, 10m, 10n, 11a, 11b, 11c, 11d, 12, 14, 15, 16;
626.5561; 626.5562; 626.558; 626.559, subdivisions 1, 1a, 1b, 2, 3, 5; 626.5591;
626.561; Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 626.556, subdivisions 2,
3b, 3e, 10, 11; Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 7, sections 50;
51; Laws 2012, chapter 247, article 4, section 47, as amended; Laws 2015, chapter
71, article 7, section 54, as amended; Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6,
article 1, sections 44, as amended; 45, as amended.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

ARTICLE 1

CHILDREN AND FAMILY SERVICES

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 119B.011, subdivision 19, is
amended to read:


Subd. 19.

Provider.

"Provider" means:

(1) an individual or child care center or facility licensed to provide child care under
chapter 245A when operating within the terms of the license;

(2) a license-exempt center required to be certified under chapter 245H;

(3) an individual or child care center or facility that: (i) holds a valid child care license
issued by another state or a tribe; (ii) provides child care services in the licensing state or
in the area under the licensing tribe's jurisdiction; and (iii) is in compliance with federal
health and safety requirements as certified by the licensing state or tribe, or as determined
by receipt of child care development block grant funds in the licensing state; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(4) a legal nonlicensed child care provider as defined under section 119B.011, subdivision
16, providing legal child care services. A legal nonlicensed child care provider must be at
least 18 years of age, and not a member of the MFIP assistance unit or a member of the
family receiving child care assistance to be authorized under this chapterdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (5) an individual or child care center or facility that is operated under the jurisdiction of
the federal government.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2020.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 119B.21, is amended to read:


119B.21 CHILD CARE new text beginSERVICES new text endGRANTS.

Subdivision 1.

Distribution of grant funds.

(a) The commissioner shall distribute funds
to the child care resource and referral programs designated under deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin sections 119B.189
and
new text end 119B.19, subdivision 1a, for child care new text beginservices new text endgrants to deleted text begincenters under subdivision 5
and family child care programs based upon the following factors
deleted text endnew text begin improve child care quality,
support start-up of new programs, and expand existing programs
new text end.

(b) Up to ten percent of funds appropriated for grants under this section may be used by
the commissioner for statewide child care development initiatives, training initiatives,
collaboration programs, and research and data collection. The commissioner shall develop
eligibility guidelines and a process to distribute funds under this paragraph.

(c) At least 90 percent of funds appropriated for grants under this section may be
distributed by the commissioner to child care resource and referral programs under deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin
sections 119B.189 and
new text end 119B.19, subdivision 1a, deleted text beginfor child care center grants and family
child care grants
deleted text end based on the following factors:

(1) the number of children under 13 years of age needing child care in the region;

(2) the region served by the program;

(3) the ratio of children under 13 years of age needing child care to the number of licensed
spaces in the region;

(4) the number of licensed child care providers and school-age care programs in the
region; and

(5) other related factors determined by the commissioner.

(d) Child care resource and referral programs must award child care deleted text begincenter grants and
family child care
deleted text end new text beginservices new text endgrants based on the recommendation of the child care district
proposal review committees under subdivision 3.

(e) The commissioner may distribute funds under this section for a two-year period.

new text begin Subd. 1a. new text end

new text begin Eligible programs. new text end

new text begin A child care resource and referral program designated
under sections 119B.189 and 119B.19, subdivision 1a, may award child care services grants
to:
new text end

new text begin (1) a child care center licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503, or in the process
of becoming licensed;
new text end

new text begin (2) a family or group family child care home licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter
9502, or in the process of becoming licensed;
new text end

new text begin (3) corporations or public agencies that develop or provide child care services;
new text end

new text begin (4) a school-age care program;
new text end

new text begin (5) a tribally licensed child care program; or
new text end

new text begin (6) legal nonlicensed or family, friend, and neighbor child care providers.
new text end

Subd. 3.

Child care district proposal review committees.

(a) Child care district proposal
review committees review applications for deleted text beginfamily child care grants anddeleted text end child care deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin
services
new text end grants under this section and make funding recommendations to the child care
resource and referral program designated under deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin sections 119B.189 andnew text end 119B.19,
subdivision 1a
. Each region within a district must be represented on the review committee.
The child care district proposal review committees must complete their reviews and forward
their recommendations to the child care resource and referral district programs by the date
specified by the commissioner.

(b) A child care resource and referral district program shall establish a process to select
members of the child care district proposal review committee. Members must reflect a broad
cross-section of the community, and may include the following constituent groups: family
child care providers, child care center providers, school-age care providers, parents who
use child care services, health services, social services, public schools, Head Start, employers,
representatives of cultural and ethnic communities, and other citizens with demonstrated
interest in child care issues. Members of the proposal review committee with a direct financial
interest in a pending grant proposal may not provide a recommendation or participate in
the ranking of that grant proposal.

(c) The child care resource and referral district program may deleted text beginreimburse committee
members for their actual travel, child care, and child care provider substitute expenses for
up to two committee meetings per year. The program may also pay
deleted text endnew text begin offernew text end a stipend to deleted text beginparent
representatives
deleted text endnew text begin proposal review committee membersnew text end for participating in deleted text begintwo meetings per
year
deleted text endnew text begin the grant review processnew text end.

Subd. 5.

Child care services grants.

(a) A child care resource and referral program
designated under deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin sections 119B.189 andnew text end 119B.19, subdivision 1a, may award child
care services grants for:

(1) creating new licensed child care facilities and expanding existing facilities, including,
but not limited to, supplies,new text begin toys,new text end equipment, facility renovation, and remodeling;

(2) deleted text beginimproving licensed child care facility programsdeleted text endnew text begin child care facility improvements,
including but not limited to, improvements to meet licensing requirements
new text end;

(3) staff training and development services including, but not limited to, in-service
training, curriculum development, accreditation, certification, consulting, resource centers,
program and resource materials, supporting effective teacher-child interactions, child-focused
teaching, and content-driven classroom instruction;

(4) capacity building through the purchase of appropriate technology to create, enhance,
and maintain business management systems;

(5) emergency assistance for child care programs;

(6) new programs or projects for the creation, expansion, or improvement of programs
that serve ethnic immigrant and refugee communities; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(7) targeted recruitment initiatives to expand and build the capacity of the child care
system and to improve the quality of care provided by legal nonlicensed child care providersdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
and
new text end

new text begin (8) other uses as approved by the commissioner.
new text end

(b) A child care resource and referral organization designated under deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin sections
119B.189 and
new text end 119B.19, subdivision 1a, may award child care services grants deleted text beginof up to $1,000
to family child care providers. These grants may be used
deleted text end fordeleted text begin:deleted text endnew text begin eligible programs in amounts
up to a maximum determined by the commissioner for each type of eligible program.
new text end

deleted text begin (1) facility improvements, including, but not limited to, improvements to meet licensing
requirements;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) improvements to expand a child care facility or program;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) toys and equipment;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4) technology and software to create, enhance, and maintain business management
systems;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (5) start-up costs;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6) staff training and development; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (7) other uses approved by the commissioner.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (c) A child care resource and referral program designated under section 119B.19,
subdivision 1a
, may award child care services grants to:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) licensed providers;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) providers in the process of being licensed;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) corporations or public agencies that develop or provide child care services;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4) school-age care programs;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (5) legal nonlicensed or family, friend, and neighbor care providers; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6) any combination of clauses (1) to (5).
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d) A child care center that is a recipient of a child care services grant for facility
improvements or staff training and development must provide a 25 percent local match. A
local match is not required for grants to family child care providers.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (e) Beginning July 1, 2009, grants to child care centers under this subdivision shall be
increasingly awarded for activities that improve provider quality, including activities under
paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (3) and (6). Grants to family child care providers shall be
increasingly awarded for activities that improve provider quality, including activities under
paragraph (b), clauses (1), (3), and (6).
deleted text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 119B.26, is amended to read:


119B.26 AUTHORITY TO WAIVE REQUIREMENTS DURING DISASTER
PERIODS.

The commissioner may waive requirements under this chapter for up to nine months
after the disaster in areas where a federal disaster has been declared under United States
Code, title 42, section 5121, et seq., or the governor has exercised authority under chapter
12.new text begin The commissioner may waive requirements retroactively from the date of the disaster.new text end
The commissioner shall notify the chairs of the house of representatives and senate
committees with jurisdiction over this chapter and the house of representatives Ways and
Means Committee deleted text beginten days before the effective date of any waiver granteddeleted text end new text beginwithin five
business days after the commissioner grants a waiver
new text endunder this section.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 4.

new text begin [120A.21] ENROLLMENT OF A STUDENT IN FOSTER CARE.
new text end

new text begin A student placed in foster care must remain enrolled in the student's prior school unless
it is determined that remaining enrolled in the prior school is not in the student's best interests.
If the student does not remain enrolled in the prior school, the student must be enrolled in
a new school within seven school days.
new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.02, subdivision 2c, is amended to read:


Subd. 2c.

Annual or annually; family child care training requirements.

For the
purposes of deleted text beginsection 245A.50, subdivisions 1 to 9deleted text endnew text begin sections 245A.50 to 245A.53new text end, "annual"
or "annually" means the 12-month period beginning on the license effective date or the
annual anniversary of the effective date and ending on the day prior to the annual anniversary
of the license effective date.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2020.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.02, subdivision 18, is amended
to read:


Subd. 18.

Supervision.

(a) For purposes of licensed child care centers, "supervision"
means when a program staff person:

(1) is accountable for the child's care;

(2) can intervene to protect the health and safety of the child; and

(3) is within sight and hearing of the child at all times except as described in paragraphs
(b) to deleted text begin(d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end.

(b) When an infant is placed in a crib room to sleep, supervision occurs when a program
staff person is within sight or hearing of the infant. When supervision of a crib room is
provided by sight or hearing, the center must have a plan to address the other supervision
components.

(c) When a single school-age child uses the restroom within the licensed space,
supervision occurs when a program staff person has knowledge of the child's activity and
location and checks on the child at least every five minutes. When a school-age child uses
the restroom outside the licensed space, including but not limited to field trips, supervision
occurs when staff accompany children to the restroom.

(d) When a school-age child leaves the classroom but remains within the licensed space
to deliver or retrieve items from the child's personal storage space, supervision occurs when
a program staff person has knowledge of the child's activity and location and checks on the
child at least every five minutes.

new text begin (e) When a single preschooler uses an individual, private restroom within the classroom
with the door closed, supervision occurs when a program staff person has knowledge of the
child's activity and location, can hear the child, and checks on the child at least every five
minutes.
new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.04, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Variances.

(a) The commissioner may grant variances to rules that do not affect
the health or safety of persons in a licensed program if the following conditions are met:

(1) the variance must be requested by an applicant or license holder on a form and in a
manner prescribed by the commissioner;

(2) the request for a variance must include the reasons that the applicant or license holder
cannot comply with a requirement as stated in the rule and the alternative equivalent measures
that the applicant or license holder will follow to comply with the intent of the rule; and

(3) the request must state the period of time for which the variance is requested.

The commissioner may grant a permanent variance when conditions under which the
variance is requested do not affect the health or safety of persons being served by the licensed
program, nor compromise the qualifications of staff to provide services. The permanent
variance shall expire as soon as the conditions that warranted the variance are modified in
any way. Any applicant or license holder must inform the commissioner of any changes or
modifications that have occurred in the conditions that warranted the permanent variance.
Failure to advise the commissioner shall result in revocation of the permanent variance and
may be cause for other sanctions under sections 245A.06 and 245A.07.

The commissioner's decision to grant or deny a variance request is final and not subject
to appeal under the provisions of chapter 14.

(b) The commissioner shall consider variances for child care center staff qualification
requirements under Minnesota Rules, parts 9503.0032 and 9503.0033, that do not affect
the health and safety of children served by the center. A variance request must be submitted
to the commissioner in accordance with paragraph (a) and must include a plan for the staff
person to gain additional experience, education, or training, as requested by the commissioner.
When reviewing a variance request under this section, the commissioner shall consider the
staff person's level of professional development, including but not limited to steps completed
on the Minnesota career lattice.

new text begin (c) Beginning January 1, 2021, counties shall use a uniform application form developed
by the commissioner for variance requests by family child care license holders.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.149, is amended to read:


245A.149 SUPERVISION OF FAMILY CHILD CARE LICENSE HOLDER'S
OWN CHILD.

(a) Notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, part 9502.0365, subpart 5,new text begin and with the license
holder's consent,
new text end an individual may be present in the licensed space, may supervise the
family child care license holder's own child both inside and outside of the licensed space,
and is exempt from the training and supervision requirements of this chapter and Minnesota
Rules, chapter 9502, if the individual:

(1) is related to the license holdernew text begin or to the license holder's childnew text end, as defined in section
245A.02, subdivision 13new text begin, or is a household member who the license holder has reported to
the county agency
new text end;

(2) is not a designated caregiver, helper, or substitute for the licensed program;

(3) is involved only in the care of the license holder's own child; and

(4) does not have direct, unsupervised contact with any nonrelative children receiving
services.

(b) If the individual in paragraph (a) is not a household member, the individual is also
exempt from background study requirements under chapter 245C.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2020.
new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.16, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Delegation of authority to agencies.

(a) County agencies and private
agencies that have been designated or licensed by the commissioner to perform licensing
functions and activities under section 245A.04 and background studies for family child care
under chapter 245C; to recommend denial of applicants under section 245A.05; to issue
correction orders, to issue variances, and recommend a conditional license under section
245A.06; or to recommend suspending or revoking a license or issuing a fine under section
245A.07, shall comply with rules and directives of the commissioner governing those
functions and with this section. The following variances are excluded from the delegation
of variance authority and may be issued only by the commissioner:

(1) dual licensure of family child care and child foster care, dual licensure of child and
adult foster care, and adult foster care and family child care;

(2) adult foster care maximum capacity;

(3) adult foster care minimum age requirement;

(4) child foster care maximum age requirement;

(5) variances regarding disqualified individuals except that, before the implementation
of NETStudy 2.0, county agencies may issue variances under section 245C.30 regarding
disqualified individuals when the county is responsible for conducting a consolidated
reconsideration according to sections 245C.25 and 245C.27, subdivision 2, clauses (a) and
(b), of a county maltreatment determination and a disqualification based on serious or
recurring maltreatment;

(6) the required presence of a caregiver in the adult foster care residence during normal
sleeping hours;

(7) variances to requirements relating to chemical use problems of a license holder or a
household member of a license holder; and

(8) variances to section 245A.53 for a time-limited period. If the commissioner grants
a variance under this clause, the license holder must provide notice of the variance to all
parents and guardians of the children in care.

Except as provided in section 245A.14, subdivision 4, paragraph (e), a county agency must
not grant a license holder a variance to exceed the maximum allowable family child care
license capacity of 14 children.

new text begin (b) A county agency that has been designated by the commissioner to issue family child
care variances must:
new text end

new text begin (1) publish the county agency's policies and criteria for issuing variances on the county's
public website and update the policies as necessary; and
new text end

new text begin (2) annually distribute the county agency's policies and criteria for issuing variances to
all family child care license holders in the county.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end Before the implementation of NETStudy 2.0, county agencies must report
information about disqualification reconsiderations under sections 245C.25 and 245C.27,
subdivision 2
, paragraphs (a) and (b), and variances granted under paragraph (a), clause
(5), to the commissioner at least monthly in a format prescribed by the commissioner.

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end For family child care programs, the commissioner shall require a county agency
to conduct one unannounced licensing review at least annually.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end For family adult day services programs, the commissioner may authorize licensing
reviews every two years after a licensee has had at least one annual review.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (f)new text end A license issued under this section may be issued for up to two years.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text endnew text begin (g)new text end During implementation of chapter 245D, the commissioner shall consider:

(1) the role of counties in quality assurance;

(2) the duties of county licensing staff; and

(3) the possible use of joint powers agreements, according to section 471.59, with counties
through which some licensing duties under chapter 245D may be delegated by the
commissioner to the counties.

Any consideration related to this paragraph must meet all of the requirements of the corrective
action plan ordered by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text endnew text begin (h)new text end Licensing authority specific to section 245D.06, subdivisions 5, 6, 7, and 8, or
successor provisions; and section 245D.061 or successor provisions, for family child foster
care programs providing out-of-home respite, as identified in section 245D.03, subdivision
1, paragraph (b), clause (1), is excluded from the delegation of authority to county and
private agencies.

deleted text begin (h)deleted text endnew text begin (i)new text end A county agency shall report to the commissioner, in a manner prescribed by the
commissioner, the following information for a licensed family child care program:

(1) the results of each licensing review completed, including the date of the review, and
any licensing correction order issued;

(2) any death, serious injury, or determination of substantiated maltreatment; and

(3) any fires that require the service of a fire department within 48 hours of the fire. The
information under this clause must also be reported to the state fire marshal within two
business days of receiving notice from a licensed family child care provider.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.40, subdivision 7, is amended
to read:


Subd. 7.

In-service.

(a) A license holder must ensure that the center director, staff
persons, substitutes, and unsupervised volunteers complete in-service training each calendar
year.

(b) The center director and staff persons who work more than 20 hours per week must
complete 24 hours of in-service training each calendar year. Staff persons who work 20
hours or less per week must complete 12 hours of in-service training each calendar year.
Substitutes and unsupervised volunteers must complete the requirements of paragraphs deleted text begin(e)
to (h)
deleted text endnew text begin (d) to (g)new text end and do not otherwise have a minimum number of hours of training to
complete.

(c) The number of in-service training hours may be prorated for individuals not employed
for an entire year.

(d) Each year, in-service training must include:

(1) the center's procedures for maintaining health and safety according to section 245A.41
and Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0140, and handling emergencies and accidents according
to Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0110;

(2) the reporting responsibilities under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end and Minnesota
Rules, part 9503.0130;

(3) at least one-half hour of training on the standards under section 245A.1435 and on
reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death as required under subdivision 5, if
applicable; and

(4) at least one-half hour of training on the risk of abusive head trauma from shaking
infants and young children as required under subdivision 5a, if applicable.

(e) Each year, or when a change is made, whichever is more frequent, in-service training
must be provided on: (1) the center's risk reduction plan under section 245A.66, subdivision
2; and (2) a child's individual child care program plan as required under Minnesota Rules,
part 9503.0065, subpart 3.

(f) At least once every two calendar years, the in-service training must include:

(1) child development and learning training under subdivision 2;

(2) pediatric first aid that meets the requirements of subdivision 3;

(3) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation training that meets the requirements of
subdivision 4;

(4) cultural dynamics training to increase awareness of cultural differences; and

(5) disabilities training to increase awareness of differing abilities of children.

(g) At least once every five years, in-service training must include child passenger
restraint training that meets the requirements of subdivision 6, if applicable.

(h) The remaining hours of the in-service training requirement must be met by completing
training in the following content areas of the Minnesota Knowledge and Competency
Framework:

(1) Content area I: child development and learning;

(2) Content area II: developmentally appropriate learning experiences;

(3) Content area III: relationships with families;

(4) Content area IV: assessment, evaluation, and individualization;

(5) Content area V: historical and contemporary development of early childhood
education;

(6) Content area VI: professionalism;

(7) Content area VII: health, safety, and nutrition; and

(8) Content area VIII: application through clinical experiences.

(i) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given them.

(1) "Child development and learning training" means training in understanding how
children develop physically, cognitively, emotionally, and socially and learn as part of the
children's family, culture, and community.

(2) "Developmentally appropriate learning experiences" means creating positive learning
experiences, promoting cognitive development, promoting social and emotional development,
promoting physical development, and promoting creative development.

(3) "Relationships with families" means training on building a positive, respectful
relationship with the child's family.

(4) "Assessment, evaluation, and individualization" means training in observing,
recording, and assessing development; assessing and using information to plan; and assessing
and using information to enhance and maintain program quality.

(5) "Historical and contemporary development of early childhood education" means
training in past and current practices in early childhood education and how current events
and issues affect children, families, and programs.

(6) "Professionalism" means training in knowledge, skills, and abilities that promote
ongoing professional development.

(7) "Health, safety, and nutrition" means training in establishing health practices, ensuring
safety, and providing healthy nutrition.

(8) "Application through clinical experiences" means clinical experiences in which a
person applies effective teaching practices using a range of educational programming models.

(j) The license holder must ensure that documentation, as required in subdivision 10,
includes the number of total training hours required to be completed, name of the training,
the Minnesota Knowledge and Competency Framework content area, number of hours
completed, and the director's approval of the training.

(k) In-service training completed by a staff person that is not specific to that child care
center is transferable upon a staff person's change in employment to another child care
program.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.50, as amended by Laws 2019, First
Special Session chapter 9, article 2, section 53, is amended to read:


245A.50 FAMILY CHILD CARE TRAINING REQUIREMENTS.

Subdivision 1.

Initial training.

(a) License holders, new text beginsecond adult new text endcaregivers, and
substitutes must comply with the training requirements in this section.

(b) Helpers who assist with care on a regular basis must complete six hours of training
within one year after the date of initial employment.

(c) Training requirements established under this section that must be completed prior
to initial licensure must be satisfied only by a newly licensed child care provider or by a
child care provider who has not held an active child care license in Minnesota in the previous
12 months. A child care provider who voluntarily cancels a license or allows the license to
lapse for a period of less than 12 months and who seeks reinstatement of the lapsed or
canceled license within 12 months of the lapse or cancellation must satisfy the annual,
ongoing training requirements, and is not required to satisfy the training requirements that
must be completed prior to initial licensure. A child care provider who relocates within the
state must (1) satisfy the annual, ongoing training requirements according to the schedules
established in this section and (2) not be required to satisfy the training requirements under
this section that the child care provider completed prior to initial licensure. If a licensed
provider moves to a new county, the new county is prohibited from requiring the provider
to complete any orientation class or training for new providers.

new text begin (d) Before a second adult caregiver or substitute cares for a child or assists in the care
of a child, the license holder must train the second adult caregiver or substitute on:
new text end

new text begin (1) the emergency preparedness plan required under section 245A.51, subdivision 3;
and
new text end

new text begin (2) allergy prevention and response required under section 245A.51, subdivision 1.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 1a. new text end

new text begin Definitions and general provisions. new text end

new text begin For the purposes of this section, the
following terms have the meanings given:
new text end

new text begin (1) "second adult caregiver" means an adult who cares for children in the licensed
program along with the license holder for a cumulative total of more than 500 hours annually;
new text end

new text begin (2) "helper" means a minor, ages 13 to 17, who assists in caring for children; and
new text end

new text begin (3) "substitute" means an adult who assumes responsibility for a license holder for a
cumulative total of not more than 500 hours annually.
new text end

new text begin An adult who cares for children in the licensed program along with the license holder for
a cumulative total of not more than 500 hours annually has the same training requirements
as a substitute.
new text end

Subd. 2.

Child development and learning and behavior guidance training.

(a) For
purposes of family and group family child care, the license holder and each new text beginsecond new text endadult
caregiver deleted text beginwho provides care in the licensed setting for more than 30 days in any 12-month
period
deleted text end shall complete and document at least four hours of child deleted text begingrowthdeleted text endnew text begin developmentnew text end and
learning and behavior guidance training prior to initial licensure, and before caring for
children. For purposes of this subdivision, "child development and learning training" means
training in understanding how children develop physically, cognitively, emotionally, and
socially and learn as part of the children's family, culture, and community. "Behavior
guidance training" means training in the understanding of the functions of child behavior
and strategies for managing challenging situations. deleted text beginAt least two hours of child development
and learning or behavior guidance training must be repeated annually.
deleted text endnew text begin Thenew text end training deleted text begincurriculumdeleted text end
shall be developed or approved by the commissioner of human services.

(b) Notwithstanding new text begininitial child development and learning and behavior guidance
training requirements in
new text endparagraph (a), individuals are exempt from this requirement if they:

(1) have taken a three-credit course on early childhood development within the past five
years;

(2) have received a baccalaureate or master's degree in early childhood education or
school-age child care within the past five years;

(3) are licensed in Minnesota as a prekindergarten teacher, an early childhood educator,
a kindergarten to grade 6 teacher with a prekindergarten specialty, an early childhood special
education teacher, or an elementary teacher with a kindergarten endorsement; or

(4) have received a baccalaureate degree with a Montessori certificate within the past
five years.

new text begin (c) The license holder and each second adult caregiver must annually take at least two
hours of child development and learning or behavior guidance training. A three-credit course
about early childhood development meets the requirements of this paragraph.
new text end

Subd. 3.

First aid.

(a) deleted text beginWhen children are present in a family child care home governed
by Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0315 to 9502.0445, at least one staff person must be present
in the home who has been trained in first aid
deleted text endnew text begin Before initial licensure and before caring for
a child, license holders, second adult caregivers, and substitutes must be trained in pediatric
first aid
new text end. The first aid training must have been provided by an individual approved to provide
first aid instruction. First aid training may be less than eight hours and persons qualified to
provide first aid training include individuals approved as first aid instructors. deleted text beginFirst aid
training must be repeated every two years
deleted text endnew text begin License holders, second adult caregivers, and
substitutes must repeat pediatric first aid training every two years. When the training expires,
it must be retaken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license
effective date
new text end.

deleted text begin (b) A family child care provider is exempt from the first aid training requirements under
this subdivision related to any substitute caregiver who provides less than 30 hours of care
during any 12-month period.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (b)new text end Video training reviewed and approved by the county licensing agency satisfies
the training requirement of this subdivision.

Subd. 4.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

(a) deleted text beginWhen children are present in a family
child care home governed by Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0315 to 9502.0445, at least one
caregiver must be present in the home who has been trained in cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR)
deleted text endnew text begin Before initial licensure and before caring for a child, license holders, second adult
caregivers, and substitutes must be trained in pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
new text end,
including CPR techniques for infants and children, and in the treatment of obstructed airways.
The CPR training must have been provided by an individual approved to provide CPR
instructiondeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin. License holders, second adult caregivers, and substitutesnew text end must deleted text beginbe repeateddeleted text endnew text begin
repeat pediatric CPR training
new text end at least once every two yearsdeleted text begin,deleted text end and must deleted text beginbe documenteddeleted text endnew text begin
document the training
new text end in the deleted text begincaregiver'sdeleted text endnew text begin license holder'snew text end records.new text begin When the training expires,
it must be retaken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license
effective date.
new text end

deleted text begin (b) A family child care provider is exempt from the CPR training requirement in this
subdivision related to any substitute caregiver who provides less than 30 hours of care during
any 12-month period.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (b)new text end Persons providing CPR training must use CPR training that has been developed:

(1) by the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross and incorporates
psychomotor skills to support the instruction; or

(2) using nationally recognized, evidence-based guidelines for CPR training and
incorporates psychomotor skills to support the instruction.

Subd. 5.

Sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma training.

(a)
License holders must new text beginensure and new text enddocument that before deleted text beginstaff personsdeleted text endnew text begin the license holdernew text end,
new text begin second adult new text endcaregivers, new text beginsubstitutes, new text endand helpers assist in the care of infants, they are
instructed on the standards in section 245A.1435 and receive training on reducing the risk
of sudden unexpected infant death. In addition, license holders must new text beginensure and new text enddocument
that before deleted text beginstaff personsdeleted text endnew text begin the license holdernew text end, new text beginsecond adult new text endcaregivers, new text beginsubstitutes, new text endand helpers
assist in the care of infants and children under school age, they receive training on reducing
the risk of abusive head trauma from shaking infants and young children. The training in
this subdivision may be provided as initial training under subdivision 1 or ongoing annual
training under subdivision 7.

(b) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training required under this subdivision
must, at a minimum, address the risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death,
means of reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death in child care, and license
holder communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant
death.

(c) Abusive head trauma training required under this subdivision must, at a minimum,
address the risk factors related to shaking infants and young children, means of reducing
the risk of abusive head trauma in child care, and license holder communication with parents
regarding reducing the risk of abusive head trauma.

(d) Training for family and group family child care providers must be developed by the
commissioner in conjunction with the Minnesota Sudden Infant Death Center and approved
by the Minnesota Center for Professional Development. Sudden unexpected infant death
reduction training and abusive head trauma training may be provided in a single course of
no more than two hours in length.

(e) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma training
required under this subdivision must be completed in person or as allowed under subdivision
10, clause (1) or (2), at least once every two years.new text begin When the training expires, it must be
retaken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license effective
date.
new text end On the years when the deleted text beginlicense holderdeleted text endnew text begin individual receiving trainingnew text end is not receiving
training in person or as allowed under subdivision 10, clause (1) or (2), the deleted text beginlicense holderdeleted text endnew text begin
individual receiving training in accordance with this subdivision
new text end must receive sudden
unexpected infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma training through a video
of no more than one hour in length. The video must be developed or approved by the
commissioner.

(f) An individual who is related to the license holder as defined in section 245A.02,
subdivision 13, and who is involved only in the care of the license holder's own infant or
child under school age and who is not designated to be anew text begin second adultnew text end caregiver, helper, or
substitutedeleted text begin, as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 9502.0315,deleted text end for the licensed program, is
exempt from the sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma training.

Subd. 6.

Child passenger restraint systems; training requirement.

(a) A license
holder must comply with all seat belt and child passenger restraint system requirements
under section 169.685.

(b) Family and group family child care programs licensed by the Department of Human
Services that serve a child or children under deleted text beginninedeleted text endnew text begin eightnew text end years of age must document training
that fulfills the requirements in this subdivision.

(1) Before a license holder, deleted text beginstaff person,deleted text endnew text begin second adultnew text end caregiver, new text beginsubstitute, new text endor helper
transports a child or children under age deleted text beginninedeleted text endnew text begin eightnew text end in a motor vehicle, the person placing
the child or children in a passenger restraint must satisfactorily complete training on the
proper use and installation of child restraint systems in motor vehicles. Training completed
under this subdivision may be used to meet initial training under subdivision 1 or ongoing
training under subdivision 7.

(2) Training required under this subdivision must be at least one hour in length, completed
at initial training, and repeated at least once every five years.new text begin When the training expires, it
must be retaken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license
effective date.
new text end At a minimum, the training must address the proper use of child restraint
systems based on the child's size, weight, and age, and the proper installation of a car seat
or booster seat in the motor vehicle used by the license holder to transport the child or
children.

(3) Training under this subdivision must be provided by individuals who are certified
and approved by the Department of Public Safety, Office of Traffic Safety. License holders
may obtain a list of certified and approved trainers through the Department of Public Safety
website or by contacting the agency.

(c) Child care providers that only transport school-age children as defined in section
245A.02, subdivision 19, paragraph (f), in child care buses as defined in section 169.448,
subdivision 1, paragraph (e), are exempt from this subdivision.

Subd. 7.

Training requirements for family and group family child care.

For purposes
of family and group family child care, the license holder and each deleted text beginprimarydeleted text endnew text begin second adultnew text end
caregiver must complete 16 hours of ongoing training each year. deleted text beginFor purposes of this
subdivision, a primary caregiver is an adult caregiver who provides services in the licensed
setting for more than 30 days in any 12-month period.
deleted text end Repeat of topical training requirements
in subdivisions 2 to 8 shall count toward the annual 16-hour training requirement. Additional
ongoing training subjects to meet the annual 16-hour training requirement must be selected
from the following areas:

(1) child development and learning training deleted text beginunder subdivision 2, paragraph (a)deleted text endnew text begin in
understanding how a child develops physically, cognitively, emotionally, and socially, and
how a child learns as part of the child's family, culture, and community
new text end;

(2) developmentally appropriate learning experiences, including training in creating
positive learning experiences, promoting cognitive development, promoting social and
emotional development, promoting physical development, promoting creative development;
and behavior guidance;

(3) relationships with families, including training in building a positive, respectful
relationship with the child's family;

(4) assessment, evaluation, and individualization, including training in observing,
recording, and assessing development; assessing and using information to plan; and assessing
and using information to enhance and maintain program quality;

(5) historical and contemporary development of early childhood education, including
training in past and current practices in early childhood education and how current events
and issues affect children, families, and programs;

(6) professionalism, including training in knowledge, skills, and abilities that promote
ongoing professional development; and

(7) health, safety, and nutrition, including training in establishing healthy practices;
ensuring safety; and providing healthy nutrition.

Subd. 8.

Other required training requirements.

(a) The training required of family
and group family child care providers and staff must include training in the cultural dynamics
of early childhood development and child care. The cultural dynamics and disabilities
training and skills development of child care providers must be designed to achieve outcomes
for providers of child care that include, but are not limited to:

(1) an understanding and support of the importance of culture and differences in ability
in children's identity development;

(2) understanding the importance of awareness of cultural differences and similarities
in working with children and their families;

(3) understanding and support of the needs of families and children with differences in
ability;

(4) developing skills to help children develop unbiased attitudes about cultural differences
and differences in ability;

(5) developing skills in culturally appropriate caregiving; and

(6) developing skills in appropriate caregiving for children of different abilities.

The commissioner shall approve the curriculum for cultural dynamics and disability
training.

(b) The provider must meet the training requirement in section 245A.14, subdivision
11
, paragraph (a), clause (4), to be eligible to allow a child cared for at the family child care
or group family child care home to use the swimming pool located at the home.

Subd. 9.

Supervising for safety; training requirement.

new text begin (a) Courses required by this
subdivision must include the following health and safety topics:
new text end

new text begin (1) preventing and controlling infectious diseases;
new text end

new text begin (2) administering medication;
new text end

new text begin (3) preventing and responding to allergies;
new text end

new text begin (4) ensuring building and physical premises safety;
new text end

new text begin (5) handling and storing biological contaminants;
new text end

new text begin (6) preventing and reporting child abuse and maltreatment; and
new text end

new text begin (7) emergency preparedness.
new text end

deleted text begin (a)deleted text endnew text begin (b)new text end Before initial licensure and before caring for a child, all family child care license
holders and each new text beginsecond new text endadult caregiver deleted text beginwho provides care in the licensed family child care
home for more than 30 days in any 12-month period
deleted text end shall complete and document the
completion of the six-hour Supervising for Safety for Family Child Care course developed
by the commissioner.

new text begin (c) The license holder must ensure and document that, before caring for a child, all
substitutes have completed the four-hour Basics of Licensed Family Child Care for
Substitutes course developed by the commissioner, which must include health and safety
topics as well as child development and learning.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end The family child care license holder and each new text beginsecond new text endadult caregiver deleted text beginwho provides
care in the licensed family child care home for more than 30 days in any 12-month period
deleted text end
shall complete and document:

(1) the annual completion of a two-hour active supervision course developed by the
commissioner; and

(2) the completion at least once every five years of the two-hour courses Health and
Safety I and Health and Safety II.new text begin When the training is due for the first time or expires, it
must be taken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license
effective date.
new text end A license holder's or new text beginsecond new text endadult caregiver's completion of either training
in a given year meets the annual active supervision training requirement in clause (1).

new text begin (e) At least once every three years, license holders must ensure and document that
substitutes have completed the four-hour Basics of Licensed Family Child Care for
Substitutes course. When the training expires, it must be retaken no later than the day before
the anniversary of the license holder's license effective date.
new text end

Subd. 10.

Approved training.

new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services must post
information on the department's website indicating the specific category within the
Knowledge and Competency Framework that will satisfy training requirements for child
development and learning, behavior guidance, and active supervision. County licensing
staff must accept trainings designated as satisfying training requirements by the commissioner
under this paragraph.
new text end

new text begin (b) Unless specifically authorized in this section, one training does not fulfill two different
training requirements. Courses within the identified knowledge and competency areas that
are specific to child care centers or legal nonlicensed providers do not fulfill the requirements
of this section.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text endCounty licensing staff must accept training approved by the Minnesota Center for
Professional Development, including:

(1) face-to-face or classroom training;

(2) online training; and

(3) relationship-based professional development, such as mentoring, coaching, and
consulting.

Subd. 11.

Provider training.

New and increased training requirements under this section
must not be imposed on providers until the commissioner establishes statewide accessibility
to the required provider training.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2020.
new text end

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.10, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 15. new text end

new text begin Guardians and conservators. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall recover the cost of
conducting background studies for guardians and conservators under section 524.5-118
through a fee of no more than $110 per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are
appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.32, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Use.

(a) The commissioner may also use these systems and records to obtain
and provide criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, criminal
history data held by the commissioner, and data about substantiated maltreatment under
section 626.556 or 626.557, for other purposes, provided that:

(1) the background study is specifically authorized in statute; or

(2) the request is made with the informed consent of the subject of the study as provided
in section 13.05, subdivision 4.

(b) An individual making a request under paragraph (a), clause (2), must agree in writing
not to disclose the data to any other individual without the consent of the subject of the data.

(c) The commissioner may recover the cost of obtaining and providing background study
data by charging the individual or entity requesting the study a fee of no more than $20 per
study. The fees collected under this paragraph are appropriated to the commissioner for the
purpose of conducting background studies.

deleted text begin (d) The commissioner shall recover the cost of obtaining background study data required
under section 524.5-118 through a fee of $50 per study for an individual who has not lived
outside Minnesota for the past ten years, and a fee of $100 for an individual who has resided
outside of Minnesota for any period during the ten years preceding the background study.
The commissioner shall recover, from the individual, any additional fees charged by other
states' licensing agencies that are associated with these data requests. Fees under subdivision
3 also apply when criminal history data from the National Criminal Records Repository is
required.
deleted text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.041, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Expiration.

The council expires on June 30, deleted text begin2020deleted text endnew text begin 2022new text end.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256E.35, is amended to read:


256E.35 FAMILY ASSETS FOR INDEPENDENCE.

Subdivision 1.

Establishment.

The Minnesota family assets for independence initiative
is established to provide incentives for low-income families to accrue assets for education,
housing,new text begin vehicles,new text end and economic development purposes.

Subd. 2.

Definitions.

(a) The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.

(b) "Eligible educational institution" means the following:

(1) an institution of higher education described in section 101 or 102 of the Higher
Education Act of 1965; or

(2) an area vocational education school, as defined in subparagraph (C) or (D) of United
States Code, title 20, chapter 44, section 2302 (3) (the Carl D. Perkins Vocational and
Applied Technology Education Act), which is located within any state, as defined in United
States Code, title 20, chapter 44, section 2302 (30). This clause is applicable only to the
extent section 2302 is in effect on August 1, 2008.

(c) "Family asset account" means a savings account opened by a household participating
in the Minnesota family assets for independence initiative.

(d) "Fiduciary organization" means:

(1) a community action agency that has obtained recognition under section 256E.31;

(2) a federal community development credit union serving the seven-county metropolitan
area; or

(3) a women-oriented economic development agency serving the seven-county
metropolitan area.

(e) "Financial coach" means a person who:

(1) has completed an intensive financial literacy training workshop that includes
curriculum on budgeting to increase savings, debt reduction and asset building, building a
good credit rating, and consumer protection;

(2) participates in ongoing statewide family assets for independence in Minnesota (FAIM)
network training meetings under FAIM program supervision; and

(3) provides financial coaching to program participants under subdivision 4a.

(f) "Financial institution" means a bank, bank and trust, savings bank, savings association,
or credit union, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance
Corporation or the National Credit Union Administration.

(g) "Household" means all individuals who share use of a dwelling unit as primary
quarters for living and eating separate from other individuals.

(h) "Permissible use" means:

(1) postsecondary educational expenses at an eligible educational institution as defined
in paragraph (b), including books, supplies, and equipment required for courses of instruction;

(2) acquisition costs of acquiring, constructing, or reconstructing a residence, including
any usual or reasonable settlement, financing, or other closing costs;

(3) business capitalization expenses for expenditures on capital, plant, equipment, working
capital, and inventory expenses of a legitimate business pursuant to a business plan approved
by the fiduciary organization; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(4) acquisition costs of a principal residence within the meaning of section 1034 of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986 which do not exceed 100 percent of the average area purchase
price applicable to the residence determined according to section 143(e)(2) and (3) of the
Internal Revenue Code of 1986deleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; and
new text end

new text begin (5) acquisition costs of a personal vehicle only if approved by the fiduciary organization.
new text end

Subd. 3.

Grants awarded.

The commissioner shall allocate funds to participating
fiduciary organizations to provide family asset services. Grant awards must be based on a
plan submitted by a statewide organization representing fiduciary organizations. The
statewide organization must ensure that any interested unrepresented fiduciary organization
have input into the development of the plan. The plan must equitably distribute funds to
achieve geographic balance and document the capacity of participating fiduciary
organizations to manage the program deleted text beginand to raise the private matchdeleted text end.

Subd. 4.

Duties.

A participating fiduciary organization must:

(1) provide separate accounts for the immediate deposit of program funds;

(2) establish a process to select participants and describe any priorities for participation;

(3) enter into a family asset agreement with the household to establish the terms of
participation;

(4) provide households with economic literacy education;

(5) provide households with information on early childhood family education;

(6) provide matching deposits for participating households;

(7) coordinate with other related public and private programs; and

(8) establish a process to appeal and mediate disputes.

Subd. 4a.

Financial coaching.

A financial coach shall provide the following to program
participants:

(1) financial education relating to budgeting, debt reduction, asset-specific training, and
financial stability activities;

(2) asset-specific training related to buying a homenew text begin or vehiclenew text end, acquiring postsecondary
education, or starting or expanding a small business; and

(3) financial stability education and training to improve and sustain financial security.

Subd. 5.

Household eligibility; participation.

(a) To be eligible for state or TANF
matching funds in the family assets for independence initiative, a household must meet the
eligibility requirements of the federal Assets for Independence Act, Public Law 105-285,
in Title IV, section 408 of that act.

(b) Each participating household must sign a family asset agreement that includes the
amount of scheduled deposits into its savings account, the proposed use, and the proposed
savings goal. A participating household must agree to complete an economic literacy training
program.

new text begin (c) new text endParticipating households may only deposit money that is derived from household
earned income or from state and federal income tax credits.

Subd. 6.

Withdrawal; matching; permissible uses.

(a) To receive a match, a
participating household must transfer funds withdrawn from a family asset account to its
matching fund custodial account held by the fiscal agent, according to the family asset
agreement. The fiscal agent must determine if the match request is for a permissible use
consistent with the household's family asset agreement.

new text begin (b) new text endThe fiscal agent must ensure the household's custodial account contains the applicable
matching funds to match the balance in the household's account, including interest, on at
least a quarterly basis and at the time of an approved withdrawal. Matches must be deleted text beginprovided
as follows:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) from state grant and TANF funds,deleted text end a deleted text beginmatchingdeleted text end contribution of deleted text begin$1.50deleted text endnew text begin $3 from state
grant or TANF funds
new text end for every $1 of funds withdrawn from the family asset account deleted text beginequal
to the lesser of $720 per year or
deleted text endnew text begin not to exceednew text end a deleted text begin$3,000deleted text endnew text begin $6,000new text end lifetime limitdeleted text begin; anddeleted text endnew text begin.
new text end

deleted text begin (2) from nonstate funds, a matching contribution of no less than $1.50 for every $1 of
funds withdrawn from the family asset account equal to the lesser of $720 per year or a
$3,000 lifetime limit.
deleted text end

new text begin (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), if funds are appropriated for the Federal Assets for
Independence Act of 1998, and a participating fiduciary organization is awarded a grant
under that act, participating households with that fiduciary organization must be provided
matches as follows:
new text end

new text begin (1) from state grant and TANF funds, a matching contribution of $1.50 for every $1 of
funds withdrawn from the family asset account not to exceed a $3,000 lifetime limit; and
new text end

new text begin (2) from nonstate funds, a matching contribution of not less than $1.50 for every $1 of
funds withdrawn from the family asset account not to exceed a $3,000 lifetime limit.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end Upon receipt of transferred custodial account funds, the fiscal agent must make
a direct payment to the vendor of the goods or services for the permissible use.

Subd. 7.

Program reporting.

The fiscal agent on behalf of each fiduciary organization
participating in a family assets for independence initiative must report quarterly to the
commissioner of human services identifying the participants with accounts, the number of
accounts, the amount of savings and matches for each participant's account, the uses of the
account, and the number of businesses, homes, new text beginvehicles, new text endand educational services paid for
with money from the account, as well as other information that may be required for the
commissioner to administer the program and meet federal TANF reporting requirements.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 257.0725, is amended to read:


257.0725 ANNUAL REPORT.

The commissioner of human services shall publish an annual report on child maltreatment
and on children in out-of-home placement. The commissioner shall confer with counties,
child welfare organizations, child advocacy organizations, the courts, and other groups on
how to improve the content and utility of the department's annual report. In regard to child
maltreatment, the report shall include the number and kinds of maltreatment reports received
and any other data that the commissioner determines is appropriate to include in a report
on child maltreatment. In regard to children in out-of-home placement, the report shall
include, by county and statewide, information on legal status, living arrangement, age, sex,
race, accumulated length of time in placement, reason for most recent placement, race of
family with whom placed, new text beginschool enrollments within seven days of placement pursuant to
section 120A.21,
new text endand other information deemed appropriate on all children in out-of-home
placement. Out-of-home placement includes placement in any facility by an authorized
child-placing agency.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.219, is amended to read:


260C.219 AGENCY RESPONSIBILITIES FOR PARENTS AND CHILDREN IN
PLACEMENT.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Responsibilities for parents; noncustodial parents. new text end

(a) When a child
is in foster care, the responsible social services agency shall make diligent efforts to identify,
locate, and, where appropriate, offer services to both parents of the child.

deleted text begin (1)deleted text endnew text begin (b)new text end The responsible social services agency shall assess whether a noncustodial or
nonadjudicated parent is willing and capable of providing for the day-to-day care of the
child temporarily or permanently. An assessment under this deleted text beginclausedeleted text endnew text begin paragraphnew text end may include,
but is not limited to, obtaining information under section 260C.209. If after assessment, the
responsible social services agency determines that a noncustodial or nonadjudicated parent
is willing and capable of providing day-to-day care of the child, the responsible social
services agency may seek authority from the custodial parent or the court to have that parent
assume day-to-day care of the child. If a parent is not an adjudicated parent, the responsible
social services agency shall require the nonadjudicated parent to cooperate with paternity
establishment procedures as part of the case plan.

deleted text begin (2)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end If, after assessment, the responsible social services agency determines that the
child cannot be in the day-to-day care of either parent, the agency shall:

deleted text begin (i)deleted text endnew text begin (1)new text end prepare an out-of-home placement plan addressing the conditions that each parent
must meet before the child can be in that parent's day-to-day care; and

deleted text begin (ii)deleted text endnew text begin (2)new text end provide a parent who is the subject of a background study under section 260C.209
15 days' notice that it intends to use the study to recommend against putting the child with
that parent, and the court shall afford the parent an opportunity to be heard concerning the
study.

The results of a background study of a noncustodial parent shall not be used by the agency
to determine that the parent is incapable of providing day-to-day care of the child unless
the agency reasonably believes that placement of the child into the home of that parent
would endanger the child's health, safety, or welfare.

deleted text begin (3)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end If, after the provision of services following an out-of-home placement plan under
this deleted text beginsectiondeleted text endnew text begin subdivisionnew text end, the child cannot return to the care of the parent from whom the
child was removed or who had legal custody at the time the child was placed in foster care,
the agency may petition on behalf of a noncustodial parent to establish legal custody with
that parent under section 260C.515, subdivision 4. If paternity has not already been
established, it may be established in the same proceeding in the manner provided for under
chapter 257.

deleted text begin (4)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end The responsible social services agency may be relieved of the requirement to
locate and offer services to both parents by the juvenile court upon a finding of good cause
after the filing of a petition under section 260C.141.

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Notice to parent or guardian. new text end

deleted text begin(b)deleted text end The responsible social services agency shall
give notice to the parent or guardian of each child in foster care, other than a child in
voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, of the following information:

(1) that the child's placement in foster care may result in termination of parental rights
or an order permanently placing the child out of the custody of the parent, but only after
notice and a hearing as required under this chapter and the juvenile court rules;

(2) time limits on the length of placement and of reunification services, including the
date on which the child is expected to be returned to and safely maintained in the home of
the parent or parents or placed for adoption or otherwise permanently removed from the
care of the parent by court order;

(3) the nature of the services available to the parent;

(4) the consequences to the parent and the child if the parent fails or is unable to use
services to correct the circumstances that led to the child's placement;

(5) the first consideration for placement with relatives;

(6) the benefit to the child in getting the child out of foster care as soon as possible,
preferably by returning the child home, but if that is not possible, through a permanent legal
placement of the child away from the parent;

(7) when safe for the child, the benefits to the child and the parent of maintaining
visitation with the child as soon as possible in the course of the case and, in any event,
according to the visitation plan under this section; and

(8) the financial responsibilities and obligations, if any, of the parent or parents for the
support of the child during the period the child is in foster care.

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Information for a parent considering voluntary placement. new text end

deleted text begin(c)deleted text end The
responsible social services agency shall inform a parent considering voluntary placement
of a child under section 260C.227 of the following information:

(1) the parent and the child each has a right to separate legal counsel before signing a
voluntary placement agreement, but not to counsel appointed at public expense;

(2) the parent is not required to agree to the voluntary placement, and a parent who enters
a voluntary placement agreement may at any time request that the agency return the child.
If the parent so requests, the child must be returned within 24 hours of the receipt of the
request;

(3) evidence gathered during the time the child is voluntarily placed may be used at a
later time as the basis for a petition alleging that the child is in need of protection or services
or as the basis for a petition seeking termination of parental rights or other permanent
placement of the child away from the parent;

(4) if the responsible social services agency files a petition alleging that the child is in
need of protection or services or a petition seeking the termination of parental rights or other
permanent placement of the child away from the parent, the parent would have the right to
appointment of separate legal counsel and the child would have a right to the appointment
of counsel and a guardian ad litem as provided by law, and that counsel will be appointed
at public expense if they are unable to afford counsel; and

(5) the timelines and procedures for review of voluntary placements under section
260C.212, subdivision 3, and the effect the time spent in voluntary placement on the
scheduling of a permanent placement determination hearing under sections 260C.503 to
260C.521.

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Medical examinations. new text end

deleted text begin(d)deleted text end When an agency accepts a child for placement, the
agency shall determine whether the child has had a physical examination by or under the
direction of a licensed physician within the 12 months immediately preceding the date when
the child came into the agency's care. If there is documentation that the child has had an
examination within the last 12 months, the agency is responsible for seeing that the child
has another physical examination within one year of the documented examination and
annually in subsequent years. If the agency determines that the child has not had a physical
examination within the 12 months immediately preceding placement, the agency shall ensure
that the child has an examination within 30 days of coming into the agency's care and once
a year in subsequent years.

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Children reaching age of majority; copies of records. new text end

deleted text begin(e)deleted text end Whether under
state guardianship or not, if a child leaves foster care by reason of having attained the age
of majority under state law, the child must be given at no cost a copy of the child's social
and medical history, as defined in section 259.43, and education report.

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Initial foster care phone call. new text end

new text begin (a) When a child enters foster care or moves to
a new foster care placement, the responsible social services agency should attempt to
coordinate a phone call between the foster parent or facility and the child's parent or legal
guardian to establish a connection and encourage ongoing information sharing between the
child's parent or legal guardian and the foster parent or facility; and to provide an opportunity
to share any information regarding the child, the child's needs, or the child's care that would
facilitate the child's adjustment to the foster home, promote stability, reduce the risk of
trauma, or otherwise improve the quality of the child's care.
new text end

new text begin (b) The responsible social services agency should attempt to coordinate the phone call
in paragraph (a) as soon as practicable after the child arrives at the placement but no later
than 72 hours after the child's placement. If the responsible social services agency determines
that the phone call is not in the child's best interests, or if the agency is unable to identify,
locate, or contact the child's parent or legal guardian despite reasonable efforts, or despite
active efforts if the child is an American Indian child, the agency may delay the phone call
until up to 48 hours after the agency determines that the phone call is in the child's best
interests, or up to 48 hours after the child's parent or legal guardian is located or becomes
available for the phone call. The responsible social services agency is not required to attempt
to coordinate the phone call if placing the phone call poses a danger to the mental or physical
health of the child or foster parent.
new text end

new text begin (c) The responsible social services agency shall document the date and time of the phone
call in paragraph (a), its efforts to coordinate the phone call, its efforts to identify, locate,
or find availability for the child's parent or legal guardian, any determination of whether
the phone call is in the child's best interests, and any reasons that the phone call did not
occur, including any danger to the child's or foster parent's mental or physical health.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Prenatal alcohol exposure screening. new text end

new text begin (a) The responsible social services
agency shall coordinate a prenatal alcohol exposure screening for any child who enters
foster care as soon as practicable but no later than 45 days after the removal of the child
from the child's home, if the agency has determined that the child has not previously been
screened or identified as prenatally exposed to alcohol.
new text end

new text begin (b) The responsible social services agency shall ensure that the screening is conducted
in accordance with:
new text end

new text begin (1) existing prenatal alcohol exposure screening best practice guidelines; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the criteria developed and provided to the responsible social services agency by the
statewide organization that focuses solely on prevention and intervention with fetal alcohol
spectrum disorder and that receives funding under the appropriation for fetal alcohol spectrum
disorder in Laws 2007, chapter 147, article 19, section 4, subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective for children who enter foster care on or
after August 1, 2020, except subdivision 6 is effective for children entering out-of-home
placement or moving between placements on or after November 1, 2020.
new text end

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 524.5-118, is amended to read:


524.5-118 BACKGROUND STUDY.

Subdivision 1.

When required; exception.

(a) The court shall require a background
study under this section:

(1) before the appointment of a guardian or conservator, unless a background study has
been done on the person under this section within the previous deleted text begintwodeleted text endnew text begin fivenew text end years; and

(2) once every deleted text begintwodeleted text endnew text begin fivenew text end years after the appointment, if the person continues to serve as
a guardian or conservator.

(b) The background study must include:

(1) criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, other criminal
history data held by the commissioner of human services, and data regarding whether the
person has been a perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or minor;

(2) criminal history data from deleted text beginthe National Criminal Records Repository if the proposed
guardian or conservator has not resided in Minnesota for the previous ten years or if the
Bureau of Criminal Apprehension information received from the commissioner of human
services under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), indicates that the subject is a multistate offender
or that the individual's multistate offender status is undetermined
deleted text endnew text begin a national criminal history
record check as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 13c
new text end; and

(3) state licensing agency data if a search of the database or databases of the agencies
listed in subdivision 2a shows that the proposed guardian or conservator has ever held a
professional license directly related to the responsibilities of a professional fiduciary from
an agency listed in subdivision 2a that was conditioned, suspended, revoked, or canceled.

(c) If the guardian or conservator is not an individual, the background study must be
done on all individuals currently employed by the proposed guardian or conservator who
will be responsible for exercising powers and duties under the guardianship or
conservatorship.

(d) If the court determines that it would be in the best interests of the ward or protected
person to appoint a guardian or conservator before the background study can be completed,
the court may make the appointment pending the results of the study, however, the
background study must then be completed as soon as reasonably possible after appointment,
no later than 30 days after appointment.

(e) new text beginThe fee for background studies conducted under this section is specified in section
245C.10, subdivision 14.
new text endThe fee for conducting a background study for appointment of a
professional guardian or conservator must be paid by the guardian or conservator. In other
cases, the fee must be paid as follows:

(1) if the matter is proceeding in forma pauperis, the fee is an expense for purposes of
section 524.5-502, paragraph (a);

(2) if there is an estate of the ward or protected person, the fee must be paid from the
estate; or

(3) in the case of a guardianship or conservatorship of the person that is not proceeding
in forma pauperis, the court may order that the fee be paid by the guardian or conservator
or by the court.

(f) The requirements of this subdivision do not apply if the guardian or conservator is:

(1) a state agency or county;

(2) a parent or guardian of a proposed ward or protected person who has a developmental
disability, if the parent or guardian has raised the proposed ward or protected person in the
family home until the time the petition is filed, unless counsel appointed for the proposed
ward or protected person under section 524.5-205, paragraph (d); 524.5-304, paragraph (b);
524.5-405, paragraph (a); or 524.5-406, paragraph (b), recommends a background study;
or

(3) a bank with trust powers, bank and trust company, or trust company, organized under
the laws of any state or of the United States and which is regulated by the commissioner of
commerce or a federal regulator.

Subd. 2.

Procedure; criminal history and maltreatment records background
check.

(a) The court shall request the commissioner of human services to complete a
background study under section 245C.32. The request must be accompanied by the applicable
fee and deleted text beginthe signed consent of the subject of the study authorizing the release of the data
obtained to the court. If the court is requesting a search of the National Criminal Records
Repository, the request must be accompanied by
deleted text end new text beginacknowledgment that the study subject
received a privacy notice required under subdivision 3. The commissioner of human services
shall conduct a national criminal history record check. The study subject shall submit
new text enda set
of classifiable fingerprints deleted text beginof the subject of the studydeleted text end. The fingerprints must be recorded on
a fingerprint card provided by the commissioner of human services.

(b) The commissioner of human services shall provide the court with criminal history
data as defined in section 13.87 from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension in the Department
of Public Safety, other criminal history data held by the commissioner of human services,
deleted text begin anddeleted text end data regarding substantiated maltreatment of vulnerable adults under section 626.557
and substantiated maltreatment of minors under section 626.556new text begin, and criminal history
information from other states or jurisdictions as indicated from a national criminal history
record check
new text end within deleted text begin15deleted text endnew text begin 20new text end working days of receipt of a request. If the subject of the study
has been the perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or minor, the
response must include a copy of the public portion of the investigation memorandum under
section 626.557, subdivision 12b, or the public portion of the investigation memorandum
under section 626.556, subdivision 10f. deleted text beginIf the court did not request a search of the National
Criminal Records Repository and information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension
indicates that the subject is a multistate offender or that multistate offender status is
undetermined, the response must include this information. The commissioner shall provide
the court with information from the National Criminal Records Repository within three
working days of the commissioner's receipt of the data
deleted text endnew text begin The commissioner shall provide the
court with information from a review of information according to subdivision 2a if the study
subject provided information indicating current or prior affiliation with a state licensing
agency
new text end.

(c) Notwithstanding section 626.557, subdivision 12b, or 626.556, subdivision 10f, if
the commissioner of human services or a county lead agency or lead investigative agency
has information that a person on whom a background study was previously done under this
section has been determined to be a perpetrator of maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or
minor, the commissioner or the county may provide this information to the court that
requested the background study. The commissioner may also provide the court with additional
criminal history or substantiated maltreatment information that becomes available after the
background study is done.

Subd. 2a.

Procedure; state licensing agency data.

(a) The court shall request the
commissioner of human services to provide the court within 25 working days of receipt of
the request with licensing agency data for licenses directly related to the responsibilities of
a professional fiduciary new text beginif the study subject indicates current or prior affiliation new text endfrom the
following agencies in Minnesota:

(1) Lawyers Responsibility Board;

(2) State Board of Accountancy;

(3) Board of Social Work;

(4) Board of Psychology;

(5) Board of Nursing;

(6) Board of Medical Practice;

(7) Department of Education;

(8) Department of Commerce;

(9) Board of Chiropractic Examiners;

(10) Board of Dentistry;

(11) Board of Marriage and Family Therapy;

(12) Department of Human Services; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(13) Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) Boarddeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; and
new text end

new text begin (14) Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board.
new text end

(b) The commissioner shall enter into agreements with these agencies to provide deleted text beginfordeleted text endnew text begin the
commissioner with
new text end electronic access to the relevant licensing data deleted text beginby the commissionerdeleted text endnew text begin,
and to provide the commissioner with a quarterly list of new sanctions issued by the agency
new text end.

(c) The commissioner shall provide to the court the electronically available data
maintained in the agency's database, including whether the proposed guardian or conservator
is or has been licensed by the agency, and if the licensing agency database indicates a
disciplinary action or a sanction against the individual's license, including a condition,
suspension, revocation, or cancellation.

(d) If the proposed guardian or conservator has resided in a state other than Minnesota
in the previous ten years, licensing agency data under this section shall also include the
licensing agency data from any other state where the proposed guardian or conservator
reported to have resided during the previous ten yearsnew text begin if the study subject indicates current
or prior affiliation
new text end. If the proposed guardian or conservator has or has had a professional
license in another state that is directly related to the responsibilities of a professional fiduciary
from one of the agencies listed under paragraph (a), state licensing agency data shall also
include data from the relevant licensing agency of that state.

(e) The commissioner is not required to repeat a search for Minnesota or out-of-state
licensing data on an individual if the commissioner has provided this information to the
court within the prior deleted text begintwodeleted text endnew text begin fivenew text end years.

(f) deleted text beginIf an individual has continuously resided in Minnesota since a previous background
deleted text enddeleted text begin study under this section was completed, the commissioner is not required to repeat a search
deleted text enddeleted text begin for records in another state.deleted text endnew text begin The commissioner shall review the information in paragraph
(c) at least once every four months to determine if an individual who has been studied within
the previous five years:
new text end

new text begin (1) has new disciplinary action or sanction against the individual's license; or
new text end

new text begin (2) did not disclose a prior or current affiliation with a Minnesota licensing agency.
new text end

new text begin (g) If the commissioner's review in paragraph (f) identifies new information, the
commissioner shall provide any new information to the court.
new text end

Subd. 3.

deleted text beginFormdeleted text endnew text begin Forms and systemsnew text end.

new text beginThe court must provide the study subject with a
privacy notice that complies with section 245C.05, subdivision 2c.
new text endThe commissioner of
human services shall deleted text begindevelop a form to be used for requestingdeleted text endnew text begin use the NETStudy 2.0 system
to conduct
new text end a background study under this sectiondeleted text begin, which must include:deleted text endnew text begin.
new text end

deleted text begin (1) a notification to the subject of the study that the court will request the commissioner
to perform a background study under this section;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) a notification to the subject of the rights in subdivision 4; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) a signed consent to conduct the background study.
deleted text end

Subd. 4.

Rights.

The court shall notify the subject of a background study that the subject
has the following rights:

(1) the right to be informed that the court will request a background study on the subject
for the purpose of determining whether the person's appointment or continued appointment
is in the best interests of the ward or protected person;

(2) the right to be informed of the results of the study and to obtain from the court a
copy of the results; and

(3) the right to challenge the accuracy and completeness of information contained in the
results under section 13.04, subdivision 4, except to the extent precluded by section 256.045,
subdivision 3
.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 19.

Laws 2016, chapter 189, article 15, section 29, is amended to read:


Sec. 29. DIRECTION TO COMMISSIONERS; INCOME AND ASSET EXCLUSION.

(a) The commissioner of human services shall not count payments made to families by
the income and child development in the first three years of life demonstration project as
income or assets for purposes of determining or redetermining eligibility for child care
assistance programs under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 119B; the Minnesota family
investment program, work benefit program, or diversionary work program under Minnesota
Statutes, chapter 256J, during the duration of the demonstration.

(b) The commissioner of human services shall not count payments made to families by
the income and child development in the first three years of life demonstration project as
income for purposes of determining or redetermining eligibility for medical assistance under
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 256B, and MinnesotaCare under Minnesota Statutes, chapter
256L.

(c) For the purposes of this section, "income and child development in the first three
years of life demonstration project" means a demonstration project funded by the United
States Department of Health and Human Services National Institutes of Health to evaluate
whether the unconditional cash payments have a causal effect on the cognitive,
socioemotional, and brain development of infants and toddlers.

(d) This section shall only be implemented if Minnesota is chosen as a site for the child
development in the first three years of life demonstration project, and expires January 1,
deleted text begin 2022deleted text endnew text begin 2026new text end.

(e) The commissioner of human services shall provide a report to the chairs and ranking
minority members of the legislative committees having jurisdiction over human services
issues by January 1, deleted text begin2023deleted text endnew text begin 2027new text end, informing the legislature on the progress and outcomes of
the demonstration under this section.

Sec. 20.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 7, section 33, subdivision 2,
is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Pilot design and goals.

The pilot will establish deleted text beginfivedeleted text end key developmental milestone
markers from birth to age eight. deleted text beginEnrollees in thedeleted text end Pilotnew text begin program participantsnew text end will be
developmentally assessed and tracked by a technology solution that tracks developmental
milestones along the established developmental continuum. If a deleted text beginchild'sdeleted text endnew text begin pilot program
participant's
new text end progress falls below established milestones deleted text beginand the weighted scoringdeleted text end, the
coordinated service system will focus on identified areas of concerndeleted text begin, mobilize appropriate
supportive services,
deleted text end and offer new text beginreferrals or new text endservices to deleted text beginidentified children and their familiesdeleted text endnew text begin
pilot program participants
new text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 21.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 7, section 33, subdivision 3,
is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Program participants in deleted text beginphase 1deleted text end target population.

Pilot program participants
mustnew text begin opt in and provide parental or guardian consent to participate and be enrolled or engaged
in one or more of the following
new text end:

(1) deleted text beginbe enrolled indeleted text end a Women's Infant & Children (WIC) program;

(2) deleted text beginbe participating indeleted text end a family home visiting programdeleted text begin,deleted text end or deleted text beginnurse family practice, or
Healthy Families America (HFA)
deleted text endnew text begin Follow Along Programnew text end;

(3) deleted text beginbe children and families qualifying for and participating in early language learners
(ELL) in the school district in which they reside; and
deleted text endnew text begin a school's early childhood screening;
or
new text end

(4) deleted text beginopt in and provide parental consent to participate in the pilot projectdeleted text endnew text begin any other Dakota
County or school program that is determined as useful for identifying children at risk of
falling below established guidelines
new text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 22. new text beginDIRECTION TO COMMISSIONER; INITIAL FOSTER CARE PHONE
CALL TRAINING.
new text end

new text begin By August 1, 2020, the commissioner of human services shall issue written guidance to
county social services agencies, foster parents, and facilities to fully implement the initial
foster care phone call procedures in Minnesota Statutes, section 260C.219, subdivision 6.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 23. new text beginDIRECTION TO THE COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN SERVICES;
UNIFORM FAMILY CHILD CARE VARIANCE APPLICATION FORM
DEVELOPED BY THE COMMISSIONER.
new text end

new text begin By October 1, 2020, the commissioner of human services, after consultation with county
licensors and family child care providers, including those serving on the Family Child Care
Task Force, shall issue to counties a uniform application form for family child care variance
requests. The commissioner shall also issue any necessary training or guidance for counties
to use the form.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 24. new text beginDIRECTION TO THE COMMISSIONER; EVALUATION OF
CONTINUOUS LICENSES.
new text end

new text begin By January 1, 2021, the commissioner of human services shall consult with family child
care license holders and county agencies to determine whether family child care licenses
should automatically renew instead of requiring license holders to reapply for licensure. If
the commissioner determines that family child care licenses should automatically renew,
the commissioner must propose legislation for the 2021 legislative session to make the
required amendments to statute and administrative rules, as necessary.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

ARTICLE 2

COMMUNITY SUPPORTS ADMINISTRATION

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245.735, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:


Subd. 3.

Certified community behavioral health clinics.

(a) The commissioner shall
establish a state certification process for certified community behavioral health clinics
(CCBHCs). Entities that choose to be CCBHCs must:

(1) comply with the CCBHC criteria published by the United States Department of
Health and Human Services;

(2) employ or contract for clinic staff who have backgrounds in diverse disciplines,
including licensed mental health professionals and licensed alcohol and drug counselors,
and staff who are culturally and linguistically trained to meet the needs of the population
the clinic serves;

(3) ensure that clinic services are available and accessible to individuals and families of
all ages and genders and that crisis management services are available 24 hours per day;

(4) establish fees for clinic services for individuals who are not enrolled in medical
assistance using a sliding fee scale that ensures that services to patients are not denied or
limited due to an individual's inability to pay for services;

(5) comply with quality assurance reporting requirements and other reporting
requirements, including any required reporting of encounter data, clinical outcomes data,
and quality data;

(6) provide crisis mental health and substance use services, withdrawal management
services, emergency crisis intervention services, and stabilization services; screening,
assessment, and diagnosis services, including risk assessments and level of care
determinations; person- and family-centered treatment planning; outpatient mental health
and substance use services; targeted case management; psychiatric rehabilitation services;
peer support and counselor services and family support services; and intensive
community-based mental health services, including mental health services for members of
the armed forces and veterans;

(7) provide coordination of care across settings and providers to ensure seamless
transitions for individuals being served across the full spectrum of health services, including
acute, chronic, and behavioral needs. Care coordination may be accomplished through
partnerships or formal contracts with:

(i) counties, health plans, pharmacists, pharmacies, rural health clinics, federally qualified
health centers, inpatient psychiatric facilities, substance use and detoxification facilities, or
community-based mental health providers; and

(ii) other community services, supports, and providers, including schools, child welfare
agencies, juvenile and criminal justice agencies, Indian health services clinics, tribally
licensed health care and mental health facilities, urban Indian health clinics, Department of
Veterans Affairs medical centers, outpatient clinics, drop-in centers, acute care hospitals,
and hospital outpatient clinics;

(8) be certified as mental health clinics under section 245.69, subdivision 2;

(9) comply with standards relating to mental health services in Minnesota Rules, parts
9505.0370 to 9505.0372deleted text begin, and section 256B.0671deleted text end;

(10) be licensed to provide substance use disorder treatment under chapter 245G;

(11) be certified to provide children's therapeutic services and supports under section
256B.0943;

(12) be certified to provide adult rehabilitative mental health services under section
256B.0623;

(13) be enrolled to provide mental health crisis response services under sections
256B.0624 and 256B.0944;

(14) be enrolled to provide mental health targeted case management under section
256B.0625, subdivision 20;

(15) comply with standards relating to mental health case management in Minnesota
Rules, parts 9520.0900 to 9520.0926;

(16) provide services that comply with the evidence-based practices described in
paragraph (e); and

(17) comply with standards relating to peer services under sections 256B.0615,
256B.0616, and 245G.07, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (5), as applicable when peer
services are provided.

(b) If an entity is unable to provide one or more of the services listed in paragraph (a),
clauses (6) to (17), the commissioner may certify the entity as a CCBHC, if the entity has
a current contract with another entity that has the required authority to provide that service
and that meets federal CCBHC criteria as a designated collaborating organization, or, to
the extent allowed by the federal CCBHC criteria, the commissioner may approve a referral
arrangement. The CCBHC must meet federal requirements regarding the type and scope of
services to be provided directly by the CCBHC.

(c) Notwithstanding any other law that requires a county contract or other form of county
approval for certain services listed in paragraph (a), clause (6), a clinic that otherwise meets
CCBHC requirements may receive the prospective payment under section 256B.0625,
subdivision 5m
, for those services without a county contract or county approval. deleted text beginThere is
no county share when medical assistance pays the CCBHC prospective payment.
deleted text end As part
of the certification process in paragraph (a), the commissioner shall require a letter of support
from the CCBHC's host county confirming that the CCBHC and the county or counties it
serves have an ongoing relationship to facilitate access and continuity of care, especially
for individuals who are uninsured or who may go on and off medical assistance.

(d) When the standards listed in paragraph (a) or other applicable standards conflict or
address similar issues in duplicative or incompatible ways, the commissioner may grant
variances to state requirements if the variances do not conflict with federal requirements.
If standards overlap, the commissioner may substitute all or a part of a licensure or
certification that is substantially the same as another licensure or certification. The
commissioner shall consult with stakeholders, as described in subdivision 4, before granting
variances under this provision. For the CCBHC that is certified but not approved for
prospective payment under section 256B.0625, subdivision 5m, the commissioner may
grant a variance under this paragraph if the variance does not increase the state share of
costs.

(e) The commissioner shall issue a list of required evidence-based practices to be
delivered by CCBHCs, and may also provide a list of recommended evidence-based practices.
The commissioner may update the list to reflect advances in outcomes research and medical
services for persons living with mental illnesses or substance use disorders. The commissioner
shall take into consideration the adequacy of evidence to support the efficacy of the practice,
the quality of workforce available, and the current availability of the practice in the state.
At least 30 days before issuing the initial list and any revisions, the commissioner shall
provide stakeholders with an opportunity to comment.

(f) The commissioner shall recertify CCBHCs at least every three years. The
commissioner shall establish a process for decertification and shall require corrective action,
medical assistance repayment, or decertification of a CCBHC that no longer meets the
requirements in this section or that fails to meet the standards provided by the commissioner
in the application and certification process.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.11, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

Adult foster care and community residential setting license capacity.

(a)
The commissioner shall issue adult foster care and community residential setting licenses
with a maximum licensed capacity of four beds, including nonstaff roomers and boarders,
except that the commissioner may issue a license with a capacity of five beds, including
roomers and boarders, according to paragraphs (b) to (g).

(b) The license holder may have a maximum license capacity of five if all persons in
care are age 55 or over and do not have a serious and persistent mental illness or a
developmental disability.

(c) The commissioner may grant variances to paragraph (b) to allow a facility with a
licensed capacity of up to five persons to admit an individual under the age of 55 if the
variance complies with section 245A.04, subdivision 9, and approval of the variance is
recommended by the county in which the licensed facility is located.

(d) The commissioner may grant variances to paragraph (a) to allow the use of an
additional bed, up to five, for emergency crisis services for a person with serious and
persistent mental illness or a developmental disability, regardless of age, if the variance
complies with section 245A.04, subdivision 9, and approval of the variance is recommended
by the county in which the licensed facility is located.

(e) The commissioner may grant a variance to paragraph (b) to allow for the use of an
additional bed, up to five, for respite services, as defined in section 245A.02, for persons
with disabilities, regardless of age, if the variance complies with sections 245A.03,
subdivision 7
, and 245A.04, subdivision 9, and approval of the variance is recommended
by the county in which the licensed facility is located. Respite care may be provided under
the following conditions:

(1) staffing ratios cannot be reduced below the approved level for the individuals being
served in the home on a permanent basis;

(2) no more than two different individuals can be accepted for respite services in any
calendar month and the total respite days may not exceed 120 days per program in any
calendar year;

(3) the person receiving respite services must have his or her own bedroom, which could
be used for alternative purposes when not used as a respite bedroom, and cannot be the
room of another person who lives in the facility; and

(4) individuals living in the facility must be notified when the variance is approved. The
provider must give 60 days' notice in writing to the residents and their legal representatives
prior to accepting the first respite placement. Notice must be given to residents at least two
days prior to service initiation, or as soon as the license holder is able if they receive notice
of the need for respite less than two days prior to initiation, each time a respite client will
be served, unless the requirement for this notice is waived by the resident or legal guardian.

(f) The commissioner may issue an adult foster care or community residential setting
license with a capacity of five adults if the fifth bed does not increase the overall statewide
capacity of licensed adult foster care or community residential setting beds in homes that
are not the primary residence of the license holder, as identified in a plan submitted to the
commissioner by the county, when the capacity is recommended by the county licensing
agency of the county in which the facility is located and if the recommendation verifies
that:

(1) the facility meets the physical environment requirements in the adult foster care
licensing rule;

(2) the five-bed living arrangement is specified for each resident in the resident's:

(i) individualized plan of care;

(ii) individual service plan under section 256B.092, subdivision 1b, if required; or

(iii) individual resident placement agreement under Minnesota Rules, part 9555.5105,
subpart 19, if required;

(3) the license holder obtains written and signed informed consent from each resident
or resident's legal representative documenting the resident's informed choice to remain
living in the home and that the resident's refusal to consent would not have resulted in
service termination; and

(4) the facility was licensed for adult foster care before March 1, deleted text begin2011deleted text endnew text begin 2016new text end.

(g) The commissioner shall not issue a new adult foster care license under paragraph (f)
after deleted text beginJune 30deleted text end new text beginDecember 31new text end, deleted text begin2019deleted text endnew text begin 2020new text end. The commissioner shall allow a facility with an
adult foster care license issued under paragraph (f) before deleted text beginJune 30deleted text end new text beginDecember 31new text end, deleted text begin2019deleted text endnew text begin 2020new text end,
to continue with a capacity of five adults if the license holder continues to comply with the
requirements in paragraph (f).

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 32a. new text end

new text begin Sexual violence. new text end

new text begin "Sexual violence" means the use of sexual actions or words
that are unwanted or harmful to another person.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.071, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Assessment and initial service planning.

(a) Within 15 days of service initiation
the license holder must complete a preliminary coordinated service and support plan
addendum based on the coordinated service and support plan.

(b) Within the scope of services, the license holder must, at a minimum, complete
assessments in the following areas before the 45-day planning meeting:

(1) the person's ability to self-manage health and medical needs to maintain or improve
physical, mental, and emotional well-being, including, when applicable, allergies, seizures,
choking, special dietary needs, chronic medical conditions, self-administration of medication
or treatment orders, preventative screening, and medical and dental appointments;

(2) the person's ability to self-manage personal safety to avoid injury or accident in the
service setting, including, when applicable, risk of falling, mobility, regulating water
temperature, community survival skills, water safety skills, and sensory disabilities; and

(3) the person's ability to self-manage symptoms or behavior that may otherwise result
in an incident as defined in section 245D.02, subdivision 11, clauses (4) to (7), suspension
or termination of services by the license holder, or other symptoms or behaviors that may
jeopardize the health and welfare of the person or others.

Assessments must produce information about the person that describes the person's overall
strengths, functional skills and abilities, and behaviors or symptoms. Assessments must be
based on the person's status within the last 12 months at the time of service initiation.
Assessments based on older information must be documented and justified. Assessments
must be conducted annually at a minimum or within 30 days of a written request from the
person or the person's legal representative or case manager. The results must be reviewed
by the support team or expanded support team as part of a service plan review.

(c) deleted text beginWithindeleted text endnew text begin Before providingnew text end 45 days of service deleted text begininitiationdeleted text endnew text begin or within 60 calendar days of
service initiation, whichever is shorter
new text end, the license holder must meet with the person, the
person's legal representative, the case manager, deleted text beginanddeleted text end other members of the support team or
expanded support teamnew text begin, and other people as identified by the person or the person's legal
representative
new text end to determine the following based on information obtained from the assessments
identified in paragraph (b), the person's identified needs in the coordinated service and
support plan, and the requirements in subdivision 4 and section 245D.07, subdivision 1a:

(1) the scope of the services to be provided to support the person's daily needs and
activities;

(2) the person's desired outcomes and the supports necessary to accomplish the person's
desired outcomes;

(3) the person's preferences for how services and supports are provided, including how
the provider will support the person to have control of the person's schedule;

(4) whether the current service setting is the most integrated setting available and
appropriate for the person; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

new text begin (5) opportunities to develop and maintain essential and life-enriching skills, abilities,
strengths, interests, and preferences;
new text end

new text begin (6) opportunities for community access, participation, and inclusion in preferred
community activities;
new text end

new text begin (7) opportunities to develop and strengthen personal relationships with other persons of
the person's choice in the community;
new text end

new text begin (8) opportunities to seek competitive employment and work at competitively paying
jobs in the community; and
new text end

deleted text begin (5)deleted text endnew text begin (9)new text end how services must be coordinated across other providers licensed under this
chapter serving the person and members of the support team or expanded support team to
ensure continuity of care and coordination of services for the person.

(d) A discussion of how technology might be used to meet the person's desired outcomes
must be included in the 45-day planning meeting. The coordinated service and support plan
or support plan addendum must include a summary of this discussion. The summary must
include a statement regarding any decision that is made regarding the use of technology
and a description of any further research that needs to be completed before a decision
regarding the use of technology can be made. Nothing in this paragraph requires that the
coordinated service and support plan include the use of technology for the provision of
services.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.081, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Coordination and evaluation of individual service delivery.

(a) Delivery
and evaluation of services provided by the license holder must be coordinated by a designated
staff person. new text beginExcept as provided in clause (3), new text endthe designated coordinator must provide
supervision, support, and evaluation of activities that include:

(1) oversight of the license holder's responsibilities assigned in the person's coordinated
service and support plan and the coordinated service and support plan addendum;

(2) taking the action necessary to facilitate the accomplishment of the outcomes according
to the requirements in section 245D.07;

(3) instruction and assistance to direct support staff implementing the coordinated service
and support plan and the service outcomes, including direct observation of service delivery
sufficient to assess staff competencynew text begin. The designated coordinator may delegate the direct
observation and competency assessment of the service delivery activities of direct support
staff to an individual whom the designated coordinator has previously deemed competent
in those activities
new text end; and

(4) evaluation of the effectiveness of service delivery, methodologies, and progress on
the person's outcomes based on the measurable and observable criteria for identifying when
the desired outcome has been achieved according to the requirements in section 245D.07.

(b) The license holder must ensure that the designated coordinator is competent to
perform the required duties identified in paragraph (a) through education, training, and work
experience relevant to the primary disability of persons served by the license holder and
the individual persons for whom the designated coordinator is responsible. The designated
coordinator must have the skills and ability necessary to develop effective plans and to
design and use data systems to measure effectiveness of services and supports. The license
holder must verify and document competence according to the requirements in section
245D.09, subdivision 3. The designated coordinator must minimally have:

(1) a baccalaureate degree in a field related to human services, and one year of full-time
work experience providing direct care services to persons with disabilities or persons age
65 and older;

(2) an associate degree in a field related to human services, and two years of full-time
work experience providing direct care services to persons with disabilities or persons age
65 and older;

(3) a diploma in a field related to human services from an accredited postsecondary
institution and three years of full-time work experience providing direct care services to
persons with disabilities or persons age 65 and older; or

(4) a minimum of 50 hours of education and training related to human services and
disabilities; and

(5) four years of full-time work experience providing direct care services to persons
with disabilities or persons age 65 and older under the supervision of a staff person who
meets the qualifications identified in clauses (1) to (3).

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.09, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Orientation to program requirements.

Except for a license holder who does
not supervise any direct support staff, within 60 calendar days of hire, unless stated otherwise,
the license holder must provide and ensure completion of orientation sufficient to create
staff competency for direct support staff that combines supervised on-the-job training with
review of and instruction in the following areas:

(1) the job description and how to complete specific job functions, including:

(i) responding to and reporting incidents as required under section 245D.06, subdivision
1; and

(ii) following safety practices established by the license holder and as required in section
245D.06, subdivision 2;

(2) the license holder's current policies and procedures required under this chapter,
including their location and access, and staff responsibilities related to implementation of
those policies and procedures;

(3) data privacy requirements according to sections 13.01 to 13.10 and 13.46, the federal
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), and staff
responsibilities related to complying with data privacy practices;

(4) the service recipient rights and staff responsibilities related to ensuring the exercise
and protection of those rights according to the requirements in section 245D.04;

(5) sections 245A.65, 245A.66, 626.556, and 626.557, governing maltreatment reporting
and service planning for children and vulnerable adults, and staff responsibilities related to
protecting persons from maltreatment and reporting maltreatment. This orientation must be
provided within 72 hours of first providing direct contact services and annually thereafter
according to section 245A.65, subdivision 3;

(6) the principles of person-centered service planning and delivery as identified in section
245D.07, subdivision 1a, and how they apply to direct support service provided by the staff
person;

(7) the safe and correct use of manual restraint on an emergency basis according to the
requirements in section 245D.061 or successor provisions, and what constitutes the use of
restraints, time out, and seclusion, including chemical restraint;

(8) staff responsibilities related to prohibited procedures under section 245D.06,
subdivision 5, or successor provisions, why such procedures are not effective for reducing
or eliminating symptoms or undesired behavior, and why such procedures are not safe;

(9) basic first aid; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(10) new text beginstrategies to minimize the risk of sexual violence, including concepts of healthy
relationships, consent, and bodily autonomy of people with disabilities; and
new text end

new text begin (11) new text endother topics as determined necessary in the person's coordinated service and support
plan by the case manager or other areas identified by the license holder.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.09, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:


Subd. 4a.

Orientation to individual service recipient needs.

(a) Before having
unsupervised direct contact with a person served by the program, or for whom the staff
person has not previously provided direct support, or any time the plans or procedures
identified in paragraphs (b) to (f) are revised, the staff person must review and receive
instruction on the requirements in paragraphs (b) to (f) as they relate to the staff person's
job functions for that person.

(b) For community residential services, training and competency evaluations must include
the following, if identified in the coordinated service and support plan:

(1) appropriate and safe techniques in personal hygiene and grooming, including hair
care; bathing; care of teeth, gums, and oral prosthetic devices; and other activities of daily
living (ADLs) as defined under section 256B.0659, subdivision 1;

(2) an understanding of what constitutes a healthy diet according to data from the Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention and the skills necessary to prepare that diet; and

(3) skills necessary to provide appropriate support in instrumental activities of daily
living (IADLs) as defined under section 256B.0659, subdivision 1.

(c) The staff person must review and receive instruction on the person's coordinated
service and support plan or coordinated service and support plan addendum as it relates to
the responsibilities assigned to the license holder, and when applicable, the person's individual
abuse prevention plan, to achieve and demonstrate an understanding of the person as a
unique individual, and how to implement those plans.

(d) The staff person must review and receive instruction on medication setup, assistance,
or administration procedures established for the person when assigned to the license holder
according to section 245D.05, subdivision 1, paragraph (b). Unlicensed staff may perform
medication setup or medication administration only after successful completion of a
medication setup or medication administration training, from a training curriculum developed
by a registered nurse or appropriate licensed health professional. The training curriculum
must incorporate an observed skill assessment conducted by the trainer to ensure unlicensed
staff demonstrate the ability to safely and correctly follow medication procedures.

Medication administration must be taught by a registered nurse, clinical nurse specialist,
certified nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or physician if, at the time of service initiation
or any time thereafter, the person has or develops a health care condition that affects the
service options available to the person because the condition requires:

(1) specialized or intensive medical or nursing supervision; and

(2) nonmedical service providers to adapt their services to accommodate the health and
safety needs of the person.

(e) The staff person must review and receive instruction on the safe and correct operation
of medical equipment used by the person to sustain life or to monitor a medical condition
that could become life-threatening without proper use of the medical equipment, including
but not limited to ventilators, feeding tubes, or endotracheal tubes. The training must be
provided by a licensed health care professional or a manufacturer's representative and
incorporate an observed skill assessment to ensure staff demonstrate the ability to safely
and correctly operate the equipment according to the treatment orders and the manufacturer's
instructions.

(f) The staff person must review and receive instruction on mental health crisis response,
de-escalation techniques, and suicide intervention when providing direct support to a person
with a serious mental illness.

(g) In the event of an emergency service initiation, the license holder must ensure the
training required in this subdivision occurs within 72 hours of the direct support staff person
first having unsupervised contact with the person receiving services. The license holder
must document the reason for the unplanned or emergency service initiation and maintain
the documentation in the person's service recipient record.

(h) License holders who provide direct support services themselves must complete the
orientation required in subdivision 4, clauses (3) to deleted text begin(10)deleted text endnew text begin (11)new text end.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245D.09, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:


Subd. 5.

Annual training.

A license holder must provide annual training to direct support
staff on the topics identified in subdivision 4, clauses (3) to deleted text begin(10)deleted text endnew text begin (11)new text end. If the direct support
staff has a first aid certification, annual training under subdivision 4, clause (9), is not
required as long as the certification remains current.

Sec. 9.

new text begin [254A.21] FETAL ALCOHOL SPECTRUM DISORDERS PREVENTION
GRANTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall award a grant to a statewide organization
that focuses solely on prevention of and intervention with fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.
The grant recipient must make subgrants to eligible regional collaboratives in rural and
urban areas of the state for the purposes specified in paragraph (c).
new text end

new text begin (b) "Eligible regional collaboratives" means a partnership between at least one local
government or tribal government and at least one community-based organization and, where
available, a family home visiting program. For purposes of this paragraph, a local government
includes a county or a multicounty organization, a county-based purchasing entity, or a
community health board.
new text end

new text begin (c) Eligible regional collaboratives must use subgrant funds to reduce the incidence of
fetal alcohol spectrum disorders and other prenatal drug-related effects in children in
Minnesota by identifying and serving pregnant women suspected of or known to use or
abuse alcohol or other drugs. Eligible regional collaboratives must provide intensive services
to chemically dependent women to increase positive birth outcomes.
new text end

new text begin (d) An eligible regional collaborative that receives a subgrant under this section must
report to the grant recipient by January 15 of each year on the services and programs funded
by the subgrant. The report must include measurable outcomes for the previous year,
including the number of pregnant women served and the number of toxic-free babies born.
The grant recipient must compile the information in the subgrant reports and submit a
summary report to the commissioner of human services by February 15 of each year.
new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.975, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Self-directed caregiver grants.

deleted text beginBeginning on July 1, 2019,deleted text end The Minnesota
Board on Aging shallnew text begin, in consultation with area agencies on aging and other community
caregiver stakeholders,
new text end administer self-directed caregiver grants to support at-risk family
caregivers of older adults or others eligible under the Older Americans Act of 1965, United
States Code, title 42, chapter 35, sections 3001 to 3058ff, to sustain family caregivers in
the caregivers' roles so older adults can remain at home longer. deleted text beginThe board shall give priority
to consumers referred under section 256.975, subdivision 7, paragraph (d)
deleted text endnew text begin The board shall
submit by January 15, 2022, and each January 15 thereafter, a progress report on the
self-directed caregiver grants program to the chairs and ranking minority members of the
senate and house of representatives committees and divisions with jurisdiction over human
services. The progress report must include metrics on the use of the grant program
new text end.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.056, subdivision 5c, is
amended to read:


Subd. 5c.

Excess income standard.

(a) The excess income standard for parents and
caretaker relatives, pregnant women, infants, and children ages two through 20 is the standard
specified in subdivision 4, paragraph (b).

(b) The excess income standard for a person whose eligibility is based on blindness,
disability, or age of 65 or more years shall equal:

(1) 81 percent of the federal poverty guidelines; and

(2) effective July 1, 2022, deleted text begin100 percent of the federal poverty guidelinesdeleted text endnew text begin the standard
specified in subdivision 4, paragraph (a)
new text end.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.0625, subdivision 5m, is
amended to read:


Subd. 5m.

Certified community behavioral health clinic services.

(a) Medical
assistance covers certified community behavioral health clinic (CCBHC) services that meet
the requirements of section 245.735, subdivision 3.

(b) The commissioner shall establish standards and methodologies for a prospective
payment system for medical assistance payments for services delivered by a CCBHC, in
accordance with guidance issued by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. The
commissioner shall include a quality bonus payment in the prospective payment system
based on federal criteria.new text begin There is no county share for medical assistance services when
reimbursed through the CCBHC prospective payment system.
new text end

deleted text begin (c) To the extent allowed by federal law, the commissioner may limit the number of
CCBHCs for the prospective payment system in paragraph (b) to ensure that the projected
claims do not exceed the money appropriated for this purpose. The commissioner shall
apply the following priorities, in the order listed, to give preference to clinics that:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) provide a comprehensive range of services and evidence-based practices for all age
groups, with services being fully coordinated and integrated;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) are certified as CCBHCs during the federal section 223 CCBHC demonstration
period;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) receive CCBHC grants from the United States Department of Health and Human
Services; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4) focus on serving individuals in tribal areas and other underserved communities.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end Unless otherwise indicated in applicable federal requirements, the prospective
payment system must continue to be based on the federal instructions issued for the federal
section 223 CCBHC demonstration, except:

(1) the commissioner shall rebase CCBHC rates at least every three years;

(2) the commissioner shall provide for a 60-day appeals process of the rebasing;

(3) the prohibition against inclusion of new facilities in the demonstration does not apply
after the demonstration ends;

(4) the prospective payment rate under this section does not apply to services rendered
by CCBHCs to individuals who are dually eligible for Medicare and medical assistance
when Medicare is the primary payer for the service. An entity that receives a prospective
payment system rate that overlaps with the CCBHC rate is not eligible for the CCBHC rate;

(5) payments for CCBHC services to individuals enrolled in managed care shall be
coordinated with the state's phase-out of CCBHC wrap payments;

(6) initial prospective payment rates for CCBHCs certified after July 1, 2019, shall be
based on rates for comparable CCBHCs. If no comparable provider exists, the commissioner
shall compute a CCBHC-specific rate based upon the CCBHC's audited costs adjusted for
changes in the scope of services; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(7) the prospective payment rate for each CCBHC shall be adjusted annually by the
Medicare Economic Index as defined for the federal section 223 CCBHC demonstrationdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
and
new text end

new text begin (8) the commissioner shall seek federal approval for a CCBHC rate methodology that
allows for rate modifications based on changes in scope for an individual CCBHC, including
for changes to the type, intensity, or duration of services. Upon federal approval, a CCBHC
may submit a change of scope request to the commissioner if the change in scope would
result in a change of 2.5 percent or more in the prospective payment system rate currently
received by the CCBHC. CCBHC change of scope requests must be according to a format
and timeline to be determined by the commissioner in consultation with CCBHCs.
new text end

new text begin (d) Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans shall reimburse CCBHC
providers at the prospective payment rate. The commissioner shall monitor the effect of
this requirement on the rate of access to the services delivered by CCBHC providers. If, for
any contract year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner
must adjust the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing
plans for that contract year to reflect the removal of this provision. Contracts between
managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans and providers to whom this paragraph
applies must allow recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted
in accordance with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed the amount equal
to any increase in rates that results from this provision. This paragraph expires if federal
approval is not received for this paragraph at any time.
new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0625, subdivision 56a, is amended to
read:


Subd. 56a.

deleted text beginPost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginOfficer-involved new text endcommunity-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end new text begincare
new text end coordination.

(a) Medical assistance covers deleted text beginpost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginofficer-involved new text endcommunity-based
deleted text begin servicedeleted text end new text begincare new text endcoordination for an individual who:

(1) has deleted text beginbeen identified as havingdeleted text end new text beginscreened positive for benefiting from treatment for new text enda
mental illness or substance use disorder using a deleted text beginscreeningdeleted text end tool approved by the commissioner;

(2) does not require the security of a public detention facility and is not considered an
inmate of a public institution as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section
435.1010;

(3) meets the eligibility requirements in section 256B.056; and

(4) has agreed to participate in deleted text beginpost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginofficer-involved new text endcommunity-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end
new text begin care new text endcoordination deleted text beginthrough a diversion contract in lieu of incarcerationdeleted text end.

(b) deleted text beginPost-arrestdeleted text endnew text begin Officer-involvednew text end community-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end new text begincare new text endcoordination means
navigating services to address a client's mental health, chemical health, social, economic,
and housing needs, or any other activity targeted at reducing the incidence of jail utilization
and connecting individuals with existing covered services available to them, including, but
not limited to, targeted case management, waiver case management, or care coordination.

(c) deleted text beginPost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginOfficer-involved new text endcommunity-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end new text begincare new text endcoordination must be
provided by an individual who is an employee of deleted text begina countydeleted text end or is under contract with a countynew text begin,
or is an employee of or under contract with an Indian health service facility or facility owned
and operated by a tribe or a tribal organization operating under Public Law 93-638 as a 638
facility
new text end to provide deleted text beginpost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginofficer-involved new text endcommunity-based new text begincare new text endcoordination and is
qualified under one of the following criteria:

(1) a licensed mental health professional as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 18,
clauses (1) to (6);

(2) a mental health practitioner as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 17, working
under the clinical supervision of a mental health professional; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(3) a certified peer specialist under section 256B.0615, working under the clinical
supervision of a mental health professionaldeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (4) an individual qualified as an alcohol and drug counselor under section 245G.11,
subdivision 5; or
new text end

new text begin (5) a recovery peer qualified under section 245G.11, subdivision 8, working under the
supervision of an individual qualified as an alcohol and drug counselor under section
245G.11, subdivision 5.
new text end

(d) Reimbursement is allowed for up to 60 days following the initial determination of
eligibility.

(e) Providers of deleted text beginpost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginofficer-involved new text endcommunity-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end new text begincare new text endcoordination
shall annually report to the commissioner on the number of individuals served, and number
of the community-based services that were accessed by recipients. The commissioner shall
ensure that services and payments provided under deleted text beginpost-arrestdeleted text end new text beginofficer-involved
new text end community-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text end new text begincare new text endcoordination do not duplicate services or payments provided
under section 256B.0625, subdivision 20, 256B.0753, 256B.0755, or 256B.0757.

(f) Notwithstanding section 256B.19, subdivision 1, the nonfederal share of cost for
deleted text begin post-arrestdeleted text endnew text begin officer-involvednew text end community-based deleted text beginservicedeleted text endnew text begin carenew text end coordination services shall be
provided by the county providing the services, from sources other than federal funds or
funds used to match other federal funds.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0653, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Skilled nurse visit services.

(a) Skilled nurse visit services must be provided
by a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse under the supervision of a registered nurse,
according to the written plan of care and accepted standards of medical and nursing practice
according to chapter 148. Skilled nurse visit services must be ordered by a physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant and documented in a plan of care
that is reviewed and approved by the ordering deleted text beginphysician, advanced practice registered nurse,
or physician assistant
deleted text endnew text begin practitionernew text end at least once every 60 days. All skilled nurse visits must
be medically necessary and provided in the recipient's home residence or in the community
where normal life activities take the recipient, except as allowed under section 256B.0625,
subdivision 6a
.

(b) Skilled nurse visits include face-to-face and telehomecare visits with a limit of up
to two visits per day per recipient. All visits must be based on assessed needs.

(c) Telehomecare skilled nurse visits are allowed when the recipient's health status can
be accurately measured and assessed without a need for a face-to-face, hands-on encounter.
All telehomecare skilled nurse visits must have authorization and are paid at the same
allowable rates as face-to-face skilled nurse visits.

(d) The provision of telehomecare must be made via live, two-way interactive audiovisual
technology and may be augmented by utilizing store-and-forward technologies. Individually
identifiable patient data obtained through real-time or store-and-forward technology must
be maintained as health records according to sections 144.291 to 144.298. If the video is
used for research, training, or other purposes unrelated to the care of the patient, the identity
of the patient must be concealed.

(e) Authorization for skilled nurse visits must be completed under section 256B.0652.
A total of nine face-to-face skilled nurse visits per calendar year do not require authorization.
All telehomecare skilled nurse visits require authorization.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0653, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Home care therapies.

(a) Home care therapies include the following: physical
therapy, occupational therapy, respiratory therapy, and speech and language pathology
therapy services.

(b) Home care therapies must be:

(1) provided in the recipient's residence or in the community where normal life activities
take the recipient after it has been determined the recipient is unable to access outpatient
therapy;

(2) prescribed, ordered, or referred by a physiciannew text begin, advanced practice registered nurse,
or physician assistant,
new text end and documented in a plan of care and reviewed, according to
Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0390;

(3) assessed by an appropriate therapist; and

(4) provided by a Medicare-certified home health agency enrolled as a Medicaid provider
agency.

(c) Restorative and specialized maintenance therapies must be provided according to
Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0390. Physical and occupational therapy assistants may be used
as allowed under Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0390, subpart 1, item B.

(d) For both physical and occupational therapies, the therapist and the therapist's assistant
may not both bill for services provided to a recipient on the same day.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0653, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Face-to-face encounter.

(a) A face-to-face encounter by a qualifying provider
must be completed for all home health services regardless of the need for prior authorization,
except when providing a onetime perinatal visit by skilled nursing. The face-to-face encounter
may occur through telemedicine as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 3b. The
encounter must be related to the primary reason the recipient requires home health services
and must occur within the 90 days before or the 30 days after the start of services. The
face-to-face encounter may be conducted by one of the following practitioners, licensed in
Minnesota:

(1) a physician;

(2) deleted text begina nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist;deleted text end new text beginan advanced practice registered nurse;
or
new text end

deleted text begin (3) a certified nurse midwife; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4)deleted text endnew text begin (3)new text end a physician assistant.

(b) The allowed deleted text beginnonphysiciandeleted text end practitioner, as described in this subdivision, performing
the face-to-face encounter new text beginbut who is not the ordering practitionernew text end must communicate the
clinical findings of that face-to-face encounter to the ordering deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text end new text beginpractitionernew text end. deleted text beginThosedeleted text end
new text begin The new text endclinical findings new text beginof that face-to-face encounter new text endmust be incorporated into a written or
electronic document included in the recipient's medical record. To assure clinical correlation
between the face-to-face encounter and the associated home health services, the deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin
practitioner
new text end responsible for ordering the services must:

(1) document that the face-to-face encounter, which is related to the primary reason the
recipient requires home health services, occurred within the required time period; and

(2) indicate the practitioner who conducted the encounter and the date of the encounter.

(c) For home health services requiring authorization, including prior authorization, home
health agencies must retain the qualifying documentation of a face-to-face encounter as part
of the recipient health service record, and submit the qualifying documentation to the
commissioner or the commissioner's designee upon request.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0654, subdivision 1, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 121, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

(a) "Complex home care nursing" means home care nursing
services provided to recipients who meet the criteria for regular home care nursing and
require life-sustaining interventions to reduce the risk of long-term injury or death.

(b) "Home care nursing" means ongoing hourly nursing ordered by a physician deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end
advanced practice registered nursenew text begin, or physician assistantnew text end and services performed by a
registered nurse or licensed practical nurse within the scope of practice as defined by the
Minnesota Nurse Practice Act under sections 148.171 to 148.285, in order to maintain or
restore a person's health.

(c) "Home care nursing agency" means a medical assistance enrolled provider licensed
under chapter 144A to provide home care nursing services.

(d) "Regular home care nursing" means home care nursing provided because:

(1) the recipient requires more individual and continuous care than can be provided
during a skilled nurse visit; or

(2) the cares are outside of the scope of services that can be provided by a home health
aide or personal care assistant.

(e) "Shared home care nursing" means the provision of home care nursing services by
a home care nurse to two recipients at the same time and in the same setting.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0654, subdivision 2a, as amended by
Laws 2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 122, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

Home care nursing services.

(a) Home care nursing services must be used:

(1) in the recipient's home or outside the home when normal life activities require;

(2) when the recipient requires more individual and continuous care than can be provided
during a skilled nurse visit; and

(3) when the care required is outside of the scope of services that can be provided by a
home health aide or personal care assistant.

(b) Home care nursing services must be:

(1) assessed by a registered nurse on a form approved by the commissioner;

(2) ordered by a physician deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end advanced practice registered nursenew text begin, or physician assistantnew text end
and documented in a plan of care that is reviewed by the deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin ordering practitionernew text end at
least once every 60 days; and

(3) authorized by the commissioner under section 256B.0652.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0654, subdivision 3, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 123, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Shared home care nursing option.

(a) Medical assistance payments for shared
home care nursing services by a home care nurse shall be limited according to this
subdivision. Unless otherwise provided in this subdivision, all other statutory and regulatory
provisions relating to home care nursing services apply to shared home care nursing services.
Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to reduce the total number of home care
nursing hours authorized for an individual recipient.

(b) Shared home care nursing is the provision of nursing services by a home care nurse
to two medical assistance eligible recipients at the same time and in the same setting. This
subdivision does not apply when a home care nurse is caring for multiple recipients in more
than one setting.

(c) For the purposes of this subdivision, "setting" means:

(1) the home residence or foster care home of one of the individual recipients as defined
in section 256B.0651;

(2) a child care program licensed under chapter 245A or operated by a local school
district or private school;

(3) an adult day care service licensed under chapter 245A; or

(4) outside the home residence or foster care home of one of the recipients when normal
life activities take the recipients outside the home.

(d) The home care nursing agency must offer the recipient the option of shared or
one-on-one home care nursing services. The recipient may withdraw from participating in
a shared service arrangement at any time.

(e) The recipient or the recipient's legal representative, and the recipient's physician deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end
advanced practice registered nursenew text begin, or physician assistantnew text end, in conjunction with the home
care nursing agency, shall determine:

(1) whether shared home care nursing care is an appropriate option based on the individual
needs and preferences of the recipient; and

(2) the amount of shared home care nursing services authorized as part of the overall
authorization of nursing services.

(f) The recipient or the recipient's legal representative, in conjunction with the home
care nursing agency, shall approve the setting, grouping, and arrangement of shared home
care nursing care based on the individual needs and preferences of the recipients. Decisions
on the selection of recipients to share services must be based on the ages of the recipients,
compatibility, and coordination of their care needs.

(g) The following items must be considered by the recipient or the recipient's legal
representative and the home care nursing agency, and documented in the recipient's health
service record:

(1) the additional training needed by the home care nurse to provide care to two recipients
in the same setting and to ensure that the needs of the recipients are met appropriately and
safely;

(2) the setting in which the shared home care nursing care will be provided;

(3) the ongoing monitoring and evaluation of the effectiveness and appropriateness of
the service and process used to make changes in service or setting;

(4) a contingency plan which accounts for absence of the recipient in a shared home
care nursing setting due to illness or other circumstances;

(5) staffing backup contingencies in the event of employee illness or absence; and

(6) arrangements for additional assistance to respond to urgent or emergency care needs
of the recipients.

(h) The documentation for shared home care nursing must be on a form approved by
the commissioner for each individual recipient sharing home care nursing. The documentation
must be part of the recipient's health service record and include:

(1) permission by the recipient or the recipient's legal representative for the maximum
number of shared nursing hours per week chosen by the recipient and permission for shared
home care nursing services provided in and outside the recipient's home residence;

(2) revocation by the recipient or the recipient's legal representative for the shared home
care nursing permission, or services provided to others in and outside the recipient's
residence; and

(3) daily documentation of the shared home care nursing services provided by each
identified home care nurse, including:

(i) the names of each recipient receiving shared home care nursing services;

(ii) the setting for the shared services, including the starting and ending times that the
recipient received shared home care nursing care; and

(iii) notes by the home care nurse regarding changes in the recipient's condition, problems
that may arise from the sharing of home care nursing services, and scheduling and care
issues.

(i) The commissioner shall provide a rate methodology for shared home care nursing.
For two persons sharing nursing care, the rate paid to a provider must not exceed 1.5 times
the regular home care nursing rates paid for serving a single individual by a registered nurse
or licensed practical nurse. These rates apply only to situations in which both recipients are
present and receive shared home care nursing care on the date for which the service is billed.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0654, subdivision 4, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 124, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Hardship criteria; home care nursing.

(a) Payment is allowed for extraordinary
services that require specialized nursing skills and are provided by parents of minor children,
family foster parents, spouses, and legal guardians who are providing home care nursing
care under the following conditions:

(1) the provision of these services is not legally required of the parents, spouses, or legal
guardians;

(2) the services are necessary to prevent hospitalization of the recipient; and

(3) the recipient is eligible for state plan home care or a home and community-based
waiver and one of the following hardship criteria are met:

(i) the parent, spouse, or legal guardian resigns from a part-time or full-time job to
provide nursing care for the recipient;

(ii) the parent, spouse, or legal guardian goes from a full-time to a part-time job with
less compensation to provide nursing care for the recipient;

(iii) the parent, spouse, or legal guardian takes a leave of absence without pay to provide
nursing care for the recipient; or

(iv) because of labor conditions, special language needs, or intermittent hours of care
needed, the parent, spouse, or legal guardian is needed in order to provide adequate home
care nursing services to meet the medical needs of the recipient.

(b) Home care nursing may be provided by a parent, spouse, family foster parent, or
legal guardian who is a nurse licensed in Minnesota. Home care nursing services provided
by a parent, spouse, family foster parent, or legal guardian cannot be used in lieu of nursing
services covered and available under liable third-party payors, including Medicare. The
home care nursing provided by a parent, spouse, family foster parent, or legal guardian must
be included in the service agreement. Authorized nursing services for a single recipient or
recipients with the same residence and provided by the parent, spouse, family foster parent,
or legal guardian may not exceed 50 percent of the total approved nursing hours, or eight
hours per day, whichever is less, up to a maximum of 40 hours per week. A parent or parents,
spouse, family foster parent, or legal guardian shall not provide more than 40 hours of
services in a seven-day period. For parents, family foster parents, and legal guardians, 40
hours is the total amount allowed regardless of the number of children or adults who receive
services. Nothing in this subdivision precludes the parent's, spouse's, or legal guardian's
obligation of assuming the nonreimbursed family responsibilities of emergency backup
caregiver and primary caregiver.

(c) A parent, family foster parent, or a spouse may not be paid to provide home care
nursing care if:

(1) the parent or spouse fails to pass a criminal background check according to chapter
245C;

(2) it has been determined by the home care nursing agency, the case manager, or the
physician deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end advanced practice registered nursenew text begin, or physician assistantnew text end that the home care
nursing provided by the parent, family foster parent, spouse, or legal guardian is unsafe; or

(3) the parent, family foster parent, spouse, or legal guardian does not follow physician
deleted text begin ordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end advanced practice registered nursenew text begin, or physician assistantnew text end orders.

(d) For purposes of this section, "assessment" means a review and evaluation of a
recipient's need for home care services conducted in person. Assessments for home care
nursing must be conducted by a registered nurse.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.0711, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

For purposes of this section:

(a) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services unless otherwise
indicated.

(b) "Covered program" means a program to provide direct support services funded in
whole or in part by the state of Minnesota, including the community first services and
supports programnew text begin under section 256B.85, subdivision 2, paragraph (e)new text end; deleted text beginconsumer directeddeleted text endnew text begin
consumer-directed
new text end community supports deleted text beginservicesdeleted text end and extended state plan personal care
assistance services available under programs established pursuant to home and
community-based service waivers authorized under section 1915(c) of the Social Security
Act, and Minnesota Statutes, including, but not limited to, chapter 256S and sections
256B.092 and 256B.49, and under the alternative care programdeleted text begin, as offered pursuant todeleted text endnew text begin undernew text end
section 256B.0913; the personal care assistance choice programdeleted text begin, as established pursuant todeleted text endnew text begin
under
new text end section 256B.0659, subdivisions 18 to 20; and any similar program that may provide
similar services in the future.

(c) "Direct support services" means personal care assistance services covered by medical
assistance under section 256B.0625, subdivisions 19a and 19c; assistance with activities of
daily living as defined in section 256B.0659, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and instrumental
activities of daily living as defined in section 256B.0659, subdivision 1, paragraph (i); and
other similar, in-home, nonprofessional long-term services and supports provided to an
elderly person or person with a disability by the person's employee or the employee of the
person's representative to meet such person's daily living needs and ensure that such person
may adequately function in the person's home and have safe access to the community.

(d) "Individual provider" means an individual selected by and working under the direction
of a participant in a covered program, or a participant's representative, to provide direct
support services to the participant, but does not include an employee of a provider agency,
subject to the agency's direction and control commensurate with agency employee status.

(e) "Participant" means a person who receives direct support services through a covered
program.

(f) "Participant's representative" means a participant's legal guardian or an individual
having the authority and responsibility to act on behalf of a participant with respect to the
provision of direct support services through a covered program.

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0941, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Eligibility.

(a) An individual who is eligible for mental health treatment
services in a psychiatric residential treatment facility must meet all of the following criteria:

(1) before admission, services are determined to be medically necessary deleted text beginby the state's
medical review agent
deleted text end according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 441.152;

(2) is younger than 21 years of age at the time of admission. Services may continue until
the individual meets criteria for discharge or reaches 22 years of age, whichever occurs
first;

(3) has a mental health diagnosis as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic
and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders, as well as clinical evidence of severe aggression,
or a finding that the individual is a risk to self or others;

(4) has functional impairment and a history of difficulty in functioning safely and
successfully in the community, school, home, or job; an inability to adequately care for
one's physical needs; or caregivers, guardians, or family members are unable to safely fulfill
the individual's needs;

(5) requires psychiatric residential treatment under the direction of a physician to improve
the individual's condition or prevent further regression so that services will no longer be
needed;

(6) utilized and exhausted other community-based mental health services, or clinical
evidence indicates that such services cannot provide the level of care needed; and

(7) was referred for treatment in a psychiatric residential treatment facility by a qualified
mental health professional licensed as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision 27, clauses
(1) to (6).

(b) deleted text beginA mental health professional making a referral shall submit documentation to the
deleted text enddeleted text begin state's medical review agent containing all information necessary to determine medical
deleted text enddeleted text begin necessity, including a standard diagnostic assessment completed within 180 days of the
deleted text enddeleted text begin individual's admission. Documentation shall include evidence of family participation in the
deleted text enddeleted text begin individual's treatment planning and signed consent for servicesdeleted text endnew text begin The commissioner shall
provide oversight and review the use of referrals for clients admitted to psychiatric residential
treatment facilities to ensure that eligibility criteria, clinical services, and treatment planning
reflect clinical, state, and federal standards for psychiatric residential treatment facility level
of care. The commissioner shall coordinate the production of a statewide list of children
and youth who meet the medical necessity criteria for psychiatric residential treatment
facility level of care and who are awaiting admission. The commissioner and any recipient
of the list shall not use the statewide list to direct admission of children and youth to specific
facilities
new text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0941, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Per diem rate.

