language to be deleted (2) new language
relating to legislative enactments; making miscellaneous technical corrections to laws and statutes; correcting erroneous, obsolete, and omitted text and references; removing redundant, conflicting, and superseded provisions;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 12.27, subdivision 3; 12.381, subdivision 1; 12.61, subdivision 1; 12A.07, subdivision 2; 13.3805, subdivision 3; 13.3806, subdivision 6; 13.381, by adding a subdivision; 13.46, subdivision 2; 13.461, by adding a subdivision; 13.4963, subdivision 14; 13.7191, subdivision 14b, by adding a subdivision; 13.785, by adding a subdivision; 13.7905, by adding a subdivision; 13.7908, subdivision 2; 13.82, subdivision 8; 13.851, by adding a subdivision; 13.871, subdivisions 5, 6; 28A.06; 43A.15, subdivision 14; 62U.06, subdivision 2; 62W.09, subdivision 1; 84.0285; 84.87, subdivision 1; 88.16, subdivision 2; 103F.211, subdivision 2; 116B.11, subdivision 1; 121A.031, subdivisions 2, 3, 5; 122A.09, subdivision 7; 122A.40, subdivision 13; 122A.41, subdivision 6; 123B.61; 123B.62; 123B.88, subdivision 1; 124D.454, subdivision 12; 126C.65, subdivision 4; 129D.02, subdivision 5; 147A.01, subdivision 23; 147B.02, subdivision 7; 148.56, subdivision 1; 148.6443, subdivision 3; 148E.105, subdivision 3; 148E.120, subdivision 1; 151.37, subdivision 12; 151.74, subdivision 6; 161.242, subdivision 2; 161.3203, subdivision 4; 162.06, subdivision 5; 162.08, subdivision 4; 163.051, subdivision 1; 168.101, subdivision 1; 168.27, subdivisions 11, 12; 168.63, subdivision 5; 168A.07, subdivision 3; 168B.055; 168D.01, subdivision 4; 168D.02, subdivision 1; 169.06, subdivisions 1, 4a; 169.09, subdivision 5; 169.20, subdivision 5b; 169.305, subdivision 3; 169.34, subdivision 2; 169.42, subdivision 5; 169.468, subdivision 4; 169.541, subdivision 2; 169.57, subdivision 2; 169.792, subdivisions 7, 11; 169.801, subdivision 2; 169.824, subdivision 1; 169.851, subdivision 3; 169.86, subdivisions 1, 5; 169.871, subdivision 1b; 169.965, subdivision 2; 169.966, subdivision 2; 171.01, subdivisions 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 39, 42, 43, 45, 48, 50; 171.168, subdivisions 1, 3; 171.177, subdivision 8; 171.2405, subdivision 2; 171.26, subdivision 1; 171.30, subdivisions 2a, 5; 171.306, subdivision 5; 174.185, subdivision 2; 174.186, subdivision 2; 174.257, subdivisions 1, 4; 174.30, subdivision 3; 174.82; 176.101, subdivision 4; 179A.03, subdivisions 2, 5; 179A.04, subdivision 1; 219.074, subdivisions 2, 3; 219.50; 221.031, subdivision 8; 221.0314, subdivision 10; 221.033, subdivision 1; 221.0341; 221.132; 221.141, subdivisions 1b, 1c; 221.605, subdivisions 1, 3; 222.50, subdivision 7; 222.56, subdivision 4; 222.58, subdivision 5; 245C.04, subdivision 1; 252.291, subdivision 1; 256B.0625, subdivision 18e; 256B.0947, subdivision 7a; 256B.4912, subdivisions 1a, 11; 256B.69, subdivision 21; 256R.02, subdivision 19; 275.70, subdivision 5; 290.0122, subdivision 9; 297A.75, subdivision 5; 297A.94; 297B.035, subdivision 3; 297B.12; 298.294; 299F.05, subdivision 2; 299F.19, subdivision 2; 299F.40, subdivision 2; 299F.72, subdivision 1a; 299N.02, subdivision 1; 304A.102, subdivision 3; 327C.01, subdivisions 1c, 13; 352F.04, subdivision 2; 353G.08, subdivision 1; 354.35, subdivision 1; 357.18, subdivision 5; 360.065, subdivision 1; 360.075, subdivision 1; 360.305, subdivisions 2, 4; 360.511, subdivision 1; 360.531, subdivisions 1, 8; 360.54; 360.55, subdivisions 1, 3; 360.60, subdivision 1; 360.61, subdivision 2; 360.62; 360.83, subdivisions 3, 5; 360.84; 383B.063; 403.02, subdivision 20a; 403.05, subdivision 2; 403.07, subdivision 3; 403.32, subdivision 2; 403.39, subdivision 3; 444.075, subdivision 1; 462A.03, subdivision 13; 462A.07, subdivisions 9, 10, 14; 462A.21, subdivision 4a; 477A.017, subdivision 3; 524.5-118, subdivision 1; 546.10; Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, sections 16B.86; 60A.985, subdivision 13; 116.07, subdivision 7; 136A.91, subdivision 2; 144.0724, subdivision 12; 144F.01, subdivision 2; 169.8665, subdivision 3; 171.20, subdivision 4; 174.30, subdivision 1; 256B.0371, subdivision 4; 256B.0625, subdivision 17; 256B.0943, subdivision 5a; 256B.25, subdivision 3; 256B.69, subdivision 6g; 340A.504, subdivision 7; 383B.041, subdivision 3; 504B.206, subdivision 6; Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 13, article 3, section 8, subdivision 3; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 13.381, subdivision 7; 13.411, subdivisions 4, 5; 13.712, subdivision 5; 93.58; 97A.056, subdivision 7; 116J.9661; 161.203; 173.18; 174.03, subdivision 6a; 245.4662, subdivision 4; 256B.0625, subdivisions 18c, 18d; 256R.49; 297A.71, subdivision 49; 473.5955; Minnesota Rules, part 4764.0020, subpart 36.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
(a) No later than 90 days after August 1, 1996, The governing body of a political subdivision shall designate a city administrator or manager, public safety director, police chief, fire chief, public works director, or other officer who, exercising discretion and considering the needs of the political subdivision and its inhabitants, may dispatch equipment and personnel as considered necessary if a danger of fire, hazard, casualty, or another similar occurrence exists outside the political subdivision and by its suddenness it would be impractical for the governing body itself to authorize the dispatch of equipment and personnel to combat that emergency or disaster.
(b) Action under this subdivision is an act of the political subdivision. All provisions for compensation of personnel, rental of equipment, liability insurance coverage, workers' compensation insurance, and other matters pertaining to the political subdivision, its equipment, and personnel, apply in each case as if specifically authorized and directed.
(c) The officer shall end the use of equipment and personnel when the need no longer exists or earlier at the officer's discretion if it appears to be in the best interest of the political subdivision.
Notwithstanding chapter 149A and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4610, in connection with deaths related to a declared emergency, the governor may:
(1) direct measures to provide for the safe disposition of dead human bodies as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response. Measures may include, but are not limited to, transportation, preparation, temporary mass burial and other interment, disinterment, and cremation of dead human bodies. Insofar as the emergency circumstances allow, the governor shall respect the religious rites, cultural customs, family wishes, and predeath directives of a decedent concerning final disposition. The governor may limit visitations or funeral ceremonies based on public health risks;
(2) consult with coroners and medical examiners, take possession or control of any dead human body, and order an autopsy of the body; and
(3) request any business or facility authorized to embalm, bury, cremate, inter, disinter, transport, or otherwise provide for disposition of a dead human body under the laws of this state to accept any dead human body or provide the use of its business or facility if the actions are reasonable and necessary for emergency management purposes and are within the safety precaution capabilities of the business or facility.
For purposes of this section:
(a) "Emergency plan" includes:
(i) any plan for managing an emergency threatening public health developed by the commissioner of health or a local public health agency;
(ii) any plan for managing an emergency threatening public health developed by one or more hospitals, clinics, nursing homes, or other health care facilities or providers and approved by the commissioner of health or local public health agency in consultation with emergency management officials; or
(iii) any provision for assistance by out-of-state responders under interstate or international compacts, including but not limited to the Emergency Management Assistance Compact.
(b) "Regional hospital system" means all hospitals in one of the hospital bioterrorism preparedness program geographic regions of the state set forth in the most recent hospital preparedness plan available on the Department of Health website at www.health.state.mn.us/oep.
(c) "Responder" means any person or organization whether paid or volunteer that provides health care or other health-related services in an emergency including, but not limited to, physicians, physician assistants, registered and other nurses, certified nursing assistants, or other staff within a health care provider organization, pharmacists, chiropractors, dentists, emergency medical technicians, members of a specialized medical response unit, laboratory technicians, morticians, registered first responders, mental health professionals, hospitals, nursing and boarding care facilities, home health care agencies, other long-term care providers, medical and dental clinics, medical laboratories, and ambulance service personnel, dispatch services, and persons not registered as first responders but affiliated with a medical response unit and dispatched to the scene of an emergency by a public safety answering point or licensed ambulance service.
Criteria and requirements must be locally established with the approval of the commissioner. Local plans must specify the type of assistance to be provided to eligible organizations. Within the limits of the available grant amounts, assistance may be provided as loans with or without interest and as forgivable loans. The criteria must, at a minimum, specify that an organization receiving a forgivable loan must remain in the local community a minimum of five years after the date of the loan, after which the amount of loan forgiveness must follow a schedule provided by the commissioner for an additional five years. Loans made under this section must not be used to refinance debt that existed on the date of the disaster. Repayment of loan amounts is made to the local community consistent with subdivision 6. All assistance awards under this section must meet the requirements of section 116J.8731, subdivision 8.
Except for investigative data under chapter 260E, all investigative data maintained by the Department of Health's Office of Health Facility Complaints are subject to provisions of and classified pursuant to section 626.557, subdivision 12b, paragraphs (b) to (d). Notwithstanding sections 260E.21, subdivision 4; 260E.35; and 626.557, subdivision 12b, paragraph (b), data identifying an individual substantiated as the perpetrator are public data. For purposes of this subdivision, an individual is substantiated as the perpetrator if the commissioner of health determines that the individual is the perpetrator and the determination of the commissioner is upheld after the individual either exercises applicable administrative appeal rights or fails to exercise these rights within the time allowed by law.
(a) Data on individuals collected, maintained, used, or disseminated by the welfare system are private data on individuals, and shall not be disclosed except:
(1) according to section 13.05;
(2) according to court order;
(3) according to a statute specifically authorizing access to the private data;
(4) to an agent of the welfare system and an investigator acting on behalf of a county, the state, or the federal government, including a law enforcement person or attorney in the investigation or prosecution of a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding relating to the administration of a program;
(5) to personnel of the welfare system who require the data to verify an individual's identity; determine eligibility, amount of assistance, and the need to provide services to an individual or family across programs; coordinate services for an individual or family; evaluate the effectiveness of programs; assess parental contribution amounts; and investigate suspected fraud;
(6) to administer federal funds or programs;
(7) between personnel of the welfare system working in the same program;
(8) to the Department of Revenue to assess parental contribution amounts for purposes of section 252.27, subdivision 2a, administer and evaluate tax refund or tax credit programs and to identify individuals who may benefit from these programs. The following information may be disclosed under this paragraph: an individual's and their dependent's names, dates of birth, Social Security numbers, income, addresses, and other data as required, upon request by the Department of Revenue. Disclosures by the commissioner of revenue to the commissioner of human services for the purposes described in this clause are governed by section 270B.14, subdivision 1. Tax refund or tax credit programs include, but are not limited to, the dependent care credit under section 290.067, the Minnesota working family credit under section 290.0671, the property tax refund and rental credit under section 290A.04, and the Minnesota education credit under section 290.0674;
(9) between the Department of Human Services, the Department of Employment and Economic Development, and when applicable, the Department of Education, for the following purposes:
(i) to monitor the eligibility of the data subject for unemployment benefits, for any employment or training program administered, supervised, or certified by that agency;
(ii) to administer any rehabilitation program or child care assistance program, whether alone or in conjunction with the welfare system;
(iii) to monitor and evaluate the Minnesota family investment program or the child care assistance program by exchanging data on recipients and former recipients of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits, cash assistance under chapter 256, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 119B, medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L, or a medical program formerly codified under chapter 256D; and
(iv) to analyze public assistance employment services and program utilization, cost, effectiveness, and outcomes as implemented under the authority established in Title II, Sections 201-204 of the Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act of 1999. Health records governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298 and "protected health information" as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 160.103, and governed by Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, parts 160-164, including health care claims utilization information, must not be exchanged under this clause;
(10) to appropriate parties in connection with an emergency if knowledge of the information is necessary to protect the health or safety of the individual or other individuals or persons;
(11) data maintained by residential programs as defined in section 245A.02 may be disclosed to the protection and advocacy system established in this state according to Part C of Public Law 98-527 to protect the legal and human rights of persons with developmental disabilities or other related conditions who live in residential facilities for these persons if the protection and advocacy system receives a complaint by or on behalf of that person and the person does not have a legal guardian or the state or a designee of the state is the legal guardian of the person;
(12) to the county medical examiner or the county coroner for identifying or locating relatives or friends of a deceased person;
(13) data on a child support obligor who makes payments to the public agency may be disclosed to the Minnesota Office of Higher Education to the extent necessary to determine eligibility under section 136A.121, subdivision 2, clause (5);
(14) participant Social Security numbers and names collected by the telephone assistance program may be disclosed to the Department of Revenue to conduct an electronic data match with the property tax refund database to determine eligibility under section 237.70, subdivision 4a;
(15) the current address of a Minnesota family investment program participant may be disclosed to law enforcement officers who provide the name of the participant and notify the agency that:
(i) the participant:
(A) is a fugitive felon fleeing to avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, for a crime or attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under the laws of the jurisdiction from which the individual is fleeing; or
(B) is violating a condition of probation or parole imposed under state or federal law;
(ii) the location or apprehension of the felon is within the law enforcement officer's official duties; and
(iii) the request is made in writing and in the proper exercise of those duties;
(16) the current address of a recipient of general assistance may be disclosed to probation officers and corrections agents who are supervising the recipient and to law enforcement officers who are investigating the recipient in connection with a felony level offense;
(17) information obtained from a SNAP applicant or recipient households may be disclosed to local, state, or federal law enforcement officials, upon their written request, for the purpose of investigating an alleged violation of the Food and Nutrition Act, according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section 272.1(c);
(18) the address, Social Security number, and, if available, photograph of any member of a household receiving SNAP benefits shall be made available, on request, to a local, state, or federal law enforcement officer if the officer furnishes the agency with the name of the member and notifies the agency that:
(i) the member:
(A) is fleeing to avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, for a crime or attempt to commit a crime that is a felony in the jurisdiction the member is fleeing;
(B) is violating a condition of probation or parole imposed under state or federal law; or
(C) has information that is necessary for the officer to conduct an official duty related to conduct described in subitem (A) or (B);
(ii) locating or apprehending the member is within the officer's official duties; and
(iii) the request is made in writing and in the proper exercise of the officer's official duty;
(19) the current address of a recipient of Minnesota family investment program, general assistance, or SNAP benefits may be disclosed to law enforcement officers who, in writing, provide the name of the recipient and notify the agency that the recipient is a person required to register under section 243.166, but is not residing at the address at which the recipient is registered under section 243.166;
(20) certain information regarding child support obligors who are in arrears may be made public according to section 518A.74;
(21) data on child support payments made by a child support obligor and data on the distribution of those payments excluding identifying information on obligees may be disclosed to all obligees to whom the obligor owes support, and data on the enforcement actions undertaken by the public authority, the status of those actions, and data on the income of the obligor or obligee may be disclosed to the other party;
(22) data in the work reporting system may be disclosed under section 256.998, subdivision 7;
(23) to the Department of Education for the purpose of matching Department of Education student data with public assistance data to determine students eligible for free and reduced-price meals, meal supplements, and free milk according to United States Code, title 42, sections 1758, 1761, 1766, 1766a, 1772, and 1773; to allocate federal and state funds that are distributed based on income of the student's family; and to verify receipt of energy assistance for the telephone assistance plan;
(24) the current address and telephone number of program recipients and emergency contacts may be released to the commissioner of health or a community health board as defined in section 145A.02, subdivision 5, when the commissioner or community health board has reason to believe that a program recipient is a disease case, carrier, suspect case, or at risk of illness, and the data are necessary to locate the person;
(25) to other state agencies, statewide systems, and political subdivisions of this state, including the attorney general, and agencies of other states, interstate information networks, federal agencies, and other entities as required by federal regulation or law for the administration of the child support enforcement program;
(26) to personnel of public assistance programs as defined in section 256.741, for access to the child support system database for the purpose of administration, including monitoring and evaluation of those public assistance programs;
(27) to monitor and evaluate the Minnesota family investment program by exchanging data between the Departments of Human Services and Education, on recipients and former recipients of SNAP benefits, cash assistance under chapter 256, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 119B, medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L, or a medical program formerly codified under chapter 256D;
(28) to evaluate child support program performance and to identify and prevent fraud in the child support program by exchanging data between the Department of Human Services, Department of Revenue under section 270B.14, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), without regard to the limitation of use in paragraph (c), Department of Health, Department of Employment and Economic Development, and other state agencies as is reasonably necessary to perform these functions;
(29) counties and the Department of Human Services operating child care assistance programs under chapter 119B may disseminate data on program participants, applicants, and providers to the commissioner of education;
(30) child support data on the child, the parents, and relatives of the child may be disclosed to agencies administering programs under titles IV-B and IV-E of the Social Security Act, as authorized by federal law;
(31) to a health care provider governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298, to the extent necessary to coordinate services;
(32) to the chief administrative officer of a school to coordinate services for a student and family; data that may be disclosed under this clause are limited to name, date of birth, gender, and address;
(33) to county correctional agencies to the extent necessary to coordinate services and diversion programs; data that may be disclosed under this clause are limited to name, client demographics, program, case status, and county worker information; or
(34) between the Department of Human Services and the Metropolitan Council for the following purposes:
(i) to coordinate special transportation service provided under section 473.386 with services for people with disabilities and elderly individuals funded by or through the Department of Human Services; and
(ii) to provide for reimbursement of special transportation service provided under section 473.386.
The data that may be shared under this clause are limited to the individual's first, last, and middle names; date of birth; residential address; and program eligibility status with expiration date for the purposes of informing the other party of program eligibility.
(b) Information on persons who have been treated for drug or alcohol abuse may only be disclosed according to the requirements of Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, sections 2.1 to 2.67.
(c) Data provided to law enforcement agencies under paragraph (a), clause (15), (16), (17), or (18), or paragraph (b), are investigative data and are confidential or protected nonpublic while the investigation is active. The data are private after the investigation becomes inactive under section 13.82, subdivision 5, paragraph (a) or (b).
(d) Mental health data shall be treated as provided in subdivisions 7, 8, and 9, but are not subject to the access provisions of subdivision 10, paragraph (b).
For the purposes of this subdivision, a request will be deemed to be made in writing if made through a computer interface system.
The classification of certain information disclosures to the commissioner of commerce by a health carrier is governed by section 62K.07, paragraph (c).
Data received or maintained by the staff or commissioner of the Bureau of Mediation Services during the course of providing mediation services to the parties to a labor dispute under chapter 179 are classified as protected nonpublic data or confidential data on individuals, except to the extent the commissioner of the Bureau of Mediation Services determines access to data is necessary to fulfill the requirements of section 179A.16 or to identify the general nature of or parties to a labor dispute.
Active or inactive investigative data that identify a victim of child abuse or neglect reported under chapter 260E are private data on individuals. Active or inactive investigative data that identify a reporter of child abuse or neglect under chapter 260E are confidential data on individuals, unless the subject of the report compels disclosure under section 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35.
(a) Reports of gunshot wounds. Disclosure of the name of a person making a report under section 626.52, subdivision 2, is governed by section 626.53.
(b) Child abuse report records. Data contained in child abuse report records are classified under chapter 260E.
(c) Interstate data exchange. Disclosure of child abuse reports to agencies of another state is classified under section 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraphs (b) and (c).
(d) Release to family court services. Release of child abuse data to a court services agency is authorized under section 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraphs (d) and (e).
(e) Release of data to mandated reporters. Release of child abuse data to mandated reporters who have an ongoing responsibility for the health, education, or welfare of a child affected by the data is authorized under section 260E.35, subdivision 4.
(f) Release of child abuse assessment or investigative records to other counties. Release of child abuse investigative records to local welfare agencies is authorized under section 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraph (f).
(g) Classifying and sharing records and reports of child abuse. The classification of child abuse data and the sharing of records and reports of child abuse by and between local welfare agencies and law enforcement agencies are governed under sections 260E.21, subdivision 4, and 260E.35.
(h) Disclosure of information not required in certain cases. Disclosure of certain data obtained from interviewing a minor is governed by section 260E.35, subdivision 8.
(i) Data received from law enforcement. Classifying child abuse data received by certain agencies from law enforcement agencies is governed under section 260E.35, subdivision 3, paragraph (p).
(j) Disclosure in child fatality cases. Disclosure of information relating to a child fatality is governed under section 260E.35, subdivision 7.
(k) Reports of prenatal exposure to controlled substances. Data on persons making reports under section 260E.31 are classified under section 260E.35, subdivision 3.
(l) Vulnerable adult report records. Data contained in vulnerable adult report records are classified under section 626.557, subdivision 12b.
(m) Adult protection team information sharing. Sharing of local welfare agency vulnerable adult data with a protection team is governed by section 626.5571, subdivision 3.
(n) Child protection team. Data acquired by a case consultation committee or subcommittee of a child protection team are classified by section 260E.02, subdivision 4.
(o) Peace officer discipline procedures. Access by an officer under investigation to the investigating agency's investigative report on the officer is governed by section 626.89, subdivision 6.
(p) Racial profiling study data. Racial profiling study data is governed by Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 626.951.
(a) For purposes of this section and section 16B.87, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Energy conservation" has the meaning given in section 216B.241, subdivision 1, paragraph (d).
(c) "Energy conservation improvement" has the meaning given in section 216B.241, subdivision 1, paragraph (e).
(d) "Energy efficiency" has the meaning given in section 216B.241, subdivision 1, paragraph (f).
(e) "Project" means the energy conservation improvements financed by a loan made under this section.
(f) "State building" means an existing building owned by the state of Minnesota.
The state building energy conservation improvement revolving loan account is established as a separate account in the state treasury. The commissioner shall manage the account and shall credit to the account investment income, repayments of principal and interest, and any other earnings arising from assets of the account. Money in the account is appropriated to the commissioner of administration to make loans to state agencies to implement energy conservation and energy efficiency improvements in state buildings under section 16B.87.
No person, except as described in sections 27.03 and 27.04, shall be required to hold more than one license in order to engage in any aspect of food handling described in section 28A.05 provided, that each issued license shall be valid for no more than one place of business, except that a license for a mobile unit or a retail food vehicle, portable structure, or cart is valid statewide and is required to be issued only once each year unless the licensee fails to display the license as required by section 28A.07 or it is a seasonal permanent food stand, seasonal temporary food stand, food cart, or special event food stand as defined in section 157.15, in which case the duration of the license is restricted by the limitations found in the definitions in section 157.15.
(a) The commissioner shall establish qualifying procedures for applicants whose disabilities are of such a significant nature that the applicants are unable to demonstrate their abilities in the selection process. The qualifying procedures must consist of up to 700 hours on-the-job trial work experience. Up to three persons with significant disabilities and their job coach may be allowed to demonstrate their job competence as a unit through the on-the-job trial work experience selection procedure. This on-the-job demonstration process must be limited to applicants for whom there is no reasonable accommodation in the selection process.
(b) The commissioner may authorize the probationary appointment of an applicant based on the request of the appointing authority that documents that the applicant has successfully demonstrated qualifications for the position through completion of an on-the-job trial work experience. The implementation of this subdivision may not be deemed a violation of chapter 43A or 363A.
"Risk assessment" means the risk assessment that each licensee is required to conduct under section 60A.9853, subdivision 3.
Beginning January 15, 2009, the commissioner of health shall submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health care policy and finance periodic progress reports on the implementation of this chapter and sections 62U.03 and 256B.0752 to 256B.0754.
(a) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal requirements or regulations, any entity conducting a pharmacy audit must follow the following procedures:
(1) a pharmacy must be given notice 14 days before an initial on-site audit is conducted;
(2) an audit that involves clinical or professional judgment must be conducted by or in consultation with a licensed pharmacist; and
(3) each pharmacy shall be audited under the same standards and parameters as other similarly situated pharmacies.
(b) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal requirements or regulations, for any entity conducting a pharmacy audit the following items apply:
(1) the period covered by the audit may not exceed 24 months from the date that the claim was submitted to or adjudicated by the entity, unless a longer period is required under state or federal law;
(2) if an entity uses random sampling as a method for selecting a set of claims for examination, the sample size must be appropriate for a statistically reliable sample. Notwithstanding section 151.69, The auditing entity shall provide the pharmacy a masked list that provides a prescription number or date range that the auditing entity is seeking to audit;
(3) an on-site audit may not take place during the first five business days of the month unless consented to by the pharmacy;
(4) auditors may not enter the pharmacy area unless escorted where patient-specific information is available and to the extent possible must be out of sight and hearing range of the pharmacy customers;
(5) any recoupment will not be deducted against future remittances until after the appeals process and both parties have received the results of the final audit;
(6) a pharmacy benefit manager may not require information to be written on a prescription unless the information is required to be written on the prescription by state or federal law. Recoupment may be assessed for items not written on the prescription if:
(i) additional information is required in the provider manual; or
(ii) the information is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA); or
(iii) the information is required by the drug manufacturer's product safety program; and
(iv) the information in item (i), (ii), or (iii) is not readily available for the auditor at the time of the audit; and
(7) the auditing company or agent may not receive payment based on a percentage of the amount recovered. This section does not prevent the entity conducting the audit from charging or assessing the responsible party, directly or indirectly, based on amounts recouped if both of the following conditions are met:
(i) the plan sponsor and the entity conducting the audit have a contract that explicitly states the percentage charge or assessment to the plan sponsor; and
(ii) a commission to an agent or employee of the entity conducting the audit is not based, directly or indirectly, on amounts recouped.
