Key: (1) language to be deleted (2) new language
An act
relating to state government; establishing a biennial budget for health and human services; modifying various provisions governing Department of Human Services health programs, the Department of Health, health-related licensing boards, prescription drugs, telehealth, economic supports, child care assistance, child protection, behavioral health, direct care and treatment, disability services, and home and community-based services; continuing Minnesota premium security plan to a certain date; making technical changes; modifying fees; establishing civil and criminal penalties; establishing task forces; requiring reports; appropriating money;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 16A.151, subdivision 2; 62J.495, subdivisions 1, 2, 4; 62J.497, subdivisions 1, 3; 62J.63, subdivisions 1, 2; 62U.04, subdivisions 4, 5; 62V.05, by adding a subdivision; 103H.201, subdivision 1; 119B.03, subdivision 6, by adding a subdivision; 119B.09, subdivision 4; 119B.11, subdivision 2a; 119B.125, subdivision 1; 119B.13, subdivisions 1, 1a, 6, 7; 119B.25; 122A.18, subdivision 8; 124D.142; 136A.128, subdivisions 2, 4; 144.0724, subdivisions 1, 2, 3a, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 12; 144.125, subdivision 1; 144.1501, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 144.212, by adding a subdivision; 144.225, subdivision 2; 144.226, by adding subdivisions; 144.551, subdivision 1; 144.555; 144.9501, subdivision 17; 144.9502, subdivision 3; 144.9504, subdivisions 2, 5; 144A.073, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 145.32, subdivision 1; 145.901, subdivisions 2, 4, by adding a subdivision; 147.033; 148.90, subdivision 2; 148.911; 148.995, subdivision 2; 148.996, subdivisions 2, 4, by adding a subdivision; 148B.30, subdivision 1; 148B.31; 148B.51; 148B.54, subdivision 2; 148E.010, by adding a subdivision; 148E.130, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 151.066, subdivision 3; 151.37, subdivision 2; 171.07, by adding a subdivision; 245.462, subdivision 17; 245.4876, by adding a subdivision; 245.4882, subdivisions 1, 3; 245.4885, subdivision 1, as amended; 245.4889, subdivision 1; 245.4901; 245A.02, by adding a subdivision; 245A.03, subdivision 7; 245A.05; 245A.07, subdivision 1; 245A.10, subdivision 4, as amended; 245A.14, subdivision 4; 245A.16, by adding a subdivision; 245A.50, subdivisions 7, 9; 245C.02, subdivisions 4a, 5, by adding subdivisions; 245C.03; 245C.05, subdivisions 1, 2, 2a, 2b, 2c, 2d, 4, 5; 245C.08, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; 245C.10, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 9a, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, by adding subdivisions; 245C.13, subdivision 2; 245C.14, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 245C.15, by adding a subdivision; 245C.16, subdivisions 1, 2; 245C.17, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 245C.18; 245C.24, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, by adding a subdivision; 245C.30, by adding a subdivision; 245C.32, subdivisions 1a, 2; 245E.07, subdivision 1; 245G.01, subdivisions 13, 26; 245G.06, subdivision 1; 246.54, subdivision 1b; 254A.19, subdivision 5; 254B.01, subdivision 4a, by adding a subdivision; 254B.05, subdivision 5; 254B.12, by adding a subdivision; 256.01, subdivision 28; 256.041; 256.042, subdivision 4; 256.043, subdivisions 3, 4; 256.476, subdivision 11; 256.477; 256.478; 256.479; 256B.04, subdivision 14; 256B.055, subdivision 6; 256B.056, subdivision 10; 256B.06, subdivision 4; 256B.0621, subdivision 10; 256B.0622, subdivision 7a, as amended; 256B.0624, as amended; 256B.0625, subdivisions 3b, as amended, 9, 13, 13c, 13d, 13e, 13g, 13h, 18, 20, 20b, 31, 46, 52, 58, by adding subdivisions; 256B.0631, subdivision 1; 256B.0653, by adding a subdivision; 256B.0654, by adding a subdivision; 256B.0659, subdivisions 11, 17a; 256B.0759, subdivisions 2, 4, by adding subdivisions; 256B.0911, subdivisions 1a, 3a, as amended, 3f; 256B.092, subdivisions 4, 5, 12, by adding a subdivision; 256B.0924, subdivision 6; 256B.094, subdivision 6; 256B.0943, subdivision 1, as amended; 256B.0946, subdivisions 1, as amended, 4, as amended; 256B.0947, subdivisions 2, as amended, 3, as amended, 5, as amended; 256B.0949, subdivision 13, by adding a subdivision; 256B.097, by adding subdivisions; 256B.439, by adding subdivisions; 256B.49, subdivisions 11, 11a, 14, 17, by adding subdivisions; 256B.4905, by adding subdivisions; 256B.4914, subdivisions 5, 6; 256B.5012, by adding a subdivision; 256B.5013, subdivisions 1, 6; 256B.5015, subdivision 2; 256B.69, subdivision 5a, as amended, by adding subdivisions; 256B.75; 256B.76, subdivisions 2, 4; 256B.79, subdivisions 1, 3; 256B.85, subdivisions 2, as amended, 7a, 11, as amended, 14, 16, by adding a subdivision; 256D.051, by adding subdivisions; 256E.30, subdivision 2; 256I.05, subdivision 1c, by adding a subdivision; 256I.06, subdivision 8; 256J.08, subdivisions 15, 53; 256J.10; 256J.21, subdivisions 3, 5; 256J.24, subdivision 5; 256J.33, subdivisions 1, 4; 256J.37, subdivisions 1, 1b; 256J.95, subdivision 9; 256L.07, subdivision 2; 256L.11, subdivisions 6a, 7; 256L.15, subdivision 2; 256N.25, subdivisions 2, 3; 256N.26, subdivisions 11, 13; 256P.01, subdivision 3; 256P.02, subdivisions 1a, 2; 256P.04, subdivisions 4, 8; 256P.05; 256P.06, subdivisions 2, 3; 256S.05, subdivision 2; 256S.18, subdivision 7; 256S.20, subdivision 1; 256S.203; 256S.21; 256S.2101; 257.0755, subdivision 1; 257.076, subdivisions 3, 5; 257.0768, subdivisions 1, 6; 257.0769; 260C.163, subdivision 3; 260C.215, subdivision 4; Laws 2017, chapter 13, article 1, section 15, as amended; Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 14, section 3, as amended; Laws 2020, First Special Session chapter 7, section 1, subdivisions 1, 2, as amended, 3, 5, as amended; Laws 2021, chapter 30, article 12, section 5; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 3; 62A; 119B; 144; 148; 151; 245; 245C; 245G; 254B; 256; 256B; 256S; 260E; 325F; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 16A.724, subdivision 2; 62A.67; 62A.671; 62A.672; 62J.63, subdivision 3; 119B.125, subdivision 5; 144.0721, subdivision 1; 144.0722; 144.0724, subdivision 10; 144.693; 245.4871, subdivision 32a; 256B.0596; 256B.0916, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 11, 12; 256B.0924, subdivision 4a; 256B.097, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6; 256B.49, subdivisions 26, 27; 256B.4905, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6; 256D.051, subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 2a, 3, 3a, 3b, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 18; 256D.052, subdivision 3; 256J.21, subdivisions 1, 2; 256S.20, subdivision 2; 259A.70; Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article 5, section 90; Laws 2020, First Special Session chapter 7, section 1, subdivision 2, as amended; Laws 2021, chapter 30, article 17, section 71; Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.0275; 9505.1693; 9505.1696, subparts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22; 9505.1699; 9505.1701; 9505.1703; 9505.1706; 9505.1712; 9505.1715; 9505.1718; 9505.1724; 9505.1727; 9505.1730; 9505.1733; 9505.1736; 9505.1739; 9505.1742; 9505.1745; 9505.1748.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
(a) The commissioner has the authority to join and participate as a member in a legal entity developing and operating a statewide health information exchange new text begin or to develop and operate an encounter alerting service new text end that shall meet the following criteria:
(1) the legal entity must meet all constitutional and statutory requirements to allow the commissioner to participate; and
(2) the commissioner or the commissioner's designated representative must have the right to participate in the governance of the legal entity under the same terms and conditions and subject to the same requirements as any other member in the legal entity and in that role shall act to advance state interests and lessen the burdens of government.
(b) Notwithstanding chapter 16C, the commissioner may pay the state's prorated share of development-related expenses of the legal entity retroactively from October 29, 2007, regardless of the date the commissioner joins the legal entity as a member.
new text begin For coverage years 2022 to 2024, the commissioner shall establish a performance benchmark under which at least 55 percent of children and adults who were continuously enrolled for at least 11 months in either medical assistance or MinnesotaCare through a managed care or county-based purchasing plan received at least one dental visit during the coverage year. new text end
new text begin For coverage years 2022 to 2024, if a managed care or county-based purchasing plan under contract with the commissioner to provide dental services under this chapter or chapter 256L has a rate of dental utilization that is ten percent or more below the performance benchmark specified in subdivision 1, the commissioner shall require the managed care or county-based purchasing plan to submit a corrective action plan to the commissioner describing how the entity intends to increase dental utilization to meet the performance benchmark. The managed care or county-based purchasing plan must: new text end
new text begin (1) provide a written corrective action plan to the commissioner for approval; new text end
new text begin (2) implement the plan; and new text end
new text begin (3) provide the commissioner with documentation of each corrective action taken. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall determine the extent to which managed care and county-based purchasing plans in the aggregate meet the performance benchmark specified in subdivision 1 for coverage year 2024. If managed care and county-based purchasing plans in the aggregate fail to meet the performance benchmark, the commissioner, after issuing a request for information followed by a request for proposals, shall contract with a dental administrator to administer dental services beginning January 1, 2026, for all recipients of medical assistance and MinnesotaCare, including persons served under fee-for-service and persons receiving services through managed care and county-based purchasing plans. new text end
new text begin (b) The dental administrator must provide administrative services, including but not limited to: new text end
new text begin (1) provider recruitment, contracting, and assistance; new text end
new text begin (2) recipient outreach and assistance; new text end
new text begin (3) utilization management and reviews of medical necessity for dental services; new text end
new text begin (4) dental claims processing; new text end
new text begin (5) coordination of dental care with other services; new text end
new text begin (6) management of fraud and abuse; new text end
new text begin (7) monitoring access to dental services; new text end
new text begin (8) performance measurement; new text end
new text begin (9) quality improvement and evaluation; and new text end
new text begin (10) management of third-party liability requirements. new text end
new text begin (c) Dental administrator payments to contracted dental providers must be at the rates established under sections 256B.76 and 256L.11. new text end
new text begin (d) Recipients must be given a choice of dental provider, including any provider who agrees to provider participation requirements and payment rates established by the commissioner and dental administrator. The dental administrator must comply with the network adequacy and geographic access requirements that apply to managed care and county-based purchasing plans for dental services under section 62K.14. new text end
new text begin (e) The contract with the dental administrator must include a provision that states that if the dental administrator fails to meet, by calendar year 2029, a performance benchmark under which at least 55 percent of children and adults who were continuously enrolled for at least 11 months in either medical assistance or MinnesotaCare received at least one dental visit during the calendar year, the contract must be terminated and the commissioner must enter into a contract with a new dental administrator as soon as practicable. new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner shall implement this subdivision in consultation with representatives of providers who provide dental services to patients enrolled in medical assistance or MinnesotaCare, including but not limited to providers serving primarily low-income and socioeconomically complex populations, and with representatives of managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall submit an annual report beginning March 15, 2022, and ending March 15, 2026, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and finance that includes the percentage for adults and children one through 20 years of age for the most recent complete calendar year receiving at least one dental visit for both fee-for-service and the prepaid medical assistance program. The report must include: new text end
new text begin (1) statewide utilization for both fee-for-service and for the prepaid medical assistance program; new text end
new text begin (2) utilization by county; new text end
new text begin (3) utilization by children receiving dental services through fee-for-service and through a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan; new text end
new text begin (4) utilization by adults receiving dental services through fee-for-service and through a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan. new text end
new text begin (b) The report must also include a description of any corrective action plans required to be submitted under subdivision 2. new text end
new text begin (c) The initial report due on March 15, 2022, must include the utilization metrics described in paragraph (a) for each of the following calendar years: 2017, 2018, 2019, and 2020. new text end
(a) When determined to be effective, economical, and feasible, the commissioner may utilize volume purchase through competitive bidding and negotiation under the provisions of chapter 16C, to provide items under the medical assistance program including but not limited to the following:
(1) eyeglasses;
(2) oxygen. The commissioner shall provide for oxygen needed in an emergency situation on a short-term basis, until the vendor can obtain the necessary supply from the contract dealer;
(3) hearing aids and supplies; deleted text begin anddeleted text end
(4) durable medical equipment, including but not limited to:
(i) hospital beds;
(ii) commodes;
(iii) glide-about chairs;
(iv) patient lift apparatus;
(v) wheelchairs and accessories;
(vi) oxygen administration equipment;
(vii) respiratory therapy equipment;
(viii) electronic diagnostic, therapeutic and life-support systems;new text begin andnew text end
new text begin (ix) allergen-reducing products as described in section 256B.0625, subdivision 67, paragraph (c) or (d); new text end
(5) nonemergency medical transportation level of need determinations, disbursement of public transportation passes and tokens, and volunteer and recipient mileage and parking reimbursements; and
(6) drugs.
(b) Rate changes and recipient cost-sharing under this chapter and chapter 256L do not affect contract payments under this subdivision unless specifically identified.
(c) The commissioner may not utilize volume purchase through competitive bidding and negotiation under the provisions of chapter 16C for special transportation services or incontinence products and related supplies.
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. new text end
Medical assistance may be paid for a pregnant woman who meets the other eligibility criteria of this section and whose unborn child would be eligible as a needy child under subdivision 10 if born and living with the woman. In accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 435.956, the commissioner must accept self-attestation of pregnancy unless the agency has information that is not reasonably compatible with such attestation. For purposes of this subdivision, a woman is considered pregnant for deleted text begin 60 daysdeleted text end new text begin 12 monthsnew text end postpartum.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval has been obtained. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall require women who are applying for the continuation of medical assistance coverage following the end of the deleted text begin 60-daydeleted text end new text begin 12-monthnew text end postpartum period to update their income and asset information and to submit any required income or asset verification.
(b) The commissioner shall determine the eligibility of private-sector health care coverage for infants less than one year of age eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 10, or 256B.057, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), and shall pay for private-sector coverage if this is determined to be cost-effective.
(c) The commissioner shall verify assets and income for all applicants, and for all recipients upon renewal.
(d) The commissioner shall utilize information obtained through the electronic service established by the secretary of the United States Department of Health and Human Services and other available electronic data sources in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, sections 435.940 to 435.956, to verify eligibility requirements. The commissioner shall establish standards to define when information obtained electronically is reasonably compatible with information provided by applicants and enrollees, including use of self-attestation, to accomplish real-time eligibility determinations and maintain program integrity.
(e) Each person applying for or receiving medical assistance under section 256B.055, subdivision 7, and any other person whose resources are required by law to be disclosed to determine the applicant's or recipient's eligibility must authorize the commissioner to obtain information from financial institutions to identify unreported accounts as required in section 256.01, subdivision 18f. If a person refuses or revokes the authorization, the commissioner may determine that the applicant or recipient is ineligible for medical assistance. For purposes of this paragraph, an authorization to identify unreported accounts meets the requirements of the Right to Financial Privacy Act, United States Code, title 12, chapter 35, and need not be furnished to the financial institution.
(f) County and tribal agencies shall comply with the standards established by the commissioner for appropriate use of the asset verification system specified in section 256.01, subdivision 18f.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval has been obtained. new text end
(a) Eligibility for medical assistance is limited to citizens of the United States, qualified noncitizens as defined in this subdivision, and other persons residing lawfully in the United States. Citizens or nationals of the United States must cooperate in obtaining satisfactory documentary evidence of citizenship or nationality according to the requirements of the federal Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, Public Law 109-171.
(b) "Qualified noncitizen" means a person who meets one of the following immigration criteria:
(1) admitted for lawful permanent residence according to United States Code, title 8;
(2) admitted to the United States as a refugee according to United States Code, title 8, section 1157;
(3) granted asylum according to United States Code, title 8, section 1158;
(4) granted withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8, section 1253(h);
(5) paroled for a period of at least one year according to United States Code, title 8, section 1182(d)(5);
(6) granted conditional entrant status according to United States Code, title 8, section 1153(a)(7);
(7) determined to be a battered noncitizen by the United States Attorney General according to the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, title V of the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations Bill, Public Law 104-200;
(8) is a child of a noncitizen determined to be a battered noncitizen by the United States Attorney General according to the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, title V, of the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations Bill, Public Law 104-200; or
(9) determined to be a Cuban or Haitian entrant as defined in section 501(e) of Public Law 96-422, the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980.
(c) All qualified noncitizens who were residing in the United States before August 22, 1996, who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance with federal financial participation.
(d) Beginning December 1, 1996, qualified noncitizens who entered the United States on or after August 22, 1996, and who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter are eligible for medical assistance with federal participation for five years if they meet one of the following criteria:
(1) refugees admitted to the United States according to United States Code, title 8, section 1157;
(2) persons granted asylum according to United States Code, title 8, section 1158;
(3) persons granted withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8, section 1253(h);
(4) veterans of the United States armed forces with an honorable discharge for a reason other than noncitizen status, their spouses and unmarried minor dependent children; or
(5) persons on active duty in the United States armed forces, other than for training, their spouses and unmarried minor dependent children.
Beginning July 1, 2010, children and pregnant women who are noncitizens described in paragraph (b) or who are lawfully present in the United States as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 8, section 103.12, and who otherwise meet eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance with federal financial participation as provided by the federal Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2009, Public Law 111-3.
(e) Nonimmigrants who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter are eligible for the benefits as provided in paragraphs (f) to (h). For purposes of this subdivision, a "nonimmigrant" is a person in one of the classes listed in United States Code, title 8, section 1101(a)(15).
(f) Payment shall also be made for care and services that are furnished to noncitizens, regardless of immigration status, who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, if such care and services are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical condition.
(g) For purposes of this subdivision, the term "emergency medical condition" means a medical condition that meets the requirements of United States Code, title 42, section 1396b(v).
(h)(1) Notwithstanding paragraph (g), services that are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical condition are limited to the following:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or by an ambulance service licensed under chapter 144E that are directly related to the treatment of an emergency medical condition;
(ii) services delivered in an inpatient hospital setting following admission from an emergency room or clinic for an acute emergency condition; and
(iii) follow-up services that are directly related to the original service provided to treat the emergency medical condition and are covered by the global payment made to the provider.
(2) Services for the treatment of emergency medical conditions do not include:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or inpatient setting to treat a nonemergency condition;
(ii) organ transplants, stem cell transplants, and related care;
(iii) services for routine prenatal care;
(iv) continuing care, including long-term care, nursing facility services, home health care, adult day care, day training, or supportive living services;
(v) elective surgery;
(vi) outpatient prescription drugs, unless the drugs are administered or dispensed as part of an emergency room visit;
(vii) preventative health care and family planning services;
(viii) rehabilitation services;
(ix) physical, occupational, or speech therapy;
(x) transportation services;
(xi) case management;
(xii) prosthetics, orthotics, durable medical equipment, or medical supplies;
(xiii) dental services;
(xiv) hospice care;
(xv) audiology services and hearing aids;
(xvi) podiatry services;
(xvii) chiropractic services;
(xviii) immunizations;
(xix) vision services and eyeglasses;
(xx) waiver services;
(xxi) individualized education programs; or
(xxii) chemical dependency treatment.
(i) Pregnant noncitizens who are ineligible for federally funded medical assistance because of immigration status, are not covered by a group health plan or health insurance coverage according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 457.310, and who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance through the period of pregnancy, including labor and delivery, and deleted text begin 60 daysdeleted text end new text begin 12 monthsnew text end postpartumdeleted text begin , to the extent federal funds are available under title XXI of the Social Security Act, and the state children's health insurance programdeleted text end .
(j) Beginning October 1, 2003, persons who are receiving care and rehabilitation services from a nonprofit center established to serve victims of torture and are otherwise ineligible for medical assistance under this chapter are eligible for medical assistance without federal financial participation. These individuals are eligible only for the period during which they are receiving services from the center. Individuals eligible under this paragraph shall not be required to participate in prepaid medical assistance. The nonprofit center referenced under this paragraph may establish itself as a provider of mental health targeted case management services through a county contract under section 256.0112, subdivision 6. If the nonprofit center is unable to secure a contract with a lead county in its service area, then, notwithstanding the requirements of section 256B.0625, subdivision 20, the commissioner may negotiate a contract with the nonprofit center for provision of mental health targeted case management services. When serving clients who are not the financial responsibility of their contracted lead county, the nonprofit center must gain the concurrence of the county of financial responsibility prior to providing mental health targeted case management services for those clients.
(k) Notwithstanding paragraph (h), clause (2), the following services are covered as emergency medical conditions under paragraph (f) except where coverage is prohibited under federal law for services under clauses (1) and (2):
(1) dialysis services provided in a hospital or freestanding dialysis facility;
(2) surgery and the administration of chemotherapy, radiation, and related services necessary to treat cancer if the recipient has a cancer diagnosis that is not in remission and requires surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation treatment; and
(3) kidney transplant if the person has been diagnosed with end stage renal disease, is currently receiving dialysis services, and is a potential candidate for a kidney transplant.
(l) Effective July 1, 2013, recipients of emergency medical assistance under this subdivision are eligible for coverage of the elderly waiver services provided under chapter 256S, and coverage of rehabilitative services provided in a nursing facility. The age limit for elderly waiver services does not apply. In order to qualify for coverage, a recipient of emergency medical assistance is subject to the assessment and reassessment requirements of section 256B.0911. Initial and continued enrollment under this paragraph is subject to the limits of available funding.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. If federal approval is not obtained, this section is effective on the effective date of the amendment to Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.055, subdivision 6, and shall be funded using only state funds. The commissioner shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval has been obtained. new text end
(a) Medical assistance covers dental services.
(b) Medical assistance dental coverage for nonpregnant adults is limited to the following services:
(1) comprehensive exams, limited to once every five years;
(2) periodic exams, limited to one per year;
(3) limited exams;
(4) bitewing x-rays, limited to one per year;
(5) periapical x-rays;
(6) panoramic x-rays, limited to one every five years except (1) when medically necessary for the diagnosis and follow-up of oral and maxillofacial pathology and trauma or (2) once every two years for patients who cannot cooperate for intraoral film due to a developmental disability or medical condition that does not allow for intraoral film placement;
(7) prophylaxis, limited to one per year;
(8) application of fluoride varnish, limited to one per year;
(9) posterior fillings, all at the amalgam rate;
(10) anterior fillings;
(11) endodontics, limited to root canals on the anterior and premolars only;
(12) removable prostheses, each dental arch limited to one every six years;
(13) oral surgery, limited to extractions, biopsies, and incision and drainage of abscesses;
(14) palliative treatment and sedative fillings for relief of pain; deleted text begin anddeleted text end
(15) full-mouth debridement, limited to one every five yearsdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; andnew text end
new text begin (16) nonsurgical treatment for periodontal disease, including scaling and root planing once every two years for each quadrant, and routine periodontal maintenance procedures. new text end
(c) In addition to the services specified in paragraph (b), medical assistance covers the following services for adults, if provided in an outpatient hospital setting or freestanding ambulatory surgical center as part of outpatient dental surgery:
(1) periodontics, limited to periodontal scaling and root planing once every two years;
(2) general anesthesia; and
(3) full-mouth survey once every five years.
(d) Medical assistance covers medically necessary dental services for children and pregnant women. The following guidelines apply:
(1) posterior fillings are paid at the amalgam rate;
(2) application of sealants are covered once every five years per permanent molar for children only;
(3) application of fluoride varnish is covered once every six months; and
(4) orthodontia is eligible for coverage for children only.
(e) In addition to the services specified in paragraphs (b) and (c), medical assistance covers the following services for adults:
(1) house calls or extended care facility calls for on-site delivery of covered services;
(2) behavioral management when additional staff time is required to accommodate behavioral challenges and sedation is not used;
(3) oral or IV sedation, if the covered dental service cannot be performed safely without it or would otherwise require the service to be performed under general anesthesia in a hospital or surgical center; and
(4) prophylaxis, in accordance with an appropriate individualized treatment plan, but no more than four times per year.
(f) The commissioner shall not require prior authorization for the services included in paragraph (e), clauses (1) to (3), and shall prohibit managed care and county-based purchasing plans from requiring prior authorization for the services included in paragraph (e), clauses (1) to (3), when provided under sections 256B.69, 256B.692, and 256L.12.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. new text end
(a) Medical assistance covers drugs, except for fertility drugs when specifically used to enhance fertility, if prescribed by a licensed practitioner and dispensed by a licensed pharmacist, by a physician enrolled in the medical assistance program as a dispensing physician, or by a physician, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse employed by or under contract with a community health board as defined in section 145A.02, subdivision 5, for the purposes of communicable disease control.
(b) The dispensed quantity of a prescription drug must not exceed a 34-day supply, unless authorized by the commissionerdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin or the drug appears on the 90-day supply list published by the commissioner. The 90-day supply list shall be published by the commissioner on the department's website. The commissioner may add to, delete from, and otherwise modify the 90-day supply list after providing public notice and the opportunity for a 15-day public comment period. The 90-day supply list may include cost-effective generic drugs and shall not include controlled substances.new text end
(c) For the purpose of this subdivision and subdivision 13d, an "active pharmaceutical ingredient" is defined as a substance that is represented for use in a drug and when used in the manufacturing, processing, or packaging of a drug becomes an active ingredient of the drug product. An "excipient" is defined as an inert substance used as a diluent or vehicle for a drug. The commissioner shall establish a list of active pharmaceutical ingredients and excipients which are included in the medical assistance formulary. Medical assistance covers selected active pharmaceutical ingredients and excipients used in compounded prescriptions when the compounded combination is specifically approved by the commissioner or when a commercially available product:
(1) is not a therapeutic option for the patient;
(2) does not exist in the same combination of active ingredients in the same strengths as the compounded prescription; and
(3) cannot be used in place of the active pharmaceutical ingredient in the compounded prescription.
(d) Medical assistance covers the following over-the-counter drugs when prescribed by a licensed practitioner or by a licensed pharmacist who meets standards established by the commissioner, in consultation with the board of pharmacy: antacids, acetaminophen, family planning products, aspirin, insulin, products for the treatment of lice, vitamins for adults with documented vitamin deficiencies, vitamins for children under the age of seven and pregnant or nursing women, and any other over-the-counter drug identified by the commissioner, in consultation with the Formulary Committee, as necessary, appropriate, and cost-effective for the treatment of certain specified chronic diseases, conditions, or disorders, and this determination shall not be subject to the requirements of chapter 14. A pharmacist may prescribe over-the-counter medications as provided under this paragraph for purposes of receiving reimbursement under Medicaid. When prescribing over-the-counter drugs under this paragraph, licensed pharmacists must consult with the recipient to determine necessity, provide drug counseling, review drug therapy for potential adverse interactions, and make referrals as needed to other health care professionals.
(e) Effective January 1, 2006, medical assistance shall not cover drugs that are coverable under Medicare Part D as defined in the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, Public Law 108-173, section 1860D-2(e), for individuals eligible for drug coverage as defined in the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, Public Law 108-173, section 1860D-1(a)(3)(A). For these individuals, medical assistance may cover drugs from the drug classes listed in United States Code, title 42, section 1396r-8(d)(2), subject to this subdivision and subdivisions 13a to 13g, except that drugs listed in United States Code, title 42, section 1396r-8(d)(2)(E), shall not be covered.
(f) Medical assistance covers drugs acquired through the federal 340B Drug Pricing Program and dispensed by 340B covered entities and ambulatory pharmacies under common ownership of the 340B covered entity. Medical assistance does not cover drugs acquired through the federal 340B Drug Pricing Program and dispensed by 340B contract pharmacies.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), medical assistance covers self-administered hormonal contraceptives prescribed and dispensed by a licensed pharmacist in accordance with section 151.37, subdivision 14; nicotine replacement medications prescribed and dispensed by a licensed pharmacist in accordance with section 151.37, subdivision 15; and opiate antagonists used for the treatment of an acute opiate overdose prescribed and dispensed by a licensed pharmacist in accordance with section 151.37, subdivision 16.
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022. new text end
The commissioner, after receiving recommendations from professional medical associations and professional pharmacy associations, and consumer groups shall designate a Formulary Committee to carry out duties as described in subdivisions 13 to 13g. The Formulary Committee shall be comprised of four licensed physicians actively engaged in the practice of medicine in Minnesotanew text begin ,new text end one of whom must be actively engaged in the treatment of persons with mental illness; at least three licensed pharmacists actively engaged in the practice of pharmacy in Minnesota; and one consumer representative; the remainder to be made up of health care professionals who are licensed in their field and have recognized knowledge in the clinically appropriate prescribing, dispensing, and monitoring of covered outpatient drugs. Members of the Formulary Committee shall not be employed by the Department of Human Services, but the committee shall be staffed by an employee of the department who shall serve as an ex officio, nonvoting member of the committee. The department's medical director shall also serve as an ex officio, nonvoting member for the committee. Committee members shall serve three-year terms and may be reappointed by the commissioner. The Formulary Committee shall meet at least twice per year. The commissioner may require more frequent Formulary Committee meetings as needed. An honorarium of $100 per meeting and reimbursement for mileage shall be paid to each committee member in attendance. The Formulary Committee expires June 30, deleted text begin 2022deleted text end new text begin 2023new text end .
(a) The commissioner shall establish a drug formulary. Its establishment and publication shall not be subject to the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act, but the Formulary Committee shall review and comment on the formulary contents.
(b) The formulary shall not include:
(1) drugs, active pharmaceutical ingredients, or products for which there is no federal funding;
(2) over-the-counter drugs, except as provided in subdivision 13;
deleted text begin (3) drugs or active pharmaceutical ingredients used for weight loss, except that medically necessary lipase inhibitors may be covered for a recipient with type II diabetes; deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end drugs or active pharmaceutical ingredients when used for the treatment of impotence or erectile dysfunction;
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end drugs or active pharmaceutical ingredients for which medical value has not been established;
deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end drugs from manufacturers who have not signed a rebate agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to section 1927 of title XIX of the Social Security Act; and
deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end medical cannabis as defined in section 152.22, subdivision 6.
(c) If a single-source drug used by at least two percent of the fee-for-service medical assistance recipients is removed from the formulary due to the failure of the manufacturer to sign a rebate agreement with the Department of Health and Human Services, the commissioner shall notify prescribing practitioners within 30 days of receiving notification from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) that a rebate agreement was not signed.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) The basis for determining the amount of payment shall be the lower of the ingredient costs of the drugs plus the professional dispensing fee; or the usual and customary price charged to the public. The usual and customary price means the lowest price charged by the provider to a patient who pays for the prescription by cash, check, or charge account and includes prices the pharmacy charges to a patient enrolled in a prescription savings club or prescription discount club administered by the pharmacy or pharmacy chain. The amount of payment basis must be reduced to reflect all discount amounts applied to the charge by any third-party provider/insurer agreement or contract for submitted charges to medical assistance programs. The net submitted charge may not be greater than the patient liability for the service. The professional dispensing fee shall be deleted text begin $10.48deleted text end new text begin $10.77new text end for prescriptions filled with legend drugs meeting the definition of "covered outpatient drugs" according to United States Code, title 42, section 1396r-8(k)(2). The dispensing fee for intravenous solutions that must be compounded by the pharmacist shall be deleted text begin $10.48deleted text end new text begin $10.77new text end per deleted text begin bagdeleted text end new text begin claimnew text end . The professional dispensing fee for prescriptions filled with over-the-counter drugs meeting the definition of covered outpatient drugs shall be deleted text begin $10.48deleted text end new text begin $10.77new text end for dispensed quantities equal to or greater than the number of units contained in the manufacturer's original package. The professional dispensing fee shall be prorated based on the percentage of the package dispensed when the pharmacy dispenses a quantity less than the number of units contained in the manufacturer's original package. The pharmacy dispensing fee for prescribed over-the-counter drugs not meeting the definition of covered outpatient drugs shall be $3.65 for quantities equal to or greater than the number of units contained in the manufacturer's original package and shall be prorated based on the percentage of the package dispensed when the pharmacy dispenses a quantity less than the number of units contained in the manufacturer's original package. The National Average Drug Acquisition Cost (NADAC) shall be used to determine the ingredient cost of a drug. For drugs for which a NADAC is not reported, the commissioner shall estimate the ingredient cost at the wholesale acquisition cost minus two percent. The ingredient cost of a drug for a provider participating in the federal 340B Drug Pricing Program shall be either the 340B Drug Pricing Program ceiling price established by the Health Resources and Services Administration or NADAC, whichever is lower. Wholesale acquisition cost is defined as the manufacturer's list price for a drug or biological to wholesalers or direct purchasers in the United States, not including prompt pay or other discounts, rebates, or reductions in price, for the most recent month for which information is available, as reported in wholesale price guides or other publications of drug or biological pricing data. The maximum allowable cost of a multisource drug may be set by the commissioner and it shall be comparable to the actual acquisition cost of the drug product and no higher than the NADAC of the generic product. Establishment of the amount of payment for drugs shall not be subject to the requirements of the Administrative Procedure Act.
(b) Pharmacies dispensing prescriptions to residents of long-term care facilities using an automated drug distribution system meeting the requirements of section 151.58, or a packaging system meeting the packaging standards set forth in Minnesota Rules, part 6800.2700, that govern the return of unused drugs to the pharmacy for reuse, may employ retrospective billing for prescription drugs dispensed to long-term care facility residents. A retrospectively billing pharmacy must submit a claim only for the quantity of medication used by the enrolled recipient during the defined billing period. A retrospectively billing pharmacy must use a billing period not less than one calendar month or 30 days.
(c) A pharmacy provider using packaging that meets the standards set forth in Minnesota Rules, part 6800.2700, is required to credit the department for the actual acquisition cost of all unused drugs that are eligible for reuse, unless the pharmacy is using retrospective billing. The commissioner may permit the drug clozapine to be dispensed in a quantity that is less than a 30-day supply.
(d) If a pharmacy dispenses a multisource drug, the ingredient cost shall be the NADAC of the generic product or the maximum allowable cost established by the commissioner unless prior authorization for the brand name product has been granted according to the criteria established by the Drug Formulary Committee as required by subdivision 13f, paragraph (a), and the prescriber has indicated "dispense as written" on the prescription in a manner consistent with section 151.21, subdivision 2.
(e) The basis for determining the amount of payment for drugs administered in an outpatient setting shall be the lower of the usual and customary cost submitted by the provider, 106 percent of the average sales price as determined by the United States Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to title XVIII, section 1847a of the federal Social Security Act, the specialty pharmacy rate, or the maximum allowable cost set by the commissioner. If average sales price is unavailable, the amount of payment must be lower of the usual and customary cost submitted by the provider, the wholesale acquisition cost, the specialty pharmacy rate, or the maximum allowable cost set by the commissioner. The commissioner shall discount the payment rate for drugs obtained through the federal 340B Drug Pricing Program by 28.6 percent. The payment for drugs administered in an outpatient setting shall be made to the administering facility or practitioner. A retail or specialty pharmacy dispensing a drug for administration in an outpatient setting is not eligible for direct reimbursement.
(f) The commissioner may establish maximum allowable cost rates for specialty pharmacy products that are lower than the ingredient cost formulas specified in paragraph (a). The commissioner may require individuals enrolled in the health care programs administered by the department to obtain specialty pharmacy products from providers with whom the commissioner has negotiated lower reimbursement rates. Specialty pharmacy products are defined as those used by a small number of recipients or recipients with complex and chronic diseases that require expensive and challenging drug regimens. Examples of these conditions include, but are not limited to: multiple sclerosis, HIV/AIDS, transplantation, hepatitis C, growth hormone deficiency, Crohn's Disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain forms of cancer. Specialty pharmaceutical products include injectable and infusion therapies, biotechnology drugs, antihemophilic factor products, high-cost therapies, and therapies that require complex care. The commissioner shall consult with the Formulary Committee to develop a list of specialty pharmacy products subject to maximum allowable cost reimbursement. In consulting with the Formulary Committee in developing this list, the commissioner shall take into consideration the population served by specialty pharmacy products, the current delivery system and standard of care in the state, and access to care issues. The commissioner shall have the discretion to adjust the maximum allowable cost to prevent access to care issues.
(g) Home infusion therapy services provided by home infusion therapy pharmacies must be paid at rates according to subdivision 8d.
(h) The commissioner shall contract with a vendor to conduct a cost of dispensing survey for all pharmacies that are physically located in the state of Minnesota that dispense outpatient drugs under medical assistance. The commissioner shall ensure that the vendor has prior experience in conducting cost of dispensing surveys. Each pharmacy enrolled with the department to dispense outpatient prescription drugs to fee-for-service members must respond to the cost of dispensing survey. The commissioner may sanction a pharmacy under section 256B.064 for failure to respond. The commissioner shall require the vendor to measure a single statewide cost of dispensing for new text begin specialty prescription drugs and a single statewide cost of dispensing for nonspecialty prescription drugs for new text end all responding pharmacies to measure the mean, mean weighted by total prescription volume, mean weighted by medical assistance prescription volume, median, median weighted by total prescription volume, and median weighted by total medical assistance prescription volume. The commissioner shall post a copy of the final cost of dispensing survey report on the department's website. The initial survey must be completed no later than January 1, 2021, and repeated every three years. The commissioner shall provide a summary of the results of each cost of dispensing survey and provide recommendations for any changes to the dispensing fee to the chairs and ranking members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over medical assistance pharmacy reimbursement.
(i) The commissioner shall increase the ingredient cost reimbursement calculated in paragraphs (a) and (f) by 1.8 percent for prescription and nonprescription drugs subject to the wholesale drug distributor tax under section 295.52.
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022, except the amendment to paragraph (h) is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall adopt and implement a preferred drug list by January 1, 2004. The commissioner may enter into a contract with a vendor for the purpose of participating in a preferred drug list and supplemental rebate program. The commissioner shall ensure that any contract meets all federal requirements and maximizes federal financial participation. The commissioner shall publish the preferred drug list annually in the State Register and shall maintain an accurate and up-to-date list on the agency website.
(b) The commissioner may add to, delete from, and otherwise modify the preferred drug list, after consulting with the Formulary Committee and appropriate medical specialists and providing public notice and the opportunity for public comment.
(c) The commissioner shall adopt and administer the preferred drug list as part of the administration of the supplemental drug rebate program. Reimbursement for prescription drugs not on the preferred drug list may be subject to prior authorization.
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, "preferred drug list" means a list of prescription drugs within designated therapeutic classes selected by the commissioner, for which prior authorization based on the identity of the drug or class is not required.
(e) The commissioner shall seek any federal waivers or approvals necessary to implement this subdivision.
new text begin (f) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), before the commissioner may delete a drug from the preferred drug list or modify the inclusion of a drug on the preferred drug list, the commissioner shall consider any implications that the deletion or modification may have on state public health policies or initiatives and any impact that the deletion or modification may have on increasing health disparities in the state. Prior to deleting a drug or modifying the inclusion of a drug, the commissioner shall also conduct a public hearing. The commissioner shall provide adequate notice to the public and the commissioner of health prior to the hearing that specifies the drug that the commissioner is proposing to delete or modify, any public medical or clinical analysis that the commissioner has relied on in proposing the deletion or modification, and evidence that the commissioner has evaluated the impact of the proposed deletion or modification on public health and health disparities. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end To the extent authorized by rule of the state agency, medical assistance covers the most appropriate and cost-effective form of transportation incurred by any ambulatory eligible person for obtaining nonemergency medical care.
new text begin (b) The commissioner may provide a monthly public transit pass to recipients who are well-served by public transit for the recipient's nonemergency medical transportation needs. Any recipient who is eligible for one public transit trip for a medically necessary covered service may select to receive a transit pass for that month. Recipients who do not have any transportation needs for a medically necessary service in any given month or who have received a transit pass for that month through another program administered by a county or Tribe are not eligible for a transit pass that month. The commissioner shall not require recipients to select a monthly transit pass if the recipient's transportation needs cannot be served by public transit systems. Recipients who receive a monthly transit pass are not eligible for other modes of transportation, unless an unexpected need arises that cannot be accessed through public transit. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021. new text end
(a) Medical assistance covers medical supplies and equipment. Separate payment outside of the facility's payment rate shall be made for wheelchairs and wheelchair accessories for recipients who are residents of intermediate care facilities for the developmentally disabled. Reimbursement for wheelchairs and wheelchair accessories for ICF/DD recipients shall be subject to the same conditions and limitations as coverage for recipients who do not reside in institutions. A wheelchair purchased outside of the facility's payment rate is the property of the recipient.
(b) Vendors of durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, or medical supplies must enroll as a Medicare provider.
(c) When necessary to ensure access to durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, or medical supplies, the commissioner may exempt a vendor from the Medicare enrollment requirement if:
(1) the vendor supplies only one type of durable medical equipment, prosthetic, orthotic, or medical supply;
(2) the vendor serves ten or fewer medical assistance recipients per year;
(3) the commissioner finds that other vendors are not available to provide same or similar durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, or medical supplies; and
(4) the vendor complies with all screening requirements in this chapter and Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 455. The commissioner may also exempt a vendor from the Medicare enrollment requirement if the vendor is accredited by a Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services approved national accreditation organization as complying with the Medicare program's supplier and quality standards and the vendor serves primarily pediatric patients.