(a) The commissioner deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end establish deleted text begina statewidedeleted text endnew text begin onenew text end per
diem rate new text beginper provider new text endfor psychiatric residential treatment facility services for individuals
21 years of age or younger. The rate for a provider must not exceed the rate charged by that
provider for the same service to other payers. Payment must not be made to more than one
entity for each individual for services provided under this section on a given day. The
commissioner deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end set rates prospectively for the annual rate period. The commissioner
deleted text begin shalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end require providers to submit annual cost reports on a uniform cost reporting form
and deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end use submitted cost reports to inform the rate-setting process. The cost reporting
deleted text begin shalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end be done according to federal requirements for Medicare cost reports.

(b) The following are included in the rate:

(1) costs necessary for licensure and accreditation, meeting all staffing standards for
participation, meeting all service standards for participation, meeting all requirements for
active treatment, maintaining medical records, conducting utilization review, meeting
inspection of care, and discharge planning. The direct services costs must be determined
using the actual cost of salaries, benefits, payroll taxes, and training of direct services staff
and service-related transportation; and

(2) payment for room and board provided by facilities meeting all accreditation and
licensing requirements for participation.

(c) A facility may submit a claim for payment outside of the per diem for professional
services arranged by and provided at the facility by an appropriately licensed professional
who is enrolled as a provider with Minnesota health care programs. Arranged services deleted text beginmust
be billed by the facility on a separate claim, and the facility shall be responsible for payment
to the provider
deleted text endnew text begin may be billed by either the facility or the licensed professionalnew text end. These services
must be included in the individual plan of care and are subject to prior authorization deleted text beginby the
state's medical review agent
deleted text end.

(d) Medicaid deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end reimburse for concurrent services as approved by the
commissioner to support continuity of care and successful discharge from the facility.
"Concurrent services" means services provided by another entity or provider while the
individual is admitted to a psychiatric residential treatment facility. Payment for concurrent
services may be limited and these services are subject to prior authorization by the state's
medical review agent. Concurrent services may include targeted case management, assertive
community treatment, clinical care consultation, team consultation, and treatment planning.

(e) Payment rates under this subdivision deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end not include the costs of providing
the following services:

(1) educational services;

(2) acute medical care or specialty services for other medical conditions;

(3) dental services; and

(4) pharmacy drug costs.

(f) For purposes of this section, "actual cost" means costs that are allowable, allocable,
reasonable, and consistent with federal reimbursement requirements in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 48, chapter 1, part 31, relating to for-profit entities, and the Office of
Management and Budget Circular Number A-122, relating to nonprofit entities.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 1, 2020, or upon federal
approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor
of statutes when federal approval is obtained.
new text end

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0944, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
meanings given them.

(a) "Mental health crisis" means a child's behavioral, emotional, or psychiatric situation
that, but for the provision of crisis response services to the child, would likely result in
significantly reduced levels of functioning in primary activities of daily living, an emergency
situation, or the child's placement in a more restrictive setting, including, but not limited
to, inpatient hospitalization.

(b) "Mental health emergency" means a child's behavioral, emotional, or psychiatric
situation that causes an immediate need for mental health services and is consistent with
section 62Q.55. A physician, mental health professional, or crisis mental health practitioner
determines a mental health crisis or emergency for medical assistance reimbursement with
input from the client and the client's family, if possible.

(c) "Mental health crisis assessment" means an immediate face-to-face assessment by
a physician, mental health professional, or mental health practitioner under the clinical
supervision of a mental health professional, following a screening that suggests the child
may be experiencing a mental health crisis or mental health emergency situation.

(d) "Mental health mobile crisis intervention services" means face-to-face, short-term
intensive mental health services initiated during a mental health crisis or mental health
emergency. Mental health mobile crisis services must help the recipient cope with immediate
stressors, identify and utilize available resources and strengths, and begin to return to the
recipient's baseline level of functioning. Mental health mobile services must be provided
on site by a mobile crisis intervention team outside of deleted text beginan emergency room, urgent care, ordeleted text end
an inpatient hospital setting.

(e) "Mental health crisis stabilization services" means individualized mental health
services provided to a recipient following crisis intervention services that are designed to
restore the recipient to the recipient's prior functional level. The individual treatment plan
recommending mental health crisis stabilization must be completed by the intervention team
or by staff after an inpatient or urgent care visit. Mental health crisis stabilization services
may be provided in the recipient's home, the home of a family member or friend of the
recipient, schools, another community setting, or a short-term supervised, licensed residential
program if the service is not included in the facility's cost pool or per diem. Mental health
crisis stabilization is not reimbursable when provided as part of a partial hospitalization or
day treatment program.

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0947, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Definitions.

For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings
given them.

(a) "Intensive nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services" means child
rehabilitative mental health services as defined in section 256B.0943, except that these
services are provided by a multidisciplinary staff using a total team approach consistent
with assertive community treatment, as adapted for youth, and are directed to recipients
ages 16, 17, 18, 19, or 20 with a serious mental illness or co-occurring mental illness and
substance abuse addiction who require intensive services to prevent admission to an inpatient
psychiatric hospital or placement in a residential treatment facility or who require intensive
services to step down from inpatient or residential care to community-based care.

(b) "Co-occurring mental illness and substance abuse addiction" means a dual diagnosis
of at least one form of mental illness and at least one substance use disorder. Substance use
disorders include alcohol or drug abuse or dependence, excluding nicotine use.

(c) "Diagnostic assessment" has the meaning given to it in Minnesota Rules, part
9505.0370, subpart 11. A diagnostic assessment must be provided according to Minnesota
Rules, part 9505.0372, subpart 1, and for this section must incorporate a determination of
the youth's necessary level of care using a standardized functional assessment instrument
approved and periodically updated by the commissioner.

(d) "Education specialist" means an individual with knowledge and experience working
with youth regarding special education requirements and goals, special education plans,
and coordination of educational activities with health care activities.

(e) "Housing access support" means an ancillary activity to help an individual find,
obtain, retain, and move to safe and adequate housing. Housing access support does not
provide monetary assistance for rent, damage deposits, or application fees.

(f) "Integrated dual disorders treatment" means the integrated treatment of co-occurring
mental illness and substance use disorders by a team of cross-trained clinicians within the
same program, and is characterized by assertive outreach, stage-wise comprehensive
treatment, treatment goal setting, and flexibility to work within each stage of treatment.

(g) "Medication education services" means services provided individually or in groups,
which focus on:

(1) educating the client and client's family or significant nonfamilial supporters about
mental illness and symptoms;

(2) the role and effects of medications in treating symptoms of mental illness; and

(3) the side effects of medications.

Medication education is coordinated with medication management services and does not
duplicate it. Medication education services are provided by physicians, pharmacists, or
registered nurses with certification in psychiatric and mental health care.

(h) "Peer specialist" means an employed team member who is a mental health certified
peer specialist according to section 256B.0615 and also a former children's mental health
consumer who:

(1) provides direct services to clients including social, emotional, and instrumental
support and outreach;

(2) assists younger peers to identify and achieve specific life goals;

(3) works directly with clients to promote the client's self-determination, personal
responsibility, and empowerment;

(4) assists youth with mental illness to regain control over their lives and their
developmental process in order to move effectively into adulthood;

(5) provides training and education to other team members, consumer advocacy
organizations, and clients on resiliency and peer support; and

(6) meets the following criteria:

(i) is at least 22 years of age;

(ii) has had a diagnosis of mental illness, as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0370,
subpart 20, or co-occurring mental illness and substance abuse addiction;

(iii) is a former consumer of child and adolescent mental health services, or a former or
current consumer of adult mental health services for a period of at least two years;

(iv) has at least a high school diploma or equivalent;

(v) has successfully completed training requirements determined and periodically updated
by the commissioner;

(vi) is willing to disclose the individual's own mental health history to team members
and clients; and

(vii) must be free of substance use problems for at least one year.

(i) "Provider agency" means a for-profit or nonprofit organization established to
administer an assertive community treatment for youth team.

(j) "Substance use disorders" means one or more of the disorders defined in the diagnostic
and statistical manual of mental disorders, current edition.

(k) "Transition services" means:

(1) activities, materials, consultation, and coordination that ensures continuity of the
client's care in advance of and in preparation for the client's move from one stage of care
or life to another by maintaining contact with the client and assisting the client to establish
provider relationships;

(2) providing the client with knowledge and skills needed posttransition;

(3) establishing communication between sending and receiving entities;

(4) supporting a client's request for service authorization and enrollment; and

(5) establishing and enforcing procedures and schedules.

A youth's transition from the children's mental health system and services to the adult
mental health system and services and return to the client's home and entry or re-entry into
community-based mental health services following discharge from an out-of-home placement
or inpatient hospital stay.

(l) "Treatment team" means all staff who provide services to recipients under this section.

new text begin (m) "Family peer specialist" means a staff person qualified under section 256B.0616.
new text end

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0947, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Provider contract requirements.

(a) The intensive nonresidential rehabilitative
mental health services provider agency shall have a contract with the commissioner to
provide intensive transition youth rehabilitative mental health services.

(b) The commissioner shall develop deleted text beginadministrative and clinical contract standards anddeleted text end
performance evaluation criteria for providers, including county providers, and may require
applicants new text beginand providers new text endto submit documentation as needed to allow the commissioner to
determine whether the deleted text beginstandardsdeleted text endnew text begin criterianew text end are met.

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0947, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Standards for intensive nonresidential rehabilitative providers.

(a) Services
must be provided by a provider entity as provided in subdivision 4.

(b) The treatment team for intensive nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services
comprises both permanently employed core team members and client-specific team members
as follows:

(1) The core treatment team is an entity that operates under the direction of an
independently licensed mental health professional, who is qualified under Minnesota Rules,
part 9505.0371, subpart 5, item A, and that assumes comprehensive clinical responsibility
for clients. Based on professional qualifications and client needs, clinically qualified core
team members are assigned on a rotating basis as the client's lead worker to coordinate a
client's care. The core team must comprise at least four full-time equivalent direct care staff
and must include, but is not limited to:

(i) an independently licensed mental health professional, qualified under Minnesota
Rules, part 9505.0371, subpart 5, item A, who serves as team leader to provide administrative
direction and clinical supervision to the team;

(ii) an advanced-practice registered nurse with certification in psychiatric or mental
health care or a board-certified child and adolescent psychiatrist, either of which must be
credentialed to prescribe medications;

(iii) a licensed alcohol and drug counselor who is also trained in mental health
interventions; and

(iv) a peer specialist as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (h).

(2) The core team may also include any of the following:

(i) additional mental health professionals;

(ii) a vocational specialist;

(iii) an educational specialist;

(iv) a child and adolescent psychiatrist who may be retained on a consultant basis;

(v) a mental health practitioner, as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision 26;

(vi) a deleted text beginmental health managerdeleted text endnew text begin case management service providernew text end, as defined in section
245.4871, subdivision 4; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(vii) a housing access specialistnew text begin; and
new text end

new text begin (viii) a family peer specialist as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (m)new text end.

(3) A treatment team may include, in addition to those in clause (1) or (2), ad hoc
members not employed by the team who consult on a specific client and who must accept
overall clinical direction from the treatment team for the duration of the client's placement
with the treatment team and must be paid by the provider agency at the rate for a typical
session by that provider with that client or at a rate negotiated with the client-specific
member. Client-specific treatment team members may include:

(i) the mental health professional treating the client prior to placement with the treatment
team;

(ii) the client's current substance abuse counselor, if applicable;

(iii) a lead member of the client's individualized education program team or school-based
mental health provider, if applicable;

(iv) a representative from the client's health care home or primary care clinic, as needed
to ensure integration of medical and behavioral health care;

(v) the client's probation officer or other juvenile justice representative, if applicable;
and

(vi) the client's current vocational or employment counselor, if applicable.

(c) The clinical supervisor shall be an active member of the treatment team and shall
function as a practicing clinician at least on a part-time basis. The treatment team shall meet
with the clinical supervisor at least weekly to discuss recipients' progress and make rapid
adjustments to meet recipients' needs. The team meeting must include client-specific case
reviews and general treatment discussions among team members. Client-specific case
reviews and planning must be documented in the individual client's treatment record.

(d) The staffing ratio must not exceed ten clients to one full-time equivalent treatment
team position.

(e) The treatment team shall serve no more than 80 clients at any one time. Should local
demand exceed the team's capacity, an additional team must be established rather than
exceed this limit.

(f) Nonclinical staff shall have prompt access in person or by telephone to a mental
health practitioner or mental health professional. The provider shall have the capacity to
promptly and appropriately respond to emergent needs and make any necessary staffing
adjustments to deleted text beginassuredeleted text endnew text begin ensurenew text end the health and safety of clients.

(g) The intensive nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services provider shall
participate in evaluation of the assertive community treatment for youth (Youth ACT) model
as conducted by the commissioner, including the collection and reporting of data and the
reporting of performance measures as specified by contract with the commissioner.

(h) A regional treatment team may serve multiple counties.

Sec. 28.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0947, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Service standards.

The standards in this subdivision apply to intensive
nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services.

(a) The treatment team deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end use team treatment, not an individual treatment model.

(b) Services must be available at times that meet client needs.

new text begin (c) Services must be age-appropriate and meet the specific needs of the client.
new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end The initial functional assessment must be completed within ten days of intake
and updated at least every deleted text beginthreedeleted text endnew text begin sixnew text end months or prior to discharge from the service, whichever
comes first.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end An individual treatment plan must deleted text beginbe completed for each client, according to
criteria specified in section 256B.0943, subdivision 6, paragraph (b), clause (2), and,
additionally, must
deleted text end:

new text begin (1) be based on the information in the client's diagnostic assessment and baselines;
new text end

new text begin (2) identify goals and objectives of treatment, a treatment strategy, a schedule for
accomplishing treatment goals and objectives, and the individuals responsible for providing
treatment services and supports;
new text end

new text begin (3) be developed after completion of the client's diagnostic assessment by a mental health
professional or clinical trainee and before the provision of children's therapeutic services
and supports;
new text end

new text begin (4) be developed through a child-centered, family-driven, culturally appropriate planning
process, including allowing parents and guardians to observe or participate in individual
and family treatment services, assessments, and treatment planning;
new text end

new text begin (5) be reviewed at least once every six months and revised to document treatment progress
on each treatment objective and next goals or, if progress is not documented, to document
changes in treatment;
new text end

new text begin (6) be signed by the clinical supervisor and by the client or by the client's parent or other
person authorized by statute to consent to mental health services for the client. A client's
parent may approve the client's individual treatment plan by secure electronic signature or
by documented oral approval that is later verified by written signature;
new text end

deleted text begin (1)deleted text endnew text begin (7)new text end be completed in consultation with the client's current therapist and key providers
and provide for ongoing consultation with the client's current therapist to ensure therapeutic
continuity and to facilitate the client's return to the communitynew text begin. For clients under the age of
18, the treatment team must consult with parents and guardians in developing the treatment
plan
new text end;

deleted text begin (2)deleted text endnew text begin (8)new text end if a need for substance use disorder treatment is indicated by validated assessment:

(i) identify goals, objectives, and strategies of substance use disorder treatment; develop
a schedule for accomplishing treatment goals and objectives; and identify the individuals
responsible for providing treatment services and supports;

(ii) be reviewed at least once every 90 days and revised, if necessary;

deleted text begin (3)deleted text endnew text begin (9)new text end be signed by the clinical supervisor and by the client and, if the client is a minor,
by the client's parent or other person authorized by statute to consent to mental health
treatment and substance use disorder treatment for the client; and

deleted text begin (4)deleted text endnew text begin (10)new text end provide for the client's transition out of intensive nonresidential rehabilitative
mental health services by defining the team's actions to assist the client and subsequent
providers in the transition to less intensive or "stepped down" services.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (f)new text end The treatment team shall actively and assertively engage the client's family
members and significant others by establishing communication and collaboration with the
family and significant others and educating the family and significant others about the
client's mental illness, symptom management, and the family's role in treatment, unless the
team knows or has reason to suspect that the client has suffered or faces a threat of suffering
any physical or mental injury, abuse, or neglect from a family member or significant other.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text endnew text begin (g)new text end For a client age 18 or older, the treatment team may disclose to a family member,
other relative, or a close personal friend of the client, or other person identified by the client,
the protected health information directly relevant to such person's involvement with the
client's care, as provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 164.502(b). If the
client is present, the treatment team shall obtain the client's agreement, provide the client
with an opportunity to object, or reasonably infer from the circumstances, based on the
exercise of professional judgment, that the client does not object. If the client is not present
or is unable, by incapacity or emergency circumstances, to agree or object, the treatment
team may, in the exercise of professional judgment, determine whether the disclosure is in
the best interests of the client and, if so, disclose only the protected health information that
is directly relevant to the family member's, relative's, friend's, or client-identified person's
involvement with the client's health care. The client may orally agree or object to the
disclosure and may prohibit or restrict disclosure to specific individuals.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text endnew text begin (h)new text end The treatment team shall provide interventions to promote positive interpersonal
relationships.

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.49, subdivision 16, is amended to read:


Subd. 16.

Services and supports.

(a) Services and supports included in the home and
community-based waivers for persons with disabilities deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end meet the requirements
set out in United States Code, title 42, section 1396n. The services and supports, which are
offered as alternatives to institutional care, deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end promote consumer choice, community
inclusion, self-sufficiency, and self-determination.

(b) deleted text beginBeginning January 1, 2003,deleted text end The commissioner deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end simplify and improve
access to home and community-based waivered services, to the extent possible, through the
establishment of a common service menu that is available to eligible recipients regardless
of age, disability type, or waiver program.

(c) deleted text beginConsumer directed community support services shalldeleted text endnew text begin Consumer-directed community
supports must
new text end be offered as an option to all persons eligible for services under subdivision
11deleted text begin, by January 1, 2002deleted text end.

(d) Services and supports deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end be arranged and provided consistent with
individualized written plans of care for eligible waiver recipients.

(e) A transitional supports allowance deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end be available to all persons under a home
and community-based waiver who are moving from a licensed setting to a community
setting. "Transitional supports allowance" means a onetime payment of up to $3,000, to
cover the costs, not covered by other sources, associated with moving from a licensed setting
to a community setting. Covered costs include:

(1) lease or rent deposits;

(2) security deposits;

(3) utilities setup costs, including telephone;

(4) essential furnishings and supplies; and

(5) personal supports and transports needed to locate and transition to community settings.

(f) The state of Minnesota and county agencies that administer home and
community-based waivered services for persons with disabilities, deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end not be liable
for damages, injuries, or liabilities sustained through the purchase of supports by the
individual, the individual's family, legal representative, or the authorized representative
with funds received through deleted text beginthedeleted text end consumer-directed community deleted text beginsupport servicedeleted text endnew text begin supportsnew text end
under this section. Liabilities include but are not limited todeleted text begin:deleted text end workers' compensation liability,
the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA), or the Federal Unemployment Tax Act
(FUTA).

Sec. 30.

new text begin [256B.4911] CONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Federal authority. new text end

new text begin Consumer-directed community supports, as referenced
in sections 256B.0913, subdivision 5, clause (17); 256B.092, subdivision 1b, clause (4);
256B.49, subdivision 16, paragraph (c); and chapter 256S are governed, in whole, by the
federally-approved waiver plans for home and community-based services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Costs associated with physical activities. new text end

new text begin The expenses allowed for adults
under the consumer-directed community supports option must include the costs at the lowest
rate available considering daily, monthly, semiannual, annual, or membership rates, including
transportation, associated with physical exercise or other physical activities to maintain or
improve the person's health and functioning.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Expansion and increase of budget exceptions. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner of human
services must provide up to 30 percent more funds for either:
new text end

new text begin (1) consumer-directed community supports participants under sections 256B.092 and
256B.49 who have a coordinated service and support plan which identifies the need for
more services or supports under consumer-directed community supports than the amount
the participants are currently receiving under the consumer-directed community supports
budget methodology to:
new text end

new text begin (i) increase the amount of time a person works or otherwise improves employment
opportunities;
new text end

new text begin (ii) plan a transition to, move to, or live in a setting described in section 256D.44,
subdivision 5
, paragraph (g), clause (1), item (iii); or
new text end

new text begin (iii) develop and implement a positive behavior support plan; or
new text end

new text begin (2) home and community-based waiver participants under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49
who are currently using licensed providers for: (i) employment supports or services during
the day; or (ii) residential services, either of which cost more annually than the person would
spend under a consumer-directed community supports plan for any or all of the supports
needed to meet a goal identified in clause (1), item (i), (ii), or (iii).
new text end

new text begin (b) The exception under paragraph (a), clause (1), is limited to persons who can
demonstrate that they will have to discontinue using consumer-directed community supports
and accept other non-self-directed waiver services because their supports needed for a goal
described in paragraph (a), clause (1), item (i), (ii), or (iii), cannot be met within the
consumer-directed community supports budget limits.
new text end

new text begin (c) The exception under paragraph (a), clause (2), is limited to persons who can
demonstrate that, upon choosing to become a consumer-directed community supports
participant, the total cost of services, including the exception, will be less than the cost of
current waiver services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Budget exception for persons leaving institutions and crisis residential
settings.
new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner must establish an institutional and crisis bed
consumer-directed community supports budget exception process in the home and
community-based services waivers under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49. This budget
exception process must be available for any individual who:
new text end

new text begin (1) is not offered available and appropriate services within 60 days since approval for
discharge from the individual's current institutional setting; and
new text end

new text begin (2) requires services that are more expensive than appropriate services provided in a
noninstitutional setting using the consumer-directed community supports option.
new text end

new text begin (b) Institutional settings for purposes of this exception include intermediate care facilities
for persons with developmental disabilities; nursing facilities; acute care hospitals; Anoka
Metro Regional Treatment Center; Minnesota Security Hospital; and crisis beds.
new text end

new text begin (c) The budget exception must be limited to no more than the amount of appropriate
services provided in a noninstitutional setting as determined by the lead agency managing
the individual's home and community-based services waiver. The lead agency must notify
the Department of Human Services of the budget exception.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Shared services. new text end

new text begin (a) Medical assistance payments for shared services under
consumer-directed community supports are limited to this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (b) For purposes of this subdivision, "shared services" means services provided at the
same time by the same direct care worker for individuals who have entered into an agreement
to share consumer-directed community support services.
new text end

new text begin (c) Shared services may include services in the personal assistance category as outlined
in the consumer-directed community supports community support plan and shared services
agreement, except:
new text end

new text begin (1) services for more than three individuals provided by one worker at one time;
new text end

new text begin (2) use of more than one worker for the shared services; and
new text end

new text begin (3) a child care program licensed under chapter 245A or operated by a local school
district or private school.
new text end

new text begin (d) The individuals, or as needed the individuals' representatives, must develop the plan
for shared services when developing or amending the consumer-directed community supports
plan, and must follow the consumer-directed community supports process for approval of
the plan by the lead agency. The plan for shared services in an individual's consumer-directed
community supports plan must include the intention to utilize shared services based on
individuals' needs and preferences.
new text end

new text begin (e) Individuals sharing services must use the same financial management services
provider.
new text end

new text begin (f) Individuals whose consumer-directed community supports community support plans
include an intent to utilize shared services must jointly develop, with the support of the
individuals' representatives as needed, a shared services agreement. This agreement must
include:
new text end

new text begin (1) the names of the individuals receiving shared services;
new text end

new text begin (2) the individuals' representative, if identified in their consumer-directed community
supports plans, and their duties;
new text end

new text begin (3) the names of the case managers;
new text end

new text begin (4) the financial management services provider;
new text end

new text begin (5) the shared services that must be provided;
new text end

new text begin (6) the schedule for shared services;
new text end

new text begin (7) the location where shared services must be provided;
new text end

new text begin (8) the training specific to each individual served;
new text end

new text begin (9) the training specific to providing shared services to the individuals identified in the
agreement;
new text end

new text begin (10) instructions to follow all required documentation for time and services provided;
new text end

new text begin (11) a contingency plan for each individual that accounts for service provision and billing
in the absence of one of the individuals in a shared services setting due to illness or other
circumstances;
new text end

new text begin (12) signatures of all parties involved in the shared services; and
new text end

new text begin (13) agreement by each individual who is sharing services on the number of shared hours
for services provided.
new text end

new text begin (g) Any individual or any individual's representative may withdraw from participating
in a shared services agreement at any time.
new text end

new text begin (h) The lead agency for each individual must authorize the use of the shared services
option based on the criteria that the shared service is appropriate to meet the needs, health,
and safety of each individual for whom they provide case management or care coordination.
new text end

new text begin (i) This subdivision must not be construed to reduce the total authorized
consumer-directed community supports budget for an individual.
new text end

new text begin (j) No later than September 30, 2019, the commissioner of human services must:
new text end

new text begin (1) submit an amendment to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for the
home and community-based services waivers authorized under sections 256B.0913,
256B.092, and 256B.49, and chapter 256S, to allow for a shared services option under
consumer-directed community supports; and
new text end

new text begin (2) with stakeholder input, develop guidance for shared services in consumer-directed
community supports within the community-based services manual. Guidance must include:
new text end

new text begin (i) recommendations for negotiating payment for one-to-two and one-to-three services;
and
new text end

new text begin (ii) a template of the shared services agreement.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment, except
for subdivision 5, paragraphs (a) to (i), which are effective the day following final enactment
or upon federal approval, whichever occurs later. The commissioner of human services
must notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained.
new text end

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256S.01, subdivision 6, is amended
to read:


Subd. 6.

Immunity; consumer-directed community supports.

The state of Minnesota,
or a county, managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, or tribal government under
contract to administer the elderly waiver, is not liable for damages, injuries, or liabilities
sustained as a result of the participant, the participant's family, or the participant's authorized
representatives purchasing direct supports or goods with funds received through
consumer-directed community deleted text beginsupport servicesdeleted text endnew text begin supportsnew text end under the elderly waiver. Liabilities
include, but are not limited to, workers' compensation liability, Federal Insurance
Contributions Act under United States Code, title 26, subtitle c, chapter 21, or Federal
Unemployment Tax Act under Internal Revenue Code, chapter 23.

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256S.19, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:


Subd. 4.

Calculation of monthly conversion budget cap with consumer-directed
community supports.

For the elderly waiver monthly conversion budget cap for the cost
of elderly waiver services with consumer-directed community deleted text beginsupport servicesdeleted text endnew text begin supportsnew text end,
the nursing facility case mix adjusted total payment rate used under subdivision 3 to calculate
the monthly conversion budget cap for elderly waiver services without consumer-directed
community supports must be reduced by a percentage equal to the percentage difference
between the consumer-directed deleted text beginservicesdeleted text endnew text begin community supportsnew text end budget limit that would be
assigned according to the elderly waiver plan and the corresponding monthly case mix
budget cap under this chapter, but not to exceed 50 percent.

Sec. 33.

Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 14, section 2, subdivision 33,
is amended to read:


Subd. 33.

Grant Programs; Chemical
Dependency Treatment Support Grants

Appropriations by Fund
General
2,636,000
2,636,000
Lottery Prize
1,733,000
1,733,000

(a) Problem Gambling. $225,000 in fiscal
year 2020 and $225,000 in fiscal year 2021
are from the lottery prize fund for a grant to
the state affiliate recognized by the National
Council on Problem Gambling. The affiliate
must provide services to increase public
awareness of problem gambling, education,
and training for individuals and organizations
providing effective treatment services to
problem gamblers and their families, and
research related to problem gambling.

(b) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders
Grantsnew text begin for Fiscal Year 2020new text end.
(1) $500,000
in fiscal year 2020 deleted text beginand $500,000 in fiscal year
2021 are from
deleted text end new text beginis from new text endthe general fund for a
grant to Proof Alliance. Of this appropriation,
Proof Alliance shall make grants to eligible
regional collaboratives for the purposes
specified in clause (3).

(2) "Eligible regional collaboratives" means
a partnership between at least one local
government new text beginor tribal governmentnew text end and at least
one community-based organization and, where
available, a family home visiting program. For
purposes of this clause, a local government
includes a county or multicounty organization,
deleted text begin a tribal government,deleted text end a county-based
purchasing entity, or a community health
board.

(3) Eligible regional collaboratives must use
grant funds to reduce the incidence of fetal
alcohol spectrum disorders and other prenatal
drug-related effects in children in Minnesota
by identifying and serving pregnant women
suspected of or known to use or abuse alcohol
or other drugs. Eligible regional collaboratives
must provide intensive services to chemically
dependent women to increase positive birth
outcomes.

(4) Proof Alliance must make grants to eligible
regional collaboratives from both rural and
urban areas of the state.

(5) An eligible regional collaborative that
receives a grant under this paragraph must
report to Proof Alliance by January 15 of each
year on the services and programs funded by
the grant. The report must include measurable
outcomes for the previous year, including the
number of pregnant women served and the
number of toxic-free babies born. Proof
Alliance must compile the information in these
reports and report that information to the
commissioner of human services by February
15 of each year.

new text begin (c) Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders
Grants for Fiscal Year 2021.
new text end new text begin $500,000 in
fiscal year 2021 is from the general fund for
a grant under Minnesota Statutes, section
254A.21, to a statewide organization that
focuses solely on prevention of and
intervention with fetal alcohol spectrum
disorders.
new text end

Sec. 34. new text beginTREATMENT OF PREVIOUSLY OBTAINED FEDERAL APPROVALS.
new text end

new text begin This act must not be construed to require the commissioner to seek federal approval for
provisions for which the commissioner has already received federal approval. Federal
approvals the commissioner previously obtained for provisions repealed in section 33 survive
and apply to the corresponding subdivisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.4911.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 35. new text beginREPEALER.
new text end

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 7, section 50, new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 7, section 51, new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text end new text begin Laws 2012, chapter 247, article 4, section 47, as amended by Laws 2014, chapter
312, article 27, section 72, Laws 2015, chapter 71, article 7, section 58, Laws 2016, chapter
144, section 1, Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 43, Laws 2017,
First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 54,
new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (d) new text end new text begin Laws 2015, chapter 71, article 7, section 54, as amended by Laws 2017, First Special
Session chapter 6, article 1, section 54,
new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (e) new text end new text begin Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 44, as amended by
Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 80,
new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (f) new text end new text begin Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 45, as amended by Laws
2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 81,
new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 36. new text beginEFFECTIVE DATE; PREVIOUS ENACTMENT.
new text end

new text begin The amendments made to Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0654, subdivisions 1, 2a,
3, and 4, by Laws 2020, chapter 115, article 4, sections 121 to 124, are effective the day
following final enactment of this act.
new text end

ARTICLE 3

DISABILITY POLICY STATEMENTS

Section 1.

new text begin [256B.4905] HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES POLICY
STATEMENT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Employment first policy. new text end

new text begin It is the policy of this state that all working-age
Minnesotans with disabilities can work, want to work, and can achieve competitive integrated
employment, and that each working-age Minnesotan with a disability be offered the
opportunity to work and earn a competitive wage before being offered other supports and
services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Employment first implementation for disability waiver services. new text end

new text begin The
commissioner of human services shall ensure that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the disability waivers under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49 support the presumption
that all working-age Minnesotans with disabilities can work, want to work, and can achieve
competitive integrated employment; and
new text end

new text begin (2) each waiver recipient of working age be offered, after an informed decision-making
process and during a person-centered planning process, the opportunity to work and earn a
competitive wage before being offered exclusively day services as defined in section
245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (4), or successor provisions.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Independent living first policy. new text end

new text begin It is the policy of this state that all adult
Minnesotans with disabilities can and want to live independently with proper supports and
services; and that each adult Minnesotan with a disability be offered the opportunity to live
as independently as possible before being offered supports and services in provider-controlled
settings.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Independent living first implementation for disability waiver services. new text end

new text begin The
commissioner of human services shall ensure that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the disability waivers under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49 support the presumption
that all adult Minnesotans with disabilities can and want to live independently with proper
services and supports as needed; and
new text end

new text begin (2) each adult waiver recipient be offered, after an informed decision-making process
and during a person-centered planning process, the opportunity to live as independently as
possible before being offered customized living services provided in a single family home
or residential supports and services as defined in section 245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph
(c), clause (3), or successor provisions, unless the residential supports and services are
provided in a family adult foster care residence under a shared living option as described
in Laws 2013, chapter 108, article 7, section 62.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Self-direction first policy. new text end

new text begin It is the policy of this state that adult Minnesotans
with disabilities and families of children with disabilities can and want to use self-directed
services and supports; and that each adult Minnesotan with a disability and each family of
the child with a disability be offered the opportunity to choose self-directed services and
supports before being offered services and supports that are not self-directed.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Self-directed first implementation for disability waiver services. new text end

new text begin The
commissioner of human services shall ensure that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the disability waivers under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49 support the presumption
that adult Minnesotans with disabilities and families of children with disabilities can and
want to use self-directed services and supports, including self-directed funding options; and
new text end

new text begin (2) each waiver recipient be offered, after an informed decision-making process and
during a person-centered planning process, the opportunity to choose self-directed services
and supports, including self-directed funding options, before being offered services and
supports that are not self-directed.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 86, is amended to
read:


Sec. 86. DISABILITY WAIVER RECONFIGURATION.

Subdivision 1.

Intent.

It is the intent of the legislature to reform the medical assistance
waiver programs for people with disabilities to simplify administration of the programsdeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin.
Disability waiver reconfiguration must
new text end incentivize inclusivenew text begin,new text end person-centerednew text begin, individualizednew text end
supportsdeleted text begin,deleted text end new text beginand services; new text endenhance each person's new text beginself-determination and new text endpersonal authority
over the person's service choicedeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end align benefits across waiversdeleted text begin, encouragedeleted text endnew text begin; ensurenew text end equity
across programs and populationsdeleted text begin, anddeleted text endnew text begin;new text end promote long-term sustainability of deleted text beginneededdeleted text endnew text begin waivernew text end
servicesdeleted text begin. To the maximum extent possible, the Disability waiver reconfiguration mustdeleted text endnew text begin; andnew text end
maintain service stability and continuity of caredeleted text begin,deleted text end while new text beginprioritizing, new text endpromoting deleted text beginthe mostdeleted text endnew text begin,
and creating incentives for
new text end independent deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin,new text end integratednew text begin, and individualizednew text end supports deleted text beginof each
person's choosing in both short- and long-term
deleted text end new text beginand services chosen by each person through
an informed decision-making process and person-centered
new text endplanning.

Subd. 2.

Report.

By January 15, 2021, the commissioner of human services shall submit
a report to the members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over human services
on any necessary waivers, state plan amendments, requests for new funding or realignment
of existing funds, any changes to state statute or rule, and any other federal authority
necessary to implement this section. The report must include information about the
commissioner's work to collect feedback and input from providers, persons accessing home
and community-based services waivers and their families, and client advocacy organizations.

Subd. 3.

Proposal.

By January 15, 2021, the commissioner shall develop a proposal to
reconfigure the medical assistance waivers provided in sections 256B.092 and 256B.49.
The proposal shall include all necessary plans for implementing two home and
community-based services waiver programs, as authorized under section 1915(c) of the
Social Security Act that serve persons who are determined to require the levels of care
provided in a nursing home, a hospital, a neurobehavioral hospital, or an intermediate care
facility for persons with developmental disabilities. new text beginThe proposal must include in each home
and community-based waiver program options to self-direct services.
new text endBefore submitting
the final report to the legislature, the commissioner shall publish a draft report with sufficient
time for interested persons to offer additional feedback.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

ARTICLE 4

ASSESSMENT, CASE MANAGEMENT, AND SERVICE PLANNING
MODIFICATIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245D.071, subdivision 5, is
amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Service plan review and evaluation.

(a) The license holder must give the
person or the person's legal representative deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin,new text end case managernew text begin, and other people as identified
by the person or the person's legal representative,
new text end an opportunity to participate in the ongoing
review and development of the service plan and the methods used to support the person and
accomplish outcomes identified in subdivisions 3 and 4. At least once per year, or within
30 days of a written request by the person, the person's legal representative, or the case
manager, the license holder, in coordination with the person's support team or expanded
support team, must meet with the person, the person's legal representative, deleted text beginanddeleted text end the case
manager, new text beginand other people as identified by the person or the person's legal representative,
new text end and participate in service plan review meetings following stated timelines established in
the person's coordinated service and support plan or coordinated service and support plan
addendum. The purpose of the service plan review is to determine whether changes are
needed to the service plan based on the assessment information, the license holder's evaluation
of progress deleted text begintowardsdeleted text endnew text begin towardnew text end accomplishing outcomes, or other information provided by the
support team or expanded support team.

(b) At least once per year, the license holder, in coordination with the person's support
team or expanded support team, must meet with the person, the person's legal representative,
deleted text begin anddeleted text end the case managernew text begin, and other people as identified by the person or the person's legal
representative
new text end to discuss how technology might be used to meet the person's desired
outcomes. The coordinated service and support plan addendum must include a summary of
this discussion. The summary must include a statement regarding any decision made related
to the use of technology and a description of any further research that must be completed
before a decision regarding the use of technology can be made. Nothing in this paragraph
requires the coordinated service and support plan addendum to include the use of technology
for the provision of services.

(c) new text beginAt least once per year, the license holder, in coordination with the person's support
team or expanded support team, must meet with a person receiving residential supports and
services, the person's legal representative, the case manager, and other people as identified
by the person or the person's legal representative to discuss options for transitioning out of
a community setting controlled by a provider and into a setting not controlled by a provider.
new text end

new text begin (d) The coordinated service and support plan addendum must include a summary of the
discussion required in paragraph (c). The summary must include a statement about any
decision made regarding transitioning out of a provider-controlled setting and a description
of any further research or education that must be completed before a decision regarding
transitioning out of a provider-controlled setting can be made.
new text end

new text begin (e) At least once per year, the license holder, in coordination with the person's support
team or expanded support team, must meet with a person receiving day services, the person's
legal representative, the case manager, and other people as identified by the person or the
person's legal representative to discuss options for transitioning to an employment service
described in section 245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clauses (5) to (7).
new text end

new text begin (f) The coordinated service and support plan addendum must include a summary of the
discussion required in paragraph (e). The summary must include a statement about any
decision made concerning transition to an employment service and a description of any
further research or education that must be completed before a decision regarding transitioning
to an employment service can be made.
new text end

new text begin (g) new text endThe license holder must summarize the person's status and progress toward achieving
the identified outcomes and make recommendations and identify the rationale for changing,
continuing, or discontinuing implementation of supports and methods identified in
subdivision 4 in a report available at the time of the progress review meeting. The report
must be sent at least five working days prior to the progress review meeting if requested by
the team in the coordinated service and support plan or coordinated service and support
plan addendum.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (h)new text end The license holder must send the coordinated service and support plan addendum
to the person, the person's legal representative, and the case manager by mail within ten
working days of the progress review meeting. Within ten working days of the mailing of
the coordinated service and support plan addendum, the license holder must obtain dated
signatures from the person or the person's legal representative and the case manager to
document approval of any changes to the coordinated service and support plan addendum.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (i)new text end If, within ten working days of submitting changes to the coordinated service and
support plan and coordinated service and support plan addendum, the person or the person's
legal representative or case manager has not signed and returned to the license holder the
coordinated service and support plan or coordinated service and support plan addendum or
has not proposed written modifications to the license holder's submission, the submission
is deemed approved and the coordinated service and support plan addendum becomes
effective and remains in effect until the legal representative or case manager submits a
written request to revise the coordinated service and support plan addendum.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0911, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Purpose and goal.

(a) The purpose of long-term care consultation services
is to assist persons with long-term or chronic care needs in making care decisions and
selecting support and service options that meet their needs and reflect their preferences.
The availability of, and access to, information and other types of assistance, including
new text begin long-term care consultation new text endassessment and new text begincommunity new text endsupport planning, is also intended
to prevent or delay institutional placements and to provide access to transition assistance
after deleted text beginadmissiondeleted text endnew text begin placementnew text end. Further, the goal of deleted text beginthesedeleted text endnew text begin long-term care consultationnew text end services
is to contain costs associated with unnecessary institutional admissions. Long-term
consultation services must be available to any person regardless of public program eligibility.

new text begin (b) new text endThe commissioner of human services shall seek to maximize use of available federal
and state funds and establish the broadest program possible within the funding available.

deleted text begin (b) Thesedeleted text endnew text begin (c) Long-term care consultationnew text end services must be coordinated with long-term
care options counseling provided under subdivision 4d, section 256.975, subdivisions 7 to
7c, and section 256.01, subdivision 24.

new text begin (d) new text endThe lead agency providing long-term care consultation services shall encourage the
use of volunteers from families, religious organizations, social clubs, and similar civic and
service organizations to provide community-based services.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, is
amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Definitions.

For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(a) Until additional requirements apply under paragraph (b), "long-term care consultation
services" means:

(1) intake for and access to assistance in identifying services needed to maintain an
individual in the most inclusive environment;

(2) providing recommendations for and referrals to cost-effective community services
that are available to the individual;

(3) development of an individual's person-centered community support plan;

(4) providing information regarding eligibility for Minnesota health care programs;

(5) face-to-face long-term care consultation assessments, which may be completed in a
hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities
(ICF/DDs), regional treatment centers, or the person's current or planned residence;

(6) determination of home and community-based waiver and other service eligibility as
required under chapter 256S and sections 256B.0913, 256B.092, and 256B.49, including
level of care determination for individuals who need an institutional level of care as
determined under subdivision 4e, based on new text begina long-term care consultation new text endassessment and
community support plan development, appropriate referrals to obtain necessary diagnostic
information, and including an eligibility determination for consumer-directed community
supports;

(7) providing recommendations for institutional placement when there are no
cost-effective community services available;

(8) providing access to assistance to transition people back to community settings after
institutional admission; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(9) providing information about competitive employment, with or without supports, for
school-age youth and working-age adults and referrals to the Disability Linkage Line and
Disability Benefits 101 to ensure that an informed choice about competitive employment
can be made. For the purposes of this subdivision, "competitive employment" means work
in the competitive labor market that is performed on a full-time or part-time basis in an
integrated setting, and for which an individual is compensated at or above the minimum
wage, but not less than the customary wage and level of benefits paid by the employer for
the same or similar work performed by individuals without disabilitiesdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (10) providing information about independent living to ensure that an informed choice
about independent living can be made; and
new text end

new text begin (11) providing information about self-directed services and supports, including
self-directed funding options, to ensure that an informed choice about self-directed options
can be made.
new text end

(b) Upon statewide implementation of lead agency requirements in subdivisions 2b, 2c,
and 3a, "long-term care consultation services" also means:

(1) service eligibility determination for new text beginthe following new text endstate plan services deleted text beginidentified indeleted text end:

(i) new text beginpersonal care assistance services under new text endsection 256B.0625, subdivisions 19a and 19c;

(ii) consumer support grants under section 256.476; or

(iii) new text begincommunity first services and supports under new text endsection 256B.85;

(2) notwithstanding provisions in Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0024,
gaining access tonew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (i) relocation targetednew text end case management services available under deleted text beginsectionsdeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end
256B.0621, subdivision 2, clause (4)deleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (ii) case management services targeted to vulnerable adults or developmental disabilities
under section
new text end 256B.0924deleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end and

new text begin (iii) case management services targeted to people with developmental disabilities under
new text end Minnesota Rules, part 9525.0016;

(3) determination of eligibility for semi-independent living services under section
252.275; and

(4) obtaining necessary diagnostic information to determine eligibility under clauses (2)
and (3).

(c) "Long-term care options counseling" means the services provided by the linkage
lines as mandated by sections 256.01, subdivision 24, and 256.975, subdivision 7, and also
includes telephone assistance and follow up once a long-term care consultation assessment
has been completed.

(d) "Minnesota health care programs" means the medical assistance program under this
chapter and the alternative care program under section 256B.0913.

(e) "Lead agencies" means counties administering or tribes and health plans under
contract with the commissioner to administer long-term care consultation deleted text beginassessment and
support planning
deleted text end services.

(f) "Person-centered planning" is a process that includes the active participation of a
person in the planning of the person's services, including in making meaningful and informed
choices about the person's own goals, talents, and objectives, as well as making meaningful
and informed choices about the services the person receivesdeleted text begin. For the purposes of this sectiondeleted text end,new text begin
the settings in which the person receives the services, and the setting in which the person
lives.
new text end

new text begin (g) new text end"Informed choice" means a voluntary choice of servicesnew text begin, settings, living arrangement,
and work
new text end by a person from all available service new text beginand setting new text endoptions based on accurate and
complete information concerning all available service new text beginand setting new text endoptions and concerning
the person's own preferences, abilities, goals, and objectives. In order for a person to make
an informed choice, all available options must be developed and presented to the person new text beginin
a way the person can understand
new text endto empower the person to make deleted text begindecisionsdeleted text endnew text begin fully informed
choices
new text end.

new text begin (h) "Available service and setting options" or "available options," with respect to the
home and community-based waivers under chapter 256S and sections 256B.092 and 256B.49,
means all services and settings defined under the waiver plan for which a waiver applicant
or waiver participant is eligible.
new text end

new text begin (i) "Independent living" means living in a setting that is not controlled by a provider.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, is
amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Assessment and support planning.

(a) Persons requesting assessment, services
planning, or other assistance intended to support community-based living, including persons
who need assessment in order to determine waiver or alternative care program eligibility,
must be visited by a long-term care consultation team within 20 calendar days after the date
on which an assessment was requested or recommended. Upon statewide implementation
of subdivisions 2b, 2c, and 5, this requirement also applies to an assessment of a person
requesting personal care assistance services. new text beginThe commissioner shall provide at least a
90-day notice to lead agencies prior to the effective date of this requirement.
new text endFace-to-face
assessments must be conducted according to paragraphs (b) to (i).

(b) Upon implementation of subdivisions 2b, 2c, and 5, lead agencies shall use certified
assessors to conduct the assessment. For a person with complex health care needs, a public
health or registered nurse from the team must be consulted.

(c) The MnCHOICES assessment provided by the commissioner to lead agencies must
be used to complete a comprehensive, conversation-based, person-centered assessment.
The assessment must include the health, psychological, functional, environmental, and
social needs of the individual necessary to develop a new text beginperson-centered new text endcommunity support
plan that meets the individual's needs and preferences.

(d) The assessment must be conducted new text beginby a certified assessor new text endin a face-to-face
conversational interview with the person being assessed. The person's legal representative
must provide input during the assessment process and may do so remotely if requested. At
the request of the person, other individuals may participate in the assessment to provide
information on the needs, strengths, and preferences of the person necessary to develop a
community support plan that ensures the person's health and safety. Except for legal
representatives or family members invited by the person, persons participating in the
assessment may not be a provider of service or have any financial interest in the provision
of services. For persons who are to be assessed for elderly waiver customized living or adult
day services under chapter 256S, with the permission of the person being assessed or the
person's designated or legal representative, the client's current or proposed provider of
services may submit a copy of the provider's nursing assessment or written report outlining
its recommendations regarding the client's care needs. The person conducting the assessment
must notify the provider of the date by which this information is to be submitted. This
information shall be provided to the person conducting the assessment prior to the assessment.
For a person who is to be assessed for waiver services under section 256B.092 or 256B.49,
with the permission of the person being assessed or the person's designated legal
representative, the person's current provider of services may submit a written report outlining
recommendations regarding the person's care needs the person completed in consultation
with someone who is known to the person and has interaction with the person on a regular
basis. The provider must submit the report at least 60 days before the end of the person's
current service agreement. The certified assessor must consider the content of the submitted
report prior to finalizing the person's assessment or reassessment.

(e) The certified assessor and the individual responsible for developing the coordinated
service and support plan must complete the community support plan and the coordinated
service and support plan no more than 60 calendar days from the assessment visit. The
person or the person's legal representative must be provided with a written community
support plan within the timelines established by the commissioner, regardless of whether
the person is eligible for Minnesota health care programs.

(f) For a person being assessed for elderly waiver services under chapter 256S, a provider
who submitted information under paragraph (d) shall receive the final written community
support plan when available and the Residential Services Workbook.

(g) The written community support plan must include:

(1) a summary of assessed needs as defined in paragraphs (c) and (d);

(2) the individual's options and choices to meet identified needs, includingnew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (i) new text endall available options for case management services and providersdeleted text begin, includingdeleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (ii) all available options for employment services, settings, and providers;
new text end

new text begin (iii) all available options for living arrangements;
new text end

new text begin (iv) all available options for self-directed services and supports, including self-directed
budget options; and
new text end

new text begin (v) new text endservice provided in a non-disability-specific setting;

(3) identification of health and safety risks and how those risks will be addressed,
including personal risk management strategies;

(4) referral information; and

(5) informal caregiver supports, if applicable.

For a person determined eligible for state plan home care under subdivision 1a, paragraph
(b), clause (1), the person or person's representative must also receive a copy of the home
care service plan developed by the certified assessor.

(h) A person may request assistance in identifying community supports without
participating in a complete assessment. Upon a request for assistance identifying community
support, the person must be transferred or referred to long-term care options counseling
services available under sections 256.975, subdivision 7, and 256.01, subdivision 24, for
telephone assistance and follow up.

(i) The person has the right to make the final decisionnew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (1) new text endbetween institutional placement and community placement after the recommendations
have been provided, except as provided in section 256.975, subdivision 7a, paragraph (d)
deleted text begin .deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (2) between community placement in a setting controlled by a provider and living
independently in a setting not controlled by a provider;
new text end

new text begin (3) between day services and employment services; and
new text end

new text begin (4) regarding available options for self-directed services and supports, including
self-directed funding options.
new text end

(j) The lead agency must give the person receiving deleted text beginassessment or support planning,deleted text endnew text begin
long-term care consultation services
new text end or the person's legal representative, materials, and
forms supplied by the commissioner containing the following information:

(1) written recommendations for community-based services and consumer-directed
options;

(2) documentation that the most cost-effective alternatives available were offered to the
individual. For purposes of this clause, "cost-effective" means community services and
living arrangements that cost the same as or less than institutional care. For an individual
found to meet eligibility criteria for home and community-based service programs under
chapter 256S or section 256B.49, "cost-effectiveness" has the meaning found in the federally
approved waiver plan for each program;

(3) the need for and purpose of preadmission screening conducted by long-term care
options counselors according to section 256.975, subdivisions 7a to 7c, if the person selects
nursing facility placement. If the individual selects nursing facility placement, the lead
agency shall forward information needed to complete the level of care determinations and
screening for developmental disability and mental illness collected during the assessment
to the long-term care options counselor using forms provided by the commissioner;

(4) the role of long-term care consultation assessment and support planning in eligibility
determination for waiver and alternative care programs, and state plan home care, case
management, and other services as defined in subdivision 1a, paragraphs (a), clause (6),
and (b);

(5) information about Minnesota health care programs;

(6) the person's freedom to accept or reject the recommendations of the team;

(7) the person's right to confidentiality under the Minnesota Government Data Practices
Act, chapter 13;

(8) the certified assessor's decision regarding the person's need for institutional level of
care as determined under criteria established in subdivision 4e and the certified assessor's
decision regarding eligibility for all services and programs as defined in subdivision 1a,
paragraphs (a), clause (6), and (b); deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(9) the person's right to appeal the certified assessor's decision regarding eligibility for
all services and programs as defined in subdivision 1a, paragraphs (a), clauses (6), (7), and
(8), and (b), and incorporating the decision regarding the need for institutional level of care
or the lead agency's final decisions regarding public programs eligibility according to section
256.045, subdivision 3. The certified assessor must verbally communicate this appeal right
to the person and must visually point out where in the document the right to appeal is stateddeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
and
new text end

new text begin (10) documentation that available options for employment services, independent living,
and self-directed services and supports were described to the individual.
new text end

(k) Face-to-face assessment completed as part of new text beginan new text endeligibility determination new text beginfor multiple
programs
new text endfor the alternative care, elderly waiver, developmental disabilities, community
access for disability inclusion, community alternative care, and brain injury waiver programs
under chapter 256S and sections 256B.0913, 256B.092, and 256B.49 is valid to establish
service eligibility for no more than 60 calendar days after the date of assessment.

(l) The effective eligibility start date for programs in paragraph (k) can never be prior
to the date of assessment. If an assessment was completed more than 60 days before the
effective waiver or alternative care program eligibility start date, assessment and support
plan information must be updated and documented in the department's Medicaid Management
Information System (MMIS). Notwithstanding retroactive medical assistance coverage of
state plan services, the effective date of eligibility for programs included in paragraph (k)
cannot be prior to the date the most recent updated assessment is completed.

(m) If an eligibility update is completed within 90 days of the previous face-to-face
assessment and documented in the department's Medicaid Management Information System
(MMIS), the effective date of eligibility for programs included in paragraph (k) is the date
of the previous face-to-face assessment when all other eligibility requirements are met.

(n) At the time of reassessment, the certified assessor shall assess each person receiving
waiver new text beginresidential supports and new text endservices currently residing in a community residential setting,
deleted text begin ordeleted text end licensed adult foster care home that is new text begineither new text endnot the primary residence of the license
holderdeleted text begin,deleted text end or in which the license holder is not the primary caregivernew text begin, family adult foster care
residence
new text end, new text begincustomized living setting, or supervised living facility new text endto determine if that person
would prefer to be served in a community-living setting as defined in section 256B.49,
subdivision 23
new text begin, in a setting not controlled by a provider, or to receive integrated community
supports as described in section 245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (8)
new text end. The
certified assessor shall offer the person, through a person-centered planning process, the
option to receive alternative housing and service options.

new text begin (o) At the time of reassessment, the certified assessor shall assess each person receiving
waiver day services to determine if that person would prefer to receive employment services
as described in section 245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clauses (5) to (7). The certified
assessor shall describe to the person through a person-centered planning process the option
to receive employment services.
new text end

new text begin (p) At the time of reassessment, the certified assessor shall assess each person receiving
non-self-directed waiver services to determine if that person would prefer an available
service and setting option that would permit self-directed services and supports. The certified
assessor shall describe to the person through a person-centered planning process the option
to receive self-directed services and supports.
new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.0911, subdivision 3f, is amended
to read:


Subd. 3f.

Long-term care reassessments and community support plan updates.

(a)
Prior to a face-to-face reassessment, the certified assessor must review the person's most
recent assessment. Reassessments must be tailored using the professional judgment of the
assessor to the person's known needs, strengths, preferences, and circumstances.
Reassessments provide information to support the person's informed choice and opportunities
to express choice regarding activities that contribute to quality of life, as well as information
and opportunity to identify goals related to desired employment, community activities, and
preferred living environment. Reassessments require a review of the most recent assessment,
review of the current coordinated service and support plan's effectiveness, monitoring of
services, and the development of an updated person-centered community support plan.
Reassessments new text beginmust new text endverify continued eligibility deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end offer alternatives as warrantednew text begin,new text end and
provide an opportunity for quality assurance of service delivery. Face-to-face reassessments
must be conducted annually or as required by federal and state laws and rules. For
reassessments, the certified assessor and the individual responsible for developing the
coordinated service and support plan must ensure the continuity of care for the person
receiving services and complete the updated community support plan and the updated
coordinated service and support plan no more than 60 days from the reassessment visit.

(b) The commissioner shall develop mechanisms for providers and case managers to
share information with the assessor to facilitate a reassessment and support planning process
tailored to the person's current needs and preferences.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.092, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Case management services.

(a) Each recipient of a home and community-based
waiver shall be provided case management services by qualified vendors as described in
the federally approved waiver application.

(b) Case management service activities provided to or arranged for a person include:

(1) development of the new text beginperson-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan under
subdivision 1b;

(2) informing the individual or the individual's legal guardian or conservator, or parent
if the person is a minor, of service optionsnew text begin, including all service options available under the
waiver plan
new text end;

(3) consulting with relevant medical experts or service providers;

(4) assisting the person in the identification of potential providersnew text begin of chosen servicesnew text end,
includingnew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (i) providers of new text endservices provided in a non-disability-specific setting;

new text begin (ii) employment service providers;
new text end

new text begin (iii) providers of services provided in settings that are not controlled by a provider; and
new text end

new text begin (iv) providers of financial management services;
new text end

(5) assisting the person to access services and assisting in appeals under section 256.045;

(6) coordination of services, if coordination is not provided by another service provider;

(7) evaluation and monitoring of the services identified in the coordinated service and
support plan, which must incorporate at least one annual face-to-face visit by the case
manager with each person; and

(8) reviewing coordinated service and support plans and providing the lead agency with
recommendations for service authorization based upon the individual's needs identified in
the coordinated service and support plan.

(c) Case management service activities that are provided to the person with a
developmental disability shall be provided directly by county agencies or under contract.
Case management services must be provided by a public or private agency that is enrolled
as a medical assistance provider determined by the commissioner to meet all of the
requirements in the approved federal waiver plans. Case management services must not be
provided to a recipient by a private agency that has a financial interest in the provision of
any other services included in the recipient's coordinated service and support plan. For
purposes of this section, "private agency" means any agency that is not identified as a lead
agency under section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).

(d) Case managers are responsible for service provisions listed in paragraphs (a) and
(b). Case managers shall collaborate with consumers, families, legal representatives, and
relevant medical experts and service providers in the development and annual review of the
new text begin person-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan and habilitation plan.

(e) For persons who need a positive support transition plan as required in chapter 245D,
the case manager shall participate in the development and ongoing evaluation of the plan
with the expanded support team. At least quarterly, the case manager, in consultation with
the expanded support team, shall evaluate the effectiveness of the plan based on progress
evaluation data submitted by the licensed provider to the case manager. The evaluation must
identify whether the plan has been developed and implemented in a manner to achieve the
following within the required timelines:

(1) phasing out the use of prohibited procedures;

(2) acquisition of skills needed to eliminate the prohibited procedures within the plan's
timeline; and

(3) accomplishment of identified outcomes.

If adequate progress is not being made, the case manager shall consult with the person's
expanded support team to identify needed modifications and whether additional professional
support is required to provide consultation.

(f) The Department of Human Services shall offer ongoing education in case management
to case managers. Case managers shall receive no less than ten hours of case management
education and disability-related training each year.new text begin The education and training must include
person-centered planning. For the purposes of this section, "person-centered planning" or
"person-centered" has the meaning given in section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph
(f).
new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.092, subdivision 1b, is amended
to read:


Subd. 1b.

Coordinated service and support plan.

(a) Each recipient of home and
community-based waivered services shall be provided a copy of the written new text beginperson-centered
new text end coordinated service and support plan that:

(1) is developed with and signed by the recipient within the timelines established by the
commissioner and section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, paragraph (e);

(2) includes the person's need for service, including identification of service needs that
will be or that are met by the person's relatives, friends, and others, as well as community
services used by the general public;

(3) reasonably ensures the health and welfare of the recipient;

(4) identifies the person's preferences for services as stated by the person, the person's
legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, including the person's
choices made on self-directed options deleted text beginand ondeleted text endnew text begin,new text end services and supports to achieve employment
goalsnew text begin, and living arrangementsnew text end;

(5) provides for an informed choice, as defined in section 256B.77, subdivision 2,
paragraph (o), of service and support providers, and identifies all available options for case
management services and providers;

(6) identifies long-range and short-range goals for the person;

(7) identifies specific services and the amount and frequency of the services to be provided
to the person based on assessed needs, preferences, and available resources. The
new text begin person-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan shall also specify other services the
person needs that are not available;

(8) identifies the need for an individual program plan to be developed by the provider
according to the respective state and federal licensing and certification standards, and
additional assessments to be completed or arranged by the provider after service initiation;

(9) identifies provider responsibilities to implement and make recommendations for
modification to the coordinated service and support plan;

(10) includes notice of the right to request a conciliation conference or a hearing under
section 256.045;

(11) is agreed upon and signed by the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator,
or the parent if the person is a minor, and the authorized county representative;

(12) is reviewed by a health professional if the person has overriding medical needs that
impact the delivery of services; and

(13) includes the authorized annual and monthly amounts for the services.

(b) In developing the new text beginperson-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan, the case
manager is encouraged to include the use of volunteers, religious organizations, social clubs,
and civic and service organizations to support the individual in the community. The lead
agency must be held harmless for damages or injuries sustained through the use of volunteers
and agencies under this paragraph, including workers' compensation liability.

(c) Approved, written, and signed changes to a consumer's services that meet the criteria
in this subdivision shall be an addendum to that consumer's individual service plan.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.49, subdivision 13, is amended
to read:


Subd. 13.

Case management.

(a) Each recipient of a home and community-based waiver
shall be provided case management services by qualified vendors as described in the federally
approved waiver application. The case management service activities provided must include:

(1) finalizing the new text beginperson-centered new text endwritten coordinated service and support plan within
the timelines established by the commissioner and section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a,
paragraph (e);

(2) informing the recipient or the recipient's legal guardian or conservator of service
optionsnew text begin, including all service options available under the waiver plansnew text end;

(3) assisting the recipient in the identification of potential service providers deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin of chosen
services, including:
new text end

new text begin (i) new text endavailable options for case management service and providersdeleted text begin, includingdeleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (ii) new text endnew text beginproviders of new text endservices provided in a non-disability-specific setting;

new text begin (iii) employment service providers;
new text end

new text begin (iv) providers of services provided in settings that are not community residential settings;
and
new text end

new text begin (v) providers of financial management services;
new text end

(4) assisting the recipient to access services and assisting with appeals under section
256.045; and

(5) coordinating, evaluating, and monitoring of the services identified in the service
plan.

(b) The case manager may delegate certain aspects of the case management service
activities to another individual provided there is oversight by the case manager. The case
manager may not delegate those aspects which require professional judgment including:

(1) finalizing the new text beginperson-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan;

(2) ongoing assessment and monitoring of the person's needs and adequacy of the
approved new text beginperson-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan; and

(3) adjustments to the new text beginperson-centered new text endcoordinated service and support plan.

(c) Case management services must be provided by a public or private agency that is
enrolled as a medical assistance provider determined by the commissioner to meet all of
the requirements in the approved federal waiver plans. Case management services must not
be provided to a recipient by a private agency that has any financial interest in the provision
of any other services included in the recipient's coordinated service and support plan. For
purposes of this section, "private agency" means any agency that is not identified as a lead
agency under section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).

(d) For persons who need a positive support transition plan as required in chapter 245D,
the case manager shall participate in the development and ongoing evaluation of the plan
with the expanded support team. At least quarterly, the case manager, in consultation with
the expanded support team, shall evaluate the effectiveness of the plan based on progress
evaluation data submitted by the licensed provider to the case manager. The evaluation must
identify whether the plan has been developed and implemented in a manner to achieve the
following within the required timelines:

(1) phasing out the use of prohibited procedures;

(2) acquisition of skills needed to eliminate the prohibited procedures within the plan's
timeline; and

(3) accomplishment of identified outcomes.

If adequate progress is not being made, the case manager shall consult with the person's
expanded support team to identify needed modifications and whether additional professional
support is required to provide consultation.

new text begin (e) The Department of Human Services shall offer ongoing education in case management
to case managers. Case managers shall receive no less than ten hours of case management
education and disability-related training each year. The education and training must include
person-centered planning. For the purposes of this section, "person-centered planning" or
"person-centered" has the meaning given in section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph
(f).
new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.49, subdivision 14, is amended
to read:


Subd. 14.

Assessment and reassessment.

(a) Assessments and reassessments shall be
conducted by certified assessors according to section 256B.0911, subdivision 2b. deleted text beginThe
certified assessor, with the permission of the recipient or the recipient's designated legal
representative, may invite other individuals to attend the assessment. With the permission
of the recipient or the recipient's designated legal representative, the recipient's current
provider of services may submit a written report outlining their recommendations regarding
the recipient's care needs prepared by a direct service employee who is familiar with the
deleted text enddeleted text begin person. The provider must submit the report at least 60 days before the end of the person's
current service agreement. The certified assessor must consider the content of the submitted
report prior to finalizing the person's assessment or reassessment.
deleted text end

(b) There must be a determination that the client requires a hospital level of care or a
nursing facility level of care as defined in section 256B.0911, subdivision 4e, at initial and
subsequent assessments to initiate and maintain participation in the waiver program.

(c) Regardless of other assessments identified in section 144.0724, subdivision 4, as
appropriate to determine nursing facility level of care for purposes of medical assistance
payment for nursing facility services, only face-to-face assessments conducted according
to section 256B.0911, subdivisions 3a, 3b, and 4d, that result in a hospital level of care
determination or a nursing facility level of care determination must be accepted for purposes
of initial and ongoing access to waiver services payment.

(d) Recipients who are found eligible for home and community-based services under
this section before their 65th birthday may remain eligible for these services after their 65th
birthday if they continue to meet all other eligibility factors.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.49, subdivision 23, is amended to read:


Subd. 23.

Community-living settings.

new text begin(a) For the purposes of this chapter,
new text end "community-living settings" means a single-family home or deleted text beginapartmentdeleted text endnew text begin multifamily dwelling
unit
new text end where deleted text beginthedeleted text endnew text begin anew text end service recipient or deleted text begintheirdeleted text endnew text begin a service recipient'snew text end family owns or rents, and
maintains control over the individual unit as demonstrated by deleted text beginthedeleted text endnew text begin anew text end lease agreementdeleted text begin, or has
a plan for transition of a lease from a service provider to the individual. Within two years
of signing the initial lease, the service provider shall transfer the lease to the individual. In
the event the landlord denies the transfer, the commissioner may approve an exception
within sufficient time to ensure the continued occupancy by the individual
deleted text end.new text begin Community-living
settings does not include a home or dwelling unit that the service provider owns, operates,
or leases or in which the service provider has a direct or indirect financial interest.
new text end

new text begin (b) To ensure a service recipient or the service recipient's family maintains control over
the home or dwelling unit,
new text end community-living settings are subject to the followingnew text begin
requirements
new text end:

(1) deleted text beginindividuals aredeleted text endnew text begin service recipients mustnew text end not new text beginbe new text endrequired to receive servicesnew text begin or share
services
new text end;

(2) deleted text beginindividuals aredeleted text end new text beginservice recipients must new text endnot new text beginbe new text endrequired to have a disability or specific
diagnosis to live in the community-living setting;

(3) deleted text beginindividualsdeleted text endnew text begin service recipientsnew text end may hire service providers of their choice;

(4) deleted text beginindividualsdeleted text end new text beginservice recipients new text endmay choose whether to share their household and with
whom;

(5) the home or deleted text beginapartmentdeleted text endnew text begin multifamily dwelling unitnew text end must include living, sleeping,
bathing, and cooking areas;

(6) deleted text beginindividualsdeleted text endnew text begin service recipientsnew text end must have lockable access and egress;

(7) deleted text beginindividualsdeleted text endnew text begin service recipientsnew text end must be free to receive visitors and leave the settings
at times and for durations of their own choosing;

(8) leases must deleted text beginnot reserve the right to assign units or change unit assignmentsdeleted text endnew text begin comply
with chapter 504B
new text end; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(9) new text beginlandlords must not charge different rents to tenants who are receiving home and
community-based services; and
new text end

new text begin (10) new text endaccess to the greater community must be easily facilitated based on the deleted text beginindividual'sdeleted text endnew text begin
service recipient's
new text end needs and preferences.

new text begin (c) Nothing in this section prohibits a service recipient from having another person or
entity not affiliated with the service provider cosign a lease. Nothing in this section prohibits
a service recipient, during any period in which a service provider has cosigned the service
recipient's lease, from modifying services with an existing cosigning service provider and,
subject to the approval of the landlord, maintaining a lease cosigned by the service provider.
Nothing in this section prohibits a service recipient, during any period in which a service
provider has cosigned the service recipient's lease, from terminating services with the
cosigning service provider, receiving services from a new service provider, and, subject to
the approval of the landlord, maintaining a lease cosigned by the new service provider.
new text end

new text begin (d) A lease cosigned by a service provider meets the requirements of paragraph (a) if
the service recipient and service provider develop and implement a transition plan which
must provide that, within two years of cosigning the initial lease, the service provider shall
transfer the lease to the service recipient and other cosigners, if any.
new text end

new text begin (e) In the event the landlord has not approved the transfer of the lease within two years
of the service provider cosigning the initial lease, the service provider must submit a
time-limited extension request to the commissioner of human services to continue the
cosigned lease arrangement. The extension request must include:
new text end

new text begin (1) the reason the landlord denied the transfer;
new text end

new text begin (2) the plan to overcome the denial to transfer the lease;
new text end

new text begin (3) the length of time needed to successfully transfer the lease, not to exceed an additional
two years;
new text end

new text begin (4) a description of how the transition plan was followed, what occurred that led to the
landlord denying the transfer, and what changes in circumstances or condition, if any, the
service recipient experienced; and
new text end

new text begin (5) a revised transition plan to transfer the cosigned lease between the service provider
and the service recipient to the service recipient.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner must approve an extension within sufficient time to ensure the continued
occupancy by the service recipient.
new text end

ARTICLE 5

DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES POLICY PROPOSALS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245.4871, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 32a. new text end

new text begin Responsible social services agency. new text end

new text begin "Responsible social services agency"
is defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 27a.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245.4885, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Admission criteria.

(a) Prior to admissionnew text begin or placementnew text end, except in the
case of new text beginan new text endemergency deleted text beginadmissiondeleted text end, all children referred for treatment of severe emotional
disturbance in a treatment foster care setting, residential treatment facility, or informally
admitted to a regional treatment center shall undergo an assessment to determine the
appropriate level of care if public funds are used to pay for the services.

(b) The deleted text begincounty boarddeleted text endnew text begin responsible social services agencynew text end shall determine the appropriate
level of care new text beginfor a child new text endwhen county-controlled funds are used to pay for the new text beginchild's new text endservicesnew text begin
or placement in a qualified residential treatment facility under chapter 260C and licensed
by the commissioner under chapter 245A. In accordance with section 260C.157, a juvenile
treatment screening team shall conduct a screening before the team may recommend whether
to place a child in a qualified residential treatment program as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 26d
new text end. Whennew text begin a social services agency does not have responsibility for a child's
placement and
new text end the child is enrolled in a prepaid health program under section 256B.69, the
enrolled child's contracted health plan must determine the appropriate level of care. When
Indian Health Services funds or funds of a tribally owned facility funded under the Indian
Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act, Public Law 93-638, are to be used, the
Indian Health Services or 638 tribal health facility must determine the appropriate level of
care. When more than one entity bears responsibility for coverage, the entities shall
coordinate level of care determination activities to the extent possible.

(c) The new text beginresponsible social services agency must make the new text endlevel of care determination
deleted text begin shalldeleted text endnew text begin available to the juvenile treatment screening team, as permitted under chapter 13. The
level of care determination shall inform the juvenile treatment screening team process and
the assessment in section 260C.704 when considering whether to place the child in a qualified
residential treatment program. When the responsible social services agency is not involved
in determining a child's placement, the child's level of care determination shall
new text end determine
whether the proposed treatment:

(1) is necessary;

(2) is appropriate to the child's individual treatment needs;

(3) cannot be effectively provided in the child's home; and

(4) provides a length of stay as short as possible consistent with the individual child's
need.

(d) When a level of care determination is conducted, the responsible new text beginsocial services
agency or other
new text end entity may not determine thatnew text begin a screening under section 260C.157 ornew text end referral
or admission to a treatment foster care setting or residential treatment facility is not
appropriate solely because services were not first provided to the child in a less restrictive
setting and the child failed to make progress toward or meet treatment goals in the less
restrictive setting. The level of care determination must be based on a diagnostic assessment
that includes a functional assessment which evaluates family, school, and community living
situations; and an assessment of the child's need for care out of the home using a validated
tool which assesses a child's functional status and assigns an appropriate level of care. The
validated tool must be approved by the commissioner of human services. If a diagnostic
assessment including a functional assessment has been completed by a mental health
professional within the past 180 days, a new diagnostic assessment need not be completed
unless in the opinion of the current treating mental health professional the child's mental
health status has changed markedly since the assessment was completed. The child's parent
shall be notified if an assessment will not be completed and of the reasons. A copy of the
notice shall be placed in the child's file. Recommendations developed as part of the level
of care determination process shall include specific community services needed by the child
and, if appropriate, the child's family, and shall indicate whether or not these services are
available and accessible to the child and family.

(e) During the level of care determination process, the child, child's family, or child's
legal representative, as appropriate, must be informed of the child's eligibility for case
management services and family community support services and that an individual family
community support plan is being developed by the case manager, if assigned.

(f) deleted text beginThe level of care determination shall comply with section 260C.212. The parent shall
be consulted in the process, unless clinically detrimental to the child.
deleted text endnew text begin When the responsible
social services agency has authority, the agency must engage the child's parents in case
planning under sections 260C.212 and 260C.708 unless a court terminates the parent's rights
or court orders restrict the parent from participating in case planning, visitation, or parental
responsibilities.
new text end

(g) The level of care determination, and placement decision, and recommendations for
mental health services must be documented in the child's recordnew text begin, as required in chapters
260C
new text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245.4889, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Establishment and authority.

(a) The commissioner is authorized to
make grants from available appropriations to assist:

(1) counties;

(2) Indian tribes;

(3) children's collaboratives under section 124D.23 or 245.493; or

(4) mental health service providers.

(b) The following services are eligible for grants under this section:

(1) services to children with emotional disturbances as defined in section 245.4871,
subdivision 15, and their families;

(2) transition services under section 245.4875, subdivision 8, for young adults under
age 21 and their families;

(3) respite care services for children with new text beginemotional disturbances or new text endsevere emotional
disturbances who are at risk of out-of-home placementnew text begin. A child is not required to have case
management services to receive respite care services
new text end;

(4) children's mental health crisis services;

(5) mental health services for people from cultural and ethnic minorities;

(6) children's mental health screening and follow-up diagnostic assessment and treatment;

(7) services to promote and develop the capacity of providers to use evidence-based
practices in providing children's mental health services;

(8) school-linked mental health services under section 245.4901;

(9) building evidence-based mental health intervention capacity for children birth to age
five;

(10) suicide prevention and counseling services that use text messaging statewide;

(11) mental health first aid training;

(12) training for parents, collaborative partners, and mental health providers on the
impact of adverse childhood experiences and trauma and development of an interactive
website to share information and strategies to promote resilience and prevent trauma;

(13) transition age services to develop or expand mental health treatment and supports
for adolescents and young adults 26 years of age or younger;

(14) early childhood mental health consultation;

(15) evidence-based interventions for youth at risk of developing or experiencing a first
episode of psychosis, and a public awareness campaign on the signs and symptoms of
psychosis;

(16) psychiatric consultation for primary care practitioners; and

(17) providers to begin operations and meet program requirements when establishing a
new children's mental health program. These may be start-up grants.

(c) Services under paragraph (b) must be designed to help each child to function and
remain with the child's family in the community and delivered consistent with the child's
treatment plan. Transition services to eligible young adults under this paragraph must be
designed to foster independent living in the community.

(d) As a condition of receiving grant funds, a grantee shall obtain all available third-party
reimbursement sources, if applicable.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.03, subdivision 7, is amended
to read:


Subd. 7.

Licensing moratorium.

(a) The commissioner shall not issue an initial license
for child foster care licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3000 to 2960.3340, or adult
foster care licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, under this chapter
for a physical location that will not be the primary residence of the license holder for the
entire period of licensure. If a license is issued during this moratorium, and the license
holder changes the license holder's primary residence away from the physical location of
the foster care license, the commissioner shall revoke the license according to section
245A.07. The commissioner shall not issue an initial license for a community residential
setting licensed under chapter 245D. When approving an exception under this paragraph,
the commissioner shall consider the resource need determination process in paragraph (h),
the availability of foster care licensed beds in the geographic area in which the licensee
seeks to operate, the results of a person's choices during their annual assessment and service
plan review, and the recommendation of the local county board. The determination by the
commissioner is final and not subject to appeal. Exceptions to the moratorium include:

(1) foster care settings that are required to be registered under chapter 144D;

(2) foster care licenses replacing foster care licenses in existence on May 15, 2009, or
community residential setting licenses replacing adult foster care licenses in existence on
December 31, 2013, and determined to be needed by the commissioner under paragraph
(b);

(3) new foster care licenses or community residential setting licenses determined to be
needed by the commissioner under paragraph (b) for the closure of a nursing facility, ICF/DD,
or regional treatment center; restructuring of state-operated services that limits the capacity
of state-operated facilities; or allowing movement to the community for people who no
longer require the level of care provided in state-operated facilities as provided under section
256B.092, subdivision 13, or 256B.49, subdivision 24;

(4) new foster care licenses or community residential setting licenses determined to be
needed by the commissioner under paragraph (b) for persons requiring hospital level care;new text begin
or
new text end

(5) deleted text beginnew foster care licenses or community residential setting licenses determined to be
needed by the commissioner for the transition of people from personal care assistance to
the home and community-based services;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6) new foster care licenses or community residential setting licenses determined to be
needed by the commissioner for the transition of people from the residential care waiver
services to foster care services. This exception applies only when:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (i) the person's case manager provided the person with information about the choice of
service, service provider, and location of service to help the person make an informed choice;
and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (ii) the person's foster care services are less than or equal to the cost of the person's
services delivered in the residential care waiver service setting as determined by the lead
agency; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new foster care licenses or community residential setting licenses for people receiving
services under chapter 245D and residing in an unlicensed setting before May 1, 2017, and
for which a license is required. This exception does not apply to people living in their own
home. For purposes of this clause, there is a presumption that a foster care or community
residential setting license is required for services provided to three or more people in a
dwelling unit when the setting is controlled by the provider. A license holder subject to this
exception may rebut the presumption that a license is required by seeking a reconsideration
of the commissioner's determination. The commissioner's disposition of a request for
reconsideration is final and not subject to appeal under chapter 14. The exception is available
until June 30, 2018. This exception is available when:

(i) the person's case manager provided the person with information about the choice of
service, service provider, and location of service, including in the person's home, to help
the person make an informed choice; and

(ii) the person's services provided in the licensed foster care or community residential
setting are less than or equal to the cost of the person's services delivered in the unlicensed
setting as determined by the lead agency.

(b) The commissioner shall determine the need for newly licensed foster care homes or
community residential settings as defined under this subdivision. As part of the determination,
the commissioner shall consider the availability of foster care capacity in the area in which
the licensee seeks to operate, and the recommendation of the local county board. The
determination by the commissioner must be final. A determination of need is not required
for a change in ownership at the same address.

(c) When an adult resident served by the program moves out of a foster home that is not
the primary residence of the license holder according to section 256B.49, subdivision 15,
paragraph (f), or the adult community residential setting, the county shall immediately
inform the Department of Human Services Licensing Division. The department may decrease
the statewide licensed capacity for adult foster care settings.

(d) Residential settings that would otherwise be subject to the decreased license capacity
established in paragraph (c) shall be exempt if the license holder's beds are occupied by
residents whose primary diagnosis is mental illness and the license holder is certified under
the requirements in subdivision 6a or section 245D.33.

(e) A resource need determination process, managed at the state level, using the available
reports required by section 144A.351, and other data and information shall be used to
determine where the reduced capacity determined under section 256B.493 will be
implemented. The commissioner shall consult with the stakeholders described in section
144A.351, and employ a variety of methods to improve the state's capacity to meet the
informed decisions of those people who want to move out of corporate foster care or
community residential settings, long-term service needs within budgetary limits, including
seeking proposals from service providers or lead agencies to change service type, capacity,
or location to improve services, increase the independence of residents, and better meet
needs identified by the long-term services and supports reports and statewide data and
information.

(f) At the time of application and reapplication for licensure, the applicant and the license
holder that are subject to the moratorium or an exclusion established in paragraph (a) are
required to inform the commissioner whether the physical location where the foster care
will be provided is or will be the primary residence of the license holder for the entire period
of licensure. If the primary residence of the applicant or license holder changes, the applicant
or license holder must notify the commissioner immediately. The commissioner shall print
on the foster care license certificate whether or not the physical location is the primary
residence of the license holder.

(g) License holders of foster care homes identified under paragraph (f) that are not the
primary residence of the license holder and that also provide services in the foster care home
that are covered by a federally approved home and community-based services waiver, as
authorized under chapter 256S or section 256B.092 or 256B.49, must inform the human
services licensing division that the license holder provides or intends to provide these
waiver-funded services.

(h) The commissioner may adjust capacity to address needs identified in section
144A.351. Under this authority, the commissioner may approve new licensed settings or
delicense existing settings. Delicensing of settings will be accomplished through a process
identified in section 256B.493. Annually, by August 1, the commissioner shall provide
information and data on capacity of licensed long-term services and supports, actions taken
under the subdivision to manage statewide long-term services and supports resources, and
any recommendations for change to the legislative committees with jurisdiction over the
health and human services budget.

(i) The commissioner must notify a license holder when its corporate foster care or
community residential setting licensed beds are reduced under this section. The notice of
reduction of licensed beds must be in writing and delivered to the license holder by certified
mail or personal service. The notice must state why the licensed beds are reduced and must
inform the license holder of its right to request reconsideration by the commissioner. The
license holder's request for reconsideration must be in writing. If mailed, the request for
reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within 20 calendar days
after the license holder's receipt of the notice of reduction of licensed beds. If a request for
reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the commissioner within
20 calendar days after the license holder's receipt of the notice of reduction of licensed beds.

(j) The commissioner shall not issue an initial license for children's residential treatment
services licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0580 to 2960.0700, under this chapter
for a program that Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services would consider an institution
for mental diseases. Facilities that serve only private pay clients are exempt from the
moratorium described in this paragraph. The commissioner has the authority to manage
existing statewide capacity for children's residential treatment services subject to the
moratorium under this paragraph and may issue an initial license for such facilities if the
initial license would not increase the statewide capacity for children's residential treatment
services subject to the moratorium under this paragraph.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Background study.

"Background study" means the review of records conducted
by the commissioner to determine whether a subject is disqualified from direct contact with
persons served by a program and, where specifically provided in statutes, whether a subject
is disqualified from having access to persons served by a programnew text begin and from working in a
children's residential facility or foster residence setting
new text end.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 11a. new text end

new text begin Foster family setting. new text end

new text begin "Foster family setting" has the meaning given in
Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960.3010, subpart 23.
new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 11b. new text end

new text begin Foster residence setting. new text end

new text begin "Foster residence setting" has the meaning given
in Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960.3010, subpart 26, and includes settings licensed by the
commissioner of corrections or the commissioner of human services.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 21. new text end

new text begin Title IV-E eligible. new text end

new text begin "Title IV-E eligible" means a children's residential facility
or foster residence setting that is designated by the commissioner as eligible to receive Title
IV-E payments for a child placed at the children's residential facility or foster residence
setting.
new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245C.03, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Licensed programs.

(a) The commissioner shall conduct a background
study on:

(1) the person or persons applying for a license;

(2) an individual age 13 and over living in the household where the licensed program
will be provided who is not receiving licensed services from the program;

(3) current or prospective employees or contractors of the applicant who will have direct
contact with persons served by the facility, agency, or program;

(4) volunteers or student volunteers who will have direct contact with persons served
by the program to provide program services if the contact is not under the continuous, direct
supervision by an individual listed in clause (1) or (3);

(5) an individual age ten to 12 living in the household where the licensed services will
be provided when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02,
subdivision 15;

(6) an individual who, without providing direct contact services at a licensed program,
may have unsupervised access to children or vulnerable adults receiving services from a
program, when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02,
subdivision 15;

(7) all controlling individuals as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 5a;

(8) notwithstanding the other requirements in this subdivision, child care background
study subjects as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a; and

(9) notwithstanding clause (3), for children's residential facilitiesnew text begin and foster residence
settings
new text end, any adult working in the facility, whether or not the individual will have direct
contact with persons served by the facility.

(b) For child foster care when the license holder resides in the home where foster care
services are provided, a short-term substitute caregiver providing direct contact services for
a child for less than 72 hours of continuous care is not required to receive a background
study under this chapter.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.03, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 13. new text end

new text begin Providers of housing support services. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall conduct
background studies on any individual required under section 256B.051 to have a background
study completed under this chapter.
new text end

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.04, subdivision 1, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 80, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Licensed programs; other child care programs.

(a) The commissioner
shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be studied under section
245C.03, subdivision 1, at least upon application for initial license for all license types.

(b) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be
studied under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, including a child care background study
subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, in a family child care program, licensed
child care center, certified license-exempt child care center, or legal nonlicensed child care
provider, on a schedule determined by the commissioner. Except as provided in section
245C.05, subdivision 5a, a child care background study must include submission of
fingerprints for a national criminal history record check and a review of the information
under section 245C.08. A background study for a child care program must be repeated
within five years from the most recent study conducted under this paragraph.

(c) At reapplication for a family child care license:

(1) for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child care center or legal
nonlicensed child care provider, the individual shall provide information required under
section 245C.05, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the county agency, and be
fingerprinted and photographed under section 245C.05, subdivision 5;

(2) the county agency shall verify the information received under clause (1) and forward
the information to the commissioner to complete the background study; and

(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08.

(d) The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at the time of
reapplication for a license if the individual's background study was completed by the
commissioner of human services and the following conditions are met:

(1) a study of the individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when
the individual became affiliated with the license holder;

(2) the individual has been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last
study was conducted; and

(3) the last study of the individual was conducted on or after October 1, 1995.

(e) The commissioner of human services shall conduct a background study of an
individual specified under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6),
who is newly affiliated with a child foster deleted text begincaredeleted text endnew text begin family settingnew text end license holder:

(1) the county or private agency shall collect and forward to the commissioner the
information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1 and 5, when the child foster
deleted text begin caredeleted text endnew text begin family settingnew text end applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care
services are provided;new text begin and
new text end

deleted text begin (2) the child foster care license holder or applicant shall collect and forward to the
commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1 and 5, when
the applicant or license holder does not reside in the home where child foster care services
are provided; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3)deleted text endnew text begin (2)new text end the background study conducted by the commissioner of human services under
this paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08,
subdivisions 1
, 3, and 4.

(f) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual specified under
section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), who is newly affiliated
with an adult foster care or family adult day services and with a family child care license
holder or a legal nonlicensed child care provider authorized under chapter 119B and:

(1) except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, the county shall collect and
forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivision
1
, paragraphs (a) and (b), and subdivision 5, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), for background
studies conducted by the commissioner for all family adult day services, for adult foster
care when the adult foster care license holder resides in the adult foster care residence, and
for family child care and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B;

(2) the license holder shall collect and forward to the commissioner the information
required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1, paragraphs (a) and (b); and 5, paragraphs
(a) and (b), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for adult foster care
when the license holder does not reside in the adult foster care residence; and

(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a), and subdivisions 3 and 4.

(g) Applicants for licensure, license holders, and other entities as provided in this chapter
must submit completed background study requests to the commissioner using the electronic
system known as NETStudy before individuals specified in section 245C.03, subdivision
1
, begin positions allowing direct contact in any licensed program.

(h) For an individual who is not on the entity's active roster, the entity must initiate a
new background study through NETStudy when:

(1) an individual returns to a position requiring a background study following an absence
of 120 or more consecutive days; or

(2) a program that discontinued providing licensed direct contact services for 120 or
more consecutive days begins to provide direct contact licensed services again.

The license holder shall maintain a copy of the notification provided to the commissioner
under this paragraph in the program's files. If the individual's disqualification was previously
set aside for the license holder's program and the new background study results in no new
information that indicates the individual may pose a risk of harm to persons receiving
services from the license holder, the previous set-aside shall remain in effect.

(i) For purposes of this section, a physician licensed under chapter 147 or advanced
practice registered nurse licensed under chapter 148 is considered to be continuously affiliated
upon the license holder's receipt from the commissioner of health or human services of the
physician's or advanced practice registered nurse's background study results.

(j) For purposes of family child care, a substitute caregiver must receive repeat
background studies at the time of each license renewal.

(k) A repeat background study at the time of license renewal is not required if the family
child care substitute caregiver's background study was completed by the commissioner on
or after October 1, 2017, and the substitute caregiver is on the license holder's active roster
in NETStudy 2.0.

(l) Before and after school programs authorized under chapter 119B, are exempt from
the background study requirements under section 123B.03, for an employee for whom a
background study under this chapter has been completed.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.04, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 11. new text end

new text begin Children's residential facilities and foster residence settings. new text end

new text begin Applicants
and license holders for children's residential facilities and foster residence settings must
submit a background study request to the commissioner using the electronic system known
as NETStudy 2.0:
new text end

new text begin (1) before the commissioner issues a license to an applicant;
new text end

new text begin (2) before an individual age 13 or older, who is not currently receiving services from
the licensed facility or setting, may live in the licensed program or setting;
new text end

new text begin (3) before a volunteer has unsupervised direct contact with persons that the program
serves;
new text end

new text begin (4) before an individual becomes a controlling individual as defined in section 245A.02,
subdivision 5a;
new text end

new text begin (5) before an adult, regardless of whether or not the individual will have direct contact
with persons served by the facility, begins working in the facility or setting;
new text end

new text begin (6) when directed to by the commissioner for an individual who resides in the household
as described in section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (5); and
new text end

new text begin (7) when directed to by the commissioner for an individual who may have unsupervised
access to children or vulnerable adults as described in section 245C.03, subdivision 1,
paragraph (a), clause (6).
new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245C.05, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:


Subd. 4.

Electronic transmission.

(a) For background studies conducted by the
Department of Human Services, the commissioner shall implement a secure system for the
electronic transmission of:

(1) background study information to the commissioner;

(2) background study results to the license holder;

(3) background study results to deleted text begincounty and private agenciesdeleted text endnew text begin countiesnew text end for background
studies conducted by the commissioner for child foster care; and

(4) background study results to county agencies for background studies conducted by
the commissioner for adult foster care and family adult day services and, upon
implementation of NETStudy 2.0, family child care and legal nonlicensed child care
authorized under chapter 119B.

(b) Unless the commissioner has granted a hardship variance under paragraph (c), a
license holder or an applicant must use the electronic transmission system known as
NETStudy or NETStudy 2.0 to submit all requests for background studies to the
commissioner as required by this chapter.

(c) A license holder or applicant whose program is located in an area in which high-speed
Internet is inaccessible may request the commissioner to grant a variance to the electronic
transmission requirement.

(d) Section 245C.08, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), applies to results transmitted under
this subdivision.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245C.08, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Background studies conducted by Department of Human Services.

(a)
For a background study conducted by the Department of Human Services, the commissioner
shall review:

(1) information related to names of substantiated perpetrators of maltreatment of
vulnerable adults that has been received by the commissioner as required under section
626.557, subdivision 9c, paragraph (j);

(2) the commissioner's records relating to the maltreatment of minors in licensed
programs, and from findings of maltreatment of minors as indicated through the social
service information system;

(3) information from juvenile courts as required in subdivision 4 for individuals listed
in section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), when there is reasonable cause;

(4) information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, including information
regarding a background study subject's registration in Minnesota as a predatory offender
under section 243.166;

(5) except as provided in clause (6), information received as a result of submission of
fingerprints for a national criminal history record check, as defined in section 245C.02,
subdivision 13c, when the commissioner has reasonable cause for a national criminal history
record check as defined under section 245C.02, subdivision 15a, or as required under section
144.057, subdivision 1, clause (2);

(6) for a background study related to a child foster deleted text begincaredeleted text endnew text begin family settingnew text end application for
licensure, new text beginfoster residence settings, new text endchildren's residential facilities, a transfer of permanent
legal and physical custody of a child under sections 260C.503 to 260C.515, or adoptions,
and for a background study required for family child care, certified license-exempt child
care, child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B,
the commissioner shall also review:

(i) information from the child abuse and neglect registry for any state in which the
background study subject has resided for the past five years;

(ii) when the background study subject is 18 years of age or older, or a minor under
section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, paragraph (c), information received following submission
of fingerprints for a national criminal history record check; and

(iii) when the background study subject is 18 years of age or older or a minor under
section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, paragraph (d), for licensed family child care, certified
license-exempt child care, licensed child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care
authorized under chapter 119B, information obtained using non-fingerprint-based data
including information from the criminal and sex offender registries for any state in which
the background study subject resided for the past five years and information from the national
crime information database and the national sex offender registry; and

(7) for a background study required for family child care, certified license-exempt child
care centers, licensed child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under
chapter 119B, the background study shall also include, to the extent practicable, a name
and date-of-birth search of the National Sex Offender Public website.

(b) Notwithstanding expungement by a court, the commissioner may consider information
obtained under paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), unless the commissioner received notice
of the petition for expungement and the court order for expungement is directed specifically
to the commissioner.

(c) The commissioner shall also review criminal case information received according
to section 245C.04, subdivision 4a, from the Minnesota court information system that relates
to individuals who have already been studied under this chapter and who remain affiliated
with the agency that initiated the background study.

(d) When the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe that the identity of a
background study subject is uncertain, the commissioner may require the subject to provide
a set of classifiable fingerprints for purposes of completing a fingerprint-based record check
with the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. Fingerprints collected under this paragraph
shall not be saved by the commissioner after they have been used to verify the identity of
the background study subject against the particular criminal record in question.

(e) The commissioner may inform the entity that initiated a background study under
NETStudy 2.0 of the status of processing of the subject's fingerprints.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.10, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 16. new text end

new text begin Providers of housing support services. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall recover the
cost of background studies initiated by providers of housing support services under section
256B.051 through a fee of no more than $20 per study. The fees collected under this
subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background
studies.
new text end

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245C.13, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

deleted text beginDirect contactdeleted text endnew text begin Activitiesnew text end pending completion of background study.

The
subject of a background study may not perform any activity requiring a background study
under paragraph (c) until the commissioner has issued one of the notices under paragraph
(a).

(a) Notices from the commissioner required prior to activity under paragraph deleted text begin(b)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end
include:

(1) a notice of the study results under section 245C.17 stating that:

(i) the individual is not disqualified; or

(ii) more time is needed to complete the study but the individual is not required to be
removed from direct contact or access to people receiving services prior to completion of
the study as provided under section 245C.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (b) or (c). The notice
that more time is needed to complete the study must also indicate whether the individual is
required to be under continuous direct supervision prior to completion of the background
studynew text begin. When more time is necessary to complete a background study of an individual
affiliated with a Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility or foster residence setting,
the individual may not work in the facility or setting regardless of whether or not the
individual is supervised
new text end;

(2) a notice that a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or

(3) a notice that a variance has been granted related to the individual under section
245C.30.

(b) For a background study affiliated with a licensed child care center or certified
license-exempt child care center, the notice sent under paragraph (a), clause (1), item (ii),
must require the individual to be under continuous direct supervision prior to completion
of the background study except as permitted in subdivision 3.

(c) Activities prohibited prior to receipt of notice under paragraph (a) include:

(1) being issued a license;

(2) living in the household where the licensed program will be provided;

(3) providing direct contact services to persons served by a program unless the subject
is under continuous direct supervision;

(4) having access to persons receiving services if the background study was completed
under section 144.057, subdivision 1, or 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2),
(5), or (6), unless the subject is under continuous direct supervision; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(5) for licensed child care centers and certified license-exempt child care centers,
providing direct contact services to persons served by the programdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (6) for children's residential facilities or foster residence settings, working in the facility
or setting.
new text end

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.14, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Disqualification from working in children's residential facilities and foster
residence settings.
new text end

new text begin (a) For a background study affiliated with a children's residential facility
or foster residence setting, if an individual is disqualified from direct contact under
subdivision 1, the commissioner must also disqualify the individual from working in the
children's residential facility or foster residence setting and from having access to a person
receiving services from the facility or setting.
new text end

new text begin (b) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, for a background study
affiliated with a Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility or foster residence setting,
if an individual is disqualified, the individual may not work in the facility or setting until
the commissioner has issued a notice stating that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the individual is not disqualified;
new text end

new text begin (2) a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or
new text end

new text begin (3) a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30.
new text end

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Determining immediate risk of harm.

(a) If the commissioner determines
that the individual studied has a disqualifying characteristic, the commissioner shall review
the information immediately available and make a determination as to the subject's immediate
risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct
contact with, or access to, people receiving services.

(b) The commissioner shall consider all relevant information available, including the
following factors in determining the immediate risk of harm:

(1) the recency of the disqualifying characteristic;

(2) the recency of discharge from probation for the crimes;

(3) the number of disqualifying characteristics;

(4) the intrusiveness or violence of the disqualifying characteristic;

(5) the vulnerability of the victim involved in the disqualifying characteristic;

(6) the similarity of the victim to the persons served by the program where the individual
studied will have direct contact;

(7) whether the individual has a disqualification from a previous background study that
has not been set aside; and

(8) if the individual has a disqualification which may not be set aside because it is a
permanent bar under section 245C.24, subdivision 1, or the individual is a child care
background study subject who has a felony-level conviction for a drug-related offense in
the last five years, the commissioner may order the immediate removal of the individual
from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to, persons receiving services from
the programnew text begin and from working in a children's residential facility or foster residence settingnew text end.

(c) This section does not apply when the subject of a background study is regulated by
a health-related licensing board as defined in chapter 214, and the subject is determined to
be responsible for substantiated maltreatment under section 626.556 or 626.557.

(d) This section does not apply to a background study related to an initial application
for a child foster deleted text begincaredeleted text endnew text begin family settingnew text end license.

(e) Except for paragraph (f), this section does not apply to a background study that is
also subject to the requirements under section 256B.0659, subdivisions 11 and 13, for a
personal care assistant or a qualified professional as defined in section 256B.0659,
subdivision 1
.

(f) If the commissioner has reason to believe, based on arrest information or an active
maltreatment investigation, that an individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons
receiving services, the commissioner may order that the person be continuously supervised
or immediately removed pending the conclusion of the maltreatment investigation or criminal
proceedings.

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.16, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Findings.

(a) After evaluating the information immediately available under
subdivision 1, the commissioner may have reason to believe one of the following:

(1) the individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program
where the individual studied will have direct contactnew text begin or access to persons served by the
program or where the individual studied will work
new text end;

(2) the individual poses a risk of harm requiring continuous, direct supervision while
providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject may request a
reconsideration; or

(3) the individual does not pose an imminent risk of harm or a risk of harm requiring
continuous, direct supervision while providing direct contact services during the period in
which the subject may request a reconsideration.

(b) After determining an individual's risk of harm under this section, the commissioner
must notify the subject of the background study and the applicant or license holder as
required under section 245C.17.

new text begin (c) For Title IV-E eligible children's residential facilities and foster residence settings,
the commissioner is prohibited from making the findings in paragraph (a), clause (2) or (3).
new text end

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.17, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Time frame for notice of study results and auditing system access.

(a)
Within three working days after the commissioner's receipt of a request for a background
study submitted through the commissioner's NETStudy or NETStudy 2.0 system, the
commissioner shall notify the background study subject and the license holder or other
entity as provided in this chapter in writing or by electronic transmission of the results of
the study or that more time is needed to complete the study. The notice to the individual
shall include the identity of the entity that initiated the background study.

(b) Before being provided access to NETStudy 2.0, the license holder or other entity
under section 245C.04 shall sign an acknowledgment of responsibilities form developed
by the commissioner that includes identifying the sensitive background study information
person, who must be an employee of the license holder or entity. All queries to NETStudy
2.0 are electronically recorded and subject to audit by the commissioner. The electronic
record shall identify the specific user. A background study subject may request in writing
to the commissioner a report listing the entities that initiated a background study on the
individual.

(c) When the commissioner has completed a prior background study on an individual
that resulted in an order for immediate removal and more time is necessary to complete a
subsequent study, the notice that more time is needed that is issued under paragraph (a)
shall include an order for immediate removal of the individual from any position allowing
direct contact with or access to people receiving services new text beginand from working in a children's
residential facility or foster residence setting
new text endpending completion of the background study.

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.17, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Disqualification notice to children's residential facilities and foster residence
settings.
new text end

new text begin (a) For children's residential facilities and foster residence settings, all notices
under this section that order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied
from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to a person served by the program,
must also order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied from working
in the program, facility, or setting.
new text end

new text begin (b) For Title IV-E eligible children's residential facilities and foster residence settings,
notices under this section must not allow an individual to work in the program, facility, or
setting under supervision.
new text end

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.18, is amended to read:


245C.18 OBLIGATION TO REMOVE DISQUALIFIED INDIVIDUAL FROM
DIRECT CONTACTnew text begin AND FROM WORKING IN A PROGRAM, FACILITY, OR
SETTING
new text end.

new text begin (a) new text endUpon receipt of notice from the commissioner, the license holder must remove a
disqualified individual from direct contact with persons served by the licensed program if:

(1) the individual does not request reconsideration under section 245C.21 within the
prescribed time;

(2) the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration, the commissioner does
not set aside the disqualification under section 245C.22, subdivision 4, and the individual
does not submit a timely request for a hearing under sections 245C.27 and 256.045, or
245C.28 and chapter 14; or

(3) the individual submits a timely request for a hearing under sections 245C.27 and
256.045, or 245C.28 and chapter 14, and the commissioner does not set aside or rescind the
disqualification under section 245A.08, subdivision 5, or 256.045.

new text begin (b) For children's residential facility and foster residence setting license holders, upon
receipt of notice from the commissioner under paragraph (a), the license holder must also
remove the disqualified individual from working in the program, facility, or setting and
from access to persons served by the licensed program.
new text end

new text begin (c) For Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility and foster residence setting
license holders, upon receipt of notice from the commissioner under paragraph (a), the
license holder must also remove the disqualified individual from working in the program
and from access to persons served by the program and must not allow the individual to work
in the facility or setting until the commissioner has issued a notice stating that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the individual is not disqualified;
new text end

new text begin (2) a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or
new text end

new text begin (3) a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30.
new text end

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.04, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Protection-related rights.

(a) A person's protection-related rights include the
right to:

(1) have personal, financial, service, health, and medical information kept private, and
be advised of disclosure of this information by the license holder;

(2) access records and recorded information about the person in accordance with
applicable state and federal law, regulation, or rule;

(3) be free from maltreatment;

(4) be free from restraint, time out, seclusion, restrictive intervention, or other prohibited
procedure identified in section 245D.06, subdivision 5, or successor provisions, except for:
(i) emergency use of manual restraint to protect the person from imminent danger to self
or others according to the requirements in section 245D.061 or successor provisions; or (ii)
the use of safety interventions as part of a positive support transition plan under section
245D.06, subdivision 8, or successor provisions;

(5) receive services in a clean and safe environment when the license holder is the owner,
lessor, or tenant of the service site;

(6) be treated with courtesy and respect and receive respectful treatment of the person's
property;

(7) reasonable observance of cultural and ethnic practice and religion;

(8) be free from bias and harassment regarding race, gender, age, disability, spirituality,
and sexual orientation;

(9) be informed of and use the license holder's grievance policy and procedures, including
knowing how to contact persons responsible for addressing problems and to appeal under
section 256.045;

(10) know the name, telephone number, and the website, e-mail, and street addresses of
protection and advocacy services, including the appropriate state-appointed ombudsman,
and a brief description of how to file a complaint with these offices;

(11) assert these rights personally, or have them asserted by the person's family,
authorized representative, or legal representative, without retaliation;

(12) give or withhold written informed consent to participate in any research or
experimental treatment;

(13) associate with other persons of the person's choicenew text begin, in the communitynew text end;

(14) personal privacy, including the right to use the lock on the person's bedroom or unit
door;

(15) engage in chosen activities; and

(16) access to the person's personal possessions at any time, including financial resources.

(b) For a person residing in a residential site licensed according to chapter 245A, or
where the license holder is the owner, lessor, or tenant of the residential service site,
protection-related rights also include the right to:

(1) have daily, private access to and use of a non-coin-operated telephone for local calls
and long-distance calls made collect or paid for by the person;

(2) receive and send, without interference, uncensored, unopened mail or electronic
correspondence or communication;

(3) have use of and free access to common areas in the residence and the freedom to
come and go from the residence at will;

(4) choose the person's visitors and time of visits and have privacy for visits with the
person's spouse, next of kin, legal counsel, religious adviser, or others, in accordance with
section 363A.09 of the Human Rights Act, including privacy in the person's bedroom;

(5) have access to three nutritionally balanced meals and nutritious snacks between
meals each day;

(6) have freedom and support to access food and potable water at any time;

(7) have the freedom to furnish and decorate the person's bedroom or living unit;

(8) a setting that is clean and free from accumulation of dirt, grease, garbage, peeling
paint, mold, vermin, and insects;

(9) a setting that is free from hazards that threaten the person's health or safety; and

(10) a setting that meets the definition of a dwelling unit within a residential occupancy
as defined in the State Fire Code.

(c) Restriction of a person's rights under paragraph (a), clauses (13) to (16), or paragraph
(b) is allowed only if determined necessary to ensure the health, safety, and well-being of
the person. Any restriction of those rights must be documented in the person's coordinated
service and support plan or coordinated service and support plan addendum. The restriction
must be implemented in the least restrictive alternative manner necessary to protect the
person and provide support to reduce or eliminate the need for the restriction in the most
integrated setting and inclusive manner. The documentation must include the following
information:

(1) the justification for the restriction based on an assessment of the person's vulnerability
related to exercising the right without restriction;

(2) the objective measures set as conditions for ending the restriction;

(3) a schedule for reviewing the need for the restriction based on the conditions for
ending the restriction to occur semiannually from the date of initial approval, at a minimum,
or more frequently if requested by the person, the person's legal representative, if any, and
case manager; and

(4) signed and dated approval for the restriction from the person, or the person's legal
representative, if any. A restriction may be implemented only when the required approval
has been obtained. Approval may be withdrawn at any time. If approval is withdrawn, the
right must be immediately and fully restored.

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Environment and safety.

The license holder must:

(1) ensure the following when the license holder is the owner, lessor, or tenant of the
service site:

(i) the service site is a safe and hazard-free environment;

(ii) that toxic substances or dangerous items are inaccessible to persons served by the
program only to protect the safety of a person receiving services when a known safety threat
exists and not as a substitute for staff supervision or interactions with a person who is
receiving services. If toxic substances or dangerous items are made inaccessible, the license
holder must document an assessment of the physical plant, its environment, and its population
identifying the risk factors which require toxic substances or dangerous items to be
inaccessible and a statement of specific measures to be taken to minimize the safety risk to
persons receiving services and to restore accessibility to all persons receiving services at
the service site;

(iii) doors are locked from the inside to prevent a person from exiting only when necessary
to protect the safety of a person receiving services and not as a substitute for staff supervision
or interactions with the person. If doors are locked from the inside, the license holder must
document an assessment of the physical plant, the environment and the population served,
identifying the risk factors which require the use of locked doors, and a statement of specific
measures to be taken to minimize the safety risk to persons receiving services at the service
site; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(iv) a staff person is available at the service site who is trained in basic first aid and,
when required in a person's coordinated service and support plan or coordinated service
and support plan addendum, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) whenever persons are
present and staff are required to be at the site to provide direct support service. The CPR
training must include instruction, hands-on practice, and an observed skills assessment
under the direct supervision of a CPR instructor;new text begin and
new text end

new text begin (v) that sharpened or metal knives are presumed to be inaccessible to an individual
provisionally discharged from a commitment as mentally ill and dangerous who is residing
in a licensed state-operated community-based program and whose provisional discharge
plan restricts access to inherently dangerous instruments, including but not limited to knives,
firearms, and explosives or incendiary material or devices, unless unsupervised access is
approved by the individual, county case manager, and the individual's support team. Approval
must be reflected in the coordinated service and support plan, the coordinated service and
support plan addendum, or the self-management assessment. This provision does not apply
to an individual who has been fully discharged from a commitment;
new text end

(2) maintain equipment, vehicles, supplies, and materials owned or leased by the license
holder in good condition when used to provide services;

(3) follow procedures to ensure safe transportation, handling, and transfers of the person
and any equipment used by the person, when the license holder is responsible for
transportation of a person or a person's equipment;

(4) be prepared for emergencies and follow emergency response procedures to ensure
the person's safety in an emergency; and

(5) follow universal precautions and sanitary practices, including hand washing, for
infection prevention and control, and to prevent communicable diseases.

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.10, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Service termination.

(a) The license holder must establish policies and
procedures for service termination that promote continuity of care and service coordination
with the person and the case manager and with other licensed caregivers, if any, who also
provide support to the person. The policy must include the requirements specified in
paragraphs (b) to (f).

(b) The license holder must permit each person to remain in the program and must not
terminate services unless:

(1) the termination is necessary for the person's welfare and the new text beginfacility cannot meet the
new text end person's needs deleted text begincannot be met in the facilitydeleted text end;

(2) the safety of the person or others in the program is endangered and positive support
strategies were attempted and have not achieved and effectively maintained safety for the
person or others;

(3) the health of the person or others in the program would otherwise be endangered;

(4) the program has not been paid for services;

(5) the program ceases to operate; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(6) the person has been terminated by the lead agency from waiver eligibilitydeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (7) for state-operated community-based services, the person no longer demonstrates
complex behavioral needs that cannot be met by private community-based providers
identified in section 252.50, subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (1).
new text end

(c) Prior to giving notice of service termination, the license holder must document actions
taken to minimize or eliminate the need for termination. Action taken by the license holder
must include, at a minimum:

(1) consultation with the person's support team or expanded support team to identify
and resolve issues leading to issuance of the new text begintermination new text endnotice; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(2) a request to the case manager for intervention services identified in section 245D.03,
subdivision 1
, paragraph (c), clause (1), or other professional consultation or intervention
services to support the person in the program. This requirement does not apply to notices
of service termination issued under paragraph (b), deleted text beginclause (4).deleted text endnew text begin clauses (4) and (7); and
new text end

new text begin (3) for state-operated community-based services terminating services under paragraph
(b), clause (7), the state-operated community-based services must engage in consultation
with the person's support team or expanded support team to:
new text end

new text begin (i) identify that the person no longer demonstrates complex behavioral needs that cannot
be met by private community-based providers identified in section 252.50, subdivision 5,
paragraph (a), clause (1);
new text end

new text begin (ii) provide notice of intent to issue a termination of services to the lead agency when a
finding has been made that a person no longer demonstrates complex behavioral needs that
cannot be met by private community-based providers identified in section 252.50, subdivision
5, paragraph (a), clause (1);
new text end

new text begin (iii) assist the lead agency and case manager in developing a person-centered transition
plan to a private community-based provider to ensure continuity of care; and
new text end

new text begin (iv) coordinate with the lead agency to ensure the private community-based service
provider is able to meet the person's needs and criteria established in a person's
person-centered transition plan.
new text end

If, based on the best interests of the person, the circumstances at the time of the notice were
such that the license holder was unable to take the action specified in clauses (1) and (2),
the license holder must document the specific circumstances and the reason for being unable
to do so.

(d) The notice of service termination must meet the following requirements:

(1) the license holder must notify the person or the person's legal representative and the
case manager in writing of the intended service termination. If the service termination is
from residential supports and services as defined in section 245D.03, subdivision 1, paragraph
(c), clause (3), the license holder must also notify the commissioner in writing; and

(2) the notice must include:

(i) the reason for the action;

(ii) except for a service termination under paragraph (b), clause (5), a summary of actions
taken to minimize or eliminate the need for service termination or temporary service
suspension as required under paragraph (c), and why these measures failed to prevent the
termination or suspension;

(iii) the person's right to appeal the termination of services under section 256.045,
subdivision 3, paragraph (a); and

(iv) the person's right to seek a temporary order staying the termination of services
according to the procedures in section 256.045, subdivision 4a or 6, paragraph (c).

(e) Notice of the proposed termination of service, including those situations that began
with a temporary service suspension, must be given at least new text begin90 days prior to termination of
services under paragraph (b), clause (7),
new text end60 days prior to termination when a license holder
is providing intensive supports and services identified in section 245D.03, subdivision 1,
paragraph (c), and 30 days prior to termination for all other services licensed under this
chapter. This notice may be given in conjunction with a notice of temporary service
suspension under subdivision 3.