(c) An amendment to pharmacy audit terms in a contract between a pharmacy benefit manager and a pharmacy must be disclosed to the pharmacy at least 60 days prior to the effective date of the proposed change.
The commissioner of natural resources, or the director of the Division of Enforcement and Field Service, may not order, mandate, require, or in any manner suggest, directly or indirectly, to a conservation officer that the conservation officer issue a certain number of game and fish law violations on a daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly, or yearly quota basis.
(a) No person shall operate a snowmobile upon the roadway, shoulder, or inside bank or slope of any trunk, county state-aid, or county highway in this state and, in the case of a divided trunk or county highway, on the right-of-way between the opposing lanes of traffic, except as provided in sections 84.81 to 84.90. No person shall operate a snowmobile within the right-of-way of any trunk, county state-aid, or county highway between the hours of one-half hour after sunset to one-half hour before sunrise, except on the right-hand side of such right-of-way and in the same direction as the highway traffic on the nearest lane of the roadway adjacent thereto. No snowmobile shall be operated at any time within the right-of-way of any interstate highway or freeway within this state.
(b) Notwithstanding any provision of paragraph (a) to the contrary:
(1) under conditions prescribed by the commissioner of transportation, the commissioner of transportation may allow two-way operation of snowmobiles on either side of the trunk highway right-of-way where the commissioner of transportation determines that two-way operation will not endanger users of the trunk highway or riders of the snowmobiles using the trail;
(2) under conditions prescribed by a local road authority as defined in section 160.02, subdivision 25, the road authority may allow two-way operation of snowmobiles on either side of the right-of-way of a street or highway under the road authority's jurisdiction, where the road authority determines that two-way operation will not endanger users of the street or highway or riders of the snowmobiles using the trail;
(3) the commissioner of transportation under clause (1) and the local road authority under clause (2) shall notify the commissioner of natural resources and the local law enforcement agencies responsible for the streets or highways of the locations of two-way snowmobile trails authorized under this paragraph; and
(4) two-way snowmobile trails authorized under this paragraph shall be posted for two-way operation at the authorized locations.
(c) A snowmobile may make a direct crossing of a street or highway at any hour of the day provided:
(1) the crossing is made at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the direction of the highway and at a place where no obstruction prevents a quick and safe crossing; and
(2) the snowmobile is brought to a complete stop before crossing the shoulder or main traveled way of the highway; and
(3) the driver yields the right-of-way to all oncoming traffic which constitutes an immediate hazard; and
(4) in crossing a divided highway, the crossing is made only at an intersection of such highway with another public street or highway; and
(5) if the crossing is made between the hours of one-half hour after sunset to one-half hour before sunrise or in conditions of reduced visibility, only if both front and rear lights are on; and
(6) a snowmobile may be operated upon a bridge, other than a bridge that is part of the main traveled lanes of an interstate highway, when required for the purpose of avoiding obstructions to travel when no other method of avoidance is possible; provided the snowmobile is operated in the extreme right-hand lane, the entrance to the roadway is made within 100 feet of the bridge and the crossing is made without undue delay.
(d) No snowmobile shall be operated upon a public street or highway unless it is equipped with at least one headlamp, one tail lamp, each of minimum candlepower as prescribed by rules of the commissioner, reflector material of a minimum area of 16 square inches mounted on each side forward of the handle bars, and with brakes each of which shall conform to standards prescribed by rule of the commissioner pursuant to the authority vested in the commissioner by section 84.86, and each of which shall be subject to approval of the commissioner of public safety.
(e) A snowmobile may be operated upon a public street or highway other than as provided by paragraph (c) in an emergency during the period of time when and at locations where snow upon the roadway renders travel by automobile impractical.
(f) All provisions of chapters 169 and 169A shall apply to the operation of snowmobiles upon streets and highways, except for those relating to required equipment, and except those which by their nature have no application. Section 169.09 applies to the operation of snowmobiles anywhere in the state or on the ice of any boundary water of the state.
(g) Any sled, trailer, or other device being towed by a snowmobile must be equipped with reflective materials as required by rule of the commissioner.
No permit is required for the following fires:
(a) a fire started when the ground is snow-covered.
(b) a campfire.
(c) a fire contained in a charcoal grill, camp stove, or other device designed for the purpose of cooking or heating.
(d) a fire to burn dried vegetative materials and other materials allowed by Minnesota statutes or official state rules and regulations in a burner of a design which has been approved by the commissioner and with which there is no combustible material within five feet of the base of the burner and is in use only between the hours of 6:00 p.m. and 8:00 a.m. of the following day, when the ground is not snow-covered.
The state Departments of Agriculture, Health, and Employment and Economic Development; the State Planning and Pollution Control Agencies; the Board of Water and Soil Resources; and the Minnesota Historical Society shall provide information and advice necessary to prepare or amend the standards and criteria.
(a) Any Minnesota county board may, by resolution, with approval of the Pollution Control Agency, assume responsibility for processing applications for permits required by the Pollution Control Agency under this section for livestock feedlots, poultry lots or other animal lots. The responsibility for permit application processing, if assumed by a county, may be delegated by the county board to any appropriate county officer or employee.
(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, the term "processing" includes:
(1) the distribution to applicants of forms provided by the Pollution Control Agency;
(2) the receipt and examination of completed application forms, and the certification, in writing, to the Pollution Control Agency either that the animal lot facility for which a permit is sought by an applicant will comply with applicable rules and standards, or, if the facility will not comply, the respects in which a variance would be required for the issuance of a permit; and
(3) rendering to applicants, upon request, assistance necessary for the proper completion of an application.
(c) For the purposes of this subdivision, the term "processing" may include, at the option of the county board, issuing, denying, modifying, imposing conditions upon, or revoking permits pursuant to the provisions of this section or rules promulgated pursuant to it, subject to review, suspension, and reversal by the Pollution Control Agency. The Pollution Control Agency shall, after written notification, have 15 days to review, suspend, modify, or reverse the issuance of the permit. After this period, the action of the county board is final, subject to appeal as provided in chapter 14. For permit applications filed after October 1, 2001, section 15.99 applies to feedlot permits issued by the agency or a county pursuant to this subdivision.
(d) For the purpose of administration of rules adopted under this subdivision, the commissioner and the agency may provide exceptions for cases where the owner of a feedlot has specific written plans to close the feedlot within five years. These exceptions include waiving requirements for major capital improvements.
(e) For purposes of this subdivision, a discharge caused by an extraordinary natural event such as a precipitation event of greater magnitude than the 25-year, 24-hour event, tornado, or flood in excess of the 100-year flood is not a "direct discharge of pollutants."
(f) In adopting and enforcing rules under this subdivision, the commissioner shall cooperate closely with other governmental agencies.
(g) The Pollution Control Agency shall work with the Minnesota Extension Service, the Department of Agriculture, the Board of Water and Soil Resources, producer groups, local units of government, as well as with appropriate federal agencies such as the Natural Resources Conservation Service and the Farm Service Agency, to notify and educate producers of rules under this subdivision at the time the rules are being developed and adopted and at least every two years thereafter.
(h) The Pollution Control Agency shall adopt rules governing the issuance and denial of permits for livestock feedlots, poultry lots or other animal lots pursuant to this section. Pastures are exempt from the rules authorized under this paragraph. A feedlot permit is not required for livestock feedlots with more than ten but less than 50 animal units; provided they are not in shoreland areas. A livestock feedlot permit does not become required solely because of a change in the ownership of the buildings, grounds, or feedlot. These rules apply both to permits issued by counties and to permits issued by the Pollution Control Agency directly. No feedlot permit issued by the Pollution Control Agency shall include terms or conditions that:
(1) impose requirements related to pastures owned or used by the feedlot operator other than restrictions under a manure management plan; or
(2) require implementing nitrogen best management practices as a condition of allowing application of manure in October.
(i) The Pollution Control Agency shall exercise supervising authority with respect to the processing of animal lot permit applications by a county.
(j) Any new rules or amendments to existing rules proposed under the authority granted in this subdivision, or to implement new fees on animal feedlots, must be submitted to the members of legislative policy and finance committees with jurisdiction over agriculture and the environment prior to final adoption. The rules must not become effective until 90 days after the proposed rules are submitted to the members.
(k) Until new rules are adopted that provide for plans for manure storage structures, any plans for a liquid manure storage structure must be prepared or approved by a registered professional engineer or a United States Department of Agriculture, Natural Resources Conservation Service employee.
(l) A county may adopt by ordinance standards for animal feedlots that are more stringent than standards in Pollution Control Agency rules.
(m) After January 1, 2001, a county that has not accepted delegation of the feedlot permit program must hold a public meeting prior to the agency issuing a feedlot permit for a feedlot facility with 300 or more animal units, unless another public meeting has been held with regard to the feedlot facility to be permitted.
(n) After the proposed rules published in the State Register, volume 24, number 25, are finally adopted, the agency may not impose additional conditions as a part of a feedlot permit, unless specifically required by law or agreed to by the feedlot operator.
(o) For the purposes of feedlot permitting, a discharge from land-applied manure or a manure stockpile that is managed according to agency rule must not be subject to a fine for a discharge violation.
(p) For the purposes of feedlot permitting, manure that is land applied, or a manure stockpile that is managed according to agency rule, must not be considered a discharge into waters of the state, unless the discharge is to waters of the state, as defined by section 103G.005, subdivision 17, except type 1 or type 2 wetlands, as defined in section 103G.005, subdivision 17b, and does not meet discharge standards established for feedlots under agency rule.
(q) Unless the upgrade is needed to correct an immediate public health threat under section 145A.04, subdivision 8, or the facility is determined to be a concentrated animal feeding operation under Code of Federal Regulations, title 40, section 122.23, in effect on April 15, 2003, the agency may not require a feedlot operator:
(1) to spend more than $3,000 to upgrade an existing feedlot with less than 300 animal units unless cost-share money is available to the feedlot operator for 75 percent of the cost of the upgrade; or
(2) to spend more than $10,000 to upgrade an existing feedlot with between 300 and 500 animal units, unless cost-share money is available to the feedlot operator for 75 percent of the cost of the upgrade or $50,000, whichever is less.
(r) A feedlot operator who stores and applies up to 100,000 gallons per calendar year of private truck wash wastewater resulting from trucks that transport animals or supplies to and from the feedlot does not require a permit to land-apply industrial by-products if the feedlot operator stores and applies the wastewater in accordance with Pollution Control Agency requirements for land applications of industrial by-product that do not require a permit.
(s) A feedlot operator who holds a permit from the Pollution Control Agency to land-apply industrial by-products from a private truck wash is not required to have a certified land applicator apply the private truck wash wastewater if the wastewater is applied by the feedlot operator to cropland owned or leased by the feedlot operator or by a commercial animal waste technician licensed by the commissioner of agriculture under chapter 18C. For purposes of this paragraph and paragraph (r), "private truck wash" means a truck washing facility owned or leased, operated, and used only by a feedlot operator to wash trucks owned or leased by the feedlot operator and used to transport animals or supplies to and from the feedlot.
As to any cause of action arising under sections 116B.01 to 116B.13, the district court may exercise personal jurisdiction over any foreign corporation or any nonresident individual in the same manner as if it were a domestic corporation or the individual were a resident of this state. This section applies if, in person or through an agent, the foreign corporation or nonresident individual:
(a) commits or threatens to commit any act in the state which would impair, pollute or destroy the air, water, land, or other natural resources located within the state, or
(b) commits or threatens to commit any act outside the state which would impair, pollute or destroy the air, water, land, or other natural resources located within the state, or
(c) engages in any other of the activities specified in section 543.19.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "District" means a district under section 120A.05, subdivision 8.
(c) "Public school" or "school" means a public school under section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, 13, and 17, and a charter school under chapter 124E.
(d) "Student" means a student enrolled in a school under paragraph (c).
(e) "Bullying" means intimidating, threatening, abusive, or harming conduct that is objectively offensive and:
(1) there is an actual or perceived imbalance of power between the student engaging in prohibited conduct and the target of the behavior and the conduct is repeated or forms a pattern; or
(2) materially and substantially interferes with a student's educational opportunities or performance or ability to participate in school functions or activities or receive school benefits, services, or privileges.
(f) "Cyberbullying" means bullying using technology or other electronic communication, including but not limited to a transfer of a sign, signal, writing, image, sound, or data, including a post on a social network Internet website or forum, transmitted through a computer, cell phone, or other electronic device.
(g) Intimidating, threatening, abusive, or harming conduct may involve, but is not limited to, conduct that causes physical harm to a student or a student's property or causes a student to be in reasonable fear of harm to person or property; under Minnesota common law, violates a student's reasonable expectation of privacy, defames a student, or constitutes intentional infliction of emotional distress against a student; is directed at any student or students, including those based on a person's actual or perceived race, ethnicity, color, creed, religion, national origin, immigration status, sex, marital status, familial status, socioeconomic status, physical appearance, sexual orientation, including gender identity and expression, academic status related to student performance, disability, or status with regard to public assistance, age, or any additional characteristic defined in chapter 363A. However, prohibited conduct need not be based on any particular characteristic defined in this paragraph or chapter 363A.
(h) "Prohibited conduct" means bullying or cyberbullying as defined under this subdivision or retaliation for asserting, alleging, reporting, or providing information about such conduct or knowingly making a false report about bullying.
(i) "Remedial response" means a measure to stop and correct prohibited conduct, prevent prohibited conduct from recurring, and protect, support, and intervene on behalf of the student who is the target of the prohibited conduct. Districts and schools may seek the assistance of the school safety technical assistance center under section 127A.052 to develop and implement remedial responses on behalf of a student who is the target of prohibited conduct, to stop and correct a student engaging in prohibited conduct, and for use with students and adults in the school community.
(a) Districts and schools, in consultation with students, parents, and community organizations, to the extent practicable, shall adopt, implement, and, on a cycle consistent with other district policies, review, and revise where appropriate, a written policy to prevent and prohibit student bullying consistent with this section. The policy must conform with sections 121A.41 to 121A.56. A district or school must adopt and implement a local policy under subdivisions 3 to 5 or comply with the provisions of the state model policy in subdivision 6.
(b) Each local district and school policy must establish research-based, developmentally appropriate best practices that include preventive and remedial measures and effective discipline for deterring policy violations; apply throughout the school or district; and foster active student, parent, and community participation. A district or school may request assistance from the school safety technical assistance center under section 127A.052 in complying with local policy requirements. The policy shall:
(1) define the roles and responsibilities of students, school personnel, and volunteers under the policy;
(2) specifically list the characteristics contained in subdivision 2, paragraph (g);
(3) emphasize remedial responses;
(4) be conspicuously posted in the administrative offices of the school and school district in summary form;
(5) be given to each school employee and independent contractor, if a contractor regularly interacts with students, at the time of employment with the district or school;
(6) be included in the student handbook on school policies; and
(7) be available to all parents and other school community members in an electronic format in the languages appearing on the district or school website, consistent with the district policies and practices.
(c) Consistent with its applicable policies and practices, each district and school under this subdivision must discuss its policy with students, school personnel, and volunteers and provide appropriate training for all school personnel to prevent, identify, and respond to prohibited conduct. Districts and schools must establish a training cycle, not to exceed a period of three school years, for school personnel under this paragraph. Newly employed school personnel must receive the training within the first year of their employment with the district or school. A district or school administrator may accelerate the training cycle or provide additional training based on a particular need or circumstance.
(d) Each district and school under this subdivision must submit an electronic copy of its prohibited conduct policy to the commissioner.
(a) Districts and schools are encouraged to provide developmentally appropriate programmatic instruction to help students identify, prevent, and reduce prohibited conduct; value diversity in school and society; develop and improve students' knowledge and skills for solving problems, managing conflict, engaging in civil discourse, and recognizing, responding to, and reporting prohibited conduct; and make effective prevention and intervention programs available to students. Upon request, the school safety technical assistance center under section 127A.052 must assist a district or school in helping students understand social media and cyberbullying. Districts and schools must establish strategies for creating a positive school climate and use evidence-based social-emotional learning to prevent and reduce discrimination and other improper conduct.
(b) Districts and schools are encouraged to:
(1) engage all students in creating a safe and supportive school environment;
(2) partner with parents and other community members to develop and implement prevention and intervention programs;
(3) engage all students and adults in integrating education, intervention, and other remedial responses into the school environment;
(4) train student bystanders to intervene in and report incidents of prohibited conduct to the school's primary contact person;
(5) teach students to advocate for themselves and others;
(6) prevent inappropriate referrals to special education of students who may engage in prohibited conduct; and
(7) foster student collaborations that foster a safe and supportive school climate.
All money received by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board shall be paid into the state treasury as provided by law. The expenses of administering sections 120B.363, 122A.01, 122A.05 to 122A.09, 122A.15, 122A.16, 122A.17, 122A.18, 122A.181, 122A.182, 122A.183, 122A.184, 122A.185, 122A.187, 122A.188, 122A.20, 122A.21, 122A.22, 122A.23, 122A.2451, 122A.26, 122A.30, 122A.40, 122A.41, 122A.42, 122A.45, 122A.49, 122A.54, 122A.55, 122A.56, 122A.57, and 122A.58 that are incurred by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board shall be paid for from appropriations made to the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), a board may discharge a continuing-contract teacher, effective immediately, upon any of the following grounds:
(1) immoral conduct, insubordination, or conviction of a felony;
(2) conduct unbecoming a teacher which requires the immediate removal of the teacher from classroom or other duties;
(3) failure without justifiable cause to teach without first securing the written release of the school board;
(4) gross inefficiency which the teacher has failed to correct after reasonable written notice;
(5) willful neglect of duty; or
(6) continuing physical or mental disability subsequent to a 12 months leave of absence and inability to qualify for reinstatement in accordance with subdivision 12.
For purposes of this paragraph, conduct unbecoming a teacher includes an unfair discriminatory practice described in section 363A.13.
Prior to discharging a teacher under this paragraph, the board must notify the teacher in writing and state its ground for the proposed discharge in reasonable detail. Within ten days after receipt of this notification the teacher may make a written request for a hearing before the board and it shall be granted before final action is taken. The board may suspend a teacher with pay pending the conclusion of the hearing and determination of the issues raised in the hearing after charges have been filed which constitute ground for discharge. If a teacher has been charged with a felony and the underlying conduct that is the subject of the felony charge is a ground for a proposed immediate discharge, the suspension pending the conclusion of the hearing and determination of the issues may be without pay. If a hearing under this paragraph is held, the board must reimburse the teacher for any salary or compensation withheld if the final decision of the board or the arbitrator does not result in a penalty to or suspension, termination, or discharge of the teacher.
(b) A board must discharge a continuing-contract teacher, effective immediately, upon receipt of notice under section 122A.20, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), that the teacher's license has been revoked due to a conviction for child abuse, as defined in section 609.185; sex trafficking in the first degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1; sex trafficking in the second degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1a; engaging in hiring or agreeing to hire a minor to engage in prostitution under section 609.324, subdivision 1; sexual abuse under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, subdivision 3, or 617.23, subdivision 3; solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct or communication of sexually explicit materials to children under section 609.352; interference with privacy under section 609.746 or harassment or stalking under section 609.749 and the victim was a minor; using minors in a sexual performance under section 617.246; possessing pornographic works involving a minor under section 617.247; or any other offense not listed in this paragraph that requires the person to register as a predatory offender under section 243.166, or a crime under a similar law of another state or the United States.
(c) When a teacher is discharged under paragraph (b) or when the commissioner makes a final determination of child maltreatment involving a teacher under section 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35, the school principal or other person having administrative control of the school must include in the teacher's employment record the information contained in the record of the disciplinary action or the final maltreatment determination, consistent with the definition of public data under section 13.41, subdivision 5, and must provide the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the licensing division at the department with the necessary and relevant information to enable the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department's licensing division to fulfill their statutory and administrative duties related to issuing, renewing, suspending, or revoking a teacher's license. Information received by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board or the licensing division at the department under this paragraph is governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity. In addition to the background check required under section 123B.03, a school board or other school hiring authority must contact the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department to determine whether the teacher's license has been suspended or revoked, consistent with the discharge and final maltreatment determinations identified in this paragraph. Unless restricted by federal or state data practices law or by the terms of a collective bargaining agreement, the responsible authority for a school district must disseminate to another school district private personnel data on a current or former teacher employee or contractor of the district, including the results of background investigations, if the requesting school district seeks the information because the subject of the data has applied for employment with the requesting school district.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), causes for the discharge or demotion of a teacher either during or after the probationary period must be:
(1) immoral character, conduct unbecoming a teacher, or insubordination;
(2) failure without justifiable cause to teach without first securing the written release of the school board having the care, management, or control of the school in which the teacher is employed;
(3) inefficiency in teaching or in the management of a school, consistent with subdivision 5, paragraph (b);
(4) affliction with a communicable disease must be considered as cause for removal or suspension while the teacher is suffering from such disability; or
(5) discontinuance of position or lack of pupils.
For purposes of this paragraph, conduct unbecoming a teacher includes an unfair discriminatory practice described in section 363A.13.
(b) A probationary or continuing-contract teacher must be discharged immediately upon receipt of notice under section 122A.20, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), that the teacher's license has been revoked due to a conviction for child abuse, as defined in section 609.185; sex trafficking in the first degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1; sex trafficking in the second degree under section 609.322, subdivision 1a; engaging in hiring or agreeing to hire a minor to engage in prostitution under section 609.324, subdivision 1; sexual abuse under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, subdivision 3, or 617.23, subdivision 3; solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct or communication of sexually explicit materials to children under section 609.352; interference with privacy under section 609.746 or harassment or stalking under section 609.749 and the victim was a minor; using minors in a sexual performance under section 617.246; possessing pornographic works involving a minor under section 617.247; or any other offense not listed in this paragraph that requires the person to register as a predatory offender under section 243.166, or a crime under a similar law of another state or the United States.
(c) When a teacher is discharged under paragraph (b) or when the commissioner makes a final determination of child maltreatment involving a teacher under section 260E.21, subdivision 4, or 260E.35, the school principal or other person having administrative control of the school must include in the teacher's employment record the information contained in the record of the disciplinary action or the final maltreatment determination, consistent with the definition of public data under section 13.41, subdivision 5, and must provide the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the licensing division at the department with the necessary and relevant information to enable the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department's licensing division to fulfill their statutory and administrative duties related to issuing, renewing, suspending, or revoking a teacher's license. Information received by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board or the licensing division at the department under this paragraph is governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity. In addition to the background check required under section 123B.03, a school board or other school hiring authority must contact the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board and the department to determine whether the teacher's license has been suspended or revoked, consistent with the discharge and final maltreatment determinations identified in this paragraph. Unless restricted by federal or state data practices law or by the terms of a collective bargaining agreement, the responsible authority for a school district must disseminate to another school district private personnel data on a current or former teacher employee or contractor of the district, including the results of background investigations, if the requesting school district seeks the information because the subject of the data has applied for employment with the requesting school district.
The board of a district may issue general obligation certificates of indebtedness or capital notes subject to the district debt limits to: (a) purchase vehicles, computers, telephone systems, cable equipment, photocopy and office equipment, technological equipment for instruction, and other capital equipment having an expected useful life at least as long as the terms of the certificates or notes; (b) purchase computer hardware and software, without regard to its expected useful life, whether bundled with machinery or equipment or unbundled, together with application development services and training related to the use of the computer; and (c) prepay special assessments. The certificates or notes must be payable in not more than ten years and must be issued on the terms and in the manner determined by the board, except that certificates or notes issued to prepay special assessments must be payable in not more than 20 years. The certificates or notes may be issued by resolution and without the requirement for an election. The certificates or notes are general obligation bonds for purposes of section 126C.55. A tax levy must be made for the payment of the principal and interest on the certificates or notes, in accordance with section 475.61, as in the case of bonds. The sum of the tax levies under this section and section 123B.62 for each year must not exceed the lesser of the amount of the district's total operating capital revenue or the sum of the district's levy in the general and community service funds excluding the adjustments under this section for the year preceding the year the initial debt service levies are certified. The district's general fund levy for each year must be reduced by the sum of (1) the amount of the tax levies for debt service certified for each year for payment of the principal and interest on the certificates or notes issued under this section as required by section 475.61, (2) the amount of the tax levies for debt service certified for each year for payment of the principal and interest on bonds issued under section 123B.62, and (3) any excess amount in the debt redemption fund used to retire bonds, certificates, or notes issued under this section or section 123B.62 after April 1, 1997, other than amounts used to pay capitalized interest. If the district's general fund levy is less than the amount of the reduction, the balance shall be deducted first from the district's community service fund levy, and next from the district's general fund or community service fund levies for the following year. A district using an excess amount in the debt redemption fund to retire the certificates or notes shall report the amount used for this purpose to the commissioner by July 15 of the following fiscal year. A district having an outstanding capital loan under section 126C.69 or an outstanding debt service loan under section 126C.68 must not use an excess amount in the debt redemption fund to retire the certificates or notes.
(a) In addition to other bonding authority, with approval of the commissioner, a district may issue general obligation bonds for certain capital projects under this section. The bonds must be used only to make capital improvements including:
(1) under section 126C.10, subdivision 14, total operating capital revenue uses specified in clauses (4), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10);
(2) the cost of energy modifications;
(3) improving disability accessibility to school buildings;
(4) bringing school buildings into compliance with life and safety codes and fire codes; and
(5) modifying buildings and equipment for security.