(d) Durable medical equipment means a device or equipment that:
(1) can withstand repeated use;
(2) is generally not useful in the absence of an illness, injury, or disability; and
(3) is provided to correct or accommodate a physiological disorder or physical condition or is generally used primarily for a medical purpose.
(e) Electronic tablets may be considered durable medical equipment if the electronic tablet will be used as an augmentative and alternative communication system as defined under subdivision 31a, paragraph (a). To be covered by medical assistance, the device must be locked in order to prevent use not related to communication.
(f) Notwithstanding the requirement in paragraph (e) that an electronic tablet must be locked to prevent use not as an augmentative communication device, a recipient of waiver services may use an electronic tablet for a use not related to communication when the recipient has been authorized under the waiver to receive one or more additional applications that can be loaded onto the electronic tablet, such that allowing the additional use prevents the purchase of a separate electronic tablet with waiver funds.
(g) An order or prescription for medical supplies, equipment, or appliances must meet the requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 440.70.
new text begin (h) Allergen-reducing products provided according to subdivision 67, paragraph (c) or (d), shall be considered durable medical equipment. new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end Medical assistance covers early and periodic screening, diagnosis, and treatment services (EPSDT). new text begin In administering the EPSDT program, the commissioner shall, at a minimum:new text end
new text begin (1) provide information to children and families, using the most effective mode identified, regarding: new text end
new text begin (i) the benefits of preventative health care visits; new text end
new text begin (ii) the services available as part of the EPSDT program; and new text end
new text begin (iii) assistance finding a provider, transportation, or interpreter services; new text end
new text begin (2) maintain an up-to-date periodicity schedule published in the department policy manual, taking into consideration the most up-to-date community standard of care; and new text end
new text begin (3) maintain up-to-date policies for providers on the delivery of EPSDT services that are in the provider manual on the department website. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner may contract for the administration of the outreach services as required within the EPSDT program. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner may contract for the required EPSDT outreach services, including but not limited to children enrolled or attributed to an integrated health partnership demonstration project described in section 256B.0755. Integrated health partnerships that choose to include the EPSDT outreach services within the integrated health partnership's contracted responsibilities must receive compensation from the commissioner on a per-member per-month basis for each included child. Integrated health partnerships must accept responsibility for the effectiveness of outreach services it delivers. For children who are not a part of the demonstration project, the commissioner may contract for the administration of the outreach services. new text end
new text begin (d) new text end The payment amount for a complete EPSDT screening shall not include charges for health care services and products that are available at no cost to the provider and shall not exceed the rate established per Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0445, item M, effective October 1, 2010.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, except that paragraph (c) is effective January 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) Medical assistance covers enhanced asthma care services and related products to be provided in the children's homes for children with poorly controlled asthma. To be eligible for services and products under this subdivision, a child must: new text end
new text begin (1) have poorly controlled asthma defined by having received health care for the child's asthma from a hospital emergency department at least one time in the past year or have been hospitalized for the treatment of asthma at least one time in the past year; and new text end
new text begin (2) receive a referral for services and products under this subdivision from a treating health care provider. new text end
new text begin (b) Covered services include home visits provided by a registered environmental health specialist or lead risk assessor currently credentialed by the Department of Health or a healthy homes specialist credentialed by the Building Performance Institute. new text end
new text begin (c) Covered products include the following allergen-reducing products that are identified as needed and recommended for the child by a registered environmental health specialist, healthy homes specialist, lead risk assessor, certified asthma educator, public health nurse, or other health care professional providing asthma care for the child, and proven to reduce asthma triggers: new text end
new text begin (1) allergen encasements for mattresses, box springs, and pillows; new text end
new text begin (2) an allergen-rated vacuum cleaner, filters, and bags; new text end
new text begin (3) a dehumidifier and filters; new text end
new text begin (4) HEPA single-room air cleaners and filters; new text end
new text begin (5) integrated pest management, including traps and starter packages of food storage containers; new text end
new text begin (6) a damp mopping system; new text end
new text begin (7) if the child does not have access to a bed, a waterproof hospital-grade mattress; and new text end
new text begin (8) for homeowners only, furnace filters. new text end
new text begin (d) The commissioner shall determine additional products that may be covered as new best practices for asthma care are identified. new text end
new text begin (e) A home assessment is a home visit to identify asthma triggers in the home and to provide education on trigger-reducing products. A child is limited to two home assessments except that a child may receive an additional home assessment if the child moves to a new home; if a new asthma trigger, including tobacco smoke, enters the home; or if the child's health care provider identifies a new allergy for the child, including an allergy to mold, pests, pets, or dust mites. The commissioner shall determine the frequency with which a child may receive a product under paragraph (c) or (d) based on the reasonable expected lifetime of the product. new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) Except as provided in subdivision 2, the medical assistance benefit plan shall include the following cost-sharing for all recipients, effective for services provided on or after September 1, 2011:
(1) $3 per nonpreventive visit, except as provided in paragraph (b). For purposes of this subdivision, a visit means an episode of service which is required because of a recipient's symptoms, diagnosis, or established illness, and which is delivered in an ambulatory setting by a physician or physician assistant, chiropractor, podiatrist, nurse midwife, advanced practice nurse, audiologist, optician, or optometrist;
(2) $3.50 for nonemergency visits to a hospital-based emergency room, except that this co-payment shall be increased to $20 upon federal approval;
(3) $3 per brand-name drug prescription deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end $1 per generic drug prescription, new text begin and $1 per prescription for a brand-name multisource drug listed in preferred status on the preferred drug list, new text end subject to a $12 per month maximum for prescription drug co-payments. No co-payments shall apply to antipsychotic drugs when used for the treatment of mental illness;
(4) a family deductible equal to $2.75 per month per family and adjusted annually by the percentage increase in the medical care component of the CPI-U for the period of September to September of the preceding calendar year, rounded to the next higher five-cent increment; and
(5) total monthly cost-sharing must not exceed five percent of family income. For purposes of this paragraph, family income is the total earned and unearned income of the individual and the individual's spouse, if the spouse is enrolled in medical assistance and also subject to the five percent limit on cost-sharing. This paragraph does not apply to premiums charged to individuals described under section 256B.057, subdivision 9.
(b) Recipients of medical assistance are responsible for all co-payments and deductibles in this subdivision.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the commissioner, through the contracting process under sections 256B.69 and 256B.692, may allow managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans to waive the family deductible under paragraph (a), clause (4). The value of the family deductible shall not be included in the capitation payment to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans. Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans shall certify annually to the commissioner the dollar value of the family deductible.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the commissioner may waive the collection of the family deductible described under paragraph (a), clause (4), from individuals and allow long-term care and waivered service providers to assume responsibility for payment.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the commissioner, through the contracting process under section 256B.0756 shall allow the pilot program in Hennepin County to waive co-payments. The value of the co-payments shall not be included in the capitation payment amount to the integrated health care delivery networks under the pilot program.
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) A managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, or dental benefits administrator must provide individual dental providers, upon request, the applicable fee schedules for covered dental services provided under the contract between the dental provider and the managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, or dental benefits administrator. new text end
new text begin (b) A managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, or dental benefits administrator may fulfill this requirement by making the applicable fee schedules available through a secure web portal for the contracted dental provider to access. new text end
new text begin (c) For purposes of this subdivision, "dental benefits administrator" means an organization licensed under chapter 62C or 62D that contracts with a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan to provide covered dental care services to enrollees of the plan. new text end
new text begin (a) By January 1, 2022, the managed care plans, county-based purchasing plans, and dental benefit administrators that contract with the commissioner or subcontract with plans to provide dental services to medical assistance or MinnesotaCare enrollees shall develop a uniform credentialing process for dental providers. new text end
new text begin (b) The process developed in this subdivision must include a uniform credentialing application that must be available in electronic format and accessible on each plan or dental benefit administrator's website. The process developed under this subdivision must include an option to electronically submit a completed application. The uniform credentialing application must be available for free to providers. new text end
new text begin (c) If applicable, a managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, dental benefit administrator, contractor, or vendor that reviews and approves a credentialing application must notify a provider regarding a deficiency on a submitted credentialing application form no later than 30 business days after receiving the application form from the provider. new text end
new text begin (d) For purposes of this subdivision, "dental benefits administrator" means an organization, including an organization licensed under chapter 62C or 62D, that contracts with a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan to provide covered dental care services to enrollees of the plan. new text end
new text begin (e) This subdivision must be in compliance with the federal requirements for Medicaid and Basic Health Program provider enrollment. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner, by December 15 of each year, beginning December 15, 2021, shall submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health care policy and finance a report on managed care and county-based purchasing plan provider reimbursement rates. new text end
new text begin (b) The report must include, for each managed care and county-based purchasing plan, the mean and median provider reimbursement rates by county for the calendar year preceding the reporting year, for the five most common billing codes statewide across all plans, in each of the following provider service categories if within the county there are more than three medical assistance enrolled providers providing the specific service within the specific category: new text end
new text begin (1) physician prenatal services; new text end
new text begin (2) physician preventive services; new text end
new text begin (3) physician services other than prenatal or preventive; new text end
new text begin (4) dental services; new text end
new text begin (5) inpatient hospital services; new text end
new text begin (6) outpatient hospital services; and new text end
new text begin (7) mental health services. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall also include in the report: new text end
new text begin (1) the mean and median reimbursement rates across all plans by county for the calendar year preceding the reporting year for the billing codes and provider service categories described in paragraph (b); and new text end
new text begin (2) the mean and median fee-for-service reimbursement rates by county for the calendar year preceding the reporting year for the billing codes and provider service categories described in paragraph (b). new text end
(a) For outpatient hospital facility fee payments for services rendered on or after October 1, 1992, the commissioner of human services shall pay the lower of (1) submitted charge, or (2) 32 percent above the rate in effect on June 30, 1992, except for those services for which there is a federal maximum allowable payment. Effective for services rendered on or after January 1, 2000, payment rates for nonsurgical outpatient hospital facility fees and emergency room facility fees shall be increased by eight percent over the rates in effect on December 31, 1999, except for those services for which there is a federal maximum allowable payment. Services for which there is a federal maximum allowable payment shall be paid at the lower of (1) submitted charge, or (2) the federal maximum allowable payment. Total aggregate payment for outpatient hospital facility fee services shall not exceed the Medicare upper limit. If it is determined that a provision of this section conflicts with existing or future requirements of the United States government with respect to federal financial participation in medical assistance, the federal requirements prevail. The commissioner may, in the aggregate, prospectively reduce payment rates to avoid reduced federal financial participation resulting from rates that are in excess of the Medicare upper limitations.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), payment for outpatient, emergency, and ambulatory surgery hospital facility fee services for critical access hospitals designated under section 144.1483, clause (9), shall be paid on a cost-based payment system that is based on the cost-finding methods and allowable costs of the Medicare program. Effective for services provided on or after July 1, 2015, rates established for critical access hospitals under this paragraph for the applicable payment year shall be the final payment and shall not be settled to actual costs. Effective for services delivered on or after the first day of the hospital's fiscal year ending in 2017, the rate for outpatient hospital services shall be computed using information from each hospital's Medicare cost report as filed with Medicare for the year that is two years before the year that the rate is being computed. Rates shall be computed using information from Worksheet C series until the department finalizes the medical assistance cost reporting process for critical access hospitals. After the cost reporting process is finalized, rates shall be computed using information from Title XIX Worksheet D series. The outpatient rate shall be equal to ancillary cost plus outpatient cost, excluding costs related to rural health clinics and federally qualified health clinics, divided by ancillary charges plus outpatient charges, excluding charges related to rural health clinics and federally qualified health clinics.
(c) Effective for services provided on or after July 1, 2003, rates that are based on the Medicare outpatient prospective payment system shall be replaced by a budget neutral prospective payment system that is derived using medical assistance data. The commissioner shall provide a proposal to the 2003 legislature to define and implement this provision.new text begin When implementing prospective payment methodologies, the commissioner shall use general methods and rate calculation parameters similar to the applicable Medicare prospective payment systems for services delivered in outpatient hospital and ambulatory surgical center settings unless other payment methodologies for these services are specified in this chapter.new text end
(d) For fee-for-service services provided on or after July 1, 2002, the total payment, before third-party liability and spenddown, made to hospitals for outpatient hospital facility services is reduced by .5 percent from the current statutory rate.
(e) In addition to the reduction in paragraph (d), the total payment for fee-for-service services provided on or after July 1, 2003, made to hospitals for outpatient hospital facility services before third-party liability and spenddown, is reduced five percent from the current statutory rates. Facilities defined under section 256.969, subdivision 16, are excluded from this paragraph.
(f) In addition to the reductions in paragraphs (d) and (e), the total payment for fee-for-service services provided on or after July 1, 2008, made to hospitals for outpatient hospital facility services before third-party liability and spenddown, is reduced three percent from the current statutory rates. Mental health services and facilities defined under section 256.969, subdivision 16, are excluded from this paragraph.
(a) Effective for services rendered on or after October 1, 1992, the commissioner shall make payments for dental services as follows:
(1) dental services shall be paid at the lower of (i) submitted charges, or (ii) 25 percent above the rate in effect on June 30, 1992; and
(2) dental rates shall be converted from the 50th percentile of 1982 to the 50th percentile of 1989, less the percent in aggregate necessary to equal the above increases.
(b) Beginning October 1, 1999, the payment for tooth sealants and fluoride treatments shall be the lower of (1) submitted charge, or (2) 80 percent of median 1997 charges.
(c) Effective for services rendered on or after January 1, 2000, payment rates for dental services shall be increased by three percent over the rates in effect on December 31, 1999.
(d) Effective for services provided on or after January 1, 2002, payment for diagnostic examinations and dental x-rays provided to children under age 21 shall be the lower of (1) the submitted charge, or (2) 85 percent of median 1999 charges.
(e) The increases listed in paragraphs (b) and (c) shall be implemented January 1, 2000, for managed care.
(f) Effective for dental services rendered on or after October 1, 2010, by a state-operated dental clinic, payment shall be paid on a reasonable cost basis that is based on the Medicare principles of reimbursement. This payment shall be effective for services rendered on or after January 1, 2011, to recipients enrolled in managed care plans or county-based purchasing plans.
(g) Beginning in fiscal year 2011, if the payments to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f), including state and federal shares, are less than $1,850,000 per fiscal year, a supplemental state payment equal to the difference between the total payments in paragraph (f) and $1,850,000 shall be paid from the general fund to state-operated services for the operation of the dental clinics.
deleted text begin (h) If the cost-based payment system for state-operated dental clinics described in paragraph (f) does not receive federal approval, then state-operated dental clinics shall be designated as critical access dental providers under subdivision 4, paragraph (b), and shall receive the critical access dental reimbursement rate as described under subdivision 4, paragraph (a). deleted text end
deleted text begin (i) Effective for services rendered on or after September 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, payment rates for dental services shall be reduced by three percent. This reduction does not apply to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f). deleted text end
deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end Effective for services rendered on or after January 1, 2014new text begin , through December 31, 2021new text end , payment rates for dental services shall be increased by five percent from the rates in effect on December 31, 2013. This increase does not apply to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f), federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, and Indian health services. Effective January 1, 2014, payments made to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans under sections 256B.69, 256B.692, and 256L.12 shall reflect the payment increase described in this paragraph.
deleted text begin (k) Effective for services rendered on or after July 1, 2015, through December 31, 2016, the commissioner shall increase payment rates for services furnished by dental providers located outside of the seven-county metropolitan area by the maximum percentage possible above the rates in effect on June 30, 2015, while remaining within the limits of funding appropriated for this purpose. This increase does not apply to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f), federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, and Indian health services. Effective January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, payments to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans under sections 256B.69 and 256B.692 shall reflect the payment increase described in this paragraph. The commissioner shall require managed care and county-based purchasing plans to pass on the full amount of the increase, in the form of higher payment rates to dental providers located outside of the seven-county metropolitan area. deleted text end
deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end Effective for services provided on or after January 1, 2017new text begin , through December 31, 2021new text end , the commissioner shall increase payment rates by 9.65 percent for dental services provided outside of the seven-county metropolitan area. This increase does not apply to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f), federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, or Indian health services. Effective January 1, 2017, payments to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans under sections 256B.69 and 256B.692 shall reflect the payment increase described in this paragraph.
deleted text begin (m)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end Effective for services provided on or after July 1, 2017new text begin , through December 31, 2022new text end , the commissioner shall increase payment rates by 23.8 percent for dental services provided to enrollees under the age of 21. This rate increase does not apply to state-operated dental clinics in paragraph (f), federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, or Indian health centers. This rate increase does not apply to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans.
new text begin (k) Effective for services provided on or after January 1, 2022, the commissioner shall exclude from medical assistance and MinnesotaCare payments for dental services to public health and community health clinics the 20 percent increase authorized under Laws 1989, chapter 327, section 5, subdivision 2, paragraph (b). new text end
new text begin (l) Effective for services provided on or after January 1, 2022, the commissioner shall increase payment rates by 98 percent for all dental services. This rate increase does not apply to state-operated dental clinics, federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, or Indian health services. new text end
new text begin (m) Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans shall reimburse providers at a level that is at least equal to the rate paid under fee-for-service for dental services. If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner must adjust the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans for that contract year to reflect the removal of this provision. Contracts between managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans and providers to whom this paragraph applies must allow recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted in accordance with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed an amount equal to any increase in rates that results from this provision. If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner shall not implement this paragraph for subsequent coverage years. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall increase reimbursements to dentists and dental clinics deemed by the commissioner to be critical access dental providers. For dental services rendered on or after July 1, 2016new text begin , through December 31, 2021new text end , the commissioner shall increase reimbursement by 37.5 percent above the reimbursement rate that would otherwise be paid to the critical access dental provider, except as specified under paragraph (b). The commissioner shall pay the managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans in amounts sufficient to reflect increased reimbursements to critical access dental providers as approved by the commissioner.
(b) For dental services rendered on or after July 1, 2016new text begin , through December 31, 2021new text end , by a dental clinic or dental group that meets the critical access dental provider designation under paragraph deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end , clause (4), and is owned and operated by a health maintenance organization licensed under chapter 62D, the commissioner shall increase reimbursement by 35 percent above the reimbursement rate that would otherwise be paid to the critical access provider.
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall increase reimbursement to dentists and dental clinics deemed by the commissioner to be critical access dental providers. For dental services provided on or after January 1, 2022, by a dental provider deemed to be a critical access dental provider under paragraph (f), the commissioner shall increase reimbursement by 20 percent above the reimbursement rate that would otherwise be paid to the critical access dental provider. This paragraph does not apply to federally qualified health centers, rural health centers, state-operated dental clinics, or Indian health centers. new text end
new text begin (d) Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans shall increase reimbursement to critical access dental providers by at least the amount specified in paragraph (c). If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner must adjust the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans for that contract year to reflect the removal of this provision. Contracts between managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans and providers to whom this paragraph applies must allow recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted in accordance with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed an amount equal to any increase in rates that results from this provision. If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner shall not implement this paragraph for subsequent coverage years. new text end
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end Critical access dental payments made under deleted text begin paragraph (a) or (b)deleted text end new text begin this subdivisionnew text end for dental services provided by a critical access dental provider to an enrollee of a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan must not reflect any capitated payments or cost-based payments from the managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan. The managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan must base the additional critical access dental payment on the amount that would have been paid for that service had the dental provider been paid according to the managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan's fee schedule that applies to dental providers that are not paid under a capitated payment or cost-based payment.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The commissioner shall designate the following dentists and dental clinics as critical access dental providers:
(1) nonprofit community clinics that:
(i) have nonprofit status in accordance with chapter 317A;
(ii) have tax exempt status in accordance with the Internal Revenue Code, section 501(c)(3);
(iii) are established to provide oral health services to patients who are low income, uninsured, have special needs, and are underserved;
(iv) have professional staff familiar with the cultural background of the clinic's patients;
(v) charge for services on a sliding fee scale designed to provide assistance to low-income patients based on current poverty income guidelines and family size;
(vi) do not restrict access or services because of a patient's financial limitations or public assistance status; and
(vii) have free care available as needed;
(2) federally qualified health centers, rural health clinics, and public health clinics;
(3) hospital-based dental clinics owned and operated by a city, county, or former state hospital as defined in section 62Q.19, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (4);
(4) a dental clinic or dental group owned and operated by a nonprofit corporation in accordance with chapter 317A with more than 10,000 patient encounters per year with patients who are uninsured or covered by medical assistance or MinnesotaCare;
(5) a dental clinic owned and operated by the University of Minnesota or the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities system; and
(6) private practicing dentists if:
(i) the dentist's office is located within the seven-county metropolitan area and more than 50 percent of the dentist's patient encounters per year are with patients who are uninsured or covered by medical assistance or MinnesotaCare; or
(ii) the dentist's office is located outside the seven-county metropolitan area and more than 25 percent of the dentist's patient encounters per year are with patients who are uninsured or covered by medical assistance or MinnesotaCare.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "Adverse outcomes" means maternal opiate addiction, other reportable prenatal substance abuse, low birth weight, or preterm birth.
(c) "Qualified integrated perinatal care collaborative" or "collaborative" means a combination of (1) members of community-based organizations that represent communities within the identified targeted populations, and (2) local or tribally based service entities, including health care, public health, social services, mental health, chemical dependency treatment, and community-based providers, determined by the commissioner to meet the criteria for the provision of integrated care and enhanced services for enrollees within targeted populations.
(d) "Targeted populations" means pregnant medical assistance enrollees residing in deleted text begin geographic areasdeleted text end new text begin communitiesnew text end identified by the commissioner as being at above-average risk for adverse outcomes.
The commissioner shall award grants to qualifying applicants to support interdisciplinary, integrated perinatal care. Grant funds must be distributed through a request for proposals process to a designated lead agency within an entity that has been determined to be a qualified integrated perinatal care collaborative or within an entity in the process of meeting the qualifications to become a qualified integrated perinatal care collaborativedeleted text begin , and priority shall be given to qualified integrated perinatal care collaboratives that received grants under this section prior to January 1, 2019deleted text end . Grant awards must be used to support interdisciplinary, team-based needs assessments, planning, and implementation of integrated care and enhanced services for targeted populations. In determining grant award amounts, the commissioner shall consider the identified health and social risks linked to adverse outcomes and attributed to enrollees within the identified targeted population.
new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services, in consultation with the commissioner of health, shall submit a biennial report beginning April 15, 2022, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health policy and finance on the effectiveness of state maternal and infant health policies and programs addressing health disparities in prenatal and postpartum health outcomes. For each reporting period, the commissioner shall determine the number of women enrolled in the medical assistance program who are pregnant or are in the 12-month postpartum period of eligibility and the percentage of women in that group who, during each reporting period: new text end
new text begin (1) received prenatal services; new text end
new text begin (2) received doula services; new text end
new text begin (3) gave birth by primary cesarean section; new text end
new text begin (4) gave birth to an infant who received care in the neonatal intensive care unit; new text end
new text begin (5) gave birth to an infant who was premature or who had a low birth weight; new text end
new text begin (6) experienced postpartum hemorrhage; new text end
new text begin (7) received postpartum care within six weeks of giving birth; and new text end
new text begin (8) received a prenatal and postpartum follow-up home visit from a public health nurse. new text end
new text begin (b) These measurements must be determined through an analysis of the utilization data from claims submitted during each reporting period and by any other appropriate means. The measurements for each metric must be determined in the aggregate stratified by race and ethnicity. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall establish a baseline for the metrics described in paragraph (a) using calendar year 2017. The initial report due April 15, 2022, must contain the baseline metrics and the metrics data for calendar years 2019 and 2020. The following reports due biennially thereafter must contain the metrics for the preceding two calendar years. new text end
(a) To be eligible, a family or individual must not have access to subsidized health coverage that is affordable and provides minimum value as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 26, section 1.36B-2.
(b) new text begin Notwithstanding paragraph (a), an individual who has access through a spouse's or parent's employer to subsidized health coverage that is deemed minimum essential coverage under Code of Federal Regulations, title 26, section 1.36B-2, is eligible for MinnesotaCare if the employee's portion of the annual premium for employee and dependent coverage exceeds the required contribution percentage, as defined for premium tax credit eligibility under United States Code, title 26, section 36B(c)(2)(C)(i)(II), as indexed according to item (iv) of that section, of the individual's household income for the coverage year.new text end
new text begin (c) new text end This subdivision does not apply to a family or individual who no longer has employer-subsidized coverage due to the employer terminating health care coverage as an employee benefit.
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2023. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end Effective for dental services provided to MinnesotaCare enrollees on or after January 1, 2018new text begin , to December 31, 2021new text end , the commissioner shall increase payment rates to dental providers by 54 percent.
new text begin (b) Effective for dental services provided on or after January 1, 2022, payment rates to dental providers shall equal the payment rates described in section 256B.76, subdivision 2. new text end
new text begin (c) new text end Payments made to prepaid health plans under section 256L.12 shall reflect the payment deleted text begin increasedeleted text end new text begin ratesnew text end described in this subdivision. The prepaid health plans under contract with the commissioner shall provide payments to dental providers that are at least equal to a rate that includes the payment rate specified in this subdivision, and if applicable to the provider, the rates described under subdivision 7.
new text begin (a) new text end Effective for dental services provided to MinnesotaCare enrollees on or after July 1, 2017, the commissioner shall increase payment rates to dentists and dental clinics deemed by the commissioner to be critical access providers under section 256B.76, subdivision 4, by 20 percent above the payment rate that would otherwise be paid to the provider. The commissioner shall pay the prepaid health plans under contract with the commissioner amounts sufficient to reflect this rate increase. deleted text begin The prepaid health plan must pass this rate increase to providers who have been identified by the commissioner as critical access dental providers under section 256B.76, subdivision 4.deleted text end
new text begin (b) Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans shall increase reimbursement to critical access dental providers by at least the amount specified in paragraph (a). If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner must adjust the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans for that contract year to reflect the removal of this provision. Contracts between managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans and providers to whom this paragraph applies must allow recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted in accordance with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed an amount equal to any increase in rates that results from this provision. If, for any coverage year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner shall not implement this paragraph for subsequent coverage years. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall establish a sliding fee scale to determine the percentage of monthly individual or family income that households at different income levels must pay to obtain coverage through the MinnesotaCare program. The sliding fee scale must be based on the enrollee's monthly individual or family income.
(b) Beginning January 1, 2014, MinnesotaCare enrollees shall pay premiums according to the premium scale specified in paragraph (d).
(c) Paragraph (b) does not apply to:
(1) children 20 years of age or younger; and
(2) individuals with household incomes below 35 percent of the federal poverty guidelines.
(d) The following premium scale is established for each individual in the household who is 21 years of age or older and enrolled in MinnesotaCare:
Federal Poverty Guideline Greater than or Equal to |
Less than |
Individual Premium Amount |
35% | 55% | $4 |
55% | 80% | $6 |
80% | 90% | $8 |
90% | 100% | $10 |
100% | 110% | $12 |
110% | 120% | $14 |
120% | 130% | $15 |
130% | 140% | $16 |
140% | 150% | $25 |
150% | 160% | $37 |
160% | 170% | $44 |
170% | 180% | $52 |
180% | 190% | $61 |
190% | 200% | $71 |
200% | $80 |
new text begin (e) Beginning January 1, 2021, the commissioner shall adjust the premium scale established under paragraph (d) to ensure that premiums do not exceed the amount that an individual would have been required to pay if the individual was enrolled in an applicable benchmark plan in accordance with the Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 600.505(a)(1). new text end
new text begin This section is effective retroactively from January 1, 2021 and applies to premiums due on or after that date. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services shall seek all federal waivers and approvals necessary to extend medical assistance postpartum coverage, as provided in Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.055, subdivision 6, and 256B.06, subdivision 4. new text end
new text begin Medical assistance covers treatment, testing, and vaccination for COVID-19 as required under and for the time periods specified in section 9811 of the federal American Rescue Plan Act, Public Law 117-2. new text end
new text begin This section is effective retroactively from March 11, 2021. new text end
new text begin (a) The Dental Services Advisory Committee, in collaboration with stakeholders, shall design a dental home demonstration project and present recommendations by February 1, 2022, to the commissioner and the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health finance and policy. new text end
new text begin (b) The Dental Services Advisory Committee, at a minimum, shall engage with the following stakeholders: the Minnesota Department of Health, the Minnesota Dental Association, the Minnesota Dental Hygienists' Association, the University of Minnesota School of Dentistry, dental programs operated by the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities system, and representatives of each of the following dental provider types serving medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees: new text end
new text begin (1) private practice dental clinics for which medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees comprise more than 25 percent of the clinic's patient load; new text end
new text begin (2) private practice dental clinics for which medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees comprise 25 percent or less of the clinic's patient load; new text end
new text begin (3) nonprofit dental clinics with a primary focus on serving Indigenous communities and other communities of color; new text end
new text begin (4) nonprofit dental clinics with a primary focus on providing eldercare; new text end
new text begin (5) nonprofit dental clinics with a primary focus on serving children; new text end
new text begin (6) nonprofit dental clinics providing services within the seven-county metropolitan area; new text end
new text begin (7) nonprofit dental clinics providing services outside of the seven-county metropolitan area; and new text end
new text begin (8) multispecialty hospital-based dental clinics. new text end
new text begin (c) The dental home demonstration project shall give incentives for qualified providers that provide high-quality, patient-centered, comprehensive, and coordinated oral health services. The demonstration project shall seek to increase the number of new dental providers serving medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees and increase the capacity of existing providers. The demonstration project must test payment methods that establish value-based incentives to: new text end
new text begin (1) increase the extent to which current dental providers serve medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees across their lifespan; new text end
new text begin (2) develop service models that create equity and reduce disparities in access to dental services for high-risk and medically and socially complex enrollees; new text end
new text begin (3) advance alternative delivery models of care within community settings using evidence-based approaches and innovative workforce teams; and new text end
new text begin (4) improve the quality of dental care by meeting dental home goals. new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, providers who received payment for durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, or supplies between January 1, 2018, and June 30, 2019, that were subject to the upper payment limits under United States Code, title 42, section 1396b(i)(27), shall not be required to repay any amount received in excess of the allowable amount to either the state or the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. new text end
new text begin (b) The state shall repay with state funds any amount owed to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for the federal financial participation amount received by the state for payments identified in paragraph (a) in excess of the amount allowed effective January 1, 2018, and the state shall hold harmless the providers who received these payments from recovery of both the state and federal share of the amount determined to have exceeded the Medicare upper payment limit. new text end
new text begin (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the commissioner from recouping past overpayments due to false claims or for reasons other than exceeding the Medicare upper payment limits or from recouping future overpayments including the recoupment of payments that exceed the upper Medicare payment limits. new text end
new text begin By March 1, 2022, the commissioner of human services, after soliciting recommendations from professional medical associations, professional pharmacy associations, and consumer groups, shall submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services an overview of the Formulary Committee under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0625, subdivision 13c, that includes: new text end
new text begin (1) a review of the current composition of and any recommended revisions to the membership of the committee. The review shall ensure the committee is composed of adequate representation of consumers and health care professionals with expertise in clinical prescribing; and new text end
new text begin (2) a summary of the committee's policies and procedures for the operation of the committee, opportunities for public input, providing public notice, and gathering public comments on the committee's recommendations and proposed actions. new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.057, subdivision 9, 256L.06, subdivision 3, or any other provision to the contrary, the commissioner shall not collect any unpaid premium for a coverage month that occurred during the COVID-19 public health emergency declared by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, periodic data matching under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0561, subdivision 2, may be suspended for up to six months following the last day of the COVID-19 public health emergency declared by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. new text end
new text begin (c) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, the requirement for the commissioner of human services to issue an annual report on periodic data matching under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0561, is suspended for one year following the last day of the COVID-19 public health emergency declared by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall review the Medicaid dental program delivery systems in states that have enacted and implemented a carve out dental delivery system. At a minimum, the review must compare in those states program design, provider rates, program costs, including administrative costs, and quality metrics for children one through 20 years of age with at least one preventive dental service within a year. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner, in consultation with interested stakeholders, shall also conduct an analysis of dental provider hesitancy to participate in the medical assistance program as an enrolled provider. new text end
new text begin (c) By February 1, 2022, the commissioner shall submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and finance the results of the review and analysis described in this section. The commissioner may combine the requirements in this section with the dental home demonstration project report due on February 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services shall present recommendations on dental rate rebasing to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services finance and policy by February 1, 2022. The recommendations must be consistent with the proposed design of the dental home demonstration project and must address the frequency of rebasing, whether rebasing should incorporate an inflation factor, and other factors relevant to ensuring patient access to dental providers and the delivery of high quality dental care. new text end
new text begin If managed care and county-based purchasing plans do not meet in the aggregate the dental access performance benchmark under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0371, subdivision 1, for coverage year 2024, the general fund base for the department of human services for the 2026-2027 biennium shall include $107,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $122,000 in fiscal year 2027 for staffing necessary to contract with a dental administrator, and $5,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $1,000 in fiscal year 2027 for systems changes necessary to contract with a dental administrator. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.0275; 9505.1693; 9505.1696, subparts 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, and 22; 9505.1699; 9505.1701; 9505.1703; 9505.1706; 9505.1712; 9505.1715; 9505.1718; 9505.1724; 9505.1727; 9505.1730; 9505.1733; 9505.1736; 9505.1739; 9505.1742; 9505.1745; and 9505.1748, new text end new text begin are repealed. new text end
new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 16A.724, subdivision 2, new text end new text begin is repealed effective July 1, 2025. new text end
new text begin (a) The board must initiate background studies under section 245C.031 of: new text end
new text begin (1) each navigator; new text end
new text begin (2) each in-person assister; and new text end
new text begin (3) each certified application counselor. new text end
new text begin (b) The board may initiate the background studies required by paragraph (a) using the online NETStudy 2.0 system operated by the commissioner of human services. new text end
new text begin (c) The board shall not permit any individual to provide any service or function listed in paragraph (a) until the board has received notification from the commissioner of human services indicating that the individual: new text end
new text begin (1) is not disqualified under chapter 245C; or new text end
new text begin (2) is disqualified, but has received a set aside from the board of that disqualification according to sections 245C.22 and 245C.23. new text end
new text begin (d) The board or its delegate shall review a reconsideration request of an individual in paragraph (a), including granting a set aside, according to the procedures and criteria in chapter 245C. The board shall notify the individual and the Department of Human Services of the board's decision. new text end
(a) The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the Board of School Administrators must deleted text begin obtain adeleted text end new text begin initiatenew text end criminal history background deleted text begin check ondeleted text end new text begin studies ofnew text end all first-time deleted text begin teachingdeleted text end applicants for new text begin educator new text end licenses under their jurisdiction. Applicants must include with their licensure applications:
(1) an executed criminal history consent form, including fingerprints; and
(2) payment to conduct the background deleted text begin checkdeleted text end new text begin studynew text end . The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board must deposit payments received under this subdivision in an account in the special revenue fund. Amounts in the account are annually appropriated to the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board to pay for the costs of background deleted text begin checksdeleted text end new text begin studiesnew text end on applicants for licensure.
(b) The background deleted text begin checkdeleted text end new text begin studynew text end for all first-time teaching applicants for licenses must include a review of information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, including criminal history data as defined in section 13.87, and must also include a review of the national criminal records repository. The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension is authorized to exchange fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of the criminal history check. deleted text begin The superintendent shall recover the cost to the bureau of a background check through the fee charged to the applicant under paragraph (a).deleted text end
(c) The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board deleted text begin must contract withdeleted text end new text begin may initiate criminal history background studies throughnew text end the commissioner of human services new text begin according to section 245C.031 new text end to deleted text begin conduct background checks anddeleted text end obtain background deleted text begin checkdeleted text end new text begin studynew text end data required under this chapter.
new text begin The governor shall appoint an ombudsperson in the unclassified service to assist family child care providers with licensing, compliance, and other issues facing family child care providers. The ombudsperson must be selected without regard to the person's political affiliation and must have been a licensed family child care provider for at least three years. The ombudsperson shall serve a term of four years, which may be renewed, and may be removed prior to the end of the term for just cause. new text end
new text begin (a) The ombudsperson's duties shall include: new text end
new text begin (1) advocating on behalf of a family child care provider to address all areas of concern related to the provision of child care services, including licensing monitoring activities, licensing actions, and other interactions with state and county licensing staff; new text end
new text begin (2) providing recommendations for family child care improvement or family child care provider education; new text end
new text begin (3) operating a telephone line to answer questions, receive complaints, and discuss agency actions when a family child care provider believes that the provider's rights or program may have been adversely affected; and new text end
new text begin (4) assisting a family child care license applicant with navigating the application process. new text end
new text begin (b) The ombudsperson must report annually by December 31 to the commissioner and the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over child care on the services provided by the ombudsperson to child care providers, including the number and locations of child care providers served and the activities of the ombudsperson in carrying out the duties under this section. The commissioner shall determine the form of the report and may specify additional reporting requirements. new text end
new text begin The ombudsperson may appoint and compensate out of available funds a deputy, confidential secretary, and other employees in the unclassified service as authorized by law. The ombudsperson and the full-time staff are members of the Minnesota State Retirement Association. The ombudsperson may delegate to staff members any authority or duties of the office, except the duty to provide reports to the governor, commissioner, or the legislature. new text end
new text begin (a) The ombudsperson or designee, excluding volunteers, has access to any data of a state agency necessary for the discharge of the ombudsperson's duties, including records classified as confidential data on individuals or private data on individuals under chapter 13 or any other law. The ombudsperson's data request must relate to a specific case and is subject to section 13.03, subdivision 4. If the data concerns an individual, the ombudsperson or designee shall first obtain the individual's consent. If the individual is unable to consent and has no parent or legal guardian, then the ombudsperson's or designee's access to the data is authorized by this section. new text end
new text begin (b) The ombudsperson and designees must adhere to the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act and must not disseminate any private or confidential data on individuals unless specifically authorized by state, local, or federal law or pursuant to a court order. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner and any county agency must provide the ombudsperson copies of all fix-it tickets, correction orders, and licensing actions issued to family child care providers. new text end
new text begin In carrying out the duties under this section, the ombudsperson may, independently of the department, provide testimony to the legislature, make periodic reports to the legislature, and address areas of concern to family child care providers. new text end
new text begin The ombudsperson or designee is not civilly liable for any action taken under this section if the action was taken in good faith, was within the scope of the ombudsperson's authority, and did not constitute willful or reckless misconduct. new text end
new text begin The ombudsperson must be a person who has knowledge and experience concerning the provision of family child care. The ombudsperson must be experienced in dealing with governmental entities, interpretation of laws and regulations, investigations, record keeping, report writing, public speaking, and management. A person is not eligible to serve as the ombudsperson while running for or holding public office or while holding a family child care license. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall provide the ombudsperson with the necessary office space, supplies, equipment, and clerical support to effectively perform the duties under this section. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall post on the department's website the mailing address, e-mail address, and telephone number for the office of the ombudsperson. The commissioner shall provide family child care providers with the mailing address, e-mail address, and telephone number of the ombudsperson's office on the family child care licensing website and upon request of a family child care applicant or provider. Counties must provide family child care applicants and providers with the name, mailing address, e-mail address, and telephone number of the ombudsperson's office upon request. new text end
new text begin (b) The ombudsperson must approve all postings and notices required by the department and counties under this subdivision. new text end
(a) The commissioner may deny a license if an applicant or controlling individual:
(1) fails to submit a substantially complete application after receiving notice from the commissioner under section 245A.04, subdivision 1;
(2) fails to comply with applicable laws or rules;
(3) knowingly withholds relevant information from or gives false or misleading information to the commissioner in connection with an application for a license or during an investigation;
(4) has a disqualification that has not been set aside under section 245C.22 and no variance has been granted;
(5) has an individual living in the household who received a background study under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2), who has a disqualification that has not been set aside under section 245C.22, and no variance has been granted;
(6) is associated with an individual who received a background study under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (6), who may have unsupervised access to children or vulnerable adults, and who has a disqualification that has not been set aside under section 245C.22, and no variance has been granted;
(7) fails to comply with section 245A.04, subdivision 1, paragraph (f) or (g);
(8) fails to demonstrate competent knowledge as required by section 245A.04, subdivision 6;
(9) has a history of noncompliance as a license holder or controlling individual with applicable laws or rules, including but not limited to this chapter and chapters 119B and 245C; deleted text begin ordeleted text end
(10) is prohibited from holding a license according to section 245.095deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; ornew text end
new text begin (11) for a family foster setting, has nondisqualifying background study information, as described in section 245C.05, subdivision 4, that reflects on the individual's ability to safely provide care to foster children. new text end
(b) An applicant whose application has been denied by the commissioner must be given notice of the denial, which must state the reasons for the denial in plain language. Notice must be given by certified mail or personal service. The notice must state the reasons the application was denied and must inform the applicant of the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. The applicant may appeal the denial by notifying the commissioner in writing by certified mail or personal service. If mailed, the appeal must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within 20 calendar days after the applicant received the notice of denial. If an appeal request is made by personal service, it must be received by the commissioner within 20 calendar days after the applicant received the notice of denial. Section 245A.08 applies to hearings held to appeal the commissioner's denial of an application.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
(a) In addition to making a license conditional under section 245A.06, the commissioner may suspend or revoke the license, impose a fine, or secure an injunction against the continuing operation of the program of a license holder who does not comply with applicable law or rulenew text begin , or who has nondisqualifying background study information, as described in section 245C.05, subdivision 4, that reflects on the license holder's ability to safely provide care to foster childrennew text end . When applying sanctions authorized under this section, the commissioner shall consider the nature, chronicity, or severity of the violation of law or rule and the effect of the violation on the health, safety, or rights of persons served by the program.