(f) During the service termination notice period, the license holder must:

(1) work with the support team or expanded support team to develop reasonable
alternatives to protect the person and others and to support continuity of care;

(2) provide information requested by the person or case manager; and

(3) maintain information about the service termination, including the written notice of
intended service termination, in the service recipient record.

new text begin (g) For notices issued under paragraph (b), clause (7), the lead agency shall provide
notice to the commissioner and state-operated services at least 30 days before the conclusion
of the 90-day termination period, if an appropriate alternative provider cannot be secured.
Upon receipt of this notice, the commissioner and state-operated services shall reassess
whether a private community-based service can meet the person's needs. If the commissioner
determines that a private provider can meet the person's needs, state-operated services shall,
if necessary, extend notice of service termination until placement can be made. If the
commissioner determines that a private provider cannot meet the person's needs,
state-operated services shall rescind the notice of service termination and re-engage with
the lead agency in service planning for the person.
new text end

new text begin (h) For state-operated community-based services, the license holder shall prioritize the
capacity created within the existing service site by the termination of services under paragraph
(b), clause (7), to serve persons described in section 252.50, subdivision 5, paragraph (a),
clause (1).
new text end

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.02, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Clinically managed program.

"Clinically managed program" means a
residential setting with staff comprised of a medical director and a licensed practical nurse.
A licensed practical nurse must be on site 24 hours a day, seven days a week. A deleted text beginqualified
medical professional
deleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end must be available by telephone or in person for
consultation 24 hours a day. Patients admitted to this level of service receive medical
observation, evaluation, and stabilization services during the detoxification process; access
to medications administered by trained, licensed staff to manage withdrawal; and a
comprehensive assessment pursuant to section deleted text begin245G.05deleted text endnew text begin 245F.06new text end.

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.02, subdivision 14, is amended to read:


Subd. 14.

Medically monitored program.

"Medically monitored program" means a
residential setting with staff that includes a registered nurse and a medical director. A
registered nurse must be on site 24 hours a day. A deleted text beginmedical directordeleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end
must be deleted text beginon sitedeleted text endnew text begin availablenew text end seven days a week, and patients must have the ability to be seen
by a deleted text beginmedical directordeleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end within 24 hours. Patients admitted to this level
of service receive medical observation, evaluation, and stabilization services during the
detoxification process; medications administered by trained, licensed staff to manage
withdrawal; and a comprehensive assessment pursuant to deleted text beginMinnesota Rules, part 9530.6422deleted text endnew text begin
section 245F.06
new text end.

Sec. 28.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Comprehensive assessmentnew text begin and assessment summarynew text end.

(a) Prior to a medically
stable discharge, but not later than 72 hours following admission, a license holder must
provide a comprehensive assessment new text beginand assessment summary new text endaccording to sections
245.4863, paragraph (a), and 245G.05, for each patient who has a positive screening for a
substance use disorder. If a patient's medical condition prevents a comprehensive assessment
from being completed within 72 hours, the license holder must document why the assessment
was not completed. The comprehensive assessment must include documentation of the
appropriateness of an involuntary referral through the civil commitment process.

(b) If available to the program, a patient's previous comprehensive assessment may be
used in the patient record. If a previously completed comprehensive assessment is used, its
contents must be reviewed to ensure the assessment is accurate and current and complies
with the requirements of this chapter. The review must be completed by a staff person
qualified according to section 245G.11, subdivision 5. The license holder must document
that the review was completed and that the previously completed assessment is accurate
and current, or the license holder must complete an updated or new assessment.

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.12, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Services provided at clinically managed programs.

In addition to the services
listed in subdivision 1, clinically managed programs must:

(1) have a licensed practical nurse on site 24 hours a day and a medical director;

(2) provide an initial health assessment conducted by a nurse upon admission;

(3) provide daily on-site medical evaluation by a nurse;

(4) have a registered nurse available by telephone or in person for consultation 24 hours
a day;

(5) have a deleted text beginqualified medical professionaldeleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end available by telephone
or in person for consultation 24 hours a day; and

(6) have appropriately licensed staff available to administer medications according to
prescriber-approved orders.

Sec. 30.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.12, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Services provided at medically monitored programs.

In addition to the
services listed in subdivision 1, medically monitored programs must have a registered nurse
on site 24 hours a day and a medical director. Medically monitored programs must provide
intensive inpatient withdrawal management services which must include:

(1) an initial health assessment conducted by a registered nurse upon admission;

(2) the availability of a medical evaluation and consultation with a registered nurse 24
hours a day;

(3) the availability of a deleted text beginqualified medical professionaldeleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end by telephone
or in person for consultation 24 hours a day;

(4) the ability to be seen within 24 hours or sooner by a deleted text beginqualified medical professionaldeleted text endnew text begin
licensed practitioner
new text end if the initial health assessment indicates the need to be seen;

(5) the availability of on-site monitoring of patient care seven days a week by a deleted text beginqualified
medical professional
deleted text endnew text begin licensed practitionernew text end; and

(6) appropriately licensed staff available to administer medications according to
prescriber-approved orders.

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Exemption from license requirement.

This chapter does not apply to a county
or recovery community organization that is providing a service for which the county or
recovery community organization is an eligible vendor under section 254B.05. This chapter
does not apply to an organization whose primary functions are information, referral,
diagnosis, case management, and assessment for the purposes of client placement, education,
support group services, or self-help programs. This chapter does not apply to the activities
of a licensed professional in private practice.new text begin A license holder providing the initial set of
substance use disorder services allowable under section 254A.03, subdivision 3, paragraph
(c), to an individual referred to a licensed nonresidential substance use disorder treatment
program after a positive screen for alcohol or substance misuse is exempt from sections
245G.05; 245G.06, subdivisions 1, 2, and 4; 245G.07, subdivisions 1, paragraph (a), clauses
(2) to (4), and 2, clauses (1) to (7); and 245G.17.
new text end

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.09, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Client records required.

(a) A license holder must maintain a file of
current and accurate client records on the premises where the treatment service is provided
or coordinated. For services provided off site, client records must be available at the program
and adhere to the same clinical and administrative policies and procedures as services
provided on site. The content and format of client records must be uniform and entries in
each record must be signed and dated by the staff member making the entry. Client records
must be protected against loss, tampering, or unauthorized disclosure according to section
254A.09, chapter 13, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, chapter 1, part 2, subpart
B, sections 2.1 to 2.67, and title 45, parts 160 to 164.

(b) The program must have a policy and procedure that identifies how the program will
track and record client attendance at treatment activities, including the date, duration, and
nature of each treatment service provided to the client.

new text begin (c) The program must identify in the client record designation of an individual who is
receiving services under section 254A.03, subdivision 3, including the start date and end
date of services eligible under section 254A.03, subdivision 3.
new text end

Sec. 33.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 254A.03, subdivision 3, as amended
by Laws 2020, chapter 74, article 3, section 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Rules for substance use disorder care.

(a) The commissioner of human
services shall establish by rule criteria to be used in determining the appropriate level of
chemical dependency care for each recipient of public assistance seeking treatment for
substance misuse or substance use disorder. Upon federal approval of a comprehensive
assessment as a Medicaid benefit, or on July 1, 2018, whichever is later, and notwithstanding
the criteria in Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6600 to 9530.6655, an eligible vendor of
comprehensive assessments under section 254B.05 may determine and approve the
appropriate level of substance use disorder treatment for a recipient of public assistance.
The process for determining an individual's financial eligibility for the consolidated chemical
dependency treatment fund or determining an individual's enrollment in or eligibility for a
publicly subsidized health plan is not affected by the individual's choice to access a
comprehensive assessment for placement.

(b) The commissioner shall develop and implement a utilization review process for
publicly funded treatment placements to monitor and review the clinical appropriateness
and timeliness of all publicly funded placements in treatment.

(c) If a screen result is positive for alcohol or substance misuse, a brief screening for
alcohol or substance use disorder that is provided to a recipient of public assistance within
a primary care clinic, hospital, or other medical setting or school setting establishes medical
necessity and approval for an initial set of substance use disorder services identified in
section 254B.05, subdivision 5. The initial set of services approved for a recipient whose
screen result is positive may include any combination of up to four hours of individual or
group substance use disorder treatment, two hours of substance use disorder treatment
coordination, or two hours of substance use disorder peer support services provided by a
qualified individual according to chapter 245G. A recipient must obtain an assessment
pursuant to paragraph (a) to be approved for additional treatment services.new text begin Minnesota Rules,
parts 9530.6600 to 9530.6655, and a comprehensive assessment pursuant to section 245G.05
are not applicable to the initial set of services allowed under this subdivision. A positive
screen result establishes eligibility for the initial set of services allowed under this
subdivision.
new text end

(d) Notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6600 to 9530.6655, an individual may
choose to obtain a comprehensive assessment as provided in section 245G.05. Individuals
obtaining a comprehensive assessment may access any enrolled provider that is licensed to
provide the level of service authorized pursuant to section 254A.19, subdivision 3, paragraph
(d). If the individual is enrolled in a prepaid health plan, the individual must comply with
any provider network requirements or limitations. This paragraph expires July 1, 2022.

Sec. 34.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 254B.05, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Licensure required.

(a) Programs licensed by the commissioner are
eligible vendors. Hospitals may apply for and receive licenses to be eligible vendors,
notwithstanding the provisions of section 245A.03. American Indian programs that provide
substance use disorder treatment, extended care, transitional residence, or outpatient treatment
services, and are licensed by tribal government are eligible vendors.

(b) A licensed professional in private practice new text begin as defined in section 245G.01, subdivision
17,
new text endwho meets the requirements of section 245G.11, subdivisions 1 and 4, is an eligible
vendor of a comprehensive assessment and assessment summary provided according to
section 245G.05, and treatment services provided according to sections 245G.06 and
245G.07, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), clauses (1) to deleted text begin(4)deleted text endnew text begin (5)new text end, and (b); and subdivision 2new text begin,
clauses (1) to (6)
new text end.

(c) A county is an eligible vendor for a comprehensive assessment and assessment
summary when provided by an individual who meets the staffing credentials of section
245G.11, subdivisions 1 and 5, and completed according to the requirements of section
245G.05. A county is an eligible vendor of care coordination services when provided by an
individual who meets the staffing credentials of section 245G.11, subdivisions 1 and 7, and
provided according to the requirements of section 245G.07, subdivision 1, paragraph (a),
clause (5).

(d) A recovery community organization that meets certification requirements identified
by the commissioner is an eligible vendor of peer support services.

(e) Detoxification programs licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6510 to
9530.6590, are not eligible vendors. Programs that are not licensed as a residential or
nonresidential substance use disorder treatment or withdrawal management program by the
commissioner or by tribal government or do not meet the requirements of subdivisions 1a
and 1b are not eligible vendors.

Sec. 35.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.0112, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Contracts for child foster care services.

When local agencies negotiate lead
county contracts or purchase of service contracts for child foster care services, the foster
care maintenance payment made on behalf of the child shall follow the provisions of
Northstar Care for Children, chapter 256N. Foster care maintenance payments as defined
in section 256N.02, subdivision 15, represent costs for activities similar in nature to those
expected of parents and do not cover services rendered by the licensed or tribally approved
foster parentdeleted text begin, facility,deleted text end or administrative costs or fees. Payments made to foster parents must
follow the requirements of section 256N.26, subdivision 15. The legally responsible agency
must provide foster parents with the assessment and notice as specified in section 256N.24.
The financially responsible agency is permitted to make additional payments for specific
services provided by the foster parents deleted text beginor facilitydeleted text end, as permitted in section 256N.21,
subdivision 5. These additional payments are not considered foster care maintenance.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 36.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.82, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Foster care maintenance payments.

new text begin(a)new text end For the purpose of foster care
maintenance payments under title IV-E of the Social Security Act, United States Code, title
42, sections 670 to 676, the countynew text begin or American Indian child welfare initiative tribes under
section 256.01, subdivision 14b,
new text end paying the maintenance costs must be reimbursed for the
costs from the federal money available for the purpose. Beginning July 1, 1997, for the
purposes of determining a child's eligibility under title IV-E of the Social Security Act, the
placing agency shall use AFDC requirements in effect on July 16, 1996.

new text begin (b) For the purpose of foster care maintenance payments under title IV-E of the Social
Security Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 670 to 676, the state is responsible for
approving of child care institutions for the county paying the facility's maintenance costs
to be reimbursed from the federal money available for the purpose. The facility must be
licensed by the state or approved or licensed by a tribe.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 37.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.87, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Disclosure prohibited.

deleted text beginNotwithstanding statutory or other authorization fordeleted text end
The public authority deleted text begintodeleted text endnew text begin shall notnew text end release private data on the location of a party to the actiondeleted text begin,
information on the location of one party may not be released to the other party by the public
authority
deleted text endnew text begin or the joint childnew text end if:

(1) the public authority has knowledge that new text beginone party is currently subject to new text enda protective
order with respect to the other party deleted text beginhas been entereddeleted text endnew text begin or the joint child, and the protected
party or guardian of the joint child has not authorized disclosure
new text end; or

(2) the public authority has reason to believe that the release of the information may
result in physical or emotional harm to deleted text beginthe otherdeleted text end new text begina new text endpartynew text begin or the joint childnew text end.

Sec. 38.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0625, subdivision 5l, is amended to read:


Subd. 5l.

Intensive mental health outpatient treatment.

Medical assistance covers
intensive mental health outpatient treatment for dialectical behavioral therapy deleted text beginfor adultsdeleted text end.
The commissioner shall establish:

(1) certification procedures to ensure that providers of these services are qualified; and

(2) treatment protocols including required service components and criteria for admission,
continued treatment, and discharge.

Sec. 39.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.064, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Imposition of monetary recovery and sanctions.

(a) The commissioner shall
determine any monetary amounts to be recovered and sanctions to be imposed upon a vendor
of medical care under this section. Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d), neither a
monetary recovery nor a sanction will be imposed by the commissioner without prior notice
and an opportunity for a hearing, according to chapter 14, on the commissioner's proposed
action, provided that the commissioner may suspend or reduce payment to a vendor of
medical care, except a nursing home or convalescent care facility, after notice and prior to
the hearing if in the commissioner's opinion that action is necessary to protect the public
welfare and the interests of the program.

(b) Except when the commissioner finds good cause not to suspend payments under
Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.23 (e) or (f), the commissioner shall
withhold or reduce payments to a vendor of medical care without providing advance notice
of such withholding or reduction if either of the following occurs:

(1) the vendor is convicted of a crime involving the conduct described in subdivision
1a; or

(2) the commissioner determines there is a credible allegation of fraud for which an
investigation is pending under the program. A credible allegation of fraud is an allegation
which has been verified by the state, from any source, including but not limited to:

(i) fraud hotline complaints;

(ii) claims data mining; and

(iii) patterns identified through provider audits, civil false claims cases, and law
enforcement investigations.

Allegations are considered to be credible when they have an indicia of reliability and
the state agency has reviewed all allegations, facts, and evidence carefully and acts
judiciously on a case-by-case basis.

(c) The commissioner must send notice of the withholding or reduction of payments
under paragraph (b) within five days of taking such action unless requested in writing by a
law enforcement agency to temporarily withhold the notice. The notice must:

(1) state that payments are being withheld according to paragraph (b);

(2) set forth the general allegations as to the nature of the withholding action, but need
not disclose any specific information concerning an ongoing investigation;

(3) except in the case of a conviction for conduct described in subdivision 1a, state that
the withholding is for a temporary period and cite the circumstances under which withholding
will be terminated;

(4) identify the types of claims to which the withholding applies; and

(5) inform the vendor of the right to submit written evidence for consideration by the
commissioner.

The withholding or reduction of payments will not continue after the commissioner
determines there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the vendor, or after legal proceedings
relating to the alleged fraud are completed, unless the commissioner has sent notice of
intention to impose monetary recovery or sanctions under paragraph (a). Upon conviction
for a crime related to the provision, management, or administration of a health service under
medical assistance, a payment held pursuant to this section by the commissioner or a managed
care organization that contracts with the commissioner under section 256B.035 is forfeited
to the commissioner or managed care organization, regardless of the amount charged in the
criminal complaint or the amount of criminal restitution ordered.

(d) The commissioner shall suspend or terminate a vendor's participation in the program
without providing advance notice and an opportunity for a hearing when the suspension or
termination is required because of the vendor's exclusion from participation in Medicare.
Within five days of taking such action, the commissioner must send notice of the suspension
or termination. The notice must:

(1) state that suspension or termination is the result of the vendor's exclusion from
Medicare;

(2) identify the effective date of the suspension or termination; and

(3) inform the vendor of the need to be reinstated to Medicare before reapplying for
participation in the program.

(e) Upon receipt of a notice under paragraph (a) that a monetary recovery or sanction is
to be imposed, a vendor may request a contested case, as defined in section 14.02, subdivision
3
, by filing with the commissioner a written request of appeal. The appeal request must be
received by the commissioner no later than 30 days after the date the notification of monetary
recovery or sanction was mailed to the vendor. The appeal request must specify:

(1) each disputed item, the reason for the dispute, and an estimate of the dollar amount
involved for each disputed item;

(2) the computation that the vendor believes is correct;

(3) the authority in statute or rule upon which the vendor relies for each disputed item;

(4) the name and address of the person or entity with whom contacts may be made
regarding the appeal; and

(5) other information required by the commissioner.

(f) The commissioner may order a vendor to forfeit a fine for failure to fully document
services according to standards in this chapter and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9505. The
commissioner may assess fines if specific required components of documentation are
missing. The fine for incomplete documentation shall equal 20 percent of the amount paid
on the claims for reimbursement submitted by the vendor, or up to $5,000, whichever is
less. If the commissioner determines that a vendor repeatedly violated this chapternew text begin, chapter
254B or 245G,
new text end or Minnesota Rules, chapter 9505, related to the provision of services to
program recipients and the submission of claims for payment, the commissioner may order
a vendor to forfeit a fine based on the nature, severity, and chronicity of the violations, in
an amount of up to $5,000 or 20 percent of the value of the claims, whichever is greater.

(g) The vendor shall pay the fine assessed on or before the payment date specified. If
the vendor fails to pay the fine, the commissioner may withhold or reduce payments and
recover the amount of the fine. A timely appeal shall stay payment of the fine until the
commissioner issues a final order.

Sec. 40.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0652, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Authorization for foster care setting.

(a) Home care services provided in
an adult or child foster care setting must receive authorization by the commissioner according
to the limits established in subdivision 11.

(b) The commissioner may not authorize:

(1) home care services that are the responsibility of the foster care provider under the
terms of the foster care placement agreement, deleted text begindifficulty of care rate as of January 1, 2010deleted text endnew text begin
assessment under sections 256N.24 and 260C.4411
new text end, and administrative rules;

(2) personal care assistance services when the foster care license holder is also the
personal care provider or personal care assistant, unless the foster home is the licensed
provider's primary residence as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a; or

(3) personal care assistant and home care nursing services when the licensed capacity
is greater than deleted text beginfourdeleted text endnew text begin six, unless all conditions for a variance under section 245A.04,
subdivision 9a, are satisfied for a sibling, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 32
new text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 41.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Definitions.

(a) The terms used in this section have the meanings given in this
subdivision.

(b) "Agency" means the legal entity that is enrolled with Minnesota health care programs
as a medical assistance provider according to Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0195, to provide
EIDBI services and that has the legal responsibility to ensure that its employees or contractors
carry out the responsibilities defined in this section. Agency includes a licensed individual
professional who practices independently and acts as an agency.

(c) "Autism spectrum disorder or a related condition" or "ASD or a related condition"
means either autism spectrum disorder (ASD) as defined in the current version of the
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) or a condition that is found
to be closely related to ASD, as identified under the current version of the DSM, and meets
all of the following criteria:

(1) is severe and chronic;

(2) results in impairment of adaptive behavior and function similar to that of a person
with ASD;

(3) requires treatment or services similar to those required for a person with ASD; and

(4) results in substantial functional limitations in three core developmental deficits of
ASD: social new text beginor interpersonal new text endinteraction; new text beginfunctional communication, including new text endnonverbal
or social communication; and restrictivedeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin ornew text end repetitive behaviors or hyperreactivity or
hyporeactivity to sensory input; and may include deficits or a high level of support in one
or more of the following domains:

(i) new text beginbehavioral challenges andnew text end self-regulation;

new text begin (ii) cognition;
new text end

new text begin (iii) learning and play;
new text end

deleted text begin (ii)deleted text endnew text begin(iv)new text end self-care; new text beginor
new text end

deleted text begin (iii) behavioral challenges;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (iv) expressive communication;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (v) receptive communication;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (vi) cognitive functioning; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (vii)deleted text endnew text begin(v)new text end safety.

(d) "Person" means a person under 21 years of age.

(e) "Clinical supervision" means the overall responsibility for the control and direction
of EIDBI service delivery, including individual treatment planning, staff supervision,
individual treatment plan progress monitoring, and treatment review for each person. Clinical
supervision is provided by a qualified supervising professional (QSP) who takes full
professional responsibility for the service provided by each supervisee.

(f) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services, unless otherwise
specified.

(g) "Comprehensive multidisciplinary evaluation" or "CMDE" means a comprehensive
evaluation of a person to determine medical necessity for EIDBI services based on the
requirements in subdivision 5.

(h) "Department" means the Department of Human Services, unless otherwise specified.

(i) "Early intensive developmental and behavioral intervention benefit" or "EIDBI
benefit" means a variety of individualized, intensive treatment modalities approved new text beginand
published
new text end by the commissioner that are based in behavioral and developmental science
consistent with best practices on effectiveness.

(j) "Generalizable goals" means results or gains that are observed during a variety of
activities over time with different people, such as providers, family members, other adults,
and people, and in different environments including, but not limited to, clinics, homes,
schools, and the community.

(k) "Incident" means when any of the following occur:

(1) an illness, accident, or injury that requires first aid treatment;

(2) a bump or blow to the head; or

(3) an unusual or unexpected event that jeopardizes the safety of a person or staff,
including a person leaving the agency unattended.

(l) "Individual treatment plan" or "ITP" means the person-centered, individualized written
plan of care that integrates and coordinates person and family information from the CMDE
for a person who meets medical necessity for the EIDBI benefit. An individual treatment
plan must meet the standards in subdivision 6.

(m) "Legal representative" means the parent of a child who is under 18 years of age, a
court-appointed guardian, or other representative with legal authority to make decisions
about service for a person. For the purpose of this subdivision, "other representative with
legal authority to make decisions" includes a health care agent or an attorney-in-fact
authorized through a health care directive or power of attorney.

(n) "Mental health professional" has the meaning given in section 245.4871, subdivision
27, clauses (1) to (6).

(o) "Person-centered" means a service that both responds to the identified needs, interests,
values, preferences, and desired outcomes of the person or the person's legal representative
and respects the person's history, dignity, and cultural background and allows inclusion and
participation in the person's community.

(p) "Qualified EIDBI provider" means a person who is a QSP or a level I, level II, or
level III treatment provider.

Sec. 42.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Comprehensive multidisciplinary evaluation.

(a) A CMDE must be completed
to determine medical necessity of EIDBI services. For the commissioner to authorize EIDBI
services, the CMDE provider must submit the CMDE to the commissioner and the person
or the person's legal representative as determined by the commissioner. Information and
assessments must be performed, reviewed, and relied upon for the eligibility determination,
treatment and services recommendations, and treatment plan development for the person.

new text begin (b) The CMDE provider must review the diagnostic assessment to confirm the person
has an eligible diagnosis and the diagnostic assessment meets standards required under
subdivision 4. If the CMDE provider elects to complete the diagnostic assessment at the
same time as the CMDE, the CMDE provider must certify that the CMDE meets all standards
as required under subdivision 4.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin(c)new text end The CMDE must:

(1) include an assessment of the person's developmental skills, functional behavior,
needs, and capacities based on direct observation of the person which must be administered
by a CMDE provider, include medical or assessment information from the person's physician
or advanced practice registered nurse, and may also include input from family members,
school personnel, child care providers, or other caregivers, as well as any medical or
assessment information from other licensed professionals such as rehabilitation or habilitation
therapists, licensed school personnel, or mental health professionals;

(2) include and document the person's legal representative's or primary caregiver's
preferences for involvement in the person's treatment; and

(3) provide information about the range of current EIDBI treatment modalities recognized
by the commissioner.

Sec. 43.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Individual treatment plan.

(a) The QSP, level I treatment provider, or level
II treatment provider who integrates and coordinates person and family information from
the CMDE and ITP progress monitoring process to develop the ITP must develop and
monitor the ITP.

(b) Each person's ITP must be:

(1) culturally and linguistically appropriate, as required under subdivision 3a,
individualized, and person-centered; and

(2) based on the diagnosis and CMDE information specified in subdivisions 4 and 5.

(c) The ITP must specify:

(1) the medically necessary treatment and service;

(2) the treatment modality that shall be used to meet the goals and objectives, including:

(i) baseline measures and projected dates of accomplishment;

(ii) the frequency, intensity, location, and duration of each service provided;

(iii) the level of legal representative or primary caregiver training and counseling;

(iv) any change or modification to the physical and social environments necessary to
provide a service;

(v) significant changes in the person's condition or family circumstance;

deleted text begin (vi) any specialized equipment or material required;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (vii)deleted text endnew text begin (vi)new text end techniques that support and are consistent with the person's communication
mode and learning style;

deleted text begin (viii)deleted text endnew text begin (vii)new text end the name of the QSP; and

deleted text begin (ix)deleted text endnew text begin (viii)new text end progress monitoring results and goal mastery data; and

(3) the discharge criteria that deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end be used and a defined transition plan that meets
the requirement of paragraph (g).

(d) Implementation of the ITP must be supervised by a QSP.

(e) The ITP must be submitted to the commissioner and the person or the person's legal
representative for approval in a manner determined by the commissioner for this purpose.

(f) A service included in the ITP must meet all applicable requirements for medical
necessity and coverage.

(g) To terminate service, the provider must send notice of termination to the person or
the person's legal representative. The transition period begins when the person or the person's
legal representative receives notice of termination from the EIDBI service and ends when
the EIDBI service is terminated. Up to 30 days of continued service is allowed during the
transition period. Services during the transition period shall be consistent with the ITP. The
transition plan deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end include:

(1) protocols for changing service when medically necessary;

(2) how the transition will occur;

(3) the time allowed to make the transition; and

(4) a description of how the person or the person's legal representative will be informed
of and involved in the transition.

Sec. 44.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Revision of treatment options.

(a) The commissioner may revise covered
treatment deleted text beginoptionsdeleted text endnew text begin modalitiesnew text end as needed based on outcome data and other evidence. EIDBI
treatment modalities approved by the department must:

(1) cause no harm to the person or the person's family;

(2) be individualized and person-centered;

(3) be developmentally appropriate and highly structured, with well-defined goals and
objectives that provide a strategic direction for treatment;

(4) be based in recognized principles of developmental and behavioral science;

(5) utilize sound practices that are replicable across providers and maintain the fidelity
of the specific modality;

(6) demonstrate an evidentiary basis;

(7) have goals and objectives that are measurable, achievable, and regularly evaluated
and adjusted to ensure that adequate progress is being made;

(8) be provided intensively with a high staff-to-person ratio; and

(9) include participation by the person and the person's legal representative in decision
making, knowledge building and capacity building, and developing and implementing the
person's ITP.

(b) Before revisions in department recognized treatment modalities become effective,
the commissioner must provide public notice of the changes, the reasons for the change,
and a 30-day public comment period to those who request notice through an electronic list
accessible to the public on the department's website.

Sec. 45.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 13, is amended to read:


Subd. 13.

Covered services.

(a) The services described in paragraphs (b) to deleted text begin(i)deleted text endnew text begin (l)new text end are
eligible for reimbursement by medical assistance under this section. Services must be
provided by a qualified EIDBI provider and supervised by a QSP. An EIDBI service must
address the person's medically necessary treatment goals and must be targeted to develop,
enhance, or maintain the individual developmental skills of a person with ASD or a related
condition to improve functional communication, new text beginincluding nonverbal or social
communication,
new text endsocial or interpersonal interaction, new text beginrestrictive or repetitive behaviors,
hyperreactivity or hyporeactivity to sensory input,
new text endbehavioral challenges and self-regulation,
cognition, learning and play, self-care, and safety.

(b) EIDBI deleted text beginmodalities include, but are not limited to:deleted text endnew text begin treatment must be delivered
consistent with the standards of an approved modality, as published by the commissioner.
EIDBI modalities include:
new text end

(1) applied behavior analysis (ABA);

(2) developmental individual-difference relationship-based model (DIR/Floortime);

(3) early start Denver model (ESDM);

(4) PLAY project; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(5) relationship development intervention (RDI)deleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (6) additional modalities not listed in clauses (1) to (5) upon approval by the
commissioner.
new text end

(c) An EIDBI provider may use one or more of the EIDBI modalities in paragraph (b),
clauses (1) to (5), as the primary modality for treatment as a covered service, or several
EIDBI modalities in combination as the primary modality of treatment, as approved by the
commissioner. An EIDBI provider that identifies and provides assurance of qualifications
for a single specific treatment modality must document the required qualifications to meet
fidelity to the specific model. deleted text beginAdditional EIDBI modalities not listed in paragraph (b) may
deleted text enddeleted text begin be covered upon approval by the commissioner.
deleted text end

new text begin (d) Each qualified EIDBI provider must identify and provide assurance of qualifications
for professional licensure certification, or training in evidence-based treatment methods,
and must document the required qualifications outlined in subdivision 15 in a manner
determined by the commissioner.
new text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end CMDE is a comprehensive evaluation of the person's developmental status to
determine medical necessity for EIDBI services and meets the requirements of subdivision
5. The services must be provided by a qualified CMDE provider.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (f)new text end EIDBI intervention observation and direction is the clinical direction and oversight
of EIDBI services by the QSP, level I treatment provider, or level II treatment provider,
including developmental and behavioral techniques, progress measurement, data collection,
function of behaviors, and generalization of acquired skills for the direct benefit of a person.
EIDBI intervention observation and direction informs any modification of the deleted text beginmethodsdeleted text endnew text begin
current treatment protocol
new text end to support the outcomes new text beginoutlined new text endin the ITP. deleted text beginEIDBI intervention
observation and direction provides a real-time response to EIDBI interventions to maximize
the benefit to the person.
deleted text end

new text begin (g) Intervention is medically necessary direct treatment provided to a person with ASD
or a related condition as outlined in their ITP. All intervention services must be provided
under the direction of a QSP. Intervention may take place across multiple settings. The
frequency and intensity of intervention services are provided based on the number of
treatment goals, person and family or caregiver preferences, and other factors. Intervention
services may be provided individually or in a group. Intervention with a higher provider
ratio may occur when deemed medically necessary through the person's ITP.
new text end

new text begin (1) Individual intervention is treatment by protocol administered by a single qualified
EIDBI provider delivered face-to-face to one person.
new text end

new text begin (2) Group intervention is treatment by protocol provided by one or more qualified EIDBI
providers, delivered to at least two people who receive EIDBI services.
new text end

deleted text begin (f)deleted text endnew text begin (h)new text end ITP development and ITP progress monitoring is development of the initial,
annual, and progress monitoring of an ITP. ITP development and ITP progress monitoring
documentsdeleted text begin, providesdeleted text endnew text begin providenew text end oversight and ongoing evaluation of a person's treatment and
progress on targeted goals and objectivesdeleted text begin,deleted text end and deleted text beginintegratesdeleted text endnew text begin integratenew text end and deleted text begincoordinatesdeleted text endnew text begin coordinatenew text end
the person's and the person's legal representative's information from the CMDE and ITP
progress monitoring. This service must be reviewed and completed by the QSP, and may
include input from a level I deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider or a level II deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text endnew text begin (i)new text end Family caregiver training and counseling is specialized training and education
for a family or primary caregiver to understand the person's developmental status and help
with the person's needs and development. This service must be provided by the QSP, level
I deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider, or level II deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider.

deleted text begin (h)deleted text endnew text begin (j)new text end A coordinated care conference is a voluntary face-to-face meeting with the person
and the person's family to review the CMDE or ITP progress monitoring and to integrate
and coordinate services across providers and service-delivery systems to develop the ITP.
This service must be provided by the QSP and may include the CMDE provider or a level
I deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider or a level II deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end provider.

deleted text begin (i)deleted text endnew text begin (k)new text end Travel time is allowable billing for traveling to and from the person's home,
school, a community setting, or place of service outside of an EIDBI center, clinic, or office
from a specified location to provide face-to-face EIDBI intervention, observation and
direction, or family caregiver training and counseling. The person's ITP must specify the
reasons the provider must travel to the person.

deleted text begin (j)deleted text endnew text begin (l)new text end Medical assistance covers medically necessary EIDBI services and consultations
delivered by a licensed health care provider via telemedicine, as defined under section
256B.0625, subdivision 3b, in the same manner as if the service or consultation was delivered
in person. deleted text beginMedical assistance coverage is limited to three telemedicine services per person
per calendar week.
deleted text end

Sec. 46.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 14, is amended to read:


Subd. 14.

Person's rights.

A person or the person's legal representative has the right to:

(1) protection as defined under the health care bill of rights under section 144.651;

(2) designate an advocate to be present in all aspects of the person's and person's family's
services at the request of the person or the person's legal representative;

(3) be informed of the agency policy on assigning staff to a person;

(4) be informed of the opportunity to observe the person while receiving services;

(5) be informed of services in a manner that respects and takes into consideration the
person's and the person's legal representative's culture, values, and preferences in accordance
with subdivision 3a;

(6) be free from seclusion and restraint, except for emergency use of manual restraint
in emergencies as defined in section 245D.02, subdivision 8a;

(7) be under the supervision of a responsible adult at all times;

(8) be notified by the agency within 24 hours if an incident occurs or the person is injured
while receiving services, including what occurred and how agency staff responded to the
incident;

(9) request a voluntary coordinated care conference; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(10) request a CMDE provider of the person's or the person's legal representative's
choicedeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; and
new text end

new text begin (11) be free of all prohibitions as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 9544.0060.
new text end

Sec. 47.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 15, is amended to read:


Subd. 15.

EIDBI provider qualifications.

(a) A QSP must be employed by an agency
and be:

(1) a licensed mental health professional who has at least 2,000 hours of supervised
clinical experience or training in examining or treating people with ASD or a related condition
or equivalent documented coursework at the graduate level by an accredited university in
ASD diagnostics, ASD developmental and behavioral treatment strategies, and typical child
development; or

(2) a developmental or behavioral pediatrician who has at least 2,000 hours of supervised
clinical experience or training in examining or treating people with ASD or a related condition
or equivalent documented coursework at the graduate level by an accredited university in
the areas of ASD diagnostics, ASD developmental and behavioral treatment strategies, and
typical child development.

(b) A level I treatment provider must be employed by an agency and:

(1) have at least 2,000 hours of supervised clinical experience or training in examining
or treating people with ASD or a related condition or equivalent documented coursework
at the graduate level by an accredited university in ASD diagnostics, ASD developmental
and behavioral treatment strategies, and typical child development or an equivalent
combination of documented coursework or hours of experience; and

(2) have or be at least one of the following:

(i) a master's degree in behavioral health or child development or related fields including,
but not limited to, mental health, special education, social work, psychology, speech
pathology, or occupational therapy from an accredited college or university;

(ii) a bachelor's degree in a behavioral health, child development, or related field
including, but not limited to, mental health, special education, social work, psychology,
speech pathology, or occupational therapy, from an accredited college or university, and
advanced certification in a treatment modality recognized by the department;

(iii) a board-certified behavior analyst; or

(iv) a board-certified assistant behavior analyst with 4,000 hours of supervised clinical
experience that meets all registration, supervision, and continuing education requirements
of the certification.

(c) A level II treatment provider must be employed by an agency and must be:

(1) a person who has a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or university in a
behavioral or child development science or related field including, but not limited to, mental
health, special education, social work, psychology, speech pathology, or occupational
therapy; and deleted text beginmeetdeleted text endnew text begin meetsnew text end at least one of the following:

(i) has at least 1,000 hours of supervised clinical experience or training in examining or
treating people with ASD or a related condition or equivalent documented coursework at
the graduate level by an accredited university in ASD diagnostics, ASD developmental and
behavioral treatment strategies, and typical child development or a combination of
coursework or hours of experience;

(ii) has certification as a board-certified assistant behavior analyst from the Behavior
Analyst Certification Board;

(iii) is a registered behavior technician as defined by the Behavior Analyst Certification
Board; or

(iv) is certified in one of the other treatment modalities recognized by the department;
or

(2) a person who has:

(i) an associate's degree in a behavioral or child development science or related field
including, but not limited to, mental health, special education, social work, psychology,
speech pathology, or occupational therapy from an accredited college or university; and

(ii) at least 2,000 hours of supervised clinical experience in delivering treatment to people
with ASD or a related condition. Hours worked as a mental health behavioral aide or level
III treatment provider may be included in the required hours of experience; or

(3) a person who has at least 4,000 hours of supervised clinical experience in delivering
treatment to people with ASD or a related condition. Hours worked as a mental health
behavioral aide or level III treatment provider may be included in the required hours of
experience; or

(4) a person who is a graduate student in a behavioral science, child development science,
or related field and is receiving clinical supervision by a QSP affiliated with an agency to
meet the clinical training requirements for experience and training with people with ASD
or a related condition; or

(5) a person who is at least 18 years of age and who:

(i) is fluent in a non-English language;

(ii) completed the level III EIDBI training requirements; and

(iii) receives observation and direction from a QSP or level I treatment provider at least
once a week until the person meets 1,000 hours of supervised clinical experience.

(d) A level III treatment provider must be employed by an agency, have completed the
level III training requirement, be at least 18 years of age, and have at least one of the
following:

(1) a high school diploma or commissioner of education-selected high school equivalency
certification;

(2) fluency in a non-English language; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(3) one year of experience as a primary personal care assistant, community health worker,
waiver service provider, or special education assistant to a person with ASD or a related
condition within the previous five yearsdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (4) completion of all required EIDBI training within six months of employment.
new text end

Sec. 48.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 16, is amended to read:


Subd. 16.

Agency duties.

(a) An agency delivering an EIDBI service under this section
must:

(1) enroll as a medical assistance Minnesota health care program provider according to
Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0195, and section 256B.04, subdivision 21, and meet all
applicable provider standards and requirements;

(2) demonstrate compliance with federal and state laws for EIDBI service;

(3) verify and maintain records of a service provided to the person or the person's legal
representative as required under Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.2175 and 9505.2197;

(4) demonstrate that while enrolled or seeking enrollment as a Minnesota health care
program provider the agency did not have a lead agency contract or provider agreement
discontinued because of a conviction of fraud; or did not have an owner, board member, or
manager fail a state or federal criminal background check or appear on the list of excluded
individuals or entities maintained by the federal Department of Human Services Office of
Inspector General;

(5) have established business practices including written policies and procedures, internal
controls, and a system that demonstrates the organization's ability to deliver quality EIDBI
services;

(6) have an office located in Minnesotanew text begin or a border statenew text end;

(7) conduct a criminal background check on an individual who has direct contact with
the person or the person's legal representative;

(8) report maltreatment according to sections 626.556 and 626.557;

(9) comply with any data requests consistent with the Minnesota Government Data
Practices Act, sections 256B.064 and 256B.27;

(10) provide training for all agency staff on the requirements and responsibilities listed
in the Maltreatment of Minors Act, section 626.556, and the Vulnerable Adult Protection
Act, section 626.557, including mandated and voluntary reporting, nonretaliation, and the
agency's policy for all staff on how to report suspected abuse and neglect;

(11) have a written policy to resolve issues collaboratively with the person and the
person's legal representative when possible. The policy must include a timeline for when
the person and the person's legal representative will be notified about issues that arise in
the provision of services;

(12) provide the person's legal representative with prompt notification if the person is
injured while being served by the agency. An incident report must be completed by the
agency staff member in charge of the person. A copy of all incident and injury reports must
remain on file at the agency for at least five years from the report of the incident; and

(13) before starting a service, provide the person or the person's legal representative a
description of the treatment modality that the person shall receive, including the staffing
certification levels and training of the staff who shall provide a treatment.

(b) When delivering the ITP, and annually thereafter, an agency must provide the person
or the person's legal representative with:

(1) a written copy and a verbal explanation of the person's or person's legal
representative's rights and the agency's responsibilities;

(2) documentation in the person's file the date that the person or the person's legal
representative received a copy and explanation of the person's or person's legal
representative's rights and the agency's responsibilities; and

(3) reasonable accommodations to provide the information in another format or language
as needed to facilitate understanding of the person's or person's legal representative's rights
and the agency's responsibilities.

Sec. 49.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256D.02, subdivision 17, is amended to read:


Subd. 17.

Professional certification.

"Professional certification" means a statement
about a person's illness, injury, or incapacity that is signed by a "qualified professional" as
defined in section deleted text begin256J.08, subdivision 73adeleted text endnew text begin 256P.01, subdivision 6anew text end.

Sec. 50.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.03, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Housing support.

"Housing support" means deleted text begina group living situationdeleted text endnew text begin assistancenew text end
that provides at a minimum room and board to deleted text beginunrelateddeleted text end persons who meet the eligibility
requirements of section 256I.04. To receive payment for deleted text begina group residence ratedeleted text endnew text begin housing
support
new text end, the residence must meet the requirements under section 256I.04, subdivisions 2a
to 2f.

Sec. 51.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.03, subdivision 14, is amended to read:


Subd. 14.

Qualified professional.

"Qualified professional" means an individual as
defined in section deleted text begin256J.08, subdivision 73a, ordeleted text end 245G.11, subdivision 3, 4, or 5new text begin, or 256P.01,
subdivision 6a
new text end; or an individual approved by the director of human services or a designee
of the director.

Sec. 52.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256I.04, subdivision 2b, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2b.

Housing support agreements.

(a) Agreements between agencies and providers
of housing support must be in writing on a form developed and approved by the commissioner
and must specify the name and address under which the establishment subject to the
agreement does business and under which the establishment, or service provider, if different
from the deleted text begingroup residential housingdeleted text end establishment, is licensed by the Department of Health
or the Department of Human Services; the specific license or registration from the
Department of Health or the Department of Human Services held by the provider and the
number of beds subject to that license; the address of the location or locations at which
deleted text begin group residentialdeleted text end housingnew text begin supportnew text end is provided under this agreement; the per diem and monthly
rates that are to be paid from housing support funds for each eligible resident at each location;
the number of beds at each location which are subject to the agreement; whether the license
holder is a not-for-profit corporation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
and a statement that the agreement is subject to the provisions of sections 256I.01 to 256I.06
and subject to any changes to those sections.

(b) Providers are required to verify the following minimum requirements in the
agreement:

(1) current license or registration, including authorization if managing or monitoring
medications;

(2) all staff who have direct contact with recipients meet the staff qualifications;

(3) the provision of housing support;

(4) the provision of supplementary services, if applicable;

(5) reports of adverse events, including recipient death or serious injury;

(6) submission of residency requirements that could result in recipient eviction; and

(7) confirmation that the provider will not limit or restrict the number of hours an
applicant or recipient chooses to be employed, as specified in subdivision 5.

(c) Agreements may be terminated with or without cause by the commissioner, the
agency, or the provider with two calendar months prior notice. The commissioner may
immediately terminate an agreement under subdivision 2d.

Sec. 53.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.05, subdivision 1c, is amended to read:


Subd. 1c.

Rate increases.

An agency may not increase the rates negotiated for housing
support above those in effect on June 30, 1993, except as provided in paragraphs (a) to (f).

(a) An agency may increase the rates for room and board to the MSA equivalent rate
for those settings whose current rate is below the MSA equivalent rate.

(b) An agency may increase the rates for residents in adult foster care whose difficulty
of care has increased. The total housing support rate for these residents must not exceed the
maximum rate specified in subdivisions 1 and 1a. Agencies must not include nor increase
difficulty of care rates for adults in foster care whose difficulty of care is eligible for funding
by home and community-based waiver programs under title XIX of the Social Security Act.

(c) The room and board rates will be increased each year when the MSA equivalent rate
is adjusted for SSI cost-of-living increases by the amount of the annual SSI increase, less
the amount of the increase in the medical assistance personal needs allowance under section
256B.35.

(d) When housing support pays for an individual's room and board, or other costs
necessary to provide room and board, the rate payable to the residence must continue for
up to 18 calendar days per incident that the person is temporarily absent from the residence,
not to exceed 60 days in a calendar year, if the absence or absences deleted text beginhave received the prior
approval of
deleted text endnew text begin are reported in advance tonew text end the county agency's social service staff. deleted text beginPrior approvaldeleted text endnew text begin
Advance reporting
new text end is not required for emergency absences due to crisis, illness, or injury.

(e) For facilities meeting substantial change criteria within the prior year. Substantial
change criteria exists if the establishment experiences a 25 percent increase or decrease in
the total number of its beds, if the net cost of capital additions or improvements is in excess
of 15 percent of the current market value of the residence, or if the residence physically
moves, or changes its licensure, and incurs a resulting increase in operation and property
costs.

(f) Until June 30, 1994, an agency may increase by up to five percent the total rate paid
for recipients of assistance under sections 256D.01 to 256D.21 or 256D.33 to 256D.54 who
reside in residences that are licensed by the commissioner of health as a boarding care home,
but are not certified for the purposes of the medical assistance program. However, an increase
under this clause must not exceed an amount equivalent to 65 percent of the 1991 medical
assistance reimbursement rate for nursing home resident class A, in the geographic grouping
in which the facility is located, as established under Minnesota Rules, parts 9549.0051 to
9549.0058.

Sec. 54.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.05, subdivision 1n, is amended to read:


Subd. 1n.

Supplemental rate; Mahnomen County.

Notwithstanding the provisions of
this section, for the rate period July 1, 2010, to June 30, 2011, a county agency shall negotiate
a supplemental service rate in addition to the rate specified in subdivision 1, not to exceed
$753 per month or the existing rate, including any legislative authorized inflationary
adjustments, for a deleted text begingroup residentialdeleted text endnew text begin housing supportnew text end provider located in Mahnomen County
that operates a 28-bed facility providing 24-hour care to individuals who are homeless,
disabled, chemically dependent, mentally ill, or chronically homeless.

Sec. 55.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.05, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

State participation.

For a deleted text beginresident of a group residencedeleted text endnew text begin personnew text end who is eligible
under section 256I.04, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), state participation in the deleted text begingroup residentialdeleted text end
housingnew text begin supportnew text end payment is determined according to section 256D.03, subdivision 2. For
a deleted text beginresident of a group residencedeleted text endnew text begin personnew text end who is eligible under section 256I.04, subdivision 1,
paragraph (a), state participation in the deleted text begingroup residentialdeleted text end housingnew text begin supportnew text end rate is determined
according to section 256D.36.

Sec. 56.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Time of payment.

A county agency may make payments in advance for an
individual whose stay is expected to last beyond the calendar month for which the payment
is made. Housing support payments made by a county agency on behalf of an individual
who is not expected to remain in the deleted text begingroup residencedeleted text endnew text begin establishmentnew text end beyond the month for
which payment is made must be made subsequent to the individual's departure from the
residence.

Sec. 57.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256I.06, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Correction of overpayments and underpayments. new text end

new text begin The agency shall make
an adjustment to housing support payments issued to individuals consistent with requirements
of federal law and regulation and state law and rule and shall issue or recover benefits as
appropriate. A recipient or former recipient is not responsible for overpayments due to
agency error, unless the amount of the overpayment is large enough that a reasonable person
would know it is an error.
new text end

Sec. 58.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256J.08, subdivision 73a, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 131, is amended to read:


Subd. 73a.

Qualified professional.

deleted text begin (a) For physical illness, injury, or incapacity, a
"qualified professional" means a licensed physician, a physician assistant, an advanced
practice registered nurse, or a licensed chiropractor.
deleted text end new text begin "Qualified professional" means an
individual as defined in section 256P.01, subdivision 6a.
new text end

deleted text begin (b) For developmental disability and intelligence testing, a "qualified professional"
means an individual qualified by training and experience to administer the tests necessary
to make determinations, such as tests of intellectual functioning, assessments of adaptive
behavior, adaptive skills, and developmental functioning. These professionals include
licensed psychologists, certified school psychologists, or certified psychometrists working
under the supervision of a licensed psychologist.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (c) For learning disabilities, a "qualified professional" means a licensed psychologist or
school psychologist with experience determining learning disabilities.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d) For mental health, a "qualified professional" means a licensed physician or a qualified
mental health professional. A "qualified mental health professional" means:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) for children, in psychiatric nursing, a registered nurse or advanced practice registered
nurse who is licensed under sections 148.171 to 148.285, and who is certified as a clinical
specialist in child and adolescent psychiatric or mental health nursing by a national nurse
certification organization or who has a master's degree in nursing or one of the behavioral
sciences or related fields from an accredited college or university or its equivalent, with at
least 4,000 hours of post-master's supervised experience in the delivery of clinical services
in the treatment of mental illness;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) for adults, in psychiatric nursing, a registered nurse or advanced practice registered
nurse who is licensed under sections 148.171 to 148.285, and who is certified as a clinical
specialist in adult psychiatric and mental health nursing by a national nurse certification
organization or who has a master's degree in nursing or one of the behavioral sciences or
related fields from an accredited college or university or its equivalent, with at least 4,000
hours of post-master's supervised experience in the delivery of clinical services in the
treatment of mental illness;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) in clinical social work, a person licensed as an independent clinical social worker
under chapter 148D, or a person with a master's degree in social work from an accredited
college or university, with at least 4,000 hours of post-master's supervised experience in
the delivery of clinical services in the treatment of mental illness;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4) in psychology, an individual licensed by the Board of Psychology under sections
148.88 to 148.98, who has stated to the Board of Psychology competencies in the diagnosis
and treatment of mental illness;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (5) in psychiatry, a physician licensed under chapter 147 and certified by the American
Board of Psychiatry and Neurology or eligible for board certification in psychiatry;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6) in marriage and family therapy, the mental health professional must be a marriage
and family therapist licensed under sections 148B.29 to 148B.39, with at least two years of
post-master's supervised experience in the delivery of clinical services in the treatment of
mental illness; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (7) in licensed professional clinical counseling, the mental health professional shall be
a licensed professional clinical counselor under section 148B.5301 with at least 4,000 hours
of post-master's supervised experience in the delivery of clinical services in the treatment
of mental illness.
deleted text end

Sec. 59.

new text begin [256K.451] MINOR CONSENT TO HOMELESS AND SEXUALLY
EXPLOITED YOUTH SERVICES.
new text end

new text begin A minor living separately from the minor's parent or legal guardian may give consent
to receive homeless youth services and services for sexually exploited youth. A minor's
consent to receive services does not affect a parent or legal guardian's custody of the minor.
new text end

Sec. 60.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256N.02, subdivision 14a, is amended to read:


Subd. 14a.

Licensed child foster parent.

"Licensed child foster parent" means deleted text begina persondeleted text endnew text begin
an individual or family
new text end who is licensed for child foster care under Minnesota Rules, deleted text beginparts
2960.3000 to 2960.3340
deleted text endnew text begin chapter 2960, excluding foster residence settings licensed under
Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3200 to 2960.3230
new text end, or licensednew text begin or approvednew text end by a Minnesota
tribe in accordance with tribal standardsnew text begin with whom the foster child residesnew text end.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 61.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256N.21, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Placement in foster care.

To be eligible for foster care benefits under this
section, the child must be in placement away from the child's legal parent, guardian, or
Indian custodian as defined in section 260.755, subdivision 10, and must meet one of the
criteria in clause (1) and either clause (2) or (3):

(1) the legally responsible agency must have placement authority to place the child with:
(i) a voluntary placement agreement or a court order, consistent with sections 260B.198,
260C.001, and 260D.01, or consistent with section 260C.451 for a child 18 years old or
older and under age 21 who maintains eligibility for foster care; or (ii) a voluntary placement
agreement or court order by a Minnesota tribe that is consistent with United States Code,
title 42, section 672(a)(2); and

(2) the child is placed with a licensed child foster parentnew text begin who resides with the childnew text end; or

(3) the child is placed in one of the following unlicensed child foster care settings:

(i) an emergency relative placement under tribal licensing regulations or section
245A.035, with the legally responsible agency ensuring the relative completes the required
child foster care application process;

(ii) a licensed adult foster home with an approved age variance under section 245A.16
for no more than six monthsnew text begin where the license holder resides with the childnew text end;

(iii) for a child 18 years old or older and under age 21 who is eligible for extended foster
care under section 260C.451, an unlicensed supervised independent living setting approved
by the agency responsible for the child's care; or

(iv) a preadoptive placement in a home specified in section 245A.03, subdivision 2,
paragraph (a), clause (9), with an approved adoption home study and signed adoption
placement agreement.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 62.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256N.21, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Excluded activities.

The basic and supplemental difficulty of care payment
represents costs for activities similar in nature to those expected of parents, and does not
cover services rendered by the licensed or tribally approved foster parentdeleted text begin, facility,deleted text end or
administrative costs or fees. The financially responsible agency may pay an additional fee
for specific services provided by the licensed foster parent deleted text beginor facilitydeleted text end. A foster parent deleted text beginor
residence setting
deleted text end must distinguish such a service from the daily care of the child as assessed
through the process under section 256N.24.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 63.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256N.24, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Extraordinary levels.

(a) The assessment tool established under subdivision
2 must provide a mechanism through which up to five levels can be added to the supplemental
difficulty of care for a particular child under section 256N.26, subdivision 4. In establishing
the assessment tool, the commissioner must design the tool so that the levels applicable to
the portions of the assessment other than the extraordinary levels can accommodate the
requirements of this subdivision.

(b) These extraordinary levels are available when all of the following circumstances
apply:

(1) the child has extraordinary needs as determined by the assessment tool provided for
under subdivision 2, and the child meets other requirements established by the commissioner,
such as a minimum score on the assessment tool;

(2) the child's extraordinary needs require extraordinary care and intense supervision
that is provided by the child's caregiver as part of the parental duties as described in the
supplemental difficulty of care rate, section 256N.02, subdivision 21. This extraordinary
care provided by the caregiver is required so that the child can be safely cared for in the
home and community, and prevents residential placement;

(3) the child is physically living in a foster family setting, as defined in Minnesota Rules,
part 2960.3010, subpart 23, deleted text beginin a foster residence setting,deleted text end or physically living in the home
with the adoptive parent or relative custodian; and

(4) the child is receiving the services for which the child is eligible through medical
assistance programs or other programs that provide necessary services for children with
disabilities or other medical and behavioral conditions to live with the child's family, but
the agency with caregiver's input has identified a specific support gap that cannot be met
through home and community support waivers or other programs that are designed to provide
support for children with special needs.

(c) The agency completing an assessment, under subdivision 2, that suggests an
extraordinary level must document as part of the assessment, the following:

(1) the assessment tool that determined that the child's needs or disabilities require
extraordinary care and intense supervision;

(2) a summary of the extraordinary care and intense supervision that is provided by the
caregiver as part of the parental duties as described in the supplemental difficulty of care
rate, section 256N.02, subdivision 21;

(3) confirmation that the child is currently physically residing deleted text beginin the foster family setting
or
deleted text end in the home with thenew text begin foster parent,new text end adoptive parentnew text begin,new text end or relative custodian;

(4) the efforts of the agency, caregiver, parents, and others to request support services
in the home and community that would ease the degree of parental duties provided by the
caregiver for the care and supervision of the child. This would include documentation of
the services provided for the child's needs or disabilities, and the services that were denied
or not available from the local social service agency, community agency, the local school
district, local public health department, the parent, or child's medical insurance provider;

(5) the specific support gap identified that places the child's safety and well-being at risk
in the home or community and is necessary to prevent residential placement; and

(6) the extraordinary care and intense supervision provided by the foster, adoptive, or
guardianship caregivers to maintain the child safely in the child's home and prevent residential
placement that cannot be supported by medical assistance or other programs that provide
services, necessary care for children with disabilities, or other medical or behavioral
conditions in the home or community.

(d) An agency completing an assessment under subdivision 2 that suggests an
extraordinary level is appropriate must forward the assessment and required documentation
to the commissioner. If the commissioner approves, the extraordinary levels must be
retroactive to the date the assessment was forwarded.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 64.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256P.01, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 6a. new text end

new text begin Qualified professional. new text end

new text begin (a) For illness, injury, or incapacity, a "qualified
professional" means a licensed physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered
nurse, physical therapist, occupational therapist, or licensed chiropractor, according to their
scope of practice.
new text end

new text begin (b) For developmental disability, learning disability, and intelligence testing, a "qualified
professional" means a licensed physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered
nurse, licensed independent clinical social worker, licensed psychologist, certified school
psychologist, or certified psychometrist working under the supervision of a licensed
psychologist.
new text end

new text begin (c) For mental health, a "qualified professional" means a licensed physician, advanced
practice registered nurse, or qualified mental health professional under section 245.462,
subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6).
new text end

new text begin (d) For substance use disorder, a "qualified professional" means a licensed physician, a
qualified mental health professional under section 245.462, subdivision 18, clauses (1) to
(6), or an individual as defined in section 245G.11, subdivision 3, 4, or 5.
new text end

Sec. 65.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 257.70, is amended to read:


257.70 HEARINGS AND RECORDS; CONFIDENTIALITY.

(a) Notwithstanding any other law concerning public hearings and records, any hearing
or trial held under sections 257.51 to 257.74 shall be held in closed court without admittance
of any person other than those necessary to the action or proceeding. All papers and records,
other than the final judgment, pertaining to the action or proceeding, whether part of the
permanent record of the court or of a file in the state Department of Human Services or
elsewhere, are subject to inspection only upon consent of the court and all interested persons,
or in exceptional cases only upon an order of the court for good cause shown.

(b) In all actions under this chapter in which public assistance is assigned under section
256.741 or the public authority provides services to a party or parties to the action,
deleted text begin notwithstanding statutory or other authorization fordeleted text end the public authority deleted text begintodeleted text endnew text begin shall notnew text end release
private data deleted text beginon the location of a party to the action, informationdeleted text end on the location of deleted text beginonedeleted text endnew text begin anew text end
party deleted text beginmay not be released by the public authority to the other partydeleted text endnew text begin to the action or the joint
child
new text end if:

(1) the public authority has knowledge that new text beginone party is currently subject to new text enda protective
order with respect to the other party deleted text beginhas been entereddeleted text endnew text begin or the joint child, and the protected
party or guardian of the joint child has not authorized disclosure
new text end; or

(2) the public authority has reason to believe that the release of the information may
result in physical or emotional harm to deleted text beginthe otherdeleted text end new text beginanew text end party new text beginor the joint childnew text end.

Sec. 66.

new text begin [260.7611] COUNTY AND TRIBAL AGREEMENTS; MALTREATMENT
ASSESSMENTS AND INVESTIGATIONS OF INDIAN CHILDREN.
new text end

new text begin A tribe and a county may enter a written agreement transferring responsibility for the
screening and initial response to a child maltreatment report regarding an Indian child
residing in the county where the child's reservation is located, from the county to the tribe.
An agreement under this subdivision shall include a provision clarifying whether the county
or the tribe is responsible for ongoing case management stemming from a child maltreatment
report.
new text end

Sec. 67.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 16a. new text end

new text begin Family and permanency team. new text end

new text begin "Family and permanency team" means a
team consisting of the child's parent or legal custodian, relatives, foster care providers, and
professionals who are resources to the child's family such as teachers, medical or mental
health providers who have treated the child, or clergy, as appropriate. In the case of an
Indian child, the family and permanency team includes tribal representatives, delegates,
and cultural resources as identified by the child's tribe. Consistent with section 260C.212,
subdivision 1, paragraph (b), if the child is age 14 or older, the team must also include two
team members that the child selects who are not the child's foster parent or caseworker. The
responsible social services agency may reject an individual that the child selects if the agency
has good cause to believe that the individual would not act in the best interests of the child.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 68.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 16b. new text end

new text begin Family foster home. new text end

new text begin "Family foster home" means the home of an individual
or family who is licensed for child foster care under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 245A,
meeting the standards in Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, excluding foster residence settings
licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3000 to 2960.3200, or licensed or approved by
a tribe in accordance with tribal standards with whom the foster child resides. Family foster
home includes an emergency unlicensed relative placement under section 245A.035.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 69.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 21a. new text end

new text begin Legal authority to place the child. new text end

new text begin "Legal authority to place the child"
means that the agency has legal responsibility for the care and control of the child while
the child is in foster care. The agency may have legal authority to place a child through a
court order under this chapter through a voluntary placement agreement between the agency
and the child's parent under section 260C.227 or, in the case of an Indian child, through
tribal court.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 70.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 25a. new text end

new text begin Permanency plan. new text end

new text begin "Permanency plan" means the established goal in the
out-of-home placement plan that will achieve a safe, permanent home for the child. There
are four permanency goals for children:
new text end

new text begin (1) reunification with the child's parent or legal guardian;
new text end

new text begin (2) placement with other relatives;
new text end

new text begin (3) adoption; or
new text end

new text begin (4) establishment of a new legal guardianship.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 71.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 26c. new text end

new text begin Qualified individual. new text end

new text begin "Qualified individual" means a trained culturally
competent professional or licensed clinician, including a mental health professional under
section 245.4871, subdivision 27, who is not an employee of the responsible social services
agency and who is not connected to or affiliated with any placement setting in which a
responsible social services agency has placed children.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 72.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 26d. new text end

new text begin Qualified residential treatment program. new text end

new text begin "Qualified residential treatment
program" means a children's residential treatment program licensed under chapter 245A or
licensed or approved by a tribe that is approved to receive foster care maintenance payments
under section 256.82 that:
new text end

new text begin (1) has a trauma-informed treatment model designed to address the needs of children
with serious emotional or behavioral disorders or disturbances;
new text end

new text begin (2) has registered or licensed nursing staff and other licensed clinical staff who:
new text end

new text begin (i) provide care within the scope of their practice; and
new text end

new text begin (ii) are available 24 hours per day and seven days per week;
new text end

new text begin (3) is accredited by any of the following independent, nonprofit organizations: the
Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF), the Joint Commission
on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO), and the Council on Accreditation
(COA), or any other nonprofit accrediting organization approved by the United States
Department of Health and Human Services;
new text end

new text begin (4) if it is in the child's best interests, facilitates participation of the child's family members
in the child's treatment programming consistent with the child's out-of-home placement
plan under sections 260C.212, subdivision 1, and 260C.708;
new text end

new text begin (5) facilitates outreach to family members of the child, including siblings;
new text end

new text begin (6) documents how the facility facilitates outreach to the child's parents and relatives,
as well as documents the child's parents' and other relatives' contact information;
new text end

new text begin (7) documents how the facility includes family members in the child's treatment process,
including after the child's discharge, and how the facility maintains the child's sibling
connections; and
new text end

new text begin (8) provides the child and child's family with discharge planning and family-based
aftercare support for at least six months after the child's discharge.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 73.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 27b. new text end

new text begin Residential treatment facility. new text end

new text begin "Residential treatment facility" means a
24-hour-a-day program that provides treatment for children with emotional disturbance,
consistent with section 245.4871, subdivision 32, and includes a licensed residential program
specializing in caring 24 hours a day for children with a developmental delay or related
condition. A residential treatment facility does not include a psychiatric residential treatment
facility under section 256B.0941 or a family foster home as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 16b.
new text end

Sec. 74.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.157, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Juvenile treatment screening team.

(a) The responsible social services agency
shall establish a juvenile treatment screening team to conduct screenings deleted text beginand prepare case
plans
deleted text end under this chapterdeleted text begin, chapter 260D,deleted text end and section 245.487, subdivision 3deleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin, for a child to
receive treatment for an emotional disturbance, a developmental disability, or related
condition in a residential treatment facility licensed by the commissioner of human services
under chapter 245A, or licensed or approved by a tribe. A screening team is not required
for a child to be in: (1) a residential facility specializing in prenatal, postpartum, or parenting
support; (2) a facility specializing in high-quality residential care and supportive services
to children and youth who are sex-trafficking victims or are at risk of becoming
sex-trafficking victims; (3) supervised settings for youth 18 years old or older living
independently; or (4) a licensed residential family-based treatment facility for substance
abuse consistent with section 260C.190. Screenings are also not required when a child must
be placed in a facility due to an emotional crisis or other mental health emergency.
new text end

new text begin (b) The responsible social services agency shall conductnew text end screenings deleted text beginshall be conducteddeleted text end
within 15 days of a request for a screening, unless the screening is for the purpose of
deleted text begin placement in mental healthdeleted text end residential treatment and the child is enrolled in a prepaid health
program under section 256B.69new text begin,new text end in which case the new text beginagency shall conduct the new text endscreening deleted text beginshall
be conducted
deleted text end within ten working days of a request. new text beginThe responsible social services agency
shall convene
new text endthe team, which may be deleted text beginthe teamdeleted text end constituted under section 245.4885 or
256B.092 or Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6600 to 9530.6655deleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin. The teamnew text end shall consist of
social workersdeleted text begin, juvenile justice professionals,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end persons with expertise in the treatment of
juveniles who are emotionally disabled, chemically dependent, or have a developmental
disabilitydeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end and the child's parent, guardian, or permanent legal custodian deleted text beginunder Minnesota
Statutes 2010, section 260C.201, subdivision 11, or section 260C.515, subdivision 4. The
team may be the same team as defined in section 260B.157, subdivision 3
deleted text end.new text begin The team may
include the child's relatives as defined in section 260C.007, subdivisions 26b and 27, the
child's foster care provider, and professionals who are a resource to the child's family such
as teachers, medical or mental health providers, and clergy, as appropriate, consistent with
the family and permanency team as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 16a. Prior to
forming the team, the responsible social services agency must consult with the child if the
child is age 14 or older, the child's parents, and, if applicable, the child's tribe to ensure that
the team is family-centered and will act in the child's best interest. If the child, child's parents,
or legal guardians raise concerns about specific relatives or professionals, the team should
not include those individuals. This provision does not apply to paragraph (c).
new text end

deleted text begin (b) The social services agency shall determine whether a child brought to its attention
for the purposes described in this section is an Indian child, as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 21
, and shall determine the identity of the Indian child's tribe, as defined in
section 260.755, subdivision 9. When a child to be evaluated
deleted text endnew text begin (c) If the agency provides
notice to tribes under section 260.761, and the child screened
new text end is an Indian child, the deleted text beginteam
provided in paragraph (a) shall include
deleted text endnew text begin responsible social services agency must make a
rigorous and concerted effort to include
new text end a designated representative of the Indian child's
tribenew text begin on the juvenile treatment screening teamnew text end, unless the child's tribal authority declines to
appoint a representative. The Indian child's tribe may delegate its authority to represent the
child to any other federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined in section 260.755, subdivision
12
.new text begin The provisions of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25,
sections 1901 to 1963, and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act, sections 260.751
to 260.835, apply to this section.
new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end If the court, prior to, or as part of, a final dispositionnew text begin or other court ordernew text end, proposes
to place a childdeleted text begin:deleted text endnew text begin with an emotional disturbance or developmental disability or related
condition in residential treatment, the responsible social services agency must conduct a
screening. If the team recommends treating the child in a qualified residential treatment
program, the agency must follow the requirements of sections 260C.70 to 260C.714.
new text end

deleted text begin (1) for the primary purpose of treatment for an emotional disturbance, a developmental
disability, or chemical dependency in a residential treatment facility out of state or in one
which is within the state and licensed by the commissioner of human services under chapter
245A; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) in any out-of-home setting potentially exceeding 30 days in duration, including a
postdispositional placement in a facility licensed by the commissioner of corrections or
human services,
deleted text end The court shall ascertain whether the child is an Indian child and shall
notify the deleted text begincounty welfare agencydeleted text endnew text begin responsible social services agencynew text end and, if the child is an
Indian child, shall notify the Indian child's tribedeleted text begin. The county's juvenile treatment screening
team must either: (i) screen and evaluate the child and file its recommendations with the
court within 14 days of receipt of the notice; or (ii) elect not to screen a given case and
notify the court of that decision within three working days
deleted text endnew text begin as paragraph (c) requiresnew text end.

deleted text begin (d) The child may not be placed for the primary purpose of treatment for an emotional
disturbance, a developmental disability, or chemical dependency, in a residential treatment
facility out of state nor in a residential treatment facility within the state that is licensed
under chapter 245A, unless one of the following conditions applies:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) a treatment professional certifies that an emergency requires the placement of the
child in a facility within the state;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) the screening team has evaluated the child and recommended that a residential
placement is necessary to meet the child's treatment needs and the safety needs of the
community, that it is a cost-effective means of meeting the treatment needs, and that it will
be of therapeutic value to the child; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) the court, having reviewed a screening team recommendation against placement,
determines to the contrary that a residential placement is necessary. The court shall state
the reasons for its determination in writing, on the record, and shall respond specifically to
the findings and recommendation of the screening team in explaining why the
recommendation was rejected. The attorney representing the child and the prosecuting
attorney shall be afforded an opportunity to be heard on the matter.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (e) When the county's juvenile treatment screening team has elected to screen and evaluate
a child determined to be an Indian child, the team shall provide notice to the tribe or tribes
that accept jurisdiction for the Indian child or that recognize the child as a member of the
tribe or as a person eligible for membership in the tribe, and permit the tribe's representative
to participate in the screening team.
deleted text end

new text begin (e) When the responsible social services agency is responsible for placing and caring
for the child and the screening team recommends placing a child in a qualified residential
treatment program as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d, the agency must: (1)
begin the assessment and processes required in section 260C.704 without delay; and (2)
conduct a relative search according to section 260C.221 to assemble the child's family and
permanency team under section 260C.706. Prior to notifying relatives regarding the family
and permanency team, the responsible social services agency must consult with the child
if the child is age 14 or older, the child's parents and, if applicable, the child's tribe to ensure
that the agency is providing notice to individuals who will act in the child's best interest.
The child and the child's parents may identify a culturally competent qualified individual
to complete the child's assessment. The agency shall make efforts to refer the assessment
to the identified qualified individual. The assessment may not be delayed for the purpose
of having the assessment completed by a specific qualified individual.
new text end

new text begin (f) When a screening team determines that a child does not need treatment in a qualified
residential treatment program, the screening team must:
new text end

new text begin (1) document the services and supports that will prevent the child's foster care placement
and will support the child remaining at home;
new text end

new text begin (2) document the services and supports that the agency will arrange to place the child
in a family foster home; or
new text end

new text begin (3) document the services and supports that the agency has provided in any other setting.
new text end

deleted text begin (f)deleted text endnew text begin (g)new text end When the Indian child's tribe or tribal health care services provider or Indian
Health Services provider proposes to place a child for the primary purpose of treatment for
an emotional disturbance, a developmental disability, or co-occurring emotional disturbance
and chemical dependency, the Indian child's tribe or the tribe delegated by the child's tribe
shall submit necessary documentation to the county juvenile treatment screening team,
which must invite the Indian child's tribe to designate a representative to the screening team.

new text begin (h) The responsible social services agency must conduct and document the screening in
a format approved by the commissioner of human services.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 75.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.202, is amended to read:


260C.202 COURT REVIEW OF FOSTER CARE.

(a) If the court orders a child placed in foster care, the court shall review the out-of-home
placement plan and the child's placement at least every 90 days as required in juvenile court
rules to determine whether continued out-of-home placement is necessary and appropriate
or whether the child should be returned home. This review is not required if the court has
returned the child home, ordered the child permanently placed away from the parent under
sections 260C.503 to 260C.521, or terminated rights under section 260C.301. Court review
for a child permanently placed away from a parent, including where the child is under
guardianship of the commissioner, shall be governed by section 260C.607.new text begin When a child
is placed in a qualified residential treatment program setting as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 26d, the responsible social services agency must submit evidence to the court
as specified in section 260C.712.
new text end

(b) No later than three months after the child's placement in foster care, the court shall
review agency efforts pursuant to section 260C.221, and order that the efforts continue if
the agency has failed to perform the duties under that section. The court must order the
agency to continue to appropriately engage relatives who responded to the notice under
section 260C.221 in placement and case planning decisions and to engage other relatives
who came to the agency's attention after notice under section 260C.221 was sent.

(c) The court shall review the out-of-home placement plan and may modify the plan as
provided under section 260C.201, subdivisions 6 and 7.

(d) When the court orders transfer of custody to a responsible social services agency
resulting in foster care or protective supervision with a noncustodial parent under subdivision
1, the court shall notify the parents of the provisions of sections 260C.204 and 260C.503
to 260C.521, as required under juvenile court rules.

(e) When a child remains in or returns to foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 and
the court has jurisdiction pursuant to section 260C.193, subdivision 6, paragraph (c), the
court shall at least annually conduct the review required under section 260C.203.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 76.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.204, is amended to read:


260C.204 PERMANENCY PROGRESS REVIEW FOR CHILDREN IN FOSTER
CARE FOR SIX MONTHS.

(a) When a child continues in placement out of the home of the parent or guardian from
whom the child was removed, no later than six months after the child's placement the court
shall conduct a permanency progress hearing to review:

(1) the progress of the case, the parent's progress on the case plan or out-of-home
placement plan, whichever is applicable;

(2) the agency's reasonable, or in the case of an Indian child, active efforts for
reunification and its provision of services;

(3) the agency's reasonable efforts to finalize the permanent plan for the child under
section 260.012, paragraph (e), and to make a placement as required under section 260C.212,
subdivision 2
, in a home that will commit to being the legally permanent family for the
child in the event the child cannot return home according to the timelines in this section;
and

(4) in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to prevent the breakup of the Indian
family and to make a placement according to the placement preferences under United States
Code, title 25, chapter 21, section 1915.

new text begin (b) When a child is placed in a qualified residential treatment program setting as defined
in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d, the responsible social services agency must submit
evidence to the court as specified in section 260C.712.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end The court shall ensure that notice of the hearing is sent to any relative who:

(1) responded to the agency's notice provided under section 260C.221, indicating an
interest in participating in planning for the child or being a permanency resource for the
child and who has kept the court apprised of the relative's address; or

(2) asked to be notified of court proceedings regarding the child as is permitted in section
260C.152, subdivision 5.

deleted text begin (c)(1)deleted text endnew text begin (d)(1)new text end If the parent or guardian has maintained contact with the child and is
complying with the court-ordered out-of-home placement plan, and if the child would benefit
from reunification with the parent, the court may either:

(i) return the child home, if the conditions which led to the out-of-home placement have
been sufficiently mitigated that it is safe and in the child's best interests to return home; or

(ii) continue the matter up to a total of six additional months. If the child has not returned
home by the end of the additional six months, the court must conduct a hearing according
to sections 260C.503 to 260C.521.

(2) If the court determines that the parent or guardian is not complying with the
out-of-home placement plan or is not maintaining regular contact with the child as outlined
in the visitation plan required as part of the out-of-home placement plan under section
260C.212, the court may order the responsible social services agency:

(i) to develop a plan for legally permanent placement of the child away from the parent;

(ii) to consider, identify, recruit, and support one or more permanency resources from
the child's relatives and foster parent to be the legally permanent home in the event the child
cannot be returned to the parent. Any relative or the child's foster parent may ask the court
to order the agency to consider them for permanent placement of the child in the event the
child cannot be returned to the parent. A relative or foster parent who wants to be considered
under this item shall cooperate with the background study required under section 245C.08,
if the individual has not already done so, and with the home study process required under
chapter 245A for providing child foster care and for adoption under section 259.41. The
home study referred to in this item shall be a single-home study in the form required by the
commissioner of human services or similar study required by the individual's state of
residence when the subject of the study is not a resident of Minnesota. The court may order
the responsible social services agency to make a referral under the Interstate Compact on
the Placement of Children when necessary to obtain a home study for an individual who
wants to be considered for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody or adoption of
the child; and

(iii) to file a petition to support an order for the legally permanent placement plan.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end Following the review under this section:

(1) if the court has either returned the child home or continued the matter up to a total
of six additional months, the agency shall continue to provide services to support the child's
return home or to make reasonable efforts to achieve reunification of the child and the parent
as ordered by the court under an approved case plan;

(2) if the court orders the agency to develop a plan for the transfer of permanent legal
and physical custody of the child to a relative, a petition supporting the plan shall be filed
in juvenile court within 30 days of the hearing required under this section and a trial on the
petition held within 60 days of the filing of the pleadings; or

(3) if the court orders the agency to file a termination of parental rights, unless the county
attorney can show cause why a termination of parental rights petition should not be filed,
a petition for termination of parental rights shall be filed in juvenile court within 30 days
of the hearing required under this section and a trial on the petition held within 60 days of
the filing of the petition.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 77.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.212, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Out-of-home placement; plan.

(a) An out-of-home placement plan shall
be prepared within 30 days after any child is placed in foster care by court order or a
voluntary placement agreement between the responsible social services agency and the
child's parent pursuant to section 260C.227 or chapter 260D.

(b) An out-of-home placement plan means a written document which is prepared by the
responsible social services agency jointly with the parent or parents or guardian of the child
and in consultation with the child's guardian ad litem, the child's tribe, if the child is an
Indian child, the child's foster parent or representative of the foster care facility, and, where
appropriate, the child. When a child is age 14 or older, the child may include two other
individuals on the team preparing the child's out-of-home placement plan. The child may
select one member of the case planning team to be designated as the child's advisor and to
advocate with respect to the application of the reasonable and prudent parenting standards.
The responsible social services agency may reject an individual selected by the child if the
agency has good cause to believe that the individual would not act in the best interest of the
child. For a child in voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, preparation of
the out-of-home placement plan shall additionally include the child's mental health treatment
provider. For a child 18 years of age or older, the responsible social services agency shall
involve the child and the child's parents as appropriate. As appropriate, the plan shall be:

(1) submitted to the court for approval under section 260C.178, subdivision 7;

(2) ordered by the court, either as presented or modified after hearing, under section
260C.178, subdivision 7, or 260C.201, subdivision 6; and

(3) signed by the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child's guardian ad litem,
a representative of the child's tribe, the responsible social services agency, and, if possible,
the child.

(c) The out-of-home placement plan shall be explained to all persons involved in its
implementation, including the child who has signed the plan, and shall set forth:

(1) a description of the foster care home or facility selected, including how the
out-of-home placement plan is designed to achieve a safe placement for the child in the
least restrictive, most family-like, setting available which is in close proximity to the home
of the parent or parents or guardian of the child when the case plan goal is reunification,
and how the placement is consistent with the best interests and special needs of the child
according to the factors under subdivision 2, paragraph (b);

(2) the specific reasons for the placement of the child in foster care, and when
reunification is the plan, a description of the problems or conditions in the home of the
parent or parents which necessitated removal of the child from home and the changes the
parent or parents must make for the child to safely return home;

(3) a description of the services offered and provided to prevent removal of the child
from the home and to reunify the family including:

(i) the specific actions to be taken by the parent or parents of the child to eliminate or
correct the problems or conditions identified in clause (2), and the time period during which
the actions are to be taken; and

(ii) the reasonable efforts, or in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to be made to
achieve a safe and stable home for the child including social and other supportive services
to be provided or offered to the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child, and the
residential facility during the period the child is in the residential facility;

(4) a description of any services or resources that were requested by the child or the
child's parent, guardian, foster parent, or custodian since the date of the child's placement
in the residential facility, and whether those services or resources were provided and if not,
the basis for the denial of the services or resources;

(5) the visitation plan for the parent or parents or guardian, other relatives as defined in
section 260C.007, subdivision 26b or 27, and siblings of the child if the siblings are not
placed together in foster care, and whether visitation is consistent with the best interest of
the child, during the period the child is in foster care;

(6) when a child cannot return to or be in the care of either parent, documentation of
steps to finalize adoption as the permanency plan for the child through reasonable efforts
to place the child for adoption. At a minimum, the documentation must include consideration
of whether adoption is in the best interests of the child, child-specific recruitment efforts
such as relative search and the use of state, regional, and national adoption exchanges to
facilitate orderly and timely placements in and outside of the state. A copy of this
documentation shall be provided to the court in the review required under section 260C.317,
subdivision 3, paragraph (b);

(7) when a child cannot return to or be in the care of either parent, documentation of
steps to finalize the transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative as the
permanency plan for the child. This documentation must support the requirements of the
kinship placement agreement under section 256N.22 and must include the reasonable efforts
used to determine that it is not appropriate for the child to return home or be adopted, and
reasons why permanent placement with a relative through a Northstar kinship assistance
arrangement is in the child's best interest; how the child meets the eligibility requirements
for Northstar kinship assistance payments; agency efforts to discuss adoption with the child's
relative foster parent and reasons why the relative foster parent chose not to pursue adoption,
if applicable; and agency efforts to discuss with the child's parent or parents the permanent
transfer of permanent legal and physical custody or the reasons why these efforts were not
made;

(8) efforts to ensure the child's educational stability while in foster care for a child who
attained the minimum age for compulsory school attendance under state law and is enrolled
full time in elementary or secondary school, or instructed in elementary or secondary
education at home, or instructed in an independent study elementary or secondary program,
or incapable of attending school on a full-time basis due to a medical condition that is
documented and supported by regularly updated information in the child's case plan.
Educational stability efforts include:

(i) efforts to ensure that the child remains in the same school in which the child was
enrolled prior to placement or upon the child's move from one placement to another, including
efforts to work with the local education authorities to ensure the child's educational stability
and attendance; or

(ii) if it is not in the child's best interest to remain in the same school that the child was
enrolled in prior to placement or move from one placement to another, efforts to ensure
immediate and appropriate enrollment for the child in a new school;

(9) the educational records of the child including the most recent information available
regarding:

(i) the names and addresses of the child's educational providers;

(ii) the child's grade level performance;

(iii) the child's school record;

(iv) a statement about how the child's placement in foster care takes into account
proximity to the school in which the child is enrolled at the time of placement; and

(v) any other relevant educational information;

(10) the efforts by the responsible social services agency to ensure the oversight and
continuity of health care services for the foster child, including:

(i) the plan to schedule the child's initial health screens;

(ii) how the child's known medical problems and identified needs from the screens,
including any known communicable diseases, as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision
2, shall be monitored and treated while the child is in foster care;

(iii) how the child's medical information shall be updated and shared, including the
child's immunizations;

(iv) who is responsible to coordinate and respond to the child's health care needs,
including the role of the parent, the agency, and the foster parent;

(v) who is responsible for oversight of the child's prescription medications;

(vi) how physicians or other appropriate medical and nonmedical professionals shall be
consulted and involved in assessing the health and well-being of the child and determine
the appropriate medical treatment for the child; and

(vii) the responsibility to ensure that the child has access to medical care through either
medical insurance or medical assistance;

(11) the health records of the child including information available regarding:

(i) the names and addresses of the child's health care and dental care providers;

(ii) a record of the child's immunizations;

(iii) the child's known medical problems, including any known communicable diseases
as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision 2;

(iv) the child's medications; and

(v) any other relevant health care information such as the child's eligibility for medical
insurance or medical assistance;

(12) an independent living plan for a child 14 years of age or older, developed in
consultation with the child. The child may select one member of the case planning team to
be designated as the child's advisor and to advocate with respect to the application of the
reasonable and prudent parenting standards in subdivision 14. The plan should include, but
not be limited to, the following objectives:

(i) educational, vocational, or employment planning;

(ii) health care planning and medical coverage;

(iii) transportation including, where appropriate, assisting the child in obtaining a driver's
license;

(iv) money management, including the responsibility of the responsible social services
agency to ensure that the child annually receives, at no cost to the child, a consumer report
as defined under section 13C.001 and assistance in interpreting and resolving any inaccuracies
in the report;

(v) planning for housing;

(vi) social and recreational skills;

(vii) establishing and maintaining connections with the child's family and community;
and

(viii) regular opportunities to engage in age-appropriate or developmentally appropriate
activities typical for the child's age group, taking into consideration the capacities of the
individual child;

(13) for a child in voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, diagnostic
and assessment information, specific services relating to meeting the mental health care
needs of the child, and treatment outcomes; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

(14) for a child 14 years of age or older, a signed acknowledgment that describes the
child's rights regarding education, health care, visitation, safety and protection from
exploitation, and court participation; receipt of the documents identified in section 260C.452;
and receipt of an annual credit report. The acknowledgment shall state that the rights were
explained in an age-appropriate manner to the childdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; and
new text end

new text begin (15) for a child placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the plan must include
the requirements in section 260C.708.
new text end

(d) The parent or parents or guardian and the child each shall have the right to legal
counsel in the preparation of the case plan and shall be informed of the right at the time of
placement of the child. The child shall also have the right to a guardian ad litem. If unable
to employ counsel from their own resources, the court shall appoint counsel upon the request
of the parent or parents or the child or the child's legal guardian. The parent or parents may
also receive assistance from any person or social services agency in preparation of the case
plan.

After the plan has been agreed upon by the parties involved or approved or ordered by
the court, the foster parents shall be fully informed of the provisions of the case plan and
shall be provided a copy of the plan.

Upon discharge from foster care, the parent, adoptive parent, or permanent legal and
physical custodian, as appropriate, and the child, if appropriate, must be provided with a
current copy of the child's health and education record.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 78.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.212, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 1a. new text end

new text begin Out-of-home placement plan update. new text end

new text begin (a) Within 30 days of placing the child
in foster care, the agency must file the initial out-of-home placement plan with the court.
After filing the initial out-of-home placement plan, the agency shall update and file the
out-of-home placement plan with the court as follows:
new text end

new text begin (1) when the agency moves a child to a different foster care setting, the agency shall
inform the court within 30 days of the placement change or court-ordered trial home visit.
The agency must file the updated out-of-home placement plan with the court at the next
required review hearing;
new text end

new text begin (2) when the agency places a child in a qualified residential treatment program as defined
in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d, or moves a child from one qualified residential
treatment program to a different qualified residential treatment program, the agency must
update the out-of-home placement plan within 60 days. To meet the requirements of
260C.708, the agency must file the out-of-home placement plan with the court as part of
the 60-day hearing and must update the plan after the court hearing to document the court's
approval or disapproval of the child's placement in a qualified residential treatment program;
new text end

new text begin (3) when the agency places a child with the child's parent in a licensed residential
family-based substance use disorder treatment program under section 260C.190, the agency
must identify the treatment program in the child's out-of-home placement plan prior to the
child's placement. The agency must file the out-of-home placement plan with the court at
the next required review hearing; and
new text end

new text begin (4) under sections 260C.227 and 260C.521, the agency must update the out-of-home
placement plan and file the plan with the court.
new text end

new text begin (b) When none of the items in paragraph (a) apply, the agency must update the
out-of-home placement plan no later than 180 days after the child's initial placement and
every six months thereafter, consistent with section 260C.203, paragraph (a).
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 79.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260C.212, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Placement decisions based on best interests of the child.

(a) The policy of
the state of Minnesota is to ensure that the child's best interests are met by requiring an
individualized determination of the needs of the child and of how the selected placement
will serve the needs of the child being placed. The authorized child-placing agency shall
place a child, released by court order or by voluntary release by the parent or parents, in a
family foster home selected by considering placement with relatives and important friends
in the following order:

(1) with an individual who is related to the child by blood, marriage, or adoption; or

(2) with an individual who is an important friend with whom the child has resided or
had significant contact.

For an Indian child, the agency shall follow the order of placement preferences in the Indian
Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1915.

(b) Among the factors the agency shall consider in determining the needs of the child
are the following:

(1) the child's current functioning and behaviors;

(2) the medical needs of the child;

(3) the educational needs of the child;

(4) the developmental needs of the child;

(5) the child's history and past experience;

(6) the child's religious and cultural needs;

(7) the child's connection with a community, school, and faith community;

(8) the child's interests and talents;

(9) the child's relationship to current caretakers, parents, siblings, and relatives;

(10) the reasonable preference of the child, if the court, or the child-placing agency in
the case of a voluntary placement, deems the child to be of sufficient age to express
preferences; and

(11) for an Indian child, the best interests of an Indian child as defined in section 260.755,
subdivision 2a
.

(c) Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on race, color, or national
origin of the foster parent or the child.

(d) Siblings should be placed together for foster care and adoption at the earliest possible
time unless it is documented that a joint placement would be contrary to the safety or
well-being of any of the siblings or unless it is not possible after reasonable efforts by the
responsible social services agency. In cases where siblings cannot be placed together, the
agency is required to provide frequent visitation or other ongoing interaction between
siblings unless the agency documents that the interaction would be contrary to the safety
or well-being of any of the siblings.

(e) Except for emergency placement as provided for in section 245A.035, the following
requirements must be satisfied before the approval of a foster or adoptive placement in a
related or unrelated home: (1) a completed background study under section 245C.08; and
(2) a completed review of the written home study required under section 260C.215,
subdivision 4
, clause (5), or 260C.611, to assess the capacity of the prospective foster or
adoptive parent to ensure the placement will meet the needs of the individual child.

(f) The agency must determine whether colocation with a parent who is receiving services
in a licensed residential family-based substance use disorder treatment program is in the
child's best interests according to paragraph (b) and include that determination in the child's
case plannew text begin under subdivision 1new text end. The agency may consider additional factors not identified
in paragraph (b). The agency's determination must be documented in the child's case plan
before the child is colocated with a parent.

new text begin (g) The agency must establish a juvenile treatment screening team under section 260C.157
to determine whether it is necessary and appropriate to recommend placing a child in a
qualified residential treatment program, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 80.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.212, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:


Subd. 4a.

Monthly caseworker visits.

(a) Every child in foster care or on a trial home
visit shall be visited by the child's caseworker or another person who has responsibility for
visitation of the child on a monthly basis, with the majority of visits occurring in the child's
residence.new text begin The responsible social services agency may designate another person responsible
for monthly case visits.
new text end For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) "visit" is defined as a face-to-face contact between a child and the child's caseworker;

(2) "visited on a monthly basis" is defined as at least one visit per calendar month;

(3) "the child's caseworker" is defined as the person who has responsibility for managing
the child's foster care placement case as assigned by the responsible social deleted text beginservicedeleted text endnew text begin servicesnew text end
agency; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

new text begin (4) "another person" means the professional staff whom the responsible social services
agency has assigned in the out-of-home placement plan or case plan. Another person must
be professionally trained to assess the child's safety, permanency, well-being, and case
progress. The agency may not designate the guardian ad litem, the child foster care provider,
residential facility staff, or a qualified individual as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision
26b, as another person; and
new text end

deleted text begin (4)deleted text endnew text begin (5)new text end "the child's residence" is defined as the home where the child is residing, and can
include the foster home, child care institution, or the home from which the child was removed
if the child is on a trial home visit.

(b) Caseworker visits shall be of sufficient substance and duration to address issues
pertinent to case planning and service delivery to ensure the safety, permanency, and
well-being of the child, including whether the child is enrolled and attending school as
required by law.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 81.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.227, is amended to read:


260C.227 VOLUNTARY FOSTER CARE; REQUIRED COURT REVIEW.

new text begin (a) new text endWhen the responsible social services agency and the child's parent or guardian agree
that the child's safety, health, and best interests require that the child be in foster care, the
agency and the parent or guardian may enter into a voluntary agreement for the placement
of the child in foster care. The voluntary agreement must be in writing and in a form approved
by the commissioner.

new text begin (b) new text endWhen the child has been placed in foster care pursuant to a voluntary foster care
agreement between the agency and the parent, under this section and the child is not returned
home within 90 days after initial placement in foster care, the agency responsible for the
child's placement in foster care shall:

(1) return the child to the home of the parent or parents; or

(2) file a petition according to section 260C.141, subdivision 1 or 2, which may:

(i) ask the court to review the child's placement in foster care and approve it as continued
voluntary foster care for up to an additional 90 days;

(ii) ask the court to order continued foster care according to sections 260C.178 and
260C.201; or

(iii) ask the court to terminate parental rights under section 260C.301.

new text begin (3) new text endThe out-of-home placement plan must be updated and filed along with the petition.

new text begin (c) new text endIf the court approves continuing the child in foster care for up to 90 more days on a
voluntary basis, at the end of the court-approved 90-day period, the child must be returned
to the parent's home. If the child is not returned home, the responsible social services agency
must proceed on the petition filed alleging the child in need of protection or services or the
petition for termination of parental rights or other permanent placement of the child away
from the parent. The court must find a statutory basis to order the placement of the child
under section 260C.178; 260C.201; 260C.503 to 260C.521; or 260C.317.

new text begin (d) If the child is placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the placement must
follow the requirements of sections 260C.70 to 260C.714.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 82.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.4412, is amended to read:


260C.4412 PAYMENT FOR RESIDENTIAL PLACEMENTS.

new text begin (a) new text endWhen a child is placed in a foster care group residential setting under Minnesota
Rules, parts 2960.0020 to 2960.0710,new text begin a foster residence licensed under chapter 245A that
meets the standards of Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3200 to 2960.3230, or a children's
residential facility licensed or approved by a tribe,
new text end foster care maintenance payments must
be made on behalf of the child to cover the cost of providing food, clothing, shelter, daily
supervision, school supplies, child's personal incidentals and supports, reasonable travel for
visitation, or other transportation needs associated with the items listed. Daily supervision
in the group residential setting includes routine day-to-day direction and arrangements to
ensure the well-being and safety of the child. It may also include reasonable costs of
administration and operation of the facility.

new text begin (b) The commissioner of human services shall specify the title IV-E administrative
procedures under section 256.82 for each of the following residential program settings:
new text end

new text begin (1) residential programs licensed under chapter 245A or licensed by a tribe, including:
new text end

new text begin (i) qualified residential treatment programs as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision
26d;
new text end

new text begin (ii) program settings specializing in providing prenatal, postpartum, or parenting supports
for youth; and
new text end

new text begin (iii) program settings providing high-quality residential care and supportive services to
children and youth who are, or are at risk of becoming, sex trafficking victims;
new text end

new text begin (2) licensed residential family-based substance use disorder treatment programs as
defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 22a; and
new text end

new text begin (3) supervised settings in which a foster child age 18 or older may live independently,
consistent with section 260C.451.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 83.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.503, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Qualified residential treatment program; permanency hearing
requirements.
new text end

new text begin When a child is placed in a qualified residential treatment program as defined
in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d, the responsible social services agency must submit
evidence to the court as specified in section 260C.712.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 84.

new text begin [260C.70] CITATION.
new text end

new text begin Sections 260C.70 to 260C.714 may be cited as "Placements in Qualified Residential
Treatment Programs." Sections 260C.70 to 260C.714 implement the requirements of the
Family First Prevention Services Act of 2018, Public Law 115-123, and apply to children
for whom the juvenile treatment screening team under section 260C.157, subdivision 3,
recommends placement in a qualified residential treatment program.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 85.

new text begin [260C.702] REQUIREMENTS FOR PLACEMENTS IN QUALIFIED
RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT PROGRAMS.
new text end

new text begin For the responsible social services agency to place a child in a qualified residential
treatment program, there must be:
new text end

new text begin (1) an assessment by a qualified individual of whether it is necessary and appropriate
to place the child at a qualified residential treatment program under section 260C.704;
new text end

new text begin (2) a family and permanency team under section 260C.706;
new text end

new text begin (3) an out-of-home placement plan under section 260C.708;
new text end

new text begin (4) court approval of a child's placement in a qualified residential treatment program
under section 260C.71;
new text end

new text begin (5) ongoing reviews and permanency hearings under section 260C.712; and
new text end

new text begin (6) a court review of any extended placement of the child in a qualified residential
treatment program under section 260C.714.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 86.

new text begin [260C.704] REQUIREMENTS FOR THE QUALIFIED INDIVIDUAL'S
ASSESSMENT OF THE CHILD FOR PLACEMENT IN A QUALIFIED
RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT PROGRAM.
new text end

new text begin (a) A qualified individual must complete an assessment of the child prior to or within
30 days of the child's placement in a qualified residential treatment program in a format
approved by the commissioner of human services, and must:
new text end

new text begin (1) assess the child's needs and strengths, using an age-appropriate, evidence-based,
validated, functional assessment approved by the commissioner of human services;
new text end

new text begin (2) determine whether the child's needs can be met by the child's family members or
through placement in a family foster home; or, if not, determine which residential setting
would provide the child with the most effective and appropriate level of care to the child
in the least restrictive environment;
new text end

new text begin (3) develop a list of short- and long-term mental and behavioral health goals for the
child; and
new text end

new text begin (4) work with the child's family and permanency team using culturally competent
practices.
new text end

new text begin (b) The child and the child's parents, when appropriate, may request that a specific
culturally competent qualified individual complete the child's assessment. The agency shall
make efforts to refer the child to the identified qualified individual to complete the
assessment. The assessment must not be delayed for a specific qualified individual to
complete the assessment.
new text end

new text begin (c) The qualified individual must provide the assessment, when complete, to the
responsible social services agency, the child's parents or legal guardians, the guardian ad
litem, and the court as required in section 260C.71. If court rules and chapter 13 permit
disclosure of the results of the child's assessment, the agency may share the results of the
child's assessment with the child's foster care provider, other members of the child's family,
and the family and permanency team. The agency must not share the child's private medical
data with the family and permanency team unless: (1) chapter 13 permits the agency to
disclose the child's private medical data to the family and permanency team; or (2) the child's
parent has authorized the agency to disclose the child's private medical data to the family
and permanency team.
new text end

new text begin (d) For an Indian child, the assessment of the child must follow the order of placement
preferences in the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section
1915.
new text end

new text begin (e) In the assessment determination, the qualified individual must specify in writing:
new text end

new text begin (1) the reasons why the child's needs cannot be met by the child's family or in a family
foster home. A shortage of family foster homes is not an acceptable reason for determining
that a family foster home cannot meet a child's needs;
new text end

new text begin (2) why the recommended placement in a qualified residential treatment program will
provide the child with the most effective and appropriate level of care to meet the child's
needs in the least restrictive environment possible and how placing the child at the treatment
program is consistent with the short-term and long-term goals of the child's permanency
plan; and
new text end

new text begin (3) if the qualified individual's placement recommendation is not the placement setting
that the parent, family and permanency team, child, or tribe prefer, the qualified individual
must identify the reasons why the qualified individual does not recommend the parent's,
family and permanency team's, child's, or tribe's placement preferences. The out-of-home
placement plan under section 260C.708 must also include reasons why the qualified
individual did not recommend the preferences of the parents, family and permanency team,
child, or tribe.
new text end

new text begin (f) If the qualified individual determines that the child's family or a family foster home
or other less restrictive placement may meet the child's needs, the agency must move the
child out of the qualified residential treatment program and transition the child to a less
restrictive setting within 30 days of the determination.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 87.

new text begin [260C.706] FAMILY AND PERMANENCY TEAM REQUIREMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) When the responsible social services agency's juvenile treatment screening team, as
defined in section 260C.157, recommends placing the child in a qualified residential treatment
program, the agency must assemble a family and permanency team within ten days.
new text end

new text begin (1) The team must include all appropriate biological family members, the child's parents,
legal guardians or custodians, foster care providers, and relatives as defined in section
260C.007, subdivisions 26c and 27, and professionals, as appropriate, who are a resource
to the child's family, such as teachers, medical or mental health providers, or clergy.
new text end

new text begin (2) When a child is placed in foster care prior to the qualified residential treatment
program, the agency shall include relatives responding to the relative search notice as
required under section 260C.221 on this team, unless the juvenile court finds that contacting
a specific relative would endanger the parent, guardian, child, sibling, or any other family
member.
new text end

new text begin (3) When a qualified residential treatment program is the child's initial placement setting,
the responsible social services agency must engage with the child and the child's parents to
determine the appropriate family and permanency team members.
new text end

new text begin (4) When the permanency goal is to reunify the child with the child's parent or legal
guardian, the purpose of the relative search and focus of the family and permanency team
is to preserve family relationships and identify and develop supports for the child and parents.
new text end

new text begin (5) The responsible agency must make a good faith effort to identify and assemble all
appropriate individuals to be part of the child's family and permanency team and request
input from the parents regarding relative search efforts consistent with section 260C.221.
The out-of-home placement plan in section 260C.708 must include all contact information
for the team members, as well as contact information for family members or relatives who
are not a part of the family and permanency team.
new text end

new text begin (6) If the child is age 14 or older, the team must include members of the family and
permanency team that the child selects in accordance with section 260C.212, subdivision
1, paragraph (b).
new text end

new text begin (7) Consistent with section 260C.221, a responsible social services agency may disclose
relevant and appropriate private data about the child to relatives in order for the relatives
to participate in caring and planning for the child's placement.
new text end

new text begin (8) If the child is an Indian child under section 260.751, the responsible social services
agency must make active efforts to include the child's tribal representative on the family
and permanency team.
new text end

new text begin (b) The family and permanency team shall meet regarding the assessment required under
section 260C.704 to determine whether it is necessary and appropriate to place the child in
a qualified residential treatment program and to participate in case planning under section
260C.708.
new text end

new text begin (c) When reunification of the child with the child's parent or legal guardian is the
permanency plan, the family and permanency team shall support the parent-child relationship
by recognizing the parent's legal authority, consulting with the parent regarding ongoing
planning for the child, and assisting the parent with visiting and contacting the child.
new text end

new text begin (d) When the agency's permanency plan is to transfer the child's permanent legal and
physical custody to a relative or for the child's adoption, the team shall:
new text end

new text begin (1) coordinate with the proposed guardian to provide the child with educational services,
medical care, and dental care;
new text end

new text begin (2) coordinate with the proposed guardian, the agency, and the foster care facility to
meet the child's treatment needs after the child is placed in a permanent placement with the
proposed guardian;
new text end

new text begin (3) plan to meet the child's need for safety, stability, and connection with the child's
family and community after the child is placed in a permanent placement with the proposed
guardian; and
new text end

new text begin (4) in the case of an Indian child, communicate with the child's tribe to identify necessary
and appropriate services for the child, transition planning for the child, the child's treatment
needs, and how to maintain the child's connections to the child's community, family, and
tribe.
new text end

new text begin (e) The agency shall invite the family and permanency team to participate in case planning
and the agency shall give the team notice of court reviews under sections 260C.152 and
260C.221 until: (1) the child is reunited with the child's parents; or (2) the child's foster care
placement ends and the child is in a permanent placement.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 88.

new text begin [260C.708] OUT-OF-HOME PLACEMENT PLAN FOR QUALIFIED
RESIDENTIAL TREATMENT PROGRAM PLACEMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) When the responsible social services agency places a child in a qualified residential
treatment program as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 26d, the out-of-home
placement plan must include:
new text end

new text begin (1) the case plan requirements in section 260.212, subdivision 1;
new text end

new text begin (2) the reasonable and good faith efforts of the responsible social services agency to
identify and include all of the individuals required to be on the child's family and permanency
team under section 260C.007;
new text end

new text begin (3) all contact information for members of the child's family and permanency team and
for other relatives who are not part of the family and permanency team;
new text end

new text begin (4) evidence that the agency scheduled meetings of the family and permanency team,
including meetings relating to the assessment required under section 260C.704, at a time
and place convenient for the family;
new text end

new text begin (5) when reunification of the child with the child's parent or legal guardian is the agency's
goal, evidence demonstrating that the parent or legal guardian provided input about the
members of the family and permanency team under section 260C.706;
new text end

new text begin (6) when the agency's permanency goal is to reunify the child with the child's parent or
legal guardian, the out-of-home placement plan must identify services and supports that
maintain the parent-child relationship and the parent's legal authority, decision-making, and
responsibility for ongoing planning for the child. In addition, the agency must assist the
parent with visiting and contacting the child;
new text end

new text begin (7) when the agency's permanency goal is to transfer permanent legal and physical
custody of the child to a proposed guardian or to finalize the child's adoption, the case plan
must document the agency's steps to transfer permanent legal and physical custody of the
child or finalize adoption, as required in section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (c),
clauses (6) and (7); and
new text end

new text begin (8) the qualified individual's recommendation regarding the child's placement in a
qualified residential treatment program and the court approval or disapproval of the placement
as required in section 260C.71.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the placement preferences of the family and permanency team, child, and tribe, if
applicable, are not consistent with the placement setting that the qualified individual
recommends, the case plan must include the reasons why the qualified individual did not
recommend following the preferences of the family and permanency team, child, and the
tribe.
new text end

new text begin (c) The agency must file the out-of-home placement plan with the court as part of the
60-day hearing under section 260C.71.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 89.

new text begin [260C.71] COURT APPROVAL REQUIREMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) Within 60 days from the beginning of each placement in a qualified residential
treatment program, the court must:
new text end

new text begin (1) consider the qualified individual's assessment of whether it is necessary and
appropriate to place the child in a qualified residential treatment program under section
260C.704;
new text end

new text begin (2) determine whether a family foster home can meet the child's needs, whether it is
necessary and appropriate to place a child in a qualified residential treatment program that
is the least restrictive environment possible, and whether the child's placement is consistent
with the child's short and long term goals as specified in the permanency plan; and
new text end

new text begin (3) approve or disapprove of the child's placement.
new text end

new text begin (b) In the out-of-home placement plan, the agency must document the court's approval
or disapproval of the placement, as specified in section 260C.708.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 90.

new text begin [260C.712] ONGOING REVIEWS AND PERMANENCY HEARING
REQUIREMENTS.
new text end

new text begin As long as a child remains placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the
responsible social services agency shall submit evidence at each administrative review under
section 260C.203; each court review under sections 260C.202, 260C.203, and 260C.204;
and each permanency hearing under section 260C.515, 260C.519, or 260C.521, that:
new text end

new text begin (1) demonstrates that an ongoing assessment of the strengths and needs of the child
continues to support the determination that the child's needs cannot be met through placement
in a family foster home;
new text end

new text begin (2) demonstrates that the placement of the child in a qualified residential treatment
program provides the most effective and appropriate level of care for the child in the least
restrictive environment;
new text end

new text begin (3) demonstrates how the placement is consistent with the short-term and long-term
goals for the child, as specified in the child's permanency plan;
new text end

new text begin (4) documents how the child's specific treatment or service needs will be met in the
placement;
new text end

new text begin (5) documents the length of time that the agency expects the child to need treatment or
services; and
new text end

new text begin (6) documents the responsible social services agency's efforts to prepare the child to
return home or to be placed with a fit and willing relative, legal guardian, adoptive parent,
or foster family.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 91.

new text begin [260C.714] REVIEW OF EXTENDED QUALIFIED RESIDENTIAL
TREATMENT PROGRAM PLACEMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) When a responsible social services agency places a child in a qualified residential
treatment program for more than 12 consecutive months or 18 nonconsecutive months or,
in the case of a child who is under 13 years of age, for more than six consecutive or
nonconsecutive months, the agency must submit: (1) the signed approval by the county
social services director of the responsible social services agency; and (2) the evidence
supporting the child's placement at the most recent court review or permanency hearing
under section 260C.712, paragraph (b).
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner shall specify the procedures and requirements for the agency's
review and approval of a child's extended qualified residential treatment program placement.
The commissioner may consult with counties, tribes, child-placing agencies, mental health
providers, licensed facilities, the child, the child's parents, and the family and permanency
team members to develop case plan requirements and engage in periodic reviews of the
case plan.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective September 30, 2021.
new text end

Sec. 92.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518.005, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Prohibited disclosure.

In all proceedings under this chapter and chapter 518A
in which public assistance is assigned under section 256.741 or the public authority provides
services to a party or parties to the proceedings, deleted text beginnotwithstanding statutory or other
authorization for
deleted text end the public authority deleted text begintodeleted text endnew text begin shall notnew text end release private data on the location of a
party to the action, deleted text begininformation on the location of one party may not be released by the
public authority to the other party
deleted text endnew text begin or the joint childnew text end if:

(1) the public authority has knowledge that new text beginone party is currently subject to new text enda protective
order with respect to the other party deleted text beginhas been entereddeleted text endnew text begin or the joint child, and the protected
party or guardian of the joint child has not authorized disclosure
new text end; or

(2) the public authority has reason to believe that the release of the information may
result in physical or emotional harm to deleted text beginthe otherdeleted text end new text beginanew text end party new text beginor the joint childnew text end.

Sec. 93.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518A.53, subdivision 11, is amended to read:


Subd. 11.

Lump-sum payments.

Before transmittal to the obligor of a lump-sum payment
of $500 or more including, but not limited to, severance pay, accumulated sick pay, vacation
pay, bonuses, commissions, or other pay or benefits, a payor of funds:

(1) who has been served with an order for or notice of income withholding under this
section shall:

(i) notify the public authority of the lump-sum payment that is to be paid to the obligor;

(ii) hold the lump-sum payment for 30 days after the date on which the lump-sum payment
would otherwise have been paid to the obligor, notwithstanding sections 176.221, 176.225,
176.521, 181.08, 181.101, 181.11, 181.13, and 181.145; and

(iii) upon order of the court, and after a showing of past willful nonpayment of support,
pay any specified amount of the lump-sum payment to the public authority for future support;
or

(2) shall pay the lessor of the amount of the lump-sum payment or the total amount of
the judgment and arrearages upon service by United States mail of a sworn affidavit from
the public authority or a court order that includes the following information:

(i) that a judgment entered pursuant to section 548.091, subdivision 1a, exists against
the obligor, or that other support arrearages exist;

(ii) the current balance of the judgment or arrearage; and

(iii) that a portion of the judgment or arrearage remains unpaid.

deleted text begin The Consumer Credit Protection Act, title 15 of the United States Code, section 1673(b),
does not apply to lump-sum payments.
deleted text end

Sec. 94.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518A.68, is amended to read:


518A.68 RECREATIONAL LICENSE SUSPENSION.

(a) Upon motion of an obligee or the public authority, deleted text beginwhich has been properly served
on the obligor by first class mail at the last known address or in person,
deleted text end and if deleted text beginat a hearing,deleted text end
the court finds that (1) the obligor is in arrears in court-ordered child support or maintenance
payments, or both, in an amount equal to or greater than six times the obligor's total monthly
support and maintenance payments and is not in compliance with a written payment
agreement pursuant to section 518A.69, or (2) has failed, after receiving notice, to comply
with a subpoena relating to a paternity or child support proceeding, the court may direct the
commissioner of natural resources to suspend or bar receipt of the obligor's recreational
license or licenses. Prior to utilizing this section, the court must find that other substantial
enforcement mechanisms have been attempted but have not resulted in compliance.

(b) For purposes of this section, a recreational license includes all licenses, permits, and
stamps issued centrally by the commissioner of natural resources under sections 97B.301,
97B.401, 97B.501, 97B.515, 97B.601, 97B.715, 97B.721, 97B.801, 97C.301, and 97C.305.

(c) deleted text beginAn obligor whose recreational license or licenses have been suspended or barred
may provide proof to the court that the obligor is in compliance with all written payment
agreements pursuant to section 518A.69.
deleted text end new text beginA motion to reinstate a recreational license by the
obligor, obligee, or public authority may be granted if the court finds:
new text end

new text begin (1) the reason for the suspension was accrual of arrears and the obligor is in compliance
with all written payment agreements pursuant to section 518A.69 or has paid the arrears in
full;
new text end

new text begin (2) the reason for the suspension was failure to comply with a subpoena and the obligor
has complied with the subpoena; or
new text end

new text begin (3) the original motion to suspend was brought by the public authority and the public
authority attests that the IV-D case is eligible for closure.
new text end

Within 15 days of deleted text beginreceipt of that proofdeleted text endnew text begin issuance of an order to reinstate the recreational
license
new text end, the court shall notify the commissioner of natural resources that the obligor's
recreational license or licenses should no longer be suspended nor should receipt be barred.

Sec. 95.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518A.685, is amended to read:


518A.685 CONSUMER REPORTING AGENCY; REPORTING ARREARS.

(a) If a public authority determines that an obligor has not paid the current monthly
support obligation plus any required arrearage payment for three months, the public authority
must report this information to a consumer reporting agency.

(b) Before reporting that an obligor is in arrears for court-ordered child support, the
public authority must:

(1) provide written notice to the obligor that the public authority intends to report the
arrears to a consumer reporting agency; and

(2) mail the written notice to the obligor's last known mailing address at least 30 days
before the public authority reports the arrears to a consumer reporting agency.