(b) Before a district issues bonds under this subdivision, it must publish notice of the intended projects, the amount of the bond issue, and the total amount of district indebtedness.
(c) A bond issue tentatively authorized by the board under this subdivision becomes finally authorized unless a petition signed by more than 15 percent of the registered voters of the district is filed with the school board within 30 days of the board's adoption of a resolution stating the board's intention to issue bonds. The percentage is to be determined with reference to the number of registered voters in the district on the last day before the petition is filed with the board. The petition must call for a referendum on the question of whether to issue the bonds for the projects under this section. The approval of 50 percent plus one of those voting on the question is required to pass a referendum authorized by this section.
(d) The bonds must be paid off within 15 years of issuance. The bonds must be issued in compliance with chapter 475, except as otherwise provided in this section. A tax levy must be made for the payment of principal and interest on the bonds in accordance with section 475.61. The sum of the tax levies under this section and section 123B.61 for each year must not exceed the limit specified in section 123B.61. The levy for each year must be reduced as provided in section 123B.61. A district using an excess amount in the debt redemption fund to retire the bonds shall report the amount used for this purpose to the commissioner by July 15 of the following fiscal year. A district having an outstanding capital loan under section 126C.69 or an outstanding debt service loan under section 126C.68 must not use an excess amount in the debt redemption fund to retire the bonds.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d), bonds issued by a district within the first five years following voter approval of a combination according to section 123A.37, subdivision 2, must be paid off within 20 years of issuance. All the other provisions and limitation of paragraph (d) apply.
The board may provide for the transportation of pupils to and from school and for any other purpose. The board may also provide for the transportation of pupils to schools in other districts for grades and departments not maintained in the district, including high school, at the expense of the district, when funds are available therefor and if agreeable to the district to which it is proposed to transport the pupils, for the whole or a part of the school year, as it may deem advisable, and subject to its rules. In any district, the board must arrange for the attendance of all pupils living two miles or more from the school, except pupils whose transportation privileges have been voluntarily surrendered under subdivision 2, or whose privileges have been revoked under section 123B.91, subdivision 1, clause (6), or 123B.90, subdivision 2. The district may provide for the transportation of or the boarding and rooming of the pupils who may be more economically and conveniently provided for by that means. Arrangements for attendance may include a requirement that parents or guardians request transportation before it is provided. The board must provide necessary transportation consistent with section 123B.92, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (4), for a child with a disability not yet enrolled in kindergarten for the provision of special instruction and services under sections 125A.03 to 125A.24, 125A.26 to 125A.48, and 125A.65. Special instruction and services for a child with a disability not yet enrolled in kindergarten include an individualized education program team placement in an early childhood program when that placement is necessary to address the child's level of functioning and needs. When transportation is provided, scheduling of routes, establishment of the location of bus stops, manner and method of transportation, control and discipline of school children, the determination of fees, and any other matter relating thereto must be within the sole discretion, control, and management of the board. The district may provide for the transportation of pupils or expend a reasonable amount for room and board of pupils whose attendance at school can more economically and conveniently be provided for by that means or who attend school in a building rented or leased by a district within the confines of an adjacent district.
Aid must be paid under this section only for services rendered or for costs incurred in career and technical education programs approved by the commissioner and operated in accordance with rules promulgated by the commissioner. This aid shall be paid only for services rendered and for costs incurred by essential, licensed personnel who meet the requirements for licensure pursuant to the rules of the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board. Licensed personnel means persons holding a valid career and technical license issued by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board under section 122A.30. If an average of five or fewer secondary full-time equivalent students are enrolled per teacher in an approved postsecondary program at Intermediate District No. 287, 916, or 917, licensed personnel means persons holding a valid vocational license issued by the commissioner or the Board of Trustees of the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities. Notwithstanding section 127A.42, the commissioner may modify or withdraw the program or aid approval and withhold aid under this section without proceeding under section 127A.42 at any time. To do so, the commissioner must determine that the program does not comply with rules of the Department of Education or that any facts concerning the program or its budget differ from the facts in the district's approved application.
A loan repayment account must be maintained. All principal and interest paid by districts on debt service loans and capital loans made under section 126C.68 or 126C.69 must be paid into the account. The state's cost of administering the Maximum Effort School Aid Law must be paid out of this account, to an amount not exceeding $10,000 in any year. As soon as possible in each year after the committee has determined the ratio existing between the correct market value of all taxable property in each school district in the state and the "market value in money" of such property as recorded in accordance with section 270C.91, the commissioner of revenue shall prepare a list of all such ratios. The clerical costs of preparing the list must be paid as a cost of administration of the Maximum Effort School Aid Law. The Documents Division of the Department of Administration may publish and sell copies of the list. The sums required to pay the principal of and interest on all school loan bonds as provided in section 126C.72 must be transferred out of the loan repayment account to the state bond fund.
By November 15 of each year, the board shall prepare and deliver to the legislature and the governor a report which shall include the following:
(a) a financial statement showing receipts and disbursements for the year ending the preceding June 30, including a listing of the donors and amounts of gifts to the board or its advisory committees valued in excess of $1,000;
(b) a brief description of the activities of the board for the preceding year;
(c) the number of meetings and approximate hours spent by board members in meetings and on other board activities;
(d) the names of board members and their addresses, occupations, and dates of appointment and reappointment to the board;
(e) the names and job classifications of board employees;
(f) a brief summary of board rules proposed or adopted during the period with appropriate citations to the State Register and published rules;
(g) the number of requests for assistance received by the board and the number of written and oral complaints received from residents of the state relating to the activities of the board or the performance of the duties of the board as provided in this chapter;
(h) a summary by category of the substance of the complaints and requests referred to in (g) above and the responses of the board thereto;
(i) a listing of all grants, loans or other forms of assistance given by the board. This listing shall indicate (1) the recipients of board assistance who are members of the board or its advisory committees, and (2) each recipient sponsoring organization having a member of the board or its advisory committees as a director, officer or employee. The indication required in clause (2) shall also specify the name of the member who is the officer, director or employee. The listing shall also include the amount of money, number of grants, and the basis for the allocations made to major arts organizations, to individuals, for statewide distribution, for regional distribution, for sponsor assistance to community organizations, and for sponsor assistance to educational organizations.
(a) The commissioner shall develop a grant application process. A grant applicant must:
(1) specify the purpose under subdivision 1, paragraph (b), for which the institution is applying;
(2) specify both program and student outcome goals;
(3) include student feedback in the development of new programs or the expansion of existing programs; and
(4) demonstrate a commitment to equitable access to concurrent enrollment coursework for all eligible high school students.
(b) A postsecondary institution applying for a grant under subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (3), must provide a 50 percent match for the grant funds.
(a) A resident or prospective resident whose level of care determination results in a denial of long-term care services can appeal the determination as outlined in section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, paragraph (h), clause (9).
(b) The commissioner of human services shall ensure that notice of changes in eligibility due to a nursing facility level of care determination is provided to each affected recipient or the recipient's guardian at least 30 days before the effective date of the change. The notice shall include the following information:
(1) how to obtain further information on the changes;
(2) how to receive assistance in obtaining other services;
(3) a list of community resources; and
(4) appeal rights.
(a) Two or more political subdivisions may establish, by resolution of their governing bodies, a special taxing district to provide fire protection or emergency medical services, or both, in the area of the district, comprising the jurisdiction of each of the political subdivisions forming the district. For a county that participates in establishing a district, the county's jurisdiction comprises the unorganized territory of the county that it designated in its resolution for inclusion in the district. The area of the special taxing district need not be contiguous or its boundaries continuous.
(b) Before establishing a district under this section, the participating political subdivisions must enter into an agreement that specifies how any liabilities, other than debt issued under subdivision 6, and assets of the district will be distributed if the district is dissolved. The agreement may also include other terms, including a method for apportioning the levy of the district among participating political subdivisions under subdivision 4, paragraph (b), as the political subdivisions determine appropriate. The agreement must be adopted no later than upon passage of the resolution establishing the district under paragraph (a), but may be later amended by agreement of each of the political subdivisions participating in the district.
(c) If two or more political subdivisions that currently operate separate fire departments seek to merge fire departments into one fire department, or if a political subdivision with an existing fire department requests to join a special taxing district with an established fire department, the resolution under paragraph (a) or agreement under paragraph (b) must specify which, if any, volunteer firefighter pension plan is associated with the district. A special taxing district that operates a fire department under this section may be associated with only one volunteer firefighting relief association or one account in the voluntary statewide volunteer firefighting retirement plan at one time.
(d) If the special taxing district includes the operation of a fire department, it must file its resolution establishing the fire protection special taxing district, and any agreements required for the establishment of the special taxing district, with the commissioner of revenue, including any subsequent amendments. If the resolution or agreement does not include sufficient information defining the fire department service area of the fire protection special taxing district, the secretary of the district board must file a written statement with the commissioner defining the fire department service area.
"Supervising physician" means a Minnesota licensed physician who accepts full medical responsibility for the performance, practice, and activities of a physician assistant under an agreement as described in section 147A.20.
(a) After June 30, 1997, an applicant for licensure must:
(1) submit a completed application for licensure on forms provided by the board, which must include the applicant's name and address of record, which shall be public;
(2) unless licensed under subdivision 5 or 6, submit a notarized copy of a current NCCAOM certification;
(3) sign a statement that the information in the application is true and correct to the best of the applicant's knowledge and belief;
(4) submit with the application all fees required; and
(5) sign a waiver authorizing the board to obtain access to the applicant's records in this state or any state in which the applicant has engaged in the practice of acupuncture.
(b) The board may ask the applicant to provide any additional information necessary to ensure that the applicant is able to practice with reasonable skill and safety to the public.
(c) The board may investigate information provided by an applicant to whether the information is accurate and complete. The board shall notify an applicant of action taken on the application and the reasons for denying licensure if licensure is denied.
(a) Any person shall be deemed to be practicing optometry within the meaning of sections 148.52 to 148.62 who shall in any way:
(1) advertise as an optometrist; or
(2) employ any means, including the use of autorefractors or other automated testing devices, for the measurement of the powers of vision or the adaptation of lenses or prisms for the aid thereof; or
(3) possess testing appliances for the purpose of the measurement of the powers of vision; or
(4) diagnose any disease, optical deficiency or deformity, or visual or muscular anomaly of the visual system consisting of the human eye and its accessory or subordinate anatomical parts; or
(5) prescribe lenses, including plano or cosmetic contact lenses, or prisms for the correction or the relief of same; or
(6) employ or prescribe ocular exercises, orthoptics, or habilitative and rehabilitative therapeutic vision care; or
(7) prescribe or administer legend drugs to aid in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, prevention, treatment, or management of disease, deficiency, deformity, or abnormality of the human eye and adnexa included in the curricula of accredited schools or colleges of optometry, and as limited by Minnesota statute and adopted rules by the Board of Optometry, or who holds oneself out as being able to do so.
(b) In the course of treatment, nothing in this section shall allow:
(1) legend drugs to be administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or by injection, except for treatment of anaphylaxis;
(2) invasive surgery including, but not limited to, surgery using lasers;
(3) Schedule II and III oral legend drugs and oral steroids to be administered or prescribed;
(4) oral antivirals to be prescribed or administered for more than ten days; or
(5) oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors to be prescribed or administered for more than seven days.
(a) The activities in this subdivision qualify for continuing education contact hours if they meet all other requirements of this section.
(b) A minimum of one-half of the required contact hours must be directly related to occupational therapy practice. The remaining contact hours may be related to occupational therapy practice, the delivery of occupational therapy services, or to the practitioner's current professional role.
(c) A licensee may obtain an unlimited number of contact hours in any two-year continuing education period through participation in the following:
(1) attendance at educational programs of annual conferences, lectures, panel discussions, workshops, in-service training, seminars, and symposiums;
(2) successful completion of college or university courses. The licensee must obtain a grade of at least a "C" or a pass in a pass/fail course in order to receive credit. One college credit equals six continuing education contact hours;
(3) successful completion of home study courses that require the participant to demonstrate the participant's knowledge following completion of the course.
(d) A licensee may obtain a maximum of one-half of the required contact hours in any two-year continuing education period for:
(1) teaching continuing education or occupational therapy related courses that meet the requirements of this section. A licensee is entitled to earn a maximum of two contact hours as preparation time for each contact hour of presentation time. Contact hours may be claimed only once for teaching the same course in any two-year continuing education period. A course schedule or brochure must be maintained for audit;
(2) supervising occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant students. A licensee may earn one contact hour for every eight hours of student supervision. Licensees must ensure they receive documentation regarding each student supervised and the dates and hours each student was supervised. Contact hours obtained by student supervision must be obtained by supervising students from an occupational therapy education program accredited by the Accreditation Council for Occupational Therapy Education;
(3) teaching or participating in courses related to leisure activities, recreational activities, or hobbies if the practitioner uses these interventions within the practitioner's current practice or employment; and
(4) engaging in research activities or outcome studies that are related to the practice of occupational therapy and associated with grants, postgraduate studies, or publications in professional journals or books.
(e) A licensee may obtain a maximum of two contact hours in any two-year continuing education period for continuing education activities in the following areas:
(1) personal skill topics: career burnout, communication skills, human relations, and similar topics;
(2) training that is obtained in conjunction with a licensee's employment, occurs during a licensee's normal workday, and does not include subject matter specific to the fundamentals of occupational therapy; and
(3) participation for a minimum of one year on a professional committee or board.
Of the 100 hours of supervision required under subdivision 1:
(1) 50 hours must be provided though one-on-one supervision, including: (i) a minimum of 25 hours of in-person supervision, and (ii) no more than 25 hours of supervision via eye-to-eye electronic media, while maintaining visual contact; and
(2) 50 hours must be provided through: (i) one-on-one supervision, or (ii) group supervision. The supervision may be in person, by telephone, or via eye-to-eye electronic media, while maintaining visual contact. The supervision must not be provided by e-mail. Group supervision is limited to six supervisees.
(a) Except as provided in subdivision 2, to be eligible to provide supervision under this section, a social worker must:
(1) have completed 30 hours of training in supervision through coursework from an accredited college or university, or through continuing education in compliance with sections 148E.130 to 148E.170;
(2) be competent in the activities being supervised; and
(3) attest, on a form provided by the board, that the social worker has met the applicable requirements specified in this section and sections 148E.100 to 148E.115. The board may audit the information provided to determine compliance with the requirements of this section.
(b) A licensed independent clinical social worker providing clinical licensing supervision to a licensed graduate social worker or a licensed independent social worker must have at least 2,000 hours of experience in authorized social work practice, including 1,000 hours of experience in clinical practice after obtaining a licensed independent clinical social worker license.
(c) A licensed social worker, licensed graduate social worker, licensed independent social worker, or licensed independent clinical social worker providing nonclinical licensing supervision must have completed the supervised practice requirements specified in section 148E.100, 148E.105, 148E.106, 148E.110, or 148E.115, as applicable.
(a) A licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse authorized to prescribe drugs pursuant to section 148.235, or a licensed physician assistant authorized to prescribe drugs pursuant to section 147A.18 may authorize the following individuals to administer opiate antagonists, as defined in section 604A.04, subdivision 1:
(1) an emergency medical responder registered pursuant to section 144E.27;
(2) a peace officer as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraphs (c) and (d);
(3) correctional employees of a state or local political subdivision;
(4) staff of community-based health disease prevention or social service programs;
(5) a volunteer firefighter; and
(6) a licensed school nurse or certified public health nurse employed by, or under contract with, a school board under section 121A.21.
(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, opiate antagonists may be administered by one of these individuals only if:
(1) the licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed advanced practice registered nurse has issued a standing order to, or entered into a protocol with, the individual; and
(2) the individual has training in the recognition of signs of opiate overdose and the use of opiate antagonists as part of the emergency response to opiate overdose.
(c) Nothing in this section prohibits the possession and administration of naloxone pursuant to section 604A.04.
(a) The individual shall submit to a pharmacy the statement of eligibility provided by the manufacturer under subdivision 5, paragraph (b). Upon receipt of an individual's eligibility status, the pharmacy shall submit an order containing the name of the insulin product and the daily dosage amount as contained in a valid prescription to the product's manufacturer.
(b) The pharmacy must include with the order to the manufacturer the following information:
(1) the pharmacy's name and shipping address;
(2) office telephone number, fax number, e-mail address, and contact name; and
(3) any specific days or times when deliveries are not accepted by the pharmacy.
(c) Upon receipt of an order from a pharmacy and the information described in paragraph (b), the manufacturer shall send to the pharmacy a 90-day supply of insulin as ordered, unless a lesser amount is requested in the order, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy.
(d) Except as authorized under paragraph (e), the pharmacy shall provide the insulin to the individual at no charge to the individual. The pharmacy shall not provide insulin received from the manufacturer to any individual other than the individual associated with the specific order. The pharmacy shall not seek reimbursement for the insulin received from the manufacturer or from any third-party payer.
(e) The pharmacy may collect a co-payment from the individual to cover the pharmacy's costs for processing and dispensing in an amount not to exceed $50 for each 90-day supply if the insulin is sent to the pharmacy.
(f) The pharmacy may submit to a manufacturer a reorder for an individual if the individual's eligibility statement has not expired. Upon receipt of a reorder from a pharmacy, the manufacturer must send to the pharmacy an additional 90-day supply of the product, unless a lesser amount is requested, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy if the individual's eligibility statement has not expired.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), a manufacturer may send the insulin as ordered directly to the individual if the manufacturer provides a mail order service option.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(b) "Automobile graveyard" means any establishment or place of business which is maintained, used, or operated for storing, keeping, buying, or selling wrecked, scrapped, ruined, or dismantled motor vehicles or motor vehicle parts.
(c) "Dealer" means any person, partnership, or corporation engaged in the operation of a junk yard.
(d) "Hazard signs" means signs listed in the Minnesota drivers' manual published by the Department of Public Safety, signs required by the State Fire Code, and other signs related to road or fire hazards and approved for use by the state or a political subdivision.
(e) "Industrial activities" means those activities permitted only in industrial zones, or in less restrictive zones by the nearest zoning authority within the state, or prohibited by said authority but generally recognized as industrial by other zoning authorities within the state, except that none of the following shall be considered industrial activities:
(1) outdoor advertising devices as defined in Minnesota Statutes 1969, section 173.02, subdivision 16;
(2) agricultural, forestry, ranching, grazing, farming and related activities, including, but not limited to, wayside fresh produce stands;
(3) activities normally and regularly in operation less than three months of the year;
(4) activities not visible from the traffic lanes of the main-traveled way;
(5) activities conducted in a building principally used as a residence;
(6) railroad tracks, minor sidings, and passenger depots; or
(7) junk yards, as defined in paragraph (g).
(f) "Junk" means old or scrap hazard signs, copper, brass, rope, rags, batteries, paper, synthetic or organic, trash, rubber debris, waste, or junked, dismantled, or wrecked automobiles or farm or construction machinery or parts thereof, iron, steel, and other old or scrap ferrous or nonferrous material.
(g) "Junk yard" means an establishment, place of business, or place of storage or deposit, which is maintained, operated, or used for storing, keeping, buying, or selling junk, or for the maintenance or operation of an automobile graveyard, and shall include garbage dumps and sanitary fills not regulated by the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency, any of which are wholly or partly within one-half mile of any right-of-way of any state trunk highway, including the interstate highways, whether maintained in connection with another business or not, where the waste, body, or discarded material stored is equal in bulk to five or more motor vehicles and which are to be resold for used parts or old iron, metal, glass, or other discarded material.
(h) "Unzoned industrial area" means the land occupied by the regularly used building, parking lot, storage or processing area of an industrial activity, and the land within 1,000 feet thereof which is located on the same side of the highway as the principal part of said activity, and not predominantly used for residential or commercial purposes, and not zoned by state or local law, regulation or ordinance.
Beginning in 2009, The commissioner shall provide, no later than September 1, an annual written report to the legislature, in compliance with sections 3.195 and 3.197, and shall submit the report to the chairs of the senate and house of representatives committees having jurisdiction over transportation. The report must list all privatization transportation contracts within the meaning of this section that were executed or performed, whether wholly or in part, in the previous fiscal year. The report must identify, with respect to each contract: the contractor; contract amount; duration; work, provided or to be provided; the comprehensive estimate derived under subdivision 3, paragraph (a); the comprehensive estimate derived under subdivision 3, paragraph (b); the actual cost to the agency of the contractor's performance of the contract; and for contracts of at least $250,000, a statement containing the commissioner's determinations under subdivision 3, paragraph (c).
After deducting for administrative costs and for the disaster account and research account from the amount available as provided in this section, the commissioner shall deduct a sum equal to the three-quarters of one percent of the remainder. The sum so deducted shall be set aside in a separate account and shall be used for (1) the establishment, location, relocation, construction, reconstruction, and improvement of those roads included in the county state-aid highway system under Minnesota Statutes 1961, section 162.02, subdivision 6, which border and provide substantial access to an outdoor recreation unit as defined in section 86A.04 or which provide access to the headquarters of or the principal parking lot located within such a unit, and (2) the reconstruction, improvement, repair, and maintenance of county roads, city streets, and town roads that provide access to public lakes, rivers, state parks, and state campgrounds. Roads described in clause (2) are not required to meet county state-aid highway standards. At the request of the commissioner of natural resources the counties wherein such roads are located shall do such work as requested in the same manner as on any county state-aid highway and shall be reimbursed for such construction, reconstruction, or improvements from the amount set aside by this subdivision. Before requesting a county to do work on a county state-aid highway as provided in this subdivision, the commissioner of natural resources must obtain approval for the project from the County State-Aid Screening Board. The screening board, before giving its approval, must obtain a written comment on the project from the county engineer of the county requested to undertake the project. Before requesting a county to do work on a county road, city street, or a town road that provides access to a public lake, a river, a state park, or a state campground, the commissioner of natural resources shall obtain a written comment on the project from the county engineer of the county requested to undertake the project. Any balance of the amount so set aside, at the end of each year must be transferred to the county state-aid highway fund.
(a) Except as provided in subdivision 3, Money so apportioned and allocated to each county shall be used for aid in the establishment, location, construction, reconstruction, improvement, and maintenance of the county state-aid highway system within each county, including the expense of sidewalks, commissioner-approved signals and safety devices on county state-aid highways, and systems that permit an emergency vehicle operator to activate a green traffic signal for the emergency vehicle; provided, that in the event of hardship, or in the event that the county state-aid highway system of any county is improved to the standards set forth in the commissioner's rules, a portion of the money apportioned other than the money allocated for expenditures within cities having a population of less than 5,000, may be used on other roads within the county with the consent and in accordance with the commissioner's rules.
(b) If the portion of the county state-aid highway system lying within cities having a population of less than 5,000 is improved to the standard set forth in the commissioner's rules, a portion of the money credited to the municipal account may be used on other county highways or other streets lying within such cities. Upon the authorization of the commissioner, a county may expend accumulated municipal account funds on county state-aid highways within the county outside of cities having a population of less than 5,000. The commissioner shall authorize the expenditure if:
(1) the county submits a written request to the commissioner and holds a hearing within 30 days of the request to receive and consider any objections by the governing bodies of cities within the county having a population of less than 5,000; and
(2) no written objection is filed with the commissioner by any such city within 14 days of that hearing as provided in this subdivision.
The county shall notify all of the cities of the public hearing by certified mail and shall notify the commissioner in writing of the results of the hearing and any objections to the use of the funds as requested by the county.
(c) If, within 14 days of the hearing under paragraph (b), a city having a population of less than 5,000 files a written objection with the commissioner identifying a specific county state-aid highway within the city which is requested for improvement, the commissioner shall investigate the nature of the requested improvement. Notwithstanding paragraph (b), clause (2), the commissioner may authorize the expenditure requested by the county if:
(1) the identified highway is not deficient in meeting minimum state-aid street standards;
(2) the county shows evidence that the identified highway has been programmed for construction in the county's five-year capital improvement budget in a manner consistent with the county's transportation plan; or
(3) there are conditions created by or within the city and beyond the control of the county that prohibit programming or constructing the identified highway.
(d) Notwithstanding any contrary provisions of paragraph (b) or (c), accumulated balances in excess of two years of municipal account apportionments may be spent on projects located outside of municipalities under 5,000 population when approved solely by resolution of the county board.
(e) Authorization for use of municipal account funds on county state-aid highways outside of cities having a population of less than 5,000 shall be applicable only to the county's accumulated and current year allocation. Future municipal account allocations shall be used as directed by law unless subsequent requests are made by the county and approved by the commissioner, or approved by resolution of the county board, as applicable, in accordance with the applicable provisions of this section.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), the board of commissioners of each county is authorized to levy by resolution a wheelage tax at the rate specified in paragraph (b), on each motor vehicle that is kept in such county when not in operation and that is subject to annual registration and taxation under chapter 168. The board may provide by resolution for collection of the wheelage tax by county officials or it may request that the tax be collected by the state registrar of motor vehicles. The state registrar of motor vehicles shall collect such tax on behalf of the county if requested, as provided in subdivision 2.
(b) The wheelage tax under this section is at the rate of:
(1) from January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2017, $10 per year for each county that authorizes the tax; and
(2) on and after January 1, 2018, up to $20 per year, in any increment of a whole dollar, as specified by each county that authorizes the tax.
(c) The following vehicles are exempt from the wheelage tax:
(1) motorcycles, as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 44;
(2) motorized bicycles, as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 45; and
(3) motorized foot scooters, as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 46.
(d) For any county that authorized the tax prior to May 24, 2013, the wheelage tax continues at the rate provided under paragraph (b).