(b) If a license holder appeals the suspension or revocation of a license and the license holder continues to operate the program pending a final order on the appeal, the commissioner shall issue the license holder a temporary provisional license. Unless otherwise specified by the commissioner, variances in effect on the date of the license sanction under appeal continue under the temporary provisional license. If a license holder fails to comply with applicable law or rule while operating under a temporary provisional license, the commissioner may impose additional sanctions under this section and section 245A.06, and may terminate any prior variance. If a temporary provisional license is set to expire, a new temporary provisional license shall be issued to the license holder upon payment of any fee required under section 245A.10. The temporary provisional license shall expire on the date the final order is issued. If the license holder prevails on the appeal, a new nonprovisional license shall be issued for the remainder of the current license period.
(c) If a license holder is under investigation and the license issued under this chapter is due to expire before completion of the investigation, the program shall be issued a new license upon completion of the reapplication requirements and payment of any applicable license fee. Upon completion of the investigation, a licensing sanction may be imposed against the new license under this section, section 245A.06, or 245A.08.
(d) Failure to reapply or closure of a license issued under this chapter by the license holder prior to the completion of any investigation shall not preclude the commissioner from issuing a licensing sanction under this section or section 245A.06 at the conclusion of the investigation.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
(a) Child care centers shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | Child Care Center License Fee |
|
1 to 24 persons | $200 | |
25 to 49 persons | $300 | |
50 to 74 persons | $400 | |
75 to 99 persons | $500 | |
100 to 124 persons | $600 | |
125 to 149 persons | $700 | |
150 to 174 persons | $800 | |
175 to 199 persons | $900 | |
200 to 224 persons | $1,000 | |
225 or more persons | $1,100 |
(b)(1) A program licensed to provide one or more of the home and community-based services and supports identified under chapter 245D to persons with disabilities or age 65 and older, shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on revenues derived from the provision of services that would require licensure under chapter 245D during the calendar year immediately preceding the year in which the license fee is paid, according to the following schedule:
License Holder Annual Revenue | License Fee | |
less than or equal to $10,000 | $200 | |
greater than $10,000 but less than or equal to $25,000 | $300 | |
greater than $25,000 but less than or equal to $50,000 | $400 | |
greater than $50,000 but less than or equal to $100,000 | $500 | |
greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $150,000 | $600 | |
greater than $150,000 but less than or equal to $200,000 | $800 | |
greater than $200,000 but less than or equal to $250,000 | $1,000 | |
greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $300,000 | $1,200 | |
greater than $300,000 but less than or equal to $350,000 | $1,400 | |
greater than $350,000 but less than or equal to $400,000 | $1,600 | |
greater than $400,000 but less than or equal to $450,000 | $1,800 | |
greater than $450,000 but less than or equal to $500,000 | $2,000 | |
greater than $500,000 but less than or equal to $600,000 | $2,250 | |
greater than $600,000 but less than or equal to $700,000 | $2,500 | |
greater than $700,000 but less than or equal to $800,000 | $2,750 | |
greater than $800,000 but less than or equal to $900,000 | $3,000 | |
greater than $900,000 but less than or equal to $1,000,000 | $3,250 | |
greater than $1,000,000 but less than or equal to $1,250,000 | $3,500 | |
greater than $1,250,000 but less than or equal to $1,500,000 | $3,750 | |
greater than $1,500,000 but less than or equal to $1,750,000 | $4,000 | |
greater than $1,750,000 but less than or equal to $2,000,000 | $4,250 | |
greater than $2,000,000 but less than or equal to $2,500,000 | $4,500 | |
greater than $2,500,000 but less than or equal to $3,000,000 | $4,750 | |
greater than $3,000,000 but less than or equal to $3,500,000 | $5,000 | |
greater than $3,500,000 but less than or equal to $4,000,000 | $5,500 | |
greater than $4,000,000 but less than or equal to $4,500,000 | $6,000 | |
greater than $4,500,000 but less than or equal to $5,000,000 | $6,500 | |
greater than $5,000,000 but less than or equal to $7,500,000 | $7,000 | |
greater than $7,500,000 but less than or equal to $10,000,000 | $8,500 | |
greater than $10,000,000 but less than or equal to $12,500,000 | $10,000 | |
greater than $12,500,000 but less than or equal to $15,000,000 | $14,000 | |
greater than $15,000,000 | $18,000 |
(2) If requested, the license holder shall provide the commissioner information to verify the license holder's annual revenues or other information as needed, including copies of documents submitted to the Department of Revenue.
(3) At each annual renewal, a license holder may elect to pay the highest renewal fee, and not provide annual revenue information to the commissioner.
(4) A license holder that knowingly provides the commissioner incorrect revenue amounts for the purpose of paying a lower license fee shall be subject to a civil penalty in the amount of double the fee the provider should have paid.
(5) Notwithstanding clause (1), a license holder providing services under one or more licenses under chapter 245B that are in effect on May 15, 2013, shall pay an annual license fee for calendar years 2014, 2015, and 2016, equal to the total license fees paid by the license holder for all licenses held under chapter 245B for calendar year 2013. For calendar year 2017 and thereafter, the license holder shall pay an annual license fee according to clause (1).
(c) A chemical dependency treatment program licensed under chapter 245G, to provide chemical dependency treatment shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $600 | |
25 to 49 persons | $800 | |
50 to 74 persons | $1,000 | |
75 to 99 persons | $1,200 | |
100 or more persons | $1,400 |
(d) A deleted text begin chemical dependencydeleted text end new text begin detoxificationnew text end program licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6510 to 9530.6590, deleted text begin to provide detoxification servicesdeleted text end new text begin or a withdrawal management program licensed under chapter 245Fnew text end shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $760 | |
25 to 49 persons | $960 | |
50 or more persons | $1,160 |
new text begin A detoxification program that also operates a withdrawal management program at the same location shall only pay one fee based upon the licensed capacity of the program with the higher overall capacity. new text end
(e) Except for child foster care, a residential facility licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, to serve children shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $1,000 | |
25 to 49 persons | $1,100 | |
50 to 74 persons | $1,200 | |
75 to 99 persons | $1,300 | |
100 or more persons | $1,400 |
(f) A residential facility licensed under section 245I.23 or Minnesota Rules, parts 9520.0500 to 9520.0670, to serve persons with mental illness shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $2,525 | |
25 or more persons | $2,725 |
(g) A residential facility licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9570.2000 to 9570.3400, to serve persons with physical disabilities shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $450 | |
25 to 49 persons | $650 | |
50 to 74 persons | $850 | |
75 to 99 persons | $1,050 | |
100 or more persons | $1,250 |
(h) A program licensed to provide independent living assistance for youth under section 245A.22 shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee of $1,500.
(i) A private agency licensed to provide foster care and adoption services under Minnesota Rules, parts 9545.0755 to 9545.0845, shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee of $875.
(j) A program licensed as an adult day care center licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.9600 to 9555.9730, shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:
Licensed Capacity | License Fee | |
1 to 24 persons | $500 | |
25 to 49 persons | $700 | |
50 to 74 persons | $900 | |
75 to 99 persons | $1,100 | |
100 or more persons | $1,300 |
(k) A program licensed to provide treatment services to persons with sexual psychopathic personalities or sexually dangerous persons under Minnesota Rules, parts 9515.3000 to 9515.3110, shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee of $20,000.
(l) A mental health clinic certified under section 245I.20 shall pay an annual nonrefundable certification fee of $1,550. If the mental health clinic provides services at a primary location with satellite facilities, the satellite facilities shall be certified with the primary location without an additional charge.
Nonresidential child care programs serving 14 or fewer children that are conducted at a location other than the license holder's own residence shall be licensed under this section and the rules governing family deleted text begin daydeleted text end new text begin childnew text end care or group family deleted text begin daydeleted text end new text begin childnew text end care if:
(a) the license holder is the primary provider of care and the nonresidential child care program is conducted in a dwelling that is located on a residential lot;
(b) the license holder is an employer who may or may not be the primary provider of care, and the purpose for the child care program is to provide child care services to children of the license holder's employees;
(c) the license holder is a church or religious organization;
(d) the license holder is a community collaborative child care provider. For purposes of this subdivision, a community collaborative child care provider is a provider participating in a cooperative agreement with a community action agency as defined in section 256E.31;
(e) the license holder is a not-for-profit agency that provides child care in a dwelling located on a residential lot and the license holder maintains two or more contracts with community employers or other community organizations to provide child care services. The county licensing agency may grant a capacity variance to a license holder licensed under this paragraph to exceed the licensed capacity of 14 children by no more than five children during transition periods related to the work schedules of parents, if the license holder meets the following requirements:
(1) the program does not exceed a capacity of 14 children more than a cumulative total of four hours per day;
(2) the program meets a one to seven staff-to-child ratio during the variance period;
(3) all employees receive at least an extra four hours of training per year than required in the rules governing family child care each year;
(4) the facility has square footage required per child under Minnesota Rules, part 9502.0425;
(5) the program is in compliance with local zoning regulations;
(6) the program is in compliance with the applicable fire code as follows:
(i) if the program serves more than five children older than 2-1/2 years of age, but no more than five children 2-1/2 years of age or less, the applicable fire code is educational occupancy, as provided in Group E Occupancy under the Minnesota State Fire Code 2015, Section 202; or
(ii) if the program serves more than five children 2-1/2 years of age or less, the applicable fire code is Group I-4 Occupancies, as provided in the Minnesota State Fire Code 2015, Section 202, unless the rooms in which the children are cared for are located on a level of exit discharge and each of these child care rooms has an exit door directly to the exterior, then the applicable fire code is Group E occupancies, as provided in the Minnesota State Fire Code 2015, Section 202; and
(7) any age and capacity limitations required by the fire code inspection and square footage determinations shall be printed on the license; or
(f) the license holder is the primary provider of care and has located the licensed child care program in a commercial space, if the license holder meets the following requirements:
(1) the program is in compliance with local zoning regulations;
(2) the program is in compliance with the applicable fire code as follows:
(i) if the program serves more than five children older than 2-1/2 years of age, but no more than five children 2-1/2 years of age or less, the applicable fire code is educational occupancy, as provided in Group E Occupancy under the Minnesota State Fire Code 2015, Section 202; or
(ii) if the program serves more than five children 2-1/2 years of age or less, the applicable fire code is Group I-4 Occupancies, as provided under the Minnesota State Fire Code 2015, Section 202;
(3) any age and capacity limitations required by the fire code inspection and square footage determinations are printed on the license; and
(4) the license holder prominently displays the license issued by the commissioner which contains the statement "This special family child care provider is not licensed as a child care center."
(g) deleted text begin The commissioner may approve two or more licenses under paragraphs (a) to (f) to be issued at the same location or under one contiguous roof, if each license holder is able to demonstrate compliance with all applicable rules and laws. Each license holder must operate the license holder's respective licensed program as a distinct program and within the capacity, age, and ratio distributions of each license.deleted text end new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, part 9502.0335, subpart 12, the commissioner may issue up to four licenses to an organization licensed under paragraphs (b), (c), or (e). Each license must have its own primary provider of care as required under paragraph (i). Each license must operate as a distinct and separate program in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations.new text end
(h) deleted text begin The commissioner may grant variances to this section to allow a primary provider of care, a not-for-profit organization, a church or religious organization, an employer, or a community collaborative to be licensed to provide child care under paragraphs (e) and (f) if the license holder meets the other requirements of the statute.deleted text end new text begin For licenses issued under paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f), the commissioner may approve up to four licenses at the same location or under one contiguous roof if each license holder is able to demonstrate compliance with all applicable rules and laws. Each licensed program must operate as a distinct program and within the capacity, age, and ratio distributions of each license.new text end
new text begin (i) For a license issued under paragraphs (b), (c), or (e), the license holder must designate a person to be the primary provider of care at the licensed location on a form and in a manner prescribed by the commissioner. The license holder shall notify the commissioner in writing before there is a change of the person designated to be the primary provider of care. The primary provider of care: new text end
new text begin (1) must be the person who will be the provider of care at the program and present during the hours of operation; new text end
new text begin (2) must operate the program in compliance with applicable laws and regulations under chapter 245A and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9502; new text end
new text begin (3) is considered a child care background study subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, and must comply with background study requirements in chapter 245C; and new text end
new text begin (4) must complete the training that is required of license holders in section 245A.50. new text end
new text begin (j) For any license issued under this subdivision, the license holder must ensure that any other caregiver, substitute, or helper who assists in the care of children meets the training requirements in section 245A.50 and background study requirements under chapter 245C. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) Before recommending to grant a license, deny a license under section 245A.05, or revoke a license under section 245A.07 for nondisqualifying background study information received under section 245C.05, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (3), for a licensed family foster setting, a county agency or private agency that has been designated or licensed by the commissioner must review the following: new text end
new text begin (1) the type of offenses; new text end
new text begin (2) the number of offenses; new text end
new text begin (3) the nature of the offenses; new text end
new text begin (4) the age of the individual at the time of the offenses; new text end
new text begin (5) the length of time that has elapsed since the last offense; new text end
new text begin (6) the relationship of the offenses and the capacity to care for a child; new text end
new text begin (7) evidence of rehabilitation; new text end
new text begin (8) information or knowledge from community members regarding the individual's capacity to provide foster care; new text end
new text begin (9) any available information regarding child maltreatment reports or child in need of protection or services petitions, or related cases, in which the individual has been involved or implicated, and documentation that the individual has remedied issues or conditions identified in child protection or court records that are relevant to safely caring for a child; new text end
new text begin (10) a statement from the study subject; new text end
new text begin (11) a statement from the license holder; and new text end
new text begin (12) other aggravating and mitigating factors. new text end
new text begin (b) For purposes of this section, "evidence of rehabilitation" includes but is not limited to the following: new text end
new text begin (1) maintaining a safe and stable residence; new text end
new text begin (2) continuous, regular, or stable employment; new text end
new text begin (3) successful participation in an education or job training program; new text end
new text begin (4) positive involvement with the community or extended family; new text end
new text begin (5) compliance with the terms and conditions of probation or parole following the individual's most recent conviction; new text end
new text begin (6) if the individual has had a substance use disorder, successful completion of a substance use disorder assessment, substance use disorder treatment, and recommended continuing care, if applicable, demonstrated abstinence from controlled substances, as defined in section 152.01, subdivision 4, or the establishment of a sober network; new text end
new text begin (7) if the individual has had a mental illness or documented mental health issues, demonstrated completion of a mental health evaluation, participation in therapy or other recommended mental health treatment, or appropriate medication management, if applicable; new text end
new text begin (8) if the individual's offense or conduct involved domestic violence, demonstrated completion of a domestic violence or anger management program, and the absence of any orders for protection or harassment restraining orders against the individual since the previous offense or conduct; new text end
new text begin (9) written letters of support from individuals of good repute, including but not limited to employers, members of the clergy, probation or parole officers, volunteer supervisors, or social services workers; new text end
new text begin (10) demonstrated remorse for convictions or conduct, or demonstrated positive behavior changes; and new text end
new text begin (11) absence of convictions or arrests since the previous offense or conduct, including any convictions that were expunged or pardoned. new text end
new text begin (c) An applicant for a family foster setting license must sign all releases of information requested by the county or private licensing agency. new text end
new text begin (d) When licensing a relative for a family foster setting, the commissioner shall also consider the importance of maintaining the child's relationship with relatives as an additional significant factor in determining whether an application will be denied. new text end
new text begin (e) When recommending that the commissioner deny or revoke a license, the county or private licensing agency must send a summary of the review completed according to paragraph (a), on a form developed by the commissioner, to the commissioner and include any recommendation for licensing action. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end For purposes of family and group family child care, the license holder and each second adult caregiver must complete 16 hours of ongoing training each year. Repeat of topical training requirements in subdivisions 2 to 8 shall count toward the annual 16-hour training requirement. Additional ongoing training subjects to meet the annual 16-hour training requirement must be selected from the following areas:
(1) child development and learning training in understanding how a child develops physically, cognitively, emotionally, and socially, and how a child learns as part of the child's family, culture, and community;
(2) developmentally appropriate learning experiences, including training in creating positive learning experiences, promoting cognitive development, promoting social and emotional development, promoting physical development, promoting creative development; and behavior guidance;
(3) relationships with families, including training in building a positive, respectful relationship with the child's family;
(4) assessment, evaluation, and individualization, including training in observing, recording, and assessing development; assessing and using information to plan; and assessing and using information to enhance and maintain program quality;
(5) historical and contemporary development of early childhood education, including training in past and current practices in early childhood education and how current events and issues affect children, families, and programs;
(6) professionalism, including training in knowledge, skills, and abilities that promote ongoing professional development; and
(7) health, safety, and nutrition, including training in establishing healthy practices; ensuring safety; and providing healthy nutrition.
new text begin (b) A provider who is approved as a trainer through the Develop data system may count up to two hours of training instruction toward the annual 16-hour training requirement in paragraph (a). The provider may only count training instruction hours for the first instance in which they deliver a particular content-specific training during each licensing year. Hours counted as training instruction must be approved through the Develop data system with attendance verified on the trainer's individual learning record and must be in Knowledge and Competency Framework content area VII A (Establishing Healthy Practices) or B (Ensuring Safety). new text end
(a) Courses required by this subdivision must include the following health and safety topics:
(1) preventing and controlling infectious diseases;
(2) administering medication;
(3) preventing and responding to allergies;
(4) ensuring building and physical premises safety;
(5) handling and storing biological contaminants;
(6) preventing and reporting child abuse and maltreatment; and
(7) emergency preparedness.
(b) Before initial licensure and before caring for a child, all family child care license holders and each second adult caregiver shall complete and document the completion of the six-hour Supervising for Safety for Family Child Care course developed by the commissioner.
(c) The license holder must ensure and document that, before caring for a child, all substitutes have completed the four-hour Basics of Licensed Family Child Care for Substitutes course developed by the commissioner, which must include health and safety topics as well as child development and learning.
(d) The family child care license holder and each second adult caregiver shall complete and document:
(1) the annual completion of new text begin either:new text end
new text begin (i) new text end a two-hour active supervision course developed by the commissioner;new text begin ornew text end
new text begin (ii) any courses in the ensuring safety competency area under the health, safety, and nutrition standard of the Knowledge and Competency Framework that the commissioner has identified as an active supervision training course;new text end and
(2) the completion at least once every five years of the two-hour courses Health and Safety I and Health and Safety II. When the training is due for the first time or expires, it must be taken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license effective date. A license holder's or second adult caregiver's completion of either training in a given year meets the annual active supervision training requirement in clause (1).
(e) At least once every three years, license holders must ensure and document that substitutes have completed the four-hour Basics of Licensed Family Child Care for Substitutes course. When the training expires, it must be retaken no later than the day before the anniversary of the license holder's license effective date.
"Authorized fingerprint collection vendor" means a qualified organization under a written contract with the commissioner to provide services in accordance with section 245C.05, subdivision 5, paragraph (b).new text begin The commissioner may retain the services of more than one authorized fingerprint collection vendor.new text end
"Background study" meansnew text begin :new text end
new text begin (1) the collection and processing of a background study subject's fingerprints, including the process of obtaining a background study subject's classifiable fingerprints and photograph as required by section 245C.05, subdivision 5, paragraph (b); and new text end
new text begin (2)new text end the review of records conducted by the commissioner to determine whether a subject is disqualified from direct contact with persons served by a program and, where specifically provided in statutes, whether a subject is disqualified from having access to persons served by a program and from working in a children's residential facility or foster residence setting.
new text begin "Alternative background study" means: new text end
new text begin (1) the collection and processing of a background study subject's fingerprints, including the process of obtaining a background study subject's classifiable fingerprints and photograph as required by section 245C.05, subdivision 5, paragraph (b); and new text end
new text begin (2) a review of records conducted by the commissioner pursuant to section 245C.08 in order to forward the background study investigating information to the entity that submitted the alternative background study request under section 245C.031, subdivision 2. The commissioner shall not make any eligibility determinations on background studies conducted under section 245C.031. new text end
new text begin "Public law background study" means a background study conducted by the commissioner pursuant to section 245C.032. new text end
new text begin "Entity" means any program, organization, or agency initiating a background study. new text end
new text begin "Results" means a determination that a study subject is eligible, disqualified, set aside, granted a variance, or that more time is needed to complete the background study. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall conduct a background study on:
(1) the person or persons applying for a license;
(2) an individual age 13 and over living in the household where the licensed program will be provided who is not receiving licensed services from the program;
(3) current or prospective employees or contractors of the applicant who will have direct contact with persons served by the facility, agency, or program;
(4) volunteers or student volunteers who will have direct contact with persons served by the program to provide program services if the contact is not under the continuous, direct supervision by an individual listed in clause (1) or (3);
(5) an individual age ten to 12 living in the household where the licensed services will be provided when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 15;
(6) an individual who, without providing direct contact services at a licensed program, may have unsupervised access to children or vulnerable adults receiving services from a program, when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 15;
(7) all controlling individuals as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 5a;
(8) notwithstanding the other requirements in this subdivision, child care background study subjects as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a; and
(9) notwithstanding clause (3), for children's residential facilities and foster residence settings, any adult working in the facility, whether or not the individual will have direct contact with persons served by the facility.
(b) For child foster care when the license holder resides in the home where foster care services are provided, a short-term substitute caregiver providing direct contact services for a child for less than 72 hours of continuous care is not required to receive a background study under this chapter.
new text begin (c) This subdivision applies to the following programs that must be licensed under chapter 245A: new text end
new text begin (1) adult foster care; new text end
new text begin (2) child foster care; new text end
new text begin (3) children's residential facilities; new text end
new text begin (4) family child care; new text end
new text begin (5) licensed child care centers; new text end
new text begin (6) licensed home and community-based services under chapter 245D; new text end
new text begin (7) residential mental health programs for adults; new text end
new text begin (8) substance use disorder treatment programs under chapter 245G; new text end
new text begin (9) withdrawal management programs under chapter 245F; new text end
new text begin (10) adult day care centers; new text end
new text begin (11) family adult day services; new text end
new text begin (12) independent living assistance for youth; new text end
new text begin (13) detoxification programs; new text end
new text begin (14) community residential settings; and new text end
new text begin (15) intensive residential treatment services and residential crisis stabilization under chapter 245I. new text end
new text begin (a) Individuals and organizations that are required under this section to have or initiate background studies shall comply with the requirements of this chapter. new text end
new text begin (b) All studies conducted under this section shall be conducted according to sections 299C.60 to 299C.64. This requirement does not apply to subdivisions 1, paragraph (c), clauses (2) to (5), and 6a. new text end
The commissioner shall conduct background studies on any individual required under sections 256B.0651 to 256B.0654 and 256B.0659 to have a background study completed under this chapter.
The commissioner shall conduct all background studies required under this chapter and initiated by supplemental nursing services agencies registered under section 144A.71, subdivision 1.
new text begin Personal care assistance provider agencies enrolled to provide personal care assistance services under the medical assistance program must meet the following requirements: new text end
new text begin (1) owners who have a five percent interest or more and all managing employees are subject to a background study as provided in this chapter. This requirement applies to currently enrolled personal care assistance provider agencies and agencies seeking enrollment as a personal care assistance provider agency. "Managing employee" has the same meaning as Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.101. An organization is barred from enrollment if: new text end
new text begin (i) the organization has not initiated background studies of owners and managing employees; or new text end
new text begin (ii) the organization has initiated background studies of owners and managing employees and the commissioner has sent the organization a notice that an owner or managing employee of the organization has been disqualified under section 245C.14, and the owner or managing employee has not received a set aside of the disqualification under section 245C.22; and new text end
new text begin (2) a background study must be initiated and completed for all qualified professionals. new text end
new text begin The personal care assistant for a recipient may be allowed to enroll with a different personal care assistance provider agency upon initiation of a new background study according to this chapter if: new text end
new text begin (1) the commissioner determines that a change in enrollment or affiliation of the personal care assistant is needed in order to ensure continuity of services and protect the health and safety of the recipient; new text end
new text begin (2) the chosen agency has been continuously enrolled as a personal care assistance provider agency for at least two years; new text end
new text begin (3) the recipient chooses to transfer to the personal care assistance provider agency; new text end
new text begin (4) the personal care assistant has been continuously enrolled with the former personal care assistance provider agency since the last background study was completed; and new text end
new text begin (5) the personal care assistant continues to meet requirements of section 256B.0659, subdivision 11, notwithstanding paragraph (a), clause (3). new text end
The commissioner also may conduct studies on individuals specified in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), when the studies are initiated by:
(1) personnel pool agencies;
(2) temporary personnel agencies;
(3) educational programs that train individuals by providing direct contact services in licensed programs; and
(4) professional services agencies that are not licensed and which contract with licensed programs to provide direct contact services or individuals who provide direct contact services.
The commissioner shall conduct background studies on applicants and license holders under the jurisdiction of other state agencies who are required in other statutory sections to initiate background studies under this chapter, including the applicant's or license holder's employees, contractors, and volunteers when required under other statutory sections.
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall conduct background studies of: new text end
new text begin (1) individuals providing services who have direct contact, as defined under section 245C.02, subdivision 11, with patients and residents in hospitals, boarding care homes, outpatient surgical centers licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58; nursing homes and home care agencies licensed under chapter 144A; assisted living facilities and assisted living facilities with dementia care licensed under chapter 144G; and board and lodging establishments that are registered to provide supportive or health supervision services under section 157.17; new text end
new text begin (2) individuals specified in subdivision 2 who provide direct contact services in a nursing home or a home care agency licensed under chapter 144A; an assisted living facility or assisted living facility with dementia care licensed under chapter 144G; or a boarding care home licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58. If the individual undergoing a study resides outside of Minnesota, the study must include a check for substantiated findings of maltreatment of adults and children in the individual's state of residence when the state makes the information available; new text end
new text begin (3) all other employees in assisted living facilities or assisted living facilities with dementia care licensed under chapter 144G, nursing homes licensed under chapter 144A, and boarding care homes licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58. A disqualification of an individual in this section shall disqualify the individual from positions allowing direct contact with or access to patients or residents receiving services. "Access" means physical access to a client or the client's personal property without continuous, direct supervision as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 8, when the employee's employment responsibilities do not include providing direct contact services; new text end
new text begin (4) individuals employed by a supplemental nursing services agency, as defined under section 144A.70, who are providing services in health care facilities; and new text end
new text begin (5) controlling persons of a supplemental nursing services agency, as defined by section 144A.70. new text end
new text begin (b) If a facility or program is licensed by the Department of Human Services and the Department of Health and is subject to the background study provisions of this chapter, the Department of Human Services is solely responsible for the background studies of individuals in the jointly licensed program. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner of health shall review and make decisions regarding reconsideration requests, including whether to grant variances, according to the procedures and criteria in this chapter. The commissioner of health shall inform the requesting individual and the Department of Human Services of the commissioner of health's decision regarding the reconsideration. The commissioner of health's decision to grant or deny a reconsideration of a disqualification is a final administrative agency action. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall conduct background studies of individuals working in secure and nonsecure children's residential facilities, juvenile detention facilities, and foster residence settings, whether or not the individual will have direct contact, as defined under section 245C.02, subdivision 11, with persons served in the facilities or settings. new text end
new text begin (b) A clerk or administrator of any court, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, a prosecuting attorney, a county sheriff, or a chief of a local police department shall assist in conducting background studies by providing the commissioner of human services or the commissioner's representative all criminal conviction data available from local and state criminal history record repositories related to applicants, operators, all persons living in a household, and all staff of any facility subject to background studies under this subdivision. new text end
new text begin (c) For the purpose of this subdivision, the term "secure and nonsecure residential facility and detention facility" includes programs licensed or certified under section 241.021, subdivision 2. new text end
new text begin (d) If an individual is disqualified, the Department of Human Services shall notify the disqualified individual and the facility in which the disqualified individual provides services of the disqualification and shall inform the disqualified individual of the right to request a reconsideration of the disqualification by submitting the request to the Department of Corrections. new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner of corrections shall review and make decisions regarding reconsideration requests, including whether to grant variances, according to the procedures and criteria in this chapter. The commissioner of corrections shall inform the requesting individual and the Department of Human Services of the commissioner of corrections' decision regarding the reconsideration. The commissioner of corrections' decision to grant or deny a reconsideration of a disqualification is the final administrative agency action. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin ondeleted text end new text begin ofnew text end any individual deleted text begin required under section 256B.4912 to have a background study completed under this chapterdeleted text end new text begin who provides direct contact, as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 11, for services specified in the federally approved home and community-based waiver plans under section 256B.4912. The individual studied must meet the requirements of this chapter prior to providing waiver services and as part of ongoing enrollment.new text end
new text begin (b) The requirements in paragraph (a) apply to consumer-directed community supports under section 256B.4911new text end .
The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin on an individualdeleted text end new text begin for each child care background study subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, asnew text end required deleted text begin underdeleted text end new text begin bynew text end sections 119B.125 and 245H.10 deleted text begin to complete a background study under this chapterdeleted text end .
The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin according to this chapter when initiated by a children's therapeutic services and supports providerdeleted text end new text begin of all direct service providers and volunteers for children's therapeutic services and supports providersnew text end under section 256B.0943.
deleted text begin Upon implementation of NETStudy 2.0, the commissioner shall conduct background studies according to this chapter when initiated by an individual who is not on the master roster. A subject under this subdivision who is not disqualified must be placed on the inactive roster. deleted text end
deleted text begin The commissioner shall conduct background studies on any individual required under section 256B.85 to have a background study completed under this chapter. deleted text end new text begin Individuals affiliated with Community First Services and Supports (CFSS) agency-providers and Financial Management Services (FMS) providers enrolled to provide CFSS services under the medical assistance program must meet the following requirements: new text end
new text begin (1) owners who have a five percent interest or more and all managing employees are subject to a background study under this chapter. This requirement applies to currently enrolled providers and agencies seeking enrollment. "Managing employee" has the meaning given in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.101. An organization is barred from enrollment if: new text end
new text begin (i) the organization has not initiated background studies of owners and managing employees; or new text end
new text begin (ii) the organization has initiated background studies of owners and managing employees and the commissioner has sent the organization a notice that an owner or managing employee of the organization has been disqualified under section 245C.14 and the owner or managing employee has not received a set aside of the disqualification under section 245C.22; new text end
new text begin (2) a background study must be initiated and completed for all staff who will have direct contact with the participant to provide worker training and development; and new text end
new text begin (3) a background study must be initiated and completed for all support workers. new text end
new text begin The support worker for a participant may enroll with a different Community First Services and Supports (CFSS) agency-provider or Financial Management Services (FMS) provider upon initiation, rather than completion, of a new background study according to this chapter if: new text end
new text begin (1) the commissioner determines that the support worker's change in enrollment or affiliation is necessary to ensure continuity of services and to protect the health and safety of the participant; new text end
new text begin (2) the chosen agency-provider or FMS provider has been continuously enrolled as a CFSS agency-provider or FMS provider for at least two years or since the inception of the CFSS program, whichever is shorter; new text end
new text begin (3) the participant served by the support worker chooses to transfer to the CFSS agency-provider or the FMS provider to which the support worker is transferring; new text end
new text begin (4) the support worker has been continuously enrolled with the former CFSS agency-provider or FMS provider since the support worker's last background study was completed; and new text end
new text begin (5) the support worker continues to meet the requirements of section 256B.85, subdivision 16, notwithstanding paragraph (a), clause (1). new text end
new text begin (a) new text end The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin on any individual required under section 256I.04 to have a background study completed under this chapter.deleted text end new text begin of the following individuals who provide services under section 256I.04:new text end
new text begin (1) controlling individuals as defined in section 245A.02; new text end
new text begin (2) managerial officials as defined in section 245A.02; and new text end
new text begin (3) all employees and volunteers of the establishment who have direct contact with recipients or who have unsupervised access to recipients, recipients' personal property, or recipients' private data. new text end
new text begin (b) The provider of housing support must comply with all requirements for entities initiating background studies under this chapter. new text end
new text begin (c) A provider of housing support must demonstrate that all individuals who are required to have a background study according to paragraph (a) have a notice stating that: new text end
new text begin (1) the individual is not disqualified under section 245C.14; or new text end
new text begin (2) the individual is disqualified and the individual has been issued a set aside of the disqualification for the setting under section 245C.22. new text end
deleted text begin (a) The commissioner must complete background studies, according to paragraph (b) and section 245C.04, subdivision 10, when initiated by a county social services agency or by a local welfare agency according to section 626.559, subdivision 1b. deleted text end
deleted text begin (b) For background studies completed by the commissioner under this subdivision, the commissioner shall not make a disqualification decision, but shall provide the background study information received to the county that initiated the study. deleted text end
new text begin (a) new text end The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin on any individual required under section 174.30 to have a background study completed under this chapter.deleted text end new text begin of the following individuals who provide special transportation services under section 174.30:new text end
new text begin (1) each person with a direct or indirect ownership interest of five percent or higher in a transportation service provider; new text end
new text begin (2) each controlling individual as defined under section 245A.02; new text end
new text begin (3) a managerial official as defined in section 245A.02; new text end
new text begin (4) each driver employed by the transportation service provider; new text end
new text begin (5) each individual employed by the transportation service provider to assist a passenger during transport; and new text end
new text begin (6) each employee of the transportation service agency who provides administrative support, including an employee who: new text end
new text begin (i) may have face-to-face contact with or access to passengers, passengers' personal property, or passengers' private data; new text end
new text begin (ii) performs any scheduling or dispatching tasks; or new text end
new text begin (iii) performs any billing activities. new text end
new text begin (b) When a local or contracted agency is authorizing a ride under section 256B.0625, subdivision 17, by a volunteer driver, and the agency authorizing the ride has a reason to believe that the volunteer driver has a history that would disqualify the volunteer driver or that may pose a risk to the health or safety of passengers, the agency may initiate a background study that shall be completed according to this chapter using the commissioner of human services' online NETStudy system, or by contacting the Department of Human Services background study division for assistance. The agency that initiates the background study under this paragraph shall be responsible for providing the volunteer driver with the privacy notice required by section 245C.05, subdivision 2c, and with the payment for the background study required by section 245C.10 before the background study is completed. new text end
The commissioner shall conduct background studies deleted text begin ondeleted text end new text begin ofnew text end any deleted text begin individualdeleted text end new text begin provider of housing support servicesnew text end required deleted text begin underdeleted text end new text begin bynew text end section 256B.051 to have a background study completed under this chapter.