(c) The obligor may, within 21 days of receipt of the notice, do the following to prevent
the public authority from reporting the arrears to a consumer reporting agency:

(1) pay the arrears in full; or

(2) request an administrative review. An administrative review is limited to issues of
mistaken identity, a pending legal action involving the arrears, or an incorrect arrears balance.

deleted text begin (d) If the public authority has reported that an obligor is in arrears for court-ordered
child support and subsequently determines that the obligor has paid the court-ordered child
support arrears in full, or is paying the current monthly support obligation plus any required
arrearage payment, the public authority must report to the consumer reporting agency that
the obligor is currently paying child support as ordered by the court.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end A public authority that reports arrearage information under this section must
make monthly reports to a consumer reporting agency. The monthly report must be consistent
with credit reporting industry standards for child support.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end For purposes of this section, "consumer reporting agency" has the meaning given
in section 13C.001, subdivision 4, and United States Code, title 15, section 1681a(f).

Sec. 96. new text beginINSTRUCTION TO COMMISSIONER.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner must confer with the Association of Minnesota Counties, the
Minnesota Association of County Social Service Administrators, other state and county
agencies, Minnesota's Tribal communities, National Alliance on Mental Illness Minnesota,
AspireMN, and other relevant stakeholders to make recommendations to the legislature
regarding payment for the cost of treatment and care for residential treatment services,
including community-based group care, for children currently served under Minnesota
Statutes, chapter 260D. The recommendations must include the approximate cost of care
that will no longer be eligible for federal Title IV-E reimbursement paid to the counties for
children currently served through voluntary foster care placements. The recommendations
must also explore the impact on youth currently served under Minnesota Statutes, chapter
260D, including access to medical assistance and nonresidential services, as well as the
impact on equity for overrepresented populations in the child protection and child welfare
systems in Minnesota. The commissioner must report back to the legislature by January 15,
2021.
new text end

Sec. 97. new text beginREVISOR INSTRUCTION; CORRECTING TERMINOLOGY.
new text end

new text begin In Minnesota Statutes, sections 256.01, subdivisions 2 and 24; 256.975, subdivision 7;
256B.0911, subdivisions 1a, 3b, and 4d; and 256B.439, subdivision 4, the revisor of statutes
must substitute the term "Disability Linkage Line" or similar terms for "Disability Hub" or
similar terms. The revisor must also make grammatical changes related to the changes in
terms.
new text end

Sec. 98. new text beginREPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.02, subdivision 20, new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

ARTICLE 6

CIVIL COMMITMENT

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 4b, is amended to read:


Subd. 4b.

Community-based treatmentnew text begin programnew text end.

"Community-based treatmentnew text begin
program
new text end" means new text begintreatment and services provided at the community level, including but not
limited to
new text endcommunity support services programs defined in section 245.462, subdivision 6;
day treatment services defined in section 245.462, subdivision 8; outpatient services defined
in section 245.462, subdivision 21; new text beginmental health crisis services under section 245.462,
subdivision 14c; outpatient services defined in section 245.462, subdivision 21; assertive
community treatment services under section 256B.0622; adult rehabilitation mental health
services under section 256B.0623; home and community-based waivers; supportive housing;
new text end and residential treatment services as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 23.new text begin
Community-based treatment program excludes services provided by a state-operated
treatment program.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Examiner.

"Examiner" means a person who is knowledgeable, trained, and
practicing in the diagnosis and assessment or in the treatment of the alleged impairment,
and who isdeleted text begin:deleted text endnew text begin a licensed physician; a mental health professional as defined in section 245.462,
subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6); a licensed physician assistant; or an advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) as defined in section 148.171, subdivision 3, who is practicing in
the emergency room of a hospital, so long as the hospital has a process for credentialing
and recredentialing any APRN acting as an examiner in an emergency room.
new text end

deleted text begin (1) a licensed physician;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) a licensed psychologist who has a doctoral degree in psychology or who became a
licensed consulting psychologist before July 2, 1975; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) an advanced practice registered nurse certified in mental health or a licensed physician
assistant, except that only a physician or psychologist meeting these requirements may be
appointed by the court as described by sections 253B.07, subdivision 3; 253B.092,
subdivision 8
, paragraph (b); 253B.17, subdivision 3; 253B.18, subdivision 2; and 253B.19,
subdivisions 1 and 2, and only a physician or psychologist may conduct an assessment as
described by Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.
deleted text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 7a. new text end

new text begin Court examiner. new text end

new text begin "Court examiner" means a person appointed to serve the
court, and who is a physician or licensed psychologist who has a doctoral degree in
psychology.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end.

"Head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin
or program
new text end" means the person who is charged with overall responsibility for the professional
program of care and treatment of the deleted text beginfacility or the person's designeedeleted text endnew text begin treatment facility,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Health officer.

"Health officer" means:

(1) a licensed physician;

(2) deleted text begina licensed psychologistdeleted text endnew text begin a mental health professional as defined in section 245.462,
subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6)
new text end;

(3) a licensed social worker;

(4) a registered nurse working in an emergency room of a hospital;

deleted text begin (5) a psychiatric or public health nurse as defined in section 145A.02, subdivision 18;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6)deleted text endnew text begin (5)new text end an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) as defined in section 148.171,
subdivision 3
;

deleted text begin (7)deleted text endnew text begin (6)new text end a mental health deleted text beginprofessionaldeleted text endnew text begin practitioner as defined in section 245.462, subdivision
17,
new text end providing mental health mobile crisis intervention services as described under section
256B.0624new text begin with the consultation and approval by a mental health professionalnew text end; or

deleted text begin (8)deleted text end new text begin(7) new text enda formally designated member of a prepetition screening unit established by
section 253B.07.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Interested person.

"Interested person" means:

(1) an adultnew text begin who has a specific interest in the patient or proposed patientnew text end, including but
not limited todeleted text begin,deleted text end a public official, including a local welfare agency acting under section
deleted text begin, anddeleted text endnew text begin 260E.31; a health care or mental health provider or the provider's employee
or agent;
new text end the legal guardian, spouse, parent, legal counsel, adult child, new text beginor new text endnext of kindeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end or
other person designated by anew text begin patient ornew text end proposed patient; or

(2) a health plan company that is providing coverage for a proposed patient.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 13, is amended to read:


Subd. 13.

Person who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin poses a risk of harm due to a mental illnessnew text end.

(a)
A "person who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin poses a risk of harm due to a mental illnessnew text end" means any person
who has an organic disorder of the brain or a substantial psychiatric disorder of thought,
mood, perception, orientation, or memory deleted text beginwhichdeleted text endnew text begin thatnew text end grossly impairs judgment, behavior,
capacity to recognize reality, or to reason or understand, deleted text beginwhichdeleted text endnew text begin thatnew text end is manifested by instances
of grossly disturbed behavior or faulty perceptions and new text beginwho, due to this impairment, new text endposes
a substantial likelihood of physical harm to self or others as demonstrated by:

(1) a failure to obtain necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care as a result of the
impairment;

(2) an inability for reasons other than indigence to obtain necessary food, clothing,
shelter, or medical care as a result of the impairment and it is more probable than not that
the person will suffer substantial harm, significant psychiatric deterioration or debilitation,
or serious illness, unless appropriate treatment and services are provided;

(3) a recent attempt or threat to physically harm self or others; or

(4) recent and volitional conduct involving significant damage to substantial property.

(b) A person deleted text beginis not mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin does not pose a risk of harm due to mental illnessnew text end under
this section if thenew text begin person'snew text end impairment is solely due to:

(1) epilepsy;

(2) developmental disability;

(3) brief periods of intoxication caused by alcohol, drugs, or other mind-altering
substances; or

(4) dependence upon or addiction to any alcohol, drugs, or other mind-altering substances.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 16, is amended to read:


Subd. 16.

Peace officer.

"Peace officer" means a sheriffnew text begin or deputy sheriffnew text end, or municipal
or other local police officer, or a State Patrol officer when engaged in the authorized duties
of office.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 17, is amended to read:


Subd. 17.

Person who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illnessnew text end and new text beginis new text enddangerous to the
public.

deleted text begin(a)deleted text end A "person who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text end new text beginhas a mental illness new text endand new text beginis new text enddangerous to the public"
is a person:

(1) who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin has an organic disorder of the brain or a substantial psychiatric
disorder of thought, mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs judgment,
behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or to reason or understand, and is manifested by
instances of grossly disturbed behavior or faulty perceptions
new text end; and

(2) who as a result of that deleted text beginmental illnessdeleted text endnew text begin impairmentnew text end presents a clear danger to the safety
of others as demonstrated by the facts that (i) the person has engaged in an overt act causing
or attempting to cause serious physical harm to another and (ii) there is a substantial
likelihood that the person will engage in acts capable of inflicting serious physical harm on
another.

deleted text begin (b) A person committed as a sexual psychopathic personality or sexually dangerous
person as defined in subdivisions 18a and 18b is subject to the provisions of this chapter
that apply to persons who are mentally ill and dangerous to the public.
deleted text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 18, is amended to read:


Subd. 18.

deleted text beginRegionaldeleted text endnew text begin State-operatednew text end treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end.

"deleted text beginRegionaldeleted text endnew text begin State-operatednew text end
treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end" deleted text beginmeans any state-operated facility for persons who are mentally
ill, developmentally disabled, or chemically dependent under the direct administrative
authority of the commissioner
deleted text endnew text begin means any state-operated program including community
behavioral health hospitals, crisis centers, residential facilities, outpatient services, and other
community-based services developed and operated by the state and under the commissioner's
control for a person who has a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical
dependency
new text end.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 19, is amended to read:


Subd. 19.

Treatment facility.

"Treatment facility" means a new text beginnon-state-operated new text endhospital,
deleted text begin community mental health center, or other treatment providerdeleted text end new text beginresidential treatment provider,
crisis residential withdrawal management center, or corporate foster care home
new text endqualified
to provide care and treatment for persons deleted text beginwho are mentally ill, developmentally disabled,
or chemically dependent
deleted text endnew text begin who have a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical
dependency
new text end.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 21, is amended to read:


Subd. 21.

Pass.

"Pass" means any authorized temporary, unsupervised absence from a
new text begin state-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end.

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 22, is amended to read:


Subd. 22.

Pass plan.

"Pass plan" means the part of a treatment plan for a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end
who has been committed as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental illness and isnew text end
dangerous new text beginto the public new text endthat specifies the terms and conditions under which the patient may
be released on a pass.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.02, subdivision 23, is amended to read:


Subd. 23.

Pass-eligible status.

"Pass-eligible status" means the status under which a
deleted text begin persondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end committed as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental illness and isnew text end
dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end may be released on passes after approval of a pass plan by the head
of anew text begin state-operatednew text end treatment deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Restraints.

(a) A patient has the right to be free from restraints. Restraints
shall not be applied to a patient in a treatment facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program
new text end unless the head of the treatment facility, new text beginhead of the state-operated treatment program, new text enda
member of the medical staff, or a licensed peace officer who has custody of the patient
determines that deleted text begintheydeleted text endnew text begin restraintsnew text end are necessary for the safety of the patient or others.

(b) Restraints shall not be applied to patients with developmental disabilities except as
permitted under section 245.825 and rules of the commissioner of human services. Consent
must be obtained from the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end or deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end guardian except for emergency
procedures as permitted under rules of the commissioner adopted under section 245.825.

(c) Each use of a restraint and reason for it shall be made part of the clinical record of
the patient under the signature of the head of the treatment facility.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Correspondence.

A patient has the right to correspond freely without censorship.
The head of the treatment facility new text beginor head of the state-operated treatment program new text endmay
restrict correspondence if the patient's medical welfare requires this restriction. For deleted text beginpatientsdeleted text endnew text begin
a patient
new text end in deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin a state-operatednew text end treatment deleted text begincentersdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end, that determination may be
reviewed by the commissioner. Any limitation imposed on the exercise of a patient's
correspondence rights and the reason for it shall be made a part of the clinical record of the
patient. Any communication which is not delivered to a patient shall be immediately returned
to the sender.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Visitors and phone calls.

Subject to the general rules of the treatment facilitynew text begin
or state-operated treatment program
new text end, a patient has the right to receive visitors and make
phone calls. The head of the treatment facility new text beginor head of the state-operated treatment program
new text end may restrict visits and phone calls on determining that the medical welfare of the patient
requires it. Any limitation imposed on the exercise of the patient's visitation and phone call
rights and the reason for it shall be made a part of the clinical record of the patient.

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:


Subd. 4a.

Disclosure of patient's admission.

Upon admission to a new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program
new text endwhere federal law prohibits unauthorized disclosure of
patient or resident identifying information to callers and visitors, the patient or resident, or
the legal guardian of the patient or resident, shall be given the opportunity to authorize
disclosure of the patient's or resident's presence in the facility to callers and visitors who
may seek to communicate with the patient or resident. To the extent possible, the legal
guardian of a patient or resident shall consider the opinions of the patient or resident regarding
the disclosure of the patient's or resident's presence in the facility.

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Periodic assessment.

A patient has the right to periodic medical assessment,
including assessment of the medical necessity of continuing care and, if the treatment facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end declines to provide
continuing care, the right to receive specific written reasons why continuing care is declined
at the time of the assessment. The treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end shall assess the physical and mental condition of every
patient as frequently as necessary, but not less often than annually. If the patient refuses to
be examined, the new text begintreatment new text endfacilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program
new text end shall document in the patient's chart its attempts to examine the patient.
If a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end is committed as developmentally disabled for an indeterminate period
of time, the three-year judicial review must include the annual reviews for each year deleted text beginas
outlined in Minnesota Rules, part 9525.0075, subpart 6
deleted text endnew text begin regarding the patient's need for
continued commitment
new text end.

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Consent for medical procedure.

new text begin(a) new text endA patient has the right to new text begingive new text endprior consent
to any medical or surgical treatment, other than treatment for chemical dependency or
nonintrusive treatment for mental illness.

new text begin (b) new text endThe following procedures shall be used to obtain consent for any treatment necessary
to preserve the life or health of any committed patient:

deleted text begin (a)deleted text endnew text begin (1)new text end the written, informed consent of a competent adult patient for the treatment is
sufficientdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (2)new text end if the patient is subject to guardianship which includes the provision of medical
care, the written, informed consent of the guardian for the treatment is sufficientdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (3)new text end if the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end determines
that the patient is not competent to consent to the treatment and the patient has not been
adjudicated incompetent, written, informed consent for the surgery or medical treatment
shall be obtained from the new text beginperson appointed the health care power of attorney, the patient's
agent under the health care directive, or the
new text endnearest proper relative. For this purpose, the
following persons are proper relatives, in the order listed: the patient's spouse, parent, adult
child, or adult sibling. If the nearest proper relatives cannot be located, refuse to consent to
the procedure, or are unable to consent, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated
treatment program
new text end or an interested person may petition the committing court for approval
for the treatment or may petition a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a
guardian. The determination that the patient is not competent, and the reasons for the
determination, shall be documented in the patient's clinical recorddeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (4)new text end consent to treatment of any minor patient shall be secured in accordance with
sections 144.341 to 144.346. A minor 16 years of age or older may consent to hospitalization,
routine diagnostic evaluation, and emergency or short-term acute caredeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; and
new text end

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (5)new text end in the case of an emergency when the persons ordinarily qualified to give consent
cannot be locatednew text begin in sufficient time to address the emergency neednew text end, the head of the treatment
facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endmay give consent.

new text begin (c) new text endNo person who consents to treatment pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision
shall be civilly or criminally liable for the performance or the manner of performing the
treatment. No person shall be liable for performing treatment without consent if written,
informed consent was given pursuant to this subdivision. This provision shall not affect any
other liability which may result from the manner in which the treatment is performed.

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 6b, is amended to read:


Subd. 6b.

Consent for mental health treatment.

A competent deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end admitted
voluntarily to a treatment facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endmay be subjected to
intrusive mental health treatment only with the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end written informed consent.
For purposes of this section, "intrusive mental health treatment" means deleted text beginelectroshockdeleted text endnew text begin
electroconvulsive
new text end therapy and neuroleptic medication and does not include treatment for a
developmental disability. An incompetent deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end who has prepared a directive under
subdivision 6d regarding new text beginintrusive mental health new text endtreatment deleted text beginwith intrusive therapiesdeleted text end must be
treated in accordance with this section, except in cases of emergencies.

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 6d, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 101, is amended to read:


Subd. 6d.

Adult mental health treatment.

(a) A competent adult new text beginpatient new text endmay make a
declaration of preferences or instructions regarding intrusive mental health treatment. These
preferences or instructions may include, but are not limited to, consent to or refusal of these
treatments.new text begin A declaration of preferences or instructions may include a health care directive
under chapter 145C or a psychiatric directive.
new text end

(b) A declaration may designate a proxy to make decisions about intrusive mental health
treatment. A proxy designated to make decisions about intrusive mental health treatments
and who agrees to serve as proxy may make decisions on behalf of a declarant consistent
with any desires the declarant expresses in the declaration.

(c) A declaration is effective only if it is signed by the declarant and two witnesses. The
witnesses must include a statement that they believe the declarant understands the nature
and significance of the declaration. A declaration becomes operative when it is delivered
to the declarant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or other mental health
treatment provider. The physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or provider must
comply with deleted text beginitdeleted text endnew text begin the declarationnew text end to the fullest extent possible, consistent with reasonable
medical practice, the availability of treatments requested, and applicable law. The physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or provider shall continue to obtain the declarant's
informed consent to all intrusive mental health treatment decisions if the declarant is capable
of informed consent. A treatment provider deleted text beginmaydeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end not require a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end to make
a declaration under this subdivision as a condition of receiving services.

(d) The physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or other provider shall make the
declaration a part of the declarant's medical record. If the physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or other provider is unwilling at any time to comply with the declaration,
the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or provider must promptly notify the
declarant and document the notification in the declarant's medical record. deleted text beginIf the declarant
has been committed as a patient under this chapter, the physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or provider may subject a declarant to intrusive treatment in a manner
contrary to the declarant's expressed wishes, only upon order of the committing court. If
the declarant is not a committed patient under this chapter,
deleted text end The physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or provider may subject the declarant to intrusive treatment in a manner
contrary to the declarant's expressed wishes, only if the declarant is committed as deleted text beginmentally
ill
deleted text endnew text begin a person who poses a risk of harm due to mental illnessnew text end or deleted text beginmentally illdeleted text endnew text begin as a person who
has a mental illness
new text end and new text beginis new text enddangerous to the public and a court order authorizing the treatment
has been issuednew text begin or an emergency has been declared under section 253B.092, subdivision 3new text end.

(e) A declaration under this subdivision may be revoked in whole or in part at any time
and in any manner by the declarant if the declarant is competent at the time of revocation.
A revocation is effective when a competent declarant communicates the revocation to the
attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or other provider. The attending
physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or other provider shall note the revocation
as part of the declarant's medical record.

(f) A provider who administers intrusive mental health treatment according to and in
good faith reliance upon the validity of a declaration under this subdivision is held harmless
from any liability resulting from a subsequent finding of invalidity.

(g) In addition to making a declaration under this subdivision, a competent adult may
delegate parental powers under section 524.5-211 or may nominate a guardian under sections
524.5-101 to 524.5-502.

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

deleted text beginProgramdeleted text endnew text begin Treatmentnew text end plan.

A deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end receiving services under this
chapter has the right to receive proper care and treatment, best adapted, according to
contemporary professional standards, to rendering further supervision unnecessary. The
treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment programnew text end
shall devise a written deleted text beginprogramdeleted text endnew text begin treatmentnew text end plan for each deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end which describes in
behavioral terms the case problems, the precise goals, including the expected period of time
for treatment, and the specific measures to be employed. deleted text beginEach plan shall be reviewed at
least quarterly to determine progress toward the goals, and to modify the program plan as
necessary.
deleted text end new text beginThe development and review of treatment plans must be conducted as required
under the license or certification of the treatment facility, state-operated treatment program,
or community-based treatment program. If there are no review requirements under the
license or certification, the treatment plan must be reviewed quarterly.
new text endThe deleted text beginprogramdeleted text endnew text begin treatmentnew text end
plan shall be devised and reviewed with the designated agency and with the patient. The
clinical record shall reflect the deleted text beginprogramdeleted text endnew text begin treatmentnew text end plan review. If the designated agency or
the patient does not participate in the planning and review, the clinical record shall include
reasons for nonparticipation and the plans for future involvement. The commissioner shall
monitor the deleted text beginprogramdeleted text end new text begintreatment new text endplan and review process for deleted text beginregional centersdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated
treatment programs
new text end to deleted text begininsuredeleted text end new text beginensure new text endcompliance with the provisions of this subdivision.

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.03, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Notification.

new text begin(a) new text endAll deleted text beginpersonsdeleted text endnew text begin patientsnew text end admitted or committed to a treatment
facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program, or temporarily confined under section 253B.045,
new text end shall be notified in writing of their rights regarding hospitalization and other treatment deleted text beginat
the time of admission
deleted text end.

new text begin (b)new text end This notification must include:

(1) patient rights specified in this section and section 144.651, including nursing home
discharge rights;

(2) the right to obtain treatment and services voluntarily under this chapter;

(3) the right to voluntary admission and release under section 253B.04;

(4) rights in case of an emergency admission under section deleted text begin253B.05deleted text end, including
the right to documentation in support of an emergency hold and the right to a summary
hearing before a judge if the patient believes an emergency hold is improper;

(5) the right to request expedited review under section 62M.05 if additional days of
inpatient stay are denied;

(6) the right to continuing benefits pending appeal and to an expedited administrative
hearing under section 256.045 if the patient is a recipient of medical assistance or
MinnesotaCare; and

(7) the right to an external appeal process under section 62Q.73, including the right to
a second opinion.

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.04, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Voluntary admission and treatment.

(a) Voluntary admission is preferred
over involuntary commitment and treatment. Any person 16 years of age or older may
request to be admitted to a treatment facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endas a
voluntary patient for observation, evaluation, diagnosis, care and treatment without making
formal written application. Any person under the age of 16 years may be admitted as a
patient with the consent of a parent or legal guardian if it is determined by independent
examination that there is reasonable evidence that (1) the proposed patient has a mental
illness, deleted text beginor is developmentally disableddeleted text endnew text begin developmental disability,new text end or deleted text beginchemically dependentdeleted text endnew text begin
chemical dependency
new text end; and (2) the proposed patient is suitable for treatment. The head of
the treatment facility new text beginor head of the state-operated treatment program new text endshall not arbitrarily
refuse any person seeking admission as a voluntary patient. In making decisions regarding
admissions, the new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endshall use clinical
admission criteria consistent with the current applicable inpatient admission standards
established by new text beginprofessional organizations including new text endthe American Psychiatric Association
deleted text begin ordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatrynew text begin, the Joint Commission, and
the American Society of Addiction Medicine
new text end. These criteria must be no more restrictive
than, and must be consistent with, the requirements of section 62Q.53. The new text begintreatment new text endfacility
new text begin or head of the state-operated treatment program new text endmay not refuse to admit a person voluntarily
solely because the person does not meet the criteria for involuntary holds under section
deleted text begin 253B.05deleted text end or the definition of new text begina person who poses a risk of harm due to new text endmental
illness under section 253B.02, subdivision 13.

(b) In addition to the consent provisions of paragraph (a), a person who is 16 or 17 years
of age who refuses to consent personally to admission may be admitted as a patient for
mental illness or chemical dependency treatment with the consent of a parent or legal
guardian if it is determined by an independent examination that there is reasonable evidence
that the proposed patient is chemically dependent or has a mental illness and is suitable for
treatment. The person conducting the examination shall notify the proposed patient and the
parent or legal guardian of this determination.

(c) A person who is voluntarily participating in treatment for a mental illness is not
subject to civil commitment under this chapter if the person:

(1) has given informed consent or, if lacking capacity, is a person for whom legally valid
substitute consent has been given; and

(2) is participating in a medically appropriate course of treatment, including clinically
appropriate and lawful use of neuroleptic medication and electroconvulsive therapy. The
limitation on commitment in this paragraph does not apply if, based on clinical assessment,
the court finds that it is unlikely that the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end will remain in and cooperate with
a medically appropriate course of treatment absent commitment and the standards for
commitment are otherwise met. This paragraph does not apply to a person for whom
commitment proceedings are initiated pursuant to rule 20.01 or 20.02 of the Rules of Criminal
Procedure, or a person found by the court to meet the requirements under section 253B.02,
subdivision 17
.

new text begin (d) new text endLegally valid substitute consent may be provided by a proxy under a health care
directive, a guardian or conservator with authority to consent to mental health treatment,
or consent to admission under subdivision 1a or 1b.

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.04, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Voluntary treatment or admission for persons with new text begina new text endmental illness.

(a)
A person with a mental illness may seek or voluntarily agree to accept treatment or admission
to a new text beginstate-operated treatment program or treatment new text endfacility. If the mental health provider
determines that the person lacks the capacity to give informed consent for the treatment or
admission, and in the absence of a health care deleted text beginpower of attorneydeleted text endnew text begin directive or health care
power of attorney
new text end that authorizes consent, the designated agency or its designee may give
informed consent for mental health treatment or admission to a treatment facility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program
new text endon behalf of the person.

(b) The designated agency shall apply the following criteria in determining the person's
ability to give informed consent:

(1) whether the person demonstrates an awareness of the person's illness, and the reasons
for treatment, its risks, benefits and alternatives, and the possible consequences of refusing
treatment; and

(2) whether the person communicates verbally or nonverbally a clear choice concerning
treatment that is a reasoned one, not based on delusion, even though it may not be in the
person's best interests.

(c) The basis for the designated agency's decision that the person lacks the capacity to
give informed consent for treatment or admission, and that the patient has voluntarily
accepted treatment or admission, must be documented in writing.

(d) A deleted text beginmental health providerdeleted text endnew text begin treatment facility or state-operated treatment programnew text end that
provides treatment in reliance on the written consent given by the designated agency under
this subdivision or by a substitute decision maker appointed by the court is not civilly or
criminally liable for performing treatment without consent. This paragraph does not affect
any other liability that may result from the manner in which the treatment is performed.

(e) A deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end who receives treatment or is admitted to a new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program
new text endunder this subdivision or subdivision 1b has the right to
refuse treatment at any time or to be released from a new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor state-operated
treatment program
new text endas provided under subdivision 2. The deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end or any interested
person acting on the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end behalf may seek court review within five days for a
determination of whether the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end agreement to accept treatment or admission
is voluntary. At the time a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end agrees to treatment or admission to a new text begintreatment
new text end facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endunder this subdivision, the designated agency
or its designee shall inform the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end in writing of the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end rights under
this paragraph.

deleted text begin (f) This subdivision does not authorize the administration of deleted text end deleted text begin neuroleptic deleted text end deleted text begin medications.
deleted text end deleted text begin Neuroleptic deleted text end deleted text begin medications may be administered only as provided deleted text end deleted text begin in section deleted text end deleted text begin .
deleted text end

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.04, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Release.

Every patient admitted for mental illness or developmental disability
under this section shall be informed in writing at the time of admission that the patient has
a right to leave the new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endwithin 12 hours
of making a request, unless held under another provision of this chapter. Every patient
admitted for chemical dependency under this section shall be informed in writing at the
time of admission that the patient has a right to leave the new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor state-operated
treatment program
new text endwithin 72 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and new text beginlegal new text endholidays,
of making a request, unless held under another provision of this chapter. The request shall
be submitted in writing to the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment
program
new text end or the person's designee.

Sec. 28.

new text begin [253B.041] SERVICES FOR ENGAGEMENT IN TREATMENT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Eligibility. new text end

new text begin (a) The purpose of engagement services is to avoid the need
for commitment and to enable the proposed patient to voluntarily engage in needed treatment.
An interested person may apply to the county where a proposed patient resides to request
engagement services.
new text end

new text begin (b) To be eligible for engagement services, the proposed patient must be at least 18 years
of age, have a mental illness, and either:
new text end

new text begin (1) be exhibiting symptoms of serious mental illness including hallucinations, mania,
delusional thoughts, or be unable to obtain necessary food, clothing, shelter, medical care,
or provide necessary hygiene due to the patient's mental illness; or
new text end

new text begin (2) have a history of failing to adhere to treatment for mental illness, in that:
new text end

new text begin (i) the proposed patient's mental illness has been a substantial factor in necessitating
hospitalization, or incarceration in a state or local correctional facility, not including any
period during which the person was hospitalized or incarcerated immediately preceding
filing the application for engagement; or
new text end

new text begin (ii) the proposed patient is exhibiting symptoms or behavior that may lead to
hospitalization, incarceration, or court-ordered treatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Administration. new text end

new text begin (a) Upon receipt of a request for engagement services, the
county's prepetition screening team shall conduct an investigation to determine whether the
proposed patient is eligible. In making this determination, the screening team shall seek any
relevant information from an interested person.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the screening team determines that the proposed patient is eligible, engagement
services must begin and include, but are not limited to:
new text end

new text begin (1) assertive attempts to engage the patient in voluntary treatment for mental illness for
at least 90 days. Engagement services must be person-centered and continue even if the
patient is an inmate in a non-state-operated correctional facility;
new text end

new text begin (2) efforts to engage the patient's existing systems of support, including interested persons,
unless the engagement provider determines that involvement is not helpful to the patient.
This includes education on restricting means of harm, suicide prevention, and engagement;
and
new text end

new text begin (3) collaboration with the patient to meet immediate needs including access to housing,
food, income, disability verification, medications, and treatment for medical conditions.
new text end

new text begin (c) Engagement services regarding potential treatment options must take into account
the patient's preferences for services and supports. The county may offer engagement services
through the designated agency or another agency under contract. Engagement services staff
must have training in person-centered care. Engagement services staff may include but are
not limited to mobile crisis teams under section 245.462, certified peer specialists under
section 256B.0615, community-based treatment programs, and homeless outreach workers.
new text end

new text begin (d) If the patient voluntarily consents to receive mental health treatment, the engagement
services staff must facilitate the referral to an appropriate mental health treatment provider
including support obtaining health insurance if the proposed patient is currently or may
become uninsured. If the proposed patient initially consents to treatment, but fails to initiate
or continue treatment, the engagement services team must continue outreach efforts to the
patient.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Commitment. new text end

new text begin Engagement services for a patient to seek treatment may be
stopped if the proposed patient is in need of commitment and satisfies the commitment
criteria under section 253B.09, subdivision 1. In such a case, the engagement services team
must immediately notify the designated agency, initiate the prepetition screening process
under section 253B.07, or seek an emergency hold if necessary to ensure the safety of the
patient or others.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Evaluation. new text end

new text begin Counties may, but are not required to, provide engagement services.
The commissioner may conduct a pilot project evaluating the impact of engagement services
in decreasing commitments, increasing engagement in treatment, and other measures.
new text end

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.045, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Facilities.

(a) Each county or a group of counties shall maintain or provide by
contract a facility for confinement of persons held temporarily for observation, evaluation,
diagnosis, treatment, and care. When the temporary confinement is provided at a deleted text beginregionaldeleted text end
new text begin state-operated new text endtreatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end, the commissioner shall charge the county of
financial responsibility for the costs of confinement of deleted text beginpersonsdeleted text endnew text begin patientsnew text end hospitalized under
deleted text begin section 253B.05, subdivisions 1 and 2,deleted text endnew text begin sections 253B.051new text end and deleted text beginsectiondeleted text end 253B.07, subdivision
2b
, except that the commissioner shall bill the responsible health plan first. Any charges
not covered, including co-pays and deductibles shall be the responsibility of the county. If
the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end has health plan coverage, but the hospitalization does not meet the criteria
in subdivision 6 or section 62M.07, 62Q.53, or 62Q.535, the county is responsible. deleted text beginWhen
a person is temporarily confined in a Department of Corrections facility solely under
subdivision 1a, and not based on any separate correctional authority:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) the commissioner of corrections may charge the county of financial responsibility
for the costs of confinement; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) the Department of Human Services shall use existing appropriations to fund all
remaining nonconfinement costs. The funds received by the commissioner for the
confinement and nonconfinement costs are appropriated to the department for these purposes.
deleted text end

(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, "county of financial responsibility" has the
meaning specified in section 253B.02, subdivision 4c, or, if the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end has no
residence in this state, the county which initiated the confinement. The charge for
confinement in a facility operated by the commissioner deleted text beginof human servicesdeleted text end shall be based
on the commissioner's determination of the cost of care pursuant to section 246.50,
subdivision 5
. When there is a dispute as to which county is the county of financial
responsibility, the county charged for the costs of confinement shall pay for them pending
final determination of the dispute over financial responsibility.

Sec. 30.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.045, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Cost of care.

Notwithstanding subdivision 2, a county shall be responsible for
the cost of care as specified under section 246.54 for deleted text beginpersonsdeleted text endnew text begin a patientnew text end hospitalized at a
deleted text begin regionaldeleted text end new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end in accordance with section 253B.09 and
the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end legal status has been changed to a court hold under section 253B.07,
subdivision 2b
, pending a judicial determination regarding continued commitment pursuant
to sections 253B.12 and 253B.13.

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.045, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Health plan company; definition.

For purposes of this section, "health plan
company" has the meaning given it in section 62Q.01, subdivision 4, and also includes a
demonstration provider as defined in section 256B.69, subdivision 2, paragraph (b)deleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin; andnew text end a
county or group of counties participating in county-based purchasing according to section
256B.692deleted text begin, and a children's mental health collaborative under contract to provide medical
assistance for individuals enrolled in the prepaid medical assistance and MinnesotaCare
programs according to sections 245.493 to 245.495
deleted text end.

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.045, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Coverage.

(a) For purposes of this section, "mental health services" means all
covered services that are intended to treat or ameliorate an emotional, behavioral, or
psychiatric condition and that are covered by the policy, contract, or certificate of coverage
of the enrollee's health plan company or by law.

(b) All health plan companies that provide coverage for mental health services must
cover or provide mental health services ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction deleted text beginunder
a court order that is issued on the basis of a behavioral care evaluation performed by a
licensed psychiatrist or a doctoral level licensed psychologist, which includes a diagnosis
and an individual treatment plan for care in the most appropriate, least restrictive
environment. The health plan company must be given a copy of the court order and the
behavioral care evaluation. The health plan company shall be financially liable for the
evaluation if performed by a participating provider of the health plan company and shall be
financially liable for the care included in the court-ordered individual treatment plan if the
care is covered by the health plan company and ordered to be provided by a participating
provider or another provider as required by rule or law
deleted text end. This court-ordered coverage must
not be subject to a separate medical necessity determination by a health plan company under
its utilization procedures.

Sec. 33.

new text begin [253B.051] EMERGENCY ADMISSION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Peace officer or health officer authority. new text end

new text begin (a) If a peace officer or health
officer has reason to believe, either through direct observation of the person's behavior or
upon reliable information of the person's recent behavior and, if available, knowledge or
reliable information concerning the person's past behavior or treatment that the person:
new text end

new text begin (1) has a mental illness or developmental disability and is in danger of harming self or
others if the officer does not immediately detain the patient, the peace officer or health
officer may take the person into custody and transport the person to an examiner or a
treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program;
new text end

new text begin (2) is chemically dependent or intoxicated in public and in danger of harming self or
others if the officer does not immediately detain the patient, the peace officer or health
officer may take the person into custody and transport the person to a treatment facility,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program; or
new text end

new text begin (3) is chemically dependent or intoxicated in public and not in danger of harming self,
others, or property, the peace officer or health officer may take the person into custody and
transport the person to the person's home.
new text end

new text begin (b) An examiner's written statement or a health officer's written statement in compliance
with the requirements of subdivision 2 is sufficient authority for a peace officer or health
officer to take the person into custody and transport the person to a treatment facility,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program.
new text end

new text begin (c) A peace officer or health officer who takes a person into custody and transports the
person to a treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program under this subdivision shall make written application for admission of
the person containing:
new text end

new text begin (1) the officer's statement specifying the reasons and circumstances under which the
person was taken into custody;
new text end

new text begin (2) identifying information on specific individuals to the extent practicable, if danger to
those individuals is a basis for the emergency hold; and
new text end

new text begin (3) the officer's name, the agency that employs the officer, and the telephone number or
other contact information for purposes of receiving notice under subdivision 3.
new text end

new text begin (d) A copy of the examiner's written statement and officer's application shall be made
available to the person taken into custody.
new text end

new text begin (e) The officer may provide the transportation personally or may arrange to have the
person transported by a suitable medical or mental health transportation provider. As far as
practicable, a peace officer who provides transportation for a person placed in a treatment
facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program under
this subdivision must not be in uniform and must not use a vehicle visibly marked as a law
enforcement vehicle.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Emergency hold. new text end

new text begin (a) A treatment facility, state-operated treatment program,
or community-based treatment program, other than a facility operated by the Minnesota sex
offender program, may admit or hold a patient, including a patient transported under
subdivision 1, for emergency care and treatment if the head of the facility or program
consents to holding the patient and an examiner provides a written statement in support of
holding the patient.
new text end

new text begin (b) The written statement must indicate that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the examiner examined the patient not more than 15 days prior to admission;
new text end

new text begin (2) the examiner interviewed the patient, or if not, the specific reasons why the examiner
did not interview the patient;
new text end

new text begin (3) the examiner has the opinion that the patient has a mental illness or developmental
disability, or is chemically dependent and is in danger of causing harm to self or others if
a facility or program does not immediately detain the patient. The statement must include
observations of the patient's behavior and avoid conclusory language. The statement must
be specific enough to provide an adequate record for review. If danger to specific individuals
is a basis for the emergency hold, the statement must identify those individuals to the extent
practicable; and
new text end

new text begin (4) the facility or program cannot obtain a court order in time to prevent the anticipated
injury.
new text end

new text begin (c) Prior to an examiner writing a statement, if another person brought the patient to the
treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program,
the examiner shall make a good-faith effort to obtain information from that person, which
the examiner must consider in deciding whether to place the patient on an emergency hold.
To the extent available, the statement must include direct observations of the patient's
behaviors, reliable knowledge of the patient's recent and past behavior, and information
regarding the patient's psychiatric history, past treatment, and current mental health providers.
The examiner shall also inquire about health care directives under chapter 145C and advance
psychiatric directives under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d.
new text end

new text begin (d) The facility or program must give a copy of the examiner's written statement to the
patient immediately upon initiating the emergency hold. The treatment facility, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program shall maintain a copy of the
examiner's written statement. The program or facility must inform the patient in writing of
the right to (1) leave after 72 hours, (2) have a medical examination within 48 hours, and
(3) request a change to voluntary status. The facility or program shall assist the patient in
exercising the rights granted in this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (e) The facility or program must not allow the patient nor require the patient's consent
to participate in a clinical drug trial during an emergency admission or hold under this
subdivision. If a patient gives consent to participate in a drug trial during a period of an
emergency admission or hold, it is void and unenforceable. This paragraph does not prohibit
a patient from continuing participation in a clinical drug trial if the patient was participating
in the clinical drug trial at the time of the emergency admission or hold.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Duration of hold, release procedures, and change of status. new text end

new text begin (a) If a peace
officer or health officer transports a person to a treatment facility, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program under subdivision 1, an examiner at the
facility or program must examine the patient and make a determination about the need for
an emergency hold as soon as possible and within 12 hours of the person's arrival. The peace
officer or health officer hold ends upon whichever occurs first: (1) initiation of an emergency
hold on the person under subdivision 2; (2) the person's voluntary admission; (3) the
examiner's decision not to admit the person; or (4) 12 hours after the person's arrival.
new text end

new text begin (b) Under this section, the facility or program may hold a patient up to 72 hours, exclusive
of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, after the examiner signs the written statement
for an emergency hold of the patient. The facility or program must release a patient when
the emergency hold expires unless the facility or program obtains a court order to hold the
patient. The facility or program may not place the patient on a consecutive emergency hold
under this section.
new text end

new text begin (c) If the interested person files a petition to civilly commit the patient, the court may
issue a judicial hold order pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivision 2b.
new text end

new text begin (d) During the 72-hour hold, a court must not release a patient under this section unless
the court received a written petition for the patient's release and the court has held a summary
hearing regarding the patient's release.
new text end

new text begin (e) The written petition for the patient's release must include the patient's name, the basis
for the hold, the location of the hold, and a statement explaining why the hold is improper.
The petition must also include copies of any written documentation under subdivision 1 or
2 that support the hold, unless the facility or program holding the patient refuses to supply
the documentation. Upon receipt of a petition, the court must comply with the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) the court must hold the hearing as soon as practicable and the court may conduct the
hearing by telephone conference call, interactive video conference, or similar method by
which the participants are able to simultaneously hear each other;
new text end

new text begin (2) before deciding to release the patient, the court shall make every reasonable effort
to provide notice of the proposed release and reasonable opportunity to be heard to:
new text end

new text begin (i) any specific individuals identified in a statement under subdivision 1 or 2 or individuals
identified in the record who might be endangered if the person is not held;
new text end

new text begin (ii) the examiner whose written statement was the basis for the hold under subdivision
2; and
new text end

new text begin (iii) the peace officer or health officer who applied for a hold under subdivision 1; and
new text end

new text begin (3) if the court decides to release the patient, the court shall direct the patient's release
and shall issue written findings supporting the decision. The facility or program must not
delay the patient's release pending the written order.
new text end

new text begin (f) Notwithstanding section 144.293, subdivisions 2 and 4, if a treatment facility,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program releases or
discharges a patient during the 72-hour hold; the examiner refuses to admit the patient; or
the patient leaves without the consent of the treating health care provider, the head of the
treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
shall immediately notify the agency that employs the peace officer or health officer who
initiated the transport hold. This paragraph does not apply to the extent that the notice would
violate federal law governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records
under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 2.
new text end

new text begin (g) If a patient is intoxicated in public and a facility or program holds the patient under
this section for detoxification, a treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program may release the patient without providing notice under
paragraph (f) as soon as the treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program determines that the person is no longer in danger of
causing harm to self or others. The facility or program must provide notice to the peace
officer or health officer who transported the person, or to the appropriate law enforcement
agency, if the officer or agency requests notification.
new text end

new text begin (h) A treatment facility or state-operated treatment program must change a patient's
status to voluntary status as provided in section 253B.04 upon the patient's request in writing
if the head of the facility or program consents to the change.
new text end

Sec. 34.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.06, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Persons deleted text beginwho are mentally ill or developmentally disableddeleted text endnew text begin with mental
illness or developmental disability
new text end.

new text beginA physician must examine new text endevery patient hospitalized
deleted text begin as mentally ill or developmentally disableddeleted text endnew text begin due to mental illness or developmental disabilitynew text end
pursuant to section 253B.04 or deleted text begin253B.05 must be examined by a physiciandeleted text endnew text begin 253B.051new text end as soon
as possible but no more than 48 hours following new text beginthe patient's new text endadmission. The physician deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin
must
new text end be knowledgeable and trained in deleted text beginthe diagnosis ofdeleted text endnew text begin diagnosingnew text end the deleted text beginalleged disability
related to the need for
deleted text endnew text begin patient's mental illness or developmental disability, forming the basis
of the patient's
new text end admission deleted text beginas a person who is mentally ill or developmentally disableddeleted text end.

Sec. 35.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.06, subdivision 2, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 102, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Chemically dependent persons.

deleted text beginPatients hospitalizeddeleted text endnew text begin A treatment facility,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program must examine a
patient hospitalized
new text end as chemically dependent pursuant to section 253B.04 or deleted text begin253B.05 shall
also be examined
deleted text endnew text begin 253B.051new text end within 48 hours of admission. At a minimum, deleted text beginthe examination
shall consist of a physical evaluation by facility staff
deleted text endnew text begin the facility or program must physically
examine the patient
new text end according to procedures established by a physician or advanced practice
registered nursenew text begin,new text end and deleted text beginan evaluation bydeleted text end staffnew text begin examining the patient must benew text end knowledgeable
and trained in the diagnosis of the alleged disability deleted text beginrelated to the need fordeleted text endnew text begin forming the basis
of the patient's
new text end admission as a chemically dependent person.

Sec. 36.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Discharge.

At the end of a 48-hour period, deleted text beginanydeleted text endnew text begin the facility or program shall
discharge a
new text end patient admitted pursuant to section deleted text begin253B.05 shall be dischargeddeleted text endnew text begin 253B.051new text end if
an examination has not been held or if the examiner or evaluation staff person fails to notify
the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endin writing that in the examiner's or staff person's
opinion the patient is deleted text beginapparentlydeleted text end in need of care, treatment, and evaluation as a deleted text beginmentally ill,
developmentally disabled, or chemically dependent
deleted text end personnew text begin who has a mental illness,
developmental disability, or chemical dependency
new text end.

Sec. 37.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Prepetition screening.

(a) Prior to filing a petition for commitment of
deleted text begin or early intervention fordeleted text end a proposed patient, an interested person shall apply to the designated
agency in the county of financial responsibility or the county where the proposed patient is
present for conduct of a preliminary investigationnew text begin as provided in section 253B.23, subdivision
1b
new text end, except when the proposed patient has been acquitted of a crime under section 611.026
and the county attorney is required to file a petition for commitment. The designated agency
shall appoint a screening team to conduct an investigation. The petitioner may not be a
member of the screening team. The investigation must include:

(1) deleted text begina personaldeleted text endnew text begin annew text end interview with the proposed patient and other individuals who appear
to have knowledge of the condition of the proposed patientnew text begin, if practicablenew text end. new text beginIn-person
interviews with the proposed patient are preferred.
new text endIf the proposed patient is not interviewed,
specific reasons must be documented;

(2) identification and investigation of specific alleged conduct which is the basis for
application;

(3) identification, exploration, and listing of the specific reasons for rejecting or
recommending alternatives to involuntary placement;

(4) in the case of a commitment based on mental illness, deleted text beginthe followingdeleted text end informationdeleted text begin, if
it is known or available,
deleted text end that may be relevant to the administration of neuroleptic medications,
including the existence of a declaration under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d, or a health
care directive under chapter 145C or a guardian, conservator, proxy, or agent with authority
to make health care decisions for the proposed patient; information regarding the capacity
of the proposed patient to make decisions regarding administration of neuroleptic medication;
and whether the proposed patient is likely to consent or refuse consent to administration of
the medication;

(5) seeking input from the proposed patient's health plan company to provide the court
with information about deleted text beginservices the enrollee needs and the least restrictive alternativesdeleted text endnew text begin the
patient's relevant treatment history and current treatment providers
new text end; and

(6) in the case of a commitment based on mental illness, information listed in clause (4)
for other purposes relevant to treatment.

(b) In conducting the investigation required by this subdivision, the screening team shall
have access to all relevant medical records of proposed patients currently in treatment
facilitiesnew text begin, state-operated treatment programs, or community-based treatment programsnew text end. The
interviewer shall inform the proposed patient that any information provided by the proposed
patient may be included in the prepetition screening report and may be considered in the
commitment proceedings. Data collected pursuant to this clause shall be considered private
data on individuals. The prepetition screening report is not admissible as evidence except
by agreement of counsel or as permitted by this chapter or the rules of court and is not
admissible in any court proceedings unrelated to the commitment proceedings.

(c) The prepetition screening team shall provide a notice, written in easily understood
language, to the proposed patient, the petitioner, persons named in a declaration under
chapter 145C or section 253B.03, subdivision 6d, and, with the proposed patient's consent,
other interested parties. The team shall ask the patient if the patient wants the notice read
and shall read the notice to the patient upon request. The notice must contain information
regarding the process, purpose, and legal effects of civil commitment deleted text beginand early interventiondeleted text end.
The notice must inform the proposed patient that:

(1) if a petition is filed, the patient has certain rights, including the right to a
court-appointed attorney, the right to request a second new text begincourt new text endexaminer, the right to attend
hearings, and the right to oppose the proceeding and to present and contest evidence; and

(2) if the proposed patient is committed to a deleted text beginstate regional treatment center or group
home
deleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end, the patient may be billed for the cost of care and
the state has the right to make a claim against the patient's estate for this cost.

The ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities shall develop a form
for the notice which includes the requirements of this paragraph.

(d) When the prepetition screening team recommends commitment, a written report
shall be sent to the county attorney for the county in which the petition is to be filed. The
statement of facts contained in the written report must meet the requirements of subdivision
2, paragraph (b).

(e) The prepetition screening team shall refuse to support a petition if the investigation
does not disclose evidence sufficient to support commitment. Notice of the prepetition
screening team's decision shall be provided to the prospective petitionernew text begin, any specific
individuals identified in the examiner's statement,
new text end and to the proposed patient.

(f) If the interested person wishes to proceed with a petition contrary to the
recommendation of the prepetition screening team, application may be made directly to the
county attorney, who shall determine whether or not to proceed with the petition. Notice of
the county attorney's determination shall be provided to the interested party.

(g) If the proposed patient has been acquitted of a crime under section 611.026, the
county attorney shall apply to the designated county agency in the county in which the
acquittal took place for a preliminary investigation unless substantially the same information
relevant to the proposed patient's current mental condition, as could be obtained by a
preliminary investigation, is part of the court record in the criminal proceeding or is contained
in the report of a mental examination conducted in connection with the criminal proceeding.
If a court petitions for commitment pursuant to the Rules of Criminal or Juvenile Procedure
or a county attorney petitions pursuant to acquittal of a criminal charge under section 611.026,
the prepetition investigation, if required by this section, shall be completed within seven
days after the filing of the petition.

Sec. 38.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

The petition.

(a) Any interested person, except a member of the prepetition
screening team, may file a petition for commitment in the district court of the county of
financial responsibility or the county where the proposed patient is present. If the head of
the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment
program
new text end believes that commitment is required and no petition has been filed, deleted text beginthe head of
the treatment facility
deleted text endnew text begin that personnew text end shall petition for the commitment of the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin proposed
patient
new text end.

(b) The petition shall set forth the name and address of the proposed patient, the name
and address of the patient's nearest relatives, and the reasons for the petition. The petition
must contain factual descriptions of the proposed patient's recent behavior, including a
description of the behavior, where it occurred, and the time period over which it occurred.
Each factual allegation must be supported by observations of witnesses named in the petition.
Petitions shall be stated in behavioral terms and shall not contain judgmental or conclusory
statements.

(c) The petition shall be accompanied by a written statement by an examiner stating that
the examiner has examined the proposed patient within the 15 days preceding the filing of
the petition and is of the opinion that the proposed patient deleted text beginis sufferingdeleted text endnew text begin hasnew text end a designated
disability and should be committed to a treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program,
or community-based treatment program
new text end. The statement shall include the reasons for the
opinion. In the case of a commitment based on mental illness, the petition and the examiner's
statement shall includedeleted text begin, to the extent this information is available,deleted text end a statement and opinion
regarding the proposed patient's need for treatment with neuroleptic medication and the
patient's capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medications,
and the reasons for the opinion. If use of neuroleptic medications is recommended by the
treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitioner or other qualified medical providernew text end, the petition for
commitment must, if applicable, include or be accompanied by a request for proceedings
under section 253B.092. Failure to include the required information regarding neuroleptic
medications in the examiner's statement, or to include a request for an order regarding
neuroleptic medications with the commitment petition, is not a basis for dismissing the
commitment petition. If a petitioner has been unable to secure a statement from an examiner,
the petition shall include documentation that a reasonable effort has been made to secure
the supporting statement.

Sec. 39.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

Petition originating from criminal proceedings.

(a) If criminal charges are
pending against a defendant, the court shall order simultaneous competency and civil
commitment examinations in accordance with Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule
20.04
, when the following conditions are met:

(1) the prosecutor or defense counsel doubts the defendant's competency and a motion
is made challenging competency, or the court on its initiative raises the issue under rule
20.01
; and

(2) the prosecutor and defense counsel agree simultaneous examinations are appropriate.

No additional examination under subdivision 3 is required in a subsequent civil commitment
proceeding unless a second examination is requested by defense counsel appointed following
the filing of any petition for commitment.

new text begin (b) Only a court examiner may conduct an assessment as described in Minnesota Rules
of Criminal Procedure, rules 20.01, subdivision 4, and 20.02, subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin (c) Where a county is ordered to consider civil commitment following a determination
of incompetency under Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01, the county in
which the criminal matter is pending is responsible to conduct prepetition screening and, if
statutory conditions for commitment are satisfied, to file the commitment petition in that
county. By agreement between county attorneys, prepetition screening and filing the petition
may be handled in the county of financial responsibility or the county where the proposed
patient is present.
new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end Following an acquittal of a person of a criminal charge under section 611.026,
the petition shall be filed by the county attorney of the county in which the acquittal took
place and the petition shall be filed with the court in which the acquittal took place, and that
court shall be the committing court for purposes of this chapter. When a petition is filed
pursuant to subdivision 2 with the court in which acquittal of a criminal charge took place,
the court shall assign the judge before whom the acquittal took place to hear the commitment
proceedings unless that judge is unavailable.

Sec. 40.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 2b, is amended to read:


Subd. 2b.

Apprehend and hold orders.

(a) The court may order the treatment facility
new text begin or state-operated treatment program new text endto hold the deleted text beginperson in a treatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin proposed
patient
new text end or direct a health officer, peace officer, or other person to take the proposed patient
into custody and transport the proposed patient to a treatment facility new text beginor state-operated
treatment program
new text endfor observation, evaluation, diagnosis, care, treatment, and, if necessary,
confinement, when:

(1) there has been a particularized showing by the petitioner that serious physical harm
to the proposed patient or others is likely unless the proposed patient is immediately
apprehended;

(2) the proposed patient has not voluntarily appeared for the examination or the
commitment hearing pursuant to the summons; or

(3) a person is held pursuant to section deleted text begin253B.05deleted text end and a request for a petition
for commitment has been filed.

(b) The order of the court may be executed on any day and at any time by the use of all
necessary means including the imposition of necessary restraint upon the proposed patient.
Where possible, a peace officer taking the proposed patient into custody pursuant to this
subdivision shall not be in uniform and shall not use a deleted text beginmotordeleted text end vehicle visibly marked as a
deleted text begin policedeleted text endnew text begin law enforcementnew text end vehicle. Except as provided in section 253D.10, subdivision 2, in
the case of an individual on a judicial hold due to a petition for civil commitment under
chapter 253D, assignment of custody during the hold is to the commissioner deleted text beginof human
services
deleted text end. The commissioner is responsible for determining the appropriate placement within
a secure treatment facility under the authority of the commissioner.

(c) A proposed patient must not be allowed or required to consent to nor participate in
a clinical drug trial while an order is in effect under this subdivision. A consent given while
an order is in effect is void and unenforceable. This paragraph does not prohibit a patient
from continuing participation in a clinical drug trial if the patient was participating in the
new text begin clinical new text enddrug trial at the time the order was issued under this subdivision.

Sec. 41.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 2d, is amended to read:


Subd. 2d.

Change of venue.

Either party may move to have the venue of the petition
changed to the district court of the Minnesota county where the person currently lives,
whether independently or pursuant to a placement. new text beginThe county attorney of the proposed
county of venue must be notified of the motion and provided the opportunity to respond
before the court rules on the motion.
new text endThe court shall grant the motion if it determines that
the transfer is appropriate and is in the interests of justice. If the petition has been filed
pursuant to the Rules of Criminal or Juvenile Procedure, venue may not be changed without
the new text beginagreement of the county attorney of the proposed county of venue and the new text endapproval of
the court in which the juvenile or criminal proceedings are pending.

Sec. 42.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

new text beginCourt-appointed new text endexaminers.

After a petition has been filed, the court shall
appoint deleted text beginandeleted text endnew text begin a courtnew text end examiner. Prior to the hearing, the court shall inform the proposed patient
of the right to an independent second examination. At the proposed patient's request, the
court shall appoint a second new text begincourt new text endexaminer of the patient's choosing to be paid for by the
county at a rate of compensation fixed by the court.

Sec. 43.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Prehearing examination; report.

The examination shall be held at a treatment
facility or other suitable place the court determines is not likely to harm the health of the
proposed patient. The county attorney and the patient's attorney may be present during the
examination. Either party may waive this right. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, a
deleted text begin court-appointeddeleted text endnew text begin courtnew text end examiner shall file the report with the court not less than 48 hours
prior to the commitment hearing. The court shall ensure that copies of the new text begincourt new text endexaminer's
report are provided to the county attorney, the proposed patient, and the patient's counsel.

Sec. 44.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.07, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Preliminary hearing.

(a) No proposed patient may be held in a treatment
facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endunder a judicial hold pursuant to subdivision
2b longer than 72 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless the
court holds a preliminary hearing and determines that the standard is met to hold the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin
proposed patient
new text end.

(b) The proposed patient, patient's counsel, the petitioner, the county attorney, and any
other persons as the court directs shall be given at least 24 hours written notice of the
preliminary hearing. The notice shall include the alleged grounds for confinement. The
proposed patient shall be represented at the preliminary hearing by counsel. The court may
admit reliable hearsay evidence, including written reports, for the purpose of the preliminary
hearing.

(c) The court, on its motion or on the motion of any party, may exclude or excuse a
proposed patient who is seriously disruptive or who is incapable of comprehending and
participating in the proceedings. In such instances, the court shall, with specificity on the
record, state the behavior of the proposed patient or other circumstances which justify
proceeding in the absence of the proposed patient.

(d) The court may continue the judicial hold of the proposed patient if it finds, by a
preponderance of the evidence, that serious physical harm to the proposed patient or others
is likely if the proposed patient is not immediately confined. If a proposed patient was
acquitted of a crime against the person under section 611.026 immediately preceding the
filing of the petition, the court may presume that serious physical harm to the patient or
others is likely if the proposed patient is not immediately confined.

(e) Upon a showing that a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin proposed patientnew text end subject to a petition for commitment
may need treatment with neuroleptic medications and that the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin proposed patientnew text end may
lack capacity to make decisions regarding that treatment, the court may appoint a substitute
decision-maker as provided in section 253B.092, subdivision 6. The substitute decision-maker
shall meet with the proposed patient and provider and make a report to the court at the
hearing under section 253B.08 regarding whether the administration of neuroleptic
medications is appropriate under the criteria of section 253B.092, subdivision 7. If the
substitute decision-maker consents to treatment with neuroleptic medications and the
proposed patient does not refuse the medication, neuroleptic medication may be administered
to the new text beginproposed new text endpatient. If the substitute decision-maker does not consent or the new text beginproposed
new text end patient refuses, neuroleptic medication may not be administered without a court order, or
in an emergency as set forth in section 253B.092, subdivision 3.

Sec. 45.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.08, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Time for commitment hearing.

(a) The hearing on the commitment
petition shall be held within 14 days from the date of the filing of the petition, except that
the hearing on a commitment petition pursuant to section 253D.07 shall be held within 90
days from the date of the filing of the petition. For good cause shown, the court may extend
the time of hearing up to an additional 30 days. The proceeding shall be dismissed if the
proposed patient has not had a hearing on a commitment petition within the allowed time.

(b) The proposed patient, or the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment
program
new text end in which the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end is held, may demand in writing at any time that the
hearing be held immediately. Unless the hearing is held within five days of the date of the
demand, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundaysnew text begin,new text end and legal holidays, the petition shall be
automatically dismissed if the patient is being held in a treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated
treatment program
new text end pursuant to court order. For good cause shown, the court may extend
the time of hearing on the demand for an additional ten days. This paragraph does not apply
to a commitment petition brought under section 253B.18 or chapter 253D.

Sec. 46.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.08, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

Place of hearing.

The hearing shall be conducted in a manner consistent with
orderly procedure. The hearing shall be held at a courtroom meeting standards prescribed
by local court rule which may be at a treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end.
The hearing may be conducted by interactive video conference under General Rules of
Practice, rule 131, and Minnesota Rules of Civil Commitment, rule 14.

Sec. 47.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.08, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Absence permitted.

(a) The court may permit the proposed patient to waive
the right to attend the hearing if it determines that the waiver is freely given. At the time of
the hearingnew text begin,new text end the new text beginproposed new text endpatient shall not be so under the influence of drugs, medication,
or other treatment so as to be hampered in participating in the proceedings. When the deleted text beginlicensed
physician or licensed psychologist attending the patient
deleted text endnew text begin professional responsible for the
proposed patient's treatment
new text end is of the opinion that the discontinuance of deleted text begindrugs,deleted text end medicationdeleted text begin,deleted text end
or other treatment is not in the best interest of the new text beginproposed new text endpatient, the court, at the time of
the hearing, shall be presented a record of all deleted text begindrugs,deleted text end medication or other treatment which
thenew text begin proposednew text end patient has received during the 48 hours immediately prior to the hearing.

(b) The court, on its own motion or on the motion of any party, may exclude or excuse
a proposed patient who is seriously disruptive or who is incapable of comprehending and
participating in the proceedings. In such instances, the court shall, with specificity on the
record, state the behavior of the proposed patient or other circumstances justifying proceeding
in the absence of the proposed patient.

Sec. 48.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.08, subdivision 5a, is amended to read:


Subd. 5a.

Witnesses.

The proposed patient or the patient's counsel and the county attorney
may present and cross-examine witnesses, including new text begincourt new text endexaminers, at the hearing. The
court may in its discretion receive the testimony of any other person. Opinions of
deleted text begin court-appointeddeleted text endnew text begin courtnew text end examiners may not be admitted into evidence unless the new text begincourt new text endexaminer
is present to testify, except by agreement of the parties.

Sec. 49.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.09, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Standard of proof.

(a) If the court finds by clear and convincing evidence
that the proposed patient is a person deleted text beginwho is mentally ill, developmentally disabled, or
chemically dependent
deleted text endnew text begin who poses a risk of harm due to mental illness, or is a person who
has a developmental disability or chemical dependency,
new text end and after careful consideration of
reasonable alternative dispositionsdeleted text begin,deleted text end including but not limited todeleted text begin,deleted text end dismissal of petitiondeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end
voluntary outpatient caredeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end voluntary admission to a treatment facility,new text begin state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program;
new text end appointment of a guardian or
conservatordeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;new text end or release before commitment as provided for in subdivision 4, it finds that
there is no suitable alternative to judicial commitment, the court shall commit the patient
to the least restrictive treatment program or alternative programs which can meet the patient's
treatment needs consistent with section 253B.03, subdivision 7.

(b) In deciding on the least restrictive program, the court shall consider a range of
treatment alternatives includingdeleted text begin,deleted text end but not limited todeleted text begin,deleted text end community-based nonresidential
treatment, community residential treatment, partial hospitalization, acute care hospital,
new text begin assertive community treatment teams, new text endand deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin state-operated new text end treatment deleted text begincenter servicesdeleted text endnew text begin
programs
new text end. The court shall also consider the proposed patient's treatment preferences and
willingness to participate voluntarily in the treatment ordered. The court may not commit
a patient to a facility or program that is not capable of meeting the patient's needs.

new text begin (c) If, after careful consideration of reasonable alternative dispositions, the court finds
no suitable alternative to judicial commitment and the court finds that the least restrictive
alternative as determined in paragraph (a) is a treatment facility or community-based
treatment program that is less restrictive or more community based than a state-operated
treatment program, and there is a treatment facility or a community-based treatment program
willing to accept the civilly committed patient, the court may commit the patient to both
the treatment facility or community-based treatment program and to the commissioner, in
the event that treatment in a state-operated treatment program becomes the least restrictive
alternative. If there is a change in the patient's level of care, then:
new text end

new text begin (1) if the patient needs a higher level of care requiring admission to a state-operated
treatment program, custody of the patient and authority and responsibility for the commitment
may be transferred to the commissioner for as long as the patient needs a higher level of
care; and
new text end

new text begin (2) when the patient no longer needs treatment in a state-operated treatment program,
the program may provisionally discharge the patient to an appropriate placement or release
the patient to the treatment facility or community-based treatment program if the program
continues to be willing and able to readmit the patient, in which case the commitment, its
authority, and responsibilities revert to the non-state-operated treatment program. Both
agencies accepting commitment shall coordinate admission and discharge planning to
facilitate timely access to the other's services to meet the patient's needs and shall coordinate
treatment planning consistent with section 253B.03, subdivision 7.
new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end If deleted text beginthe commitment as mentally ill, chemically dependent, or developmentally
disabled is to a service facility provided by the commissioner of human services
deleted text endnew text begin a person
is committed to a state-operated treatment program as a person who poses a risk of harm
due to mental illness or as a person who has a developmental disability or chemical
dependency
new text end, the court shall order the commitment to the commissioner. The commissioner
shall designate the placement of the person to the court.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (e)new text end If the court finds a proposed patient to be a person who deleted text beginis mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin poses a
risk of harm due to mental illness
new text end under section 253B.02, subdivision 13, deleted text beginparagraph (a),deleted text end
clause deleted text begin(2) ordeleted text end (4), the court shall commit new text beginthe patient new text endto a new text begintreatment facility or new text endcommunity-based
new text begin treatment new text endprogram that meets the proposed patient's needs. deleted text beginFor purposes of this paragraph,
a community-based program may include inpatient mental health services at a community
hospital.
deleted text end

Sec. 50.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.09, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Findings.

new text begin(a) new text endThe court shall find the facts specifically, and separately state its
conclusions of law. Where commitment is ordered, the findings of fact and conclusions of
law shall specifically state the proposed patient's conduct which is a basis for determining
that each of the requisites for commitment is met.

new text begin (b) new text endIf commitment is ordered, the findings shall also identify less restrictive alternatives
considered and rejected by the court and the reasons for rejecting each alternative.

new text begin (c) new text endIf the proceedings are dismissed, the court may direct that the person be transported
back to a suitable locationnew text begin including to the person's homenew text end.

Sec. 51.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.09, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Reporting judicial commitments; private treatment program or
facility.

Notwithstanding section 253B.23, subdivision 9, when a court commits a patient
to a new text beginnon-state-operated new text endtreatment new text beginfacility or new text endprogram deleted text beginor facility other than a state-operated
program or facility
deleted text end, the court shall report the commitment to the commissioner through the
supreme court information system for purposes of providing commitment information for
firearm background checks under section 245.041.new text begin If the patient is committed to a
state-operated treatment program, the court shall send a copy of the commitment order to
the commissioner.
new text end

Sec. 52.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.09, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Initial commitment period.

The initial commitment begins on the date that
the court issues its order or warrant under section 253B.10, subdivision 1. For deleted text beginpersonsdeleted text endnew text begin a
person
new text end committed as deleted text beginmentally ill, developmentally disabled,deleted text endnew text begin a person who poses a risk of
harm due to mental illness, a developmental disability,
new text end or deleted text beginchemically dependentdeleted text end new text beginchemical
dependency,
new text endthe initial commitment shall not exceed six months.

Sec. 53.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.092, is amended to read:


253B.092 ADMINISTRATION OF NEUROLEPTIC MEDICATION.

Subdivision 1.

General.

Neuroleptic medications may be administered, only as provided
in this section, to patients subject to deleted text beginearly intervention ordeleted text end civil commitment deleted text beginas mentally ill,
mentally ill and dangerous, a sexually dangerous person, or a person with a sexual
psychopathic personality
deleted text endnew text begin under this chapter or chapter 253Dnew text end. For purposes of this section,
"patient" includes a proposed patient who is the subject of a petition for deleted text beginearly intervention
or
deleted text end commitment and a committed person as defined in section 253D.02, subdivision 4.

Subd. 2.

Administration without judicial review.

new text begin(a) new text endNeuroleptic medications may be
administered without judicial review in the following circumstances:

(1) the patient has the capacity to make an informed decision under subdivision 4;

(2) the patient does not have the present capacity to consent to the administration of
neuroleptic medication, but prepared new text begina health care power of attorney, new text enda health care directive
under chapter 145Cnew text begin,new text end or a declaration under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d, requesting
treatment or authorizing an agent or proxy to request treatment, and the agent or proxy has
requested the treatment;

(3) the patient has been prescribed neuroleptic medication prior to admission to a
treatment facility, but lacks the new text beginpresent new text endcapacity to consent to the administration of that
neuroleptic medication; continued administration of the medication is in the patient's best
interest; and the patient does not refuse administration of the medication. In this situation,
the previously prescribed neuroleptic medication may be continued for up to 14 days while
the treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end:

(i) is obtaining a substitute decision-maker appointed by the court under subdivision 6;
or

(ii) is requesting new text begina court order authorizing administering neuroleptic medication or new text endan
amendment to a current court order authorizing administration of neuroleptic medication;

(4) a substitute decision-maker appointed by the court consents to the administration of
the neuroleptic medication and the patient does not refuse administration of the medication;
or

(5) the substitute decision-maker does not consent or the patient is refusing medication,
and the patient is in an emergency situation.

new text begin (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clause (3), if a person requests a substitute
decision-maker or requests a court order administering neuroleptic medication within 14
days, the treating medical practitioner may continue administering the medication to the
patient through the hearing date or until the court otherwise issues an order.
new text end

Subd. 3.

Emergency administration.

A treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end may
administer neuroleptic medication to a patient who does not have capacity to make a decision
regarding administration of the medication if the patient is in an emergency situation.
Medication may be administered for so long as the emergency continues to exist, up to 14
days, if the treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end determines that the medication is necessary
to prevent serious, immediate physical harm to the patient or to others. If a request for
authorization to administer medication is made to the court within the 14 days, the treating
deleted text begin physiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end may continue the medication through the date of the first
court hearing, if the emergency continues to exist. If the request for authorization to
administer medication is made to the court in conjunction with a petition for commitment
deleted text begin or early interventiondeleted text end and the court makes a determination at the preliminary hearing under
section 253B.07, subdivision 7, that there is sufficient cause to continue the deleted text beginphysician'sdeleted text endnew text begin
medical practitioner's
new text end order until the hearing under section 253B.08, the treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin
medical practitioner
new text end may continue the medication until that hearing, if the emergency
continues to exist. The treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end shall document the emergency in the patient's medical
record in specific behavioral terms.

Subd. 4.

Patients with capacity to make informed decision.

A patient who has the
capacity to make an informed decision regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication
may consent or refuse consent to administration of the medication. The informed consent
of a patient must be in writing.

Subd. 5.

Determination of capacity.

(a) new text beginThere is a rebuttable presumption that new text enda patient
deleted text begin is presumed to havedeleted text endnew text begin has thenew text end capacity to make decisions regarding administration of
neuroleptic medication.

(b) deleted text beginIn determiningdeleted text end A deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient has thenew text end capacity to make decisions regarding the
administration of neuroleptic medicationdeleted text begin, the court shall considerdeleted text endnew text begin if the patientnew text end:

(1) deleted text beginwhether the person demonstratesdeleted text endnew text begin hasnew text end an awareness of the nature of the deleted text beginperson's deleted text endnew text begin
patient's
new text endsituation, including the reasons for hospitalization, and the possible consequences
of refusing treatment with neuroleptic medications;

(2) deleted text beginwhether the person demonstratesdeleted text end new text beginhas new text endan understanding of treatment with neuroleptic
medications and the risks, benefits, and alternatives; and

(3) deleted text beginwhether the persondeleted text end communicates verbally or nonverbally a clear choice regarding
treatment with neuroleptic medications that is a reasoned one not based on deleted text begindelusiondeleted text endnew text begin a
symptom of the patient's mental illness
new text end, even though it may not be in the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text end new text beginpatient's
new text end best interests.

new text begin (c) new text endDisagreement with the deleted text beginphysician'sdeleted text endnew text begin medical practitioner'snew text end recommendation new text beginalone new text endis
not evidence of an unreasonable decision.

Subd. 6.

Patients without capacity to make informed decision; substitute
decision-maker.

(a) Upon request of any person, and upon a showing that administration
of neuroleptic medications may be recommended and that the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end may lack
capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication, the court
shall appoint a substitute decision-maker with authority to consent to the administration of
neuroleptic medication as provided in this section. A hearing is not required for an
appointment under this paragraph. The substitute decision-maker must be an individual or
a community or institutional multidisciplinary panel designated by the local mental health
authority. In appointing a substitute decision-maker, the court shall give preference to a
guardian deleted text beginor conservatordeleted text end, proxy, or health care agent with authority to make health care
decisions for the patient. The court may provide for the payment of a reasonable fee to the
substitute decision-maker for services under this section or may appoint a volunteer.

(b) If the deleted text beginperson's treating physiciandeleted text endnew text begin patient's treating medical practitionernew text end recommends
treatment with neuroleptic medication, the substitute decision-maker may give or withhold
consent to the administration of the medication, based on the standards under subdivision
7. If the substitute decision-maker gives informed consent to the treatment and the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin
patient
new text end does not refuse, the substitute decision-maker shall provide written consent to the
treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end and the medication may be administered. The
substitute decision-maker shall also notify the court that consent has been given. If the
substitute decision-maker refuses or withdraws consent or the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end refuses the
medication, neuroleptic medication deleted text beginmaydeleted text endnew text begin mustnew text end not be administered to the deleted text beginperson withoutdeleted text endnew text begin
patient except with
new text end a court order or in an emergency.

(c) A substitute decision-maker appointed under this section has access to the relevant
sections of the patient's health records on the past or present administration of medication.
The designated agency or a person involved in the patient's physical or mental health care
may disclose information to the substitute decision-maker for the sole purpose of performing
the responsibilities under this section. The substitute decision-maker may not disclose health
records obtained under this paragraph except to the extent necessary to carry out the duties
under this section.

(d) At a hearing under section 253B.08, the petitioner has the burden of proving incapacity
by a preponderance of the evidence. If a substitute decision-maker has been appointed by
the court, the court shall make findings regarding the patient's capacity to make decisions
regarding the administration of neuroleptic medications and affirm or reverse its appointment
of a substitute decision-maker. If the court affirms the appointment of the substitute
decision-maker, and if the substitute decision-maker has consented to the administration of
the medication and the patient has not refused, the court shall make findings that the substitute
decision-maker has consented and the treatment is authorized. If a substitute decision-maker
has not yet been appointed, upon request the court shall make findings regarding the patient's
capacity and appoint a substitute decision-maker if appropriate.

(e) If an order for civil commitment deleted text beginor early interventiondeleted text end did not provide for the
appointment of a substitute decision-maker or for the administration of neuroleptic
medication, deleted text beginthedeleted text endnew text begin anew text end treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program
new text end may later request the appointment of a substitute decision-maker upon
a showing that administration of neuroleptic medications is recommended and that the
deleted text begin persondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic
medications. A hearing is not required in order to administer the neuroleptic medication
unless requested under subdivision 10 or if the substitute decision-maker withholds or
refuses consent or the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end refuses the medication.

(f) The substitute decision-maker's authority to consent to treatment lasts for the duration
of the court's order of appointment or until modified by the court.

deleted text begin If the substitute decision-maker withdraws consent or the patient refuses consent,
neuroleptic medication may not be administered without a court order.
deleted text end

(g) If there is no hearing after the preliminary hearing, then the court shall, upon the
request of any interested party, review the reasonableness of the substitute decision-maker's
decision based on the standards under subdivision 7. The court shall enter an order upholding
or reversing the decision within seven days.

Subd. 7.

When deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end lacks capacity to make decisions about medication.

(a)
When a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of
neuroleptic medication, the substitute decision-maker or the court shall use the standards
in this subdivision in making a decision regarding administration of the medication.

(b) If the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end clearly stated what the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end would choose to do in this
situation when the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end had the capacity to make a reasoned decision, the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin
patient's
new text end wishes must be followed. Evidence of the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end wishes may include
written instruments, including a durable power of attorney for health care under chapter
145C or a declaration under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d.

(c) If evidence of the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end wishes regarding the administration of neuroleptic
medications is conflicting or lacking, the decision must be based on what a reasonable
person would do, taking into consideration:

(1) the deleted text beginperson'sdeleted text endnew text begin patient'snew text end family, community, moral, religious, and social values;

(2) the medical risks, benefits, and alternatives to the proposed treatment;

(3) past efficacy and any extenuating circumstances of past use of neuroleptic
medications; and

(4) any other relevant factors.

Subd. 8.

Procedure when patient refuses new text beginneuroleptic new text endmedication.

(a) If the substitute
decision-maker or the patient refuses to consent to treatment with neuroleptic medications,
and absent an emergency as set forth in subdivision 3, neuroleptic medications may not be
administered without a court order. Upon receiving a written request for a hearing, the court
shall schedule the hearing within 14 days of the request. The matter may be heard as part
of any other district court proceeding under this chapter. By agreement of the parties or for
good cause shown, the court may extend the time of hearing an additional 30 days.

(b) The patient must be examined by a court examiner prior to the hearing. If the patient
refuses to participate in an examination, the new text begincourt new text endexaminer may rely on the patient's medical
records to reach an opinion as to the appropriateness of neuroleptic medication. The patient
is entitled to counsel and a second new text begincourt new text endexaminer, if requested by the patient or patient's
counsel.

(c) The court may base its decision on relevant and admissible evidence, including the
testimony of a treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end or other qualified physician, a member
of the patient's treatment team, a deleted text begincourt-appointeddeleted text endnew text begin courtnew text end examiner, witness testimony, or the
patient's medical records.

(d) If the court finds that the patient has the capacity to decide whether to take neuroleptic
medication or that the patient lacks capacity to decide and the standards for making a decision
to administer the medications under subdivision 7 are not met, the deleted text begintreatingdeleted text endnew text begin treatmentnew text end facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end may not administer
medication without the patient's informed written consent or without the declaration of an
emergency, or until further review by the court.

(e) If the court finds that the patient lacks capacity to decide whether to take neuroleptic
medication and has applied the standards set forth in subdivision 7, the court may authorize
the deleted text begintreatingdeleted text endnew text begin treatmentnew text end facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program
new text end and any other deleted text begincommunity or treatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endto which the
patient may be transferred or provisionally discharged, to involuntarily administer the
medication to the patient. A copy of the order must be given to the patient, the patient's
attorney, the county attorney, and the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program,
or community-based treatment program
new text end. The treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program
new text end may not begin administration of the
neuroleptic medication until it notifies the patient of the court's order authorizing the
treatment.

(f) A finding of lack of capacity under this section must not be construed to determine
the patient's competence for any other purpose.

(g) The court may authorize the administration of neuroleptic medication until the
termination of a determinate commitment. If the patient is committed for an indeterminate
period, the court may authorize treatment of neuroleptic medication for not more than two
years, subject to the patient's right to petition the court for review of the order. The treatment
facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment programnew text end must
submit annual reports to the court, which shall provide copies to the patient and the respective
attorneys.

(h) The court may limit the maximum dosage of neuroleptic medication that may be
administered.

(i) If physical force is required to administer the neuroleptic medication, new text beginthe facility or
program may only use injectable medications. If physical
new text endforce new text beginis needed to administer the
medication, medication
new text endmay only deleted text begintake placedeleted text endnew text begin be administerednew text end in a deleted text begintreatment facility or
therapeutic
deleted text end setting where the person's condition can be reassessed and deleted text beginappropriatedeleted text end medical
deleted text begin staffdeleted text endnew text begin personnel qualified to administer medicationnew text end are availablenew text begin, including in the community,
a county jail, or a correctional facility. The facility or program may not use a nasogastric
tube to administer neuroleptic medication involuntarily
new text end.

Subd. 9.

Immunity.

A substitute decision-maker who consents to treatment is not civilly
or criminally liable for the performance of or the manner of performing the treatment. A
person is not liable for performing treatment without consent if the substitute decision-maker
has given written consent. This provision does not affect any other liability that may result
from the manner in which the treatment is performed.

Subd. 10.

Review.

A patient or other person may petition the court under section 253B.17
for review of any determination under this section or for a decision regarding the
administration of neuroleptic medications, appointment of a substitute decision-maker, or
the patient's capacity to make decisions regarding administration of neuroleptic medications.

Sec. 54.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.0921, is amended to read:


253B.0921 ACCESS TO MEDICAL RECORDS.

A treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end who makes medical decisions regarding the
prescription and administration of medication for treatment of a mental illness has access
to the relevant sections of a patient's health records on past administration of medication at
any deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin, program, or treatment providernew text end, if the patient lacks the capacity to
authorize the release of records. Upon request of a treating deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin medical practitionernew text end
under this section, a deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin, program, or treatment providernew text end shall supply complete
information relating to the past records on administration of medication of a patient subject
to this chapter. A patient who has the capacity to authorize the release of data retains the
right to make decisions regarding access to medical records as provided by sections 144.291
to 144.298.

Sec. 55.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.095, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Duration.

The maximum duration of a stayed order under this section is six
months. The court may continue the order for a maximum of an additional 12 months if,
after notice and hearing, under sections 253B.08 and 253B.09 the court finds that (1) the
person continues to deleted text beginbe mentally ill, chemically dependent, or developmentally disabled,deleted text endnew text begin
have a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical dependency,
new text end and (2) an order
is needed deleted text beginto protect the patient or othersdeleted text endnew text begin because the person is likely to attempt to physically
harm self or others or fail to obtain necessary food, clothing, shelter, or medical care unless
the person is under the supervision of a stayed commitment
new text end.

Sec. 56.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.097, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Findings.

In addition to the findings required under section 253B.09,
subdivision 2
, an order committing a person to new text begina new text endcommunity-based treatment new text beginprogram new text endmust
include:

(1) a written plan for services to the patient;

(2) a finding that the proposed treatment is available and accessible to the patient and
that public or private financial resources are available to pay for the proposed treatment;

(3) conditions the patient must meet in order to obtain an early release from commitment
or to avoid a hearing for further commitment; and

(4) consequences of the patient's failure to follow the commitment order. Consequences
may include commitment to another setting for treatment.

Sec. 57.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.097, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Case manager.

When a court commits a patient with mental illness to new text begina
new text end community-based treatmentnew text begin programnew text end, the court shall appoint a case manager from the county
agency or other entity under contract with the county agency to provide case management
services.

Sec. 58.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.097, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Reports.

The case manager shall report to the court at least once every 90 days.
The case manager shall immediately report new text beginto the court new text enda substantial failure of the patient
or provider to comply with the conditions of the commitment.

Sec. 59.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.097, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Immunity from liability.

No new text begintreatment new text endfacilitynew text begin, community-based treatment
program,
new text end or person is financially liable, personally or otherwise, for new text beginthe patient's new text endactions deleted text beginof
the patient
deleted text end if the facility or person follows accepted community standards of professional
practice in the management, supervision, and treatment of the patient. For purposes of this
subdivision, "person" means official, staff, employee of the new text begintreatment new text endfacilitynew text begin,
community-based treatment program
new text end, physician, or other individual who is responsible for
deleted text begin thedeleted text endnew text begin a patient'snew text end management, supervision, or treatment deleted text beginof a patient's community-based
treatment
deleted text end under this section.

Sec. 60.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.10, is amended to read:


253B.10 PROCEDURES UPON COMMITMENT.

Subdivision 1.

Administrative requirements.

(a) When a person is committed, the
court shall issue a warrant or an order committing the patient to the custody of the head of
the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment
program
new text end. The warrant or order shall state that the patient meets the statutory criteria for
civil commitment.

(b) The commissioner shall prioritize patients being admitted from jail or a correctional
institution who are:

(1) ordered confined in a deleted text beginstate hospitaldeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end for an
examination under Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rules 20.01, subdivision 4,
paragraph (a), and 20.02, subdivision 2;

(2) under civil commitment for competency treatment and continuing supervision under
Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01, subdivision 7;

(3) found not guilty by reason of mental illness under Minnesota Rules of Criminal
Procedure, rule 20.02, subdivision 8, and under civil commitment or are ordered to be
detained in a deleted text beginstate hospital or other facilitydeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end pending
completion of the civil commitment proceedings; or

(4) committed under this chapter to the commissioner after dismissal of the patient's
criminal charges.

Patients described in this paragraph must be admitted to a deleted text beginservice operated by the
commissioner
deleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end within 48 hours. The commitment must be
ordered by the court as provided in section 253B.09, subdivision 1, paragraph deleted text begin(c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end.

(c) Upon the arrival of a patient at the designated treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end, the head of the facility new text beginor
program
new text endshall retain the duplicate of the warrant and endorse receipt upon the original
warrant or acknowledge receipt of the order. The endorsed receipt or acknowledgment must
be filed in the court of commitment. After arrival, the patient shall be under the control and
custody of the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end.

(d) Copies of the petition for commitment, the court's findings of fact and conclusions
of law, the court order committing the patient, the report of the new text begincourt new text endexaminers, and the
prepetition report, and any medical and behavioral information available shall be provided
at the time of admission of a patient to the designated treatment facilitynew text begin or program to which
the patient is committed
new text end. deleted text beginThis information shall also be provided by the head of the treatment
facility to treatment facility staff in a consistent and timely manner and pursuant to all
applicable laws.
deleted text end new text beginUpon a patient's referral to the commissioner of human services for
admission pursuant to subdivision 1, paragraph (b), any inpatient hospital, treatment facility,
jail, or correctional facility that has provided care or supervision to the patient in the previous
two years shall, when requested by the treatment facility or commissioner, provide copies
of the patient's medical and behavioral records to the Department of Human Services for
purposes of preadmission planning. This information shall be provided by the head of the
treatment facility to treatment facility staff in a consistent and timely manner and pursuant
to all applicable laws.
new text end

Subd. 2.

Transportation.

new text begin(a) new text endWhen a patient is about to be placed in a treatment facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end, the court may
order the designated agency, the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end, or any responsible adult to transport the patient deleted text beginto
the treatment facility
deleted text end. new text beginA protected transport provider may transport the patient according to
section 256B.0625, subdivision 17.
new text endWhenever possible, a peace officer who provides the
transportation shall not be in uniform and shall not use a vehicle visibly marked as a deleted text beginpolicedeleted text endnew text begin
law enforcement
new text end vehicle. The proposed patient may be accompanied by one or more
interested persons.

new text begin (b) new text endWhen a patient who is at a deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin state-operatednew text end treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end requests
a hearing for adjudication of a patient's status pursuant to section 253B.17, the commissioner
shall provide transportation.

Subd. 3.

Notice of admission.

Whenever a committed person has been admitted to a
treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment programnew text end
under the provisions of section 253B.09 or 253B.18, the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or
program
new text end shall immediately notify the patient's spouse, health care agent, or parent and the
county of financial responsibility if the county may be liable for a portion of the cost of
treatment. If the committed person was admitted upon the petition of a spouse, health care
agent, or parentnew text begin,new text end the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end shall notify an interested person other than the
petitioner.

new text begin Subd. 3a. new text end

new text begin Interim custody and treatment of committed person. new text end

new text begin When the patient is
present in a treatment facility or state-operated treatment program at the time of the court's
commitment order, unless the court orders otherwise, the commitment order constitutes
authority for that facility or program to confine and provide treatment to the patient until
the patient is transferred to the facility or program to which the patient has been committed.
new text end

Subd. 4.

Private treatment.

Patients or other responsible persons are required to pay
the necessary charges for patients committed or transferred to deleted text beginprivatedeleted text end treatment facilitiesnew text begin
or community-based treatment programs
new text end. deleted text beginPrivatedeleted text end Treatment facilities new text beginor community-based
treatment programs
new text endmay not refuse to accept a committed person solely based on the person's
court-ordered status. Insurers must provide treatment and services as ordered by the court
under section 253B.045, subdivision 6, or as required under chapter 62M.

Subd. 5.

Transfer to voluntary status.

At any time prior to the expiration of the initial
commitment period, a patient who has not been committed as deleted text beginmentally illdeleted text endnew text begin a person who has
a mental illness
new text end and new text beginis new text enddangerous to the public or deleted text beginasdeleted text end a sexually dangerous person or deleted text beginasdeleted text end a
sexual psychopathic personality may be transferred to voluntary status upon the patient's
application in writing with the consent of the head of the facilitynew text begin or program to which the
person is committed
new text end. Upon transfer, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program
new text end shall immediately notify the court in
writing and the court shall terminate the proceedings.

Sec. 61.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.12, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Reports.

(a) If a patient who was committed as a person deleted text beginwho is mentally
ill, developmentally disabled, or chemically dependent
deleted text end new text beginwho poses a risk of harm due to a
mental illness, or as a person who has a developmental disability or chemical dependency,
new text end is discharged from commitment within the first 60 days after the date of the initial
commitment order, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end shall file a written report with the committing court
describing the patient's need for further treatment. A copy of the report must be provided
to the county attorney, the patient, and the patient's counsel.

(b) If a patient who was committed as a person deleted text beginwho is mentally ill, developmentally
disabled, or chemically dependent
deleted text end new text beginwho poses a risk of harm due to a mental illness, or as a
person who has a developmental disability or chemical dependency,
new text endremains in treatment
more than 60 days after the date of the commitment, then at least 60 days, but not more than
90 days, after the date of the order, the head of the facilitynew text begin or programnew text end that has custody of
the patient shall file a written report with the committing court and provide a copy to the
county attorney, the patient, and the patient's counsel. The report must set forth in detailed
narrative form at least the following:

(1) the diagnosis of the patient with the supporting data;

(2) the anticipated discharge date;

(3) an individualized treatment plan;

(4) a detailed description of the discharge planning process with suggested after care
plan;

(5) whether the patient is in need of further care and treatment, the treatment facility
deleted text begin whichdeleted text endnew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program thatnew text end is
needed, and evidence to support the response;

(6) whether the patient satisfies the statutory requirement for continued commitment deleted text beginto
a treatment facility,
deleted text end with documentation to support the opinion; deleted text beginand
deleted text end

new text begin (7) a statement from the patient related to accepting treatment, if possible; and
new text end

deleted text begin (7)deleted text endnew text begin (8)new text end whether the administration of neuroleptic medication is clinically indicated,
whether the patient is able to give informed consent to that medication, and the basis for
these opinions.

(c) Prior to the termination of the initial commitment order or final discharge of the
patient, the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end that has custody or care of the patient
shall file a written report with the committing court with a copy to the county attorney, the
patient, and the patient's counsel that sets forth the information required in paragraph (b).

(d) If the patient has been provisionally discharged from a deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end,
the report shall be filed by the designated agency, which may submit the discharge report
as part of its report.

(e) deleted text beginIf no written report is filed within the required time, ordeleted text end If a report describes the patient
as not in need of further deleted text begininstitutional care anddeleted text endnew text begin court-orderednew text end treatment, the proceedings must
be terminated by the committing court and the patient discharged from the treatment facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program, unless the patient
chooses to voluntarily receive services
new text end.

new text begin (f) If no written report is filed within the required time, the court must notify the county,
facility or program to which the person is committed, and designated agency and require a
report be filed within five business days. If a report is not filed within five business days a
hearing must be held within three business days.
new text end

Sec. 62.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.12, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Examination.

Prior to the review hearing, the court shall inform the patient of
the right to an independent examination by deleted text beginandeleted text endnew text begin a courtnew text end examiner chosen by the patient and
appointed in accordance with provisions of section 253B.07, subdivision 3. The report of
the new text begincourt new text endexaminer may be submitted at the hearing.

Sec. 63.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.12, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Hearing; standard of proof.

new text begin(a) new text endThe committing court shall not make a final
determination of the need to continue commitment unless the court finds by clear and
convincing evidence that (1) the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end continues to deleted text beginbe mentally ill, developmentally
disabled, or chemically dependent
deleted text endnew text begin have a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical
dependency
new text end; (2) involuntary commitment is necessary for the protection of the patient or
others; and (3) there is no alternative to involuntary commitment.

new text begin (b) new text endIn determining whether a deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end continues to deleted text beginbe mentally ill, chemically
dependent, or developmentally disabled,
deleted text endnew text begin require commitment due to mental illness,
developmental disability, or chemical dependency,
new text end the court need not find that there has
been a recent attempt or threat to physically harm self or others, or a recent failure to provide
necessary deleted text beginpersonaldeleted text end food, clothing, shelter, or medical care. Instead, the court must find that
the patient is likely to attempt to physically harm self or others, or to fail to deleted text beginprovidedeleted text endnew text begin obtainnew text end
necessary deleted text beginpersonaldeleted text end food, clothing, shelter, or medical care unless involuntary commitment
is continued.

Sec. 64.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.12, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Record required.

Where continued commitment is ordered, the findings of
fact and conclusions of law shall specifically state the conduct of the proposed patient which
is the basis for the final determination, that the statutory criteria of commitment continue
to be met, and that less restrictive alternatives have been considered and rejected by the
court. Reasons for rejecting each alternative shall be stated. A copy of the final order for
continued commitment shall be forwarded to the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or program
to which the person is committed and, if the patient has been provisionally discharged, to
the designated agency responsible for monitoring the provisional discharge
new text end.

Sec. 65.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.13, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

deleted text beginMentally ill or chemically dependentdeleted text end Personsnew text begin with mental illness or
chemical dependency
new text end.

new text begin(a) new text endIf at the conclusion of a review hearing the court finds that the
person continues to deleted text beginbe mentally ill or chemically dependentdeleted text endnew text begin have mental illness or chemical
dependency
new text end and deleted text beginindeleted text end need deleted text beginofdeleted text end treatment or supervision, the court shall determine the length of
continued commitment. No period of commitment shall exceed this length of time or 12
months, whichever is less.

new text begin (b) new text endAt the conclusion of the prescribed periodnew text begin under paragraph (a)new text end, commitment may
not be continued unless a new petition is filed pursuant to section 253B.07 and hearing and
determination made on it. new text beginIf the petition was filed before the end of the previous commitment
and, for good cause shown, the court has not completed the hearing and the determination
by the end of the commitment period, the court may for good cause extend the previous
commitment for up to 14 days to allow the completion of the hearing and the issuance of
the determination. The standard of proof for the new petition is the standard specified in
section 253B.12, subdivision 4.
new text endNotwithstanding the provisions of section 253B.09,
subdivision 5
, the initial commitment period under the new petition shall be the probable
length of commitment necessary or 12 months, whichever is less. deleted text beginThe standard of proof at
the hearing on the new petition shall be the standard specified in section 253B.12, subdivision
4
.
deleted text end

Sec. 66.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.14, is amended to read:


253B.14 TRANSFER OF COMMITTED PERSONS.

The commissioner may transfer any committed person, other than a person committed
as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous to the public, deleted text beginor asdeleted text end
a sexually dangerous person or deleted text beginasdeleted text end a sexual psychopathic personality, from one deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin
state-operated
new text end treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end to any other new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacility under
the commissioner's jurisdiction which is
deleted text endnew text begin programnew text end capable of providing proper care and
treatment. When a committed person is transferred from one new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text end
new text begin program new text endto another, written notice shall be given to the committing court, the county attorney,
the patient's counsel, and to the person's parent, health care agent, or spouse or, if none is
known, to an interested person, and the designated agency.

Sec. 67.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.141, is amended to read:


253B.141 AUTHORITY TO DETAIN AND TRANSPORT A MISSING PATIENT.

Subdivision 1.

Report of absence.

(a) If a patient committed under this chapter or
detained new text beginin a treatment facility or state-operated treatment program new text endunder a judicial hold is
absent without authorization, and either: (1) does not return voluntarily within 72 hours of
the time the unauthorized absence began; or (2) is considered by the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end
facilitynew text begin or programnew text end to be a danger to self or others, then the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin
or program
new text end shall report the absence to the local law enforcement agency. The head of the
deleted text begin treatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end shall also notify the committing court that the patient is absent
and that the absence has been reported to the local law enforcement agency. The committing
court may issue an order directing the law enforcement agency to transport the patient to
an appropriate new text begintreatment new text endfacilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program
new text end.

(b) Upon receiving a report that a patient subject to this section is absent without
authorization, the local law enforcement agency shall enter information on the patient into
the missing persons file of the National Crime Information Center computer according to
the missing persons practices.

Subd. 2.

Apprehension; return to facilitynew text begin or programnew text end.

(a) Upon receiving the report
of absence from the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end or the committing court, a patient may be apprehended
and held by a peace officer in any jurisdiction pending return to the facilitynew text begin or programnew text end from
which the patient is absent without authorization. A patient may also be returned to any
deleted text begin facility operated by the commissionerdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment program or any other treatment
facility or community-based treatment program willing to accept the person
new text end. A person who
deleted text begin is mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illnessnew text end and new text beginis new text enddangerous new text beginto the public new text endand detained under this
subdivision may be held in a jail or lockup only if:

(1) there is no other feasible place of detention for the patient;

(2) the detention is for less than 24 hours; and

(3) there are protections in place, including segregation of the patient, to ensure the
safety of the patient.

(b) If a patient is detained under this subdivision, the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or
program
new text end from which the patient is absent shall arrange to pick up the patient within 24 hours
of the time detention was begun and shall be responsible for securing transportation for the
patient to the facilitynew text begin or programnew text end. The expense of detaining and transporting a patient shall
be the responsibility of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end from which the patient is absent.
The expense of detaining and transporting a patient to a new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacility
operated by the Department of Human Services
deleted text end new text beginprogram new text endshall be paid by the commissioner
unless paid by the patient or persons on behalf of the patient.

Subd. 3.

Notice of apprehension.

Immediately after an absent patient is located, the
head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end from which the patient is absent, or the law
enforcement agency that located or returned the absent patient, shall notify the law
enforcement agency that first received the absent patient report under this section and that
agency shall cancel the missing persons entry from the National Crime Information Center
computer.

Sec. 68.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Provisional discharge.

new text begin(a) new text endThe head of the treatment facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end may provisionally
discharge any patient without discharging the commitment, unless the patient was found
by the committing court to be a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end
dangerous to the public, deleted text beginordeleted text end a sexually dangerous personnew text begin,new text end or a sexual psychopathic personality.

new text begin (b) When a patient committed to the commissioner becomes ready for provisional
discharge before being placed in a state-operated treatment program, the head of the treatment
facility or community-based treatment program where the patient is placed pending transfer
to the commissioner may provisionally discharge the patient pursuant to this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text endEach patient released on provisional discharge shall have a written deleted text beginaftercaredeleted text endnew text begin
provisional discharge
new text end plan developed new text beginwith input from the patient and the designated agency
new text end which specifies the services and treatment to be provided as part of the deleted text beginaftercaredeleted text endnew text begin provisional
discharge
new text end plan, the financial resources available to pay for the services specified, the expected
period of provisional discharge, the precise goals for the granting of a final discharge, and
conditions or restrictions on the patient during the period of the provisional discharge. The
deleted text begin aftercaredeleted text endnew text begin provisional dischargenew text end plan shall be provided to the patient, the patient's attorney,
and the designated agency.

new text begin (d) new text endThe deleted text beginaftercaredeleted text end new text beginprovisional discharge new text endplan shall be reviewed on a quarterly basis by
the patient, designated agency and other appropriate persons. The deleted text beginaftercaredeleted text endnew text begin provisional
discharge
new text end plan shall contain the grounds upon which a provisional discharge may be revoked.
The provisional discharge shall terminate on the date specified in the plan unless specific
action is taken to revoke or extend it.

Sec. 69.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Representative of designated agency.

Before a provisional discharge is
granted, a representative of the designated agency must be identified to ensure continuity
of care by being involved with the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end and the patient prior to the provisional discharge. The
representative of the designated agency shall coordinate plans for and monitor the patient's
aftercare program. When the patient is on a provisional discharge, the representative of the
designated agency shall provide the treatment report to the court required under section
253B.12, subdivision 1.

Sec. 70.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Revocation of provisional discharge.

new text begin(a) new text endThe designated agency may deleted text beginrevokedeleted text endnew text begin
initiate with the court a revocation of
new text end a provisional discharge ifnew text begin revocation is the least
restrictive alternative and either
new text end:

(1) the patient has violated material conditions of the provisional discharge, and the
violation creates the need to return the patient to a more restrictive settingnew text begin or more intensive
community services
new text end; or

(2) there exists a serious likelihood that the safety of the patient or others will be
jeopardized, in that either the patient's need for food, clothing, shelter, or medical care are
not being met, or will not be met in the near future, or the patient has attempted or threatened
to seriously physically harm self or othersdeleted text begin; anddeleted text endnew text begin.
new text end

deleted text begin (3) revocation is the least restrictive alternative available.
deleted text end

new text begin (b) new text endAny interested person may request that the designated agency revoke the patient's
provisional discharge. Any person making a request shall provide the designated agency
with a written report setting forth the specific facts, including witnesses, dates and locations,
supporting a revocation, demonstrating that every effort has been made to avoid revocation
and that revocation is the least restrictive alternative available.

Sec. 71.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Procedure; notice.

Revocation shall be commenced by the designated agency's
written notice of intent to revoke provisional discharge given or sent to the patient, the
patient's attorney, deleted text beginanddeleted text end the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or program from which the patient was
provisionally discharged, and the current community services provider
new text end. The notice shall set
forth the grounds upon which the intention to revoke is based, and shall inform the patient
of the rights of a patient under this chapter.

Sec. 72.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Report to the court.

Within 48 hours, excluding weekends and new text beginlegal new text endholidays,
of giving notice to the patient, the designated agency shall file with the court a copy of the
notice and a report setting forth the specific facts, including witnesses, dates and locations,
which (1) support revocation, (2) demonstrate that revocation is the least restrictive alternative
available, and (3) show that specific efforts were made to avoid revocation. The designated
agency shall provide copies of the report to the patient, the patient's attorney, the county
attorney, and the treatment facility new text beginor program from which the patient was provisionally
discharged
new text endwithin 48 hours of giving notice to the patient under subdivision 3.

Sec. 73.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 3b, is amended to read:


Subd. 3b.

Review.

The patient or patient's attorney may request judicial review of the
intended revocation by filing a petition for review and an affidavit with the committing
court. The affidavit shall state specific grounds for opposing the revocation. If the patient
does not file a petition for review within five days of receiving the notice under subdivision
3, revocation of the provisional discharge is final and the court, without hearing, may order
the patient into a deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or program from which the patient was provisionally
discharged, another treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based
treatment program that consents to receive the patient, or more intensive community
treatment
new text end. If the patient files a petition for review, the court shall review the petition and
determine whether a genuine issue exists as to the propriety of the revocation. The burden
of proof is on the designated agency to show that no genuine issue exists as to the propriety
of the revocation. If the court finds that no genuine issue exists as to the propriety of the
revocation, the revocation of the provisional discharge is final.

Sec. 74.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 3c, is amended to read:


Subd. 3c.

Hearing.

new text begin(a) new text endIf the court finds under subdivision 3b that a genuine issue exists
as to the propriety of the revocation, the court shall hold a hearing on the petition within
three days after the patient files the petition. The court may continue the review hearing for
an additional five days upon any party's showing of good cause. At the hearing, the burden
of proof is on the designated agency to show a factual basis for the revocation. At the
conclusion of the hearing, the court shall make specific findings of fact. The court shall
affirm the revocation if it finds:

(1) a factual basis for revocation due to:

(i) a violation of the material conditions of the provisional discharge that creates a need
for the patient to return to a more restrictive settingnew text begin or more intensive community servicesnew text end;
or

(ii) a probable danger of harm to the patient or others if the provisional discharge is not
revoked; and

(2) that revocation is the least restrictive alternative available.

new text begin (b) new text endIf the court does not affirm the revocation, the court shall order the patient returned
to provisional discharge status.

Sec. 75.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Return to facility.

When the designated agency gives or sends notice of the
intent to revoke a patient's provisional discharge, it may also apply to the committing court
for an order directing that the patient be returned to deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin thenew text end facilitynew text begin or program from which
the patient was provisionally discharged or another treatment facility, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program that consents to receive the patient
new text end. The
court may order the patient returned to a facility new text beginor program new text endprior to a review hearing only
upon finding that immediate return deleted text beginto a facilitydeleted text end is necessary because there is a serious
likelihood that the safety of the patient or others will be jeopardized, in that (1) the patient's
need for food, clothing, shelter, or medical care is not being met, or will not be met in the
near future, or (2) the patient has attempted or threatened to seriously harm self or others.
If a voluntary return is not arranged, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end may request a health officer or
a peace officer to return the patient to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endfrom which the
patient was released or to any other treatment facility deleted text beginwhichdeleted text endnew text begin, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program that
new text end consents to receive the patient. If
necessary, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end may request the committing court to direct a health
new text begin officer new text endor peace officer in the county where the patient is located to return the patient to the
deleted text begin treatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end or to another treatment facility deleted text beginwhichdeleted text endnew text begin, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program that
new text end consents to receive the patient. The
expense of returning the patient to a deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin state-operatednew text end treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end shall
be paid by the commissioner unless paid by the patient or the patient's relatives. If the court
orders the patient to return to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end, or if a health new text beginofficer new text endor peace
officer returns the patient to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end, and the patient wants judicial
review of the revocation, the patient or the patient's attorney must file the petition for review
and affidavit required under subdivision 3b within 14 days of receipt of the notice of the
intent to revoke.

Sec. 76.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Modification and extension of provisional discharge.

(a) A provisional
discharge may be modified upon agreement of the parties.

(b) A provisional discharge may be extended only in those circumstances where the
patient has not achieved the goals set forth in the provisional discharge plan or continues
to need the supervision or assistance provided by an extension of the provisional discharge.
In determining whether the provisional discharge is to be extended, the deleted text beginhead of the facilitydeleted text endnew text begin
designated agency
new text end shall consider the willingness and ability of the patient to voluntarily
obtain needed care and treatment.

deleted text begin (c) The designated agency shall recommend extension of a provisional discharge only
after a preliminary conference with the patient and other appropriate persons. The patient
shall be given the opportunity to object or make suggestions for alternatives to extension.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end new text beginThe designated agency must provide new text endany deleted text beginrecommendation fordeleted text endnew text begin proposednew text end extension
deleted text begin shall be madedeleted text end in writing deleted text beginto the head of the facility anddeleted text end to the patient new text beginand the patient's attorney
new text end at least 30 days prior to the expiration of the provisional dischargenew text begin unless the patient cannot
be located or is unavailable to receive the notice
new text end. The deleted text beginwritten recommendation submitteddeleted text endnew text begin
proposal for extension
new text end shall include: the specific grounds for deleted text beginrecommendingdeleted text endnew text begin proposingnew text end the
extension, deleted text beginthe date of the preliminary conference and results,deleted text end the anniversary date of the
provisional discharge, the termination date of the provisional discharge, and the proposed
length of extension. If the grounds for deleted text beginrecommendingdeleted text endnew text begin proposingnew text end the extension occur less
than 30 days before its expiration, the new text begindesignated agency must submit the new text endwritten
deleted text begin recommendation shall occurdeleted text end new text beginproposal for extension new text endas soon as practicable.

deleted text begin (e) The head of the facilitydeleted text endnew text begin (d) The designated agency shall extend a provisional discharge
only after providing the patient an opportunity for a meeting to object or make suggestions
for alternatives to an extension. The designated agency
new text end shall deleted text beginissuedeleted text endnew text begin providenew text end a written decision
new text begin to the patient and the patient's attorney new text endregarding extension within five days after receiving
deleted text begin the recommendation from the designated agencydeleted text endnew text begin the patient's input or after holding a meeting
with the patient or after the patient has declined to provide input or participate in the meeting.
The designated agency may seek input from the community-based treatment team or other
persons the patient chooses
new text end.

Sec. 77.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 8a. new text end

new text begin Provisional discharge extension. new text end

new text begin If the provisional discharge extends until
the end of the period of commitment and, before the commitment expires, the court extends
the commitment under section 253B.12 or issues a new commitment order under section
253B.13, the provisional discharge shall continue for the duration of the new or extended
period of commitment ordered unless the commitment order provides otherwise or the
designated agency revokes the patient's provisional discharge pursuant to this section. To
continue the patient's provisional discharge under this subdivision, the designated agency
is not required to comply with the procedures in subdivision 7.
new text end

Sec. 78.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Expiration of provisional discharge.

new text begin(a) new text endExcept as otherwise provided, a
provisional discharge is absolute when it expires. If, while on provisional discharge or
extended provisional discharge, a patient is discharged as provided in section 253B.16, the
discharge shall be absolute.

new text begin (b) The designated agency shall give new text endnotice of the expiration of the provisional discharge
deleted text begin shall be given by the head of the treatment facilitydeleted text end to the committing court; the petitioner,
if known; the patient's attorney; the county attorney in the county of commitment; deleted text beginthe
commissioner;
deleted text end and the deleted text begindesignated agencydeleted text endnew text begin facility or program that provisionally discharged
the patient
new text end.

Sec. 79.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.15, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Voluntary return.

new text begin(a) new text endWith the consent of the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin
or state-operated treatment program
new text end, a patient may voluntarily return to inpatient status deleted text beginat
the treatment facility
deleted text end as follows:

(1) as a voluntary patient, in which case the patient's commitment is discharged;

(2) as a committed patient, in which case the patient's provisional discharge is voluntarily
revoked; or

(3) on temporary return from provisional discharge, in which case both the commitment
and the provisional discharge remain in effect.

new text begin (b) new text endPrior to readmission, the patient shall be informed of status upon readmission.

Sec. 80.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.16, is amended to read:


253B.16 DISCHARGE OF COMMITTED PERSONS.

Subdivision 1.

Date.

The head of a treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program,
or community-based treatment program
new text end shall discharge any patient admitted as a person
deleted text begin who is mentally ill or chemically dependent, or a person with adeleted text end new text beginwho poses a risk of harm
due to mental illness, or a person who has a chemical dependency or a
new text enddevelopmental
disability deleted text beginadmitted under Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, deleted text enddeleted text beginrules 20.01deleted text enddeleted text begin and deleted text enddeleted text begin20.02deleted text enddeleted text begin,
to the secure bed component of the Minnesota extended treatment options
deleted text end when the head
of the facilitynew text begin or programnew text end certifies that the person is no longer in need of care and treatment
new text begin under commitment new text endor at the conclusion of any period of time specified in the commitment
order, whichever occurs first. The head of a deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end shall discharge
any person admitted as deleted text begindevelopmentally disabled, except those admitted under Minnesota
Rules of Criminal Procedure,
deleted text enddeleted text beginrules 20.01deleted text enddeleted text begin and deleted text enddeleted text begin20.02deleted text enddeleted text begin, to the secure bed component of the
Minnesota extended treatment options,
deleted text endnew text begin a person with a developmental disabilitynew text end when that
person's screening team has determined, under section 256B.092, subdivision 8, that the
person's needs can be met by services provided in the community and a plan has been
developed in consultation with the interdisciplinary team to place the person in the available
community services.

Subd. 2.

Notification of discharge.

Prior to the discharge or provisional discharge of
any committed deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end, the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment
program, or community-based treatment program
new text end shall notify the designated agency and
the patient's spouse or health care agent, or if there is no spouse or health care agent, then
an adult child, or if there is none, the next of kin of the patient, of the proposed discharge.
new text begin The facility or program shall send new text endthe notice deleted text beginshall be sent to the last known address of the
person to be notified by certified mail with return receipt. The notice
deleted text endnew text begin in writing andnew text end shall
include the following: (1) the proposed date of discharge or provisional discharge; (2) the
date, time and place of the meeting of the staff who have been treating the patient to discuss
discharge and discharge planning; (3) the fact that the patient will be present at the meeting;
and (4) the fact that the next of kin or health care agent may attend that staff meeting and
present any information relevant to the discharge of the patient. deleted text beginThe notice shall be sent at
least one week prior to the date set for the meeting.
deleted text end

Sec. 81.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.17, is amended to read:


253B.17 RELEASE; JUDICIAL DETERMINATION.

Subdivision 1.

Petition.

Any patient, except one committed as a sexually dangerous
person or a person with a sexual psychopathic personality or as a person who deleted text beginis mentally
ill and
deleted text end new text beginhas a mental illness and is new text enddangerous to the public as provided in section 253B.18,
subdivision 3
, or any interested person may petition the committing court or the court to
which venue has been transferred for an order that the patient is not in need of continued
care and treatment new text beginunder commitment new text endor for an order that an individual is no longer a person
deleted text begin who is mentally ill, developmentally disabled, or chemically dependentdeleted text endnew text begin who poses a risk
of harm due to mental illness, or a person who has a developmental disability or chemical
dependency
new text end, or for any other relief. A patient committed as a person deleted text beginwho is mentally ill or
mentally ill and
deleted text endnew text begin who poses a risk of harm due to mental illness, a person who has a mental
illness and is
new text end dangerous deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin to the public,new text end a sexually dangerous personnew text begin,new text end or new text begina new text endperson with a
sexual psychopathic personality may petition the committing court or the court to which
venue has been transferred for a hearing concerning the administration of neuroleptic
medication.