Except as provided in this subdivision it is unlawful for a person under the age of 18 to own a passenger automobile or truck. A person who is under the age of 18 may own a passenger automobile or truck only if any of the following conditions exist:
(1) the person has completed a driver training course approved by the commissioner of public safety and has attained the age of 17;
(2) the person is a high school graduate and has attained the age of 17;
(3) the person is an employed, emancipated minor who holds a Minnesota driver's license;
(4) the person, before January 1, 1964, owns a passenger automobile or truck which is registered in the person's name with the registrar of motor vehicles;
(5) the person became the owner of the passenger automobile or truck which the person seeks to register in Minnesota while a resident of a foreign state, district, territory, or country, and which passenger automobile or truck is duly registered in the person's name in such foreign state, district, territory, or country.
(a) Application for a dealer's license or notification of a change of location of the place of business on a dealer's license must include a street address, not a post office box, and is subject to the commissioner's approval.
(b) Upon the filing of an application for a dealer's license and the proper fee, unless the application on its face appears to be invalid, the commissioner shall grant a 90-day temporary license. During the 90-day period following issuance of the temporary license, the commissioner shall inspect the place of business site and insure compliance with this section and rules adopted under this section.
(c) The commissioner may extend the temporary license 30 days to allow the temporarily licensed dealer to come into full compliance with this section and rules adopted under this section.
(d) In no more than 120 days following issuance of the temporary license, the dealer license must either be granted or denied.
(e) A license must be denied under the following conditions:
(1) The license must be denied if within the previous ten years the applicant was enjoined due to a violation of section 325F.69 or convicted of violating section 325E.14, 325E.15, 325E.16, or 325F.69, or convicted under section 609.53 of receiving or selling stolen vehicles, or convicted of violating United States Code, title 15, sections 1981 to 1991 or pleaded guilty, entered a plea of nolo contendere or no contest, or has been found guilty in a court of competent jurisdiction of any charge of failure to pay state or federal income or sales taxes or felony charge of forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, theft by swindle, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, or bribery.
(2) A license must be denied if the applicant has had a dealer license revoked within the previous ten years.
(f) If the application is approved, the commissioner shall license the applicant as a dealer for one year from the date the temporary license is granted and issue a certificate of license that must include a distinguishing number of identification of the dealer. The license must be displayed in a prominent place in the dealer's licensed place of business.
(g) Each initial application for a license must be accompanied by a fee of $100 in addition to the annual fee. The annual fee is $150. The initial fees and annual fees must be paid into the state treasury and credited to the general fund except that $50 of each initial and annual fee must be paid into the vehicle services operating account in the special revenue fund under section 299A.705.
(a) A license may be suspended or revoked by the registrar of motor vehicles upon proof satisfactory to the registrar of any of the following:
(1) violations of any of the provisions of this chapter or chapter 168A, 297B, 325E, or 325F;
(2) violation of or refusal to comply with the requests and order of the registrar;
(3) failure to make or provide to the registrar all listings, notices, and reports required by the registrar;
(4) failure to pay to the registrar all taxes, fees, and arrears due from and by such dealer;
(5) failure to duly apply for renewal of license provided for in this section;
(6) revocation of previous license, of which the records of the registrar relating to the revocation are prima facie evidence of the previous revocation;
(7) failure of continued occupancy of an established place of business;
(8) sale of a new and unused current model motor vehicle other than the make of motor vehicle described in the franchise or contract filed with the original application or renewal thereof, without permission from the registrar;
(9) sale of a new and unused current model motor vehicle to anyone except for consumer use, or to a dealer duly licensed to sell the same make of motor vehicle;
(10) material misstatement or misrepresentation in application for license or renewal;
(11) having advertised, printed, displayed, published, distributed, broadcast, or televised or caused or permitted to be advertised, printed, displayed, published, distributed, broadcast, or televised in any manner whatsoever, or having made orally any statement or representation with regard to the sale, lease, or financing of motor vehicles that is false, deceptive, or misleading;
(12) having been convicted of violating section 325F.69, or having been enjoined due to a violation of section 325F.69;
(13) having been convicted of violating the Minnesota Odometer Law, section 325E.14, 325E.15, or 325E.16, or the federal odometer law, United States Code, title 15, sections 1981 to 1991;
(14) having been convicted of violating the sale of motor vehicles on Sunday law, section 168.275;
(15) having been convicted under section 609.53 of receiving or selling stolen vehicles; or
(16) having pleaded guilty, entered a plea of nolo contendere or no contest, or having been found guilty in a court of competent jurisdiction of any charge of failure to pay state or federal income or sales taxes or felony charge of forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, theft by swindle, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, or bribery.
(b) With respect to paragraph (a), clauses (12), (13), (15), and (16), the registrar may suspend or revoke a license immediately upon receiving certification of conviction or permanent injunction. A hearing is required under subdivision 13 within 30 days following a summary suspension or revocation under this paragraph, if a hearing is requested by the licensee.
At the close of each calendar year and not later than February 15th of the next succeeding year, beginning with 1959, the registrar of motor vehicles shall recompute and redetermine the number of intercity buses required to have been registered in Minnesota for the prior year and the actual amount of tax liability for such previous year shall likewise be redetermined. Any additional tax which may be due by any owner or operator of intercity buses shall be paid forthwith. If it is determined as a result of such recomputation that there has been an overpayment of tax, the amount of such overpayment shall be credited to the amount of tax which may be due by the owner or operator of intercity buses in any subsequent year. In the event any owner or operator of intercity buses discontinues operations in Minnesota and has a tax credit due as a result of overpayment of motor vehicle taxes for any year, the amount of such overpayment shall be refunded. Such sums as are necessary to make the refunds herein are hereby appropriated annually from the highway user tax distribution fund.
The filing fee to create a conditional registration shall conform with the fee provided in section 168.33, subdivision 7, paragraph (a), clause (3). A subsequent removal and clearing of a conditional registration is considered a separate transaction and requires payment of an additional filing fee of the same amount, provided the removal and clearing was initiated by a motor vehicle dealer licensed under section 168.27.
An owner or agent of an owner of private, nonresidential property described in section 168B.04, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), clause (2)(iv), is authorized to remove or cause the removal of an unauthorized vehicle from that property after providing five-day notice to the vehicle owner by certified mail, return receipt requested, that the vehicle will be removed from the property. Notification must include identification of the registration plate number, the vehicle identification number, and the make, model, and color of the vehicle. The owner or agent of an owner of property upon which a motor vehicle is unauthorized may cause the vehicle to be removed by a towing service under this section without incurring any civil liability to the owner of the unauthorized vehicle. Vehicles removed pursuant to a complaint of the owner or agent of the owner of private property must be disposed of as provided in sections 168B.051 to 168B.10.
"Jurisdiction" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, a province or territory of Canada, and any other member jurisdiction of the International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA) compact as approved by Congress in the Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act (ISTEA), Public Law 102-40.
(a) The commissioner of public safety may enter into an agreement or arrangement with the duly authorized representative of another jurisdiction or make an independent declaration granting to motor carriers of qualified motor vehicles properly registered or licensed in another member jurisdiction benefits, privileges, and exemptions from paying, wholly or partially, fuel taxes, fees, or other charges imposed for operating the vehicles under the laws of Minnesota. The agreement, arrangement, or declaration may impose terms and conditions consistent with federal and state laws and regulations.
(b) The commissioner of public safety may ratify and effectuate an international fuel tax agreement or other fuel tax agreement in accordance with state and federal authorities. The commissioner's authority includes collecting fuel taxes due, issuing fuel licenses, issuing refunds, conducting audits, assessing penalties and interest, issuing fuel trip permits, issuing decals, and suspending or denying licensing.
(c) Based on these powers, the commissioner and the state of Minnesota have entered into a formal agreement with other states of the United States, the District of Columbia, provinces and territories of Canada, and any other member jurisdiction of the International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA) compact as approved by Congress in the Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act (ISTEA), Public Law 102-40, to assess and collect fuel tax in a uniform and consistent manner across jurisdictions.
The commissioner shall adopt a manual and specifications for a uniform system of traffic-control devices consistent with the provisions of this chapter for use upon highways within this state. Such uniform system shall correlate with and so far as possible conform to the system then current as approved by the American Association of State Highway Officials. The manual and specifications must include the design and wording of minimum-maintenance road signs. The adoption of the manual and specifications by the commissioner as herein provided is specifically exempted from chapter 14, including section 14.386.
(a) A flagger in a work zone may stop vehicles, hold vehicles in place, and direct vehicles to proceed when it is safe.
(b) A person convicted of operating a motor vehicle in violation of a speed limit in a work zone, or any other provision of this section while in a work zone, shall be required to pay a fine of $300. This fine is in addition to the surcharge under section 357.021, subdivision 6.
(c) If a motor vehicle is operated in violation of paragraph (a), the owner of the vehicle, or for a leased motor vehicle the lessee of the vehicle, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor and is subject to a fine as provided in paragraph (b). The owner or lessee may not be fined under this paragraph if (1) another person is convicted for that violation, or (2) the motor vehicle was stolen at the time of the violation. This paragraph does not apply to a lessor of a motor vehicle if the lessor keeps a record of the name and address of the lessee.
(d) Paragraph (c) does not prohibit or limit the prosecution of a motor vehicle operator for violating paragraph (a).
(e) A violation under paragraph (c) does not constitute grounds for revocation or suspension of a driver's license.
(f) A peace officer may issue a citation to the operator of a motor vehicle if the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the person has operated the vehicle in violation of paragraph (a). A citation may be issued even though the violation did not occur in the officer's presence. In addition to other evidentiary elements or factors, a peace officer has probable cause under this subdivision if:
(1) a qualified work zone flagger has provided a report of a violation of paragraph (a) that includes a description and the license plate number of the vehicle used to commit the offense, and the time of the incident;
(2) the person is operating the vehicle described in the report; and
(3) it is within the four-hour period following the time of the incident, as specified in the report.
(g) A work zone flagger is qualified to provide a report under paragraph (f) if each flagger involved in the reporting has completed training that includes information on flagging operations, equipment, traffic laws, observation and accurate identification of motor vehicles, and delegation of duties involving a report under paragraph (f).
If the driver of any vehicle involved in a collision knows or has reason to know the collision resulted only in damage to fixtures legally upon or adjacent to a highway, the driver shall take reasonable steps to locate and notify the owner or person in charge of the property of that fact, of the driver's name and address, and of the registration plate number of the vehicle being driven and shall, upon request and if available, exhibit the driver's license, and make an accident report in every case. The report must be made in the same manner as a report made pursuant to subdivision 7.
(a) If a motor vehicle is operated in violation of subdivision 5, the owner of the vehicle, or for a leased motor vehicle the lessee of the vehicle, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.
(b) Paragraph (a) does not apply if (1) a person other than the owner or lessee was operating the vehicle at the time the violation occurred, or (2) the owner presents written evidence that the motor vehicle had been reported to a law enforcement agency as stolen at the time of the violation.
(c) Paragraph (a) does not apply to a lessor of a motor vehicle if the lessor keeps a record of the name and address of the lessee.
(d) Paragraph (a) does not prohibit or limit the prosecution of a motor vehicle operator for violating subdivision 5.
(e) A violation under paragraph (a) does not constitute grounds for revocation or suspension of the owner's or lessee's driver's license.
Any person violating the provisions of this section or any order or ordinance promulgated or enacted by the commissioner of transportation or a public authority pursuant thereto is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.
(a) If a motor vehicle is stopped, standing, or parked in violation of subdivision 1, the owner of the vehicle, or for a leased motor vehicle the lessee of the vehicle, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.
(b) The owner or lessee may not be fined under paragraph (a) if (1) another person is convicted for, or pleads guilty to, that violation, or (2) the motor vehicle was stolen at the time of the violation.
(c) Paragraph (a) does not apply to a lessor of a motor vehicle if the lessor keeps a record of the name and address of the lessee.
(d) Paragraph (a) does not prohibit or limit the prosecution of a motor vehicle operator for violating subdivision 1.
(e) A violation under paragraph (a) does not constitute grounds for revocation or suspension of the owner's or lessee's driver's license.
Any person violating the provisions of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor. The record of any conviction of or plea of guilty under this section of a person operating a motor vehicle shall be immediately forwarded to the Department of Public Safety for inclusion upon that offender's driving record. Any second or subsequent offense under this section shall require a minimum fine in the amount of $400. Any judge may, for any violation of this section, order the offender to pick up litter along any public highway or road for four to eight hours under the direction of the Department of Transportation, with the option of a jail sentence being imposed.
Any person violating the provisions of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor.
The Peace Officer Standards and Training Board shall adopt standards governing situations in which licensed peace officers as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), may operate a vehicle or watercraft without lights as provided in subdivision 1. The board shall report to the legislature on the standards by January 1, 1991.
(a) Any vehicle may be equipped, and when required under this chapter shall be equipped, with a lamp or lamps or mechanical signal device of such color as may be approved by the commissioner of public safety and capable of clearly indicating any intention to turn either to the right or to the left and shall be visible and understandable during both daytime and nighttime from a distance of 100 feet both to the front and rear.
(b) On or after July 1, 1949, it shall be unlawful for any person to sell or offer for sale any new motor vehicle, excepting motorcycles, motor scooters, and bicycles with motor attached, unless it is equipped with turn signals meeting the requirements of this chapter.
Upon receiving the notification under subdivision 6 or notification of a conviction for violation of section 169.791, the commissioner shall revoke the person's driver's license or permit to drive. The revocation shall be effective beginning 14 days after the date of notification by the district court administrator or officer to the Department of Public Safety. In order to be revoked, notice must have been mailed to the person by the commissioner at least ten days before the effective date of the revocation. If the person, before the effective date of the revocation, provides the commissioner with the proof of insurance or other verifiable insurance information as determined by the commissioner, establishing that the required insurance covered the vehicle at the time of the original demand, the revocation must not become effective. Revocation based upon receipt of a notification under subdivision 6 must be carried out regardless of the status or disposition of any related criminal charge. The person's driver's license or permit to drive shall be revoked for the longer of: (i) the period provided in section 169.797, subdivision 4, paragraph (c), including any rules adopted under that paragraph, or (ii) until the driver or owner files proof of insurance with the Department of Public Safety satisfactory to the commissioner of public safety. A license must not be revoked more than once based upon the same demand for proof of insurance.
Buses or other commercial vehicles operated by the Metropolitan Council, commercial vehicles required to file proof of insurance pursuant to chapter 221, and school buses as defined in section 171.01, subdivision 45, are exempt from this section.
(a) An implement of husbandry that is not self-propelled and is equipped with pneumatic tires may not be operated on a public highway with a maximum wheel load that exceeds 500 pounds per inch of tire width.
(b) After December 31, 2009, A person operating or towing an implement of husbandry on a bridge must comply with the gross weight limitations provided in section 169.824.
(a) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with pneumatic tires shall be operated upon the highways of this state where the total gross weight on any group of two or more consecutive axles of any vehicle or combination of vehicles exceeds that given in the following axle weight limits table for the distance between the centers of the first and last axles of any group of two or more consecutive axles under consideration. Unless otherwise noted, the distance between axles must be measured longitudinally to the nearest even foot, and when the measurement is a fraction of exactly one-half foot the next largest whole number in feet shall be used, except that when the distance between axles is more than three feet four inches and less than three feet six inches the distance of four feet shall be used.
|Axle Weight Limits|
|Maximum gross weight in pounds on a group of|
|Distances in feet
between centers of foremost and rearmost axles of a group
|consecutive axles of
a 2-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 2 or
|consecutive axles of a 3-axle vehicle or any combination of
vehicles having a total
of 3 or more axles
|consecutive axles of a 4-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 4 or more axles|
(b) The maximum gross weight on a group of three consecutive axles, where the distance between centers of foremost and rearmost axles of any axle group is seven feet or eight feet, is 34,000 pounds, except for vehicles manufactured before August 1, 1991. Notwithstanding any lesser weight shown in the axle weight limits table, for vehicles manufactured before August 1, 1991:
(1) the maximum gross weight on a group of three consecutive axles, where the distance between centers of foremost and rearmost axles of any axle group is seven feet, is 37,000 pounds; and
(2) the maximum gross weight on a group of three consecutive axles, where the distance between centers of foremost and rearmost axles of any axle group is eight feet, is 38,500 pounds.
(c) "8 plus" refers to any distance greater than eight feet but less than nine feet.
|Axle Weight Limits (continued)|
|Maximum gross weight in pounds on a group of|
|Distances in feet between centers of foremost and rearmost axles of a group||consecutive axles of a 5-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 5 or more axles||consecutive axles of a 6-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 6 or more axles||consecutive axles of a 7-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 7 or more axles||consecutive axles of an 8-axle vehicle or any combination of vehicles having a total of 8 or more axles|
(d) The gross weights shown without parentheses in the axle weight limits table are allowed on unpaved streets and highways, unless posted to a lesser weight under section 169.87, subdivision 1. The gross weights shown in this table, whether within or without parentheses, are allowed on paved streets and highways, unless posted to a lesser weight under section 169.87, subdivision 1. Gross weights in excess of 80,000 pounds require an overweight permit under this chapter, unless otherwise allowed under section 169.826.
(e) Notwithstanding any lesser weight shown in the axle weight limits table, but subject to the restrictions on gross vehicle weights in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a gross load of 34,000 pounds each and a combined gross load of 68,000 pounds provided the overall distance between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of tandem axles is 36 feet or more.
"First haul" has the meaning given it in section 168.013, subdivision 3, paragraph (d)(3).
(a) The commissioner, with respect to highways under the commissioner's jurisdiction, and local authorities, with respect to highways under their jurisdiction, may, in their discretion, upon application in writing and good cause being shown therefor, issue a special permit, in writing, authorizing the applicant to move a vehicle or combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the maximum specified in this chapter, exceeding the gross weight for which the vehicle is registered under chapter 168, or otherwise not in conformity with the provisions of this chapter, upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party granting such permit and for the maintenance of which such party is responsible.
(b) Permits relating to over-width, over-length manufactured homes shall not be issued to persons other than manufactured home dealers or manufacturers for movement of new units owned by the manufactured home dealer or manufacturer, until the person has presented a statement from the county auditor and treasurer where the unit is presently located, stating that all personal and real property taxes have been paid. Upon payment of the most recent single year delinquent personal property or current year taxes only, the county auditor or treasurer must issue a taxes paid statement to a manufactured home dealer or a financial institution desiring to relocate a manufactured home that has been repossessed. This statement must be dated within 30 days of the contemplated move. The statement from the county auditor and treasurer where the unit is presently located, stating that all personal and real property taxes have been paid, may be made by telephone. If the statement is obtained by telephone, the permit shall contain the date and time of the telephone call and the names of the persons in the auditor's office and treasurer's office who verified that all personal and real property taxes had been paid.
(c) The commissioner may not grant a permit authorizing the movement, in a three-vehicle combination, of a semitrailer or trailer that exceeds 28-1/2 feet, except that the commissioner (1) may renew a permit that was granted before April 16, 1984, for the movement of a semitrailer or trailer that exceeds the length limitation in section 169.81, subdivision 2, or (2) may grant a permit authorizing the transportation of empty trailers that exceed 28-1/2 feet when using a B-train hitching mechanism as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 23, section 658.5, paragraph (o), from a point of manufacture in the state to the state border.
(d) The state as to state trunk highways, a statutory or home rule charter city as to streets in the city, or a town as to roads in the town, may issue permits authorizing the transportation of combinations of vehicles exceeding the limitations in section 169.81, subdivisions 2a and 3, over highways, streets, or roads within its boundaries. Combinations of vehicles authorized by this paragraph may be restricted as to the use of state trunk highways by the commissioner, to the use of streets by the city road authority, and to the use of roads by the town road authority. Nothing in this paragraph or section 169.81, subdivisions 2a and 3, alters or changes the authority vested in local authorities under section 169.04.
The commissioner, with respect to highways under the commissioner's jurisdiction, may charge a fee for each permit issued. The fee for an annual permit that expires by law on the date of the vehicle registration expiration must be based on the proportion of the year that remains until the expiration date. All fees for permits issued by the commissioner of transportation must be deposited as provided in paragraph (i) and in section 174.525. Except for those annual permits for which the permit fees are specified elsewhere in this chapter, the fees are:
(a) $15 for each single trip permit.
(b) $36 for each job permit. A job permit may be issued for like loads carried on a specific route for a period not to exceed two months. "Like loads" means loads of the same product, weight, and dimension.
(c) $60 for an annual permit to be issued for a period not to exceed 12 consecutive months. Annual permits may be issued for:
(1) motor vehicles used to alleviate a temporary crisis adversely affecting the safety or well-being of the public;
(2) motor vehicles that travel on interstate highways and carry loads authorized under subdivision 1a;
(3) motor vehicles operating with gross weights authorized under section 169.826, subdivision 1a;
(4) special pulpwood vehicles described in section 169.863;
(5) motor vehicles bearing snowplow blades not exceeding ten feet in width;
(6) noncommercial transportation of a boat by the owner or user of the boat; and
(7) motor vehicles carrying bales of agricultural products authorized under section 169.862.
(d) $120 for an oversize annual permit to be issued for a period not to exceed 12 consecutive months. Annual permits may be issued for:
(1) mobile cranes;
(2) construction equipment, machinery, and supplies;
(3) manufactured homes and manufactured storage buildings;
(4) implements of husbandry;
(5) double-deck buses;
(6) commercial boat hauling and transporting waterfront structures, including, but not limited to, portable boat docks and boat lifts; and
(7) three-vehicle combinations consisting of two empty, newly manufactured trailers for cargo, horses, or livestock, not to exceed 28-1/2 feet per trailer; provided, however, the permit allows the vehicles to be moved from a trailer manufacturer to a trailer dealer only while operating on twin-trailer routes designated under section 169.81, subdivision 3, paragraph (c).
(e) For vehicles that have axle weights exceeding the weight limitations of sections 169.823 to 169.829, an additional cost added to the fees listed above. However, this paragraph applies to any vehicle described in section 168.013, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), but only when the vehicle exceeds its gross weight allowance set forth in that paragraph, and then the additional cost is for all weight, including the allowance weight, in excess of the permitted maximum axle weight. The additional cost is equal to the product of the distance traveled times the sum of the overweight axle group cost factors shown in the following chart:
|Overweight Axle Group Cost Factors|
|Weight (pounds)||Cost Per Mile For Each Group Of:|
|exceeding weight limitations on axles||Two consecutive axles spaced within 8 feet or less||Three consecutive axles spaced within 9 feet or less||Four consecutive axles spaced within 14 feet or less|
|18,001-20,000||Not permitted||Not permitted||.16|
|20,001-22,000||Not permitted||Not permitted||.20|
The amounts added are rounded to the nearest cent for each axle or axle group. The additional cost does not apply to paragraph (c), clauses (1) and (3).
For a vehicle found to exceed the appropriate maximum permitted weight, a cost-per-mile fee of 22 cents per ton, or fraction of a ton, over the permitted maximum weight is imposed in addition to the normal permit fee. Miles must be calculated based on the distance already traveled in the state plus the distance from the point of detection to a transportation loading site or unloading site within the state or to the point of exit from the state.
(f) As an alternative to paragraph (e), an annual permit may be issued for overweight, or oversize and overweight, mobile cranes; construction equipment, machinery, and supplies; implements of husbandry; and commercial boat hauling. The fees for the permit are as follows:
|Gross Weight (pounds) of Vehicle||Annual Permit Fee|
If the gross weight of the vehicle is more than 155,000 pounds the permit fee is determined under paragraph (e).
(g) For vehicles which exceed the width limitations set forth in section 169.80 by more than 72 inches, an additional cost equal to $120 added to the amount in paragraph (a) when the permit is issued while seasonal load restrictions pursuant to section 169.87 are in effect.
(h) $85 for an annual permit to be issued for a period not to exceed 12 months, for refuse-compactor vehicles that carry a gross weight of not more than: 22,000 pounds on a single rear axle; 38,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle; or, subject to section 169.828, subdivision 2, 46,000 pounds on a tridem rear axle. A permit issued for up to 46,000 pounds on a tridem rear axle must limit the gross vehicle weight to not more than 62,000 pounds.
(i) $300 for a motor vehicle described in section 169.8261. The fee under this paragraph must be deposited as follows:
(1) the first $50,000 in each fiscal year must be deposited in the trunk highway fund for costs related to administering the permit program and inspecting and posting bridges; and
(2) all remaining money in each fiscal year must be deposited in the bridge inspection and signing account as provided under subdivision 5b.
(j) Beginning August 1, 2006, $200 for an annual permit for a vehicle operating under authority of section 169.824, subdivision 2, clause (2).
(a) A vehicle issued a permit under subdivision 1 or 2:
(1) is subject to the axle weight limits in section 169.824;
(2) is subject to bridge load limits posted pursuant to section 169.84;
(3) is subject to seasonal load restrictions under section 169.87;
(4) may not be operated with a load that exceeds the tire manufacturer's recommended load under section 169.823, the manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating as affixed to the vehicle, or other certification of gross weight rating under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, sections 567.4 to 567.7;
(5) may not be operated on the interstate highway system; and
(6) may be operated on streets or highways under the control of a local authority only upon the approval of the local authority. However, vehicles may have reasonable access to terminals and facilities for food, fuel, repairs, and rest, and for continuity of route within one mile of the national network as provided by section 169.81, subdivision 3, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 23, section 658.19.
(b) The seasonal weight increases authorized under section 169.829 do not apply to permits issued under this section.
Notwithstanding subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (5), a civil penalty under subdivision 1 for a violation in a motor vehicle in the course of a first haul as defined in section 168.013, subdivision 3, paragraph (d)(3), of a weight limit imposed under sections 169.823 to 169.829, 169.84 to 169.851, and 169.87 that is not preceded by two or more violations of the gross weight limits in those sections in that motor vehicle within the previous 12 months, may not exceed $150.
Any person violating such rule, regulation, or ordinance shall be guilty of a petty misdemeanor and subject to the provisions of sections 169.891 and 169.90, subdivision 1.