new text begin For completed background studies to comply with a Tribal organization's licensing requirements for individuals affiliated with a tribally licensed nursing facility, the commissioner shall obtain state and national criminal history data. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall conduct background studies according to this chapter when initiated by an early intensive developmental and behavioral intervention provider under section 256B.0949. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, except subdivision 6, paragraph (b), is effective upon federal approval and subdivision 15 is effective the day following final enactment. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall conduct an alternative background study of individuals listed in this section. new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding other sections of this chapter, all alternative background studies except subdivision 12 shall be conducted according to this section and with section 299C.60 to 299C.64. new text end
new text begin (c) All terms in this section shall have the definitions provided in section 245C.02. new text end
new text begin (d) The entity that submits an alternative background study request under this section shall submit the request to the commissioner according to section 245C.05. new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner shall comply with the destruction requirements in section 245C.051. new text end
new text begin (f) Background studies conducted under this section are subject to the provisions of section 245C.32. new text end
new text begin (g) The commissioner shall forward all information that the commissioner receives under section 245C.08 to the entity that submitted the alternative background study request under subdivision 2. The commissioner shall not make any eligibility determinations regarding background studies conducted under this section. new text end
new text begin Each entity that submits an alternative background study request shall enter into an agreement with the commissioner before submitting requests for alternative background studies under this section. As a part of the agreement, the entity must agree to comply with state and federal law. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall conduct an alternative background study of any person who has responsibility for child protection duties when the background study is initiated by a county social services agency or by a local welfare agency according to section 260E.36, subdivision 3. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall conduct an alternative background study, including a check of state data, and a national criminal history records check of the following individuals. For studies under this section, the following persons shall complete a consent form: new text end
new text begin (1) an applicant for initial licensure, temporary licensure, or relicensure after a lapse in licensure as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist or an applicant for initial certification as a hearing instrument dispenser who must submit to a background study under section 144.0572. new text end
new text begin (2) an applicant for a renewal license or certificate as an audiologist, speech-language pathologist, or hearing instrument dispenser who was licensed or obtained a certificate before January 1, 2018. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall conduct an alternative background study of: new text end
new text begin (1) every court-appointed guardian and conservator, unless a background study has been completed of the person under this section within the previous five years. The alternative background study shall be completed prior to the appointment of the guardian or conservator, unless a court determines that it would be in the best interests of the ward or protected person to appoint a guardian or conservator before the alternative background study can be completed. If the court appoints the guardian or conservator while the alternative background study is pending, the alternative background study must be completed as soon as reasonably possible after the guardian or conservator's appointment and no later than 30 days after the guardian or conservator's appointment; and new text end
new text begin (2) a guardian and a conservator once every five years after the guardian or conservator's appointment if the person continues to serve as a guardian or conservator. new text end
new text begin (b) An alternative background study is not required if the guardian or conservator is: new text end
new text begin (1) a state agency or county; new text end
new text begin (2) a parent or guardian of a proposed ward or protected person who has a developmental disability if the parent or guardian has raised the proposed ward or protected person in the family home until the time that the petition is filed, unless counsel appointed for the proposed ward or protected person under section 524.5-205, paragraph (d); 524.5-304, paragraph (b); 524.5-405, paragraph (a); or 524.5-406, paragraph (b), recommends a background study; or new text end
new text begin (3) a bank with trust powers, a bank and trust company, or a trust company, organized under the laws of any state or of the United States and regulated by the commissioner of commerce or a federal regulator. new text end
new text begin (a) An alternative background study for a guardian or conservator pursuant to subdivision 5 shall include: new text end
new text begin (1) criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and other criminal history data obtained by the commissioner of human services; new text end
new text begin (2) data regarding whether the person has been a perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult under section 626.557 or a minor under chapter 260E. If the subject of the study has been the perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or a minor, the commissioner must include a copy of the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section 626.557, subdivision 12b, or the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section 260E.30. The commissioner shall provide the court with information from a review of information according to subdivision 7 if the study subject provided information that the study subject has a current or prior affiliation with a state licensing agency; new text end
new text begin (3) criminal history data from a national criminal history record check as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 13c; and new text end
new text begin (4) state licensing agency data if a search of the database or databases of the agencies listed in subdivision 7 shows that the proposed guardian or conservator has held a professional license directly related to the responsibilities of a professional fiduciary from an agency listed in subdivision 7 that was conditioned, suspended, revoked, or canceled. new text end
new text begin (b) If the guardian or conservator is not an individual, the background study must be completed of all individuals who are currently employed by the proposed guardian or conservator who are responsible for exercising powers and duties under the guardianship or conservatorship. new text end
new text begin (a) Within 25 working days of receiving the request for an alternative background study of a guardian or conservator, the commissioner shall provide the court with licensing agency data for licenses directly related to the responsibilities of a guardian or conservator if the study subject has a current or prior affiliation with the: new text end
new text begin (1) Lawyers Responsibility Board; new text end
new text begin (2) State Board of Accountancy; new text end
new text begin (3) Board of Social Work; new text end
new text begin (4) Board of Psychology; new text end
new text begin (5) Board of Nursing; new text end
new text begin (6) Board of Medical Practice; new text end
new text begin (7) Department of Education; new text end
new text begin (8) Department of Commerce; new text end
new text begin (9) Board of Chiropractic Examiners; new text end
new text begin (10) Board of Dentistry; new text end
new text begin (11) Board of Marriage and Family Therapy; new text end
new text begin (12) Department of Human Services; new text end
new text begin (13) Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) Board; and new text end
new text begin (14) Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner and each of the agencies listed above, except for the Department of Human Services, shall enter into a written agreement to provide the commissioner with electronic access to the relevant licensing data and to provide the commissioner with a quarterly list of new sanctions issued by the agency. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall provide to the court the electronically available data maintained in the agency's database, including whether the proposed guardian or conservator is or has been licensed by the agency and whether a disciplinary action or a sanction against the individual's license, including a condition, suspension, revocation, or cancellation, is in the licensing agency's database. new text end
new text begin (d) If the proposed guardian or conservator has resided in a state other than Minnesota during the previous ten years, licensing agency data under this section shall also include licensing agency data from any other state where the proposed guardian or conservator reported to have resided during the previous ten years if the study subject has a current or prior affiliation to the licensing agency. If the proposed guardian or conservator has or has had a professional license in another state that is directly related to the responsibilities of a guardian or conservator from one of the agencies listed under paragraph (a), state licensing agency data shall also include data from the relevant licensing agency of the other state. new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner is not required to repeat a search for Minnesota or out-of-state licensing data on an individual if the commissioner has provided this information to the court within the prior five years. new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner shall review the information in paragraph (c) at least once every four months to determine whether an individual who has been studied within the previous five years: new text end
new text begin (1) has any new disciplinary action or sanction against the individual's license; or new text end
new text begin (2) did not disclose a prior or current affiliation with a Minnesota licensing agency. new text end
new text begin (g) If the commissioner's review in paragraph (f) identifies new information, the commissioner shall provide any new information to the court. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall conduct an alternative background study of: new text end
new text begin (1) a guardian ad litem appointed under section 518.165 if a background study of the guardian ad litem has not been completed within the past three years. The background study of the guardian ad litem must be completed before the court appoints the guardian ad litem, unless the court determines that it is in the best interests of the child to appoint the guardian ad litem before a background study is completed by the commissioner. new text end
new text begin (2) a guardian ad litem once every three years after the guardian has been appointed, as long as the individual continues to serve as a guardian ad litem. new text end
new text begin (a) An alternative background study for a guardian ad litem under subdivision 8 must include: new text end
new text begin (1) criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and other criminal history data obtained by the commissioner of human services; and new text end
new text begin (2) data regarding whether the person has been a perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a minor or a vulnerable adult. If the study subject has been determined by the Department of Human Services or the Department of Health to be the perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a minor or a vulnerable adult in a licensed facility, the response must include a copy of the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section 260E.30 or the public portion of the investigation memorandum under section 626.557, subdivision 12b. When the background study shows that the subject has been determined by a county adult protection or child protection agency to have been responsible for maltreatment, the court shall be informed of the county, the date of the finding, and the nature of the maltreatment that was substantiated. new text end
new text begin (b) For checks of records under paragraph (a), clauses (1) and (2), the commissioner shall provide the records within 15 working days of receiving the request. The information obtained under sections 245C.05 and 245C.08 from a national criminal history records check shall be provided within three working days of the commissioner's receipt of the data. new text end
new text begin (c) Notwithstanding section 260E.30 or 626.557, subdivision 12b, if the commissioner or county lead agency or lead investigative agency has information that a person of whom a background study was previously completed under this section has been determined to be a perpetrator of maltreatment of a minor or vulnerable adult, the commissioner or the county may provide this information to the court that requested the background study. new text end
new text begin The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board shall make all eligibility determinations for alternative background studies conducted under this section for the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board. The commissioner may conduct an alternative background study of all first-time applicants for educator licenses pursuant to section 122A.18, subdivision 8. The alternative background study for all first-time applicants for educator licenses must include a review of information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, including criminal history data as defined in section 13.87, and must also include a review of the national criminal records repository. new text end
new text begin The Board of School Administrators shall make all eligibility determinations for alternative background studies conducted under this section for the Board of School Administrators. The commissioner may conduct an alternative background study of all first-time applicants for administrator licenses pursuant to section 122A.18, subdivision 8. The alternative background study for all first-time applicants for administrator licenses must include a review of information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, including criminal history data as defined in section 13.87, and must also include a review of the national criminal records repository. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of any individual required under section 62V.05 to have a background study completed under this chapter. Notwithstanding subdivision 1, paragraph (g), the commissioner shall conduct a background study only based on Minnesota criminal records of: new text end
new text begin (1) each navigator; new text end
new text begin (2) each in-person assister; and new text end
new text begin (3) each certified application counselor. new text end
new text begin (b) The MNsure board of directors may initiate background studies required by paragraph (a) using the online NETStudy 2.0 system operated by the commissioner. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall review information that the commissioner receives to determine if the study subject has potentially disqualifying offenses. The commissioner shall send a letter to the subject indicating any of the subject's potential disqualifications as well as any relevant records. The commissioner shall send a copy of the letter indicating any of the subject's potential disqualifications to the MNsure board. new text end
new text begin (d) The MNsure board or its delegate shall review a reconsideration request of an individual in paragraph (a), including granting a set aside, according to the procedures and criteria in chapter 245C. The board shall notify the individual and the Department of Human Services of the board's decision. new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding all other sections of chapter 245C, the commissioner shall conduct public law background studies exclusively in accordance with this section. The commissioner shall conduct a public law background study under this section for an individual having direct contact with persons served by a licensed sex offender treatment program under chapters 246B and 253D. new text end
new text begin (b) All terms in this section shall have the definitions provided in section 245C.02. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall conduct public law background studies according to the following: new text end
new text begin (1) section 245C.04, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), (b), (d), (g), (h), and (i), subdivision 4a, and subdivision 7; new text end
new text begin (2) section 245C.05, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (d), subdivisions 2, 2c, and 2d, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clauses (1) and (2), subdivision 5, paragraphs (b) to (f), and subdivisions 6 and 7; new text end
new text begin (3) section 245C.051; new text end
new text begin (4) section 245C.07, paragraphs (a), (b), (d), and (f); new text end
new text begin (5) section 245C.08, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (5), paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e), subdivision 3, and subdivision 4, paragraphs (a), (c), (d), and (e); new text end
new text begin (6) section 245C.09, subdivisions 1 and 2; new text end
new text begin (7) section 245C.10, subdivision 9; new text end
new text begin (8) section 245C.13, subdivision 1, and subdivision 2, paragraph (a), and paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (3); new text end
new text begin (9) section 245C.14, subdivisions 1 and 2; new text end
new text begin (10) section 245C.15; new text end
new text begin (11) section 245C.16, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (f), and subdivision 2, paragraphs (a) and (b); new text end
new text begin (12) section 245C.17, subdivision 1, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (3), clause (6), item (ii), subdivision 3, paragraphs (a) and (b), paragraph (c), clauses (1) and (2), items (ii) and (iii), paragraph (d), clauses (1) and (2), item (ii), and paragraph (e); new text end
new text begin (13) section 245C.18, paragraph (a); new text end
new text begin (14) section 245C.19; new text end
new text begin (15) section 245C.20; new text end
new text begin (16) section 245C.21, subdivision 1, subdivision 1a, paragraph (c), and subdivisions 2, 3, and 4; new text end
new text begin (17) section 245C.22, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3, subdivision 4, paragraphs (a) to (c), subdivision 5, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), and subdivision 6; new text end
new text begin (18) section 245C.23, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), and subdivision 2, paragraphs (a) to (c); new text end
new text begin (19) section 245C.24, subdivision 2, paragraph (a); new text end
new text begin (20) section 245C.25; new text end
new text begin (21) section 245C.27; new text end
new text begin (22) section 245C.28; new text end
new text begin (23) section 245C.29, subdivision 1, and subdivision 2, paragraphs (a) and (c); new text end
new text begin (24) section 245C.30, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (d), and subdivisions 3 to 5; new text end
new text begin (25) section 245C.31; and new text end
new text begin (26) section 245C.32. new text end
new text begin All data obtained by the commissioner for a background study completed under this section shall be classified as private data. new text end
(a) The individual who is the subject of the background study must provide the applicant, license holder, or other entity under section 245C.04 with sufficient information to ensure an accurate study, including:
(1) the individual's first, middle, and last name and all other names by which the individual has been known;
(2) current home address, city, and state of residence;
(3) current zip code;
(4) sex;
(5) date of birth;
(6) driver's license number or state identification number; and
(7) upon implementation of NETStudy 2.0, the home address, city, county, and state of residence for the past five years.
(b) Every subject of a background study conducted or initiated by counties or private agencies under this chapter must also provide the home address, city, county, and state of residence for the past five years.
(c) Every subject of a background study related to private agency adoptions or related to child foster care licensed through a private agency, who is 18 years of age or older, shall also provide the commissioner a signed consent for the release of any information received from national crime information databases to the private agency that initiated the background study.
(d) The subject of a background study shall provide fingerprints and a photograph as required in subdivision 5.
new text begin (e) The subject of a background study shall submit a completed criminal and maltreatment history records check consent form for applicable national and state level record checks. new text end
(a) The applicant, license holder, or other deleted text begin entitiesdeleted text end new text begin entity initiating the background studynew text end as provided in this chapter shall verify that the information collected under subdivision 1 about an individual who is the subject of the background study is correct and must provide the information on forms or in a format prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) The information collected under subdivision 1 about an individual who is the subject of a completed background study may only be viewable by an entity that initiates a subsequent background study on that individual under NETStudy 2.0 after the entity has paid the applicable fee for the study and has provided the individual with the privacy notice in subdivision 2c.
For background studies related to child foster care when the applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care services are provided, county and private agencies new text begin initiating the background study new text end must collect the information under subdivision 1 and forward it to the commissioner.
(a) For background studies related to all family adult day services and to adult foster care when the adult foster care license holder resides in the adult foster care residence, the county agency new text begin or private agency initiating the background study new text end must collect the information required under subdivision 1 and forward it to the commissioner.
(b) Upon implementation of NETStudy 2.0, for background studies related to family child care and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B, the county agency new text begin initiating the background study new text end must collect the information required under subdivision 1 and provide the information to the commissioner.
(a) Prior to initiating each background study, the entity initiating the study must provide the commissioner's privacy notice to the background study subject required under section 13.04, subdivision 2. The notice must be available through the commissioner's electronic NETStudy and NETStudy 2.0 systems and shall include the information in paragraphs (b) and (c).
(b) The background study subject shall be informed that any previous background studies that received a set-aside will be reviewed, and without further contact with the background study subject, the commissioner may notify the agency that initiated the subsequent background study:
(1) that the individual has a disqualification that has been set aside for the program or agency that initiated the study;
(2) the reason for the disqualification; and
(3) that information about the decision to set aside the disqualification will be available to the license holder upon request without the consent of the background study subject.
(c) The background study subject must also be informed that:
(1) the subject's fingerprints collected for purposes of completing the background study under this chapter must not be retained by the Department of Public Safety, Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, or by the commissioner. The Federal Bureau of Investigation will deleted text begin only retain fingerprints of subjects with a criminal historydeleted text end new text begin not retain background study subjects' fingerprintsnew text end ;
(2) effective upon implementation of NETStudy 2.0, the subject's photographic image will be retained by the commissioner, and if the subject has provided the subject's Social Security number for purposes of the background study, the photographic image will be available to prospective employers and agencies initiating background studies under this chapter to verify the identity of the subject of the background study;
(3) the deleted text begin commissioner'sdeleted text end authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end shall, for purposes of verifying the identity of the background study subject, be able to view the identifying information entered into NETStudy 2.0 by the entity that initiated the background study, but shall not retain the subject's fingerprints, photograph, or information from NETStudy 2.0. The authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end shall retain no more than the subject's name and the date and time the subject's fingerprints were recorded and sent, only as necessary for auditing and billing activities;
(4) the commissioner shall provide the subject notice, as required in section 245C.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), when an entity initiates a background study on the individual;
(5) the subject may request in writing a report listing the entities that initiated a background study on the individual as provided in section 245C.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(6) the subject may request in writing that information used to complete the individual's background study in NETStudy 2.0 be destroyed if the requirements of section 245C.051, paragraph (a), are met; and
(7) notwithstanding clause (6), the commissioner shall destroy:
(i) the subject's photograph after a period of two years when the requirements of section 245C.051, paragraph (c), are met; and
(ii) any data collected on a subject under this chapter after a period of two years following the individual's death as provided in section 245C.051, paragraph (d).
The commissioner of human services shall notify all background study subjects under this chapter that the Department of Human Services, Department of Public Safety, and the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension do not retain fingerprint data after a background study is completed, and that the Federal Bureau of Investigation deleted text begin only retains the fingerprints of subjects who have a criminal historydeleted text end new text begin does not retain background study subjects' fingerprintsnew text end .
(a) For background studies conducted by the Department of Human Services, the commissioner shall implement a secure system for the electronic transmission of:
(1) background study information to the commissioner;
(2) background study results to the license holder;
(3) background study deleted text begin resultsdeleted text end new text begin information obtained under this section and section 245C.08new text end to countiesnew text begin and private agenciesnew text end for background studies conducted by the commissioner for child foster carenew text begin , including a summary of nondisqualifying results, except as prohibited by lawnew text end ; and
(4) background study results to county agencies for background studies conducted by the commissioner for adult foster care and family adult day services and, upon implementation of NETStudy 2.0, family child care and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B.
(b) Unless the commissioner has granted a hardship variance under paragraph (c), a license holder or an applicant must use the electronic transmission system known as NETStudy or NETStudy 2.0 to submit all requests for background studies to the commissioner as required by this chapter.
(c) A license holder or applicant whose program is located in an area in which high-speed Internet is inaccessible may request the commissioner to grant a variance to the electronic transmission requirement.
(d) Section 245C.08, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), applies to results transmitted under this subdivision.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
(a) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for child foster care, children's residential facilities, adoptions, or a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child, the subject of the background study, who is 18 years of age or older, shall provide the commissioner with a set of classifiable fingerprints obtained from an authorized agency for a national criminal history record check.
(b) For background studies initiated on or after the implementation of NETStudy 2.0, except as provided under subdivision 5a, every subject of a background study must provide the commissioner with a set of the background study subject's classifiable fingerprints and photograph. The photograph and fingerprints must be recorded at the same time by the deleted text begin commissioner'sdeleted text end authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end and sent to the commissioner through the commissioner's secure data system described in section 245C.32, subdivision 1a, paragraph (b).
(c) The fingerprints shall be submitted by the commissioner to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and, when specifically required by law, submitted to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history record check.
(d) The fingerprints must not be retained by the Department of Public Safety, Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, or the commissioner. The Federal Bureau of Investigation will not retain background study subjects' fingerprints.
(e) The deleted text begin commissioner'sdeleted text end authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end shall, for purposes of verifying the identity of the background study subject, be able to view the identifying information entered into NETStudy 2.0 by the entity that initiated the background study, but shall not retain the subject's fingerprints, photograph, or information from NETStudy 2.0. The authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end shall retain no more than the name and date and time the subject's fingerprints were recorded and sent, only as necessary for auditing and billing activities.
(f) For any background study conducted under this chapter, the subject shall provide the commissioner with a set of classifiable fingerprints when the commissioner has reasonable cause to require a national criminal history record check as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 15a.
(a) For any background study completed under this section, if the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe the information is pertinent to the disqualification of an individual, the commissioner also may review arrest and investigative information from:
(1) the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension;
(2) the commissioners of health and human services;
(3) a county attorney;
(4) a county sheriff;
(5) a county agency;
(6) a local chief of police;
(7) other states;
(8) the courts;
(9) the Federal Bureau of Investigation;
(10) the National Criminal Records Repository; and
(11) criminal records from other states.
(b) Except when specifically required by law, the commissioner is not required to conduct more than one review of a subject's records from the Federal Bureau of Investigation if a review of the subject's criminal history with the Federal Bureau of Investigation has already been completed by the commissioner and there has been no break in the subject's affiliation with the entity that initiated the background study.
(c) If the commissioner conducts a national criminal history record check when required by law and uses the information from the national criminal history record check to make a disqualification determination, the data obtained is private data and cannot be shared with deleted text begin county agencies,deleted text end private agenciesdeleted text begin ,deleted text end or prospective employers of the background study subject.
(d) If the commissioner conducts a national criminal history record check when required by law and uses the information from the national criminal history record check to make a disqualification determination, the license holder or entity that submitted the study is not required to obtain a copy of the background study subject's disqualification letter under section 245C.17, subdivision 3.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services shall be authorized to receive information under this chapter. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies. Except as otherwise provided in subdivisions 1c and 1d, the fees collected under this section shall be appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies under this chapter. Fees under this section are charges under section 16A.1283, paragraph (b), clause (3). new text end
new text begin (b) Background study fees may include: new text end
new text begin (1) a fee to compensate the commissioner's authorized fingerprint collection vendor or vendors for obtaining and processing a background study subject's classifiable fingerprints and photograph pursuant to subdivision 1c; and new text end
new text begin (2) a separate fee under subdivision 1c to complete a review of background-study-related records as authorized under this chapter. new text end
new text begin (c) Fees charged under paragraph (b) may be paid in whole or part when authorized by law by a state agency or board; by state court administration; by a service provider, employer, license holder, or other organization that initiates the background study; by the commissioner or other organization with duly appropriated funds; by a background study subject; or by some combination of these sources. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall enter into a contract with a qualified vendor or vendors to obtain and process a background study subject's classifiable fingerprints and photograph as required by section 245C.05. The commissioner may, at their discretion, directly collect fees and reimburse the commissioner's authorized fingerprint collection vendor for the vendor's services or require the vendor to collect the fees. The authorized vendor is responsible for reimbursing the vendor's subcontractors at a rate specified in the contract with the commissioner. new text end
new text begin The commissioner may increase background study fees as necessary, commensurate with an increase in the national criminal history record check fee. The commissioner shall report any fee increase under this subdivision to the legislature during the legislative session following the fee increase, so that the legislature may consider adoption of the fee increase into statute. By July 1 of every year, background study fees shall be set at the amount adopted by the legislature under this section. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021. new text end
The commissioner shall recover the cost of the background studies initiated by supplemental nursing services agencies registered under section 144A.71, subdivision 1, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the agency. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by a personal care provider organization under sections 256B.0651 to 256B.0654 and 256B.0659 through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the organization responsible for submitting the background study form. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of the background studies initiated by temporary personnel agencies, educational programs, and professional services agencies that initiate background studies under section 245C.03, subdivision 4, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the agency. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies required under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, for the purposes of adult foster care and family adult day services licensing, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the license holder. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by unlicensed home and community-based waiver providers of service to seniors and individuals with disabilities under section 256B.4912 through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies required under section 245C.03, subdivision 7, for the purposes of children's therapeutic services and supports under section 256B.0943, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the license holder. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies required under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, for all programs that are licensed by the commissioner, except child foster care when the applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care services are provided, family child care, child care centers, certified license-exempt child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study charged to the license holder. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of a background study required for family child care, certified license-exempt child care centers, licensed child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care providers authorized under chapter 119B through a fee of no more than $40 per study charged to the license holder. A fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study shall be charged for studies conducted under section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, paragraph (a). The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner to conduct background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by an agency-provider delivering services under section 256B.85, subdivision 11, or a financial management services provider providing service functions under section 256B.85, subdivision 13, through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study, charged to the organization responsible for submitting the background study form. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by providers of housing support under section 256I.04 through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by county social services agencies and local welfare agencies for individuals who are required to have a background study under section deleted text begin 626.559, subdivision 1bdeleted text end new text begin 260E.36, subdivision 3new text end , through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by providers of special transportation service under section 174.30 through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
The commissioner shall recover the cost of conducting background studies for guardians and conservators under section 524.5-118 through a fee of no more than $110 per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.new text begin The fee for conducting an alternative background study for appointment of a professional guardian or conservator must be paid by the guardian or conservator. In other cases, the fee must be paid as follows:new text end
new text begin (1) if the matter is proceeding in forma pauperis, the fee must be paid as an expense for purposes of section 524.5-502, paragraph (a); new text end
new text begin (2) if there is an estate of the ward or protected person, the fee must be paid from the estate; or new text end
new text begin (3) in the case of a guardianship or conservatorship of a person that is not proceeding in forma pauperis, the fee must be paid by the guardian, conservator, or the court. new text end
The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by providers of housing support services under section 256B.051 through a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
new text begin The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies required under section 245C.03, subdivision 15, for the purposes of early intensive developmental and behavioral intervention under section 256B.0949, through a fee of no more than $42 per study charged to the enrolled agency. The fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin The applicant or license holder is responsible for paying to the Department of Human Services all fees associated with the preparation of the fingerprints, the criminal records check consent form, and the criminal background check. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall set fees to recover the cost of background studies and criminal background checks initiated by MNsure under sections 62V.05 and 245C.031. The fee amount shall be established through interagency agreement between the commissioner and the board of MNsure or its designee. The fees collected under this subdivision shall be deposited in the special revenue fund and are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies and criminal background checks. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by the Professional Educators Licensing Standards Board through a fee of no more than $51 per study. Fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for purposes of conducting background studies. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall recover the cost of background studies initiated by the Board of School Administrators through a fee of no more than $51 per study. Fees collected under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner for purposes of conducting background studies. new text end
The subject of a background study may not perform any activity requiring a background study under paragraph (c) until the commissioner has issued one of the notices under paragraph (a).
(a) Notices from the commissioner required prior to activity under paragraph (c) include:
(1) a notice of the study results under section 245C.17 stating that:
(i) the individual is not disqualified; or
(ii) more time is needed to complete the study but the individual is not required to be removed from direct contact or access to people receiving services prior to completion of the study as provided under section 245C.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (b) or (c). The notice that more time is needed to complete the study must also indicate whether the individual is required to be under continuous direct supervision prior to completion of the background study. When more time is necessary to complete a background study of an individual affiliated with a Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility or foster residence setting, the individual may not work in the facility or setting regardless of whether or not the individual is supervised;
(2) a notice that a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or
(3) a notice that a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30.
(b) For a background study affiliated with a licensed child care center or certified license-exempt child care center, the notice sent under paragraph (a), clause (1), item (ii), must require the individual to be under continuous direct supervision prior to completion of the background study except as permitted in subdivision 3.
(c) Activities prohibited prior to receipt of notice under paragraph (a) include:
(1) being issued a license;
(2) living in the household where the licensed program will be provided;
(3) providing direct contact services to persons served by a program unless the subject is under continuous direct supervision;
(4) having access to persons receiving services if the background study was completed under section 144.057, subdivision 1, or 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2), (5), or (6), unless the subject is under continuous direct supervision;
(5) for licensed child care centers and certified license-exempt child care centers, providing direct contact services to persons served by the program; deleted text begin ordeleted text end
(6) for children's residential facilities or foster residence settings, working in the facility or settingdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; ornew text end
new text begin (7) for background studies affiliated with a personal care provider organization, except as provided in section 245C.03, subdivision 3b, before a personal care assistant provides services, the personal care assistance provider agency must initiate a background study of the personal care assistant under this chapter and the personal care assistance provider agency must have received a notice from the commissioner that the personal care assistant is: new text end
new text begin (i) not disqualified under section 245C.14; or new text end
new text begin (ii) disqualified, but the personal care assistant has received a set aside of the disqualification under section 245C.22. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall disqualify an individual who is the subject of a background study from any position allowing direct contact with persons receiving services from the license holder or entity identified in section 245C.03, upon receipt of information showing, or when a background study completed under this chapter shows any of the following:
(1) a conviction of, admission to, or Alford plea to one or more crimes listed in section 245C.15, regardless of whether the conviction or admission is a felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor level crime;
(2) a preponderance of the evidence indicates the individual has committed an act or acts that meet the definition of any of the crimes listed in section 245C.15, regardless of whether the preponderance of the evidence is for a felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor level crime; or
(3) an investigation results in an administrative determination listed under section 245C.15, subdivision 4, paragraph (b).
(b) No individual who is disqualified following a background study under section 245C.03, subdivisions 1 and 2, may be retained in a position involving direct contact with persons served by a program or entity identified in section 245C.03, unless the commissioner has provided written notice under section 245C.17 stating that:
(1) the individual may remain in direct contact during the period in which the individual may request reconsideration as provided in section 245C.21, subdivision 2;
(2) the commissioner has set aside the individual's disqualification for that program or entity identified in section 245C.03, as provided in section 245C.22, subdivision 4; or
(3) the license holder has been granted a variance for the disqualified individual under section 245C.30.
new text begin (c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), for the purposes of a background study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, the commissioner shall disqualify an individual who is the subject of a background study from any position allowing direct contact with persons receiving services from the license holder or entity identified in section 245C.03, upon receipt of information showing or when a background study completed under this chapter shows reason for disqualification under section 245C.15, subdivision 4a. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) For a background study affiliated with a licensed child care center or certified license-exempt child care center, if an individual is disqualified from direct contact under subdivision 1, the commissioner must also disqualify the individual from working in any position regardless of whether the individual would have direct contact with or access to children served in the licensed child care center or certified license-exempt child care center and from having access to a person receiving services from the center. new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this chapter, for a background study affiliated with a licensed child care center or a certified license-exempt child care center, if an individual is disqualified, the individual may not work in the child care center until the commissioner has issued a notice stating that: new text end
new text begin (1) the individual is not disqualified; new text end
new text begin (2) a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or new text end
new text begin (3) a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30. new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4, for a background study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, regardless of how much time has passed, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if the individual committed an act that resulted in a felony-level conviction for sections: 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.2112 (criminal vehicular homicide); 609.221 (assault in the first degree); 609.223, subdivision 2 (assault in the third degree, past pattern of child abuse); 609.223, subdivision 3 (assault in the third degree, victim under four); a felony offense under sections 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault, spousal abuse, child abuse or neglect, or a crime against children); 609.2247 (domestic assault by strangulation); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult resulting in the death of a vulnerable adult); 609.245 (aggravated robbery); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671 (assault of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the commission of a crime); 609.322, subdivision 1 (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking in the first degree); 609.324, subdivision 1 (other prohibited acts; engaging in, hiring, or agreeing to hire minor to engage in prostitution); 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree); 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree); 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); 609.3453 (criminal sexual predatory conduct); 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.561 (arson in the first degree); 609.582, subdivision 1 (burglary in the first degree); 609.746 (interference with privacy); 617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.246 (use of minors in sexual performance prohibited); or 617.247 (possession of pictorial representations of minors). new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4, for the purposes of a background study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14, regardless of how much time has passed, if the individual: new text end
new text begin (1) committed an action under paragraph (e) that resulted in death or involved sexual abuse, as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 20; new text end
new text begin (2) committed an act that resulted in a gross misdemeanor-level conviction for section 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); new text end
new text begin (3) committed an act against or involving a minor that resulted in a felony-level conviction for: section 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223, subdivision 1 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); or 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); or new text end
new text begin (4) committed an act that resulted in a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor-level conviction for section 617.293 (dissemination and display of harmful materials to minors). new text end
new text begin (c) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4, for a background study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than 20 years have passed since the termination of the individual's parental rights under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), or if the individual consented to a termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), to settle a petition to involuntarily terminate parental rights. An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than 20 years have passed since the termination of the individual's parental rights in any other state or country, where the conditions for the individual's termination of parental rights are substantially similar to the conditions in section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b). new text end
new text begin (d) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4, for a background study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since a felony-level violation for sections: 152.021 (controlled substance crime in the first degree); 152.022 (controlled substance crime in the second degree); 152.023 (controlled substance crime in the third degree); 152.024 (controlled substance crime in the fourth degree); 152.025 (controlled substance crime in the fifth degree); 152.0261 (importing controlled substances across state borders); 152.0262, subdivision 1, paragraph (b) (possession of substance with intent to manufacture methamphetamine); 152.027, subdivision 6, paragraph (c) (sale or possession of synthetic cannabinoids); 152.096 (conspiracies prohibited); 152.097 (simulated controlled substances); 152.136 (anhydrous ammonia; prohibited conduct; criminal penalties; civil liabilities); 152.137 (methamphetamine-related crimes involving children or vulnerable adults); 169A.24 (felony first-degree driving while impaired); 243.166 (violation of predatory offender registration requirements); 609.2113 (criminal vehicular operation; bodily harm); 609.2114 (criminal vehicular operation; unborn child); 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult not resulting in the death of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or facilitate a crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.322, subdivision 1a (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking in the second degree); 609.498, subdivision 1 (tampering with a witness in the first degree); 609.498, subdivision 1b (aggravated first-degree witness tampering); 609.562 (arson in the second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree); 609.582, subdivision 2 (burglary in the second degree); 609.66 (felony dangerous weapons); 609.687 (adulteration); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.749, subdivision 3, 4, or 5 (felony-level harassment or stalking); 609.855, subdivision 5 (shooting at or in a public transit vehicle or facility); or 624.713 (certain people not to possess firearms). new text end
new text begin (e) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4, except as provided in paragraph (a), for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child foster care license, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since: new text end
new text begin (1) a felony-level violation for an act not against or involving a minor that constitutes: section 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223, subdivision 1 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); or 609.224, subdivision 4 (assault in the fifth degree); new text end
new text begin (2) a violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01, subdivision 14; new text end
new text begin (3) a determination or disposition of the individual's failure to make required reports under section 260E.06 or 626.557, subdivision 3, for incidents in which the final disposition under chapter 260E or section 626.557 was substantiated maltreatment and the maltreatment was recurring or serious; new text end
new text begin (4) a determination or disposition of the individual's substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under chapter 260E, a vulnerable adult under section 626.557, or serious or recurring maltreatment in any other state, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of maltreatment under chapter 260E or section 626.557 and meet the definition of serious maltreatment or recurring maltreatment; new text end
new text begin (5) a gross misdemeanor-level violation for sections: 609.224, subdivision 2 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault); 609.233 (criminal neglect); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.749 (stalking); or 617.23 (indecent exposure); or new text end
new text begin (6) committing an act against or involving a minor that resulted in a misdemeanor-level violation of section 609.224, subdivision 1 (assault in the fifth degree). new text end
new text begin (f) For purposes of this subdivision, the disqualification begins from: new text end
new text begin (1) the date of the alleged violation, if the individual was not convicted; new text end
new text begin (2) the date of conviction, if the individual was convicted of the violation but not committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections; or new text end
new text begin (3) the date of release from prison, if the individual was convicted of the violation and committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections. new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding clause (3), if the individual is subsequently reincarcerated for a violation of the individual's supervised release, the disqualification begins from the date of release from the subsequent incarceration. new text end
new text begin (g) An individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes, permanently disqualifies the individual under section 245C.14. An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in paragraphs (d) and (e). new text end
new text begin (h) An individual's offense in any other state or country, where the elements of the offense are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), permanently disqualifies the individual under section 245C.14. An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any offense listed in paragraphs (d) and (e). new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
(a) If the commissioner determines that the individual studied has a disqualifying characteristic, the commissioner shall review the information immediately available and make a determination as to the subject's immediate risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact with, or access to, people receiving services.
(b) The commissioner shall consider all relevant information available, including the following factors in determining the immediate risk of harm:
(1) the recency of the disqualifying characteristic;
(2) the recency of discharge from probation for the crimes;
(3) the number of disqualifying characteristics;
(4) the intrusiveness or violence of the disqualifying characteristic;
(5) the vulnerability of the victim involved in the disqualifying characteristic;
(6) the similarity of the victim to the persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact;
(7) whether the individual has a disqualification from a previous background study that has not been set aside; deleted text begin anddeleted text end
(8) if the individual has a disqualification which may not be set aside because it is a permanent bar under section 245C.24, subdivision 1, or the individual is a child care background study subject who has a felony-level conviction for a drug-related offense in the last five years, the commissioner may order the immediate removal of the individual from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to, persons receiving services from the program and from working in a children's residential facility or foster residence settingdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; andnew text end
new text begin (9) if the individual has a disqualification which may not be set aside because it is a permanent bar under section 245C.24, subdivision 2, or the individual is a child care background study subject who has a felony-level conviction for a drug-related offense during the last five years, the commissioner may order the immediate removal of the individual from any position allowing direct contact with or access to persons receiving services from the center and from working in a licensed child care center or certified license-exempt child care center. new text end
(c) This section does not apply when the subject of a background study is regulated by a health-related licensing board as defined in chapter 214, and the subject is determined to be responsible for substantiated maltreatment under section 626.557 or chapter 260E.
(d) This section does not apply to a background study related to an initial application for a child foster family setting license.
(e) Except for paragraph (f), this section does not apply to a background study that is also subject to the requirements under section 256B.0659, subdivisions 11 and 13, for a personal care assistant or a qualified professional as defined in section 256B.0659, subdivision 1.
(f) If the commissioner has reason to believe, based on arrest information or an active maltreatment investigation, that an individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons receiving services, the commissioner may order that the person be continuously supervised or immediately removed pending the conclusion of the maltreatment investigation or criminal proceedings.
(a) After evaluating the information immediately available under subdivision 1, the commissioner may have reason to believe one of the following:
(1) the individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact or access to persons served by the program or where the individual studied will work;
(2) the individual poses a risk of harm requiring continuous, direct supervision while providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject may request a reconsideration; or
(3) the individual does not pose an imminent risk of harm or a risk of harm requiring continuous, direct supervision while providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject may request a reconsideration.
(b) After determining an individual's risk of harm under this section, the commissioner must notify the subject of the background study and the applicant or license holder as required under section 245C.17.
(c) For Title IV-E eligible children's residential facilities and foster residence settings, the commissioner is prohibited from making the findings in paragraph (a), clause (2) or (3).
new text begin (d) For licensed child care centers or certified license-exempt child care centers, the commissioner is prohibited from making the findings in paragraph (a), clause (2) or (3). new text end
(a) Within three working days after the commissioner's receipt of a request for a background study submitted through the commissioner's NETStudy or NETStudy 2.0 system, the commissioner shall notify the background study subject and the license holder or other entity as provided in this chapter in writing or by electronic transmission of the results of the study or that more time is needed to complete the study. The notice to the individual shall include the identity of the entity that initiated the background study.
(b) Before being provided access to NETStudy 2.0, the license holder or other entity under section 245C.04 shall sign an acknowledgment of responsibilities form developed by the commissioner that includes identifying the sensitive background study information person, who must be an employee of the license holder or entity. All queries to NETStudy 2.0 are electronically recorded and subject to audit by the commissioner. The electronic record shall identify the specific user. A background study subject may request in writing to the commissioner a report listing the entities that initiated a background study on the individual.
(c) When the commissioner has completed a prior background study on an individual that resulted in an order for immediate removal and more time is necessary to complete a subsequent study, the notice that more time is needed that is issued under paragraph (a) shall include an order for immediate removal of the individual from any position allowing direct contact with or access to people receiving services and from working in a children's residential facility deleted text begin ordeleted text end new text begin ,new text end foster residence settingnew text begin , child care center, or certified license-exempt child care centernew text end pending completion of the background study.
new text begin (a) For child care centers and certified license-exempt child care centers, all notices under this section that order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied from any position allowing direct contact with, or access to a person served by the center, must also order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied from working in any position regardless of whether the individual would have direct contact with or access to children served in the center. new text end
new text begin (b) For child care centers and certified license-exempt child care centers, notices under this section must not allow an individual to work in the center. new text end
(a) Upon receipt of notice from the commissioner, the license holder must remove a disqualified individual from direct contact with persons served by the licensed program if:
(1) the individual does not request reconsideration under section 245C.21 within the prescribed time;
(2) the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration, the commissioner does not set aside the disqualification under section 245C.22, subdivision 4, and the individual does not submit a timely request for a hearing under sections 245C.27 and 256.045, or 245C.28 and chapter 14; or
(3) the individual submits a timely request for a hearing under sections 245C.27 and 256.045, or 245C.28 and chapter 14, and the commissioner does not set aside or rescind the disqualification under section 245A.08, subdivision 5, or 256.045.
(b) For children's residential facility and foster residence setting license holders, upon receipt of notice from the commissioner under paragraph (a), the license holder must also remove the disqualified individual from working in the program, facility, or setting and from access to persons served by the licensed program.
(c) For Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility and foster residence setting license holders, upon receipt of notice from the commissioner under paragraph (a), the license holder must also remove the disqualified individual from working in the program and from access to persons served by the program and must not allow the individual to work in the facility or setting until the commissioner has issued a notice stating that:
(1) the individual is not disqualified;
(2) a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or
(3) a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30.
new text begin (d) For licensed child care center and certified license-exempt child care center license holders, upon receipt of notice from the commissioner under paragraph (a), the license holder must remove the disqualified individual from working in any position regardless of whether the individual would have direct contact with or access to children served in the center and from having access to persons served by the center and must not allow the individual to work in the center until the commissioner has issued a notice stating that: new text end
new text begin (1) the individual is not disqualified; new text end
new text begin (2) a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or new text end
new text begin (3) a variance has been granted related to the individual under section 245C.30. new text end
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) to deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end , the commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of any individual disqualified pursuant to this chapter, regardless of how much time has passed, if the individual was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed in section 245C.15, subdivision 1.
(b) For an individual in the chemical dependency or corrections field who was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed under section 245C.15, subdivision 1, and whose disqualification was set aside prior to July 1, 2005, the commissioner must consider granting a variance pursuant to section 245C.30 for the license holder for a program dealing primarily with adults. A request for reconsideration evaluated under this paragraph must include a letter of recommendation from the license holder that was subject to the prior set-aside decision addressing the individual's quality of care to children or vulnerable adults and the circumstances of the individual's departure from that service.
(c) If an individual who requires a background study for nonemergency medical transportation services under section 245C.03, subdivision 12, was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed under section 245C.15, subdivision 1, and if more than 40 years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, the commissioner may consider granting a set-aside pursuant to section 245C.22. A request for reconsideration evaluated under this paragraph must include a letter of recommendation from the employer. This paragraph does not apply to a person disqualified based on a violation of sections 243.166; 609.185 to 609.205; 609.25; 609.342 to 609.3453; 609.352; 617.23, subdivision 2, clause (1), or 3, clause (1); 617.246; or 617.247.
(d) When a licensed foster care provider adopts an individual who had received foster care services from the provider for over six months, and the adopted individual is required to receive a background study under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2) or (6), the commissioner may grant a variance to the license holder under section 245C.30 to permit the adopted individual with a permanent disqualification to remain affiliated with the license holder under the conditions of the variance when the variance is recommended by the county of responsibility for each of the remaining individuals in placement in the home and the licensing agency for the home.
new text begin (e) For an individual 18 years of age or older affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, the commissioner must not set aside or grant a variance for the disqualification of any individual disqualified pursuant to this chapter, regardless of how much time has passed, if the individual was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed in section 245C.15, subdivision 4a, paragraphs (a) and (b). new text end
new text begin (f) In connection with a family foster setting license, the commissioner may grant a variance to the disqualification for an individual who is under 18 years of age at the time the background study is submitted. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
(a) The commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of an individual in connection with a license to provide family child care for childrendeleted text begin , foster care for children in the provider's home,deleted text end or foster care or day care services for adults in the provider's home if: (1) less than ten years has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, if any, for the offense; or (2) when disqualified based on a preponderance of evidence determination under section 245C.14, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2), or an admission under section 245C.14, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), and less than ten years has passed since the individual committed the act or admitted to committing the act, whichever is later; and (3) the individual has committed a violation of any of the following offenses: sections 609.165 (felon ineligible to possess firearm); criminal vehicular homicide or criminal vehicular operation causing death under 609.2112, 609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.215 (aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide); felony violations under 609.223 or 609.2231 (assault in the third or fourth degree); 609.229 (crimes committed for benefit of a gang); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or to facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.562 (arson in the second degree); 609.71 (riot); 609.498, subdivision 1 or 1b (aggravated first-degree or first-degree tampering with a witness); burglary in the first or second degree under 609.582 (burglary); 609.66 (dangerous weapon); 609.665 (spring guns); 609.67 (machine guns and short-barreled shotguns); 609.749, subdivision 2 (gross misdemeanor harassment); 152.021 or 152.022 (controlled substance crime in the first or second degree); 152.023, subdivision 1, clause (3) or (4) or subdivision 2, clause (4) (controlled substance crime in the third degree); 152.024, subdivision 1, clause (2), (3), or (4) (controlled substance crime in the fourth degree); 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (fifth-degree assault by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report); 609.265 (abduction); 609.2664 to 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first or second degree); 609.267 to 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the first, second, or third degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the commission of a crime); repeat offenses under 617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.293 (disseminating or displaying harmful material to minors); a felony-level conviction involving alcohol or drug use, a gross misdemeanor offense under 609.324, subdivision 1 (other prohibited acts); a gross misdemeanor offense under 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); a gross misdemeanor offense under 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); or 624.713 (certain persons not to possess firearms); or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21.
(b) The commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of an individual if less than ten years have passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a) as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.
(c) The commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of an individual if less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a).
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
The commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of an individual in connection with a license to provide family child care for childrendeleted text begin , foster care for children in the provider's home,deleted text end or foster care or day care services for adults in the provider's home if within seven years preceding the study:
(1) the individual committed an act that constitutes maltreatment of a child under sections 260E.24, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3, and 260E.30, subdivisions 1, 2, and 4, and the maltreatment resulted in substantial bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence; or
(2) the individual was determined under section 626.557 to be the perpetrator of a substantiated incident of maltreatment of a vulnerable adult that resulted in substantial bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall not set aside or grant a variance for the disqualification of an individual 18 years of age or older in connection with a foster family setting license if within five years preceding the study the individual is convicted of a felony in section 245C.15, subdivision 4a, paragraph (d). new text end
new text begin (b) In connection with a foster family setting license, the commissioner may set aside or grant a variance to the disqualification for an individual who is under 18 years of age at the time the background study is submitted. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin For a variance related to a public law background study conducted under section 245C.032, the variance shall state the services that may be provided by the disqualified individual and state the conditions with which the license holder or applicant must comply for the variance to remain in effect. The variance shall not state the reason for the disqualification. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall design, develop, and test the NETStudy 2.0 system and implement it no later than September 1, 2015.
(b) The NETStudy 2.0 system developed and implemented by the commissioner shall incorporate and meet all applicable data security standards and policies required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Department of Public Safety, Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, and the Office of MN.IT Services. The system shall meet all required standards for encryption of data at the database level as well as encryption of data that travels electronically among agencies initiating background studies, the commissioner's authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end , the commissioner, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, and in cases involving national criminal record checks, the FBI.