Subd. 2.

Notice of hearing.

Upon the filing of the petition, the court shall fix the time
and place for the hearing on it. Ten days' notice of the hearing shall be given to the county
attorney, the patient, patient's counsel, the person who filed the initial commitment petition,
the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or program to which the person is committednew text end, and other
persons as the court directs. Any person may oppose the petition.

Subd. 3.

new text beginCourt new text endexaminers.

The court shall appoint deleted text beginandeleted text endnew text begin a courtnew text end examiner and, at the
patient's request, shall appoint a second new text begincourt new text endexaminer of the patient's choosing to be paid
for by the county at a rate of compensation to be fixed by the court. Unless otherwise agreed
by the parties, deleted text beginthe examinersdeleted text end new text begina court examiner new text endshall file a report with the court not less than
48 hours prior to the hearing under this section.

Subd. 4.

Evidence.

The patient, patient's counsel, the petitionernew text begin,new text end and the county attorney
shall be entitled to be present at the hearing and to present and cross-examine witnesses,
including new text begincourt new text endexaminers. The court may hear any relevant testimony and evidence deleted text beginwhich
is
deleted text end offered at the hearing.

Subd. 5.

Order.

Upon completion of the hearing, the court shall enter an order stating
its findings and decision and mail deleted text beginitdeleted text endnew text begin the ordernew text end to the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin,
state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end.

Sec. 82.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Procedure.

(a) Upon the filing of a petition alleging that a proposed
patient is a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous to the public,
the court shall hear the petition as provided in sections 253B.07 and 253B.08. If the court
finds by clear and convincing evidence that the proposed patient is a person who deleted text beginis mentally
ill and
deleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous to the public, it shall commit the person to a
secure treatment facility or to a treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end willing
to accept the patient under commitment. The court shall commit the patient to a secure
treatment facility unless the patient deleted text beginestablishesdeleted text endnew text begin or others establishnew text end by clear and convincing
evidence that a less restrictive new text beginstate-operated treatment program or new text endtreatment deleted text beginprogramdeleted text endnew text begin facilitynew text end
is available that is consistent with the patient's treatment needs and the requirements of
public safety. In any case where the petition was filed immediately following the acquittal
of the proposed patient for a crime against the person pursuant to a verdict of not guilty by
reason of mental illness, the verdict constitutes evidence that the proposed patient is a person
who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous new text beginto the public new text endwithin the meaning
of this section. The proposed patient has the burden of going forward in the presentation of
evidence. The standard of proof remains as required by this chapter. Upon commitment,
admission procedures shall be carried out pursuant to section 253B.10.

(b) Once a patient is admitted to a treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end
pursuant to a commitment under this subdivision, treatment must begin regardless of whether
a review hearing will be held under subdivision 2.

Sec. 83.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Review; hearing.

(a) A written treatment report shall be filed by the treatment
facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end with the committing court within 60 days after
commitment. If the person is in the custody of the commissioner of corrections when the
initial commitment is ordered under subdivision 1, the written treatment report must be filed
within 60 days after the person is admitted to deleted text begina securedeleted text endnew text begin the state-operated treatment program
or
new text end treatment facility. The court shall hold a hearing to make a final determination as to
whether the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end should remain committed as a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin
has a mental illness and is
new text end dangerous to the public. The hearing shall be held within the
earlier of 14 days of the court's receipt of the written treatment report, or within 90 days of
the date of initial commitment or admission, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.

(b) The court may, with agreement of the county attorney and new text beginthe patient's new text endattorney deleted text beginfor
the patient
deleted text end:

(1) waive the review hearing under this subdivision and immediately order an
indeterminate commitment under subdivision 3; or

(2) continue the review hearing for up to one year.

(c) If the court finds that the patient should be committed as a person deleted text beginwho is mentally
ill
deleted text endnew text begin who poses a risk of harm due to mental illnessnew text end, but not as a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill
and
deleted text end new text beginhas a mental illness and is new text enddangerous to the public, the court may commit the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin
patient
new text end as a person deleted text beginwho is mentally illdeleted text endnew text begin who poses a risk of harm due to mental illnessnew text end and
the deleted text beginperson shall be deemeddeleted text endnew text begin court shall deem the patientnew text end not to deleted text beginhave been found todeleted text end be
dangerous to the public for the purposes of subdivisions 4a to 15. Failure of the treatment
facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endto provide the required new text begintreatment new text endreport at the
end of the 60-day period shall not result in automatic discharge of the patient.

Sec. 84.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Indeterminate commitment.

If the court finds at the final determination hearing
held pursuant to subdivision 2 that the patient continues to be a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill
and
deleted text end new text beginhas a mental illness and is new text enddangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end, then the court shall order commitment
of the proposed patient for an indeterminate period of time. After a final determination that
a patient is a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous to the
public, the patient shall be transferred, provisionally discharged or discharged, only as
provided in this section.

Sec. 85.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:


Subd. 4a.

Release on pass; notification.

A patient who has been committed as a person
who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous new text beginto the public new text endand who is confined
at a secure treatment facility or has been transferred out of a deleted text beginstate-operated servicesdeleted text endnew text begin secure
treatment
new text end facility according to section 253B.18, subdivision 6, shall not be released on a
pass unless the pass is part of a pass plan that has been approved by the medical director of
the secure treatment facility. The pass plan must have a specific therapeutic purpose
consistent with the treatment plan, must be established for a specific period of time, and
must have specific levels of liberty delineated. The county case manager must be invited
to participate in the development of the pass plan. At least ten days prior to a determination
on the plan, the medical director shall notify the designated agency, the committing court,
the county attorney of the county of commitment, an interested person, the local law
enforcement agency where the facility is located, the county attorney and the local law
enforcement agency in the location where the pass is to occur, the petitioner, and the
petitioner's counsel of the plan, the nature of the passes proposed, and their right to object
to the plan. If any notified person objects prior to the proposed date of implementation, the
person shall have an opportunity to appear, personally or in writing, before the medical
director, within ten days of the objection, to present grounds for opposing the plan. The
pass plan shall not be implemented until the objecting person has been furnished that
opportunity. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to give a patient an affirmative
right to a pass plan.

Sec. 86.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 4b, is amended to read:


Subd. 4b.

Pass-eligible status; notification.

new text begin(a) new text endThe following patients committed to a
secure treatment facility shall not be placed on pass-eligible status unless that status has
been approved by the medical director of the secure treatment facility:

deleted text begin (a)deleted text endnew text begin (1)new text end a patient who has been committed as a person who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental
illness and is
new text end dangerous new text beginto the public new text endand who:

deleted text begin (1)deleted text endnew text begin (i)new text end was found incompetent to proceed to trial for a felony or was found not guilty by
reason of mental illness of a felony immediately prior to the filing of the commitment
petition;

deleted text begin (2)deleted text endnew text begin (ii)new text end was convicted of a felony immediately prior to or during commitment as a person
who deleted text beginis mentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end; or

deleted text begin (3)deleted text endnew text begin (iii)new text end is subject to a commitment to the commissioner of corrections; and

deleted text begin (b)deleted text endnew text begin (2)new text end a patient who has been committed as a psychopathic personality, a sexually
psychopathic personality, or a sexually dangerous person.

new text begin (b) new text endAt least ten days prior to a determination on the status, the medical director shall
notify the committing court, the county attorney of the county of commitment, the designated
agency, an interested person, the petitioner, and the petitioner's counsel of the proposed
status, and their right to request review by the special review board. If within ten days of
receiving notice any notified person requests review by filing a notice of objection with the
commissioner and the head of the new text beginsecure new text endtreatment facility, a hearing shall be held before
the special review board. The proposed status shall not be implemented unless it receives
a favorable recommendation by a majority of the board and approval by the commissioner.
The order of the commissioner is appealable as provided in section 253B.19.

new text begin (c) new text endNothing in this subdivision shall be construed to give a patient an affirmative right
to seek pass-eligible status from the special review board.

Sec. 87.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 4c, is amended to read:


Subd. 4c.

Special review board.

(a) The commissioner shall establish one or more
panels of a special review board. The board shall consist of three members experienced in
the field of mental illness. One member of each special review board panel shall be a
psychiatrist or a doctoral level psychologist with forensic experience and one member shall
be an attorney. No member shall be affiliated with the Department of Human Services. The
special review board shall meet at least every six months and at the call of the commissioner.
It shall hear and consider all petitions for a reduction in custody or to appeal a revocation
of provisional discharge. A "reduction in custody" means transfer from a secure treatment
facility, discharge, and provisional discharge. Patients may be transferred by the
commissioner between secure treatment facilities without a special review board hearing.

Members of the special review board shall receive compensation and reimbursement
for expenses as established by the commissioner.

(b) The special review board must review each denied petition under subdivision 5 for
barriers and obstacles preventing the patient from progressing in treatment. Based on the
cases before the board in the previous year, the special review board shall provide to the
commissioner an annual summation of the barriers to treatment progress, and
recommendations to achieve the common goal of making progress in treatment.

(c) A petition filed by a person committed as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text end new text begina person who has a mental
illness and is
new text enddangerous to the public under this section must be heard as provided in
subdivision 5 and, as applicable, subdivision 13. A petition filed by a person committed as
a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually dangerous person under chapter 253D,
or committed as both deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental illness and isnew text end dangerous
to the public under this section and as a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually
dangerous person must be heard as provided in section 253D.27.

Sec. 88.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Petition; notice of hearing; attendance; order.

(a) A petition for a reduction
in custody or revocation of provisional discharge shall be filed with the commissioner and
may be filed by the patient or by the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment
program to which the person was committed or has been transferred
new text end. A patient may not
petition the special review board for six months following commitment under subdivision
3 or following the final disposition of any previous petition and subsequent appeal by the
patient. The head of the new text beginstate-operated treatment program or head of the new text endtreatment facility
must schedule a hearing before the special review board for any patient who has not appeared
before the special review board in the previous three years, and schedule a hearing at least
every three years thereafter. The medical director may petition at any time.

(b) Fourteen days prior to the hearing, the committing court, the county attorney of the
county of commitment, the designated agency, interested person, the petitioner, and the
petitioner's counsel shall be given written notice by the commissioner of the time and place
of the hearing before the special review board. Only those entitled to statutory notice of the
hearing or those administratively required to attend may be present at the hearing. The
patient may designate interested persons to receive notice by providing the names and
addresses to the commissioner at least 21 days before the hearing. The board shall provide
the commissioner with written findings of fact and recommendations within 21 days of the
hearing. The commissioner shall issue an order no later than 14 days after receiving the
recommendation of the special review board. A copy of the order shall be mailed to every
person entitled to statutory notice of the hearing within five days after deleted text beginitdeleted text endnew text begin the ordernew text end is signed.
No order by the commissioner shall be effective sooner than 30 days after the order is signed,
unless the county attorney, the patient, and the commissioner agree that it may become
effective sooner.

(c) The special review board shall hold a hearing on each petition prior to making its
recommendation to the commissioner. The special review board proceedings are not contested
cases as defined in chapter 14. Any person or agency receiving notice that submits
documentary evidence to the special review board prior to the hearing shall also provide
copies to the patient, the patient's counsel, the county attorney of the county of commitment,
the case manager, and the commissioner.

(d) Prior to the final decision by the commissioner, the special review board may be
reconvened to consider events or circumstances that occurred subsequent to the hearing.

(e) In making their recommendations and order, the special review board and
commissioner must consider any statements received from victims under subdivision 5a.

Sec. 89.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 5a, is amended to read:


Subd. 5a.

Victim notification of petition and release; right to submit statement.

(a)
As used in this subdivision:

(1) "crime" has the meaning given to "violent crime" in section 609.1095, and includes
criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree and offenses within the definition of "crime
against the person" in section 253B.02, subdivision 4a, and also includes offenses listed in
section 253D.02, subdivision 8, paragraph (b), regardless of whether they are sexually
motivated;

(2) "victim" means a person who has incurred loss or harm as a result of a crime the
behavior for which forms the basis for a commitment under this section or chapter 253D;
and

(3) "convicted" and "conviction" have the meanings given in section 609.02, subdivision
5
, and also include juvenile court adjudications, findings under Minnesota Rules of Criminal
Procedure, rule 20.02, that the elements of a crime have been proved, and findings in
commitment cases under this section or chapter 253D that an act or acts constituting a crime
occurred.

(b) A county attorney who files a petition to commit a person under this section or chapter
253D shall make a reasonable effort to provide prompt notice of filing the petition to any
victim of a crime for which the person was convicted. In addition, the county attorney shall
make a reasonable effort to promptly notify the victim of the resolution of the petition.

(c) Before provisionally discharging, discharging, granting pass-eligible status, approving
a pass plan, or otherwise permanently or temporarily releasing a person committed under
this section from a new text beginstate-operated treatment program or new text endtreatment facility, the head of the
new text begin state-operated treatment program or head of the new text endtreatment facility shall make a reasonable
effort to notify any victim of a crime for which the person was convicted that the person
may be discharged or released and that the victim has a right to submit a written statement
regarding decisions of the medical director, special review board, or commissioner with
respect to the person. To the extent possible, the notice must be provided at least 14 days
before any special review board hearing or before a determination on a pass plan.
Notwithstanding section 611A.06, subdivision 4, the commissioner shall provide the judicial
appeal panel with victim information in order to comply with the provisions of this section.
The judicial appeal panel shall ensure that the data on victims remains private as provided
for in section 611A.06, subdivision 4.

(d) This subdivision applies only to victims who have requested notification through
the Department of Corrections electronic victim notification system, or by contacting, in
writing, the county attorney in the county where the conviction for the crime occurred. A
request for notice under this subdivision received by the commissioner of corrections through
the Department of Corrections electronic victim notification system shall be promptly
forwarded to the prosecutorial authority with jurisdiction over the offense to which the
notice relates or, following commitment, the head of the new text beginstate-operated treatment program
or head of the
new text endtreatment facility. A county attorney who receives a request for notification
under this paragraph following commitment shall promptly forward the request to the
commissioner of human services.

(e) The rights under this subdivision are in addition to rights available to a victim under
chapter 611A. This provision does not give a victim all the rights of a "notified person" or
a person "entitled to statutory notice" under subdivision 4a, 4b, or 5 or section 253D.14.

Sec. 90.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Transfer.

new text begin(a) new text endA patient who is deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental
illness and is
new text end dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end shall not be transferred out of a secure treatment facility
unless it appears to the satisfaction of the commissioner, after a hearing and favorable
recommendation by a majority of the special review board, that the transfer is appropriate.
Transfer may be to deleted text beginother regional centers under the commissioner's controldeleted text endnew text begin another
state-operated treatment program
new text end. In those instances where a commitment also exists to the
Department of Corrections, transfer may be to a facility designated by the commissioner of
corrections.

new text begin (b) new text endThe following factors must be considered in determining whether a transfer is
appropriate:

(1) the person's clinical progress and present treatment needs;

(2) the need for security to accomplish continuing treatment;

(3) the need for continued institutionalization;

(4) which facility can best meet the person's needs; and

(5) whether transfer can be accomplished with a reasonable degree of safety for the
public.

Sec. 91.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Provisional discharge.

new text begin(a) new text endA patient who is deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has
a mental illness and is
new text end dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end shall not be provisionally discharged unless
it appears to the satisfaction of the commissioner, after a hearing and a favorable
recommendation by a majority of the special review board, that the patient is capable of
making an acceptable adjustment to open society.

new text begin (b) new text endThe following factors are to be considered in determining whether a provisional
discharge shall be recommended: (1) whether the patient's course of hospitalization and
present mental status indicate there is no longer a need for treatment and supervision in the
patient's current treatment setting; and (2) whether the conditions of the provisional discharge
plan will provide a reasonable degree of protection to the public and will enable the patient
to adjust successfully to the community.

Sec. 92.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Provisional discharge plan.

A provisional discharge plan shall be developed,
implementednew text begin,new text end and monitored by the designated agency in conjunction with the patient, the
treatment facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment program to which the person is committed,new text end
and other appropriate persons. The designated agency shall, at least quarterly, review the
new text begin provisional discharge new text endplan with the patient and submit a written report to deleted text beginthe commissioner
and
deleted text end the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endconcerning the patient's status and compliance with
each term of the new text beginprovisional discharge new text endplan.

Sec. 93.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Provisional discharge; revocation.

new text begin(a) new text endThe head of the treatment facility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program from which the person was provisionally discharged
new text endmay
revoke a provisional discharge if any of the following grounds exist:

(i) the patient has departed from the conditions of the provisional discharge plan;

(ii) the patient is exhibiting signs of a mental illness which may require in-hospital
evaluation or treatment; or

(iii) the patient is exhibiting behavior which may be dangerous to self or others.

new text begin (b) new text endRevocation shall be commenced by a notice of intent to revoke provisional discharge,
which shall be served upon the patient, patient's counsel, and the designated agency. The
notice shall set forth the grounds upon which the intention to revoke is based, and shall
inform the patient of the rights of a patient under this chapter.

new text begin (c) new text endIn all nonemergency situations, prior to revoking a provisional discharge, the head
of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endshall obtain a new text beginrevocation new text endreport from the designated
agency outlining the specific reasons for recommending the revocation, including but not
limited to the specific facts upon which the revocation recommendation is based.

new text begin (d) new text endThe patient must be provided a copy of the revocation report and informed orally
and in writing of the rights of a patient under this section.

Sec. 94.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 11, is amended to read:


Subd. 11.

Exceptions.

If an emergency exists, the head of the treatment facility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program
new text endmay revoke the provisional discharge and, either orally
or in writing, order that the patient be immediately returned to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or
program
new text end. In emergency cases, a new text beginrevocation new text endreport deleted text begindocumenting reasons for revocationdeleted text end shall
be submitted by the designated agency within seven days after the patient is returned to the
deleted text begin treatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end.

Sec. 95.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Return of patient.

After revocation of a provisional discharge or if the patient
is absent without authorization, the head of the treatment facility new text beginor state-operated treatment
program
new text endmay request the patient to return to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endvoluntarily.
The head of the new text begintreatment new text endfacility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endmay request a health
officerdeleted text begin, a welfare officer,deleted text end or a peace officer to return the patient to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or
program
new text end. If a voluntary return is not arranged, the head of the treatment facility new text beginor
state-operated treatment program
new text endshall inform the committing court of the revocation or
absence and the court shall direct a health or peace officer in the county where the patient
is located to return the patient to the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facility new text beginor program new text endor to another new text beginstate-operated
treatment program or to another
new text endtreatment facilitynew text begin willing to accept the patientnew text end. The expense
of returning the patient to a deleted text beginregionaldeleted text endnew text begin state-operatednew text end treatment deleted text begincenterdeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end shall be paid
by the commissioner unless paid by the patient or other persons on the patient's behalf.

Sec. 96.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 14, is amended to read:


Subd. 14.

Voluntary readmission.

(a) With the consent of the head of the treatment
facilitynew text begin or state-operated treatment programnew text end, a patient may voluntarily return from provisional
discharge for a period of up to 30 days, or up to 60 days with the consent of the designated
agency. If the patient is not returned to provisional discharge status within 60 days, the
provisional discharge is revoked. Within 15 days of receiving notice of the change in status,
the patient may request a review of the matter before the special review board. The board
may recommend a return to a provisional discharge status.

(b) The treatment facility new text beginor state-operated treatment program new text endis not required to petition
for a further review by the special review board unless the patient's return to the community
results in substantive change to the existing provisional discharge plan. All the terms and
conditions of the provisional discharge order shall remain unchanged if the patient is released
again.

Sec. 97.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.18, subdivision 15, is amended to read:


Subd. 15.

Discharge.

new text begin(a) new text endA patient who is deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person who has a mental
illness and is
new text end dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end shall not be discharged unless it appears to the
satisfaction of the commissioner, after a hearing and a favorable recommendation by a
majority of the special review board, that the patient is capable of making an acceptable
adjustment to open society, is no longer dangerous to the public, and is no longer in need
of treatment and supervision.

new text begin (b) new text endIn determining whether a discharge shall be recommended, the special review board
and commissioner shall consider whether specific conditions exist to provide a reasonable
degree of protection to the public and to assist the patient in adjusting to the community. If
the desired conditions do not exist, the discharge shall not be granted.

Sec. 98.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.19, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Petition; hearing.

(a) A deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end committed as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text end new text begina person
who has a mental illness and is
new text enddangerous to the public under section 253B.18, or the county
attorney of the county from which the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end was committed or the county of financial
responsibility, may petition the judicial appeal panel for a rehearing and reconsideration of
a decision by the commissioner under section 253B.18, subdivision 5. The judicial appeal
panel must not consider petitions for relief other than those considered by the commissioner
from which the appeal is taken. The petition must be filed with the supreme court within
30 days after the decision of the commissioner is signed. The hearing must be held within
45 days of the filing of the petition unless an extension is granted for good cause.

(b) For an appeal under paragraph (a), the supreme court shall refer the petition to the
chief judge of the judicial appeal panel. The chief judge shall notify the patient, the county
attorney of the county of commitment, the designated agency, the commissioner, the head
of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or program to which the patient was committednew text end, any interested
person, and other persons the chief judge designates, of the time and place of the hearing
on the petition. The notice shall be given at least 14 days prior to the date of the hearing.

(c) Any person may oppose the petition. The patient, the patient's counsel, the county
attorney of the committing county or the county of financial responsibility, and the
commissioner shall participate as parties to the proceeding pending before the judicial appeal
panel and shall, except when the patient is committed solely as deleted text beginmentally ill anddeleted text endnew text begin a person
who has a mental illness and is
new text end dangerousnew text begin to the publicnew text end, no later than 20 days before the
hearing on the petition, inform the judicial appeal panel and the opposing party in writing
whether they support or oppose the petition and provide a summary of facts in support of
their position. The judicial appeal panel may appoint new text begincourt new text endexaminers and may adjourn the
hearing from time to time. It shall hear and receive all relevant testimony and evidence and
make a record of all proceedings. The patient, the patient's counsel, and the county attorney
of the committing county or the county of financial responsibility have the right to be present
and may present and cross-examine all witnesses and offer a factual and legal basis in
support of their positions. The petitioning party seeking discharge or provisional discharge
bears the burden of going forward with the evidence, which means presenting a prima facie
case with competent evidence to show that the person is entitled to the requested relief. If
the petitioning party has met this burden, the party opposing discharge or provisional
discharge bears the burden of proof by clear and convincing evidence that the discharge or
provisional discharge should be denied. A party seeking transfer under section 253B.18,
subdivision 6, must establish by a preponderance of the evidence that the transfer is
appropriate.

Sec. 99.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.20, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Notice to court.

When a committed person is discharged, provisionally
discharged, new text beginor new text endtransferred to another treatment facility, deleted text beginor partially hospitalizeddeleted text endnew text begin state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end, or when the deleted text beginpersondeleted text endnew text begin patientnew text end
dies, is absent without authorization, or is returned, the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end having custody of the patient
shall notify the committing court, the county attorney, and the patient's attorney.

Sec. 100.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.20, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Necessities.

The deleted text beginhead of thedeleted text end new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end shall
make necessary arrangements at the expense of the state to insure that no patient is discharged
or provisionally discharged without suitable clothing. The head of the new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment
deleted text begin facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end shall, if necessary, provide the patient with a sufficient sum of money to
secure transportation home, or to another destination of the patient's choice, if the destination
is located within a reasonable distance of the new text beginstate-operated new text endtreatment deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end. The
commissioner shall establish procedures by rule to help the patient receive all public
assistance benefits provided by state or federal law to which the patient is entitled by
residence and circumstances. The rule shall be uniformly applied in all counties. All counties
shall provide temporary relief whenever necessary to meet the intent of this subdivision.

Sec. 101.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.20, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Notice to designated agency.

The head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end, upon the provisional discharge
of any committed person, shall notify the designated agency before the patient leaves the
deleted text begin treatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin or programnew text end. Whenever possible the notice shall be given at least one week
before the patient is to leave the facilitynew text begin or programnew text end.

Sec. 102.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.20, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Aftercare services.

Prior to the date of discharge or provisional discharge of
any committed person, the designated agency of the county of financial responsibility, in
cooperation with the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or
community-based treatment program
new text end, and the patient's deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin mental health professionalnew text end,
if notified pursuant to subdivision 6, shall establish a continuing plan of aftercare services
for the patient including a plan for medical and psychiatric treatment, nursing care, vocational
assistance, and other assistance the patient needs. The designated agency shall provide case
management services, supervise and assist the patient in finding employment, suitable
shelter, and adequate medical and psychiatric treatment, and aid in the patient's readjustment
to the community.

Sec. 103.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.20, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Notice to deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text end new text beginmental health professionalnew text end.

The head of the treatment
facilitynew text begin, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment programnew text end shall
notify the deleted text beginphysiciandeleted text endnew text begin mental health professionalnew text end of any committed person at the time of the
patient's discharge or provisional discharge, unless the patient objects to the notice.

Sec. 104.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.21, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Administrative procedures.

If the patient is entitled to care by any
agency of the United States in this state, the commitment warrant shall be in triplicate,
committing the patient to the joint custody of the head of the treatment facilitynew text begin, state-operated
treatment program, or community-based treatment program
new text end and the federal agency. If the
federal agency is unable or unwilling to receive the patient at the time of commitment, the
patient may subsequently be transferred to it upon its request.

Sec. 105.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.21, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Applicable regulations.

Any person, when admitted to an institution of a
federal agency within or without this state, shall be subject to the rules and regulations of
the federal agency, except that nothing in this section shall deprive any person of rights
secured to patients of deleted text beginstatedeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programs,new text end treatment facilitiesnew text begin, and
community-based treatment programs
new text end by this chapter.

Sec. 106.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.21, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Powers.

The chief officer of any treatment facility operated by a federal agency
to which any person is admitted shall have the same powers as the heads of deleted text begintreatment
facilities
deleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programsnew text end within this state with respect to admission,
retention of custody, transfer, parole, or discharge of the committed person.

Sec. 107.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.212, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Cost of care; commitment by tribal court order; Red Lake Band of
Chippewa Indians.

The commissioner of human services may contract with and receive
payment from the Indian Health Service of the United States Department of Health and
Human Services for the care and treatment of those members of the Red Lake Band of
Chippewa Indians who have been committed by tribal court order to the Indian Health
Service for care and treatment of mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical
dependency. The contract shall provide that the Indian Health Service may not transfer any
person for admission to a deleted text beginregional centerdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end unless the
commitment procedure utilized by the tribal court provided due process protections similar
to those afforded by sections deleted text begin253B.05deleted text end to 253B.10.

Sec. 108.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.212, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Cost of care; commitment by tribal court order; White Earth Band of
Ojibwe Indians.

The commissioner of human services may contract with and receive
payment from the Indian Health Service of the United States Department of Health and
Human Services for the care and treatment of those members of the White Earth Band of
Ojibwe Indians who have been committed by tribal court order to the Indian Health Service
for care and treatment of mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical dependency.
The tribe may also contract directly with the commissioner for treatment of those members
of the White Earth Band who have been committed by tribal court order to the White Earth
Department of Health for care and treatment of mental illness, developmental disability, or
chemical dependency. The contract shall provide that the Indian Health Service and the
White Earth Band shall not transfer any person for admission to a deleted text beginregional centerdeleted text endnew text begin
state-operated treatment program
new text end unless the commitment procedure utilized by the tribal
court provided due process protections similar to those afforded by sections deleted text begin253B.05deleted text end to 253B.10.

Sec. 109.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.212, subdivision 1b, is amended to read:


Subd. 1b.

Cost of care; commitment by tribal court order; any federally recognized
Indian tribe within the state of Minnesota.

The commissioner of human services may
contract with and receive payment from the Indian Health Service of the United States
Department of Health and Human Services for the care and treatment of those members of
any federally recognized Indian tribe within the state, who have been committed by tribal
court order to the Indian Health Service for care and treatment of mental illness,
developmental disability, or chemical dependency. The tribe may also contract directly with
the commissioner for treatment of those members of any federally recognized Indian tribe
within the state who have been committed by tribal court order to the respective tribal
Department of Health for care and treatment of mental illness, developmental disability, or
chemical dependency. The contract shall provide that the Indian Health Service and any
federally recognized Indian tribe within the state shall not transfer any person for admission
to a deleted text beginregional centerdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end unless the commitment procedure
utilized by the tribal court provided due process protections similar to those afforded by
sections deleted text begin253B.05deleted text end to 253B.10.

Sec. 110.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.212, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Effect given to tribal commitment order.

new text begin(a) new text endWhen, under an agreement
entered into pursuant to subdivision 1, 1a, or 1b, the Indian Health Service or the placing
tribe applies to a deleted text beginregional centerdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end for admission of a person
committed to the jurisdiction of the health service by the tribal court deleted text beginas a person who is
mentally ill, developmentally disabled, or chemically dependent
deleted text endnew text begin due to mental illness,
developmental disability, or chemical dependency
new text end, the commissioner may treat the patient
with the consent of the Indian Health Service or the placing tribe.

new text begin (b) new text endA person admitted to a deleted text beginregional centerdeleted text endnew text begin state-operated treatment programnew text end pursuant to
this section has all the rights accorded by section 253B.03. In addition, treatment reports,
prepared in accordance with the requirements of section 253B.12, subdivision 1, shall be
filed with the Indian Health Service or the placing tribe within 60 days of commencement
of the patient's stay at the deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end. A subsequent treatment report shall be filed with
the Indian Health Service or the placing tribe within six months of the patient's admission
to the deleted text beginfacilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end or prior to discharge, whichever comes first. Provisional discharge
or transfer of the patient may be authorized by the head of the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end
only with the consent of the Indian Health Service or the placing tribe. Discharge from the
deleted text begin facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end to the Indian Health Service or the placing tribe may be authorized by the
head of the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end after notice to and consultation with the Indian Health
Service or the placing tribe.

Sec. 111.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.22, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Establishment.

The commissioner shall establish a review board of three
or more persons for deleted text begineach regional centerdeleted text endnew text begin the Anoka-Metro Regional Treatment Center,
Minnesota Security Hospital, and Minnesota sex offender program
new text end to review the admission
and retention of deleted text beginitsdeleted text end patients new text beginof that program new text endreceiving services under this chapter. One
member shall be qualified in the diagnosis of mental illness, developmental disability, or
chemical dependency, and one member shall be an attorney. The commissioner may, upon
written request from the appropriate federal authority, establish a review panel for any
federal treatment facility within the state to review the admission and retention of patients
hospitalized under this chapter. For any review board established for a federal treatment
facility, one of the persons appointed by the commissioner shall be the commissioner of
veterans affairs or the commissioner's designee.

Sec. 112.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.22, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Right to appear.

Each deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin program specified in subdivision 1new text end
shall be visited by the review board at least once every six months. Upon request each
patient in the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end shall have the right to appear before the review
board during the visit.

Sec. 113.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.22, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Notice.

The head of deleted text beginthe treatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin each program specified in subdivision
1
new text end shall notify each patient at the time of admission by a simple written statement of the
patient's right to appear before the review board and the next date when the board will visit
deleted text begin the treatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin that programnew text end. A request to appear before the board need not be in
writing. Any employee of the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end receiving a patient's request to
appear before the board shall notify the head of the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end of the request.

Sec. 114.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.22, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Review.

The board shall review the admission and retention of patients at deleted text beginits
respective treatment facility
deleted text endnew text begin the programnew text end. The board may examine the records of all patients
admitted and may examine personally at its own instigation all patients who from the records
or otherwise appear to justify reasonable doubt as to continued need of confinement in deleted text begina
treatment facility
deleted text endnew text begin the programnew text end. The review board shall report its findings to the commissioner
and to the head of the deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text endnew text begin programnew text end. The board may also receive reports from
patients, interested persons, and deleted text begintreatment facilitydeleted text end employeesnew text begin of the programnew text end, and investigate
conditions affecting the care of patients.

Sec. 115.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.23, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Costs of hearings.

(a) In each proceeding under this chapter the court
shall allow and order paid to each witness subpoenaed the fees and mileage prescribed by
law; to each examiner a reasonable sum for services and for travel; to persons conveying
the patient to the place of detention, disbursements for the travel, board, and lodging of the
patient and of themselves and their authorized assistants; and to the patient's counsel, when
appointed by the court, a reasonable sum for travel and for the time spent in court or in
preparing for the hearing. Upon the court's order, the county auditor shall issue a warrant
on the county treasurer for payment of the amounts allowed, excluding the costs of the new text begincourt
new text end examiner, which must be paid by the state courts.

(b) Whenever venue of a proceeding has been transferred under this chapter, the costs
of the proceedings shall be reimbursed to the county where the proceedings were conducted
by the county of financial responsibility.

Sec. 116.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.23, subdivision 1b, is amended to read:


Subd. 1b.

Responsibility for conducting prepetition screening and filing commitment
deleted text begin and early interventiondeleted text end petitions.

(a) The county of financial responsibility is responsible
to conduct prepetition screening pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivision 1, and, if statutory
conditions for deleted text beginearly intervention ordeleted text end commitment are satisfied, to file a petition pursuant to
section deleted text begin253B.064, subdivision 1, paragraph (a);deleted text end 253B.07, subdivision deleted text begin1deleted text endnew text begin 2new text end, paragraph (a)deleted text begin;deleted text endnew text begin,new text end
or 253D.07.

(b) Except in cases under chapter 253D, if the county of financial responsibility refuses
or fails to conduct prepetition screening or file a petition, or if it is unclear which county is
the county of financial responsibility, the county where the proposed patient is present is
responsible to conduct the prepetition screening and, if statutory conditions for deleted text beginearly
intervention or
deleted text end commitment are satisfied, file the petition.

(c) In cases under chapter 253D, if the county of financial responsibility refuses or fails
to file a petition, or if it is unclear which county is the county of financial responsibility,
then (1) the county where the conviction for which the person is incarcerated was entered,
or (2) the county where the proposed patient is present, if the person is not currently
incarcerated based on conviction, is responsible to file the petition if statutory conditions
for commitment are satisfied.

(d) When a proposed patient is an inmate confined to an adult correctional facility under
the control of the commissioner of corrections and commitment proceedings are initiated
or proposed to be initiated pursuant to section 241.69, the county where the correctional
facility is located may agree to perform the responsibilities specified in paragraph (a).

(e) Any dispute concerning financial responsibility for the costs of the proceedings and
treatment will be resolved pursuant to chapter 256G.

(f) This subdivision and the sections of law cited in this subdivision address venue only.
Nothing in this chapter is intended to limit the statewide jurisdiction of district courts over
civil commitment matters.

Sec. 117.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.23, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Legal results of commitment status.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this
chapter and in sections 246.15 and 246.16, no person by reason of commitment or treatment
pursuant to this chapter shall be deprived of any legal right, including but not limited to the
right to dispose of property, sue and be sued, execute instruments, make purchases, enter
into contractual relationships, vote, and hold a driver's license. Commitment or treatment
of any patient pursuant to this chapter is not a judicial determination of legal incompetency
except to the extent provided in section 253B.03, subdivision 6.

(b) Proceedings for determination of legal incompetency and the appointment of a
guardian for a person subject to commitment under this chapter may be commenced before,
during, or after commitment proceedings have been instituted and may be conducted jointly
with the commitment proceedings. The court shall notify the head of the deleted text begintreatmentdeleted text end facilitynew text begin
or program
new text end to which the patient is committed of a finding that the patient is incompetent.

(c) Where the person to be committed is a minor or owns property of value and it appears
to the court that the person is not competent to manage a personal estate, the court shall
appoint a general conservator of the person's estate as provided by law.

Sec. 118.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253B.24, is amended to read:


253B.24 TRANSMITTAL OF DATA TO NATIONAL INSTANT CRIMINAL
BACKGROUND CHECK SYSTEM.

When a court:

(1) commits a person under this chapter deleted text beginas being mentally ill, developmentally disabled,
mentally ill and dangerous, or chemically dependent
deleted text endnew text begin due to mental illness, developmental
disability, or chemical dependency, or as a person who has a mental illness and is dangerous
to the public
new text end;

(2) determines in a criminal case that a person is incompetent to stand trial or not guilty
by reason of mental illness; or

(3) restores a person's ability to possess a firearm under section 609.165, subdivision
1d
, or 624.713, subdivision 4,

the court shall ensure that this information is electronically transmitted within three business
days to the National Instant Criminal Background Check System.

Sec. 119.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253D.02, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

new text beginCourt new text endexaminer.

"new text beginCourt new text endexaminer" has the meaning given in section 253B.02,
subdivision deleted text begin7deleted text endnew text begin 7anew text end.

Sec. 120.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253D.07, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Petition.

Upon the filing of a petition alleging that a proposed respondent is a
sexually dangerous person or a person with a sexual psychopathic personality, deleted text beginthe court
shall hear the petition as provided
deleted text endnew text begin all of the applicable procedures containednew text end in sections
253B.07 and 253B.08new text begin apply to the commitment proceedingnew text end.

Sec. 121.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253D.10, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Correctional facilities.

(a) A person who is being petitioned for commitment
under this chapter and who is placed under a judicial hold order under section 253B.07,
subdivision 2b
or 7, may be confined at a Department of Corrections or a county correctional
or detention facility, rather than a secure treatment facility, until a determination of the
commitment petition as specified in this subdivision.

(b) A court may order that a person who is being petitioned for commitment under this
chapter be confined in a Department of Corrections facility pursuant to the judicial hold
order under the following circumstances and conditions:

(1) The person is currently serving a sentence in a Department of Corrections facility
and the court determines that the person has made a knowing and voluntary (i) waiver of
the right to be held in a secure treatment facility and (ii) election to be held in a Department
of Corrections facility. The order confining the person in the Department of Corrections
facility shall remain in effect until the court vacates the order or the person's criminal sentence
and conditional release term expire.

In no case may the person be held in a Department of Corrections facility pursuant only
to this subdivision, and not pursuant to any separate correctional authority, for more than
210 days.

(2) A person who has elected to be confined in a Department of Corrections facility
under this subdivision may revoke the election by filing a written notice of intent to revoke
the election with the court and serving the notice upon the Department of Corrections and
the county attorney. The court shall order the person transferred to a secure treatment facility
within 15 days of the date that the notice of revocation was filed with the court, except that,
if the person has additional time to serve in prison at the end of the 15-day period, the person
shall not be transferred to a secure treatment facility until the person's prison term expires.
After a person has revoked an election to remain in a Department of Corrections facility
under this subdivision, the court may not adopt another election to remain in a Department
of Corrections facility without the agreement of both parties and the Department of
Corrections.

(3) Upon petition by the commissioner of corrections, after notice to the parties and
opportunity for hearing and for good cause shown, the court may order that the person's
place of confinement be changed from the Department of Corrections to a secure treatment
facility.

(4) While at a Department of Corrections facility pursuant to this subdivision, the person
shall remain subject to all rules and practices applicable to correctional inmates in the facility
in which the person is placed includingdeleted text begin,deleted text end but not limited todeleted text begin,deleted text end the powers and duties of the
commissioner of corrections under section 241.01, powers relating to use of force under
section 243.52, and the right of the commissioner of corrections to determine the place of
confinement in a prison, reformatory, or other facility.

(5) A person may not be confined in a Department of Corrections facility under this
provision beyond the end of the person's executed sentence or the end of any applicable
conditional release period, whichever is later. If a person confined in a Department of
Corrections facility pursuant to this provision reaches the person's supervised release date
and is subject to a period of conditional release, the period of conditional release shall
commence on the supervised release date even though the person remains in the Department
of Corrections facility pursuant to this provision. At the end of the later of the executed
sentence or any applicable conditional release period, the person shall be transferred to a
secure treatment facility.

(6) Nothing in this section may be construed to establish a right of an inmate in a state
correctional facility to participate in sex offender treatment. This section must be construed
in a manner consistent with the provisions of section 244.03.

new text begin (c) When a person is temporarily confined in a Department of Corrections facility solely
under this subdivision and not based on any separate correctional authority, the commissioner
of corrections may charge the county of financial responsibility for the costs of confinement,
and the Department of Human Services shall use existing appropriations to fund all remaining
nonconfinement costs. The funds received by the commissioner for the confinement and
nonconfinement costs are appropriated to the department for these purposes.
new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end The committing county may offer a person who is being petitioned for commitment
under this chapter and who is placed under a judicial hold order under section 253B.07,
subdivision 2b
or 7, the option to be held in a county correctional or detention facility rather
than a secure treatment facility, under such terms as may be agreed to by the county, the
commitment petitioner, and the commitment respondent. If a person makes such an election
under this paragraph, the court hold order shall specify the terms of the agreement, including
the conditions for revoking the election.

Sec. 122.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 253D.28, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Procedure.

(a) The supreme court shall refer a petition for rehearing and
reconsideration to the chief judge of the judicial appeal panel. The chief judge shall notify
the committed person, the county attorneys of the county of commitment and county of
financial responsibility, the commissioner, the executive director, any interested person,
and other persons the chief judge designates, of the time and place of the hearing on the
petition. The notice shall be given at least 14 days prior to the date of the hearing. The
hearing may be conducted by interactive video conference under General Rules of Practice,
rule 131, and Minnesota Rules of Civil Commitment, rule 14.

(b) Any person may oppose the petition. The committed person, the committed person's
counsel, the county attorneys of the committing county and county of financial responsibility,
and the commissioner shall participate as parties to the proceeding pending before the
judicial appeal panel and shall, no later than 20 days before the hearing on the petition,
inform the judicial appeal panel and the opposing party in writing whether they support or
oppose the petition and provide a summary of facts in support of their position.

(c) The judicial appeal panel may appoint new text begincourt new text endexaminers and may adjourn the hearing
from time to time. It shall hear and receive all relevant testimony and evidence and make
a record of all proceedings. The committed person, the committed person's counsel, and the
county attorney of the committing county or the county of financial responsibility have the
right to be present and may present and cross-examine all witnesses and offer a factual and
legal basis in support of their positions.

(d) The petitioning party seeking discharge or provisional discharge bears the burden
of going forward with the evidence, which means presenting a prima facie case with
competent evidence to show that the person is entitled to the requested relief. If the petitioning
party has met this burden, the party opposing discharge or provisional discharge bears the
burden of proof by clear and convincing evidence that the discharge or provisional discharge
should be denied.

(e) A party seeking transfer under section 253D.29 must establish by a preponderance
of the evidence that the transfer is appropriate.

Sec. 123. new text beginREVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber Minnesota Statutes, section 253B.02, so that the
subdivisions are alphabetical. The revisor shall correct any cross-references that arise as a
result of the renumbering.
new text end

Sec. 124. new text beginREPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2018, sections 253B.02, subdivisions 6 and 12a; 253B.05, subdivisions
1, 2, 2b, 3, and 4; 253B.064; 253B.065; 253B.066; 253B.09, subdivision 3; 253B.12,
subdivision 2; 253B.15, subdivision 11; and 253B.20, subdivision 7,
new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

ARTICLE 7

MALTREATMENT OF MINORS ACT REORGANIZATION

Section 1.

new text begin [260E.01] POLICY.
new text end

new text begin (a) The legislature hereby declares that the public policy of this state is to protect children
whose health or welfare may be jeopardized through maltreatment. While it is recognized
that most parents want to keep their children safe, sometimes circumstances or conditions
interfere with their ability to do so. When this occurs, the health and safety of the children
must be of paramount concern. Intervention and prevention efforts must address immediate
concerns for child safety and the ongoing risk of maltreatment and should engage the
protective capacities of families. In furtherance of this public policy, it is the intent of the
legislature under this chapter to:
new text end

new text begin (1) protect children and promote child safety;
new text end

new text begin (2) strengthen the family;
new text end

new text begin (3) make the home, school, and community safe for children by promoting responsible
child care in all settings; and
new text end

new text begin (4) provide, when necessary, a safe temporary or permanent home environment for
maltreated children.
new text end

new text begin (b) In addition, it is the policy of this state to:
new text end

new text begin (1) require the reporting of maltreatment of children in the home, school, and community
settings;
new text end

new text begin (2) provide for the voluntary reporting of maltreatment of children;
new text end

new text begin (3) require an investigation when the report alleges sexual abuse or substantial child
endangerment;
new text end

new text begin (4) provide a family assessment, if appropriate, when the report does not allege sexual
abuse or substantial child endangerment; and
new text end

new text begin (5) provide protective, family support, and family preservation services when needed
in appropriate cases.
new text end

Sec. 2.

new text begin [260E.02] MULTIDISCIPLINARY CHILD PROTECTION TEAM.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Establishment of team. new text end

new text begin A county shall establish a multidisciplinary
child protection team that may include, but not be limited to, the director of the local welfare
agency or designees, the county attorney or designees, the county sheriff or designees,
representatives of health and education, representatives of mental health or other appropriate
human service or community-based agencies, and parent groups. As used in this section, a
"community-based agency" may include, but is not limited to, schools, social service
agencies, family service and mental health collaboratives, children's advocacy centers, early
childhood and family education programs, Head Start, or other agencies serving children
and families. A member of the team must be designated as the lead person of the team
responsible for the planning process to develop standards for the team's activities with
battered women's and domestic abuse programs and services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Duties of team. new text end

new text begin A multidisciplinary child protection team may provide public
and professional education, develop resources for prevention, intervention, and treatment,
and provide case consultation to the local welfare agency or other interested community-based
agencies. The community-based agencies may request case consultation from the
multidisciplinary child protection team regarding a child or family for whom the
community-based agency is providing services. As used in this section, "case consultation"
means a case review process in which recommendations are made concerning services to
be provided to the identified children and family. Case consultation may be performed by
a committee or subcommittee of members representing human services, including mental
health and chemical dependency; law enforcement, including probation and parole; the
county attorney; a children's advocacy center; health care; education; community-based
agencies and other necessary agencies; and persons directly involved in an individual case
as designated by other members performing case consultation.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Sexually exploited youth outreach program. new text end

new text begin A multidisciplinary child
protection team may assist the local welfare agency, local law enforcement agency, or an
appropriate private organization in developing a program of outreach services for sexually
exploited youth, including homeless, runaway, and truant youth who are at risk of sexual
exploitation. For the purposes of this subdivision, at least one representative of a youth
intervention program or, where this type of program is unavailable, one representative of a
nonprofit agency serving youth in crisis shall be appointed to and serve on the
multidisciplinary child protection team in addition to the standing members of the team.
These services may include counseling, medical care, short-term shelter, alternative living
arrangements, and drop-in centers. A juvenile's receipt of intervention services under this
subdivision may not be conditioned upon the juvenile providing any evidence or testimony.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Information sharing. new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency may make available to the
case consultation committee or subcommittee all records collected and maintained by the
agency under this chapter and in connection with case consultation. A case consultation
committee or subcommittee member may share information acquired in the member's
professional capacity with the committee or subcommittee to assist in case consultation.
new text end

new text begin (b) Case consultation committee or subcommittee members must annually sign a data
sharing agreement, approved by the commissioner of human services, assuring compliance
with chapter 13. Not public data, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 8a, may be shared
with members appointed to the committee or subcommittee in connection with an individual
case when the members have signed the data sharing agreement.
new text end

new text begin (c) All data acquired by the case consultation committee or subcommittee in exercising
case consultation duties are confidential as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 3, and shall
not be disclosed except to the extent necessary to perform case consultation, and shall not
be subject to subpoena or discovery.
new text end

new text begin (d) No members of a case consultation committee or subcommittee meeting shall disclose
what transpired at a case consultation meeting, except to the extent necessary to carry out
the case consultation plan. The proceedings and records of the case consultation meeting
are not subject to discovery, and may not be introduced into evidence in any civil or criminal
action against a professional or local welfare agency arising out of the matter or matters
which are the subject of consideration of the case consultation meeting. Information,
documents, or records otherwise available from original sources are not immune from
discovery or use in any civil or criminal action merely because they were presented during
a case consultation meeting. Any person who presented information before the consultation
committee or subcommittee or who is a member shall not be prevented from testifying as
to matters within the person's knowledge. However, in a civil or criminal proceeding a
person shall not be questioned about the person's presentation of information before the
case consultation committee or subcommittee or about opinions formed as a result of the
case consultation meetings.
new text end

new text begin (e) A person who violates this subdivision is subject to the civil remedies and penalties
provided under chapter 13.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Children's advocacy center; definition. new text end

new text begin (a) For purposes of this section,
"children's advocacy center" means an organization using a multidisciplinary team approach
whose primary purpose is to provide children who have been the victims of abuse and their
nonoffending family members with:
new text end

new text begin (1) support and advocacy;
new text end

new text begin (2) specialized medical evaluation;
new text end

new text begin (3) trauma-focused mental health services; and
new text end

new text begin (4) forensic interviews.
new text end

new text begin (b) Children's advocacy centers provide multidisciplinary case review and the tracking
and monitoring of case progress.
new text end

Sec. 3.

new text begin [260E.03] DEFINITIONS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Scope. new text end

new text begin As used in this chapter, the following terms have the meanings
given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Accidental. new text end

new text begin "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and
unexpected occurrence or event that:
new text end

new text begin (1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and
new text end

new text begin (2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the
facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with
the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Child fatality. new text end

new text begin "Child fatality" means the death of a child from maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Commissioner. new text end

new text begin "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services
unless otherwise indicated in this chapter.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Egregious harm. new text end

new text begin "Egregious harm" means harm under section 260C.007,
subdivision 14, or a similar law of another jurisdiction.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Facility. new text end

new text begin "Facility" means:
new text end

new text begin (1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, certified license-exempt child care center,
residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to
be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter
144H, 245D, or 245H;
new text end

new text begin (2) a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E;
or
new text end

new text begin (3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625,
subdivision 19a.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Family assessment. new text end

new text begin "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment
of child safety, risk of subsequent maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is
applied to a maltreatment report that does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child
endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether
maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of
family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Findings and information. new text end

new text begin "Findings and information" means a written
summary described in section 260E.35, subdivision 7, paragraph (b), of actions taken or
services rendered by a local welfare agency following receipt of a report.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Immediately. new text end

new text begin "Immediately" means as soon as possible but in no event longer
than 24 hours.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Interested person acting on behalf of the child. new text end

new text begin "Interested person acting
on behalf of the child" means a parent or legal guardian; stepparent; grandparent; guardian
ad litem; adult stepbrother, stepsister, or sibling; or adult aunt or uncle; unless the person
has been determined to be the offender who committed the maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 11. new text end

new text begin Investigation. new text end

new text begin "Investigation" means fact gathering conducted during:
new text end

new text begin (1) a family investigation related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent
maltreatment that determines whether maltreatment occurred and whether child protective
services are needed; or
new text end

new text begin (2) a facility investigation related to duties under section 260E.28.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 12. new text end

new text begin Maltreatment. new text end

new text begin "Maltreatment" means any of the following acts or omissions:
new text end

new text begin (1) egregious harm under subdivision 5;
new text end

new text begin (2) neglect under subdivision 15;
new text end

new text begin (3) physical abuse under subdivision 18;
new text end

new text begin (4) sexual abuse under subdivision 20;
new text end

new text begin (5) substantial child endangerment under subdivision 22;
new text end

new text begin (6) threatened injury under subdivision 23;
new text end

new text begin (7) mental injury under subdivision 13; and
new text end

new text begin (8) maltreatment of a child in a facility.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 13. new text end

new text begin Mental injury. new text end

new text begin "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity
or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment
in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with
due regard to the child's culture.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 14. new text end

new text begin Near fatality. new text end

new text begin "Near fatality" means a case in which a physician, advanced
practice registered nurse, or physician assistant determines that a child is in serious or critical
condition as the result of sickness or injury caused by maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 15. new text end

new text begin Neglect. new text end

new text begin (a) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts
specified under clauses (1) to (8), other than by accidental means:
new text end

new text begin (1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary
food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or
mental health when reasonably able to do so;
new text end

new text begin (2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's
physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which
may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due
to parental neglect;
new text end

new text begin (3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate
for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition,
length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic
needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;
new text end

new text begin (4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and
260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's
child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision
5;
new text end

new text begin (5) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision
2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in
the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the
child at birth, medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life
that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, or the presence of a
fetal alcohol spectrum disorder;
new text end

new text begin (6) medical neglect, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);
new text end

new text begin (7) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a person responsible
for the child's care that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety; or
new text end

new text begin (8) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior that contributes to impaired emotional
functioning of the child, which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect
in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range
for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.
new text end

new text begin (b) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely
because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good
faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or
remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care.
new text end

new text begin (c) This chapter does not impose upon persons not otherwise legally responsible for
providing a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care a duty
to provide that care.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 16. new text end

new text begin Person in a current or recent position of authority. new text end

new text begin "Person in a current or
recent position of authority" means an individual in a position of authority over a child and
includes but is not limited to any person who is a parent or acting in the place of a parent
and charged with any of a parent's rights, duties, or responsibilities to a child, or a person
who is charged with any duty or responsibility for the health, welfare, or supervision of a
child, either independently or through another, no matter how brief, within 120 days
immediately preceding the act. Person in a position of authority includes a psychotherapist.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 17. new text end

new text begin Person responsible for the child's care. new text end

new text begin "Person responsible for the child's
care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities
for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care
responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having
responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school
employee or agent, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term
care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or
unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 18. new text end

new text begin Physical abuse. new text end

new text begin (a) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury
under subdivision 13, or threatened injury under subdivision 23, inflicted by a person
responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical
or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or
any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been
authorized under section 125A.0942 or 245.825.
new text end

new text begin (b) Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child
administered by a parent or legal guardian that does not result in an injury. Abuse does not
include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed
by section 121A.582.
new text end

new text begin (c) For the purposes of this subdivision, actions that are not reasonable and moderate
include, but are not limited to, any of the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;
new text end

new text begin (2) striking a child with a closed fist;
new text end

new text begin (3) shaking a child under age three;
new text end

new text begin (4) striking or other actions that result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18
months of age;
new text end

new text begin (5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;
new text end

new text begin (6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;
new text end

new text begin (7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;
new text end

new text begin (8) striking a child who is at least age one but under age four on the face or head, which
results in an injury;
new text end

new text begin (9) purposely giving a child:
new text end

new text begin (i) poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances that were not
prescribed for the child by a practitioner in order to control or punish the child; or
new text end

new text begin (ii) other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination,
or judgment; that result in sickness or internal injury; or that subject the child to medical
procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;
new text end

new text begin (10) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379,
including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or
new text end

new text begin (11) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's
care that is a violation under section 121A.58.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 19. new text end

new text begin Report. new text end

new text begin "Report" means any communication received by the local welfare
agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for child protection pursuant
to this section that describes maltreatment of a child and contains sufficient content to
identify the child and any person believed to be responsible for the maltreatment, if known.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 20. new text end

new text begin Sexual abuse. new text end

new text begin "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person
responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child,
or by a person in a current or recent position of authority, to any act that constitutes a
violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal
sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree),
609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct
in the fifth degree), or 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct;
communication of sexually explicit materials to children). Sexual abuse also includes any
act involving a child that constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections
609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Sexual abuse includes all reports of known or suspected
child sex trafficking involving a child who is identified as a victim of sex trafficking. Sexual
abuse includes child sex trafficking as defined in section 609.321, subdivisions 7a and 7b.
Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse, which includes the status of a parent or
household member who has committed a violation that requires registration as an offender
under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b), or required registration under
section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).
new text end

new text begin Subd. 21. new text end

new text begin Significant relationship. new text end

new text begin "Significant relationship" means a situation in which
the alleged offender is:
new text end

new text begin (1) the child's parent, stepparent, or guardian;
new text end

new text begin (2) any of the following persons related to the child by blood, marriage, or adoption:
brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, first cousin, aunt, uncle, nephew, niece, grandparent,
great-grandparent, great-uncle, great-aunt; or
new text end

new text begin (3) an adult who jointly resides intermittently or regularly in the same dwelling as the
child and who is not the child's spouse.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 22. new text end

new text begin Substantial child endangerment. new text end

new text begin "Substantial child endangerment" means
that a person responsible for a child's care, by act or omission, commits or attempts to
commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) egregious harm under subdivision 5;
new text end

new text begin (2) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (3) neglect under subdivision 15, paragraph (a), clause (2), that substantially endangers
the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to
as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
new text end

new text begin (4) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;
new text end

new text begin (5) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;
new text end

new text begin (6) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;
new text end

new text begin (7) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;
new text end

new text begin (8) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;
new text end

new text begin (9) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;
new text end

new text begin (10) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377
or 609.378;
new text end

new text begin (11) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or
new text end

new text begin (12) parental behavior, status, or condition that mandates that the county attorney file a
termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 23. new text end

new text begin Threatened injury. new text end

new text begin (a) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act,
condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental
injury.
new text end

new text begin (b) Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person
responsible for the child's care, as defined in subdivision 17, who has:
new text end

new text begin (1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that
constitutes egregious harm under subdivision 5 or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
new text end

new text begin (2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph
(b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
new text end

new text begin (3) committed an act that resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights under
section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
new text end

new text begin (4) committed an act that resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and
physical custody of a child to a relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201,
subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or a similar law
of another jurisdiction.
new text end

new text begin (c) A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the local welfare agency
receives birth match data under section 260E.14, subdivision 4, from the Department of
Human Services.
new text end

Sec. 4.

new text begin [260E.04] EVIDENCE.
new text end

new text begin No evidence relating to the maltreatment of a child or to any prior incident of
maltreatment involving any of the same persons accused of maltreatment shall be excluded
in any proceeding arising out of the alleged maltreatment on the grounds of privilege set
forth in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), (d), or (g).
new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin [260E.05] CULTURAL PRACTICES.
new text end

new text begin A person who conducts an assessment or investigation under this chapter shall take into
account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and
accepted teacher discipline practices that are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and
safety.
new text end

Sec. 6.

new text begin [260E.06] MALTREATMENT REPORTING.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Mandatory reporters. new text end

new text begin (a) A person who knows or has reason to believe
a child is being maltreated, as defined in section 260E.03, or has been maltreated within
the preceding three years, shall immediately report the information to the local welfare
agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department,
county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person is:
new text end

new text begin (1) a professional or professional's delegate who is engaged in the practice of the healing
arts, social services, hospital administration, psychological or psychiatric treatment, child
care, education, correctional supervision, probation and correctional services, or law
enforcement; or
new text end

new text begin (2) employed as a member of the clergy and received the information while engaged in
ministerial duties, provided that a member of the clergy is not required by this subdivision
to report information that is otherwise privileged under section 595.02, subdivision 1,
paragraph (c).
new text end

new text begin (b) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of this subdivision, includes but is not
limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and
parenting time expeditor services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Voluntary reporters. new text end

new text begin Any person may voluntarily report to the local welfare
agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department,
county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person knows,
has reason to believe, or suspects a child is being or has been maltreated.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Reporting in cases where selection of spiritual means or prayer for
treatment or care may cause serious danger to child's health.
new text end

new text begin If the child's parent,
guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends
upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child
in lieu of medical care, the parent, guardian, or caretaker, or a person mandated to report
pursuant to subdivision 1, has a duty to report if a lack of medical care may cause serious
danger to the child's health.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Licensing board duty to report. new text end

new text begin A board or other entity whose licensees
perform work within a school facility, upon receiving a complaint of alleged maltreatment,
shall report the alleged maltreatment to the commissioner of education.
new text end

Sec. 7.

new text begin [260E.07] RETALIATION PROHIBITED.
new text end

new text begin (a) An employer of any person required to make reports under section 260E.06,
subdivision 1, or 260E.11, subdivision 1, shall not retaliate against the person for reporting
in good faith maltreatment pursuant to this chapter or against a child with respect to whom
a report is made, because of the report.
new text end

new text begin (b) The employer of any person required to report under section 260E.06, subdivision
1, or 260E.11, subdivision 1, who retaliates against the person because of a report of
maltreatment is liable to that person for actual damages and, in addition, a penalty of up to
$10,000.
new text end

new text begin (c) There shall be a rebuttable presumption that any adverse action within 90 days of a
report is retaliatory. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "adverse action" refers to action
taken by an employer of a person required to report under section 260E.06, subdivision 1,
or 260E.11, subdivision 1, which is involved in a report against the person making the report
or the child with respect to whom the report was made because of the report, and includes,
but is not limited to:
new text end

new text begin (1) discharge, suspension, termination, or transfer from the facility, institution, school,
or agency;
new text end

new text begin (2) discharge from or termination of employment;
new text end

new text begin (3) demotion or reduction in remuneration for services; or
new text end

new text begin (4) restriction or prohibition of access to the facility, institution, school, agency, or
persons affiliated with it.
new text end

Sec. 8.

new text begin [260E.08] CRIMINAL PENALTIES FOR FAILURE TO REPORT; CIVIL
PENALTY FOR MAKING FALSE REPORT.
new text end

new text begin (a) A person mandated by section 260E.06, subdivision 1, to report who knows or has
reason to believe that a child is maltreated, as defined in section 260E.03, or has been
maltreated within the preceding three years, and fails to report is guilty of a misdemeanor.
new text end

new text begin (b) A person mandated by section 260E.06, subdivision 1, to report who knows or has
reason to believe that two or more children not related to the offender have been maltreated,
as defined in section 260E.03, by the same offender within the preceding ten years, and
fails to report is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
new text end

new text begin (c) A parent, guardian, or caretaker who knows or reasonably should know that the
child's health is in serious danger and who fails to report as required by section 260E.06,
subdivision 3, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the child suffers substantial or great bodily
harm because of the lack of medical care. If the child dies because of the lack of medical
care, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more
than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both. The provision in
section 609.378, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), providing that a parent, guardian,
or caretaker may, in good faith, select and depend on spiritual means or prayer for treatment
or care of a child, does not exempt a parent, guardian, or caretaker from the duty to report
under this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (d) Any person who knowingly or recklessly makes a false report under the provisions
of this chapter shall be liable in a civil suit for any actual damages suffered by the person
or persons so reported and for any punitive damages set by the court or jury, plus costs and
reasonable attorney fees.
new text end

Sec. 9.

new text begin [260E.09] REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report
made by a person required under section 260E.06, subdivision 1, to report shall be followed
within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, by a report in writing to the appropriate
police department, the county sheriff, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating
the report, or the local welfare agency.
new text end

new text begin (b) Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the child, any person believed
to be responsible for the maltreatment of the child if the person is known, the nature and
extent of the maltreatment, and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare
agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall accept a report
made under section 260E.06 notwithstanding refusal by a reporter to provide the reporter's
name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient under this paragraph.
new text end

Sec. 10.

new text begin [260E.10] NOTIFICATION TO REPORTERS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Screening notification. new text end

new text begin If requested, the agency responsible for assessing
or investigating a report shall inform the reporter within ten days after the report was made,
either orally or in writing, whether the report was accepted or not. If the responsible agency
determines the report does not constitute a report under this chapter, the agency shall advise
the reporter that the report was screened out.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Final notification. new text end

new text begin Any person mandated to report shall receive a summary of
the disposition of any report made by that reporter, including whether the case has been
opened for child protection or other services, or if a referral has been made to a community
organization, unless release would be detrimental to the best interests of the child. Any
person who is not mandated to report shall, upon request to the local welfare agency, receive
a concise summary of the disposition of any report made by that reporter, unless release
would be detrimental to the best interests of the child.
new text end

Sec. 11.

new text begin [260E.11] AGENCY DESIGNATED TO RECEIVE REPORTS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Reports of maltreatment in facility. new text end

new text begin A person mandated to report child
maltreatment occurring within a licensed facility shall report the information to the agency
responsible for licensing or certifying the facility under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021,
and 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 144H, 245D, or 245H; or a nonlicensed personal care
provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Reporting deprivation of parental rights or kidnapping to law
enforcement.
new text end

new text begin A person mandated to report under section 260E.06, subdivision 1, who
knows or has reason to know of a violation of section 609.25 or 609.26 shall report the
information to the local police department or the county sheriff.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Report to medical examiner or coroner; notification to local agency and
law enforcement; report ombudsman.
new text end

new text begin (a) A person mandated to report maltreatment who
knows or has reason to believe a child has died as a result of maltreatment shall report that
information to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner instead of the local welfare
agency, police department, or county sheriff.
new text end

new text begin (b) The medical examiner or coroner shall notify the local welfare agency, police
department, or county sheriff in instances in which the medical examiner or coroner believes
that the child has died as a result of maltreatment. The medical examiner or coroner shall
complete an investigation as soon as feasible and report the findings to the police department
or county sheriff and the local welfare agency.
new text end

new text begin (c) If the child was receiving services or treatment for mental illness, developmental
disability, chemical dependency, or emotional disturbance from an agency, facility, or
program as defined in section 245.91, the medical examiner or coroner shall also notify and
report findings to the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97.
new text end

Sec. 12.

new text begin [260E.12] REQUIRED ACTIONS OF THE RESPONSIBLE AGENCY AND
LAW ENFORCEMENT UPON RECEIVING REPORT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Police department or county sheriff. new text end

new text begin (a) The police department or the
county sheriff shall immediately notify the local welfare agency or agency responsible for
child protection reports under this chapter orally and in writing when a report is received.
new text end

new text begin (b) Written reports received by a police department or the county sheriff shall be
forwarded immediately to the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing
or investigating the report. The police department or the county sheriff may keep copies of
reports received by them.
new text end

new text begin (c) The county sheriff and the head of each local welfare agency, agency responsible
for child protection reports, and police department shall designate a person within the agency,
department, or office who is responsible for ensuring that the notification duties of this
section are carried out. If the alleged maltreatment occurs on tribal land, the local welfare
agency or agency responsible for child protection reports and the local police department
or county sheriff shall immediately notify the tribe's social services agency and tribal law
enforcement orally and in writing when a report is received. When a police department or
county determines that a child has been the subject of maltreatment by a person licensed
by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board or the Board of School
Administrators, the department or sheriff shall, in addition to other duties under this section,
immediately inform the licensing board.
new text end

new text begin (d) If a child is the victim of an alleged crime under subdivision 2, paragraph (c), the
law enforcement agency shall immediately notify the local welfare agency, which shall
offer appropriate social services for the purpose of safeguarding and enhancing the welfare
of the maltreated child.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Local welfare agency or agency responsible for maltreatment report. new text end

new text begin (a)
The local welfare agency or agency responsible for child protection reports shall immediately
notify the local police department or the county sheriff orally and in writing when a report
is received.
new text end

new text begin (b) Copies of written reports received by a local welfare agency or the agency responsible
for assessing or investigating the report shall be forwarded immediately to the local police
department or the county sheriff.
new text end

new text begin (c) Receipt by a local welfare agency of a report or notification of a report of kidnapping
under section 609.25 or depriving another of custodial or parental rights under section
609.26 shall not be construed to invoke the duties under this chapter except notification of
law enforcement and the offer of services under section 260E.20, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a), as appropriate.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Penalties for failure to cross notify. new text end

new text begin (a) If a local welfare agency receives a
report under section 260E.06 and fails to notify the local police department or county sheriff
as required by subdivision 2, the person within the agency who is responsible for ensuring
that notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's
existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees.
new text end

new text begin (b) If a local police department or a county sheriff receives a report under section 260E.06
and fails to notify the local welfare agency as required by subdivision 1, the person within
the police department or county sheriff's office who is responsible for ensuring that
notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's
existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees.
new text end

Sec. 13.

new text begin [260E.13] REPORT TO OMBUDSMAN.
new text end

new text begin When a local welfare agency receives a report or otherwise has information indicating
that a child who is a client, as defined in section 245.91, has been the subject of maltreatment
at an agency, facility, or program, as defined in section 245.91, the local welfare agency
shall, in addition to its other duties under this chapter, immediately inform the ombudsman
established under sections 245.91 to 245.97. The commissioner of education shall inform
the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97 of reports regarding a child
who is a client, as defined in section 245.91, that maltreatment occurred at a school as
defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E.
new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin [260E.14] AGENCY RESPONSIBLE FOR SCREENING AND
ASSESSMENT OR INVESTIGATION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Facilities and schools. new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency is the agency
responsible for investigating allegations of maltreatment in child foster care, family child
care, legally nonlicensed child care, and reports involving children served by an unlicensed
personal care provider organization under section 256B.0659. Copies of findings related to
personal care provider organizations under section 256B.0659 must be forwarded to the
Department of Human Services provider enrollment.
new text end

new text begin (b) The Department of Human Services is the agency responsible for screening and
investigating allegations of maltreatment in juvenile correctional facilities listed under
section 241.021 located in the local welfare agency's county and in facilities licensed or
certified under chapters 245A, 245D, and 245H, except for child foster care and family
child care.
new text end

new text begin (c) The Department of Health is the agency responsible for screening and investigating
allegations of maltreatment in facilities licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 144A.43
to 144A.482 or chapter 144H.
new text end

new text begin (d) The Department of Education is the agency responsible for screening and investigating
allegations of maltreatment in a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11,
and 13, and chapter 124E. The Department of Education's responsibility to screen and
investigate includes allegations of maltreatment involving students 18 to 21 years of age,
including students receiving special education services, up to and including graduation and
the issuance of a secondary or high school diploma.
new text end

new text begin (e) A health or corrections agency receiving a report may request the local welfare agency
to provide assistance pursuant to this section and sections 260E.20 and 260E.22.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Sexual abuse. new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency is the agency responsible for
investigating an allegation of sexual abuse if the alleged offender is the parent, guardian,
sibling, or an individual functioning within the family unit as a person responsible for the
child's care, or a person with a significant relationship to the child if that person resides in
the child's household.
new text end

new text begin (b) The local welfare agency is also responsible for investigating when a child is identified
as a victim of sex trafficking.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Neglect or physical abuse. new text end

new text begin The local welfare agency is responsible for
immediately conducting a family assessment or investigation if the report alleges neglect
or physical abuse by a parent, guardian, or individual functioning within the family unit as
a person responsible for the child's care.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Birth match. new text end

new text begin (a) Upon receiving data under section 144.225, subdivision 2b,
contained in a birth record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to
threatened injury under section 260E.03, subdivision 23, the Department of Human Services
shall send the data to the responsible local welfare agency. The data is known as "birth
match data."
new text end

new text begin (b) Unless the responsible local welfare agency has already begun an investigation or
assessment of the report due to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of
parentage and the parent's previous history with child protection, the agency shall accept
the birth match data as a report under section 260E.03, subdivision 23.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Law enforcement. new text end

new text begin (a) The local law enforcement agency is the agency
responsible for investigating a report of maltreatment if a violation of a criminal statute is
alleged.
new text end

new text begin (b) Law enforcement and the responsible agency must coordinate their investigations
or assessments as required under this chapter when the report alleges maltreatment that is
a violation of a criminal statute by a person who is a parent, guardian, sibling, person
responsible for the child's care functioning within the family unit, or person who lives in
the child's household and who has a significant relationship to the child, in a setting other
than a facility as defined in section 260E.03.
new text end

Sec. 15.

new text begin [260E.15] SCREENING GUIDELINES.
new text end

new text begin (a) Child protection staff, supervisors, and others involved in child protection screening
shall follow the guidance provided in the maltreatment screening guidelines issued by the
commissioner and, when notified by the commissioner, shall immediately implement updated
procedures and protocols.
new text end

new text begin (b) Any modification to the screening guidelines must be preapproved by the
commissioner and must not be less protective of children than is mandated by statute. The
county agency must consult with the county attorney before proposing modifications to the
commissioner. The guidelines may provide additional protection for children but must not
limit reports that are screened in or provide additional limits on consideration of reports
that were screened out in making a screening determination.
new text end

Sec. 16.

new text begin [260E.16] TIMELINE FOR SCREENING.
new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency shall determine if the report is to be screened in or out as
soon as possible but in no event longer than 24 hours after the report is received.
new text end

new text begin (b) When determining whether a report will be screened in or out, the agency receiving
the report must consider, when relevant, all previous history, including reports that were
screened out. The agency may communicate with treating professionals and individuals
specified under section 260E.35, subdivision 4, paragraph (b).
new text end

Sec. 17.

new text begin [260E.17] RESPONSE PATH ASSIGNMENT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Local welfare agency. new text end

new text begin (a) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare
agency shall determine whether to conduct a family assessment or an investigation as
appropriate to prevent or provide a remedy for maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (b) The local welfare agency shall conduct an investigation when the report involves
sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment.
new text end

new text begin (c) The local welfare agency shall begin an immediate investigation if, at any time when
the local welfare agency is using a family assessment response, the local welfare agency
determines that there is reason to believe that sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment
or a serious threat to the child's safety exists.
new text end

new text begin (d) The local welfare agency may conduct a family assessment for reports that do not
allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family
assessment is appropriate, the local welfare agency may consider issues of child safety,
parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response.
new text end

new text begin (e) The local welfare agency may conduct a family assessment on a report that was
initially screened and assigned for an investigation. In determining that a complete
investigation is not required, the local welfare agency must document the reason for
terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency if the local law
enforcement agency is conducting a joint investigation.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Responsible social service agency. new text end

new text begin The responsible agency shall conduct an
investigation when the report alleges maltreatment in a facility required to be licensed or
certified under chapter 144H, 245A, 245D, or 245H; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and
241.021; in a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter
124E; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in section 256B.0625,
subdivision 19a.
new text end

Sec. 18.

new text begin [260E.18] NOTICE TO CHILD'S TRIBE.
new text end

new text begin The local welfare agency shall provide immediate notice, according to section 260.761,
subdivision 2, to an Indian child's tribe when the agency has reason to believe the family
assessment or investigation may involve an Indian child. For purposes of this section,
"immediate notice" means notice provided within 24 hours.
new text end

Sec. 19.

new text begin [260E.19] CONFLICT OF INTEREST.
new text end

new text begin (a) A potential conflict of interest related to assisting in an investigation or assessment
under this chapter resulting in a direct or shared financial interest with a child maltreatment
treatment provider or resulting from a personal or family relationship with a party in the
investigation must be considered by the local welfare agency in an effort to prevent unethical
relationships.
new text end

new text begin (b) A person who conducts an investigation or assessment under this chapter may not
have:
new text end

new text begin (1) any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in a direct
shared financial gain with a child maltreatment treatment provider; or
new text end

new text begin (2) a personal or family relationship with a party in the assessment or investigation.
new text end

new text begin (c) If an independent assessor is not available, the person responsible for making the
determination under this chapter may use the services of an assessor with a financial interest,
referral, or personal or family relationship.
new text end

Sec. 20.

new text begin [260E.20] AGENCY DUTIES REGARDING INVESTIGATION AND
ASSESSMENT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin General duties. new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency shall offer services to
prevent future maltreatment, safeguarding and enhancing the welfare of the maltreated child,
and supporting and preserving family life whenever possible.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the report alleges a violation of a criminal statute involving maltreatment or child
endangerment under section 609.378, the local law enforcement agency and local welfare
agency shall coordinate the planning and execution of their respective investigation and
assessment efforts to avoid a duplication of fact-finding efforts and multiple interviews.
Each agency shall prepare a separate report of the results of the agency's investigation or
assessment.
new text end

new text begin (c) In cases of alleged child maltreatment resulting in death, the local agency may rely
on the fact-finding efforts of a law enforcement investigation to make a determination of
whether or not maltreatment occurred.
new text end

new text begin (d) When necessary, the local welfare agency shall seek authority to remove the child
from the custody of a parent, guardian, or adult with whom the child is living.
new text end

new text begin (e) In performing any of these duties, the local welfare agency shall maintain an
appropriate record.
new text end

new text begin (f) In conducting a family assessment or investigation, the local welfare agency shall
gather information on the existence of substance abuse and domestic violence.
new text end

new text begin (g) If the family assessment or investigation indicates there is a potential for abuse of
alcohol or other drugs by the parent, guardian, or person responsible for the child's care,
the local welfare agency shall conduct a chemical use assessment pursuant to Minnesota
Rules, part 9530.6615.
new text end

new text begin (h) The agency may use either a family assessment or investigation to determine whether
the child is safe when responding to a report resulting from birth match data under section
260E.03, subdivision 23, paragraph (c). If the child subject of birth match data is determined
to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness
of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section
260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (16), in order to deliver needed services. If the child is
determined not to be safe, the agency and the county attorney shall take appropriate action
as required under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Face-to-face contact. new text end

new text begin (a) Upon receipt of a screened in report, the local welfare
agency shall conduct a face-to-face contact with the child reported to be maltreated and
with the child's primary caregiver sufficient to complete a safety assessment and ensure the
immediate safety of the child.
new text end

new text begin (b) The face-to-face contact with the child and primary caregiver shall occur immediately
if sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment is alleged and within five calendar days
for all other reports. If the alleged offender was not already interviewed as the primary
caregiver, the local welfare agency shall also conduct a face-to-face interview with the
alleged offender in the early stages of the assessment or investigation.
new text end

new text begin (c) At the initial contact with the alleged offender, the local welfare agency or the agency
responsible for assessing or investigating the report must inform the alleged offender of the
complaints or allegations made against the individual in a manner consistent with laws
protecting the rights of the person who made the report. The interview with the alleged
offender may be postponed if it would jeopardize an active law enforcement investigation.
new text end

new text begin (d) The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating
the report must provide the alleged offender with an opportunity to make a statement. The
alleged offender may submit supporting documentation relevant to the assessment or
investigation.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Collection of information. new text end

new text begin (a) The local welfare agency responsible for
conducting a family assessment or investigation shall collect available and relevant
information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent maltreatment, and family strengths
and needs and share not public information with an Indian's tribal social services agency
without violating any law of the state that may otherwise impose a duty of confidentiality
on the local welfare agency in order to implement the tribal state agreement.
new text end

new text begin (b) The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report shall
collect available and relevant information to ascertain whether maltreatment occurred and
whether protective services are needed.
new text end

new text begin (c) Information collected includes, when relevant, information with regard to the person
reporting the alleged maltreatment, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the
child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report;
the child allegedly being maltreated; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other
collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (d) Information relevant to the assessment or investigation must be asked for, and may
include:
new text end

new text begin (1) the child's sex and age; prior reports of maltreatment, including any maltreatment
reports that were screened out and not accepted for assessment or investigation; information
relating to developmental functioning; credibility of the child's statement; and whether the
information provided under this clause is consistent with other information collected during
the course of the assessment or investigation;
new text end

new text begin (2) the alleged offender's age, a record check for prior reports of maltreatment, and
criminal charges and convictions;
new text end

new text begin (3) collateral source information regarding the alleged maltreatment and care of the
child. Collateral information includes, when relevant: (i) a medical examination of the child;
(ii) prior medical records relating to the alleged maltreatment or the care of the child
maintained by any facility, clinic, or health care professional and an interview with the
treating professionals; and (iii) interviews with the child's caretakers, including the child's
parent, guardian, foster parent, child care provider, teachers, counselors, family members,
relatives, and other persons who may have knowledge regarding the alleged maltreatment
and the care of the child; and
new text end

new text begin (4) information on the existence of domestic abuse and violence in the home of the child,
and substance abuse.
new text end

new text begin (e) Nothing in this subdivision precludes the local welfare agency, the local law
enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report from
collecting other relevant information necessary to conduct the assessment or investigation.
new text end

new text begin (f) Notwithstanding section 13.384 or 144.291 to 144.298, the local welfare agency has
access to medical data and records for purposes of paragraph (d), clause (3).
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Consultation regarding alleged medical neglect. new text end

new text begin If the report alleges medical
neglect as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5), the local welfare agency
shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately consult with designated
hospital staff and with the parents of the infant to verify that appropriate nutrition, hydration,
and medication are being provided; and shall immediately secure an independent medical
review of the infant's medical charts and records and, if necessary, seek a court order for
an independent medical examination of the infant.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Law enforcement fact finding. new text end

new text begin If the report alleges maltreatment by a person
who is not a parent, guardian, sibling, person responsible for the child's care functioning
within the family unit, or a person who lives in the child's household and who has a
significant relationship to the child, in a setting other than a facility as defined in section
260E.03, the local welfare agency may rely on the fact-finding efforts of the law enforcement
investigation to make a determination whether or not threatened injury or other maltreatment
has occurred under section 260E.03, subdivision 12, if an alleged offender has minor children
or lives with minors.
new text end

Sec. 21.

new text begin [260E.21] SCREENED OUT REPORTS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Records. new text end

new text begin A report that is screened out must be maintained according to
section 260E.35, subdivision 6, paragraph (b).
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Offer of social services. new text end

new text begin A local welfare agency or agency responsible for
investigating or assessing a report may use a screened out report for making an offer of
social services to the subjects of the screened out report.
new text end

Sec. 22.

new text begin [260E.22] INTERVIEWS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Authority to interview. new text end

new text begin (a) The agency responsible for assessing or
investigating reports of maltreatment has the authority to interview the child, the person or
persons responsible for the child's care, the alleged offender, and any other person with
knowledge of the maltreatment for the purpose of gathering facts, assessing safety and risk
to the child, and formulating a plan.
new text end

new text begin (b) Authority of the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the
maltreatment report, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, and
the local law enforcement agency responsible for investigating the alleged maltreatment
includes but is not limited to authority to interview, without parental consent, the alleged
victim and any other children who currently reside with or who have resided with the alleged
offender.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Interview procedure. new text end

new text begin (a) The interview may take place at school or at any
facility or other place where the alleged victim or other children might be found or the child
may be transported to, and the interview may be conducted at a place appropriate for the
interview of a child designated by the local welfare agency or law enforcement agency.
new text end

new text begin (b) The interview may take place outside the presence of the alleged offender or parent,
legal custodian, guardian, or school official.
new text end

new text begin (c) For a family assessment, it is the preferred practice to request a parent or guardian's
permission to interview the child before conducting the child interview, unless doing so
would compromise the safety assessment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Notification after interview. new text end

new text begin (a) Except as provided in this subdivision, the
parent, legal custodian, or guardian shall be notified by the responsible agency or local law
enforcement agency no later than the conclusion of the investigation or assessment that this
interview has occurred.
new text end

new text begin (b) Notwithstanding notice required under the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection,
the juvenile court may, after hearing on an ex parte motion by the local welfare agency,
order that, where reasonable cause exists, the agency withhold notification of this interview
from the parent, legal custodian, or guardian. If the interview took place or is to take place
on school property, the order shall specify that school officials may not disclose to the
parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification of intent to interview
the child on school property, as provided under this subdivision, and any other related
information regarding the interview that may be a part of the child's school record. A copy
of the order shall be sent by the local welfare or law enforcement agency to the appropriate
school official.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Tennessen notice not required. new text end

new text begin In conducting investigations and assessments
pursuant to this chapter, the notice required by section 13.04, subdivision 2, need not be
provided to a child under the age of ten who is the alleged victim of maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Court order for interview. new text end

new text begin (a) Where the alleged offender or a person
responsible for the care of the alleged victim or other child prevents access to the victim or
other child by the local welfare agency, the juvenile court may order the parent, legal
custodian, or guardian to produce the alleged victim or other child for questioning by the
local welfare agency or the local law enforcement agency outside the presence of the alleged
offender or any person responsible for the child's care at reasonable places and times as
specified by court order.
new text end

new text begin (b) Before making an order under paragraph (a), the court shall issue an order to show
cause, either upon its own motion or upon a verified petition, specifying the basis for the
requested interview and fixing the time and place of the hearing. The order to show cause
shall be served personally and shall be heard in the same manner as provided in other cases
in the juvenile court. The court shall consider the need for appointment of a guardian ad
litem to protect the best interests of the child. If appointed, the guardian ad litem shall be
present at the hearing on the order to show cause.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Interview format. new text end

new text begin (a) When conducting an investigation, the local welfare
agency shall use a question and answer interviewing format with questioning as nondirective
as possible to elicit spontaneous responses.
new text end

new text begin (b) For investigations only, the following interviewing methods and procedures must
be used whenever possible when collecting information:
new text end

new text begin (1) audio recording of all interviews with witnesses and collateral sources; and
new text end

new text begin (2) in a case of alleged sexual abuse, audio-video recording of each interview with the
alleged victim and a child witness.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Interviews on school property. new text end

new text begin (a) When the local welfare agency, local law
enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of
maltreatment determines that an interview should take place on school property, written
notification of intent to interview the child on school property must be received by school
officials before the interview. The notification shall include the name of the child to be
interviewed, the purpose of the interview, and a reference to the statutory authority to conduct
an interview on school property. For an interview conducted by the local welfare agency,
the notification shall be signed by the chair of the local welfare agency or the chair's designee.
The notification shall be private data on individuals subject to the provisions of this
subdivision. School officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian
the contents of the notification or any other related information regarding the interview until
notified in writing by the local welfare agency or local law enforcement agency that the
investigation or assessment has been concluded, unless a school employee or agent is alleged
to have maltreated the child. Until that time, the local welfare agency, local law enforcement
agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment
shall be solely responsible for any disclosure regarding the nature of the assessment or
investigation.
new text end

new text begin (b) Except where the alleged offender is believed to be a school official or employee,
the time, place, and manner of the interview on school premises shall be within the discretion
of school officials, but the local welfare agency or local law enforcement agency shall have
the exclusive authority to determine who may attend the interview. The conditions as to
time, place, and manner of the interview set by the school officials shall be reasonable, and
the interview shall be conducted not more than 24 hours after the receipt of the notification
unless another time is considered necessary by agreement between the school officials and
the local welfare agency or local law enforcement agency. Where the school fails to comply
with the provisions of this paragraph, the juvenile court may order the school to comply.
Every effort must be made to reduce the disruption of the educational program of the child,
other students, or school staff when an interview is conducted on school premises.
new text end

Sec. 23.

new text begin [260E.23] DOCUMENTING INTERVIEWS WITH CHILD
MALTREATMENT VICTIMS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Policy. new text end

new text begin It is the policy of this state to encourage adequate and accurate
documentation of the number and content of interviews conducted with alleged child
maltreatment victims during the course of a child maltreatment assessment or investigation,
criminal investigation, or prosecution, and to discourage interviews that are unnecessary,
duplicative, or otherwise not in the best interests of the child.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin As used in this section:
new text end

new text begin (1) "government employee" means an employee of a state or local agency, and any
person acting as an agent of a state or local agency;
new text end

new text begin (2) "interview" means a statement of an alleged maltreatment victim which is given or
made to a government employee during the course of a maltreatment assessment or
investigation, criminal investigation, or prosecution; and
new text end

new text begin (3) "record" means an audio or video recording of an interview, or a written record of
an interview.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Record required. new text end

new text begin Whenever an interview is conducted, the interviewer must
make a record of the interview. The record must contain the following information:
new text end

new text begin (1) the date, time, place, and duration of the interview;
new text end

new text begin (2) the identity of the persons present at the interview; and
new text end

new text begin (3) if the record is in writing, a summary of the information obtained during the interview.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Records maintained. new text end

new text begin The records shall be maintained by the interviewer in
accordance with applicable provisions of section 260E.35 and chapter 13.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Guidelines on tape recording of interviews. new text end

new text begin Every county attorney's office
shall be responsible for developing written guidelines on the tape recording of interviews
by government employees who conduct child maltreatment assessments or investigations,
criminal investigations, or prosecutions. The guidelines are public data as defined in section
13.02, subdivision 14.
new text end

Sec. 24.

new text begin [260E.24] CONCLUSION OF FAMILY ASSESSMENT OR FAMILY
INVESTIGATION BY LOCAL WELFARE AGENCY.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Timing. new text end

new text begin The local welfare agency shall conclude the family assessment
or the investigation within 45 days of the receipt of a report. The conclusion of the assessment
or investigation may be extended to permit the completion of a criminal investigation or
the receipt of expert information requested within 45 days of the receipt of the report.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Determination after family assessment. new text end

new text begin After conducting a family assessment,
the local welfare agency shall determine whether child protective services are needed to
address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent
maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Determinations after family investigation. new text end

new text begin (a) After conducting an
investigation, the local welfare agency shall make two determinations: (1) whether
maltreatment occurred; and (2) whether child protective services are needed.
new text end

new text begin (b) No determination of maltreatment shall be made when the alleged offender is a child
under the age of ten.
new text end

new text begin (c) The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report may
make a determination of no maltreatment early in an investigation, and close the case and
retain immunity, if the collected information shows no basis for a full investigation.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Child protective services. new text end

new text begin For the purposes of this chapter, except for section
260E.37, a determination that child protective services are needed means that the local
welfare agency documented conditions during the assessment or investigation sufficient to
cause a child protection worker, as defined in section 260E.37, to conclude that a child is
at significant risk of maltreatment if protective intervention is not provided and that the
individual or individuals responsible for the child's care have not taken or are not likely to
take action to protect the child from maltreatment or risk of maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Notifications at conclusion of family investigation. new text end

new text begin (a) Within ten working
days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency responsible
for investigating the report shall notify the parent or guardian of the child and the person
determined to be maltreating the child, if not the parent or guardian of the child, of the
determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination.
new text end

new text begin (b) The notice must include a certification that the information collection procedures
under section 260E.20 were followed and a notice of the right of a data subject to obtain
access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained under this section.
new text end

new text begin (c) In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept
under section 260E.35, subdivision 6. The investigating agency shall notify the parent or
guardian of the child who is the subject of the report, and any person determined to have
maltreated the child, of their appeal or review rights under this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (d) The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a
license or certification application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C
related to employment or services that are licensed or certified by the Department of Human
Services under chapter 245A or 245H, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A,
the Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related
to an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Required referral to early intervention services. new text end

new text begin A child under age three
who is involved in a substantiated case of maltreatment shall be referred for screening under
the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, part C. Parents must be informed that the
evaluation and acceptance of services are voluntary. The commissioner of human services
shall monitor referral rates by county and annually report the information to the legislature.
Refusal to have a child screened is not a basis for a child in need of protection or services
petition under chapter 260C.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Notification at conclusion of family assessment. new text end

new text begin Within ten working days of
the conclusion of a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall notify the parent or
guardian of the child of the need for services to address child safety concerns or significant
risk of subsequent maltreatment. The local welfare agency and the family may also jointly
agree that family support and family preservation services are needed.
new text end

Sec. 25.

new text begin [260E.25] PROVISION OF MEDICAL CARE.
new text end

new text begin (a) If lack of medical care due to a parent's, guardian's, or caretaker's good faith selection
and dependence upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial
care for the child in lieu of medical care may result in serious danger to the child's health,
the local welfare agency may ensure that necessary medical services are provided to the
child.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the review or examination required under section 260E.20, subdivision 4, leads
to a conclusion of medical neglect, the agency shall intervene on behalf of the infant by
initiating legal proceedings under section 260C.141 and by filing an expedited motion to
prevent the withholding of medically indicated treatment.
new text end

Sec. 26.

new text begin [260E.26] PROVISION OF CHILD PROTECTIVE SERVICES.
new text end

new text begin The local welfare agency shall create a written plan, in collaboration with the family
whenever possible, within 30 days of the determination that child protective services are
needed or upon joint agreement of the local welfare agency and the family that family
support and preservation services are needed. Child protective services for a family are
voluntary unless ordered by the court.
new text end

Sec. 27.

new text begin [260E.27] CONSULTATION WITH THE COUNTY ATTORNEY.
new text end

new text begin The local welfare agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the
appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services
under section 260C.007, subdivision 6, if:
new text end

new text begin (1) the family does not accept or comply with a plan for child protective services;
new text end

new text begin (2) voluntary child protective services may not provide sufficient protection for the child;
or
new text end

new text begin (3) the family is not cooperating with an investigation or assessment.
new text end

Sec. 28.

new text begin [260E.28] CONDUCTING INVESTIGATION IN FACILITY OR SCHOOL.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Immediate investigation for alleged maltreatment in a facility. new text end

new text begin (a)
The commissioner of human services, health, or education, whichever is responsible for
investigating the report, shall immediately investigate if the report alleges that:
new text end

new text begin (1) a child who is in the care of a facility as defined in section 260E.03 is the victim of
maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility or has been the victim of
maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility within the three years preceding
the report; or
new text end

new text begin (2) a child is the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in a facility defined
in section 260E.03, subdivision 6, while in the care of that facility within the three years
preceding the report.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner of the agency responsible for investigating the report shall arrange
for the transmittal to the commissioner of reports received by local agencies and may delegate
to a local welfare agency the duty to investigate reports. The commissioner of the agency
responsible for investigating the report or local welfare agency may interview any children
who are or have been in the care of a facility under investigation and the children's parents,
guardians, or legal custodians.
new text end

new text begin (c) In conducting an investigation under this section, the commissioner has the powers
and duties specified for a local welfare agency under this chapter.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Preinterview notification for facility investigation. new text end

new text begin Before any interview
related to maltreatment in a facility under the provisions of section 260E.22, the
commissioner of the agency responsible for investigating the report or local welfare agency
shall notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child who will be interviewed in
the manner provided for in section 260E.22. If reasonable efforts to reach the parent,
guardian, or legal custodian of a child in an out-of-home placement have failed, the child
may be interviewed if there is reason to believe the interview is necessary to protect the
child or other children in the facility. The commissioner of the agency responsible for
assessing or investigating the report or local agency must provide the information required
in this subdivision to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child interviewed without
parental notification as soon as possible after the interview. When the investigation is
completed, any parent, guardian, or legal custodian notified under this subdivision shall
receive the written memorandum provided for in section 260E.30, subdivision 5.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Facility records. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of human services, the ombudsman for
mental health and developmental disabilities, the local welfare agencies responsible for
investigating reports, the commissioner of education, and the local law enforcement agencies
have the right to enter a facility as defined in section 260E.03 and to inspect and copy the
facility's records, including medical records, as part of the investigation. Notwithstanding
the provisions of chapter 13, the commissioner of human services, the ombudsman for
mental health and developmental disabilities, the local welfare agencies responsible for
investigating reports, the commissioner of education, and the local law enforcement agencies
also have the right to inform the facility under investigation that an investigation is being
conducted, to disclose to the facility the names of the individuals under investigation for
maltreating a child, and to provide the facility with a copy of the report and the investigative
findings.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Access to information. new text end

new text begin In conducting investigations under this chapter, the
commissioner or local welfare agency shall obtain access to information consistent with
section 260E.20, subdivision 3. In conducting investigations under this section, the
commissioner of education shall obtain access to reports and investigative data that are
relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in the possession of a school facility as defined
in section 260E.03, subdivision 6, clause (2), notwithstanding the classification of the data
as educational or personnel data under chapter 13. This includes but is not limited to school
investigative reports, information concerning the conduct of school personnel alleged to
have committed maltreatment of students, information about witnesses, and any protective
or corrective action taken by the school facility regarding the school personnel alleged to
have committed maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Investigation involving school facility. new text end

new text begin In conducting an investigation involving
a school facility as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 6, clause (2), the commissioner
of education shall collect available and relevant information and use the procedures in
sections 260E.20, subdivisions 2 and 3, and 260E.22, except that the requirement for
face-to-face observation of the child and face-to-face interview of the alleged offender is
to occur in the initial stages of the investigation provided that the commissioner may also
base the investigation on investigative reports and data received from the school facility
and local law enforcement agency, to the extent those investigations satisfy the requirements
of sections 260E.20, subdivisions 2 and 3, and 260E.22.
new text end

Sec. 29.

new text begin [260E.29] NOTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS FOR SCHOOLS AND
FACILITIES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Notification requirements for school facility. new text end

new text begin (a) Notwithstanding
section 260E.09, the commissioner of education must inform the parent, guardian, or legal
custodian of the child who is the subject of a report of alleged maltreatment in a school
facility within ten days of receiving the report, either orally or in writing, whether the
commissioner is investigating the report of alleged maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (b) Regardless of whether a report is made under section 260E.09, as soon as practicable
after a school receives information regarding an incident that may constitute maltreatment
of a child in a school facility, the school shall inform the parent, legal guardian, or custodian
of the child that an incident occurred that may constitute maltreatment of the child, when
the incident occurred, and the nature of the conduct that may constitute maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Notification requirements for other types of facilities. new text end

new text begin When a report is
received that alleges maltreatment of a child while in the care of a licensed or unlicensed
day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or
institution required to be licensed or certified according to sections 144.50 to 144.58;
241.021; or 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 144H, 245D, or 245H; or a school as defined
in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed personal
care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, the
commissioner of the agency responsible for investigating the report or local welfare agency
investigating the report shall provide the following information to the parent, guardian, or
legal custodian of a child alleged to have been the victim of maltreatment in the facility;
the name of the facility; the fact that a report alleging maltreatment in the facility has been
received; the nature of the alleged maltreatment in the facility; that the agency is conducting
an investigation; any protective or corrective measures being taken pending the outcome
of the investigation; and that a written memorandum will be provided when the investigation
is completed.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Discretionary notification. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of the agency responsible for
investigating the report or local welfare agency may also provide the information in
subdivision 2 to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any other child in the facility if
the investigative agency knows or has reason to believe the alleged maltreatment of a child
in the facility occurred. In determining whether to exercise this authority, the commissioner
of the agency responsible for investigating the report or local welfare agency shall consider
the seriousness of the alleged maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of alleged
victims of maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of alleged offenders; and the
length of the investigation. The facility shall be notified whenever this discretion is exercised.
new text end

Sec. 30.

new text begin [260E.30] CONCLUSION OF SCHOOL OR FACILITY INVESTIGATION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Investigation involving a school facility. new text end

new text begin If the commissioner of education
conducts an investigation, the commissioner shall determine whether maltreatment occurred
and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. If a determination
is made that maltreatment occurred, the commissioner shall report to the employer, the
school board, and any appropriate licensing entity the determination that maltreatment
occurred and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. In all
other cases, the commissioner shall inform the school board or employer that a report was
received; the subject of the report; the date of the initial report; the category of maltreatment
alleged as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 12; the fact that maltreatment was not
determined; and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Investigation involving a facility. new text end

new text begin (a) When maltreatment is determined in an
investigation involving a facility, the investigating agency shall also determine whether the
facility or individual was responsible, or whether both the facility and the individual were
responsible for the maltreatment using the mitigating factors in subdivision 4. Determinations
under this subdivision must be made based on a preponderance of the evidence and are
private data on individuals or nonpublic data as maintained by the commissioner of education.
new text end

new text begin (b) Any operator, employee, or volunteer worker at any facility who intentionally
maltreats any child in the care of that facility may be charged with a violation of section
609.255, 609.377, or 609.378. Any operator of a facility who knowingly permits conditions
to exist that result in maltreatment of a child in a facility while in the care of that facility
may be charged with a violation of section 609.378. The facility operator shall inform all
mandated reporters employed by or otherwise associated with the facility of the duties
required of mandated reporters and shall inform all mandatory reporters of the prohibition
against retaliation for reports made in good faith under this section.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Nonmaltreatment mistake. new text end

new text begin (a) If paragraph (b) applies, rather than making a
determination of substantiated maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human
services shall determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.
new text end

new text begin (b) A nonmaltreatment mistake occurs when:
new text end

new text begin (1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the
center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;
new text end

new text begin (2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted
in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;
new text end

new text begin (3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment
mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;
new text end

new text begin (4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with
remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or
not; and
new text end

new text begin (5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual
providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the
incident.
new text end

new text begin (c) This subdivision only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules,
chapter 9503.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Mitigating factors in investigating facilities. new text end

new text begin (a) When determining whether
the facility or individual is the responsible party, or whether both the facility and the
individual are responsible for determined maltreatment in a facility, the investigating agency
shall consider at least the following mitigating factors:
new text end

new text begin (1) whether the actions of the facility or the individual caregivers were according to,
and followed the terms of, an erroneous physician order, prescription, individual care plan,
or directive; however, this is not a mitigating factor when the facility or caregiver was
responsible for the issuance of the erroneous order, prescription, individual care plan, or
directive or knew or should have known of the errors and took no reasonable measures to
correct the defect before administering care;
new text end

new text begin (2) comparative responsibility between the facility, other caregivers, and requirements
placed upon an employee, including the facility's compliance with related regulatory standards
and the adequacy of facility policies and procedures, facility training, an individual's
participation in the training, the caregiver's supervision, and facility staffing levels and the
scope of the individual employee's authority and discretion; and
new text end

new text begin (3) whether the facility or individual followed professional standards in exercising
professional judgment.
new text end

new text begin (b) The evaluation of the facility's responsibility under paragraph (a), clause (2), must
not be based on the completeness of the risk assessment or risk reduction plan required
under section 245A.66, but must be based on the facility's compliance with the regulatory
standards for policies and procedures, training, and supervision as cited in Minnesota Statutes
and Minnesota Rules.
new text end

new text begin (c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b), when maltreatment is determined to have
been committed by an individual who is also the facility license holder, both the individual
and the facility must be determined responsible for the maltreatment, and both the background
study disqualification standards under section 245C.15, subdivision 4, and the licensing or
certification actions under sections 245A.06, 245A.07, 245H.06, or 245H.07 apply.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Notification when school or facility investigation is completed. new text end

new text begin (a) When
the commissioner of the agency responsible for investigating the report or local welfare
agency has completed its investigation, every parent, guardian, or legal custodian previously
notified of the investigation by the commissioner or local welfare agency shall be provided
with the following information in a written memorandum: the name of the facility
investigated; the nature of the alleged maltreatment of a child in the facility; the investigator's
name; a summary of the investigation findings; a statement of whether maltreatment was
found; and the protective or corrective measures that are being or will be taken.
new text end

new text begin (b) The memorandum shall be written in a manner that protects the identity of the reporter
and the child and shall not contain the name or, to the extent possible, reveal the identity
of the alleged offender or the identity of individuals interviewed during the investigation.
new text end

new text begin (c) If maltreatment is determined to exist, the commissioner or local welfare agency
shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of
each child in the facility who had contact with the individual responsible for the maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (d) When the facility is the responsible party for maltreatment, the commissioner or
local welfare agency shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian,
or legal custodian of each child who received services in the population of the facility where
the maltreatment occurred.
new text end

new text begin (e) This notification must be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each
child receiving services from the time the maltreatment occurred until either the individual
responsible for maltreatment is no longer in contact with a child or children in the facility
or the conclusion of the investigation.
new text end

new text begin (f) In the case of maltreatment within a school facility, as defined in section 120A.05,
subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E, the commissioner of education need not
provide notification to parents, guardians, or legal custodians of each child in the facility,
but shall, within ten days after the investigation is completed, provide written notification
to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any student alleged to have been maltreated.
new text end

new text begin (g) The commissioner of education may notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian
of any student involved as a witness to alleged maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Notification to parent, child, or offender following investigation. new text end

new text begin (a) Within
ten working days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency
responsible for investigating the report of maltreatment in a facility shall notify the parent
or guardian of the child, the person determined to be maltreating the child, and the director
of the facility of the determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the
determination.
new text end

new text begin (b) When the investigation involves a child foster care setting that is monitored by a
private licensing agency under section 245A.16, the local welfare agency responsible for
investigating the report shall notify the private licensing agency of the determination and
shall provide a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. The notice to the
private licensing agency must include identifying private data, but not the identity of the
reporter of maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (c) The notice must also include a certification that the information collection procedures
under section 260E.20, subdivision 3, were followed and a notice of the right of a data
subject to obtain access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained
under this section.
new text end

new text begin (d) In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept
under section 260E.35, subdivision 6.
new text end

new text begin (e) The investigating agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child who is the
subject of the report, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a child, of
their appeal or review rights under this section.
new text end

new text begin (f) The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a
license or certification application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C
related to employment or services that are licensed by the Department of Human Services
under chapter 245A or 245H, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A, the
Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related to
an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.
new text end

Sec. 31.

new text begin [260E.31] REPORTING OF PRENATAL EXPOSURE TO CONTROLLED
SUBSTANCES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Reports required. new text end

new text begin (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person
mandated to report under this chapter shall immediately report to the local welfare agency
if the person knows or has reason to believe that a woman is pregnant and has used a
controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy, including but not
limited to tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy
in any way that is habitual or excessive.
new text end

new text begin (b) A health care professional or a social service professional who is mandated to report
under this chapter is exempt from reporting under paragraph (a) a woman's use or
consumption of tetrahydrocannabinol or alcoholic beverages during pregnancy if the
professional is providing the woman with prenatal care or other health care services.
new text end

new text begin (c) Any person may make a voluntary report if the person knows or has reason to believe
that a woman is pregnant and has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose
during the pregnancy, including but not limited to tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed
alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy in any way that is habitual or excessive.
new text end

new text begin (d) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report
made by a person required to report shall be followed within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends
and holidays, by a report in writing to the local welfare agency. Any report shall be of
sufficient content to identify the pregnant woman, the nature and extent of the use, if known,
and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare agency shall accept a report
made under paragraph (c) notwithstanding refusal by a voluntary reporter to provide the
reporter's name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient.
new text end

new text begin (e) For purposes of this section, "prenatal care" means the comprehensive package of
medical and psychological support provided throughout the pregnancy.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Local welfare agency. new text end

new text begin Upon receipt of a report of prenatal exposure to a
controlled substance required under subdivision 1, the local welfare agency shall immediately
conduct an appropriate assessment and offer services indicated under the circumstances.
Services offered may include but are not limited to a referral for chemical dependency
assessment, a referral for chemical dependency treatment if recommended, and a referral
for prenatal care. The local welfare agency may also take any appropriate action under
chapter 253B, including seeking an emergency admission under section 253B.051. The
local welfare agency shall seek an emergency admission under section 253B.051 if the
pregnant woman refuses recommended voluntary services or fails recommended treatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Related provisions. new text end

new text begin Reports under this section are governed by sections
260E.05, 260E.06, 260E.34, and 260E.35.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Controlled substances. new text end

new text begin For purposes of this section and section 260E.32,
"controlled substance" means a controlled substance listed in section 253B.02, subdivision
2.
new text end

Sec. 32.

new text begin [260E.32] TOXICOLOGY TESTS REQUIRED.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Test; report. new text end

new text begin (a) A physician shall administer a toxicology test to a
pregnant woman under the physician's care or to a woman under the physician's care within
eight hours after delivery to determine whether there is evidence that she has ingested a
controlled substance, if the woman has obstetrical complications that are a medical indication
of possible use of a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results under section
260E.31. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under section
260E.31 if other evidence gives the physician reason to believe the patient has used a
controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Newborns. new text end

new text begin (a) A physician shall administer to each newborn infant born under
the physician's care a toxicology test to determine whether there is evidence of prenatal
exposure to a controlled substance, if the physician has reason to believe based on a medical
assessment of the mother or the infant that the mother used a controlled substance for a
nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results as neglect under
section 260E.03. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under this
chapter if other medical evidence of prenatal exposure to a controlled substance is present.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Report to Department of Health. new text end

new text begin Physicians shall report to the Department
of Health the results of tests performed under subdivisions 1 and 2. A report shall be made
on the certificate of live birth medical supplement or the report of fetal death medical
supplement filed on or after February 1, 1991. The reports are medical data under section
13.384.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Reliability of tests. new text end

new text begin A positive test result reported under this section must be
obtained from a confirmatory test performed by a drug testing laboratory that meets the
requirements of section 181.953 and must be performed according to the requirements for
performance of confirmatory tests imposed by the licensing, accreditation, or certification
program listed in section 181.953, subdivision 1, in which the laboratory participates.
new text end

Sec. 33.

new text begin [260E.33] RECONSIDERATION AND APPEAL OF MALTREATMENT
DETERMINATION FOLLOWING INVESTIGATION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Following family assessment. new text end

new text begin Administrative reconsideration is not
applicable in a family assessment since no determination concerning maltreatment is made.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Request for reconsideration. new text end

new text begin (a) Except as provided under subdivision 5, an
individual or facility that the commissioner of human services, a local welfare agency, or
the commissioner of education determines has maltreated a child, an interested person acting
on behalf of the child, regardless of the determination, who contests the investigating agency's
final determination regarding maltreatment, may request the investigating agency to
reconsider its final determination regarding maltreatment. The request for reconsideration
must be submitted in writing to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after receipt
of notice of the final determination regarding maltreatment or, if the request is made by an
interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by
the parent or guardian of the child. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be
postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's
or facility's receipt of the final determination. If the request for reconsideration is made by
personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 15 calendar days
after the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination.
new text end

new text begin (b) An individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under this chapter and
who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections
245C.14 and 245C.15 may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and
the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and
the disqualification must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt
of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request
for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be
postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's
receipt of the maltreatment determination and notice of disqualification. If the request for
reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency
within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Request for fair hearing. new text end

new text begin (a) Except as provided under subdivisions 5 and 6,
if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15
working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled
to a fair hearing under section 256.045 may submit to the commissioner of human services
or the commissioner of education a written request for a hearing under section 256.045.
Section 256.045 also governs hearings requested to contest a final determination of the
commissioner of education. The investigating agency shall notify persons who request
reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The hearings specified under this section
are the only administrative appeal of a decision issued under subdivision 2. Determinations
under this section are not subject to accuracy and completeness challenges under section
13.04.
new text end

new text begin (b) Except as provided under subdivision 6, if an individual or facility contests the
investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment by requesting a fair
hearing under section 256.045, the commissioner of human services shall ensure that the
hearing is conducted and a decision is reached within 90 days of receipt of the request for
a hearing. The time for action on the decision may be extended for as many days as the
hearing is postponed or the record is held open for the benefit of either party.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Change of maltreatment determination. new text end

new text begin If, as a result of a reconsideration
or fair hearing, the investigating agency changes the determination of maltreatment, that
agency shall notify every parent, guardian, or legal custodian previously notified of the
investigation, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the
report, the local welfare agency, and, if applicable, the director of the facility and the private
licensing agency.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Consolidation. new text end

new text begin If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and
245C.15 on the basis of a determination of maltreatment which was serious or recurring,
and the individual requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under
subdivision 2 and requested reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21
to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and reconsideration of the
disqualification shall be consolidated into a single fair hearing. If reconsideration of the
maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a
reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045.
If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the
disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment
determination and the disqualification.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Contested case hearing. new text end

new text begin If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification
based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section
245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to
a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to
1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the contested
case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing
sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing regarding the maltreatment
determination and disqualification shall not be conducted under section 256.045. Except
for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination
as provided under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification as provided
under section 245C.22, shall also not be conducted when:
new text end

new text begin (1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section
245A.07 is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment
or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;
new text end

new text begin (2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the
maltreatment determination or disqualification; and
new text end

new text begin (3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification and
denial of a license or licensing sanction.
new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment
determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing
sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under
subdivision 2 and section 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the disqualification
shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall also be
conducted as provided under subdivision 2 and sections 245C.27 and 626.557, subdivision
9d.
new text end

new text begin If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom
a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may
be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the
administrative law judge.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Process for correction order or decertification. new text end

new text begin If a maltreatment determination
is the basis for a correction order under section 245H.06 or decertification under section
245H.07, the certification holder has the right to request reconsideration under sections
245H.06 and 245H.07. If the certification holder appeals the maltreatment determination
or disqualification, but does not appeal the correction order or decertification, reconsideration
of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under subdivision 2 and reconsideration
of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22.
new text end

Sec. 34.