Any person violating such rule or ordinance shall be guilty of a petty misdemeanor and subject to the provisions of sections 169.891 and 169.90, subdivision 1.
the commissioner of public safety of the state of Minnesota, acting directly or through duly authorized agents.
The term "Conviction" means a final conviction either after trial or upon a plea of guilty. also, a forfeiture of cash or collateral deposited to guarantee a defendant's appearance in court, which forfeiture has not been vacated; the failure to comply with a written notice to appear in court; or a breach of a condition of release without bail, is equivalent to a conviction.
the Department of Public Safety of the state, acting directly or through its duly authorized officers and agents.
every person, who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle.
every motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm implement for drawing plows, mowing machines and other implements of husbandry.
every vehicle that is self-propelled, other than an electric personal assistive mobility device as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 26, and any vehicle propelled or drawn by a self-propelled vehicle, and not deriving its power from overhead wires except snowmobiles.
every person who is not a resident of this state.
any person, firm, copartnership, association, or corporation who holds the legal title to a vehicle, or in the event a vehicle is the subject of an agreement for the conditional sale or lease thereof with the right of purchase upon performance of the conditions stated in the agreement and with an immediate right of possession vested in the conditional vendee or lessee, or in the event a mortgagor of a vehicle is entitled to possession, then such conditional vendee or lessee or mortgagor shall be deemed the owner for the purposes of this chapter.
every natural person, firm, copartnership, association, or corporation.
the entire width between property lines of every way or place of whatever nature when any part thereof is open to the use of the public, as a matter of right, for purpose of vehicular traffic.
every device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or may be transported or drawn upon any highway, excepting devices moved by human power or used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks.
Each person who operates a commercial motor vehicle, who has a commercial driver's license issued by this state, and who is convicted of a criminal offense; of a serious traffic violation, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 383.5; or of violating any other state or local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control, other than a parking violation, in any type of motor vehicle in another state or jurisdiction, shall notify the department's Division of Driver and Vehicle Services of the conviction. The person shall notify the division within 30 days after the date that the person was convicted.
Notification to the division must be made in writing and contain the following information:
(1) the driver's full name;
(2) the driver's license number;
(3) the date of conviction;
(4) the specific criminal or other offense; serious traffic violation, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 383.5; and any other violation of state or local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control, for which the person was convicted and any suspension, revocation, or cancellation of certain driving privileges that resulted from the conviction;
(5) an indication whether the violation was in a commercial motor vehicle;
(6) the location of the offense; and
(7) the driver's signature.
(a) On behalf of the commissioner, a peace officer requiring a test or directing the administration of a chemical test pursuant to a search warrant under sections 626.04 to 626.18 shall serve immediate notice of intention to revoke and of revocation on a person who refuses to permit a test or on a person who submits to a test, the results of which indicate an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more.
(b) On behalf of the commissioner, a peace officer requiring a test or directing the administration of a chemical test of a person driving, operating, or in physical control of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to a search warrant under sections 626.04 to 626.18 shall serve immediate notice of intention to disqualify and of disqualification on a person who refuses to permit a test or on a person who submits to a test, the results of which indicate an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more.
(c) The officer shall:
(1) invalidate the person's driver's license or permit card by clipping the upper corner of the card in such a way that no identifying information including the photo is destroyed, and immediately return the card to the person;
(2) issue the person a temporary license effective for only seven days; and
(3) send the notification of this action to the commissioner along with the certificate required by subdivision 5 or 6.
(a) Before the license is reinstated, a single $20 reinstatement fee is imposed for:
(1) an individual whose driver's license has been suspended under section 171.16, subdivision 2; 171.175; 171.18; or 171.182, or who has been disqualified from holding a commercial driver's license under section 171.165;
(2) an individual whose driver's license has been suspended under section 171.186 and who is not exempt from such a fee; and
(3) an individual whose license has been suspended under sections 169.791 to 169.798.
(b) An individual whose driver's license is subject to more than one suspension and who is otherwise eligible for reinstatement must pay a single reinstatement fee and a single filing fee. An individual whose driver's license has been suspended and revoked and who is otherwise eligible for reinstatement must pay a reinstatement fee as provided in section 171.29.
(c) When fees are collected by a driver's license agent appointed under section 171.061, a filing fee is imposed in the amount specified under section 171.061, subdivision 4. The reinstatement fee and filing fee must be deposited in an approved state depository as directed under section 171.061, subdivision 4.
(d) Reinstatement fees collected under paragraph (a) for suspensions under section 171.18, subdivision 1, clause (10), must be deposited in the general fund.
(e) A suspension may be rescinded without fee for good cause.
(a) A prosecutor for a participating city or county may determine whether to accept an individual for diversion. When making the determination, the prosecutor must consider:
(1) whether the individual has a record of driving without a valid license or other criminal record, or has previously participated in a diversion program;
(2) the strength of the evidence against the individual, along with any mitigating factors; and
(3) the apparent ability and willingness of the individual to participate in the diversion program and comply with program requirements.
(b) A city or county attorney may request that an individual be reviewed for a diversion program without a formal city or county diversion program being established. The city or county attorney must follow the requirements of subdivisions 1 and 2 and may submit the individual's application to an administrator for processing in collaboration with DVS to determine if an individual is eligible for approval into the diversion program. The participant must meet the requirements in subdivision 4.
(c) A judge may submit a request for an individual to apply for entry into a diversion program under subdivisions 1 and 2. The participant must meet the requirements in subdivision 4.
All money received under this chapter must be paid into the state treasury and credited to the driver services operating account in the special revenue fund specified under sections 299A.705, except as provided in subdivision 2; 171.06, subdivision 2a; 171.07, subdivision 11, paragraph (g); 171.20, subdivision 4, paragraph (d); and 171.29, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
Notwithstanding subdivision 2, a limited license shall not be issued for a period of:
(1) 15 days, to a person whose license or privilege has been revoked or suspended for a first violation of section 169A.20, sections 169A.50 to 169A.53, section 171.177, or a statute or ordinance from another state in conformity with either of those sections; or
(2) one year, to a person whose license or privilege has been revoked or suspended for committing manslaughter resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle, committing criminal vehicular homicide or injury under section 609.21, subdivision 1, clause (1), (2), item (ii), (5), (6), (7), or (8), committing criminal vehicular homicide under section 609.21, subdivision 1, clause (2), item (i) or (iii), (3), or (4), or violating a statute or ordinance from another state in conformity with either of those offenses.
Notwithstanding subdivision 1, the commissioner may not issue a limited license to a person whose driver's license has been suspended or revoked due to a violation of section 609.21, subdivision 1, clause (2), item (i) or (iii), (3), or (4), resulting in bodily harm, substantial bodily harm, or great bodily harm.
(a) If a program participant tampers with, circumvents, or bypasses a device; drives, operates, or exercises physical control over a motor vehicle not equipped with a device certified by the commissioner; violates a condition of a limited license issued under subdivision 4 and section 171.30; or violates the program guidelines of subdivision 3, the commissioner shall extend the person's revocation period under section 169A.52, 169A.54, or 171.177 by:
(1) 180 days for a first violation;
(2) one year for a second violation; or
(3) 545 days for a third and each subsequent violation.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the commissioner may terminate participation in the program by any person when, in the commissioner's judgment, termination is necessary to the interests of public safety and welfare. In the event of termination, the commissioner shall not reduce the applicable revocation period under section 169A.52, 169A.54, or 171.177 by the amount of time during which the person possessed a limited or restricted driver's license issued under the authority of subdivision 4.
For each project in the reconditioning, resurfacing, and road repair funding categories, the commissioner shall perform a life-cycle cost analysis and shall document the lowest life-cycle costs and all alternatives considered. The commissioner shall document the chosen pavement strategy and, if the lowest life cycle is not selected, document the justification for the chosen strategy. A life-cycle cost analysis is required for projects to be constructed after July 1, 2011. For projects to be constructed prior to July 1, 2011, when feasible, the department will use its best efforts to perform life-cycle cost analyses.
(a) The collaborative shall develop recommendations to the commissioner and to the legislature as provided in paragraph (b) designed to implement fully the federal Disadvantaged Business Enterprise program in this state and to improve the effectiveness of the program. These recommendations, including any draft legislation if the collaborative decides to recommend legislation, may include, but are not limited to, strategies, policies, and actions focused on:
(1) requiring bid proposals to include information on disadvantaged business enterprise participation;
(2) defining and implementing appropriate accountability measures when disadvantaged business enterprise contract goals are not met in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 49;
(3) sponsoring disadvantaged business enterprise training and development workshops; and
(4) strengthening the content and frequency of department reporting requirements relating to the disadvantaged business enterprise program.
(b) The collaborative shall report its findings and legislative recommendations, including draft legislation if the collaborative decides to recommend legislation, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over transportation policy and finance by February 1, 2011. The report must be made available electronically and available in print upon request.
(a) The commissioner of transportation shall establish a ride-sharing program in order to advise citizens of the available alternatives to travel by low-occupancy vehicles and the benefits derived from sharing rides. The program must provide citizens with necessary information and opportunities for sharing rides, encourage citizens to share rides, and assist citizens in obtaining access to shared rides. The program must make use of existing services and agencies whenever possible. The program must give priority to assisting employers who will implement employee ride-sharing programs.
(b) The services provided by the program must include:
(1) providing general information to potential ride-sharing users;
(2) establishing procedures for the implementation of ride-sharing programs by individuals, groups, corporations, or local agencies;
(3) offering assistance to local governments and other political subdivisions in implementing ride-sharing programs;
(4) providing technical assistance to those individuals, groups, corporations, or local agencies;
(5) providing advice to individuals requesting assistance in finding ride-sharing opportunities and programs;
(6) providing assistance in obtaining insured leased vans and management assistance to individuals and persons implementing ride-sharing programs.
The state may authorize the use of motor vehicles which it owns or operates for ride-sharing arrangements for its employees, and shall establish reasonable reimbursement rates for that use. The commissioner of administration shall by September 1, 1983, establish a demonstration program for using state-owned vehicles, other than commuter vans, for use in ride-sharing arrangements for state employees.
(a) The operating standards for special transportation service adopted under this section do not apply to special transportation provided by:
(1) a public transit provider receiving financial assistance under sections 174.24 or 473.371 to 473.449;
(2) a volunteer driver, as defined in section 65B.472, subdivision 1, paragraph (h), using a private automobile;
(3) a school bus as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 71; or
(4) an emergency ambulance regulated under chapter 144.
(b) The operating standards adopted under this section only apply to providers of special transportation service who receive grants or other financial assistance from either the state or the federal government, or both, to provide or assist in providing that service; except that the operating standards adopted under this section do not apply to any nursing home licensed under section 144A.02, to any board and care facility licensed under section 144.50, or to any day training and habilitation services, day care, or group home facility licensed under sections 245A.01 to 245A.19 unless the facility or program provides transportation to nonresidents on a regular basis and the facility receives reimbursement, other than per diem payments, for that service under rules promulgated by the commissioner of human services.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the operating standards adopted under this section do not apply to any vendor of services licensed under chapter 245D that provides transportation services to consumers or residents of other vendors licensed under chapter 245D and transports 15 or fewer persons, including consumers or residents and the driver.
(a) A special transportation service that transports individuals occupying wheelchairs is subject to the provisions of sections 299A.11 to 299A.17 concerning wheelchair securement devices. The commissioners of transportation and public safety shall cooperate in the enforcement of this section and sections 299A.11 to 299A.17 so that a single inspection is sufficient to ascertain compliance with sections 299A.11 to 299A.17 and with the standards adopted under this section. Representatives of the Department of Transportation may inspect wheelchair securement devices in vehicles operated by special transportation service providers to determine compliance with sections 299A.11 to 299A.17 and to issue certificates under section 299A.14, subdivision 4.
(b) In place of a certificate issued under section 299A.14, the commissioner may issue a decal under subdivision 4 for a vehicle equipped with a wheelchair securement device if the device complies with sections 299A.11 to 299A.17 and the decal displays the information in section 299A.14, subdivision 4.
(c) For vehicles designated as protected transport under section 256B.0625, subdivision 17, paragraph (h), the commissioner of transportation, during the commissioner's inspection, shall check to ensure the safety provisions contained in that paragraph are in working order.
The planning, development, construction, operation, and maintenance of commuter rail track, facilities, and services are governmental functions, serve a public purpose, and are a matter of public necessity. The commissioner shall be responsible for all aspects of planning, developing, constructing, operating, and maintaining commuter rail, including system planning, advanced corridor planning, preliminary engineering, final design, construction, negotiating with railroads, and developing financial and operating plans. The commissioner may enter into a memorandum of understanding or agreement with a public or private entity, including a regional railroad authority, a joint powers board, and a railroad, to carry out these activities. The commissioner, or public entity contracting with the commissioner, may contract with a railroad that is a Class I railroad under federal law for the joint or shared use of the railroad's right-of-way or the construction, operation, or maintenance of rail track, facilities, or services for commuter rail purposes. Notwithstanding section 3.732, subdivision 1, clause (2), or section 466.01, subdivision 6, sections 466.04 and 466.06 govern the liability of the Class I railroad and its employees arising from the joint or shared use of the railroad right-of-way or the provision of commuter rail construction, operation, or maintenance services pursuant to the contract. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, a contract with the Class I railroad for any commuter rail service, or joint or shared use of the railroad's right-of-way, may also provide for the allocation of financial responsibility, indemnification, and the procurement of insurance for the parties for all types of claims or damages. A contract entered into under this section does not affect rights of employees under the federal Employers' Liability Act (1908) (Railroads), Statutes at Large, volume 35, chapter 149, or the federal Railway Labor Act, Statutes at Large, volume 44, chapter 347.
For permanent total disability, as defined in subdivision 5, the compensation shall be 66-2/3 percent of the daily wage at the time of the injury, subject to a maximum weekly compensation equal to the maximum weekly compensation for a temporary total disability and a minimum weekly compensation equal to 65 percent of the statewide average weekly wage. This compensation shall be paid during the permanent total disability of the injured employee but after a total of $25,000 of weekly compensation has been paid, the amount of the weekly compensation benefits being paid by the employer shall be reduced by the amount of any disability benefits being paid by any government disability benefit program if the disability benefits are occasioned by the same injury or injuries which give rise to payments under this subdivision. This reduction shall also apply to any old age and survivor insurance benefits. Payments shall be made at the intervals when the wage was payable, as nearly as may be. In case an employee who is permanently and totally disabled becomes an inmate of a public institution, no compensation shall be payable during the period of confinement in the institution, unless there is wholly dependent on the employee for support some person named in section 176.111, subdivision 1, 2 or 3, in which case the compensation provided for in section 176.111, during the period of confinement, shall be paid for the benefit of the dependent person during dependency. The dependency of this person shall be determined as though the employee were deceased. Permanent total disability shall cease at age 72, except that if an employee is injured after age 67, permanent total disability benefits shall cease after five years of those benefits have been paid.
"Commissioner of the Minnesota Bureau of Mediation Services" or "Commissioner" means the commissioner of the bureau of Mediation Services.
The commissioner shall accept and investigate all petitions for:
(1) certification or decertification as the exclusive representative of an appropriate unit;
(2) mediation services;
(3) any election or other voting procedures provided for in sections 179A.01 to 179A.25;
(4) certification to the Board of arbitration; and
(5) fair share fee challenges, upon the receipt of a filing fee. The commissioner shall hear and decide all issues in a fair share fee challenge.
On or before July 1, 1992, and on or before July 1 of each of the next four years, and As necessary afterward, the commissioner shall develop a list of grade crossings proposed to be vacated. The list must be developed by applying the standards set forth in the rules adopted under section 219.073. Grade crossings that are part of an abandonment, closing, or removal may not be included in the list. The commissioner shall notify the public officials having the necessary authority and the railway companies operating the railroads of the proposed vacations. Either affected party may request a hearing. If requested, the commissioner shall hold a contested case hearing applying in the commissioner's determination the rules developed under section 219.073. If after the hearing the commissioner determines that the vacation is consistent with the standards adopted under section 219.073, the commissioner may order the crossing vacated. If a request for a hearing on a particular crossing is not received within 30 days of the publication in the State Register, the commissioner shall order the crossing vacated.
By December 31, 1993, The commissioner shall complete an inventory of all public and private grade crossings in the state and shall annually revise the inventory to reflect grade crossing changes made under this section.
It is unlawful for a common carrier, person, or corporation subject to sections 219.44 to 219.52 to permit the space between or beside tracks that is ordinarily used by employees in the discharge of their duties and is within 8-1/2 feet of the centerline of the track, to become or remain obstructed by a foreign obstacle that will interfere with the work of the employees or subject the employees to unnecessary hazard. This space between or beside the tracks and between the rails of the tracks must be kept in a condition as to permit the employees to pass over or between the tracks or to use the space day or night and under all weather conditions without unnecessary hazard.
For purposes of regulating commercial motor vehicles as defined in section 169.781, subdivision 1, the exemption provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 396.11, paragraph (d), applies in Minnesota only to driveaway-towaway operations.
Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 396, is incorporated by reference, except that sections 396.9; 396.11, paragraph (d); 396.17; 396.19; 396.21; and 396.23 of that part are not incorporated.
Except as provided in subdivisions 2 to 3, no person may transport or offer or accept for transportation within the state of Minnesota a hazardous material, hazardous substance, or hazardous waste except in compliance with United States Code, title 49, sections 5101 to 5126 and the provisions of Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, parts 171 to 199, which are incorporated by reference. Those provisions apply to transportation in intrastate commerce to the same extent they apply to transportation in interstate commerce.
A person who is subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, parts 171 through 185, shall immediately notify by telephone the Minnesota duty officer pursuant to section 115E.09 if any of the following events occur in Minnesota during the course of transportation in commerce:
(1) a hazardous materials incident as listed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 171.15, paragraph (b);
(2) an unintentional release of hazardous materials from a package as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 171.08; or
(3) a discovery of an undeclared hazardous material as defined by Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 171.08.
For special or extraordinary events, the commissioner may issue a prepaid temporary vehicle identification card to a permit or certificate holder subject to section 221.131, subdivision 2 or 3, for a fee of $5 per card. The card must be preprinted by the commissioner with the carrier's name, address, and permit or certificate number. The card may be used by the motor carrier to whom it is issued to identify a vehicle temporarily added to its fleet, if the vehicle has evidence of being inspected under section 221.0252, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (2), or under Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 396.17 or 396.23, paragraph (b)(1), which are incorporated by reference, within the previous 12 months, or has a current Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance decal. The card must be executed by the motor carrier by dating and signing the card and describing the vehicle in which it will be carried. The identification card is valid for a period of ten days from the date the motor carrier places on the card when the card is executed. The card must be used within one year from the date of issuance by the commissioner. The card may not be used if the permit or certificate is not in full force and effect. The card may not be transferred. The commissioner may not refund the cost of unused prepaid temporary vehicle identification cards.
Except as provided in subdivision 1d, the amount of insurance, bond, or other security required for motor carriers is the amount prescribed by order of the commissioner. The amount prescribed may from time to time be reduced or increased by order of the commissioner. The commissioner may, if desired by the petitioner, prescribe in lieu of the bond or insurance some other form of security as may be satisfactory. Each policy of insurance, surety bond, or other evidence of financial responsibility issued to a motor carrier or to an interstate carrier must be amended by attachment to the policy of the Uniform Motor Carrier Bodily Injury and Property Damage Liability Insurance Endorsement (Form F) prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 1023, or must by its terms provide coverage that conforms to the terms and conditions of that endorsement.
An interstate carrier must obtain insurance or bond in the minimum amounts prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 1043.2, paragraphs (a) and (b).
(a) Interstate carriers and private carriers engaged in interstate commerce shall comply with the federal motor carrier regulations in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, parts 40, 382, 383, 387, and 390 through 398, which are incorporated by reference, and with the rules of the commissioner concerning inspections, vehicle and driver out-of-service restrictions and requirements, and vehicle, driver, and equipment checklists. For purposes of regulating commercial motor vehicles as defined in section 169.781, subdivision 1, the exemption provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 396.11, paragraph (d), applies in Minnesota only to driveaway-towaway operations.
(b) An interstate carrier or private carrier engaged in interstate commerce who complies with federal regulations governing testing for controlled substances and alcohol is exempt from the requirements of sections 181.950 to 181.957 unless the carrier's drug testing program provides for testing for controlled substances in addition to those listed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 40.85. Persons subject to this section may test for drugs, in addition to those listed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, section 40.85, only in accordance with sections 181.950 to 181.957 and rules adopted under those sections.
The North American Uniform Driver, Vehicle, and Hazardous Materials Out-Of-Service Criteria developed and adopted by the Federal Highway Administration and the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance are adopted in Minnesota.
(a) The commissioner may expend money from the rail service improvement account for the following purposes:
(1) to make transfers as provided under section 222.57 or to pay interest adjustments on loans guaranteed under the state rail user and rail carrier loan guarantee program;
(2) to pay a portion of the costs of capital improvement projects designed to improve rail service of a rail user or a rail carrier;
(3) to pay a portion of the costs of rehabilitation projects designed to improve rail service of a rail user or a rail carrier;
(4) to acquire, maintain, manage, and dispose of railroad right-of-way pursuant to the state rail bank program;
(5) to provide for aerial photography survey of proposed and abandoned railroad tracks for the purpose of recording and reestablishing by analytical triangulation the existing alignment of the inplace track;
(6) to pay a portion of the costs of acquiring a rail line by a regional railroad authority established pursuant to chapter 398A;
(7) to pay the state matching portion of federal grants for rail-highway grade crossing improvement projects;
(8) for expenditures made before July 1, 2017, to pay the state matching portion of grants under the federal Transportation Investment Generating Economic Recovery (TIGER) program of the United States Department of Transportation;
(9) to fund rail planning studies; and
(10) to pay a portion of the costs of capital improvement projects designed to improve capacity or safety at rail yards.
(b) All money derived by the commissioner from the disposition of railroad right-of-way or of any other property acquired pursuant to sections 222.46 to 222.62 shall be deposited in the rail service improvement account.
"Lender" means any state or federally chartered bank, or in the case of revenue bonds issued under chapter 362A or 474, the municipality, county, or rural development financing authority.
If the loan money is obtained by the lender through the issuance of revenue bonds under chapter 362A or 474 the provisions of this subdivision shall apply upon default. If the borrower fails to make any payment under or as provided by the loan agreement and remains in default for a period of 15 days, the trustee designated by the lender shall send a notice of the default to the commissioner and to the borrower. After 90 days from the initial default if the borrower remains in default under the loan agreement, the trustee shall file a claim with the commissioner, identifying the loan and the nature of the default. Within ten days of the assignment, transfer, and delivery to the commissioner of all the lender's rights and interests arising under the loan and any other security interests securing the loan, the commissioner shall pay to the trustee from the account an amount equal to the outstanding unpaid principal indebtedness at the time of the default less ten percent, plus interest at six percent per annum from the date of default.
(a) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be studied under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, at least upon application for initial license for all license types.
(b) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be studied under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, including a child care background study subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, in a family child care program, licensed child care center, certified license-exempt child care center, or legal nonlicensed child care provider, on a schedule determined by the commissioner. Except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, a child care background study must include submission of fingerprints for a national criminal history record check and a review of the information under section 245C.08. A background study for a child care program must be repeated within five years from the most recent study conducted under this paragraph.
(c) At reapplication for a family child care license:
(1) for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child care center or legal nonlicensed child care provider, the individual shall provide information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the county agency, and be fingerprinted and photographed under section 245C.05, subdivision 5;
(2) the county agency shall verify the information received under clause (1) and forward the information to the commissioner to complete the background study; and
(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08.
(d) The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at the time of reapplication for a license if the individual's background study was completed by the commissioner of human services and the following conditions are met:
(1) a study of the individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when the individual became affiliated with the license holder;
(2) the individual has been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last study was conducted; and
(3) the last study of the individual was conducted on or after October 1, 1995.
(e) The commissioner of human services shall conduct a background study of an individual specified under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), who is newly affiliated with a child foster family setting license holder:
(1) the county or private agency shall collect and forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1 and 5, when the child foster family setting applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care services are provided; and
(2) the background study conducted by the commissioner of human services under this paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivisions 1, 3, and 4.
(f) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual specified under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), who is newly affiliated with an adult foster care or family adult day services and with a family child care license holder or a legal nonlicensed child care provider authorized under chapter 119B and:
(1) except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, the county shall collect and forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), and subdivision 5, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for all family adult day services, for adult foster care when the adult foster care license holder resides in the adult foster care residence, and for family child care and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B;
(2) the license holder shall collect and forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1, paragraphs (a) and (b); and 5, paragraphs (a) and (b), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for adult foster care when the license holder does not reside in the adult foster care residence; and
(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), and subdivisions 3 and 4.
(g) Applicants for licensure, license holders, and other entities as provided in this chapter must submit completed background study requests to the commissioner using the electronic system known as NETStudy before individuals specified in section 245C.03, subdivision 1, begin positions allowing direct contact in any licensed program.
(h) For an individual who is not on the entity's active roster, the entity must initiate a new background study through NETStudy when:
(1) an individual returns to a position requiring a background study following an absence of 120 or more consecutive days; or
(2) a program that discontinued providing licensed direct contact services for 120 or more consecutive days begins to provide direct contact licensed services again.
The license holder shall maintain a copy of the notification provided to the commissioner under this paragraph in the program's files. If the individual's disqualification was previously set aside for the license holder's program and the new background study results in no new information that indicates the individual may pose a risk of harm to persons receiving services from the license holder, the previous set-aside shall remain in effect.
(i) For purposes of this section, a physician licensed under chapter 147 or advanced practice registered nurse licensed under chapter 148 is considered to be continuously affiliated upon the license holder's receipt from the commissioner of health or human services of the physician's or advanced practice registered nurse's background study results.
(j) For purposes of family child care, a substitute caregiver must receive repeat background studies at the time of each license renewal.
(k) A repeat background study at the time of license renewal is not required if the family child care substitute caregiver's background study was completed by the commissioner on or after October 1, 2017, and the substitute caregiver is on the license holder's active roster in NETStudy 2.0.
(l) Before and after school programs authorized under chapter 119B, are exempt from the background study requirements under section 123B.03, for an employee for whom a background study under this chapter has been completed.
Notwithstanding section 252.28, subdivision 1, or any other law or rule to the contrary, the commissioner of human services shall deny any request for a determination of need and refuse to grant a license pursuant to section 245A.02 for any new intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities or for an increase in the licensed capacity of an existing facility except as provided in this subdivision and subdivision 2. The total number of certified intermediate care beds for persons with developmental disabilities in community facilities and state hospitals shall not exceed 7,000 beds except that, to the extent that federal authorities disapprove any applications of the commissioner for home and community-based waivers under United States Code, title 42, section 1396n, as amended through December 31, 1987, the commissioner may authorize new intermediate care beds, as necessary, to serve persons with developmental disabilities who would otherwise have been served under a proposed waiver. "Certified bed" means an intermediate care bed for persons with developmental disabilities certified by the commissioner of health for the purposes of the medical assistance program under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 to 1396p, as amended through December 31, 1987.
(a) The commissioner shall submit an annual report beginning March 15, 2022, and ending March 15, 2026, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and finance that includes the percentage for adults and children one through 20 years of age for the most recent complete calendar year receiving at least one dental visit for both fee-for-service and the prepaid medical assistance program. The report must include:
(1) statewide utilization for both fee-for-service and for the prepaid medical assistance program;
(2) utilization by county;
(3) utilization by children receiving dental services through fee-for-service and through a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan;
(4) utilization by adults receiving dental services through fee-for-service and through a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan.
(b) The report must also include a description of any corrective action plans required to be submitted under subdivision 2.
(c) The initial report due on March 15, 2022, must include the utilization metrics described in paragraph (a) for each of the following calendar years: 2017, 2018, 2019, and 2020.
(a) "Nonemergency medical transportation service" means motor vehicle transportation provided by a public or private person that serves Minnesota health care program beneficiaries who do not require emergency ambulance service, as defined in section 144E.001, subdivision 3, to obtain covered medical services.
(b) Medical assistance covers medical transportation costs incurred solely for obtaining emergency medical care or transportation costs incurred by eligible persons in obtaining emergency or nonemergency medical care when paid directly to an ambulance company, nonemergency medical transportation company, or other recognized providers of transportation services. Medical transportation must be provided by:
(1) nonemergency medical transportation providers who meet the requirements of this subdivision;
(2) ambulances, as defined in section 144E.001, subdivision 2;
(3) taxicabs that meet the requirements of this subdivision;
(4) public transit, as defined in section 174.22, subdivision 7; or
(5) not-for-hire vehicles, including volunteer drivers, as defined in section 65B.472, subdivision 1, paragraph (h).
(c) Medical assistance covers nonemergency medical transportation provided by nonemergency medical transportation providers enrolled in the Minnesota health care programs. All nonemergency medical transportation providers must comply with the operating standards for special transportation service as defined in sections 174.29 to 174.30 and Minnesota Rules, chapter 8840, and all drivers must be individually enrolled with the commissioner and reported on the claim as the individual who provided the service. All nonemergency medical transportation providers shall bill for nonemergency medical transportation services in accordance with Minnesota health care programs criteria. Publicly operated transit systems, volunteers, and not-for-hire vehicles are exempt from the requirements outlined in this paragraph.
(d) An organization may be terminated, denied, or suspended from enrollment if:
(1) the provider has not initiated background studies on the individuals specified in section 174.30, subdivision 10, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (3); or
(2) the provider has initiated background studies on the individuals specified in section 174.30, subdivision 10, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (3), and:
(i) the commissioner has sent the provider a notice that the individual has been disqualified under section 245C.14; and
(ii) the individual has not received a disqualification set-aside specific to the special transportation services provider under sections 245C.22 and 245C.23.
(e) The administrative agency of nonemergency medical transportation must:
(1) adhere to the policies defined by the commissioner in consultation with the Nonemergency Medical Transportation Advisory Committee;
(2) pay nonemergency medical transportation providers for services provided to Minnesota health care programs beneficiaries to obtain covered medical services;
(3) provide data monthly to the commissioner on appeals, complaints, no-shows, canceled trips, and number of trips by mode; and
(4) by July 1, 2016, in accordance with subdivision 18e, utilize a web-based single administrative structure assessment tool that meets the technical requirements established by the commissioner, reconciles trip information with claims being submitted by providers, and ensures prompt payment for nonemergency medical transportation services.
(f) Until the commissioner implements the single administrative structure and delivery system under subdivision 18e, clients shall obtain their level-of-service certificate from the commissioner or an entity approved by the commissioner that does not dispatch rides for clients using modes of transportation under paragraph (i), clauses (4), (5), (6), and (7).
(g) The commissioner may use an order by the recipient's attending physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or a medical or mental health professional to certify that the recipient requires nonemergency medical transportation services. Nonemergency medical transportation providers shall perform driver-assisted services for eligible individuals, when appropriate. Driver-assisted service includes passenger pickup at and return to the individual's residence or place of business, assistance with admittance of the individual to the medical facility, and assistance in passenger securement or in securing of wheelchairs, child seats, or stretchers in the vehicle.
Nonemergency medical transportation providers must take clients to the health care provider using the most direct route, and must not exceed 30 miles for a trip to a primary care provider or 60 miles for a trip to a specialty care provider, unless the client receives authorization from the local agency.
Nonemergency medical transportation providers may not bill for separate base rates for the continuation of a trip beyond the original destination. Nonemergency medical transportation providers must maintain trip logs, which include pickup and drop-off times, signed by the medical provider or client, whichever is deemed most appropriate, attesting to mileage traveled to obtain covered medical services. Clients requesting client mileage reimbursement must sign the trip log attesting mileage traveled to obtain covered medical services.
(h) The administrative agency shall use the level of service process established by the commissioner in consultation with the Nonemergency Medical Transportation Advisory Committee to determine the client's most appropriate mode of transportation. If public transit or a certified transportation provider is not available to provide the appropriate service mode for the client, the client may receive a onetime service upgrade.
(i) The covered modes of transportation are:
(1) client reimbursement, which includes client mileage reimbursement provided to clients who have their own transportation, or to family or an acquaintance who provides transportation to the client;
(2) volunteer transport, which includes transportation by volunteers using their own vehicle;
(3) unassisted transport, which includes transportation provided to a client by a taxicab or public transit. If a taxicab or public transit is not available, the client can receive transportation from another nonemergency medical transportation provider;
(4) assisted transport, which includes transport provided to clients who require assistance by a nonemergency medical transportation provider;
(5) lift-equipped/ramp transport, which includes transport provided to a client who is dependent on a device and requires a nonemergency medical transportation provider with a vehicle containing a lift or ramp;
(6) protected transport, which includes transport provided to a client who has received a prescreening that has deemed other forms of transportation inappropriate and who requires a provider: (i) with a protected vehicle that is not an ambulance or police car and has safety locks, a video recorder, and a transparent thermoplastic partition between the passenger and the vehicle driver; and (ii) who is certified as a protected transport provider; and
(7) stretcher transport, which includes transport for a client in a prone or supine position and requires a nonemergency medical transportation provider with a vehicle that can transport a client in a prone or supine position.
(j) The local agency shall be the single administrative agency and shall administer and reimburse for modes defined in paragraph (i) according to paragraphs (m) and (n) when the commissioner has developed, made available, and funded the web-based single administrative structure, assessment tool, and level of need assessment under subdivision 18e. The local agency's financial obligation is limited to funds provided by the state or federal government.
(k) The commissioner shall:
(1) in consultation with the Nonemergency Medical Transportation Advisory Committee, verify that the mode and use of nonemergency medical transportation is appropriate;
(2) verify that the client is going to an approved medical appointment; and
(3) investigate all complaints and appeals.
(l) The administrative agency shall pay for the services provided in this subdivision and seek reimbursement from the commissioner, if appropriate. As vendors of medical care, local agencies are subject to the provisions in section 256B.041, the sanctions and monetary recovery actions in section 256B.064, and Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.2160 to 9505.2245.
(m) Payments for nonemergency medical transportation must be paid based on the client's assessed mode under paragraph (h), not the type of vehicle used to provide the service. The medical assistance reimbursement rates for nonemergency medical transportation services that are payable by or on behalf of the commissioner for nonemergency medical transportation services are:
(1) $0.22 per mile for client reimbursement;
(2) up to 100 percent of the Internal Revenue Service business deduction rate for volunteer transport;
(3) equivalent to the standard fare for unassisted transport when provided by public transit, and $11 for the base rate and $1.30 per mile when provided by a nonemergency medical transportation provider;
(4) $13 for the base rate and $1.30 per mile for assisted transport;
(5) $18 for the base rate and $1.55 per mile for lift-equipped/ramp transport;
(6) $75 for the base rate and $2.40 per mile for protected transport; and
(7) $60 for the base rate and $2.40 per mile for stretcher transport, and $9 per trip for an additional attendant if deemed medically necessary.
(n) The base rate for nonemergency medical transportation services in areas defined under RUCA to be super rural is equal to 111.3 percent of the respective base rate in paragraph (m), clauses (1) to (7). The mileage rate for nonemergency medical transportation services in areas defined under RUCA to be rural or super rural areas is:
(1) for a trip equal to 17 miles or less, equal to 125 percent of the respective mileage rate in paragraph (m), clauses (1) to (7); and
(2) for a trip between 18 and 50 miles, equal to 112.5 percent of the respective mileage rate in paragraph (m), clauses (1) to (7).
(o) For purposes of reimbursement rates for nonemergency medical transportation services under paragraphs (m) and (n), the zip code of the recipient's place of residence shall determine whether the urban, rural, or super rural reimbursement rate applies.
(p) For purposes of this subdivision, "rural urban commuting area" or "RUCA" means a census-tract based classification system under which a geographical area is determined to be urban, rural, or super rural.
(q) The commissioner, when determining reimbursement rates for nonemergency medical transportation under paragraphs (m) and (n), shall exempt all modes of transportation listed under paragraph (i) from Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0445, item R, subitem (2).
The commissioner, in coordination with the commissioner of transportation, shall implement a single administrative structure and delivery system for nonemergency medical transportation, beginning the latter of the date the single administrative assessment tool required in this subdivision is available for use, as determined by the commissioner or by July 1, 2016.
In coordination with the Department of Transportation, the commissioner shall develop and authorize a web-based single administrative structure and assessment tool, which must operate 24 hours a day, seven days a week, to facilitate the enrollee assessment process for nonemergency medical transportation services. The web-based tool shall facilitate the transportation eligibility determination process initiated by clients and client advocates; shall include an accessible automated intake and assessment process and real-time identification of level of service eligibility; and shall authorize an appropriate and auditable mode of transportation authorization. The tool shall provide a single framework for reconciling trip information with claiming and collecting complaints regarding inappropriate level of need determinations, inappropriate transportation modes utilized, and interference with accessing nonemergency medical transportation. The web-based single administrative structure shall operate on a trial basis for one year from implementation and, if approved by the commissioner, shall be permanent thereafter. The commissioner shall seek input from the Nonemergency Medical Transportation Advisory Committee to ensure the software is effective and user-friendly and make recommendations regarding funding of the single administrative system.
The requirements for background studies under section 245I.011, subdivision 4, paragraph (d), may be met by a children's therapeutic services and supports services agency through the commissioner's NETStudy system as provided under sections 245C.03, subdivision 7, and 245C.10, subdivision 8.
(a) The rate for intensive rehabilitative mental health services does not include medical assistance payment for services in clauses (1) to (7). Services not covered under this paragraph may be billed separately:
(1) inpatient psychiatric hospital treatment;
(2) partial hospitalization;
(3) children's mental health day treatment services;
(4) physician services outside of care provided by a psychiatrist serving as a member of the treatment team;
(5) room and board costs, as defined in section 256I.03, subdivision 6;
(6) home and community-based waiver services; and
(7) other mental health services identified in the child's individualized education program.
(b) The following services are not covered under this section and are not eligible for medical assistance payment while youth are receiving intensive rehabilitative mental health services:
(1) mental health residential treatment; and
(2) mental health behavioral aide services, as defined in section 256B.0943, subdivision 1, paragraph (m).
The limitation in subdivision 2 shall not apply to:
(1) payment of Minnesota supplemental assistance funds to recipients who reside in facilities which are involved in litigation contesting their designation as an institution for treatment of mental disease;
(2) payment or grants to a boarding care home or supervised living facility licensed by the Department of Human Services under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0130 to 2960.0220, 2960.0580 to 2960.0700, or 9520.0500 to 9520.0670, or under chapter 245G or 245I, or payment to recipients who reside in these facilities;
(3) payments or grants to a boarding care home or supervised living facility which are ineligible for certification under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396-1396p;
(4) payments or grants otherwise specifically authorized by statute or rule.
(a) As determined by the commissioner, a provider of home and community-based services for the elderly under chapter 256S and section 256B.0913, home and community-based services for people with developmental disabilities under section 256B.092, and home and community-based services for people with disabilities under section 256B.49 shall submit data to the commissioner on the following:
(1) number of direct-care staff;
(2) wages of direct-care staff;
(3) hours worked by direct-care staff;
(4) overtime wages of direct-care staff;
(5) overtime hours worked by direct-care staff;
(6) benefits paid and accrued by direct-care staff;
(7) direct-care staff retention rates;
(8) direct-care staff job vacancies;
(9) amount of travel time paid;
(10) program vacancy rates; and
(11) other related data requested by the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner may adjust reporting requirements for a self-employed direct-care staff.
(c) For the purposes of this subdivision, "direct-care staff" means employees, including self-employed individuals and individuals directly employed by a participant in a consumer-directed service delivery option, providing direct service provision to people receiving services under this section. Direct-care staff does not include executive, managerial, or administrative staff.
(d) This subdivision also applies to a provider of personal care assistance services under section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a; community first services and supports under section 256B.85; nursing services and home health services under section 256B.0625, subdivision 6a; home care nursing services under section 256B.0625, subdivision 7; or day training and habilitation services for residents of intermediate care facilities for persons with developmental disabilities under section 256B.501.
(e) This subdivision also applies to financial management services providers for participants who directly employ direct-care staff through consumer support grants under section 256.476; the personal care assistance choice program under section 256B.0657, subdivisions 18 to 20; community first services and supports under section 256B.85; and the consumer-directed community supports option available under the alternative care program, the brain injury waiver, the community alternative care waiver, the community access for disability inclusion waiver, the developmental disabilities waiver, the elderly waiver, and the Minnesota senior health option, except financial management services providers are not required to submit the data listed in paragraph (a), clauses (7) to (11).
(f) The commissioner shall ensure that data submitted under this subdivision is not duplicative of data submitted under any other section of this chapter or any other chapter.
(g) A provider shall submit the data annually on a date specified by the commissioner. The commissioner shall give a provider at least 30 calendar days to submit the data. If a provider fails to submit the requested data by the date specified by the commissioner, the commissioner may delay medical assistance reimbursement until the requested data is submitted.
(h) Individually identifiable data submitted to the commissioner in this section are considered private data on an individual, as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 12.
(i) The commissioner shall analyze data annually for workforce assessments and how the data impact service access.
(a) A home and community-based service is eligible for reimbursement if:
(1) the service is provided according to a federally approved waiver plan as authorized under chapter 256S and sections 256B.0913, 256B.092, and 256B.49;
(2) if applicable, the service is provided on days and times during the days and hours of operation specified on any license required under chapter 245A or 245D; and
(3) the provider complies with subdivisions 12 to 15, if applicable.
(b) The provider must maintain documentation that, upon employment and annually thereafter, staff providing a service have attested to reviewing and understanding the following statement: "It is a federal crime to provide materially false information on service billings for medical assistance or services provided under a federally approved waiver plan as authorized under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 256S, and Minnesota Statutes, sections 256B.0913, 256B.092, and 256B.49."
(c) The department may recover payment according to section 256B.064 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.2160 to 9505.2245, for a service that does not satisfy this subdivision.
(a) By January 1, 2022, the managed care plans, county-based purchasing plans, and dental benefit administrators that contract with the commissioner or subcontract with plans to provide dental services to medical assistance or MinnesotaCare enrollees shall develop a uniform credentialing process for dental providers.
(b) The process developed in this subdivision must include a uniform credentialing application that must be available in electronic format and accessible on each plan or dental benefit administrator's website. The process developed under this subdivision must include an option to electronically submit a completed application. The uniform credentialing application must be available for free to providers.
(c) If applicable, a managed care plan, county-based purchasing plan, dental benefit administrator, contractor, or vendor that reviews and approves a credentialing application must notify a provider regarding a deficiency on a submitted credentialing application form no later than 30 business days after receiving the application form from the provider.
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, "dental benefits administrator" means an organization, including an organization licensed under chapter 62C or 62D, that contracts with a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan to provide covered dental care services to enrollees of the plan.
(e) This subdivision must be in compliance with the federal requirements for Medicaid and Basic Health Program provider enrollment.
The county board shall designate a prepayment coordinator to assist the state agency in implementing this section. Assistance must include educating recipients about available health care options, enrolling recipients under subdivision 5, providing necessary eligibility and enrollment information to health plans and the state agency, and coordinating complaints and appeals with the ombudsman established in subdivision 18.
"External fixed costs" means costs related to the nursing home surcharge under section 256.9657, subdivision 1; licensure fees under section 144.122; family advisory council fee under section 144A.33; scholarships under section 256R.37; planned closure rate adjustments under section 256R.40; consolidation rate adjustments under section 144A.071, subdivisions 4c, paragraph (a), clauses (5) and (6), and 4d; single-bed room incentives under section 256R.41; property taxes, special assessments, and payments in lieu of taxes; employer health insurance costs; quality improvement incentive payment rate adjustments under section 256R.39; performance-based incentive payments under section 256R.38; special dietary needs under section 256R.51; rate adjustments for compensation-related costs for minimum wage changes under section 256R.49 provided on or after January 1, 2018; Public Employees Retirement Association employer costs; and border city rate adjustments under section 256R.481.
"Special levies" means those portions of ad valorem taxes levied by a local governmental unit for the following purposes or in the following manner:
(1) to pay the costs of the principal and interest on bonded indebtedness or to reimburse for the amount of liquor store revenues used to pay the principal and interest due on municipal liquor store bonds in the year preceding the year for which the levy limit is calculated;
(2) to pay the costs of principal and interest on certificates of indebtedness issued for any corporate purpose except for the following:
(i) tax anticipation or aid anticipation certificates of indebtedness;
(ii) certificates of indebtedness issued under sections 298.28 and 298.282;
(iii) certificates of indebtedness used to fund current expenses or to pay the costs of extraordinary expenditures that result from a public emergency; or
(iv) certificates of indebtedness used to fund an insufficiency in tax receipts or an insufficiency in other revenue sources, provided that nothing in this subdivision limits the special levy authorized under section 475.755;
(3) to provide for the bonded indebtedness portion of payments made to another political subdivision of the state of Minnesota;
(4) to fund payments made to the Minnesota State Armory Building Commission under section 193.145, subdivision 2, to retire the principal and interest on armory construction bonds;
(5) property taxes approved by voters which are levied against the referendum market value as provided under section 275.61;
(6) to fund matching requirements needed to qualify for federal or state grants or programs to the extent that either (i) the matching requirement exceeds the matching requirement in calendar year 2001, or (ii) it is a new matching requirement that did not exist prior to 2002;
(7) to pay the expenses reasonably and necessarily incurred in preparing for or repairing the effects of natural disaster including the occurrence or threat of widespread or severe damage, injury, or loss of life or property resulting from natural causes, in accordance with standards formulated by the Emergency Services Division of the state Department of Public Safety, as allowed by the commissioner of revenue under section 275.74, subdivision 2;
(8) pay amounts required to correct an error in the levy certified to the county auditor by a city or county in a levy year, but only to the extent that when added to the preceding year's levy it is not in excess of an applicable statutory, special law or charter limitation, or the limitation imposed on the governmental subdivision by sections 275.70 to 275.74 in the preceding levy year;
(9) to pay an abatement under section 469.1815;
(10) to pay any costs attributable to increases in the employer contribution rates under chapter 353, or locally administered pension plans, that are effective after June 30, 2001;
(11) to pay the operating or maintenance costs of a county jail as authorized in section 641.01 or 641.262, or of a correctional facility as defined in section 241.021, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), to the extent that the county can demonstrate to the commissioner of revenue that the amount has been included in the county budget as a direct result of a rule, minimum requirement, minimum standard, or directive of the Department of Corrections, or to pay the operating or maintenance costs of a regional jail as authorized in section 641.262. For purposes of this clause, a district court order is not a rule, minimum requirement, minimum standard, or directive of the Department of Corrections. If the county utilizes this special levy, except to pay operating or maintenance costs of a new regional jail facility under sections 641.262 to 641.264 which will not replace an existing jail facility, any amount levied by the county in the previous levy year for the purposes specified under this clause and included in the county's previous year's levy limitation computed under section 275.71, shall be deducted from the levy limit base under section 275.71, subdivision 2, when determining the county's current year levy limitation. The county shall provide the necessary information to the commissioner of revenue for making this determination;
(12) to pay for operation of a lake improvement district, as authorized under section 103B.555. If the county utilizes this special levy, any amount levied by the county in the previous levy year for the purposes specified under this clause and included in the county's previous year's levy limitation computed under section 275.71 shall be deducted from the levy limit base under section 275.71, subdivision 2, when determining the county's current year levy limitation. The county shall provide the necessary information to the commissioner of revenue for making this determination;
(13) to repay a state or federal loan used to fund the direct or indirect required spending by the local government due to a state or federal transportation project or other state or federal capital project. This authority may only be used if the project is not a local government initiative;
(14) to fund a firefighters relief association as required under Laws 2013, chapter 111, article 5, sections 31 to 42, to the extent that the required amount exceeds the amount levied for this purpose in 2001;
(15) for purposes of a storm sewer improvement district under section 444.20;
(16) to pay for the maintenance and support of a city or county society for the prevention of cruelty to animals under section 343.11, but not to exceed in any year $4,800 or the sum of $1 per capita based on the county's or city's population as of the most recent federal census, whichever is greater. If the city or county uses this special levy, any amount levied by the city or county in the previous levy year for the purposes specified in this clause and included in the city's or county's previous year's levy limit computed under section 275.71, must be deducted from the levy limit base under section 275.71, subdivision 2, in determining the city's or county's current year levy limit;
(17) for counties, to pay for the increase in their share of health and human service costs caused by reductions in federal health and human services grants effective after September 30, 2007;
(18) for a city, for the costs reasonably and necessarily incurred for securing, maintaining, or demolishing foreclosed or abandoned residential properties, as allowed by the commissioner of revenue under section 275.74, subdivision 2. A city must have either (i) a foreclosure rate of at least 1.4 percent in 2007, or (ii) a foreclosure rate in 2007 in the city or in a zip code area of the city that is at least 50 percent higher than the average foreclosure rate in the metropolitan area, as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, to use this special levy. For purposes of this paragraph, "foreclosure rate" means the number of foreclosures, as indicated by sheriff sales records, divided by the number of households in the city in 2007;
(19) to pay costs attributable to wages and benefits for sheriff, police, and fire personnel. If a local governmental unit did not use this special levy in the previous year its levy limit base under section 275.71 shall be reduced by the amount equal to the amount it levied for the purposes specified in this clause in the previous year;
(20) an amount equal to any reductions in the certified aids or credit reimbursements payable under sections 477A.011 to 477A.014, and section 273.1384, due to unallotment under section 16A.152 or reductions under another provision of law. The amount of the levy allowed under this clause for each year is limited to the amount unallotted or reduced from the aids and credit reimbursements certified for payment in the year following the calendar year in which the tax levy is certified unless the unallotment or reduction amount is not known by September 1 of the levy certification year, and the local government has not adjusted its levy under section 275.065, subdivision 6, or 275.07, subdivision 6, in which case that unallotment or reduction amount may be levied in the following year;
(21) to pay for the difference between one-half of the costs of confining sex offenders undergoing the civil commitment process and any state payments for this purpose pursuant to section 253D.12;
(22) for a county to pay the costs of the first year of maintaining and operating a new facility or new expansion, either of which contains courts, corrections, dispatch, criminal investigation labs, or other public safety facilities and for which all or a portion of the funding for the site acquisition, building design, site preparation, construction, and related equipment was issued or authorized prior to the imposition of levy limits. The levy limit base shall then be increased by an amount equal to the new facility's first full year's operating costs as described in this clause; and
(23) for the estimated amount of reduction to market value credit reimbursements under section 273.1384 for credits payable in the year in which the levy is payable.
A taxpayer is allowed a miscellaneous deduction. The deduction equals the sum of the following amounts for the taxable year:
(1) impairment-related work expenses allowed under section 67(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(2) the deduction for estate tax under section 691(c) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(3) any deduction allowable in connection with personal property used in a short sale as described under section 67(b)(8);
(4) the deduction under section 1341 of the Internal Revenue Code;
(5) the deduction under section 72(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(6) the deduction under section 171 of the Internal Revenue Code; and
(7) the deduction under section 216 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(a) The amount required to make the refunds is annually appropriated to the commissioner.
(b) For fiscal years 2018 and 2019 only, revenues dedicated under the Minnesota Constitution, article XI, section 15, shall not be reduced for any portion of the refunds paid for the following exemptions:
(1) the exemption under section 297A.71, subdivision 44, paragraph (b);
(2) the expansion of the exemption under section 297A.68, subdivision 44, due to sections 2 and 3; and
(3) the exemptions in section 297A.71, subdivisions 49 and 50.
(a) Except as provided in this section, the commissioner shall deposit the revenues, including interest and penalties, derived from the taxes imposed by this chapter in the state treasury and credit them to the general fund.
(b) The commissioner shall deposit taxes in the Minnesota agricultural and economic account in the special revenue fund if:
(1) the taxes are derived from sales and use of property and services purchased for the construction and operation of an agricultural resource project; and
(2) the purchase was made on or after the date on which a conditional commitment was made for a loan guaranty for the project under section 41A.04, subdivision 3.
The commissioner of management and budget shall certify to the commissioner the date on which the project received the conditional commitment. The amount deposited in the loan guaranty account must be reduced by any refunds and by the costs incurred by the Department of Revenue to administer and enforce the assessment and collection of the taxes.
(c) The commissioner shall deposit the revenues, including interest and penalties, derived from the taxes imposed on sales and purchases included in section 297A.61, subdivision 3, paragraph (g), clauses (1) and (4), in the state treasury, and credit them as follows:
(1) first to the general obligation special tax bond debt service account in each fiscal year the amount required by section 16A.661, subdivision 3, paragraph (b); and
(2) after the requirements of clause (1) have been met, the balance to the general fund.
(d) Beginning with sales taxes remitted after July 1, 2017, the commissioner shall deposit in the state treasury the revenues collected under section 297A.64, subdivision 1, including interest and penalties and minus refunds, and credit them to the highway user tax distribution fund.
(e) The commissioner shall deposit the revenues, including interest and penalties, collected under section 297A.64, subdivision 5, in the state treasury and credit them to the general fund. By July 15 of each year the commissioner shall transfer to the highway user tax distribution fund an amount equal to the excess fees collected under section 297A.64, subdivision 5, for the previous calendar year.
(f) Beginning with sales taxes remitted after July 1, 2017, in conjunction with the deposit of revenues under paragraph (d), the commissioner shall deposit into the state treasury and credit to the highway user tax distribution fund an amount equal to the estimated revenues derived from the tax rate imposed under section 297A.62, subdivision 1, on the lease or rental for not more than 28 days of rental motor vehicles subject to section 297A.64. The commissioner shall estimate the amount of sales tax revenue deposited under this paragraph based on the amount of revenue deposited under paragraph (d).
(g) Starting after July 1, 2017, The commissioner shall deposit an amount of the remittances monthly into the state treasury and credit them to the highway user tax distribution fund as a portion of the estimated amount of taxes collected from the sale and purchase of motor vehicle repair parts in that month. For the remittances between July 1, 2017, and June 30, 2019, the monthly deposit amount is $2,628,000. For remittances in each subsequent fiscal year, The monthly deposit amount is $12,137,000. For purposes of this paragraph, "motor vehicle" has the meaning given in section 297B.01, subdivision 11, and "motor vehicle repair and replacement parts" includes (i) all parts, tires, accessories, and equipment incorporated into or affixed to the motor vehicle as part of the motor vehicle maintenance and repair, and (ii) paint, oil, and other fluids that remain on or in the motor vehicle as part of the motor vehicle maintenance or repair. For purposes of this paragraph, "tire" means any tire of the type used on highway vehicles, if wholly or partially made of rubber and if marked according to federal regulations for highway use.
(h) 72.43 percent of the revenues, including interest and penalties, transmitted to the commissioner under section 297A.65, must be deposited by the commissioner in the state treasury as follows:
(1) 50 percent of the receipts must be deposited in the heritage enhancement account in the game and fish fund, and may be spent only on activities that improve, enhance, or protect fish and wildlife resources, including conservation, restoration, and enhancement of land, water, and other natural resources of the state;
(2) 22.5 percent of the receipts must be deposited in the natural resources fund, and may be spent only for state parks and trails;
(3) 22.5 percent of the receipts must be deposited in the natural resources fund, and may be spent only on metropolitan park and trail grants;
(4) three percent of the receipts must be deposited in the natural resources fund, and may be spent only on local trail grants; and
(5) two percent of the receipts must be deposited in the natural resources fund, and may be spent only for the Minnesota Zoological Garden, the Como Park Zoo and Conservatory, and the Duluth Zoo.
(i) The revenue dedicated under paragraph (h) may not be used as a substitute for traditional sources of funding for the purposes specified, but the dedicated revenue shall supplement traditional sources of funding for those purposes. Land acquired with money deposited in the game and fish fund under paragraph (h) must be open to public hunting and fishing during the open season, except that in aquatic management areas or on lands where angling easements have been acquired, fishing may be prohibited during certain times of the year and hunting may be prohibited. At least 87 percent of the money deposited in the game and fish fund for improvement, enhancement, or protection of fish and wildlife resources under paragraph (h) must be allocated for field operations.
(j) The commissioner must deposit the revenues, including interest and penalties minus any refunds, derived from the sale of items regulated under section 624.20, subdivision 1, that may be sold to persons 18 years old or older and that are not prohibited from use by the general public under section 624.21, in the state treasury and credit:
(1) 25 percent to the volunteer fire assistance grant account established under section 88.068;
(2) 25 percent to the fire safety account established under section 297I.06, subdivision 3; and
(3) the remainder to the general fund.
For purposes of this paragraph, the percentage of total sales and use tax revenue derived from the sale of items regulated under section 624.20, subdivision 1, that are allowed to be sold to persons 18 years old or older and are not prohibited from use by the general public under section 624.21, is a set percentage of the total sales and use tax revenues collected in the state, with the percentage determined under Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, section 39.
(k) The revenues deposited under paragraphs (a) to (j) do not include the revenues, including interest and penalties, generated by the sales tax imposed under section 297A.62, subdivision 1a, which must be deposited as provided under the Minnesota Constitution, article XI, section 15.
Motor vehicles sold in contravention of section 168.27, subdivision 2, paragraph (a); 3; 6; or 10, paragraph (a), clause (1)(ii), shall not be considered to have been acquired or purchased for resale in the ordinary or regular course of business for the purposes of this chapter, and the seller shall be required to pay the excise tax due on the purchase of those vehicles. The sale by a lessor of a new motor vehicle under lease within 120 days of the commencement of the lease is deemed a sale in contravention of section 168.27, subdivision 10, paragraph (a), clause (1)(ii), unless the lessor holds a valid contract or franchise with the manufacturer or distributor of the vehicle. Notwithstanding section 297B.11, the rights of a dealer to appeal any amounts owed by the dealer under this subdivision are governed exclusively by the hearing procedure under section 168.27, subdivision 13.
It shall be unlawful for the motor vehicle registrar, deputy registrars, or any other public official or employee to divulge or otherwise make known in any manner any particulars disclosed in any purchaser's certificate or any information concerning affairs of any person making such certificate acquired from the purchaser's records, officers, or employees except in connection with state or federal tax proceedings or upon request of the person named on the certificate. Nothing herein contained should be construed to prohibit the publishing of statistics so classified as not to disclose the identity of particular purchasers' certificates and the contents thereof. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(a) The trust fund established by section 298.292 shall be invested pursuant to law by the State Board of Investment and the net interest, dividends, and other earnings arising from the investments shall be transferred, except as provided in paragraph (b), on the first day of each month to the trust and shall be included and become part of the trust fund. The amounts transferred are appropriated from the trust fund to the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation for deposit in a separate account for expenditure for the purposes set forth in section 298.292. Amounts appropriated pursuant to this section shall not cancel but shall remain available unless expended.
(b) To qualify for a grant or loan, a business must be currently operating and have been operating for one year immediately prior to its application for a loan or grant, and its corporate headquarters must be located in the taconite assistance area.
The state fire marshal shall maintain a record of arrests, charges filed, and final disposition of all fires reported and investigated under sections 299F.04 and 299F.05. For this purpose, the Department of Public Safety shall implement a single reporting system utilizing the systems operated by the fire marshal. The system must be operated in such a way as to minimize duplication and discrepancies in reported figures.
For the purposes of this section and the rules adopted pursuant to this section:
(a) "Blasting agent" means any material or mixture, consisting of a fuel and oxidizer, intended for blasting, not otherwise classified as an explosive and in which none of the ingredients is classified as an explosive; providing that, the finished product, as mixed and packaged for use or shipment, cannot be detonated by means of a number 8 test blasting cap when unconfined. "Blasting agent" does not include flammable liquids or flammable gases.
(b) "Explosive" means any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion. The term includes, but is not limited to, dynamite, black powder, pellet powder, initiating explosives, detonators, safety fuses, squibs, detonating cord, igniter cord, igniters, display fireworks, and class 1.3G fireworks (formerly classified as Class B special fireworks). "Explosive" includes any material determined to be within the scope of United States Code, title 18, chapter 40, and also includes any material classified as an explosive other than consumer fireworks, 1.4G (Class C, Common), by the hazardous materials regulations of the United States Department of Transportation (DOTn) in Code of Federal Regulations, title 49.
(c) Explosives are divided into four categories and are defined as follows:
(1) High explosive: explosive material, such as dynamite, that can be caused to detonate by means of a number eight test blasting cap when unconfined.
(2) Low explosive: explosive material that will burn or deflagrate when ignited, characterized by a rate of reaction that is less than the speed of sound, including, but not limited to, black powder, safety fuse, igniters, igniter cord, fuse lighters, class 1.3G fireworks (formerly classified as Class B special fireworks), and class 1.3C propellants.
(3) Mass-detonating explosives: division 1.1, 1.2, and 1.5 explosives alone or in combination, or loaded into various types of ammunition or containers, most of which can be expected to explode virtually instantaneously when a small portion is subjected to fire, severe concussion, impact, the impulse of an initiating agent, or the effect of a considerable discharge of energy from without. Materials that react in this manner represent a mass explosion hazard. Such an explosive will normally cause severe structural damage to adjacent objects. Explosive propagation could occur immediately to other items of ammunition and explosives stored sufficiently close to and not adequately protected from the initially exploding pile with a time interval short enough so that two or more quantities must be considered as one for quantity-distance purposes.
(4) United Nations/United States Department of Transportation (UN/DOTn) Class 1 explosives: the hazard class of explosives that further defines and categorizes explosives under the current system applied by DOTn for all explosive materials into further divisions as follows, with the letter G identifying the material as a pyrotechnic substance or article containing a pyrotechnic substance and similar materials:
(i) Division 1.1 explosives have a mass explosion hazard. A mass explosion is one that affects almost the entire load instantaneously.
(ii) Division 1.2 explosives have a projection hazard but not a mass explosion hazard.
(iii) Division 1.3 explosives have a fire hazard and either a minor blast hazard or a minor projection hazard or both, but not a mass explosion hazard.
(iv) Division 1.4 explosives pose a minor explosion hazard. The explosive effects are largely confined to the package and no projection of fragments of appreciable size or range is to be expected. An external fire must not cause virtually instantaneous explosion of almost the entire contents of the package.
(v) Division 1.5 explosives are very insensitive and are comprised of substances that have a mass explosion hazard, but are so insensitive that there is very little probability of initiation or of transition from burning to detonation under normal conditions of transport.
(vi) Division 1.6 explosives are extremely insensitive and do not have a mass explosion hazard, comprised of articles that contain only extremely insensitive detonating substances and that demonstrate a negligible probability of accidental initiation or propagation.
(a) The term "person" shall mean and include any person, persons, firm, firms, corporation, or corporations.
(b) The term "owner" shall mean and include (1) any person who holds a written bill of sale or other instrument under which title to the container was transferred to such person, (2) any person who holds a paid or receipted invoice showing purchase and payment of the container, (3) any person whose name, initials, mark, or other identifying device has been plainly and legibly stamped or otherwise shown upon the surface of the container for a period of not less than one year prior to the final enactment and approval of this section, or (4) any manufacturer of a container who has not sold or transferred ownership thereof by written bill of sale or otherwise.
(c) The term "liquefied petroleum gas" as used in this section shall mean and include any material which is composed predominantly of any of the following hydrocarbons or mixtures of the same: propane, propylene, butanes (normal butane and iso-butane), and butylenes.
(d) The term "industrial gas" as used in this section shall mean and include any material which is composed exclusively of any of the following gases or mixtures of them: oxygen, acetylene, nitrogen, argon, and carbon dioxide.
"Blasting agent" means any material or mixture (1) that consists of a fuel and oxidizer, (2) that is intended for blasting, (3) that is not otherwise classified as an explosive, (4) in which none of the ingredients is classified as an explosive, and (5) when a finished product, as mixed and packaged for use or shipment, that cannot be detonated by means of a number eight test blasting cap when unconfined. The term does not include flammable liquids or flammable gases.
Notwithstanding any provision of chapter 15 to the contrary, the Board of Firefighter Training and Education consists of the following members:
(1) five members representing the Minnesota State Fire Department Association, four of whom must be volunteer firefighters and one of whom may be a full-time firefighter, appointed by the governor;
(2) two members representing the Minnesota State Fire Chiefs Association, one of whom must be a volunteer fire chief, appointed by the governor;
(3) two members representing the Minnesota Professional Firefighters Association, appointed by the governor;
(4) two members representing Minnesota home rule charter and statutory cities, appointed by the governor;
(5) two members representing Minnesota towns, appointed by the governor;
(6) the commissioner of public safety or the commissioner's designee; and
(7) one public member not affiliated or associated with any member or interest represented in clauses (1) to (6), appointed by the governor.
The Minnesota State Fire Department Association shall recommend five persons to be the members described in clause (1), the Minnesota State Fire Chiefs Association shall recommend two persons to be the members described in clause (2), the Minnesota Professional Firefighters Association shall recommend two persons to be the members described in clause (3), the League of Minnesota Cities shall recommend two persons to be the members described in clause (4), and the Minnesota Association of Townships shall recommend two persons to be the members described in clause (5). In making the appointments the governor shall try to achieve representation from all geographic areas of the state.
A shareholder of a corporation or the member of a limited liability company may dissent from, and obtain payment for the fair value of the shareholder's shares or the member's membership interests pursuant to sections 302A.471 and 302A.473, or section 322B.383 or 322B.386, in the event of an election of public benefit corporation status pursuant to this section.
(a) No licensee may sell intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor on-sale between the hours of 1:00 a.m. and 2:00 a.m. unless the licensee has obtained a permit from the commissioner. Application for the permit must be on a form the commissioner prescribes. Permits are effective for one year from date of issuance. For retailers of intoxicating liquor, the fee for the permit is based on the licensee's gross receipts from on-sales of alcoholic beverages in the 12 months prior to the month in which the permit is issued, and is at the following rates:
(1) up to $100,000 in gross receipts, $300;
(2) over $100,000 but not over $500,000 in gross receipts, $750; and
(3) over $500,000 in gross receipts, $1,000.
For a licensed retailer of intoxicating liquor who did not sell intoxicating liquor at on-sale for a full 12 months prior to the month in which the permit is issued, the fee is $200. For a retailer of 3.2 percent malt liquor, the fee is $200.
(b) The commissioner shall deposit all permit fees received under this subdivision in the alcohol enforcement account in the general fund.
(c) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the commissioner of revenue may furnish to the commissioner the information necessary to administer and enforce this subdivision.
The enhanced augmentation rates specified in subdivision 1 do not apply if the terminated hospital employee:
(1) becomes covered again by a retirement plan enumerated in section 356.30, subdivision 3, on or before June 30, 2015; or
(2) begins receipt of a retirement annuity under chapter 352 before age 62 while employed by the employer which assumed operations of the medical facility or other public employing unit or purchased the medical facility or other public employing unit.
(a) Annually, the executive director shall determine the funding requirements of each account in the lump-sum retirement division of the statewide volunteer firefighter plan on or before August 1. The funding requirements computed under this subdivision must be determined using a mathematical procedure developed and certified as accurate by the approved actuary retained by the Public Employees Retirement Association and must be based on present value factors using a six percent interest rate, without any decrement assumptions. The funding requirements must be certified to the entity or entities associated with the fire department whose active firefighters are covered by the retirement plan.
(b) The overall funding balance of each lump-sum account for the current calendar year must be determined in the following manner:
(1) The total accrued liability for all active and deferred members of the account as of December 31 of the current year must be calculated based on the good time service credit of active and deferred members as of that date.
(2) The total present assets of the account projected to December 31 of the current year, including receipts by and disbursements from the account anticipated to occur on or before December 31, must be calculated. To the extent possible, the market value of assets must be utilized in making this calculation.
(3) The amount of the total present assets calculated under clause (2) must be subtracted from the amount of the total accrued liability calculated under clause (1). If the amount of total present assets exceeds the amount of the total accrued liability, then the account is considered to have a surplus over full funding. If the amount of the total present assets is less than the amount of the total accrued liability, then the account is considered to have a deficit from full funding. If the amount of total present assets is equal to the amount of the total accrued liability, then the special fund is considered to be fully funded.
(c) The financial requirements of each lump-sum account for the following calendar year must be determined in the following manner:
(1) The total accrued liability for all active and deferred members of the account as of December 31 of the calendar year next following the current calendar year must be calculated based on the good time service used in the calculation under paragraph (b), clause (1), increased by one year.
(2) The increase in the total accrued liability of the account for the following calendar year over the total accrued liability of the account for the current year must be calculated.
(3) The amount of administrative expenses of the account must be calculated by multiplying the per-person dollar amount of the administrative expenses for the most recent prior calendar year by the number of active and deferred firefighters reported to PERA on the most recent good time service credit certification form for each account.
(4) If the account is fully funded, the financial requirement of the account for the following calendar year is the total of the amounts calculated under clauses (2) and (3).
(5) If the account has a deficit from full funding, the financial requirement of the account for the following calendar year is the total of the amounts calculated under clauses (2) and (3) plus an amount equal to one-tenth of the amount of the deficit from full funding of the account.
(6) If the account has a surplus over full funding, the financial requirement of the account for the following calendar year is the financial requirement of the account calculated as though the account was fully funded under clause (4) and, if the account has also had a surplus over full funding during the prior two years, additionally reduced by an amount equal to one-tenth of the amount of the surplus over full funding of the account.
(d) The required contribution of the entity or entities associated with the fire department whose active firefighters are covered by the lump-sum retirement division is the annual financial requirements of the lump-sum account of the retirement plan under paragraph (c) reduced by the amount of any fire state aid payable under chapter 477B or police and firefighter retirement supplemental state aid payable under section 423A.022 that is reasonably anticipated to be received by the retirement plan attributable to the entity or entities during the following calendar year, and an amount of interest on the assets projected to be received during the following calendar year calculated at the rate of six percent per annum. The required contribution must be allocated between the entities if more than one entity is involved. A reasonable amount of anticipated fire state aid is an amount that does not exceed the fire state aid actually received in the prior year multiplied by the factor 1.035.
(e) The required contribution calculated in paragraph (d) must be paid to the retirement plan on or before December 31 of the year for which it was calculated. If the contribution is not received by the retirement plan by December 31, it is payable with interest at an annual compound rate of six percent from the date due until the date payment is received by the retirement plan. If the entity does not pay the full amount of the required contribution, the executive director shall collect the unpaid amount under section 353.28, subdivision 6.
For purposes of this section, "normal retirement age" means normal retirement age as defined in United States Code, title 42, section 416(1), as amended.
A document should conform to the standards in section 507.093, paragraph (a), but should not be rejected unless the document is not legible or cannot be archived. This subdivision applies only to documents dated after July 31, 1997, and does not apply to Minnesota uniform conveyancing blanks on file in the office of the commissioner of commerce provided for under section 507.09, certified copies, or any other form provided for under Minnesota Statutes.
(a) No airport zoning regulations shall be adopted, amended, or changed under sections 360.011 to 360.076, except by action of the governing body of the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board under section 360.0655 or 360.0656, or the boards provided for in section 360.063, subdivisions 3 and 7, or by the commissioner as provided in subdivisions 6 and 8.
(b) A public hearing must be held on the airport zoning regulations proposed by a municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board before they are submitted to the commissioner for approval. If any changes that alter the regulations placed on a parcel of land are made to the proposed airport zoning regulations after the initial public hearing, the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board must hold a second public hearing before final adoption of the regulation. The commissioner may require a second hearing as determined necessary.
(c) Notice of a hearing must be published by the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board at least three times during the period between 15 days and five days before the hearing in an official newspaper and in a second newspaper designated by that authority which has a wide general circulation in the area affected by the proposed regulations and posted on the municipality's, county's, or joint airport zoning board's website. If there is not a second newspaper of wide general circulation in the area that the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board can designate for the notice, the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board is only required to publish the notice once in the official newspaper of the jurisdiction. The notice shall not be published in the legal notice section of a newspaper. The notice must specify the time, location, and purpose of the hearing, and must identify any additional location and time the proposed regulations will be available for public inspection. A copy of the published notice must be added to the record of the proceedings.
(d) Notice of a hearing must be given by mail at least ten days before each hearing to persons and landowners where the location or size of a building, or the density of population, will be regulated. Mailed notice must also be provided at least ten days before each hearing to persons or municipalities that have previously requested such notice from the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board. The notice must specify the time, location, and purpose of the hearing, and must identify any additional location and time the proposed regulations will be made available for public inspection. Mailed notice must also identify the property affected by the regulations. For the purpose of providing mailed notice, the municipality, county, or joint airport zoning board may use any appropriate records to determine the names and addresses of owners. A copy of the notice and a list of the owners and addresses to which the notice was sent must be added to the records of the proceedings. Failure to provide mailed notice to individual property owners or a defect in the notice does not invalidate the proceedings if a bona fide attempt to comply with this subdivision was made.
Every person who:
(1) operates an aircraft either on or over land or water in this state without the consent of the owner of such aircraft;
(2) operates aircraft while in the possession of any federal license, certificate, or permit or any certificate of registration issued by the Transportation Department of this state, or displays, or causes or permits to be displayed, such federal license, certificate, or permit or such state certificate of registration, knowing either to have been canceled, revoked, suspended, or altered;
(3) lends to, or knowingly permits the use of by, one not entitled thereto of any federal airman's or aircraft license, certificate, or permit, or any state airman's or aircraft certificate of registration issued to that person;
(4) displays or represents as the person's own any federal airman's or aircraft license, certificate, or permit or any state airman's or aircraft certificate of registration not issued to that person;
(5) tampers with, climbs upon or into, makes use of, or navigates any aircraft without the knowledge or consent of the owner or person having control thereof, whether while the same is in motion or at rest, or hurls stones or any other missiles at aircraft, or the occupants thereof, or otherwise damages or interferes with the same, or places upon any portion of any airport any object, obstruction, or other device tending to injure aircraft or parts thereof;
(6) uses a false or fictitious name, gives a false or fictitious address, knowingly makes any false statement or report, or knowingly conceals a material fact, or otherwise commits a fraud in any application or form required under the provisions of sections 360.011 to 360.076, or by any rules or orders of the commissioner;
(7) operates any aircraft in such a manner as to indicate either a willful or a wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property;
(8) carries on or over land or water in this state in an aircraft other than a public aircraft any explosive substance except as permitted by the Federal Explosives Act, being the Act of October 6, 1917, as amended by Public Law 775, 77th Congress, approved November 24, 1942;
(9) discharges a gun, pistol, or other weapon in or from any aircraft in this state except as the hunting of certain wild animals from aircraft may be permitted by other laws of this state, or unless the person is the pilot or officer in command of the aircraft or a peace officer or a member of the military or naval forces of the United States, engaged in the performance of duty;
(10) carries in any aircraft, other than a public aircraft, any shotgun, rifle, pistol, or small arms ammunition except in the manner in which such articles may be lawfully carried in motor vehicles in this state, or is a person excepted from the provisions of clause (9);
(11) engages in acrobatic or stunt flying without being equipped with a parachute and without providing any other occupants of the aircraft with parachutes and requiring that they be worn;
(12) while in flying over a thickly inhabited area or over a public gathering in this state, engages in trick or acrobatic flying or in any acrobatic feat;
(13) except while in landing or taking off, flies at such low levels as to endanger persons on the surface beneath, or engages in advertising through the playing of music or transcribed or oral announcements, or makes any noise with any siren, horn, whistle, or other audible device which is not necessary for the normal operation of the aircraft, except that sound amplifying devices may be used in aircraft when operated by or under the authority of any agency of the state or federal government for the purpose of giving warning or instructions to persons on the ground;
(14) drops any object, except loose water, loose fuel, or loose sand ballast, without the prior written consent of the commissioner of transportation and the prior written consent of the municipality or property owner where objects may land; drops objects from an aircraft that endanger person or property on the ground, or drops leaflets for any purpose whatsoever; or
(15) while in flight in an aircraft, whether as a pilot, passenger, or otherwise, endangers, kills, or attempts to kill any birds or animals or uses any aircraft for the purpose of concentrating, driving, rallying, or stirring up migratory waterfowl;
except as may be permitted by other laws of this state, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor.
(a) Before any expenditure of any of the money appropriated pursuant to this section to assist political subdivisions, municipalities, and public corporations in acquiring, constructing, improving, maintaining, and operating airports and other air navigation facilities may be authorized, the commissioner of transportation shall have made, with the approval of the governor, an order designating the municipalities and airports which are a part of the key airport system, the intermediate airport system, the landing strip system, and the state system of radio and navigational aids, in accordance with the definitions and limitations stated in subdivision 3.
(b) The commissioner may use state airports fund money to provide the state's matching portion required to participate in the federal essential air service program under United States Code, title 49 App., sections 1301 to 1551, as amended by the Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987, Public Law 100-223, section 202.
(a) Annually by June 1, the commissioner of transportation shall establish local contribution rates which will apply to a political subdivision, municipality, or public corporation when applying for state or federal funding assistance to construct, improve, maintain, or operate an airport, or to acquire land for airport facilities or clear zones. If the commissioner does not establish local contribution rates by June 1, the previous rates apply.