(c) The data system developed and implemented by the commissioner shall incorporate a system of data security that allows the commissioner to control access to the data field level by the commissioner's employees. The commissioner shall establish that employees have access to the minimum amount of private data on any individual as is necessary to perform their duties under this chapter.
(d) The commissioner shall oversee regular quality and compliance audits of the authorized fingerprint collection vendornew text begin or vendorsnew text end .
(a) The commissioner may also use these systems and records to obtain and provide criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, criminal history data held by the commissioner, and data about substantiated maltreatment under section 626.557 or chapter 260E, for other purposes, provided that:
(1) the background study is specifically authorized in statute; or
(2) the request is made with the informed consent of the subject of the study as provided in section 13.05, subdivision 4.
(b) An individual making a request under paragraph (a), clause (2), must agree in writing not to disclose the data to any other individual without the consent of the subject of the data.
(c) The commissioner may recover the cost of obtaining and providing background study data by charging the individual or entity requesting the study a fee of no more than deleted text begin $20deleted text end new text begin $42new text end per study. The fees collected under this paragraph are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose of conducting background studies.
new text begin (a) A license holder who holds a qualifying accreditation may request approval for an alternative licensing inspection by the commissioner when the standards of the accrediting body are determined by the commissioner to be the same as or similar to the standards set forth in this chapter. Programs licensed according to section 245G.19 to serve clients with children and opioid treatment programs licensed according to section 245G.22 are not eligible for an alternative licensing inspection. new text end
new text begin (b) A license holder may request an alternative licensing inspection after the license holder has had at least one inspection by the commissioner that included a review of all applicable requirements in this chapter after issuance of the initial license. new text end
new text begin (c) To be eligible for an alternative licensing inspection, the license holder must be in substantial and consistent compliance at the time of the request. For purposes of this section, "substantial and consistent compliance" means: new text end
new text begin (1) the license holder has not had a license made conditional, suspended, or revoked within the last five years; new text end
new text begin (2) there have been no substantiated allegations of maltreatment for which the facility was determined responsible within the past five years; and new text end
new text begin (3) the license holder has corrected all violations and submitted required documentation as specified in the correction orders issued within the past two years. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner must accept a qualifying accreditation from an accrediting body listed in paragraph (c) after determining, in consultation with the accrediting body and license holders, the accrediting body's standards that are the same as or similar to the licensing requirements in this chapter. In determining whether standards of an accrediting body are the same as or similar to licensing requirements under this chapter, the commissioner shall give due consideration to the existence of a standard that aligns in whole or in part to a licensing standard. new text end
new text begin (b) Upon request by a license holder, the commissioner may allow the accrediting body to monitor for compliance with licensing requirements under this chapter that are determined to be neither the same as nor similar to those of the accrediting body. new text end
new text begin (c) For purposes of this section, "accrediting body" means the joint commission. new text end
new text begin (d) Qualifying accreditation only applies to the license holder's licensed programs that are included in the accrediting body's survey during each survey period. new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder may request an alternative licensing inspection on the forms and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner. When submitting the request, the license holder must submit all documentation issued by the accrediting body verifying that the license holder has obtained and maintained the qualifying accreditation and has complied with recommendations or requirements from the accrediting body during the period of accreditation. Prior to approving an alternative licensing inspection under this section, the commissioner must have reviewed and approved the license holder's policies and procedures required to demonstrate compliance with all applicable requirements in this chapter. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must notify the license holder in writing within 90 days whether the request for an alternative licensing inspection status has been approved. new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder approved for alternative licensing inspection under this section is required to maintain compliance with all licensing standards according to this chapter. new text end
new text begin (b) After approval, the license holder must submit to the commissioner changes to policies required as a result of legislative changes to this chapter. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner may conduct licensing inspections of requirements that are not already covered by the accrediting body, as determined under subdivision 2, paragraphs (a) and (b), including applicable requirements in chapters 245A and 245C, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9544. new text end
new text begin (d) The commissioner may conduct routine licensing inspections every five years of all applicable requirements in this chapter, chapters 245A and 245C, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9544. new text end
new text begin (e) Within ten days of final approval of a corrective action plan by the accrediting body, if any, or if no corrections, upon receipt of the final report by the accrediting body, the license holder must mail or e-mail to the commissioner the complete contents of all survey results and corrective responses. new text end
new text begin (f) If the accrediting body determines the scope of noncompliance of a standard with a pattern or widespread moderate likelihood to harm a client or any high likelihood to harm a client, the commissioner may conduct an inspection. new text end
new text begin (g) If the accrediting body does not subject a licensed location to a survey by the accrediting body, the license holder must inform the commissioner and the commissioner may conduct an inspection of that location. new text end
new text begin (h) Upon receipt of a complaint or report regarding the services of a license holder approved for alternative licensing inspection under this section, the commissioner may investigate the complaint or report and may take any action as provided under section 245A.06 or 245A.07. new text end
new text begin (i) The license holder must notify the commissioner in a timely manner if the license holder no longer holds a qualifying accreditation from an accrediting body. new text end
new text begin Nothing in this section changes the commissioner's responsibilities to investigate alleged or suspected maltreatment of a minor under chapter 260E or a vulnerable adult under section 626.557. new text end
new text begin The commissioner may terminate the approval of an alternative licensing inspection if after approval: new text end
new text begin (1) the commissioner determines that the license holder has not maintained the qualifying accreditation; new text end
new text begin (2) the license holder fails to provide the commissioner with documentation that demonstrates the license holder has complied with accreditation standards; new text end
new text begin (3) the commissioner substantiates maltreatment for which the license holder or facility is determined to be responsible; or new text end
new text begin (4) the license holder is issued an order for conditional license, fine, suspension, or license revocation that has not been reversed upon appeal. new text end
new text begin The commissioner's decision that the conditions for approval for an alternative licensing inspection have not been met is final and not subject to appeal under the provisions of chapter 14. new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin An early intensive developmental and behavioral intervention services agency must fulfill any background studies requirements under this section by initiating a background study through the commissioner's NETStudy system as provided under sections 245C.03, subdivision 15, and 245C.10, subdivision 17. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
The commissioner of human services shall:
(1) provide practice guidance to responsible social services agencies and licensed child-placing agencies that reflect federal and state laws and policy direction on placement of children;
(2) develop criteria for determining whether a prospective adoptive or foster family has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background;
(3) provide a standardized training curriculum for adoption and foster care workers and administrators who work with children. Training must address the following objectives:
(i) developing and maintaining sensitivity to all cultures;
(ii) assessing values and their cultural implications;
(iii) making individualized placement decisions that advance the best interests of a particular child under section 260C.212, subdivision 2; and
(iv) issues related to cross-cultural placement;
(4) provide a training curriculum for all prospective adoptive and foster families that prepares them to care for the needs of adoptive and foster children taking into consideration the needs of children outlined in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and, as necessary, preparation is continued after placement of the child and includes the knowledge and skills related to reasonable and prudent parenting standards for the participation of the child in age or developmentally appropriate activities, according to section 260C.212, subdivision 14;
(5) develop and provide to responsible social services agencies and licensed child-placing agencies a home study format to assess the capacities and needs of prospective adoptive and foster families. The format must address problem-solving skills; parenting skills; evaluate the degree to which the prospective family has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background, and other issues needed to provide sufficient information for agencies to make an individualized placement decision consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2. For a study of a prospective foster parent, the format must also address the capacity of the prospective foster parent to provide a safe, healthy, smoke-free home environment. If a prospective adoptive parent has also been a foster parent, any update necessary to a home study for the purpose of adoption may be completed by the licensing authority responsible for the foster parent's license. If a prospective adoptive parent with an approved adoptive home study also applies for a foster care license, the license application may be made with the same agency which provided the adoptive home study; deleted text begin anddeleted text end
(6) consult with representatives reflecting diverse populations from the councils established under sections 3.922 and 15.0145, and other state, local, and community organizationsdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; andnew text end
new text begin (7) establish family foster setting licensing guidelines for county agencies and private agencies designated or licensed by the commissioner to perform licensing functions and activities under section 245A.04. Guidelines that the commissioner establishes under this clause shall be considered directives of the commissioner under section 245A.16. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2023. new text end
When the peacetime emergency declared by the governor in response to the COVID-19 outbreak expires, is terminated, or is rescinded by the proper authority, the following waivers and modifications to human services programs issued by the commissioner of human services pursuant to Executive Orders 20-11 and 20-12 that are required to comply with federal law may remain in effect for the time period set out in applicable federal law or for the time period set out in any applicable federally approved waiver or state plan amendment, whichever is later:
(1) new text begin CV15: allowing telephone or video visits for waiver programs;new text end
new text begin (2) new text end CV17: preserving health care coverage for Medical Assistance and MinnesotaCare;
deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end CV18: implementation of federal changes to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program;
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end CV20: eliminating cost-sharing for COVID-19 diagnosis and treatment;
deleted text begin (4) deleted text end new text begin (5) CV24: allowing telephone or video use for targeted case management visits; new text end
new text begin (6) CV30: expanding telemedicine in health care, mental health, and substance use disorder settings;new text end
new text begin (7) new text end CV37: implementation of federal changes to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program;
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (8)new text end CV39: implementation of federal changes to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program;
deleted text begin (6) deleted text end new text begin (9) CV42: implementation of federal changes to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program; new text end
new text begin (10) CV43: expanding remote home and community-based waiver services; new text end
new text begin (11) CV44: allowing remote delivery of adult day services; new text end
new text begin (12)new text end CV59: modifying eligibility period for the federally funded Refugee Cash Assistance Program; deleted text begin anddeleted text end
deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new text begin (13)new text end CV60: modifying eligibility period for the federally funded Refugee Social Services Programdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; andnew text end
new text begin (14) CV109: providing 15 percent increase for Minnesota Food Assistance Program and Minnesota Family Investment Program maximum food benefits. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
When the peacetime emergency declared by the governor in response to the COVID-19 outbreak expires, is terminated, or is rescinded by the proper authority, all waivers or modifications issued by the commissioner of human services in response to the COVID-19 outbreak that have not beennew text begin otherwisenew text end extended as provided in deleted text begin subdivisions 1, 2, and 4 ofdeleted text end this section may remain in effect for no more than 60 days, only for purposes of transitioning affected programs back to operating without the waivers or modifications in place.
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin When the peacetime emergency declared by the governor in response to the COVID-19 outbreak expires, is terminated, or is rescinded by the proper authority, waiver CV23: modifying background study requirements, issued by the commissioner of human services pursuant to Executive Orders 20-11 and 20-12, including any amendments to the modification issued before the peacetime emergency expires, shall remain in effect for 365 days after the peacetime emergency ends. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin A legislative task force is created to review the statutes relating to human services background study eligibility and disqualifications, including but not limited to Minnesota Statutes, sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, in order to: new text end
new text begin (1) evaluate the existing statutes' effectiveness in protecting the individuals served by programs for which background studies are conducted under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 245C, including by gathering and reviewing available background study disqualification data; new text end
new text begin (2) identify the existing statutes' weaknesses and inefficiencies, ways in which the existing statutes may unnecessarily or unintentionally prevent qualified individuals from providing services or securing employment, and any additional areas for improvement or modernization; and new text end
new text begin (3) develop legislative proposals that improve or modernize the human services background study eligibility and disqualification statutes, or otherwise address the issues identified in clauses (1) and (2). new text end
new text begin (a) The task force shall consist of 26 members, appointed as follows: new text end
new text begin (1) two members representing licensing boards whose licensed providers are subject to the provisions in Minnesota Statutes, section 245C.03, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (2) the commissioner of human services or a designee; new text end
new text begin (3) the commissioner of health or a designee; new text end
new text begin (4) two members representing county attorneys and law enforcement, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (5) two members representing licensed service providers who are subject to the provisions in Minnesota Statutes, section 245C.15, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (6) four members of the public, including two who have been subject to disqualification based on the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 245C.15, and two who have been subject to a set-aside based on the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 245C.15, with one from each category appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one from each category appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (7) one member appointed by the governor's Workforce Development Board; new text end
new text begin (8) one member appointed by the One Minnesota Council on Diversity, Inclusion, and Equity; new text end
new text begin (9) two members representing the Minnesota courts, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (10) one member appointed jointly by Mid-Minnesota Legal Aid, Southern Minnesota Legal Services, and the Legal Rights Center; new text end
new text begin (11) one member representing Tribal organizations, appointed by the Minnesota Indian Affairs Council; new text end
new text begin (12) two members from the house of representatives, including one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and one appointed by the minority leader in the house of representatives; new text end
new text begin (13) two members from the senate, including one appointed by the senate majority leader and one appointed by the senate minority leader; new text end
new text begin (14) two members representing county human services agencies appointed by the Minnesota Association of County Social Service Administrators, including one appointed to represent the metropolitan area as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 473.121, subdivision 2, and one appointed to represent the area outside of the metropolitan area; and new text end
new text begin (15) two attorneys who have represented individuals that appealed a background study disqualification determination based on Minnesota Statutes, sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one appointed by the senate majority leader. new text end
new text begin (b) Appointments to the task force must be made by August 18, 2021. new text end
new text begin Public members of the task force may be compensated as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 15.059, subdivision 3. new text end
new text begin (a) The first meeting of the task force shall be cochaired by the task force member from the majority party of the house of representatives and the task force member from the majority party of the senate. The task force shall elect a chair and vice chair at the first meeting who shall preside at the remainder of the task force meetings. The task force may elect other officers as necessary. new text end
new text begin (b) The task force shall meet at least monthly. The Legislative Coordinating Commission shall convene the first meeting by September 1, 2021. new text end
new text begin (c) Meetings of the task force are subject to the Minnesota Open Meeting Law under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13D. new text end
new text begin The task force shall submit an interim written report by March 1, 2022, and a final report by December 16, 2022, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees in the house of representatives and the senate with jurisdiction over human services licensing. The reports shall explain the task force's findings and recommendations relating to each of the duties under subdivision 1, and include any draft legislation necessary to implement the recommendations. new text end
new text begin The task force expires upon submission of the final report in subdivision 5 or December 20, 2022, whichever is later. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment and expires December 31, 2022. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall contract with an experienced and independent organization or individual consultant to conduct the work outlined in this section. If practicable, the commissioner must contract with the National Association for Regulatory Administration. new text end
new text begin (b) The consultant must develop a proposal for revised licensing standards that includes a risk-based model for monitoring compliance with child care center licensing standards, grounded in national regulatory best practices. Violations in the new model must be weighted to reflect the potential risk that the violations pose to children's health and safety, and licensing sanctions must be tied to the potential risk. The proposed new model must protect the health and safety of children in child care centers and be child-centered, family-friendly, and fair to providers. new text end
new text begin (c) The consultant shall develop and implement a stakeholder engagement process that solicits input from parents, licensed child care centers, staff of the Department of Human Services, and experts in child development about appropriate licensing standards, appropriate tiers for violations of the standards based on the potential risk of harm that each violation poses, and appropriate licensing sanctions for each tier. new text end
new text begin (d) The consultant shall solicit input from parents, licensed child care centers, and staff of the Department of Human Services about which child care centers should be eligible for abbreviated inspections that predict compliance with other licensing standards for licensed child care centers using key indicators previously identified by an empirically based statistical methodology developed by the National Association for Regulatory Administration and the Research Institute for Key Indicators. new text end
new text begin (e) No later than February 1, 2024, the commissioner shall submit a report and proposed legislation required to implement the new licensing model to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over child care regulation. new text end
new text begin By July 1, 2023, the commissioner of human services shall, in consultation with stakeholders with expertise in child protection and children's behavioral health, develop family foster setting licensing guidelines for county agencies and private agencies that perform licensing functions. Stakeholders include but are not limited to child advocates, representatives from community organizations, representatives of the state ethnic councils, the ombudsperson for families, family foster setting providers, youth who have experienced family foster setting placements, county child protection staff, and representatives of county and private licensing agencies. new text end
new text begin By July 1, 2022, the commissioner of human services shall expand the "frequently asked questions" website for family child care providers to include more answers to submitted questions and a function to search for answers to specific question topics. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services shall include individuals representing family child care providers in stakeholder groups that participate in implementing the recommendations of the Family Child Care Task Force. new text end
new text begin (a) By January 1, 2022, the commissioner of human services shall, in consultation with county agencies, child care providers, and stakeholders, develop a plan to establish a one-stop regional assistance network of individuals with: (1) experience or expertise starting a licensed family child care or group family child care program, or a child care center; or (2) technical expertise regarding state licensing statutes and procedures. The one-stop regional assistance network will assist child care providers and individuals interested in becoming child care providers with establishing and sustaining a licensed family child care or group family child care program, or a child care center. new text end
new text begin (b) The plan to establish a one-stop regional assistance network shall include: new text end
new text begin (1) an estimated timeline for implementing the assistance network through the child care resource and referral system in Minnesota Statutes, section 119B.19; new text end
new text begin (2) an estimated budget for the assistance network; new text end
new text begin (3) a strategy to raise awareness and distribute the network's contact information statewide to licensed family child care providers and group family child care providers, and to child care centers; and new text end
new text begin (4) any necessary legislative proposals necessary to implement the assistance network. new text end
new text begin (c) The child care resource and referral system in Minnesota Statutes, section 119B.19, shall begin implementing the plan according to the established timeline. new text end
new text begin By July 1, 2022, the commissioner of human services shall work with licensed family child care providers and county agencies to develop recommended orientation training materials for family child care license applicants to ensure that all family child care license applicants receive uniform materials with basic information about Minnesota Statutes, chapters 245A, 245C, and 260E, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9502. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall contract with an experienced and independent organization or individual consultant to conduct the work outlined in this section. If practicable, the commissioner must contract with the National Association for Regulatory Administration. new text end
new text begin (b) The consultant must develop a proposal for updated family child care licensing standards and solicit input from stakeholders as described in paragraph (d). new text end
new text begin (c) The consultant must develop a proposal for a risk-based model for monitoring compliance with family child care licensing standards, grounded in national regulatory best practices. Violations in the new model must be weighted to reflect the potential risk they pose to children's health and safety, and licensing sanctions must be tied to the potential risk. The proposed new model must protect the health and safety of children in family child care programs and be child-centered, family-friendly, and fair to providers. new text end
new text begin (d) The consultant shall develop and implement a stakeholder engagement process that solicits input from parents, licensed family child care providers, county licensors, staff of the Department of Human Services, and experts in child development about licensing standards, tiers for violations of the standards based on the potential risk of harm that each violation poses, and licensing sanctions for each tier. new text end
new text begin (e) The consultant shall solicit input from parents, licensed family child care providers, county licensors, and staff of the Department of Human Services about which family child care providers should be eligible for abbreviated inspections that predict compliance with other licensing standards for licensed family child care providers using key indicators previously identified by an empirically based statistical methodology developed by the National Association for Regulatory Administration and the Research Institute for Key Indicators. new text end
new text begin (f) No later than February 1, 2024, the commissioner shall submit a report and proposed legislation required to implement the new licensing model and the new licensing standards to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over child care regulation. new text end
new text begin (a) The Family Child Care Training Advisory Committee shall advise the commissioner of human services on the training requirements for licensed family and group family child care providers. Beginning January 1, 2022, the advisory committee shall meet at least twice per year. The advisory committee shall annually elect a chair from committee members who shall establish the agenda for each meeting. The commissioner or commissioner's designee shall attend all advisory committee meetings. new text end
new text begin (b) The Family Child Care Training Advisory Committee shall advise and make recommendations to the commissioner of human services and contractors working on the family child care licensing modernization project on: new text end
new text begin (1) updates to the rules and statutes governing family child care training, including technical updates to facilitate providers' understanding of training requirements; new text end
new text begin (2) modernization of family child care training requirements, including substantive changes to training subject areas; new text end
new text begin (3) difficulties that family child care providers face in completing training requirements, including proposed solutions to provider difficulties; and new text end
new text begin (4) other ideas for improving access to and quality of training for family child care providers. new text end
new text begin (c) The Family Child Care Training Advisory Committee shall expire December 1, 2025. new text end
new text begin (a) The Family Child Care Training Advisory Committee consists of: new text end
new text begin (1) four members representing family child care providers from greater Minnesota, including two appointed by the speaker of the house and two appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (2) two members representing family child care providers from the seven-county metropolitan area as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 473.121, subdivision 2, including one appointed by the speaker of the house and one appointed by the senate majority leader; new text end
new text begin (3) one member representing family child care providers appointed by the Minnesota Association of Child Care Professionals; new text end
new text begin (4) one member representing family child care providers appointed by the Minnesota Child Care Provider Information Network; new text end
new text begin (5) two members appointed by the Association of Minnesota Child Care Licensors, including one from greater Minnesota and one from the seven-county metropolitan area, as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 473.121, subdivision 2; and new text end
new text begin (6) five members with expertise in child development and either instructional design or training delivery, including: new text end
new text begin (i) two members appointed by the speaker of the house; new text end
new text begin (ii) two members appointed by the senate majority leader; and new text end
new text begin (iii) one member appointed by Achieve, the Minnesota Center for Professional Development. new text end
new text begin (b) Advisory committee members shall not be employed by the Department of Human Services. Advisory committee members shall receive no compensation, except that public members of the advisory committee may be compensated as provided by Minnesota Statutes, section 15.059, subdivision 3. new text end
new text begin (c) Advisory committee members must include representatives of diverse cultural communities. new text end
new text begin (d) Advisory committee members shall serve two-year terms. Initial appointments to the advisory committee must be made by December 1, 2021. Subsequent appointments to the advisory committee must be made by December 1 of the year in which the member's term expires. Any vacancy on the advisory committee must be filled within 60 days and must be filled in the same manner that the leaving member was appointed under paragraph (a). new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner of human services must convene the first meeting of the advisory committee by March 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services shall report annually by December 15 to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over early care and education programs on any recommendations from the Family Child Care Training Advisory Committee. The report may include draft legislation necessary to implement recommendations from the advisory committee. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of human services, in consultation with counties, child care providers, and other relevant stakeholders, shall review child care models that are not currently allowed under state statutes, including licensing standards related to age, group size, and capacity. The commissioner must consider whether any models could address the state's child care needs while protecting children's safety, health, and well-being and make recommendations for implementing the models that meet these criteria. No later than January 1, 2023, the commissioner of human services shall report the recommendations to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over child care licensing. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for grants to organizations operating child care resource and referral programs under Minnesota Statutes, section 119B.19, to offer a child care one-stop regional assistance network. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $50,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for modifications to the family child care provider frequently asked questions website. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $4,500,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for costs to cover the fees related to administering child care background studies. new text end
new text begin (d) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $2,059,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for the child care center regulation modernization project. new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $1,719,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for the family child care regulation modernization project. new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $100,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the federal fund for a working group to review alternative child care licensing models. new text end
new text begin (g) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $59,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for the family child care training advisory committee. new text end
new text begin (h) The commissioner of human services shall allocate $7,650,000 in fiscal year 2022 from the child care and development block grant for child care information technology and system improvements. new text end
new text begin (i) The allocations in this section are available until June 30, 2025. new text end
new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber Minnesota Statutes, section 245C.02, so that the subdivisions are alphabetical. The revisor shall correct any cross-references that arise as a result of the renumbering. new text end
new text begin Laws 2020, First Special Session chapter 7, section 1, subdivision 2, as amended by Laws 2020, Third Special Session chapter 1, section 3, new text end new text begin is repealed. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
The commissioner of health, in consultation with the e-Health Advisory Committee, shall develop uniform standards to be used for the interoperable electronic health records system for sharing and synchronizing patient data across systems. The standards must be compatible with federal efforts. The uniform standards must be developed by January 1, 2009, and updated on an ongoing basis. deleted text begin The commissioner shall include an update on standards development as part of an annual report to the legislature.deleted text end Individual health care providers in private practice with no other providers and health care providers that do not accept reimbursement from a group purchaser, as defined in section 62J.03, subdivision 6, are excluded from the requirements of this section.
(a) The commissioner shall establish an e-Health Advisory Committee governed by section 15.059 to advise the commissioner on the following matters:
(1) assessment of the adoption and effective use of health information technology by the state, licensed health care providers and facilities, and local public health agencies;
(2) recommendations for implementing a statewide interoperable health information infrastructure, to include estimates of necessary resources, and for determining standards for clinical data exchange, clinical support programs, patient privacy requirements, and maintenance of the security and confidentiality of individual patient data;
(3) recommendations for encouraging use of innovative health care applications using information technology and systems to improve patient care and reduce the cost of care, including applications relating to disease management and personal health management that enable remote monitoring of patients' conditions, especially those with chronic conditions; and
(4) other related issues as requested by the commissioner.
(b) The members of the e-Health Advisory Committee shall include the commissioners, or commissioners' designees, of health, human services, administration, and commerce and additional members to be appointed by the commissioner to include persons representing Minnesota's local public health agencies, licensed hospitals and other licensed facilities and providers, private purchasers, the medical and nursing professions, health insurers and health plans, the state quality improvement organization, academic and research institutions, consumer advisory organizations with an interest and expertise in health information technology, and other stakeholders as identified by the commissioner to fulfill the requirements of section 3013, paragraph (g), of the HITECH Act.
(c) deleted text begin The commissioner shall prepare and issue an annual report not later than January 30 of each year outlining progress to date in implementing a statewide health information infrastructure and recommending action on policy and necessary resources to continue the promotion of adoption and effective use of health information technology.deleted text end
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end This subdivision expires June 30, deleted text begin 2021deleted text end new text begin 2031new text end .
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
(a) The commissioner, in consultation with the e-Health Advisory Committee, shall update the statewide implementation plan required under subdivision 2 and released June 2008, to be consistent with the updated federal deleted text begin HIT Strategic Plan released by the Office of the National Coordinator in accordance with section 3001 of the HITECH Act. The statewide plan shall meet the requirements for a plan required under section 3013 of the HITECH Actdeleted text end new text begin plansnew text end .
(b) The commissioner, in consultation with the e-Health Advisory Committee, shall work to ensure coordination between state, regional, and national efforts to support and accelerate efforts to effectively use health information technology to improve the quality and coordination of health care and the continuity of patient care among health care providers, to reduce medical errors, to improve population health, to reduce health disparities, and to reduce chronic disease. The commissioner's coordination efforts shall include but not be limited to:
deleted text begin (1) assisting in the development and support of health information technology regional extension centers established under section 3012(c) of the HITECH Act to provide technical assistance and disseminate best practices; deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) providing supplemental information to the best practices gathered by regional centers to ensure that the information is relayed in a meaningful way to the Minnesota health care community; deleted text end
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end providing financial and technical support to Minnesota health care providers to encourage implementation of admission, discharge and transfer alerts, and care summary document exchange transactions and to evaluate the impact of health information technology on cost and quality of care. Communications about available financial and technical support shall include clear information about the interoperable health record requirements in subdivision 1, including a separate statement in bold-face type clarifying the exceptions to those requirements;
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end providing educational resources and technical assistance to health care providers and patients related to state and national privacy, security, and consent laws governing clinical health information, including the requirements in sections 144.291 to 144.298. In carrying out these activities, the commissioner's technical assistance does not constitute legal advice;
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end assessing Minnesota's legal, financial, and regulatory framework for health information exchange, including the requirements in sections 144.291 to 144.298, and making recommendations for modifications that would strengthen the ability of Minnesota health care providers to securely exchange data in compliance with patient preferences and in a way that is efficient and financially sustainable; and
deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end seeking public input on both patient impact and costs associated with requirements related to patient consent for release of health records for the purposes of treatment, payment, and health care operations, as required in section 144.293, subdivision 2. The commissioner shall provide a report to the legislature on the findings of this public input process no later than February 1, 2017.
(c) The commissioner, in consultation with the e-Health Advisory Committee, shall monitor national activity related to health information technology and shall coordinate statewide input on policy development. The commissioner shall coordinate statewide responses to proposed federal health information technology regulations in order to ensure that the needs of the Minnesota health care community are adequately and efficiently addressed in the proposed regulations. The commissioner's responses may include, but are not limited to:
(1) reviewing and evaluating any standard, implementation specification, or certification criteria proposed by the national HIT standards deleted text begin committeedeleted text end new text begin committeesnew text end ;
(2) reviewing and evaluating policy proposed by deleted text begin thedeleted text end national HIT policy deleted text begin committeedeleted text end new text begin committeesnew text end relating to the implementation of a nationwide health information technology infrastructure;new text begin andnew text end
(3) deleted text begin monitoring and responding to activity related to the development of quality measures and other measures as required by section 4101 of the HITECH Act. Any response related to quality measures shall consider and address the quality efforts required under chapter 62U; anddeleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end monitoring and responding to national activity related to privacy, security, and data stewardship of electronic health information and individually identifiable health information.
(d) To the extent that the state is either required or allowed to apply, or designate an entity to apply for or carry out activities and programs deleted text begin under section 3013 of the HITECH Actdeleted text end , the commissioner of health, in consultation with the e-Health Advisory Committee and the commissioner of human services, shall be the lead applicant or sole designating authority. The commissioner shall make such designations consistent with the goals and objectives of sections 62J.495 to 62J.497 and 62J.50 to 62J.61.
(e) The commissioner of human services shall apply for funding necessary to administer the incentive payments to providers authorized under title IV of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act.
deleted text begin (f) The commissioner shall include in the report to the legislature information on the activities of this subdivision and provide recommendations on any relevant policy changes that should be considered in Minnesota. deleted text end
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
deleted text begin (b) "Backward compatible" means that the newer version of a data transmission standard deleted text end deleted text begin would retain, at a minimum, the full functionality of the versions previously adopted, and deleted text end deleted text begin would permit the successful completion of the applicable transactions with entities that deleted text end deleted text begin continue to use the older versions. deleted text end
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (b)new text end "Dispense" or "dispensing" has the meaning given in section 151.01, subdivision 30. Dispensing does not include the direct administering of a controlled substance to a patient by a licensed health care professional.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end "Dispenser" means a person authorized by law to dispense a controlled substance, pursuant to a valid prescription.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end "Electronic media" has the meaning given under Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 160.103.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end "E-prescribing" means the transmission using electronic media of prescription or prescription-related information between a prescriber, dispenser, pharmacy benefit manager, or group purchaser, either directly or through an intermediary, including an e-prescribing network. E-prescribing includes, but is not limited to, two-way transmissions between the point of care and the dispenser and two-way transmissions related to eligibility, formulary, and medication history information.
deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end "Electronic prescription drug program" means a program that provides for e-prescribing.
deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end "Group purchaser" has the meaning given in section 62J.03, subdivision 6.
deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end "HL7 messages" means a standard approved by the standards development organization known as Health Level Seven.
deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end "National Provider Identifier" or "NPI" means the identifier described under Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 162.406.
deleted text begin (k)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end "NCPDP" means the National Council for Prescription Drug Programs, Inc.
deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end "NCPDP Formulary and Benefits Standard" means thenew text begin most recent version of thenew text end National Council for Prescription Drug Programs Formulary and Benefits Standarddeleted text begin , Implementation Guide, Version 1, Release 0, October 2005deleted text end new text begin or the most recent standard adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for e-prescribing under Medicare Part D as required by section 1860D-4(e)(4)(D) of the Social Security Act and regulations adopted under it. The standards shall be implemented according to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services schedule for compliancenew text end .
deleted text begin (m)deleted text end new text begin (l)new text end "NCPDP SCRIPT Standard" means thenew text begin most recent version of thenew text end National Council for Prescription Drug Programs deleted text begin Prescriber/Pharmacist Interfacedeleted text end SCRIPT Standard, deleted text begin Implementation Guide Version 8, Release 1 (Version 8.1), October 2005,deleted text end or the most recent standard adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for e-prescribing under Medicare Part D as required by section 1860D-4(e)(4)(D) of the Social Security Act, and regulations adopted under it. The standards shall be implemented according to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services schedule for compliance. deleted text begin Subsequently released versions of the NCPDP SCRIPT Standard may be used, provided that the new version of the standard is backward compatible to the current version adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.deleted text end
deleted text begin (n)deleted text end new text begin (m)new text end "Pharmacy" has the meaning given in section 151.01, subdivision 2.
deleted text begin (o)deleted text end new text begin (n)new text end "Prescriber" means a licensed health care practitioner, other than a veterinarian, as defined in section 151.01, subdivision 23.
deleted text begin (p)deleted text end new text begin (o)new text end "Prescription-related information" means information regarding eligibility for drug benefits, medication history, or related health or drug information.
deleted text begin (q)deleted text end new text begin (p)new text end "Provider" or "health care provider" has the meaning given in section 62J.03, subdivision 8.
(a) Prescribers and dispensers must use the NCPDP SCRIPT Standard for the communication of a prescription or prescription-related information. deleted text begin The NCPDP SCRIPT Standard shall be used to conduct the following transactions:deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) get message transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) status response transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (3) error response transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (4) new prescription transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (5) prescription change request transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (6) prescription change response transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (7) refill prescription request transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (8) refill prescription response transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (9) verification transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (10) password change transaction; deleted text end
deleted text begin (11) cancel prescription request transaction; and deleted text end
deleted text begin (12) cancel prescription response transaction. deleted text end
(b) Providers, group purchasers, prescribers, and dispensers must use the NCPDP SCRIPT Standard for communicating and transmitting medication history information.
(c) Providers, group purchasers, prescribers, and dispensers must use the NCPDP Formulary and Benefits Standard for communicating and transmitting formulary and benefit information.
(d) Providers, group purchasers, prescribers, and dispensers must use the national provider identifier to identify a health care provider in e-prescribing or prescription-related transactions when a health care provider's identifier is required.
(e) Providers, group purchasers, prescribers, and dispensers must communicate eligibility information and conduct health care eligibility benefit inquiry and response transactions according to the requirements of section 62J.536.
The commissioner of health shall deleted text begin establish and administer the Center for Health Care Purchasing Improvement as an administrative unit within the Department of Health. The Center for Health Care Purchasing Improvement shalldeleted text end support the state in its efforts to be a more prudent and efficient purchaser of quality health care servicesdeleted text begin . The center shalldeleted text end new text begin ,new text end aid the state in developing and using more common strategies and approaches for health care performance measurement and health care purchasingdeleted text begin . The common strategies and approaches shalldeleted text end new text begin ,new text end promote greater transparency of health care costs and qualitydeleted text begin ,deleted text end and greater accountability for health care results and improvementdeleted text begin . The center shall alsodeleted text end new text begin , andnew text end identify barriers to more efficient, effective, quality health care and options for overcoming the barriers.
deleted text begin (a)deleted text end The commissioner of health may deleted text begin appoint a director, and up to three additional senior-level staff or codirectors, and other staff as needed who are under the direction of the commissioner. The staff of the center are in the unclassified service.deleted text end new text begin :new text end
deleted text begin (b) With the authorization of the commissioner of health, and in consultation or interagency agreement with the appropriate commissioners of state agencies, the director, or codirectors, may: deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) initiate projects to develop plan designs for state health care purchasing; deleted text end
deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end require reports or surveys to evaluate the performance of current health care purchasingnew text begin or administrative simplificationnew text end strategies;
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end calculate fiscal impacts, including net savings and return on investment, of health care purchasing strategies and initiatives;
deleted text begin (4) conduct policy audits of state programs to measure conformity to state statute or other purchasing initiatives or objectives; deleted text end
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end support the Administrative Uniformity Committee under deleted text begin sectiondeleted text end new text begin sectionsnew text end 62J.50 new text begin and 62J.536 new text end and other relevant groups or activities to advance agreement on health care administrative process streamlining;
deleted text begin (6) consult with the Health Economics Unit of the Department of Health regarding reports and assessments of the health care marketplace; deleted text end
deleted text begin (7) consult with the Department of Commerce regarding health care regulatory issues and legislative initiatives; deleted text end
deleted text begin (8) work with appropriate Department of Human Services staff and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to address federal requirements and conformity issues for health care purchasing; deleted text end
deleted text begin (9) assist the Minnesota Comprehensive Health Association in health care purchasing strategies; deleted text end
deleted text begin (10) convene medical directors of agencies engaged in health care purchasing for advice, collaboration, and exploring possible synergies; deleted text end
deleted text begin (11)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end contact and participate with other relevant health care task forces, study activities, and similar efforts with regard to health care performance measurement and performance-based purchasing; and
deleted text begin (12)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end assist in seeking external funding through appropriate grants or other funding opportunities and may administer grants and externally funded projects.
(a) deleted text begin Beginning July 1, 2009, and every six months thereafter,deleted text end All health plan companies and third-party administrators shall submit encounter data new text begin on a monthly basis new text end to a private entity designated by the commissioner of health. The data shall be submitted in a form and manner specified by the commissioner subject to the following requirements:
(1) the data must be de-identified data as described under the Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 164.514;
(2) the data for each encounter must include an identifier for the patient's health care home if the patient has selected a health care home and, for claims incurred on or after January 1, 2019, data deemed necessary by the commissioner to uniquely identify claims in the individual health insurance market; and
(3) except for the identifier described in clause (2), the data must not include information that is not included in a health care claim or equivalent encounter information transaction that is required under section 62J.536.
(b) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted under paragraph (a) to carry out the commissioner's responsibilities in this section, including supplying the data to providers so they can verify their results of the peer grouping process consistent with the recommendations developed pursuant to subdivision 3c, paragraph (d), and adopted by the commissioner and, if necessary, submit comments to the commissioner or initiate an appeal.
(c) Data on providers collected under this subdivision are private data on individuals or nonpublic data, as defined in section 13.02. Notwithstanding the definition of summary data in section 13.02, subdivision 19, summary data prepared under this subdivision may be derived from nonpublic data. The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall establish procedures and safeguards to protect the integrity and confidentiality of any data that it maintains.
(d) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall not publish analyses or reports that identify, or could potentially identify, individual patients.
(e) The commissioner shall compile summary information on the data submitted under this subdivision. The commissioner shall work with its vendors to assess the data submitted in terms of compliance with the data submission requirements and the completeness of the data submitted by comparing the data with summary information compiled by the commissioner and with established and emerging data quality standards to ensure data quality.
(a) deleted text begin Beginning July 1, 2009, and annually on January 1 thereafter,deleted text end All health plan companies and third-party administrators shall submitnew text begin , on a monthly basis,new text end data on their contracted prices with health care providers to a private entity designated by the commissioner of health for the purposes of performing the analyses required under this subdivision. The data shall be submitted in the form and manner specified by the commissioner of health.
(b) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted under this subdivision to carry out the commissioner's responsibilities under this section, including supplying the data to providers so they can verify their results of the peer grouping process consistent with the recommendations developed pursuant to subdivision 3c, paragraph (d), and adopted by the commissioner and, if necessary, submit comments to the commissioner or initiate an appeal.
(c) Data collected under this subdivision are nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02. Notwithstanding the definition of summary data in section 13.02, subdivision 19, summary data prepared under this section may be derived from nonpublic data. The commissioner shall establish procedures and safeguards to protect the integrity and confidentiality of any data that it maintains.
(a) If groundwater quality monitoring results show that there is a degradation of groundwater, the commissioner of health may promulgate health risk limits under subdivision 2 for substances degrading the groundwater.
(b) Health risk limits shall be determined by two methods depending on their toxicological end point.
(c) For systemic toxicants that are not carcinogens, the adopted health risk limits shall be derived using United States Environmental Protection Agency risk assessment methods using a reference dose, a drinking water equivalent, and a relative source contribution factor.
(d) For toxicants that are known or probable carcinogens, the adopted health risk limits shall be derived from a quantitative estimate of the chemical's carcinogenic potency published by the United States Environmental Protection Agency deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end determined by the commissioner to have undergone thorough scientific review.
new text begin This section shall be known and may be cited as the "Vivian Act." new text end
new text begin For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them: new text end
new text begin (1) "CMV" means the human herpesvirus cytomegalovirus, also called HCMV, human herpesvirus 5, and HHV-5; new text end
new text begin (2) "commissioner" means the commissioner of health; new text end
new text begin (3) "congenital CMV" means the transmission of a CMV infection from a pregnant mother to her fetus; and new text end
new text begin (4) "health care practitioner" means a health care professional who provides prenatal or postnatal care or care to infants. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall make available to health care practitioners, women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants up-to-date and evidence-based information about congenital CMV that has been reviewed by experts with knowledge of the disease. The information shall include the following: new text end
new text begin (1) the recommendation to consider testing for congenital CMV if the parent or legal guardian of the infant elected not to have newborn screening performed under section 144.125, the infant failed a newborn hearing screening, or pregnancy history suggests increased risk for congenital CMV infection; new text end
new text begin (2) the incidence of CMV; new text end
new text begin (3) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women who may become pregnant; new text end
new text begin (4) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; new text end
new text begin (5) available preventative measures to avoid the infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant; and new text end
new text begin (6) resources available for families of children born with congenital CMV. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner shall follow existing department practice, inclusive of community engagement, to ensure that the information in paragraph (a) is culturally and linguistically appropriate for all recipients. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall establish an outreach program to: new text end
new text begin (1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and new text end
new text begin (2) raise awareness for CMV among health care practitioners. new text end
new text begin (d) The Advisory Committee on Heritable and Congenital Disorders established under section 144.1255 shall review congenital CMV for inclusion on the list of tests to be performed under section 144.125. If the committee recommends and the commissioner approves the recommendation of adding congenital CMV to the newborn screening panel, the commissioner shall publish the addition in the State Register and the per specimen fee for screening under section 144.125, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), shall be increased by $43, for a total of $220 per specimen, effective upon publication in the State Register. new text end
The commissioner of health shall establish resident reimbursementnew text begin case mixnew text end classifications based upon the assessments of residents of nursing homes and boarding care homes conducted under this section and according to section 256R.17.