new text begin [260E.34] IMMUNITY.
new text end

new text begin (a) The following persons are immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise
might result from the person's actions, if the person is acting in good faith:
new text end

new text begin (1) a person making a voluntary or mandated report under this chapter or assisting in an
assessment under this chapter;
new text end

new text begin (2) a person with responsibility for performing duties under this section or supervisor
employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of an agency responsible for operating
or supervising a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital,
sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed or certified under sections
144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 245B or 245H; or a school as
defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed
personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a,
complying with sections 260E.23, subdivisions 2 and 3, and 260E.30; and
new text end

new text begin (3) a public or private school, facility as defined in section 260E.03, or the employee of
any public or private school or facility who permits access by a local welfare agency, the
Department of Education, or a local law enforcement agency and assists in an investigation
or assessment pursuant to this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (b) A person who is a supervisor or person with responsibility for performing duties
under this chapter employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of human services,
or the commissioner of education complying with this chapter or any related rule or provision
of law is immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from the
person's actions, if the person is (1) acting in good faith and exercising due care, or (2)
acting in good faith and following the information collection procedures established under
section 260E.20, subdivision 3.
new text end

new text begin (c) Any physician or other medical personnel administering a toxicology test under
section 260E.32 to determine the presence of a controlled substance in a pregnant woman,
in a woman within eight hours after delivery, or in a child at birth or during the first month
of life is immune from civil or criminal liability arising from administration of the test, if
the physician ordering the test believes in good faith that the test is required under this
section and the test is administered in accordance with an established protocol and reasonable
medical practice.
new text end

new text begin (d) This section does not provide immunity to any person for failure to make a required
report or for committing maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (e) If a person who makes a voluntary or mandatory report under section 260E.06 prevails
in a civil action from which the person has been granted immunity under this section, the
court may award the person attorney fees and costs.
new text end

Sec. 35.

new text begin [260E.35] DATA PRACTICES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Maintaining data. new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding the data's classification in the
possession of any other agency, data acquired by the local welfare agency or the agency
responsible for assessing or investigating the report during the course of the assessment or
investigation are private data on individuals and must be maintained according to this section.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Data collected during investigation of maltreatment in school. new text end

new text begin (a) Data of
the commissioner of education collected or maintained during and for the purpose of an
investigation of alleged maltreatment in a school are governed by this chapter,
notwithstanding the data's classification as educational, licensing, or personnel data under
chapter 13.
new text end

new text begin (b) In conducting an investigation involving a school facility as defined in section
260E.03, subdivision 6, clause (2), the commissioner of education shall collect investigative
reports and data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment from local law enforcement
and the school facility.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Classification and release of data. new text end

new text begin (a) A written copy of a report maintained
by personnel of agencies, other than welfare or law enforcement agencies, which are subject
to chapter 13 shall be confidential. An individual subject of the report may obtain access
to the original report as provided by paragraphs (g) to (o).
new text end

new text begin (b) All reports and records created, collected, or maintained under this chapter by a local
welfare agency or law enforcement agency may be disclosed to a local welfare or other
child welfare agency of another state when the agency certifies that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the reports and records are necessary to conduct an investigation of actions that would
qualify as maltreatment under this chapter; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the reports and records will be used only for purposes of a child protection assessment
or investigation and will not be further disclosed to any other person or agency.
new text end

new text begin (c) The local social service agency or law enforcement agency in this state shall keep a
record of all records or reports disclosed pursuant to this subdivision and of any agency to
which the records or reports are disclosed. If in any case records or reports are disclosed
before a determination is made under section 260E.24, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), or a
disposition of a criminal proceeding is reached, the local social service agency or law
enforcement agency in this state shall forward the determination or disposition to any agency
that has received a report or record under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (d) The responsible authority of a local welfare agency or the responsible authority's
designee may release private or confidential data on an active case involving assessment
or investigation of actions that are defined as maltreatment under this chapter to a court
services agency if:
new text end

new text begin (1) the court services agency has an active case involving a common client who is the
subject of the data; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the data are necessary for the court services agency to effectively process the court
services agency's case, including investigating or performing other duties relating to the
case required by law.
new text end

new text begin (e) The data disclosed under paragraph (d) may be used only for purposes of the active
court services case described in paragraph (d), clause (1), and may not be further disclosed
to any other person or agency, except as authorized by law.
new text end

new text begin (f) Records maintained under subdivision 4, paragraph (b), may be shared with another
local welfare agency that requests the information because it is conducting an assessment
or investigation under this section of the subject of the records.
new text end

new text begin (g) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (h), (i), (o), and (p); subdivision 1; and sections
260E.22, subdivision 2; and 260E.23, all records concerning individuals maintained by a
local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under
this chapter, including any written reports filed under sections 260E.06 and 260E.09, shall
be private data on individuals, except insofar as copies of reports are required by section
260E.12, subdivision 1 or 2, to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff.
new text end

new text begin (h) All records concerning determinations of maltreatment by a facility are nonpublic
data as maintained by the Department of Education, except insofar as copies of reports are
required by section 260E.12, subdivision 1 or 2, to be sent to the local police department
or the county sheriff.
new text end

new text begin (i) Reports maintained by any police department or the county sheriff shall be private
data on individuals, except the reports shall be made available to the investigating, petitioning,
or prosecuting authority, including a county medical examiner or county coroner.
new text end

new text begin (j) Section 13.82, subdivisions 8, 9, and 14, apply to law enforcement data other than
the reports.
new text end

new text begin (k) The local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the
report shall make available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority,
including a county medical examiner or county coroner or a professional delegate, any
records that contain information relating to a specific incident of maltreatment that is under
investigation, petition, or prosecution and information relating to any prior incident of
maltreatment involving any of the same persons. The records shall be collected and
maintained according to chapter 13.
new text end

new text begin (l) An individual subject of a record shall have access to the record according to those
sections, except that the name of the reporter shall be confidential while the report is under
assessment or investigation except as otherwise permitted by this section.
new text end

new text begin (m) Any person conducting an investigation or assessment under this section who
intentionally discloses the identity of a reporter before the completion of the investigation
or assessment is guilty of a misdemeanor. After the assessment or investigation is completed,
the name of the reporter shall be confidential. The subject of the report may compel disclosure
of the name of the reporter only with the consent of the reporter or upon a written finding
by the court that the report was false and that there is evidence that the report was made in
bad faith. This subdivision does not alter disclosure responsibilities or obligations under
the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
new text end

new text begin (n) Upon request of the legislative auditor, data on individuals maintained under this
chapter must be released to the legislative auditor in order for the auditor to fulfill the
auditor's duties under section 3.971. The auditor shall maintain the data according to chapter
13.
new text end

new text begin (o) Active law enforcement investigative data received by a local welfare agency or
agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this chapter are confidential
data on individuals. When this data become inactive in the law enforcement agency, the
data are private data on individuals.
new text end

new text begin (p) Section 13.03, subdivision 4, applies to data received by the commissioner of
education from a licensing entity.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Data disclosed to reporter. new text end

new text begin (a) A local welfare or child protection agency, or
the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report of maltreatment, shall provide
relevant private data on individuals obtained under this chapter to a mandated reporter who
made the report and who has an ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare
of a child affected by the data, unless the agency determines that providing the data would
not be in the best interests of the child.
new text end

new text begin (b) The agency may provide the data to other mandated reporters with ongoing
responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of the child. Mandated reporters with
ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data
include the child's teachers or other appropriate school personnel, foster parents, health care
providers, respite care workers, therapists, social workers, child care providers, residential
care staff, crisis nursery staff, probation officers, and court services personnel. Under this
chapter, a mandated reporter need not have made the report to be considered a person with
ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data.
Data provided under this chapter must be limited to data pertinent to the individual's
responsibility for caring for the child.
new text end

new text begin (c) A reporter who receives private data on individuals under this subdivision must treat
the data according to that classification, regardless of whether the reporter is an employee
of a government entity. The remedies and penalties under sections 13.08 and 13.09 apply
if a reporter releases data in violation of this chapter or other law.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Data provided to commissioner of education. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of education
must be provided with all requested data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and
are in possession of a school facility as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 6, clause
(2), when the data are requested pursuant to an assessment or investigation of a maltreatment
report of a student in a school. If the commissioner of education makes a determination of
maltreatment involving an individual performing work within a school facility who is
licensed by a board or other agency, the commissioner shall provide a copy of its offender
maltreatment determination report to the licensing entity with all student-identifying
information removed. The offender maltreatment determination report shall include but is
not limited to the following sections: report of alleged maltreatment; legal standard;
investigation; summary of findings; determination; corrective action by a school;
reconsideration process; and a listing of records related to the investigation. Notwithstanding
section 13.03, subdivision 4, data received by a licensing entity under this paragraph are
governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity,
except that this section applies to the classification of and access to data on the reporter of
the maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Data retention. new text end

new text begin (a) Notwithstanding sections 138.163 and 138.17, a record
maintained or a record derived from a report of maltreatment by a local welfare agency,
agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, court services agency, or school
under this chapter shall be destroyed as provided in paragraphs (b) to (e) by the responsible
authority.
new text end

new text begin (b) For a report alleging maltreatment that was not accepted for assessment or
investigation, a family assessment case, and a case where an investigation results in no
determination of maltreatment or the need for child protective services, the record must be
maintained for a period of five years after the date the report was not accepted for assessment
or investigation or the date of the final entry in the case record. A record of a report that
was not accepted must contain sufficient information to identify the subjects of the report,
the nature of the alleged maltreatment, and the reasons as to why the report was not accepted.
Records under this paragraph may not be used for employment, background checks, or
purposes other than to assist in future screening decisions and risk and safety assessments.
new text end

new text begin (c) All records relating to reports that, upon investigation, indicate either maltreatment
or a need for child protective services shall be maintained for ten years after the date of the
final entry in the case record.
new text end

new text begin (d) All records regarding a report of maltreatment, including a notification of intent to
interview that was received by a school under section 260E.22, subdivision 7, shall be
destroyed by the school when ordered to do so by the agency conducting the assessment or
investigation. The agency shall order the destruction of the notification when other records
relating to the report under investigation or assessment are destroyed under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (e) Private or confidential data released to a court services agency under subdivision 3,
paragraph (d), must be destroyed by the court services agency when ordered to do so by the
local welfare agency that released the data. The local welfare agency or agency responsible
for assessing or investigating the report shall order destruction of the data when other records
relating to the assessment or investigation are destroyed under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Disclosure to public. new text end

new text begin (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law and
subject to this subdivision, a public agency shall disclose to the public, upon request, the
findings and information related to a child fatality or near fatality if:
new text end

new text begin (1) a person is criminally charged with having caused the child fatality or near fatality;
new text end

new text begin (2) a county attorney certifies that a person would have been charged with having caused
the child fatality or near fatality but for that person's death; or
new text end

new text begin (3) a child protection investigation resulted in a determination of maltreatment.
new text end

new text begin (b) Findings and information disclosed under this subdivision consist of a written
summary that includes any of the following information the agency is able to provide:
new text end

new text begin (1) the cause and circumstances regarding the child fatality or near fatality;
new text end

new text begin (2) the age and gender of the child;
new text end

new text begin (3) information on any previous reports of maltreatment that are pertinent to the
maltreatment that led to the child fatality or near fatality;
new text end

new text begin (4) information on any previous investigations that are pertinent to the maltreatment that
led to the child fatality or near fatality;
new text end

new text begin (5) the result of any investigations described in clause (4);
new text end

new text begin (6) actions of and services provided by the local welfare agency on behalf of a child that
are pertinent to the maltreatment that led to the child fatality or near fatality; and
new text end

new text begin (7) the result of any review of the state child mortality review panel, a local child mortality
review panel, a local community child protection team, or any public agency.
new text end

new text begin (c) Nothing in this subdivision authorizes access to the private data in the custody of a
local welfare agency, or the disclosure to the public of the records or content of any
psychiatric, psychological, or therapeutic evaluation, or the disclosure of information that
would reveal the identities of persons who provided information related to maltreatment of
the child.
new text end

new text begin (d) A person whose request is denied may apply to the appropriate court for an order
compelling disclosure of all or part of the findings and information of the public agency.
The application must set forth, with reasonable particularity, factors supporting the
application. The court has jurisdiction to issue these orders. Actions under this chapter must
be set down for immediate hearing, and subsequent proceedings in those actions must be
given priority by the appellate courts.
new text end

new text begin (e) A public agency or its employees acting in good faith in disclosing or declining to
disclose information under this chapter are immune from criminal or civil liability that might
otherwise be incurred or imposed for that action.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Disclosure not required. new text end

new text begin When interviewing a child under this chapter, an
individual does not include the parent or guardian of the child for purposes of section 13.04,
subdivision 2, when the parent or guardian is the alleged offender.
new text end

Sec. 36.

new text begin [260E.36] SPECIALIZED TRAINING AND EDUCATION REQUIRED.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Job classification; continuing education. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner of
human services, for employees subject to the Minnesota Merit System, and directors of
county personnel systems, for counties not subject to the Minnesota Merit System, shall
establish a job classification consisting exclusively of persons with the specialized knowledge,
skills, and experience required to satisfactorily perform child protection duties pursuant to
this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (b) All child protection workers or social services staff having responsibility for child
protection duties under this chapter shall receive 15 hours of continuing education or
in-service training each year relevant to providing child protective services. The local welfare
agency shall maintain a record of training completed by each employee having responsibility
for performing child protection duties.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Child protection worker foundation education. new text end

new text begin An individual who seeks
employment as a child protection worker after the commissioner of human services has
implemented the foundation training program developed under section 260E.37 must
complete competency-based foundation training during their first six months of employment
as a child protection worker.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Background studies. new text end

new text begin (a) County employees hired on or after July 1, 2015, who
have responsibility for child protection duties or current county employees who are assigned
new child protection duties on or after July 1, 2015, are required to undergo a background
study. A county may complete these background studies by either:
new text end

new text begin (1) use of the Department of Human Services NETStudy 2.0 system according to sections
245C.03 and 245C.10; or
new text end

new text begin (2) an alternative process defined by the county.
new text end

new text begin (b) County social services agencies and local welfare agencies must initiate background
studies before an individual begins a position allowing direct contact with persons served
by the agency.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Joint training. new text end

new text begin The commissioners of human services and public safety shall
cooperate in the development of a joint program for training child maltreatment services
professionals in the appropriate techniques for child maltreatment assessment and
investigation. The program shall include but need not be limited to the following areas:
new text end

new text begin (1) the public policy goals of the state as set forth in section 260C.001 and the role of
the assessment or investigation in meeting these goals;
new text end

new text begin (2) the special duties of child protection workers and law enforcement officers under
this chapter;
new text end

new text begin (3) the appropriate methods for directing and managing affiliated professionals who
may be utilized in providing protective services and strengthening family ties;
new text end

new text begin (4) the appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims of child maltreatment and
other children in the course of performing an assessment or an investigation;
new text end

new text begin (5) the dynamics of child maltreatment within family systems and the appropriate methods
for interviewing parents in the course of the assessment or investigation, including training
in recognizing cases in which one of the parents is a victim of domestic abuse and in need
of special legal or medical services;
new text end

new text begin (6) the legal, evidentiary considerations that may be relevant to the conduct of an
assessment or an investigation;
new text end

new text begin (7) the circumstances under which it is appropriate to remove the alleged offender or
the alleged victim from the home;
new text end

new text begin (8) the protective social services that are available to protect alleged victims from further
maltreatment, to prevent child maltreatment and domestic abuse, and to preserve the family
unit; and training in the preparation of case plans to coordinate services for the alleged child
victim with services for any parents who are victims of domestic abuse;
new text end

new text begin (9) the methods by which child protection workers and law enforcement workers
cooperate in conducting assessments and investigations in order to avoid duplication of
efforts; and
new text end

new text begin (10) appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims and conducting investigations
in cases where the alleged victim is developmentally, physically, or mentally disabled.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Priority training. new text end

new text begin The commissioners of human services and public safety
shall provide the program courses described in subdivision 2 at convenient times and
locations in the state. The commissioners shall give training priority in the program areas
cited in subdivision 2 to persons currently performing assessments and investigations
pursuant to this chapter.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Revenue. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall add the following
funds to the funds appropriated under section 260E.37, subdivision 2, to develop and support
training.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner of human services shall submit claims for federal reimbursement
earned through the activities and services supported through Department of Human Services
child protection or child welfare training funds. Federal revenue earned must be used to
improve and expand training services by the department. The department expenditures
eligible for federal reimbursement under this section must not be made from federal funds
or funds used to match other federal funds.
new text end

new text begin (c) Each year, the commissioner of human services shall withhold from funds distributed
to each county under Minnesota Rules, parts 9550.0300 to 9550.0370, an amount equivalent
to 1.5 percent of each county's annual title XX allocation under section 256M.50. The
commissioner must use these funds to ensure decentralization of training.
new text end

new text begin (d) The federal revenue under this subdivision is available for these purposes until the
funds are expended.
new text end

Sec. 37.

new text begin [260E.37] CHILD PROTECTION WORKERS; TRAINING.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the
meanings given unless the specific context indicates otherwise.
new text end

new text begin (b) "Advanced training" means training provided to a local child protection worker after
the person has performed an initial six months of employment as a child protection worker.
new text end

new text begin (c) "Child protection agency" means an agency authorized to receive reports, conduct
assessments and investigations, and make determinations pursuant to this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (d) "Child protection services" means the receipt and assessment of reports of
maltreatment and the provision of services to families and children when maltreatment has
occurred or when there is risk of maltreatment. These services include:
new text end

new text begin (1) the assessment of risk to a child alleged to have been maltreated;
new text end

new text begin (2) interviews of any person alleged to have maltreated a child and the child or children
involved in the report, and interviews with persons having facts or knowledge necessary to
assess the level of risk to a child and the need for protective intervention;
new text end

new text begin (3) the gathering of written or evidentiary materials;
new text end

new text begin (4) the recording of case findings and determinations; and
new text end

new text begin (5) other actions required by this chapter, administrative rule, or agency policy.
new text end

new text begin (e) "Competency-based training" means a course of instruction that provides both
information and skills practice, which is based upon clearly stated and measurable
instructional objectives, and which requires demonstration of the achievement of a particular
standard of skills and knowledge for satisfactory completion.
new text end

new text begin (f) "Foundation training" means training provided to a local child protection worker
after the person has begun to perform child protection duties, but before the expiration of
six months of employment as a child protection worker. This foundation training must occur
during the performance of job duties and must include an evaluation of the employee's
application of skills and knowledge.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Training program; development. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of human services shall
develop a program of competency-based foundation and advanced training for child
protection workers if funds are appropriated to the commissioner for this purpose.
new text end

Sec. 38.

new text begin [260E.38] AUDIT.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Audit required. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall regularly audit for accuracy
the data reported by counties on maltreatment of children.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Audit procedure. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall develop a plan to perform quality
assurance reviews of local welfare agency screening practices and decisions. The
commissioner shall provide oversight and guidance to counties to ensure consistent
application of screening guidelines, thorough and appropriate screening decisions, and
correct documentation and maintenance of reports.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Report required. new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall produce an annual report of the
summary results of the reviews. The report must only contain aggregate data and may not
include any data that could be used to personally identify any subject whose data is included
in the report. The report is public information and must be provided to the chairs and ranking
minority members of the legislative committees having jurisdiction over child protection
issues.
new text end

Sec. 39. new text beginREPEALER.
new text end

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2018, sections 626.556, subdivisions 1, 3, 3a, 3c, 3d, 3f, 4, 4a,
5, 6, 6a, 7, 7a, 8, 9, 10a, 10b, 10c, 10d, 10e, 10f, 10g, 10h, 10i, 10j, 10k, 10l, 10m, 10n,
11a, 11b, 11c, 11d, 12, 14, 15, and 16; 626.5561; 626.5562; 626.558; 626.559, subdivisions
1, 1a, 1b, 2, 3, and 5; 626.5591; and 626.561,
new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 626.556, subdivisions 2, 3b, 3e, 10,
and 11,
new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

ARTICLE 8

MALTREATMENT OF MINORS ACT CONFORMING CHANGES

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.32, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Private data; when disclosure is permitted.

Except as provided in subdivision
5, educational data is private data on individuals and shall not be disclosed except as follows:

(a) pursuant to section 13.05;

(b) pursuant to a valid court order;

(c) pursuant to a statute specifically authorizing access to the private data;

(d) to disclose information in health, including mental health, and safety emergencies
pursuant to the provisions of United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(1)(I) and Code
of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.36;

(e) pursuant to the provisions of United States Code, title 20, sections 1232g(b)(1),
(b)(4)(A), (b)(4)(B), (b)(1)(B), (b)(3), (b)(6), (b)(7), and (i), and Code of Federal Regulations,
title 34, sections 99.31, 99.32, 99.33, 99.34, 99.35, and 99.39;

(f) to appropriate health authorities to the extent necessary to administer immunization
programs and for bona fide epidemiologic investigations which the commissioner of health
determines are necessary to prevent disease or disability to individuals in the public
educational agency or institution in which the investigation is being conducted;

(g) when disclosure is required for institutions that participate in a program under title
IV of the Higher Education Act, United States Code, title 20, section 1092;

(h) to the appropriate school district officials to the extent necessary under subdivision
6, annually to indicate the extent and content of remedial instruction, including the results
of assessment testing and academic performance at a postsecondary institution during the
previous academic year by a student who graduated from a Minnesota school district within
two years before receiving the remedial instruction;

(i) to appropriate authorities as provided in United States Code, title 20, section
1232g(b)(1)(E)(ii), if the data concern the juvenile justice system and the ability of the
system to effectively serve, prior to adjudication, the student whose records are released;
provided that the authorities to whom the data are released submit a written request for the
data that certifies that the data will not be disclosed to any other person except as authorized
by law without the written consent of the parent of the student and the request and a record
of the release are maintained in the student's file;

(j) to volunteers who are determined to have a legitimate educational interest in the data
and who are conducting activities and events sponsored by or endorsed by the educational
agency or institution for students or former students;

(k) to provide student recruiting information, from educational data held by colleges
and universities, as required by and subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 32, section
216;

(l) to the juvenile justice system if information about the behavior of a student who poses
a risk of harm is reasonably necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other
individuals;

(m) with respect to Social Security numbers of students in the adult basic education
system, to Minnesota State Colleges and Universities and the Department of Employment
and Economic Development for the purpose and in the manner described in section 124D.52,
subdivision 7
;

(n) to the commissioner of education for purposes of an assessment or investigation of
a report of alleged maltreatment of a student as mandated by deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.
Upon request by the commissioner of education, data that are relevant to a report of
maltreatment and are from charter school and school district investigations of alleged
maltreatment of a student must be disclosed to the commissioner, including, but not limited
to, the following:

(1) information regarding the student alleged to have been maltreated;

(2) information regarding student and employee witnesses;

(3) information regarding the alleged perpetrator; and

(4) what corrective or protective action was taken, if any, by the school facility in response
to a report of maltreatment by an employee or agent of the school or school district;

(o) when the disclosure is of the final results of a disciplinary proceeding on a charge
of a crime of violence or nonforcible sex offense to the extent authorized under United
States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(6)(A) and (B) and Code of Federal Regulations, title
34, sections 99.31 (a)(13) and (14);

(p) when the disclosure is information provided to the institution under United States
Code, title 42, section 14071, concerning registered sex offenders to the extent authorized
under United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(7); or

(q) when the disclosure is to a parent of a student at an institution of postsecondary
education regarding the student's violation of any federal, state, or local law or of any rule
or policy of the institution, governing the use or possession of alcohol or of a controlled
substance, to the extent authorized under United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(i), and
Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.31 (a)(15), and provided the institution
has an information release form signed by the student authorizing disclosure to a parent.
The institution must notify parents and students about the purpose and availability of the
information release forms. At a minimum, the institution must distribute the information
release forms at parent and student orientation meetings.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.3805, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Office of Health Facility Complaints; investigative data.

Except for
investigative data under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, all investigative data maintained by
the Department of Health's Office of Health Facility Complaints are subject to provisions
of and classified pursuant to section 626.557, subdivision 12b, paragraphs (b) to (d).
Notwithstanding sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.21, subdivision 4; 260E.35;new text end and
626.557, subdivision 12b, paragraph (b), data identifying an individual substantiated as the
perpetrator are public data. For purposes of this subdivision, an individual is substantiated
as the perpetrator if the commissioner of health determines that the individual is the
perpetrator and the determination of the commissioner is upheld after the individual either
exercises applicable administrative appeal rights or fails to exercise these rights within the
time allowed by law.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.43, subdivision 14, is amended to read:


Subd. 14.

Maltreatment data.

(a) When a report of alleged maltreatment of a student
in a school facility, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (c)deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03,
subdivision 6
new text end, is made to the commissioner of education under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter
260E
new text end, data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are collected by the school
facility about the person alleged to have committed maltreatment must be provided to the
commissioner of education upon request for purposes of an assessment or investigation of
the maltreatment report. Data received by the commissioner of education pursuant to these
assessments or investigations are classified under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

(b) Personnel data may be released for purposes of providing information to a parent,
legal guardian, or custodian of a child under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 7deleted text endnew text begin 260E.15new text end.

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 13.46, subdivision 3, is amended to
read:


Subd. 3.

Investigative data.

(a) Data on persons, including data on vendors of services,
licensees, and applicants that is collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by the welfare
system in an investigation, authorized by statute, and relating to the enforcement of rules
or law are confidential data on individuals pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 3, or
protected nonpublic data not on individuals pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 13, and
shall not be disclosed except:

(1) pursuant to section 13.05;

(2) pursuant to statute or valid court order;

(3) to a party named in a civil or criminal proceeding, administrative or judicial, for
preparation of defense;

(4) to an agent of the welfare system or an investigator acting on behalf of a county,
state, or federal government, including a law enforcement officer or attorney in the
investigation or prosecution of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, unless the
commissioner of human services determines that disclosure may compromise a Department
of Human Services ongoing investigation; or

(5) to provide notices required or permitted by statute.

The data referred to in this subdivision shall be classified as public data upon submission
to an administrative law judge or court in an administrative or judicial proceeding. Inactive
welfare investigative data shall be treated as provided in section 13.39, subdivision 3.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision in law, the commissioner of human services
shall provide all active and inactive investigative data, including the name of the reporter
of alleged maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, to the ombudsman
for mental health and developmental disabilities upon the request of the ombudsman.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) and section 13.39, the existence of an investigation
by the commissioner of human services of possible overpayments of public funds to a service
provider or recipient may be disclosed if the commissioner determines that it will not
compromise the investigation.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 13.46, subdivision 4, is amended to
read:


Subd. 4.

Licensing data.

(a) As used in this subdivision:

(1) "licensing data" are all data collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by the
welfare system pertaining to persons licensed or registered or who apply for licensure or
registration or who formerly were licensed or registered under the authority of the
commissioner of human services;

(2) "client" means a person who is receiving services from a licensee or from an applicant
for licensure; and

(3) "personal and personal financial data" are Social Security numbers, identity of and
letters of reference, insurance information, reports from the Bureau of Criminal
Apprehension, health examination reports, and social/home studies.

(b)(1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c), the following data on applicants, license
holders, and former licensees are public: name, address, telephone number of licensees,
date of receipt of a completed application, dates of licensure, licensed capacity, type of
client preferred, variances granted, record of training and education in child care and child
development, type of dwelling, name and relationship of other family members, previous
license history, class of license, the existence and status of complaints, and the number of
serious injuries to or deaths of individuals in the licensed program as reported to the
commissioner of human services, the local social services agency, or any other county
welfare agency. For purposes of this clause, a serious injury is one that is treated by a
physician.

(ii) Except as provided in item (v), when a correction order, an order to forfeit a fine,
an order of license suspension, an order of temporary immediate suspension, an order of
license revocation, an order of license denial, or an order of conditional license has been
issued, or a complaint is resolved, the following data on current and former licensees and
applicants are public: the general nature of the complaint or allegations leading to the
temporary immediate suspension; the substance and investigative findings of the licensing
or maltreatment complaint, licensing violation, or substantiated maltreatment; the existence
of settlement negotiations; the record of informal resolution of a licensing violation; orders
of hearing; findings of fact; conclusions of law; specifications of the final correction order,
fine, suspension, temporary immediate suspension, revocation, denial, or conditional license
contained in the record of licensing action; whether a fine has been paid; and the status of
any appeal of these actions.

(iii) When a license denial under section 245A.05 or a sanction under section 245A.07
is based on a determination that a license holder, applicant, or controlling individual is
responsible for maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, the identity
of the applicant, license holder, or controlling individual as the individual responsible for
maltreatment is public data at the time of the issuance of the license denial or sanction.

(iv) When a license denial under section 245A.05 or a sanction under section 245A.07
is based on a determination that a license holder, applicant, or controlling individual is
disqualified under chapter 245C, the identity of the license holder, applicant, or controlling
individual as the disqualified individual and the reason for the disqualification are public
data at the time of the issuance of the licensing sanction or denial. If the applicant, license
holder, or controlling individual requests reconsideration of the disqualification and the
disqualification is affirmed, the reason for the disqualification and the reason to not set aside
the disqualification are public data.

(v) A correction order or fine issued to a child care provider for a licensing violation is
private data on individuals under section 13.02, subdivision 12, or nonpublic data under
section 13.02, subdivision 9, if the correction order or fine is seven years old or older.

(2) For applicants who withdraw their application prior to licensure or denial of a license,
the following data are public: the name of the applicant, the city and county in which the
applicant was seeking licensure, the dates of the commissioner's receipt of the initial
application and completed application, the type of license sought, and the date of withdrawal
of the application.

(3) For applicants who are denied a license, the following data are public: the name and
address of the applicant, the city and county in which the applicant was seeking licensure,
the dates of the commissioner's receipt of the initial application and completed application,
the type of license sought, the date of denial of the application, the nature of the basis for
the denial, the existence of settlement negotiations, the record of informal resolution of a
denial, orders of hearings, findings of fact, conclusions of law, specifications of the final
order of denial, and the status of any appeal of the denial.

(4) When maltreatment is substantiated under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter
260E
new text endand the victim and the substantiated perpetrator are affiliated with a program licensed
under chapter 245A, the commissioner of human services, local social services agency, or
county welfare agency may inform the license holder where the maltreatment occurred of
the identity of the substantiated perpetrator and the victim.

(5) Notwithstanding clause (1), for child foster care, only the name of the license holder
and the status of the license are public if the county attorney has requested that data otherwise
classified as public data under clause (1) be considered private data based on the best interests
of a child in placement in a licensed program.

(c) The following are private data on individuals under section 13.02, subdivision 12,
or nonpublic data under section 13.02, subdivision 9: personal and personal financial data
on family day care program and family foster care program applicants and licensees and
their family members who provide services under the license.

(d) The following are private data on individuals: the identity of persons who have made
reports concerning licensees or applicants that appear in inactive investigative data, and the
records of clients or employees of the licensee or applicant for licensure whose records are
received by the licensing agency for purposes of review or in anticipation of a contested
matter. The names of reporters of complaints or alleged violations of licensing standards
under chapters 245A, 245B, 245C, and 245D, and applicable rules and alleged maltreatment
under deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end, are confidential data and
may be disclosed only as provided in deleted text beginsection 626.556, subdivision 11,deleted text end new text beginsection 260E.21,
subdivision 4; 260E.35;
new text endor 626.557, subdivision 12b.

(e) Data classified as private, confidential, nonpublic, or protected nonpublic under this
subdivision become public data if submitted to a court or administrative law judge as part
of a disciplinary proceeding in which there is a public hearing concerning a license which
has been suspended, immediately suspended, revoked, or denied.

(f) Data generated in the course of licensing investigations that relate to an alleged
violation of law are investigative data under subdivision 3.

(g) Data that are not public data collected, maintained, used, or disseminated under this
subdivision that relate to or are derived from a report as defined in section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 2
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, or 626.5572, subdivision 18, are subject to the destruction provisions
of sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11cdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 6new text end, and 626.557, subdivision 12b.

(h) Upon request, not public data collected, maintained, used, or disseminated under
this subdivision that relate to or are derived from a report of substantiated maltreatment as
defined in section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endmay be exchanged with the
Department of Health for purposes of completing background studies pursuant to section
144.057 and with the Department of Corrections for purposes of completing background
studies pursuant to section 241.021.

(i) Data on individuals collected according to licensing activities under chapters 245A
and 245C, data on individuals collected by the commissioner of human services according
to investigations under new text beginsection 626.557 and new text endchapters 245A, 245B, 245C, deleted text beginanddeleted text end 245D, and
deleted text begin sections 626.556 and 626.557deleted text endnew text begin 260Enew text end may be shared with the Department of Human Rights,
the Department of Health, the Department of Corrections, the ombudsman for mental health
and developmental disabilities, and the individual's professional regulatory board when
there is reason to believe that laws or standards under the jurisdiction of those agencies may
have been violated or the information may otherwise be relevant to the board's regulatory
jurisdiction. Background study data on an individual who is the subject of a background
study under chapter 245C for a licensed service for which the commissioner of human
services is the license holder may be shared with the commissioner and the commissioner's
delegate by the licensing division. Unless otherwise specified in this chapter, the identity
of a reporter of alleged maltreatment or licensing violations may not be disclosed.

(j) In addition to the notice of determinations required under deleted text beginsection 626.556, subdivision
10f
,
deleted text end new text beginsections 260E.24, subdivisions 5 and 7, and 260E.30, subdivision 6, paragraphs (b),
(c), (d), (e), and (f),
new text endif the commissioner or the local social services agency has determined
that an individual is a substantiated perpetrator of maltreatment of a child based on sexual
abuse, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, and the commissioner or local
social services agency knows that the individual is a person responsible for a child's care
in another facility, the commissioner or local social services agency shall notify the head
of that facility of this determination. The notification must include an explanation of the
individual's available appeal rights and the status of any appeal. If a notice is given under
this paragraph, the government entity making the notification shall provide a copy of the
notice to the individual who is the subject of the notice.

(k) All not public data collected, maintained, used, or disseminated under this subdivision
and subdivision 3 may be exchanged between the Department of Human Services, Licensing
Division, and the Department of Corrections for purposes of regulating services for which
the Department of Human Services and the Department of Corrections have regulatory
authority.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.82, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Child abuse identity data.

Active or inactive investigative data that identify
a victim of child abuse or neglect reported under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end are private
data on individuals. Active or inactive investigative data that identify a reporter of child
abuse or neglect under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end are confidential data on individuals,
unless the subject of the report compels disclosure under deleted text beginsection 626.556, subdivision 11deleted text endnew text begin
sections 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35
new text end.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.82, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Inactive child abuse data.

Investigative data that become inactive under
subdivision 7, clause (a) or (b), and that relate to the alleged abuse or neglect of a child by
a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end,
are private data.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.82, subdivision 17, is amended to read:


Subd. 17.

Protection of identities.

A law enforcement agency or a law enforcement
dispatching agency working under direction of a law enforcement agency shall withhold
public access to data on individuals to protect the identity of individuals in the following
circumstances:

(a) when access to the data would reveal the identity of an undercover law enforcement
officer, as provided in section 13.43, subdivision 5;

(b) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a victim or alleged victim of
criminal sexual conduct or sex trafficking under section 609.322, 609.341 to 609.3451, or
617.246, subdivision 2;

(c) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a paid or unpaid informant being
used by the agency if the agency reasonably determines that revealing the identity of the
informant would threaten the personal safety of the informant;

(d) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a victim of or witness to a crime
if the victim or witness specifically requests not to be identified publicly, unless the agency
reasonably determines that revealing the identity of the victim or witness would not threaten
the personal safety or property of the individual;

(e) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a deceased person whose body
was unlawfully removed from a cemetery in which it was interred;

(f) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a person who placed a call to a
911 system or the identity or telephone number of a service subscriber whose phone is used
to place a call to the 911 system and: (1) the agency determines that revealing the identity
may threaten the personal safety or property of any person; or (2) the object of the call is
to receive help in a mental health emergency. For the purposes of this paragraph, a voice
recording of a call placed to the 911 system is deemed to reveal the identity of the caller;

(g) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a juvenile witness and the agency
reasonably determines that the subject matter of the investigation justifies protecting the
identity of the witness; or

(h) when access to the data would reveal the identity of a mandated reporter under section
60A.952, subdivision 2, 609.456, deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end or 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end.

Data concerning individuals whose identities are protected by this subdivision are private
data about those individuals. Law enforcement agencies shall establish procedures to acquire
the data and make the decisions necessary to protect the identity of individuals described
in clauses (c), (d), (f), and (g).

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.821, is amended to read:


13.821 VIDEOTAPES OF CHILD ABUSE VICTIMS.

(a) Notwithstanding section 13.04, subdivision 3, an individual subject of data may not
obtain a copy of a videotape in which a child victim or alleged victim is alleging, explaining,
denying, or describing an act of physical or sexual abuse without a court order under section
13.03, subdivision 6, or 611A.90. The definitions of physical abuse and sexual abuse in
section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, apply to this section, except that abuse is not limited
to acts by a person responsible for the child's care or in a significant relationship with the
child or position of authority.

(b) This section does not limit other rights of access to data by an individual under section
13.04, subdivision 3, other than the right to obtain a copy of the videotape, nor prohibit
rights of access pursuant to discovery in a court proceeding.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.84, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Child abuse data; release to child protective services.

A court services agency
may release private or confidential data on an active case involving assessment or
investigation of actions that are defined as sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect under
deleted text begin section 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end to a local welfare agency if:

(1) the local welfare agency has an active case involving a common client or clients who
are the subject of the data; and

(2) the data are necessary for the local welfare agency to effectively process the agency's
case, including investigating or performing other duties relating to the case required by law.

Court services data disclosed under this subdivision may be used only for purposes of
the active case described in clause (1) and may not be further disclosed to any other person
or agency, except as authorized by law.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.871, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Training; investigation; apprehension; reports.

(a) Reports of gunshot
wounds.
Disclosure of the name of a person making a report under section 626.52,
subdivision 2
, is governed by section 626.53.

(b) Child abuse report records. Data contained in child abuse report records are
classified under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

(c) Interstate data exchange. Disclosure of child abuse reports to agencies of another
state is classified under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10gdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraphs
(b) and (c)
new text end.

(d) Release to family court services. Release of child abuse data to a court services
agency is authorized under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10hdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 3,
paragraphs (d) and (e)
new text end.

(e) Release of data to mandated reporters. Release of child abuse data to mandated
reporters who have an ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child
affected by the data is authorized under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10jdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision
4
new text end.

(f) Release of child abuse assessment or investigative records to other counties.
Release of child abuse investigative records to local welfare agencies is authorized under
section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10kdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraph (f)new text end.

(g) Classifying and sharing records and reports of child abuse. The classification of
child abuse data and the sharing of records and reports of child abuse by and between local
welfare agencies and law enforcement agencies are governed under deleted text beginsection 626.556,
subdivision 11
deleted text endnew text begin sections 260E.21, subdivision 4, and 260E.35new text end.

(h) Disclosure of information not required in certain cases. Disclosure of certain data
obtained from interviewing a minor is governed by section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11adeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35,
subdivision 8
new text end.

(i) Data received from law enforcement. Classifying child abuse data received by
certain agencies from law enforcement agencies is governed under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 11b
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraph (p)new text end.

(j) Disclosure in child fatality cases. Disclosure of information relating to a child fatality
is governed under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11ddeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 7new text end.

(k) Reports of prenatal exposure to controlled substances. Data on persons making
reports under section deleted text begin626.5561deleted text endnew text begin 260E.31new text end are classified under section deleted text begin626.5561, subdivision
3
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.35, subdivision 3new text end.

(l) Vulnerable adult report records. Data contained in vulnerable adult report records
are classified under section 626.557, subdivision 12b.

(m) Adult protection team information sharing. Sharing of local welfare agency
vulnerable adult data with a protection team is governed by section 626.5571, subdivision
3
.

(n) Child protection team. Data acquired by a case consultation committee or
subcommittee of a child protection team are classified by section deleted text begin626.558, subdivision 3deleted text endnew text begin
260E.02, subdivision 4
new text end.

(o) Peace officer discipline procedures. Access by an officer under investigation to
the investigating agency's investigative report on the officer is governed by section 626.89,
subdivision 6
.

(p) Racial profiling study data. Racial profiling study data is governed by Minnesota
Statutes 2006, section 626.951.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.88, is amended to read:


13.88 COMMUNITY DISPUTE RESOLUTION CENTER DATA.

The guidelines shall provide that all files relating to a case in a community dispute
resolution program are to be classified as private data on individuals, pursuant to section
13.02, subdivision 12, with the following exceptions:

(1) When a party to the case has been formally charged with a criminal offense, the data
are to be classified as public data on individuals, pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 15.

(2) Data relating to suspected neglect or physical or sexual abuse of children or
maltreatment of vulnerable adults are to be subject to the reporting requirements of deleted text beginsections
626.556 and
deleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 120B.22, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

In-service training.

Each district is encouraged to provide training for district
staff and school board members on the following:

(1) helping students identify violence in the family and the community so that students
may learn to resolve conflicts in effective, nonviolent ways;

(2) responding to a disclosure of child sexual abuse in a supportive, appropriate manner;
and

(3) complying with mandatory reporting requirements under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter
260E
new text end.

The in-service training must be ongoing and involve experts familiar with sexual abuse,
domestic violence, and personal safety issues.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 122A.20, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Mandatory reporting.

(a) A school board, superintendent, charter school
board, charter school executive director, or charter school authorizer must report to the
Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board, the Board of School Administrators,
or the Board of Trustees of the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities, whichever has
jurisdiction over the teacher's or administrator's license, when its teacher or administrator
is discharged or resigns from employment after a charge is filed with the school board under
section 122A.41, subdivisions 6, clauses (1), (2), and (3), and 7, or after charges are filed
that are grounds for discharge under section 122A.40, subdivision 13, paragraph (a), clauses
(1) to (5), or when a teacher or administrator is suspended or resigns while an investigation
is pending under section 122A.40, subdivision 13, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (5)new text begin, or chapter
260E
new text end; new text beginor new text end122A.41, subdivisions 6, clauses (1), (2), and (3), and 7; deleted text beginor 626.556,deleted text end or when a
teacher or administrator is suspended without an investigation under section 122A.41,
subdivisions 6, paragraph (a)
, clauses (1), (2), and (3), and 7deleted text begin; or 626.556deleted text endnew text begin, or chapter 260Enew text end.
The report must be made to the appropriate licensing board within ten days after the
discharge, suspension, or resignation has occurred. The licensing board to which the report
is made must investigate the report for violation of subdivision 1 and the reporting board,
administrator, or authorizer must cooperate in the investigation. Notwithstanding any
provision in chapter 13 or any law to the contrary, upon written request from the licensing
board having jurisdiction over the license, a board, charter school, authorizer, charter school
executive director, or school superintendent shall provide the licensing board with information
about the teacher or administrator from the district's files, any termination or disciplinary
proceeding, any settlement or compromise, or any investigative file. Upon written request
from the appropriate licensing board, a board or school superintendent may, at the discretion
of the board or school superintendent, solicit the written consent of a student and the student's
parent to provide the licensing board with information that may aid the licensing board in
its investigation and license proceedings. The licensing board's request need not identify a
student or parent by name. The consent of the student and the student's parent must meet
the requirements of chapter 13 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.30.
The licensing board may provide a consent form to the district. Any data transmitted to any
board under this section is private data under section 13.02, subdivision 12, notwithstanding
any other classification of the data when it was in the possession of any other agency.

(b) The licensing board to which a report is made must transmit to the Attorney General's
Office any record or data it receives under this subdivision for the sole purpose of having
the Attorney General's Office assist that board in its investigation. When the Attorney
General's Office has informed an employee of the appropriate licensing board in writing
that grounds exist to suspend or revoke a teacher's license to teach, that licensing board
must consider suspending or revoking or decline to suspend or revoke the teacher's or
administrator's license within 45 days of receiving a stipulation executed by the teacher or
administrator under investigation or a recommendation from an administrative law judge
that disciplinary action be taken.

(c) The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and Board of School
Administrators must report to the appropriate law enforcement authorities a revocation,
suspension, or agreement involving a loss of license, relating to a teacher or administrator's
inappropriate sexual conduct with a minor. For purposes of this section, "law enforcement
authority" means a police department, county sheriff, or tribal police department. A report
by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board to appropriate law enforcement
authorities does not diminish, modify, or otherwise affect the responsibilities of a school
board or any person mandated to report abuse under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 122A.40, subdivision 13, is amended
to read:


Subd. 13.

Immediate discharge.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), a
board may discharge a continuing-contract teacher, effective immediately, upon any of the
following grounds:

(1) immoral conduct, insubordination, or conviction of a felony;

(2) conduct unbecoming a teacher which requires the immediate removal of the teacher
from classroom or other duties;

(3) failure without justifiable cause to teach without first securing the written release of
the school board;

(4) gross inefficiency which the teacher has failed to correct after reasonable written
notice;

(5) willful neglect of duty; or

(6) continuing physical or mental disability subsequent to a 12 months leave of absence
and inability to qualify for reinstatement in accordance with subdivision 12.

For purposes of this paragraph, conduct unbecoming a teacher includes an unfair
discriminatory practice described in section 363A.13.

Prior to discharging a teacher under this paragraph, the board must notify the teacher in
writing and state its ground for the proposed discharge in reasonable detail. Within ten days
after receipt of this notification the teacher may make a written request for a hearing before
the board and it shall be granted before final action is taken. The board may suspend a
teacher with pay pending the conclusion of the hearing and determination of the issues
raised in the hearing after charges have been filed which constitute ground for discharge.
If a teacher has been charged with a felony and the underlying conduct that is the subject
of the felony charge is a ground for a proposed immediate discharge, the suspension pending
the conclusion of the hearing and determination of the issues may be without pay. If a
hearing under this paragraph is held, the board must reimburse the teacher for any salary
or compensation withheld if the final decision of the board or the arbitrator does not result
in a penalty to or suspension, termination, or discharge of the teacher.

(b) A board must discharge a continuing-contract teacher, effective immediately, upon
receipt of notice under section 122A.20, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), that the teacher's
license has been revoked due to a conviction for child abuse, as defined in section 609.185;
sex trafficking in the first degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1; sex trafficking in
the second degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1a; engaging in hiring or agreeing to
hire a minor to engage in prostitution under section 609.324, subdivision 1; sexual abuse
under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, subdivision 3, or 617.23,
subdivision 3
; solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct or communication of
sexually explicit materials to children under section 609.352; interference with privacy
under section 609.746 or harassment or stalking under section 609.749 and the victim was
a minor; using minors in a sexual performance under section 617.246; possessing
pornographic works involving a minor under section 617.247; or any other offense not listed
in this paragraph that requires the person to register as a predatory offender under section
243.166, or a crime under a similar law of another state or the United States.

(c) When a teacher is discharged under paragraph (b) or when the commissioner makes
a final determination of child maltreatment involving a teacher under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 11
,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35,new text end the school principal or other person
having administrative control of the school must include in the teacher's employment record
the information contained in the record of the disciplinary action or the final maltreatment
determination, consistent with the definition of public data under section 13.41, subdivision
5
, and must provide the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the
licensing division at the department with the necessary and relevant information to enable
the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department's licensing
division to fulfill their statutory and administrative duties related to issuing, renewing,
suspending, or revoking a teacher's license. Information received by the Professional Educator
Licensing and Standards Board or the licensing division at the department under this
paragraph is governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the
receiving entity. In addition to the background check required under section 123B.03, a
school board or other school hiring authority must contact the Professional Educator
Licensing and Standards Board and the department to determine whether the teacher's license
has been suspended or revoked, consistent with the discharge and final maltreatment
determinations identified in this paragraph. Unless restricted by federal or state data practices
law or by the terms of a collective bargaining agreement, the responsible authority for a
school district must disseminate to another school district private personnel data on a current
or former teacher employee or contractor of the district, including the results of background
investigations, if the requesting school district seeks the information because the subject of
the data has applied for employment with the requesting school district.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 122A.41, subdivision 6, is amended
to read:


Subd. 6.

Grounds for discharge or demotion.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in
paragraph (b), causes for the discharge or demotion of a teacher either during or after the
probationary period must be:

(1) immoral character, conduct unbecoming a teacher, or insubordination;

(2) failure without justifiable cause to teach without first securing the written release of
the school board having the care, management, or control of the school in which the teacher
is employed;

(3) inefficiency in teaching or in the management of a school, consistent with subdivision
5, paragraph (b);

(4) affliction with a communicable disease must be considered as cause for removal or
suspension while the teacher is suffering from such disability; or

(5) discontinuance of position or lack of pupils.

For purposes of this paragraph, conduct unbecoming a teacher includes an unfair
discriminatory practice described in section 363A.13.

(b) A probationary or continuing-contract teacher must be discharged immediately upon
receipt of notice under section 122A.20, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), that the teacher's
license has been revoked due to a conviction for child abuse, as defined in section 609.185;
sex trafficking in the first degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1; sex trafficking in
the second degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1a; engaging in hiring or agreeing to
hire a minor to engage in prostitution under section 609.324, subdivision 1; sexual abuse
under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, subdivision 3, or 617.23,
subdivision 3
; solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct or communication of
sexually explicit materials to children under section 609.352; interference with privacy
under section 609.746 or harassment or stalking under section 609.749 and the victim was
a minor; using minors in a sexual performance under section 617.246; possessing
pornographic works involving a minor under section 617.247; or any other offense not listed
in this paragraph that requires the person to register as a predatory offender under section
243.166, or a crime under a similar law of another state or the United States.

(c) When a teacher is discharged under paragraph (b) or when the commissioner makes
a final determination of child maltreatment involving a teacher under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 11
,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35,new text end the school principal or other person
having administrative control of the school must include in the teacher's employment record
the information contained in the record of the disciplinary action or the final maltreatment
determination, consistent with the definition of public data under section 13.41, subdivision
5
, and must provide the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the
licensing division at the department with the necessary and relevant information to enable
the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department's licensing
division to fulfill their statutory and administrative duties related to issuing, renewing,
suspending, or revoking a teacher's license. Information received by the Professional Educator
Licensing and Standards Board or the licensing division at the department under this
paragraph is governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the
receiving entity. In addition to the background check required under section 123B.03, a
school board or other school hiring authority must contact the Professional Educator
Licensing and Standards Board and the department to determine whether the teacher's license
has been suspended or revoked, consistent with the discharge and final maltreatment
determinations identified in this paragraph. Unless restricted by federal or state data practices
law or by the terms of a collective bargaining agreement, the responsible authority for a
school district must disseminate to another school district private personnel data on a current
or former teacher employee or contractor of the district, including the results of background
investigations, if the requesting school district seeks the information because the subject of
the data has applied for employment with the requesting school district.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 125A.0942, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Prohibitions.

The following actions or procedures are prohibited:

(1) engaging in conduct prohibited under section 121A.58;

(2) requiring a child to assume and maintain a specified physical position, activity, or
posture that induces physical pain;

(3) totally or partially restricting a child's senses as punishment;

(4) presenting an intense sound, light, or other sensory stimuli using smell, taste,
substance, or spray as punishment;

(5) denying or restricting a child's access to equipment and devices such as walkers,
wheelchairs, hearing aids, and communication boards that facilitate the child's functioning,
except when temporarily removing the equipment or device is needed to prevent injury to
the child or others or serious damage to the equipment or device, in which case the equipment
or device shall be returned to the child as soon as possible;

(6) interacting with a child in a manner that constitutes sexual abuse, neglect, or physical
abuse under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end;

(7) withholding regularly scheduled meals or water;

(8) denying access to bathroom facilities;

(9) physical holding that restricts or impairs a child's ability to breathe, restricts or impairs
a child's ability to communicate distress, places pressure or weight on a child's head, throat,
neck, chest, lungs, sternum, diaphragm, back, or abdomen, or results in straddling a child's
torso; and

(10) prone restraint.

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 135A.15, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Applicability of other laws.

This section does not exempt mandatory reporters
from the requirements of section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endgoverning the reporting
of maltreatment of minors or vulnerable adults. Nothing in this section limits the authority
of an institution to comply with other applicable state or federal laws related to investigations
or reports of sexual harassment, sexual violence, or sexual assault.

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.225, subdivision 2b, is amended to read:


Subd. 2b.

Commissioner of health; duties.

Notwithstanding the designation of certain
of this data as confidential under subdivision 2 or private under subdivision 2a, the
commissioner shall give the commissioner of human services access to birth record data
and data contained in recognitions of parentage prepared according to section 257.75
necessary to enable the commissioner of human services to identify a child who is subject
to threatened injury, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (p)deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03,
subdivision 23
new text end, by a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 2
, paragraph (j), clause (1)
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivision 17new text end. The commissioner shall
be given access to all data included on official birth records.

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.343, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Limitations.

No notice shall be required under this section if:

(1) the attending physician certifies in the pregnant woman's medical record that the
abortion is necessary to prevent the woman's death and there is insufficient time to provide
the required notice; or

(2) the abortion is authorized in writing by the person or persons who are entitled to
notice; or

(3) the pregnant minor woman declares that she is a victim of sexual abuse, neglect, or
physical abuse as defined in deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. Notice of that declaration shall
be made to the proper authorities as provided in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06new text end.

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.7065, subdivision 10, is amended to read:


Subd. 10.

Relation to other law; data classification.

(a) Adverse health events described
in subdivisions 2 to 6 do not constitute "maltreatment," "neglect," or "a physical injury that
is not reasonably explained" under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endand are
excluded from the reporting requirements of deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and
chapter 260E
new text end, provided the facility makes a determination within 24 hours of the discovery
of the event that this section is applicable and the facility files the reports required under
this section in a timely fashion.

(b) A facility that has determined that an event described in subdivisions 2 to 6 has
occurred must inform persons who are mandated reporters under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision
3
,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06new text end or 626.5572, subdivision 16, of that determination. A mandated reporter otherwise
required to report under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06new text end or 626.557, subdivision
3
, paragraph (e), is relieved of the duty to report an event that the facility determines under
paragraph (a) to be reportable under subdivisions 2 to 6.

(c) The protections and immunities applicable to voluntary reports under deleted text beginsections 626.556
and
deleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end are not affected by this section.

(d) Notwithstanding section deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end 626.557,new text begin chapter 260E,new text end or any other provision of
Minnesota statute or rule to the contrary, a lead agency under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision
3c
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.14, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), (b), and (c)new text end, a lead investigative agency under
section 626.5572, subdivision 13, the commissioner of health, or the director of the Office
of Health Facility Complaints is not required to conduct an investigation of or obtain or
create investigative data or reports regarding an event described in subdivisions 2 to 6. If
the facility satisfies the requirements described in paragraph (a), the review or investigation
shall be conducted and data or reports shall be obtained or created only under sections
144.706 to 144.7069, except as permitted or required under sections 144.50 to 144.564, or
as necessary to carry out the state's certification responsibility under the provisions of
sections 1864 and 1867 of the Social Security Act. If a licensed health care provider reports
an event to the facility required to be reported under subdivisions 2 to 6 in a timely manner,
the provider's licensing board is not required to conduct an investigation of or obtain or
create investigative data or reports regarding the individual reporting of the events described
in subdivisions 2 to 6.

(e) Data contained in the following records are nonpublic and, to the extent they contain
data on individuals, confidential data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02:

(1) reports provided to the commissioner under sections 147.155, 147A.155, 148.267,
151.301, and 153.255;

(2) event reports, findings of root cause analyses, and corrective action plans filed by a
facility under this section; and

(3) records created or obtained by the commissioner in reviewing or investigating the
reports, findings, and plans described in clause (2).

For purposes of the nonpublic data classification contained in this paragraph, the reporting
facility shall be deemed the subject of the data.

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.7068, is amended to read:


144.7068 REPORTS FROM LICENSING BOARDS.

(a) Effective upon full implementation of the adverse health care events reporting system,
the records maintained under sections 147.155, 147A.155, 148.267, 151.301, and 153.255,
shall be reported to the commissioner on the schedule established in those sections.

(b) The commissioner shall forward these reports to the facility named in the report.

(c) The facility shall determine whether the event has been previously reported under
section 144.7065. The facility shall notify the commissioner whether the event has been
reported previously. If the event has not been previously reported, the facility shall make a
determination whether the event was reportable under section 144.7065. If the facility
determines the event was reportable, the date of discovery of the event for the purposes of
section 144.7065, subdivision 10, paragraph (d), shall be as follows:

(1) if the commissioner determines that the facility knew or reasonably should have
known about the occurrence of the event, the date the event occurred shall be the date of
discovery. The facility shall be considered out of compliance with the reporting act, and
the event shall be subject to deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end; or

(2) if the commissioner determines that the facility did not know about the occurrence
of the event, the date the facility receives the report from the commissioner shall serve as
the date of discovery.

If the facility determines that the event was not reportable under section 144.7065, the
facility shall notify the commissioner of that determination.

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144A.472, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

License applications.

Each application for a home care provider license
must include information sufficient to show that the applicant meets the requirements of
licensure, including:

(1) the applicant's name, e-mail address, physical address, and mailing address, including
the name of the county in which the applicant resides and has a principal place of business;

(2) the initial license fee in the amount specified in subdivision 7;

(3) the e-mail address, physical address, mailing address, and telephone number of the
principal administrative office;

(4) the e-mail address, physical address, mailing address, and telephone number of each
branch office, if any;

(5) the names, e-mail and mailing addresses, and telephone numbers of all owners and
managerial officials;

(6) documentation of compliance with the background study requirements of section
144A.476 for all persons involved in the management, operation, or control of the home
care provider;

(7) documentation of a background study as required by section 144.057 for any
individual seeking employment, paid or volunteer, with the home care provider;

(8) evidence of workers' compensation coverage as required by sections 176.181 and
176.182;

(9) documentation of liability coverage, if the provider has it;

(10) identification of the license level the provider is seeking;

(11) documentation that identifies the managerial official who is in charge of day-to-day
operations and attestation that the person has reviewed and understands the home care
provider regulations;

(12) documentation that the applicant has designated one or more owners, managerial
officials, or employees as an agent or agents, which shall not affect the legal responsibility
of any other owner or managerial official under this chapter;

(13) the signature of the officer or managing agent on behalf of an entity, corporation,
association, or unit of government;

(14) verification that the applicant has the following policies and procedures in place so
that if a license is issued, the applicant will implement the policies and procedures and keep
them current:

(i) requirements in deleted text beginsections 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, reporting of maltreatment of minors,
andnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557, reporting of maltreatment of vulnerable adults;

(ii) conducting and handling background studies on employees;

(iii) orientation, training, and competency evaluations of home care staff, and a process
for evaluating staff performance;

(iv) handling complaints from clients, family members, or client representatives regarding
staff or services provided by staff;

(v) conducting initial evaluation of clients' needs and the providers' ability to provide
those services;

(vi) conducting initial and ongoing client evaluations and assessments and how changes
in a client's condition are identified, managed, and communicated to staff and other health
care providers as appropriate;

(vii) orientation to and implementation of the home care client bill of rights;

(viii) infection control practices;

(ix) reminders for medications, treatments, or exercises, if provided; and

(x) conducting appropriate screenings, or documentation of prior screenings, to show
that staff are free of tuberculosis, consistent with current United States Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention standards; and

(15) other information required by the department.

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144A.479, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Reporting maltreatment of vulnerable adults and minors.

(a) All home care
providers must comply with requirements for the reporting of maltreatment of minors in
deleted text begin section 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end and the requirements for the reporting of maltreatment of
vulnerable adults in section 626.557. Each home care provider must establish and implement
a written procedure to ensure that all cases of suspected maltreatment are reported.

(b) Each home care provider must develop and implement an individual abuse prevention
plan for each vulnerable minor or adult for whom home care services are provided by a
home care provider. The plan shall contain an individualized review or assessment of the
person's susceptibility to abuse by another individual, including other vulnerable adults or
minors; the person's risk of abusing other vulnerable adults or minors; and statements of
the specific measures to be taken to minimize the risk of abuse to that person and other
vulnerable adults or minors. For purposes of the abuse prevention plan, the term abuse
includes self-abuse.

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 144A.4796, subdivision 2, is
amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Content.

(a) The orientation must contain the following topics:

(1) an overview of sections 144A.43 to 144A.4798;

(2) introduction and review of all the provider's policies and procedures related to the
provision of home care services by the individual staff person;

(3) handling of emergencies and use of emergency services;

(4) compliance with and reporting of the maltreatment of minors or vulnerable adults
under deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end;

(5) home care bill of rights under section 144A.44;

(6) handling of clients' complaints, reporting of complaints, and where to report
complaints including information on the Office of Health Facility Complaints and the
Common Entry Point;

(7) consumer advocacy services of the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care,
Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, Managed Care
Ombudsman at the Department of Human Services, county managed care advocates, or
other relevant advocacy services; and

(8) review of the types of home care services the employee will be providing and the
provider's scope of licensure.

(b) In addition to the topics listed in paragraph (a), orientation may also contain training
on providing services to clients with hearing loss. Any training on hearing loss provided
under this subdivision must be high quality and research-based, may include online training,
and must include training on one or more of the following topics:

(1) an explanation of age-related hearing loss and how it manifests itself, its prevalence,
and challenges it poses to communication;

(2) health impacts related to untreated age-related hearing loss, such as increased
incidence of dementia, falls, hospitalizations, isolation, and depression; or

(3) information about strategies and technology that may enhance communication and
involvement, including communication strategies, assistive listening devices, hearing aids,
visual and tactile alerting devices, communication access in real time, and closed captions.

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144A.4796, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Required annual training.

(a) All staff that perform direct home care services
must complete at least eight hours of annual training for each 12 months of employment.
The training may be obtained from the home care provider or another source and must
include topics relevant to the provision of home care services. The annual training must
include:

(1) training on reporting of maltreatment of minors under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end
and maltreatment of vulnerable adults under section 626.557, whichever is applicable to
the services provided;

(2) review of the home care bill of rights in section 144A.44;

(3) review of infection control techniques used in the home and implementation of
infection control standards including a review of hand-washing techniques; the need for
and use of protective gloves, gowns, and masks; appropriate disposal of contaminated
materials and equipment, such as dressings, needles, syringes, and razor blades; disinfecting
reusable equipment; disinfecting environmental surfaces; and reporting of communicable
diseases; and

(4) review of the provider's policies and procedures relating to the provision of home
care services and how to implement those policies and procedures.

(b) In addition to the topics listed in paragraph (a), annual training may also contain
training on providing services to clients with hearing loss. Any training on hearing loss
provided under this subdivision must be high quality and research-based, may include online
training, and must include training on one or more of the following topics:

(1) an explanation of age-related hearing loss and how it manifests itself, its prevalence,
and challenges it poses to communication;

(2) health impacts related to untreated age-related hearing loss, such as increased
incidence of dementia, falls, hospitalizations, isolation, and depression; or

(3) information about strategies and technology that may enhance communication and
involvement, including communication strategies, assistive listening devices, hearing aids,
visual and tactile alerting devices, communication access in real time, and closed captions.

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144H.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Reporting of maltreatment of minors.

A PPEC center must develop
policies and procedures for reporting suspected child maltreatment that fulfill the
requirements of deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. The policies and procedures must include
the telephone numbers of the local county child protection agency for reporting suspected
maltreatment. The policies and procedures specified in this subdivision must be provided
to the parents or guardians of all children at the time of admission to the PPEC center and
must be available upon request.

Sec. 28.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144H.18, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Fines for violations of other statutes.

The commissioner shall impose a fine
of $250 on a PPEC center, employee, or contractor for each violation by that PPEC center,
employee, or contractor of section 144H.16, subdivision 2, deleted text beginor 626.556deleted text endnew text begin or chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 145.902, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Immunity.

(a) A safe place with responsibility for performing duties under
this section, and any employee, doctor, ambulance personnel, or other medical professional
working at the safe place, are immune from any criminal liability that otherwise might result
from their actions, if they are acting in good faith in receiving a newborn, and are immune
from any civil liability that otherwise might result from merely receiving a newborn.

(b) A safe place performing duties under this section, or an employee, doctor, ambulance
personnel, or other medical professional working at the safe place who is a mandated reporter
under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, is immune from any criminal or civil liability that
otherwise might result from the failure to make a report under that section if the person is
acting in good faith in complying with this section.

Sec. 30.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 145.952, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Abuse.

"Abuse" means physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, mental injury,
and threatened injury, as those terms are defined in deleted text beginsection 626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin chapter
260E
new text end.

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 146A.025, is amended to read:


146A.025 MALTREATMENT OF MINORS.

Nothing in this chapter shall restrict the ability of a local welfare agency, local law
enforcement agency, the commissioner of human services, or the state to take action regarding
the maltreatment of minors under section 609.378 deleted text beginor 626.556deleted text endnew text begin or chapter 260Enew text end. A parent
who obtains complementary and alternative health care for the parent's minor child is not
relieved of the duty to seek necessary medical care consistent with the requirements of
deleted text begin sectionsdeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 609.378 deleted text beginand 626.556deleted text endnew text begin and chapter 260Enew text end. A complementary or alternative
health care practitioner who is providing services to a child who is not receiving necessary
medical care must make a report under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. A complementary
or alternative health care provider is a mandated reporter under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision
3
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06new text end.

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 148B.593, is amended to read:


148B.593 DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION.

(a) A person licensed under sections 148B.50 to 148B.593 may not disclose without
written consent of the client any communication made by the client to the licensee in the
course of the practice of professional counseling, nor may any employee of the licensee
reveal the information without the consent of the employer or client except as provided
under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end.

(b) For purposes of sections 148B.50 to 148B.593, the confidential relations and
communications between the licensee and a client are placed upon the same basis as those
that exist between a licensed psychologist and client. Nothing in sections 148B.50 to
148B.593 may be construed to require any communications to be disclosed except by court
order or as provided in paragraph (c).

(c) Private information may be disclosed without the consent of the client when a duty
to warn arises, or as otherwise provided by law or court order. The duty to warn of, or take
reasonable precautions to provide protection from, violent behavior arises only when a client
or other person has communicated to the provider a specific, serious threat of physical
violence to self or a specific, clearly identified or identifiable potential victim. If a duty to
warn arises, the duty is discharged by the provider if reasonable efforts are made to
communicate the threat to law enforcement agencies, the potential victim, the family of the
client, or appropriate third parties who are in a position to prevent or avert the harm. No
monetary liability and no cause of action or disciplinary action by the board may arise
against a provider for disclosure of confidences to third parties, for failure to disclose
confidences to third parties, or for erroneous disclosure of confidences to third parties in a
good faith effort to warn against or take precautions against a client's violent behavior or
threat of suicide.

(d) For purposes of this section, (1) "provider" includes a licensee, an applicant for
licensure, and a student or intern practicing professional counseling or professional clinical
counseling under supervision as part of an accredited graduate educational program or under
a supervised postgraduate experience in professional counseling or professional clinical
counseling required for licensure; (2) "other person" means an immediate family member
or someone who personally knows the client and has reason to believe the client is capable
of and will carry out the serious, specific threat of harm to a specific, clearly identified, or
identifiable victim; and (3) "reasonable efforts" means communicating the serious, specific
threat to the potential victim and if unable to make contact with the potential victim,
communicating the serious, specific threat to the law enforcement agency closest to the
potential victim of the client.

Sec. 33.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148E.240, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Reporting maltreatment of minors.

An applicant or licensee must comply
with the reporting of maltreatment of minors established by deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 34.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148F.13, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Abuse or neglect of minors or vulnerable adults.

An applicant or licensee
must comply with the reporting of maltreatment of minors established in deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end and the reporting of maltreatment of vulnerable adults established in section
626.557.

Sec. 35.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148F.205, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Mandatory reporting requirements.

A provider is required to file a
complaint when the provider knows or has reason to believe that another provider:

(1) is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety as a result of a physical or mental
illness or condition, including, but not limited to, substance abuse or dependence, except
that this mandated reporting requirement is deemed fulfilled by a report made to the Health
Professionals Services Program (HPSP) as provided by section 214.33, subdivision 1;

(2) is engaging in or has engaged in sexual behavior with a client or former client in
violation of section 148F.165, subdivision 6 or 7;

(3) has failed to report abuse or neglect of children or vulnerable adults in violation of
section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end; or

(4) has employed fraud or deception in obtaining or renewing an alcohol and drug
counseling license.

Sec. 36.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 153B.70, is amended to read:


153B.70 GROUNDS FOR DISCIPLINARY ACTION.

(a) The board may refuse to issue or renew a license, revoke or suspend a license, or
place on probation or reprimand a licensee for one or any combination of the following:

(1) making a material misstatement in furnishing information to the board;

(2) violating or intentionally disregarding the requirements of this chapter;

(3) conviction of a crime, including a finding or verdict of guilt, an admission of guilt,
or a no-contest plea, in this state or elsewhere, reasonably related to the practice of the
profession. Conviction, as used in this clause, includes a conviction of an offense which, if
committed in this state, would be deemed a felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor,
without regard to its designation elsewhere, or a criminal proceeding where a finding or
verdict of guilty is made or returned but the adjudication of guilt is either withheld or not
entered;

(4) making a misrepresentation in order to obtain or renew a license;

(5) displaying a pattern of practice or other behavior that demonstrates incapacity or
incompetence to practice;

(6) aiding or assisting another person in violating the provisions of this chapter;

(7) failing to provide information within 60 days in response to a written request from
the board, including documentation of completion of continuing education requirements;

(8) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or unprofessional conduct;

(9) engaging in conduct of a character likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

(10) inability to practice due to habitual intoxication, addiction to drugs, or mental or
physical illness;

(11) being disciplined by another state or territory of the United States, the federal
government, a national certification organization, or foreign nation, if at least one of the
grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to one of the grounds in
this section;

(12) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from a person, firm, corporation,
partnership, or association a fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for
professional services not actually or personally rendered;

(13) incurring a finding by the board that the licensee, after the licensee has been placed
on probationary status, has violated the conditions of the probation;

(14) abandoning a patient or client;

(15) willfully making or filing false records or reports in the course of the licensee's
practice including, but not limited to, false records or reports filed with state or federal
agencies;

(16) willfully failing to report child maltreatment as required under the Maltreatment of
Minors Act, deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end; or

(17) soliciting professional services using false or misleading advertising.

(b) A license to practice is automatically suspended if (1) a guardian of a licensee is
appointed by order of a court pursuant to sections 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, for reasons other
than the minority of the licensee, or (2) the licensee is committed by order of a court pursuant
to chapter 253B. The license remains suspended until the licensee is restored to capacity
by a court and, upon petition by the licensee, the suspension is terminated by the board after
a hearing. The licensee may be reinstated to practice, either with or without restrictions, by
demonstrating clear and convincing evidence of rehabilitation. The regulated person is not
required to prove rehabilitation if the subsequent court decision overturns previous court
findings of public risk.

(c) If the board has probable cause to believe that a licensee or applicant has violated
paragraph (a), clause (10), it may direct the person to submit to a mental or physical
examination. For the purpose of this section, every person is deemed to have consented to
submit to a mental or physical examination when directed in writing by the board and to
have waived all objections to the admissibility of the examining physician's testimony or
examination report on the grounds that the testimony or report constitutes a privileged
communication. Failure of a regulated person to submit to an examination when directed
constitutes an admission of the allegations against the person, unless the failure was due to
circumstances beyond the person's control, in which case a default and final order may be
entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. A regulated person
affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be given an opportunity to
demonstrate that the person can resume the competent practice of the regulated profession
with reasonable skill and safety to the public. In any proceeding under this paragraph, neither
the record of proceedings nor the orders entered by the board shall be used against a regulated
person in any other proceeding.

(d) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding section 13.384 or 144.293, or any other law limiting access to medical or
other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a licensee or applicant
without the person's or applicant's consent if the board has probable cause to believe that a
licensee is subject to paragraph (a), clause (10). The medical data may be requested from
a provider as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph (i), an insurance company,
or a government agency, including the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance
company, or government agency shall comply with any written request of the board under
this section and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing the data requested by
the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this section, unless the
information is false and the provider giving the information knew, or had reason to know,
the information was false. Information obtained under this section is private data on
individuals as defined in section 13.02.

(e) If the board issues an order of immediate suspension of a license, a hearing must be
held within 30 days of the suspension and completed without delay.

Sec. 37.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 214.103, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Dismissal and reopening of a complaint.

(a) A complaint may not be dismissed
without the concurrence of at least two board members and, upon the request of the
complainant, a review by a representative of the attorney general's office. The designee of
the attorney general must review before dismissal any complaints which allege any violation
of chapter 609, any conduct which would be required to be reported under section deleted text begin626.556
or
deleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, any sexual contact or sexual conduct with a client, any violation
of a federal law, any actual or potential inability to practice the regulated profession or
occupation by reason of illness, use of alcohol, drugs, chemicals, or any other materials, or
as a result of any mental or physical condition, any violation of state medical assistance
laws, or any disciplinary action related to credentialing in another jurisdiction or country
which was based on the same or related conduct specified in this subdivision.

(b) The board may reopen a dismissed complaint if the board receives newly discovered
information that was not available to the board during the initial investigation of the
complaint, or if the board receives a new complaint that indicates a pattern of behavior or
conduct.

Sec. 38.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 214.104, is amended to read:


214.104 HEALTH-RELATED LICENSING BOARDS; SUBSTANTIATED
MALTREATMENT.

(a) A health-related licensing board shall make determinations as to whether regulated
persons who are under the board's jurisdiction should be the subject of disciplinary or
corrective action because of substantiated maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin
or chapter 260E
new text end. The board shall make a determination upon receipt, and after the review,
of an investigation memorandum or other notice of substantiated maltreatment under section
deleted text begin 626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557, new text beginchapter 260E, new text endor of a notice from the commissioner of human services
that a background study of a regulated person shows substantiated maltreatment.

(b) Upon completion of its review of a report of substantiated maltreatment, the board
shall notify the commissioner of human services of its determination. The board shall notify
the commissioner of human services if, following a review of the report of substantiated
maltreatment, the board determines that it does not have jurisdiction in the matter and the
commissioner shall make the appropriate disqualification decision regarding the regulated
person as otherwise provided in chapter 245C. The board shall also notify the commissioner
of health or the commissioner of human services immediately upon receipt of knowledge
of a facility or program allowing a regulated person to provide direct contact services at the
facility or program while not complying with requirements placed on the regulated person.

(c) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the board may, through its designated
board member, temporarily suspend the license of a licensee; deny a credential to an
applicant; or require the regulated person to be continuously supervised, if the board finds
there is probable cause to believe the regulated person referred to the board according to
paragraph (a) poses an immediate risk of harm to vulnerable persons. The board shall
consider all relevant information available, which may include but is not limited to:

(1) the extent the action is needed to protect persons receiving services or the public;

(2) the recency of the maltreatment;

(3) the number of incidents of maltreatment;

(4) the intrusiveness or violence of the maltreatment; and

(5) the vulnerability of the victim of maltreatment.

The action shall take effect upon written notice to the regulated person, served by certified
mail, specifying the statute violated. The board shall notify the commissioner of health or
the commissioner of human services of the suspension or denial of a credential. The action
shall remain in effect until the board issues a temporary stay or a final order in the matter
after a hearing or upon agreement between the board and the regulated person. At the time
the board issues the notice, the regulated person shall inform the board of all settings in
which the regulated person is employed or practices. The board shall inform all known
employment and practice settings of the board action and schedule a disciplinary hearing
to be held under chapter 14. The board shall provide the regulated person with at least 30
days' notice of the hearing, unless the parties agree to a hearing date that provides less than
30 days' notice, and shall schedule the hearing to begin no later than 90 days after issuance
of the notice of hearing.

Sec. 39.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 243.166, subdivision 7, is amended
to read:


Subd. 7.

Use of data.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 4b or 7a or sections
244.052 and 299C.093, the data provided under this section is private data on individuals
under section 13.02, subdivision 12.

(b) The data may be used only by law enforcement and corrections agencies for law
enforcement and corrections purposes. Law enforcement or a corrections agent may disclose
the status of an individual as a predatory offender to a child protection worker with a local
welfare agency for purposes of doing a family assessment under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter
260E
new text end. A corrections agent may also disclose the status of an individual as a predatory
offender to comply with section 244.057.

(c) The commissioner of human services is authorized to have access to the data for:

(1) state-operated services, as defined in section 246.014, for the purposes described in
section 246.13, subdivision 2, paragraph (b); and

(2) purposes of completing background studies under chapter 245C.

Sec. 40.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245.8261, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Conditions on use of restrictive procedures.

Restrictive procedures must not:

(1) be implemented with a child in a manner that constitutes sexual abuse, neglect, or
physical abuse under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, the reporting of maltreatment of minors;

(2) restrict a child's normal access to a nutritious diet, drinking water, adequate ventilation,
necessary medical care, ordinary hygiene facilities, or necessary clothing or to any protection
required by state licensing standards and federal regulations governing the program;

(3) be used as punishment or for the convenience of staff; or

(4) deny the child visitation or contact with legal counsel and next of kin.

Sec. 41.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.04, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Commissioner's right of access.

(a) When the commissioner is exercising the
powers conferred by this chapter deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin,new text end sections 245.69deleted text begin, 626.556,deleted text end and 626.557new text begin, and chapter
260E
new text end, the commissioner must be given access to:

(1) the physical plant and grounds where the program is provided;

(2) documents and records, including records maintained in electronic format;

(3) persons served by the program; and

(4) staff and personnel records of current and former staff whenever the program is in
operation and the information is relevant to inspections or investigations conducted by the
commissioner. Upon request, the license holder must provide the commissioner verification
of documentation of staff work experience, training, or educational requirements.

The commissioner must be given access without prior notice and as often as the
commissioner considers necessary if the commissioner is investigating alleged maltreatment,
conducting a licensing inspection, or investigating an alleged violation of applicable laws
or rules. In conducting inspections, the commissioner may request and shall receive assistance
from other state, county, and municipal governmental agencies and departments. The
applicant or license holder shall allow the commissioner to photocopy, photograph, and
make audio and video tape recordings during the inspection of the program at the
commissioner's expense. The commissioner shall obtain a court order or the consent of the
subject of the records or the parents or legal guardian of the subject before photocopying
hospital medical records.

(b) Persons served by the program have the right to refuse to consent to be interviewed,
photographed, or audio or videotaped. Failure or refusal of an applicant or license holder
to fully comply with this subdivision is reasonable cause for the commissioner to deny the
application or immediately suspend or revoke the license.

Sec. 42.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.06, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Requirement to post conditional license.

For licensed family child care
providers and child care centers, upon receipt of any order of conditional license issued by
the commissioner under this section, and notwithstanding a pending request for
reconsideration of the order of conditional license by the license holder, the license holder
shall post the order of conditional license in a place that is conspicuous to the people receiving
services and all visitors to the facility for two years. When the order of conditional license
is accompanied by a maltreatment investigation memorandum prepared under section
deleted text begin 626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, the investigation memoranda must be posted with the
order of conditional license.

Sec. 43.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.07, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:


Subd. 3.

License suspension, revocation, or fine.

(a) The commissioner may suspend
or revoke a license, or impose a fine if:

(1) a license holder fails to comply fully with applicable laws or rules including but not
limited to the requirements of this chapter and chapter 245C;

(2) a license holder, a controlling individual, or an individual living in the household
where the licensed services are provided or is otherwise subject to a background study has
been disqualified and the disqualification was not set aside and no variance has been granted;

(3) a license holder knowingly withholds relevant information from or gives false or
misleading information to the commissioner in connection with an application for a license,
in connection with the background study status of an individual, during an investigation,
or regarding compliance with applicable laws or rules;

(4) a license holder is excluded from any program administered by the commissioner
under section 245.095; or

(5) revocation is required under section 245A.04, subdivision 7, paragraph (d).

A license holder who has had a license issued under this chapter suspended, revoked,
or has been ordered to pay a fine must be given notice of the action by certified mail or
personal service. If mailed, the notice must be mailed to the address shown on the application
or the last known address of the license holder. The notice must state in plain language the
reasons the license was suspended or revoked, or a fine was ordered.

(b) If the license was suspended or revoked, the notice must inform the license holder
of the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts
1400.8505 to 1400.8612. The license holder may appeal an order suspending or revoking
a license. The appeal of an order suspending or revoking a license must be made in writing
by certified mail or personal service. If mailed, the appeal must be postmarked and sent to
the commissioner within ten calendar days after the license holder receives notice that the
license has been suspended or revoked. If a request is made by personal service, it must be
received by the commissioner within ten calendar days after the license holder received the
order. Except as provided in subdivision 2a, paragraph (c), if a license holder submits a
timely appeal of an order suspending or revoking a license, the license holder may continue
to operate the program as provided in section 245A.04, subdivision 7, paragraphs (f) and
(g), until the commissioner issues a final order on the suspension or revocation.

(c)(1) If the license holder was ordered to pay a fine, the notice must inform the license
holder of the responsibility for payment of fines and the right to a contested case hearing
under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. The appeal of an
order to pay a fine must be made in writing by certified mail or personal service. If mailed,
the appeal must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within ten calendar days after
the license holder receives notice that the fine has been ordered. If a request is made by
personal service, it must be received by the commissioner within ten calendar days after
the license holder received the order.

(2) The license holder shall pay the fines assessed on or before the payment date specified.
If the license holder fails to fully comply with the order, the commissioner may issue a
second fine or suspend the license until the license holder complies. If the license holder
receives state funds, the state, county, or municipal agencies or departments responsible for
administering the funds shall withhold payments and recover any payments made while the
license is suspended for failure to pay a fine. A timely appeal shall stay payment of the fine
until the commissioner issues a final order.

(3) A license holder shall promptly notify the commissioner of human services, in writing,
when a violation specified in the order to forfeit a fine is corrected. If upon reinspection the
commissioner determines that a violation has not been corrected as indicated by the order
to forfeit a fine, the commissioner may issue a second fine. The commissioner shall notify
the license holder by certified mail or personal service that a second fine has been assessed.
The license holder may appeal the second fine as provided under this subdivision.

(4) Fines shall be assessed as follows:

(i) the license holder shall forfeit $1,000 for each determination of maltreatment of a
child under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end or the maltreatment of a vulnerable adult under
section 626.557 for which the license holder is determined responsible for the maltreatment
under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10e, paragraph (i),deleted text endnew text begin 260E.30, subdivision 4, paragraphs
(a) and (b),
new text end or 626.557, subdivision 9c, paragraph (c);

(ii) if the commissioner determines that a determination of maltreatment for which the
license holder is responsible is the result of maltreatment that meets the definition of serious
maltreatment as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 18, the license holder shall forfeit
$5,000;

(iii) for a program that operates out of the license holder's home and a program licensed
under Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300 to 9502.0445, the fine assessed against the license
holder shall not exceed $1,000 for each determination of maltreatment;

(iv) the license holder shall forfeit $200 for each occurrence of a violation of law or rule
governing matters of health, safety, or supervision, including but not limited to the provision
of adequate staff-to-child or adult ratios, and failure to comply with background study
requirements under chapter 245C; and

(v) the license holder shall forfeit $100 for each occurrence of a violation of law or rule
other than those subject to a $5,000, $1,000, or $200 fine in items (i) to (iv).

For purposes of this section, "occurrence" means each violation identified in the
commissioner's fine order. Fines assessed against a license holder that holds a license to
provide home and community-based services, as identified in section 245D.03, subdivision
1
, and a community residential setting or day services facility license under chapter 245D
where the services are provided, may be assessed against both licenses for the same
occurrence, but the combined amount of the fines shall not exceed the amount specified in
this clause for that occurrence.

(5) When a fine has been assessed, the license holder may not avoid payment by closing,
selling, or otherwise transferring the licensed program to a third party. In such an event, the
license holder will be personally liable for payment. In the case of a corporation, each
controlling individual is personally and jointly liable for payment.

(d) Except for background study violations involving the failure to comply with an order
to immediately remove an individual or an order to provide continuous, direct supervision,
the commissioner shall not issue a fine under paragraph (c) relating to a background study
violation to a license holder who self-corrects a background study violation before the
commissioner discovers the violation. A license holder who has previously exercised the
provisions of this paragraph to avoid a fine for a background study violation may not avoid
a fine for a subsequent background study violation unless at least 365 days have passed
since the license holder self-corrected the earlier background study violation.

Sec. 44.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.07, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Requirement to post licensing order or fine.

For licensed family child care
providers and child care centers, upon receipt of any order of license suspension, temporary
immediate suspension, fine, or revocation issued by the commissioner under this section,
and notwithstanding a pending appeal of the order of license suspension, temporary
immediate suspension, fine, or revocation by the license holder, the license holder shall
post the order of license suspension, temporary immediate suspension, fine, or revocation
in a place that is conspicuous to the people receiving services and all visitors to the facility
for two years. When the order of license suspension, temporary immediate suspension, fine,
or revocation is accompanied by a maltreatment investigation memorandum prepared under
section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, the investigation memoranda must be posted
with the order of license suspension, temporary immediate suspension, fine, or revocation.

Sec. 45.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

Consolidated contested case hearings.

(a) When a denial of a license under
section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, subdivision 3, is based on
a disqualification for which reconsideration was timely requested and which was not set
aside under section 245C.22, the scope of the contested case hearing shall include the
disqualification and the licensing sanction or denial of a license, unless otherwise specified
in this subdivision. When the licensing sanction or denial of a license is based on a
determination of maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, or a
disqualification for serious or recurring maltreatment which was not set aside, the scope of
the contested case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification,
and the licensing sanction or denial of a license, unless otherwise specified in this subdivision.
In such cases, a fair hearing under section 256.045 shall not be conducted as provided for
in sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

(b) Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment
determination under sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision
9d, and reconsideration of a disqualification under section 245C.22, shall not be conducted
when:

(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05, or a licensing sanction under section
245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment
or the disqualification of a license holder is based on serious or recurring maltreatment;

(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the
maltreatment determination or disqualification; and

(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and
denial of a license or licensing sanction. In these cases, a fair hearing shall not be conducted
under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.
The scope of the contested case hearing must include the maltreatment determination,
disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.

Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment
determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing
sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the
disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall
also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end,
and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

(c) In consolidated contested case hearings regarding sanctions issued in family child
care, child foster care, family adult day services, adult foster care, and community residential
settings, the county attorney shall defend the commissioner's orders in accordance with
section 245A.16, subdivision 4.

(d) The commissioner's final order under subdivision 5 is the final agency action on the
issue of maltreatment and disqualification, including for purposes of subsequent background
studies under chapter 245C and is the only administrative appeal of the final agency
determination, specifically, including a challenge to the accuracy and completeness of data
under section 13.04.

(e) When consolidated hearings under this subdivision involve a licensing sanction based
on a previous maltreatment determination for which the commissioner has issued a final
order in an appeal of that determination under section 256.045, or the individual failed to
exercise the right to appeal the previous maltreatment determination under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 10i
,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end or 626.557, subdivision 9d, the commissioner's order is conclusive
on the issue of maltreatment. In such cases, the scope of the administrative law judge's
review shall be limited to the disqualification and the licensing sanction or denial of a license.
In the case of a denial of a license or a licensing sanction issued to a facility based on a
maltreatment determination regarding an individual who is not the license holder or a
household member, the scope of the administrative law judge's review includes the
maltreatment determination.

(f) The hearings of all parties may be consolidated into a single contested case hearing
upon consent of all parties and the administrative law judge, if:

(1) a maltreatment determination or disqualification, which was not set aside under
section 245C.22, is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing
sanction under section 245A.07;

(2) the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom
a background study must be conducted under section 245C.03; and

(3) the individual has a hearing right under section 245C.27.

(g) When a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under
section 245A.07 is based on a disqualification for which reconsideration was requested and
was not set aside under section 245C.22, and the individual otherwise has no hearing right
under section 245C.27, the scope of the administrative law judge's review shall include the
denial or sanction and a determination whether the disqualification should be set aside,
unless section 245C.24 prohibits the set-aside of the disqualification. In determining whether
the disqualification should be set aside, the administrative law judge shall consider the
factors under section 245C.22, subdivision 4, to determine whether the individual poses a
risk of harm to any person receiving services from the license holder.

(h) Notwithstanding section 245C.30, subdivision 5, when a licensing sanction under
section 245A.07 is based on the termination of a variance under section 245C.30, subdivision
4
, the scope of the administrative law judge's review shall include the sanction and a
determination whether the disqualification should be set aside, unless section 245C.24
prohibits the set-aside of the disqualification. In determining whether the disqualification
should be set aside, the administrative law judge shall consider the factors under section
245C.22, subdivision 4, to determine whether the individual poses a risk of harm to any
person receiving services from the license holder.

Sec. 46.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.085, is amended to read:


245A.085 CONSOLIDATION OF HEARINGS; RECONSIDERATION.

Hearings authorized under this chapter, deleted text beginchapter 245C, anddeleted text end sections 256.045, 256B.04,
deleted text begin 626.556,deleted text end and 626.557new text begin, and chapters 245C and 260Enew text end, shall be consolidated if feasible and
in accordance with other applicable statutes and rules. Reconsideration under sections
245C.28; deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end; and 626.557, subdivision 9d, shall also be
consolidated if feasible.

Sec. 47.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245A.11, subdivision 7b, is amended to read:


Subd. 7b.

Adult foster care data privacy and security.

(a) An adult foster care or
community residential setting license holder who creates, collects, records, maintains, stores,
or discloses any individually identifiable recipient data, whether in an electronic or any
other format, must comply with the privacy and security provisions of applicable privacy
laws and regulations, including:

(1) the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA),
Public Law 104-1; and the HIPAA Privacy Rule, Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part
160, and subparts A and E of part 164; and

(2) the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act as codified in chapter 13.

(b) For purposes of licensure, the license holder shall be monitored for compliance with
the following data privacy and security provisions:

(1) the license holder must control access to data on residents served by the program
according to the definitions of public and private data on individuals under section 13.02;
classification of the data on individuals as private under section 13.46, subdivision 2; and
control over the collection, storage, use, access, protection, and contracting related to data
according to section 13.05, in which the license holder is assigned the duties of a government
entity;

(2) the license holder must provide each resident served by the program with a notice
that meets the requirements under section 13.04, in which the license holder is assigned the
duties of the government entity, and that meets the requirements of Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, part 164.52. The notice shall describe the purpose for collection of
the data, and to whom and why it may be disclosed pursuant to law. The notice must inform
the individual that the license holder uses electronic monitoring and, if applicable, that
recording technology is used;

(3) the license holder must not install monitoring cameras in bathrooms;

(4) electronic monitoring cameras must not be concealed from the residents served by
the program; and

(5) electronic video and audio recordings of residents served by the program shall be
stored by the license holder for five days unless: (i) a resident served by the program or
legal representative requests that the recording be held longer based on a specific report of
alleged maltreatment; or (ii) the recording captures an incident or event of alleged
maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endor a crime under chapter
609. When requested by a resident served by the program or when a recording captures an
incident or event of alleged maltreatment or a crime, the license holder must maintain the
recording in a secured area for no longer than 30 days to give the investigating agency an
opportunity to make a copy of the recording. The investigating agency will maintain the
electronic video or audio recordings as required in section 626.557, subdivision 12b.

(c) The commissioner shall develop, and make available to license holders and county
licensing workers, a checklist of the data privacy provisions to be monitored for purposes
of licensure.

Sec. 48.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.145, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Policies and procedures.

(a) The Department of Human Services must
develop policies and procedures for reporting suspected child maltreatment that fulfill the
requirements in deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end and provide the policies and procedures to
all licensed child care providers. The policies and procedures must be written in plain
language.

(b) The policies and procedures required in paragraph (a) must:

(1) be provided to the parents of all children at the time of enrollment in the child care
program; and

(2) be made available upon request.

Sec. 49.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.40, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Orientation.

(a) The child care center license holder must ensure that
the director, staff persons, substitutes, and unsupervised volunteers are given orientation
training and successfully complete the training before starting assigned duties. The orientation
training must include information about:

(1) the center's philosophy, child care program, and procedures for maintaining health
and safety according to section 245A.41 and Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0140, and handling
emergencies and accidents according to Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0110;

(2) specific job responsibilities;

(3) the behavior guidance standards in Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0055;

(4) the reporting responsibilities in deleted text beginsection 626.556,deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end and Minnesota Rules,
part 9503.0130;

(5) the center's drug and alcohol policy under section 245A.04, subdivision 1, paragraph
(c);

(6) the center's risk reduction plan as required under section 245A.66, subdivision 2;

(7) at least one-half hour of training on the standards under section 245A.1435 and on
reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death as required in subdivision 5, if applicable;

(8) at least one-half hour of training on the risk of abusive head trauma as required for
the director and staff under subdivision 5a, if applicable; and

(9) training required by a child's individual child care program plan as required under
Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0065, subpart 3, if applicable.

(b) In addition to paragraph (a), before having unsupervised direct contact with a child,
the director and staff persons within the first 90 days of employment, and substitutes and
unsupervised volunteers within 90 days after the first date of direct contact with a child,
must complete:

(1) pediatric first aid, in accordance with subdivision 3; and

(2) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation, in accordance with subdivision 4.

(c) In addition to paragraph (b), the director and staff persons within the first 90 days
of employment, and substitutes and unsupervised volunteers within 90 days from the first
date of direct contact with a child, must complete training in child development, in accordance
with subdivision 2.

(d) The license holder must ensure that documentation, as required in subdivision 10,
identifies the number of hours completed for each topic with a minimum training time
identified, if applicable, and that all required content is included.

(e) Training in this subdivision must not be used to meet in-service training requirements
in subdivision 7.

(f) Training completed within the previous 12 months under paragraphs (a), clauses (7)
and (8), and (c) are transferable to another child care center.

Sec. 50.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.05, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Applicant, license holder, other entities, and agencies.

(a) The applicant,
license holder, other entities as provided in this chapter, Bureau of Criminal Apprehension,
law enforcement agencies, commissioner of health, and county agencies shall help with the
study by giving the commissioner criminal conviction data and reports about the maltreatment
of adults substantiated under section 626.557 and the maltreatment of minors substantiated
under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

(b) If a background study is initiated by an applicant, license holder, or other entities as
provided in this chapter, and the applicant, license holder, or other entity receives information
about the possible criminal or maltreatment history of an individual who is the subject of
the background study, the applicant, license holder, or other entity must immediately provide
the information to the commissioner.

(c) The program or county or other agency must provide written notice to the individual
who is the subject of the background study of the requirements under this subdivision.

Sec. 51.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.15, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Seven-year disqualification.

(a) An individual is disqualified under section
245C.14 if: (1) less than seven years has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed,
if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a misdemeanor-level violation
of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 268.182
(fraud); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal Food Stamp Program fraud); 609.2112,
609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 (assault in the first
degree); 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223 (assault in the third degree);
609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242
(domestic assault); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure
to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the
third degree); 609.27 (coercion); violation of an order for protection under 609.3232
(protective order authorized; procedures; penalties); 609.466 (medical assistance fraud);
609.52 (theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft);
609.53 (receiving stolen property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks); 609.611
(insurance fraud); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.665 (spring guns); 609.746 (interference
with privacy); 609.79 (obscene or harassing telephone calls); 609.795 (letter, telegram, or
package; opening; harassment); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining credit); 609.821 (financial
transaction card fraud); 617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving a minor; 617.293 (harmful
materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); or Minnesota Statutes 2012,
section 609.21; or violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01 (Domestic
Abuse Act).

(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since a determination or disposition of the individual's:

(1) failure to make required reports under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06new text end or
626.557, subdivision 3, for incidents in which: (i) the final disposition under section deleted text begin626.556
or
deleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endwas substantiated maltreatment, and (ii) the maltreatment was
recurring or serious; or

(2) substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end, a vulnerable adult under section 626.557, or serious or recurring maltreatment
in any other state, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of
maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endfor which: (i) there is a
preponderance of evidence that the maltreatment occurred, and (ii) the subject was
responsible for the maltreatment.

(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of
the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota
Statutes.

(d) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or
country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses
listed in paragraphs (a) and (b).

(e) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.

(f) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has passed
since the individual was disqualified under section 256.98, subdivision 8.

Sec. 52.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Determining immediate risk of harm.

(a) If the commissioner determines
that the individual studied has a disqualifying characteristic, the commissioner shall review
the information immediately available and make a determination as to the subject's immediate
risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct
contact with, or access to, people receiving services.

(b) The commissioner shall consider all relevant information available, including the
following factors in determining the immediate risk of harm:

(1) the recency of the disqualifying characteristic;

(2) the recency of discharge from probation for the crimes;

(3) the number of disqualifying characteristics;

(4) the intrusiveness or violence of the disqualifying characteristic;

(5) the vulnerability of the victim involved in the disqualifying characteristic;

(6) the similarity of the victim to the persons served by the program where the individual
studied will have direct contact;

(7) whether the individual has a disqualification from a previous background study that
has not been set aside; and

(8) if the individual has a disqualification which may not be set aside because it is a
permanent bar under section 245C.24, subdivision 1, or the individual is a child care
background study subject who has a felony-level conviction for a drug-related offense in
the last five years, the commissioner may order the immediate removal of the individual
from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to, persons receiving services from
the program.

(c) This section does not apply when the subject of a background study is regulated by
a health-related licensing board as defined in chapter 214, and the subject is determined to
be responsible for substantiated maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter
260E
new text end.

(d) This section does not apply to a background study related to an initial application
for a child foster care license.

(e) Except for paragraph (f), this section does not apply to a background study that is
also subject to the requirements under section 256B.0659, subdivisions 11 and 13, for a
personal care assistant or a qualified professional as defined in section 256B.0659,
subdivision 1
.

(f) If the commissioner has reason to believe, based on arrest information or an active
maltreatment investigation, that an individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons
receiving services, the commissioner may order that the person be continuously supervised
or immediately removed pending the conclusion of the maltreatment investigation or criminal
proceedings.

Sec. 53.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.17, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Disqualification notification.

(a) The commissioner shall notify an applicant,
license holder, or other entity as provided in this chapter who is not the subject of the study:

(1) that the commissioner has found information that disqualifies the individual studied
from being in a position allowing direct contact with, or access to, people served by the
program; and

(2) the commissioner's determination of the individual's risk of harm under section
245C.16.

(b) If the commissioner determines under section 245C.16 that an individual studied
poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual
studied will have direct contact with, or access to, people served by the program, the
commissioner shall order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied
from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to, people served by the program.

(c) If the commissioner determines under section 245C.16 that an individual studied
poses a risk of harm that requires continuous, direct supervision, the commissioner shall
order the applicant, license holder, or other entities as provided in this chapter to:

(1) immediately remove the individual studied from any position allowing direct contact
with, or access to, people receiving services; or

(2) before allowing the disqualified individual to be in a position allowing direct contact
with, or access to, people receiving services, the applicant, license holder, or other entity,
as provided in this chapter, must:

(i) obtain from the disqualified individual a copy of the individual's notice of
disqualification from the commissioner that explains the reason for disqualification;

(ii) ensure that the individual studied is under continuous, direct supervision when in a
position allowing direct contact with, or access to, people receiving services during the
period in which the individual may request a reconsideration of the disqualification under
section 245C.21; and

(iii) ensure that the disqualified individual requests reconsideration within 30 days of
receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(d) If the commissioner determines under section 245C.16 that an individual studied
does not pose a risk of harm that requires continuous, direct supervision, the commissioner
shall order the applicant, license holder, or other entities as provided in this chapter to:

(1) immediately remove the individual studied from any position allowing direct contact
with, or access to, people receiving services; or

(2) before allowing the disqualified individual to be in any position allowing direct
contact with, or access to, people receiving services, the applicant, license holder, or other
entity as provided in this chapter must:

(i) obtain from the disqualified individual a copy of the individual's notice of
disqualification from the commissioner that explains the reason for disqualification; and

(ii) ensure that the disqualified individual requests reconsideration within 15 days of
receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(e) The commissioner shall not notify the applicant, license holder, or other entity as
provided in this chapter of the information contained in the subject's background study
unless:

(1) the basis for the disqualification is failure to cooperate with the background study
or substantiated maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end;

(2) the Data Practices Act under chapter 13 provides for release of the information; or

(3) the individual studied authorizes the release of the information.

Sec. 54.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.21, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Time frame for requesting reconsideration.

(a) When the commissioner
sends an individual a notice of disqualification based on a finding under section 245C.16,
subdivision 2
, paragraph (a), clause (1) or (2), the disqualified individual must submit the
request for a reconsideration within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice
of disqualification. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent
to the commissioner within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of
disqualification. If a request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be
received by the commissioner within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the
notice of disqualification. Upon showing that the information under subdivision 3 cannot
be obtained within 30 days, the disqualified individual may request additional time, not to
exceed 30 days, to obtain the information.

(b) When the commissioner sends an individual a notice of disqualification based on a
finding under section 245C.16, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), the disqualified
individual must submit the request for reconsideration within 15 calendar days of the
individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. If mailed, the request for reconsideration
must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within 15 calendar days of the individual's
receipt of the notice of disqualification. If a request for reconsideration is made by personal
service, it must be received by the commissioner within 15 calendar days after the individual's
receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(c) An individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end or a vulnerable adult under section 626.557, and who is disqualified on the
basis of serious or recurring maltreatment, may request a reconsideration of both the
maltreatment and the disqualification determinations. The request must be submitted within
30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. If mailed, the
request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within 30
calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. If a request for
reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the commissioner within
30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(d) Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment
determination under sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision
9d, and reconsideration of a disqualification under section 245C.22, shall not be conducted
when:

(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05, or a licensing sanction under section
245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment
or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;

(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the
maltreatment determination or disqualification; and

(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and
denial of a license or licensing sanction. In such cases, a fair hearing under section 256.045
must not be conducted under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end, and
626.557, subdivision 9d. Under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the
consolidated contested case hearing must include the maltreatment determination,
disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.

Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment
determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing
sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the
disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall
also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end,
and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

Sec. 55.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.24, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Seven-year bar to set aside disqualification.

The commissioner may not set
aside the disqualification of an individual in connection with a license to provide family
child care for children, foster care for children in the provider's home, or foster care or day
care services for adults in the provider's home if within seven years preceding the study:

(1) the individual committed an act that constitutes maltreatment of a child under deleted text beginsection
626.556, subdivision 10e,
deleted text endnew text begin sections 260E.24, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3, and 260E.30,
subdivisions 1, 2, and 4,
new text end and the maltreatment resulted in substantial bodily harm as defined
in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by
competent psychological or psychiatric evidence; or

(2) the individual was determined under section 626.557 to be the perpetrator of a
substantiated incident of maltreatment of a vulnerable adult that resulted in substantial
bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional
harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence.

Sec. 56.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.25, is amended to read:


245C.25 CONSOLIDATED RECONSIDERATION OF MALTREATMENT
DETERMINATION AND DISQUALIFICATION.

If an individual is disqualified on the basis of a determination of maltreatment under
section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, which was serious or recurring, and the
individual requests reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 10i
,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end or 626.557, subdivision 9d, and also requests reconsideration of
the disqualification under section 245C.21, the commissioner shall consolidate the
reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification into a single
reconsideration.

Sec. 57.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.27, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Fair hearing following a reconsideration decision.

(a) An individual
who is disqualified on the basis of a preponderance of evidence that the individual committed
an act or acts that meet the definition of any of the crimes listed in section 245C.15; for a
determination under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endof substantiated
maltreatment that was serious or recurring under section 245C.15; or for failure to make
required reports under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3;deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06, subdivision 1 or 2; 260E.11,
subdivision 1;
new text end or 626.557, subdivision 3, pursuant to section 245C.15, subdivision 4,
paragraph (b), clause (1), may request a fair hearing under section 256.045, following a
reconsideration decision issued under section 245C.23, unless the disqualification is deemed
conclusive under section 245C.29.

(b) The fair hearing is the only administrative appeal of the final agency determination
for purposes of appeal by the disqualified individual. The disqualified individual does not
have the right to challenge the accuracy and completeness of data under section 13.04.

(c) Except as provided under paragraph (e), if the individual was disqualified based on
a conviction of, admission to, or Alford Plea to any crimes listed in section 245C.15,
subdivisions 1 to 4, or for a disqualification under section 256.98, subdivision 8, the
reconsideration decision under section 245C.22 is the final agency determination for purposes
of appeal by the disqualified individual and is not subject to a hearing under section 256.045.
If the individual was disqualified based on a judicial determination, that determination is
treated the same as a conviction for purposes of appeal.

(d) This subdivision does not apply to a public employee's appeal of a disqualification
under section 245C.28, subdivision 3.

(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), if the commissioner does not set aside a
disqualification of an individual who was disqualified based on both a preponderance of
evidence and a conviction or admission, the individual may request a fair hearing under
section 256.045, unless the disqualifications are deemed conclusive under section 245C.29.
The scope of the hearing conducted under section 256.045 with regard to the disqualification
based on a conviction or admission shall be limited solely to whether the individual poses
a risk of harm, according to section 256.045, subdivision 3b. In this case, the reconsideration
decision under section 245C.22 is not the final agency decision for purposes of appeal by
the disqualified individual.

Sec. 58.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.27, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Consolidated fair hearing following a reconsideration decision.

(a) If an
individual who is disqualified on the bases of serious or recurring maltreatment requests a
fair hearing on the maltreatment determination under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin
260E.33
new text end or 626.557, subdivision 9d, and requests a fair hearing under this section on the
disqualification following a reconsideration decision under section 245C.23, the scope of
the fair hearing under section 256.045 shall include the maltreatment determination and the
disqualification.

(b) A fair hearing is the only administrative appeal of the final agency determination.
The disqualified individual does not have the right to challenge the accuracy and
completeness of data under section 13.04.

(c) This subdivision does not apply to a public employee's appeal of a disqualification
under section 245C.28, subdivision 3.

Sec. 59.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.28, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

License holder.

(a) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification
for which reconsideration was timely requested and which was not set aside is the basis for
a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07,
the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota
Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. The license holder must submit the appeal under
section 245A.05 or 245A.07, subdivision 3.

(b) As provided under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, if the denial of a license or
licensing sanction is based on a disqualification for which reconsideration was timely
requested and was not set aside, the scope of the consolidated contested case hearing must
include:

(1) the disqualification, to the extent the license holder otherwise has a hearing right on
the disqualification under this chapter; and

(2) the licensing sanction or denial of a license.

(c) As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, if the denial of a license or
licensing sanction is based on a determination of maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end
626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, or a disqualification for serious or recurring maltreatment which
was not set aside, the scope of the contested case hearing must include:

(1) the maltreatment determination, if the maltreatment is not conclusive under section
245C.29;

(2) the disqualification, if the disqualification is not conclusive under section 245C.29;
and

(3) the licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing must not
be conducted under section 256.045. If the disqualification was based on a determination
of substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or
chapter 260E
new text end, the appeal must be submitted under sections 245A.07, subdivision 3, deleted text beginand
626.556, subdivision 10i,
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33,new text end or 626.557, subdivision 9d.

(d) Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment
determination under sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision
9d, and reconsideration of a disqualification under section 245C.22, must not be conducted
when:

(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05, or a licensing sanction under section
245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment
or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;

(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the
maltreatment determination or disqualification; and

(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and
denial of a license or licensing sanction. In such cases a fair hearing under section 256.045
must not be conducted under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33,new text end and
626.557, subdivision 9d. Under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the
consolidated contested case hearing must include the maltreatment determination,
disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.

Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment
determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing
sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the
disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall
also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33,new text end
and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

Sec. 60.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.29, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Conclusive maltreatment determination or disposition.

Unless
otherwise specified in statute, a maltreatment determination or disposition under section
deleted text begin 626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endis conclusive, if:

(1) the commissioner has issued a final order in an appeal of that determination or
disposition under section 245A.08, subdivision 5, or 256.045;

(2) the individual did not request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination or
disposition under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end; or

(3) the individual did not request a hearing of the maltreatment determination or
disposition under section 256.045.

Sec. 61.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.31, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Board determines disciplinary or corrective action.

(a) When the
subject of a background study is regulated by a health-related licensing board as defined in
chapter 214, and the commissioner determines that the regulated individual is responsible
for substantiated maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, instead
of the commissioner making a decision regarding disqualification, the board shall make a
determination whether to impose disciplinary or corrective action under chapter 214.

(b) This section does not apply to a background study of an individual regulated by a
health-related licensing board if the individual's study is related to child foster care, adult
foster care, or family child care licensure.

Sec. 62.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245C.32, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Use.

(a) The commissioner may also use these systems and records to obtain
and provide criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, criminal
history data held by the commissioner, and data about substantiated maltreatment under
section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, for other purposes, provided that:

(1) the background study is specifically authorized in statute; or

(2) the request is made with the informed consent of the subject of the study as provided
in section 13.05, subdivision 4.

(b) An individual making a request under paragraph (a), clause (2), must agree in writing
not to disclose the data to any other individual without the consent of the subject of the data.

(c) The commissioner may recover the cost of obtaining and providing background study
data by charging the individual or entity requesting the study a fee of no more than $20 per
study. The fees collected under this paragraph are appropriated to the commissioner for the
purpose of conducting background studies.

(d) The commissioner shall recover the cost of obtaining background study data required
under section 524.5-118 through a fee of $50 per study for an individual who has not lived
outside Minnesota for the past ten years, and a fee of $100 for an individual who has resided
outside of Minnesota for any period during the ten years preceding the background study.
The commissioner shall recover, from the individual, any additional fees charged by other
states' licensing agencies that are associated with these data requests. Fees under subdivision
3 also apply when criminal history data from the National Criminal Records Repository is
required.

Sec. 63.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.02, subdivision 11, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 81, is amended to read:


Subd. 11.

Incident.

"Incident" means an occurrence which involves a person and requires
the program to make a response that is not a part of the program's ordinary provision of
services to that person, and includes:

(1) serious injury of a person as determined by section 245.91, subdivision 6;

(2) a person's death;

(3) any medical emergency, unexpected serious illness, or significant unexpected change
in an illness or medical condition of a person that requires the program to call 911, physician
or advanced practice registered nurse treatment, or hospitalization;

(4) any mental health crisis that requires the program to call 911, a mental health crisis
intervention team, or a similar mental health response team or service when available and
appropriate;

(5) an act or situation involving a person that requires the program to call 911, law
enforcement, or the fire department;

(6) a person's unauthorized or unexplained absence from a program;

(7) conduct by a person receiving services against another person receiving services
that:

(i) is so severe, pervasive, or objectively offensive that it substantially interferes with a
person's opportunities to participate in or receive service or support;

(ii) places the person in actual and reasonable fear of harm;

(iii) places the person in actual and reasonable fear of damage to property of the person;
or

(iv) substantially disrupts the orderly operation of the program;

(8) any sexual activity between persons receiving services involving force or coercion
as defined under section 609.341, subdivisions 3 and 14;

(9) any emergency use of manual restraint as identified in section 245D.061 or successor
provisions; or

(10) a report of alleged or suspected child or vulnerable adult maltreatment under section
deleted text begin 626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 64.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.06, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Incident response and reporting.

(a) The license holder must respond
to incidents under section 245D.02, subdivision 11, that occur while providing services to
protect the health and safety of and minimize risk of harm to the person.

(b) The license holder must maintain information about and report incidents to the
person's legal representative or designated emergency contact and case manager within 24
hours of an incident occurring while services are being provided, within 24 hours of discovery
or receipt of information that an incident occurred, unless the license holder has reason to
know that the incident has already been reported, or as otherwise directed in a person's
coordinated service and support plan or coordinated service and support plan addendum.
An incident of suspected or alleged maltreatment must be reported as required under
paragraph (d), and an incident of serious injury or death must be reported as required under
paragraph (e).

(c) When the incident involves more than one person, the license holder must not disclose
personally identifiable information about any other person when making the report to each
person and case manager unless the license holder has the consent of the person.

(d) Within 24 hours of reporting maltreatment as required under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end
626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, the license holder must inform the case manager of the report
unless there is reason to believe that the case manager is involved in the suspected
maltreatment. The license holder must disclose the nature of the activity or occurrence
reported and the agency that received the report.

(e) The license holder must report the death or serious injury of the person as required
in paragraph (b) and to the Department of Human Services Licensing Division, and the
Office of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities as required under
section 245.94, subdivision 2a, within 24 hours of the death or serious injury, or receipt of
information that the death or serious injury occurred, unless the license holder has reason
to know that the death or serious injury has already been reported.