(b) The commissioner may pay all costs beyond the local contribution. Local contribution rates shall not be less than five percent of the total cost of the activity or acquisition, except that the commissioner may require less than five percent for research projects, radio or navigational aids, activities, or acquisitions for which federal funds are available to cover more than 90 percent of the total cost, or as otherwise necessary to respond to an emergency.
(c) The commissioner's establishment of local contribution rates is not subject to the rulemaking requirements of chapter 14.
(d) To receive aid under this section, the municipality must enter into an agreement with the commissioner giving assurance that the airport will be operated and maintained in a safe, serviceable manner for aeronautical purposes only for the use and benefit of the public:
(1) for 20 years after the date the municipality receives any state funds for construction or improvement costs; and
(2) for 99 years after the date the municipality receives any state funds for land acquisition costs. If any land acquired with state funds ceases to be used for aviation purposes, the municipality shall repay the state airports fund the same percentage of the appraised value of the property as that percentage of the costs of acquisition and participation provided by the state to acquire the land.
The agreement may contain other conditions as the commissioner deems reasonable.
(e) The commissioner shall establish a hangar construction revolving account, which shall be used for the purpose of financing the construction of hangar buildings to be constructed by municipalities owning airports. All municipalities owning airports are authorized to enter into contracts for the construction of hangars, and contracts with the commissioner for the financing of hangar construction for an amount and period of time as may be determined by the commissioner and municipality. All receipts from the financing contracts shall be deposited in the hangar construction revolving account and are reappropriated for the purpose of financing construction of hangar buildings. The commissioner shall transfer up to $4,400,000 from the state airports fund to the hangar construction revolving account.
(f) The commissioner may contribute to costs incurred by any municipality for airport maintenance and operations, safety equipment, and airport snow removal.
(g) This subdivision applies only to project costs or acquisition costs of municipally owned airports incurred after June 1, 1971.
All aircraft using the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof, except as set forth in section 360.55, shall be taxed in lieu of all other taxes thereon, on the basis and at the rate for the period January 1, 1966, to June 30, 1967, and for each fiscal year as follows.
Every aircraft subject to the provisions of sections 360.511 to 360.67 which has at any time since April 19, 1945, used the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof shall be taxed for the period from January 1, 1966, through June 30, 1967, and for each fiscal year thereafter in which it is so used. Any aircraft which does not use the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof at any time during the period of January 1, 1966, to and including June 30, 1967, or at any time during any fiscal year thereafter shall not be subject to the tax provided by sections 360.511 to 360.67 for such period. Rebuilt aircraft shall be subject to the tax provided by sections 360.511 to 360.67 for that portion of the aforesaid periods remaining after the aircraft has been rebuilt, prorated on a monthly basis.
Every aircraft shall be presumed to be one using the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof, and thence subject to taxation under sections 360.511 to 360.67, if such aircraft has prior to the effective date of Laws 1945, chapter 411, used such air space or airports, or shall actually use them or if it shall come into the possession of an owner in this state, other than a manufacturer, dealer, warehouse operator, mortgagee, or pledgee and it shall be the burden of the owner thereof to prove that said aircraft has not in fact used the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof in order to avoid the payment of the tax as required herein.
Subject to the exceptions set forth in section 360.532, any aircraft owned by a nonresident of this state and transiently or temporarily using the air space overlying this state or the airports thereof shall be exempt from taxation under the provisions of sections 360.511 to 360.67 unless it uses the air space overlying this state or the airports thereof for more than 60 days in the tax period of January 1, 1966, to and including June 30, 1967, or any fiscal year thereafter. The operation of an aircraft in the air space overlying this state or the use of airports within this state for any purpose at any time during one day shall be considered as use for one complete day. Aircraft owned by nonresidents, on the ground at an airport in this state for major repairs, shall not be considered as using the airports of this state while being repaired and while awaiting return to the nonresident owner; provided however, such waiting period shall not exceed 60 days from completion of the repairs.
Any aircraft owned and used solely in the transaction of official business by any unit of the Civil Air Patrol created by Public Law 476, 79th Congress, Public Law 557, 80th Congress, or acts amendatory thereto, whether or not the title to the aircraft is retained by the federal government or vested in such unit unconditionally, is exempt from the provisions of sections 360.54 to 360.57 requiring the payment of tax, but all such aircraft must be registered as required by sections 360.54 to 360.57.
Every aircraft not exempted by sections 360.54 and 360.55 shall be registered as required by this act whether or not said aircraft is being used in the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or on the airports thereof. Aircraft which have become damaged, are unairworthy and not in flying condition, and which have not in fact used the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof during the period January 1, 1966, to and including June 30, 1967, or during any fiscal year thereafter, shall not be subject to the tax provided by this act for such tax periods; provided the owner of such aircraft shall with the application for registration file with the commissioner a signed statement describing the aircraft, its condition, and the reason for such aircraft not being in operating condition, and furnish such other information as may be necessary for the commissioner to determine that the aircraft is not in fact using the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof. Any false statement willfully and knowingly made in regard thereto shall be deemed a perjury and punished accordingly. Upon receipt of such application together with the statement required herein, the commissioner shall issue to such owner a certificate which shall state thereon that the tax has not been paid and that the aircraft shall not use the air space overlying the state of Minnesota or the airports thereof until the tax required by this act has been paid.
The tax for that period January 1, 1966, to and including June 30, 1967, and for each fiscal year, shall be due and payable July 1, and a penalty shall be assessed upon the expiration of ten days after July 1 of that fiscal year, unless paid.
Except as provided herein the tax upon any aircraft which has been paid for any year, shall be refunded only for errors made in computing the tax or fees or for the error on the part of an owner who may in error have registered an aircraft that was not before, nor at the time of such registration, nor at any time thereafter during the tax period, subject to such tax in this state; provided that after more than 24 months after such tax was paid no refund shall be made for any tax paid on any aircraft. Refunds as provided by sections 360.511 to 360.67 shall be made in the manner provided by Laws 1947, chapter 416. The former owner of a transferred aircraft by an assignment in writing endorsed upon the former owner's registration certificate and delivered to the commissioner within the time provided herein may sell and assign to the new owner thereof the right to have the tax paid by the former owner accredited to such new owner who duly registers such aircraft. Any owner whose aircraft shall be destroyed or permanently removed from the state shall be entitled to a refund for the unused portion of the tax paid upon the aircraft so destroyed or removed from the state, such refund to be computed pro rata by the month, and to be equal to the monthly tax rate multiplied by the number of full calendar months remaining in the fiscal year, or multiplied by the number of full calendar months remaining in that period between January 1, 1966, to and including June 30, 1967, whichever period is applicable.
In order to secure such refund, the aircraft owner shall submit a signed statement that such aircraft has either been sold out of state or destroyed, the date of such sale or destruction, and such other information as the commissioner may require. Any false statement willfully and knowingly made in regard thereto shall be deemed a perjury and punished accordingly. No refund shall be made if application is not made within 12 months after the date the aircraft was sold out of state or destroyed.
In territory for which zoning regulations have been adopted pursuant to sections 360.061 to 360.074, no permit from the commissioner is required. Regulations effective on the effective date of Laws 1959, chapter 387, or which become effective subsequent to that date shall control the erection, addition to the height of, or replacement of a structure. No person may erect, add to the height of, or replace any structure except as allowed by those zoning regulations.
No permit is required for structures existing or authorized by an agency of the federal government prior to the effective date of Laws 1959, chapter 387. No change in the rules of the commissioner and no relocation or alteration of an airport imposes a new restriction on any structure existing or authorized by an agency of the federal government at the time of the change, relocation, or alteration.
No permit shall be issued to erect, or add to the height of any structure which will extend more than 1,000 feet above the highest point of land within a one mile radius from the location of the structure, except as hereinafter provided, or shall any person erect, or add to the height of any structure for which a permit is required that exceeds the height allowed by the permit.
The commissioner may issue a permit to erect or add to a structure which will extend to a height of more than 1,000 feet above the highest point of land within a one mile radius from the location of the structure proposed to be erected or added to if such proposed structure will not be higher than 50 feet above the height of the highest structure in existence on the effective date of Laws 1959, chapter 387, which is within a distance of one mile from the location of the structure proposed to be erected or added to.
Sections 360.81 to 360.91 do not apply to a structure for which an erection permit is required by the federal government.
(a) The provisions of chapter 10A apply to political committees as defined in section 10A.01, subdivision 27; political funds as defined in section 10A.01, subdivision 28; and independent expenditures as defined in section 10A.01, subdivision 18, related to:
(1) a campaign for the nomination or election of a candidate for:
(i) a county office in Hennepin County;
(ii) a city office in a home rule charter or statutory city located wholly within Hennepin County with a population of 75,000 or more; or
(iii) the school board in Special School District No. 1; and
(2) a ballot question or proposition that may be voted on by:
(i) all voters in Hennepin County;
(ii) all voters of a home rule charter or statutory city located wholly within Hennepin County and having a population of 75,000 or more; or
(iii) all voters in Special School District No. 1.
(b) The provisions of chapter 211A apply to a campaign for nomination or election for an office in the following political subdivisions:
(1) a home rule or statutory city located wholly within Hennepin County and having a population of less than 75,000; and
(2) a school district located wholly within Hennepin County other than Special School District No. 1.
(c) The provisions of chapter 211A apply to a ballot question or proposition that may be voted on by:
(1) all voters of a home rule or statutory city located wholly within Hennepin County and having a population of less than 75,000; and
(2) all voters of a school district located wholly within Hennepin County other than Special School District No. 1.
That part of Fort Snelling Reservation in the 32nd legislative district of the state of Minnesota shall constitute one precinct for the electors resident therein. The county board of Hennepin County shall provide for and designate a polling place for this precinct, which may be within the municipality of Richfield.
"Wireless telecommunications service" means a commercial mobile radio service, as that term is defined in United States Code, title 47, section 332, subsection (d), including all broadband personal communication services, wireless radio telephone services, and geographic area specialized mobile radio licensees, that offer real-time, two-way voice service interconnected with the public switched telephone network.
Each county or any other governmental agency shall maintain and update its 911 system plans as required under Minnesota Rules, chapter 1215.
In 911 systems that have been approved by the commissioner for a local location identification database, each wire-line telecommunications service provider shall provide current customer names, service addresses, and telephone numbers to each public safety answering point within the 911 system and shall update the information according to a schedule prescribed by the county 911 plan. Information provided under this subdivision must be provided in accordance with the transactional record disclosure requirements of the federal Communications Act of 1932, United States Code, title 47, section 222, subsection (g).
The Metropolitan Council shall sell and issue the bonds in the manner provided in chapter 475 and shall have the same powers and duties as a municipality issuing bonds under that law, except that the approval of a majority of the electors shall not be required and the net debt limitations shall not apply. The bonds shall be secured in accordance with section 475.61, subdivision 1, and any taxes required for their payment shall be levied by the council, shall not affect the amount or rate of taxes which may be levied by the council for other purposes, and shall be levied without limitation of rate or amount upon all taxable property in the transit taxing district and transit area as provided in section 473.446, subdivision 1.
Where a regional radio board has been established in accordance with this section, local governments and other public entities eligible under part 90 of the FCC rules to operate upon a statewide, shared public safety radio and communication system within the region covered by the regional radio board must coordinate its implementation through one of the parties to the joint powers agreement. For purposes of grants made available by the Department of Public Safety, a regional radio board is entitled to apply for, receive, and administer grants on behalf of one or more public safety entities operating within the counties who are a party to the joint powers agreement.
The definitions in this subdivision apply in this section.
(a) "Municipality" means a home rule charter or statutory city or a town that is not in an orderly annexation process on October 3, 1989.
(b) "Governing body" means the town board with respect to towns.
(c) "Waterworks" means waterworks systems, including mains, valves, hydrants, service connections, wells, pumps, reservoirs, tanks, treatment plants, and other appurtenances of a waterworks system.
(d) "Sanitary sewer" means sanitary sewer systems, including sewage treatment works, disposal systems, and other facilities for disposing of sewage, industrial waste, or other wastes.
(e) "Storm sewer" means storm sewer systems, including mains, holding areas and ponds, and other appurtenances and related facilities for the collection and disposal of storm water.
(f) "Facilities" means and includes waterworks, sanitary sewer and storm sewer systems, or any portion or portions thereof.
For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "court official" means a judge, referee, court administrator, prosecutor, probation officer, or victim's advocate, whether employed by or under contract with the court, who is authorized to act on behalf of the court;
(2) "qualified third party" means a person, acting in an official capacity, who has had in-person contact with the tenant and is:
(i) a licensed health care professional operating within the scope of the license;
(ii) a domestic abuse advocate, as that term is defined in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (l); or
(iii) a sexual assault counselor, as that term is defined in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (k);
(3) "qualifying document" means:
(i) a valid order for protection issued under chapter 518B;
(ii) a no contact order currently in effect, issued under section 629.75 or chapter 609;
(iii) a writing produced and signed by a court official, acting in an official capacity, documenting that the tenant or authorized occupant is a victim of domestic abuse, as that term is defined under section 518B.01, subdivision 2, criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451, sexual extortion under section 609.3458, or harassment, as that term is defined under section 609.749, subdivision 1, and naming the perpetrator, if known;
(iv) a writing produced and signed by a city, county, state, or tribal law enforcement official, acting in an official capacity, documenting that the tenant or authorized occupant is a victim of domestic abuse, as that term is defined under section 518B.01, subdivision 2, criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451, sexual extortion under section 609.3458, or harassment, as that term is defined under section 609.749, subdivision 1, and naming the perpetrator, if known; or
(v) a statement by a qualified third party, in the following form:
STATEMENT BY QUALIFIED THIRD PARTY
I, .................... (name of qualified third party), do hereby verify as follows:
1. I am a licensed health care professional, domestic abuse advocate, as that term is defined in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (l), or sexual assault counselor, as that term is defined in section 595.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (k), who has had in-person contact with .................... (name of victim(s)).
2. I have a reasonable basis to believe .................... (name of victim(s)) is a victim/are victims of domestic abuse, criminal sexual conduct, sexual extortion, or harassment and fear(s) imminent violence against the individual or authorized occupant if the individual remains (the individuals remain) in the leased premises.
3. I understand that the person(s) listed above may use this document as a basis for gaining a release from the lease.
I attest that the foregoing is true and correct.
(Printed name of qualified third party)
(Signature of qualified third party)
(Business address and business telephone)
(a) The court shall require a background study under this section:
(1) before the appointment of a guardian or conservator, unless a background study has been done on the person under this section within the previous five years; and
(2) once every five years after the appointment, if the person continues to serve as a guardian or conservator.
(b) The background study must include:
(1) criminal history data from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, other criminal history data held by the commissioner of human services, and data regarding whether the person has been a perpetrator of substantiated maltreatment of a vulnerable adult or minor;
(2) criminal history data from a national criminal history record check as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 13c; and
(3) state licensing agency data if a search of the database or databases of the agencies listed in subdivision 2a shows that the proposed guardian or conservator has ever held a professional license directly related to the responsibilities of a professional fiduciary from an agency listed in subdivision 2a that was conditioned, suspended, revoked, or canceled.
(c) If the guardian or conservator is not an individual, the background study must be done on all individuals currently employed by the proposed guardian or conservator who will be responsible for exercising powers and duties under the guardianship or conservatorship.
(d) If the court determines that it would be in the best interests of the person subject to guardianship or conservatorship to appoint a guardian or conservator before the background study can be completed, the court may make the appointment pending the results of the study, however, the background study must then be completed as soon as reasonably possible after appointment, no later than 30 days after appointment.
(e) The fee for background studies conducted under this section is specified in section 245C.10, subdivision 14. The fee for conducting a background study for appointment of a professional guardian or conservator must be paid by the guardian or conservator. In other cases, the fee must be paid as follows:
(1) if the matter is proceeding in forma pauperis, the fee is an expense for purposes of section 524.5-502, paragraph (a);
(2) if there is an estate of the person subject to guardianship or conservatorship, the fee must be paid from the estate; or
(3) in the case of a guardianship or conservatorship of the person that is not proceeding in forma pauperis, the court may order that the fee be paid by the guardian or conservator or by the court.
(f) The requirements of this subdivision do not apply if the guardian or conservator is:
(1) a state agency or county;
(2) a parent or guardian of a person proposed to be subject to guardianship or conservatorship who has a developmental disability, if the parent or guardian has raised the person proposed to be subject to guardianship or conservatorship in the family home until the time the petition is filed, unless counsel appointed for the person proposed to be subject to guardianship or conservatorship under section 524.5-205, paragraph (d); 524.5-304, paragraph (b); 524.5-405, paragraph (a); or 524.5-406, paragraph (b), recommends a background study; or
(3) a bank with trust powers, bank and trust company, or trust company, organized under the laws of any state or of the United States and which is regulated by the commissioner of commerce or a federal regulator.
In any civil action or proceeding either party may challenge the panel, or individual jurors thereon, for the same causes and in the same manner as in criminal trials, except that the number of peremptory challenges to be allowed on either side shall be as provided in this section. Before challenging a juror, either party may examine the juror in reference to qualifications to sit as a juror in the cause. A sufficient number of jurors shall be called in the action so that six shall remain after the exercise of the peremptory challenges as provided in this section, and to provide alternate jurors when ordered by the court under rule 47.02 of the Rules of Civil Procedure. Each party shall be entitled to two peremptory challenges, which shall be made alternately beginning with the defendant. The parties to the action shall be deemed two, all plaintiffs being one party, and all defendants being the other party, except, in case two or more defendants have adverse interests, the court, if satisfied that the due protection of their interests so requires, may allow the defendant or defendants on each side of the adverse interests not to exceed two peremptory challenges. When the peremptory challenges have been exhausted or declined, the first six of the remaining jurors shall constitute the jury.
(a) For the development and expansion of mentoring, induction, and retention programs designed for teachers of color or American Indian teachers under Minnesota Statutes, section 122A.70:
(b) Any balance does not cancel but is available in the following fiscal year.
(c) The base appropriation for grants under Minnesota Statutes, section 122A.70, for fiscal year 2024 and later is $2,996,000, of which at least $2,330,000 each fiscal year must be granted for the development and expansion of mentoring, induction, and retention programs designed for teachers of color or American Indian teachers.
(d) The board may retain up to three percent of the appropriation amount to monitor and administer the grant program.
Beginning with rental agreements signed on August 1, 1994, or after, The park owner shall give a copy of the signed rental agreement to each resident with a copy of the evacuation or shelter plan attached. In addition, for existing leases, by August 15, 1994, the park owner shall provide each resident with a copy of the park evacuation or shelter plan.
A "Class I manufactured home park" means a park that complies with the provisions of section 327C.16.
"Eligible mortgagor" means a nonprofit or cooperative housing corporation; the Department of Administration for the purpose of developing community-based programs as defined in section 252.50; a limited profit entity or a builder as defined by the agency in its rules, which sponsors or constructs residential housing as defined in subdivision 7; or a natural person of low or moderate income, except that the return to a limited dividend entity shall not exceed 15 percent of the capital contribution of the investors or such lesser percentage as the agency shall establish in its rules, provided that residual receipts funds of a limited dividend entity may be used for agency-approved, housing-related investments owned by the limited dividend entity without regard to the limitation on returns. Owners of existing residential housing occupied by renters shall be eligible for rehabilitation loans, only if, as a condition to the issuance of the loan, the owner agrees to conditions established by the agency in its rules relating to rental or other matters that will insure that the housing will be occupied by persons and families of low or moderate income. The agency shall require by rules that the owner give preference to those persons of low or moderate income who occupied the residential housing at the time of application for the loan.
It may establish such rules as may be necessary to insure that priority for assistance by the agency will be given to projects located in municipal jurisdictions or counties, which have adopted the uniform State Building Code.
It may establish and enforce such rules as may be necessary to insure compliance with chapter 363A, and to insure that occupancy of housing assisted under this chapter shall be open to all persons, and that contractors and subcontractors engaged in the construction of such housing shall provide an equal opportunity for employment to all persons, without discrimination as to race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, and status with regard to public assistance or disability.
(a) It may engage in housing programs for low- and moderate-income American Indians developed and administered separately or in combination by the Minnesota Chippewa tribe, the Red Lake band of Chippewa Indians, and the Sioux communities as determined by such tribe, band, or communities. In furtherance of the policy of economic integration stated in section 462A.02, subdivision 6, it may engage in housing programs for American Indians who intend to reside on reservations and who are not persons of low and moderate income, provided that the aggregate dollar amount of the loans for persons who are not of low- or moderate-income closed in each lender's fiscal year shall not exceed an amount equal to 25 percent of the total dollar amount of all loans closed by that lender during the same fiscal year. In developing such housing programs, the tribe, band, or communities shall take into account the housing needs of all American Indians residing both on and off reservations within the state. A plan for each such program, which specifically describes the program content, utilization of funds, administration, operation, implementation and other matter, as determined by the agency, must be submitted to the agency for its review and approval prior to the making of eligible loans pursuant to section 462A.21. All such programs must conform to rules promulgated by the agency concerning program administration, including but not limited to rules concerning costs of administration; the quality of housing; interest rates, fees, and charges in connection with making eligible loans; and other matters determined by the agency to be necessary in order to effectuate the purposes of this subdivision and section 462A.21, subdivisions 4b and 4c. All such programs must provide for a reasonable balance in the distribution of funds appropriated for the purpose of this section between American Indians residing on and off reservations within the state. Nothing in this section shall preclude such tribe, band, or communities from requesting and receiving cooperation, advice, and assistance from the agency as regards program development, operation, delivery, financing, or administration. As a condition to the making of such eligible loans, the Minnesota Chippewa tribe, the Red Lake band of Chippewa Indians, and the Sioux communities shall:
(1) enter into a loan agreement and other contractual arrangements with the agency for the purpose of transferring the allocated portion of loan funds and to insure compliance with the provisions of this section and this chapter; and
(2) agree that all of their official books and records related to such housing programs shall be subjected to audit by the legislative auditor in the manner prescribed for agencies of state government.
The agency shall submit a biennial report concerning the various housing programs for American Indians, and related receipts and expenditures as provided in section 462A.22, subdivision 9, and such tribe, band, or communities to the extent that they administer such programs, shall be responsible for any costs and expenses related to such administration provided, however, they shall be eligible for payment for costs, expenses, and services pursuant to subdivision 12 and section 462A.21. The agency may provide or cause to be provided essential general technical services as set forth in subdivision 2, and general consultative project assistance services, including, but not limited to, management training, and home ownership counseling as set forth in subdivision 3. Members of boards, committees, or other governing bodies of the tribe, band, and communities administering the programs authorized by this subdivision must be compensated for those services as provided in section 15.0575.
(b) The agency may engage in demonstration projects to encourage the participation of financial institutions or other leveraging sources in providing housing opportunities for American Indians. The agency shall consult with the Minnesota Chippewa tribe, the Red Lake band of Chippewa Indians, and the Sioux communities in developing the demonstration projects. The income limits specified in paragraph (a) do not apply to the demonstration projects.
(c) The agency may make home improvement loans under this subdivision without regard to household income.
It may make rehabilitation grants and expenditures for correction of residential housing defects as provided in section 462A.05, subdivisions 15 and 16. In order to insure the preservation of the maximum number of housing units with the money appropriated by the legislature, grants shall be recovered by the agency to the extent provided in this section to be used for future grants. Grants made under the terms of this subdivision shall contain a requirement that the grant be recovered by the agency in accordance with the following schedule:
(1) if the property is sold, transferred, or otherwise conveyed within the first three years after the date of a grant, the recipient shall repay the full amount of the grant;
(2) if the property is sold, transferred, or otherwise conveyed within the fourth year after the date of a grant, the recipient shall repay 75 percent of the amount of the grant;
(3) if the property is sold, transferred, or otherwise conveyed within the fifth year after the date of a grant, the recipient shall repay 50 percent of the amount of the grant;
(4) if the property is sold, transferred, or otherwise conveyed within the sixth year after the date of a grant, the recipient shall repay 25 percent of the amount of the grant;
(5) if the property is sold, transferred, or otherwise conveyed within the seventh year after the date of the grant, or thereafter, there is no repayment requirement; provided that no repayment is required to the extent that the grants are made to improve the accessibility of residential housing to a disabled occupant.
Access to health records is governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298.
Access to classified tax data for certain vendors performing services for the Department of Revenue is governed under section 270B.13.
(a) Crime victim notice of release. Data on crime victims who request notice of an offender's release are classified under section 611A.06.
(b) Sex offender HIV tests. Results of HIV tests of sex offenders under section 611A.19, subdivision 2, are classified under that section.
(c) Battered women. Data on battered women maintained by grantees for emergency shelter and support services for battered women are governed by section 611A.32, subdivision 5.
(d) Victims of domestic abuse. Data on battered women and victims of domestic abuse maintained by grantees and recipients of per diem payments for emergency shelter for battered women and support services for battered women and victims of domestic abuse are governed by sections 611A.32, subdivision 5, and 611A.371, subdivision 3.
(e) Personal history; internal auditing. Certain personal history and internal auditing data is classified by section 611A.46.
(f) Crime victim claims for reparations. Claims and supporting documents filed by crime victims seeking reparations are classified under section 611A.57, subdivision 6.
(g) Crime Victim Oversight Act. Data maintained by the commissioner of public safety under the Crime Victim Oversight Act are classified under section 611A.74, subdivision 2.
(h) Victim identity data. Data relating to the identity of the victims of certain criminal sexual conduct is governed by section 609.3471.
(i) Victim notification. Data on victims requesting a notice of release of an arrested or detained person are classified under sections 629.72 and 629.73.
Presented to the governor May 10, 2022
Signed by the governor May 12, 2022, 9:47 a.m.
Official Publication of the State of Minnesota
Revisor of Statutes