For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(a) "Assessment reference date" or "ARD" means the specific end point for look-back periods in the MDS assessment process. This look-back period is also called the observation or assessment period.
(b) "Case mix index" means the weighting factors assigned to the RUG-IV classifications.
(c) "Index maximization" means classifying a resident who could be assigned to more than one category, to the category with the highest case mix index.
(d) "Minimum Data Set" or "MDS" means a core set of screening, clinical assessment, and functional status elements, that include common definitions and coding categories specified by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and designated by the deleted text begin Minnesotadeleted text end Department of Health.
(e) "Representative" means a person who is the resident's guardian or conservator, the person authorized to pay the nursing home expenses of the resident, a representative of the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care whose assistance has been requested, or any other individual designated by the resident.
(f) "Resource utilization groups" or "RUG" means the system for grouping a nursing facility's residents according to their clinical and functional status identified in data supplied by the facility's Minimum Data Set.
(g) "Activities of daily living" deleted text begin means grooming,deleted text end new text begin includes personal hygiene,new text end dressing, bathing, transferring,new text begin bednew text end mobility, deleted text begin positioning,deleted text end new text begin locomotion,new text end eating, and toileting.
(h) "Nursing facility level of care determination" means the assessment process that results in a determination of a resident's or prospective resident's need for nursing facility level of care as established in subdivision 11 for purposes of medical assistance payment of long-term care services for:
(1) nursing facility services under section 256B.434 or chapter 256R;
(2) elderly waiver services under chapter 256S;
(3) CADI and BI waiver services under section 256B.49; and
(4) state payment of alternative care services under section 256B.0913.
(a) Beginning January 1, 2012, resident reimbursementnew text begin case mixnew text end classifications shall be based on the Minimum Data Set, version 3.0 assessment instrument, or its successor version mandated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services that nursing facilities are required to complete for all residents. The commissioner of health shall establish resident classifications according to the RUG-IV, 48 group, resource utilization groups. Resident classification must be established based on the individual items on the Minimum Data Set, which must be completed according to the Long Term Care Facility Resident Assessment Instrument User's Manual Version 3.0 or its successor issued by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(b) Each resident must be classified based on the information from the Minimum Data Set according to general categories deleted text begin as defined in the Case Mix Classification Manual for Nursing Facilitiesdeleted text end issued by the Minnesota Department of Health.
(a) A facility must submit to the commissioner of health an admission assessment for all residents who stay in the facility 14 days or lessdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin , unless the resident is admitted and discharged from the facility on the same day, in which case the admission assessment is not required. When an admission assessment is not submitted, the case mix classification shall be the rate with a case mix index of 1.0.new text end
(b) Notwithstanding the admission assessment requirements of paragraph (a), a facility may elect to accept a short stay rate with a case mix index of 1.0 for all facility residents who stay 14 days or less in lieu of submitting an admission assessment. Facilities shall make this election annually.
(c) Nursing facilities must elect one of the options described in paragraphs (a) and (b) by reporting to the commissioner of health, as prescribed by the commissioner. The election is effective on July 1 each year.
(a) The commissioner of health shall provide to a nursing facility a notice for each resident of the deleted text begin reimbursementdeleted text end classification established under subdivision 1. The notice must inform the resident of thenew text begin case mixnew text end classification deleted text begin that wasdeleted text end assigned, the opportunity to review the documentation supporting the classification, the opportunity to obtain clarification from the commissioner, and the opportunity to request a reconsideration of the classification and the address and telephone number of the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care. The commissioner must transmit the notice of resident classification by electronic means to the nursing facility. deleted text begin Adeleted text end new text begin Thenew text end nursing facility is responsible for the distribution of the notice to each residentdeleted text begin , to the person responsible for the payment of the resident's nursing home expenses, or to another person designated by the residentdeleted text end new text begin or the resident's representativenew text end . This notice must be distributed within three deleted text begin workingdeleted text end new text begin businessnew text end days after the facility's receipt deleted text begin of the electronic file of notice of case mix classifications from the commissioner of healthdeleted text end .
(b) If a facility submits a deleted text begin modification to the most recent assessment used to establish a case mix classification conducted under subdivision 3 that resultsdeleted text end new text begin modifying assessment resultingnew text end in a change innew text begin thenew text end case mix classification, the facility deleted text begin shall givedeleted text end new text begin must provide anew text end written notice to the resident or the resident's representative deleted text begin aboutdeleted text end new text begin regardingnew text end the itemnew text begin or itemsnew text end that deleted text begin wasdeleted text end new text begin werenew text end modified and the reason for the deleted text begin modificationdeleted text end new text begin modificationsnew text end . The notice deleted text begin of modified assessment maydeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be provided deleted text begin at the same time that the resident or resident's representative is provided the resident's modified notice of classificationdeleted text end new text begin within three business days after distribution of the resident case mix classification noticenew text end .
(a) The resident, or resident's representative, or the nursing facility or boarding care home may request that the commissioner of health reconsider the assigned reimbursementnew text begin case mixnew text end classificationnew text begin and any item or items changed during the audit processnew text end . The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the commissioner deleted text begin within 30 days of the day the resident or the resident's representative receives the resident classification noticedeleted text end new text begin of healthnew text end .
new text begin (b) For reconsideration requests initiated by the resident or the resident's representative: new text end
new text begin (1) The resident or the resident's representative must submit in writing a reconsideration request to the facility administrator within 30 days of receipt of the resident classification notice.new text end Thenew text begin writtennew text end request deleted text begin for reconsiderationdeleted text end must include the deleted text begin name of the resident, the name and address of the facility in which the resident resides, thedeleted text end reasons for the reconsiderationdeleted text begin , and documentation supporting thedeleted text end request. deleted text begin The documentation accompanying the reconsideration request is limited to a copy of the MDS that determined the classification and other documents that would support or change the MDS findings.deleted text end
new text begin (2) Within three business days of receiving the reconsideration request, the nursing facility must submit to the commissioner of health a completed reconsideration request form, a copy of the resident's or resident's representative's written request, and all supporting documentation used to complete the assessment being considered. If the facility fails to provide the required information, the reconsideration will be completed with the information submitted and the facility cannot make further reconsideration requests on this classification. new text end
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end Uponnew text begin writtennew text end requestnew text begin and within three business daysnew text end , the nursing facility must give the resident or the resident's representative a copy of the assessment deleted text begin formdeleted text end new text begin being reconsiderednew text end and deleted text begin the otherdeleted text end new text begin all supportingnew text end documentation deleted text begin that was given to the commissioner of healthdeleted text end new text begin usednew text end to deleted text begin supportdeleted text end new text begin completenew text end the assessment deleted text begin findingsdeleted text end . deleted text begin The nursing facility shall also provide access to and a copy of other information from the resident's record that has been requested by or on behalf of the resident to support a resident's reconsideration request. A copy of any requested material must be provided within three working days of receipt of a written request for the information.deleted text end Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the facility may not charge a fee for providing copies of the requested documentation. If a facility fails to provide the deleted text begin materialdeleted text end new text begin required documentsnew text end within this time, it is subject to the issuance of a correction order and penalty assessment under sections 144.653 and 144A.10. Notwithstanding those sections, any correction order issued under this subdivision must require that the nursing facility immediately comply with the request for informationnew text begin ,new text end and deleted text begin thatdeleted text end as of the date of the issuance of the correction order, the facility shall forfeit to the state a $100 fine for the first day of noncompliance, and an increase in the $100 fine by $50 increments for each day the noncompliance continues.
(c) deleted text begin in addition to the information required under paragraphs (a) and (b), a reconsideration request from a nursing facility must contain the following information: (i) the date the reimbursement classification notices were received by the facility; (ii) the date the deleted text end deleted text begin classification notices were distributed to the resident or the resident's representative; and (iii)deleted text end new text begin For reconsideration requests initiated by the facility:new text end
new text begin (1) The facility is required to inform the resident or the resident's representative in writing that a reconsideration of the resident's case mix classification is being requested. The notice must inform the resident or the resident's representative: new text end
new text begin (i) of the date and reason for the reconsideration request; new text end
new text begin (ii) of the potential for a classification and subsequent rate change; new text end
new text begin (iii) of the extent of the potential rate change; new text end
new text begin (iv) that copies of the request and supporting documentation are available for review; and new text end
new text begin (v) that the resident or the resident's representative has the right to request a reconsideration. new text end
new text begin (2) Within 30 days of receipt of the audit exit report or resident classification notice, the facility must submit to the commissioner of health a completed reconsideration request form, all supporting documentation used to complete the assessment being reconsidered, andnew text end a copy of deleted text begin adeleted text end new text begin thenew text end notice deleted text begin sent todeleted text end new text begin informingnew text end the resident or deleted text begin todeleted text end the resident's representativedeleted text begin . This notice must inform the resident or the resident's representativedeleted text end that a reconsideration of the resident's classification is being requesteddeleted text begin , the reason for the request, that the resident's rate will change if the request is approved by the commissioner, the extent of the change, that copies of the facility's request and supporting documentation are available for review, and that the resident also has the right to request a reconsiderationdeleted text end .
new text begin (3)new text end If the facility fails to provide the required information deleted text begin listed in item (iii) with the reconsideration request, the commissioner may request that the facility provide the information within 14 calendar days.deleted text end new text begin ,new text end the reconsideration request deleted text begin mustdeleted text end new text begin maynew text end be denied deleted text begin if the information is then not provided,deleted text end and the facility may not make further reconsideration requests on deleted text begin that specific reimbursementdeleted text end new text begin thisnew text end classification.
(d) Reconsideration by the commissioner must be made by individuals not involved in reviewing the assessment, audit, or reconsideration that established the disputed classification. The reconsideration must be based upon the assessment that determined the classification and upon the information provided to the commissionernew text begin of healthnew text end under paragraphs (a) deleted text begin and (b)deleted text end new text begin to (c)new text end . If necessary for evaluating the reconsideration request, the commissioner may conduct on-site reviews. Within 15 deleted text begin workingdeleted text end new text begin businessnew text end days of receiving the request for reconsideration, the commissioner shall affirm or modify the original resident classification. The original classification must be modified if the commissioner determines that the assessment resulting in the classification did not accurately reflect characteristics of the resident at the time of the assessment. deleted text begin The resident and the nursing facility or boarding care home shall be notified within five working days after the decision is made.deleted text end new text begin The commissioner must transmit the reconsideration classification notice by electronic means to the nursing facility. The nursing facility is responsible for the distribution of the notice to the resident or the resident's representative. The notice must be distributed by the nursing facility within three business days after receipt.new text end A decision by the commissioner under this subdivision is the final administrative decision of the agency for the party requesting reconsideration.
(e) The deleted text begin residentdeleted text end new text begin case mixnew text end classification established by the commissioner shall be the classification deleted text begin thatdeleted text end new text begin whichnew text end applies to the resident while the request for reconsideration is pending. If a request for reconsideration applies to an assessment used to determine nursing facility level of care under subdivision 4, paragraph (c), the resident shall continue to be eligible for nursing facility level of care while the request for reconsideration is pending.
(f) The commissioner may request additional documentation regarding a reconsideration necessary to make an accurate reconsideration determination.
(a) The commissioner shall audit the accuracy of resident assessments performed under section 256R.17 through any of the following: desk audits; on-site review of residents and their records; and interviews with staff, residents, or residents' families. The commissioner shall reclassify a resident if the commissioner determines that the resident was incorrectly classified.
(b) The commissioner is authorized to conduct on-site audits on an unannounced basis.
(c) A facility must grant the commissioner access to examine the medical records relating to the resident assessments selected for audit under this subdivision. The commissioner may also observe and speak to facility staff and residents.
(d) The commissioner shall consider documentation under the time frames for coding items on the minimum data set as set out in the Long-Term Care Facility Resident Assessment Instrument User's Manual published by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(e) The commissioner shall develop an audit selection procedure that includes the following factors:
(1) Each facility shall be audited annually. If a facility has two successive audits in which the percentage of change is five percent or less and the facility has not been the subject of a special audit in the past 36 months, the facility may be audited biannually. A stratified sample of 15 percent, with a minimum of ten assessments, of the most current assessments shall be selected for audit. If more than 20 percent of the RUG-IV classifications are changed as a result of the audit, the audit shall be expanded to a second 15 percent sample, with a minimum of ten assessments. If the total change between the first and second samples is 35 percent or greater, the commissioner may expand the audit to all of the remaining assessments.
(2) If a facility qualifies for an expanded audit, the commissioner may audit the facility again within six months. If a facility has two expanded audits within a 24-month period, that facility will be audited at least every six months for the next 18 months.
(3) The commissioner may conduct special audits if the commissioner determines that circumstances exist that could alter or affect the validity of case mix classifications of residents. These circumstances include, but are not limited to, the following:
(i) frequent changes in the administration or management of the facility;
(ii) an unusually high percentage of residents in a specific case mix classification;
(iii) a high frequency in the number of reconsideration requests received from a facility;
(iv) frequent adjustments of case mix classifications as the result of reconsiderations or audits;
(v) a criminal indictment alleging provider fraud;
(vi) other similar factors that relate to a facility's ability to conduct accurate assessments;
(vii) an atypical pattern of scoring minimum data set items;
(viii) nonsubmission of assessments;
(ix) late submission of assessments; or
(x) a previous history of audit changes of 35 percent or greater.
(f) deleted text begin Within 15 working days of completing the audit process, the commissioner shall make available electronically the results of the audit to the facility. If the results of the audit reflect a change in the resident's case mix classification, a case mix classification notice will be made available electronically to the facility, using the procedure in subdivision 7, paragraph (a). The notice must contain the resident's classification and a statement informing the resident, the resident's authorized representative, and the facility of their right to review the commissioner's documents supporting the classification and to request a reconsideration of the classification. This notice must also include the address and telephone number of the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care.deleted text end new text begin If the audit results in a case mix classification change, the commissioner must transmit the audit classification notice by electronic means to the nursing facility within 15 business days of completing an audit. The nursing facility is responsible for distribution of the notice to each resident or the resident's representative. This notice must be distributed by the nursing facility within three business days after receipt. The notice must inform the resident of the case mix classification assigned, the opportunity to review the documentation supporting the classification, the opportunity to obtain clarification from the commissioner, the opportunity to request a reconsideration of the classification, and the address and telephone number of the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care.new text end
(a) A resident or prospective resident whose level of care determination results in a denial of long-term care services can appeal the determination as outlined in section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, paragraph (h), clause (9).
(b) The commissioner of human services shall ensure that notice of changes in eligibility due to a nursing facility level of care determination is provided to each affected recipient or the recipient's guardian at least 30 days before the effective date of the change. The notice shall include the following information:
(1) how to obtain further information on the changes;
(2) how to receive assistance in obtaining other services;
(3) a list of community resources; and
(4) appeal rights.
deleted text begin A recipient who meets the criteria in section 256B.0922, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (1) and (2), may request continued services pending appeal within the time period allowed to request an appeal under section 256.045, subdivision 3, paragraph (i). This paragraph is in effect for appeals filed between January 1, 2015, and December 31, 2016. deleted text end
(a) It is the duty of (1) the administrative officer or other person in charge of each institution caring for infants 28 days or less of age, (2) the person required in pursuance of the provisions of section 144.215, to register the birth of a child, or (3) the nurse midwife or midwife in attendance at the birth, to arrange to have administered to every infant or child in its care tests for heritable and congenital disorders according to subdivision 2 and rules prescribed by the state commissioner of health.
(b) Testing, recording of test results, reporting of test results, and follow-up of infants with heritable congenital disorders, including hearing loss detected through the early hearing detection and intervention program in section 144.966, shall be performed at the times and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner of health.
(c) The fee to support the newborn screening program, including tests administered under this section and section 144.966, shall be deleted text begin $135deleted text end new text begin $177new text end per specimen. This fee amount shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the state government special revenue fund.
(d) The fee to offset the cost of the support services provided under section 144.966, subdivision 3a, shall be $15 per specimen. This fee shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the general fund.
new text begin This section may be cited as the "Dignity in Pregnancy and Childbirth Act." new text end
new text begin (a) Hospitals with obstetric care and birth centers must develop or access a continuing education curriculum and must make available to direct care employees and contractors who routinely care for patients who are pregnant or postpartum a continuing education course on anti-racism training and implicit bias. The continuing education curriculum and course must: new text end
new text begin (1) be evidence-based; new text end
new text begin (2) to the extent practicable, conform with standards for continuing education established by the applicable health-related licensing boards; and new text end
new text begin (3) include, at a minimum, the following elements: new text end
new text begin (i) education aimed at identifying personal, interpersonal, institutional, structural, and cultural barriers to inclusion; new text end
new text begin (ii) identifying and implementing corrective measures to promote anti-racism practices and decrease implicit bias at the interpersonal and institutional levels, including the facility's ongoing policies and practices; new text end
new text begin (iii) providing information on the ongoing effects of historical and contemporary exclusion and oppression of Black and Indigenous communities with the greatest health disparities in maternal and infant mortality and morbidity; new text end
new text begin (iv) providing information on and discussion of health disparities in the perinatal health care field, including how systemic racism and implicit bias have different impacts on health outcomes for different racial and ethnic communities; and new text end
new text begin (v) soliciting perspectives of diverse local constituency groups and experts on racial, identity, cultural, and provider-community relationship issues. new text end
new text begin (b) In addition to the initial continuing education course made available under paragraph (a), hospitals with obstetric care and birth centers must make available an annual refresher course that reflects current trends on race, culture, identity, and anti-racism principles and institutional implicit bias. new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner of health, in coordination with the Minnesota Hospital Association, shall monitor implementation of this subdivision by hospitals with obstetric care and birth centers and may inspect course records or require reports from hospitals with obstetric care and birth centers on the continuing education curricula used and courses offered under this subdivision. Initial continuing education courses under this subdivision must be made available by December 31, 2022. new text end
new text begin (d) Hospitals with obstetric care and birth centers must provide a certificate of course completion to another facility or to a course attendee upon request. A facility may accept a course certificate from another facility for a health care provider who works at more than one facility. new text end
new text begin (a) In order to improve maternal and infant health and birth outcomes in groups with the most significant disparities, including Black communities, Indigenous communities, and other communities of color; rural communities; and low-income families, the commissioner of health, in partnership with patient groups and culturally based community organizations, shall: new text end
new text begin (1) identify barriers to obtaining midwife and doula services for groups with the most significant disparities in maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, and develop procedures and services designed to increase the availability of midwife and doula services for these groups; new text end
new text begin (2) promote racial, ethnic, and language diversity in the midwife and doula workforce that better aligns with the childbearing populations in groups with the most significant disparities in maternal and infant mortality and morbidity; and new text end
new text begin (3) explore ways to ensure that midwife and doula training and education are culturally responsive and tailored to the specific needs of groups with the most significant disparities in maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, including trauma-informed care, maternal mood disorders, intimate partner violence, and implicit bias and anti-racism. new text end
new text begin (b) For purposes of this subdivision, midwife and doula services include traditional midwife services as defined in section 147D.03; nurse midwife services as defined in section 148.171, subdivision 10; and doula services as defined in section 148.995, subdivision 4; and the midwife and doula workforce includes traditional midwives, nurse midwives, and certified doulas. new text end
(a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply.
(b) "Advanced dental therapist" means an individual who is licensed as a dental therapist under section 150A.06, and who is certified as an advanced dental therapist under section 150A.106.
new text begin (c) "Alcohol and drug counselor" means an individual who is licensed as an alcohol and drug counselor under chapter 148F. new text end
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end "Dental therapist" means an individual who is licensed as a dental therapist under section 150A.06.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end "Dentist" means an individual who is licensed to practice dentistry.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end "Designated rural area" means a statutory and home rule charter city or township that is outside the seven-county metropolitan area as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, excluding the cities of Duluth, Mankato, Moorhead, Rochester, and St. Cloud.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end "Emergency circumstances" means those conditions that make it impossible for the participant to fulfill the service commitment, including death, total and permanent disability, or temporary disability lasting more than two years.
deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end "Mental health professional" means an individual providing clinical services in the treatment of mental illness who is qualified in at least one of the ways specified in section 245.462, subdivision 18.
deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end "Medical resident" means an individual participating in a medical residency in family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, or psychiatry.
deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end "Midlevel practitioner" means a nurse practitioner, nurse-midwife, nurse anesthetist, advanced clinical nurse specialist, or physician assistant.
deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end "Nurse" means an individual who has completed training and received all licensing or certification necessary to perform duties as a licensed practical nurse or registered nurse.
deleted text begin (k)deleted text end new text begin (l)new text end "Nurse-midwife" means a registered nurse who has graduated from a program of study designed to prepare registered nurses for advanced practice as nurse-midwives.
deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (m)new text end "Nurse practitioner" means a registered nurse who has graduated from a program of study designed to prepare registered nurses for advanced practice as nurse practitioners.
deleted text begin (m)deleted text end new text begin (n)new text end "Pharmacist" means an individual with a valid license issued under chapter 151.
deleted text begin (n)deleted text end new text begin (o)new text end "Physician" means an individual who is licensed to practice medicine in the areas of family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, or psychiatry.
deleted text begin (o)deleted text end new text begin (p)new text end "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under chapter 147A.
deleted text begin (p)deleted text end new text begin (q)new text end "Public health nurse" means a registered nurse licensed in Minnesota who has obtained a registration certificate as a public health nurse from the Board of Nursing in accordance with Minnesota Rules, chapter 6316.
deleted text begin (q)deleted text end new text begin (r)new text end "Qualified educational loan" means a government, commercial, or foundation loan for actual costs paid for tuition, reasonable education expenses, and reasonable living expenses related to the graduate or undergraduate education of a health care professional.
deleted text begin (r)deleted text end new text begin (s)new text end "Underserved urban community" means a Minnesota urban area or population included in the list of designated primary medical care health professional shortage areas (HPSAs), medically underserved areas (MUAs), or medically underserved populations (MUPs) maintained and updated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2025. new text end
(a) A health professional education loan forgiveness program account is established. The commissioner of health shall use money from the account to establish a loan forgiveness program:
(1) for medical residents deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end mental health professionalsnew text begin , and alcohol and drug counselorsnew text end agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or underserved urban communities or specializing in the area of pediatric psychiatry;
(2) for midlevel practitioners agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level;
(3) for nurses who agree to practice in a Minnesota nursing home; an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disability; a hospital if the hospital owns and operates a Minnesota nursing home and a minimum of 50 percent of the hours worked by the nurse is in the nursing home; a housing with services establishment as defined in section 144D.01, subdivision 4; or for a home care provider as defined in section 144A.43, subdivision 4; or agree to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level;
(4) for other health care technicians agreeing to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in their designated field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level. The commissioner, in consultation with the Healthcare Education-Industry Partnership, shall determine the health care fields where the need is the greatest, including, but not limited to, respiratory therapy, clinical laboratory technology, radiologic technology, and surgical technology;
(5) for pharmacists, advanced dental therapists, dental therapists, and public health nurses who agree to practice in designated rural areas; and
(6) for dentists agreeing to deliver at least 25 percent of the dentist's yearly patient encounters to state public program enrollees or patients receiving sliding fee schedule discounts through a formal sliding fee schedule meeting the standards established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 51, chapter 303.
(b) Appropriations made to the account do not cancel and are available until expended, except that at the end of each biennium, any remaining balance in the account that is not committed by contract and not needed to fulfill existing commitments shall cancel to the fund.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2025. new text end
(a) To be eligible to participate in the loan forgiveness program, an individual must:
(1) be a medical or dental resident; a licensed pharmacist; or be enrolled in a training or education program to become a dentist, dental therapist, advanced dental therapist, mental health professional, new text begin alcohol and drug counselor, new text end pharmacist, public health nurse, midlevel practitioner, registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse. The commissioner may also consider applications submitted by graduates in eligible professions who are licensed and in practice; and
(2) submit an application to the commissioner of health.
(b) An applicant selected to participate must sign a contract to agree to serve a minimum three-year full-time service obligation according to subdivision 2, which shall begin no later than March 31 following completion of required training, with the exception of a nurse, who must agree to serve a minimum two-year full-time service obligation according to subdivision 2, which shall begin no later than March 31 following completion of required training.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2025. new text end
new text begin "Homeless youth" has the meaning given in section 256K.45, subdivision 1a. new text end
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, data pertaining to the birth of a child to a woman who was not married to the child's father when the child was conceived nor when the child was born, including the original record of birth and the certified vital record, are confidential data. At the time of the birth of a child to a woman who was not married to the child's father when the child was conceived nor when the child was born, the mother may designate demographic data pertaining to the birth as public. Notwithstanding the designation of the data as confidential, it may be disclosed:
(1) to a parent or guardian of the child;
(2) to the child when the child is 16 years of age or oldernew text begin , except as provided in clause (3)new text end ;
new text begin (3) to the child if the child is a homeless youth; new text end
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end under paragraph (b), (e), or (f); or
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end pursuant to a court order. For purposes of this section, a subpoena does not constitute a court order.
(b) Unless the child is adopted, data pertaining to the birth of a child that are not accessible to the public become public data if 100 years have elapsed since the birth of the child who is the subject of the data, or as provided under section 13.10, whichever occurs first.
(c) If a child is adopted, data pertaining to the child's birth are governed by the provisions relating to adoption records, including sections 13.10, subdivision 5; 144.218, subdivision 1; 144.2252; and 259.89.
(d) The name and address of a mother under paragraph (a) and the child's date of birth may be disclosed to the county social services, tribal health department, or public health member of a family services collaborative for purposes of providing services under section 124D.23.
(e) The commissioner of human services shall have access to birth records for:
(1) the purposes of administering medical assistance and the MinnesotaCare program;
(2) child support enforcement purposes; and
(3) other public health purposes as determined by the commissioner of health.
(f) Tribal child support programs shall have access to birth records for child support enforcement purposes.
new text begin A subject of a birth record who is a homeless youth in Minnesota or another state may apply to the state registrar or a local issuance office for a certified birth record according to this section. The state registrar or local issuance office shall issue a certified birth record or statement of no vital record found to a subject of a birth record who submits: new text end
new text begin (1) a completed application signed by the subject of the birth record; new text end
new text begin (2) a statement that the subject of the birth record is a homeless youth, signed by the subject of the birth record; and new text end
new text begin (3) one of the following: new text end
new text begin (i) a document of identity listed in Minnesota Rules, part 4601.2600, subpart 8, or, at the discretion of the state registrar or local issuance office, Minnesota Rules, part 4601.2600, subpart 9; new text end
new text begin (ii) a statement that complies with Minnesota Rules, part 4601.2600, subparts 6 and 7; or new text end
new text begin (iii) a statement verifying that the subject of the birth record is a homeless youth that complies with the requirements in subdivision 2 and is from an employee of a human services agency that receives public funding to provide services to homeless youth, runaway youth, youth with mental illness, or youth with substance use disorders; a school staff person who provides services to homeless youth; or a school social worker. new text end
new text begin A statement verifying that a subject of a birth record is a homeless youth must include: new text end
new text begin (1) the following information regarding the individual providing the statement: first name, middle name, if any, and last name; home or business address; telephone number, if any; and e-mail address, if any; new text end
new text begin (2) the first name, middle name, if any, and last name of the subject of the birth record; and new text end
new text begin (3) a statement specifying the relationship of the individual providing the statement to the subject of the birth record and verifying that the subject of the birth record is a homeless youth. new text end
new text begin The individual providing the statement must also provide a copy of the individual's employment identification. new text end
new text begin If a subject of a birth record obtains a certified birth record under this section using the statement specified in subdivision 1, clause (3), item (iii), the certified birth record issued shall expire six months after the date of issuance. Upon expiration of the certified birth record, the subject of the birth record may surrender the expired birth record to the state registrar or a local issuance office and obtain another birth record. Each certified birth record obtained under this subdivision shall expire six months after the date of issuance. If the subject of the birth record does not surrender the expired birth record, the subject may apply for a certified birth record using the process in subdivision 1. new text end
new text begin Data listed under subdivision 1, clauses (2) and (3), item (iii), are private data on individuals. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment for applications for and the issuance of certified birth records on or after January 1, 2022. new text end
new text begin The state registrar may charge and permit agents to charge a convenience fee and a transaction fee for electronic transactions and transactions by telephone or Internet, as well as the fees established under subdivisions 1 to 4. The convenience fee may not exceed three percent of the cost of the charges for payment. The state registrar may permit agents to charge and retain a transaction fee as payment agreed upon under contract. When an electronic convenience fee or transaction fee is charged, the agent charging the fee is required to post information on their web page informing individuals of the fee. The information must be near the point of payment, clearly visible, include the amount of the fee, and state: "This contracted agent is allowed by state law to charge a convenience fee and transaction fee for this electronic transaction." new text end
new text begin A subject of a birth record who is a homeless youth shall not be charged any of the fees specified in this section for a certified birth record or statement of no vital record found under section 144.2255. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment for applications for and the issuance of certified birth records on or after January 1, 2022. new text end
(a) The following construction or modification may not be commenced:
(1) any erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement, extension, lease, or other acquisition by or on behalf of a hospital that increases the bed capacity of a hospital, relocates hospital beds from one physical facility, complex, or site to another, or otherwise results in an increase or redistribution of hospital beds within the state; and
(2) the establishment of a new hospital.
(b) This section does not apply to:
(1) construction or relocation within a county by a hospital, clinic, or other health care facility that is a national referral center engaged in substantial programs of patient care, medical research, and medical education meeting state and national needs that receives more than 40 percent of its patients from outside the state of Minnesota;
(2) a project for construction or modification for which a health care facility held an approved certificate of need on May 1, 1984, regardless of the date of expiration of the certificate;
(3) a project for which a certificate of need was denied before July 1, 1990, if a timely appeal results in an order reversing the denial;
(4) a project exempted from certificate of need requirements by Laws 1981, chapter 200, section 2;
(5) a project involving consolidation of pediatric specialty hospital services within the Minneapolis-St. Paul metropolitan area that would not result in a net increase in the number of pediatric specialty hospital beds among the hospitals being consolidated;
(6) a project involving the temporary relocation of pediatric-orthopedic hospital beds to an existing licensed hospital that will allow for the reconstruction of a new philanthropic, pediatric-orthopedic hospital on an existing site and that will not result in a net increase in the number of hospital beds. Upon completion of the reconstruction, the licenses of both hospitals must be reinstated at the capacity that existed on each site before the relocation;
(7) the relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital building or identifiable complex of buildings provided the relocation or redistribution does not result in: (i) an increase in the overall bed capacity at that site; (ii) relocation of hospital beds from one physical site or complex to another; or (iii) redistribution of hospital beds within the state or a region of the state;
(8) relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital corporate system that involves the transfer of beds from a closed facility site or complex to an existing site or complex provided that: (i) no more than 50 percent of the capacity of the closed facility is transferred; (ii) the capacity of the site or complex to which the beds are transferred does not increase by more than 50 percent; (iii) the beds are not transferred outside of a federal health systems agency boundary in place on July 1, 1983; deleted text begin anddeleted text end (iv) the relocation or redistribution does not involve the construction of a new hospital buildingnew text begin ; and (v) the transferred beds are used first to replace within the hospital corporate system the total number of beds previously used in the closed facility site or complex for mental health services and substance use disorder services. Only after the hospital corporate system has fulfilled the requirements of this item may the remainder of the available capacity of the closed facility site or complex be transferred for any other purposenew text end ;
(9) a construction project involving up to 35 new beds in a psychiatric hospital in Rice County that primarily serves adolescents and that receives more than 70 percent of its patients from outside the state of Minnesota;
(10) a project to replace a hospital or hospitals with a combined licensed capacity of 130 beds or less if: (i) the new hospital site is located within five miles of the current site; and (ii) the total licensed capacity of the replacement hospital, either at the time of construction of the initial building or as the result of future expansion, will not exceed 70 licensed hospital beds, or the combined licensed capacity of the hospitals, whichever is less;
(11) the relocation of licensed hospital beds from an existing state facility operated by the commissioner of human services to a new or existing facility, building, or complex operated by the commissioner of human services; from one regional treatment center site to another; or from one building or site to a new or existing building or site on the same campus;
(12) the construction or relocation of hospital beds operated by a hospital having a statutory obligation to provide hospital and medical services for the indigent that does not result in a net increase in the number of hospital beds, notwithstanding section 144.552, 27 beds, of which 12 serve mental health needs, may be transferred from Hennepin County Medical Center to Regions Hospital under this clause;
(13) a construction project involving the addition of up to 31 new beds in an existing nonfederal hospital in Beltrami County;
(14) a construction project involving the addition of up to eight new beds in an existing nonfederal hospital in Otter Tail County with 100 licensed acute care beds;
(15) a construction project involving the addition of 20 new hospital beds in an existing hospital in Carver County serving the southwest suburban metropolitan area;
(16) a project for the construction or relocation of up to 20 hospital beds for the operation of up to two psychiatric facilities or units for children provided that the operation of the facilities or units have received the approval of the commissioner of human services;
(17) a project involving the addition of 14 new hospital beds to be used for rehabilitation services in an existing hospital in Itasca County;
(18) a project to add 20 licensed beds in existing space at a hospital in Hennepin County that closed 20 rehabilitation beds in 2002, provided that the beds are used only for rehabilitation in the hospital's current rehabilitation building. If the beds are used for another purpose or moved to another location, the hospital's licensed capacity is reduced by 20 beds;
(19) a critical access hospital established under section 144.1483, clause (9), and section 1820 of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 1395i-4, that delicensed beds since enactment of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, Public Law 105-33, to the extent that the critical access hospital does not seek to exceed the maximum number of beds permitted such hospital under federal law;
(20) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction of a new hospital in the city of Maple Grove with a licensed capacity of up to 300 beds provided that:
(i) the project, including each hospital or health system that will own or control the entity that will hold the new hospital license, is approved by a resolution of the Maple Grove City Council as of March 1, 2006;
(ii) the entity that will hold the new hospital license will be owned or controlled by one or more not-for-profit hospitals or health systems that have previously submitted a plan or plans for a project in Maple Grove as required under section 144.552, and the plan or plans have been found to be in the public interest by the commissioner of health as of April 1, 2005;
(iii) the new hospital's initial inpatient services must include, but are not limited to, medical and surgical services, obstetrical and gynecological services, intensive care services, orthopedic services, pediatric services, noninvasive cardiac diagnostics, behavioral health services, and emergency room services;
(iv) the new hospital:
(A) will have the ability to provide and staff sufficient new beds to meet the growing needs of the Maple Grove service area and the surrounding communities currently being served by the hospital or health system that will own or control the entity that will hold the new hospital license;
(B) will provide uncompensated care;
(C) will provide mental health services, including inpatient beds;
(D) will be a site for workforce development for a broad spectrum of health-care-related occupations and have a commitment to providing clinical training programs for physicians and other health care providers;
(E) will demonstrate a commitment to quality care and patient safety;
(F) will have an electronic medical records system, including physician order entry;
(G) will provide a broad range of senior services;
(H) will provide emergency medical services that will coordinate care with regional providers of trauma services and licensed emergency ambulance services in order to enhance the continuity of care for emergency medical patients; and
(I) will be completed by December 31, 2009, unless delayed by circumstances beyond the control of the entity holding the new hospital license; and
(v) as of 30 days following submission of a written plan, the commissioner of health has not determined that the hospitals or health systems that will own or control the entity that will hold the new hospital license are unable to meet the criteria of this clause;
(21) a project approved under section 144.553;
(22) a project for the construction of a hospital with up to 25 beds in Cass County within a 20-mile radius of the state Ah-Gwah-Ching facility, provided the hospital's license holder is approved by the Cass County Board;
(23) a project for an acute care hospital in Fergus Falls that will increase the bed capacity from 108 to 110 beds by increasing the rehabilitation bed capacity from 14 to 16 and closing a separately licensed 13-bed skilled nursing facility;
(24) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction and expansion of a specialty psychiatric hospital in Hennepin County for up to 50 beds, exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission. The commissioner conducted a public interest review of the mental health needs of Minnesota and the Twin Cities metropolitan area in 2008. No further public interest review shall be conducted for the construction or expansion project under this clause;
(25) a project for a 16-bed psychiatric hospital in the city of Thief River Falls, if the commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete;
(26)(i) a project for a 20-bed psychiatric hospital, within an existing facility in the city of Maple Grove, exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission, if the commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete;
(ii) this project shall serve patients in the continuing care benefit program under section 256.9693. The project may also serve patients not in the continuing care benefit program; and
(iii) if the project ceases to participate in the continuing care benefit program, the commissioner must complete a subsequent public interest review under section 144.552. If the project is found not to be in the public interest, the license must be terminated six months from the date of that finding. If the commissioner of human services terminates the contract without cause or reduces per diem payment rates for patients under the continuing care benefit program below the rates in effect for services provided on December 31, 2015, the project may cease to participate in the continuing care benefit program and continue to operate without a subsequent public interest review;
(27) a project involving the addition of 21 new beds in an existing psychiatric hospital in Hennepin County that is exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission; deleted text begin ordeleted text end
(28) a project to add 55 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as designated under section 383A.91, subdivision 5, of which 15 beds are to be used for inpatient mental health and 40 are to be used for other services. In addition, five unlicensed observation mental health beds shall be addeddeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;new text end
new text begin (29) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under section 144.552 and the addition of the 15 inpatient mental health beds specified in clause (28), to its bed capacity, a project to add 45 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as designated under section 383A.91, subdivision 5. Five of the 45 additional beds authorized under this clause must be designated for use for inpatient mental health and must be added to the hospital's bed capacity before the remaining 40 beds are added. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the hospital may add licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided the hospital submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public interest review described in section 144.552; or new text end
new text begin (30) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under section 144.552, a project to add up to 30 licensed beds in an existing psychiatric hospital in Hennepin County that exclusively provides care to patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the psychiatric hospital may add licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided the hospital submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public interest review described in section 144.552. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
If a facility licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56new text begin , other than a hospital,new text end voluntarily plans to cease operations or to curtail operations to the extent that patients or residents must be relocated, the controlling persons of the facility must notify the commissioner of health at least 90 days before the scheduled cessation or curtailment. The commissioner shall cooperate with the controlling persons and advise them about relocating the patients or residents.
new text begin (a) The controlling persons of a hospital licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56 or a hospital campus must notify the commissioner of health and the public at least 120 days before the hospital or hospital campus voluntarily plans to implement one of the following scheduled actions: new text end
new text begin (1) cease operations; new text end
new text begin (2) curtail operations to the extent that patients must be relocated; new text end
new text begin (3) relocate the provision of health services to another hospital or another hospital campus; or new text end
new text begin (4) cease offering maternity care and newborn care services, intensive care unit services, inpatient mental health services, or inpatient substance use disorder treatment services. new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner shall cooperate with the controlling persons and advise them about relocating the patients. new text end
new text begin Within 45 days after receiving notice under subdivision 1a, the commissioner shall conduct a public hearing on the scheduled cessation of operations, curtailment of operations, relocation of health services, or cessation in offering health services. The commissioner must provide adequate public notice of the hearing in a time and manner determined by the commissioner. The controlling persons of the hospital or hospital campus must participate in the public hearing. The public hearing must include: new text end
new text begin (1) an explanation by the controlling persons of the reasons for ceasing or curtailing operations, relocating health services, or ceasing to offer any of the listed health services; new text end
new text begin (2) a description of the actions that controlling persons will take to ensure that residents in the hospital's or campus's service area have continued access to the health services being eliminated, curtailed, or relocated; new text end
new text begin (3) an opportunity for public testimony on the scheduled cessation or curtailment of operations, relocation of health services, or cessation in offering any of the listed health services, and on the hospital's or campus's plan to ensure continued access to those health services being eliminated, curtailed, or relocated; and new text end
new text begin (4) an opportunity for the controlling persons to respond to questions from interested persons. new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding the time period in subdivision 1a by which notice must be provided to the commissioner and the public, the controlling persons of a hospital or hospital campus must notify the commissioner of health and the public as soon as practicable after deciding to take an action listed in subdivision 1a, paragraph (a), if the action is caused by: new text end
new text begin (1) a natural disaster or other emergency; or new text end
new text begin (2) an inability of the hospital to provide health services according to the applicable standard of care due to the hospital's inability to retain or secure essential staff after reasonable effort. new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding the time period in subdivision 1b by which a public hearing must be held, the commissioner must hold a public hearing according to subdivision 1b as soon as practicable after the controlling persons of the hospital or hospital campus governed by this subdivision decide to take the action. new text end
Failure to notify the commissioner under subdivision 1new text begin , 1a, or 1c or failure to participate in a public hearing under subdivision 1bnew text end may result in issuance of a correction order under section 144.653, subdivision 5.
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
"Lead hazard reduction" means abatement or interim controls undertaken to make a residence, child care facility, school, deleted text begin ordeleted text end playgroundnew text begin , or other location where lead hazards are identifiednew text end lead-safe by complying with the lead standards and methods adopted under section 144.9508.
(a) Every hospital, medical clinic, medical laboratory, other facility, or individual performing blood lead analysis shall report the results after the analysis of each specimen analyzed, for both capillary and venous specimens, and epidemiologic information required in this section to the commissioner of health, within the time frames set forth in clauses (1) and (2):
(1) within two working days by telephone, fax, or electronic transmissionnew text begin as prescribed by the commissionernew text end , with written or electronic confirmation within one monthnew text begin as prescribed by the commissionernew text end , for a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than 15 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood; or
(2) within one month in writing or by electronic transmissionnew text begin as prescribed by the commissionernew text end , for any capillary result or for a venous blood lead level less than 15 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood.
(b) If a blood lead analysis is performed outside of Minnesota and the facility performing the analysis does not report the blood lead analysis results and epidemiological information required in this section to the commissioner, the provider who collected the blood specimen must satisfy the reporting requirements of this section. For purposes of this section, "provider" has the meaning given in section 62D.02, subdivision 9.
(c) The commissioner shall coordinate with hospitals, medical clinics, medical laboratories, and other facilities performing blood lead analysis to develop a universal reporting form and mechanism.
(a) new text begin Notwithstanding section 144.9501, subdivision 6a, for purposes of this subdivision, "child" means an individual under 18 years of age.new text end
new text begin (b) new text end An assessing agency shall conduct a lead risk assessment of a residencenew text begin , residential or commercial child care facility, playground, school, or other location where lead hazards are suspectednew text end according to the venous blood lead level and time frame set forth in clauses (1) to (4) for purposes of secondary prevention:
(1) within 48 hours of a child or pregnant female in the residencenew text begin , residential or commercial child care facility, playground, school, or other location where lead hazards are suspectednew text end being identified to the agency as having a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than 60 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood;
(2) within five working days of a child or pregnant female in the residencenew text begin , residential or commercial child care facility, playground, school, or other location where lead hazards are suspectednew text end being identified to the agency as having a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than 45 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood;
deleted text begin (3) within ten working days of a child in the residence being identified to the agency as having a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than 15 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood; or deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end within ten working days of a new text begin child or new text end pregnant female in the residencenew text begin , residential or commercial child care facility, playground, school, or other location where lead hazards are suspectednew text end being identified to the agency as having a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than ten micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blooddeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; ornew text end
new text begin (4) within 20 working days of a child or pregnant female in the residence, residential or commercial child care facility, playground, school, or other location where lead hazards are suspected being identified to the agency as having a venous blood lead level equal to or greater than five micrograms per deciliter of whole blood. new text end
new text begin An assessing agency may refer investigations at sites other than the child's or pregnant female's residence to the commissioner. new text end
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end Within the limits of available local, state, and federal appropriations, an assessing agency may also conduct a lead risk assessment for children with any elevated blood lead level.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end In a building with two or more dwelling units, an assessing agency shall assess the individual unit in which the conditions of this section are met and shall inspect all common areas accessible to a child. If a child visits one or more other sites such as another residence, or a residential or commercial child care facility, playground, or school, the assessing agency shall also inspect the other sites. The assessing agency shall have one additional day added to the time frame set forth in this subdivision to complete the lead risk assessment for each additional site.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end Within the limits of appropriations, the assessing agency shall identify the known addresses for the previous 12 months of the child or pregnant female with venous blood lead levels of at least 15 micrograms per deciliter for the child or at least ten micrograms per deciliter for the pregnant female; notify the property owners, landlords, and tenants at those addresses that an elevated blood lead level was found in a person who resided at the property; and give them primary prevention information. Within the limits of appropriations, the assessing agency may perform a risk assessment and issue corrective orders in the properties, if it is likely that the previous address contributed to the child's or pregnant female's blood lead level. The assessing agency shall provide the notice required by this subdivision without identifying the child or pregnant female with the elevated blood lead level. The assessing agency is not required to obtain the consent of the child's parent or guardian or the consent of the pregnant female for purposes of this subdivision. This information shall be classified as private data on individuals as defined under section 13.02, subdivision 12.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The assessing agency shall conduct the lead risk assessment according to rules adopted by the commissioner under section 144.9508. An assessing agency shall have lead risk assessments performed by lead risk assessors licensed by the commissioner according to rules adopted under section 144.9508. If a property owner refuses to allow a lead risk assessment, the assessing agency shall begin legal proceedings to gain entry to the property and the time frame for conducting a lead risk assessment set forth in this subdivision no longer applies. A lead risk assessor or assessing agency may observe the performance of lead hazard reduction in progress and shall enforce the provisions of this section under section 144.9509. Deteriorated painted surfaces, bare soil, and dust must be tested with appropriate analytical equipment to determine the lead content, except that deteriorated painted surfaces or bare soil need not be tested if the property owner agrees to engage in lead hazard reduction on those surfaces. The lead content of drinking water must be measured if another probable source of lead exposure is not identified. Within a standard metropolitan statistical area, an assessing agency may order lead hazard reduction of bare soil without measuring the lead content of the bare soil if the property is in a census tract in which soil sampling has been performed according to rules established by the commissioner and at least 25 percent of the soil samples contain lead concentrations above the standard in section 144.9508.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end Each assessing agency shall establish an administrative appeal procedure which allows a property owner to contest the nature and conditions of any lead order issued by the assessing agency. Assessing agencies must consider appeals that propose lower cost methods that make the residence lead safe. The commissioner shall use the authority and appeal procedure granted under sections 144.989 to 144.993.
deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end Sections 144.9501 to 144.9512 neither authorize nor prohibit an assessing agency from charging a property owner for the cost of a lead risk assessment.
(a) An assessing agency, after conducting a lead risk assessment, shall order a property owner to perform lead hazard reduction on all lead sources that exceed a standard adopted according to section 144.9508. If lead risk assessments and lead orders are conducted at times when weather or soil conditions do not permit the lead risk assessment or lead hazard reduction, external surfaces and soil lead shall be assessed, and lead orders complied with, if necessary, at the first opportunity that weather and soil conditions allow.
new text begin (b) If, after conducting a lead risk assessment, an assessing agency determines that the property owner's lead hazard originated from another source location, the assessing agency may order the responsible person of the source location to: new text end
new text begin (1) perform lead hazard reduction at the site where the assessing agency conducted the lead risk assessment; and new text end
new text begin (2) remediate the conditions at the source location that allowed the lead hazard, pollutant, or contaminant to migrate from the source location. new text end
new text begin (c) For purposes of this subdivision, "pollutant or contaminant" has the meaning given in section 115B.02, subdivision 13, and "responsible person" has the meaning given in section 115B.03. new text end
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end If the paint standard under section 144.9508 is violated, but the paint is intact, the assessing agency shall not order the paint to be removed unless the intact paint is a known source of actual lead exposure to a specific person. Before the assessing agency may order the intact paint to be removed, a reasonable effort must be made to protect the child and preserve the intact paint by the use of guards or other protective devices and methods.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end Whenever windows and doors or other components covered with deteriorated lead-based paint have sound substrate or are not rotting, those components should be repaired, sent out for stripping or planed down to remove deteriorated lead-based paint, or covered with protective guards instead of being replaced, provided that such an activity is the least cost method. However, a property owner who has been ordered to perform lead hazard reduction may choose any method to address deteriorated lead-based paint on windows, doors, or other components, provided that the method is approved in rules adopted under section 144.9508 and that it is appropriate to the specific property.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end Lead orders must require that any source of damage, such as leaking roofs, plumbing, and windows, be repaired or replaced, as needed, to prevent damage to lead-containing interior surfaces.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end The assessing agency is not required to pay for lead hazard reduction. The assessing agency shall enforce the lead orders issued to a property owner under this section.
The superintendent or other chief administrative officer of any public or private hospital, by and with the consent and approval of the board of directors or other governing body of the hospital, may divest the files and records of that hospital of any individual case records and, with that consent and approval, may destroy the records. The records shall first have been transferred and recorded as authorized in section 145.30.
Portions of individual hospital medical records that comprise an individual permanent medical record, as defined by the commissioner of health, shall be retained as authorized in section 145.30. Other portions of the individual medical record, including any miscellaneous documents, papers, and correspondence in connection with them, may be divested and destroyed after seven years without transfer to photographic film, electronic image, or other state-of-the-art electronic preservation technology.
All portions of individual hospital medical records of minors shall be maintained for seven years deleted text begin following the age of majoritydeleted text end new text begin or until the individual reaches the age of majority, whichever occurs last, at which time the individual may request that the patient's hospital records be destroyed, unless the hospital is required to retain the records as part of the individual's permanent medical record as defined in accordance with subdivision 2new text end .
Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the retention of hospital medical records beyond the periods described in this section. Nor shall anything in this section be construed to prohibit patient access to hospital medical records as provided in sections 144.291 to 144.298.
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
(a) The commissioner of health has access to medical data as defined in section 13.384, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), medical examiner data as defined in section 13.83, subdivision 1, and health records created, maintained, or stored by providers as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end , without the consent of the subject of the data, and without the consent of the parent, spouse, other guardian, or legal representative of the subject of the data, when the subject of the data is a woman who died during a pregnancy or within 12 months of a fetal death, a live birth, or other termination of a pregnancy.
The commissioner has access only to medical data and health records related to deaths that occur on or after July 1, 2000new text begin , including the names of the providers, clinics, or other health services such as family home visiting programs; the women, infants, and children (WIC) program; prescription monitoring programs; and behavioral health services, where care was received before, during, or related to the pregnancy or death. The commissioner has access to records maintained by a medical examiner, a coroner, or hospitals or to hospital discharge data, for the purpose of providing the name and location of any pre-pregnancy, prenatal, or other care received by the subject of the data up to one year after the end of the pregnancynew text end .
(b) The provider or responsible authority that creates, maintains, or stores the data shall furnish the data upon the request of the commissioner. The provider or responsible authority may charge a fee for providing the data, not to exceed the actual cost of retrieving and duplicating the data.
(c) The commissioner shall make a good faith reasonable effort to notify the parent, spouse, other guardian, or legal representative of the subject of the data before collecting data on the subject. For purposes of this paragraph, "reasonable effort" means one notice is sent by certified mail to the last known address of the parent, spouse, guardian, or legal representative informing the recipient of the data collection and offering a public health nurse support visit if desired.
(d) The commissioner does not have access to coroner or medical examiner data that are part of an active investigation as described in section 13.83.
new text begin (e) The commissioner may request and receive from a coroner or medical examiner the name of the health care provider that provided prenatal, postpartum, or other health services to the subject of the data. new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner may access Department of Human Services data to identify sources of care and services to assist with the evaluation of welfare systems, including housing, to reduce preventable maternal deaths. new text end
new text begin (g) The commissioner may request and receive law enforcement reports or incident reports related to the subject of the data. new text end
(a) Data provided to the commissioner from source records under subdivision 2, including identifying information on individual providers, data subjects, or their children, and data derived by the commissioner under subdivision 3 for the purpose of carrying out maternal death studies, are classified as confidential data on individuals or confidential data on decedents, as defined in sections 13.02, subdivision 3, and 13.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
(b) Information classified under paragraph (a) shall not be subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding. Such information otherwise available from an original source shall not be immune from discovery or barred from introduction into evidence merely because it was utilized by the commissioner in carrying out maternal death studies.
(c) Summary data on maternal death studies created by the commissioner, which does not identify individual data subjects or individual providers, shall be public in accordance with section 13.05, subdivision 7.
new text begin (d) Data provided by the commissioner of human services to the commissioner of health under this section retain the same classification the data held when retained by the commissioner of human services, as required under section 13.03, subdivision 4, paragraph (c). new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of health shall convene a Maternal Mortality Review Committee to conduct maternal death study reviews, make recommendations, and publicly share summary information. The commissioner shall appoint members to the review committee, and membership may include but is not limited to medical examiners or coroners, representatives of health care institutions that provide care to pregnant women, obstetric and midwifery practitioners, Medicaid representatives, representatives of state agencies, individuals from communities with disparate rates of maternal mortality, and other subject matter experts as appropriate. Committee membership shall not exceed 25 members. The review committee shall review data from source records obtained under subdivision 2, other than data identifying the subject or the provider. new text end
new text begin (b) A person attending a Maternal Mortality Review Committee meeting shall not disclose what transpired at the meeting, except as necessary to carry out the purposes of the review committee. The proceedings and records of the review committee are protected nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 13. Discovery and introduction into evidence in legal proceedings of case review committee proceedings and records, and testimony in legal proceedings by review committee members and persons presenting information to the review committee, shall occur in compliance with the requirements in section 256.01, subdivision 12, paragraph (e). new text end
new text begin (a) A homeless youth, as defined in section 256K.45, subdivision 1a, who meets the requirements of this subdivision may obtain a noncompliant identification card, notwithstanding section 171.06, subdivision 3. new text end
new text begin (b) An applicant under this subdivision must: new text end
new text begin (1) provide the applicant's full name, date of birth, and sex; new text end
new text begin (2) provide the applicant's height in feet and inches, weight in pounds, and eye color; new text end
new text begin (3) submit a certified copy of a birth certificate issued by a government bureau of vital statistics or equivalent agency in the applicant's state of birth, which must bear the raised or authorized seal of the issuing government entity; and new text end
new text begin (4) submit a statement verifying that the applicant is a homeless youth who resides in Minnesota that is signed by: new text end
new text begin (i) an employee of a human services agency receiving public funding to provide services to homeless youth, runaway youth, youth with mental illness, or youth with substance use disorders; or new text end
new text begin (ii) staff at a school who provide services to homeless youth or a school social worker. new text end
new text begin (c) For a noncompliant identification card under this subdivision: new text end
new text begin (1) the commissioner must not impose a fee, surcharge, or filing fee under section 171.06, subdivision 2; and new text end
new text begin (2) a driver's license agent must not impose a filing fee under section 171.061, subdivision 4. new text end
new text begin (d) Minnesota Rules, parts 7410.0400 and 7410.0410, or successor rules, do not apply for an identification card under this subdivision. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment for application and issuance of Minnesota identification cards on and after January 1, 2022. new text end
(a) Effective October 1, 2007, or six months after federal approval, whichever is later, medical assistance covers lead risk assessments provided by a lead risk assessor who is licensed by the commissioner of health under section 144.9505 and employed by an assessing agency as defined in section 144.9501. Medical assistance covers a onetime on-site investigation of a recipient's home or primary residence to determine the existence of lead so long as the recipient is under the age of 21 and has a venous blood lead level specified in section 144.9504, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (a)deleted text end new text begin (b)new text end .
(b) Medical assistance reimbursement covers the lead risk assessor's time to complete the following activities:
(1) gathering samples;
(2) interviewing family members;
(3) gathering data, including meter readings; and
(4) providing a report with the results of the investigation and options for reducing lead-based paint hazards.
Medical assistance coverage of lead risk assessment does not include testing of environmental substances such as water, paint, or soil or any other laboratory services. Medical assistance coverage of lead risk assessments is not included in the capitated services for children enrolled in health plans through the prepaid medical assistance program and the MinnesotaCare program.
(c) Payment for lead risk assessment must be cost-based and must meet the criteria for federal financial participation under the Medicaid program. The rate must be based on allowable expenditures from cost information gathered. Under section 144.9507, subdivision 5, federal medical assistance funds may not replace existing funding for lead-related activities. The nonfederal share of costs for services provided under this subdivision must be from state or local funds and is the responsibility of the agency providing the risk assessment. When the risk assessment is conducted by the commissioner of health, the state share must be from appropriations to the commissioner of health for this purpose. Eligible expenditures for the nonfederal share of costs may not be made from federal funds or funds used to match other federal funds. Any federal disallowances are the responsibility of the agency providing risk assessment services.
new text begin The commissioner of health shall develop recommendations to expand access to data in the all-payer claims database under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.04, to additional outside entities for public health or research purposes. In the recommendations, the commissioner must address an application process for outside entities to access the data, how the department will exercise ongoing oversight over data use by outside entities, purposes for which outside entities may use the data, establishment of a data access committee to advise the department on selecting outside entities permitted to access the data, steps outside entities must take to protect data held by outside entities from unauthorized use, and whether and how data released to outside entities may identify health care facilities, practices, and professionals. The commissioner, in consultation with the commissioner of human services, may also address whether the state should participate in a state-university partnership or network to promote research using Medicaid data. In developing the recommendations, the commissioner must examine best practices of other states regarding access to and uses of data in all-payer claims databases. The commissioner shall submit preliminary recommendations by December 15, 2021, and final recommendations and proposed amendments to statutes by December 15, 2022, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health policy and civil law. new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply. new text end
new text begin (b) "Alcohol and drug counselor" means an individual who is licensed as an alcohol and drug counselor under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 148F. new text end
new text begin (c) "Medical resident" and "mental health professional" have the meanings given in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1501, subdivision 1. new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1501, subdivision 2 or 4, the commissioner of health may award grants under the health professional education loan forgiveness program under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1501, to alcohol and drug counselors, medical residents, and mental health professionals: new text end
new text begin (1) agreeing to deliver at least 25 percent of their yearly patient encounters to state public program enrollees or patients receiving sliding fee schedule discounts through a formal sliding fee schedule meeting the standards established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 51, chapter 303; or new text end
new text begin (2) specializing in the area of pediatric psychiatry and agreeing to deliver at least 25 percent of their yearly patient encounters to state public program enrollees or patients receiving sliding fee schedule discounts through a formal sliding fee schedule meeting the standards established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 51, chapter 303. new text end
new text begin This section expires June 30, 2025. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of health shall develop a grant program, in consultation with the relevant mental health licensing boards, to provide for the continuing education necessary for social workers, marriage and family therapists, psychologists, and professional clinical counselors to become supervisors for individuals pursuing licensure in mental health professions. Social workers, marriage and family therapists, psychologists, and professional clinical counselors obtaining continuing education under this section must: new text end
new text begin (1) be members of communities of color or underrepresented communities as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 148E.010, subdivision 20; and new text end
new text begin (2) work for community mental health providers and agree to deliver at least 25 percent of their yearly patient encounters to state public program enrollees or patients receiving sliding fee schedule discounts through a formal sliding fee schedule meeting the standards established by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 51, chapter 303. new text end
new text begin The commissioner of health, with guidance from the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee established under Minnesota Statutes, section 145A.04, subdivision 15, shall provide funds to community health boards and Tribal governments for projects to build foundational public health capacity across the state, improve public health services to underserved populations, pilot new organizational models for providing public health services including multijurisdictional partnerships, or otherwise improve the state's public health system so that it satisfies national standards, including standards for health equity. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall work with the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee to determine the process for distributing funds under this section. Community health boards and Tribal governments may be jointly funded under this section. new text end
new text begin A community health board, Tribal government, or multijurisdictional unit receiving funds under this section shall report to the commissioner data specified by the commissioner for evaluation of the program. new text end
new text begin Funds received under this section must be used to supplement and not supplant current county or Tribal expenditures for public health purposes. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall assess the capacity of the public health system and oversee improvement efforts conducted with funds under this section. new text end
new text begin By February 1, 2023, the commissioner shall develop and provide to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public health recommendations on changes to the organization and funding of Minnesota's public health system. new text end
new text begin (a) The revisor of statutes shall amend the section headnote for Minnesota Statutes, section 62J.63, to read "HEALTH CARE PURCHASING AND PERFORMANCE MEASUREMENT." new text end
new text begin (b) If the fee to support the newborn screening program is increased in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 144.064, subdivision 3, paragraph (d), the revisor of statutes shall update Minnesota Statutes, section 144.125, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), to include the revised per-specimen fee. new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 62J.63, subdivision 3; 144.0721, subdivision 1; 144.0722; 144.0724, subdivision 10; and 144.693, new text end new text begin are repealed. new text end
(a) The members of the board shall:
(1) be appointed by the governor;
(2) be residents of the state;
(3) serve for not more than two consecutive terms;
(4) designate the officers of the board; and
(5) administer oaths pertaining to the business of the board.
(b) A public member of the board shall represent the public interest and shall not:
(1) be a psychologist or have engaged in the practice of psychology;
(2) be an applicant or former applicant for licensure;
(3) be a member of another health profession and be licensed by a health-related licensing board as defined under section 214.01, subdivision 2; the commissioner of health; or licensed, certified, or registered by another jurisdiction;
(4) be a member of a household that includes a psychologist; or
(5) have conflicts of interest or the appearance of conflicts with duties as a board member.
new text begin (c) At the time of their appointments, at least two members of the board must reside outside of the seven-county metropolitan area. new text end
new text begin (d) At the time of their appointments, at least two members of the board must be members of: new text end
new text begin (1) a community of color; or new text end
new text begin (2) an underrepresented community, defined as a group that is not represented in the majority with respect to race, ethnicity, national origin, sexual orientation, gender identity, or physical ability. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end Upon application for license renewal, a licensee shall provide the board with satisfactory evidence that the licensee has completed continuing education requirements established by the board. Continuing education programs shall be approved under section 148.905, subdivision 1, clause (10). The board shall establish by rule the number of continuing education training hours required each year and may specify subject or skills areas that the licensee shall address.
new text begin (b) At least four of the required continuing education hours must be on increasing the knowledge, understanding, self-awareness, and practice skills to competently address the psychological needs of individuals from diverse socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds. Topics include but are not limited to: new text end
new text begin (1) understanding culture, its functions, and strengths that exist in varied cultures; new text end
new text begin (2) understanding clients' cultures and differences among and between cultural groups; new text end
new text begin (3) understanding the nature of social diversity and oppression; new text end
new text begin (4) understanding cultural humility; and new text end
new text begin (5) understanding human diversity, meaning individual client differences that are associated with the client's cultural group, including race, ethnicity, national origin, religious affiliation, language, age, gender, gender identity, physical and mental capabilities, sexual orientation, and socioeconomic status. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2023. new text end
"Certified doula" means an individual who has received a certification to perform doula services from the International Childbirth Education Association, the Doulas of North America (DONA), the Association of Labor Assistants and Childbirth Educators (ALACE), Birthworks, the Childbirth and Postpartum Professional Association (CAPPA), Childbirth International, the International Center for Traditional Childbearing, deleted text begin ordeleted text end Commonsense Childbirth, Incnew text begin ., Modern Doula Education (MDE), or an organization designated by the commissioner under section 148.9965new text end .
The commissioner shall include on the registry any individual who:
(1) submits an application on a form provided by the commissioner. The form must include the applicant's name, address, and contact information;
(2) deleted text begin maintainsdeleted text end new text begin submits evidence of maintainingnew text end a current certification from one of the organizations listed in section 148.995, subdivision 2new text begin , or from an organization designated by the commissioner under section 148.9965new text end ; and
(3) pays the fees required under section 148.997.
Inclusion on the registry maintained by the commissioner is valid for three yearsnew text begin , provided the doula meets the requirement in subdivision 2, clause (2), during the entire periodnew text end . At the end of the three-year period, the certified doula may submit a new application to remain on the doula registry by meeting the requirements described in subdivision 2.
new text begin (a) If the commissioner determines that a doula included on the registry does not meet the requirement in subdivision 2, clause (2), the commissioner shall notify the affected doula that the doula no longer meets the requirement in subdivision 2, clause (2), specify steps the doula must take to maintain inclusion on the registry, and specify the effect of failing to take such steps. The commissioner must provide this notice by first class mail to the address on file with the commissioner for the affected doula. new text end
new text begin (b) Following the provision of notice under paragraph (a), the commissioner shall remove from the registry any doula who no longer meets the requirement in subdivision 2, clause (2), and who does not take the steps specified by the commissioner to maintain inclusion on the registry. new text end
new text begin The commissioner shall periodically review the doula certification organizations listed in section 148.995, subdivision 2, or designated by the commissioner under this section. The commissioner may: (1) designate additional organizations from which individuals, if maintaining current doula certification from such an organization, are eligible for inclusion on the registry of certified doulas; and (2) remove the designation of a doula certification organization previously designated by the commissioner. new text end
new text begin A doula certification organization seeking designation under this section shall provide the commissioner with evidence that the organization satisfies designation criteria established by the commissioner. If the commissioner designates a doula certification organization under this section, the commissioner shall provide notice of the designation by publication in the State Register and on the Department of Health website for the registry of certified doulas and shall specify the date after which a certification by the organization authorizes a doula certified by the organization to be included on the registry. new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner may remove the designation of a doula certification organization previously designated by the commissioner under this section upon a determination by the commissioner that the organization does not meet the commissioner's criteria for designation. If the commissioner removes a designation, the commissioner shall provide notice of the removal by publication in the State Register and shall specify the date after which a certification by the organization no longer authorizes a doula certified by the organization to be included on the registry. new text end
new text begin (b) Following removal of a designation, the Department of Health website for the registry of certified doulas shall be modified to reflect the removal. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end There is created a Board of Marriage and Family Therapy that consists of seven members appointed by the governor. Four members shall be licensed, practicing marriage and family therapists, each of whom shall for at least five years immediately preceding appointment, have been actively engaged as a marriage and family therapist, rendering professional services in marriage and family therapy. One member shall be engaged in the professional teaching and research of marriage and family therapy. Two members shall be representatives of the general public who have no direct affiliation with the practice of marriage and family therapy. All members shall have been a resident of the state two years preceding their appointment. Of the first board members appointed, three shall continue in office for two years, two members for three years, and two members, including the chair, for terms of four years respectively. Their successors shall be appointed for terms of four years each, except that a person chosen to fill a vacancy shall be appointed only for the unexpired term of the board member whom the newly appointed member succeeds. Upon the expiration of a board member's term of office, the board member shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed and qualified.
new text begin (b) At the time of their appointments, at least two members must reside outside of the seven-county metropolitan area. new text end
new text begin (c) At the time of their appointments, at least two members must be members of: new text end
new text begin (1) a community of color; or new text end
new text begin (2) an underrepresented community, defined as a group that is not represented in the majority with respect to race, ethnicity, national origin, sexual orientation, gender identity, or physical ability. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end The board shall:
(1) adopt and enforce rules for marriage and family therapy licensing, which shall be designed to protect the public;
(2) develop by rule appropriate techniques, including examinations and other methods, for determining whether applicants and licensees are qualified under sections 148B.29 to 148B.392;
(3) issue licenses to individuals who are qualified under sections 148B.29 to 148B.392;
(4) establish and implement procedures designed to assure that licensed marriage and family therapists will comply with the board's rules;
(5) study and investigate the practice of marriage and family therapy within the state in order to improve the standards imposed for the licensing of marriage and family therapists and to improve the procedures and methods used for enforcement of the board's standards;
(6) formulate and implement a code of ethics for all licensed marriage and family therapists; and
(7) establish continuing education requirements for marriage and family therapists.
new text begin (b) At least four of the 40 continuing education training hours required under Minnesota Rules, part 5300.0320, subpart 2, must be on increasing the knowledge, understanding, self-awareness, and practice skills that enable a marriage and family therapist to serve clients from diverse socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds. Topics include but are not limited to: new text end
new text begin (1) understanding culture, its functions, and strengths that exist in varied cultures; new text end
new text begin (2) understanding clients' cultures and differences among and between cultural groups; new text end
new text begin (3) understanding the nature of social diversity and oppression; and new text end
new text begin (4) understanding cultural humility. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2023. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end The Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy consists of 13 members appointed by the governor. Five of the members shall be professional counselors licensed or eligible for licensure under sections 148B.50 to 148B.593. Five of the members shall be alcohol and drug counselors licensed under chapter 148F. Three of the members shall be public members as defined in section 214.02. The board shall annually elect from its membership a chair and vice-chair. The board shall appoint and employ an executive director who is not a member of the board. The employment of the executive director shall be subject to the terms described in section 214.04, subdivision 2a. Chapter 214 applies to the Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy unless superseded by sections 148B.50 to 148B.593.
new text begin (b) At the time of their appointments, at least three members must reside outside of the seven-county metropolitan area. new text end
new text begin (c) At the time of their appointments, at least three members must be members of: new text end
new text begin (1) a community of color; or new text end
new text begin (2) an underrepresented community, defined as a group that is not represented in the majority with respect to race, ethnicity, national origin, sexual orientation, gender identity, or physical ability. new text end
new text begin (a) new text end At the completion of the first four years of licensure, a licensee must provide evidence satisfactory to the board of completion of 12 additional postgraduate semester credit hours or its equivalent in counseling as determined by the board, except that no licensee shall be required to show evidence of greater than 60 semester hours or its equivalent. In addition to completing the requisite graduate coursework, each licensee shall also complete in the first four years of licensure a minimum of 40 hours of continuing education activities approved by the board under Minnesota Rules, part 2150.2540. Graduate credit hours successfully completed in the first four years of licensure may be applied to both the graduate credit requirement and to the requirement for 40 hours of continuing education activities. A licensee may receive 15 continuing education hours per semester credit hour or ten continuing education hours per quarter credit hour. Thereafter, at the time of renewal, each licensee shall provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the licensee has completed during each two-year period at least the equivalent of 40 clock hours of professional postdegree continuing education in programs approved by the board and continues to be qualified to practice under sections 148B.50 to 148B.593.
new text begin (b) At least four of the required 40 continuing education clock hours must be on increasing the knowledge, understanding, self-awareness, and practice skills that enable a licensed professional counselor and licensed professional clinical counselor to serve clients from diverse socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds. Topics include but are not limited to: new text end
new text begin (1) understanding culture, culture's functions, and strengths that exist in varied cultures; new text end
new text begin (2) understanding clients' cultures and differences among and between cultural groups; new text end
new text begin (3) understanding the nature of social diversity and oppression; and new text end
new text begin (4) understanding cultural humility. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2023. new text end
new text begin "Cultural responsiveness" means increasing the knowledge, understanding, self-awareness, and practice skills that enable a social worker to serve clients from diverse socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds including: new text end
new text begin (1) understanding culture, its functions, and strengths that exist in varied cultures; new text end
new text begin (2) understanding clients' cultures and differences among and between cultural groups; new text end
new text begin (3) understanding the nature of social diversity and oppression; and new text end
new text begin (4) understanding cultural humility. new text end
(a) A licensee must complete 40 hours of continuing education for each two-year renewal term. At the time of license renewal, a licensee must provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the licensee has completed the required continuing education hours during the previous renewal term. Of the total clock hours required:
(1) all licensees must completenew text begin :new text end
new text begin (i)new text end two hours in social work ethics as defined in section 148E.010; new text begin and new text end
new text begin (ii) four hours in cultural responsiveness; new text end
(2) licensed independent clinical social workers must complete 12 clock hours in one or more of the clinical content areas specified in section 148E.055, subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (2);
(3) licensees providing licensing supervision according to sections 148E.100 to 148E.125, must complete six clock hours in supervision as defined in section 148E.010; and
(4) no more than half of the required clock hours may be completed via continuing education independent learning as defined in section 148E.010.
(b) If the licensee's renewal term is prorated to be less or more than 24 months, the total number of required clock hours is prorated proportionately.
new text begin (a) The content clock hours in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), item (ii), apply to all new licenses issued effective July 1, 2021, under section 148E.055. new text end
new text begin (b) Any licensee issued a license prior to July 1, 2021, under section 148E.055 must comply with the clock hours in subdivision 1, including the content clock hours in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1), item (ii), at the first two-year renewal term after July 1, 2021. new text end
(a) If a state official litigates or settles a matter on behalf of specific injured persons or entities, this section does not prohibit distribution of money to the specific injured persons or entities on whose behalf the litigation or settlement efforts were initiated. If money recovered on behalf of injured persons or entities cannot reasonably be distributed to those persons or entities because they cannot readily be located or identified or because the cost of distributing the money would outweigh the benefit to the persons or entities, the money must be paid into the general fund.
(b) Money recovered on behalf of a fund in the state treasury other than the general fund may be deposited in that fund.
(c) This section does not prohibit a state official from distributing money to a person or entity other than the state in litigation or potential litigation in which the state is a defendant or potential defendant.
(d) State agencies may accept funds as directed by a federal court for any restitution or monetary penalty under United States Code, title 18, section 3663(a)(3), or United States Code, title 18, section 3663A(a)(3). Funds received must be deposited in a special revenue account and are appropriated to the commissioner of the agency for the purpose as directed by the federal court.
(e) Tobacco settlement revenues as defined in section 16A.98, subdivision 1, paragraph (t), may be deposited as provided in section 16A.98, subdivision 12.
(f) Any money received by the state resulting from a settlement agreement or an assurance of discontinuance entered into by the attorney general of the state, or a court order in litigation brought by the attorney general of the state, on behalf of the state or a state agency, deleted text begin against one or more opioid manufacturers or opioid wholesale drug distributorsdeleted text end related to alleged violations of consumer fraud laws in the marketing, sale, or distribution of opioids in this state or other alleged illegal actions that contributed to the excessive use of opioids, must be deposited in a separate account in the state treasury and the commissioner shall notify the chairs and ranking minority members of the Finance Committee in the senate and the Ways and Means Committee in the house of representatives that an account has been created. new text begin Notwithstanding section 11A.20, all investment income and all investment losses attributable to the investment of this account shall be credited to the account. new text end This paragraph does not apply to attorney fees and costs awarded to the state or the Attorney General's Office, to contract attorneys hired by the state or Attorney General's Office, or to other state agency attorneys. If the licensing fees under section 151.065, subdivision 1, clause (16), and subdivision 3, clause (14), are reduced and the registration fee under section 151.066, subdivision 3, is repealed in accordance with section 256.043, subdivision 4, then the commissioner shall transfer from the separate account created in this paragraph to the opiate epidemic response fund under section 256.043 an amount that ensures that $20,940,000 each fiscal year is available for distribution in accordance with section 256.043, deleted text begin subdivisions 2 anddeleted text end new text begin subdivisionnew text end 3.
new text begin (g) Notwithstanding paragraph (f), if money is received from a settlement agreement or an assurance of discontinuance entered into by the attorney general of the state or a court order in litigation brought by the attorney general of the state on behalf of the state or a state agency against a consulting firm working for an opioid manufacturer or opioid wholesale drug distributor and deposited into the separate account created under paragraph (f), the commissioner shall annually transfer from the separate account to the opiate epidemic response fund under section 256.043 an amount equal to the estimated amount submitted to the commissioner by the Board of Pharmacy in accordance with section 151.066, subdivision 3, paragraph (b). The amount transferred shall be included in the amount available for distribution in accordance with section 256.043, subdivision 3. This transfer shall occur each year until the registration fee under section 151.066, subdivision 3, is repealed in accordance with section 256.043, subdivision 4, or the money deposited in the account in accordance with this paragraph has been transferred, whichever occurs first. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
(a) The board shall annually assess an opiate product registration fee on any manufacturer of an opiate that annually sells, delivers, or distributes an opiate within or into the state 2,000,000 or more units as reported to the board under subdivision 2.
(b) new text begin For purposes of assessing the annual registration fee under this section and determining the number of opiate units a manufacturer sold, delivered, or distributed within or into the state, the board shall not consider any opiate that is used for medication-assisted therapy for substance use disorders. If there is money deposited into the separate account as described in section 16A.151, subdivision 2, paragraph (g), the board shall submit to the commissioner of management and budget an estimate of the difference in the annual fee revenue collected under this section due to this exception.new text end
new text begin (c) new text end The annual registration fee for each manufacturer meeting the requirement under paragraph (a) is $250,000.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end In conjunction with the data reported under this section, and notwithstanding section 152.126, subdivision 6, the board may use the data reported under section 152.126, subdivision 4, to determine which manufacturers meet the requirement under paragraph (a) and are required to pay the registration fees under this subdivision.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end By April 1 of each year, beginning April 1, 2020, the board shall notify a manufacturer that the manufacturer meets the requirement in paragraph (a) and is required to pay the annual registration fee in accordance with section 151.252, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end A manufacturer may dispute the board's determination that the manufacturer must pay the registration fee no later than 30 days after the date of notification. However, the manufacturer must still remit the fee as required by section 151.252, subdivision 1, paragraph (b). The dispute must be filed with the board in the manner and using the forms specified by the board. A manufacturer must submit, with the required forms, data satisfactory to the board that demonstrates that the assessment of the registration fee was incorrect. The board must make a decision concerning a dispute no later than 60 days after receiving the required dispute forms. If the board determines that the manufacturer has satisfactorily demonstrated that the fee was incorrectly assessed, the board must refund the amount paid in error.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end For purposes of this subdivision, a unit means the individual dosage form of the particular drug product that is prescribed to the patient. One unit equals one tablet, capsule, patch, syringe, milliliter, or gram.
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin In addition to complying with the requirements of Minnesota Rules, part 6800.3000, a mail order or specialty pharmacy that employs the United States Postal Service or other common carrier to deliver a filled prescription directly to a patient must ensure that the drug is delivered in compliance with temperature requirements established by the manufacturer of the drug. The pharmacy must develop written policies and procedures that are consistent with United States Pharmacopeia, chapters 1079 and 1118, and with nationally recognized standards issued by standard-setting or accreditation organizations recognized by the board through guidance. The policies and procedures must be provided to the board upon request. new text end
(a) If the state receives a total sum of $250,000,000 either as a result of a settlement agreement or an assurance of discontinuance entered into by the attorney general of the state, or resulting from a court order in litigation brought by the attorney general of the state on behalf of the state or a state agencydeleted text begin , against one or more opioid manufacturers or opioid wholesale drug distributorsdeleted text end related to alleged violations of consumer fraud laws in the marketing, sale, or distribution of opioids in this state, or other alleged illegal actions that contributed to the excessive use of opioids, or from the fees collected under sections 151.065, subdivisions 1 and 3, and 151.066, that are deposited into the opiate epidemic response fund established in this section, or from a combination of both, the fees specified in section 151.065, subdivisions 1, clause (16), and 3, clause (14), shall be reduced to $5,260, and the opiate registration fee in section 151.066, subdivision 3, shall be repealed.
(b) The commissioner of management and budget shall inform the Board of Pharmacy, the governor, and the legislature when the amount specified in paragraph (a) has been reached. The board shall apply the reduced license fee for the next licensure period.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the reduction of the license fee in section 151.065, subdivisions 1 and 3, and the repeal of the registration fee in section 151.066 shall not occur before July 1, 2024.
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin The Board of Pharmacy shall conduct a study to determine the appropriateness and feasibility of requiring mail order and specialty pharmacies to enclose in each medication's packaging a method by which the patient can easily detect improper storage or temperature variations that may have occurred during the delivery of a medication. The board shall report the results of the study by January 15, 2022, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health finance and policy. new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of assessing the opiate registration fee under Minnesota Statutes, section 151.066, subdivision 3, that is required to be paid on June 1, 2021, in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 151.252, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), the Board of Pharmacy shall not consider any injectable opiate product distributed to a hospital or hospital pharmacy. If there is money deposited into the separate account as described in Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.151, subdivision 2, paragraph (g), the board shall submit to the commissioner of management and budget an estimate of the difference in the annual opiate registration fee revenue collected under Minnesota Statutes, section 151.066, due to the exception described in this paragraph. new text end
new text begin (b) Any estimated loss to the opiate registration fee revenue attributable to paragraph (a) must be included in any transfer that occurs under Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.151, subdivision 2, paragraph (g), in calendar year 2021. new text end
new text begin (c) If a manufacturer has already paid the opiate registration fee due on June 1, 2021, the Board of Pharmacy shall return the amount of the fee to the manufacturer if the manufacturer would not have been required to pay the fee after the calculations described in paragraph (a) were made. new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment. new text end
new text begin This section may be cited as the "Minnesota Telehealth Act." new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given. new text end
new text begin (b) "Distant site" means a site at which a health care provider is located while providing health care services or consultations by means of telehealth. new text end
new text begin (c) "Health care provider" means a health care professional who is licensed or registered by the state to perform health care services within the provider's scope of practice and in accordance with state law. A health care provider includes a mental health professional as defined under section 245.462, subdivision 18, or 245.4871, subdivision 27; a mental health practitioner as defined under section 245.462, subdivision 17, or 245.4871, subdivision 26; a treatment coordinator under section 245G.11, subdivision 7; an alcohol and drug counselor under section 245G.11, subdivision 5; and a recovery peer under section 245G.11, subdivision 8. new text end
new text begin (d) "Health carrier" has the meaning given in section 62A.011, subdivision 2. new text end
new text begin (e) "Health plan" has the meaning given in section 62A.011, subdivision 3. Health plan includes dental plans as defined in section 62Q.76, subdivision 3, but does not include dental plans that provide indemnity-based benefits, regardless of expenses incurred, and are designed to pay benefits directly to the policy holder. new text end
new text begin (f) "Originating site" means a site at which a patient is located at the time health care services are provided to the patient by means of telehealth. For purposes of store-and-forward technology, the originating site also means the location at which a health care provider transfers or transmits information to the distant site. new text end
new text begin (g) "Store-and-forward technology" means the asynchronous electronic transfer or transmission of a patient's medical information or data from an originating site to a distant site for the purposes of diagnostic and therapeutic assistance in the care of a patient. new text end
new text begin (h) "Telehealth" means the delivery of health care services or consultations through the use of real time two-way interactive audio and visual communications to provide or support health care delivery and facilitate the assessment, diagnosis, consultation, treatment, education, and care management of a patient's health care. Telehealth includes the application of secure video conferencing, store-and-forward technology, and synchronous interactions between a patient located at an originating site and a health care provider located at a distant site. Until July 1, 2023, telehealth also includes audio-only communication between a health care provider and a patient in accordance with subdivision 6, paragraph (b). Telehealth does not include communication between health care providers that consists solely of a telephone conversation, e-mail, or facsimile transmission. Telehealth does not include communication between a health care provider and a patient that consists solely of an e-mail or facsimile transmission. Telehealth does not include telemonitoring services as defined in paragraph (i). new text end
new text begin (i) "Telemonitoring services" means the remote monitoring of clinical data related to the enrollee's vital signs or biometric data by a monitoring device or equipment that transmits the data electronically to a health care provider for analysis. Telemonitoring is intended to collect an enrollee's health-related data for the purpose of assisting a health care provider in assessing and monitoring the enrollee's medical condition or status. new text end
new text begin (a) A health plan sold, issued, or renewed by a health carrier in Minnesota must (1) cover benefits delivered through telehealth in the same manner as any other benefits covered under the health plan, and (2) comply with this section. new text end
new text begin (b) Coverage for services delivered through telehealth must not be limited on the basis of geography, location, or distance for travel subject to the health care provider network available to the enrollee through the enrollee's health plan. new text end
new text begin (c) A health carrier must not create a separate provider network to deliver services through telehealth that does not include network providers who provide in-person care to patients for the same service or require an enrollee to use a specific provider within the network to receive services through telehealth. new text end
new text begin (d) A health carrier may require a deductible, co-payment, or coinsurance payment for a health care service provided through telehealth, provided that the deductible, co-payment, or coinsurance payment is not in addition to, and does not exceed, the deductible, co-payment, or coinsurance applicable for the same service provided through in-person contact. new text end
new text begin (e) Nothing in this section: new text end
new text begin (1) requires a health carrier to provide coverage for services that are not medically necessary or are not covered under the enrollee's health plan; or new text end
new text begin (2) prohibits a health carrier from: new text end
new text begin (i) establishing criteria that a health care provider must meet to demonstrate the safety or efficacy of delivering a particular service through telehealth for which the health carrier does not already reimburse other health care providers for delivering the service through telehealth; new text end
new text begin (ii) establishing reasonable medical management techniques, provided the criteria or techniques are not unduly burdensome or unreasonable for the particular service; or new text end
new text begin (iii) requiring documentation or billing practices designed to protect the health carrier or patient from fraudulent claims, provided the practices are not unduly burdensome or unreasonable for the particular service. new text end
new text begin (f) Nothing in this section requires the use of telehealth when a health care provider determines that the delivery of a health care service through telehealth is not appropriate or when an enrollee chooses not to receive a health care service through telehealth. new text end
new text begin (a) A health carrier must not restrict or deny coverage of a health care service that is covered under a health plan solely: new text end
new text begin (1) because the health care service provided by the health care provider through telehealth is not provided through in-person contact; or new text end
new text begin (2) based on the communication technology or application used to deliver the health care service through telehealth, provided the technology or application complies with this section and is appropriate for the particular service. new text end
new text begin (b) Prior authorization may be required for health care services delivered through telehealth only if prior authorization is required before the delivery of the same service through in-person contact. new text end
new text begin (c) A health carrier may require a utilization review for services delivered through telehealth, provided the utilization review is conducted in the same manner and uses the same clinical review criteria as a utilization review for the same services delivered through in-person contact. new text end
new text begin (d) A health carrier or health care provider shall not require an enrollee to pay a fee to download a specific communication technology or application. new text end
new text begin (a) A health carrier must reimburse the health care provider for services delivered through telehealth on the same basis and at the same rate as the health carrier would apply to those services if the services had been delivered by the health care provider through in-person contact. new text end
new text begin (b) A health carrier must not deny or limit reimbursement based solely on a health care provider delivering the service or consultation through telehealth instead of through in-person contact. new text end
new text begin (c) A health carrier must not deny or limit reimbursement based solely on the technology and equipment used by the health care provider to deliver the health care service or consultation through telehealth, provided the technology and equipment used by the provider meets the requirements of this section and is appropriate for the particular service. new text end
new text begin (d) Nothing in this subdivision prohibits a health carrier and health care provider from entering into a contract that includes a value-based reimbursement arrangement for the delivery of covered services that may include services delivered through telehealth, and such an arrangement shall not be considered a violation of this subdivision. new text end
new text begin (a) A health carrier must not require a health care provider to use specific telecommunications technology and equipment as a condition of coverage under this section, provided the health care provider uses telecommunications technology and equipment that complies with current industry interoperable standards and complies with standards required under the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, and regulations promulgated under that Act, unless authorized under this section. new text end
new text begin (b) A health carrier must provide coverage for health care services delivered through telehealth by means of the use of audio-only communication if the communication is a scheduled appointment and the standard of care for that particular service can be met through the use of audio-only communication. Substance use disorder treatment services and mental health care services delivered through telehealth by means of audio-only communication may be covered without a scheduled appointment if the communication was initiated by the enrollee while in an emergency or crisis situation and a scheduled appointment was not possible due to the need of an immediate response. This paragraph expires July 1, 2023. new text end
new text begin A health carrier must provide coverage for telemonitoring services if: new text end
new text begin (1) the telemonitoring service is medically appropriate based on the enrollee's medical condition or status; new text end
new text begin (2) the enrollee is cognitively and physically capable of operating the monitoring device or equipment, or the enrollee has a caregiver who is willing and able to assist with the monitoring device or equipment; and new text end
new text begin (3) the enrollee resides in a setting that is suitable for telemonitoring and not in a setting that has health care staff on site. new text end
new text begin This section does not apply to coverage provided to state public health care program enrollees under chapter 256B or 256L. new text end
For the purposes of this section, deleted text begin "telemedicine" means the delivery of health care services or consultations while the patient is at an originating site and the licensed health care provider is at a distant site. A communication between licensed health care providers that consists solely of a telephone conversation, e-mail, or facsimile transmission does not constitute telemedicine consultations or services. A communication between a licensed health care provider and a patient that consists solely of an e-mail or facsimile transmission does not constitute telemedicine consultations or services. Telemedicine may be provided by means of real-time two-way interactive audio, and visual communications, including the application of secure video conferencing or store-and-forward technology to provide or support health care delivery, that facilitate the assessment, diagnosis, consultation, treatment, education, and care management of a patient's health care.deleted text end new text begin "telehealth" has the meaning given in section 62A.673, subdivision 2, paragraph (h).new text end
A physician-patient relationship may be established through deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealthnew text end .
A physician providing health care services by deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealthnew text end in this state shall be held to the same standards of practice and conduct as provided in this chapter for in-person health care services.
(a) A licensed practitioner in the course of professional practice only, may prescribe, administer, and dispense a legend drug, and may cause the same to be administered by a nurse, a physician assistant, or medical student or resident under the practitioner's direction and supervision, and may cause a person who is an appropriately certified, registered, or licensed health care professional to prescribe, dispense, and administer the same within the expressed legal scope of the person's practice as defined in Minnesota Statutes. A licensed practitioner may prescribe a legend drug, without reference to a specific patient, by directing a licensed dietitian or licensed nutritionist, pursuant to section 148.634; a nurse, pursuant to section 148.235, subdivisions 8 and 9; physician assistant; medical student or resident; or pharmacist according to section 151.01, subdivision 27, to adhere to a particular practice guideline or protocol when treating patients whose condition falls within such guideline or protocol, and when such guideline or protocol specifies the circumstances under which the legend drug is to be prescribed and administered. An individual who verbally, electronically, or otherwise transmits a written, oral, or electronic order, as an agent of a prescriber, shall not be deemed to have prescribed the legend drug. This paragraph applies to a physician assistant only if the physician assistant meets the requirements of deleted text begin section 147A.18deleted text end new text begin sections 147A.02 and 147A.09new text end .
(b) The commissioner of health, if a licensed practitioner, or a person designated by the commissioner who is a licensed practitioner, may prescribe a legend drug to an individual or by protocol for mass dispensing purposes where the commissioner finds that the conditions triggering section 144.4197 or 144.4198, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), exist. The commissioner, if a licensed practitioner, or a designated licensed practitioner, may prescribe, dispense, or administer a legend drug or other substance listed in subdivision 10 to control tuberculosis and other communicable diseases. The commissioner may modify state drug labeling requirements, and medical screening criteria and documentation, where time is critical and limited labeling and screening are most likely to ensure legend drugs reach the maximum number of persons in a timely fashion so as to reduce morbidity and mortality.
(c) A licensed practitioner that dispenses for profit a legend drug that is to be administered orally, is ordinarily dispensed by a pharmacist, and is not a vaccine, must file with the practitioner's licensing board a statement indicating that the practitioner dispenses legend drugs for profit, the general circumstances under which the practitioner dispenses for profit, and the types of legend drugs generally dispensed. It is unlawful to dispense legend drugs for profit after July 31, 1990, unless the statement has been filed with the appropriate licensing board. For purposes of this paragraph, "profit" means (1) any amount received by the practitioner in excess of the acquisition cost of a legend drug for legend drugs that are purchased in prepackaged form, or (2) any amount received by the practitioner in excess of the acquisition cost of a legend drug plus the cost of making the drug available if the legend drug requires compounding, packaging, or other treatment. The statement filed under this paragraph is public data under section 13.03. This paragraph does not apply to a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine or a registered pharmacist. Any person other than a licensed practitioner with the authority to prescribe, dispense, and administer a legend drug under paragraph (a) shall not dispense for profit. To dispense for profit does not include dispensing by a community health clinic when the profit from dispensing is used to meet operating expenses.
(d) A prescription drug order for the following drugs is not valid, unless it can be established that the prescription drug order was based on a documented patient evaluation, including an examination, adequate to establish a diagnosis and identify underlying conditions and contraindications to treatment:
(1) controlled substance drugs listed in section 152.02, subdivisions 3 to 5;
(2) drugs defined by the Board of Pharmacy as controlled substances under section 152.02, subdivisions 7, 8, and 12;
(3) muscle relaxants;
(4) centrally acting analgesics with opioid activity;
(5) drugs containing butalbital; or
(6) phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors when used to treat erectile dysfunction.
deleted text begin For purposes of prescribing drugs listed in clause (6), the requirement for a documented patient evaluation, including an examination, may be met through the use of telemedicine, as defined in section 147.033, subdivision 1. deleted text end
(e) For the purposes of paragraph (d), the requirement for an examination shall be met ifnew text begin :new text end
new text begin (1)new text end an in-person examination has been completed in any of the following circumstances:
deleted text begin (1)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end the prescribing practitioner examines the patient at the time the prescription or drug order is issued;
deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (ii)new text end the prescribing practitioner has performed a prior examination of the patient;
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (iii)new text end another prescribing practitioner practicing within the same group or clinic as the prescribing practitioner has examined the patient;
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (iv)new text end a consulting practitioner to whom the prescribing practitioner has referred the patient has examined the patient; or
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (v)new text end the referring practitioner has performed an examination in the case of a consultant practitioner issuing a prescription or drug order when providing services by means of telemedicinedeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; ornew text end
new text begin (2) the prescription order is for a drug listed in paragraph (d), clause (6), or for medication assisted therapy for a substance use disorder, and the prescribing practitioner has completed an examination of the patient via telehealth as defined in section 62A.673, subdivision 2, paragraph (h). new text end
(f) Nothing in paragraph (d) or (e) prohibits a licensed practitioner from prescribing a drug through the use of a guideline or protocol pursuant to paragraph (a).
(g) Nothing in this chapter prohibits a licensed practitioner from issuing a prescription or dispensing a legend drug in accordance with the Expedited Partner Therapy in the Management of Sexually Transmitted Diseases guidance document issued by the United States Centers for Disease Control.
(h) Nothing in paragraph (d) or (e) limits prescription, administration, or dispensing of legend drugs through a public health clinic or other distribution mechanism approved by the commissioner of health or a community health board in order to prevent, mitigate, or treat a pandemic illness, infectious disease outbreak, or intentional or accidental release of a biological, chemical, or radiological agent.
(i) No pharmacist employed by, under contract to, or working for a pharmacy located within the state and licensed under section 151.19, subdivision 1, may dispense a legend drug based on a prescription that the pharmacist knows, or would reasonably be expected to know, is not valid under paragraph (d).
(j) No pharmacist employed by, under contract to, or working for a pharmacy located outside the state and licensed under section 151.19, subdivision 1, may dispense a legend drug to a resident of this state based on a prescription that the pharmacist knows, or would reasonably be expected to know, is not valid under paragraph (d).
(k) Nothing in this chapter prohibits the commissioner of health, if a licensed practitioner, or, if not a licensed practitioner, a designee of the commissioner who is a licensed practitioner, from prescribing legend drugs for field-delivered therapy in the treatment of a communicable disease according to the Centers For Disease Control and Prevention Partner Services Guidelines.
"Face-to-face" means two-way, real-time, interactive and visual communication between a client and a treatment service provider and includes services delivered in person or via deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealthnew text end .
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
deleted text begin "Telemedicine"deleted text end new text begin "Telehealth"new text end means the delivery of a substance use disorder treatment service while the client is at an originating site and the deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end health care provider is at a distant sitenew text begin via telehealth as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 3b, andnew text end as specified in section 254B.05, subdivision 5, paragraph (f).
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
Each client must have a person-centered individual treatment plan developed by an alcohol and drug counselor within ten days from the day of service initiation for a residential program and within five calendar days on which a treatment session has been provided from the day of service initiation for a client in a nonresidential program. Opioid treatment programs must complete the individual treatment plan within 21 days from the day of service initiation. The individual treatment plan must be signed by the client and the alcohol and drug counselor and document the client's involvement in the development of the plan. The individual treatment plan is developed upon the qualified staff member's dated signature. Treatment planning must include ongoing assessment of client needs. An individual treatment plan must be updated based on new information gathered about the client's condition, the client's level of participation, and on whether methods identified have the intended effect. A change to the plan must be signed by the client and the alcohol and drug counselor. If the client chooses to have family or others involved in treatment services, the client's individual treatment plan must include how the family or others will be involved in the client's treatment.new text begin If a client is receiving treatment services or an assessment via telehealth and the alcohol and drug counselor documents the reason the client's signature cannot be obtained, the alcohol and drug counselor may document the client's verbal approval or electronic written approval of the treatment plan or change to the treatment plan in lieu of the client's signature.new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021. new text end
Notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, part 9530.6615, subpart 3, item A, a chemical use assessment may be conducted via deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealth as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 3bnew text end .
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) The commissioner shall establish rates for substance use disorder services and service enhancements funded under this chapter.
(b) Eligible substance use disorder treatment services include:
(1) outpatient treatment services that are licensed according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.17, or applicable tribal license;
(2) comprehensive assessments provided according to sections 245.4863, paragraph (a), and 245G.05;
(3) care coordination services provided according to section 245G.07, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (5);
(4) peer recovery support services provided according to section 245G.07, subdivision 2, clause (8);
(5) on July 1, 2019, or upon federal approval, whichever is later, withdrawal management services provided according to chapter 245F;
(6) medication-assisted therapy services that are licensed according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.17 and 245G.22, or applicable tribal license;
(7) medication-assisted therapy plus enhanced treatment services that meet the requirements of clause (6) and provide nine hours of clinical services each week;
(8) high, medium, and low intensity residential treatment services that are licensed according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.17 and 245G.21 or applicable tribal license which provide, respectively, 30, 15, and five hours of clinical services each week;
(9) hospital-based treatment services that are licensed according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.17 or applicable tribal license and licensed as a hospital under sections 144.50 to 144.56;
(10) adolescent treatment programs that are licensed as outpatient treatment programs according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.18 or as residential treatment programs according to Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0010 to 2960.0220, and 2960.0430 to 2960.0490, or applicable tribal license;
(11) high-intensity residential treatment services that are licensed according to sections 245G.01 to 245G.17 and 245G.21 or applicable tribal license, which provide 30 hours of clinical services each week provided by a state-operated vendor or to clients who have been civilly committed to the commissioner, present the most complex and difficult care needs, and are a potential threat to the community; and
(12) room and board facilities that meet the requirements of subdivision 1a.
(c) The commissioner shall establish higher rates for programs that meet the requirements of paragraph (b) and one of the following additional requirements:
(1) programs that serve parents with their children if the program:
(i) provides on-site child care during the hours of treatment activity that:
(A) is licensed under chapter 245A as a child care center under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503; or
(B) meets the licensure exclusion criteria of section 245A.03, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (6), and meets the requirements under section 245G.19, subdivision 4; or
(ii) arranges for off-site child care during hours of treatment activity at a facility that is licensed under chapter 245A as:
(A) a child care center under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503; or
(B) a family child care home under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9502;
(2) culturally specific programs as defined in section 254B.01, subdivision 4a, or programs or subprograms serving special populations, if the program or subprogram meets the following requirements:
(i) is designed to address the unique needs of individuals who share a common language, racial, ethnic, or social background;
(ii) is governed with significant input from individuals of that specific background; and
(iii) employs individuals to provide individual or group therapy, at least 50 percent of whom are of that specific background, except when the common social background of the individuals served is a traumatic brain injury or cognitive disability and the program employs treatment staff who have the necessary professional training, as approved by the commissioner, to serve clients with the specific disabilities that the program is designed to serve;
(3) programs that offer medical services delivered by appropriately credentialed health care staff in an amount equal to two hours per client per week if the medical needs of the client and the nature and provision of any medical services provided are documented in the client file; and
(4) programs that offer services to individuals with co-occurring mental health and chemical dependency problems if:
(i) the program meets the co-occurring requirements in section 245G.20;
(ii) 25 percent of the counseling staff are licensed mental health professionals, as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6), or are students or licensing candidates under the supervision of a licensed alcohol and drug counselor supervisor and licensed mental health professional, except that no more than 50 percent of the mental health staff may be students or licensing candidates with time documented to be directly related to provisions of co-occurring services;
(iii) clients scoring positive on a standardized mental health screen receive a mental health diagnostic assessment within ten days of admission;
(iv) the program has standards for multidisciplinary case review that include a monthly review for each client that, at a minimum, includes a licensed mental health professional and licensed alcohol and drug counselor, and their involvement in the review is documented;
(v) family education is offered that addresses mental health and substance abuse disorders and the interaction between the two; and
(vi) co-occurring counseling staff shall receive eight hours of co-occurring disorder training annually.
(d) In order to be eligible for a higher rate under paragraph (c), clause (1), a program that provides arrangements for off-site child care must maintain current documentation at the chemical dependency facility of the child care provider's current licensure to provide child care services. Programs that provide child care according to paragraph (c), clause (1), must be deemed in compliance with the licensing requirements in section 245G.19.
(e) Adolescent residential programs that meet the requirements of Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0430 to 2960.0490 and 2960.0580 to 2960.0690, are exempt from the requirements in paragraph (c), clause (4), items (i) to (iv).
(f) Subject to federal approval, chemical dependency services that are otherwise covered as direct face-to-face services may be provided via deleted text begin two-way interactive videodeleted text end new text begin telehealth as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 3bnew text end . The use of deleted text begin two-way interactive videodeleted text end new text begin telehealth to deliver servicesnew text end must be medically appropriate to the condition and needs of the person being served. Reimbursement shall be at the same rates and under the same conditions that would otherwise apply to direct face-to-face services. deleted text begin The interactive video equipment and connection must comply with Medicare standards in effect at the time the service is provided.deleted text end
(g) For the purpose of reimbursement under this section, substance use disorder treatment services provided in a group setting without a group participant maximum or maximum client to staff ratio under chapter 245G shall not exceed a client to staff ratio of 48 to one. At least one of the attending staff must meet the qualifications as established under this chapter for the type of treatment service provided. A recovery peer may not be included as part of the staff ratio.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
The commissioner shall set payment rates for targeted case management under this subdivision. Case managers may bill according to the following criteria:
(1) for relocation targeted case management, case managers may bill for direct case management activities, including face-to-face contact, telephone contact, and interactive video contact deleted text begin according to section 256B.0924, subdivision 4a,deleted text end new text begin as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 20b, paragraph (f), new text end in the lesser of:
(i) 180 days preceding an eligible recipient's discharge from an institution; or
(ii) the limits and conditions which apply to federal Medicaid funding for this service;
(2) for home care targeted case management, case managers may bill for direct case management activities, including face-to-face and telephone contacts; and
(3) billings for targeted case management services under this subdivision shall not duplicate payments made under other program authorities for the same purpose.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) The required treatment staff qualifications and roles for an ACT team are:
(1) the team leader:
(i) shall be a mental health professional. Individuals who are not licensed but who are eligible for licensure and are otherwise qualified may also fulfill this role but must obtain full licensure within 24 months of assuming the role of team leader;
(ii) must be an active member of the ACT team and provide some direct services to clients;
(iii) must be a single full-time staff member, dedicated to the ACT team, who is responsible for overseeing the administrative operations of the team, providing treatment supervision of services in conjunction with the psychiatrist or psychiatric care provider, and supervising team members to ensure delivery of best and ethical practices; and
(iv) must be available to provide overall treatment supervision to the ACT team after regular business hours and on weekends and holidays. The team leader may delegate this duty to another qualified member of the ACT team;
(2) the psychiatric care provider:
(i) must be a mental health professional permitted to prescribe psychiatric medications as part of the mental health professional's scope of practice. The psychiatric care provider must have demonstrated clinical experience working with individuals with serious and persistent mental illness;
(ii) shall collaborate with the team leader in sharing overall clinical responsibility for screening and admitting clients; monitoring clients' treatment and team member service delivery; educating staff on psychiatric and nonpsychiatric medications, their side effects, and health-related conditions; actively collaborating with nurses; and helping provide treatment supervision to the team;
(iii) shall fulfill the following functions for assertive community treatment clients: provide assessment and treatment of clients' symptoms and response to medications, including side effects; provide brief therapy to clients; provide diagnostic and medication education to clients, with medication decisions based on shared decision making; monitor clients' nonpsychiatric medical conditions and nonpsychiatric medications; and conduct home and community visits;
(iv) shall serve as the point of contact for psychiatric treatment if a client is hospitalized for mental health treatment and shall communicate directly with the client's inpatient psychiatric care providers to ensure continuity of care;
(v) shall have a minimum full-time equivalency that is prorated at a rate of 16 hours per 50 clients. Part-time psychiatric care providers shall have designated hours to work on the team, with sufficient blocks of time on consistent days to carry out the provider's clinical, supervisory, and administrative responsibilities. No more than two psychiatric care providers may share this role;new text begin andnew text end
deleted text begin (vi) may not provide specific roles and responsibilities by telemedicine unless approved by the commissioner; and deleted text end
deleted text begin (vii)deleted text end new text begin (vi)new text end shall provide psychiatric backup to the program after regular business hours and on weekends and holidays. The psychiatric care provider may delegate this duty to another qualified psychiatric provider;
(3) the nursing staff:
(i) shall consist of one to three registered nurses or advanced practice registered nurses, of whom at least one has a minimum of one-year experience working with adults with serious mental illness and a working knowledge of psychiatric medications. No more than two individuals can share a full-time equivalent position;
(ii) are responsible for managing medication, administering and documenting medication treatment, and managing a secure medication room; and
(iii) shall develop strategies, in collaboration with clients, to maximize taking medications as prescribed; screen and monitor clients' mental and physical health conditions and medication side effects; engage in health promotion, prevention, and education activities; communicate and coordinate services with other medical providers; facilitate the development of the individual treatment plan for clients assigned; and educate the ACT team in monitoring psychiatric and physical health symptoms and medication side effects;
(4) the co-occurring disorder specialist:
(i) shall be a full-time equivalent co-occurring disorder specialist who has received specific training on co-occurring disorders that is consistent with national evidence-based practices. The training must include practical knowledge of common substances and how they affect mental illnesses, the ability to assess substance use disorders and the client's stage of treatment, motivational interviewing, and skills necessary to provide counseling to clients at all different stages of change and treatment. The co-occurring disorder specialist may also be an individual who is a licensed alcohol and drug counselor as described in section 148F.01, subdivision 5, or a counselor who otherwise meets the training, experience, and other requirements in section 245G.11, subdivision 5. No more than two co-occurring disorder specialists may occupy this role; and
(ii) shall provide or facilitate the provision of co-occurring disorder treatment to clients. The co-occurring disorder specialist shall serve as a consultant and educator to fellow ACT team members on co-occurring disorders;
(5) the vocational specialist:
(i) shall be a full-time vocational specialist who has at least one-year experience providing employment services or advanced education that involved field training in vocational services to individuals with mental illness. An individual who does not meet these qualifications may also serve as the vocational specialist upon completing a training plan approved by the commissioner;
(ii) shall provide or facilitate the provision of vocational services to clients. The vocational specialist serves as a consultant and educator to fellow ACT team members on these services; and
(iii) must not refer individuals to receive any type of vocational services or linkage by providers outside of the ACT team;
(6) the mental health certified peer specialist:
(i) shall be a full-time equivalent. No more than two individuals can share this position. The mental health certified peer specialist is a fully integrated team member who provides highly individualized services in the community and promotes the self-determination and shared decision-making abilities of clients. This requirement may be waived due to workforce shortages upon approval of the commissioner;
(ii) must provide coaching, mentoring, and consultation to the clients to promote recovery, self-advocacy, and self-direction, promote wellness management strategies, and assist clients in developing advance directives; and
(iii) must model recovery values, attitudes, beliefs, and personal action to encourage wellness and resilience, provide consultation to team members, promote a culture where the clients' points of view and preferences are recognized, understood, respected, and integrated into treatment, and serve in a manner equivalent to other team members;
(7) the program administrative assistant shall be a full-time office-based program administrative assistant position assigned to solely work with the ACT team, providing a range of supports to the team, clients, and families; and
(8) additional staff:
(i) shall be based on team size. Additional treatment team staff may include mental health professionals; clinical trainees; certified rehabilitation specialists; mental health practitioners; or mental health rehabilitation workers. These individuals shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities required by the population served to carry out rehabilitation and support functions; and
(ii) shall be selected based on specific program needs or the population served.
(b) Each ACT team must clearly document schedules for all ACT team members.
(c) Each ACT team member must serve as a primary team member for clients assigned by the team leader and are responsible for facilitating the individual treatment plan process for those clients. The primary team member for a client is the responsible team member knowledgeable about the client's life and circumstances and writes the individual treatment plan. The primary team member provides individual supportive therapy or counseling, and provides primary support and education to the client's family and support system.
(d) Members of the ACT team must have strong clinical skills, professional qualifications, experience, and competency to provide a full breadth of rehabilitation services. Each staff member shall be proficient in their respective discipline and be able to work collaboratively as a member of a multidisciplinary team to deliver the majority of the treatment, rehabilitation, and support services clients require to fully benefit from receiving assertive community treatment.
(e) Each ACT team member must fulfill training requirements established by the commissioner.
(a) Medical assistance covers medically necessary services and consultations delivered by a deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end health care provider deleted text begin via telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin through telehealthnew text end in the same manner as if the service or consultation was delivered deleted text begin in persondeleted text end new text begin through in-person contactnew text end . deleted text begin Coverage is limited to three telemedicine services per enrollee per calendar week, except as provided in paragraph (f). Telemedicinedeleted text end Services new text begin or consultations delivered through telehealth new text end shall be paid at the full allowable rate.
(b) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin maynew text end establish criteria that a health care provider must attest to in order to demonstrate the safety or efficacy of delivering a particular service deleted text begin via telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin through telehealthnew text end . The attestation may include that the health care provider:
(1) has identified the categories or types of services the health care provider will provide deleted text begin via telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin through telehealthnew text end ;
(2) has written policies and procedures specific to deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end servicesnew text begin delivered through telehealthnew text end that are regularly reviewed and updated;
(3) has policies and procedures that adequately address patient safety before, during, and after the deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end service is deleted text begin rendereddeleted text end new text begin delivered through telehealthnew text end ;
(4) has established protocols addressing how and when to discontinue telemedicine services; and
(5) has an established quality assurance process related to deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin deliveringnew text end servicesnew text begin through telehealthnew text end .
(c) As a condition of payment, a licensed health care provider must document each occurrence of a health service deleted text begin provided by telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin delivered through telehealthnew text end to a medical assistance enrollee. Health care service records for services deleted text begin provided by telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin delivered through telehealthnew text end must meet the requirements set forth in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.2175, subparts 1 and 2, and must document:
(1) the type of service deleted text begin provided by telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin delivered through telehealthnew text end ;
(2) the time the service began and the time the service ended, including an a.m. and p.m. designation;
(3) the deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end health care provider's basis for determining that deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealthnew text end is an appropriate and effective means for delivering the service to the enrollee;
(4) the mode of transmission deleted text begin ofdeleted text end new text begin used to delivernew text end the deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end service new text begin through telehealth new text end and records evidencing that a particular mode of transmission was utilized;
(5) the location of the originating site and the distant site;
(6) if the claim for payment is based on a physician's deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end consultation with another physiciannew text begin through telehealthnew text end , the written opinion from the consulting physician providing the deleted text begin telemedicinedeleted text end new text begin telehealthnew text end consultation; and
(7) compliance with the criteria attested to by the health care provider in accordance with paragraph (b).
new text begin (d) Telehealth visits, as described in this subdivision provided through audio and visual communication, may be used to satisfy the face-to-face requirement for reimbursement under the payment methods that apply to a federally qualified health center, rural health clinic, Indian health service, 638 tribal clinic, and certified community behavioral health clinic, if the service would have otherwise qualified for payment if performed in person. new text end
new text begin (e) For mental health services or assessments delivered through telehealth that are based on an individual treatment plan, the provider may document the client's verbal approval or electronic written approval of the treatment plan or change in the treatment plan in lieu of the client's signature in accordance with Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0371. new text end
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end For purposes of this subdivision, unless otherwise covered under this chapterdeleted text begin , "telemedicine" is defined as the delivery of health care services or consultations while the patient is at an originating site and the licensed health care provider is at a distant site. A communication between licensed health care providers, or a licensed health care provider and a patient that consists solely of a telephone conversation, e-mail, or facsimile transmission does not constitute telemedicine consultations or services. Telemedicine may be provided by means of real-time two-way, interactive audio and visual communications, including the application of secure video conferencing or store-and-forward technology to provide or support health care delivery, which facilitate the assessment, diagnosis, consultation, treatment, education, and care management of a patient's health care.deleted text end new text begin :new text end
new text begin (1) "telehealth" means the delivery of health care services or consultations through the use of real time two-way interactive audio and visual communication to provide or support health care delivery and facilitate the assessment, diagnosis, consultation, treatment, education, and care management of a patient's health care. Telehealth includes the application of secure video conferencing, store-and-forward technology, and synchronous interactions between a patient located at an originating site and a health care provider located at a distant site. Telehealth does not include communication between health care providers, or between a health care provider and a patient that consists solely of an audio-only communication, e-mail, or facsimile transmission or specified by law; new text end
deleted text begin (e) For purposes of this section, "licenseddeleted text end new text begin (2) "new text end health care provider" means a deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end health care provider deleted text begin under section 62A.671, subdivision 6deleted text end new text begin as defined under section 62A.673new text end , a community paramedic as defined under section 144E.001, subdivision 5f, deleted text begin a clinical trainee who is qualified according to section 245I.04, subdivision 6, a mental health practitioner qualified according to section 245I.04, subdivision 4, anddeleted text end a community health worker who meets the criteria under subdivision 49, paragraph (a)deleted text begin ; "health care provider" is defined under section 62A.671, subdivision 3deleted text end new text begin , a mental health certified peer specialist under section 256B.0615, subdivision 5, a mental health certified family peer specialist under section 256B.0616, subdivision 5, a mental health rehabilitation worker under section 256B.0623, subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (4), and paragraph (b), a mental health behavioral aide under section 256B.0943, subdivision 7, paragraph (b), clause (3), a treatment coordinator under section 245G.11, subdivision 7, an alcohol and drug counselor under section 245G.11, subdivision 5, a recovery peer under section 245G.11, subdivision 8new text end ; and
new text begin (3) new text end "originating sitenew text begin ,new text end " deleted text begin is defined under section 62A.671, subdivision 7deleted text end new text begin "distant site," and "store-and-forward technology" have the meanings given in section 62A.673, subdivision 2new text end .
deleted text begin (f) The limit on coverage of three telemedicine services per enrollee per calendar week does not apply if: deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) the telemedicine services provided by the licensed health care provider are for the treatment and control of tuberculosis; and deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) the services are provided in a manner consistent with the recommendations and best practices specified by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the commissioner of health. deleted text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
new text begin (a) Medical assistance covers telemonitoring services if: new text end
new text begin (1) the telemonitoring service is medically appropriate based on the recipient's medical condition or status; new text end
new text begin (2) the recipient's health care provider has identified that telemonitoring services would likely prevent the recipient's admission or readmission to a hospital, emergency room, or nursing facility; new text end
new text begin (3) the recipient is cognitively and physically capable of operating the monitoring device or equipment, or the recipient has a caregiver who is willing and able to assist with the monitoring device or equipment; and new text end
new text begin (4) the recipient resides in a setting that is suitable for telemonitoring and not in a setting that has health care staff on site. new text end
new text begin (b) For purposes of this subdivision, "telemonitoring services" means the remote monitoring of data related to a recipient's vital signs or biometric data by a monitoring device or equipment that transmits the data electronically to a provider for analysis. The assessment and monitoring of the health data transmitted by telemonitoring must be performed by one of the following licensed health care professionals: physician, podiatrist, registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, respiratory therapist, or licensed professional working under the supervision of a medical director. new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) Medical assistance covers medication therapy management services for a recipient taking prescriptions to treat or prevent one or more chronic medical conditions. For purposes of this subdivision, "medication therapy management" means the provision of the following pharmaceutical care services by a licensed pharmacist to optimize the therapeutic outcomes of the patient's medications:
(1) performing or obtaining necessary assessments of the patient's health status;
(2) formulating a medication treatment plan, which may include prescribing medications or products in accordance with section 151.37, subdivision 14, 15, or 16;
(3) monitoring and evaluating the patient's response to therapy, including safety and effectiveness;
(4) performing a comprehensive medication review to identify, resolve, and prevent medication-related problems, including adverse drug events;
(5) documenting the care delivered and communicating essential information to the patient's other primary care providers;
(6) providing verbal education and training designed to enhance patient understanding and appropriate use of the patient's medications;
(7) providing information, support services, and resources designed to enhance patient adherence with the patient's therapeutic regimens; and
(8) coordinating and integrating medication therapy management services within the broader health care management services being provided to the patient.
Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to expand or modify the scope of practice of the pharmacist as defined in section 151.01, subdivision 27.
(b) To be eligible for reimbursement for services under this subdivision, a pharmacist must meet the following requirements:
(1) have a valid license issued by the Board of Pharmacy of the state in which the medication therapy management service is being performed;
(2) have graduated from an accredited college of pharmacy on or after May 1996, or completed a structured and comprehensive education program approved by the Board of Pharmacy and the American Council of Pharmaceutical Education for the provision and documentation of pharmaceutical care management services that has both clinical and didactic elements;new text begin andnew text end
deleted text begin (3) be practicing in an ambulatory care setting as part of a multidisciplinary team or have developed a structured patient care process that is offered in a private or semiprivate patient care area that is separate from the commercial business that also occurs in the setting, or in home settings, including long-term care settings, group homes, and facilities providing assisted living services, but excluding skilled nursing facilities; and deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end make use of an electronic patient record system that meets state standards.
(c) For purposes of reimbursement for medication therapy management services, the commissioner may enroll individual pharmacists as medical assistance providers. The commissioner may also establish deleted text begin contact requirements between the pharmacist and recipient, including limitingdeleted text end new text begin limits on new text end the number of reimbursable consultations per recipient.
(d) deleted text begin If there are no pharmacists who meet the requirements of paragraph (b) practicing within a reasonable geographic distance of the patient, a pharmacist who meets the requirements may provide Thedeleted text end new text begin Medication therapy managementnew text end services new text begin may be provided new text end via deleted text begin two-way interactive videodeleted text end new text begin telehealth as defined in subdivision 3b and may be delivered into a patient's residencenew text end . Reimbursement shall be at the same rates and under the same conditions that would otherwise apply to the services provided. To qualify for reimbursement under this paragraph, the pharmacist providing the services must meet the requirements of paragraph (b)deleted text begin , and must be located within an ambulatory care setting that meets the requirements of paragraph (b), clause (3). The patient must also be located within an ambulatory care setting that meets the requirements of paragraph (b), clause (3). Services provided under this paragraph may not be transmitted into the patient's residencedeleted text end .
deleted text begin (e) Medication therapy management services may be delivered into a patient's residence via secure interactive video if the medication therapy management services are performed electronically during a covered home care visit by an enrolled provider. Reimbursement shall be at the same rates and under the same conditions that would otherwise apply to the services provided. To qualify for reimbursement under this paragraph, the pharmacist providing the services must meet the requirements of paragraph (b) and must be located within an ambulatory care setting that meets the requirements of paragraph (b), clause (3). deleted text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end
(a) To the extent authorized by rule of the state agency, medical assistance covers case management services to persons with serious and persistent mental illness and children with severe emotional disturbance. Services provided under this section must meet the relevant standards in sections 245.461 to 245.4887, the Comprehensive Adult and Children's Mental Health Acts, Minnesota Rules, parts 9520.0900 to 9520.0926, and 9505.0322, excluding subpart 10.
(b) Entities meeting program standards set out in rules governing family community support services as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision 17, are eligible for medical assistance reimbursement for case management services for children with severe emotional disturbance when these services meet the program standards in Minnesota Rules, parts 9520.0900 to 9520.0926 and 9505.0322, excluding subparts 6 and 10.
(c) Medical assistance and MinnesotaCare payment for mental health case management shall be made on a monthly basis. In order to receive payment for an eligible child, the provider must document at least a face-to-face contact new text begin either in person or by interactive video that meets the requirements of subdivision 20bnew text end with the child, the child's parents, or the child's legal representative. To receive payment for an eligible adult, the provider must document:
(1) at least a face-to-face contact with the adult or the adult's legal representative deleted text begin or a contact by interactive videodeleted text end new text begin either in person or by interactive videonew text end that meets the requirements of subdivision 20b; or
(2) at least a telephone contact with the adult or the adult's legal representative and document a face-to-face contact deleted text begin or a contact by interactive videodeleted text end new text begin either in person or by interactive videonew text end that meets the requirements of subdivision 20b with the adult or the adult's legal representative within the preceding two months.
(d) Payment for mental health case management provided by county or state staff shall be based on the monthly rate methodology under section 256B.094, subdivision 6, paragraph (b), with separate rates calculated for child welfare and mental health, and within mental health, separate rates for children and adults.
(e) Payment for mental health case management provided by Indian health services or by agencies operated by Indian tribes may be made according to this section or other relevant federally approved rate setting methodology.
(f) Payment for mental health case management provided by vendors who contract with a county or Indian tribe shall be based on a monthly rate negotiated by the host county or tribe. The negotiated rate must not exceed the rate charged by the vendor for the same service to other payers. If the service is provided by a team of contracted vendors, the county or tribe may negotiate a team rate with a vendor who is a member of the team. The team shall determine how to distribute the rate among its members. No reimbursement received by contracted vendors shall be returned to the county or tribe, except to reimburse the county or tribe for advance funding provided by the county or tribe to the vendor.
(g) If the service is provided by a team which includes contracted vendors, tribal staff, and county or state staff, the costs for county or state staff participation in the team shall be included in the rate for county-provided services. In this case, the contracted vendor, the tribal agency, and the county may each receive separate payment for services provided by each entity in the same month. In order to prevent duplication of services, each entity must document, in the recipient's file, the need for team case management and a description of the roles of the team members.
(h) Notwithstanding section 256B.19, subdivision 1, the nonfederal share of costs for mental health case management shall be provided by the recipient's county of responsibility, as defined in sections 256G.01 to 256G.12, from sources other than federal funds or funds used to match other federal funds. If the service is provided by a tribal agency, the nonfederal share, if any, shall be provided by the recipient's tribe. When this service is paid by the state without a federal share through fee-for-service, 50 percent of the cost shall be provided by the recipient's county of responsibility.
(i) Notwithstanding any administrative rule to the contrary, prepaid medical assistance and MinnesotaCare include mental health case management. When the service is provided through prepaid capitation, the nonfederal share is paid by the state and the county pays no share.
(j) The commissioner may suspend, reduce, or terminate the reimbursement to a provider that does not meet the reporting or other requirements of this section. The county of responsibility, as defined in sections 256G.01 to 256G.12, or, if applicable, the tribal agency, is responsible for any federal disallowances. The county or tribe may share this responsibility with its contracted vendors.
(k) The commissioner shall set aside a portion of the federal funds earned for county expenditures under this section to repay the special revenue maximization account under section 256.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (o). The repayment is limited to:
(1) the costs of developing and implementing this section; and
(2) programming the information systems.
(l) Payments to counties and tribal agencies for case management expenditures under this section shall only be made from federal earnings from services provided under this section. When this service is paid by the state without a federal share through fee-for-service, 50 percent of the cost shall be provided by the state. Payments to county-contracted vendors shall include the federal earnings, the state share, and the county share.
(m) Case management services under this subdivision do not include therapy, treatment, legal, or outreach services.
(n) If the recipient is a resident of a nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or hospital, and the recipient's institutional care is paid by medical assistance, payment for case management services under this subdivision is limited to the lesser of:
(1) the last 180 days of the recipient's residency in that facility and may not exceed more than six months in a calendar year; or
(2) the limits and conditions which apply to federal Medicaid funding for this service.
(o) Payment for case management services under this subdivision shall not duplicate payments made under other program authorities for the same purpose.
(p) If the recipient is receiving care in a hospital, nursing facility, or residential setting licensed under chapter 245A or 245D that is staffed 24 hours a day, seven days a week, mental health targeted case management services must actively support identification of community alternatives for the recipient and discharge planning.
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2021, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. new text end