(f) When a death or serious injury occurs in a facility certified as an intermediate care
facility for persons with developmental disabilities, the death or serious injury must be
reported to the Department of Health, Office of Health Facility Complaints, and the Office
of Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, as required under sections
245.91 and 245.94, subdivision 2a, unless the license holder has reason to know that the
death or serious injury has already been reported.

(g) The license holder must conduct an internal review of incident reports of deaths and
serious injuries that occurred while services were being provided and that were not reported
by the program as alleged or suspected maltreatment, for identification of incident patterns,
and implementation of corrective action as necessary to reduce occurrences. The review
must include an evaluation of whether related policies and procedures were followed,
whether the policies and procedures were adequate, whether there is a need for additional
staff training, whether the reported event is similar to past events with the persons or the
services involved, and whether there is a need for corrective action by the license holder to
protect the health and safety of persons receiving services. Based on the results of this
review, the license holder must develop, document, and implement a corrective action plan
designed to correct current lapses and prevent future lapses in performance by staff or the
license holder, if any.

(h) The license holder must verbally report the emergency use of manual restraint of a
person as required in paragraph (b) within 24 hours of the occurrence. The license holder
must ensure the written report and internal review of all incident reports of the emergency
use of manual restraints are completed according to the requirements in section 245D.061
or successor provisions.

Sec. 65.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.06, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Restricted procedures.

(a) The following procedures are allowed when the
procedures are implemented in compliance with the standards governing their use as
identified in clauses (1) to (3). Allowed but restricted procedures include:

(1) permitted actions and procedures subject to the requirements in subdivision 7;

(2) procedures identified in a positive support transition plan subject to the requirements
in subdivision 8; or

(3) emergency use of manual restraint subject to the requirements in section 245D.061.

(b) A restricted procedure identified in paragraph (a) must not:

(1) be implemented with a child in a manner that constitutes sexual abuse, neglect,
physical abuse, or mental injury, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end;

(2) be implemented with an adult in a manner that constitutes abuse or neglect as defined
in section 626.5572, subdivision 2 or 17;

(3) be implemented in a manner that violates a person's rights identified in section
245D.04;

(4) restrict a person's normal access to a nutritious diet, drinking water, adequate
ventilation, necessary medical care, ordinary hygiene facilities, normal sleeping conditions,
necessary clothing, or any protection required by state licensing standards or federal
regulations governing the program;

(5) deny the person visitation or ordinary contact with legal counsel, a legal representative,
or next of kin;

(6) be used for the convenience of staff, as punishment, as a substitute for adequate
staffing, or as a consequence if the person refuses to participate in the treatment or services
provided by the program;

(7) use prone restraint. For purposes of this section, "prone restraint" means use of
manual restraint that places a person in a face-down position. Prone restraint does not include
brief physical holding of a person who, during an emergency use of manual restraint, rolls
into a prone position, if the person is restored to a standing, sitting, or side-lying position
as quickly as possible;

(8) apply back or chest pressure while a person is in a prone position as identified in
clause (7), supine position, or side-lying position; or

(9) be implemented in a manner that is contraindicated for any of the person's known
medical or psychological limitations.

Sec. 66.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.09, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Orientation to program requirements.

Except for a license holder who does
not supervise any direct support staff, within 60 calendar days of hire, unless stated otherwise,
the license holder must provide and ensure completion of orientation sufficient to create
staff competency for direct support staff that combines supervised on-the-job training with
review of and instruction in the following areas:

(1) the job description and how to complete specific job functions, including:

(i) responding to and reporting incidents as required under section 245D.06, subdivision
1; and

(ii) following safety practices established by the license holder and as required in section
245D.06, subdivision 2;

(2) the license holder's current policies and procedures required under this chapter,
including their location and access, and staff responsibilities related to implementation of
those policies and procedures;

(3) data privacy requirements according to sections 13.01 to 13.10 and 13.46, the federal
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), and staff
responsibilities related to complying with data privacy practices;

(4) the service recipient rights and staff responsibilities related to ensuring the exercise
and protection of those rights according to the requirements in section 245D.04;

(5) sections 245A.65, 245A.66, deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end and 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end, governing
maltreatment reporting and service planning for children and vulnerable adults, and staff
responsibilities related to protecting persons from maltreatment and reporting maltreatment.
This orientation must be provided within 72 hours of first providing direct contact services
and annually thereafter according to section 245A.65, subdivision 3;

(6) the principles of person-centered service planning and delivery as identified in section
245D.07, subdivision 1a, and how they apply to direct support service provided by the staff
person;

(7) the safe and correct use of manual restraint on an emergency basis according to the
requirements in section 245D.061 or successor provisions, and what constitutes the use of
restraints, time out, and seclusion, including chemical restraint;

(8) staff responsibilities related to prohibited procedures under section 245D.06,
subdivision 5, or successor provisions, why such procedures are not effective for reducing
or eliminating symptoms or undesired behavior, and why such procedures are not safe;

(9) basic first aid; and

(10) other topics as determined necessary in the person's coordinated service and support
plan by the case manager or other areas identified by the license holder.

Sec. 67.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245D.32, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Investigations of alleged or suspected maltreatment.

Nothing in this section
changes the commissioner's responsibilities to investigate alleged or suspected maltreatment
of a minor under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end or a vulnerable adult under section 626.557.

Sec. 68.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.04, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

General application and license requirements.

An applicant for licensure
as a clinically managed withdrawal management program or medically monitored withdrawal
management program must meet the following requirements, except where otherwise noted.
All programs must comply with federal requirements and the general requirements in
deleted text begin chapters 245A and 245C anddeleted text end sections deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end 626.557deleted text begin,deleted text end and 626.5572new text begin and chapters 245A,
245C, and 260E
new text end. A withdrawal management program must be located in a hospital licensed
under sections 144.50 to 144.581, or must be a supervised living facility with a class B
license from the Department of Health under Minnesota Rules, parts 4665.0100 to 4665.9900.

Sec. 69.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.15, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Program director qualifications.

A program director must:

(1) have at least one year of work experience in direct service to individuals with
substance use disorders or one year of work experience in the management or administration
of direct service to individuals with substance use disorders;

(2) have a baccalaureate degree or three years of work experience in administration or
personnel supervision in human services; and

(3) know and understand the requirements of this chapter deleted text beginand chapters 245A and 245C,
and
deleted text endnew text begin,new text end sections 253B.04, deleted text begin253B.05, 626.556deleted text endnew text begin 253B.051new text end, 626.557, and 626.5572new text begin, and chapters
245A, 245C, and 260E
new text end.

Sec. 70.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.15, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Responsible staff person qualifications.

Each responsible staff person must
know and understand the requirements of this chapter deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin,new text end sections 245A.65, 253B.04,
deleted text begin 253B.05, 626.556,deleted text end 626.557new text begin, 253B.051new text end, and 626.5572new text begin, and chapter 260Enew text end. In a clinically
managed program, the responsible staff person must be a licensed practical nurse employed
by or under contract with the license holder. In a medically monitored program, the
responsible staff person must be a registered nurse, program director, or physician.

Sec. 71.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Policy requirements.

A license holder must have written personnel
policies and must make them available to staff members at all times. The personnel policies
must:

(1) ensure that a staff member's retention, promotion, job assignment, or pay are not
affected by a good-faith communication between the staff member and the Department of
Human Services, Department of Health, Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities, law enforcement, or local agencies that investigate complaints regarding patient
rights, health, or safety;

(2) include a job description for each position that specifies job responsibilities, degree
of authority to execute job responsibilities, standards of job performance related to specified
job responsibilities, and qualifications;

(3) provide for written job performance evaluations for staff members of the license
holder at least annually;

(4) describe behavior that constitutes grounds for disciplinary action, suspension, or
dismissal, including policies that address substance use problems and meet the requirements
of section 245F.15, subdivisions 1 and 2. The policies and procedures must list behaviors
or incidents that are considered substance use problems. The list must include:

(i) receiving treatment for substance use disorder within the period specified for the
position in the staff qualification requirements;

(ii) substance use that has a negative impact on the staff member's job performance;

(iii) substance use that affects the credibility of treatment services with patients, referral
sources, or other members of the community; and

(iv) symptoms of intoxication or withdrawal on the job;

(5) include policies prohibiting personal involvement with patients and policies
prohibiting patient maltreatment as specified under deleted text beginchapter 604 anddeleted text end sections 245A.65,
deleted text begin 626.556,deleted text end 626.557, and 626.5572new text begin and chapters 260E and 604new text end;

(6) include a chart or description of organizational structure indicating the lines of
authority and responsibilities;

(7) include a written plan for new staff member orientation that, at a minimum, includes
training related to the specific job functions for which the staff member was hired, program
policies and procedures, patient needs, and the areas identified in subdivision 2, paragraphs
(b) to (e); and

(8) include a policy on the confidentiality of patient information.

Sec. 72.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.16, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Staff development.

(a) A license holder must ensure that each staff member
receives orientation training before providing direct patient care and at least 30 hours of
continuing education every two years. A written record must be kept to demonstrate
completion of training requirements.

(b) Within 72 hours of beginning employment, all staff having direct patient contact
must be provided orientation on the following:

(1) specific license holder and staff responsibilities for patient confidentiality;

(2) standards governing the use of protective procedures;

(3) patient ethical boundaries and patient rights, including the rights of patients admitted
under chapter 253B;

(4) infection control procedures;

(5) mandatory reporting under sections 245A.65deleted text begin, 626.556,deleted text end and 626.557deleted text begin,deleted text end new text beginand chapter
260E,
new text endincluding specific training covering the facility's policies concerning obtaining patient
releases of information;

(6) HIV minimum standards as required in section 245A.19;

(7) motivational counseling techniques and identifying stages of change; and

(8) eight hours of training on the program's protective procedures policy required in
section 245F.09, including:

(i) approved therapeutic holds;

(ii) protective procedures used to prevent patients from imminent danger of harming
self or others;

(iii) the emergency conditions under which the protective procedures may be used, if
any;

(iv) documentation standards for using protective procedures;

(v) how to monitor and respond to patient distress; and

(vi) person-centered planning and trauma-informed care.

(c) All staff having direct patient contact must be provided annual training on the
following:

(1) infection control procedures;

(2) mandatory reporting under sections 245A.65deleted text begin, 626.556,deleted text end and 626.557deleted text begin,deleted text end new text beginand chapter
260E,
new text endincluding specific training covering the facility's policies concerning obtaining patient
releases of information;

(3) HIV minimum standards as required in section 245A.19; and

(4) motivational counseling techniques and identifying stages of change.

(d) All staff having direct patient contact must be provided training every two years on
the following:

(1) specific license holder and staff responsibilities for patient confidentiality;

(2) standards governing use of protective procedures, including:

(i) approved therapeutic holds;

(ii) protective procedures used to prevent patients from imminent danger of harming
self or others;

(iii) the emergency conditions under which the protective procedures may be used, if
any;

(iv) documentation standards for using protective procedures;

(v) how to monitor and respond to patient distress; and

(vi) person-centered planning and trauma-informed care; and

(3) patient ethical boundaries and patient rights, including the rights of patients admitted
under chapter 253B.

(e) Continuing education that is completed in areas outside of the required topics must
provide information to the staff person that is useful to the performance of the individual
staff person's duties.

Sec. 73.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245F.18, is amended to read:


245F.18 POLICY AND PROCEDURES MANUAL.

A license holder must develop a written policy and procedures manual that is
alphabetically indexed and has a table of contents, so that staff have immediate access to
all policies and procedures, and that consumers of the services and other authorized parties
have access to all policies and procedures. The manual must contain the following materials:

(1) a description of patient education services as required in section 245F.06;

(2) personnel policies that comply with section 245F.16;

(3) admission information and referral and discharge policies that comply with section
245F.05;

(4) a health monitoring plan that complies with section 245F.12;

(5) a protective procedures policy that complies with section 245F.09, if the program
elects to use protective procedures;

(6) policies and procedures for assuring appropriate patient-to-staff ratios that comply
with section 245F.14;

(7) policies and procedures for assessing and documenting the susceptibility for risk of
abuse to the patient as the basis for the individual abuse prevention plan required by section
245A.65;

(8) procedures for mandatory reporting as required by sections 245A.65deleted text begin, 626.556,deleted text end and
626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end;

(9) a medication control plan that complies with section 245F.13; and

(10) policies and procedures regarding HIV that meet the minimum standards under
section 245A.19.

Sec. 74.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

License requirements.

(a) An applicant for a license to provide substance
use disorder treatment must comply with the general requirements in deleted text beginchapters 245A and
245C, sections 626.556 and
deleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557, new text beginchapters 245A, 245C, and 260E, new text endand Minnesota
Rules, chapter 9544.

(b) The commissioner may grant variances to the requirements in this chapter that do
not affect the client's health or safety if the conditions in section 245A.04, subdivision 9,
are met.

Sec. 75.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.10, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Responsible staff member.

A treatment director must designate a staff member
who, when present in the facility, is responsible for the delivery of treatment service. A
license holder must have a designated staff member during all hours of operation. A license
holder providing room and board and treatment at the same site must have a responsible
staff member on duty 24 hours a day. The designated staff member must know and understand
the implications of this chapternew text begin,new text end deleted text beginanddeleted text end sections 245A.65, deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end 626.557, and 626.5572new text begin,
and chapter 260E
new text end.

Sec. 76.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.11, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Treatment directors.

A treatment director must:

(1) have at least one year of work experience in direct service to an individual with
substance use disorder or one year of work experience in the management or administration
of direct service to an individual with substance use disorder;

(2) have a baccalaureate degree or three years of work experience in administration or
personnel supervision in human services; and

(3) know and understand the implications of this chapter, deleted text beginchapter 245A, anddeleted text end sections
deleted text begin 626.556,deleted text end 626.557deleted text begin,deleted text end and 626.5572new text begin, and chapters 245A and 260Enew text end. Demonstration of the
treatment director's knowledge must be documented in the personnel record.

Sec. 77.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.11, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Alcohol and drug counselor supervisors.

An alcohol and drug counselor
supervisor must:

(1) meet the qualification requirements in subdivision 5;

(2) have three or more years of experience providing individual and group counseling
to individuals with substance use disorder; and

(3) know and understand the implications of this chapter deleted text beginanddeleted text endnew text begin,new text end sections 245A.65, deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end
626.557, and 626.5572new text begin, and chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 78.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245G.12, is amended to read:


245G.12 PROVIDER POLICIES AND PROCEDURES.

A license holder must develop a written policies and procedures manual, indexed
according to section 245A.04, subdivision 14, paragraph (c), that provides staff members
immediate access to all policies and procedures and provides a client and other authorized
parties access to all policies and procedures. The manual must contain the following
materials:

(1) assessment and treatment planning policies, including screening for mental health
concerns and treatment objectives related to the client's identified mental health concerns
in the client's treatment plan;

(2) policies and procedures regarding HIV according to section 245A.19;

(3) the license holder's methods and resources to provide information on tuberculosis
and tuberculosis screening to each client and to report a known tuberculosis infection
according to section 144.4804;

(4) personnel policies according to section 245G.13;

(5) policies and procedures that protect a client's rights according to section 245G.15;

(6) a medical services plan according to section 245G.08;

(7) emergency procedures according to section 245G.16;

(8) policies and procedures for maintaining client records according to section 245G.09;

(9) procedures for reporting the maltreatment of minors according to deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end, and vulnerable adults according to sections 245A.65, 626.557, and 626.5572;

(10) a description of treatment services that: (i) includes the amount and type of services
provided; (ii) identifies which services meet the definition of group counseling under section
245G.01, subdivision 13a; and (iii) defines the program's treatment week;

(11) the methods used to achieve desired client outcomes;

(12) the hours of operation; and

(13) the target population served.

Sec. 79.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245G.13, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Personnel policy requirements.

A license holder must have written
personnel policies that are available to each staff member. The personnel policies must:

(1) ensure that staff member retention, promotion, job assignment, or pay are not affected
by a good faith communication between a staff member and the department, the Department
of Health, the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities, law enforcement,
or a local agency for the investigation of a complaint regarding a client's rights, health, or
safety;

(2) contain a job description for each staff member position specifying responsibilities,
degree of authority to execute job responsibilities, and qualification requirements;

(3) provide for a job performance evaluation based on standards of job performance
conducted on a regular and continuing basis, including a written annual review;

(4) describe behavior that constitutes grounds for disciplinary action, suspension, or
dismissal, including policies that address staff member problematic substance use and the
requirements of section 245G.11, subdivision 1, policies prohibiting personal involvement
with a client in violation of chapter 604, and policies prohibiting client abuse described in
sections 245A.65, deleted text begin626.556,deleted text end 626.557, and 626.5572new text begin, and chapter 260Enew text end;

(5) identify how the program will identify whether behaviors or incidents are problematic
substance use, including a description of how the facility must address:

(i) receiving treatment for substance use within the period specified for the position in
the staff qualification requirements, including medication-assisted treatment;

(ii) substance use that negatively impacts the staff member's job performance;

(iii) substance use that affects the credibility of treatment services with a client, referral
source, or other member of the community;

(iv) symptoms of intoxication or withdrawal on the job; and

(v) the circumstances under which an individual who participates in monitoring by the
health professional services program for a substance use or mental health disorder is able
to provide services to the program's clients;

(6) include a chart or description of the organizational structure indicating lines of
authority and responsibilities;

(7) include orientation within 24 working hours of starting for each new staff member
based on a written plan that, at a minimum, must provide training related to the staff member's
specific job responsibilities, policies and procedures, client confidentiality, HIV minimum
standards, and client needs; and

(8) include policies outlining the license holder's response to a staff member with a
behavior problem that interferes with the provision of treatment service.

Sec. 80.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245G.13, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Staff development.

(a) A license holder must ensure that each staff member
has the training described in this subdivision.

(b) Each staff member must be trained every two years in:

(1) client confidentiality rules and regulations and client ethical boundaries; and

(2) emergency procedures and client rights as specified in sections 144.651, 148F.165,
and 253B.03.

(c) Annually each staff member with direct contact must be trained on mandatory
reporting as specified in sections 245A.65, deleted text begin626.556, 626.5561,deleted text end 626.557, and 626.5572,new text begin and
chapter 260E,
new text end including specific training covering the license holder's policies for obtaining
a release of client information.

(d) Upon employment and annually thereafter, each staff member with direct contact
must receive training on HIV minimum standards according to section 245A.19.

(e) A treatment director, supervisor, nurse, or counselor must have a minimum of 12
hours of training in co-occurring disorders that includes competencies related to philosophy,
trauma-informed care, screening, assessment, diagnosis and person-centered treatment
planning, documentation, programming, medication, collaboration, mental health
consultation, and discharge planning. A new staff member who has not obtained the training
must complete the training within six months of employment. A staff member may request,
and the license holder may grant, credit for relevant training obtained before employment,
which must be documented in the staff member's personnel file.

Sec. 81.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245H.11, as amended by Laws
2020, chapter 115, article 4, section 90, is amended to read:


245H.11 REPORTING.

(a) The certification holder must comply and must have written policies for staff to
comply with the reporting requirements for abuse and neglect specified in deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end. A person mandated to report physical or sexual child abuse or neglect occurring
within a certified center shall report the information to the commissioner.

(b) The certification holder must inform the commissioner within 24 hours of:

(1) the death of a child in the program; and

(2) any injury to a child in the program that required treatment by a physician or advanced
practice registered nurse.

Sec. 82.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 254A.09, is amended to read:


254A.09 CONFIDENTIALITY OF RECORDS.

The Department of Human Services shall assure confidentiality to individuals who are
the subject of research by the state authority or are recipients of substance misuse or substance
use disorder information, assessment, or treatment from a licensed or approved program.
The commissioner shall withhold from all persons not connected with the conduct of the
research the names or other identifying characteristics of a subject of research unless the
individual gives written permission that information relative to treatment and recovery may
be released. Persons authorized to protect the privacy of subjects of research may not be
compelled in any federal, state or local, civil, criminal, administrative or other proceeding
to identify or disclose other confidential information about the individuals. Identifying
information and other confidential information related to substance misuse or substance use
disorder information, assessment, treatment, or aftercare services may be ordered to be
released by the court for the purpose of civil or criminal investigations or proceedings if,
after review of the records considered for disclosure, the court determines that the information
is relevant to the purpose for which disclosure is requested. The court shall order disclosure
of only that information which is determined relevant. In determining whether to compel
disclosure, the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the
injury to the patient, to the treatment relationship in the program affected and in other
programs similarly situated, and the actual or potential harm to the ability of programs to
attract and retain patients if disclosure occurs. This section does not exempt any person
from the reporting obligations under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, nor limit the use of
information reported in any proceeding arising out of the abuse or neglect of a child.
Identifying information and other confidential information related to substance misuse or
substance use disorder, assessment, treatment, or aftercare services may be ordered to be
released by the court for the purpose of civil or criminal investigations or proceedings. No
information may be released pursuant to this section that would not be released pursuant to
section 595.02, subdivision 2.

Sec. 83.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 254B.04, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Eligibility.

(a) Persons eligible for benefits under Code of Federal
Regulations, title 25, part 20, who meet the income standards of section 256B.056,
subdivision 4
, and are not enrolled in medical assistance, are entitled to chemical dependency
fund services. State money appropriated for this paragraph must be placed in a separate
account established for this purpose.

(b) Persons with dependent children who are determined to be in need of chemical
dependency treatment pursuant to an assessment under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10,deleted text endnew text begin
260E.20, subdivision 1,
new text end or a case plan under section 260C.201, subdivision 6, or 260C.212,
shall be assisted by the local agency to access needed treatment services. Treatment services
must be appropriate for the individual or family, which may include long-term care treatment
or treatment in a facility that allows the dependent children to stay in the treatment facility.
The county shall pay for out-of-home placement costs, if applicable.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), persons enrolled in medical assistance are eligible
for room and board services under section 254B.05, subdivision 5, paragraph (b), clause
(12).

Sec. 84.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.01, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Child mortality review panel.

(a) The commissioner shall establish a child
mortality review panel to review deaths of children in Minnesota, including deaths attributed
to maltreatment or in which maltreatment may be a contributing cause and to review near
fatalities as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11ddeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35new text end. The commissioners of
health, education, and public safety and the attorney general shall each designate a
representative to the child mortality review panel. Other panel members shall be appointed
by the commissioner, including a board-certified pathologist and a physician who is a coroner
or a medical examiner. The purpose of the panel shall be to make recommendations to the
state and to county agencies for improving the child protection system, including
modifications in statute, rule, policy, and procedure.

(b) The commissioner may require a county agency to establish a local child mortality
review panel. The commissioner may establish procedures for conducting local reviews
and may require that all professionals with knowledge of a child mortality case participate
in the local review. In this section, "professional" means a person licensed to perform or a
person performing a specific service in the child protective service system. "Professional"
includes law enforcement personnel, social service agency attorneys, educators, and social
service, health care, and mental health care providers.

(c) If the commissioner of human services has reason to believe that a child's death was
caused by maltreatment or that maltreatment was a contributing cause, the commissioner
has access to not public data under chapter 13 maintained by state agencies, statewide
systems, or political subdivisions that are related to the child's death or circumstances
surrounding the care of the child. The commissioner shall also have access to records of
private hospitals as necessary to carry out the duties prescribed by this section. Access to
data under this paragraph is limited to police investigative data; autopsy records and coroner
or medical examiner investigative data; hospital, public health, or other medical records of
the child; hospital and other medical records of the child's parent that relate to prenatal care;
and records created by social service agencies that provided services to the child or family
within three years preceding the child's death. A state agency, statewide system, or political
subdivision shall provide the data upon request of the commissioner. Not public data may
be shared with members of the state or local child mortality review panel in connection with
an individual case.

(d) Notwithstanding the data's classification in the possession of any other agency, data
acquired by a local or state child mortality review panel in the exercise of its duties is
protected nonpublic or confidential data as defined in section 13.02, but may be disclosed
as necessary to carry out the purposes of the review panel. The data is not subject to subpoena
or discovery. The commissioner may disclose conclusions of the review panel, but shall
not disclose data that was classified as confidential or private data on decedents, under
section 13.10, or private, confidential, or protected nonpublic data in the disseminating
agency, except that the commissioner may disclose local social service agency data as
provided in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11ddeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35new text end, on individual cases involving a
fatality or near fatality of a person served by the local social service agency prior to the date
of death.

(e) A person attending a child mortality review panel meeting shall not disclose what
transpired at the meeting, except to carry out the purposes of the mortality review panel.
The proceedings and records of the mortality review panel are protected nonpublic data as
defined in section 13.02, subdivision 13, and are not subject to discovery or introduction
into evidence in a civil or criminal action against a professional, the state or a county agency,
arising out of the matters the panel is reviewing. Information, documents, and records
otherwise available from other sources are not immune from discovery or use in a civil or
criminal action solely because they were presented during proceedings of the review panel.
A person who presented information before the review panel or who is a member of the
panel shall not be prevented from testifying about matters within the person's knowledge.
However, in a civil or criminal proceeding a person shall not be questioned about the person's
presentation of information to the review panel or opinions formed by the person as a result
of the review meetings.

Sec. 85.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256.01, subdivision 14b, is amended
to read:


Subd. 14b.

American Indian child welfare projects.

(a) The commissioner of human
services may authorize projects to initiate tribal delivery of child welfare services to American
Indian children and their parents and custodians living on the reservation. The commissioner
has authority to solicit and determine which tribes may participate in a project. Grants may
be issued to Minnesota Indian tribes to support the projects. The commissioner may waive
existing state rules as needed to accomplish the projects. The commissioner may authorize
projects to use alternative methods of (1) screening, investigating, and assessing reports of
child maltreatment, and (2) administrative reconsideration, administrative appeal, and
judicial appeal of maltreatment determinations, provided the alternative methods used by
the projects comply with the provisions of deleted text beginsectionsdeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 256.045 deleted text beginand 626.556deleted text endnew text begin and chapter
260E
new text end that deal with the rights of individuals who are the subjects of reports or investigations,
including notice and appeal rights and data practices requirements. The commissioner shall
only authorize alternative methods that comply with the public policy under section deleted text begin626.556,
deleted text enddeleted text begin subdivision 1deleted text endnew text begin 260E.01new text end. The commissioner may seek any federal approvals necessary to
carry out the projects as well as seek and use any funds available to the commissioner,
including use of federal funds, foundation funds, existing grant funds, and other funds. The
commissioner is authorized to advance state funds as necessary to operate the projects.
Federal reimbursement applicable to the projects is appropriated to the commissioner for
the purposes of the projects. The projects must be required to address responsibility for
safety, permanency, and well-being of children.

(b) For the purposes of this section, "American Indian child" means a person under 21
years old and who is a tribal member or eligible for membership in one of the tribes chosen
for a project under this subdivision and who is residing on the reservation of that tribe.

(c) In order to qualify for an American Indian child welfare project, a tribe must:

(1) be one of the existing tribes with reservation land in Minnesota;

(2) have a tribal court with jurisdiction over child custody proceedings;

(3) have a substantial number of children for whom determinations of maltreatment have
occurred;

(4)(i) have capacity to respond to reports of abuse and neglect under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end; or (ii) have codified the tribe's screening, investigation, and assessment of
reports of child maltreatment procedures, if authorized to use an alternative method by the
commissioner under paragraph (a);

(5) provide a wide range of services to families in need of child welfare services; and

(6) have a tribal-state title IV-E agreement in effect.

(d) Grants awarded under this section may be used for the nonfederal costs of providing
child welfare services to American Indian children on the tribe's reservation, including costs
associated with:

(1) assessment and prevention of child abuse and neglect;

(2) family preservation;

(3) facilitative, supportive, and reunification services;

(4) out-of-home placement for children removed from the home for child protective
purposes; and

(5) other activities and services approved by the commissioner that further the goals of
providing safety, permanency, and well-being of American Indian children.

(e) When a tribe has initiated a project and has been approved by the commissioner to
assume child welfare responsibilities for American Indian children of that tribe under this
section, the affected county social service agency is relieved of responsibility for responding
to reports of abuse and neglect under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end for those children during
the time within which the tribal project is in effect and funded. The commissioner shall
work with tribes and affected counties to develop procedures for data collection, evaluation,
and clarification of ongoing role and financial responsibilities of the county and tribe for
child welfare services prior to initiation of the project. Children who have not been identified
by the tribe as participating in the project shall remain the responsibility of the county.
Nothing in this section shall alter responsibilities of the county for law enforcement or court
services.

(f) Participating tribes may conduct children's mental health screenings under section
245.4874, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (12), for children who are eligible for the
initiative and living on the reservation and who meet one of the following criteria:

(1) the child must be receiving child protective services;

(2) the child must be in foster care; or

(3) the child's parents must have had parental rights suspended or terminated.

Tribes may access reimbursement from available state funds for conducting the screenings.
Nothing in this section shall alter responsibilities of the county for providing services under
section 245.487.

(g) Participating tribes may establish a local child mortality review panel. In establishing
a local child mortality review panel, the tribe agrees to conduct local child mortality reviews
for child deaths or near-fatalities occurring on the reservation under subdivision 12. Tribes
with established child mortality review panels shall have access to nonpublic data and shall
protect nonpublic data under subdivision 12, paragraphs (c) to (e). The tribe shall provide
written notice to the commissioner and affected counties when a local child mortality review
panel has been established and shall provide data upon request of the commissioner for
purposes of sharing nonpublic data with members of the state child mortality review panel
in connection to an individual case.

(h) The commissioner shall collect information on outcomes relating to child safety,
permanency, and well-being of American Indian children who are served in the projects.
Participating tribes must provide information to the state in a format and completeness
deemed acceptable by the state to meet state and federal reporting requirements.

(i) In consultation with the White Earth Band, the commissioner shall develop and submit
to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction
over health and human services a plan to transfer legal responsibility for providing child
protective services to White Earth Band member children residing in Hennepin County to
the White Earth Band. The plan shall include a financing proposal, definitions of key terms,
statutory amendments required, and other provisions required to implement the plan. The
commissioner shall submit the plan by January 15, 2012.

Sec. 86.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.01, subdivision 15, is amended to read:


Subd. 15.

Citizen review panels.

(a) The commissioner shall establish a minimum of
three citizen review panels to examine the policies and procedures of state and local welfare
agencies to evaluate the extent to which the agencies are effectively discharging their child
protection responsibilities. Local social service agencies shall cooperate and work with the
citizen review panels. Where appropriate, the panels may examine specific cases to evaluate
the effectiveness of child protection activities. The panels must examine the extent to which
the state and local agencies are meeting the requirements of the federal Child Abuse
Prevention and Treatment Act and the Reporting of Maltreatment of Minors Act. The
commissioner may authorize mortality review panels or child protection teams to carry out
the duties of a citizen review panel if membership meets or is expanded to meet the
requirements of this section.

(b) The panel membership must include volunteers who broadly represent the community
in which the panel is established, including members who have expertise in the prevention
and treatment of child abuse and neglect, child protection advocates, and representatives of
the councils of color and ombudsperson for families.

(c) A citizen review panel has access to the following data for specific case review under
this paragraph: police investigative data; autopsy records and coroner or medical examiner
investigative data; hospital, public health, or other medical records of the child; hospital
and other medical records of the child's parent that relate to prenatal care; records created
by social service agencies that provided services to the child or family; and personnel data
related to an employee's performance in discharging child protection responsibilities. A
state agency, statewide system, or political subdivision shall provide the data upon request
of the commissioner. Not public data may be shared with members of the state or local
citizen review panel in connection with an individual case.

(d) Notwithstanding the data's classification in the possession of any other agency, data
acquired by a local or state citizen review panel in the exercise of its duties are protected
nonpublic or confidential data as defined in section 13.02, but may be disclosed as necessary
to carry out the purposes of the review panel. The data are not subject to subpoena or
discovery. The commissioner may disclose conclusions of the review panel, but may not
disclose data on individuals that were classified as confidential or private data on individuals
in the possession of the state agency, statewide system, or political subdivision from which
the data were received, except that the commissioner may disclose local social service
agency data as provided in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 11ddeleted text endnew text begin 260E.35new text end, on individual cases
involving a fatality or near fatality of a person served by the local social service agency
prior to the date of death.

(e) A person attending a citizen review panel meeting may not disclose what transpired
at the meeting, except to carry out the purposes of the review panel. The proceedings and
records of the review panel are protected nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02,
subdivision 13
, and are not subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in a civil or
criminal action against a professional, the state, or county agency arising out of the matters
the panel is reviewing. Information, documents, and records otherwise available from other
sources are not immune from discovery or use in a civil or criminal action solely because
they were presented during proceedings of the review panel. A person who presented
information before the review panel or who is a member of the panel is not prevented from
testifying about matters within the person's knowledge. However, in a civil or criminal
proceeding, a person must not be questioned about the person's presentation of information
to the review panel or opinions formed by the person as a result of the review panel meetings.

Sec. 87.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.045, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

State agency hearings.

(a) State agency hearings are available for the following:

(1) any person applying for, receiving or having received public assistance, medical
care, or a program of social services granted by the state agency or a county agency or the
federal Food Stamp Act whose application for assistance is denied, not acted upon with
reasonable promptness, or whose assistance is suspended, reduced, terminated, or claimed
to have been incorrectly paid;

(2) any patient or relative aggrieved by an order of the commissioner under section
252.27;

(3) a party aggrieved by a ruling of a prepaid health plan;

(4) except as provided under chapter 245C, any individual or facility determined by a
lead investigative agency to have maltreated a vulnerable adult under section 626.557 after
they have exercised their right to administrative reconsideration under section 626.557;

(5) any person whose claim for foster care payment according to a placement of the
child resulting from a child protection assessment under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end is
denied or not acted upon with reasonable promptness, regardless of funding source;

(6) any person to whom a right of appeal according to this section is given by other
provision of law;

(7) an applicant aggrieved by an adverse decision to an application for a hardship waiver
under section 256B.15;

(8) an applicant aggrieved by an adverse decision to an application or redetermination
for a Medicare Part D prescription drug subsidy under section 256B.04, subdivision 4a;

(9) except as provided under chapter 245A, an individual or facility determined to have
maltreated a minor under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, after the individual or facility has
exercised the right to administrative reconsideration under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end;

(10) except as provided under chapter 245C, an individual disqualified under sections
245C.14 and 245C.15, following a reconsideration decision issued under section 245C.23,
on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment; a preponderance of the evidence that the
individual has committed an act or acts that meet the definition of any of the crimes listed
in section 245C.15, subdivisions 1 to 4; or for failing to make reports required under section
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 3,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06, subdivision 1,new text end or 626.557, subdivision 3. Hearings regarding
a maltreatment determination under clause (4) or (9) and a disqualification under this clause
in which the basis for a disqualification is serious or recurring maltreatment, shall be
consolidated into a single fair hearing. In such cases, the scope of review by the human
services judge shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.
The failure to exercise the right to an administrative reconsideration shall not be a bar to a
hearing under this section if federal law provides an individual the right to a hearing to
dispute a finding of maltreatment;

(11) any person with an outstanding debt resulting from receipt of public assistance,
medical care, or the federal Food Stamp Act who is contesting a setoff claim by the
Department of Human Services or a county agency. The scope of the appeal is the validity
of the claimant agency's intention to request a setoff of a refund under chapter 270A against
the debt;

(12) a person issued a notice of service termination under section 245D.10, subdivision
3a, from residential supports and services as defined in section 245D.03, subdivision 1,
paragraph (c), clause (3), that is not otherwise subject to appeal under subdivision 4a;

(13) an individual disability waiver recipient based on a denial of a request for a rate
exception under section 256B.4914; or

(14) a person issued a notice of service termination under section 245A.11, subdivision
11, that is not otherwise subject to appeal under subdivision 4a.

(b) The hearing for an individual or facility under paragraph (a), clause (4), (9), or (10),
is the only administrative appeal to the final agency determination specifically, including
a challenge to the accuracy and completeness of data under section 13.04. Hearings requested
under paragraph (a), clause (4), apply only to incidents of maltreatment that occur on or
after October 1, 1995. Hearings requested by nursing assistants in nursing homes alleged
to have maltreated a resident prior to October 1, 1995, shall be held as a contested case
proceeding under the provisions of chapter 14. Hearings requested under paragraph (a),
clause (9), apply only to incidents of maltreatment that occur on or after July 1, 1997. A
hearing for an individual or facility under paragraph (a), clauses (4), (9), and (10), is only
available when there is no district court action pending. If such action is filed in district
court while an administrative review is pending that arises out of some or all of the events
or circumstances on which the appeal is based, the administrative review must be suspended
until the judicial actions are completed. If the district court proceedings are completed,
dismissed, or overturned, the matter may be considered in an administrative hearing.

(c) For purposes of this section, bargaining unit grievance procedures are not an
administrative appeal.

(d) The scope of hearings involving claims to foster care payments under paragraph (a),
clause (5), shall be limited to the issue of whether the county is legally responsible for a
child's placement under court order or voluntary placement agreement and, if so, the correct
amount of foster care payment to be made on the child's behalf and shall not include review
of the propriety of the county's child protection determination or child placement decision.

(e) The scope of hearings under paragraph (a), clauses (12) and (14), shall be limited to
whether the proposed termination of services is authorized under section 245D.10,
subdivision 3a
, paragraph (b), or 245A.11, subdivision 11, and whether the requirements
of section 245D.10, subdivision 3a, paragraphs (c) to (e), or 245A.11, subdivision 2a,
paragraphs (d) to (f), were met. If the appeal includes a request for a temporary stay of
termination of services, the scope of the hearing shall also include whether the case
management provider has finalized arrangements for a residential facility, a program, or
services that will meet the assessed needs of the recipient by the effective date of the service
termination.

(f) A vendor of medical care as defined in section 256B.02, subdivision 7, or a vendor
under contract with a county agency to provide social services is not a party and may not
request a hearing under this section, except if assisting a recipient as provided in subdivision
4.

(g) An applicant or recipient is not entitled to receive social services beyond the services
prescribed under chapter 256M or other social services the person is eligible for under state
law.

(h) The commissioner may summarily affirm the county or state agency's proposed
action without a hearing when the sole issue is an automatic change due to a change in state
or federal law.

(i) Unless federal or Minnesota law specifies a different time frame in which to file an
appeal, an individual or organization specified in this section may contest the specified
action, decision, or final disposition before the state agency by submitting a written request
for a hearing to the state agency within 30 days after receiving written notice of the action,
decision, or final disposition, or within 90 days of such written notice if the applicant,
recipient, patient, or relative shows good cause, as defined in section 256.0451, subdivision
13, why the request was not submitted within the 30-day time limit. The individual filing
the appeal has the burden of proving good cause by a preponderance of the evidence.

Sec. 88.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.045, subdivision 3b, is amended to read:


Subd. 3b.

Standard of evidence for maltreatment and disqualification hearings.

(a)
The state human services judge shall determine that maltreatment has occurred if a
preponderance of evidence exists to support the final disposition under deleted text beginsections 626.556
and
deleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end. For purposes of hearings regarding disqualification,
the state human services judge shall affirm the proposed disqualification in an appeal under
subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (10), if a preponderance of the evidence shows the
individual has:

(1) committed maltreatment under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end, which
is serious or recurring;

(2) committed an act or acts meeting the definition of any of the crimes listed in section
245C.15, subdivisions 1 to 4; or

(3) failed to make required reports under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end,
for incidents in which the final disposition under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter
260E
new text endwas substantiated maltreatment that was serious or recurring.

(b) If the disqualification is affirmed, the state human services judge shall determine
whether the individual poses a risk of harm in accordance with the requirements of section
245C.22, and whether the disqualification should be set aside or not set aside. In determining
whether the disqualification should be set aside, the human services judge shall consider
all of the characteristics that cause the individual to be disqualified, including those
characteristics that were not subject to review under paragraph (a), in order to determine
whether the individual poses a risk of harm. A decision to set aside a disqualification that
is the subject of the hearing constitutes a determination that the individual does not pose a
risk of harm and that the individual may provide direct contact services in the individual
program specified in the set aside.

(c) If a disqualification is based solely on a conviction or is conclusive for any reason
under section 245C.29, the disqualified individual does not have a right to a hearing under
this section.

(d) The state human services judge shall recommend an order to the commissioner of
health, education, or human services, as applicable, who shall issue a final order. The
commissioner shall affirm, reverse, or modify the final disposition. Any order of the
commissioner issued in accordance with this subdivision is conclusive upon the parties
unless appeal is taken in the manner provided in subdivision 7. In any licensing appeal under
chapters 245A and 245C and sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 144A.02 to 144A.482, the
commissioner's determination as to maltreatment is conclusive, as provided under section
245C.29.

Sec. 89.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256.045, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Conduct of hearings.

(a) All hearings held pursuant to subdivision 3, 3a, 3b,
or 4a shall be conducted according to the provisions of the federal Social Security Act and
the regulations implemented in accordance with that act to enable this state to qualify for
federal grants-in-aid, and according to the rules and written policies of the commissioner
of human services. County agencies shall install equipment necessary to conduct telephone
hearings. A state human services judge may schedule a telephone conference hearing when
the distance or time required to travel to the county agency offices will cause a delay in the
issuance of an order, or to promote efficiency, or at the mutual request of the parties. Hearings
may be conducted by telephone conferences unless the applicant, recipient, former recipient,
person, or facility contesting maltreatment objects. A human services judge may grant a
request for a hearing in person by holding the hearing by interactive video technology or
in person. The human services judge must hear the case in person if the person asserts that
either the person or a witness has a physical or mental disability that would impair the
person's or witness's ability to fully participate in a hearing held by interactive video
technology. The hearing shall not be held earlier than five days after filing of the required
notice with the county or state agency. The state human services judge shall notify all
interested persons of the time, date, and location of the hearing at least five days before the
date of the hearing. Interested persons may be represented by legal counsel or other
representative of their choice, including a provider of therapy services, at the hearing and
may appear personally, testify and offer evidence, and examine and cross-examine witnesses.
The applicant, recipient, former recipient, person, or facility contesting maltreatment shall
have the opportunity to examine the contents of the case file and all documents and records
to be used by the county or state agency at the hearing at a reasonable time before the date
of the hearing and during the hearing. In hearings under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses
(4), (9), and (10), either party may subpoena the private data relating to the investigation
prepared by the agency under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557 new text beginor chapter 260E new text endthat is not
otherwise accessible under section 13.04, provided the identity of the reporter may not be
disclosed.

(b) The private data obtained by subpoena in a hearing under subdivision 3, paragraph
(a), clause (4), (9), or (10), must be subject to a protective order which prohibits its disclosure
for any other purpose outside the hearing provided for in this section without prior order of
the district court. Disclosure without court order is punishable by a sentence of not more
than 90 days imprisonment or a fine of not more than $1,000, or both. These restrictions on
the use of private data do not prohibit access to the data under section 13.03, subdivision
6
. Except for appeals under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (4), (5), (9), and (10), upon
request, the county agency shall provide reimbursement for transportation, child care,
photocopying, medical assessment, witness fee, and other necessary and reasonable costs
incurred by the applicant, recipient, or former recipient in connection with the appeal. All
evidence, except that privileged by law, commonly accepted by reasonable people in the
conduct of their affairs as having probative value with respect to the issues shall be submitted
at the hearing and such hearing shall not be "a contested case" within the meaning of section
14.02, subdivision 3. The agency must present its evidence prior to or at the hearing, and
may not submit evidence after the hearing except by agreement of the parties at the hearing,
provided the petitioner has the opportunity to respond.

(c) In hearings under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (4), (9), and (10), involving
determinations of maltreatment or disqualification made by more than one county agency,
by a county agency and a state agency, or by more than one state agency, the hearings may
be consolidated into a single fair hearing upon the consent of all parties and the state human
services judge.

(d) For hearings under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (4) or (10), involving a
vulnerable adult, the human services judge shall notify the vulnerable adult who is the
subject of the maltreatment determination and, if known, a guardian of the vulnerable adult
appointed under section 524.5-310, or a health care agent designated by the vulnerable adult
in a health care directive that is currently effective under section 145C.06 and whose authority
to make health care decisions is not suspended under section 524.5-310, of the hearing. The
notice must be sent by certified mail and inform the vulnerable adult of the right to file a
signed written statement in the proceedings. A guardian or health care agent who prepares
or files a written statement for the vulnerable adult must indicate in the statement that the
person is the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent and sign the statement in that
capacity. The vulnerable adult, the guardian, or the health care agent may file a written
statement with the human services judge hearing the case no later than five business days
before commencement of the hearing. The human services judge shall include the written
statement in the hearing record and consider the statement in deciding the appeal. This
subdivision does not limit, prevent, or excuse the vulnerable adult from being called as a
witness testifying at the hearing or grant the vulnerable adult, the guardian, or health care
agent a right to participate in the proceedings or appeal the human services judge's decision
in the case. The lead investigative agency must consider including the vulnerable adult
victim of maltreatment as a witness in the hearing. If the lead investigative agency determines
that participation in the hearing would endanger the well-being of the vulnerable adult or
not be in the best interests of the vulnerable adult, the lead investigative agency shall inform
the human services judge of the basis for this determination, which must be included in the
final order. If the human services judge is not reasonably able to determine the address of
the vulnerable adult, the guardian, or the health care agent, the human services judge is not
required to send a hearing notice under this subdivision.

Sec. 90.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0621, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Relocation targeted county case management provider qualifications.

(a)
A relocation targeted county case management provider is an enrolled medical assistance
provider who is determined by the commissioner to have all of the following characteristics:

(1) the legal authority to provide public welfare under sections 393.01, subdivision 7;
and 393.07; or a federally recognized Indian tribe;

(2) the demonstrated capacity and experience to provide the components of case
management to coordinate and link community resources needed by the eligible population;

(3) the administrative capacity and experience to serve the target population for whom
it will provide services and ensure quality of services under state and federal requirements;

(4) the legal authority to provide complete investigative and protective services under
section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin 260E.14new text end; and child welfare and foster care services under
section 393.07, subdivisions 1 and 2; or a federally recognized Indian tribe;

(5) a financial management system that provides accurate documentation of services
and costs under state and federal requirements; and

(6) the capacity to document and maintain individual case records under state and federal
requirements.

(b) A provider of targeted case management under section 256B.0625, subdivision 20,
may be deemed a certified provider of relocation targeted case management.

(c) A relocation targeted county case management provider may subcontract with another
provider to deliver relocation targeted case management services. Subcontracted providers
must demonstrate the ability to provide the services outlined in subdivision 6, and have a
procedure in place that notifies the recipient and the recipient's legal representative of any
conflict of interest if the contracted targeted case management provider also provides, or
will provide, the recipient's services and supports. Counties must require that contracted
providers must provide information on all conflicts of interest and obtain the recipient's
informed consent or provide the recipient with alternatives.

Sec. 91.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0625, subdivision 33, is amended to read:


Subd. 33.

Child welfare targeted case management.

Medical assistance, subject to
federal approval, covers child welfare targeted case management services as defined in
section 256B.094 to children under age 21 who have been assessed and determined in
accordance with section 256F.10 to be:

(1) at risk of placement or in placement as defined in section 260C.212, subdivision 1;

(2) at risk of maltreatment or experiencing maltreatment as defined in section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 10e
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivision 12new text end; or

(3) in need of protection or services as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6.

Sec. 92.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0945, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Residential services; provider qualifications.

(a) Counties must arrange
to provide residential services for children with severe emotional disturbance according to
sections 245.4882, 245.4885, and this section.

(b) Services must be provided by a facility that is licensed according to section 245.4882
and administrative rules promulgated thereunder, and under contract with the county.

(c) Eligible service costs may be claimed for a facility that is located in a state that
borders Minnesota if:

(1) the facility is the closest facility to the child's home, providing the appropriate level
of care; and

(2) the commissioner of human services has completed an inspection of the out-of-state
program according to the interagency agreement with the commissioner of corrections under
section 260B.198, subdivision 11, paragraph (b), and the program has been certified by the
commissioner of corrections under section 260B.198, subdivision 11, paragraph (a), to
substantially meet the standards applicable to children's residential mental health treatment
programs under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960. Nothing in this section requires the
commissioner of human services to enforce the background study requirements under chapter
245C or the requirements related to prevention and investigation of alleged maltreatment
under section deleted text begin626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end. Complaints received by the commissioner
of human services must be referred to the out-of-state licensing authority for possible
follow-up.

(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), eligible service costs may be claimed for an
out-of-state inpatient treatment facility if:

(1) the facility specializes in providing mental health services to children who are deaf,
deafblind, or hard-of-hearing and who use American Sign Language as their first language;

(2) the facility is licensed by the state in which it is located; and

(3) the state in which the facility is located is a member state of the Interstate Compact
on Mental Health.

Sec. 93.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0949, subdivision 16, is amended to read:


Subd. 16.

Agency duties.

(a) An agency delivering an EIDBI service under this section
must:

(1) enroll as a medical assistance Minnesota health care program provider according to
Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0195, and section 256B.04, subdivision 21, and meet all
applicable provider standards and requirements;

(2) demonstrate compliance with federal and state laws for EIDBI service;

(3) verify and maintain records of a service provided to the person or the person's legal
representative as required under Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.2175 and 9505.2197;

(4) demonstrate that while enrolled or seeking enrollment as a Minnesota health care
program provider the agency did not have a lead agency contract or provider agreement
discontinued because of a conviction of fraud; or did not have an owner, board member, or
manager fail a state or federal criminal background check or appear on the list of excluded
individuals or entities maintained by the federal Department of Human Services Office of
Inspector General;

(5) have established business practices including written policies and procedures, internal
controls, and a system that demonstrates the organization's ability to deliver quality EIDBI
services;

(6) have an office located in Minnesota;

(7) conduct a criminal background check on an individual who has direct contact with
the person or the person's legal representative;

(8) report maltreatment according to deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter
260E
new text end;

(9) comply with any data requests consistent with the Minnesota Government Data
Practices Act, sections 256B.064 and 256B.27;

(10) provide training for all agency staff on the requirements and responsibilities listed
in the Maltreatment of Minors Act, deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, and the Vulnerable Adult
Protection Act, section 626.557, including mandated and voluntary reporting, nonretaliation,
and the agency's policy for all staff on how to report suspected abuse and neglect;

(11) have a written policy to resolve issues collaboratively with the person and the
person's legal representative when possible. The policy must include a timeline for when
the person and the person's legal representative will be notified about issues that arise in
the provision of services;

(12) provide the person's legal representative with prompt notification if the person is
injured while being served by the agency. An incident report must be completed by the
agency staff member in charge of the person. A copy of all incident and injury reports must
remain on file at the agency for at least five years from the report of the incident; and

(13) before starting a service, provide the person or the person's legal representative a
description of the treatment modality that the person shall receive, including the staffing
certification levels and training of the staff who shall provide a treatment.

(b) When delivering the ITP, and annually thereafter, an agency must provide the person
or the person's legal representative with:

(1) a written copy and a verbal explanation of the person's or person's legal
representative's rights and the agency's responsibilities;

(2) documentation in the person's file the date that the person or the person's legal
representative received a copy and explanation of the person's or person's legal
representative's rights and the agency's responsibilities; and

(3) reasonable accommodations to provide the information in another format or language
as needed to facilitate understanding of the person's or person's legal representative's rights
and the agency's responsibilities.

Sec. 94.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0951, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Variance of certain standards prohibited.

The safety standards, rights, or
procedural protections under deleted text beginchapter 245C anddeleted text end sections 245.825; 245.91 to 245.97; 245A.09,
subdivision 2
, paragraph (c), clauses (2) and (5); 245A.12; 245A.13; 252.41, subdivision
9
; 256B.092, subdivisions 1b, clause (7), and 10; deleted text begin626.556;deleted text endnew text begin andnew text end 626.557new text begin; and chapters 245C
and 260E
new text end, and procedures for the monitoring of psychotropic medications shall not be varied
under the alternative quality assurance licensing system. The commission may make
recommendations to the commissioners of human services and health or to the legislature
regarding alternatives to or modifications of the rules and procedures referenced in this
subdivision.

Sec. 95.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.0954, is amended to read:


256B.0954 CERTAIN PERSONS DEFINED AS MANDATED REPORTERS.

Members of the Quality Assurance Commission established under section 256B.0951,
members of quality assurance review councils established under section 256B.0952, quality
assurance managers appointed under section 256B.0952, and members of quality assurance
teams established under section 256B.0952 are mandated reporters as that term is defined
in sections deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06, subdivision 1new text end, and 626.5572, subdivision 16.

Sec. 96.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.097, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Regional quality councils.

(a) The commissioner shall establish, as selected
by the State Quality Council, regional quality councils of key stakeholders, including regional
representatives of:

(1) disability service recipients and their family members;

(2) disability service providers;

(3) disability advocacy groups; and

(4) county human services agencies and staff from the Department of Human Services
and Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.

(b) Each regional quality council shall:

(1) direct and monitor the community-based, person-directed quality assurance system
in this section;

(2) approve a training program for quality assurance team members under clause (13);

(3) review summary reports from quality assurance team reviews and make
recommendations to the State Quality Council regarding program licensure;

(4) make recommendations to the State Quality Council regarding the system;

(5) resolve complaints between the quality assurance teams, counties, providers, persons
receiving services, their families, and legal representatives;

(6) analyze and review quality outcomes and critical incident data reporting incidents
of life safety concerns immediately to the Department of Human Services licensing division;

(7) provide information and training programs for persons with disabilities and their
families and legal representatives on service options and quality expectations;

(8) disseminate information and resources developed to other regional quality councils;

(9) respond to state-level priorities;

(10) establish regional priorities for quality improvement;

(11) submit an annual report to the State Quality Council on the status, outcomes,
improvement priorities, and activities in the region;

(12) choose a representative to participate on the State Quality Council and assume other
responsibilities consistent with the priorities of the State Quality Council; and

(13) recruit, train, and assign duties to members of quality assurance teams, taking into
account the size of the service provider, the number of services to be reviewed, the skills
necessary for the team members to complete the process, and ensure that no team member
has a financial, personal, or family relationship with the facility, program, or service being
reviewed or with anyone served at the facility, program, or service. Quality assurance teams
must be comprised of county staff, persons receiving services or the person's families, legal
representatives, members of advocacy organizations, providers, and other involved
community members. Team members must complete the training program approved by the
regional quality council and must demonstrate performance-based competency. Team
members may be paid a per diem and reimbursed for expenses related to their participation
in the quality assurance process.

(c) The commissioner shall monitor the safety standards, rights, and procedural
protections for the monitoring of psychotropic medications and those identified under
sections 245.825; 245.91 to 245.97; 245A.09, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clauses (2) and
(5); 245A.12; 245A.13; 252.41, subdivision 9; 256B.092, subdivision 1b, clause (7); deleted text begin626.556;deleted text end
and 626.557new text begin; and chapter 260Enew text end.

(d) The regional quality councils may hire staff to perform the duties assigned in this
subdivision.

(e) The regional quality councils may charge fees for their services.

(f) The quality assurance process undertaken by a regional quality council consists of
an evaluation by a quality assurance team of the facility, program, or service. The process
must include an evaluation of a random sample of persons served. The sample must be
representative of each service provided. The sample size must be at least five percent but
not less than two persons served. All persons must be given the opportunity to be included
in the quality assurance process in addition to those chosen for the random sample.

(g) A facility, program, or service may contest a licensing decision of the regional quality
council as permitted under chapter 245A.

Sec. 97.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.097, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Mandated reporters.

Members of the State Quality Council under subdivision
3, the regional quality councils under subdivision 4, and quality assurance team members
under subdivision 4, paragraph (b), clause (13), are mandated reporters as defined in sections
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 3deleted text endnew text begin 260E.06, subdivision 1new text end, and 626.5572, subdivision 16.

Sec. 98.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.77, subdivision 17, is amended to read:


Subd. 17.

Approval of alternatives.

The commissioner may approve alternatives to
administrative rules if the commissioner determines that appropriate alternative measures
are in place to protect the health, safety, and rights of enrollees and to assure that services
are of sufficient quality to produce the outcomes described in the personal support plans.
Prior approved waivers, if needed by the demonstration project, shall be extended. The
commissioner shall not waive the rights or procedural protections under sections 245.825;
245.91 to 245.97; 252.41, subdivision 9; 256B.092, subdivision 10; deleted text begin626.556;deleted text end and 626.557;
new text begin and chapter 260E new text endor procedures for the monitoring of psychotropic medications. Prohibited
practices as defined in statutes and rules governing service delivery to eligible individuals
are applicable to services delivered under this demonstration project.

Sec. 99.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.85, subdivision 10, is amended
to read:


Subd. 10.

Agency-provider and FMS provider qualifications and duties.

(a)
Agency-providers identified in subdivision 11 and FMS providers identified in subdivision
13a shall:

(1) enroll as a medical assistance Minnesota health care programs provider and meet all
applicable provider standards and requirements;

(2) demonstrate compliance with federal and state laws and policies for CFSS as
determined by the commissioner;

(3) comply with background study requirements under chapter 245C and maintain
documentation of background study requests and results;

(4) verify and maintain records of all services and expenditures by the participant,
including hours worked by support workers;

(5) not engage in any agency-initiated direct contact or marketing in person, by telephone,
or other electronic means to potential participants, guardians, family members, or participants'
representatives;

(6) directly provide services and not use a subcontractor or reporting agent;

(7) meet the financial requirements established by the commissioner for financial
solvency;

(8) have never had a lead agency contract or provider agreement discontinued due to
fraud, or have never had an owner, board member, or manager fail a state or FBI-based
criminal background check while enrolled or seeking enrollment as a Minnesota health care
programs provider; and

(9) have an office located in Minnesota.

(b) In conducting general duties, agency-providers and FMS providers shall:

(1) pay support workers based upon actual hours of services provided;

(2) pay for worker training and development services based upon actual hours of services
provided or the unit cost of the training session purchased;

(3) withhold and pay all applicable federal and state payroll taxes;

(4) make arrangements and pay unemployment insurance, taxes, workers' compensation,
liability insurance, and other benefits, if any;

(5) enter into a written agreement with the participant, participant's representative, or
legal representative that assigns roles and responsibilities to be performed before services,
supports, or goods are provided;

(6) report maltreatment as required under deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and
chapter 260E
new text end;

(7) comply with the labor market reporting requirements described in section 256B.4912,
subdivision 1a;

(8) comply with any data requests from the department consistent with the Minnesota
Government Data Practices Act under chapter 13; and

(9) maintain documentation for the requirements under subdivision 16, paragraph (e),
clause (2), to qualify for an enhanced rate under this section.

Sec. 100.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256B.85, subdivision 12a, is amended to read:


Subd. 12a.

CFSS agency-provider requirements; policies for complaint process and
incident response.

(a) The CFSS agency-provider must establish policies and procedures
that promote service recipient rights by providing a simple complaint process for participants
served by the program and their authorized representatives to bring a grievance. The
complaint process must:

(1) provide staff assistance with the complaint process when requested;

(2) allow the participant to bring the complaint to the highest level of authority in the
program if the grievance cannot be resolved by other staff members, and provide the name,
address, and telephone number of that person;

(3) provide the addresses and telephone numbers of outside agencies to assist the
participant;

(4) require a prompt response to all complaints affecting a participant's health and safety
and a timely response to all other complaints;

(5) require an evaluation of whether:

(i) related policies and procedures were followed and adequate;

(ii) there is a need for additional staff training;

(iii) the complaint is similar to past complaints with the persons, staff, or services
involved; and

(iv) there is a need for corrective action by the agency-provider to protect the health and
safety of participants receiving services;

(6) provide a written summary of the complaint and a notice of the complaint resolution
to the participant and, if applicable, case manager or care coordinator; and

(7) require that the complaint summary and resolution notice be maintained in the
participant's service record.

(b) The CFSS agency-provider must establish policies and procedures for responding
to incidents that occur while services are being provided. When a participant has a legal
representative or a participant's representative, incidents must be reported to these
representatives. For the purposes of this paragraph, "incident" means an occurrence that
involves a participant and requires a response that is not a part of the ordinary provision of
the services to that participant, and includes:

(1) serious injury of a participant as determined by section 245.91, subdivision 6;

(2) a participant's death;

(3) any medical emergency, unexpected serious illness, or significant unexpected change
in a participant's illness or medical condition that requires a call to 911, physician treatment,
or hospitalization;

(4) any mental health crisis that requires a call to 911 or a mental health crisis intervention
team;

(5) an act or situation involving a participant that requires a call to 911, law enforcement,
or the fire department;

(6) a participant's unexplained absence;

(7) behavior that creates an imminent risk of harm to the participant or another; and

(8) a report of alleged or suspected child or vulnerable adult maltreatment under section
deleted text begin 626.556 ordeleted text end 626.557new text begin or chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 101.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256E.21, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Child abuse.

"Child abuse" means sexual abuse, neglect, or physical abuse as
defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2, paragraphs (g), (k), and (n)deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivisions
15, 18, and 20
new text end.

Sec. 102.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256F.10, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Eligibility.

Persons under 21 years of age who are eligible to receive
medical assistance are eligible for child welfare targeted case management services under
section 256B.094 and this section if they have received an assessment and have been
determined by the local county or tribal social services agency to be:

(1) at risk of placement or in placement as described in section 260C.212, subdivision
1
;

(2) at risk of maltreatment or experiencing maltreatment as defined in section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 10e
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivision 12new text end; or

(3) in need of protection or services as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6.

Sec. 103.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256F.10, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Provider qualifications and certification standards.

The commissioner must
certify each provider before enrolling it as a child welfare targeted case management provider
of services under section 256B.094 and this section. The certification process shall examine
the provider's ability to meet the qualification requirements and certification standards in
this subdivision and other federal and state requirements of this service. A certified child
welfare targeted case management provider is an enrolled medical assistance provider who
is determined by the commissioner to have all of the following:

(1) the legal authority to provide public welfare under sections 393.01, subdivision 7,
and 393.07 or a federally recognized Indian tribe;

(2) the demonstrated capacity and experience to provide the components of case
management to coordinate and link community resources needed by the eligible population;

(3) administrative capacity and experience in serving the target population for whom it
will provide services and in ensuring quality of services under state and federal requirements;

(4) the legal authority to provide complete investigative and protective services under
section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin 260E.20new text end, and child welfare and foster care services under
section 393.07, subdivisions 1 and 2, or a federally recognized Indian tribe;

(5) a financial management system that provides accurate documentation of services
and costs under state and federal requirements; and

(6) the capacity to document and maintain individual case records under state and federal
requirements.

Sec. 104.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256L.07, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Families with children in need of chemical dependency treatment.

Premiums
for families with children when a parent has been determined to be in need of chemical
dependency treatment pursuant to an assessment conducted by the county under section
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin 260E.20, subdivision 1, paragraph (g)new text end, or a case plan under section
260C.201, subdivision 6, or 260C.212, who are eligible for MinnesotaCare under section
256L.04, subdivision 1, may be paid by the county of residence of the person in need of
treatment for one year from the date the family is determined to be eligible or if the family
is currently enrolled in MinnesotaCare from the date the person is determined to be in need
of chemical dependency treatment. Upon renewal, the family is responsible for any premiums
owed under section 256L.15. If the family is not currently enrolled in MinnesotaCare, the
local county human services agency shall determine whether the family appears to meet the
eligibility requirements and shall assist the family in applying for the MinnesotaCare
program.

Sec. 105.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256M.10, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Vulnerable children and adults services.

(a) "Vulnerable children and adults
services" means services provided or arranged for by county boards for vulnerable children
under deleted text beginchapterdeleted text endnew text begin chaptersnew text end 260Cnew text begin and 260Enew text end, deleted text beginand sections 626.556 and 626.5561,deleted text end and adults
under section 626.557 who experience dependency, abuse, or neglect, as well as services
for family members to support those individuals. These services may be provided by
professionals or nonprofessionals, including the person's natural supports in the community.
For the purpose of this chapter, "vulnerable children" means children and adolescents.

(b) Vulnerable children and adults services do not include services under the public
assistance programs known as the Minnesota family investment program, Minnesota
supplemental aid, medical assistance, general assistance, MinnesotaCare, or community
health services.

Sec. 106.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256M.40, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Formula.

The commissioner shall allocate state funds appropriated under
this chapter to each county board on a calendar year basis in an amount determined according
to the formula in paragraphs (a) to (e).

(a) For calendar years 2011 and 2012, the commissioner shall allocate available funds
to each county in proportion to that county's share in calendar year 2010.

(b) For calendar year 2013 and each calendar year thereafter, the commissioner shall
allocate available funds to each county as follows:

(1) 75 percent must be distributed on the basis of the county share in calendar year 2012;

(2) five percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of persons residing in
the county as determined by the most recent data of the state demographer;

(3) ten percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of vulnerable children
that are subjects of reports under deleted text beginchapterdeleted text endnew text begin chaptersnew text end 260C deleted text beginand sections 626.556 and 626.5561deleted text endnew text begin
and 260E
new text end, and in the county as determined by the most recent data of the commissioner;
and

(4) ten percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of vulnerable adults that
are subjects of reports under section 626.557 in the county as determined by the most recent
data of the commissioner.

(c) The commissioner is precluded from changing the formula under this subdivision or
recommending a change to the legislature without public review and input.

Sec. 107.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 256M.41, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Formula for county staffing funds.

(a) The commissioner shall allocate
state funds appropriated under this section to each county board on a calendar year basis in
an amount determined according to the following formula:

(1) 50 percent must be distributed on the basis of the child population residing in the
county as determined by the most recent data of the state demographer;

(2) 25 percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of screened-in reports of
child maltreatment under deleted text beginsections 626.556 and 626.5561deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, and in the county
as determined by the most recent data of the commissioner; and

(3) 25 percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of open child protection
case management cases in the county as determined by the most recent data of the
commissioner.

(b) Notwithstanding this subdivision, no county shall be awarded an allocation of less
than $75,000.

Sec. 108.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 257.0764, is amended to read:


257.0764 COMPLAINTS.

An ombudsperson may receive a complaint from any source concerning an action of an
agency, facility, or program. After completing a review, the ombudsperson shall inform the
complainant, agency, facility, or program. Services to a child shall not be unfavorably altered
as a result of an investigation or complaint. An agency, facility, or program shall not retaliate
or take adverse action, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 4a,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.07,new text end paragraph
(c), against an individual who, in good faith, makes a complaint or assists in an investigation.

Sec. 109.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260.012, is amended to read:


260.012 DUTY TO ENSURE PLACEMENT PREVENTION AND FAMILY
REUNIFICATION; REASONABLE EFFORTS.

(a) Once a child alleged to be in need of protection or services is under the court's
jurisdiction, the court shall ensure that reasonable efforts, including culturally appropriate
services, by the social services agency are made to prevent placement or to eliminate the
need for removal and to reunite the child with the child's family at the earliest possible time,
and the court must ensure that the responsible social services agency makes reasonable
efforts to finalize an alternative permanent plan for the child as provided in paragraph (e).
In determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child and in making those
reasonable efforts, the child's best interests, health, and safety must be of paramount concern.
Reasonable efforts to prevent placement and for rehabilitation and reunification are always
required except upon a determination by the court that a petition has been filed stating a
prima facie case that:

(1) the parent has subjected a child to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 14
;

(2) the parental rights of the parent to another child have been terminated involuntarily;

(3) the child is an abandoned infant under section 260C.301, subdivision 2, paragraph
(a), clause (2);

(4) the parent's custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a
relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d),
clause (1), section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or a similar law of another jurisdiction;

(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin
260E.03
new text end, against the child or another child of the parent;

(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender
under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or

(7) the provision of services or further services for the purpose of reunification is futile
and therefore unreasonable under the circumstances.

(b) When the court makes one of the prima facie determinations under paragraph (a),
either permanency pleadings under section 260C.505, or a termination of parental rights
petition under sections 260C.141 and 260C.301 must be filed. A permanency hearing under
sections 260C.503 to 260C.521 must be held within 30 days of this determination.

(c) In the case of an Indian child, in proceedings under sections 260B.178, 260C.178,
260C.201, 260C.202, 260C.204, 260C.301, or 260C.503 to 260C.521, the juvenile court
must make findings and conclusions consistent with the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978,
United States Code, title 25, section 1901 et seq., as to the provision of active efforts. In
cases governed by the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section
1901, the responsible social services agency must provide active efforts as required under
United States Code, title 25, section 1911(d).

(d) "Reasonable efforts to prevent placement" means:

(1) the agency has made reasonable efforts to prevent the placement of the child in foster
care by working with the family to develop and implement a safety plan; or

(2) given the particular circumstances of the child and family at the time of the child's
removal, there are no services or efforts available which could allow the child to safely
remain in the home.

(e) "Reasonable efforts to finalize a permanent plan for the child" means due diligence
by the responsible social services agency to:

(1) reunify the child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed;

(2) assess a noncustodial parent's ability to provide day-to-day care for the child and,
where appropriate, provide services necessary to enable the noncustodial parent to safely
provide the care, as required by section 260C.219;

(3) conduct a relative search to identify and provide notice to adult relatives as required
under section 260C.221;

(4) place siblings removed from their home in the same home for foster care or adoption,
or transfer permanent legal and physical custody to a relative. Visitation between siblings
who are not in the same foster care, adoption, or custodial placement or facility shall be
consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2; and

(5) when the child cannot return to the parent or guardian from whom the child was
removed, to plan for and finalize a safe and legally permanent alternative home for the child,
and considers permanent alternative homes for the child inside or outside of the state,
preferably through adoption or transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of the child.

(f) Reasonable efforts are made upon the exercise of due diligence by the responsible
social services agency to use culturally appropriate and available services to meet the needs
of the child and the child's family. Services may include those provided by the responsible
social services agency and other culturally appropriate services available in the community.
At each stage of the proceedings where the court is required to review the appropriateness
of the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts as described in paragraphs (a),
(d), and (e), the social services agency has the burden of demonstrating that:

(1) it has made reasonable efforts to prevent placement of the child in foster care;

(2) it has made reasonable efforts to eliminate the need for removal of the child from
the child's home and to reunify the child with the child's family at the earliest possible time;

(3) it has made reasonable efforts to finalize an alternative permanent home for the child,
and considers permanent alternative homes for the child inside or outside of the state; or

(4) reasonable efforts to prevent placement and to reunify the child with the parent or
guardian are not required. The agency may meet this burden by stating facts in a sworn
petition filed under section 260C.141, by filing an affidavit summarizing the agency's
reasonable efforts or facts the agency believes demonstrate there is no need for reasonable
efforts to reunify the parent and child, or through testimony or a certified report required
under juvenile court rules.

(g) Once the court determines that reasonable efforts for reunification are not required
because the court has made one of the prima facie determinations under paragraph (a), the
court may only require reasonable efforts for reunification after a hearing according to
section 260C.163, where the court finds there is not clear and convincing evidence of the
facts upon which the court based its prima facie determination. In this case when there is
clear and convincing evidence that the child is in need of protection or services, the court
may find the child in need of protection or services and order any of the dispositions available
under section 260C.201, subdivision 1. Reunification of a child with a parent is not required
if the parent has been convicted of:

(1) a violation of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit a violation of, sections 609.185
to 609.20; 609.222, subdivision 2; or 609.223 in regard to another child of the parent;

(2) a violation of section 609.222, subdivision 2; or 609.223, in regard to the child;

(3) a violation of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit a violation of, United States
Code, title 18, section 1111(a) or 1112(a), in regard to another child of the parent;

(4) committing sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end,
against the child or another child of the parent; or

(5) an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender under section 243.166,
subdivision 1b
, paragraph (a) or (b).

(h) The juvenile court, in proceedings under sections 260B.178, 260C.178, 260C.201,
260C.202, 260C.204, 260C.301, or 260C.503 to 260C.521, shall make findings and
conclusions as to the provision of reasonable efforts. When determining whether reasonable
efforts have been made, the court shall consider whether services to the child and family
were:

(1) relevant to the safety and protection of the child;

(2) adequate to meet the needs of the child and family;

(3) culturally appropriate;

(4) available and accessible;

(5) consistent and timely; and

(6) realistic under the circumstances.

In the alternative, the court may determine that provision of services or further services
for the purpose of rehabilitation is futile and therefore unreasonable under the circumstances
or that reasonable efforts are not required as provided in paragraph (a).

(i) This section does not prevent out-of-home placement for treatment of a child with a
mental disability when it is determined to be medically necessary as a result of the child's
diagnostic assessment or individual treatment plan indicates that appropriate and necessary
treatment cannot be effectively provided outside of a residential or inpatient treatment
program and the level or intensity of supervision and treatment cannot be effectively and
safely provided in the child's home or community and it is determined that a residential
treatment setting is the least restrictive setting that is appropriate to the needs of the child.

(j) If continuation of reasonable efforts to prevent placement or reunify the child with
the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed is determined by the court to be
inconsistent with the permanent plan for the child or upon the court making one of the prima
facie determinations under paragraph (a), reasonable efforts must be made to place the child
in a timely manner in a safe and permanent home and to complete whatever steps are
necessary to legally finalize the permanent placement of the child.

(k) Reasonable efforts to place a child for adoption or in another permanent placement
may be made concurrently with reasonable efforts to prevent placement or to reunify the
child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed. When the responsible
social services agency decides to concurrently make reasonable efforts for both reunification
and permanent placement away from the parent under paragraph (a), the agency shall disclose
its decision and both plans for concurrent reasonable efforts to all parties and the court.
When the agency discloses its decision to proceed on both plans for reunification and
permanent placement away from the parent, the court's review of the agency's reasonable
efforts shall include the agency's efforts under both plans.

Sec. 110.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260.761, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Agency and court notice to tribes.

(a) When a local social services agency
has information that a family assessment or investigation being conducted may involve an
Indian child, the local social services agency shall notify the Indian child's tribe of the family
assessment or investigation according to section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10, paragraph (a),
clause (5)
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.18new text end. Initial notice shall be provided by telephone and by e-mail or facsimile.
The local social services agency shall request that the tribe or a designated tribal
representative participate in evaluating the family circumstances, identifying family and
tribal community resources, and developing case plans.

(b) When a local social services agency has information that a child receiving services
may be an Indian child, the local social services agency shall notify the tribe by telephone
and by e-mail or facsimile of the child's full name and date of birth, the full names and dates
of birth of the child's biological parents, and, if known, the full names and dates of birth of
the child's grandparents and of the child's Indian custodian. This notification must be provided
so the tribe can determine if the child is enrolled in the tribe or eligible for membership,
and must be provided within seven days. If information regarding the child's grandparents
or Indian custodian is not available within the seven-day period, the local social services
agency shall continue to request this information and shall notify the tribe when it is received.
Notice shall be provided to all tribes to which the child may have any tribal lineage. If the
identity or location of the child's parent or Indian custodian and tribe cannot be determined,
the local social services agency shall provide the notice required in this paragraph to the
United States secretary of the interior.

(c) In accordance with sections 260C.151 and 260C.152, when a court has reason to
believe that a child placed in emergency protective care is an Indian child, the court
administrator or a designee shall, as soon as possible and before a hearing takes place, notify
the tribal social services agency by telephone and by e-mail or facsimile of the date, time,
and location of the emergency protective case hearing. The court shall make efforts to allow
appearances by telephone for tribal representatives, parents, and Indian custodians.

(d) A local social services agency must provide the notices required under this subdivision
at the earliest possible time to facilitate involvement of the Indian child's tribe. Nothing in
this subdivision is intended to hinder the ability of the local social services agency and the
court to respond to an emergency situation. Lack of participation by a tribe shall not prevent
the tribe from intervening in services and proceedings at a later date. A tribe may participate
at any time. At any stage of the local social services agency's involvement with an Indian
child, the agency shall provide full cooperation to the tribal social services agency, including
disclosure of all data concerning the Indian child. Nothing in this subdivision relieves the
local social services agency of satisfying the notice requirements in the Indian Child Welfare
Act.

Sec. 111.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260B.171, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Attorney access to records.

An attorney representing a child, parent, or guardian
ad litem in a proceeding under this chapter shall be given access to records, local social
services agency files, and reports which form the basis of any recommendation made to the
court. An attorney does not have access under this subdivision to the identity of a person
who made a report under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. The court may issue protective
orders to prohibit an attorney from sharing a specified record or portion of a record with a
client other than a guardian ad litem.

Sec. 112.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260B.198, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Court order, findings, remedies, treatment.

(a) If the court finds that
the child is delinquent, it shall enter an order making any of the following dispositions of
the case which are deemed necessary to the rehabilitation of the child:

(1) counsel the child or the parents, guardian, or custodian;

(2) place the child under the supervision of a probation officer or other suitable person
in the child's own home under conditions prescribed by the court including reasonable rules
for the child's conduct and the conduct of the child's parents, guardian, or custodian, designed
for the physical, mental, and moral well-being and behavior of the child, or with the consent
of the commissioner of corrections, in a group foster care facility which is under the
management and supervision of said commissioner;

(3) if the court determines that the child is a danger to self or others, subject to the
supervision of the court, transfer legal custody of the child to one of the following:

(i) a child-placing agency;

(ii) the local social services agency;

(iii) a reputable individual of good moral character. No person may receive custody of
two or more unrelated children unless licensed as a residential facility pursuant to sections
245A.01 to 245A.16;

(iv) a county home school, if the county maintains a home school or enters into an
agreement with a county home school; or

(v) a county probation officer for placement in a group foster home established under
the direction of the juvenile court and licensed pursuant to section 241.021;

(4) transfer legal custody by commitment to the commissioner of corrections;

(5) if the child is found to have violated a state or local law or ordinance which has
resulted in damage to the person or property of another, the court may order the child to
make reasonable restitution for such damage;

(6) require the child to pay a fine of up to $1,000. The court shall order payment of the
fine in accordance with a time payment schedule which shall not impose an undue financial
hardship on the child;

(7) if the child is in need of special treatment and care for reasons of physical or mental
health, the court may order the child's parent, guardian, or custodian to provide it. If the
parent, guardian, or custodian fails to provide this treatment or care, the court may order it
provided;

(8) if the court believes that it is in the best interests of the child and of public safety
that the driver's license of the child be canceled until the child's 18th birthday, the court
may recommend to the commissioner of public safety the cancellation of the child's license
for any period up to the child's 18th birthday, and the commissioner is hereby authorized
to cancel such license without a hearing. At any time before the termination of the period
of cancellation, the court may, for good cause, recommend to the commissioner of public
safety that the child be authorized to apply for a new license, and the commissioner may so
authorize;

(9) if the court believes that it is in the best interest of the child and of public safety that
the child is enrolled in school, the court may require the child to remain enrolled in a public
school until the child reaches the age of 18 or completes all requirements needed to graduate
from high school. Any child enrolled in a public school under this clause is subject to the
provisions of the Pupil Fair Dismissal Act in chapter 127;

(10) if the child is petitioned and found by the court to have committed a controlled
substance offense under sections 152.021 to 152.027, the court shall determine whether the
child unlawfully possessed or sold the controlled substance while driving a motor vehicle.
If so, the court shall notify the commissioner of public safety of its determination and order
the commissioner to revoke the child's driver's license for the applicable time period specified
in section 152.0271. If the child does not have a driver's license or if the child's driver's
license is suspended or revoked at the time of the delinquency finding, the commissioner
shall, upon the child's application for driver's license issuance or reinstatement, delay the
issuance or reinstatement of the child's driver's license for the applicable time period specified
in section 152.0271. Upon receipt of the court's order, the commissioner is authorized to
take the licensing action without a hearing;

(11) if the child is petitioned and found by the court to have committed or attempted to
commit an act in violation of section 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451;
609.746, subdivision 1; 609.79; or 617.23, or another offense arising out of a delinquency
petition based on one or more of those sections, the court shall order an independent
professional assessment of the child's need for sex offender treatment. An assessor providing
an assessment for the court must be experienced in the evaluation and treatment of juvenile
sex offenders. If the assessment indicates that the child is in need of and amenable to sex
offender treatment, the court shall include in its disposition order a requirement that the
child undergo treatment. Notwithstanding sections 13.384, 13.85, 144.291 to 144.298,new text begin ornew text end
260B.171, deleted text beginor 626.556,deleted text endnew text begin or chapter 260E,new text end the assessor has access to the following private or
confidential data on the child if access is relevant and necessary for the assessment:

(i) medical data under section 13.384;

(ii) corrections and detention data under section 13.85;

(iii) health records under sections 144.291 to 144.298;

(iv) juvenile court records under section 260B.171; and

(v) local welfare agency records under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

Data disclosed under this clause may be used only for purposes of the assessment and
may not be further disclosed to any other person, except as authorized by law; or

(12) if the child is found delinquent due to the commission of an offense that would be
a felony if committed by an adult, the court shall make a specific finding on the record
regarding the juvenile's mental health and chemical dependency treatment needs.

(b) Any order for a disposition authorized under this section shall contain written findings
of fact to support the disposition ordered and shall also set forth in writing the following
information:

(1) why the best interests of the child are served by the disposition ordered; and

(2) what alternative dispositions were considered by the court and why such dispositions
were not appropriate in the instant case. Clause (1) does not apply to a disposition under
subdivision 1a.

Sec. 113.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Case plan.

"Case plan" means any plan for the delivery of services to a child
and parent or guardian, or, when reunification is not required, the child alone, that is
developed according to the requirements of section 245.4871, subdivision 19 or 21; 245.492,
subdivision 16
; 256B.092; 260C.212, subdivision 1; or deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin 260E.26new text end.

Sec. 114.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Child abuse.

"Child abuse" means an act that involves a minor victim that
constitutes a violation of section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, 609.2242, 609.322,
609.324, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.377, 609.378, 617.246, or that is physical
or sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, or an act committed
in another state that involves a minor victim and would constitute a violation of one of these
sections if committed in this state.

Sec. 115.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Child in need of protection or services.

"Child in need of protection or
services" means a child who is in need of protection or services because the child:

(1) is abandoned or without parent, guardian, or custodian;

(2)(i) has been a victim of physical or sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 2
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivision 18 or 20new text end, (ii) resides with or has resided with a victim
of child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision
13, (iii) resides with or would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse as defined
in subdivision 13 or child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or 13, or (iv) is a victim of
emotional maltreatment as defined in subdivision 15;

(3) is without necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or other required care for the
child's physical or mental health or morals because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian
is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

(4) is without the special care made necessary by a physical, mental, or emotional
condition because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide
that care;

(5) is medically neglected, which includes, but is not limited to, the withholding of
medically indicated treatment from an infant with a disability with a life-threatening
condition. The term "withholding of medically indicated treatment" means the failure to
respond to the infant's life-threatening conditions by providing treatment, including
appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication which, in the treating physician's or advanced
practice registered nurse's reasonable medical judgment, will be most likely to be effective
in ameliorating or correcting all conditions, except that the term does not include the failure
to provide treatment other than appropriate nutrition, hydration, or medication to an infant
when, in the treating physician's or advanced practice registered nurse's reasonable medical
judgment:

(i) the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose;

(ii) the provision of the treatment would merely prolong dying, not be effective in
ameliorating or correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be
futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or

(iii) the provision of the treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of
the infant and the treatment itself under the circumstances would be inhumane;

(6) is one whose parent, guardian, or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved
of the child's care and custody, including a child who entered foster care under a voluntary
placement agreement between the parent and the responsible social services agency under
section 260C.227;

(7) has been placed for adoption or care in violation of law;

(8) is without proper parental care because of the emotional, mental, or physical disability,
or state of immaturity of the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian;

(9) is one whose behavior, condition, or environment is such as to be injurious or
dangerous to the child or others. An injurious or dangerous environment may include, but
is not limited to, the exposure of a child to criminal activity in the child's home;

(10) is experiencing growth delays, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that
have been diagnosed by a physician and are due to parental neglect;

(11) is a sexually exploited youth;

(12) has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming ten
years old;

(13) is a runaway;

(14) is a habitual truant;

(15) has been found incompetent to proceed or has been found not guilty by reason of
mental illness or mental deficiency in connection with a delinquency proceeding, a
certification under section 260B.125, an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, or a
proceeding involving a juvenile petty offense; or

(16) has a parent whose parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily
terminated or whose custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to
a relative and there is a case plan prepared by the responsible social services agency
documenting a compelling reason why filing the termination of parental rights petition under
section 260C.503, subdivision 2, is not in the best interests of the child.

Sec. 116.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.007, subdivision 13, is amended to read:


Subd. 13.

Domestic child abuse.

"Domestic child abuse" means:

(1) any physical injury to a minor family or household member inflicted by an adult
family or household member other than by accidental means;

(2) subjection of a minor family or household member by an adult family or household
member to any act which constitutes a violation of sections 609.321 to 609.324, 609.342,
609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 617.246; or

(3) physical or sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03,
subdivision 18 or 20
new text end.

Sec. 117.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260C.139, subdivision 3, is
amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Status of child.

For purposes of proceedings under this chapter and adoption
proceedings, a newborn left at a safe place, pursuant to subdivision 4 and section 145.902,
is considered an abandoned child under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (o), clause
(2)
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03, subdivision 22, clause (2)new text end. The child is abandoned under sections 260C.007,
subdivision 6, clause (1), and 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (1).

Sec. 118.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.150, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Identifying parents of child; diligent efforts; data.

(a) The responsible social
services agency shall make diligent efforts to identify and locate both parents of any child
who is the subject of proceedings under this chapter. Diligent efforts include:

(1) asking the custodial or known parent to identify any nonresident parent of the child
and provide information that can be used to verify the nonresident parent's identity including
the dates and locations of marriages and divorces; dates and locations of any legal
proceedings regarding paternity; date and place of the child's birth; nonresident parent's full
legal name; nonresident parent's date of birth, or if the nonresident parent's date of birth is
unknown, an approximate age; the nonresident parent's Social Security number; the
nonresident parent's whereabouts including last known whereabouts; and the whereabouts
of relatives of the nonresident parent. For purposes of this subdivision, "nonresident parent"
means a parent who does not reside in the same household as the child or did not reside in
the same household as the child at the time the child was removed when the child is in foster
care;

(2) obtaining information that will identify and locate the nonresident parent from the
county and state of Minnesota child support enforcement information system;

(3) requesting a search of the Minnesota Fathers' Adoption Registry 30 days after the
child's birth; and

(4) using any other reasonable means to identify and locate the nonresident parent.

(b) The agency may disclose data which is otherwise private under section 13.46 deleted text beginor
626.556
deleted text endnew text begin or chapter 260Enew text end in order to carry out its duties under this subdivision.

(c) Upon the filing of a petition alleging the child to be in need of protection or services,
the responsible social services agency may contact a putative father who registered with
the Minnesota Fathers' Adoption Registry more than 30 days after the child's birth. The
social service agency may consider a putative father for the day-to-day care of the child
under section 260C.219 if the putative father cooperates with genetic testing and there is a
positive test result under section 257.62, subdivision 5. Nothing in this paragraph:

(1) relieves a putative father who registered with the Minnesota Fathers' Adoption
Registry more than 30 days after the child's birth of the duty to cooperate with paternity
establishment proceedings under section 260C.219;

(2) gives a putative father who registered with the Minnesota Fathers' Adoption Registry
more than 30 days after the child's birth the right to notice under section 260C.151 unless
the putative father is entitled to notice under sections 259.24 and 259.49, subdivision 1,
paragraph (a) or (b), clauses (1) to (7); or

(3) establishes a right to assert an interest in the child in a termination of parental rights
proceeding contrary to section 259.52, subdivision 6, unless the putative father is entitled
to notice under sections 259.24 and 259.49, subdivision 1, paragraph (a) or (b), clauses (1)
to (7).

Sec. 119.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.171, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Attorney access to records.

An attorney representing a child, parent, or guardian
ad litem in a proceeding under this chapter shall be given access to records, responsible
social services agency files, and reports which form the basis of any recommendation made
to the court. An attorney does not have access under this subdivision to the identity of a
person who made a report under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. The court may issue
protective orders to prohibit an attorney from sharing a specified record or portion of a
record with a client other than a guardian ad litem.

Sec. 120.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.177, is amended to read:


260C.177 PARENTAL AND LAW ENFORCEMENT NOTIFICATION.

An emergency shelter and its agents, employees, and volunteers must comply with court
orders, deleted text beginsection 626.556,deleted text end this chapter,new text begin chapter 260E,new text end and all other applicable laws. In any
event, unless other legal requirements require earlier or different notification or actions, an
emergency shelter must attempt to notify a runaway's parent or legal guardian of the
runaway's location and status within 72 hours. The notification must include a description
of the runaway's physical and emotional condition and the circumstances surrounding the
runaway's admission to the emergency shelter, unless there are compelling reasons not to
provide the parent or legal guardian with this information. Compelling reasons may include
circumstances in which the runaway is or has been exposed to domestic violence or a victim
of abuse, neglect, or abandonment.

Sec. 121.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260C.178, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Hearing and release requirements.

(a) If a child was taken into custody
under section 260C.175, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), item (ii), the court shall hold a
hearing within 72 hours of the time the child was taken into custody, excluding Saturdays,
Sundays, and holidays, to determine whether the child should continue in custody.

(b) Unless there is reason to believe that the child would endanger self or others or not
return for a court hearing, or that the child's health or welfare would be immediately
endangered, the child shall be released to the custody of a parent, guardian, custodian, or
other suitable person, subject to reasonable conditions of release including, but not limited
to, a requirement that the child undergo a chemical use assessment as provided in section
260C.157, subdivision 1.

(c) If the court determines there is reason to believe that the child would endanger self
or others or not return for a court hearing, or that the child's health or welfare would be
immediately endangered if returned to the care of the parent or guardian who has custody
and from whom the child was removed, the court shall order the child into foster care as
defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 18, under the legal responsibility of the responsible
social services agency or responsible probation or corrections agency for the purposes of
protective care as that term is used in the juvenile court rules or into the home of a
noncustodial parent and order the noncustodial parent to comply with any conditions the
court determines to be appropriate to the safety and care of the child, including cooperating
with paternity establishment proceedings in the case of a man who has not been adjudicated
the child's father. The court shall not give the responsible social services legal custody and
order a trial home visit at any time prior to adjudication and disposition under section
260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (3), but may order the child returned to the
care of the parent or guardian who has custody and from whom the child was removed and
order the parent or guardian to comply with any conditions the court determines to be
appropriate to meet the safety, health, and welfare of the child.

(d) In determining whether the child's health or welfare would be immediately
endangered, the court shall consider whether the child would reside with a perpetrator of
domestic child abuse.

(e) The court, before determining whether a child should be placed in or continue in
foster care under the protective care of the responsible agency, shall also make a
determination, consistent with section 260.012 as to whether reasonable efforts were made
to prevent placement or whether reasonable efforts to prevent placement are not required.
In the case of an Indian child, the court shall determine whether active efforts, according
to section 260.762 and the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25,
section 1912(d), were made to prevent placement. The court shall enter a finding that the
responsible social services agency has made reasonable efforts to prevent placement when
the agency establishes either:

(1) that it has actually provided services or made efforts in an attempt to prevent the
child's removal but that such services or efforts have not proven sufficient to permit the
child to safely remain in the home; or

(2) that there are no services or other efforts that could be made at the time of the hearing
that could safely permit the child to remain home or to return home. When reasonable efforts
to prevent placement are required and there are services or other efforts that could be ordered
which would permit the child to safely return home, the court shall order the child returned
to the care of the parent or guardian and the services or efforts put in place to ensure the
child's safety. When the court makes a prima facie determination that one of the
circumstances under paragraph (g) exists, the court shall determine that reasonable efforts
to prevent placement and to return the child to the care of the parent or guardian are not
required.

If the court finds the social services agency's preventive or reunification efforts have
not been reasonable but further preventive or reunification efforts could not permit the child
to safely remain at home, the court may nevertheless authorize or continue the removal of
the child.

(f) The court may not order or continue the foster care placement of the child unless the
court makes explicit, individualized findings that continued custody of the child by the
parent or guardian would be contrary to the welfare of the child and that placement is in the
best interest of the child.

(g) At the emergency removal hearing, or at any time during the course of the proceeding,
and upon notice and request of the county attorney, the court shall determine whether a
petition has been filed stating a prima facie case that:

(1) the parent has subjected a child to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 14
;

(2) the parental rights of the parent to another child have been involuntarily terminated;

(3) the child is an abandoned infant under section 260C.301, subdivision 2, paragraph
(a), clause (2);

(4) the parents' custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a
relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (e),
clause (1); section 260C.515, subdivision 4; or a similar law of another jurisdiction;

(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin
260E.03
new text end, against the child or another child of the parent;

(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender
under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or

(7) the provision of services or further services for the purpose of reunification is futile
and therefore unreasonable.

(h) When a petition to terminate parental rights is required under section 260C.301,
subdivision 4, or 260C.503, subdivision 2, but the county attorney has determined not to
proceed with a termination of parental rights petition, and has instead filed a petition to
transfer permanent legal and physical custody to a relative under section 260C.507, the
court shall schedule a permanency hearing within 30 days of the filing of the petition.

(i) If the county attorney has filed a petition under section 260C.307, the court shall
schedule a trial under section 260C.163 within 90 days of the filing of the petition except
when the county attorney determines that the criminal case shall proceed to trial first under
section 260C.503, subdivision 2, paragraph (c).

(j) If the court determines the child should be ordered into foster care and the child's
parent refuses to give information to the responsible social services agency regarding the
child's father or relatives of the child, the court may order the parent to disclose the names,
addresses, telephone numbers, and other identifying information to the responsible social
services agency for the purpose of complying with sections 260C.151, 260C.212, 260C.215,
and 260C.221.

(k) If a child ordered into foster care has siblings, whether full, half, or step, who are
also ordered into foster care, the court shall inquire of the responsible social services agency
of the efforts to place the children together as required by section 260C.212, subdivision 2,
paragraph (d), if placement together is in each child's best interests, unless a child is in
placement for treatment or a child is placed with a previously noncustodial parent who is
not a parent to all siblings. If the children are not placed together at the time of the hearing,
the court shall inquire at each subsequent hearing of the agency's reasonable efforts to place
the siblings together, as required under section 260.012. If any sibling is not placed with
another sibling or siblings, the agency must develop a plan to facilitate visitation or ongoing
contact among the siblings as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, unless it is
contrary to the safety or well-being of any of the siblings to do so.

(l) When the court has ordered the child into foster care or into the home of a noncustodial
parent, the court may order a chemical dependency evaluation, mental health evaluation,
medical examination, and parenting assessment for the parent as necessary to support the
development of a plan for reunification required under subdivision 7 and section 260C.212,
subdivision 1
, or the child protective services plan under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin
260E.26
new text end, and Minnesota Rules, part 9560.0228.

Sec. 122.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260C.201, subdivision 6, is
amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Case plan.

(a) For each disposition ordered where the child is placed away
from a parent or guardian, the court shall order the responsible social services agency to
prepare a written out-of-home placement plan according to the requirements of section
260C.212, subdivision 1. When a foster child is colocated with a parent in a licensed
residential family-based substance use disorder treatment program under section 260C.190,
the case plan must specify the recommendation for the colocation before the child is colocated
with the parent.

(b) In cases where the child is not placed out of the home or is ordered into the home of
a noncustodial parent, the responsible social services agency shall prepare a plan for delivery
of social services to the child and custodial parent under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10deleted text endnew text begin
260E.26
new text end, or any other case plan required to meet the needs of the child. The plan shall be
designed to safely maintain the child in the home or to reunite the child with the custodial
parent.

(c) The court may approve the case plan as presented or modify it after hearing from
the parties. Once the plan is approved, the court shall order all parties to comply with it. A
copy of the approved case plan shall be attached to the court's order and incorporated into
it by reference.

(d) A party has a right to request a court review of the reasonableness of the case plan
upon a showing of a substantial change of circumstances.

Sec. 123.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.209, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

General procedures.

(a) When accessing information under subdivision 1, the
agency shall require the individual being assessed to provide sufficient information to ensure
an accurate assessment under this section, including:

(1) the individual's first, middle, and last name and all other names by which the
individual has been known;

(2) home address, zip code, city, county, and state of residence for the past five years;

(3) sex;

(4) date of birth; and

(5) driver's license number or state identification number.

(b) When notified by the responsible social services agency that it is accessing information
under subdivision 1, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, commissioners of health and
human services, law enforcement, and county agencies must provide the responsible social
services agency or county attorney with the following information on the individual being
assessed: criminal history data, local law enforcement data about the household, reports
about the maltreatment of adults substantiated under section 626.557, and reports of
maltreatment of minors substantiated under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 124.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.212, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Fair hearing review.

Any person whose claim for foster care payment pursuant
to the placement of a child resulting from a child protection assessment under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin
chapter 260E
new text end is denied or not acted upon with reasonable promptness may appeal the decision
under section 256.045, subdivision 3.

Sec. 125.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.221, is amended to read:


260C.221 RELATIVE SEARCH.

(a) The responsible social services agency shall exercise due diligence to identify and
notify adult relatives prior to placement or within 30 days after the child's removal from the
parent. The county agency shall consider placement with a relative under this section without
delay and whenever the child must move from or be returned to foster care. The relative
search required by this section shall be comprehensive in scope. After a finding that the
agency has made reasonable efforts to conduct the relative search under this paragraph, the
agency has the continuing responsibility to appropriately involve relatives, who have
responded to the notice required under this paragraph, in planning for the child and to
continue to consider relatives according to the requirements of section 260C.212, subdivision
2
. At any time during the course of juvenile protection proceedings, the court may order
the agency to reopen its search for relatives when it is in the child's best interest to do so.

(b) The relative search required by this section shall include both maternal and paternal
adult relatives of the child; all adult grandparents; all legal parents, guardians, or custodians
of the child's siblings; and any other adult relatives suggested by the child's parents, subject
to the exceptions due to family violence in paragraph (c). The search shall also include
getting information from the child in an age-appropriate manner about who the child
considers to be family members and important friends with whom the child has resided or
had significant contact. The relative search required under this section must fulfill the
agency's duties under the Indian Child Welfare Act regarding active efforts to prevent the
breakup of the Indian family under United States Code, title 25, section 1912(d), and to
meet placement preferences under United States Code, title 25, section 1915. The relatives
must be notified:

(1) of the need for a foster home for the child, the option to become a placement resource
for the child, and the possibility of the need for a permanent placement for the child;

(2) of their responsibility to keep the responsible social services agency and the court
informed of their current address in order to receive notice in the event that a permanent
placement is sought for the child and to receive notice of the permanency progress review
hearing under section 260C.204. A relative who fails to provide a current address to the
responsible social services agency and the court forfeits the right to receive notice of the
possibility of permanent placement and of the permanency progress review hearing under
section 260C.204. A decision by a relative not to be identified as a potential permanent
placement resource or participate in planning for the child at the beginning of the case shall
not affect whether the relative is considered for placement of the child with that relative
later;

(3) that the relative may participate in the care and planning for the child, including that
the opportunity for such participation may be lost by failing to respond to the notice sent
under this subdivision. "Participate in the care and planning" includes, but is not limited to,
participation in case planning for the parent and child, identifying the strengths and needs
of the parent and child, supervising visits, providing respite and vacation visits for the child,
providing transportation to appointments, suggesting other relatives who might be able to
help support the case plan, and to the extent possible, helping to maintain the child's familiar
and regular activities and contact with friends and relatives;

(4) of the family foster care licensing requirements, including how to complete an
application and how to request a variance from licensing standards that do not present a
safety or health risk to the child in the home under section 245A.04 and supports that are
available for relatives and children who reside in a family foster home; and

(5) of the relatives' right to ask to be notified of any court proceedings regarding the
child, to attend the hearings, and of a relative's right or opportunity to be heard by the court
as required under section 260C.152, subdivision 5.

(c) A responsible social services agency may disclose private data, as defined in deleted text beginsectionsdeleted text endnew text begin
section
new text end 13.02 and deleted text begin626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, to relatives of the child for the purpose of locating
and assessing a suitable placement and may use any reasonable means of identifying and
locating relatives including the Internet or other electronic means of conducting a search.
The agency shall disclose data that is necessary to facilitate possible placement with relatives
and to ensure that the relative is informed of the needs of the child so the relative can
participate in planning for the child and be supportive of services to the child and family.
If the child's parent refuses to give the responsible social services agency information
sufficient to identify the maternal and paternal relatives of the child, the agency shall ask
the juvenile court to order the parent to provide the necessary information. If a parent makes
an explicit request that a specific relative not be contacted or considered for placement due
to safety reasons including past family or domestic violence, the agency shall bring the
parent's request to the attention of the court to determine whether the parent's request is
consistent with the best interests of the child and the agency shall not contact the specific
relative when the juvenile court finds that contacting the specific relative would endanger
the parent, guardian, child, sibling, or any family member.

(d) At a regularly scheduled hearing not later than three months after the child's placement
in foster care and as required in section 260C.202, the agency shall report to the court:

(1) its efforts to identify maternal and paternal relatives of the child and to engage the
relatives in providing support for the child and family, and document that the relatives have
been provided the notice required under paragraph (a); and

(2) its decision regarding placing the child with a relative as required under section
260C.212, subdivision 2, and to ask relatives to visit or maintain contact with the child in
order to support family connections for the child, when placement with a relative is not
possible or appropriate.

(e) Notwithstanding chapter 13, the agency shall disclose data about particular relatives
identified, searched for, and contacted for the purposes of the court's review of the agency's
due diligence.

(f) When the court is satisfied that the agency has exercised due diligence to identify
relatives and provide the notice required in paragraph (a), the court may find that reasonable
efforts have been made to conduct a relative search to identify and provide notice to adult
relatives as required under section 260.012, paragraph (e), clause (3). If the court is not
satisfied that the agency has exercised due diligence to identify relatives and provide the
notice required in paragraph (a), the court may order the agency to continue its search and
notice efforts and to report back to the court.

(g) When the placing agency determines that permanent placement proceedings are
necessary because there is a likelihood that the child will not return to a parent's care, the
agency must send the notice provided in paragraph (h), may ask the court to modify the
duty of the agency to send the notice required in paragraph (h), or may ask the court to
completely relieve the agency of the requirements of paragraph (h). The relative notification
requirements of paragraph (h) do not apply when the child is placed with an appropriate
relative or a foster home that has committed to adopting the child or taking permanent legal
and physical custody of the child and the agency approves of that foster home for permanent
placement of the child. The actions ordered by the court under this section must be consistent
with the best interests, safety, permanency, and welfare of the child.

(h) Unless required under the Indian Child Welfare Act or relieved of this duty by the
court under paragraph (f), when the agency determines that it is necessary to prepare for
permanent placement determination proceedings, or in anticipation of filing a termination
of parental rights petition, the agency shall send notice to the relatives, any adult with whom
the child is currently residing, any adult with whom the child has resided for one year or
longer in the past, and any adults who have maintained a relationship or exercised visitation
with the child as identified in the agency case plan. The notice must state that a permanent
home is sought for the child and that the individuals receiving the notice may indicate to
the agency their interest in providing a permanent home. The notice must state that within
30 days of receipt of the notice an individual receiving the notice must indicate to the agency
the individual's interest in providing a permanent home for the child or that the individual
may lose the opportunity to be considered for a permanent placement.

Sec. 126.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260C.503, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Termination of parental rights.

(a) The responsible social services agency
must ask the county attorney to immediately file a termination of parental rights petition
when:

(1) the child has been subjected to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 14;

(2) the child is determined to be the sibling of a child who was subjected to egregious
harm;

(3) the child is an abandoned infant as defined in section 260C.301, subdivision 2,
paragraph (a), clause (2);

(4) the child's parent has lost parental rights to another child through an order involuntarily
terminating the parent's rights;

(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin
260E.03
new text end, against the child or another child of the parent;

(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender
under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or

(7) another child of the parent is the subject of an order involuntarily transferring
permanent legal and physical custody of the child to a relative under this chapter or a similar
law of another jurisdiction;

The county attorney shall file a termination of parental rights petition unless the conditions
of paragraph (d) are met.

(b) When the termination of parental rights petition is filed under this subdivision, the
responsible social services agency shall identify, recruit, and approve an adoptive family
for the child. If a termination of parental rights petition has been filed by another party, the
responsible social services agency shall be joined as a party to the petition.

(c) If criminal charges have been filed against a parent arising out of the conduct alleged
to constitute egregious harm, the county attorney shall determine which matter should
proceed to trial first, consistent with the best interests of the child and subject to the
defendant's right to a speedy trial.

(d) The requirement of paragraph (a) does not apply if the responsible social services
agency and the county attorney determine and file with the court:

(1) a petition for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative under
sections 260C.505 and 260C.515, subdivision 3, including a determination that adoption is
not in the child's best interests and that transfer of permanent legal and physical custody is
in the child's best interests; or

(2) a petition under section 260C.141 alleging the child, and where appropriate, the
child's siblings, to be in need of protection or services accompanied by a case plan prepared
by the responsible social services agency documenting a compelling reason why filing a
termination of parental rights petition would not be in the best interests of the child.

Sec. 127.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260D.01, is amended to read:


260D.01 CHILD IN VOLUNTARY FOSTER CARE FOR TREATMENT.

(a) Sections 260D.01 to 260D.10, may be cited as the "child in voluntary foster care for
treatment" provisions of the Juvenile Court Act.

(b) The juvenile court has original and exclusive jurisdiction over a child in voluntary
foster care for treatment upon the filing of a report or petition required under this chapter.
All obligations of the agency to a child and family in foster care contained in chapter 260C
not inconsistent with this chapter are also obligations of the agency with regard to a child
in foster care for treatment under this chapter.

(c) This chapter shall be construed consistently with the mission of the children's mental
health service system as set out in section 245.487, subdivision 3, and the duties of an agency
under sections 256B.092 and 260C.157 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016,
to meet the needs of a child with a developmental disability or related condition. This
chapter:

(1) establishes voluntary foster care through a voluntary foster care agreement as the
means for an agency and a parent to provide needed treatment when the child must be in
foster care to receive necessary treatment for an emotional disturbance or developmental
disability or related condition;

(2) establishes court review requirements for a child in voluntary foster care for treatment
due to emotional disturbance or developmental disability or a related condition;

(3) establishes the ongoing responsibility of the parent as legal custodian to visit the
child, to plan together with the agency for the child's treatment needs, to be available and
accessible to the agency to make treatment decisions, and to obtain necessary medical,
dental, and other care for the child; and

(4) applies to voluntary foster care when the child's parent and the agency agree that the
child's treatment needs require foster care either:

(i) due to a level of care determination by the agency's screening team informed by the
diagnostic and functional assessment under section 245.4885; or

(ii) due to a determination regarding the level of services needed by the responsible
social services' screening team under section 256B.092, and Minnesota Rules, parts
9525.0004 to 9525.0016.

(d) This chapter does not apply when there is a current determination under deleted text beginsection
626.556
deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end that the child requires child protective services or when the child is
in foster care for any reason other than treatment for the child's emotional disturbance or
developmental disability or related condition. When there is a determination under deleted text beginsection
626.556
deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end that the child requires child protective services based on an assessment
that there are safety and risk issues for the child that have not been mitigated through the
parent's engagement in services or otherwise, or when the child is in foster care for any
reason other than the child's emotional disturbance or developmental disability or related
condition, the provisions of chapter 260C apply.

(e) The paramount consideration in all proceedings concerning a child in voluntary foster
care for treatment is the safety, health, and the best interests of the child. The purpose of
this chapter is:

(1) to ensure a child with a disability is provided the services necessary to treat or
ameliorate the symptoms of the child's disability;

(2) to preserve and strengthen the child's family ties whenever possible and in the child's
best interests, approving the child's placement away from the child's parents only when the
child's need for care or treatment requires it and the child cannot be maintained in the home
of the parent; and

(3) to ensure the child's parent retains legal custody of the child and associated
decision-making authority unless the child's parent willfully fails or is unable to make
decisions that meet the child's safety, health, and best interests. The court may not find that
the parent willfully fails or is unable to make decisions that meet the child's needs solely
because the parent disagrees with the agency's choice of foster care facility, unless the
agency files a petition under chapter 260C, and establishes by clear and convincing evidence
that the child is in need of protection or services.

(f) The legal parent-child relationship shall be supported under this chapter by maintaining
the parent's legal authority and responsibility for ongoing planning for the child and by the
agency's assisting the parent, where necessary, to exercise the parent's ongoing right and
obligation to visit or to have reasonable contact with the child. Ongoing planning means:

(1) actively participating in the planning and provision of educational services, medical,
and dental care for the child;

(2) actively planning and participating with the agency and the foster care facility for
the child's treatment needs; and

(3) planning to meet the child's need for safety, stability, and permanency, and the child's
need to stay connected to the child's family and community.

(g) The provisions of section 260.012 to ensure placement prevention, family
reunification, and all active and reasonable effort requirements of that section apply. This
chapter shall be construed consistently with the requirements of the Indian Child Welfare
Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1901, et al., and the provisions of the
Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act, sections 260.751 to 260.835.

Sec. 128.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260D.02, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Case plan.

"Case plan" means any plan for the delivery of services to a child
and parent, or when reunification is not required, the child alone, that is developed according
to the requirements of sections 245.4871, subdivision 19 or 21; 245.492, subdivision 16;
256B.092;new text begin andnew text end 260C.212, subdivision 1; deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10;deleted text end and Minnesota Rules,
parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016.

Sec. 129.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 260D.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Child in voluntary foster care for treatment.

"Child in voluntary foster care
for treatment" means a child who is emotionally disturbed or developmentally disabled or
has a related condition and is in foster care under a voluntary foster care agreement between
the child's parent and the agency due to concurrence between the agency and the parent
when it is determined that foster care is medically necessary:

(1) due to a determination by the agency's screening team based on its review of the
diagnostic and functional assessment under section 245.4885; or

(2) due to a determination by the agency's screening team under section 256B.092 and
Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016.

A child is not in voluntary foster care for treatment under this chapter when there is a
current determination under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end that the child requires child
protective services or when the child is in foster care for any reason other than the child's
emotional or developmental disability or related condition.

Sec. 130.

Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 299C.093, is amended to read:


299C.093 DATABASE OF REGISTERED PREDATORY OFFENDERS.

The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall maintain a
computerized data system relating to individuals required to register as predatory offenders
under section 243.166. To the degree feasible, the system must include the data required to
be provided under section 243.166, subdivisions 4, 4a, and 4b, and indicate the time period
that the person is required to register. The superintendent shall maintain this data in a manner
that ensures that it is readily available to law enforcement agencies. This data is private data
on individuals under section 13.02, subdivision 12, but may be used for law enforcement
and corrections purposes. Law enforcement or a corrections agent may disclose the status
of an individual as a predatory offender to a child protection worker with a local welfare
agency for purposes of doing a family assessment under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end. A
corrections agent may also disclose the status of an individual as a predatory offender to
comply with section 244.057. The commissioner of human services has access to the data
for state-operated services, as defined in section 246.014, for the purposes described in
section 246.13, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and for purposes of conducting background
studies under chapter 245C.

Sec. 131.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 388.051, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Special provisions.

(a) In Anoka, Carver, Dakota, Hennepin, Scott, and
Washington Counties, only the county attorney shall prosecute gross misdemeanor violations
of sections 289A.63, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, and 6; 297B.10; 609.255, subdivision 3; 609.377;
609.378; 609.41; and 617.247.

(b) In Ramsey County, only the county attorney shall prosecute gross misdemeanor
violations of sections 609.255, subdivision 3; 609.377; and 609.378.

(c) The county attorney shall prosecute failure to report physical or sexual child abuse
or neglect as provided under section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 6,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.08, paragraphs (a), (b),
and (c),
new text end violations of fifth-degree criminal sexual conduct under section 609.3451, and
environmental law violations under sections 115.071, 299F.098, and 609.671.

(d) Except in Hennepin and Ramsey Counties, only the county attorney shall prosecute
gross misdemeanor violations of section 152.025.

Sec. 132.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518.165, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Required appointment of guardian ad litem.

In all proceedings for child
custody or for marriage dissolution or legal separation in which custody or parenting time
with a minor child is an issue, if the court has reason to believe that the minor child is a
victim of domestic child abuse or neglect, as those terms are defined in deleted text beginsectionsdeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end
260C.007 and deleted text begin626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, respectively, the court shall appoint a guardian ad
litem. The guardian ad litem shall represent the interests of the child and advise the court
with respect to custody and parenting time. If the child is represented by a guardian ad litem
in any other pending proceeding, the court may appoint that guardian to represent the child
in the custody or parenting time proceeding. No guardian ad litem need be appointed if the
alleged domestic child abuse or neglect is before the court on a juvenile dependency and
neglect petition. Nothing in this subdivision requires the court to appoint a guardian ad litem
in any proceeding for child custody, marriage dissolution, or legal separation in which an
allegation of domestic child abuse or neglect has not been made.

Sec. 133.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 518.165, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Procedure, criminal history, and maltreatment records background
study.

(a) When the court requests a background study under subdivision 4, paragraph (a),
the request shall be submitted to the Department of Human Services through the department's
electronic online background study system.

(b) When the court requests a search of the National Criminal Records Repository, the
court must provide a set of classifiable fingerprints of the subject of the study on a fingerprint
card provided by the commissioner of human services.

(c) The commissioner of human services shall provide the court with criminal history
data as defined in section 13.87 from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension in the Department
of Public Safety, other criminal history data held by the commissioner of human services,
and data regarding substantiated maltreatment of a minor under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter
260E
new text end, and substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult under section 626.557, within
15 working days of receipt of a request. If the subject of the study has been determined by
the Department of Human Services or the Department of Health to be the perpetrator of
substantiated maltreatment of a minor or vulnerable adult in a licensed facility, the response
must include a copy of the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10fdeleted text endnew text begin 260E.30new text end, or the public portion of the investigation memorandum
under section 626.557, subdivision 12b. When the background study shows that the subject
has been determined by a county adult protection or child protection agency to have been
responsible for maltreatment, the court shall be informed of the county, the date of the
finding, and the nature of the maltreatment that was substantiated. The commissioner shall
provide the court with information from the National Criminal Records Repository within
three working days of the commissioner's receipt of the data. When the commissioner finds
no criminal history or substantiated maltreatment on a background study subject, the
commissioner shall make these results available to the court electronically through the
secure online background study system.

(d) Notwithstanding section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10f,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.30new text end or 626.557, subdivision
12b
, if the commissioner or county lead agency or lead investigative agency has information
that a person on whom a background study was previously done under this section has been
determined to be a perpetrator of maltreatment of a minor or vulnerable adult, the
commissioner or the county may provide this information to the court that requested the
background study.

Sec. 134.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 524.5-118, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Procedure; criminal history and maltreatment records background
check.

(a) The court shall request the commissioner of human services to complete a
background study under section 245C.32. The request must be accompanied by the applicable
fee and the signed consent of the subject of the study authorizing the release of the data
obtained to the court. If the court is requesting a search of the National Criminal Records
Repository, the request must be accompanied by a set of classifiable fingerprints of the
subject of the study. The fingerprints must be recorded on a fingerprint card provided by
the commissioner of human services.

(b) The commissioner of human services shall provide the court with criminal history
data as defined in section 13.87 from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension in the Department
of Public Safety, other criminal history data held by the commissioner of human services,
and data regarding substantiated maltreatment of vulnerable adults under section 626.557
and substantiated maltreatment of minors under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end within 15
working days of receipt of a request. If the subject of the study has been the perpetrator of
substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or minor, the response must include a copy
of the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section 626.557, subdivision
12b
, or the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section deleted text begin626.556,
subdivision 10f
deleted text endnew text begin 260E.30new text end. If the court did not request a search of the National Criminal
Records Repository and information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension indicates
that the subject is a multistate offender or that multistate offender status is undetermined,
the response must include this information. The commissioner shall provide the court with
information from the National Criminal Records Repository within three working days of
the commissioner's receipt of the data.

(c) Notwithstanding sectionnew text begin 260E.30 ornew text end 626.557, subdivision 12b, deleted text beginor 626.556, subdivision
10f
,
deleted text end if the commissioner of human services or a county lead agency or lead investigative
agency has information that a person on whom a background study was previously done
under this section has been determined to be a perpetrator of maltreatment of a vulnerable
adult or minor, the commissioner or the county may provide this information to the court
that requested the background study. The commissioner may also provide the court with
additional criminal history or substantiated maltreatment information that becomes available
after the background study is done.

Sec. 135.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 595.02, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Competency of witnesses.

Every person of sufficient understanding,
including a party, may testify in any action or proceeding, civil or criminal, in court or
before any person who has authority to receive evidence, except as provided in this
subdivision:

(a) A husband cannot be examined for or against his wife without her consent, nor a
wife for or against her husband without his consent, nor can either, during the marriage or
afterwards, without the consent of the other, be examined as to any communication made
by one to the other during the marriage. This exception does not apply to a civil action or
proceeding by one against the other, nor to a criminal action or proceeding for a crime
committed by one against the other or against a child of either or against a child under the
care of either spouse, nor to a criminal action or proceeding in which one is charged with
homicide or an attempt to commit homicide and the date of the marriage of the defendant
is subsequent to the date of the offense, nor to an action or proceeding for nonsupport,
neglect, dependency, or termination of parental rights.

(b) An attorney cannot, without the consent of the attorney's client, be examined as to
any communication made by the client to the attorney or the attorney's advice given thereon
in the course of professional duty; nor can any employee of the attorney be examined as to
the communication or advice, without the client's consent.

(c) A member of the clergy or other minister of any religion shall not, without the consent
of the party making the confession, be allowed to disclose a confession made to the member
of the clergy or other minister in a professional character, in the course of discipline enjoined
by the rules or practice of the religious body to which the member of the clergy or other
minister belongs; nor shall a member of the clergy or other minister of any religion be
examined as to any communication made to the member of the clergy or other minister by
any person seeking religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort or advice given thereon in
the course of the member of the clergy's or other minister's professional character, without
the consent of the person.

(d) A licensed physician or surgeon, dentist, or chiropractor shall not, without the consent
of the patient, be allowed to disclose any information or any opinion based thereon which
the professional acquired in attending the patient in a professional capacity, and which was
necessary to enable the professional to act in that capacity; after the decease of the patient,
in an action to recover insurance benefits, where the insurance has been in existence two
years or more, the beneficiaries shall be deemed to be the personal representatives of the
deceased person for the purpose of waiving this privilege, and no oral or written waiver of
the privilege shall have any binding force or effect except when made upon the trial or
examination where the evidence is offered or received.

(e) A public officer shall not be allowed to disclose communications made to the officer
in official confidence when the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.

(f) Persons of unsound mind and persons intoxicated at the time of their production for
examination are not competent witnesses if they lack capacity to remember or to relate
truthfully facts respecting which they are examined.

(g) A registered nurse, psychologist, consulting psychologist, or licensed social worker
engaged in a psychological or social assessment or treatment of an individual at the
individual's request shall not, without the consent of the professional's client, be allowed to
disclose any information or opinion based thereon which the professional has acquired in
attending the client in a professional capacity, and which was necessary to enable the
professional to act in that capacity. Nothing in this clause exempts licensed social workers
from compliance with the provisions of deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter
260E
new text end.

(h) An interpreter for a person disabled in communication shall not, without the consent
of the person, be allowed to disclose any communication if the communication would, if
the interpreter were not present, be privileged. For purposes of this section, a "person disabled
in communication" means a person who, because of a hearing, speech or other communication
disorder, or because of the inability to speak or comprehend the English language, is unable
to understand the proceedings in which the person is required to participate. The presence
of an interpreter as an aid to communication does not destroy an otherwise existing privilege.

(i) Licensed chemical dependency counselors shall not disclose information or an opinion
based on the information which they acquire from persons consulting them in their
professional capacities, and which was necessary to enable them to act in that capacity,
except that they may do so:

(1) when informed consent has been obtained in writing, except in those circumstances
in which not to do so would violate the law or would result in clear and imminent danger
to the client or others;

(2) when the communications reveal the contemplation or ongoing commission of a
crime; or

(3) when the consulting person waives the privilege by bringing suit or filing charges
against the licensed professional whom that person consulted.

(j) A parent or the parent's minor child may not be examined as to any communication
made in confidence by the minor to the minor's parent. A communication is confidential if
made out of the presence of persons not members of the child's immediate family living in
the same household. This exception may be waived by express consent to disclosure by a
parent entitled to claim the privilege or by the child who made the communication or by
failure of the child or parent to object when the contents of a communication are demanded.
This exception does not apply to a civil action or proceeding by one spouse against the other
or by a parent or child against the other, nor to a proceeding to commit either the child or
parent to whom the communication was made or to place the person or property or either
under the control of another because of an alleged mental or physical condition, nor to a
criminal action or proceeding in which the parent is charged with a crime committed against
the person or property of the communicating child, the parent's spouse, or a child of either
the parent or the parent's spouse, or in which a child is charged with a crime or act of
delinquency committed against the person or property of a parent or a child of a parent, nor
to an action or proceeding for termination of parental rights, nor any other action or
proceeding on a petition alleging child abuse, child neglect, abandonment or nonsupport
by a parent.

(k) Sexual assault counselors may not be allowed to disclose any opinion or information
received from or about the victim without the consent of the victim. However, a counselor
may be compelled to identify or disclose information in investigations or proceedings related
to neglect or termination of parental rights if the court determines good cause exists. In
determining whether to compel disclosure, the court shall weigh the public interest and need
for disclosure against the effect on the victim, the treatment relationship, and the treatment
services if disclosure occurs. Nothing in this clause exempts sexual assault counselors from
compliance with the provisions of deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end.

"Sexual assault counselor" for the purpose of this section means a person who has
undergone at least 40 hours of crisis counseling training and works under the direction of
a supervisor in a crisis center, whose primary purpose is to render advice, counseling, or
assistance to victims of sexual assault.

(l) A domestic abuse advocate may not be compelled to disclose any opinion or
information received from or about the victim without the consent of the victim unless
ordered by the court. In determining whether to compel disclosure, the court shall weigh
the public interest and need for disclosure against the effect on the victim, the relationship
between the victim and domestic abuse advocate, and the services if disclosure occurs.
Nothing in this paragraph exempts domestic abuse advocates from compliance with the
provisions of deleted text beginsections 626.556 anddeleted text endnew text begin sectionnew text end 626.557new text begin and chapter 260Enew text end.

For the purposes of this section, "domestic abuse advocate" means an employee or
supervised volunteer from a community-based battered women's shelter and domestic abuse
program eligible to receive grants under section 611A.32; that provides information,
advocacy, crisis intervention, emergency shelter, or support to victims of domestic abuse
and who is not employed by or under the direct supervision of a law enforcement agency,
a prosecutor's office, or by a city, county, or state agency.

(m) A person cannot be examined as to any communication or document, including
work notes, made or used in the course of or because of mediation pursuant to an agreement
to mediate or a collaborative law process pursuant to an agreement to participate in
collaborative law. This does not apply to the parties in the dispute in an application to a
court by a party to have a mediated settlement agreement or a stipulated agreement resulting
from the collaborative law process set aside or reformed. A communication or document
otherwise not privileged does not become privileged because of this paragraph. This
paragraph is not intended to limit the privilege accorded to communication during mediation
or collaborative law by the common law.

(n) A child under ten years of age is a competent witness unless the court finds that the
child lacks the capacity to remember or to relate truthfully facts respecting which the child
is examined. A child describing any act or event may use language appropriate for a child
of that age.

(o) A communication assistant for a telecommunications relay system for persons who
have communication disabilities shall not, without the consent of the person making the
communication, be allowed to disclose communications made to the communication assistant
for the purpose of relaying.

Sec. 136.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 595.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Exceptions.

(a) The exception provided by paragraphs (d) and (g) of subdivision
1 shall not apply to any testimony, records, or other evidence relating to the abuse or neglect
of a minor in any proceeding under chapter 260 or any proceeding under section 245A.08,
to revoke a day care or foster care license, arising out of the neglect or physical or sexual
abuse of a minor, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end.

(b) The exception provided by paragraphs (d) and (g) of subdivision 1 shall not apply
to criminal proceedings arising out of the neglect or physical or sexual abuse of a minor,
as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, if the court finds that:

(1) there is a reasonable likelihood that the records in question will disclose material
information or evidence of substantial value in connection with the investigation or
prosecution; and

(2) there is no other practicable way of obtaining the information or evidence. This
clause shall not be construed to prohibit disclosure of the patient record when it supports
the otherwise uncorroborated statements of any material fact by a minor alleged to have
been abused or neglected by the patient; and

(3) the actual or potential injury to the patient-health professional relationship in the
treatment program affected, and the actual or potential harm to the ability of the program
to attract and retain patients, is outweighed by the public interest in authorizing the disclosure
sought.

No records may be disclosed under this paragraph other than the records of the specific
patient suspected of the neglect or abuse of a minor. Disclosure and dissemination of any
information from a patient record shall be limited under the terms of the order to assure that
no information will be disclosed unnecessarily and that dissemination will be no wider than
necessary for purposes of the investigation or prosecution.

Sec. 137.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.26, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Reporting of deprivation of parental rights.

Any violation of this section
shall be reported pursuant to section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 3adeleted text endnew text begin 260E.11, subdivision 2new text end.

Sec. 138.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.3457, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Access to data.

Notwithstanding sections 13.384, 13.85, 144.291 to 144.298,
260B.171,new text begin ornew text end 260C.171, or deleted text begin626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, the assessor has access to the following
private or confidential data on the person if access is relevant and necessary for the
assessment:

(1) medical data under section 13.384;

(2) corrections and detention data under section 13.85;

(3) health records under sections 144.291 to 144.298;

(4) juvenile court records under sections 260B.171 and 260C.171; and

(5) local welfare agency records under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end.

Data disclosed under this section may be used only for purposes of the assessment and
may not be further disclosed to any other person, except as authorized by law.

Sec. 139.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.379, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Applicability.

This section applies to sections 260B.425, 260C.425, 609.255,
609.376,new text begin andnew text end 609.378deleted text begin, and 626.556deleted text endnew text begin and chapter 260Enew text end.

Sec. 140.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.507, is amended to read:


609.507 FALSELY REPORTING CHILD ABUSE.

A person is guilty of a misdemeanor who:

(1) informs another person that a person has committed sexual abuse, physical abuse,
or neglect of a child, as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end;

(2) knows that the allegation is false or is without reason to believe that the alleged
abuser committed the abuse or neglect; and

(3) has the intent that the information influence a child custody hearing.

Sec. 141.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.7495, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

For the purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given them.

(a) "Facility" means any of the following:

(1) a hospital or other health institution licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56;

(2) a medical facility as defined in section 144.561;

(3) an agency, clinic, or office operated under the direction of or under contract with the
commissioner of health or a community health board, as defined in section 145A.02;

(4) a facility providing counseling regarding options for medical services or recovery
from an addiction;

(5) a facility providing emergency shelter services for battered women, as defined in
section 611A.31, subdivision 3, or a facility providing transitional housing for battered
women and their children;

(6) a facility as defined in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (c)deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03,
subdivision 6
new text end;

(7) a facility as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 6, where the services described
in that paragraph are provided;

(8) a place to or from which ambulance service, as defined in section 144E.001, is
provided or sought to be provided; and

(9) a hospice provider licensed under section 144A.753.

(b) "Aggrieved party" means a person whose access to or egress from a facility is
obstructed in violation of subdivision 2, or the facility.

Sec. 142.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 611A.203, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Duties; access to data.

(a) The domestic fatality review team shall collect,
review, and analyze death certificates and death data, including investigative reports, medical
and counseling records, victim service records, employment records, child abuse reports,
or other information concerning domestic violence deaths, survivor interviews and surveys,
and other information deemed by the team as necessary and appropriate concerning the
causes and manner of domestic violence deaths.

(b) The review team has access to the following not public data, as defined in section
13.02, subdivision 8a, relating to a case being reviewed by the team: inactive law enforcement
investigative data under section 13.82; autopsy records and coroner or medical examiner
investigative data under section 13.83; hospital, public health, or other medical records of
the victim under section 13.384; records under section 13.46, created by social service
agencies that provided services to the victim, the alleged perpetrator, or another victim who
experienced or was threatened with domestic abuse by the perpetrator; and child maltreatment
records under deleted text beginsection 626.556deleted text endnew text begin chapter 260Enew text end, relating to the victim or a family or household
member of the victim. Access to medical records under this paragraph also includes records
governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298. The review team has access to corrections and
detention data as provided in section 13.85.

(c) As part of any review, the domestic fatality review team may compel the production
of other records by applying to the district court for a subpoena, which will be effective
throughout the state according to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

Sec. 143.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 611A.90, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definition.

For purposes of this section, "physical abuse" and "sexual
abuse" have the meanings given in section deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 2deleted text endnew text begin 260E.03new text end, except that
abuse is not limited to acts by a person responsible for the child's care or in a significant
relationship with the child or position of authority.

Sec. 144.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 626.557, subdivision 9d, is amended to read:


Subd. 9d.

Administrative reconsideration; review panel.

(a) Except as provided under
paragraph (e), any individual or facility which a lead investigative agency determines has
maltreated a vulnerable adult, or the vulnerable adult or an interested person acting on behalf
of the vulnerable adult, regardless of the lead investigative agency's determination, who
contests the lead investigative agency's final disposition of an allegation of maltreatment,
may request the lead investigative agency to reconsider its final disposition. The request
for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the lead investigative agency within 15
calendar days after receipt of notice of final disposition or, if the request is made by an
interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by
the vulnerable adult or the vulnerable adult's guardian or health care agent. If mailed, the
request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the lead investigative agency
within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final disposition. If the
request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the lead
investigative agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the
final disposition. An individual who was determined to have maltreated a vulnerable adult
under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment
under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment
determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment
determination and the disqualification must be submitted in writing within 30 calendar days
of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and
245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and
the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the lead investigative agency within 30
calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. If the request for
reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the lead investigative
agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the lead investigative agency
denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving
the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section
256.045, may submit to the commissioner of human services a written request for a hearing
under that statute. The vulnerable adult, or an interested person acting on behalf of the
vulnerable adult, may request a review by the Vulnerable Adult Maltreatment Review Panel
under section 256.021 if the lead investigative agency denies the request or fails to act upon
the request, or if the vulnerable adult or interested person contests a reconsidered disposition.
The lead investigative agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their
rights under this paragraph. The request must be submitted in writing to the review panel
and a copy sent to the lead investigative agency within 30 calendar days of receipt of notice
of a denial of a request for reconsideration or of a reconsidered disposition. The request
must specifically identify the aspects of the lead investigative agency determination with
which the person is dissatisfied.

(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the lead investigative agency changes
the final disposition, it shall notify the parties specified in subdivision 9c, paragraph (f).

(d) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the vulnerable
adult" means a person designated in writing by the vulnerable adult to act on behalf of the
vulnerable adult, or a legal guardian or conservator or other legal representative, a proxy
or health care agent appointed under chapter 145B or 145C, or an individual who is related
to the vulnerable adult, as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 13.

(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis
of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has
requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and
reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration
of the maltreatment determination and requested reconsideration of the disqualification
shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment
determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration
decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual
requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope
of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.

(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring
maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing
sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing
under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for
under section 245A.08, the scope of the contested case hearing must include the maltreatment
determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases,
a fair hearing must not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care
and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination under this subdivision,
and reconsideration of a disqualification under section 245C.22, must not be conducted
when:

(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05, or a licensing sanction under section
245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment
or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;

(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the
maltreatment determination or disqualification; and

(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and
denial of a license or licensing sanction.

Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment
determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing
sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections
deleted text begin 626.556, subdivision 10i,deleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the
disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall
also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, deleted text begin626.556, subdivision 10ideleted text endnew text begin 260E.33new text end,
and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom
a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may
be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the
administrative law judge.

(g) Until August 1, 2002, an individual or facility that was determined by the
commissioner of human services or the commissioner of health to be responsible for neglect
under section 626.5572, subdivision 17, after October 1, 1995, and before August 1, 2001,
that believes that the finding of neglect does not meet an amended definition of neglect may
request a reconsideration of the determination of neglect. The commissioner of human
services or the commissioner of health shall mail a notice to the last known address of
individuals who are eligible to seek this reconsideration. The request for reconsideration
must state how the established findings no longer meet the elements of the definition of
neglect. The commissioner shall review the request for reconsideration and make a
determination within 15 calendar days. The commissioner's decision on this reconsideration
is the final agency action.

(1) For purposes of compliance with the data destruction schedule under subdivision
12b, paragraph (d), when a finding of substantiated maltreatment has been changed as a
result of a reconsideration under this paragraph, the date of the original finding of a
substantiated maltreatment must be used to calculate the destruction date.

(2) For purposes of any background studies under chapter 245C, when a determination
of substantiated maltreatment has been changed as a result of a reconsideration under this
paragraph, any prior disqualification of the individual under chapter 245C that was based
on this determination of maltreatment shall be rescinded, and for future background studies
under chapter 245C the commissioner must not use the previous determination of
substantiated maltreatment as a basis for disqualification or as a basis for referring the
individual's maltreatment history to a health-related licensing board under section 245C.31.

Sec. 145. new text beginREVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall correct any cross-references made necessary as a result of
this act and shall make any grammatical changes necessary to preserve the meaning of the
text.
new text end

APPENDIX

Repealed Minnesota Statutes: 201-H0011-1

245F.02 DEFINITIONS.

Subd. 20.

Qualified medical professional.

"Qualified medical professional" means an individual licensed in Minnesota as a doctor of osteopathic medicine or physician, or an individual licensed in Minnesota as an advanced practice registered nurse by the Board of Nursing and certified to practice as a clinical nurse specialist or nurse practitioner by a national nurse organization acceptable to the board.

253B.02 DEFINITIONS.

Subd. 6.

Emergency treatment.

"Emergency treatment" means the treatment of a patient pursuant to section 253B.05 which is necessary to protect the patient or others from immediate harm.

Subd. 12a.

Mental illness.

"Mental illness" has the meaning given in section 245.462, subdivision 20.

253B.05 EMERGENCY ADMISSION.

Subdivision 1.

Emergency hold.

(a) Any person may be admitted or held for emergency care and treatment in a treatment facility, except to a facility operated by the Minnesota sex offender program, with the consent of the head of the treatment facility upon a written statement by an examiner that:

(1) the examiner has examined the person not more than 15 days prior to admission;

(2) the examiner is of the opinion, for stated reasons, that the person is mentally ill, developmentally disabled, or chemically dependent, and is in danger of causing injury to self or others if not immediately detained; and

(3) an order of the court cannot be obtained in time to prevent the anticipated injury.

(b) If the proposed patient has been brought to the treatment facility by another person, the examiner shall make a good faith effort to obtain a statement of information that is available from that person, which must be taken into consideration in deciding whether to place the proposed patient on an emergency hold. The statement of information must include, to the extent available, direct observations of the proposed patient's behaviors, reliable knowledge of recent and past behavior, and information regarding psychiatric history, past treatment, and current mental health providers. The examiner shall also inquire into the existence of health care directives under chapter 145, and advance psychiatric directives under section 253B.03, subdivision 6d.

(c) The examiner's statement shall be: (1) sufficient authority for a peace or health officer to transport a patient to a treatment facility, (2) stated in behavioral terms and not in conclusory language, and (3) of sufficient specificity to provide an adequate record for review. If danger to specific individuals is a basis for the emergency hold, the statement must identify those individuals, to the extent practicable. A copy of the examiner's statement shall be personally served on the person immediately upon admission and a copy shall be maintained by the treatment facility.

(d) A patient must not be allowed or required to consent to nor participate in a clinical drug trial during an emergency admission or hold under this subdivision or subdivision 2. A consent given during a period of an emergency admission or hold is void and unenforceable. This paragraph does not prohibit a patient from continuing participation in a clinical drug trial if the patient was participating in the drug trial at the time of the emergency admission or hold.

Subd. 2.

Peace or health officer authority.

(a) A peace or health officer may take a person into custody and transport the person to a licensed physician or treatment facility if the officer has reason to believe, either through direct observation of the person's behavior, or upon reliable information of the person's recent behavior and knowledge of the person's past behavior or psychiatric treatment, that the person is mentally ill or developmentally disabled and in danger of injuring self or others if not immediately detained. A peace or health officer or a person working under such officer's supervision, may take a person who is believed to be chemically dependent or is intoxicated in public into custody and transport the person to a treatment facility. If the person is intoxicated in public or is believed to be chemically dependent and is not in danger of causing self-harm or harm to any person or property, the peace or health officer may transport the person home. The peace or health officer shall make written application for admission of the person to the treatment facility. The application shall contain the peace or health officer's statement specifying the reasons for and circumstances under which the person was taken into custody. If danger to specific individuals is a basis for the emergency hold, the statement must include identifying information on those individuals, to the extent practicable. A copy of the statement shall be made available to the person taken into custody. The peace or health officer who makes the application shall provide the officer's name, the agency that employs the officer, and the telephone number or other contact information for purposes of receiving notice under subdivision 3, paragraph (d).

(b) As far as is practicable, a peace officer who provides transportation for a person placed in a facility under this subdivision may not be in uniform and may not use a vehicle visibly marked as a law enforcement vehicle.

(c) A person may be admitted to a treatment facility for emergency care and treatment under this subdivision with the consent of the head of the facility under the following circumstances: (1) a written statement shall only be made by the following individuals who are knowledgeable, trained, and practicing in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illness or developmental disability; the medical officer, or the officer's designee on duty at the facility, including a licensed physician, a licensed physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse who after preliminary examination has determined that the person has symptoms of mental illness or developmental disability and appears to be in danger of harming self or others if not immediately detained; or (2) a written statement is made by the institution program director or the director's designee on duty at the facility after preliminary examination that the person has symptoms of chemical dependency and appears to be in danger of harming self or others if not immediately detained or is intoxicated in public.

Subd. 2b.

Notice.

Every person held pursuant to this section must be informed in writing at the time of admission of the right to leave after 72 hours, to a medical examination within 48 hours, and to request a change to voluntary status. The treatment facility shall, upon request, assist the person in exercising the rights granted in this subdivision.

Subd. 3.

Duration of hold.

(a) Any person held pursuant to this section may be held up to 72 hours, exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays after admission. If a petition for the commitment of the person is filed in the district court in the county of financial responsibility or of the county in which the treatment facility is located, the court may issue a judicial hold order pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivision 2b.

(b) During the 72-hour hold period, a court may not release a person held under this section unless the court has received a written petition for release and held a summary hearing regarding the release. The petition must include the name of the person being held, the basis for and location of the hold, and a statement as to why the hold is improper. The petition also must include copies of any written documentation under subdivision 1 or 2 in support of the hold, unless the person holding the petitioner refuses to supply the documentation. The hearing must be held as soon as practicable and may be conducted by means of a telephone conference call or similar method by which the participants are able to simultaneously hear each other. If the court decides to release the person, the court shall direct the release and shall issue written findings supporting the decision. The release may not be delayed pending the written order. Before deciding to release the person, the court shall make every reasonable effort to provide notice of the proposed release to:

(1) any specific individuals identified in a statement under subdivision 1 or 2 or individuals identified in the record who might be endangered if the person was not held;

(2) the examiner whose written statement was a basis for a hold under subdivision 1; and

(3) the peace or health officer who applied for a hold under subdivision 2.

(c) If a person is intoxicated in public and held under this section for detoxification, a treatment facility may release the person without providing notice under paragraph (d) as soon as the treatment facility determines the person is no longer a danger to themselves or others. Notice must be provided to the peace officer or health officer who transported the person, or the appropriate law enforcement agency, if the officer or agency requests notification.

(d) Notwithstanding section 144.293, subdivisions 2 and 4, if a treatment facility releases or discharges a person during the 72-hour hold period or if the person leaves the facility without the consent of the treating health care provider, the head of the treatment facility shall immediately notify the agency which employs the peace or health officer who transported the person to the treatment facility under this section. This paragraph does not apply to the extent that the notice would violate federal law governing the confidentiality of alcohol and drug abuse patient records under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 2.

(e) A person held under a 72-hour emergency hold must be released by the facility within 72 hours unless a court order to hold the person is obtained. A consecutive emergency hold order under this section may not be issued.

Subd. 4.

Change of status.

Any person admitted pursuant to this section shall be changed to voluntary status provided by section 253B.04 upon the person's request in writing and with the consent of the head of the treatment facility.

253B.064 COURT-ORDERED EARLY INTERVENTION; PRELIMINARY PROCEDURES.

Subdivision 1.

General.

(a) An interested person may apply to the designated agency for early intervention of a proposed patient in the county of financial responsibility or the county where the patient is present. If the designated agency determines that early intervention may be appropriate, a prepetition screening report must be prepared pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivision 1. The county attorney may file a petition for early intervention following the procedures of section 253B.07, subdivision 2.

(b) The proposed patient is entitled to representation by counsel, pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivision 2c. The proposed patient shall be examined by an examiner, and has the right to a second independent examiner, pursuant to section 253B.07, subdivisions 3 and 5.

Subd. 2.

Prehearing examination; failure to appear.

If a proposed patient fails to appear for the examination, the court may:

(1) reschedule the examination; or

(2) deem the failure to appear as a waiver of the proposed patient's right to an examination and consider the failure to appear when deciding the merits of the petition for early intervention.

Subd. 3.

County option.

Nothing in sections 253B.064 to 253B.066 requires a county to use early intervention procedures.

253B.065 COURT-ORDERED EARLY INTERVENTION; HEARING PROCEDURES.

Subdivision 1.

Time for early intervention hearing.

The hearing on the petition for early intervention shall be held within 14 days from the date of the filing of the petition. For good cause shown, the court may extend the time of hearing up to an additional 30 days. When any proposed patient has not had a hearing on a petition filed for early intervention within the allowed time, the proceedings shall be dismissed.

Subd. 2.

Notice of hearing.

The proposed patient, the patient's counsel, the petitioner, the county attorney, and any other persons as the court directs shall be given at least five days' notice that a hearing will be held and at least two days' notice of the time and date of the hearing, except that any person may waive notice. Notice to the proposed patient may be waived by patient's counsel.

Subd. 3.

Failure to appear.

If a proposed patient fails to appear at the hearing, the court may reschedule the hearing within five days and direct a health officer, peace officer, or other person to take the proposed patient to an appropriate treatment facility designated by the court and transport the person to the hearing.

Subd. 4.

Procedures.

The hearing must be conducted pursuant to section 253B.08, subdivisions 3 to 8.

Subd. 5.

Early intervention criteria.

(a) A court shall order early intervention treatment of a proposed patient who meets the criteria under paragraph (b) or (c). The early intervention treatment must be less intrusive than long-term inpatient commitment and must be the least restrictive treatment program available that can meet the patient's treatment needs.

(b) The court shall order early intervention treatment if the court finds all of the elements of the following factors by clear and convincing evidence:

(1) the proposed patient is mentally ill;

(2) the proposed patient refuses to accept appropriate mental health treatment; and

(3) the proposed patient's mental illness is manifested by instances of grossly disturbed behavior or faulty perceptions and either:

(i) the grossly disturbed behavior or faulty perceptions significantly interfere with the proposed patient's ability to care for self and the proposed patient, when competent, would have chosen substantially similar treatment under the same circumstances; or

(ii) due to the mental illness, the proposed patient received court-ordered inpatient treatment under section 253B.09 at least two times in the previous three years; the patient is exhibiting symptoms or behavior substantially similar to those that precipitated one or more of the court-ordered treatments; and the patient is reasonably expected to physically or mentally deteriorate to the point of meeting the criteria for commitment under section 253B.09 unless treated.

For purposes of this paragraph, a proposed patient who was released under section 253B.095 and whose release was not revoked is not considered to have received court-ordered inpatient treatment under section 253B.09.

(c) The court may order early intervention treatment if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that a pregnant woman is a chemically dependent person. A chemically dependent person for purposes of this section is a woman who has during pregnancy engaged in excessive use, for a nonmedical purpose, of controlled substances or their derivatives, alcohol, or inhalants that will pose a substantial risk of damage to the brain or physical development of the fetus.

(d) For purposes of paragraphs (b) and (c), none of the following constitute a refusal to accept appropriate mental health treatment:

(1) a willingness to take medication but a reasonable disagreement about type or dosage;

(2) a good faith effort to follow a reasonable alternative treatment plan, including treatment as specified in a valid advance directive under chapter 145C or section 253B.03, subdivision 6d;

(3) an inability to obtain access to appropriate treatment because of inadequate health care coverage or an insurer's refusal or delay in providing coverage for the treatment; or

(4) an inability to obtain access to needed mental health services because the provider will only accept patients who are under a court order or because the provider gives persons under a court order a priority over voluntary patients in obtaining treatment and services.

253B.066 COURT-ORDERED EARLY INTERVENTION; DECISION; TREATMENT ALTERNATIVES; DURATION.

Subdivision 1.

Treatment alternatives.

If the court orders early intervention under section 253B.065, subdivision 5, the court may include in its order a variety of treatment alternatives including, but not limited to, day treatment, medication compliance monitoring, assertive community treatment, crisis assessment and stabilization, partial hospitalization, and short-term hospitalization not to exceed 21 days.

If the court orders short-term hospitalization and the proposed patient will not go voluntarily, the court may direct a health officer, peace officer, or other person to take the person into custody and transport the person to the hospital.

Subd. 2.

Findings.

The court shall find the facts specifically and separately state its conclusions of law in its order. Where early intervention is ordered, the findings of fact and conclusions of law shall specifically state the proposed patient's conduct which is a basis for determining that each of the requisites for early intervention is met.

The court shall also determine the nature and extent of the property of the patient and of the persons who are liable for the patient's care.

Subd. 3.

Duration.

The order for early intervention shall not exceed 90 days.

253B.09 DECISION; STANDARD OF PROOF; DURATION.

Subd. 3.

Financial determination.

The court shall determine the nature and extent of the property of the patient and of the persons who are liable for the patient's care. If the patient is committed to a regional treatment center, the court shall send a copy of the commitment order to the commissioner.

253B.12 TREATMENT REPORT; REVIEW; HEARING.

Subd. 2.

Basis for discharge.

If no written report is filed within the required time or if the written statement describes the patient as not in need of further institutional care and treatment, the proceedings shall be terminated by the committing court, and the patient shall be discharged from the treatment facility.

253B.15 PROVISIONAL DISCHARGE; PARTIAL INSTITUTIONALIZATION.

Subd. 11.

Partial institutionalization.

The head of a treatment facility may place any committed person on a status of partial institutionalization. The status shall allow the patient to be absent from the facility for certain fixed periods of time. The head of the facility may terminate the status at any time.

253B.20 DISCHARGE; ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURE.

Subd. 7.

Services.

A committed person may at any time after discharge, provisional discharge or partial treatment, apply to the head of the treatment facility within whose district the committed person resides for treatment. The head of the treatment facility, on determining that the applicant requires service, may provide needed services related to mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical dependency to the applicant. The services shall be provided in regional centers under terms and conditions established by the commissioner.

626.556 REPORTING OF MALTREATMENT OF MINORS.

Subdivision 1.

Public policy.

(a) The legislature hereby declares that the public policy of this state is to protect children whose health or welfare may be jeopardized through physical abuse, neglect, or sexual abuse. While it is recognized that most parents want to keep their children safe, sometimes circumstances or conditions interfere with their ability to do so. When this occurs, the health and safety of the children must be of paramount concern. Intervention and prevention efforts must address immediate concerns for child safety and the ongoing risk of abuse or neglect and should engage the protective capacities of families. In furtherance of this public policy, it is the intent of the legislature under this section to:

(1) protect children and promote child safety;

(2) strengthen the family;

(3) make the home, school, and community safe for children by promoting responsible child care in all settings; and

(4) provide, when necessary, a safe temporary or permanent home environment for physically or sexually abused or neglected children.

(b) In addition, it is the policy of this state to:

(1) require the reporting of neglect or physical or sexual abuse of children in the home, school, and community settings;

(2) provide for the voluntary reporting of abuse or neglect of children;

(3) require an investigation when the report alleges sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment;

(4) provide a family assessment, if appropriate, when the report does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment; and

(5) provide protective, family support, and family preservation services when needed in appropriate cases.

Subd. 2.

Definitions.

As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:

(a) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence or event which:

(1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and

(2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.

(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.

(c) "Facility" means:

(1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, certified license-exempt child care center, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter 144H, 245D, or 245H;

(2) a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or

(3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.

(d) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.

(e) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports involve sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed or certified under chapter 245A, 245D, or 245H; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.

(f) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's culture.

(g) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:

(1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so;

(2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;

(3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition, length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;

(4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and 260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision 5;

(5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, or caretaker, or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report if a lack of medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does not impose upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;

(6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the child at birth, medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, or the presence of a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder;

(7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);

(8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or person responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety; or

(9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired emotional functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.

(h) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:

(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;

(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;

(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;

(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or not; and

(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the incident.

This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of substantiated maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.

(i) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.

(j) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.

(k) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been authorized under section 125A.0942 or 245.825.

Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not limited to, any of the following:

(1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;

(2) striking a child with a closed fist;

(3) shaking a child under age three;

(4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18 months of age;

(5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;

(6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;

(7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;

(8) striking a child who is at least age one but under age four on the face or head, which results in an injury;

(9) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;

(10) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or

(11) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's care that is a violation under section 121A.58.

(l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is not limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and parenting time expeditor services.

(m) "Report" means any communication received by the local welfare agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for child protection pursuant to this section that describes neglect or physical or sexual abuse of a child and contains sufficient content to identify the child and any person believed to be responsible for the neglect or abuse, if known.

(n) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341, or by a person in a current or recent position of authority, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree), or 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct; communication of sexually explicit materials to children). Sexual abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Sexual abuse includes all reports of known or suspected child sex trafficking involving a child who is identified as a victim of sex trafficking. Sexual abuse includes child sex trafficking as defined in section 609.321, subdivisions 7a and 7b. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse which includes the status of a parent or household member who has committed a violation which requires registration as an offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b), or required registration under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).

(o) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, by act or omission, commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:

(1) egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;

(2) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;

(3) neglect as defined in paragraph (g), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;

(4) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;

(5) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;

(6) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;

(7) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;

(8) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;

(9) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;

(10) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377 or 609.378;

(11) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or

(12) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.

(p) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in paragraph (j), clause (1), who has:

(1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14, or a similar law of another jurisdiction;

(2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;

(3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or

(4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child to a relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or a similar law of another jurisdiction.

A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the responsible social services agency receives birth match data under paragraph (q) from the Department of Human Services.

(q) Upon receiving data under section 144.225, subdivision 2b, contained in a birth record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to threatened injury under paragraph (p), the Department of Human Services shall send the data to the responsible social services agency. The data is known as "birth match" data. Unless the responsible social services agency has already begun an investigation or assessment of the report due to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of parentage and the parent's previous history with child protection, the agency shall accept the birth match data as a report under this section. The agency may use either a family assessment or investigation to determine whether the child is safe. All of the provisions of this section apply. If the child is determined to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (16), in order to deliver needed services. If the child is determined not to be safe, the agency and the county attorney shall take appropriate action as required under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.

(r) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and safety.

Subd. 3.

Persons mandated to report; persons voluntarily reporting.

(a) A person who knows or has reason to believe a child is being neglected or physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, or has been neglected or physically or sexually abused within the preceding three years, shall immediately report the information to the local welfare agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department, county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person is:

(1) a professional or professional's delegate who is engaged in the practice of the healing arts, social services, hospital administration, psychological or psychiatric treatment, child care, education, correctional supervision, probation and correctional services, or law enforcement; or

(2) employed as a member of the clergy and received the information while engaged in ministerial duties, provided that a member of the clergy is not required by this subdivision to report information that is otherwise privileged under section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).

(b) Any person may voluntarily report to the local welfare agency, agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department, county sheriff, tribal social services agency, or tribal police department if the person knows, has reason to believe, or suspects a child is being or has been neglected or subjected to physical or sexual abuse.

(c) A person mandated to report physical or sexual child abuse or neglect occurring within a licensed facility shall report the information to the agency responsible for licensing or certifying the facility under sections 144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 144H, 245D, or 245H; or a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a. A health or corrections agency receiving a report may request the local welfare agency to provide assistance pursuant to subdivisions 10, 10a, and 10b. A board or other entity whose licensees perform work within a school facility, upon receiving a complaint of alleged maltreatment, shall provide information about the circumstances of the alleged maltreatment to the commissioner of education. Section 13.03, subdivision 4, applies to data received by the commissioner of education from a licensing entity.

(d) Notification requirements under subdivision 10 apply to all reports received under this section.

(e) For purposes of this section, "immediately" means as soon as possible but in no event longer than 24 hours.

Subd. 3a.

Report of deprivation of parental rights or kidnapping.

A person mandated to report under subdivision 3, who knows or has reason to know of a violation of section 609.25 or 609.26, shall report the information to the local police department or the county sheriff. Receipt by a local welfare agency of a report or notification of a report of a violation of section 609.25 or 609.26 shall not be construed to invoke the duties of subdivision 10, 10a, or 10b.

Subd. 3b.

Agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of maltreatment.

The Department of Education is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of child maltreatment in schools as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E. The Department of Education's responsibility to assess and investigate includes allegations of maltreatment involving students 18 to 21 years of age, including students receiving special education services, up to and until graduation and the issuance of a secondary or high school diploma.

Subd. 3c.

Local welfare agency, Department of Human Services or Department of Health responsible for assessing or investigating reports of maltreatment.

(a) The local welfare agency is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of maltreatment in child foster care, family child care, legally nonlicensed child care, and reports involving children served by an unlicensed personal care provider organization under section 256B.0659. Copies of findings related to personal care provider organizations under section 256B.0659 must be forwarded to the Department of Human Services provider enrollment.

(b) The Department of Human Services is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of maltreatment in juvenile correctional facilities listed under section 241.021 located in the local welfare agency's county and in facilities licensed or certified under chapters 245A, 245D, and 245H, except for child foster care and family child care.

(c) The Department of Health is the agency responsible for assessing or investigating allegations of child maltreatment in facilities licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 144A.43 to 144A.482 or chapter 144H.

Subd. 3d.

Authority to interview.

The agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of child maltreatment has the authority to interview the child, the person or persons responsible for the child's care, the alleged perpetrator, and any other person with knowledge of the abuse or neglect for the purpose of gathering the facts, assessing safety and risk to the child, and formulating a plan.

Subd. 3e.

Agency responsible for assessing or investigating reports of sexual abuse.

The local welfare agency is the agency responsible for investigating allegations of sexual abuse if the alleged offender is the parent, guardian, sibling, or an individual functioning within the family unit as a person responsible for the child's care, or a person with a significant relationship to the child if that person resides in the child's household. The local welfare agency is also responsible for investigating when a child is identified as a victim of sex trafficking.

Subd. 3f.

Law enforcement agency responsible for investigating maltreatment.

The local law enforcement agency has responsibility for investigating any report of child maltreatment if a violation of a criminal statute is alleged. Law enforcement and the responsible agency must coordinate their investigations or assessments as required under subdivision 10.

Subd. 4.

Immunity from liability.

(a) The following persons are immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result from their actions, if they are acting in good faith:

(1) any person making a voluntary or mandated report under subdivision 3 or under section 626.5561 or assisting in an assessment under this section or under section 626.5561;

(2) any person with responsibility for performing duties under this section or supervisor employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of an agency responsible for operating or supervising a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed or certified under sections 144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 245B or 245H; or a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, complying with subdivision 10d; and

(3) any public or private school, facility as defined in subdivision 2, or the employee of any public or private school or facility who permits access by a local welfare agency, the Department of Education, or a local law enforcement agency and assists in an investigation or assessment pursuant to subdivision 10 or under section 626.5561.

(b) A person who is a supervisor or person with responsibility for performing duties under this section employed by a local welfare agency, the commissioner of human services, or the commissioner of education complying with subdivisions 10 and 11 or section 626.5561 or any related rule or provision of law is immune from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise result from the person's actions, if the person is (1) acting in good faith and exercising due care, or (2) acting in good faith and following the information collection procedures established under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j).

(c) This subdivision does not provide immunity to any person for failure to make a required report or for committing neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse of a child.

(d) If a person who makes a voluntary or mandatory report under subdivision 3 prevails in a civil action from which the person has been granted immunity under this subdivision, the court may award the person attorney fees and costs.

Subd. 4a.

Retaliation prohibited.

(a) An employer of any person required to make reports under subdivision 3 shall not retaliate against the person for reporting in good faith abuse or neglect pursuant to this section, or against a child with respect to whom a report is made, because of the report.

(b) The employer of any person required to report under subdivision 3 who retaliates against the person because of a report of abuse or neglect is liable to that person for actual damages and, in addition, a penalty up to $10,000.

(c) There shall be a rebuttable presumption that any adverse action within 90 days of a report is retaliatory. For purposes of this paragraph, the term "adverse action" refers to action taken by an employer of a person required to report under subdivision 3 which is involved in a report against the person making the report or the child with respect to whom the report was made because of the report, and includes, but is not limited to:

(1) discharge, suspension, termination, or transfer from the facility, institution, school, or agency;

(2) discharge from or termination of employment;

(3) demotion or reduction in remuneration for services; or

(4) restriction or prohibition of access to the facility, institution, school, agency, or persons affiliated with it.

Subd. 5.

Malicious and reckless reports.

Any person who knowingly or recklessly makes a false report under the provisions of this section shall be liable in a civil suit for any actual damages suffered by the person or persons so reported and for any punitive damages set by the court or jury, plus costs and reasonable attorney fees.

Subd. 6.

Failure to report.

(a) A person mandated by this section to report who knows or has reason to believe that a child is neglected or physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, or has been neglected or physically or sexually abused within the preceding three years, and fails to report is guilty of a misdemeanor.

(b) A person mandated by this section to report who knows or has reason to believe that two or more children not related to the perpetrator have been physically or sexually abused, as defined in subdivision 2, by the same perpetrator within the preceding ten years, and fails to report is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

(c) A parent, guardian, or caretaker who knows or reasonably should know that the child's health is in serious danger and who fails to report as required by subdivision 2, paragraph (g), is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the child suffers substantial or great bodily harm because of the lack of medical care. If the child dies because of the lack of medical care, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $4,000, or both. The provision in section 609.378, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), providing that a parent, guardian, or caretaker may, in good faith, select and depend on spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of a child, does not exempt a parent, guardian, or caretaker from the duty to report under this subdivision.

Subd. 6a.

Failure to notify.

If a local welfare agency receives a report under subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b), and fails to notify the local police department or county sheriff as required by subdivision 10, the person within the agency who is responsible for ensuring that notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees. If a local police department or a county sheriff receives a report under subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b), and fails to notify the local welfare agency as required by subdivision 10, the person within the police department or county sheriff's office who is responsible for ensuring that notification is made shall be subject to disciplinary action in keeping with the agency's existing policy or collective bargaining agreement on discipline of employees.

Subd. 7.

Report; information provided to parent; reporter.

(a) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report made by a person required under subdivision 3 to report shall be followed within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, by a report in writing to the appropriate police department, the county sheriff, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, or the local welfare agency.

(b) The local welfare agency shall determine if the report is to be screened in or out as soon as possible but in no event longer than 24 hours after the report is received. When determining whether a report will be screened in or out, the agency receiving the report must consider, when relevant, all previous history, including reports that were screened out. The agency may communicate with treating professionals and individuals specified under subdivision 10, paragraph (i), clause (3), item (iii).

(c) Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the child, any person believed to be responsible for the abuse or neglect of the child if the person is known, the nature and extent of the abuse or neglect and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall accept a report made under subdivision 3 notwithstanding refusal by a reporter to provide the reporter's name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient under this paragraph. Written reports received by a police department or the county sheriff shall be forwarded immediately to the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report. The police department or the county sheriff may keep copies of reports received by them. Copies of written reports received by a local welfare department or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall be forwarded immediately to the local police department or the county sheriff.

(d) When requested, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report shall inform the reporter within ten days after the report was made, either orally or in writing, whether the report was accepted or not. If the responsible agency determines the report does not constitute a report under this section, the agency shall advise the reporter the report was screened out. Any person mandated to report shall receive a summary of the disposition of any report made by that reporter, including whether the case has been opened for child protection or other services, or if a referral has been made to a community organization, unless release would be detrimental to the best interests of the child. Any person who is not mandated to report shall, upon request to the local welfare agency, receive a concise summary of the disposition of any report made by that reporter, unless release would be detrimental to the best interests of the child.

(e) Reports that are screened out must be maintained in accordance with subdivision 11c, paragraph (a).

(f) A local welfare agency or agency responsible for investigating or assessing a report may use a screened-out report for making an offer of social services to the subjects of the screened-out report. A local welfare agency or agency responsible for evaluating a report alleging maltreatment of a child shall consider prior reports, including screened-out reports, to determine whether an investigation or family assessment must be conducted.

(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the commissioner of education must inform the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the child who is the subject of a report of alleged maltreatment in a school facility within ten days of receiving the report, either orally or in writing, whether the commissioner is assessing or investigating the report of alleged maltreatment.

(h) Regardless of whether a report is made under this subdivision, as soon as practicable after a school receives information regarding an incident that may constitute maltreatment of a child in a school facility, the school shall inform the parent, legal guardian, or custodian of the child that an incident has occurred that may constitute maltreatment of the child, when the incident occurred, and the nature of the conduct that may constitute maltreatment.

(i) A written copy of a report maintained by personnel of agencies, other than welfare or law enforcement agencies, which are subject to chapter 13 shall be confidential. An individual subject of the report may obtain access to the original report as provided by subdivision 11.

Subd. 7a.

Guidance for screening reports.

(a) Child protection staff, supervisors, and others involved in child protection screening shall follow the guidance provided in the child maltreatment screening guidelines issued by the commissioner of human services and, when notified by the commissioner, shall immediately implement updated procedures and protocols.

(b) Any modifications to the screening guidelines must be preapproved by the commissioner of human services and must not be less protective of children than is mandated by statute. The county agency must consult with the county attorney before proposing modifications to the commissioner. The guidelines may provide additional protections for children but must not limit reports that are screened in or provide additional limits on consideration of reports that were screened out in making screening determinations.

Subd. 8.

Evidence not privileged.

No evidence relating to the neglect or abuse of a child or to any prior incidents of neglect or abuse involving any of the same persons accused of neglect or abuse shall be excluded in any proceeding arising out of the alleged neglect or physical or sexual abuse on the grounds of privilege set forth in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), (d), or (g).

Subd. 9.

Mandatory reporting to medical examiner or coroner.

When a person required to report under the provisions of subdivision 3 knows or has reason to believe a child has died as a result of neglect or physical or sexual abuse, the person shall report that information to the appropriate medical examiner or coroner instead of the local welfare agency, police department, or county sheriff. Medical examiners or coroners shall notify the local welfare agency or police department or county sheriff in instances in which they believe that the child has died as a result of neglect or physical or sexual abuse. The medical examiner or coroner shall complete an investigation as soon as feasible and report the findings to the police department or county sheriff and the local welfare agency. If the child was receiving services or treatment for mental illness, developmentally disabled, chemical dependency, or emotional disturbance from an agency, facility, or program as defined in section 245.91, the medical examiner or coroner shall also notify and report findings to the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97.

Subd. 10.

Duties of local welfare agency and local law enforcement agency upon receipt of report; mandatory notification between police or sheriff and agency.

(a) The police department or the county sheriff shall immediately notify the local welfare agency or agency responsible for child protection reports under this section orally and in writing when a report is received. The local welfare agency or agency responsible for child protection reports shall immediately notify the local police department or the county sheriff orally and in writing when a report is received. The county sheriff and the head of every local welfare agency, agency responsible for child protection reports, and police department shall each designate a person within their agency, department, or office who is responsible for ensuring that the notification duties of this paragraph are carried out. When the alleged maltreatment occurred on tribal land, the local welfare agency or agency responsible for child protection reports and the local police department or the county sheriff shall immediately notify the tribe's social services agency and tribal law enforcement orally and in writing when a report is received. When a police department or county sheriff determines that a child has been the subject of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or neglect by a person licensed by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board or the Board of School Administrators, the department or sheriff shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately inform the licensing board.

(b) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare agency shall determine whether to conduct a family assessment or an investigation as appropriate to prevent or provide a remedy for child maltreatment. The local welfare agency:

(1) shall conduct an investigation on reports involving sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment;

(2) shall begin an immediate investigation if, at any time when it is using a family assessment response, it determines that there is reason to believe that sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment or a serious threat to the child's safety exists;

(3) may conduct a family assessment for reports that do not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family assessment is appropriate, the local welfare agency may consider issues of child safety, parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response;

(4) may conduct a family assessment on a report that was initially screened and assigned for an investigation. In determining that a complete investigation is not required, the local welfare agency must document the reason for terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency if the local law enforcement agency is conducting a joint investigation; and

(5) shall provide immediate notice, according to section 260.761, subdivision 2, to an Indian child's tribe when the agency has reason to believe the family assessment or investigation may involve an Indian child. For purposes of this clause, "immediate notice" means notice provided within 24 hours.

If the report alleges neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse by a parent, guardian, or individual functioning within the family unit as a person responsible for the child's care, or sexual abuse by a person with a significant relationship to the child when that person resides in the child's household or by a sibling, the local welfare agency shall immediately conduct a family assessment or investigation as identified in clauses (1) to (4). In conducting a family assessment or investigation, the local welfare agency shall gather information on the existence of substance abuse and domestic violence and offer services for purposes of preventing future child maltreatment, safeguarding and enhancing the welfare of the abused or neglected minor, and supporting and preserving family life whenever possible. If the report alleges a violation of a criminal statute involving sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect or endangerment, under section 609.378, the local law enforcement agency and local welfare agency shall coordinate the planning and execution of their respective investigation and assessment efforts to avoid a duplication of fact-finding efforts and multiple interviews. Each agency shall prepare a separate report of the results of its investigation or assessment. In cases of alleged child maltreatment resulting in death, the local agency may rely on the fact-finding efforts of a law enforcement investigation to make a determination of whether or not maltreatment occurred. When necessary the local welfare agency shall seek authority to remove the child from the custody of a parent, guardian, or adult with whom the child is living. In performing any of these duties, the local welfare agency shall maintain appropriate records.

If the family assessment or investigation indicates there is a potential for abuse of alcohol or other drugs by the parent, guardian, or person responsible for the child's care, the local welfare agency shall conduct a chemical use assessment pursuant to Minnesota Rules, part 9530.6615.

(c) When a local agency receives a report or otherwise has information indicating that a child who is a client, as defined in section 245.91, has been the subject of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or neglect at an agency, facility, or program as defined in section 245.91, it shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97. The commissioner of education shall inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97 of reports regarding a child defined as a client in section 245.91 that maltreatment occurred at a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E.

(d) Authority of the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the child abuse or neglect report, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, and of the local law enforcement agency for investigating the alleged abuse or neglect includes, but is not limited to, authority to interview, without parental consent, the alleged victim and any other minors who currently reside with or who have resided with the alleged offender. The interview may take place at school or at any facility or other place where the alleged victim or other minors might be found or the child may be transported to, and the interview conducted at, a place appropriate for the interview of a child designated by the local welfare agency or law enforcement agency. The interview may take place outside the presence of the alleged offender or parent, legal custodian, guardian, or school official. For family assessments, it is the preferred practice to request a parent or guardian's permission to interview the child prior to conducting the child interview, unless doing so would compromise the safety assessment. Except as provided in this paragraph, the parent, legal custodian, or guardian shall be notified by the responsible local welfare or law enforcement agency no later than the conclusion of the investigation or assessment that this interview has occurred. Notwithstanding rule 32 of the Minnesota Rules of Procedure for Juvenile Courts, the juvenile court may, after hearing on an ex parte motion by the local welfare agency, order that, where reasonable cause exists, the agency withhold notification of this interview from the parent, legal custodian, or guardian. If the interview took place or is to take place on school property, the order shall specify that school officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification of intent to interview the child on school property, as provided under this paragraph, and any other related information regarding the interview that may be a part of the child's school record. A copy of the order shall be sent by the local welfare or law enforcement agency to the appropriate school official.

(e) When the local welfare, local law enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment determines that an interview should take place on school property, written notification of intent to interview the child on school property must be received by school officials prior to the interview. The notification shall include the name of the child to be interviewed, the purpose of the interview, and a reference to the statutory authority to conduct an interview on school property. For interviews conducted by the local welfare agency, the notification shall be signed by the chair of the local social services agency or the chair's designee. The notification shall be private data on individuals subject to the provisions of this paragraph. School officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification or any other related information regarding the interview until notified in writing by the local welfare or law enforcement agency that the investigation or assessment has been concluded, unless a school employee or agent is alleged to have maltreated the child. Until that time, the local welfare or law enforcement agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment shall be solely responsible for any disclosures regarding the nature of the assessment or investigation.

Except where the alleged offender is believed to be a school official or employee, the time and place, and manner of the interview on school premises shall be within the discretion of school officials, but the local welfare or law enforcement agency shall have the exclusive authority to determine who may attend the interview. The conditions as to time, place, and manner of the interview set by the school officials shall be reasonable and the interview shall be conducted not more than 24 hours after the receipt of the notification unless another time is considered necessary by agreement between the school officials and the local welfare or law enforcement agency. Where the school fails to comply with the provisions of this paragraph, the juvenile court may order the school to comply. Every effort must be made to reduce the disruption of the educational program of the child, other students, or school staff when an interview is conducted on school premises.

(f) Where the alleged offender or a person responsible for the care of the alleged victim or other minor prevents access to the victim or other minor by the local welfare agency, the juvenile court may order the parents, legal custodian, or guardian to produce the alleged victim or other minor for questioning by the local welfare agency or the local law enforcement agency outside the presence of the alleged offender or any person responsible for the child's care at reasonable places and times as specified by court order.

(g) Before making an order under paragraph (f), the court shall issue an order to show cause, either upon its own motion or upon a verified petition, specifying the basis for the requested interviews and fixing the time and place of the hearing. The order to show cause shall be served personally and shall be heard in the same manner as provided in other cases in the juvenile court. The court shall consider the need for appointment of a guardian ad litem to protect the best interests of the child. If appointed, the guardian ad litem shall be present at the hearing on the order to show cause.

(h) The commissioner of human services, the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities, the local welfare agencies responsible for investigating reports, the commissioner of education, and the local law enforcement agencies have the right to enter facilities as defined in subdivision 2 and to inspect and copy the facility's records, including medical records, as part of the investigation. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 13, they also have the right to inform the facility under investigation that they are conducting an investigation, to disclose to the facility the names of the individuals under investigation for abusing or neglecting a child, and to provide the facility with a copy of the report and the investigative findings.

(i) The local welfare agency responsible for conducting a family assessment or investigation shall collect available and relevant information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs and share not public information with an Indian's tribal social services agency without violating any law of the state that may otherwise impose duties of confidentiality on the local welfare agency in order to implement the tribal state agreement. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report shall collect available and relevant information to ascertain whether maltreatment occurred and whether protective services are needed. Information collected includes, when relevant, information with regard to the person reporting the alleged maltreatment, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report; the child allegedly being maltreated; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged maltreatment. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report may make a determination of no maltreatment early in an investigation, and close the case and retain immunity, if the collected information shows no basis for a full investigation.

Information relevant to the assessment or investigation must be asked for, and may include:

(1) the child's sex and age; prior reports of maltreatment, including any maltreatment reports that were screened out and not accepted for assessment or investigation; information relating to developmental functioning; credibility of the child's statement; and whether the information provided under this clause is consistent with other information collected during the course of the assessment or investigation;

(2) the alleged offender's age, a record check for prior reports of maltreatment, and criminal charges and convictions. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report must provide the alleged offender with an opportunity to make a statement. The alleged offender may submit supporting documentation relevant to the assessment or investigation;

(3) collateral source information regarding the alleged maltreatment and care of the child. Collateral information includes, when relevant: (i) a medical examination of the child; (ii) prior medical records relating to the alleged maltreatment or the care of the child maintained by any facility, clinic, or health care professional and an interview with the treating professionals; and (iii) interviews with the child's caretakers, including the child's parent, guardian, foster parent, child care provider, teachers, counselors, family members, relatives, and other persons who may have knowledge regarding the alleged maltreatment and the care of the child; and

(4) information on the existence of domestic abuse and violence in the home of the child, and substance abuse.

Nothing in this paragraph precludes the local welfare agency, the local law enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report from collecting other relevant information necessary to conduct the assessment or investigation. Notwithstanding sections 13.384 or 144.291 to 144.298, the local welfare agency has access to medical data and records for purposes of clause (3). Notwithstanding the data's classification in the possession of any other agency, data acquired by the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report during the course of the assessment or investigation are private data on individuals and must be maintained in accordance with subdivision 11. Data of the commissioner of education collected or maintained during and for the purpose of an investigation of alleged maltreatment in a school are governed by this section, notwithstanding the data's classification as educational, licensing, or personnel data under chapter 13.

In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), the commissioner of education shall collect investigative reports and data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are from local law enforcement and the school facility.

(j) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare agency shall conduct a face-to-face contact with the child reported to be maltreated and with the child's primary caregiver sufficient to complete a safety assessment and ensure the immediate safety of the child. The face-to-face contact with the child and primary caregiver shall occur immediately if sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment is alleged and within five calendar days for all other reports. If the alleged offender was not already interviewed as the primary caregiver, the local welfare agency shall also conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged offender in the early stages of the assessment or investigation. At the initial contact, the local child welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report must inform the alleged offender of the complaints or allegations made against the individual in a manner consistent with laws protecting the rights of the person who made the report. The interview with the alleged offender may be postponed if it would jeopardize an active law enforcement investigation.

(k) When conducting an investigation, the local welfare agency shall use a question and answer interviewing format with questioning as nondirective as possible to elicit spontaneous responses. For investigations only, the following interviewing methods and procedures must be used whenever possible when collecting information:

(1) audio recordings of all interviews with witnesses and collateral sources; and

(2) in cases of alleged sexual abuse, audio-video recordings of each interview with the alleged victim and child witnesses.

(l) In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), the commissioner of education shall collect available and relevant information and use the procedures in paragraphs (j) and (k), and subdivision 3d, except that the requirement for face-to-face observation of the child and face-to-face interview of the alleged offender is to occur in the initial stages of the assessment or investigation provided that the commissioner may also base the assessment or investigation on investigative reports and data received from the school facility and local law enforcement, to the extent those investigations satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (j) and (k), and subdivision 3d.

Subd. 10a.

Law enforcement agency responsibility for investigation; welfare agency reliance on law enforcement fact-finding; welfare agency offer of services.

(a) If the report alleges neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse by a person who is not a parent, guardian, sibling, person responsible for the child's care functioning within the family unit, or a person who lives in the child's household and who has a significant relationship to the child, in a setting other than a facility as defined in subdivision 2, the local welfare agency shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agency, which shall conduct an investigation of the alleged abuse or neglect if a violation of a criminal statute is alleged.

(b) The local agency may rely on the fact-finding efforts of the law enforcement investigation conducted under this subdivision to make a determination whether or not threatened injury or other maltreatment has occurred under subdivision 2 if an alleged offender has minor children or lives with minors.

(c) If a child is the victim of an alleged crime under paragraph (a), the law enforcement agency shall immediately notify the local welfare agency, which shall offer appropriate social services for the purpose of safeguarding and enhancing the welfare of the abused or neglected minor.

Subd. 10b.

Duties of commissioner; neglect or abuse in facility.

(a) This section applies to the commissioners of human services, health, and education. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall immediately assess or investigate if the report alleges that:

(1) a child who is in the care of a facility as defined in subdivision 2 is neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or is the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility, or has been so neglected or abused, or been the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in that facility within the three years preceding the report; or

(2) a child was neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or is the victim of maltreatment in a facility by an individual in a facility defined in subdivision 2, while in the care of that facility within the three years preceding the report.

The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall arrange for the transmittal to the commissioner of reports received by local agencies and may delegate to a local welfare agency the duty to investigate reports. In conducting an investigation under this section, the commissioner has the powers and duties specified for local welfare agencies under this section. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency may interview any children who are or have been in the care of a facility under investigation and their parents, guardians, or legal custodians.

(b) Prior to any interview, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency shall notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child who will be interviewed in the manner provided for in subdivision 10d, paragraph (a). If reasonable efforts to reach the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child in an out-of-home placement have failed, the child may be interviewed if there is reason to believe the interview is necessary to protect the child or other children in the facility. The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local agency must provide the information required in this subdivision to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child interviewed without parental notification as soon as possible after the interview. When the investigation is completed, any parent, guardian, or legal custodian notified under this subdivision shall receive the written memorandum provided for in subdivision 10d, paragraph (c).

(c) In conducting investigations under this subdivision the commissioner or local welfare agency shall obtain access to information consistent with subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j). In conducting assessments or investigations under this subdivision, the commissioner of education shall obtain access to reports and investigative data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in the possession of a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), notwithstanding the classification of the data as educational or personnel data under chapter 13. This includes, but is not limited to, school investigative reports, information concerning the conduct of school personnel alleged to have committed maltreatment of students, information about witnesses, and any protective or corrective action taken by the school facility regarding the school personnel alleged to have committed maltreatment.

(d) The commissioner may request assistance from the local social services agency.

Subd. 10c.

Duties of local social service agency upon receipt of report of medical neglect.

If the report alleges medical neglect as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5), the local welfare agency shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately consult with designated hospital staff and with the parents of the infant to verify that appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication are being provided; and shall immediately secure an independent medical review of the infant's medical charts and records and, if necessary, seek a court order for an independent medical examination of the infant. If the review or examination leads to a conclusion of medical neglect, the agency shall intervene on behalf of the infant by initiating legal proceedings under section 260C.141 and by filing an expedited motion to prevent the withholding of medically indicated treatment.

Subd. 10d.

Notification of neglect or abuse in facility.

(a) When a report is received that alleges neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child while in the care of a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed or certified according to sections 144.50 to 144.58; 241.021; or 245A.01 to 245A.16; or chapter 144H, 245D, or 245H, or a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E; or a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency investigating the report shall provide the following information to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of a child alleged to have been neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or the victim of maltreatment of a child in the facility: the name of the facility; the fact that a report alleging neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility has been received; the nature of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; that the agency is conducting an assessment or investigation; any protective or corrective measures being taken pending the outcome of the investigation; and that a written memorandum will be provided when the investigation is completed.

(b) The commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency may also provide the information in paragraph (a) to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any other child in the facility if the investigative agency knows or has reason to believe the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility has occurred. In determining whether to exercise this authority, the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency shall consider the seriousness of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of children allegedly neglected, physically abused, sexually abused, or victims of maltreatment of a child in the facility; the number of alleged perpetrators; and the length of the investigation. The facility shall be notified whenever this discretion is exercised.

(c) When the commissioner of the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report or local welfare agency has completed its investigation, every parent, guardian, or legal custodian previously notified of the investigation by the commissioner or local welfare agency shall be provided with the following information in a written memorandum: the name of the facility investigated; the nature of the alleged neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in the facility; the investigator's name; a summary of the investigation findings; a statement whether maltreatment was found; and the protective or corrective measures that are being or will be taken. The memorandum shall be written in a manner that protects the identity of the reporter and the child and shall not contain the name, or to the extent possible, reveal the identity of the alleged perpetrator or of those interviewed during the investigation. If maltreatment is determined to exist, the commissioner or local welfare agency shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child in the facility who had contact with the individual responsible for the maltreatment. When the facility is the responsible party for maltreatment, the commissioner or local welfare agency shall also provide the written memorandum to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child who received services in the population of the facility where the maltreatment occurred. This notification must be provided to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of each child receiving services from the time the maltreatment occurred until either the individual responsible for maltreatment is no longer in contact with a child or children in the facility or the conclusion of the investigation. In the case of maltreatment within a school facility, as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E, the commissioner of education need not provide notification to parents, guardians, or legal custodians of each child in the facility, but shall, within ten days after the investigation is completed, provide written notification to the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any student alleged to have been maltreated. The commissioner of education may notify the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of any student involved as a witness to alleged maltreatment.

Subd. 10e.

Determinations.

(a) The local welfare agency shall conclude the family assessment or the investigation within 45 days of the receipt of a report. The conclusion of the assessment or investigation may be extended to permit the completion of a criminal investigation or the receipt of expert information requested within 45 days of the receipt of the report.

(b) After conducting a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall determine whether services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.

(c) After conducting an investigation, the local welfare agency shall make two determinations: first, whether maltreatment has occurred; and second, whether child protective services are needed. No determination of maltreatment shall be made when the alleged perpetrator is a child under the age of ten.

(d) If the commissioner of education conducts an assessment or investigation, the commissioner shall determine whether maltreatment occurred and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. If a determination is made that maltreatment has occurred, the commissioner shall report to the employer, the school board, and any appropriate licensing entity the determination that maltreatment occurred and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. In all other cases, the commissioner shall inform the school board or employer that a report was received, the subject of the report, the date of the initial report, the category of maltreatment alleged as defined in paragraph (f), the fact that maltreatment was not determined, and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination.

(e) When maltreatment is determined in an investigation involving a facility, the investigating agency shall also determine whether the facility or individual was responsible, or whether both the facility and the individual were responsible for the maltreatment using the mitigating factors in paragraph (i). Determinations under this subdivision must be made based on a preponderance of the evidence and are private data on individuals or nonpublic data as maintained by the commissioner of education.

(f) For the purposes of this subdivision, "maltreatment" means any of the following acts or omissions:

(1) physical abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (k);

(2) neglect as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (g);

(3) sexual abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (n);

(4) mental injury as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (f); or

(5) maltreatment of a child in a facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c).

(g) For the purposes of this subdivision, a determination that child protective services are needed means that the local welfare agency has documented conditions during the assessment or investigation sufficient to cause a child protection worker, as defined in section 626.559, subdivision 1, to conclude that a child is at significant risk of maltreatment if protective intervention is not provided and that the individuals responsible for the child's care have not taken or are not likely to take actions to protect the child from maltreatment or risk of maltreatment.

(h) This subdivision does not mean that maltreatment has occurred solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child, in lieu of medical care. However, if lack of medical care may result in serious danger to the child's health, the local welfare agency may ensure that necessary medical services are provided to the child.

(i) When determining whether the facility or individual is the responsible party, or whether both the facility and the individual are responsible for determined maltreatment in a facility, the investigating agency shall consider at least the following mitigating factors:

(1) whether the actions of the facility or the individual caregivers were according to, and followed the terms of, an erroneous physician order, prescription, individual care plan, or directive; however, this is not a mitigating factor when the facility or caregiver was responsible for the issuance of the erroneous order, prescription, individual care plan, or directive or knew or should have known of the errors and took no reasonable measures to correct the defect before administering care;

(2) comparative responsibility between the facility, other caregivers, and requirements placed upon an employee, including the facility's compliance with related regulatory standards and the adequacy of facility policies and procedures, facility training, an individual's participation in the training, the caregiver's supervision, and facility staffing levels and the scope of the individual employee's authority and discretion; and

(3) whether the facility or individual followed professional standards in exercising professional judgment.

The evaluation of the facility's responsibility under clause (2) must not be based on the completeness of the risk assessment or risk reduction plan required under section 245A.66, but must be based on the facility's compliance with the regulatory standards for policies and procedures, training, and supervision as cited in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota Rules.

(j) Notwithstanding paragraph (i), when maltreatment is determined to have been committed by an individual who is also the facility license or certification holder, both the individual and the facility must be determined responsible for the maltreatment, and both the background study disqualification standards under section 245C.15, subdivision 4, and the licensing or certification actions under section 245A.06, 245A.07, 245H.06, or 245H.07 apply.

Subd. 10f.

Notice of determinations.

Within ten working days of the conclusion of a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child of the need for services to address child safety concerns or significant risk of subsequent child maltreatment. The local welfare agency and the family may also jointly agree that family support and family preservation services are needed. Within ten working days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency responsible for investigating the report shall notify the parent or guardian of the child, the person determined to be maltreating the child, and, if applicable, the director of the facility, of the determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. When the investigation involves a child foster care setting that is monitored by a private licensing agency under section 245A.16, the local welfare agency responsible for investigating the report shall notify the private licensing agency of the determination and shall provide a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. The notice to the private licensing agency must include identifying private data, but not the identity of the reporter of maltreatment. The notice must also include a certification that the information collection procedures under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j), were followed and a notice of the right of a data subject to obtain access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained under this section. In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept under subdivision 11c. The investigating agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child who is the subject of the report, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a child, of their appeal or review rights under this section. The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a license or certification application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C related to employment or services that are licensed or certified by the Department of Human Services under chapter 245A or 245H, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A, the Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related to an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.

Subd. 10g.

Interstate data exchange.

All reports and records created, collected, or maintained under this section by a local social service agency or law enforcement agency may be disclosed to a local social service or other child welfare agency of another state when the agency certifies that:

(1) the reports and records are necessary in order to conduct an investigation of actions that would qualify as sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect under this section; and

(2) the reports and records will be used only for purposes of a child protection assessment or investigation and will not be further disclosed to any other person or agency.

The local social service agency or law enforcement agency in this state shall keep a record of all records or reports disclosed pursuant to this subdivision and of any agency to which the records or reports are disclosed. If in any case records or reports are disclosed before a determination is made under subdivision 10e, or a disposition of any criminal proceedings is reached, the local social service agency or law enforcement agency in this state shall forward the determination or disposition to any agency that has received any report or record under this subdivision.

Subd. 10h.

Child abuse data; release to family court services.

The responsible authority or its designee of a local welfare agency may release private or confidential data on an active case involving assessment or investigation of actions that are defined as sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect under this section to a court services agency if:

(1) the court services agency has an active case involving a common client or clients who are the subject of the data; and

(2) the data are necessary for the court services agency to effectively process the court services' case, including investigating or performing other duties relating to the case required by law.

The data disclosed under this subdivision may be used only for purposes of the active court services case described in clause (1) and may not be further disclosed to any other person or agency, except as authorized by law.

Subd. 10i.

Administrative reconsideration; review panel.

(a) Administrative reconsideration is not applicable in family assessments since no determination concerning maltreatment is made. For investigations, except as provided under paragraph (e), an individual or facility that the commissioner of human services, a local social service agency, or the commissioner of education determines has maltreated a child, an interested person acting on behalf of the child, regardless of the determination, who contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment, may request the investigating agency to reconsider its final determination regarding maltreatment. The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after receipt of notice of the final determination regarding maltreatment or, if the request is made by an interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by the parent or guardian of the child. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. Effective January 1, 2002, an individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the maltreatment determination and notice of disqualification. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.

(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section 256.045 may submit to the commissioner of human services or the commissioner of education a written request for a hearing under that section. Section 256.045 also governs hearings requested to contest a final determination of the commissioner of education. The investigating agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The hearings specified under this section are the only administrative appeal of a decision issued under paragraph (a). Determinations under this section are not subject to accuracy and completeness challenges under section 13.04.

(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the investigating agency changes the final determination of maltreatment, that agency shall notify the parties specified in subdivisions 10b, 10d, and 10f.

(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f), if an individual or facility contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment by requesting a fair hearing under section 256.045, the commissioner of human services shall assure that the hearing is conducted and a decision is reached within 90 days of receipt of the request for a hearing. The time for action on the decision may be extended for as many days as the hearing is postponed or the record is held open for the benefit of either party.

(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and requested reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.

(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the contested case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing regarding the maltreatment determination and disqualification shall not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination as provided under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification as provided under section 245C.22, shall also not be conducted when:

(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;

(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the maltreatment determination or disqualification; and

(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.

Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.

If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the administrative law judge.

(g) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the child" means a parent or legal guardian; stepparent; grandparent; guardian ad litem; adult stepbrother, stepsister, or sibling; or adult aunt or uncle; unless the person has been determined to be the perpetrator of the maltreatment.

(h) If a maltreatment determination is the basis for a correction order under section 245H.06 or decertification under section 245H.07, the certification holder has the right to request reconsideration under sections 245H.06 and 245H.07. If the certification holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the correction order or decertification, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under section 626.556, subdivision 10i, and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22.

Subd. 10j.

Release of data to mandated reporters.

(a) A local social services or child protection agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report of maltreatment, shall provide relevant private data on individuals obtained under this section to a mandated reporter who made the report and who has an ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data, unless the agency determines that providing the data would not be in the best interests of the child. The agency may provide the data to other mandated reporters with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of the child. Mandated reporters with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data include the child's teachers or other appropriate school personnel, foster parents, health care providers, respite care workers, therapists, social workers, child care providers, residential care staff, crisis nursery staff, probation officers, and court services personnel. Under this section, a mandated reporter need not have made the report to be considered a person with ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data. Data provided under this section must be limited to data pertinent to the individual's responsibility for caring for the child.

(b) A reporter who receives private data on individuals under this subdivision must treat the data according to that classification, regardless of whether the reporter is an employee of a government entity. The remedies and penalties under sections 13.08 and 13.09 apply if a reporter releases data in violation of this section or other law.

Subd. 10k.

Release of certain assessment or investigative records to other counties.

Records maintained under subdivision 11c, paragraph (a), may be shared with another local welfare agency that requests the information because it is conducting an assessment or investigation under this section of the subject of the records.

Subd. 10l.

Documentation.

When a case is closed that has been open for services, the local welfare agency shall document the outcome of the family assessment or investigation, including a description of services provided and the removal or reduction of risk to the child, if it existed.

Subd. 10m.

Provision of child protective services; consultation with county attorney.

(a) The local welfare agency shall create a written plan, in collaboration with the family whenever possible, within 30 days of the determination that child protective services are needed or upon joint agreement of the local welfare agency and the family that family support and preservation services are needed. Child protective services for a family are voluntary unless ordered by the court.

(b) The local welfare agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section 260C.007, subdivision 6, if:

(1) the family does not accept or comply with a plan for child protective services;

(2) voluntary child protective services may not provide sufficient protection for the child; or

(3) the family is not cooperating with an investigation or assessment.

Subd. 10n.

Required referral to early intervention services.

A child under age three who is involved in a substantiated case of maltreatment shall be referred for screening under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, part C. Parents must be informed that the evaluation and acceptance of services are voluntary. The commissioner of human services shall monitor referral rates by county and annually report the information to the legislature beginning March 15, 2014. Refusal to have a child screened is not a basis for a child in need of protection or services petition under chapter 260C.

Subd. 11.

Records.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) and subdivisions 10b, 10d, 10g, and 11b, all records concerning individuals maintained by a local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this section, including any written reports filed under subdivision 7, shall be private data on individuals, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. All records concerning determinations of maltreatment by a facility are nonpublic data as maintained by the Department of Education, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. Reports maintained by any police department or the county sheriff shall be private data on individuals except the reports shall be made available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners. Section 13.82, subdivisions 8, 9, and 14, apply to law enforcement data other than the reports. The local social services agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall make available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners or their professional delegates, any records which contain information relating to a specific incident of neglect or abuse which is under investigation, petition, or prosecution and information relating to any prior incidents of neglect or abuse involving any of the same persons. The records shall be collected and maintained in accordance with the provisions of chapter 13. In conducting investigations and assessments pursuant to this section, the notice required by section 13.04, subdivision 2, need not be provided to a minor under the age of ten who is the alleged victim of abuse or neglect. An individual subject of a record shall have access to the record in accordance with those sections, except that the name of the reporter shall be confidential while the report is under assessment or investigation except as otherwise permitted by this subdivision. Any person conducting an investigation or assessment under this section who intentionally discloses the identity of a reporter prior to the completion of the investigation or assessment is guilty of a misdemeanor. After the assessment or investigation is completed, the name of the reporter shall be confidential. The subject of the report may compel disclosure of the name of the reporter only with the consent of the reporter or upon a written finding by the court that the report was false and that there is evidence that the report was made in bad faith. This subdivision does not alter disclosure responsibilities or obligations under the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

(b) Upon request of the legislative auditor, data on individuals maintained under this section must be released to the legislative auditor in order for the auditor to fulfill the auditor's duties under section 3.971. The auditor shall maintain the data in accordance with chapter 13.

(c) The commissioner of education must be provided with all requested data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in possession of a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (c), when the data is requested pursuant to an assessment or investigation of a maltreatment report of a student in a school. If the commissioner of education makes a determination of maltreatment involving an individual performing work within a school facility who is licensed by a board or other agency, the commissioner shall provide a copy of its offender maltreatment determination report to the licensing entity, with all student identifying information removed. The offender maltreatment determination report shall include but is not limited to the following sections: report of alleged maltreatment; legal standard; investigation; summary of findings; determination; corrective action by a school; reconsideration process; and a listing of records related to the investigation. Notwithstanding section 13.03, subdivision 4, data received by a licensing entity under this paragraph are governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity, except that this section applies to the classification of and access to data on the reporter of the maltreatment.

Subd. 11a.

Disclosure of information not required in certain cases.

When interviewing a minor under subdivision 10, an individual does not include the parent or guardian of the minor for purposes of section 13.04, subdivision 2, when the parent or guardian is the alleged perpetrator of the abuse or neglect.

Subd. 11b.

Data received from law enforcement.

Active law enforcement investigative data received by a local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this section are confidential data on individuals. When this data become inactive in the law enforcement agency, the data are private data on individuals.

Subd. 11c.

Welfare, court services agency, and school records maintained.

Notwithstanding sections 138.163 and 138.17, records maintained or records derived from reports of abuse by local welfare agencies, agencies responsible for assessing or investigating the report, court services agencies, or schools under this section shall be destroyed as provided in paragraphs (a) to (d) by the responsible authority.

(a) For reports alleging child maltreatment that were not accepted for assessment or investigation, family assessment cases, and cases where an investigation results in no determination of maltreatment or the need for child protective services, the records must be maintained for a period of five years after the date the report was not accepted for assessment or investigation or of the final entry in the case record. Records of reports that were not accepted must contain sufficient information to identify the subjects of the report, the nature of the alleged maltreatment, and the reasons as to why the report was not accepted. Records under this paragraph may not be used for employment, background checks, or purposes other than to assist in future screening decisions and risk and safety assessments.

(b) All records relating to reports which, upon investigation, indicate either maltreatment or a need for child protective services shall be maintained for ten years after the date of the final entry in the case record.

(c) All records regarding a report of maltreatment, including any notification of intent to interview which was received by a school under subdivision 10, paragraph (d), shall be destroyed by the school when ordered to do so by the agency conducting the assessment or investigation. The agency shall order the destruction of the notification when other records relating to the report under investigation or assessment are destroyed under this subdivision.

(d) Private or confidential data released to a court services agency under subdivision 10h must be destroyed by the court services agency when ordered to do so by the local welfare agency that released the data. The local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall order destruction of the data when other records relating to the assessment or investigation are destroyed under this subdivision.

Subd. 11d.

Disclosure in child fatality or near-fatality cases.

(a) The definitions in this paragraph apply to this section.

(1) "Child fatality" means the death of a child from child abuse or neglect.

(2) "Near fatality" means a case in which a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant determines that a child is in serious or critical condition as the result of sickness or injury caused by child abuse or neglect.

(3) "Findings and information" means a written summary described in paragraph (c) of actions taken or services rendered by a local social services agency following receipt of a report.

(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law and subject to this subdivision, a public agency shall disclose to the public, upon request, the findings and information related to a child fatality or near fatality if:

(1) a person is criminally charged with having caused the child fatality or near fatality;

(2) a county attorney certifies that a person would have been charged with having caused the child fatality or near fatality but for that person's death; or

(3) a child protection investigation resulted in a determination of child abuse or neglect.

(c) Findings and information disclosed under this subdivision consist of a written summary that includes any of the following information the agency is able to provide:

(1) the cause and circumstances regarding the child fatality or near fatality;

(2) the age and gender of the child;

(3) information on any previous reports of child abuse or neglect that are pertinent to the abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality;

(4) information on any previous investigations that are pertinent to the abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality;

(5) the results of any investigations described in clause (4);

(6) actions of and services provided by the local social services agency on behalf of a child that are pertinent to the child abuse or neglect that led to the child fatality or near fatality; and

(7) the results of any review of the state child mortality review panel, a local child mortality review panel, a local community child protection team, or any public agency.

(d) Nothing in this subdivision authorizes access to the private data in the custody of a local social services agency, or the disclosure to the public of the records or content of any psychiatric, psychological, or therapeutic evaluations, or the disclosure of information that would reveal the identities of persons who provided information related to abuse or neglect of the child.

(e) A person whose request is denied may apply to the appropriate court for an order compelling disclosure of all or part of the findings and information of the public agency. The application must set forth, with reasonable particularity, factors supporting the application. The court has jurisdiction to issue these orders. Actions under this section must be set down for immediate hearing, and subsequent proceedings in those actions must be given priority by the appellate courts.

(f) A public agency or its employees acting in good faith in disclosing or declining to disclose information under this section are immune from criminal or civil liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for that action.

Subd. 12.

Duties of facility operators.

Any operator, employee, or volunteer worker at any facility who intentionally neglects, physically abuses, or sexually abuses any child in the care of that facility may be charged with a violation of section 609.255, 609.377, or 609.378. Any operator of a facility who knowingly permits conditions to exist which result in neglect, physical abuse, sexual abuse, or maltreatment of a child in a facility while in the care of that facility may be charged with a violation of section 609.378. The facility operator shall inform all mandated reporters employed by or otherwise associated with the facility of the duties required of mandated reporters and shall inform all mandatory reporters of the prohibition against retaliation for reports made in good faith under this section.

Subd. 14.

Conflict of interest.

(a) A potential conflict of interest related to assisting in an assessment under this section resulting in a direct or shared financial interest with a child abuse and neglect treatment provider or resulting from a personal or family relationship with a party in the investigation must be considered by the local welfare agency in an effort to prevent unethical relationships.

(b) A person who conducts an assessment under this section or section 626.5561 may not have:

(1) any direct or shared financial interest or referral relationship resulting in a direct shared financial gain with a child abuse and neglect treatment provider; or

(2) a personal or family relationship with a party in the investigation.

If an independent assessor is not available, the person responsible for making the determination under this section may use the services of an assessor with a financial interest, referral, or personal or family relationship.

Subd. 15.

Auditing.

The commissioner of human services shall regularly audit for accuracy the data reported by counties on maltreatment of minors.

Subd. 16.

Commissioner's duty to provide oversight; quality assurance reviews; annual summary of reviews.

(a) The commissioner shall develop a plan to perform quality assurance reviews of local welfare agency screening practices and decisions. The commissioner shall provide oversight and guidance to counties to ensure consistent application of screening guidelines, thorough and appropriate screening decisions, and correct documentation and maintenance of reports. Quality assurance reviews must begin no later than September 30, 2015.

(b) The commissioner shall produce an annual report of the summary results of the reviews. The report must only contain aggregate data and may not include any data that could be used to personally identify any subject whose data is included in the report. The report is public information and must be provided to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees having jurisdiction over child protection issues.

626.5561 REPORTING OF PRENATAL EXPOSURE TO CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES.

Subdivision 1.

Reports required.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person mandated to report under section 626.556, subdivision 3, shall immediately report to the local welfare agency if the person knows or has reason to believe that a woman is pregnant and has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy in any way that is habitual or excessive.

(b) A health care professional or a social service professional who is mandated to report under section 626.556, subdivision 3, is exempt from reporting under paragraph (a) a woman's use or consumption of tetrahydrocannabinol or alcoholic beverages during pregnancy if the professional is providing the woman with prenatal care or other health care services.

(c) Any person may make a voluntary report if the person knows or has reason to believe that a woman is pregnant and has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy, including, but not limited to, tetrahydrocannabinol, or has consumed alcoholic beverages during the pregnancy in any way that is habitual or excessive.

(d) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report made by a person required to report shall be followed within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, by a report in writing to the local welfare agency. Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the pregnant woman, the nature and extent of the use, if known, and the name and address of the reporter. The local welfare agency shall accept a report made under paragraph (c) notwithstanding refusal by a voluntary reporter to provide the reporter's name or address as long as the report is otherwise sufficient.

(e) For purposes of this section, "prenatal care" means the comprehensive package of medical and psychological support provided throughout the pregnancy.

Subd. 2.

Local welfare agency.

Upon receipt of a report required under subdivision 1, the local welfare agency shall immediately conduct an appropriate assessment and offer services indicated under the circumstances. Services offered may include, but are not limited to, a referral for chemical dependency assessment, a referral for chemical dependency treatment if recommended, and a referral for prenatal care. The local welfare agency may also take any appropriate action under chapter 253B, including seeking an emergency admission under section 253B.05. The local welfare agency shall seek an emergency admission under section 253B.05 if the pregnant woman refuses recommended voluntary services or fails recommended treatment.

Subd. 3.

Related provisions.

Reports under this section are governed by section 626.556, subdivisions 4, 4a, 5, 6, 8, and 11.

Subd. 4.

Controlled substances.

For purposes of this section and section 626.5562, "controlled substance" means a controlled substance listed in section 253B.02, subdivision 2.

Subd. 5.

Immunity.

(a) A person making a voluntary or mandated report under subdivision 1 or assisting in an assessment under subdivision 2 is immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise might result from the person's actions, if the person is acting in good faith.

(b) This subdivision does not provide immunity to any person for failure to make a required report or for committing neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse of a child.

626.5562 TOXICOLOGY TESTS REQUIRED.

Subdivision 1.

Test; report.

A physician shall administer a toxicology test to a pregnant woman under the physician's care or to a woman under the physician's care within eight hours after delivery to determine whether there is evidence that she has ingested a controlled substance, if the woman has obstetrical complications that are a medical indication of possible use of a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose. If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results under section 626.5561. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under section 626.5561, if other evidence gives the physician reason to believe the patient has used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose.

Subd. 2.

Newborns.

A physician shall administer to each newborn infant born under the physician's care a toxicology test to determine whether there is evidence of prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, if the physician has reason to believe based on a medical assessment of the mother or the infant that the mother used a controlled substance for a nonmedical purpose during the pregnancy. If the test results are positive, the physician shall report the results as neglect under section 626.556. A negative test result does not eliminate the obligation to report under section 626.556 if other medical evidence of prenatal exposure to a controlled substance is present.

Subd. 3.

Report to Department of Health.

Physicians shall report to the Department of Health the results of tests performed under subdivisions 1 and 2. A report shall be made on the certificate of live birth medical supplement or the report of fetal death medical supplement filed on or after February 1, 1991. The reports are medical data under section 13.384.

Subd. 4.

Immunity from liability.

Any physician or other medical personnel administering a toxicology test to determine the presence of a controlled substance in a pregnant woman, in a woman within eight hours after delivery, or in a child at birth or during the first month of life is immune from civil or criminal liability arising from administration of the test, if the physician ordering the test believes in good faith that the test is required under this section and the test is administered in accordance with an established protocol and reasonable medical practice.

Subd. 5.

Reliability of tests.

A positive test result reported under this section must be obtained from a confirmatory test performed by a drug testing laboratory which meets the requirements of section 181.953, and must be performed according to the requirements for performance of confirmatory tests imposed by the licensing, accreditation, or certification program listed in section 181.953, subdivision 1, in which the laboratory participates.

626.558 MULTIDISCIPLINARY CHILD PROTECTION TEAM.

Subdivision 1.

Establishment of team.

A county shall establish a multidisciplinary child protection team that may include, but not be limited to, the director of the local welfare agency or designees, the county attorney or designees, the county sheriff or designees, representatives of health and education, representatives of mental health or other appropriate human service or community-based agencies, and parent groups. As used in this section, a "community-based agency" may include, but is not limited to, schools, social service agencies, family service and mental health collaboratives, children's advocacy centers, early childhood and family education programs, Head Start, or other agencies serving children and families. A member of the team must be designated as the lead person of the team responsible for the planning process to develop standards for its activities with battered women's and domestic abuse programs and services.

Subd. 2.

Duties of team.

A multidisciplinary child protection team may provide public and professional education, develop resources for prevention, intervention, and treatment, and provide case consultation to the local welfare agency or other interested community-based agencies. The community-based agencies may request case consultation from the multidisciplinary child protection team regarding a child or family for whom the community-based agency is providing services. As used in this section, "case consultation" means a case review process in which recommendations are made concerning services to be provided to the identified children and family. Case consultation may be performed by a committee or subcommittee of members representing human services, including mental health and chemical dependency; law enforcement, including probation and parole; the county attorney; a children's advocacy center; health care; education; community-based agencies and other necessary agencies; and persons directly involved in an individual case as designated by other members performing case consultation.

Subd. 2a.

Sexually exploited youth outreach program.

A multidisciplinary child protection team may assist the local welfare agency, local law enforcement agency, or an appropriate private organization in developing a program of outreach services for sexually exploited youth, including homeless, runaway, and truant youth who are at risk of sexual exploitation. For the purposes of this subdivision, at least one representative of a youth intervention program or, where this type of program is unavailable, one representative of a nonprofit agency serving youth in crisis, shall be appointed to and serve on the multidisciplinary child protection team in addition to the standing members of the team. These services may include counseling, medical care, short-term shelter, alternative living arrangements, and drop-in centers. A juvenile's receipt of intervention services under this subdivision may not be conditioned upon the juvenile providing any evidence or testimony.

Subd. 3.

Information sharing.

(a) The local welfare agency may make available to the case consultation committee or subcommittee, all records collected and maintained by the agency under section 626.556 and in connection with case consultation. A case consultation committee or subcommittee member may share information acquired in the member's professional capacity with the committee or subcommittee to assist in case consultation.

(b) Case consultation committee or subcommittee members must annually sign a data sharing agreement, approved by the commissioner of human services, assuring compliance with chapter 13. Not public data, as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 8a, may be shared with members appointed to the committee or subcommittee in connection with an individual case when the members have signed the data sharing agreement.

(c) All data acquired by the case consultation committee or subcommittee in exercising case consultation duties, are confidential as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 3, and shall not be disclosed except to the extent necessary to perform case consultation, and shall not be subject to subpoena or discovery.

(d) No members of a case consultation committee or subcommittee meeting shall disclose what transpired at a case consultation meeting, except to the extent necessary to carry out the case consultation plan. The proceedings and records of the case consultation meeting are not subject to discovery, and may not be introduced into evidence in any civil or criminal action against a professional or local welfare agency arising out of the matter or matters which are the subject of consideration of the case consultation meeting. Information, documents, or records otherwise available from original sources are not immune from discovery or use in any civil or criminal action merely because they were presented during a case consultation meeting. Any person who presented information before the consultation committee or subcommittee or who is a member shall not be prevented from testifying as to matters within the person's knowledge. However, in a civil or criminal proceeding a person shall not be questioned about the person's presentation of information before the case consultation committee or subcommittee or about opinions formed as a result of the case consultation meetings.

A person who violates this subdivision is subject to the civil remedies and penalties provided under chapter 13.

Subd. 4.

Children's advocacy center; definition.

(a) For purposes of this section, "children's advocacy center" means an organization, using a multidisciplinary team approach, whose primary purpose is to provide children who have been the victims of abuse and their nonoffending family members with:

(1) support and advocacy;

(2) specialized medical evaluation;

(3) trauma-focused mental health services; and

(4) forensic interviews.

(b) Children's advocacy centers provide multidisciplinary case review and the tracking and monitoring of case progress.

626.559 SPECIALIZED TRAINING AND EDUCATION REQUIRED.

Subdivision 1.

Job classification; continuing education.

The commissioner of human services, for employees subject to the Minnesota Merit System, and directors of county personnel systems, for counties not subject to the Minnesota Merit System, shall establish a job classification consisting exclusively of persons with the specialized knowledge, skills, and experience required to satisfactorily perform child protection duties pursuant to section 626.556, subdivisions 10, 10a, and 10b.

All child protection workers or social services staff having responsibility for child protective duties under section 626.556 shall receive 15 hours of continuing education or in-service training each year relevant to providing child protective services. The local social service agency shall maintain a record of training completed by each employee having responsibility for performing child protective duties.

Subd. 1a.

Child protection worker foundation education.

Any individual who seeks employment as a child protection worker after the commissioner of human services has implemented the foundation training program developed under section 626.5591, subdivision 2, must complete competency-based foundation training during their first six months of employment as a child protection worker.

Subd. 1b.

Background studies.

(a) County employees hired on or after July 1, 2015, who have responsibility for child protection duties or current county employees who are assigned new child protection duties on or after July 1, 2015, are required to undergo a background study. A county may complete these background studies by either:

(1) use of the Department of Human Services NETStudy 2.0 system according to sections 245C.03 and 245C.10; or

(2) an alternative process defined by the county.

(b) County social services agencies and local welfare agencies must initiate background studies before an individual begins a position allowing direct contact with persons served by the agency.

Subd. 2.

Joint training.

The commissioners of human services and public safety shall cooperate in the development of a joint program for training child abuse services professionals in the appropriate techniques for child abuse assessment and investigation. The program shall include but need not be limited to the following areas:

(1) the public policy goals of the state as set forth in section 260C.001 and the role of the assessment or investigation in meeting these goals;

(2) the special duties of child protection workers and law enforcement officers under section 626.556;

(3) the appropriate methods for directing and managing affiliated professionals who may be utilized in providing protective services and strengthening family ties;

(4) the appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims of child abuse and other minors in the course of performing an assessment or an investigation;

(5) the dynamics of child abuse and neglect within family systems and the appropriate methods for interviewing parents in the course of the assessment or investigation, including training in recognizing cases in which one of the parents is a victim of domestic abuse and in need of special legal or medical services;

(6) the legal, evidentiary considerations that may be relevant to the conduct of an assessment or an investigation;

(7) the circumstances under which it is appropriate to remove the alleged abuser or the alleged victim from the home;

(8) the protective social services that are available to protect alleged victims from further abuse, to prevent child abuse and domestic abuse, and to preserve the family unit, and training in the preparation of case plans to coordinate services for the alleged child abuse victim with services for any parents who are victims of domestic abuse;

(9) the methods by which child protection workers and law enforcement workers cooperate in conducting assessments and investigations in order to avoid duplication of efforts; and

(10) appropriate methods for interviewing alleged victims of child abuse and conducting investigations in cases where the alleged victim is developmentally, physically, or mentally disabled.

Subd. 3.

Priority training.

The commissioners of human services and public safety shall provide the program courses described in subdivision 2 at convenient times and locations in the state. The commissioners shall give training priority in the program areas cited in subdivision 2 to persons currently performing assessments and investigations pursuant to section 626.556, subdivisions 10, 10a, and 10b.

Subd. 5.

Revenue.

The commissioner of human services shall add the following funds to the funds appropriated under section 626.5591, subdivision 2, to develop and support training:

(a) The commissioner of human services shall submit claims for federal reimbursement earned through the activities and services supported through Department of Human Services child protection or child welfare training funds. Federal revenue earned must be used to improve and expand training services by the department. The department expenditures eligible for federal reimbursement under this section must not be made from federal funds or funds used to match other federal funds.

(b) Each year, the commissioner of human services shall withhold from funds distributed to each county under Minnesota Rules, parts 9550.0300 to 9550.0370, an amount equivalent to 1.5 percent of each county's annual title XX allocation under section 256M.50. The commissioner must use these funds to ensure decentralization of training.

(c) The federal revenue under this subdivision is available for these purposes until the funds are expended.

626.5591 CHILD PROTECTION WORKERS; TRAINING; ADVISORY COMMITTEE.

Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given unless the specific context indicates otherwise:

(a) "Child protection agency" means an agency authorized to receive reports, conduct assessments and investigations, and make determinations pursuant to section 626.556, subdivision 10.

(b) "Child protection services" means the receipt and assessment of reports of child maltreatment and the provision of services to families and children when maltreatment has occurred or when there is risk of maltreatment. These services include: (1) the assessment of risk to a child alleged to have been abused or neglected; (2) interviews of any person alleged to have abused or neglected a child and the child or children involved in the report, and interviews with persons having facts or knowledge necessary to assess the level of risk to a child and the need for protective intervention; (3) the gathering of written or evidentiary materials; (4) the recording of case findings and determinations; and (5) other actions required by section 626.556, administrative rule, or agency policy.

(c) "Competency-based training" means a course of instruction that provides both information and skills practice, which is based upon clearly stated and measurable instructional objectives, and which requires demonstration of the achievement of a particular standard of skills and knowledge for satisfactory completion.

(d) "Foundation training" means training provided to a local child protection worker after the person has begun to perform child protection duties, but before the expiration of six months of employment as a child protection worker. This foundation training must occur during the performance of job duties and must include an evaluation of the employee's application of skills and knowledge.

(e) "Advanced training" means training provided to a local child protection worker after the person has performed an initial six months of employment as a child protection worker.

Subd. 2.

Training program; development.

The commissioner of human services shall develop a program of competency-based foundation and advanced training for child protection workers if funds are appropriated to the commissioner for this purpose.

626.561 INTERVIEWS WITH CHILD ABUSE VICTIMS.

Subdivision 1.

Policy.

It is the policy of this state to encourage adequate and accurate documentation of the number and content of interviews conducted with alleged child abuse victims during the course of a child abuse assessment, criminal investigation, or prosecution, and to discourage interviews that are unnecessary, duplicative, or otherwise not in the best interests of the child.

Subd. 2.

Definitions.

As used in this section:

(1) "child abuse" means physical or sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2;

(2) "government employee" means an employee of a state or local agency, and any person acting as an agent of a state or local agency;

(3) "interview" means a statement of an alleged child abuse victim which is given or made to a government employee during the course of a child abuse assessment, criminal investigation, or prosecution; and

(4) "record" means an audio or videotape recording of an interview, or a written record of an interview.

Subd. 3.

Record required.

Whenever an interview is conducted, the interviewer must make a record of the interview. The record must contain the following information:

(1) the date, time, place, and duration of the interview;

(2) the identity of the persons present at the interview; and

(3) if the record is in writing, a summary of the information obtained during the interview.

The records shall be maintained by the interviewer in accordance with applicable provisions of section 626.556, subdivision 11 and chapter 13.

Subd. 4.

Guidelines on tape recording of interviews.

Every county attorney's office shall be responsible for developing written guidelines on the tape recording of interviews by government employees who conduct child abuse assessments, criminal investigations, or prosecutions. The guidelines are public data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 14.

Repealed Minnesota Session Laws: 201-H0011-1

Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 7, section 50

Sec. 50. new text beginCONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS METHODOLOGY.new text end

new text begin (a) Effective upon federal approval, for persons using the home and community-based waiver for persons with developmental disabilities whose consumer-directed community supports budgets were reduced by the October 2004, state-set budget methodology, the commissioner of human services must allow exceptions to exceed the state-set budget formula up to the daily average cost during calendar year 2004 or for persons who graduated from school during 2004, the average daily cost during July through December 2004, less one-half of case management and home modifications over $5,000 when the individual's county of financial responsibility determines that: new text end

new text begin (1) necessary alternative services will cost the same or more than the person's current budget; and new text end

new text begin (2) administrative expenses or provider rates will result in fewer hours of needed staffing for the person than under the consumer-directed community supports option. Any exceptions the county grants must be within the county's allowable aggregate amount for the home and community-based waiver for persons with developmental disabilities. new text end

new text begin (b) This section expires on the date the commissioner of human services implements a new consumer-directed community supports budget methodology that is based on information about the services and supports intensity needs of persons using the option and that adequately accounts for the increased costs of adults who graduate from school and need services funded by the waiver during the day. new text end

Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 7, section 51

Sec. 51. new text beginCOSTS ASSOCIATED WITH PHYSICAL ACTIVITIES.new text end

new text begin Effective upon federal approval, the expenses allowed for adults under the consumer-directed community supports option shall include the costs at the lowest rate available considering daily, monthly, semi-annual, annual, or membership rates, including transportation, associated with physical exercise or other physical activities to maintain or improve the person's health and functioning. new text end

Laws 2012, chapter 247, article 4, section 47, as amended by Laws 2014, chapter 312, article 27, section 72; as amended by Laws 2015, chapter 71, article 7, section 58; as amended by Laws 2016, chapter 144, section 1; as amended by Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 54

Sec. 72.

Laws 2012, chapter 247, article 4, section 47, is amended to read:


Sec. 47. COMMISSIONER TO SEEK AMENDMENT FOR EXCEPTION TO CONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS BUDGET METHODOLOGY.

By July 1, 2014, if necessary, the commissioner shall request an amendment to the home and community-based services waivers authorized under Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.092 and 256B.49, to establish an exception to the consumer-directed community supports budget methodology to provide up to 20 percent more funds for those participants who have their 21st birthday and graduate from high school between 2013 to 2015 and are authorized for more services under consumer-directed community supports prior to graduation than the amount they are eligible to receive under the current consumer-directed community supports budget methodology. The exception is limited to those who can demonstrate that they will have to leave consumer-directed community supports and use other waiver services because their need for day or employment supports cannot be met within the consumer-directed community supports budget limits. The commissioner shall consult with the stakeholder group authorized under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0657, subdivision 11, to implement this provision. The exception process shall be effective upon federal approval for persons eligible through June 30, 2017.

Laws 2015, chapter 71, article 7, section 54, as amended by Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 54

Sec. 54. CONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS BUDGET METHODOLOGY EXCEPTION.

(a) No later than September 30, 2015, if necessary, the commissioner of human services shall submit an amendment to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for the home and community-based services waivers authorized under Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.092 and 256B.49, to establish an exception to the consumer-directed community supports budget methodology to provide up to 20 percent more funds for:

(1) consumer-directed community supports participants who have graduated from high school and have a coordinated service and support plan which identifies the need for more services under consumer-directed community supports, either prior to graduation or in order to increase the amount of time a person works or to improve their employment opportunities, than the amount they are eligible to receive under the current consumer-directed community supports budget methodology; and

(2) home and community-based waiver participants who are currently using licensed services for employment supports or services during the day which cost more annually than the person would spend under a consumer-directed community supports plan for individualized employment supports or services during the day.

(b) The exception under paragraph (a) is limited to those persons who can demonstrate either that they will have to leave consumer-directed community supports and use other waiver services because their need for day or employment supports cannot be met within the consumer-directed community supports budget limits or they will move to consumer-directed community supports and their services will cost less than services currently being used.

EFFECTIVE DATE.

The exception under this section is effective October 1, 2015, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when this occurs.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 44, as amended by Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 80

Sec. 80.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 44, is amended to read:


Sec. 44. EXPANSION OF CONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS BUDGET METHODOLOGY EXCEPTION.

(a) No later than September 30, 2017, if necessary, the commissioner of human services shall submit an amendment to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for the home and community-based services waivers authorized under Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.092 and 256B.49, to expand the exception to the consumer-directed community supports budget methodology under Laws 2015, chapter 71, article 7, section 54, to provide up to 30 percent more funds for either:

(1) consumer-directed community supports participants who have a coordinated service and support plan which identifies the need for an increased amount of services or supports under consumer-directed community supports than the amount they are currently receiving under the consumer-directed community supports budget methodology:

(i) to increase the amount of time a person works or otherwise improves employment opportunities;

(ii) to plan a transition to, move to, or live in a setting described in Minnesota Statutes, section 256D.44, subdivision 5, paragraph (g), clause (1), item (iii); or

(iii) to develop and implement a positive behavior support plan; or

(2) home and community-based waiver participants who are currently using licensed providers for (i) employment supports or services during the day; or (ii) residential services, either of which cost more annually than the person would spend under a consumer-directed community supports plan for any or all of the supports needed to meet the goals identified in paragraph (a), clause (1), items (i), (ii), and (iii).

(b) The exception under paragraph (a), clause (1), is limited to those persons who can demonstrate that they will have to discontinue using consumer-directed community supports and accept other non-self-directed waiver services because their supports needed for the goals described in paragraph (a), clause (1), items (i), (ii), and (iii), cannot be met within the consumer-directed community supports budget limits.

(c) The exception under paragraph (a), clause (2), is limited to those persons who can demonstrate that, upon choosing to become a consumer-directed community supports participant, the total cost of services, including the exception, will be less than the cost of current waiver services.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 45, as amended by Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 81

Sec. 81.

Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 6, article 1, section 45, is amended to read:


Sec. 45.

CONSUMER-DIRECTED COMMUNITY SUPPORTS BUDGET METHODOLOGY.

Subdivision 1.

Exception for persons leaving institutions and crisis residential settings.

(a) By September 30, 2017, the commissioner shall establish an institutional and crisis bed consumer-directed community supports budget exception process in the home and community-based services waivers under Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.092 and 256B.49. This budget exception process shall be available for any individual who:

(1) is not offered available and appropriate services within 60 days since approval for discharge from the individual's current institutional setting; and

(2) requires services that are more expensive than appropriate services provided in a noninstitutional setting using the consumer-directed community supports option.

(b) Institutional settings for purposes of this exception include intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities; nursing facilities; acute care hospitals; Anoka Metro Regional Treatment Center; Minnesota Security Hospital; and crisis beds. The budget exception shall be limited to no more than the amount of appropriate services provided in a noninstitutional setting as determined by the lead agency managing the individual's home and community-based services waiver. The lead agency shall notify the Department of Human Services of the budget exception.

Subd. 2.

Shared services.

(a) Medical assistance payments for shared services under consumer-directed community supports are limited to this subdivision.

(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "shared services" means services provided at the same time by the same direct care worker for individuals who have entered into an agreement to share consumer-directed community support services.

(c) Shared services may include services in the personal assistance category as outlined in the consumer-directed community supports community support plan and shared services agreement, except:

(1) services for more than three individuals provided by one worker at one time;

(2) use of more than one worker for the shared services; and

(3) a child care program licensed under chapter 245A or operated by a local school district or private school.

(d) The individuals or, as needed, their representatives shall develop the plan for shared services when developing or amending the consumer-directed community supports plan, and must follow the consumer-directed community supports process for approval of the plan by the lead agency. The plan for shared services in an individual's consumer-directed community supports plan shall include the intention to utilize shared services based on individuals' needs and preferences.

(e) Individuals sharing services must use the same financial management services provider.

(f) Individuals whose consumer-directed community supports community support plans include the intention to utilize shared services must also jointly develop, with the support of their representatives as needed, a shared services agreement. This agreement must include:

(1) the names of the individuals receiving shared services;

(2) the individuals' representative, if identified in their consumer-directed community supports plans, and their duties;

(3) the names of the case managers;

(4) the financial management services provider;

(5) the shared services that must be provided;

(6) the schedule for shared services;

(7) the location where shared services must be provided;

(8) the training specific to each individual served;

(9) the training specific to providing shared services to the individuals identified in the agreement;

(10) instructions to follow all required documentation for time and services provided;

(11) a contingency plan for each of the individuals that accounts for service provision and billing in the absence of one of the individuals in a shared services setting due to illness or other circumstances;

(12) signatures of all parties involved in the shared services; and

(13) agreement by each of the individuals who are sharing services on the number of shared hours for services provided.

(g) Any individual or any individual's representative may withdraw from participating in a shared services agreement at any time.

(h) The lead agency for each individual must authorize the use of the shared services option based on the criteria that the shared service is appropriate to meet the needs, health, and safety of each individual for whom they provide case management or care coordination.

(i) Nothing in this subdivision must be construed to reduce the total authorized consumer-directed community supports budget for an individual.

(j) No later than September 30, 2019, the commissioner of human services shall:

(1) submit an amendment to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for the home and community-based services waivers authorized under Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.0913, 256B.0915, 256B.092, and 256B.49, to allow for a shared services option under consumer-directed community supports; and

(2) with stakeholder input, develop guidance for shared services in consumer-directed community-supports within the Community Based Services Manual. Guidance must include:

(i) recommendations for negotiating payment for one-to-two and one-to-three services; and

(ii) a template of the shared services agreement.

EFFECTIVE DATE.

This section is effective October 1, 2019, or upon federal approval, whichever is later, except for subdivision 2, paragraph (j), which is effective the day following final enactment. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained.