Key: (1) language to be deleted (2) new language
An act
relating to state government; providing law for judiciary, public safety, crime, sentencing, evidence, courts, law enforcement, firearms, controlled substances, corrections, clemency, expungement, rehabilitation and reinvestment, civil law, community supervision, supervised release, and human rights; providing for rulemaking; providing for reports; providing for criminal and civil penalties; appropriating money for judiciary, Guardian ad Litem Board, Uniform Laws Commission, Board on Judicial Standards, human rights, sentencing guidelines, public safety, fire marshal, Office of Justice programs, emergency communication, Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, Private Detective Board, corrections, Ombudsperson for Corrections, Board of Public Defense, juvenile justice, and law enforcement education and training;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 13.072, subdivision 1; 13.32, subdivisions 3, 5; 13.643, subdivision 6; 13.72, subdivision 19, by adding a subdivision; 13.825, subdivisions 2, 3; 13.871, subdivisions 8, 14; 13A.02, subdivisions 1, 2; 15.0597, subdivisions 1, 4, 5, 6; 51A.14; 82B.195, subdivision 3; 121A.28; 144.6586, subdivision 2; 145.4712; 145A.061, subdivision 3; 146A.08, subdivision 1; 151.01, by adding a subdivision; 151.40, subdivisions 1, 2; 152.01, subdivisions 12a, 18, by adding a subdivision; 152.02, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 6; 152.021, subdivisions 1, 2; 152.022, subdivisions 1, 2; 152.023, subdivision 2; 152.025, subdivision 2; 152.093; 152.18, subdivision 1; 152.205; 168B.07, subdivision 3, by adding subdivisions; 169A.276, subdivision 1; 169A.40, subdivision 3; 169A.41, subdivisions 1, 2; 169A.44; 169A.60, subdivision 2; 169A.63, subdivision 8; 171.306, by adding a subdivision; 181.981, subdivision 1; 214.10, subdivision 10; 241.01, subdivision 3a; 241.021, subdivisions 1d, 2a, 2b, by adding a subdivision; 241.025, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 241.90; 242.18; 243.05, subdivision 1; 243.1606; 243.166, subdivision 1b; 243.58; 244.03; 244.05, subdivisions 1b, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, by adding subdivisions; 244.0513, subdivisions 2, 4; 244.09, subdivisions 2, 3, by adding a subdivision; 244.101, subdivision 1; 244.17, subdivision 3; 244.171, subdivision 4; 244.172, subdivision 1; 244.18; 244.19; 244.195; 244.197; 244.198; 244.199; 244.1995; 244.20; 244.21; 244.24; 245C.08, subdivisions 1, 2; 245C.15, subdivisions 1, 2, 4a; 245C.24, subdivision 3; 245I.12, subdivision 1; 253B.02, subdivision 4e; 253D.02, subdivision 8; 256I.04, subdivision 2g; 259.11; 259.13, subdivisions 1, 5; 260.515; 260B.171, subdivision 3; 260B.176, by adding a subdivision; 297I.06, subdivision 1; 299A.296; 299A.38; 299A.41, subdivisions 3, 4, by adding a subdivision; 299A.48; 299A.49; 299A.50; 299A.51; 299A.52; 299A.642, subdivision 15; 299A.73, by adding a subdivision; 299A.783, subdivision 1; 299A.85, subdivision 6; 299C.063; 299C.10, subdivision 1; 299C.105, subdivision 1; 299C.106, subdivision 3; 299C.11, subdivisions 1, 3; 299C.111; 299C.17; 299C.46, subdivision 1; 299C.53, subdivision 3; 299C.65, subdivisions 1a, 3a; 299C.67, subdivision 2; 299F.362; 299F.46, subdivision 1; 299F.50, by adding subdivisions; 299F.51, subdivisions 1, 2, 5, by adding a subdivision; 325F.70, by adding a subdivision; 325F.992, subdivision 3; 326.32, subdivision 10; 326.3311; 326.336, subdivision 2; 326.3361, subdivision 2; 326.3381, subdivision 3; 326.3387, subdivision 1; 336.9-601; 351.01, subdivision 2; 357.021, subdivision 2; 363A.02, subdivision 1; 363A.03, subdivisions 23, 44, by adding a subdivision; 363A.04; 363A.06, subdivision 1; 363A.07, subdivision 2; 363A.08, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, by adding a subdivision; 363A.09, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4; 363A.11, subdivisions 1, 2; 363A.12, subdivision 1; 363A.13, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4; 363A.15; 363A.16, subdivision 1; 363A.17; 363A.21, subdivision 1; 364.021; 364.06, subdivision 1; 401.01; 401.02; 401.025; 401.03; 401.04; 401.05, subdivision 1; 401.06; 401.08; 401.09; 401.10; 401.11; 401.12; 401.14; 401.15; 401.16; 473.387, subdivision 4; 484.014, subdivisions 2, 3; 484.85; 504B.135; 504B.161, subdivision 1; 504B.171, by adding a subdivision; 504B.172; 504B.178, subdivision 4; 504B.211, subdivisions 2, 6; 504B.285, subdivision 5; 504B.291, subdivision 1; 504B.301; 504B.321; 504B.331; 504B.335; 504B.345, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 504B.361, subdivision 1; 504B.371, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, 7; 504B.375, subdivision 1; 504B.381, subdivisions 1, 5, by adding a subdivision; 507.07; 508.52; 517.04; 517.08, subdivisions 1a, 1b; 518.191, subdivisions 1, 3; 541.023, subdivision 6; 550.365, subdivision 2; 559.209, subdivision 2; 573.01; 573.02, subdivisions 1, 2; 582.039, subdivision 2; 583.25; 583.26, subdivision 2; 600.23; 609.02, subdivisions 2, 16; 609.03; 609.05, by adding a subdivision; 609.066, subdivision 2; 609.102; 609.105, subdivisions 1, 3; 609.1055; 609.106, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 609.1095, subdivision 1; 609.11, subdivision 9; 609.135, subdivisions 1a, 1c, 2; 609.14, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 609.185; 609.2231, subdivision 4; 609.2233; 609.25, subdivision 2; 609.2661; 609.269; 609.341, subdivision 22; 609.3455, subdivisions 2, 5; 609.35; 609.52, subdivision 3; 609.526, subdivision 2; 609.527, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 609.531, subdivision 1; 609.5314, subdivision 3; 609.582, subdivisions 3, 4; 609.595, subdivisions 1a, 2; 609.631, subdivision 4; 609.632, subdivision 4; 609.67, subdivisions 1, 2; 609.746, subdivision 1; 609.749, subdivision 3; 609.78, subdivision 2a; 609.821, subdivision 3; 609.87, by adding a subdivision; 609.89; 609A.01; 609A.02, subdivision 3; 609A.03, subdivisions 5, 7a, 9; 609B.161; 611.215, subdivision 1; 611.23; 611.58, as amended; 611A.03, subdivision 1; 611A.031; 611A.033; 611A.036, subdivision 7; 611A.039, subdivision 1; 611A.08, subdivision 6; 611A.211, subdivision 1; 611A.31, subdivisions 2, 3, by adding a subdivision; 611A.32; 611A.51; 611A.52, subdivisions 3, 4, 5; 611A.53; 611A.54; 611A.55; 611A.56; 611A.57, subdivisions 5, 6; 611A.60; 611A.61; 611A.612; 611A.66; 611A.68, subdivisions 2a, 4, 4b, 4c; 617.22; 617.26; 624.712, subdivision 5; 624.713, subdivision 1; 624.7131; 624.7132; 626.14, subdivisions 2, 3, by adding a subdivision; 626.15; 626.21; 626.5531, subdivision 1; 626.843, by adding a subdivision; 626.8432, subdivision 1; 626.8451, subdivision 1; 626.8452, by adding subdivisions; 626.8457, by adding subdivisions; 626.8469, subdivision 1; 626.8473, subdivision 3; 626.87, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, by adding a subdivision; 626.89, subdivision 17; 626.90, subdivision 2; 626.91, subdivisions 2, 4; 626.92, subdivisions 2, 3; 626.93, subdivisions 3, 4; 626A.05, subdivision 2; 626A.35, by adding a subdivision; 628.26; 629.292, subdivision 2; 629.341, subdivisions 3, 4; 629.361; 629.72, subdivision 6; 638.01; 641.15, subdivision 2; 641.155; Laws 1961, chapter 108, section 1, as amended; Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 11, article 1, section 15, subdivision 3; Laws 2022, chapter 99, article 1, section 50; article 3, section 1, as amended; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 13; 145; 241; 243; 244; 259; 260C; 299A; 299C; 401; 484; 504B; 573; 609; 609A; 624; 626; 638; 641; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 152.092; 241.272; 244.14; 244.15; 244.196; 244.22; 244.32; 299C.80, subdivision 7; 346.02; 363A.20, subdivision 3; 363A.27; 401.07; 504B.305; 504B.341; 518B.02, subdivision 3; 582.14; 609.293, subdivisions 1, 5; 609.34; 609.36; 617.20; 617.201; 617.202; 617.21; 617.28; 617.29; 626.93, subdivision 7; 638.02; 638.03; 638.04; 638.05; 638.06; 638.07; 638.075; 638.08.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
Section 1.APPROPRIATIONS. |
The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are appropriated to the agencies and for the purposes specified in this article. The appropriations are from the general fund, or another named fund, and are available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2024" and "2025" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under them are available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2024, or June 30, 2025, respectively. "The first year" is fiscal year 2024. "The second year" is fiscal year 2025. "The biennium" is fiscal years 2024 and 2025.
APPROPRIATIONS | ||||||
Available for the Year | ||||||
Ending June 30 | ||||||
2024 | 2025 |
Sec. 2.SUPREME COURT |
Subdivision 1.Total Appropriation |
$ | 80,141,000 | $ | 82,624,000 |
The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following subdivisions.
Subd. 2.Supreme Court Operations |
46,581,000 | 49,064,000 |
(a) Contingent Account
$5,000 each year is for a contingent account for expenses necessary for the normal operation of the court for which no other reimbursement is provided.
(b) Justices' Compensation
Justices' compensation is increased by eight percent in the first year and four percent in the second year.
Subd. 3.Civil Legal Services |
33,560,000 | 33,560,000 |
The general fund base is $34,167,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
Legal Services to Low-Income Clients in Family Law Matters
$1,017,000 each year is to improve the access of low-income clients to legal representation in family law matters. This appropriation must be distributed under Minnesota Statutes, section 480.242, to the qualified legal services program described in Minnesota Statutes, section 480.242, subdivision 2, paragraph (a). Any unencumbered balance remaining in the first year does not cancel and is available in the second year.
Sec. 3.COURT OF APPEALS |
$ | 14,559,000 | $ | 15,259,000 |
Judges' Compensation
Judges' compensation is increased by eight percent in the first year and four percent in the second year.
Sec. 4.DISTRICT COURTS |
$ | 370,910,000 | $ | 381,590,000 |
(a) Judges' Compensation
Judges' compensation is increased by eight percent in the first year and four percent in the second year.
(b) Court Case Backlog
$4,200,000 the first year is to address the court case backlog.
(c) Mandated Psychological Services
$1,500,000 each year is for mandated psychological services. This is a onetime appropriation.
(d) New Treatment Courts
$422,000 each year is to fund four new treatment courts.
(e) Courtroom Technology Enhancements
$7,400,000 the first year is for courtroom technology enhancements.
(f) Law Clerk Salary
$2,033,000 each year is to increase district court law clerks' salaries. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.285, the court must not transfer this appropriation.
(g) Interpreter Pay
$200,000 each year is to fund the increase in the hourly fee paid to contract interpreters.
(h) Extreme Risk Protection Orders
$91,000 the first year and $182,000 the second year are to implement the provisions of article 14.
Sec. 5.GUARDIAN AD LITEM BOARD |
$ | 24,358,000 | $ | 25,620,000 |
Sec. 6.TAX COURT |
$ | 2,133,000 | $ | 2,268,000 |
Sec. 7.UNIFORM LAWS COMMISSION |
$ | 115,000 | $ | 115,000 |
Sec. 8.BOARD ON JUDICIAL STANDARDS |
$ | 655,000 | $ | 645,000 |
(a) Availability of Appropriation
If the appropriation for either year is insufficient, the appropriation for the other fiscal year is available.
(b) Major Disciplinary Actions
$125,000 each year is for special investigative and hearing costs for major disciplinary actions undertaken by the board. This appropriation does not cancel. Any unencumbered and unspent balances remain available for these expenditures through June 30, 2027.
Sec. 9.BOARD OF PUBLIC DEFENSE |
$ | 154,884,000 | $ | 164,360,000 |
Sec. 10.HUMAN RIGHTS |
$ | 8,048,000 | $ | 8,429,000 |
The general fund base is $8,909,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(a) Civil Rights Enforcement
$1,500,000 each year is for increased civil rights enforcement. The base for this appropriation is $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2026 and thereafter.
(b) Mediator Payments
$20,000 each year is to fund payments to mediators. This appropriation is onetime and is available through June 30, 2027.
(c) Report on Civil Rights Trends
$395,000 the first year and $250,000 the second year are to analyze and report on civil rights trends in Minnesota.
Sec. 11.OFFICE OF APPELLATE COUNSEL AND TRAINING |
$ | 659,000 | $ | 1,560,000 |
Establishment and Operations
$659,000 the first year and $1,560,000 the second year are for establishment and operation of the Statewide Office of Appellate Counsel and Training as described in Minnesota Statutes, section 260C.419, and to provide support for the State Board of Appellate Counsel and Training.
Sec. 12.DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES |
$ | 1,500,000 | $ | -0- |
Child Advocacy Center
$1,500,000 the first year is for a grant to First Witness Child Advocacy Center for the acquisition and improvement of properties located at 1402, 1406, and 1412 East 2nd Street in the city of Duluth. This appropriation includes money for demolition of the building located at 1412 East 2nd Street and construction of a parking lot, and for renovation, furnishing, and equipping of the buildings located at 1402 and 1406 East 2nd Street as a training center and a child advocacy center. These funds are available until June 30, 2027.
(a) By January October 1, 2023, the board must recommend a competency attainment curriculum to educate and assist defendants found incompetent in attaining the ability to:
(1) rationally consult with counsel;
(2) understand the proceedings; and
(3) participate in the defense.
(b) The curriculum must be flexible enough to be delivered in community and correctional settings by individuals with various levels of education and qualifications, including but not limited to professionals in criminal justice, health care, mental health care, and social services. The board must review and update the curriculum as needed.
By January October 1, 2023, the board must develop a process for certifying individuals to deliver the competency attainment curriculum and make the curriculum available to every competency attainment program and forensic navigator in the state. Each competency attainment program in the state must use the competency attainment curriculum under this section as the foundation for delivering competency attainment education and must not substantially alter the content.
Sections 26 to 37 are effective July April 1, 2023 2024, and apply to competency determinations initiated on or after that date.
The general fund appropriation base for the commissioner of corrections is $202,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $202,000 in fiscal year 2025 for correctional facilities inspectors.
The general fund appropriation base for the district courts is $5,042,000 $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $5,042,000 in fiscal year 2025 for costs associated with additional competency examination costs.
The general fund appropriation base for the State Competency Attainment Board is $11,350,000 $3,515,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $10,900,000 in fiscal year 2025 for staffing and other costs needed to establish and perform the duties of the State Competency Attainment Board, including providing educational services necessary to assist defendants in attaining competency, or contracting or partnering with other organizations to provide those services.
Section 1.APPROPRIATIONS. |
The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are appropriated to the agencies and for the purposes specified in this article. The appropriations are from the general fund, or another named fund, and are available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2024" and "2025" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under them are available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2024, or June 30, 2025, respectively. "The first year" is fiscal year 2024. "The second year" is fiscal year 2025. "The biennium" is fiscal years 2024 and 2025. Appropriations for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2023, are effective the day following final enactment.
APPROPRIATIONS | ||||||
Available for the Year | ||||||
Ending June 30 | ||||||
2023 | 2024 | 2025 |
Sec. 2.SENTENCING GUIDELINES |
$ | 1,549,000 | $ | 1,488,000 |
(a) Analysis of Sentencing-Related Data
$125,000 the first year and $124,000 the second year are to expand analysis of sentencing-related data.
(b) Small Agency Resource Team (SmART)
$50,000 each year is for the commission's accounting, budgeting, and human resources to be provided by the Department of Administration's small agency resource team.
(c) Court Information System Integration
$340,000 the first year and $348,000 the second year are to fully integrate the Sentencing Guidelines information systems with the Minnesota Criminal Information System (MNCIS). The base for this appropriation is $78,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(d) Comprehensive Review of the Guidelines
$243,000 the first year and $147,000 the second year are to begin a comprehensive review of the Sentencing Guidelines. This is a onetime appropriation.
Sec. 3.PUBLIC SAFETY |
Subdivision 1.Total Appropriation |
$ | 1,000,000 | $ | 333,079,000 | $ | 292,622,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | |||
2023 | 2024 | 2025 | |
General | 1,000,000 | 235,025,000 | 201,039,000 |
Special Revenue | 20,074,000 | 20,327,000 | |
State Government Special Revenue | 103,000 | 103,000 | |
Environmental | 119,000 | 127,000 | |
Trunk Highway | 2,429,000 | 2,429,000 | |
911 Fund | 75,329,000 | 68,597,000 |
The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following subdivisions.
Subd. 2.Public Safety Administration |
1,000,000 | 2,250,000 | 2,000,000 |
(a) Public Safety Officer Survivor Benefits
$1,000,000 in fiscal year 2023, $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2024, and $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2025 are for payment of public safety officer survivor benefits under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.44. If the appropriation for either year is insufficient, the appropriation for the other year is available.
(b) Soft Body Armor Reimbursements
$1,000,000 each year is for increases in the base appropriation for soft body armor reimbursements under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.38. This is a onetime appropriation.
(c) Firearm Storage Grants
$250,000 the first year is for grants to local or state law enforcement agencies to support the safe and secure storage of firearms owned by persons subject to extreme risk protection orders. The commissioner must apply for a grant from the Byrne State Crisis Intervention Program to supplement the funds appropriated by the legislature for implementation of Minnesota Statutes, sections 624.7171 to 624.7178 and 626.8481. Of the federal funds received, the commissioner must dedicate at least an amount that is equal to this appropriation to fund safe and secure firearms storage grants provided for under this paragraph.
Subd. 3.Emergency Management |
7,330,000 | 4,417,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 7,211,000 | 4,290,000 |
Environmental | 119,000 | 127,000 |
(a) Supplemental Nonprofit Security Grants
$250,000 each year is for supplemental nonprofit security grants under this paragraph. This appropriation is onetime.
Nonprofit organizations whose applications for funding through the Federal Emergency Management Agency's nonprofit security grant program have been approved by the Division of Homeland Security and Emergency Management are eligible for grants under this paragraph. No additional application shall be required for grants under this paragraph, and an application for a grant from the federal program is also an application for funding from the state supplemental program.
Eligible organizations may receive grants of up to $75,000, except that the total received by any individual from both the federal nonprofit security grant program and the state supplemental nonprofit security grant program shall not exceed $75,000. Grants shall be awarded in an order consistent with the ranking given to applicants for the federal nonprofit security grant program. No grants under the state supplemental nonprofit security grant program shall be awarded until the announcement of the recipients and the amount of the grants awarded under the federal nonprofit security grant program. This is a onetime appropriation.
(b) Emergency Preparedness Staff
$550,000 each year is for additional emergency preparedness staff members.
(c) Lake Superior Chippewa Tribal Emergency Management Coordinator
$145,000 each year is for a grant to the Grand Portage Band of Lake Superior Chippewa to establish and maintain a Tribal emergency management coordinator under Minnesota Statutes, section 12.25.
(d) Grand Portage Band of Lake Superior Chippewa Tribe Coast Guard Services
$3,000,000 the first year is for a grant to the Grand Portage Band of Lake Superior Chippewa to purchase equipment and fund a position for coast guard services off the north shore of Lake Superior.
Subd. 4.Criminal Apprehension |
123,122,000 | 106,870,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 120,686,000 | 104,434,000 |
State Government Special Revenue | 7,000 | 7,000 |
Trunk Highway | 2,429,000 | 2,429,000 |
The annual base from the general fund is $104,303,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(a) DWI Lab Analysis; Trunk Highway Fund
Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 161.20, subdivision 3, $2,429,000 the first year and $2,429,000 the second year are from the trunk highway fund for staff and operating costs for laboratory analysis related to driving-while-impaired cases.
(b) Use of Force Investigations
$4,419,000 each year is for operation of the independent Use of Force Investigations Unit pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 299C.80.
(c) FBI Compliance, Critical IT Infrastructure, and Cybersecurity Upgrades
$10,550,000 the first year and $2,737,000 the second year are for cybersecurity investments, critical infrastructure upgrades, and Federal Bureau of Investigation audit compliance. This appropriation is available through June 30, 2027.
(d) Expungement-Related Costs
$3,737,000 the first year and $190,000 the second year are for costs associated with the changes to expungement law made in this act.
(e) Violent Crime Reduction Strategy
$9,325,000 each year is for violent crime reduction, including forensics, and analytical and operational support.
(f) Investigative Partnerships
$6,000,000 the first year is to fund partnerships among local, state, and federal agencies. This appropriation is available until June 30, 2027.
(g) Firearm Eligibility Background Checks
$70,000 the first year is to purchase and integrate information technology hardware and software necessary to process additional firearms eligibility background checks.
(h) Human Trafficking Task Force
$1,800,000 each year is for staff and operating costs to support the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension-led Minnesota Human Trafficking Investigator's Task Force.
(i) Report on Fusion Center Activities
$115,000 each year is for the report required under Minnesota Statutes, section 299C.055. This is a onetime appropriation.
(j) Decrease Forensic Evidence Turnaround
$4,500,000 the first year and $3,500,000 the second year are to decrease turnaround times for forensic processing of evidence in criminal investigations for state and local law enforcement partners.
Additional staff and supplies funded under this provision are intended, among other purposes, to reduce the backlog in sexual assault examination kit testing, to prevent the development of any future backlogs in testing sexual assault examination kits, and to provide survivors access to the status of the testing of their exam kits via the relevant exam testing tracking systems. By January 1, 2025, and each year thereafter, the commissioner must submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy on the use of these funds in the previous fiscal year. The report must: (1) include the data necessary to understand sexual assault examination kit testing times; and (2) identify the barriers to testing all sexual assault examination kits within 90 days of receipt by the laboratory in the preceding year and in the upcoming year.
Subd. 5.Fire Marshal |
17,013,000 | 17,272,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 4,184,000 | 4,190,000 |
Special Revenue | 12,829,000 | 13,082,000 |
The special revenue fund appropriation is from the fire safety account in the special revenue fund and is for activities under Minnesota Statutes, section 299F.012. The base appropriation for this account is $13,182,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $13,082,000 in fiscal year 2027.
(a) Hazardous Materials and Emergency Response Teams
$1,695,000 the first year and $1,595,000 the second year are from the fire safety account for hazardous materials and emergency response teams. The base for these purposes is $1,695,000 in the first year of future biennia and $1,595,000 in the second year of future biennia.
(b) Bomb Squad Reimbursements
$250,000 from the fire safety account and $50,000 from the general fund each year are for reimbursements to local governments for bomb squad services.
(c) Nonresponsible Party Reimbursements
$750,000 each year from the fire safety account is for nonresponsible party hazardous material and bomb squad incident reimbursements. Money appropriated for this purpose is available for one year.
(d) Hometown Heroes Assistance Program
$4,000,000 each year from the general fund is for grants to the Minnesota Firefighter Initiative to fund the hometown heroes assistance program established in Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.477.
Subd. 6.Firefighter Training and Education Board |
7,175,000 | 7,175,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
Special Revenue | 7,175,000 | 7,175,000 |
The special revenue fund appropriation is from the fire safety account in the special revenue fund and is for activities under Minnesota Statutes, section 299F.012.
(a) Firefighter Training and Education |
$5,500,000 each year from the fire safety account is for firefighter training and education.
(b) Task Force 1
$1,125,000 each year is for the Minnesota Task Force 1.
(c) Task Force 2
$200,000 each year is for Minnesota Task Force 2.
(d) Air Rescue
$350,000 each year is for the Minnesota Air Rescue Team.
(e) Unappropriated Revenue |
Any additional unappropriated money collected in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for the purposes of Minnesota Statutes, section 299F.012. The commissioner may transfer appropriations and base amounts between activities in this subdivision.
Subd. 7.Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement |
4,102,000 | 3,857,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 4,032,000 | 3,787,000 |
Special Revenue | 70,000 | 70,000 |
(a) $70,000 each year is from the lawful gambling regulation account in the special revenue fund.
(b) $600,000 the first year and $100,000 the second year are for enforcement information technology improvements.
Subd. 8.Office of Justice Programs |
94,758,000 | 80,434,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 94,662,000 | 80,338,000 |
State Government Special Revenue | 96,000 | 96,000 |
(a) Domestic and Sexual Violence Housing
$1,500,000 each year is to establish a Domestic Violence Housing First grant program to provide resources for survivors of violence to access safe and stable housing and for staff to provide mobile advocacy and expertise in housing resources in their community and a Minnesota Domestic and Sexual Violence Transitional Housing program to develop and support medium to long term transitional housing for survivors of domestic and sexual violence with supportive services. The base for this appropriation is $1,000,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(b) Federal Victims of Crime Funding Gap
$11,000,000 each year is to fund services for victims of domestic violence, sexual assault, child abuse, and other crimes. This is a onetime appropriation.
(c) Office for Missing and Murdered Black Women and Girls
$1,248,000 each year is to establish and maintain the Minnesota Office for Missing and Murdered Black Women and Girls.
(d) Increased Staffing
$667,000 the first year and $1,334,000 the second year are to increase staffing in the Office of Justice Programs for grant monitoring and compliance; provide training and technical assistance to grantees and potential grantees; conduct community outreach and engagement to improve the experiences and outcomes of applicants, grant recipients, and crime victims throughout Minnesota; expand the Minnesota Statistical Analysis Center; and increase staffing for the crime victim reimbursement program and the Crime Victim Justice Unit.
(e) Office of Restorative Practices
$500,000 each year is to establish and maintain the Office of Restorative Practices.
(f) Crossover and Dual-Status Youth Model Grants
$1,000,000 each year is to provide grants to local units of government to initiate or expand crossover youth practices model and dual-status youth programs that provide services for youth who are involved with or at risk of becoming involved with both the child welfare and juvenile justice systems, in accordance with the Robert F. Kennedy National Resource Center for Juvenile Justice model. This is a onetime appropriation.
(g) Restorative Practices Initiatives Grants
$4,000,000 each year is for grants to establish and support restorative practices initiatives pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.95, subdivision 6. The base for this appropriation is $2,500,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(h) Ramsey County Youth Treatment Homes Acquisition and Betterment
$5,000,000 the first year is for a grant to Ramsey County to establish, with input from community stakeholders, including impacted youth and families, up to seven intensive trauma-informed therapeutic treatment homes in Ramsey County that are licensed by the Department of Human Services, that are culturally specific, that are community-based, and that can be secured. These residential spaces must provide intensive treatment and intentional healing for youth as ordered by the court as part of the disposition of a case in juvenile court.
(i) Ramsey County Violence Prevention
$5,000,000 the first year is for a grant to Ramsey County to award grants to develop new and further enhance existing community-based organizational support through violence prevention and community wellness grants. Grantees must use the money to create family support groups and resources to support families during the time a young person is placed out of home following a juvenile delinquency adjudication and support the family through the period of postplacement reentry; create community-based respite options for conflict or crisis de-escalation to prevent incarceration or further systems involvement for families; or establish additional meaningful employment opportunities for systems-involved youth. This appropriation is available through June 30, 2027.
(j) Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives
$274,000 each year is for increased staff and operating costs of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives, the Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives Advisory Board, and the Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag reward advisory group.
(k) Youth Intervention Programs
$3,525,000 the first year and $3,526,000 the second year are for youth intervention programs under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.73. The base for this appropriation is $3,526,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $3,525,000 in fiscal year 2027.
(l) Community Crime Intervention and Prevention Grants
$750,000 each year is for community crime intervention and prevention program grants, authorized under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.296. This is a onetime appropriation.
(m) Resources for Victims of Crime
$1,000,000 each year is for general crime victim grants to meet the needs of victims of crime not covered by domestic violence, sexual assault, or child abuse services. This is a onetime appropriation.
(n) Prosecutor Training
$100,000 each year is for a grant to the Minnesota County Attorneys Association to be used for prosecutorial and law enforcement training, including trial school training and train-the-trainer courses. All training funded with grant proceeds must contain blocks of instruction on racial disparities in the criminal justice system, collateral consequences to criminal convictions, and trauma-informed responses to victims. This is a onetime appropriation.
The Minnesota County Attorneys Association must report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance on the training provided with grant proceeds, including a description of each training and the number of prosecutors and law enforcement officers who received training. The report is due by February 15, 2025. The report may include trainings scheduled to be completed after the date of submission with an estimate of expected participants.
(o) Minnesota Heals
$500,000 each year is for the Minnesota Heals grant program. This is a onetime appropriation.
(p) Sexual Assault Exam Costs
$3,967,000 the first year and $3,767,000 the second year are to reimburse qualified health care providers for the expenses associated with medical examinations administered to victims of criminal sexual conduct as required under Minnesota Statutes, section 609.35. The base for this appropriation is $3,771,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $3,776,000 in fiscal year 2027.
(q) First Responder Mental Health Curriculum
$75,000 each year is for a grant to the Adler graduate school. The grantee must use the grant to develop a curriculum for a 24-week certificate to train licensed therapists to understand the nuances, culture, and stressors of the work environments of first responders to allow those therapists to provide effective treatment to first responders in distress. The grantee must collaborate with first responders who are familiar with the psychological, cultural, and professional issues of their field to develop the curriculum and promote it upon completion.
The grantee may provide the program online.
The grantee must seek to recruit additional participants from outside the 11-county metropolitan area.
The grantee must create a resource directory to provide law enforcement agencies with names of counselors who complete the program and other resources to support law enforcement professionals with overall wellness. The grantee shall collaborate with the Department of Public Safety and law enforcement organizations to promote the directory. This is a onetime appropriation.
(r) Pathways to Policing
$400,000 each year is for reimbursement grants to state and local law enforcement agencies that operate pathway to policing programs. Applicants for reimbursement grants may receive up to 50 percent of the cost of compensating and training program participants. Reimbursement grants shall be proportionally allocated based on the number of grant applications approved by the commissioner. This is a onetime appropriation.
(s) Direct Assistance to Crime Victim Survivors
$5,000,000 each year is to provide grants for direct services and advocacy for victims of sexual assault, general crime, domestic violence, and child abuse. Funding must support the direct needs of organizations serving victims of crime by providing: direct client assistance to crime victims; competitive wages for direct service staff; hotel stays and other housing-related supports and services; culturally responsive programming; prevention programming, including domestic abuse transformation and restorative justice programming; and for other needs of organizations and crime victim survivors. Services funded must include services for victims of crime in underserved communities most impacted by violence and reflect the ethnic, racial, economic, cultural, and geographic diversity of the state. The office shall prioritize culturally specific programs, or organizations led and staffed by persons of color that primarily serve communities of color, when allocating funds.
(t) Racially Diverse Youth
$250,000 each year is for grants to organizations to address racial disparity of youth using shelter services in the Rochester and St. Cloud regional areas. Of this amount, $125,000 each year is to address this issue in the Rochester area and $125,000 each year is to address this issue in the St. Cloud area. A grant recipient shall establish and operate a pilot program connected to shelter services to engage in community intervention outreach, mobile case management, family reunification, aftercare, and follow up when family members are released from shelter services. A pilot program must specifically address the high number of racially diverse youth that enter shelters in the regions. This is a onetime appropriation.
(u) Violence Prevention Project Research Center
$500,000 each year is for a grant to the Violence Prevention Project Research Center, operating as a 501(c)(3) organization, for research focused on reducing violence in society that uses data and analysis to improve criminal justice-related policy and practice in Minnesota. Research must place an emphasis on issues related to deaths and injuries involving firearms. This is a onetime appropriation.
Beginning January 15, 2025, the Violence Prevention Project Research Center must submit an annual report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance on its work and findings. The report must include a description of the data reviewed, an analysis of that data, and recommendations to improve criminal justice-related policy and practice in Minnesota with specific recommendations to address deaths and injuries involving firearms.
(v) Report on Approaches to Address Illicit Drug Use in Minnesota
$118,000 each year is to enter into an agreement with Rise Research LLC for a study and set of reports on illicit drug use in Minnesota describing current responses to that use, reviewing alternative approaches utilized in other jurisdictions, and making policy and funding recommendations for a holistic and effective response to illicit drug use and the illicit drug trade. The agreement must establish a budget and schedule with clear deliverables. This appropriation is onetime.
The study must include a review of current policies, practices, and funding; identification of alternative approaches utilized effectively in other jurisdictions; and policy and funding recommendations for a response to illicit drug use and the illicit drug trade that reduces and, where possible, prevents harm and expands individual and community health, safety, and autonomy. Recommendations must consider impacts on public safety, racial equity, accessibility of health and ancillary supportive social services, and the intersections between drug policy and mental health, housing and homelessness, overdose and infectious disease, child welfare, and employment.
Rise Research may subcontract and coordinate with other organizations or individuals to conduct research, provide analysis, and prepare the reports required by this section.
Rise Research shall submit reports to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy, human services finance and policy, health finance and policy, and judiciary finance and policy. Rise Research shall submit an initial report by February 15, 2024, and a final report by March 1, 2025.
(w) Legal Representation for Children
$150,000 each year is for a grant to an organization that provides legal representation for children in need of protection or services and children in out-of-home placement. The grant is contingent upon a match in an equal amount from nonstate funds. The match may be in kind, including the value of volunteer attorney time, in cash, or a combination of the two. These appropriations are in addition to any other appropriations for the legal representation of children. This appropriation is onetime.
(x) Pretrial Release Study and Report
$250,000 each year are for a grant to the Minnesota Justice Research Center to study and report on pretrial release practices in Minnesota and other jurisdictions, including but not limited to the use of bail as a condition of pretrial release. This appropriation is onetime.
(y) Intensive Comprehensive Peace Officer Education and Training Program
$5,000,000 the first year is to implement the intensive comprehensive peace officer education and training program described in Minnesota Statutes, section 626.8516. This appropriation is available through June 30, 2027.
(z) Youth Services Office
$250,000 each year is to operate the Youth Services Office.
Subd. 9.Emergency Communication Networks |
77,329,000 | 70,597,000 |
Appropriations by Fund | ||
General | 2,000,000 | 2,000,000 |
911 Fund | 75,329,000 | 68,597,000 |
This appropriation is from the state government special revenue fund for 911 emergency telecommunications services unless otherwise indicated.
(a) Public Safety Answering Points |
$28,011,000 the first year and $28,011,000 the second year shall be distributed as provided under Minnesota Statutes, section 403.113, subdivision 2.
(b) Transition to Next Generation 911
$7,000,000 the first year is to support Public Safety Answering Points' transition to Next Generation 911. Funds may be used for planning, cybersecurity, GIS data collection and maintenance, 911 call processing equipment, and new Public Safety Answering Point technology to improve service delivery. Funds shall be distributed by October 1, 2023, as provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 403.113, subdivision 2. Funds are available until June 30, 2025, and any unspent funds must be returned to the 911 emergency telecommunications service account. This is a onetime appropriation.
Each eligible entity receiving these funds must provide a detailed report on how the funds were used to the commissioner of public safety by August 1, 2025.
(c) ARMER State Backbone Operating Costs
$10,116,000 the first year and $10,384,000 the second year are transferred to the commissioner of transportation for costs of maintaining and operating the statewide radio system backbone.
(d) Statewide Emergency Communications Board
$1,000,000 each year is to the Statewide Emergency Communications Board. Funds may be used for operating costs, to provide competitive grants to local units of government to fund enhancements to a communication system, technology, or support activity that directly provides the ability to deliver the 911 call between the entry point to the 911 system and the first responder, and to further the strategic goals set forth by the SECB Statewide Communication Interoperability Plan.
(e) Statewide Public Safety Radio Communication System Equipment Grants
$2,000,000 each year from the general fund is for grants to local units of government, federally recognized Tribal entities, and state agencies participating in the statewide Allied Radio Matrix for Emergency Response (ARMER) public safety radio communication system established under Minnesota Statutes, section 403.36, subdivision 1e. The grants must be used to purchase or upgrade portable radios, mobile radios, and related equipment that is interoperable with the ARMER system. Each local government unit may receive only one grant. The grant is contingent upon a match of at least five percent from nonstate funds. The director of the Department of Public Safety Emergency Communication Networks division, in consultation with the Statewide Emergency Communications Board, must administer the grant program. This appropriation is available until June 30, 2026. This is a onetime appropriation.
Sec. 4.PEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING (POST) BOARD |
$ | 12,863,000 | $ | 12,717,000 |
(a) Peace Officer Training Reimbursements
$2,949,000 each year is for reimbursements to local governments for peace officer training costs.
(b) Additional Staff
$1,027,000 the first year and $1,028,000 the second year are for additional staff and equipment. The base for this appropriation is $1,011,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(c) Additional Office Space
$228,000 the first year and $30,000 the second year are for additional office space.
Sec. 5.PRIVATE DETECTIVE BOARD |
$ | 758,000 | $ | 688,000 |
Sec. 6.CORRECTIONS |
Subdivision 1.Total Appropriation |
$ | 12,643,000 | $ | 797,937,000 | $ | 826,661,000 |
The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following subdivisions.
Subd. 2.Incarceration and Prerelease Services |
$ | 12,643,000 | $ | 534,412,000 | $ | 561,421,000 |
(a) Operating Deficiency
$12,643,000 in fiscal year 2023 is to meet financial obligations in fiscal year 2023. This is a onetime appropriation.
(b) Body-worn Camera Program
$1,000,000 each year is to create a body-worn camera program for corrections officers and intensive supervised release agents. This appropriation is onetime.
(c) ARMER Radio System
$1,500,000 each year is to upgrade and maintain the ARMER radio system within correctional facilities. This is a onetime appropriation.
(d) Prison Rape Elimination Act
$500,000 each year is for Prison Rape Elimination Act (PREA) compliance.
(e) State Corrections Safety and Security
$1,932,000 each year is for state corrections safety and security investments. The base for this appropriation is $2,625,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(f) Health Services
$2,750,000 each year is for increased health care services. The base for this appropriation is $3,400,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(g) Educational Programming and Support Services
$5,600,000 the first year and $4,000,000 the second year are for educational programming and support services. The base for this purpose is $2,000,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(h) Family Support Unit
$480,000 each year is for a family support unit.
(i) Inmate Phone Calls
$3,100,000 each year is to provide voice communication services for incarcerated persons under Minnesota Statutes, section 241.252. Any unencumbered balance remaining at the end of the first year may be carried forward into the second year. If this appropriation is greater than the cost of providing voice communication services, remaining funds must be used to offset the cost of other communication services.
(j) Virtual Court Coordination
$500,000 each year is for virtual court coordination and modernization.
(k) Supportive Arts for Incarcerated Persons
$425,000 the first year is for supportive arts for incarcerated persons grants as provided for in section 17. Of this amount, up to ten percent is for administration, including facility space, access, liaison, and monitoring. Any unencumbered balance remaining at the end of the first year does not cancel but is available for this purpose in the second year.
(l) Successful Re-entry
$375,000 the first year and $875,000 the second year are for reentry initiatives, including a culturally specific release program for Native American incarcerated individuals.
(m) Evidence-based Correctional Practices Unit
$750,000 each year is to establish and maintain a unit to direct and oversee the use of evidence-based correctional practices across the department and supervision delivery systems.
(n) Interstate Compact for Adult Supervision; Transfer Expense Reimbursement
$250,000 each year is for reimbursements under Minnesota Statutes, section 243.1609. This is a onetime appropriation.
(o) Task Force on Aiding and Abetting Felony Murder
$25,000 the first year is for costs associated with the revival of the task force on aiding and abetting felony murder.
(p) Incarceration and Prerelease Services Base Budget
The base for incarceration and prerelease services is $552,775,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $553,043,000 in fiscal year 2027.
Subd. 3.Community Supervision and Postrelease Services |
189,939,000 | 190,953,000 |
(a) Community Supervision Funding
$143,378,000 each year is for community supervision services. This appropriation shall be distributed according to the community supervision formula in Minnesota Statutes, section 401.10.
(b) Tribal Nation Supervision
$2,750,000 each year is for Tribal Nations to provide supervision or supportive services pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 401.10.
(c) Postrelease Sex Offender Program
$1,915,000 each year is for postrelease sex offender treatment services and initiatives.
(d) Community Supervision Advisory Committee
$75,000 the first year is to fund the community supervision advisory committee under Minnesota Statutes, section 401.17.
(e) Regional and County Jails Study and Report
$150,000 the first year is to fund the commissioner's study and report on the consolidation or merger of county jails and alternatives to incarceration for persons experiencing mental health disorders.
(f) Work Release Programs
$500,000 each year is for work release programs.
(g) County Discharge Plans
$80,000 each year is to develop model discharge plans pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 641.155. This appropriation is onetime.
(h) Housing Initiatives
$2,130,000 each year is for housing initiatives to support stable housing of incarcerated individuals upon release. The base for this purpose beginning in fiscal year 2026 is $1,685,000. Of this amount:
(1) $1,000,000 each year is for housing stabilization prerelease services and program evaluation. The base for this purpose beginning in fiscal year 2026 is $760,000;
(2) $500,000 each year is for rental assistance for incarcerated individuals approaching release, on supervised release, or on probation who are at risk of homelessness;
(3) $405,000 each year is for culturally responsive trauma-informed transitional housing. The base for this purpose beginning in fiscal year 2026 is $200,000; and
(4) $225,000 each year is for housing coordination activities.
(i) Community Supervision and Postrelease Services Base Budget
The base for community supervision and postrelease services is $189,272,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $189,172,000 in fiscal year 2027.
(j) Naloxone
$2,000 each year is to purchase naloxone for supervised release agents to use to respond to overdoses.
Subd. 4.Organizational, Regulatory, and Administrative Services |
73,586,000 | 74,287,000 |
(a) Public Safety Data Infrastructure
$22,914,000 the first year and $22,915,000 the second year are for technology modernization and the development of an information-sharing and data-technology infrastructure. The base for this purpose is $4,097,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026. Any unspent funds from the current biennium do not cancel and are available in the next biennium.
(b) Supervised Release Board
$40,000 each year is to establish and operate the supervised release board pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 244.049.
(c) Recruitment and Retention
$3,200,000 the first year and $400,000 the second year are for recruitment and retention initiatives. Of this amount, $2,800,000 the first year is for staff recruitment, professional development, conflict resolution, and staff wellness, and to contract with community collaborative partners who specialize in trauma recovery.
(d) Clemency Review Commission
$986,000 each year is for the clemency review commission described in Minnesota Statutes, section 638.09. Of this amount, $200,000 each year is for grants to support outreach and clemency application assistance.
(e) Accountability and Transparency
$1,000,000 each year is for accountability and transparency initiatives. The base for this appropriation is $1,480,000 beginning in fiscal year 2026.
(f) Organizational, Regulatory, and Administrative Services Base Budget
The base for organizational, regulatory, and administrative services is $55,849,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $55,649,000 in fiscal year 2027.
Sec. 7.OMBUDSPERSON FOR CORRECTIONS |
$ | 1,105,000 | $ | 1,099,000 |
Sec. 8.BOARD OF TRUSTEES OF THE MINNESOTA STATE COLLEGES AND UNIVERSITIES |
$ | 500,000 | $ | 500,000 |
$500,000 each year is for transfer to Metropolitan State University. Of this amount, $280,000 each year is to provide juvenile justice services and resources, including the Juvenile Detention Alternatives Initiative, to Minnesota counties and federally recognized Tribes and $220,000 each year is for funding to local units of government, federally recognized Tribes, and agencies to support local Juvenile Detention Alternatives Initiatives, including but not limited to Alternatives to Detention. The unencumbered balance in the first year of the biennium does not cancel but is available throughout the biennium.
Sec. 9.DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES |
$ | 73,000 | $ | 9,000 |
$73,000 the first year and $9,000 the second year are to provide naloxone and training in the use of naloxone to conservation officers.
Subd. 3.Peace Officer Training Assistance |
Philando Castile Memorial Training Fund $6,000,000 each year is to support and strengthen law enforcement training and implement best practices. This funding shall be named the "Philando Castile Memorial Training Fund." These funds may only be used to reimburse costs related to training courses that qualify for reimbursement under Minnesota Statutes, sections 626.8452 (use of force), 626.8469 (training in crisis response, conflict management, and cultural diversity), and 626.8474 (autism training).
Each sponsor of a training course is required to include the following in the sponsor's application for approval submitted to the board: course goals and objectives; a course outline including at a minimum a timeline and teaching hours for all courses; instructor qualifications, including skills and concepts such as crisis intervention, de-escalation, and cultural competency that are relevant to the course provided; and a plan for learning assessments of the course and documenting the assessments to the board during review. Upon completion of each course, instructors must submit student evaluations of the instructor's teaching to the sponsor.
The board shall keep records of the applications of all approved and denied courses. All continuing education courses shall be reviewed after the first year. The board must set a timetable for recurring review after the first year. For each review, the sponsor must submit its learning assessments to the board to show that the course is teaching the learning outcomes that were approved by the board.
A list of licensees who successfully complete the course shall be maintained by the sponsor and transmitted to the board following the presentation of the course and the completed student evaluations of the instructors. Evaluations are available to chief law enforcement officers. The board shall establish a data retention schedule for the information collected in this section.
Each year, if funds are available after reimbursing all eligible requests for courses approved by the board under this subdivision, the board may use the funds to reimburse law enforcement agencies for other board-approved law enforcement training courses. The base for this activity is $0 in fiscal year 2026 and thereafter.
$250,000 in fiscal year 2024 is transferred from the general fund to the Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag reward account in the special revenue fund.
$70,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is transferred from the general fund to the community crime and violence prevention account in the special revenue fund.
The community crime and violence prevention account is created in the special revenue fund consisting of money deposited, donated, allotted, transferred, or otherwise provided to the account. Of the amount in the account, up to $14,000,000 each year is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for purposes specified in Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.296.
$10,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is transferred from the general fund to the crisis response account in the special revenue fund. Any balance in the account on June 30, 2028, cancels to the general fund.
The crisis response account is created in the special revenue fund consisting of money deposited, donated, allotted, transferred, or otherwise provided to the account. Of the amount in the account, up to $2,000,000 in each of fiscal years 2024, 2025, 2026, 2027, and 2028 are appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for grants administered by the Office of Justice Programs to be awarded to local law enforcement agencies and local governments to maintain or expand crisis response teams in which social workers or mental health providers are sent as first responders when calls for service indicate that an individual is having a mental health crisis.
(a) Pursuant to the terms of a grant, the Minnesota Justice Research Center shall study and report on pretrial release practices in Minnesota and other jurisdictions.
(b) The Minnesota Justice Research Center shall examine pretrial release practices in Minnesota and community perspectives about those practices; conduct a robust study of pretrial release practices in other jurisdictions to identify effective approaches to pretrial release that use identified best practices; provide analysis and recommendations describing if, and how, practices in other jurisdictions could be adopted and implemented in Minnesota, including but not limited to analysis addressing how changes would impact public safety, appearance rates, treatment of defendants with different financial means, disparities in pretrial detention, and community perspectives about pretrial release; and make recommendations for policy changes for consideration by the legislature.
(c) By February 15, 2024, the Minnesota Justice Research Center must provide a preliminary report to the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy including a summary of the preliminary findings, any legislative proposals to improve the ability of the Minnesota Justice Research Center to complete its work, and any proposals for legislation related to pretrial release. The Minnesota Justice Research Center shall submit a final report to the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy by February 15, 2025. The final report shall include a description of the Minnesota Justice Research Center's work, findings, and any legislative proposals.
(a) The commissioner of corrections shall establish a supportive arts grant program to award grants to nonprofit organizations to provide supportive arts programs to incarcerated persons and persons on supervised release. The supportive arts programs must use the arts, including but not limited to visual art, poetry, literature, theater, dance, and music, to address the supportive, therapeutic, and rehabilitative needs of incarcerated persons and persons on supervised release and promote a safer correctional facility environment and community environment. The commissioner may not require incarcerated persons and persons on supervised release to participate in a supportive arts program provided in a correctional facility or community under a grant.
(b) Applicants for grants under this section must submit an application in the form and manner established by the commissioner. The applicants must describe the arts program to be offered; how the program is supportive, therapeutic, and rehabilitative for incarcerated persons and persons on supervised release; and the use of the grant funds.
(c) Organizations are not required to apply for or receive grant funds under this section in order to be eligible to provide supportive arts programming inside the correctional facilities.
(d) By March 1 of each year, the commissioner shall report to the chairs and ranking members of the legislative committees and divisions having jurisdiction over criminal justice finance and policy on the implementation, use, and administration of the grant program established under this section. At a minimum, the report must provide:
(1) the names of the organizations receiving grants;
(2) the total number of individuals served by all grant recipients, disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and gender;
(3) the names of the correctional facilities and communities where incarcerated persons and persons on supervised release are participating in supportive arts programs offered under this section;
(4) the total amount of money awarded in grants and the total amount remaining to be awarded, if any;
(5) the amount of money granted to each recipient;
(6) a description of the program, mission, goals, and objectives by the organization using the money; and
(7) a description of and measures of success, either qualitative or quantitative.
If an appropriation or transfer in this act is enacted more than once during the 2023 regular session, the appropriation or transfer must be given effect only once.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Board" means the State Board of Appellate Counsel and Training.
(c) "Juvenile protection matter" means any of the following:
(1) child in need of protection or services matters as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, including habitual truant and runaway matters;
(2) neglected and in foster care matters as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 24;
(3) review of voluntary foster care matters as defined in section 260C.141, subdivision 2;
(4) review of out-of-home placement matters as defined in section 260C.212;
(5) termination of parental rights matters as defined in sections 260C.301 to 260C.328; and
(6) permanent placement matters as defined in sections 260C.503 to 260C.521, including matters involving termination of parental rights, guardianship to the commissioner of human services, transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, permanent custody to the agency, temporary legal custody to the agency, and matters involving voluntary placement pursuant to section 260D.07.
(d) "Office" means the Statewide Office of Appellate Counsel and Training.
(a) The Statewide Office of Appellate Counsel and Training is established as an independent state office. The office shall be responsible for:
(1) establishing and maintaining a system for providing appellate representation to parents in juvenile protection matters, as provided in section 260C.163, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), and in Tribal court jurisdictions;
(2) providing training to all parent attorneys practicing in the state on topics relevant to their practice and establishing practice standards and training requirements for parent attorneys practicing in the state; and
(3) collaborating with the Minnesota Department of Human Services to coordinate and secure federal Title IV-E support for counties and Tribes interested in accessing federal funding.
(b) The office shall be governed by a board as provided in subdivision 3.
(a) The State Board of Appellate Counsel and Training is established to direct the Statewide Office of Appellate Counsel and Training. The board shall consist of seven members, including:
(1) four public members appointed by the governor; and
(2) three members appointed by the supreme court, at least one of whom must have experience representing parents in juvenile court and who include two attorneys admitted to practice law in the state and one public member.
(b) The appointing authorities may not appoint any of the following to be a member of the board:
(1) a person who is a judge;
(2) a person who is a registered lobbyist;
(3) a person serving as a guardian ad litem or counsel for a guardian ad litem;
(4) a person who serves as counsel for children in juvenile court;
(5) a person under contract with or employed by the Department of Human Services or a county department of human or social services; or
(6) a current city or county attorney or assistant city or county attorney.
(c) All members shall demonstrate an interest in maintaining a high quality, independent appellate defense system for parents in juvenile protection proceedings who are unable to obtain adequate representation, a robust program for parent attorneys in Minnesota, and an efficient coordination effort, in collaboration with the Department of Human Services, to secure and utilize Title IV-E funding. At least one member of the board appointed by the governor must be a representative from a federally recognized Indian Tribe. No more than five members of the board may belong to the same political party. At least three members of the board shall be from judicial districts other than the First, Second, Fourth, and Tenth Judicial Districts. To the extent practicable, the membership of the board must include persons with disabilities, reflect the ethnic diversity of the state, take into consideration race and gender, and include persons from throughout the state. The members shall be well acquainted with representing parents in district court and appellate proceedings related to child protection matters as well as the law that affect a parent attorney's work, including chapter 260C, the Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure, the Rules of Civil Appellate Procedure, the Indian Child Welfare Act, and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act. The terms, compensation, and removal of members shall be as provided in section 15.0575. The members shall elect a chair from among the membership and the chair shall serve a term of two years.
(a) Beginning January 1, 2024, and for every four years after that date, the board shall appoint a head appellate counsel in charge of executing the responsibilities of the office who shall provide for sufficient appellate counsel for parents and other personnel necessary to discharge the functions of the office. The head appellate counsel shall serve a four-year term and may be removed only for cause upon the order of the board. The head appellate counsel shall be a full-time qualified attorney, licensed to practice law in this state, and serve in the unclassified service of the state. Vacancies of the office shall be filled by the appointing authority for the unexpired term. The head appellate counsel shall devote full time to the performance of duties and shall not engage in the general practice of law. The compensation of the head appellate counsel shall be set by the board and shall be commensurate with county attorneys in the state.
(b) Consistent with the decisions of the board, the head appellate counsel shall employ assistants or hire independent contractors to serve as appellate counsel for parents. Each assistant appellate counsel and independent contractor serves at the pleasure of the head appellate counsel. The compensation of assistant appellate counsel and independent contractors shall be set by the board and shall be commensurate with county attorneys in the state.
(c) A person serving as appellate counsel shall be a qualified attorney licensed to practice law in this state. A person serving as appellate counsel practicing in Tribal court shall be a licensed attorney qualified to practice law in Tribal courts in the state. Assistant appellate counsel and contracted appellate counsel may engage in the general practice of law where not employed or contracted to provide services on a full-time basis.
(d) The head appellate counsel shall, consistent with the responsibilities under subdivision 2, employ or hire the following:
(1) one managing appellate attorney;
(2) two staff attorneys;
(3) one director of training;
(4) one program administrator to support Title IV-E reimbursement in collaboration with the Department of Human Services; and
(5) one office administrator.
(e) Each employee identified in paragraph (d) serves at the pleasure of the head appellate counsel. The compensation of each employee shall be set by the board and shall be commensurate with county attorneys in the state.
(f) Any person serving as managing appellate attorney, staff attorney, and director of training shall be a qualified attorney licensed to practice law in the state.
(g) A person serving as the program administrator and office administrator must be chosen solely on the basis of training, experience, and qualifications.
(a) The board shall work cooperatively with the head appellate counsel to govern the office and provide fiscal oversight.
(b) The board shall approve and recommend to the legislature a budget for the board, the office, and any programs operated by that office.
(c) The board shall establish procedures for distribution of funding under this section to the office and any programs operated by that office.
(d) The head appellate counsel with the approval of the board shall establish appellate program standards, administrative policies, procedures, and rules consistent with statute, rules of court, and laws that affect appellate counsel's work. The standards must include but are not limited to:
(1) standards needed to maintain and operate an appellate counsel for parents program, including requirements regarding the qualifications, training, and size of the legal and supporting staff for an appellate counsel program;
(2) standards for appellate counsel caseloads;
(3) standards and procedures for the eligibility of appointment, assessment, and collection of the costs for legal representation provided by appellate counsel;
(4) standards for contracts between contracted appellate counsel and the state appellate counsel program for the legal representation of indigent persons;
(5) standards prescribing minimum qualifications of counsel appointed under the board's authority or by the courts; and
(6) standards ensuring the independent, competent, and efficient representation of clients whose cases present conflicts of interest.
(e) The head appellate counsel, with approval of the board, shall establish training program standards and processes and procedures necessary to carry out the office's responsibilities for statewide training of parent attorneys, including but not limited to establishing uniform practice standards and training requirements for all parent attorneys practicing in the state.
(f) The head appellate counsel and the program administrator with approval of the board shall establish processes and procedures for collaborating with the Department of Human Services to secure and utilize Title IV-E funds and communicating with counties and Tribes and any other processes and procedures necessary to carry out the office's responsibilities.
(g) The board may:
(1) propose statutory changes to the legislature and rule changes to the supreme court that are in the best interests of the operation of the appellate counsel for parents program; and
(2) require the reporting of statistical data, budget information, and other cost factors by the appellate counsel for parents program.
In no event shall the board or its members interfere with the discretion, judgment, or zealous advocacy of counsel in their handling of individual cases as a part of the judicial branch of government.
The establishment of the office and its employees and support staff and the board shall be funded by the state of Minnesota. Minnesota counties and Tribes may utilize this office to provide appellate representation to indigent parents in their jurisdiction who are seeking an appeal and for assistance in securing Title IV-E funding through collaboration with the Department of Human Services.
If any of the costs provided by appellate counsel are assessed and collected or otherwise reimbursed from any source, the State Board of Appellate Counsel and Training shall deposit payments in a separate account established in the special revenue fund. The amount credited to this account is appropriated to the State Board of Appellate Counsel and Training. The balance of this account does not cancel but is available until expended.
The fees to be charged and collected by the court administrator shall be as follows:
(1) In every civil action or proceeding in said court, including any case arising under the tax laws of the state that could be transferred or appealed to the Tax Court, the plaintiff, petitioner, or other moving party shall pay, when the first paper is filed for that party in said action, a fee of $285, except in marriage dissolution actions the fee is $315.
The defendant or other adverse or intervening party, or any one or more of several defendants or other adverse or intervening parties appearing separately from the others, shall pay, when the first paper is filed for that party in said action, a fee of $285, except in marriage dissolution actions the fee is $315. This subdivision does not apply to the filing of an Application for Discharge of Judgment. Section 548.181 applies to an Application for Discharge of Judgment.
The party requesting a trial by jury shall pay $100.
The fees above stated shall be the full trial fee chargeable to said parties irrespective of whether trial be to the court alone, to the court and jury, or disposed of without trial, and shall include the entry of judgment in the action, but does not include copies or certified copies of any papers so filed or proceedings under chapter 103E, except the provisions therein as to appeals.
(2) Certified copy of any instrument from a civil or criminal proceeding, $14, and $8 for an uncertified copy.
(3) Issuing a subpoena, $16 for each name.
(4) Filing a motion or response to a motion in civil, family, excluding child support, and guardianship cases, $75.
(5) Issuing an execution and filing the return thereof; issuing a writ of attachment, injunction, habeas corpus, mandamus, quo warranto, certiorari, or other writs not specifically mentioned, $55.
(6) Issuing a transcript of judgment, or for filing and docketing a transcript of judgment from another court, $40.
(7) Filing and entering a satisfaction of judgment, partial satisfaction, or assignment of judgment, $5.
(8) Certificate as to existence or nonexistence of judgments docketed, $5 for each name certified to.
(9) Filing and indexing trade name; or recording basic science certificate; or recording certificate of physicians, osteopathic physicians, chiropractors, veterinarians, or optometrists, $5.
(10) For the filing of each partial, final, or annual account in all trusteeships, $55.
(11) For the deposit of a will, $27.
(12) For recording notary commission, $20.
(13) Filing a motion or response to a motion for modification of child support, a fee of $50.
(14) All other services required by law for which no fee is provided, such fee as compares favorably with those herein provided, or such as may be fixed by rule or order of the court.
(15) In addition to any other filing fees under this chapter, a surcharge in the amount of $75 must be assessed in accordance with section 259.52, subdivision 14, for each adoption petition filed in district court to fund the fathers' adoption registry under section 259.52.
The fees in clauses (3) and (5) need not be paid by a public authority or the party the public authority represents. No fee may be charged to view or download a publicly available instrument from a civil or criminal proceeding or for an uncertified copy of that instrument.
(a) The commissioner shall formulate policies to effectuate the purposes of this chapter and shall do the following:
(1) exercise leadership under the direction of the governor in the development of human rights policies and programs, and make recommendations to the governor and the legislature for their consideration and implementation;
(2) establish and maintain a principal office in St. Paul, and any other necessary branch offices at any location within the state;
(3) meet and function at any place within the state;
(4) employ attorneys, clerks, and other employees and agents as the commissioner may deem necessary and prescribe their duties;
(5) to the extent permitted by federal law and regulation, utilize the records of the Department of Employment and Economic Development of the state when necessary to effectuate the purposes of this chapter;
(6) obtain upon request and utilize the services of all state governmental departments and agencies;
(7) adopt suitable rules for effectuating the purposes of this chapter;
(8) issue complaints, receive and investigate charges alleging unfair discriminatory practices, and determine whether or not probable cause exists for hearing;
(9) subpoena witnesses, administer oaths, take testimony, and require the production for examination of any books or papers relative to any matter under investigation or in question as the commissioner deems appropriate to carry out the purposes of this chapter;
(10) attempt, by means of education, conference, conciliation, and persuasion to eliminate unfair discriminatory practices as being contrary to the public policy of the state;
(11) develop and conduct programs of formal and informal education designed to eliminate discrimination and intergroup conflict by use of educational techniques and programs the commissioner deems necessary;
(12) make a written report of the activities of the commissioner to the governor each year;
(13) accept gifts, bequests, grants, or other payments public and private to help finance the activities of the department;
(14) create such local and statewide advisory committees as will in the commissioner's judgment aid in effectuating the purposes of the Department of Human Rights;
(15) develop such programs as will aid in determining the compliance throughout the state with the provisions of this chapter, and in the furtherance of such duties, conduct research and study discriminatory practices based upon race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, age, disability, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, familial status, sexual orientation, or other factors and develop accurate data on the nature and extent of discrimination and other matters as they may affect housing, employment, public accommodations, schools, and other areas of public life;
(16) develop and disseminate technical assistance to persons subject to the provisions of this chapter, and to agencies and officers of governmental and private agencies;
(17) provide staff services to such advisory committees as may be created in aid of the functions of the Department of Human Rights;
(18) make grants in aid to the extent that appropriations are made available for that purpose in aid of carrying out duties and responsibilities; and
(19) cooperate and consult with the commissioner of labor and industry regarding the investigation of violations of, and resolution of complaints regarding section 363A.08, subdivision 7.; and
(20) analyze civil rights trends pursuant to this chapter, including information compiled from community organizations that work directly with historically marginalized communities, and prepare a report each biennium that recommends policy and system changes to reduce and prevent further civil rights incidents across Minnesota. The report shall be provided to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over the Department of Human Rights. This report must also be posted on the Department of Human Rights' public website and shared with community organizations that work with historically marginalized communities.
In performing these duties, the commissioner shall give priority to those duties in clauses (8), (9), and (10) and to the duties in section 363A.36.
(b) All gifts, bequests, grants, or other payments, public and private, accepted under paragraph (a), clause (13), must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to a special account. Money in the account is appropriated to the commissioner of human rights to help finance activities of the department.
This section is effective July 1, 2023, and the commissioner must provide the first report by February 1, 2025.
(a) In all cases prosecuted in Ramsey County District Court by an attorney for a municipality or subdivision of government within Ramsey County for violation of a statute; an ordinance; or a charter provision, rule, or regulation of a city; all fines, penalties, and forfeitures collected by the court administrator shall be deposited in the state treasury and distributed according to this paragraph. Except where a different disposition is provided by section 299D.03, subdivision 5, or other law, on or before the last day of each month, the court shall pay over all fines, penalties, and forfeitures collected by the court administrator during the previous month as follows:
(1) for offenses committed within the city of St. Paul, two-thirds paid to the treasurer of the city of St. Paul municipality or subdivision of government within Ramsey County and one-third credited to the state general fund; and.
(2) for offenses committed within any other municipality or subdivision of government within Ramsey County, one-half paid to the treasurer of the municipality or subdivision of government and one-half credited to the state general fund.
All other fines, penalties, and forfeitures collected by the district court shall be distributed by the courts as provided by law.
(b) Fines, penalties, and forfeitures shall be distributed as provided in paragraph (a) when:
(1) a city contracts with the county attorney for prosecutorial services under section 484.87, subdivision 3; or
(2) the attorney general provides assistance to the city attorney under section 484.87, subdivision 5.
The state public defender is responsible to the State Board of Public Defense. The state public defender shall supervise the operation, activities, policies, and procedures of the statewide public defender system. When requested by a district public defender or appointed counsel, the state public defender may assist the district public defender, appointed counsel, or an organization designated in section 611.216 in the performance of duties, including trial representation in matters involving legal conflicts of interest or other special circumstances, and assistance with legal research and brief preparation. The state public defender shall be appointed by the State Board of Public Defense for a term of four years, except as otherwise provided in this section, and until a successor is appointed and qualified. The state public defender shall be a full-time qualified attorney, licensed to practice law in this state, serve in the unclassified service of the state, and be removed only for cause by the appointing authority. Vacancies in the office shall be filled by the appointing authority for the unexpired term. The salary of the state public defender shall be fixed by the State Board of Public Defense but must not exceed the salary of a district court judge. Terms of the state public defender shall commence on July 1. The state public defender shall devote full time to the performance of duties and shall not engage in the general practice of law.
(a) A person shall register under this section if:
(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for a felony violation of or attempt to violate, or aiding, abetting, or conspiracy to commit, any of the following, and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances:
(i) murder under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (2);
(ii) kidnapping under section 609.25;
(iii) criminal sexual conduct under section 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451, subdivision 3, paragraph (b); or 609.3453;
(iv) indecent exposure under section 617.23, subdivision 3; or
(v) surreptitious intrusion under the circumstances described in section 609.746, subdivision 1, paragraph (f) (h);
(2) the person was charged with or petitioned for a violation of, or attempt to violate, or aiding, abetting, or conspiring to commit any of the following and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances:
(i) criminal abuse in violation of section 609.2325, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(ii) false imprisonment in violation of section 609.255, subdivision 2;
(iii) solicitation, inducement, or promotion of the prostitution of a minor or engaging in the sex trafficking of a minor in violation of section 609.322;
(iv) a prostitution offense in violation of section 609.324, subdivision 1, paragraph (a);
(v) soliciting a minor to engage in sexual conduct in violation of section 609.352, subdivision 2 or 2a, clause (1);
(vi) using a minor in a sexual performance in violation of section 617.246; or
(vii) possessing pornographic work involving a minor in violation of section 617.247;
(3) the person was sentenced as a patterned sex offender under section 609.3455, subdivision 3a; or
(4) the person was charged with or petitioned for, including pursuant to a court martial, violating a law of the United States, including the Uniform Code of Military Justice, similar to an offense or involving similar circumstances to an offense described in clause (1), (2), or (3), and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances.
(b) A person also shall register under this section if:
(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for an offense in another state similar to an offense or involving similar circumstances to an offense described in paragraph (a), clause (1), (2), or (3), and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances;
(2) the person enters this state to reside, work, or attend school, or enters this state and remains for 14 days or longer or for an aggregate period of time exceeding 30 days during any calendar year; and
(3) ten years have not elapsed since the person was released from confinement or, if the person was not confined, since the person was convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for the offense that triggers registration, unless the person is subject to a longer registration period under the laws of another state in which the person has been convicted or adjudicated, or is subject to lifetime registration.
If a person described in this paragraph is subject to a longer registration period in another state or is subject to lifetime registration, the person shall register for that time period regardless of when the person was released from confinement, convicted, or adjudicated delinquent.
(c) A person also shall register under this section if the person was committed pursuant to a court commitment order under Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.185, chapter 253D, Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10, or a similar law of another state or the United States, regardless of whether the person was convicted of any offense.
(d) A person also shall register under this section if:
(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for a felony violation or attempt to violate any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), clause (1), or a similar law of another state or the United States, or the person was charged with or petitioned for a violation of any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), clause (2), or a similar law of another state or the United States;
(2) the person was found not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency after a trial for that offense, or found guilty but mentally ill after a trial for that offense, in states with a guilty but mentally ill verdict; and
(3) the person was committed pursuant to a court commitment order under section 253B.18 or a similar law of another state or the United States.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
"Qualified domestic violence-related offense" includes a violation of or an attempt to violate sections 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of domestic abuse order for protection); 609.185 (first-degree murder); 609.19 (second-degree murder); 609.195, paragraph (a) (third-degree murder); 609.20, clauses (1), (2), and (5) (first-degree manslaughter); 609.205, clauses (1) and (5) (second-degree manslaughter); 609.221 (first-degree assault); 609.222 (second-degree assault); 609.223 (third-degree assault); 609.2231 (fourth-degree assault); 609.224 (fifth-degree assault); 609.2242 (domestic assault); 609.2245 (female genital mutilation); 609.2247 (domestic assault by strangulation); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.342 (first-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.343 (second-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.344 (third-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.345 (fourth-degree criminal sexual conduct); 609.3458 (sexual extortion); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.582, subdivision 1, clause (c) (burglary in the first degree); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.748, subdivision 6 (violation of harassment restraining order); 609.749 (harassment or stalking); 609.78, subdivision 2 (interference with an emergency call); 617.261 (nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images); and 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order); and similar laws of other states, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, and United States territories.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) A person may not be held criminally liable for a violation of section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), for a death caused by another unless the person intentionally aided, advised, hired, counseled, or conspired with or otherwise procured the other with the intent to cause the death of a human being.
(b) A person may not be held criminally liable for a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), for a death caused by another unless the person was a major participant in the underlying felony and acted with extreme indifference to human life.
(c) As used in this subdivision, "major participant" means a person who:
(1) used a deadly weapon during the commission of the underlying felony or provided a deadly weapon to another participant where it was reasonably foreseeable that the weapon would be used in the underlying felony;
(2) caused substantial bodily harm to another during the commission of the underlying felony;
(3) coerced or hired a participant to undertake actions in furtherance of the underlying felony that proximately caused the death, and where it was reasonably foreseeable that such actions would cause death or great bodily harm; or
(4) impeded another person from preventing the death either by physical action or by threat of physical action where it was reasonably foreseeable that death or great bodily harm would result.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date. The section does not apply to crimes committed before August 1, 2023.
(a) Whoever assaults another in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin or because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) Whoever violates the provisions of paragraph (a) within five years of a previous conviction under paragraph (a) is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year and a day or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
A person who violates section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223 in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's or another person's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin or because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, is subject to a statutory maximum penalty of 25 percent longer than the maximum penalty otherwise applicable.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Carjacking" means taking a motor vehicle from the person or in the presence of another while having knowledge of not being entitled to the motor vehicle and using or threatening the imminent use of force against any person to overcome the person's resistance or powers of resistance to, or to compel acquiescence in, the taking of the motor vehicle.
(c) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning given in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (10).
Whoever, while committing a carjacking, is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a manner to lead the victim to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon, or inflicts bodily harm upon another, is guilty of carjacking in the first degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both.
Whoever, while committing a carjacking, implies, by word or act, possession of a dangerous weapon, is guilty of carjacking in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both.
Whoever commits carjacking under any other circumstances is guilty of carjacking in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
Whoever violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:
(1) if the victim is released in a safe place without great bodily harm, to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both; or
(2) if the victim is not released in a safe place, or if the victim suffers great bodily harm during the course of the kidnapping, or if the person kidnapped is under the age of 16, to imprisonment for not more than 40 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $50,000, or both if:
(i) the victim is not released in a safe place;
(ii) the victim suffers great bodily harm during the course of the kidnapping; or
(iii) the person kidnapped is under the age of 16.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
Sections 609.2661 to 609.268 do not apply to any act described in section 145.412. a person providing reproductive health care offered, arranged, or furnished:
(1) for the purpose of terminating a pregnancy; and
(2) with the consent of the pregnant individual or the pregnant individual's representative, except in a medical emergency in which consent cannot be obtained.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Whoever commits theft may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $100,000, or both, if the property is a firearm, or the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000 and the conviction is for a violation of subdivision 2, clause (3), (4), (15), (16), or (19), or section 609.2335, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), item (i); or
(2) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the value of the property or services stolen exceeds $5,000, or if the property stolen was an article representing a trade secret, an explosive or incendiary device, or a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II pursuant to section 152.02 with the exception of marijuana; or
(3) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if any of the following circumstances exist:
(a) the value of the property or services stolen is more than $1,000 but not more than $5,000; or
(b) the property stolen was a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V pursuant to section 152.02; or
(c) the value of the property or services stolen is more than $500 but not more than $1,000 and the person has been convicted within the preceding five years for an offense under this section, section 256.98; 268.182; 609.24; 609.245; 609.522; 609.53; 609.582, subdivision 1, 2, or 3; 609.625; 609.63; 609.631; or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence for the offense, or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence; or
(d) the value of the property or services stolen is not more than $1,000, and any of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the property is taken from the person of another or from a corpse, or grave or coffin containing a corpse; or
(ii) the property is a record of a court or officer, or a writing, instrument or record kept, filed or deposited according to law with or in the keeping of any public officer or office; or
(iii) the property is taken from a burning, abandoned, or vacant building or upon its removal therefrom, or from an area of destruction caused by civil disaster, riot, bombing, or the proximity of battle; or
(iv) the property consists of public funds belonging to the state or to any political subdivision or agency thereof; or
(v) the property stolen is a motor vehicle; or
(4) to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the value of the property or services stolen is more than $500 but not more than $1,000; or
(5) in all other cases where the value of the property or services stolen is $500 or less, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both, provided, however, in any prosecution under subdivision 2, clauses (1), (2), (3), (4), (13), and (19), the value of the money or property or services received by the defendant in violation of any one or more of the above provisions within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of this subdivision; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this paragraph.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Pattern of retail theft" means acts committed or directed by the defendant on at least two separate occasions in the preceding six months that would constitute a violation of:
(1) section 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (1), (3), and (4), involving retail merchandise;
(2) section 609.521;
(3) section 609.53, subdivision 1, involving retail merchandise;
(4) section 609.582 when the building was a retail establishment; or
(5) section 609.59.
(c) "Retail establishment" means the building where a retailer sells retail merchandise.
(d) "Retail merchandise" means all forms of tangible property, without limitation, held out for sale by a retailer.
(e) "Retail theft enterprise" means a group of two or more individuals with a shared goal involving the unauthorized removal of retail merchandise from a retailer. Retail theft enterprise does not require the membership of the enterprise to remain the same or that the same individuals participate in each offense committed by the enterprise.
(f) "Retailer" means a person or entity that sells retail merchandise.
(g) "Value" means the retail market value at the time of the theft or, if the retail market value cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacement of the property within a reasonable time after the theft.
A person is guilty of organized retail theft if:
(1) the person is employed by or associated with a retail theft enterprise;
(2) the person has previously engaged in a pattern of retail theft and intentionally commits an act or directs another member of the retail theft enterprise to commit an act involving retail merchandise that would constitute a violation of:
(i) section 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (1), (3), and (4); or
(ii) section 609.53, subdivision 1; and
(3) the person or another member of the retail theft enterprise:
(i) resells or intends to resell the stolen retail merchandise;
(ii) advertises or displays any item of the stolen retail merchandise for sale; or
(iii) returns any item of the stolen retail merchandise to a retailer for anything of value.
Whoever commits organized retail theft may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than 15 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $35,000, or both, if the value of the property stolen exceeds $5,000;
(2) to imprisonment for not more than seven years or to payment of a fine of not more than $14,000, or both, if either of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the value of the property stolen is more than $1,000 but not more than $5,000; or
(ii) the value of the property is more than $500 but not more than $1,000 and the person commits the offense within ten years of the first of two or more convictions under this section, section 256.98; 268.182; 609.24; 609.245; 609.52; 609.53; 609.582, subdivision 1, 2, or 3; 609.625; 609.63; 609.631; or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence for the offense, or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence;
(3) to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both, if either of the following circumstances exist:
(i) the value of the property stolen is more than $500 but not more than $1,000; or
(ii) the value of the property is $500 or less and the person commits the offense within ten years of a previous conviction under this section, section 256.98; 268.182; 609.24; 609.245; 609.52; 609.53; 609.582, subdivision 1, 2, or 3; 609.625; 609.63; 609.631; or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence for the offense, or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony or gross misdemeanor sentence; or
(4) to imprisonment of not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the value of the property stolen is $500 or less.
The value of the retail merchandise received by the defendant in violation of this section within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying the provisions of this subdivision; provided that when two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this subdivision.
If a violation of this section creates a reasonably foreseeable risk of bodily harm to another, the penalties described in subdivision 3 are enhanced as follows:
(1) if the penalty is a gross misdemeanor, the person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both; and
(2) if the penalty is a felony, the statutory maximum sentence for the offense is 50 percent longer than for the underlying crime.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, whoever enters a building without consent and with intent to steal or commit any felony or gross misdemeanor while in the building, or enters a building without consent and steals or commits a felony or gross misdemeanor while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits burglary in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
(b) Whoever enters a building that is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), with intent to steal while in the building, or enters a building that is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and steals while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits burglary in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if:
(1) the person enters the building within one year after being told to leave the building and not return; and
(2) the person has been convicted within the preceding five years for an offense under this section, section 256.98, 268.182, 609.24, 609.245, 609.52, 609.522, 609.53, 609.625, 609.63, 609.631, or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony sentence for the offense or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony sentence.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) Whoever enters a building without consent and with intent to commit a misdemeanor other than to steal, or enters a building without consent and commits a misdemeanor other than to steal while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits burglary in the fourth degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) Whoever enters a building that is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), with intent to steal while in the building, or enters a building that is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and steals while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits burglary in the fourth degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the person enters the building within one year after being told to leave the building and not return.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) Whoever intentionally causes damage described in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), because of the property owner's or another's actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year and a day or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both., if the damage:
(1) was committed in whole or in substantial part because of the property owner's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03;
(2) was committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03; or
(3) was motivated in whole or in substantial part by an intent to intimidate or harm an individual or group of individuals because of actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03.
(b) In any prosecution under paragraph (a), the value of property damaged by the defendant in violation of that paragraph within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying this section. When two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this paragraph.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 1a, whoever intentionally causes damage to another person's physical property without the other person's consent may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if: (1) the damage reduces the value of the property by more than $500 but not more than $1,000 as measured by the cost of repair and replacement; or (2) the damage was to a public safety motor vehicle and the defendant knew the vehicle was a public safety motor vehicle.
(b) Whoever intentionally causes damage to another person's physical property without the other person's consent because of the property owner's or another's actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both, if the damage reduces the value of the property by not more than $500. and:
(1) was committed in whole or in substantial part because of the property owner's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03;
(2) was committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03; or
(3) was motivated in whole or in substantial part by an intent to intimidate or harm an individual or group of individuals because of actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03.
(c) In any prosecution under paragraph (a), clause (1), the value of property damaged by the defendant in violation of that paragraph within any six-month period may be aggregated and the defendant charged accordingly in applying this section. When two or more offenses are committed by the same person in two or more counties, the accused may be prosecuted in any county in which one of the offenses was committed for all of the offenses aggregated under this paragraph.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) "Machine gun" means any firearm designed to discharge, or capable of discharging automatically more than once by a single function of the trigger.
(b) "Shotgun" means a weapon designed, redesigned, made or remade which is intended to be fired from the shoulder and uses the energy of the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger.
(c) "Short-barreled shotgun" means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun if such weapon as modified has an overall length less than 26 inches.
(d) "Trigger activator" means:
(1) a removable manual or power driven trigger activating device constructed and designed so that, when attached to a firearm, the rate at which the trigger may be pulled increases and the rate of fire of the firearm increases to that of a machine gun; or
(2) a device that allows a semiautomatic firearm to shoot more than one shot with a single pull of the trigger or by harnessing the recoil of energy of the semiautomatic firearm to which it is affixed so that the trigger resets and continues firing without additional physical manipulation of the trigger.
(e) "Machine gun conversion kit" means any part or combination of parts designed and intended for use in converting a weapon into a machine gun, and any combination of parts from which a machine gun can be assembled, but does not include a spare or replacement part for a machine gun that is possessed lawfully under section 609.67, subdivision 3.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to offenses that occur on or after that date.
(a) Except as otherwise provided herein, whoever owns, possesses, or operates a machine gun, or any trigger activator or machine gun conversion kit, or a short-barreled shotgun may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000 $35,000, or both.
(b) Except as otherwise provided herein, whoever owns, possesses, or operates a short-barreled shotgun may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to offenses that occur on or after that date.
(a) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) enters upon another's property;
(2) surreptitiously gazes, stares, or peeps in the window or any other aperture of a house or place of dwelling of another; and
(3) does so with intent to intrude upon or interfere with the privacy of a member of the household.
(b) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) enters upon another's property;
(2) surreptitiously installs or uses any device for observing, photographing, recording, amplifying, or broadcasting sounds or events through the window or any other aperture of a house or place of dwelling of another; and
(3) does so with intent to intrude upon or interfere with the privacy of a member of the household.
(c) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) surreptitiously gazes, stares, or peeps in the window or other aperture of a sleeping room in a hotel, as defined in section 327.70, subdivision 3, a tanning booth, or other place where a reasonable person would have an expectation of privacy and has exposed or is likely to expose their intimate parts, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 5, or the clothing covering the immediate area of the intimate parts; and
(2) does so with intent to intrude upon or interfere with the privacy of the occupant.
(d) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) surreptitiously installs or uses any device for observing, photographing, recording, amplifying, or broadcasting sounds or events through the window or other aperture of a sleeping room in a hotel, as defined in section 327.70, subdivision 3, a tanning booth, or other place where a reasonable person would have an expectation of privacy and has exposed or is likely to expose their intimate parts, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 5, or the clothing covering the immediate area of the intimate parts; and
(2) does so with intent to intrude upon or interfere with the privacy of the occupant.
(e) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who:
(1) uses any device for photographing, recording, or broadcasting an image of an individual in a house or place of dwelling; a sleeping room of a hotel as defined in section 327.70, subdivision 3; a tanning booth; a bathroom; a locker room; a changing room; an indoor shower facility; or any place where a reasonable person would have an expectation of privacy; and
(2) does so with the intent to photograph, record, or broadcast an image of the individual's intimate parts, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 5, without the consent of the individual.
(f) A person is guilty of a misdemeanor who:
(1) surreptitiously installs or uses any device for observing, photographing, recording, or broadcasting an image of an individual's intimate parts, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 5, or the clothing covering the immediate area of the intimate parts;
(2) observes, photographs, or records the image under or around the individual's clothing; and
(3) does so with intent to intrude upon or interfere with the privacy of the individual.
(e) (g) A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than two years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both, if the person:
(1) violates this subdivision paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) after a previous conviction under this subdivision or section 609.749; or
(2) violates this subdivision paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e) against a minor under the age of 18, knowing or having reason to know that the minor is present.
(f) (h) A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than four years or to payment of a fine of not more than $5,000, or both, if: (1) the person violates paragraph (b) or, (d), or (e) against a minor victim under the age of 18; (2) the person is more than 36 months older than the minor victim; (3) the person knows or has reason to know that the minor victim is present; and (4) the violation is committed with sexual intent.
(i) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if the person:
(1) violates paragraph (f) after a previous conviction under this subdivision or section 609.749; or
(2) violates paragraph (f) against a minor under the age of 18, knowing or having reason to know that the victim is a minor.
(j) A person is guilty of a felony if the person violates paragraph (f) after two or more convictions under this subdivision or section 609.749.
(g) Paragraphs (k) Paragraph (b) and, (d) do, or (e) does not apply to law enforcement officers or corrections investigators, or to those acting under their direction, while engaged in the performance of their lawful duties. Paragraphs (c) and, (d), and (e) do not apply to conduct in: (1) a medical facility; or (2) a commercial establishment if the owner of the establishment has posted conspicuous signs warning that the premises are under surveillance by the owner or the owner's employees.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) A person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both:
(1) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, age, or national origin or because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03;
(2) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 by falsely impersonating another;
(3) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 and a dangerous weapon was used in any way in the commission of the offense;
(4) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 with intent to influence or otherwise tamper with a juror or a judicial proceeding or with intent to retaliate against a judicial officer, as defined in section 609.415, or a prosecutor, defense attorney, or officer of the court, because of that person's performance of official duties in connection with a judicial proceeding; or
(5) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 against a victim under the age of 18, if the actor is more than 36 months older than the victim.
(b) A person who commits any offense described in subdivision 2 against a victim under the age of 18, if the actor is more than 36 months older than the victim, and the act is committed with sexual or aggressive intent, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
Whoever violates subdivision 2, clause (2), is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced as follows:
(1) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the call triggers an emergency response and, as a result of the response, someone suffers great bodily harm or death.; or
(2) to imprisonment of not more than three years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the call triggers an emergency response and as a result of the response, someone suffers substantial bodily harm.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
Every Any person who shall endeavor attempts to conceal the birth of a child by any disposition of its dead body, whether when the child died before or after its birth, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. Every person who, having been convicted of endeavoring to conceal the stillbirth of any issue, or the death of any issue under the age of two years, shall, subsequent to that conviction, endeavor to conceal any subsequent birth or death, shall be punished by imprisonment for not more than five years. This section does not apply to the disposition of remains resulting from an abortion or miscarriage.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Every person who shall deposit or cause to be deposited in any post office in the state, or place in charge of any express company or other common carrier or person for transportation, any of the articles or things specified in section 617.201 or 617.241, or any circular, book, pamphlet, advertisement or notice relating thereto, with the intent of having the same conveyed by mail, express, or in any other manner; or who shall knowingly or willfully receive the same with intent to carry or convey it, or shall knowingly carry or convey the same by express, or in any other manner except by United States mail, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor. The provisions of this section and section 617.201 shall not be construed to apply to an article or instrument used by physicians lawfully practicing, or by their direction or prescription, for the cure or prevention of disease.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.
(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.
(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the time of the offense.
(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18 years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.
(e) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.322, 609.342 to 609.345, and 609.3458 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.
(f) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.466 and 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), item (iii), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.
(g) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.2335, 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), items (i) and (ii), (4), (15), or (16), 609.631, or 609.821, where the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000, or for violation of section 609.527 where the offense involves eight or more direct victims or the total combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(h) Except for violations relating to false material statements, representations or omissions, indictments or complaints for violations of section 609.671 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(i) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.561 to 609.563, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(j) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.746 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within the later of three years after the commission of the offense or three years after the offense was reported to law enforcement authorities.
(j) (k) In all other cases, indictments or complaints shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within three years after the commission of the offense.
(k) (l) The limitations periods contained in this section shall exclude any period of time during which the defendant was not an inhabitant of or usually resident within this state.
(l) (m) The limitations periods contained in this section for an offense shall not include any period during which the alleged offender participated under a written agreement in a pretrial diversion program relating to that offense.
(m) (n) The limitations periods contained in this section shall not include any period of time during which physical evidence relating to the offense was undergoing DNA analysis, as defined in section 299C.155, unless the defendant demonstrates that the prosecuting or law enforcement agency purposefully delayed the DNA analysis process in order to gain an unfair advantage.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date and to crimes committed before that date if the limitations period for the crime did not expire before August 1, 2023.
(a) Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 11, article 2, section 53, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, and 5, are revived and reenacted on the effective date of this section to expand the focus of the task force's duties and work beyond the intersection of felony murder and aiding and abetting liability for felony murder to more generally apply to the broader issues regarding the state's felony murder doctrine and aiding and abetting liability schemes discussed in "Task Force on Aiding and Abetting Felony Murder," Report to the Minnesota Legislature, dated February 1, 2022, "The Task Force's recommendations," number 4.
(b) On or before January 15, 2024, the task force shall submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees and divisions with jurisdiction over crime and sentencing on the findings and recommendations of the task force.
(c) The task force expires January 16, 2024, or the day after submitting its report under paragraph (b), whichever is earlier.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
Any person convicted of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), under the theory of liability for crimes of another and who is in the custody of the commissioner of corrections or under court supervision is entitled to petition to have the person's conviction vacated pursuant to this section.
As used in this section, "major participant" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 609.05, subdivision 2a, paragraph (c).
(a) By December 1, 2023, the commissioner of corrections shall notify individuals convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), of the right to file a preliminary application for relief if:
(1) the person was convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), and the person:
(i) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(ii) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or
(2) the person was convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), and the person:
(i) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(ii) was not a major participant in the underlying felony and did not act with extreme indifference to human life.
(b) The notice shall include the address of the Ramsey County District Court court administration.
(c) The commissioner of corrections may coordinate with the judicial branch to establish a standardized notification form.
(a) An applicant shall submit a preliminary application to the Ramsey County District Court. The preliminary application must contain:
(1) the applicant's name and, if different, the name under which the person was convicted;
(2) the applicant's date of birth;
(3) the district court case number of the case for which the person is seeking relief;
(4) a statement as to whether the applicant was convicted following a trial or pursuant to a plea;
(5) a statement as to whether the person filed a direct appeal from the conviction, a petition for postconviction relief, or both;
(6) a brief statement, not to exceed 3,000 words, explaining why the applicant is entitled to relief under this section from a conviction for the death of a human being caused by another; and
(7) the name and address of any attorney representing the applicant.
(b) The preliminary application may contain:
(1) the name, date of birth, and district court case number of any other person charged with, or convicted of, a crime arising from the same set of circumstances for which the applicant was convicted; and
(2) a copy of a criminal complaint or indictment, or the relevant portions of a presentence investigation or life imprisonment report, describing the facts of the case for which the applicant was convicted.
(c) The judicial branch may establish a standardized preliminary application form, but shall not reject a preliminary application for failure to use a standardized form.
(d) Any person seeking relief under this section must submit a preliminary application no later than October 1, 2025. Submission is complete upon mailing.
(e) Submission of a preliminary application shall be without costs or any fees charged to the applicant.
(a) Upon receipt of a preliminary application, the court administrator of the Ramsey County District Court shall immediately direct attention of the filing thereof to the chief judge or judge acting on the chief judge's behalf who shall promptly assign the matter to a judge in said district.
(b) The judicial branch may appoint a special master to review preliminary applications and may assign additional staff as needed to assist in the review of preliminary applications.
(c) Within 90 days of the Ramsey County District Court receiving the preliminary application, the reviewing judge shall determine whether, in the discretion of that judge, there is a reasonable probability that the application is entitled to relief under this section.
(d) In making the determination under paragraph (c), the reviewing judge shall consider the preliminary application and any materials submitted with the preliminary application and may consider relevant records in the possession of the judicial branch.
(e) The court may summarily deny an application when:
(1) the application does not contain the information required under subdivision 4, paragraph (a);
(2) the applicant is not in the custody of the commissioner of corrections or under court supervision;
(3) the applicant was not convicted of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), for crimes committed before August 1, 2023; or
(4) the issues raised in the application are not relevant to the relief available under this section or have previously been decided by the court of appeals or the supreme court in the same case.
(f) The court may also summarily deny an application if the applicant has filed a second or successive preliminary application, any prior application was denied for a reason other than that it did not contain the information required under subdivision 4, paragraph (a), and:
(1) the reviewing judge previously determined that there was a reasonable probability that the applicant was entitled to relief, but a court determined that the petitioner did not qualify for relief under subdivision 7;
(2) a previous application was submitted by an attorney representing the applicant; or
(3) the reviewing judge previously determined that there was not a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief, the second or successive preliminary application does not contain any additional information described in subdivision 4, paragraph (b), and the second or successive preliminary application was submitted by someone other than an attorney representing the applicant.
(g) If the reviewing judge determines that there is a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief, the judge shall send notice to the applicant and the applicant's attorney, if any, and the prosecutorial office responsible for prosecuting the applicant. In the event the applicant is without counsel, the reviewing judge shall send notice to the state public defender and shall advise the applicant of the referral.
(h) If the reviewing judge determines that there is not a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief, the judge shall send notice to the applicant and the applicant's attorney, if any. The notice must contain a brief statement explaining the reasons the reviewing judge concluded that there is not a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief.
(a) Unless extended for good cause, within 60 days of filing of the notice sent pursuant to subdivision 5, paragraph (g), the individual seeking relief shall file and serve a petition to vacate the conviction. The petition must be filed in the district court of the judicial district in the county where the conviction took place and must contain the information identified in subdivision 4, paragraph (a), and a statement of why the petitioner is entitled to relief. The petition may contain any other relevant information, including police reports, trial transcripts, and plea transcripts involving the petitioner or any other person investigated for, charged with, or convicted of a crime arising out of the same set of circumstances for which the petitioner was convicted. The filing of the petition and any document subsequent thereto and all proceedings thereon shall be without costs or any fees charged to the petitioner.
(b) Upon filing of the petition, the prosecutor shall make a good faith and reasonable effort to notify any person determined to be a victim of the underlying offense that a petition has been filed.
(c) A county attorney representing the prosecutorial office shall respond to the petition by answer or motion within 45 days after the filing of the petition pursuant to paragraph (a) unless extended for good cause. The response shall be filed with the court administrator of the district court and served on the petitioner if unrepresented or on the petitioner's attorney. The response may serve notice of the intent to support the petition or include a statement explaining why the petitioner is not entitled to relief along with any supporting documents. The filing of the response and any document subsequent thereto and all proceedings thereon shall be without costs or any fees charged to the county attorney.
(d) The petitioner may file a reply to the response filed by the county attorney within 15 days after the response is filed, unless extended for good cause.
(e) Within 30 days of the filing of the reply from the petition or, if no reply is filed, within 30 days of the filing of the response from the county attorney, the court shall:
(1) issue an order and schedule the matter for sentencing or resentencing pursuant to subdivision 7 if the county attorney indicates an intent to support the petition;
(2) issue an order denying the petition if additional information or submissions establish that there is not a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief under this section and include a memorandum identifying the additional information or submissions and explaining the reasons why the court concluded that there is not a reasonable probability that the applicant is entitled to relief; or
(3) schedule the matter for a hearing and issue any appropriate order regarding submission of evidence or identification of witnesses.
(f) The hearing shall be held in open court and conducted pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 590.04, except that the petitioner must be present at the hearing, unless excused under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 26.03, subdivision 1, clause (3). The prosecutor shall make a good faith and reasonable effort to notify any person determined to be a victim of the hearing.
(a) A petitioner who was convicted of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), is entitled to relief if the petitioner shows by a preponderance of the evidence that the petitioner:
(1) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(2) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure another with the intent to cause the death of a human being.
(b) A petitioner who was convicted of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), is entitled to relief if the petitioner shows by a preponderance of the evidence that the petitioner:
(1) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(2) was not a major participant in the underlying felony and did not act with extreme indifference to human life.
(c) If the court determines that the petitioner does not qualify for relief, the court shall issue an order denying the petition. If the court determines that the petitioner is entitled to relief, the court shall issue an order vacating the conviction for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), and either:
(1) resentence the petitioner for the most serious remaining offense for which the petitioner was convicted; or
(2) enter a conviction and impose a sentence for any other predicate felony arising out of the course of conduct that served as the factual basis for the conviction vacated by the court.
(d) The new sentence announced by the court under this section must be for the most serious predicate felony unless the most serious remaining offense for which the petitioner was convicted is that offense or a more serious offense.
(e) If, pursuant to paragraph (c), the court either resentences a petitioner or imposes a sentence, the court shall also resentence the petitioner for any other offense if the sentence was announced by a district court of the same county, the sentence was either ordered to be served consecutively to the vacated conviction or the criminal history calculation for that sentence included the vacated sentence, and the changes made pursuant to paragraph (c) would have resulted in a different criminal history score being used at the time of sentencing.
(f) The court shall state in writing or on the record the reasons for its decision on the petition.
(g) If the court intends to resentence a petitioner or impose a sentence on a petitioner, the court must hold the hearing at a time that allows any victim an opportunity to submit a statement consistent with Minnesota Statutes, section 611A.038. The prosecutor shall make a good faith and reasonable effort to notify any person determined to be a victim of the hearing and the right to submit or make a statement. A sentence imposed under this subdivision shall not increase the petitioner's total period of confinement or, if the petitioner was serving a stayed sentence, increase the period of supervision. The court may increase the period of confinement for a sentence that was ordered to be served consecutively to the vacated conviction based on a change in the appropriate criminal history score provided the court does not increase the petitioner's total period of confinement. A person resentenced under this paragraph is entitled to credit for time served in connection with the vacated offense.
(h) Relief granted under this section shall not be treated as an exoneration for purposes of the Incarceration and Exoneration Remedies Act.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 609.293, subdivisions 1 and 5; 609.34; 609.36; 617.20; 617.201; 617.202; 617.21; 617.28; and 617.29, are repealed.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
The commissioners of health and public safety, in consultation with sexual assault victim advocates and health care professionals, shall develop the notice required by subdivision 1. The notice must inform the victim, at a minimum, of:
(1) the obligation under section 609.35 of the county where the criminal sexual conduct occurred state to pay for the examination performed for the purpose of gathering evidence, that payment is not contingent on the victim reporting the criminal sexual conduct to law enforcement, and that the victim may incur expenses for treatment of injuries;
(2) the victim's rights if the crime is reported to law enforcement, including the victim's right to apply for reparations under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68, information on how to apply for reparations, and information on how to obtain an order for protection or a harassment restraining order; and
(3) the opportunity under section 611A.27 to obtain status information about an unrestricted sexual assault examination kit, as defined in section 299C.106, subdivision 1, paragraph (h).
(a) It shall be the standard of care for all hospitals and other health care providers that provide emergency care to, at a minimum:
(1) provide each female sexual assault victim with medically and factually accurate and unbiased written and oral information about emergency contraception from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and distributed to all hospitals by the Department of Health;
(2) orally inform each female sexual assault victim of the option of being provided with emergency contraception at the hospital or other health care facility; and
(3) immediately provide emergency contraception to each sexual assault victim who requests it provided it is not medically contraindicated and is ordered by a legal prescriber. Emergency contraception shall be administered in accordance with current medical protocols regarding timing and dosage necessary to complete the treatment.
(b) A hospital or health care provider may administer a pregnancy test. If the pregnancy test is positive, the hospital or health care provider does not have to comply with the provisions in paragraph (a).
It shall be the standard of care for all hospitals and health care providers that provide emergency care to, at a minimum:
(1) provide each sexual assault victim with factually accurate and unbiased written and oral medical information about prophylactic antibiotics for treatment of sexually transmitted diseases infections;
(2) orally inform each sexual assault victim of the option of being provided prophylactic antibiotics for treatment of sexually transmitted diseases infections at the hospital or other health care facility; and
(3) immediately provide prophylactic antibiotics for treatment of sexually transmitted diseases infections to each sexual assault victim who requests it, provided it is not medically contraindicated and is ordered by a legal prescriber.
(a) Notwithstanding rule 6.01 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure, a peace officer acting without a warrant who has decided to proceed with the prosecution of a person for violating section 169A.20 (driving while impaired), shall arrest and take the person into custody, and the person must be detained until the person's first court appearance, if the officer has reason to believe that the violation occurred:
(1) under the circumstances described in section 169A.24 (first-degree driving while impaired) or;
(2) under the circumstances described in section 169A.25 (second-degree driving while impaired);
(2) (3) under the circumstances described in section 169A.26 (third-degree driving while impaired) if the person is under the age of 19;
(3) (4) in the presence of an aggravating factor described in section 169A.03, subdivision 3, clause (2) or (3); or
(4) (5) while the person's driver's license or driving privileges have been canceled under section 171.04, subdivision 1, clause (10) (persons not eligible for drivers' licenses, inimical to public safety).
(b) A person described in paragraph (a), clause (1) or (5), must be detained until the person's first court appearance.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
When a peace officer has reason to believe from the manner in which a person is driving, operating, controlling, or acting upon departure from a motor vehicle, or has driven, operated, or controlled a motor vehicle, that the driver may be violating or has violated section 169A.20 (driving while impaired), 169A.31 (alcohol-related school bus or Head Start bus driving), or 169A.33 (underage drinking and driving), or an alcohol-related violation of section 221.0314 or 221.605 committed by a driver of a commercial vehicle, the officer may require the driver to provide a sample of the driver's breath for a preliminary screening test using a device approved by the commissioner for this purpose.
The results of this preliminary screening test must be used for the purpose of deciding whether an arrest should be made and whether to require the tests authorized in section 169A.51 (chemical tests for intoxication), but must not be used in any court action except the following:
(1) to prove that a test was properly required of a person pursuant to section 169A.51, subdivision 1;
(2) in a civil action arising out of the operation or use of the motor vehicle;
(3) in an action for license reinstatement under section 171.19;
(4) in a prosecution for a violation of section 169A.20, subdivision 2 (driving while impaired; test refusal);
(5) in a prosecution or juvenile court proceeding concerning a violation of section 169A.33 (underage drinking and driving), or 340A.503, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2) (underage alcohol consumption);
(6) in a prosecution under section 169A.31 (alcohol-related school or Head Start bus driving), or 171.30 (limited license); or
(7) in a prosecution for a violation of a restriction on a driver's license under section 171.09, which provides that the license holder may not use or consume any amount of alcohol or a controlled substance.; or
(8) in a prosecution for a violation of Code of Federal Regulations, title 49, part 392, as adopted in sections 221.0314, subdivision 6, and 221.605.
(a) This subdivision applies to a person charged with a nonfelony violation of section 169A.20 (driving while impaired) under circumstances described in section 169A.40, subdivision 3 (certain DWI offenders; custodial arrest).
(b) Except as provided in subdivision 3, unless maximum bail is imposed under section 629.471, a person described in paragraph (a) may be released from detention only if the person agrees to:
(1) abstain from alcohol; and
(2) submit to a program of electronic alcohol monitoring, involving at least daily measurements of the person's alcohol concentration, pending resolution of the charge.
Clause (2) applies only when electronic alcohol-monitoring equipment is available to the court. The court shall require partial or total reimbursement from the person for the cost of the electronic alcohol monitoring, to the extent the person is able to pay.
(a) Except as provided in subdivision 3, a person charged with violating section 169A.20 within ten years of the first of three or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents may be released from detention only if the following conditions are imposed:
(1) the conditions described in subdivision 1, paragraph (b), if applicable;
(2) the impoundment of the registration plates of the vehicle used to commit the violation, unless already impounded;
(3) if the vehicle used to commit the violation was an off-road recreational vehicle or a motorboat, the impoundment of the off-road recreational vehicle or motorboat;
(4) a requirement that the person report weekly to a probation agent;
(5) a requirement that the person abstain from consumption of alcohol and controlled substances and submit to random alcohol tests or urine analyses at least weekly;
(6) a requirement that, if convicted, the person reimburse the court or county for the total cost of these services; and
(7) any other conditions of release ordered by the court.
(b) In addition to setting forth conditions of release under paragraph (a), if required by court rule, the court shall also fix the amount of money bail without other conditions upon which the defendant may obtain release.
(a) A court is not required, either when initially reviewing a person's release or when modifying the terms of the person's release, to order a person charged with violating section 169A.24 (first-degree driving while impaired), 169A.25 (second-degree driving while impaired), or 169A.26 (third-degree driving while impaired) to submit to a program of electronic alcohol monitoring under subdivision 1 or 2 if the person becomes a program participant in the ignition interlock program under section 171.306.
(b) A judicial officer, county agency, or probation office may not require or suggest that the person use a particular ignition interlock vendor when complying with this subdivision but may provide the person with a list of all Minnesota vendors of certified devices.
(c) Paragraph (b) does not apply in counties where a contract exists for a specific vendor to provide interlock device service for program participants who are indigent pursuant to section 171.306, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), clause (1).
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) The commissioner shall issue a registration plate impoundment order when:
(1) a person's driver's license or driving privileges are revoked for a plate impoundment violation;
(2) a person is arrested for or charged with a plate impoundment violation described in subdivision 1, paragraph (d), clause (5); or
(3) a person issued new registration plates pursuant to subdivision 13, paragraph (f), violates the terms of the ignition interlock program as described in subdivision 13, paragraph (g).
(b) The order must require the impoundment of the registration plates of the motor vehicle involved in the plate impoundment violation and all motor vehicles owned by, registered, or leased in the name of the violator, including motor vehicles registered jointly or leased in the name of the violator and another. The commissioner shall not issue an impoundment order for the registration plates of a rental vehicle, as defined in section 168.041, subdivision 10, or a vehicle registered in another state.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to acts occurring on or after that date.
(a) A judicial officer, county agency, or probation office may not require or suggest that a person participating in the ignition interlock program under this section use a particular ignition interlock vendor but may provide the person with a list of all Minnesota vendors of certified devices.
(b) Paragraph (a) does not apply in counties where a contract exists for a specific vendor to provide interlock device service for program participants who are indigent pursuant to subdivision 2, paragraph (b), clause (1).
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Secure crisis shelters for battered women victims of domestic abuse and their children designated by the Minnesota Department of Corrections Public Safety are not eligible for housing support under this chapter.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, each licensed insurer engaged in writing policies of homeowner's insurance authorized in section 60A.06, subdivision 1, clause (1)(c), or commercial fire policies or commercial nonliability policies shall collect a surcharge as provided in this paragraph. Through June 30, 2013, The surcharge is equal to 0.65 percent of the gross premiums and assessments, less return premiums, on direct business received by the company, or by its agents for it, for homeowner's insurance policies, commercial fire policies, and commercial nonliability insurance policies in this state. Beginning July 1, 2013, the surcharge is 0.5 percent.
(b) The surcharge amount collected under paragraph (a) or subdivision 2, paragraph (b), may not be considered premium for any other purpose. The surcharge amount under paragraph (a) must be separately stated on either a billing or policy declaration or document containing similar information sent to an insured.
(c) Amounts collected by the commissioner under this section must be deposited in the fire safety account established pursuant to subdivision 3.
(a) The commissioner may accept donations, nonfederal grants, bequests, and other gifts of money to carry out the purposes of chapter 299A. The commissioner may not accept any contributions under this section unless the contributions can be applied to divisions and programs that are related to statutory duties of the department. Donations, nonfederal grants, bequests, or other gifts of money accepted by the commissioner must be deposited in an account in the special revenue fund and are appropriated to the commissioner for the purpose for which the money was given if the department is authorized to conduct that activity under this chapter.
(b) By January 15 of each year, the commissioner shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance on the money received under this section, the sources of the money, and the specific purposes for which it was used.
The commissioner shall, in consultation with the chemical abuse and violence prevention council, administer a grant program to fund community-based programs that are designed to enhance the community's sense of personal security and to assist the community in its crime control and prevention efforts operate crime or violence prevention and intervention programs that provide direct services to community members. Programs must be culturally competent and identify specific outcomes that can be tracked and measured to demonstrate the impact the program has on community crime and violence. Examples of qualifying programs include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) community-based programs designed to provide services for children under 14 years of age and youth who are juvenile offenders or who are at risk of becoming juvenile offenders. The programs must give priority to:
(i) juvenile restitution;
(ii) prearrest or pretrial diversion, including through mediation;
(iii) probation innovation;
(iv) teen courts, community service; or
(v) post-incarceration alternatives to assist youth in returning to their communities;
(2) community-based programs designed to provide at-risk children and youth under 14 years of age with after-school and summer enrichment activities;
(3) community-based programs designed to discourage young people from involvement in unlawful drug or street gang activities, such as neighborhood youth centers;
(4) neighborhood block clubs and innovative community-based crime prevention programs;
(5) community- and school-based programs designed to enrich the educational, cultural, or recreational opportunities of at-risk children and youth, including programs designed to keep at-risk youth from dropping out of school and encourage school dropouts to return to school;
(6) community-based programs designed to intervene with juvenile offenders who are identified as likely to engage in repeated criminal activity in the future unless intervention is undertaken;
(7) community-based collaboratives that coordinate multiple programs and funding sources to address the needs of at-risk children and youth, including, but not limited to, collaboratives that address the continuum of services for juvenile offenders and those who are at risk of becoming juvenile offenders;
(8) programs that are proven successful at increasing the rate of school success or the rate of postsecondary education attendance for high-risk students;
(9) community-based programs that provide services to homeless youth assistance programs;
(10) programs designed to reduce truancy;
(11) other community- and school-based crime prevention programs that are innovative and encourage substantial involvement by members of the community served by the program;
(12) community-based programs that attempt to prevent and educate on the risks of sex trafficking, ameliorate the effects of teenage prostitution sex trafficking, or both;
(13) programs for mentoring at-risk youth, including youth at risk of gang involvement; and
(14) programs operated by community violence prevention councils;
(15) programs that intervene in volatile situations to mediate disputes before they become violent; and
(16) programs that provide services to individuals and families harmed by gun violence.
(a) A local unit of government or a nonprofit community-based entity may apply for a grant by submitting an application with the commissioner. The applicant shall specify the following in its application:
(1) a description of each program for which funding is sought;
(2) specific outcomes and performance indicators for the program;
(3) a description of the planning process that identifies local community needs, surveys existing programs, provides for coordination with existing programs, and involves all affected sectors of the community;
(4) the geographical area to be served by the program; and
(5) statistical information as to the number of arrests in the geographical area for violent crimes and for crimes involving Schedule I and II controlled substances. "Violent crime" includes a violation of or an attempt or conspiracy to violate any of the following laws: sections 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.2112; 609.2113; 609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.228; 609.235; 609.24; 609.245; 609.25; 609.255; 609.2661; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.2665; 609.267; 609.2671; 609.268; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.498, subdivision 1; 609.561; 609.562; 609.582, subdivision 1; 609.687; or any provision of chapter 152 that is punishable by a maximum sentence greater than ten years; or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21; and crime data or other statistical information to demonstrate the need for the proposed services.
(6) the number of economically disadvantaged youth in the geographical areas to be served by the program.
(b) The commissioner shall give priority to funding community-based collaboratives, programs that demonstrate substantial involvement by members of the community served by the program, programs that have local government or law enforcement support, community intervention and prevention programs that are reducing disparities in the communities they serve, and programs that either serve the geographical areas that have the highest crime rates, as measured by the data supplied under paragraph (a), clause (5), or serve geographical areas that have the largest concentrations of economically disadvantaged youth. Up to 2.5 percent of the appropriation may be used by the commissioner to administer the program serve communities disproportionately impacted by violent crime.
As used in this section:
(a) (1) "commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.;
(2) "firefighter" means a volunteer, paid on-call, part-time, or career firefighter serving a general population within the boundaries of the state;
(b) (3) "peace officer" means a person who is licensed under section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).;
(4) "public safety officer" means a peace officer, firefighter, or qualified emergency medical service provider;
(5) "qualified emergency medical service provider" means a person certified under section 144E.28 who is actively employed by a Minnesota licensed ambulance service; and
(c) (6) "vest" means bullet-resistant soft body armor that is flexible, concealable, and custom fitted to the peace public safety officer to provide ballistic and trauma protection.
Peace Public safety officers and heads of local law enforcement agencies and entities who buy vests for the use of peace public safety officer employees may apply to the commissioner for reimbursement of funds spent to buy vests. On approving an application for reimbursement, the commissioner shall pay the applicant an amount equal to the lesser of one-half of the vest's purchase price or $600, as adjusted according to subdivision 2a. The political subdivision agency or entity that employs the peace public safety officer shall pay at least the lesser of one-half of the vest's purchase price or $600, as adjusted according to subdivision 2a. The political subdivision employer may not deduct or pay its share of the vest's cost from any clothing, maintenance, or similar allowance otherwise provided to the peace public safety officer by the law enforcement agency employer.
On October 1, 2006, the commissioner of public safety shall adjust the $600 reimbursement amounts specified in subdivision 2, and in each subsequent year, on October 1, the commissioner shall adjust the reimbursement amount applicable immediately preceding that October 1 date. The adjusted rate must reflect the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers, published by the federal Bureau of Labor Statistics, occurring in the one-year period ending on the preceding June 1.
(a) Only vests that either meet or exceed the requirements of standard 0101.03 of the National Institute of Justice or that meet or exceed the requirements of that standard, except wet armor conditioning, are eligible for reimbursement.
(b) Eligibility for reimbursement is limited to vests bought after December 31, 1986, by or for peace public safety officers (1) who did not own a vest meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) before the purchase, or (2) who owned a vest that was at least five years old.
(c) The requirement set forth in paragraph (b), clauses (1) and (2), shall not apply to any peace public safety officer who purchases a vest constructed from a zylon-based material, provided that the peace public safety officer provides proof of purchase or possession of the vest prior to July 1, 2005.
The commissioner may adopt rules under chapter 14 to administer this section.
A state agency, political subdivision of the state, or state or local government employee, or other entity that provides reimbursement for purchase of a vest under this section is not liable to a peace public safety officer or the peace public safety officer's heirs for negligence in the death of or injury to the peace public safety officer because the vest was defective or deficient.
A peace public safety officer who is reimbursed for the purchase of a vest under this section and who suffers injury or death because the officer failed to wear the vest, or because the officer wore a vest that was defective or deficient, may not lose or be denied a benefit or right, including a benefit under section 299A.44, to which the officer, or the officer's heirs, is otherwise entitled.
(a) "Killed in the line of duty" does not include deaths from natural causes, except as provided in this subdivision. In the case of a public safety officer, killed in the line of duty includes the death of a public safety officer caused by accidental means while the public safety officer is acting in the course and scope of duties as a public safety officer. Killed in the line of duty also means if a public safety officer dies as the direct and proximate result of a heart attack, stroke, or vascular rupture, that officer shall be presumed to have died as the direct and proximate result of a personal injury sustained in the line of duty if:
(1) that officer, while on duty:
(i) engaged in a situation, and that engagement involved nonroutine stressful or strenuous physical law enforcement, fire suppression, rescue, hazardous material response, emergency medical services, prison security, disaster relief, or other emergency response activity; or
(ii) participated in a training exercise, and that participation involved nonroutine stressful or strenuous physical activity;
(2) that officer died as a result of a heart attack, stroke, or vascular rupture suffered:
(i) while engaging or participating under clause (1);
(ii) while still on duty after engaging or participating under clause (1); or
(iii) not later than 24 hours after engaging or participating under clause (1); and
(3) the presumption is not overcome by competent medical evidence to the contrary.
(b) "Killed in the line of duty" also means that the officer died due to suicide:
(1) secondary to a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder as described in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders published by the American Psychiatric Association; or
(2) within 45 days of the end of exposure, while on duty, to a traumatic event.
"Traumatic event" means:
(1) a homicide, suicide, or the violent or gruesome death of another individual, including but not limited to a death resulting from a mass casualty event, mass fatality event, or mass shooting;
(2) a harrowing circumstance posing an extraordinary and significant danger or threat to the life of or of serious bodily harm to any individual, including but not limited to a death resulting from a mass casualty event, mass fatality event, or mass shooting; or
(3) an act of criminal sexual violence committed against any individual.
Sections 299A.48 to 299A.52 and 299K.095 may be cited as the "Minnesota Hazardous Materials Emergency Incident Response Act."
For the purposes of sections 299A.48 to 299A.52 and 299K.095, the following terms have the meanings given them.
"Bomb squad" means a team trained, equipped, and authorized by the commissioner to evaluate and provide disposal operations for bombs or other similar hazardous explosives. Bomb squad includes a bomb disposal unit as defined in section 299C.063.
"Chemical assessment team" means a team (1) trained, equipped, and authorized to evaluate and, when possible, provide simple mitigation to a hazardous materials incident and (2) required to recommend to the local incident manager the best means of controlling the hazard after consideration of life safety concerns, environmental effects, exposure hazards, quantity and type of hazardous material, availability of resources, or other relevant factors.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.
"Emergency response incident" means any incident to which the response of a state emergency response asset is required.
"Hazardous materials" means substances or materials that, because of their chemical, physical, or biological nature, pose a potential risk to life, health, or property if they are released. "Hazardous materials" includes any substance or material in a particular form or quantity that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property, or any substance or material in a quantity or form that may be harmful to humans, animals, crops, water systems, or other elements of the environment if accidentally or intentionally released. Hazardous substances so designated may include explosives, radioactive materials, etiologic agents, flammable liquids or solids, combustible liquids or solids, poisons, oxidizing or corrosive materials, chemical and biological substances, and toxic or flammable gases.
"Hazardous materials emergency response team" means a team (1) trained, equipped, and authorized to evaluate and, when possible, provide practical mitigation to a hazardous materials incident and (2) required to recommend to the local incident manager the best means of controlling the hazard after consideration of life safety concerns, environmental effects, exposure hazards, quantity and type of hazardous material, availability of resources, and other relevant factors.
"Local unit of government" means a county, home rule charter or statutory city, or town.
"Minnesota air rescue team" means a team trained, equipped, and authorized by the commissioner to perform specialized air rescue operations.
"Person" means any individual, partnership, association, public or private corporation or other entity including the United States government, any interstate body, the state, and any agency, department, or political subdivision of the state.
"Regional hazardous materials response team" means a team trained and equipped to respond to and mitigate a hazardous materials release. A regional hazardous materials response team may include strategically located chemical assessment teams.
"State emergency response asset" means any team or teams defined under this section.
"Urban search and rescue team" or "USAR" means a team trained and equipped to respond to and carry out rescue and recovery operations at the scene of a collapsed structure. A USAR team may include strategically located fire department assets combined under one joint powers agreement.
After consultation with the commissioners of natural resources, agriculture, transportation, and the Pollution Control Agency, the state fire marshal, the Emergency Response Commission, appropriate technical emergency response representatives, and representatives of affected parties, the commissioner shall adopt rules to implement a statewide hazardous materials incident response plan. The plan must include:
(1) the locations of up to five regional hazardous materials emergency response teams, based on the location of hazardous materials, response time, proximity to large population centers, and other factors;
(2) the number and qualifications of members on each team;
(3) the responsibilities of regional hazardous materials emergency response teams;
(4) equipment needed for regional hazardous materials emergency response teams;
(5) procedures for selecting and contracting with local governments or nonpublic persons to establish regional hazardous materials emergency response teams;
(6) procedures for dispatching teams at the request of local governments;
(7) a fee schedule for reimbursing local governments or nonpublic persons responding to an incident; and
(8) coordination with other state departments and agencies, local units of government, other states, Indian tribes, the federal government, and other nonpublic persons.
The commissioner may cooperate with and enter into contracts with other state departments and agencies, local units of government, other states, Indian tribes, the federal government, or nonpublic persons to implement the emergency incident response plan.
When a regional hazardous materials emergency response team has completed its response to an incident, the commissioner shall notify the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency, which is responsible for assessing environmental damage caused by the incident and providing oversight of monitoring and remediation of that damage from the time the response team has completed its activities.
During operations authorized under section 299A.50, members of a regional hazardous materials team state emergency response asset operating outside their geographic jurisdiction are "employees of the state" as defined in section 3.736.
During operations authorized under section 299A.50, members of a regional hazardous materials team state emergency response asset operating outside their geographic jurisdiction are considered employees of the Department of Public Safety for purposes of chapter 176.
A person who provides personnel and equipment to assist at the scene of a hazardous materials an emergency response incident outside the person's geographic jurisdiction or property, at the request of the state or a local unit of government, is not liable for any civil damages resulting from acts or omissions in providing the assistance, unless the person acts in a willful and wanton or reckless manner in providing the assistance.
A responsible person party, as described in section 115B.03, is liable for the reasonable and necessary costs, including legal and administrative costs, of response to a hazardous materials an emergency response incident or explosives disposal under section 299C.063 incurred by a regional hazardous materials response team state emergency response asset or local unit of government. For the purposes of this section, "hazardous substance" as used in section 115B.03 means "hazardous material" as defined in section 299A.49.
The commissioner shall assess the responsible person party for the regional hazardous materials response team an emergency response asset's costs of response. The commissioner may bring an action for recovery of unpaid costs, reasonable attorney fees, and any additional court costs. Any funds received by the commissioner under this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner to pay for costs for which the funds were received. Any remaining funds at the end of the biennium shall be transferred to the Fire Safety Account.
By February 1 of each year, the commissioner of public safety shall submit the following reports to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees and divisions having jurisdiction over criminal justice policy and funding:
(1) a report containing a summary of all audits conducted on multijurisdictional entities under subdivision 4;
(2) a report on the results of audits conducted on data submitted to the criminal gang investigative data system under section 299C.091; and
(3) a report on the activities and goals of the coordinating council; and
(4) a report on how funds appropriated for violent crime reduction strategies were used.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
On or before March 31 of each year, the Minnesota Youth Intervention Programs Association shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance on the implementation, use, and administration of the grant program created under this section. The report shall include information sent by agencies administering youth intervention programs to the Minnesota Youth Intervention Programs Association and the Office of Justice Programs. At a minimum, the report must identify:
(1) the grant recipients;
(2) the geographic location of the grant recipients;
(3) the total number of individuals served by all grant recipients, disaggregated by race, ethnicity, and gender;
(4) the total number of individuals served by all grant recipients who successfully completed programming, disaggregated by age, race, ethnicity, and gender;
(5) the total amount of money awarded in grants and the total amount remaining to be awarded from each appropriation;
(6) the amount of money granted to each recipient;
(7) grantee workplan objectives;
(8) how the grant was used based on grantee quarterly narrative reports and financial reports; and
(9) summarized relevant youth intervention program outcome survey data measuring the developmental assets of participants, based on Search Institute's Developmental Assets Framework.
The commissioner of public safety must appoint a statewide antitrafficking investigation coordinator who shall work in the Office of Justice Programs. The coordinator must be a current or former law enforcement officer or prosecutor with experience investigating or prosecuting trafficking-related offenses. The coordinator must also have knowledge of services available to and Safe Harbor response for victims of sex trafficking and sexual exploitation and Minnesota's child welfare system response. The coordinator serves at the pleasure of the commissioner in the unclassified service.
The office must report on measurable outcomes achieved to meet its statutory duties, along with specific objectives and outcome measures proposed for the following year. The report must include data and statistics on missing and murdered Indigenous women, children, and Two-Spirit relatives in Minnesota, including names, dates of disappearance, and dates of death, to the extent the data is publicly available. The report must also identify and describe the work of any reward advisory group and itemize the expenditures of the Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag reward account, if any. The office must submit the report by January 15 each year to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with primary jurisdiction over public safety.
As used in this section:
(1) "Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag" means "they will be remembered forever";
(2) "missing and murdered Indigenous relatives" means missing and murdered Indigenous people from or descended from a federally recognized Indian Tribe; and
(3) "Two-Spirit" means cultural, spiritual, sexual, and gender identity as reflected in complex Indigenous understandings of gender roles, spirituality, and the long history of gender diversity in Indigenous cultures.
An account for rewards for information on missing and murdered Indigenous women, children, and Two-Spirit relatives is created in the special revenue fund. Money deposited into the account is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety to pay rewards and for the purposes provided under this section.
The director of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives, in consultation with the Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag reward advisory group:
(1) shall determine the eligibility criteria and procedures for granting rewards under this section; and
(2) is authorized to pay a reward to any person who provides relevant information relating to a missing and murdered Indigenous woman, child, and Two-Spirit relative investigation.
(a) The director of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives, in consultation with the stakeholder groups described in section 299A.85, subdivision 5, shall appoint an advisory group to make recommendations on:
(1) paying rewards under this section;
(2) supporting community-based efforts through funding community-led searches and search kits, including but not limited to global position system devices and vests; community-led communications, including but not limited to flyers, staples, and duct tape; and other justice-related expenses;
(3) funding for community-led communications and outreach, including but not limited to billboards and other media-related expenses;
(4) funding activities and programs to gather information on missing and murdered Indigenous women, children, and Two-Spirit relatives and to partner with and support community-led efforts;
(5) developing, implementing, and coordinating prevention and awareness programming based on best practices and data-driven research; and
(6) any other funding activities and needs.
(b) The advisory group shall consist of the following individuals:
(1) a representative from the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives;
(2) a representative from a Tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides legal services to Indigenous women and girls;
(3) a representative from a Tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides advocacy or counseling for Indigenous women and girls who have been victims of violence;
(4) a representative from a Tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides services to Indigenous women and girls;
(5) a Tribal peace officer who works for or resides on a federally recognized American Indian reservation in Minnesota;
(6) a representative from the Minnesota Human Trafficking Task Force; and
(7) a survivor or family member of a missing and murdered Indigenous woman, child, or Two-Spirit relative.
(c) Members serve a term of four years. Vacancies shall be filled by the appointing authority and members may be reappointed.
(d) The advisory group shall meet as necessary but at a minimum twice per year to carry out its duties. The director shall provide necessary office space and administrative support to the group. Members of the group serve without compensation but shall receive expense reimbursement as provided in section 15.059.
(e) The representative from the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives may fully participate in the advisory group's activities but may not vote on issues before the group.
The director of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives, in consultation with the reward advisory group, may spend up to four percent of available funds on an advertising or public relations campaign to increase public awareness on the availability of rewards under this section.
The director of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives, in consultation with the reward advisory group, may apply for and accept grants and donations from the public and from public and private entities to implement this section. The commissioner of public safety shall deposit any grants or donations received under this subdivision into the account established under subdivision 1.
Notwithstanding section 15.059, subdivision 6, the advisory group does not expire.
The commissioner shall establish and maintain an office dedicated to preventing and ending the targeting of Black women and girls within the Minnesota Office of Justice Programs.
(a) The commissioner must appoint a director who is a person closely connected to the Black community and who is highly knowledgeable about criminal investigations. The commissioner is encouraged to consider candidates for appointment who are recommended by members of the Black community.
(b) The director may select, appoint, and compensate out of available funds assistants and employees as necessary to discharge the office's responsibilities.
(c) The director and full-time staff shall be members of the Minnesota State Retirement Association.
(a) The office has the following duties:
(1) advocate in the legislature for legislation that will facilitate the accomplishment of mandates identified in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women;
(2) advocate for state agencies to take actions to facilitate the accomplishment of mandates identified in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women;
(3) develop recommendations for legislative and agency actions to address injustice in the criminal justice system's response to cases of missing and murdered Black women and girls;
(4) facilitate research to refine the mandates in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women and to assess the potential efficacy, feasibility, and impact of the recommendations;
(5) collect data on missing person and homicide cases involving Black women and girls, including the total number of cases, the rate at which the cases are solved, the length of time the cases remain open, and a comparison to similar cases involving different demographic groups;
(6) collect data on Amber Alerts, including the total number of Amber Alerts issued, the total number of Amber Alerts that involve Black girls, and the outcome of cases involving Amber Alerts disaggregated by the child's race and sex;
(7) collect data on reports of missing Black girls, including the number classified as voluntary runaways, and a comparison to similar cases involving different demographic groups;
(8) analyze and assess the intersection between cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and labor trafficking and sex trafficking;
(9) develop recommendations for legislative, agency, and community actions to address the intersection between cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and labor trafficking and sex trafficking;
(10) analyze and assess the intersection between cases involving murdered Black women and girls and domestic violence, including prior instances of domestic violence within the family or relationship, whether an offender had prior convictions for domestic assault or related offenses, and whether the offender used a firearm in the murder or any prior instances of domestic assault;
(11) develop recommendations for legislative, agency, and community actions to address the intersection between cases involving murdered Black women and girls and domestic violence;
(12) develop tools and processes to evaluate the implementation and impact of the efforts of the office;
(13) track and collect Minnesota data on missing and murdered Black women and girls, and provide statistics upon public or legislative inquiry;
(14) facilitate technical assistance for local and Tribal law enforcement agencies during active cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls;
(15) conduct case reviews and report on the results of case reviews for the following types of cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls: cold cases for missing Black women and girls and death investigation review for cases of Black women and girls ruled as suicide or overdose under suspicious circumstances;
(16) conduct case reviews of the prosecution and sentencing for cases where a perpetrator committed a violent or exploitative crime against a Black woman or girl. These case reviews must identify those cases where the perpetrator is a repeat offender;
(17) prepare draft legislation as necessary to allow the office access to the data necessary for the office to conduct the reviews required in this section and advocate for passage of that legislation;
(18) review sentencing guidelines for crimes related to missing and murdered Black women and girls, recommend changes if needed, and advocate for consistent implementation of the guidelines across Minnesota courts;
(19) develop and maintain communication with relevant divisions in the Department of Public Safety, including but not limited to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, regarding any cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and on procedures for investigating cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls;
(20) consult with the Council for Minnesotans of African Heritage established in section 15.0145; and
(21) coordinate, as relevant, with federal efforts, and efforts in neighboring states and Canada.
(b) As used in this subdivision:
(1) "labor trafficking" has the meaning given in section 609.281, subdivision 5; and
(2) "sex trafficking" has the meaning given in section 609.321, subdivision 7a.
In fulfilling its duties, the office may coordinate, as useful, with stakeholder groups that were represented on the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women and state agencies that are responsible for the systems that play a role in investigating, prosecuting, and adjudicating cases involving violence committed against Black women and girls; those who have a role in supporting or advocating for missing or murdered Black women and girls and the people who seek justice for them; and those who represent the interests of Black people. This includes the following entities: Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association; Minnesota Sheriffs' Association; Bureau of Criminal Apprehension; Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association; Tribal law enforcement; Minnesota County Attorneys Association; United States Attorney's Office; juvenile courts; Minnesota Coroners' and Medical Examiners' Association; United States Coast Guard; state agencies, including the Departments of Health, Human Services, Education, Corrections, and Public Safety; service providers who offer legal services, advocacy, and other services to Black women and girls; Black women and girls who are survivors; and organizations and leadership from urban and statewide Black communities.
The office must report on measurable outcomes achieved to meet its statutory duties, along with specific objectives and outcome measures proposed for the following year. The report must include data and statistics on missing and murdered Black women and girls in Minnesota, including names, dates of disappearance, and dates of death, to the extent the data is publicly available. The office must submit the report by January 15 each year to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with primary jurisdiction over public safety.
(a) A missing and murdered Black women and girls account is established in the special revenue fund. Money in the account, including interest earned, is appropriated to the office for the purposes of carrying out the office's duties, including but not limited to issuing grants to community-based organizations.
(b) Notwithstanding sections 16A.013 to 16A.016, the office may accept funds contributed by individuals and may apply for and receive grants from public and private entities. The funds accepted or received under this subdivision must be deposited in the missing and murdered Black women and girls account created under paragraph (a).
(a) The office shall issue grants to community-based organizations that provide services designed to prevent or end the targeting of Black women or girls, or to provide assistance to victims of offenses that targeted Black women or girls.
(b) Grant recipients must use money to:
(1) provide services designed to reduce or prevent crimes or other negative behaviors that target Black women or girls;
(2) provide training to the community about how to handle situations and crimes involving the targeting of Black women and girls, including but not limited to training for law enforcement officers, county attorneys, city attorneys, judges, and other criminal justice partners; or
(3) provide services to Black women and girls who are victims of crimes or other offenses, or to the family members of missing and murdered Black women and girls.
(c) Applicants must apply in a form and manner established by the office.
(d) Grant recipients must provide an annual report to the office that includes:
(1) the services provided by the grant recipient;
(2) the number of individuals served in the previous year; and
(3) any other information required by the office.
(e) On or before February 1 of each year, the office shall report to the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety on the work of grant recipients, including a description of the number of entities awarded grants, the amount of those grants, and the number of individuals served by the grantees.
(f) The office may enter into agreements with the Office of Justice Programs for the administration of grants issued under this subdivision.
Notwithstanding section 13.384 or 13.85, the director has access to corrections and detention data and medical data maintained by an agency and classified as private data on individuals or confidential data on individuals to the extent the data is necessary for the office to perform its duties under this section.
As used in this section, "restorative practices" means a practice within a program or policy that incorporates core restorative principles, including but not limited to voluntariness, prioritization of agreement by the people closest to the harm on what is needed to repair the harm, reintegration into the community, honesty, and respect. Restorative practices include but are not limited to victim-offender conferences, family group conferences, circles, community conferences, and other similar victim-centered practices. Restorative practices funded under this statute may be used at any point including before court involvement, after court involvement, to prevent court involvement, or in conjunction with court involvement. Restorative practices are rooted in community values and create meaningful outcomes that may include but are not limited to:
(1) establishing and meeting goals related to increasing connection to community, restoring relationships, and increasing empathy; considering all perspectives involved; and taking responsibility for impact of actions by all parties involved;
(2) addressing the needs of those who have been harmed;
(3) recognizing and addressing the underlying issues of behavior;
(4) engaging with those most directly affected by an incident and including community members that reflect the diversity of the individual's environment;
(5) determining the appropriate responses to specific incidents through the use of a collaborative process;
(6) providing solutions and approaches that affirm and are tailored to specific cultures; and
(7) implementing policies and procedures that are informed by the science of the social, emotional, and cognitive development of children.
The Office of Restorative Practices is established within the Department of Public Safety. The Office of Restorative Practices shall have the powers and duties described in this section.
In the event that a Department of Children, Youth, and Family is created as an independent agency, the Office of Restorative Practices shall be transferred to that department pursuant to section 15.039 effective six months following the effective date for legislation creating that department.
(a) The commissioner of public safety shall appoint a director of the Office of Restorative Practices. The director should have qualifications that include or are similar to the following:
(1) experience in the many facets of restorative justice and practices such as peacemaking circles, sentencing circles, community conferencing, community panels, and family group decision making;
(2) experience in victim-centered and trauma-informed practices;
(3) knowledge of the range of social problems that bring children and families to points of crisis such as poverty, racism, unemployment, and unequal opportunity;
(4) knowledge of the many ways youth become involved in other systems such as truancy, juvenile delinquency, child protection; and
(5) understanding of educational barriers.
(b) The director shall hire additional staff to perform the duties of the Office of Restorative Practices. The staff shall be in the classified service of the state and their compensation shall be established pursuant to chapter 43A.
(a) The Office of Restorative Practices shall promote the use of restorative practices across multiple disciplines, including but not limited to:
(1) pretrial diversion programs established pursuant to section 388.24;
(2) delinquency, criminal justice, child welfare, and education systems; and
(3) community violence prevention practices.
(b) The Office of Restorative Practices shall collaborate with Tribal communities, counties, multicounty agencies, other state agencies, nonprofit agencies, and other jurisdictions, and with existing restorative practices initiatives in those jurisdictions to establish new restorative practices initiatives, support existing restorative practices initiatives, and identify effective restorative practices initiatives.
(c) The Office of Restorative Practices shall encourage collaboration between jurisdictions by creating a statewide network, led by restorative practitioners, to share effective methods and practices.
(d) The Office of Restorative Practices shall create a statewide directory of restorative practices initiatives. The office shall make this directory available to all restorative practices initiatives, counties, multicounty agencies, nonprofit agencies, and Tribes in order to facilitate referrals to restorative practices initiatives and programs.
(e) The Office of Restorative Practices shall work throughout the state to build capacity for the use of restorative practices in all jurisdictions and shall encourage every county to have at least one available restorative practices initiative.
(f) The Office of Restorative Practices shall engage restorative practitioners in discerning ways to measure the effectiveness of restorative efforts throughout the state.
(g) The Office of Restorative Practices shall oversee the coordination and establishment of local restorative practices advisory committees. The office shall oversee compliance with the conditions of this funding program. If a complaint or concern about a local advisory committee or a grant recipient is received, the Office of Restorative Practices shall exercise oversight as provided in this section.
(h) The Office of Restorative Practices shall provide information to local restorative practices advisory committees, or restorative practices initiatives in Tribal communities and governments, counties, multicounty agencies, other state agencies, and other jurisdictions about best practices that are developmentally tailored to youth, trauma-informed, and healing-centered, and provide technical support. Providing information includes but is not limited to sharing data on successful practices in other jurisdictions, sending notification about available training opportunities, and sharing known resources for financial support. The Office of Restorative Practices shall also provide training and technical support to local restorative practices advisory committees. Training includes but is not limited to the use and scope of restorative practices, victim-centered restorative practices, and trauma-informed care.
(i) The Office of Restorative Practices shall annually establish minimum requirements for the grant application process.
(j) The Office of Restorative Practices shall work with Tribes, counties, multicounty agencies, and nonprofit agencies throughout the state to educate those entities about the application process for grants and encourage applications.
(a) Within available appropriations, the director shall award grants to establish and support restorative practices initiatives. An approved applicant must receive a grant of up to $500,000 each year.
(b) On an annual basis, the Office of Restorative Practices shall establish a minimum number of applications that must be received during the application process. If the minimum number of applications is not received, the office must reopen the application process.
(c) Grants may be awarded to private and public nonprofit agencies; local units of government, including cities, counties, and townships; local educational agencies; and Tribal governments. A restorative practices advisory committee may support multiple entities applying for grants based on community needs, the number of youth and families in the jurisdiction, and the number of restorative practices available to the community. Budgets supported by grant funds can include contracts with partner agencies.
(d) Applications must include the following:
(1) a list of willing restorative practices advisory committee members;
(2) letters of support from potential restorative practices advisory committee members;
(3) a description of the planning process that includes:
(i) a description of the origins of the initiative, including how the community provided input; and
(ii) an estimated number of participants to be served; and
(4) a formal document containing a project description that outlines the proposed goals, activities, and outcomes of the initiative including, at a minimum:
(i) a description of how the initiative meets the minimum eligibility requirements of the grant;
(ii) the roles and responsibilities of key staff assigned to the initiative;
(iii) identification of any key partners, including a summary of the roles and responsibilities of those partners;
(iv) a description of how volunteers and other community members are engaged in the initiative; and
(v) a plan for evaluation and data collection.
(e) In determining the appropriate amount of each grant, the Office of Restorative Practices shall consider the number of individuals likely to be served by the local restorative practices initiative.
(a) Restorative practices advisory committees must include:
(1) a judge of the judicial district that will be served by the restorative practices initiative;
(2) the county attorney of a county that will be served by the restorative practices initiative or a designee;
(3) the chief district public defender in the district that will be served by the local restorative justice program or a designee;
(4) a representative from the children's unit of a county social services agency assigned to the area that will be served by the restorative practices initiative;
(5) a representative from the local probation department or community corrections agency that works with youth in the area that will be served by the restorative practices initiative;
(6) a representative from a local law enforcement agency that operates in the area that will be served by the restorative practices initiative;
(7) a school administrator or designee from a school or schools that operate in the area that will be served by the restorative practices initiative;
(8) multiple community members that reflect the racial, socioeconomic, and other diversity of the population of a county that will be served by the local restorative justice program and the individuals most frequently involved in the truancy, juvenile offender, and juvenile safety and placement systems;
(9) restorative practitioners, including restorative practitioners from within the community if available and, if not, from nearby communities;
(10) parents, youth, and justice-impacted participants; and
(11) at least one representative from a victims advocacy group.
(b) Community members described in paragraph (a), clause (8), must make up at least one-third of the restorative practices advisory committee.
(c) Community members, parents, youth, and justice-impacted participants participating in the advisory committee may receive a per diem from grant funds in the amount determined by the General Services Administration.
(d) The restorative practices advisory committees must utilize restorative practices in their decision-making process and come to consensus when developing, expanding, and maintaining restorative practices criteria and referral processes for their communities.
(e) Restorative practices advisory committees shall be responsible for establishing eligibility requirements for referrals to the local restorative practices initiative. Once restorative practices criteria and referral processes are developed, children, families, and cases, depending upon the point of prevention or intervention, must be referred to the local restorative practices initiatives or programs that serve the county, local community, or Tribal community where the child and family reside.
(f) Referrals may be made under circumstances, including but not limited to:
(1) as an alternative to arrest as outlined in section 260B.1755;
(2) for a juvenile petty offense;
(3) for a juvenile traffic offense;
(4) for a juvenile delinquency offense, including before and after a delinquency petition has been filed;
(5) for a child protection case, including before and after adjudication;
(6) for a children's mental health case;
(7) for a juvenile status offense, including but not limited to truancy or running away;
(8) for substance use issues;
(9) for situations involving transition to or from the community; and
(10) through self-referral.
(a) Complaints by restorative practices advisory committee members, community members, restorative practices initiatives, or restorative practices practitioners regarding concerns about grant recipients may be made to the Office of Restorative Practices.
(b) The Office of Restorative Practices may prescribe the methods by which complaints to the office are to be made, reviewed, and acted upon.
(c) The Office of Restorative Practices shall establish and use a restorative process to respond to complaints so that grant recipients are being held to their agreed upon responsibilities and continue to meet the minimum eligibility requirements for grants to local restorative practices initiatives for the duration of the grant.
By February 15 of each year, the director shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety, human services, and education, on the work of the Office of Restorative Practices, any grants issued pursuant to this section, and the status of local restorative practices initiatives in the state that were reviewed in the previous year.
(a) The superintendent must prepare an annual report for the public and the legislature on the Minnesota Fusion Center (MNFC) that includes general information about the MNFC; the types of activities it monitors; the scale of information it collects; the local, state, and federal agencies with which it shares information; and the quantifiable benefits it produces. None of the reporting requirements in this section supersede chapter 13 or any other state or federal law. The superintendent must report on activities for the preceding calendar year unless another time period is specified. The report must include the following information, to the extent allowed by other law:
(1) the MNFC's operating budget for the current biennium, number of staff, and staff duties;
(2) the number of publications generated and an overview of the type of information provided in the publications, including products such as law enforcement briefs, partner briefs, risk assessments, threat assessments, and operational reports;
(3) a summary of audit findings for the MNFC and what corrective actions were taken pursuant to audits;
(4) the number of data requests received by the MNFC and a general description of those requests;
(5) the types of surveillance and data analysis technologies utilized by the MNFC, such as artificial intelligence or social media analysis tools;
(6) a description of the commercial and governmental databases utilized by the MNFC to the extent permitted by law;
(7) the number of suspicious activity reports (SARs) received and processed by the MNFC;
(8) the number of SARs received and processed by the MNFC that were converted into Bureau of Criminal Apprehension case files, that were referred to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, or that were referred to local law enforcement agencies;
(9) the number of SARs received and processed by the MNFC that involve an individual on the Terrorist Screening Center watchlist;
(10) the number of requests for information (RFIs) that the MNFC received from law enforcement agencies and the number of responses to federal requests for RFIs;
(11) the names of the federal agencies the MNFC received data from or shared data with;
(12) the names of the agencies that submitted SARs;
(13) a summary description of the MNFC's activities with the Joint Terrorism Task Force; and
(14) the number of investigations aided by the MNFC's use of SARs and RFIs.
(b) The report shall be provided to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees of the house of representatives and senate with jurisdiction over data practices and public safety issues, and shall be posted on the MNFC website by February 15 each year beginning on February 15, 2024.
The terms used in this section have the meanings given them in this subdivision:
(a) "Bomb disposal unit" means a commissioner-approved unit consisting of persons who are trained and equipped to dispose of or neutralize bombs or other similar hazardous explosives and who are employed by a municipality.
(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.
(c) "Municipality" has the meaning given it in section 466.01.
(c) "Explosives sweep" means a detailed scanning service used in corporate office buildings, shipping hangars, event stadiums, transportation hubs, large outdoor events, and other critical facilities using ground-penetrating radar, magnetometers, metal detectors, and specially trained K-9 units to detect improvised explosive devices and explosive remnants of war, such as unexploded ordnance and abandoned ordnance.
(d) "Hazardous explosives" means explosives as defined in section 299F.72, subdivision 2, explosive devices and incendiary devices as defined in section 609.668, subdivision 1, and all materials subject to regulation under United States Code, title 18, chapter 40.
(e) "Municipality" has the meaning given in section 466.01.
(a) The commissioner may reimburse bomb disposal units for reasonable expenses incurred:
(1) to dispose of or neutralize bombs or other similar hazardous explosives for their employer-municipality or for another municipality outside the jurisdiction of the employer-municipality but within the state. Reimbursement is limited to the extent of appropriated funds.;
(2) to use the services of police explosive detection K-9 assets;
(3) for dignitary explosive sweeps;
(4) for explosive sweeps at large state events;
(5) to provide for explosive security at large state events; and
(6) for large-scale scheduled public events.
(b) Reimbursement for expenses under this subdivision is limited to the extent of appropriated funds.
The commissioner may enter into contracts or agreements with bomb disposal units to implement and administer this section.
The commissioner may enter into contracts with public event organizers, as defined in section 299A.52, for costs associated with explosive sweeps conducted by state bomb disposal units.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms in this subdivision have the meanings given.
(b) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.
(c) "Questioned identity" means an individual's identity that is associated with another person's records when the individual's identity is used by an offender in interactions with law enforcement or the offender has the same name which can lead to difficulties differentiating the individual from the offender.
(a) When an individual is the subject of questioned identity, the individual may request a review by the bureau through its questioned identity process. Individuals must contact the bureau and provide the following:
(1) documentation of the individual's identity through a government-issued photo identification;
(2) documents or information that lead the individual to believe that the individual is the subject of questioned identity; and
(3) fingerprints for identification verification purposes.
(b) If the bureau is able to confirm that the individual is the subject of questioned identity, the bureau shall provide documentation to the individual indicating that the individual has been through the bureau's questioned identity process.
(c) The bureau shall denote any aliases determined to be questioned identities in the criminal history system under section 299C.09 and shall work with other state and local agencies to denote aliases in arrest warrants.
(d) The bureau shall attach a photo of the offender to arrest warrants in the bureau's warrant file if a photo is available.
(e) Notwithstanding section 13.87, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), the bureau, in consultation with reporting criminal justice agencies, may remove an alias from a criminal history record when it determines doing so will not negatively impact a criminal justice agency's ability to identify the offender in the future. Some considerations in making the determination include but are not limited to time elapsed since the alias name was last used, frequency with which the alias was used, current incarceration status of the offender, whether it is or was the offender's name, and whether the offender is living or deceased.
(f) Law enforcement must take into account the presence of documentation from the bureau or another law enforcement agency confirming a questioned identity when considering whether an individual has a warrant under section 299C.115 and may contact the bureau or the issuing law enforcement agency to confirm authenticity of the documentation provided by an individual.
(a) Within 60 days of receiving an unrestricted sexual assault examination kit, a law enforcement agency shall submit the kit for testing to a forensic laboratory. The testing laboratory shall return unrestricted sexual assault examination kits to the submitting agency for storage after testing is complete. The submitting agency must store unrestricted sexual assault examination kits indefinitely.
(b) Within 60 days of a hospital preparing a restricted sexual assault examination kit or a law enforcement agency receiving a restricted sexual assault examination kit from a hospital, the hospital or the agency shall submit the kit to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The bureau shall store all restricted sexual assault examination kits collected by hospitals or law enforcement agencies in the state. The bureau shall retain a restricted sexual assault examination kit for at least 30 months from the date the bureau receives the kit.
(c) Beginning July 1, 2024, the receiving forensic laboratory must strive to test the sexual assault examination kit within 90 days of receipt from a hospital or law enforcement agency. Sexual assault examination kits shall be prioritized for testing along with other violent crimes. Upon completion of testing, the forensic laboratory must update the kit-tracking database to indicate that testing is complete. The forensic laboratory must notify the submitting agency when any kit is not tested within 90 days and provide an estimated time frame for testing completion.
(d) Paragraph (c) sunsets June 30, 2029.
The commissioner of public safety shall establish a criminal justice data communications network that will provide secure access to systems and services available from or through the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension may approve additional criminal justice uses by authorized agencies to access necessary systems or services not from or through the bureau. The commissioner of public safety is authorized to lease or purchase facilities and equipment as may be necessary to establish and maintain the data communications network.
The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension must operate a missing person alert program. If the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension receives a report from a law enforcement agency indicating that a person is missing and endangered, the superintendent must originate an alert. The superintendent may assist the law enforcement agency in conducting the preliminary investigation, offer resources, and assist the agency in helping implement the investigation policy with particular attention to the need for immediate action. The law enforcement agency shall promptly notify all appropriate law enforcement agencies in the state and is required to issue a missing person alert utilizing the Crime Alert Network as prescribed in section 299A.61 and, if deemed appropriate, law enforcement agencies in adjacent states or jurisdictions of any information that may aid in the prompt location and safe return of a missing and endangered person. The superintendent shall provide guidance on issuing alerts using this system and provide the system for law enforcement agencies to issue these alerts. The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension may provide assistance to agencies in issuing missing person alerts as required by this section.
(a) The Criminal and Juvenile Justice Information and Bureau of Criminal Apprehension Advisory Group consists of the following members:
(1) the commissioner of corrections or designee;
(2) the commissioner of public safety or designee;
(3) the state chief information officer or designee;
(4) three members of the judicial branch appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court;
(5) the commissioner of administration or designee;
(6) the state court administrator or designee;
(7) two members appointed by the Minnesota Sheriffs Association, at least one of whom must be a sheriff;
(8) two members appointed by the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, at least one of whom must be a chief of police;
(9) two members appointed by the Minnesota County Attorneys Association, at least one of whom must be a county attorney;
(10) two members appointed by the League of Minnesota Cities representing the interests of city attorneys, at least one of whom must be a city attorney;
(11) two members appointed by the Board of Public Defense, at least one of whom must be a public defender;
(12) two corrections administrators appointed by the Association of Minnesota Counties representing the interests of local corrections, at least one of whom represents a Community Corrections Act county;
(13) two probation officers appointed by the commissioner of corrections in consultation with the president of the Minnesota Association of Community Corrections Act Counties and the president of the Minnesota Association of County Probation Officers;
(14) four public members appointed by the governor representing both metropolitan and greater Minnesota for a term of four years using the process described in section 15.059, one of whom represents the interests of victims, and one of whom represents the private business community who has expertise in integrated information systems and who, for the purposes of meetings of the advisory group, may be compensated pursuant to section 15.059;
(15) two members appointed by the Minnesota Association for Court Management, at least one of whom must be a court administrator;
(16) one member of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house, or an alternate who is also a member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker of the house;
(17) one member of the senate appointed by the majority leader, or an alternate who is also a member of the senate, appointed by the majority leader of the senate;
(18) one member appointed by the attorney general;
(19) two members appointed by the League of Minnesota Cities, one of whom works or resides in greater Minnesota and one of whom works or resides in the seven-county metropolitan area, and at least one of whom is an elected official;
(20) two members appointed by the Association of Minnesota Counties, one of whom works or resides in greater Minnesota and one of whom works or resides in the seven-county metropolitan area, and at least one of whom is an elected official; and
(21) the director of the Sentencing Guidelines Commission or a designee.
(b) The chair, first vice-chair, and second vice-chair shall be elected by the advisory group.
(c) The advisory group shall serve as the state advisory group on statewide criminal justice information policy and funding issues. The advisory group shall study and make recommendations to the governor, the supreme court, and the legislature on criminal justice information funding and policy issues such as related data practices, individual privacy rights, and data on race and ethnicity; information-sharing at the local, state, and federal levels; technology education and innovation; the impact of proposed legislation on the criminal justice system related to information systems and business processes; and data and identification standards.
(d) The advisory group shall have the additional duties of reviewing and advising the bureau superintendent on:
(1) audits, accreditation reports, and internal reviews of bureau operations;
(2) emerging technologies in the law enforcement and forensic science fields;
(3) policies and practices that impact individual privacy interests; and
(4) other programmatic and operational initiatives of the bureau at the request of the superintendent.
The advisory group shall file a biennial report with the governor, supreme court, and chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees and divisions with jurisdiction over criminal justice funding and policy by January 15 in each odd-numbered year. The report must provide the following:
(1) status and review of current statewide criminal justice information systems;
(2) recommendations concerning any legislative changes or appropriations that are needed to ensure that the criminal justice information systems operate accurately and efficiently; and
(3) summary of the activities of the advisory group, including any funding and grant requests.; and
(4) summary of any reviews conducted by the advisory group of bureau audits, reports, policies, programs, and procedures along with any recommendations provided to the bureau related to the reviews.
For the purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
(a) "Apartment house" is any building, or portion thereof, which is designed, built, rented, leased, let, or hired out to be occupied, or which is occupied as the home or residence of three or more families living independently of each other and doing their own cooking in the building, and shall include buildings containing three or more flats or apartments.
(b) "Dwelling" is any building, or any portion thereof, which is not an apartment house, lodging house, or a hotel and which contains one or two "dwelling units" which are, or are intended or designed to be, occupied for living purposes.
(c) "Dwelling unit" is a single unit providing complete, independent living facilities for one or more persons including permanent provisions for living, sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, or a single unit used by one or more persons for sleeping and sanitation pursuant to a work practice or labor agreement.
(d) "Hotel" is any building, or portion thereof, containing six or more guest rooms intended or designed to be used, or which are used, rented, or hired out to be occupied, or which are occupied for sleeping purposes by guests.
(e) "Lodging house" is any building, or portion thereof, containing not more than five guest rooms which are used or are intended to be used for sleeping purposes by guests and where rent is paid in money, goods, labor, or otherwise.
The commissioner of public safety shall promulgate rules concerning the placement of smoke detectors alarms in dwellings, apartment houses, hotels, and lodging houses. The rules shall take into account designs of the guest rooms or dwelling units.
Every dwelling unit within a dwelling must be provided with a smoke detector alarm meeting the requirements of the State Fire Code. The detector smoke alarm must be mounted in accordance with the rules regarding smoke detector alarm location adopted under subdivision 2. When actuated, the detector smoke alarm must provide an alarm in the dwelling unit.
In construction of a new dwelling, each smoke detector alarm must be attached to a centralized power source.
Every dwelling unit within an apartment house and every guest room in a lodging house or hotel used for sleeping purposes must be provided with a smoke detector alarm conforming to the requirements of the State Fire Code. In dwelling units, detectors smoke alarms must be mounted in accordance with the rules regarding smoke detector alarm location adopted under subdivision 2. When actuated, the detector smoke alarm must provide an alarm in the dwelling unit or guest room.
For all occupancies covered by this section where the occupant is not the owner of the dwelling unit or the guest room, the owner is responsible for maintenance of the smoke detectors alarms. An owner may file inspection and maintenance reports with the local fire marshal for establishing evidence of inspection and maintenance of smoke detectors alarms.
The occupant of a dwelling unit must inform the owner of the dwelling unit of a nonfunctioning smoke detector alarm within 24 hours of discovering that the smoke detector alarm in the dwelling unit is not functioning. If the occupant fails to inform the owner under this subdivision, the occupant's liability for damages is not greater than it otherwise would be.
(a) Any person who violates any provision of this section shall be is subject to the same penalty and the enforcement mechanism that is provided for violation of the State Fire Code, as specified in section 299F.011, subdivision 6.
(b) An occupant who willfully disables a smoke detector alarm or causes it to be nonfunctioning, resulting in damage or injury to persons or property, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
This section prohibits a local unit of government from adopting standards different from those provided in this section.
Notwithstanding subdivision 7, or other law to the contrary, a local governing body may adopt, by ordinance, rules for the installation of a smoke detector alarm in single-family homes in the city that are more restrictive than the standards provided by this section. Rules adopted pursuant to this subdivision may be enforced through a truth-in-housing inspection.
The position of Minnesota public fire safety educator is established in the Department of Public Safety.
No insurer shall deny a claim for loss or damage by fire for failure of a person to comply with this section.
(a) It shall be the duty of the commissioner of public safety to inspect, or cause to be inspected, at least once every three years, every hotel in this state; and, for that purpose, the commissioner, or the commissioner's deputies or designated alternates or agents, shall have the right to enter or have access thereto at any reasonable hour; and, when, upon such inspection, it shall be found that the hotel so inspected does not conform to or is not being operated in accordance with the provisions of sections 157.011 and 157.15 to 157.22, in so far as the same relate to fire prevention or fire protection of hotels, or the rules promulgated thereunder, or is being maintained or operated in such manner as to violate the Minnesota State Fire Code promulgated pursuant to section 326B.02, subdivision 6, 299F.51, or any other law of this state relating to fire prevention and fire protection of hotels, the commissioner and the deputies or designated alternates or agents shall report such a situation to the hotel inspector who shall proceed as provided for in chapter 157.
(b) The word "hotel", as used in this subdivision, has the meaning given in section 299F.391.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
"Hotel" means any building, or portion thereof, containing six or more guest rooms intended or designed to be used, or which are used, rented, or hired out to be occupied, or which are occupied for sleeping purposes by guests.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
"Lodging house" means any building, or portion thereof, containing not more than five guest rooms which are used or are intended to be used for sleeping purposes by guests and where rent is paid in money, goods, labor, or otherwise.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
(a) Every single family single-family dwelling and every dwelling unit in a multifamily dwelling must have an approved and operational carbon monoxide alarm installed within ten feet of each room lawfully used for sleeping purposes.
(b) Every guest room in a hotel or lodging house must have an approved and operational carbon monoxide alarm installed in each room lawfully used for sleeping purposes.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
(a) The owner of a multifamily dwelling unit which is required to be equipped with one or more approved carbon monoxide alarms must:
(1) provide and install one approved and operational carbon monoxide alarm within ten feet of each room lawfully used for sleeping; and
(2) replace any required carbon monoxide alarm that has been stolen, removed, found missing, or rendered inoperable during a prior occupancy of the dwelling unit and which has not been replaced by the prior occupant prior to the commencement of a new occupancy of a dwelling unit.
(b) The owner of a hotel or lodging house that is required to be equipped with one or more approved carbon monoxide alarms must:
(1) provide and install one approved and operational carbon monoxide alarm in each room lawfully used for sleeping; and
(2) replace any required carbon monoxide alarm that has been stolen, removed, found missing, or rendered inoperable during a prior occupancy and that has not been replaced by the prior occupant prior to the commencement of a new occupancy of a hotel guest room or lodging house.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
(a) In lieu of requirements of subdivision 1, multifamily dwellings may have approved and operational carbon monoxide alarms detectors installed between 15 and 25 feet of carbon monoxide-producing central fixtures and equipment, provided there is a centralized alarm system or other mechanism for responsible parties to hear the alarm at all times.
(b) An owner of a multifamily dwelling that contains minimal or no sources of carbon monoxide may be exempted from the requirements of subdivision 1, provided that such owner certifies to the commissioner of public safety that such multifamily dwelling poses no foreseeable carbon monoxide risk to the health and safety of the dwelling units.
(c) The requirements of this section do not apply to facilities owned or operated by the state of Minnesota.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
A first violation of this section shall not result in a penalty, but is punishable by a safety warning. A second or subsequent violation is a petty misdemeanor.
This section is effective August 1, 2024.
"License holder" means any individual, partnership as defined in section 323A.0101, clause (8), or corporation licensed to perform the duties of a private detective or a protective agent.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) No person is qualified to hold a license who has:
(1) been convicted of (i) a felony by the courts of this or any other state or of the United States; (ii) acts which, if done in Minnesota, would be criminal sexual conduct; assault; theft; larceny; burglary; robbery; unlawful entry; extortion; defamation; buying or receiving stolen property; using, possessing, manufacturing, or carrying weapons unlawfully; using, possessing, or carrying burglary tools unlawfully; escape; possession, production, sale, or distribution of narcotics unlawfully; or (iii) in any other country of acts which, if done in Minnesota, would be a felony or would be any of the other offenses provided in this clause and for which a full pardon or similar relief has not been granted;
(2) made any false statement in an application for a license or any document required to be submitted to the board; or
(3) failed to demonstrate to the board good character, honesty, and integrity.
(b) Upon application for a license, the applicant shall submit, as part of the application, a full set of fingerprints and the applicant's written consent that their fingerprints shall be submitted to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension (BCA) and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to determine whether that person has a criminal record. The BCA shall promptly forward the fingerprints to the FBI and request that the FBI conduct a criminal history check of each prospective licensee. The Minnesota Board of Private Detective and Protective Agents Services shall determine if the FBI report indicates that the prospective licensee or licensee was convicted of a disqualifying offense. The submission to the FBI shall be coordinated through the BCA. The results of the criminal record check shall be provided to the board who will determine if the applicant is disqualified from holding a license under this subdivision.
(a) Costs incurred by a county, city, or private hospital or other emergency medical facility or by a private physician, sexual assault nurse examiner, forensic nurse, or other licensed health care provider for the examination of a victim of criminal sexual conduct when the examination is performed for the purpose of gathering evidence that occurred in the state shall be paid by the county in which the criminal sexual conduct occurred state. These costs include, but are not limited to, the full cost of the rape kit medical forensic examination, associated tests and treatments relating to the complainant's sexually transmitted disease status infection, and pregnancy status, including emergency contraception. A hospital, emergency medical facility, or health care provider shall submit the costs for examination and any associated tests and treatment to the Office of Justice Programs for payment. Upon receipt of the costs, the commissioner shall provide payment to the facility or health care provider. Reimbursement for an examination and any associated test and treatments shall not exceed $1,400. Beginning on January 1, 2024, the maximum amount of an award shall be adjusted annually by the inflation rate.
(b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the duties, responsibilities, or liabilities of any insurer, whether public or private. However, a county The hospital or other licensed health care provider performing the examination may seek insurance reimbursement from the victim's insurer only if authorized by the victim. This authorization may only be sought after the examination is performed. When seeking this authorization, the county hospital or other licensed health care provider shall inform the victim that if the victim does not authorize this, the county state is required by law to pay for the examination and that the victim is in no way liable for these costs or obligated to authorize the reimbursement.
(c) The applicability of this section does not depend upon whether the victim reports the offense to law enforcement or the existence or status of any investigation or prosecution.
This section is effective July 1, 2023, and applies to any examination that occurs on or after that date.
"Electronic data" means records or information in digital form on a computer, computer network, computer system, or in computer software that can be stored, transmitted, or processed.
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of computer or electronic data theft and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 2:
(a) (1) intentionally and without authorization or claim of right accesses or causes to be accessed any computer, computer system, computer network or any part thereof for the purpose of obtaining services or property; or
(b) (2) intentionally and without claim of right, and with intent to deprive the owner of use or possession, takes, transfers, conceals or retains possession of any computer, computer system, or any computer software or data contained in a computer, computer system, or computer network.;
(3) intentionally and without authorization or claim of right accesses or copies any computer software or electronic data and uses, alters, transfers, retains, or publishes the computer software or electronic data; or
(4) intentionally retains copies of any computer software or electronic data beyond the individual's authority.
Anyone who commits computer or electronic data theft may be sentenced as follows:
(a) (1) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $50,000, or both, if the loss to the owner, or the owner's agent, or lessee is in excess of $2,500; or
(b) (2) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the loss to the owner, or the owner's agent, or lessee is more than $500 but not more than $2,500; or
(c) (3) in all other cases to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
(a) A victim has the right to request that the prosecutor make a demand under rule 11.09 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure that the trial be commenced within 60 days of the demand. The prosecutor shall make reasonable efforts to comply with the victim's request.
(b) A prosecutor shall make reasonable efforts to provide to a victim the date and time of the sentencing hearing and the hearing during which the plea is to be presented to the court.
(b) (c) A prosecutor shall make reasonable efforts to provide advance notice of any change in the schedule of the court proceedings to a victim who has been subpoenaed or requested to testify.
(c) (d) In a criminal proceeding in which a vulnerable adult, as defined in section 609.232, subdivision 11, is a victim, the state may move the court for a speedy trial. The court, after consideration of the age and health of the victim, may grant a speedy trial. The motion may be filed and served with the complaint or any time after the complaint is filed and served.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, within 15 working days after a conviction, acquittal, or dismissal in a criminal case in which there is an identifiable crime victim, the prosecutor shall make reasonable good faith efforts to provide to each affected crime victim oral or written notice of the final disposition of the case and of the victim rights under section 611A.06. When the court is considering modifying the sentence for a felony or a crime of violence or an attempted crime of violence, the court or its designee prosecutor shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to notify the victim of the crime. If the victim is incapacitated or deceased, notice must be given to the victim's family. If the victim is a minor, notice must be given to the victim's parent or guardian. The notice must include:
(1) the date and approximate time of the review;
(2) the location where the review will occur;
(3) the name and telephone number of a person to contact for additional information; and
(4) a statement that the victim and victim's family may provide input to the court concerning the sentence modification.
(b) The Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety shall develop and update a model notice of postconviction rights under this subdivision and section 611A.06.
(c) As used in this section, "crime of violence" has the meaning given in section 624.712, subdivision 5, and also includes violations of section 609.3458, gross misdemeanor violations of section 609.224, and nonfelony violations of sections 518B.01, 609.2231, 609.3451, 609.748, and 609.749.
The commissioner of public safety shall award grants to programs which provide support services or emergency shelter and housing supports as defined by section 611A.31 to victims of sexual assault. The commissioner shall also award grants for training, technical assistance, and the development and implementation of education programs to increase public awareness of the causes of sexual assault, the solutions to preventing and ending sexual assault, and the problems faced by sexual assault victims.
"Battered woman" "Domestic abuse victim" means a woman person who is being or has been victimized by domestic abuse as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.
"Emergency shelter services" include, but are not limited to, secure crisis shelters for battered women domestic abuse victims and housing networks for battered women domestic abuse victims.
"Housing supports" means services and supports used to enable victims to secure and maintain transitional and permanent housing placement. Housing supports include but are not limited to rental assistance and financial assistance to maintain housing stability. Transitional housing placements may take place in communal living, clustered site or scattered site programs, or other transitional housing models.
The commissioner shall award grants to programs which provide emergency shelter services to battered women, housing supports, and support services to battered women and domestic abuse victims and their children. The commissioner shall also award grants for training, technical assistance, and for the development and implementation of education programs to increase public awareness of the causes of battering domestic abuse, the solutions to preventing and ending domestic violence, and the problems faced by battered women and domestic abuse victims. Grants shall be awarded in a manner that ensures that they are equitably distributed to programs serving metropolitan and nonmetropolitan populations. By July 1, 1995, community-based domestic abuse advocacy and support services programs must be established in every judicial assignment district.
The commissioner shall establish at least one program under this section to provide emergency shelter services and support services to battered American Indian women domestic abuse victims and their children. The commissioner shall grant continuing operating expenses to the program established under this subdivision in the same manner as operating expenses are granted to programs established under subdivision 1.
Any public or private nonprofit agency may apply to the commissioner for a grant to provide emergency shelter services to battered women, housing supports, support services, and one or more of these services and supports to domestic abuse victims, or both, to battered women and their children. The application shall be submitted in a form approved by the commissioner by rule adopted under chapter 14 and shall include:
(1) a proposal for the provision of emergency shelter services for battered women, housing supports, support services, and one or more of these services and supports for domestic abuse victims, or both, for battered women and their children;
(2) a proposed budget;
(3) the agency's overall operating budget, including documentation on the retention of financial reserves and availability of additional funding sources;
(4) evidence of an ability to integrate into the proposed program the uniform method of data collection and program evaluation established under section 611A.33;
(5) evidence of an ability to represent the interests of battered women and domestic abuse victims and their children to local law enforcement agencies and courts, county welfare agencies, and local boards or departments of health;
(6) evidence of an ability to do outreach to unserved and underserved populations and to provide culturally and linguistically appropriate services; and
(7) any other content the commissioner may require by rule adopted under chapter 14, after considering the recommendations of the advisory council.
Programs which have been approved for grants in prior years may submit materials which indicate changes in items listed in clauses (1) to (7), in order to qualify for renewal funding. Nothing in this subdivision may be construed to require programs to submit complete applications for each year of renewal funding.
Every public or private nonprofit agency which receives a grant to provide emergency shelter services to battered women and, housing supports, or support services to battered women and domestic abuse victims shall comply with all rules of the commissioner related to the administration of the pilot programs.
Personal history information and other information collected, used or maintained by a grantee from which the identity or location of any victim of domestic abuse may be determined is private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, and the grantee shall maintain the data in accordance with the provisions of chapter 13.
Sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 shall be known as the "Minnesota Crime Victims Reparations Reimbursement Act."
"Board" means the Crime Victims reparations Reimbursement Board established by section 611A.55.
"Collateral source" means a source of benefits or advantages for economic loss otherwise reparable reimbursable under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 which the victim or claimant has received, or which is readily available to the victim, from:
(1) the offender;
(2) the government of the United States or any agency thereof, a state or any of its political subdivisions, or an instrumentality of two or more states, unless the law providing for the benefits or advantages makes them excess or secondary to benefits under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68;
(3) Social Security, Medicare, and Medicaid;
(4) state required temporary nonoccupational disability insurance;
(5) workers' compensation;
(6) wage continuation programs of any employer;
(7) proceeds of a contract of insurance payable to the victim for economic loss sustained because of the crime;
(8) a contract providing prepaid hospital and other health care services, or benefits for disability;
(9) any private source as a voluntary donation or gift; or
(10) proceeds of a lawsuit brought as a result of the crime.
The term does not include a life insurance contract.
Except as provided in subdivisions 1a and 2, the following persons shall be entitled to reparations reimbursement upon a showing by a preponderance of the evidence that the requirements for reparations reimbursement have been met:
(1) a victim who has incurred economic loss;
(2) a dependent who has incurred economic loss;
(3) the estate of a deceased victim if the estate has incurred economic loss;
(4) any other person who has incurred economic loss by purchasing any of the products, services, and accommodations described in section 611A.52, subdivision 8, for a victim;
(5) the guardian, guardian ad litem, conservator or authorized agent of any of these persons.
No hospital, medical organization, health care provider, or other entity that is not an individual may qualify for reparations under subdivision 1, clause (4). If a hospital, medical organization, health care provider, or other entity that is not an individual qualifies for reparations reimbursement under subdivision 1, clause (5), because it is a guardian, guardian ad litem, conservator, or authorized agent, any reparations reimbursement to which it is entitled must be made payable solely or jointly to the victim, if alive, or to the victim's estate or successors, if the victim is deceased.
(a) A Minnesota resident who is the victim of a crime committed outside the geographical boundaries of this state but who otherwise meets the requirements of this section shall have the same rights under this chapter as if the crime had occurred within this state upon a showing that the state, territory, United States possession, country, or political subdivision of a country in which the crime occurred does not have a crime victim reparations victims reimbursement law covering the resident's injury or death.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a Minnesota resident who is the victim of a crime involving international terrorism who otherwise meets the requirements of this section has the same rights under this chapter as if the crime had occurred within this state regardless of where the crime occurred or whether the jurisdiction has a crime victims reparations reimbursement law.
No reparations reimbursement shall be awarded to a claimant otherwise eligible if:
(1) the crime was not reported to the police within 30 days of its occurrence or, if it could not reasonably have been reported within that period, within 30 days of the time when a report could reasonably have been made. A victim of criminal sexual conduct in the first, second, third, or fourth degree who does not report the crime within 30 days of its occurrence is deemed to have been unable to have reported it within that period;
(2) the victim or claimant failed or refused to cooperate fully with the police and other law enforcement officials. Cooperation is determined through law enforcement reports, prosecutor records, or corroboration memorialized in a signed document submitted by a victim service, counseling, or medical professional involved in the case;
(3) the victim or claimant was the offender or an accomplice of the offender or an award to the claimant would unjustly benefit the offender or an accomplice;
(4) the victim or claimant was in the act of committing a crime at the time the injury occurred;
(5) no claim was filed with the board within three years of victim's injury or death; except that (i) if the claimant was unable to file a claim within that period, then the claim can be made within three years of the time when a claim could have been filed; and (ii) if the victim's injury or death was not reasonably discoverable within three years of the injury or death, then the claim can be made within three years of the time when the injury or death is reasonably discoverable. The following circumstances do not render a claimant unable to file a claim for the purposes of this clause: (A) lack of knowledge of the existence of the Minnesota Crime Victims Reparations Reimbursement Act, (B) the failure of a law enforcement agency to provide information or assistance to a potential claimant under section 611A.66, (C) the incompetency of the claimant if the claimant's affairs were being managed during that period by a guardian, guardian ad litem, conservator, authorized agent, or parent, or (D) the fact that the claimant is not of the age of majority; or
(6) the claim is less than $50.
The limitations contained in clauses (1) and (6) do not apply to victims of child abuse. In those cases the three-year limitation period commences running with the report of the crime to the police.
Reparations Reimbursement shall equal economic loss except that:
(1) reparations reimbursement shall be reduced to the extent that economic loss is recouped from a collateral source or collateral sources. Where compensation is readily available to a claimant from a collateral source, the claimant must take reasonable steps to recoup from the collateral source before claiming reparations reimbursement;
(2) reparations reimbursement shall be denied or reduced to the extent, if any, that the board deems reasonable because of the contributory misconduct of the claimant or of a victim through whom the claimant claims. Contributory misconduct does not include current or past affiliation with any particular group; and
(3) reparations reimbursement paid to all claimants suffering economic loss as the result of the injury or death of any one victim shall not exceed $50,000.
No employer may deny an employee an award of benefits based on the employee's eligibility or potential eligibility for reparations reimbursement.
There is created in the Department of Public Safety, for budgetary and administrative purposes, the Crime Victims Reparations Reimbursement Board, which shall consist of five members appointed by the commissioner of public safety. One of the members shall be designated as chair by the commissioner of public safety and serve as such at the commissioner's pleasure. At least one member shall be a medical or osteopathic physician licensed to practice in this state, and at least one member shall be a victim, as defined in section 611A.01.
The membership terms, compensation, removal of members, and filling of vacancies on the board shall be as provided in section 15.0575.
Members of the board shall serve part time.
In addition to carrying out any duties specified elsewhere in sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 or in other law, the board shall:
(1) provide all claimants with an opportunity for hearing pursuant to chapter 14;
(2) adopt rules to implement and administer sections 611A.51 to 611A.68, including rules governing the method of practice and procedure before the board, prescribing the manner in which applications for reparations reimbursement shall be made, and providing for discovery proceedings;
(3) publicize widely the availability of reparations reimbursement and the method of making claims; and
(4) prepare and transmit annually to the governor and the commissioner of public safety a report of its activities including the number of claims awarded, a brief description of the facts in each case, the amount of reparation reimbursement awarded, and a statistical summary of claims and awards made and denied.
In addition to exercising any powers specified elsewhere in sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 or other law, the board upon its own motion or the motion of a claimant or the attorney general may:
(1) issue subpoenas for the appearance of witnesses and the production of books, records, and other documents;
(2) administer oaths and affirmations and cause to be taken affidavits and depositions within and without this state;
(3) take notice of judicially cognizable facts and general, technical, and scientific facts within their specialized knowledge;
(4) order a mental or physical examination of a victim or an autopsy of a deceased victim provided that notice is given to the person to be examined and that the claimant and the attorney general receive copies of any resulting report;
(5) suspend or postpone the proceedings on a claim if a criminal prosecution arising out of the incident which is the basis of the claim has been commenced or is imminent;
(6) request from prosecuting attorneys and law enforcement officers investigations and data to enable the board to perform its duties under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68;
(7) grant emergency reparations reimbursement pending the final determination of a claim if it is one with respect to which an award will probably be made and undue hardship will result to the claimant if immediate payment is not made; and
(8) reconsider any decision granting or denying reparations reimbursement or determining their amount.
The claimant may, within 30 days after receiving the decision of the board, apply for reconsideration before the entire board. Upon request for reconsideration, the board shall reexamine all information filed by the claimant, including any new information the claimant provides, and all information obtained by investigation. The board may also conduct additional examination into the validity of the claim. Upon reconsideration, the board may affirm, modify, or reverse the prior ruling. A claimant denied reparations reimbursement upon reconsideration is entitled to a contested case hearing within the meaning of chapter 14.
Claims for reparations reimbursement and supporting documents and reports are investigative data and subject to the provisions of section 13.39 until the claim is paid, denied, withdrawn, or abandoned. Following the payment, denial, withdrawal, or abandonment of a claim, the claim and supporting documents and reports are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12; provided that the board may forward any reparations reimbursement claim forms, supporting documents, and reports to local law enforcement authorities for purposes of implementing section 611A.67.
Reparations Reimbursement may be awarded in a lump sum or in installments in the discretion of the board. The amount of any emergency award shall be deducted from the final award, if a lump sum, or prorated over a period of time if the final award is made in installments. Reparations are Reimbursement is exempt from execution or attachment except by persons who have supplied services, products or accommodations to the victim as a result of the injury or death which is the basis of the claim. The board, in its discretion may order that all or part of the reparations reimbursement awarded be paid directly to these suppliers.
The state shall be subrogated, to the extent of reparations reimbursement awarded, to all the claimant's rights to recover benefits or advantages for economic loss from a source which is or, if readily available to the victim or claimant would be, a collateral source. Nothing in this section shall limit the claimant's right to bring a cause of action to recover for other damages.
A claimant who receives reparations reimbursement must agree to assist the state in pursuing any subrogation rights arising out of the claim. The board may require a claimant to agree to represent the state's subrogation interests if the claimant brings a cause of action for damages arising out of the crime or occurrence for which the board has awarded reparations reimbursement. An attorney who represents the state's subrogation interests pursuant to the client's agreement with the board is entitled to reasonable attorney's fees not to exceed one-third of the amount recovered on behalf of the state.
A crime victim account is established as a special account in the state treasury. Amounts collected by the state under section 611A.61, paid to the Crime Victims Reparations Reimbursement Board under section 611A.04, subdivision 1a, or amounts deposited by the court under section 611A.04, subdivision 5, shall be credited to this account. Money credited to this account is annually appropriated to the Department of Public Safety for use for crime victim reparations reimbursement under sections 611A.51 to 611A.67.
All law enforcement agencies investigating crimes shall provide victims with notice of their right to apply for reparations reimbursement with the telephone number to call to request and website information to obtain an application form.
Law enforcement agencies shall assist the board in performing its duties under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68. Law enforcement agencies within ten days after receiving a request from the board shall supply the board with requested reports, notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in chapter 13, and including reports otherwise maintained as confidential or not open to inspection under section 260B.171 or 260C.171. All data released to the board retains the data classification that it had in the possession of the law enforcement agency.
A person that enters into a contract with an offender convicted in this state, and a person that enters into a contract in this state with an offender convicted in this state or elsewhere within the United States, must comply with this section if the person enters into the contract during the ten years after the offender is convicted of a crime or found not guilty by reason of insanity. If an offender is imprisoned or committed to an institution following the conviction or finding of not guilty by reason of insanity, the ten-year period begins on the date of the offender's release. A person subject to this section must notify the Crime Victims Reparations Reimbursement Board of the existence of the contract immediately upon its formation, and pay over to the board money owed to the offender or the offender's representatives by virtue of the contract according to the following proportions:
(1) if the crime occurred in this state, the person shall pay to the board 100 percent of the money owed under the contract;
(2) if the crime occurred in another jurisdiction having a law applicable to the contract which is substantially similar to this section, this section does not apply, and the person must not pay to the board any of the money owed under the contract; and
(3) in all other cases, the person shall pay to the board that percentage of money owed under the contract which can fairly be attributed to commerce in this state with respect to the subject matter of the contract.
When the board has made reparations reimbursement payments to or on behalf of a victim of the offender's crime pursuant to sections 611A.51 to 611A.68, it shall deduct the amount of the reparations reimbursement award from any payment received under this section by virtue of the offender's contract unless the board has already been reimbursed for the reparations award from another collateral source.
A victim of a crime committed by the offender and the estate of a deceased victim of a crime committed by the offender may submit the following claims for reparations reimbursement and damages to the board to be paid from money received by virtue of the offender's contract:
(1) claims for reparations reimbursement to which the victim is entitled under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 and for which the victim has not yet received an award from the board;
(2) claims for reparations reimbursement to which the victim would have been entitled under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68, but for the $50,000 maximum limit contained in section 611A.54, clause (3); and
(3) claims for other uncompensated damages suffered by the victim as a result of the offender's crime including, but not limited to, damages for pain and suffering.
The victim must file the claim within five years of the date on which the board received payment under this section. The board shall determine the victim's claim in accordance with the procedures contained in sections 611A.57 to 611A.63. An award made by the board under this subdivision must be paid from the money received by virtue of the offender's contract that remains after a deduction or allocation, if any, has been made under subdivision 4 or 4a.
The board may use money received by virtue of an offender's contract for the purpose of paying reparations reimbursement awarded to victims of other crimes pursuant to sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 under the following circumstances:
(1) money remain after deductions and allocations have been made under subdivisions 4 and 4a, and claims have been paid under subdivision 4b; or
(2) no claim is filed under subdivision 4b within five years of the date on which the board received payment under this section.
None of this money may be used for purposes other than the payment of reparations reimbursement.
The peace officer shall tell the victim whether a shelter or other services are available in the community and give the victim immediate notice of the legal rights and remedies available. The notice must include furnishing the victim a copy of the following statement:
"IF YOU ARE THE VICTIM OF DOMESTIC VIOLENCE, you can ask the city or county attorney to file a criminal complaint. You also have the right to go to court and file a petition requesting an order for protection from domestic abuse. The order could include the following:
(1) an order restraining the abuser from further acts of abuse;
(2) an order directing the abuser to leave your household;
(3) an order preventing the abuser from entering your residence, school, business, or place of employment;
(4) an order awarding you or the other parent custody of or parenting time with your minor child or children; or
(5) an order directing the abuser to pay support to you and the minor children if the abuser has a legal obligation to do so."
The notice must include the resource listing, including telephone number, for the area battered women's program that provides services to victims of domestic abuse as shelter, to be designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Corrections Public Safety.
Whenever a peace officer investigates an allegation that an incident described in subdivision 1 has occurred, whether or not an arrest is made, the officer shall make a written police report of the alleged incident. The report must contain at least the following information: the name, address and telephone number of the victim, if provided by the victim, a statement as to whether an arrest occurred, the name of the arrested person, and a brief summary of the incident. Data that identify a victim who has made a request under section 13.82, subdivision 17, paragraph (d), and that are private data under that subdivision, shall be private in the report required by this section. A copy of this report must be provided upon request, at no cost, to the victim of domestic abuse, the victim's attorney, or organizations designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety or the commissioner of corrections that are providing services to victims of domestic abuse. The officer shall submit the report to the officer's supervisor or other person to whom the employer's rules or policies require reports of similar allegations of criminal activity to be made.
(a) Immediately after issuance of a citation in lieu of continued detention under subdivision 1, or the entry of an order for release under subdivision 2, but before the arrested person is released, the agency having custody of the arrested person or its designee must make a reasonable and good faith effort to inform orally the alleged victim, local law enforcement agencies known to be involved in the case, if different from the agency having custody, and, at the victim's request any local battered women's and domestic abuse programs established under section 611A.32 or sexual assault programs of:
(1) the conditions of release, if any;
(2) the time of release;
(3) the time, date, and place of the next scheduled court appearance of the arrested person and the victim's right to be present at the court appearance; and
(4) if the arrested person is charged with domestic abuse, the location and telephone number of the area battered women's shelter program that provides services to victims of domestic abuse as designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety.
(b) As soon as practicable after an order for conditional release is entered, the agency having custody of the arrested person or its designee must personally deliver or mail to the alleged victim a copy of the written order and written notice of the information in paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (3).
(c) Data on the victim and the notice provided by the custodial authority are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, and are accessible only to the victim.
The commissioner of public safety shall amend rules adopted under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.38, subdivision 4, to reflect the soft body armor reimbursement for public safety officers under that section.
The director of the Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives must appoint the first members to the Gaagige-Mikwendaagoziwag reward advisory group under Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.86, subdivision 4, by August 15, 2023, and must convene the first meeting of the group by October 1, 2023. The group must elect a chair at its first meeting.
(a) In Minnesota Statutes, the revisor of statutes shall change "reparations," "reparable," or the same or similar terms to "reimbursement," "reimbursable," or the same or similar terms consistent with this act. The revisor shall also make other technical changes resulting from the change of term to the statutory language, sentence structure, or both, if necessary to preserve the meaning of the text.
(b) The revisor of statutes shall make necessary changes to statutory cross-references to reflect the changes made to Minnesota Statutes, section 299A.38, in this act.
(c) The revisor of statutes shall make necessary changes to language, grammar, and sentence structure in Minnesota Statutes sections 629.06, 629.13, and 629.14 to give effect to Laws 2023, chapters 29, sections 8, 9, and 10; and 31, sections 12, 13, and 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 299C.80, subdivision 7; and 518B.02, subdivision 3, are repealed.
The Sentencing Guidelines Commission shall consist of the following:
(1) the chief justice of the supreme court or a designee;
(2) one judge of the court of appeals, appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court judge of the appellate court;
(3) one district court judge appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court Judicial Council upon recommendation of the Minnesota District Judges Association;
(4) one public defender appointed by the governor upon recommendation of the state public defender;
(5) one county attorney appointed by the governor upon recommendation of the board of directors of the Minnesota County Attorneys Association;
(6) the commissioner of corrections or a designee;
(7) one peace officer as defined in section 626.84 appointed by the governor;
(8) one probation officer or parole supervised release officer appointed by the governor; and
(9) one person who works for an organization that provides treatment or rehabilitative services for individuals convicted of felony offenses appointed by the governor;
(10) one person who is an academic with a background in criminal justice or corrections appointed by the governor; and
(11) three public members appointed by the governor, one of whom shall be a person who has been the victim of a crime defined as a felony or a victims' advocate, and one of whom shall be a person who has been formerly convicted of and discharged from a felony-level sentence.
When an appointing authority selects individuals for membership on the commission, the authority shall make reasonable efforts to appoint qualified members of protected groups, as defined in section 43A.02, subdivision 33.
One of the members shall be designated by the governor as chair of the commission.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), each appointed member shall be appointed for four years and shall continue to serve during that time as long as the member occupies the position which made the member eligible for the appointment. Each member shall continue in office until a successor is duly appointed. Members shall be eligible for reappointment, and appointment may be made to fill an unexpired term.
(b) The term of any member appointed or reappointed by the governor before the first Monday in January 1991 2027 expires on that date. The term of any member appointed or reappointed by the governor after the first Monday in January 1991 is coterminous with the governor. The terms of members appointed or reappointed by the governor to fill the vacancies that occur on the first Monday in January 2027 shall be staggered so that five members shall be appointed for initial terms of four years and four members shall be appointed for initial terms of two years.
(c) The members of the commission shall elect any additional officers necessary for the efficient discharge of their duties.
The Sentencing Guidelines Commission shall include in its annual report to the legislature a summary and analysis of sentence adjustments issued under section 609.133. At a minimum, the summary and analysis must include information on the counties where a sentencing adjustment was granted and on the race, sex, and age of individuals who received a sentence adjustment.
"Felony" means a crime for which a sentence of imprisonment for more than one year or more may be imposed.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
If a person is convicted of a crime for which no punishment is otherwise provided the person may be sentenced as follows:
(1) If the crime is a felony, to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both; or
(2) If the crime is a gross misdemeanor, to imprisonment for not more than one year 364 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both; or
(3) If the crime is a misdemeanor, to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both; or
(4) If the crime is other than a misdemeanor and a fine is imposed but the amount is not specified, to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or to imprisonment for a specified term of not more than six months if the fine is not paid.
This section is effective the day following final enactment and applies to offenders receiving a gross misdemeanor sentence on or after that date and retroactively to offenders who received a gross misdemeanor sentence before that date.
(a) Any law of this state that provides for a maximum sentence of imprisonment of one year or is defined as a gross misdemeanor shall be deemed to provide for a maximum fine of $3,000 and a maximum sentence of imprisonment of 364 days.
(b) Any sentence of imprisonment for one year or 365 days imposed or executed before July 1, 2023, shall be deemed to be a sentence of imprisonment for 364 days. A court may at any time correct or reduce such a sentence pursuant to rule 27.03, subdivision 9, of the Rules of Criminal Procedure and shall issue a corrected sentencing order upon motion of any eligible defendant.
This section is effective the day following final enactment and applies to offenders receiving a gross misdemeanor sentence on or after that date and retroactively to offenders who received a gross misdemeanor sentence before that date.
A felony sentence to imprisonment for more than one year or more shall commit the defendant to the custody of the commissioner of corrections.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
A sentence to imprisonment for a period of less than one year or any lesser period shall be to a workhouse, work farm, county jail, or other place authorized by law.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
When a court intends to commit an offender with a serious and persistent mental illness, as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 20, paragraph (c), to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for imprisonment at a state correctional facility, either when initially pronouncing a sentence or when revoking an offender's probation, the court, when consistent with public safety, may instead place the offender on probation or continue the offender's probation and require as a condition of the probation that the offender successfully complete an appropriate supervised alternative living program having a mental health treatment component. This section applies only to offenders who would have a remaining term of imprisonment after adjusting for credit for prior imprisonment, if any, of more than one year or more.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
As used in this section:
(1) "prosecutor" means the attorney general, county attorney, or city attorney responsible for the prosecution of individuals charged with a crime; and
(2) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01.
The prosecutor responsible for the prosecution of an individual convicted of a crime may commence a proceeding to adjust the sentence of that individual at any time after the initial sentencing provided the prosecutor does not seek to increase the period of confinement or, if the individual is serving a stayed sentence, increase the period of supervision.
(a) A prosecutor may review individual cases at the prosecutor's discretion.
(b) Prior to filing a petition under this section, a prosecutor shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to seek input from any identifiable victim and shall consider the impact an adjusted sentence would have on the victim.
(c) The commissioner of corrections, a supervising agent, or an offender may request that a prosecutor review an individual case. A prosecutor is not required to respond to a request. Inaction by a prosecutor shall not be considered by any court as grounds for an offender, a supervising agent, or the commissioner of corrections to petition for a sentence adjustment under this section or for a court to adjust a sentence without a petition.
(a) A prosecutor's petition for sentence adjustment shall be filed in the district court where the individual was convicted and include the following:
(1) the full name of the individual on whose behalf the petition is being brought and, to the extent possible, all other legal names or aliases by which the individual has been known at any time;
(2) the individual's date of birth;
(3) the individual's address;
(4) a brief statement of the reason the prosecutor is seeking a sentence adjustment for the individual;
(5) the details of the offense for which an adjustment is sought, including:
(i) the date and jurisdiction of the occurrence;
(ii) either the names of any victims or that there were no identifiable victims;
(iii) whether there is a current order for protection, restraining order, or other no contact order prohibiting the individual from contacting the victims or whether there has ever been a prior order for protection or restraining order prohibiting the individual from contacting the victims;
(iv) the court file number; and
(v) the date of conviction;
(6) what steps the individual has taken since the time of the offense toward personal rehabilitation, including treatment, work, good conduct within correctional facilities, or other personal history that demonstrates rehabilitation;
(7) the individual's criminal conviction record indicating all convictions for misdemeanors, gross misdemeanors, or felonies in this state, and for all comparable convictions in any other state, federal court, or foreign country, whether the convictions occurred before or after the conviction for which an adjustment is sought;
(8) the individual's criminal charges record indicating all prior and pending criminal charges against the individual in this state or another jurisdiction, including all criminal charges that have been continued for dismissal, stayed for adjudication, or were the subject of pretrial diversion; and
(9) to the extent known, all prior requests by the individual, whether for the present offense or for any other offenses in this state or any other state or federal court, for pardon, return of arrest records, or expungement or sealing of a criminal record, whether granted or not, and all stays of adjudication or imposition of sentence involving the petitioner.
(b) The filing fee for a petition brought under this section shall be waived.
(a) The prosecutor shall serve the petition for sentence adjustment on the individual on whose behalf the petition is being brought.
(b) The prosecutor shall make a good faith and reasonable effort to notify any person determined to be a victim of the offense for which adjustment is sought of the existence of a petition. Notification under this paragraph does not constitute a violation of an existing order for protection, restraining order, or other no contact order.
(c) Notice to victims of the offense under this subdivision must:
(1) specifically inform the victim of the right to object, orally or in writing, to the proposed adjustment of sentence; and
(2) inform the victims of the right to be present and to submit an oral or written statement at the hearing described in subdivision 6.
(d) If a victim notifies the prosecutor of an objection to the proposed adjustment of sentence and is not present when the court considers the sentence adjustment, the prosecutor shall make these objections known to the court.
(a) The court shall hold a hearing on the petition no sooner than 60 days after service of the petition. The hearing shall be scheduled so that the parties have adequate time to prepare and present arguments regarding the issue of sentence adjustment. The parties may submit written arguments to the court prior to the date of the hearing and may make oral arguments before the court at the hearing. The individual on whose behalf the petition has been brought must be present at the hearing, unless excused under Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 26.03, subdivision 1, clause (3).
(b) A victim of the offense for which sentence adjustment is sought has a right to submit an oral or written statement to the court at the time of the hearing describing the harm suffered by the victim as a result of the crime and the victim's recommendation on whether adjustment should be granted or denied. The judge shall consider the victim's statement when making a decision.
(c) Representatives of the Department of Corrections, supervising agents, community treatment providers, and any other individual with relevant information may submit an oral or written statement to the court at the time of the hearing.
(a) The court shall determine whether there are substantial and compelling reasons to adjust the individual's sentence. In making this determination, the court shall consider what impact, if any, a sentence adjustment would have on public safety, including whether an adjustment would promote the rehabilitation of the individual, properly reflect the severity of the underlying offense, or reduce sentencing disparities. In making this determination, the court may consider factors relating to both the offender and the offense, including but not limited to:
(1) the presentence investigation report used at sentencing, if available;
(2) the individual's performance on probation or supervision;
(3) the individual's disciplinary record during any period of incarceration;
(4) records of any rehabilitation efforts made by the individual since the date of offense and any plan to continue those efforts in the community;
(5) evidence that remorse, age, diminished physical condition, or any other factor has significantly reduced the likelihood that the individual will commit a future offense;
(6) the amount of time the individual has served in custody or under supervision; and
(7) significant changes in law or sentencing practice since the date of offense.
(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, if the court determines by a preponderance of the evidence that there are substantial and compelling reasons to adjust the individual's sentence, the court may modify the sentence in any way provided the adjustment does not:
(1) increase the period of confinement or, if the individual is serving a stayed sentence, increase the period of supervision;
(2) reduce or eliminate the amount of court-ordered restitution; or
(3) reduce or eliminate a term of conditional release required by law when a court commits an offender to the custody of the commissioner of corrections.
The court may stay imposition or execution of sentence pursuant to section 609.135.
(c) A sentence adjustment is not a valid basis to vacate the judgment of conviction, enter a judgment of conviction for a different offense, or impose sentence for any other offense.
(d) The court shall state in writing or on the record the reasons for its decision on the petition. If the court grants a sentence adjustment, the court shall provide the information in section 244.09, subdivision 15, to the Sentencing Guidelines Commission.
An order issued under this section shall not be considered a final judgment, but shall be treated as an order imposing or staying a sentence.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
If the court orders payment of restitution as a condition of probation and if the defendant fails to pay the restitution in accordance with the payment schedule or structure established by the court or the probation officer, the prosecutor or the defendant's probation officer may, on the prosecutor's or the officer's own motion or at the request of the victim, ask the court to hold a hearing to determine whether or not the conditions of probation should be changed or probation should be revoked. The defendant's probation officer shall ask for the hearing if the restitution ordered has not been paid prior to 60 days before the term of probation expires. The court shall schedule and hold this hearing and take appropriate action, including action under subdivision 2, paragraph (g) (h), before the defendant's term of probation expires.
Nothing in this subdivision limits the court's ability to refer the case to collections under section 609.104 when a defendant fails to pay court-ordered restitution.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
If the court orders a defendant to undergo treatment as a condition of probation and if the defendant fails to successfully complete treatment at least 60 days before the term of probation expires, the prosecutor or the defendant's probation officer may ask the court to hold a hearing to determine whether the conditions of probation should be changed or probation should be revoked. The court shall schedule and hold this hearing and take appropriate action, including action under subdivision 2, paragraph (h) (i), before the defendant's term of probation expires.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), if the conviction is for a felony other than section 609.2113, subdivision 1 or 2, 609.2114, subdivision 2, or section 609.3451, subdivision 1 or 1a, or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, subdivision 1a, paragraph (b) or (c), the stay shall be for not more than four five years or the maximum period for which the sentence of imprisonment might have been imposed, whichever is longer less.
(b) If the conviction is for a felony described in section 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.2112; 609.2113, subdivision 2; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.268; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451; 609.3458; or 609.749, the stay shall be for not more than four years or the maximum period for which the sentence of imprisonment might have been imposed, whichever is longer.
(b) (c) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor violation of section 169A.20, 609.2113, subdivision 3, or 609.3451, or for a felony described in section 609.2113, subdivision 1 or 2, 609.2114, subdivision 2, or 609.3451, subdivision 1 or 1a, the stay shall be for not more than six four years. The court shall provide for unsupervised probation for the last year of the stay unless the court finds that the defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the last year.
(c) (d) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (b) (c), the stay shall be for not more than two years.
(d) (e) If the conviction is for any misdemeanor under section 169A.20; 609.746, subdivision 1; 609.79; or 617.23; or for a misdemeanor under section 609.2242 or 609.224, subdivision 1, in which the victim of the crime was a family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, the stay shall be for not more than two years. The court shall provide for unsupervised probation for the second year of the stay unless the court finds that the defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the second year.
(e) (f) If the conviction is for a misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (d) (e), the stay shall be for not more than one year.
(f) (g) The defendant shall be discharged six months after the term of the stay expires, unless the stay has been revoked or extended under paragraph (g) (h), or the defendant has already been discharged.
(g) (h) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under paragraphs (a) to (f) (g), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to one year if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1a, that:
(1) the defendant has not paid court-ordered restitution in accordance with the payment schedule or structure; and
(2) the defendant is likely to not pay the restitution the defendant owes before the term of probation expires.
This one-year extension of probation for failure to pay restitution may be extended by the court for up to one additional year if the court finds, at another hearing conducted under subdivision 1a, that the defendant still has not paid the court-ordered restitution that the defendant owes.
Nothing in this subdivision limits the court's ability to refer the case to collections under section 609.104.
(h) (i) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under paragraphs (a) to (f) (g), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to three years if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1c, that:
(1) the defendant has failed to complete court-ordered treatment successfully; and
(2) the defendant is likely not to complete court-ordered treatment before the term of probation expires.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to sentences announced on or after that date.
(a) Any person placed on probation before August 1, 2023, is eligible for resentencing if:
(1) the person was placed on probation for a gross misdemeanor or felony violation;
(2) the court placed the person on probation for a length of time for a felony violation that exceeded five years or for a gross misdemeanor violation that exceeded four years;
(3) under Minnesota Statutes, section 609.135, subdivision 2, the maximum length of probation the court could have ordered the person to serve on or after August 1, 2023, is less than the period imposed; and
(4) the sentence of imprisonment has not been executed.
(b) Eligibility for resentencing within the maximum length of probation the court could have ordered the person to serve on or after August 1, 2023, applies to each period of probation ordered by the court. Upon resentencing, periods of probation must be served consecutively if a court previously imposed consecutive periods of probation on the person. The court may not increase a previously ordered period of probation under this section or order that periods of probation be served consecutively unless the court previously imposed consecutive periods of probation.
(c) Resentencing may take place without a hearing.
(d) The term of the stay of probation for any person who is eligible for resentencing under paragraph (a) and who has served five or more years of probation for a felony violation or four or more years of probation for a gross misdemeanor violation as of August 1, 2023, shall be considered to have expired on October 1, 2023, unless:
(1) the term of the stay of probation would have expired before that date under the original sentence; or
(2) the length of probation is extended pursuant to Minnesota Statutes, section 609.135, subdivision 2, paragraph (h) or (i).
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to sentences announced before that date.
The Sentencing Guidelines Commission shall modify the Sentencing Guidelines to be consistent with changes to Minnesota Statutes, section 609.135, subdivision 2, governing the maximum length of probation a court may order.
In Minnesota Statutes, the revisor of statutes shall substitute "364 days" for "one year" consistent with the change in this act. The revisor shall also make other technical changes resulting from the change of term to the statutory language if necessary to preserve the meaning of the text.
(a) Provisions regarding the classification and sharing of data contained in a petition for expungement of a criminal record are included in section 609A.03.
(b) Provisions regarding the classification and sharing of data related to automatic expungements are included in sections 299C.097 and 609A.015.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
(a) A court may defer prosecution as provided in paragraph (c) for any person found guilty, after trial or upon a plea of guilty, of a violation of section 152.023, subdivision 2, 152.024, subdivision 2, 152.025, subdivision 2, or 152.027, subdivision 2, 3, 4, or 6, paragraph (d), for possession of a controlled substance, who:
(1) has not previously participated in or completed a diversion program authorized under section 401.065;
(2) has not previously been placed on probation without a judgment of guilty and thereafter been discharged from probation under this section; and
(3) has not been convicted of a felony violation of this chapter, including a felony-level attempt or conspiracy, or been convicted by the United States or another state of a similar offense that would have been a felony under this chapter if committed in Minnesota, unless ten years have elapsed since discharge from sentence.
(b) The court must defer prosecution as provided in paragraph (c) for any person found guilty of a violation of section 152.025, subdivision 2, who:
(1) meets the criteria listed in paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (3); and
(2) has not previously been convicted of a felony offense under any state or federal law or of a gross misdemeanor under section 152.025.
(c) In granting relief under this section, the court shall, without entering a judgment of guilty and with the consent of the person, defer further proceedings and place the person on probation upon such reasonable conditions as it may require and for a period, not to exceed the maximum sentence provided for the violation. The court may give the person the opportunity to attend and participate in an appropriate program of education regarding the nature and effects of alcohol and drug abuse as a stipulation of probation. Upon violation of a condition of the probation, the court may enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided. The court may, in its discretion, dismiss the proceedings against the person and discharge the person from probation before the expiration of the maximum period prescribed for the person's probation. If during the period of probation the person does not violate any of the conditions of the probation, then upon expiration of the period the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against that person. Discharge and dismissal under this subdivision shall be without court adjudication of guilt, but a not public record of it shall be retained by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension for the purpose of use by the courts in determining the merits of subsequent proceedings against the person. The not public record may also be opened only upon court order for purposes of a criminal investigation, prosecution, or sentencing. Upon receipt of notice that the proceedings were dismissed, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall notify the arresting or citing law enforcement agency and direct that agency to seal its records related to the charge. Upon request by law enforcement, prosecution, or corrections authorities, the bureau shall notify the requesting party of the existence of the not public record and the right to seek a court order to open it pursuant to this section. The court shall forward a record of any discharge and dismissal under this subdivision to the bureau which shall make and maintain the not public record of it as provided under this subdivision. The discharge or dismissal shall not be deemed a conviction for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law upon conviction of a crime or for any other purpose.
For purposes of this subdivision, "not public" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 8a.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
Information regarding a criminal history record of an employee or former employee may not be introduced as evidence in a civil action against a private employer or its employees or agents that is based on the conduct of the employee or former employee, if:
(1) the duties of the position of employment did not expose others to a greater degree of risk than that created by the employee or former employee interacting with the public outside of the duties of the position or that might be created by being employed in general;
(2) before the occurrence of the act giving rise to the civil action,:
(i) a court order sealed any record of the criminal case;
(ii) any record of the criminal case was sealed as the result of an automatic expungement, including but not limited to a grant of expungement made pursuant to section 609A.015; or
(iii) the employee or former employee received a pardon;
(3) the record is of an arrest or charge that did not result in a criminal conviction; or
(4) the action is based solely upon the employer's compliance with section 364.021.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) For a background study conducted by the Department of Human Services, the commissioner shall review:
(1) information related to names of substantiated perpetrators of maltreatment of vulnerable adults that has been received by the commissioner as required under section 626.557, subdivision 9c, paragraph (j);
(2) the commissioner's records relating to the maltreatment of minors in licensed programs, and from findings of maltreatment of minors as indicated through the social service information system;
(3) information from juvenile courts as required in subdivision 4 for individuals listed in section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), when there is reasonable cause;
(4) information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, including information regarding a background study subject's registration in Minnesota as a predatory offender under section 243.166;
(5) except as provided in clause (6), information received as a result of submission of fingerprints for a national criminal history record check, as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 13c, when the commissioner has reasonable cause for a national criminal history record check as defined under section 245C.02, subdivision 15a, or as required under section 144.057, subdivision 1, clause (2);
(6) for a background study related to a child foster family setting application for licensure, foster residence settings, children's residential facilities, a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child under sections 260C.503 to 260C.515, or adoptions, and for a background study required for family child care, certified license-exempt child care, child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B, the commissioner shall also review:
(i) information from the child abuse and neglect registry for any state in which the background study subject has resided for the past five years;
(ii) when the background study subject is 18 years of age or older, or a minor under section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, paragraph (c), information received following submission of fingerprints for a national criminal history record check; and
(iii) when the background study subject is 18 years of age or older or a minor under section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, paragraph (d), for licensed family child care, certified license-exempt child care, licensed child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B, information obtained using non-fingerprint-based data including information from the criminal and sex offender registries for any state in which the background study subject resided for the past five years and information from the national crime information database and the national sex offender registry; and
(7) for a background study required for family child care, certified license-exempt child care centers, licensed child care centers, and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 119B, the background study shall also include, to the extent practicable, a name and date-of-birth search of the National Sex Offender Public website.
(b) Notwithstanding expungement by a court, the commissioner may consider information obtained under paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), unless:
(1) the commissioner received notice of the petition for expungement and the court order for expungement is directed specifically to the commissioner; or
(2) the commissioner received notice of the expungement order issued pursuant to section 609A.017, 609A.025, or 609A.035, and the order for expungement is directed specifically to the commissioner.
(c) The commissioner shall also review criminal case information received according to section 245C.04, subdivision 4a, from the Minnesota court information system that relates to individuals who have already been studied under this chapter and who remain affiliated with the agency that initiated the background study.
(d) When the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe that the identity of a background study subject is uncertain, the commissioner may require the subject to provide a set of classifiable fingerprints for purposes of completing a fingerprint-based record check with the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. Fingerprints collected under this paragraph shall not be saved by the commissioner after they have been used to verify the identity of the background study subject against the particular criminal record in question.
(e) The commissioner may inform the entity that initiated a background study under NETStudy 2.0 of the status of processing of the subject's fingerprints.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) Before the implementation of NETStudy 2.0, for a background study conducted by a county agency for family child care services, the commissioner shall review:
(1) information from the county agency's record of substantiated maltreatment of adults and the maltreatment of minors;
(2) information from juvenile courts as required in subdivision 4 for:
(i) individuals listed in section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), who are ages 13 through 23 living in the household where the licensed services will be provided; and
(ii) any other individual listed under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, when there is reasonable cause; and
(3) information from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.
(b) If the individual has resided in the county for less than five years, the study shall include the records specified under paragraph (a) for the previous county or counties of residence for the past five years.
(c) Notwithstanding expungement by a court, the county agency may consider information obtained under paragraph (a), clause (3), unless:
(1) the commissioner received notice of the petition for expungement and the court order for expungement is directed specifically to the commissioner; or
(2) the commissioner received notice of the expungement order issued pursuant to section 609A.017, 609A.025, or 609A.035, and the order for expungement is directed specifically to the commissioner.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall maintain a computerized data system relating to petty misdemeanor and misdemeanor offenses that may become eligible for expungement pursuant to section 609A.015 and which do not require fingerprinting pursuant to section 299C.10 and are not linked to an arrest record in the criminal history system.
(b) These data are private data on individuals under section 13.02, subdivision 12.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
(a) Sheriffs, peace officers, and community corrections agencies operating secure juvenile detention facilities shall take or cause to be taken immediately finger fingerprints and thumb prints thumbprints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on any known aliases or street names, and other identification data requested or required by the superintendent of the bureau, of the following:
(1) persons arrested for, appearing in court on a charge of, or convicted of a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor;
(2) juveniles arrested for, appearing in court on a charge of, adjudicated delinquent for, or alleged to have committed felonies or gross misdemeanors as distinguished from those committed by adult offenders;
(3) adults and juveniles admitted to jails or detention facilities;
(4) persons reasonably believed by the arresting officer to be fugitives from justice;
(5) persons in whose possession, when arrested, are found concealed firearms or other dangerous weapons, burglar tools or outfits, high-power explosives, or articles, machines, or appliances usable for an unlawful purpose and reasonably believed by the arresting officer to be intended for such purposes;
(6) juveniles referred by a law enforcement agency to a diversion program for a felony or gross misdemeanor offense; and
(7) persons currently involved in the criminal justice process, on probation, on parole, or in custody for any offense whom the superintendent of the bureau identifies as being the subject of a court disposition record which cannot be linked to an arrest record, and whose fingerprints are necessary to reduce the number of suspense files, or to comply with the mandates of section 299C.111, relating to the reduction of the number of suspense files. This duty to obtain fingerprints for the offenses in suspense at the request of the bureau shall include the requirement that fingerprints be taken in post-arrest interviews, while making court appearances, while in custody, or while on any form of probation, diversion, or supervised release.
(b) Unless the superintendent of the bureau requires a shorter period, within 24 hours of taking the fingerprints and data, the fingerprint records and other identification data specified under paragraph (a) must be electronically entered into a bureau-managed searchable database in a manner as may be prescribed by the superintendent.
(c) Prosecutors, courts, and probation officers and their agents, employees, and subordinates shall attempt to ensure that the required identification data is taken on a person described in paragraph (a). Law enforcement may take fingerprints of an individual who is presently on probation.
(d) Finger Fingerprints and thumb prints thumbprints must be obtained no later than:
(1) release from booking; or
(2) if not booked prior to acceptance of a plea of guilty or not guilty.
Prior to acceptance of a plea of guilty or not guilty, an individual's finger and thumb prints must be submitted to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension for the offense. If finger and thumb prints have not been successfully received by the bureau, an individual may, upon order of the court, be taken into custody for no more than eight hours so that the taking of prints can be completed. Upon notice and motion of the prosecuting attorney, this time period may be extended upon a showing that additional time in custody is essential for the successful taking of prints.
(e) For purposes of this section, a targeted misdemeanor is a misdemeanor violation of section 169A.20 (driving while impaired), 518B.01 (order for protection violation), 609.224 (fifth-degree assault), 609.2242 (domestic assault), 609.746 (interference with privacy), 609.748 (harassment or restraining order violation), 609.749 (obscene or harassing telephone calls), 617.23 (indecent exposure), or 629.75 (domestic abuse no contact order).
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to violations that occur on or after that date.
(a) Each sheriff and chief of police shall furnish the bureau, upon such form as the superintendent shall prescribe, with such finger and thumb prints fingerprints and thumbprints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data as may be requested or required by the superintendent of the bureau, which must be taken under the provisions of section 299C.10. In addition, sheriffs and chiefs of police shall furnish this identification data to the bureau for individuals found to have been convicted of a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor, within the ten years immediately preceding their arrest. When the bureau learns that an individual who is the subject of a background check has used, or is using, identifying information, including, but not limited to, name and date of birth, other than those listed on the criminal history, the bureau shall convert into an electronic format, if necessary, and enter into a bureau-managed searchable database the new identifying information when supported by fingerprints within three business days of learning the information if the information is not entered by a law enforcement agency.
(b) No petition under chapter 609A is required if the person has not been convicted of any felony or gross misdemeanor, either within or without the state, within the period of ten years immediately preceding the determination of all pending criminal actions or proceedings in favor of the arrested person, and either of the following occurred:
(1) all charges were dismissed prior to a determination of probable cause; or
(2) the prosecuting authority declined to file any charges and a grand jury did not return an indictment.
Where these conditions are met, the bureau or agency shall, upon demand, destroy the arrested person's finger and thumb prints fingerprints and thumbprints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data, and all copies and duplicates of them.
(c) The bureau or agency shall destroy an arrested person's fingerprints and thumbprints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data and all copies and duplicates of them without the demand of any person or the granting of a petition under chapter 609A if:
(1) the sheriff, chief of police, bureau, or other arresting agency determines that the person was arrested or identified as the result of mistaken identity before presenting information to the prosecuting authority for a charging decision; or
(2) the prosecuting authority declines to file any charges or a grand jury does not return an indictment based on a determination that the person was identified or arrested as the result of mistaken identity.
(d) A prosecuting authority that determines a person was arrested or identified as the result of mistaken identity and either declines to file any charges or receives notice that a grand jury did not return an indictment shall notify the bureau and the applicable sheriff, chief of police, or other arresting agency of the determination.
(c) (e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) or (c), upon the determination of all pending criminal actions or proceedings in favor of the arrested person, and the granting of the petition of the arrested person under chapter 609A, the bureau shall seal finger and thumb prints fingerprints and thumbprints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data, and all copies and duplicates of them if the arrested person has not been convicted of any felony or gross misdemeanor, either within or without the state, within the period of ten years immediately preceding such determination.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to determinations that a person was identified as the result of mistaken identity made on or after that date.
The superintendent shall immediately notify the appropriate entity or individual when a disposition record for a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor is received that cannot be linked to an arrest record.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
The superintendent shall require the court administrator of every court which sentences a defendant for a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor, or petty misdemeanor to electronically transmit within 24 hours of the disposition of the case a report, in a form prescribed by the superintendent providing information required by the superintendent with regard to the prosecution and disposition of criminal cases. A copy of the report shall be kept on file in the office of the court administrator.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
This chapter provides the grounds and procedures for expungement of criminal records under section 13.82; 152.18, subdivision 1; 299C.11, where expungement is automatic under sections 609A.015, 609A.017, or 609A.035, or a petition is authorized under section 609A.02, subdivision 3; or other applicable law. The remedy available is limited to a court order or grant of expungement under section 609A.015 sealing the records and prohibiting the disclosure of their existence or their opening except under court order or statutory authority. Nothing in this chapter authorizes the destruction of records or their return to the subject of the records.
This section is effective January 1, 2025.
(a) A person who is the subject of a criminal record or delinquency record is eligible for a grant of expungement relief without the filing of a petition:
(1) if the person was arrested and all charges were dismissed after a case was filed unless dismissal was based on a finding that the defendant was incompetent to proceed;
(2) upon the dismissal and discharge of proceedings against a person under section 152.18, subdivision 1, for violation of section 152.024, 152.025, or 152.027 for possession of a controlled substance; or
(3) if all pending actions or proceedings were resolved in favor of the person.
(b) For purposes of this chapter, a verdict of not guilty by reason of mental illness is not a resolution in favor of the person. For purposes of this chapter, an action or proceeding is resolved in favor of the person if the petitioner received an order under section 590.11 determining that the person is eligible for compensation based on exoneration.
A person is eligible for a grant of expungement relief if the person has successfully completed the terms of a diversion program or stay of adjudication for a qualifying offense that is not a felony and has not been petitioned or charged with a new offense, other than an offense that would be a petty misdemeanor, in Minnesota:
(1) for one year immediately following completion of the diversion program or stay of adjudication; or
(2) for one year immediately preceding a subsequent review performed pursuant to subdivision 5, paragraph (a).
(a) A person is eligible for a grant of expungement relief if the person:
(1) was convicted of a qualifying offense;
(2) has not been convicted of a new offense, other than an offense that would be a petty misdemeanor, in Minnesota:
(i) during the applicable waiting period immediately following discharge of the disposition or sentence for the crime; or
(ii) during the applicable waiting period immediately preceding a subsequent review performed pursuant to subdivision 5, paragraph (a); and
(3) is not charged with an offense, other than an offense that would be a petty misdemeanor, in Minnesota at the time the person reaches the end of the applicable waiting period or at the time of a subsequent review.
(b) As used in this subdivision, "qualifying offense" means a conviction for:
(1) any petty misdemeanor offense other than a violation of a traffic regulation relating to the operation or parking of motor vehicles;
(2) any misdemeanor offense other than:
(i) section 169A.20 under the terms described in section 169A.27 (fourth-degree driving while impaired);
(ii) section 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of an order for protection);
(iii) section 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree);
(iv) section 609.2242 (domestic assault);
(v) section 609.748 (violation of a harassment restraining order);
(vi) section 609.78 (interference with emergency call);
(vii) section 609.79 (obscene or harassing phone calls);
(viii) section 617.23 (indecent exposure);
(ix) section 609.746 (interference with privacy); or
(x) section 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order);
(3) any gross misdemeanor offense other than:
(i) section 169A.25 (second-degree driving while impaired);
(ii) section 169A.26 (third-degree driving while impaired);
(iii) section 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of an order for protection);
(iv) section 609.2113, subdivision 3 (criminal vehicular operation);
(v) section 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree);
(vi) section 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree);
(vii) section 609.2242 (domestic assault);
(viii) section 609.233 (criminal neglect);
(ix) section 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree);
(x) section 609.377 (malicious punishment of child);
(xi) section 609.485 (escape from custody);
(xii) section 609.498 (tampering with witness);
(xiii) section 609.582, subdivision 4 (burglary in the fourth degree);
(xiv) section 609.746 (interference with privacy);
(xv) section 609.748 (violation of a harassment restraining order);
(xvi) section 609.749 (harassment; stalking);
(xvii) section 609.78 (interference with emergency call);
(xviii) section 617.23 (indecent exposure);
(xix) section 617.261 (nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images); or
(xx) section 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order); or
(4) any felony offense listed in section 609A.02, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), other than:
(i) section 152.023, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the third degree);
(ii) section 152.024, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the fourth degree);
(iii) section 609.485, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (2) or (4) (escape from civil commitment for mental illness); or
(iv) section 609.746, subdivision 1, paragraph (e) (interference with privacy; subsequent violation or minor victim).
(c) As used in this subdivision, "applicable waiting period" means:
(1) if the offense was a petty misdemeanor, two years since discharge of the sentence;
(2) if the offense was a misdemeanor, two years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;
(3) if the offense was a gross misdemeanor, three years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;
(4) if the offense was a felony violation of section 152.025, four years since the discharge of the sentence for the crime; and
(5) if the offense was any other felony, five years since discharge of the sentence for the crime.
(d) Felony offenses deemed to be a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 1, remain ineligible for expungement under this section. Gross misdemeanor offenses ineligible for a grant of expungement under this section remain ineligible if deemed to be for a misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 2.
(a) The court shall notify a person who may become eligible for an automatic expungement under this section of that eligibility at any hearing where the court dismisses and discharges proceedings against a person under section 152.18, subdivision 1, for violation of section 152.024, 152.025, or 152.027 for possession of a controlled substance; concludes that all pending actions or proceedings were resolved in favor of the person; grants a person's placement into a diversion program; or sentences a person or otherwise imposes a consequence for a qualifying offense.
(b) To the extent possible, prosecutors, defense counsel, supervising agents, and coordinators or supervisors of a diversion program shall notify a person who may become eligible for an automatic expungement under this section of that eligibility.
(c) If any party gives notification under this subdivision, the notification shall inform the person that:
(1) a record expunged under this section may be opened for purposes of a background study by the Department of Human Services under section 245C.08 and for purposes of a background check by the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board as required under section 122A.18, subdivision 8; and
(2) the person can file a petition to expunge the record and request that the petition be directed to the commissioner of human services and the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board.
(a) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify any records that qualify for a grant of expungement relief pursuant to this subdivision or subdivision 1, 2, or 3. The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall make an initial determination of eligibility within 30 days of the end of the applicable waiting period. If a record is not eligible for a grant of expungement at the time of the initial determination, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall make subsequent eligibility determinations annually until the record is eligible for a grant of expungement.
(b) In making the determination under paragraph (a), the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify individuals who are the subject of relevant records through the use of fingerprints and thumbprints where fingerprints and thumbprints are available. Where fingerprints and thumbprints are not available, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify individuals through the use of the person's name and date of birth. Records containing the same name and date of birth shall be presumed to refer to the same individual unless other evidence establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that they do not refer to the same individual. The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension is not required to review any other evidence in making a determination.
(c) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall grant expungement relief to qualifying persons and seal its own records without requiring an application, petition, or motion. Records shall be sealed 60 days after notice is sent to the judicial branch pursuant to paragraph (e) unless an order of the judicial branch prohibits sealing the records or additional information establishes that the records are not eligible for expungement.
(d) Nonpublic criminal records maintained by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and subject to a grant of expungement relief shall display a notation stating "expungement relief granted pursuant to section 609A.015."
(e) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall inform the judicial branch of all cases for which expungement relief was granted pursuant to this section. Notification may be through electronic means and may be made in real time or in the form of a monthly report. Upon receipt of notice, the judicial branch shall seal all records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, or dismissal and discharge for any case in which expungement relief was granted and shall issue any order deemed necessary to achieve this purpose.
(f) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall inform each law enforcement agency that its records may be affected by a grant of expungement relief. Notification may be through electronic means. Each notified law enforcement agency that receives a request to produce records shall first determine if the records were subject to a grant of expungement under this section. The law enforcement agency must not disclose records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, or dismissal and discharge for any case in which expungement relief was granted and must maintain the data consistent with the classification in paragraph (g). This paragraph does not apply to requests from a criminal justice agency as defined in section 609A.03, subdivision 7a, paragraph (f).
(g) Data on the person whose offense has been expunged under this subdivision, including any notice sent pursuant to paragraph (f), are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.
(h) The prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim that an offense qualifies for automatic expungement under this section in the manner provided in section 611A.03, subdivisions 1 and 2.
(i) In any subsequent prosecution of a person granted expungement relief, the expunged criminal record may be pleaded and has the same effect as if the relief had not been granted.
(j) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension is directed to develop, modify, or update a system to provide criminal justice agencies with uniform statewide access to criminal records sealed by expungement.
Employees of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall not be held civilly liable for the exercise or the failure to exercise, or the decision to exercise or the decision to decline to exercise, the powers granted by this section or for any act or omission occurring within the scope of the performance of their duties under this section.
This section is effective January 1, 2025, and applies to offenses that meet the eligibility criteria on or after that date and retroactively to offenses that met those qualifications before January 1, 2025, and are stored in the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension's criminal history system as of January 1, 2025.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Conviction" means a plea of guilty, a verdict of guilty by a jury, or a finding of guilty by a court.
(c) "Mistaken identity" means a person was incorrectly identified as being a different person:
(1) because the person's identity had been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of section 609.527; or
(2) as a result of misidentification by a witness or law enforcement, confusion on the part of a witness or law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime, misinformation provided to law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime, or some other mistake on the part of a witness or law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime.
If, before a conviction, a prosecutor determines that a defendant was issued a citation, charged, indicted, or otherwise prosecuted as the result of mistaken identity, the prosecutor must dismiss or move to dismiss the action or proceeding and must state in writing or on the record that mistaken identity is the reason for the dismissal.
(a) The court shall issue an order of expungement without the filing of a petition when an action or proceeding is dismissed based on a determination that a defendant was issued a citation, charged, indicted, or otherwise prosecuted as the result of mistaken identity. The order shall cite this section as the basis for the order.
(b) An order issued under this section is not subject to the considerations or standards identified in section 609A.025 or 609A.03, subdivision 5, paragraph (a), (b), or (c).
(a) An order issued under this section is not subject to the limitations in section 609A.03, subdivision 7a or 9. The effect of the court order to seal the record of the proceedings shall be to restore the person, in the contemplation of the law, to the status the person occupied before the arrest, indictment, or information. The person shall not be guilty of perjury or otherwise of giving a false statement if the person fails to acknowledge the arrest, indictment, information, or trial in response to any inquiry made for any purpose.
(b) A criminal justice agency may seek access to a record that was sealed under this section for purposes of determining whether the subject of the order was identified in any other action or proceeding as the result of mistaken identity or for a criminal investigation, prosecution, or sentencing involving any other person. The requesting agency must obtain an ex parte court order after stating a good-faith basis to believe that opening the record may lead to relevant information.
(c) The court administrator must distribute and confirm receipt of an order issued under this section pursuant to section 609A.03, subdivision 8.
(d) Data on the person whose offense has been expunged contained in a letter or other notification sent under this subdivision are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to determinations that a person was identified as the result of mistaken identity on or after that date.
(a) A petition may be filed under section 609A.03 to seal all records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, or verdict if the records are not subject to section 299C.11, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and if:
(1) all pending actions or proceedings were resolved in favor of the petitioner. For purposes of this chapter, a verdict of not guilty by reason of mental illness is not a resolution in favor of the petitioner. For the purposes of this chapter, an action or proceeding is resolved in favor of the petitioner, if the petitioner received an order under section 590.11 determining that the petitioner is eligible for compensation based on exoneration;
(2) the petitioner has successfully completed the terms of a diversion program or stay of adjudication and has not been charged with a new crime for at least one year since completion of the diversion program or stay of adjudication;
(3) the petitioner was convicted of or received a stayed sentence for a petty misdemeanor or misdemeanor or the sentence imposed was within the limits provided by law for a misdemeanor and the petitioner has not been convicted of a new crime for at least two years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;
(4) the petitioner was convicted of or received a stayed sentence for a gross misdemeanor or the sentence imposed was within the limits provided by law for a gross misdemeanor and the petitioner has not been convicted of a new crime for at least four three years since discharge of the sentence for the crime; or
(5) the petitioner was convicted of a gross misdemeanor that is deemed to be for a misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 2, clause (2), and has not been convicted of a new crime for at least three years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;
(6) the petitioner was convicted of a felony violation of section 152.025 and has not been convicted of a new crime for at least four years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;
(7) the petitioner was convicted of a felony that is deemed to be for a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 1, clause (2), and has not been convicted of a new crime for at least five years since discharge of the sentence for the crime; or
(5) (8) the petitioner was convicted of or received a stayed sentence for a felony violation of an offense listed in paragraph (b), and has not been convicted of a new crime for at least five four years since discharge of the sentence for the crime.
(b) Paragraph (a), clause (5) (7), applies to the following offenses:
(1) section 35.824 (altering livestock certificate);
(2) section 62A.41 (insurance regulations);
(3) section 86B.865, subdivision 1 (certification for title on watercraft);
(4) section 152.023, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the third degree); 152.024, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the fourth degree); 152.025 (controlled substance in the fifth degree); or 152.097 (sale of simulated controlled substance);
(5) section 168A.30, subdivision 1 (certificate of title false information); or 169.09, subdivision 14, paragraph (a), clause (2) (accident resulting in great bodily harm);
(6) chapter 201; 203B; or 204C (voting violations);
(7) section 228.45; 228.47; 228.49; 228.50; or 228.51 (false bill of lading);
(8) section 256.984 (false declaration in assistance application);
(9) section 296A.23, subdivision 2 (willful evasion of fuel tax);
(10) section 297D.09, subdivision 1 (failure to affix stamp on scheduled substances);
(11) section 297G.19 (liquor taxation); or 340A.701 (unlawful acts involving liquor);
(12) section 325F.743 (precious metal dealers); or 325F.755, subdivision 7 (prize notices and solicitations);
(13) section 346.155, subdivision 10 (failure to control regulated animal);
(14) section 349.2127; or 349.22 (gambling regulations);
(15) section 588.20 (contempt);
(16) section 609.27, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (5) (coercion);
(17) section 609.31 (leaving state to evade establishment of paternity);
(18) section 609.485, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (2) or (4) (escape from civil commitment for mental illness);
(19) section 609.49 (failure to appear in court);
(20) section 609.52, subdivision 2, when sentenced pursuant to section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (3)(a) (theft of $5,000 or less), or other theft offense that is sentenced under this provision; or 609.52, subdivision 3a, clause (1) (theft of $1,000 or less with risk of bodily harm); or any other offense sentenced pursuant to section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (3)(a);
(21) section 609.521 (possession of shoplifting gear);
(21) (22) section 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into state);
(22) (23) section 609.526, subdivision 2, clause (2) (metal dealer receiving stolen goods);
(23) (24) section 609.527, subdivision 5b (possession or use of scanning device or reencoder); 609.528, subdivision 3, clause (3) (possession or sale of stolen or counterfeit check); or 609.529 (mail theft);
(24) (25) section 609.53 (receiving stolen goods);
(25) (26) section 609.535, subdivision 2a, paragraph (a), clause (1) (dishonored check over $500);
(26) (27) section 609.54, clause (1) (embezzlement of public funds $2,500 or less);
(27) (28) section 609.551 (rustling and livestock theft);
(28) (29) section 609.5641, subdivision 1a, paragraph (a) (wildfire arson);
(29) (30) section 609.576, subdivision 1, clause (3), item (iii) (negligent fires);
(31) section 609.582, subdivision 3 (burglary in the third degree);
(32) section 609.59 (possession of burglary or theft tools);
(30) (33) section 609.595, subdivision 1, clauses (3) to (5), and subdivision 1a, paragraph (a) (criminal damage to property);
(31) (34) section 609.597, subdivision 3, clause (3) (assaulting or harming police horse);
(32) (35) section 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63 (forgery); 609.631, subdivision 4, clause (3)(a) (check forgery $2,500 or less); 609.635 (obtaining signature by false pretense); 609.64 (recording, filing forged instrument); or 609.645 (fraudulent statements);
(33) (36) section 609.65, clause (1) (false certification by notary); or 609.651, subdivision 4, paragraph (a) (lottery fraud);
(34) (37) section 609.652 (fraudulent driver's license and identification card);
(35) (38) section 609.66, subdivision 1a, paragraph (a) (discharge of firearm; silencer); or 609.66, subdivision 1b (furnishing firearm to minor);
(36) (39) section 609.662, subdivision 2, paragraph (b) (duty to render aid);
(37) (40) section 609.686, subdivision 2 (tampering with fire alarm);
(38) (41) section 609.746, subdivision 1, paragraph (e) (g) (interference with privacy; subsequent violation or minor victim);
(39) (42) section 609.80, subdivision 2 (interference with cable communications system);
(40) (43) section 609.821, subdivision 2 (financial transaction card fraud);
(41) (44) section 609.822 (residential mortgage fraud);
(42) (45) section 609.825, subdivision 2 (bribery of participant or official in contest);
(43) (46) section 609.855, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (1) (interference with transit operator);
(44) (47) section 609.88 (computer damage); or 609.89 (computer theft);
(45) (48) section 609.893, subdivision 2 (telecommunications and information services fraud);
(46) (49) section 609.894, subdivision 3 or 4 (cellular counterfeiting);
(47) (50) section 609.895, subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b) (counterfeited intellectual property);
(48) (51) section 609.896 (movie pirating);
(49) (52) section 624.7132, subdivision 15, paragraph (b) (transfer pistol to minor); 624.714, subdivision 1a (pistol without permit; subsequent violation); or 624.7141, subdivision 2 (transfer of pistol to ineligible person); or
(50) (53) section 624.7181 (rifle or shotgun in public by minor).
This section is effective July 1, 2023, and applies to all offenses that meet the eligibility criteria on or after that date, except the amendment to clause (41) relating to interference with privacy is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) Except as otherwise provided by paragraph (b), expungement of a criminal record under this section is an extraordinary remedy to be granted only upon clear and convincing evidence that it would yield a benefit to the petitioner commensurate with the disadvantages to the public and public safety of:
(1) sealing the record; and
(2) burdening the court and public authorities to issue, enforce, and monitor an expungement order.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by this paragraph, if the petitioner is petitioning for the sealing of a criminal record under section 609A.02, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (1) or (2), the court shall grant the petition to seal the record unless the agency or jurisdiction whose records would be affected establishes by clear and convincing evidence that the interests of the public and public safety outweigh the disadvantages to the petitioner of not sealing the record.
(c) In making a determination under this subdivision, the court shall consider:
(1) the nature and severity of the underlying crime, the record of which would be sealed;
(2) the risk, if any, the petitioner poses to individuals or society;
(3) the length of time since the crime occurred;
(4) the steps taken by the petitioner toward rehabilitation following the crime;
(5) aggravating or mitigating factors relating to the underlying crime, including the petitioner's level of participation and context and circumstances of the underlying crime;
(6) the reasons for the expungement, including the petitioner's attempts to obtain employment, housing, or other necessities;
(7) the petitioner's criminal record;
(8) the petitioner's record of employment and community involvement;
(9) the recommendations of interested law enforcement, prosecutorial, and corrections officials;
(10) the recommendations of victims or whether victims of the underlying crime were minors;
(11) the amount, if any, of restitution outstanding, past efforts made by the petitioner toward payment, and the measures in place to help ensure completion of restitution payment after expungement of the record if granted; and
(12) other factors deemed relevant by the court.
(d) Notwithstanding section 13.82, 13.87, or any other law to the contrary, if the court issues an expungement order it may require that the criminal record be sealed, the existence of the record not be revealed, and the record not be opened except as required under subdivision 7. Records must not be destroyed or returned to the subject of the record.
(e) Information relating to a criminal history record of an employee, former employee, or tenant that has been expunged before the occurrence of the act giving rise to the civil action may not be introduced as evidence in a civil action against a private employer or landlord or its employees or agents that is based on the conduct of the employee, former employee, or tenant.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) Upon issuance of an expungement order related to a charge supported by probable cause, the DNA samples and DNA records held by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and collected under authority other than section 299C.105 shall not be sealed, returned to the subject of the record, or destroyed.
(b) Notwithstanding the issuance of an expungement order:
(1) except as provided in clause (2), an expunged record may be opened, used, or exchanged between criminal justice agencies without a court order for the purposes of initiating, furthering, or completing a criminal investigation or prosecution or for sentencing purposes or providing probation or other correctional services;
(2) when a criminal justice agency seeks access to a record that was sealed under section 609A.02, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (1), after an acquittal or a court order dismissing for lack of probable cause, for purposes of a criminal investigation, prosecution, or sentencing, the requesting agency must obtain an ex parte court order after stating a good-faith basis to believe that opening the record may lead to relevant information;
(3) an expunged record of a conviction may be opened for purposes of evaluating a prospective employee in a criminal justice agency without a court order;
(4) an expunged record of a conviction may be opened for purposes of a background study under section 245C.08 unless the commissioner had been properly served with notice of the petition for expungement and the court order for expungement is directed specifically to the commissioner of human services following proper service of a petition, or following proceedings under section 609A.025 or 609A.035 upon service of an order to the commissioner of human services;
(5) an expunged record of a conviction may be opened for purposes of a background check required under section 122A.18, subdivision 8, unless the court order for expungement is directed specifically to the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board; and
(6) the court may order an expunged record opened upon request by the victim of the underlying offense if the court determines that the record is substantially related to a matter for which the victim is before the court.;
(7) a prosecutor may request, and the district court shall provide, certified records of conviction for a record expunged pursuant to sections 609A.015, 609A.017, 609A.02, 609A.025, and 609A.035, and the certified records of conviction may be disclosed and introduced in criminal court proceedings as provided by the rules of court and applicable law; and
(8) the subject of an expunged record may request, and the court shall provide, certified or uncertified records of conviction for a record expunged pursuant to sections 609A.015, 609A.017, 609A.02, 609A.025, and 609A.035.
(c) An agency or jurisdiction subject to an expungement order shall maintain the record in a manner that provides access to the record by a criminal justice agency under paragraph (b), clause (1) or (2), but notifies the recipient that the record has been sealed. The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall notify the commissioner of human services or the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board of the existence of a sealed record and of the right to obtain access under paragraph (b), clause (4) or (5). Upon request, the agency or jurisdiction subject to the expungement order shall provide access to the record to the commissioner of human services or the Professional Educator Licensing and Standards Board under paragraph (b), clause (4) or (5).
(d) An expunged record that is opened or exchanged under this subdivision remains subject to the expungement order in the hands of the person receiving the record.
(e) A criminal justice agency that receives an expunged record under paragraph (b), clause (1) or (2), must maintain and store the record in a manner that restricts the use of the record to the investigation, prosecution, or sentencing for which it was obtained.
(f) For purposes of this section, a "criminal justice agency" means a court or government agency that performs the administration of criminal justice under statutory authority.
(g) This subdivision applies to expungement orders subject to its limitations and effective on or after January 1, 2015, and grants of expungement relief issued on or after January 1, 2025.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
An expungement order issued under this section shall be stayed automatically for 60 days after the order is filed and, if the order is appealed, during the appeal period. A person or an agency or jurisdiction whose records would be affected by the order may appeal the order within 60 days of service of notice of filing of the order. An agency or jurisdiction or its officials or employees need not file a cost bond or supersedeas bond in order to further stay the proceedings or file an appeal.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) Notwithstanding section 609A.02, if the Board of Pardons grants a pardon pursuant to section 638.17, it shall file a copy of the pardon extraordinary with the district court of the county in which the conviction occurred.
(b) The district court shall issue an expungement order sealing all records wherever held relating to the arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, and pardon for the pardoned offense without the filing of a petition and send an expungement order to each government entity whose records are affected.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
A landlord or employer does not have a duty to discover or use a record that has been expunged under this chapter or other law for purposes of making a housing or employment decision.
Prior to the entry of the factual basis for a plea pursuant to a plea agreement recommendation, a prosecuting attorney shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to inform the victim of:
(1) the contents of the plea agreement recommendation, including the amount of time recommended for the defendant to serve in jail or prison if the court accepts the agreement; and
(2) the right to be present at the sentencing hearing and at the hearing during which the plea is presented to the court and to express orally or in writing, at the victim's option, any objection to the agreement or to the proposed disposition. If the victim is not present when the court considers the recommendation, but has communicated objections to the prosecuting attorney, the prosecuting attorney shall make these objections known to the court.; and
(3) the eligibility of the offense for automatic expungement pursuant to section 609A.015.
This section is effective January 1, 2025, and applies to plea agreements entered into on or after that date.
Access to Board of Pardons records of the Clemency Review Commission is governed by section 638.07 638.20.
For purposes of this section:
(1) "determination of all pending criminal actions or proceedings in favor of the arrested person" does not include:
(i) the sealing of a criminal record pursuant to section 152.18, subdivision 1, 242.31, or chapter 609A;
(ii) the arrested person's successful completion of a diversion program;
(iii) an order of discharge under section 609.165; or
(iv) a pardon granted under section 638.02 chapter 638; and
(2) "mistaken identity" means the person was incorrectly identified as being a different person:
(i) because the person's identity had been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of section 609.527; or
(ii) as a result of misidentification by a witness or law enforcement, confusion on the part of a witness or law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime, misinformation provided to law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime, or some other mistake on the part of a witness or law enforcement as to the identity of the person who committed the crime; and
(2) (3) "targeted misdemeanor" has the meaning given in section 299C.10, subdivision 1.
The Board of Pardons shall consist consists of the governor, the chief justice of the supreme court, and the attorney general. The board governor in conjunction with the board may grant pardons and reprieves and commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense against the laws of the state, in the manner and under the conditions and rules hereinafter prescribed, but not otherwise clemency according to this chapter.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
For purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given.
"Board" means the Board of Pardons under section 638.01.
Unless otherwise provided, "clemency" includes a pardon, commutation, and reprieve after conviction for a crime against the state except in cases of impeachment.
"Commission" means the Clemency Review Commission under section 638.09.
"Department" means the Department of Corrections.
"Waiver request" means a request to waive a time restriction under sections 638.12, subdivisions 2 and 3, and 638.19, subdivision 1.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) The Clemency Review Commission is established to:
(1) review each eligible clemency application and waiver request that it receives;
(2) recommend to the board, in writing, whether to grant or deny the application or waiver request, with each member's vote reported;
(3) recommend to the board, in writing, whether the board should conduct a hearing on a clemency application, with each member's vote reported; and
(4) provide victim support services, assistance to applicants, and other assistance as the board requires.
(b) Unless otherwise provided:
(1) the commission's recommendations under this chapter are nonbinding on the governor or the board; and
(2) chapter 15 applies unless otherwise inconsistent with this chapter.
(a) The commission consists of nine members, each serving a term coterminous with the governor.
(b) The governor, the attorney general, and the chief justice of the supreme court must each appoint three members to serve on the commission and replace members when the members' terms expire. Members serve at the pleasure of their appointing authority.
(a) An appointing authority is encouraged to consider the following criteria when appointing a member:
(1) expertise in law, corrections, victims' services, correctional supervision, mental health, and substance abuse treatment; and
(2) experience addressing systemic disparities, including but not limited to disparities based on race, gender, and ability.
(b) An appointing authority must seek out and encourage qualified individuals to apply to serve on the commission, including:
(1) members of Indigenous communities, Black communities, and other communities of color;
(2) members diverse as to gender identity; and
(3) members diverse as to age and ability.
(c) If there is a vacancy, the appointing authority who selected the vacating member must make an interim appointment to expire at the end of the vacating member's term.
(d) A member may continue to serve until the member's successor is appointed, but a member may not serve more than eight years in total.
(a) The commission must biennially elect one of its members as chair and one as vice-chair. The chair serves as the board's secretary.
(b) Each commission member must be:
(1) compensated at a rate of $150 for each day or part of the day spent on commission activities; and
(2) reimbursed for all reasonable expenses actually paid or incurred by the member while performing official duties.
(c) Beginning January 1, 2025, and annually thereafter, the board may set a new per diem rate for commission members, not to exceed an amount ten percent higher than the previous year's rate.
(a) The board must appoint a commission executive director knowledgeable about clemency and criminal justice. The executive director serves at the pleasure of the board in the unclassified service as an executive branch employee.
(b) The executive director's salary is set in accordance with section 15A.0815, subdivision 3.
(c) The executive director may obtain office space and supplies and hire administrative staff necessary to carry out the commission's official functions, including providing administrative support to the board and attending board meetings. Any additional staff serve in the unclassified service at the pleasure of the executive director.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
A clemency application must:
(1) be in writing;
(2) be signed under oath by the applicant; and
(3) state the clemency sought, state why the clemency should be granted, and contain the following information and any additional information that the commission or board requires:
(i) the applicant's name, address, and date and place of birth, and every alias by which the applicant is or has been known;
(ii) the applicant's demographic information, including race, ethnicity, gender, disability status, and age, only if voluntarily reported;
(iii) the applicant's convicted crime for which clemency is requested, the date and county of conviction, the sentence imposed, and the sentence's expiration or discharge date;
(iv) the names of the sentencing judge, the prosecuting attorney, and any victims of the crime;
(v) a brief description of the crime and the applicant's age at the time of the crime;
(vi) the date and outcome of any prior clemency application, including any application submitted before July 1, 2024;
(vii) to the best of the applicant's knowledge, a statement of any past criminal conviction and any pending criminal charge or investigation;
(viii) for an applicant under the department's custody, a statement describing the applicant's reentry plan should clemency be granted; and
(ix) an applicant statement acknowledging and consenting to the disclosure to the commission, board, and public of any private data on the applicant in the application or in any other record relating to the clemency being sought, including conviction and arrest records.
(a) An application must be made on a commission-approved form or forms and filed with the commission by commission-prescribed deadlines. The commission must consult with the board on the forms and deadlines.
(b) The application must include language informing the applicant that the board and the commission will consider any and all past convictions and that the applicant may provide information about the convictions.
The commission must review an application for completeness. An incomplete application must be returned to the applicant, who may then provide the missing information and resubmit the application within a commission-prescribed period.
After the commission's initial investigation of a clemency application, the commission must notify the applicant of the scheduled date, time, and location that the applicant must appear before the commission for a meeting under section 638.14.
Each board and commission member must have equal access to information under this chapter that is used when making a clemency decision.
(a) After receiving a clemency application, the commission must make all reasonable efforts to locate any victim of the applicant's crime.
(b) At least 30 calendar days before the commission meeting at which the application will be heard, the commission must notify any located victim of:
(1) the application;
(2) the meeting's scheduled date, time, and location; and
(3) the victim's right to attend the meeting and submit an oral or written statement to the commission.
(c) The commission must make all reasonable efforts to ensure that a victim can:
(1) submit an oral or written statement; and
(2) receive victim support services as necessary to help the victim submit a statement and participate in the clemency process.
(a) At least 60 calendar days before the commission meeting at which the application will be heard, the commission must:
(1) notify the sentencing judge and prosecuting attorney, or their successors, of the application;
(2) provide a copy of the application to the judge and attorney; and
(3) solicit the judge's and attorney's written statements on whether to grant clemency.
(b) Unless otherwise provided in this chapter, "law enforcement agency" includes the sentencing judge and prosecuting attorney or their successors.
At least 30 calendar days before the commission meeting at which the application will be heard, the commission must publish notice of an application in a qualified newspaper of general circulation in the county in which the applicant's crime occurred.
(a) The board may:
(1) pardon a criminal conviction imposed under the laws of this state;
(2) commute a criminal sentence imposed by a court of this state to time served or a lesser sentence; or
(3) grant a reprieve of a sentence imposed by a court of this state.
(b) A pardon, after being granted and filed with the district court of the county in which the conviction and sentence were imposed, will also seal all records wherever held related to the arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, and pardon.
(c) A grant of clemency must be in writing and has no force or effect if the governor or a board majority duly convened opposes the clemency. Every conditional grant of clemency must state the terms and conditions upon which it was granted, and every commutation must specify the terms of the commuted sentence.
(d) A granted pardon sets aside the conviction and purges the conviction from an individual's criminal record. The individual is not required to disclose the conviction at any time or place other than:
(1) in a judicial proceeding; or
(2) during the licensing process for peace officers.
(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), an individual convicted of a crime in a court of this state may apply for a pardon of the individual's conviction on or after five years from the sentence's expiration or discharge date.
(b) An individual convicted before August 1, 2023, of a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1), under the theory of liability for crimes of another may apply for a pardon upon the sentence's expiration or discharge date if the individual:
(1) was charged with a violation of section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), and:
(i) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);
(ii) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(iii) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or
(2) was charged with a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 2, and:
(i) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);
(ii) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(iii) was not a major participant, as defined in section 609.05, subdivision 2a, paragraph (c), in the underlying felony and did not act with extreme indifference to human life.
(c) An individual may request the board to waive the waiting period if there is a showing of unusual circumstances and special need.
(d) The commission must review a waiver request and recommend to the board whether to grant the request. When considering a waiver request, the commission is exempt from the meeting requirements under section 638.14 and chapter 13D.
(e) The board must grant a waiver request unless the governor or a board majority opposes the waiver.
(a) An individual may apply for a commutation of an unexpired criminal sentence imposed by a court of this state, including an individual confined in a correctional facility or on probation, parole, supervised release, or conditional release. An application for commutation may not be filed until the date that the individual has served at least one-half of the sentence imposed or on or after five years from the conviction date, whichever is earlier.
(b) An individual may request the board to waive the waiting period if there is a showing of unusual circumstances and special need.
(c) The commission must review a waiver request and recommend to the board whether to grant the request. When considering a waiver request, the commission is exempt from the meeting requirements under section 638.14 and chapter 13D.
(d) The board must grant a waiver request unless the governor or a board majority opposes the waiver.
(a) Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other law to the contrary, upon receiving a clemency application, the board or commission may request and obtain any relevant reports, data, and other information from state courts, law enforcement agencies, or state agencies. The board and the commission must have access to all relevant sealed or otherwise inaccessible court records, presentence investigation reports, police reports, criminal history reports, prison records, and any other relevant information.
(b) State courts, law enforcement agencies, and state agencies must promptly respond to record requests from the board or the commission.
The board or the commission may issue a subpoena requiring the presence of any person before the commission or board and the production of papers, records, and exhibits in any pending matter. When a person is summoned before the commission or the board, the person may be allowed compensation for travel and attendance as the commission or the board considers reasonable.
The commission must meet at least four times each year for one or more days at each meeting to hear eligible clemency applications and recommend appropriate action to the board on each application. One or more of the meetings may be held at a department-operated correctional facility.
All commission meetings are open to the public as provided under chapter 13D, but the commission may hold closed meetings:
(1) as provided under chapter 13D; or
(2) as necessary to protect sensitive or confidential information, including (i) a victim's identity, and (ii) sensitive or confidential victim testimony.
When possible, the commission must record its meetings by audio or audiovisual means.
The governor, attorney general, and chief justice, or their designees, may attend commission meetings as ex-officio nonvoting members, but their attendance does not affect whether the commission has a quorum.
(a) An applicant for clemency must appear before the commission either in person or through available forms of telecommunication.
(b) The victim of an applicant's crime may appear and speak at the meeting or submit a written statement to the commission. The commission may treat a victim's written statement as confidential and not disclose the statement to the applicant or the public if there is or has been an order for protection, harassment restraining order, or other no-contact order prohibiting the applicant from contacting the victim.
(c) A law enforcement agency's representative may provide the agency's position on whether the commission should recommend clemency by:
(1) appearing and speaking at the meeting; or
(2) submitting a written statement to the commission.
(d) The sentencing judge and the prosecuting attorney, or their successors, may provide their positions on whether the commission should recommend clemency by:
(1) appearing and speaking at the meeting; or
(2) submitting their statements under section 638.11, subdivision 2.
(a) When recommending whether to grant clemency, the commission must consider any factors that the commission deems appropriate, including but not limited to:
(1) the nature, seriousness, and circumstances of the applicant's crime; the applicant's age at the time of the crime; and the time that has elapsed between the crime and the application;
(2) the successful completion or revocation of previous probation, parole, supervised release, or conditional release;
(3) the number, nature, and circumstances of the applicant's other criminal convictions;
(4) the extent to which the applicant has demonstrated rehabilitation through postconviction conduct, character, and reputation;
(5) the extent to which the applicant has accepted responsibility, demonstrated remorse, and made restitution to victims;
(6) whether the sentence is clearly excessive in light of the applicant's crime and criminal history and any sentence received by an accomplice and with due regard given to:
(i) any plea agreement;
(ii) the sentencing judge's views; and
(iii) the sentencing ranges established by law;
(7) whether the applicant was convicted before August 1, 2023, of a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1), under the theory of liability for crimes of another and, if so, whether the applicant:
(i) was charged with a violation of section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), and:
(A) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);
(B) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(C) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or
(ii) was charged with a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 2, and:
(A) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);
(B) did not cause the death of a human being; and
(C) was not a major participant, as defined in section 609.05, subdivision 2a, paragraph (c), in the underlying felony and did not act with extreme indifference to human life;
(8) whether the applicant's age or medical status indicates that it is in the best interest of society that the applicant receive clemency;
(9) the applicant's asserted need for clemency, including family needs and barriers to housing or employment created by the conviction;
(10) for an applicant under the department's custody, the adequacy of the applicant's reentry plan;
(11) the amount of time already served by the applicant and the availability of other forms of judicial or administrative relief;
(12) the extent to which there is credible evidence indicating that the applicant is or may be innocent of the crime for which they were convicted; and
(13) if provided by the applicant, the applicant's demographic information, including race, ethnicity, gender, disability status, and age.
(b) Unless an applicant knowingly omitted past criminal convictions on the application, the commission or the board must not prejudice an applicant for failing to identify past criminal convictions.
(a) At a meeting under section 638.14, the commission may recommend without a commission hearing that the board deny a commutation application without a board hearing if:
(1) the applicant is challenging the conviction or sentence through court proceedings;
(2) the applicant has failed to exhaust all available state court remedies for challenging the conviction or sentence; or
(3) the commission determines that the matter should first be considered by the parole authority.
(b) A commission recommendation to deny an application under paragraph (a) must be sent to the board along with the application.
When making its recommendation on an application, the commission must consider any statement provided by a victim or law enforcement agency.
(a) Before the board's next meeting at which the clemency application may be considered, the commission must send to the board:
(1) the application;
(2) the commission's recommendation on whether the board should grant or deny clemency;
(3) the commission's recommendation on whether the board should or should not hold a hearing on the application;
(4) any recording of the commission's meeting related to the application; and
(5) all statements from victims and law enforcement agencies.
(b) No later than 14 calendar days after its dated recommendation, the commission must notify the applicant in writing of its recommendations under this subdivision.
(a) The board must meet at least two times each year to consider and vote on clemency applications.
(b) If the commission recommends that an application receive a hearing, the board must hold a hearing on the application unless all the board members decline a hearing.
(c) If the commission recommends that an application not receive a hearing, the board must not hold a hearing on the application unless at least one board member requests a hearing.
All board meetings are open to the public as provided under chapter 13D, but the board may hold closed meetings:
(1) as provided under chapter 13D; or
(2) as necessary to protect sensitive or confidential information, including (i) a victim's identity, and (ii) sensitive or confidential victim testimony.
Unless excused by the board, the executive director and the commission's chair or vice-chair must attend all board meetings.
(a) Applicants, victims, law enforcement agencies, and the public may submit oral or written statements at a board meeting only if the application is subject to a hearing under subdivision 1.
(b) The board must take into account any statements provided to the commission when considering a clemency application.
(a) At each meeting, the board must render a decision on each clemency application considered at the meeting or continue the matter to a future board meeting. If the board continues consideration of an application, the commission must notify the applicant in writing and explain why the matter was continued.
(b) If the commission recommends no hearing and denial of an application and no board member requests a hearing on the application, it is presumed that the board concurs with the commission's recommendation and that the application has been considered and denied on the merits.
The commission must notify the applicant in writing of the board's decision to grant or deny clemency no later than 14 calendar days from the date of the board's decision.
After clemency has been granted, the commission must file a copy of the pardon, commutation, or reprieve with the district court of the county in which the conviction and sentence were imposed.
(a) For a pardon, the court must:
(1) order the conviction set aside;
(2) include a copy of the pardon in the court file;
(3) order all records wherever held relating to the arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, and pardon sealed and prohibit the disclosure of the existence of the records or the opening of the records except under court order or pursuant to section 609A.03, subdivision 7a, paragraph (b), clause (1), (7), or (8); and
(4) send a copy of the order and the pardon to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and all other government entities that hold affected records.
(b) Consistent with section 609A.03, subdivision 8, the court administrator shall send a copy of the expungement order to each government entity whose records are affected by the order, including but not limited to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Public Safety, and law enforcement agencies.
For a commutation, the court must:
(1) amend the sentence to reflect the specific relief granted by the board;
(2) include a copy of the commutation in the court file; and
(3) send a copy of the amended sentencing order and commutation to the commissioner of corrections and the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.
(a) After the board has considered and denied a clemency application on the merits, an applicant may not file a subsequent application for five years after the date of the most recent denial. This paragraph applies if an application is denied according to section 638.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
(b) An individual may request permission to reapply before the five-year period expires based only on new and substantial information that was not and could not have been previously considered by the board or commission.
(c) If a waiver request contains new and substantial information, the commission must review the request and recommend to the board whether to waive the time restriction. When considering a waiver request, the commission is exempt from the meeting requirements under section 638.14 and chapter 13D.
(d) The board must grant a waiver request unless the governor or a board majority opposes the waiver.
An applicant who is denied or granted a commutation is not precluded from later seeking a pardon of the criminal conviction once the eligibility requirements of this chapter have been met.
The commission must keep a record of every application received, its recommendation on each application, and the final disposition of each application.
The commission's records and files are open to public inspection at all reasonable times, except for:
(1) sealed court records;
(2) presentence investigation reports;
(3) Social Security numbers;
(4) financial account numbers;
(5) driver's license information;
(6) medical records;
(7) confidential Bureau of Criminal Apprehension records;
(8) the identities of victims who wish to remain anonymous and confidential victim statements; and
(9) any other confidential data on individuals, private data on individuals, not public data, or nonpublic data under chapter 13.
The commission and the board must take reasonable steps to provide meaningful language access to applicants and victims. Applicants and victims must have language access to information, documents, and services under this chapter, with each communicated in a language or manner that the applicant or victim can understand.
(a) Applicants and victims are entitled to interpreters as necessary to fulfill the purposes of this chapter, including oral or written communication. Sections 546.42 to 546.44 apply, to the extent consistent with this section.
(b) The commission or the board may not discriminate against an applicant or victim who requests or receives interpretation services.
The commission and the board must provide or contract for victim support services as necessary to support victims under this chapter.
Beginning February 15, 2025, and every February 15 thereafter, the commission must submit a written report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over public safety, corrections, and judiciary that contains at least the following information:
(1) the number of clemency applications received by the commission during the preceding calendar year;
(2) the number of favorable and adverse recommendations made by the commission for each type of clemency;
(3) the number of applications granted and denied by the board for each type of clemency;
(4) the crimes for which the applications were granted by the board, the year of each conviction, and the individual's age at the time of the crime; and
(5) summary data voluntarily reported by applicants, including but not limited to demographic information on race, ethnicity, gender, disability status, and age, of applicants recommended or not recommended for clemency by the commission.
(a) The board and commission may jointly adopt rules, including amending Minnesota Rules, chapter 6600, to:
(1) enforce their powers and duties under this chapter and ensure the efficient processing of applications; and
(2) establish a process for expedited review of applications requesting clemency for a nonviolent crime.
(b) A rule adopted under paragraph (a), clause (2), must specify the types of nonviolent crimes eligible for expedited review and the level of support needed from the sentencing judge or successor, the prosecuting attorney or successor, and any victims of the crime for the board to consider the application under the expedited review process.
(c) The time limit to adopt rules under section 14.125 does not apply.
For purposes of this section, "transition period" means the period after the effective date of this section through June 30, 2024.
A pardon, commutation, or reprieve granted during the transition period is governed according to Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 638.02, subdivisions 2 to 5, and 638.03 to 638.08.
Beginning August 1, 2023, through February 29, 2024, the Department of Corrections must provide the Clemency Review Commission with administrative assistance, technical assistance, office space, and other assistance necessary for the commission to carry out its duties under sections 4 to 20.
(a) The Board of Pardons may grant pardons, commutations, and reprieves on applications received during the transition period.
(b) A pardon, commutation, or reprieve that is granted during the transition period has no force or effect if the governor or a board majority duly convened opposes the clemency.
Beginning July 1, 2024, the Clemency Review Commission must begin reviewing applications for pardons, commutations, and reprieves in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 638.
By July 1, 2024, the commission must develop application forms in consultation with the board.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 638.02; 638.03; 638.04; 638.05; 638.06; 638.07; 638.075; and 638.08, are repealed.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Sections 1, 2, and 6 to 19 are effective July 1, 2024.
Except as authorized by this chapter, no government authority may have access to, or obtain copies of, or the information contained in, the financial records of any customer from a financial institution unless the financial records are reasonably described and:
(1) the customer has authorized the disclosure;
(2) the financial records are disclosed in response to a search warrant;
(3) the financial records are disclosed in response to a judicial or administrative subpoena;
(4) the financial records are disclosed to law enforcement, a lead investigative agency as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 13, or prosecuting authority that is investigating financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult in response to a judicial subpoena or administrative subpoena under section 388.23; or
(5) the financial records are disclosed pursuant to section 609.527 or 609.535 or other statute or rule.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
No financial institution, or officer, employee, or agent of a financial institution, may provide to any government authority access to, or copies of, or the information contained in, the financial records of any customer except in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.
Nothing in this chapter shall require a financial institution to inquire or determine that those seeking disclosure have duly complied with the requirements of this chapter, provided only that the customer authorization, search warrant, subpoena, or written certification pursuant to section 609.527, subdivision 8; 609.535, subdivision 6; 626.557; or other statute or rule, served on or delivered to a financial institution shows compliance on its face.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "Direct victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), whose identity has been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of this section.
(c) "False pretense" means any false, fictitious, misleading, or fraudulent information or pretense or pretext depicting or including or deceptively similar to the name, logo, website address, email address, postal address, telephone number, or any other identifying information of a for-profit or not-for-profit business or organization or of a government agency, to which the user has no legitimate claim of right.
(d) "Financial institution" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 2.
(e) "Identity" means any name, number, or data transmission that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific individual or entity, including any of the following:
(1) a name, Social Security number, date of birth, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number;
(2) unique electronic identification number, address, account number, or routing code; or
(3) telecommunication identification information or access device.
(e) (f) "Indirect victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), other than a direct victim.
(f) (g) "Loss" means value obtained, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3), and expenses incurred by a direct or indirect victim as a result of a violation of this section.
(g) (h) "Unlawful activity" means:
(1) any felony violation of the laws of this state or any felony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States; and
(2) any nonfelony violation of the laws of this state involving theft, theft by swindle, forgery, fraud, or giving false information to a public official, or any nonfelony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States.
(h) (i) "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on a computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card.
(i) (j) "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, onto the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, or any electronic medium that allows an authorized transaction to occur.
(j) (k) "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that:
(1) is issued to an authorized card user; and
(2) allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive credit, money, a good, a service, or anything of value.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) A financial institution may release the information described in paragraph (b) to a law enforcement or prosecuting authority that certifies in writing that it is investigating or prosecuting a crime of identity theft under this section. The certification must describe with reasonable specificity the nature of the suspected identity theft that is being investigated or prosecuted, including the dates of the suspected criminal activity.
(b) This subdivision applies to requests for the following information relating to a potential victim's account:
(1) the name of the account holder or holders; and
(2) the last known home address and telephone numbers of the account holder or holders.
(c) A financial institution may release the information requested under this subdivision that it possesses within a reasonable time after the request. The financial institution may not impose a fee for furnishing the information.
(d) A financial institution is not liable in a criminal or civil proceeding for releasing information in accordance with this subdivision.
(e) Release of limited account information to a law enforcement agency under this subdivision is criminal investigative data under section 13.82, subdivision 7, except that when the investigation becomes inactive the account information remains confidential data on individuals or protected nonpublic data.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
For the purposes of this section, "no-knock search warrant" means a search warrant authorizing peace officers to enter certain premises without first knocking and loudly and understandably announcing the officer's presence or purpose and waiting an objectively reasonable amount of time thereafter for the occupant to comply, based on a totality of the circumstances, prior to entering the premises. No-knock search warrants may also be referred to as dynamic entry warrants.
A court may not issue or approve a no-knock search warrant unless the judge determines that the applicant has articulated specific, objective facts that establish probable cause for belief that:
(1) the search cannot be executed while the premises is unoccupied; and
(2) the occupant or occupants in the premises present an imminent threat of death or great bodily harm to the officers executing the warrant or other persons.
(a) No peace officer shall seek a no-knock search warrant unless the warrant application includes at a minimum:
(1) all documentation and materials the issuing court requires;
(2) the information specified in paragraph (b); and
(3) a sworn affidavit as provided in section 626.08.
(b) Each warrant application seeking a no-knock entry must include, in detailed terms, the following:
(1) why peace officers are seeking the use of a no-knock entry and are unable to detain the suspect or search the residence premises safely through the use of a knock and announce warrant;
(2) what investigative activities have taken place to support issuance of the no-knock search warrant, or why no investigative activity is needed or able to be performed; and
(3) the known or suspected occupant or occupants of the premises, including the number of occupants under age 18; and
(3) (4) whether the warrant can be effectively executed during daylight hours according to subdivision 1.
(c) The chief law enforcement officer or designee and another superior officer must review and approve each warrant application. The agency must document the approval of both reviewing parties.
(d) A no-knock search warrant shall not be issued when the only crime alleged is possession of a controlled substance unless there is probable cause to believe that the controlled substance is for other than personal use.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph paragraphs (b) and (c), a search warrant must be executed and returned to the court which issued it within ten days after its date. After the expiration of this time, the warrant is void unless previously executed.
(b) A search warrant on a financial institution for financial records is valid for 30 days.
(c) A district court judge may grant an extension of a warrant on a financial institution for financial records upon an application under oath stating that the financial institution has not produced the requested financial records within ten days the 30-day period and that an extension is necessary to achieve the purposes for which the search warrant was granted. Each extension may not exceed 30 days.
(d) For the purposes of this paragraph section, "financial institution" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 2, and "financial records" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 3.
This section is effective August 1, 2023.
(a) A person aggrieved by an unlawful search and seizure may move the district court for the district in which the property was seized or the district court having jurisdiction of the substantive offense for the return of the property and to suppress the use, as evidence, of anything so obtained on the ground that:
(1) the property was illegally seized, or;
(2) the property was illegally seized without warrant, or;
(3) the warrant is insufficient on its face, or;
(4) the property seized is not that described in the warrant, or;
(5) there was not probable cause for believing the existence of the grounds on which the warrant was issued, or;
(6) the warrant was illegally executed, or;
(7) the warrant was improvidently issued.; or
(8) the warrant was executed or served in violation of section 626.14.
(b) The judge shall receive evidence on any issue of fact necessary to the decision of the motion. If the motion is granted the property shall be restored unless otherwise subject to lawful detention, and it shall not be admissible in evidence at any hearing or trial. The motion to suppress evidence may also be made in the district where the trial is to be had. The motion shall be made before trial or hearing unless opportunity therefor did not exist or the defendant was not aware of the grounds for the motion, but the court in its discretion may entertain the motion at the trial or hearing.
For purposes of this section, "carjacking" means a violation of section 609.247.
(a) The head of a local law enforcement agency or state law enforcement department that employs peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), must forward the following carjacking information from the agency's or department's jurisdiction for the previous year to the commissioner of public safety by January 15 each year:
(1) the number of carjacking attempts;
(2) the number of carjackings;
(3) the ages of the offenders;
(4) the number of persons injured in each offense;
(5) the number of persons killed in each offense; and
(6) weapons used in each offense, if any.
(b) The commissioner of public safety must include the data received under paragraph (a) in a separate carjacking category in the department's annual uniform crime report.
(a) The prohibition under subdivision 1 does not apply to the use of a mobile tracking device on a stolen motor vehicle when:
(1) the consent of the owner of the vehicle has been obtained; or
(2) the owner of the motor vehicle has reported to law enforcement that the vehicle is stolen, and the vehicle is occupied when the tracking device is installed.
(b) Within 24 hours of a tracking device being attached to a vehicle pursuant to the authority granted in paragraph (a), clause (2), an officer employed by the agency that attached the tracking device to the vehicle must remove the device, disable the device, or obtain a search warrant granting approval to continue to use the device in the investigation.
(c) A peace officer employed by the agency that attached a tracking device to a stolen motor vehicle must remove the tracking device if the vehicle is recovered and returned to the owner.
(d) Any tracking device evidence collected after the motor vehicle is returned to the owner is inadmissible.
(e) By August 1, 2024, and each year thereafter, the chief law enforcement officer of an agency that obtains a search warrant under paragraph (b), must provide notice to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension of the number of search warrants the agency obtained under this subdivision in the preceding 12 months. The superintendent must provide a summary of the data received pursuant to this paragraph in the bureau's biennial report to the legislature required under section 299C.18.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) Data collected by a portable recording system are private data on individuals or nonpublic data, subject to the following:
(1) data that record, describe, or otherwise document actions and circumstances surrounding either the discharge of a firearm by a peace officer in the course of duty, if a notice is required under section 626.553, subdivision 2, or the use of force by a peace officer that results in substantial bodily harm, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, are public;
(2) data are public if a subject of the data requests it be made accessible to the public, except that, if practicable, (i) data on a subject who is not a peace officer and who does not consent to the release must be redacted, and (ii) data on a peace officer whose identity is protected under section 13.82, subdivision 17, clause (a), must be redacted;
(3) subject to paragraphs (b) to (d), portable recording system data that are active criminal investigative data are governed by section 13.82, subdivision 7, and portable recording system data that are inactive criminal investigative data are governed by this section;
(4) portable recording system data that are public personnel data under section 13.43, subdivision 2, clause (5), are public; and
(5) data that are not public data under other provisions of this chapter retain that classification.
(b) Notwithstanding section 13.82, subdivision 7, when an individual dies as a result of a use of force by a peace officer, an involved officer's law enforcement agency must allow the following individuals, upon their request, to inspect all portable recording system data, redacted no more than what is required by law, documenting the incident within five days of the request, subject to paragraphs (c) and (d):
(1) the deceased individual's next of kin;
(2) the legal representative of the deceased individual's next of kin; and
(3) the other parent of the deceased individual's child.
(c) A law enforcement agency may deny a request to inspect portable recording system data under paragraph (b) if the agency determines that there is a compelling reason that inspection would interfere with an active investigation. If the agency denies access under this paragraph, the chief law enforcement officer must provide a prompt, written denial to the individual in paragraph (b) who requested the data with a short description of the compelling reason access was denied and must provide notice that relief may be sought from the district court pursuant to section 13.82, subdivision 7.
(d) When an individual dies as a result of a use of force by a peace officer, an involved officer's law enforcement agency shall release all portable recording system data, redacted no more than what is required by law, documenting the incident no later than 14 days after the incident, unless the chief law enforcement officer asserts in writing that the public classification would interfere with an ongoing investigation, in which case the data remain classified by section 13.82, subdivision 7.
(b) (e) A law enforcement agency may redact or withhold access to portions of data that are public under this subdivision if those portions of data are clearly offensive to common sensibilities.
(c) (f) Section 13.04, subdivision 2, does not apply to collection of data classified by this subdivision.
(d) (g) Any person may bring an action in the district court located in the county where portable recording system data are being maintained to authorize disclosure of data that are private or nonpublic under this section or to challenge a determination under paragraph (b) to redact or withhold access to portions of data because the data are clearly offensive to common sensibilities. The person bringing the action must give notice of the action to the law enforcement agency and subjects of the data, if known. The law enforcement agency must give notice to other subjects of the data, if known, who did not receive the notice from the person bringing the action. The court may order that all or part of the data be released to the public or to the person bringing the action. In making this determination, the court shall consider whether the benefit to the person bringing the action or to the public outweighs any harm to the public, to the law enforcement agency, or to a subject of the data and, if the action is challenging a determination under paragraph (b), whether the data are clearly offensive to common sensibilities. The data in dispute must be examined by the court in camera. This paragraph does not affect the right of a defendant in a criminal proceeding to obtain access to portable recording system data under the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
(a) Portable recording system data that are not active or inactive criminal investigative data and are not described in paragraph (b) or (c) must be maintained for at least 90 days and destroyed according to the agency's records retention schedule approved pursuant to section 138.17.
(b) Portable recording system data must be maintained for at least one year and destroyed according to the agency's records retention schedule approved pursuant to section 138.17 if:
(1) the data document (i) the discharge of a firearm by a peace officer in the course of duty if a notice is required under section 626.553, subdivision 2, or (ii) the use of force by a peace officer that results in substantial bodily harm; or
(2) a formal complaint is made against a peace officer related to the incident.
(c) Portable recording system data that document a peace officer's use of deadly force must be maintained indefinitely.
(d) If a subject of the data submits a written request to the law enforcement agency to retain the recording beyond the applicable retention period for possible evidentiary or exculpatory use related to the circumstances under which the data were collected, the law enforcement agency shall retain the recording for an additional time period requested by the subject of up to 180 days and notify the requester that the recording will then be destroyed unless a new request is made under this paragraph.
(d) (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) or, (c), or (d), a government entity may retain a recording for as long as reasonably necessary for possible evidentiary or exculpatory use related to the incident with respect to which the data were collected.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1 to the contrary, when the executive director or any member of the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training produces or receives a written statement or complaint that alleges a violation of a statute or rule that the board is empowered to enforce, the executive director shall designate the appropriate law enforcement agency to investigate the complaint and shall may order it to conduct an inquiry into the complaint's allegations. The investigating agency must complete the inquiry and submit a written summary of it to the executive director within 30 days of the order for inquiry.
The board has the following powers and duties:
(1) to receive and review all applications for private detective and protective agent licenses;
(2) to approve applications for private detective and protective agent licenses and issue, or reissue licenses as provided in sections 326.32 to 326.339;
(3) to deny applications for private detective and protective agent licenses if the applicants do not meet the requirements of sections 326.32 to 326.339; upon denial of a license application, the board shall notify the applicant of the denial and the facts and circumstances that constitute the denial; the board shall advise the applicant of the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14;
(4) to enforce all laws and rules governing private detectives and protective agents; and
(5) to suspend or revoke the license of a license holder or impose a civil penalty on a license holder for violations of any provision of sections 326.32 to 326.339 or the rules of the board.;
(6) to investigate and refer for prosecution all criminal violations by individuals and entities; and
(7) to investigate and refer for prosecution any individuals and entities operating as private detectives or protective agents without a license.
An identification card must be issued by the license holder to each employee. The card must be in the possession of the employee to whom it is issued at all times. The identification card must contain the license holder's name, logo (if any), address or Minnesota office address, and the employee's photograph and physical description. The card must be signed by the employee and by the license holder, qualified representative, or Minnesota office manager. The card must be presented upon request.
The rules adopted by the board must require:
(1) 12 hours of preassignment or on-the-job certified training within the first 21 days of employment, or evidence that the employee has successfully completed equivalent training before the start of employment. Notwithstanding any statute or rule to the contrary, this clause is satisfied if the employee provides a prospective employer with a certificate or a copy of a certificate demonstrating that the employee successfully completed this training prior to employment with a different Minnesota licensee and completed this training within three previous calendar years, or successfully completed this training with a Minnesota licensee while previously employed with a Minnesota licensee. The certificate or a copy of the certificate is the property of the employee who completed the training, regardless of who paid for the training or how training was provided. Upon a current or former employee's request, a current or former licensed employer must provide a copy of a certificate demonstrating the employee's successful completion of training to the current or former employee. The current or former licensed employer must not charge the employee a fee for a copy of the certificate. The employee who completed the training is entitled to access a copy of the certificate at no charge according to sections 181.960 to 181.966. A current or former employer must comply with sections 181.960 to 181.966;
(2) certification by the board of completion of certified training for a license holder, qualified representative, Minnesota manager, partner, and employee to carry or use a firearm, a weapon other than a firearm, or an immobilizing or restraint technique; and
(3) six hours a year of certified continuing training for all license holders, qualified representatives, Minnesota managers, partners, and employees, and an additional six hours a year for individuals who are armed with firearms or armed with weapons, which must include annual certification of the individual.
An individual may not carry or use a weapon while undergoing on-the-job training under this subdivision.
The board may revoke or suspend or refuse to issue or reissue a private detective or protective agent license if:
(1) the license holder violates a provision of sections 326.32 to 326.339 or a rule adopted under those sections;
(2) the license holder has engaged in fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation while in the business of private detective or protective agent;
(3) the license holder has made a false statement in an application submitted to the board or in a document required to be submitted to the board; or
(4) the license holder violates an order of the board; or
(5) the individual or entity previously operated without a license.
(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 609.06 or 609.065, the use of deadly force by a peace officer in the line of duty is justified only if an objectively reasonable officer would believe, based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the time and without the benefit of hindsight, that such force is necessary:
(1) to protect the peace officer or another from death or great bodily harm, provided that the threat:
(i) can be articulated with specificity by the law enforcement officer;
(ii) is reasonably likely to occur absent action by the law enforcement officer; and
(iii) must be addressed through the use of deadly force without unreasonable delay; or
(2) to effect the arrest or capture, or prevent the escape, of a person whom the peace officer knows or has reasonable grounds to believe has committed or attempted to commit a felony and the officer reasonably believes that the person will cause death or great bodily harm to another person under the threat criteria in clause (1), items (i) to (iii), unless immediately apprehended.
(b) A peace officer shall not use deadly force against a person based on the danger the person poses to self if an objectively reasonable officer would believe, based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the time and without the benefit of hindsight, that the person does not pose a threat of death or great bodily harm to the peace officer or to another under the threat criteria in paragraph (a), clause (1), items (i) to (iii).
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
A peace officer must report to the head of the officer's department every violation of chapter 609 or a local criminal ordinance if the officer has reason to believe, or if the victim alleges, that the offender was motivated to commit the act by was committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, national origin, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, or characteristics identified as sexual orientation because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03. The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall adopt a reporting form to be used by law enforcement agencies in making the reports required under this section. The reports must include for each incident all of the following:
(1) the date of the offense;
(2) the location of the offense;
(3) whether the target of the incident is a person, private property, or public property;
(4) the crime committed;
(5) the type of bias and information about the offender and the victim that is relevant to that bias;
(6) any organized group involved in the incident;
(7) the disposition of the case;
(8) whether the determination that the offense was motivated by bias was based on the officer's reasonable belief or on the victim's allegation; and
(9) any additional information the superintendent deems necessary for the acquisition of accurate and relevant data.
No later than January 1, 2024, the board must adopt rules under chapter 14 that permit the board to take disciplinary action on a licensee for a violation of a standard of conduct in Minnesota Rules, chapter 6700, whether or not criminal charges have been filed and in accordance with the evidentiary standards and civil processes for boards under chapter 214.
(a) The board may refuse to issue, refuse to renew, refuse to reinstate, suspend, revoke eligibility for licensure, or revoke a peace officer or part-time peace officer license for any of the following causes:
(1) fraud or misrepresentation in obtaining a license;
(2) failure to meet licensure requirements; or
(3) a violation of section 626.8436, subdivision 1; or
(4) a violation of the standards of conduct set forth in Minnesota Rules, chapter 6700.
(b) Unless otherwise provided by the board, a revocation or suspension applies to each license, renewal, or reinstatement privilege held by the individual at the time final action is taken by the board. A person whose license or renewal privilege has been suspended or revoked shall be ineligible to be issued any other license by the board during the pendency of the suspension or revocation.
(a) A peace officer may not join, support, advocate for, maintain membership, or participate in the activities of:
(1) a hate or extremist group; or
(2) a criminal gang as defined in section 609.229, subdivision 1.
(b) This section does not apply when the conduct is sanctioned by the law enforcement agency as part of the officer's official duties.
(a) "Hate or extremist group" means a group that, as demonstrated by its official statements or principles, the statements of its leaders or members, or its activities:
(1) promotes the use of threats, force, violence, or criminal activity:
(i) against a local, state, or federal entity, or the officials of such an entity;
(ii) to deprive, or attempt to deprive, individuals of their civil rights under the Minnesota or United States Constitution; or
(iii) to achieve goals that are political, religious, discriminatory, or ideological in nature;
(2) promotes seditious activities; or
(3) advocates for differences in the right to vote, speak, assemble, travel, or maintain citizenship based on a person's perceived race, color, creed, religion, national origin, disability, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, public assistance status, or any protected class as defined in Minnesota Statutes or federal law.
(b) For the purposes of this section, advocacy, membership, or participation in a hate or extremist group or criminal gang is demonstrated by:
(1) dissemination of material that promotes:
(i) the use of threats, force, violence, or criminal activity;
(ii) seditious activities; or
(iii) the objectives described in paragraph (a), clause (3);
(2) engagement in cyber or social media posts, chats, forums, and other forms of promotion of the group's activities;
(3) display or use of insignia, colors, tattoos, hand signs, slogans, or codes associated with the group;
(4) direct financial or in-kind contributions to the group;
(5) a physical or cyber presence in the group's events; or
(6) other conduct that could reasonably be considered support, advocacy, or participation in the group's activities.
(a) The board must prepare a approve a list of training course courses to assist peace officers in identifying and, responding to, and reporting crimes motivated by committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, national origin, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, or characteristics identified as sexual orientation because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03. The course must include material to help officers distinguish bias crimes from other crimes, to help officers in understanding and assisting victims of these crimes, and to ensure that bias crimes will be accurately reported as required under section 626.5531. The course must be updated periodically board must review the approved courses every three years and update the list of approved courses as the board, in consultation with communities most targeted by hate crimes because of their characteristics as described above, organizations with expertise in providing training on hate crimes, and the statewide coalition of organizations representing communities impacted by hate crimes, considers appropriate.
(b) In updating the list of approved training courses described in paragraph (a), the board must consult and significantly incorporate input from communities most targeted by hate crimes because of their characteristics as described in paragraph (a), organizations with expertise in providing training on hate crimes, and the statewide coalition of organizations representing communities impacted by hate crimes.
(a) A law enforcement agency shall not discharge, discipline, threaten, retaliate, otherwise discriminate against, or penalize a peace officer regarding the officer's compensation, terms, conditions, location, or privileges of employment because the officer interceded or made a report in compliance with section 626.8475 or a policy adopted under subdivision 1a regarding another employee or peace officer who used excessive force.
(b) A court may order the law enforcement agency to pay back wages and offer job reinstatement to any officer discharged from employment in violation of paragraph (a).
(c) In addition to any remedies otherwise provided by law, a peace officer injured by a violation of paragraph (a) may bring a civil action for recovery of damages together with costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney fees, and may receive injunctive and other equitable relief, including reinstatement, as determined by the court.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to causes of action occurring on or after that date.
(a) A peace officer or employee of a law enforcement agency may not threaten, harass, retaliate, or otherwise discriminate against a peace officer because the officer interceded or made a report in compliance with section 626.8475 or a policy adopted under subdivision 1a regarding another employee or peace officer who used excessive force.
(b) A person who violates paragraph (a) is subject to disciplinary action as determined by the chief law enforcement officer of the agency employing the person.
(c) A peace officer who is the victim of conduct prohibited in paragraph (a) may bring a civil action for recovery of damages together with costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney fees, and may receive injunctive and other equitable relief as determined by the court.
This section is effective August 1, 2023, and applies to causes of action occurring on or after that date.
(a) Upon receiving written notice that the board is investigating any allegation of misconduct within its regulatory authority, a chief law enforcement officer, city, county, or public official must cooperate with the board's investigation and any data request from the board.
(b) Upon written request from the board that a matter alleging misconduct within its regulatory authority has occurred regarding a licensed peace officer, a chief law enforcement officer, city, county, or public official shall provide the board with all requested public and private data about the alleged misconduct involving the licensed peace officer, including any pending or final disciplinary or arbitration proceeding, any settlement or compromise, and any investigative files including but not limited to body worn camera or other audio or video files. Confidential data must only be disclosed when the board specifies that the particular identified data is necessary to fulfill its investigatory obligation concerning an allegation of misconduct within its regulatory authority.
(c) If a licensed peace officer is discharged or resigns from employment after engaging in any conduct that initiates and results in an investigation of alleged misconduct within the board's regulatory authority, regardless of whether the licensee was criminally charged or an administrative or internal affairs investigation was commenced or completed, a chief law enforcement officer must report the conduct to the board and provide the board with all public and not public data requested under paragraph (b). If the conduct involves the chief law enforcement officer, the overseeing city, county, or public official must report the conduct to the board and provide the board with all public and not public data requested under paragraph (b).
(d) Data obtained by the board shall be classified and governed as articulated in sections 13.03, subdivision 4, and 13.09, as applicable.
(e) A chief law enforcement officer, or city, county, or public official is not required to comply with this subdivision when:
(1) there is an active criminal investigation or active criminal proceeding regarding the same incident or misconduct that is being investigated by the board; or
(2) an active internal investigation exists regarding the same incident or misconduct that is being investigated by the board during 45 days from the time the request was made by the board. The chief law enforcement officer, or city, county, or public official must comply with this subdivision upon completion of the internal investigation or once 45 days has passed, whichever occurs first.
A chief law enforcement officer, city, county, or public official and employees of the law enforcement agency are immune from civil or criminal liability, including any liability under chapter 13, for reporting or releasing public or not public data to the board under subdivisions 3 and 4, unless the chief law enforcement officer, city, county, or public official or employees of the law enforcement agency presented false information to the board with the intention of causing reputational harm to the peace officer.
(a) Beginning July 1, 2018, the chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency shall provide in-service training in crisis intervention and mental illness crises; conflict management and mediation; and recognizing and valuing community diversity and cultural differences to include implicit bias training; and training to assist peace officers in identifying, responding to, and reporting incidents committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, or because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, to every peace officer and part-time peace officer employed by the agency. The training shall comply with learning objectives developed and approved by the board and shall meet board requirements for board-approved continuing education credit. Every three years the board shall review the learning objectives and must consult and collaborate with communities most targeted by hate crimes because of their characteristics as described above, organizations with expertise in providing training on hate crimes, and the statewide coalition of organizations representing communities impacted by hate crimes in identifying appropriate objectives and training courses related to identifying, responding to, and reporting incidents committed in whole or in substantial part because of the victim's or another's actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03, or because of the victim's actual or perceived association with another person or group of a certain actual or perceived race, color, ethnicity, religion, sex, gender, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, national origin, or disability as defined in section 363A.03. The training shall consist of at least 16 continuing education credits within an officer's three-year licensing cycle. Each peace officer with a license renewal date after June 30, 2018, is not required to complete this training until the officer's next full three-year licensing cycle.
(b) Beginning July 1, 2021, the training mandated under paragraph (a) must be provided by an approved entity. The board shall create a list of approved entities and training courses and make the list available to the chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law enforcement agency. Each peace officer (1) with a license renewal date before June 30, 2022, and (2) who received the training mandated under paragraph (a) before July 1, 2021, is not required to receive this training by an approved entity until the officer's next full three-year licensing cycle.
(c) For every peace officer and part-time peace officer with a license renewal date of June 30, 2022, or later, the training mandated under paragraph (a) must:
(1) include a minimum of six hours for crisis intervention and mental illness crisis training that meets the standards established in subdivision 1a; and
(2) include a minimum of four hours to ensure safer interactions between peace officers and persons with autism in compliance with section 626.8474.
(a) The chief officer of every state and local law enforcement agency that uses or proposes to use a portable recording system must establish and enforce a written policy governing its use. In developing and adopting the policy, the law enforcement agency must provide for public comment and input as provided in subdivision 2. Use of a portable recording system without adoption of a written policy meeting the requirements of this section is prohibited. The written policy must be posted on the agency's website, if the agency has a website.
(b) At a minimum, the written policy must incorporate and require compliance with the following:
(1) the requirements of section 13.825 and other data classifications, access procedures, retention policies, and data security safeguards that, at a minimum, meet the requirements of chapter 13 and other applicable law. The policy must prohibit altering, erasing, or destroying any recording made with a peace officer's portable recording system or data and metadata related to the recording prior to the expiration of the applicable retention period under section 13.825, subdivision 3, except that the full, unedited, and unredacted recording of a peace officer using deadly force must be maintained indefinitely;
(2) mandate that a portable recording system be worn at or above the mid-line of the waist in a position that maximizes the recording system's capacity to record video footage of the officer's activities;
(3) mandate that officers assigned a portable recording system wear and operate the system in compliance with the agency's policy adopted under this section while performing law enforcement activities under the command and control of another chief law enforcement officer or federal law enforcement official;
(4) mandate that, notwithstanding any law to the contrary, when an individual dies as a result of a use of force by a peace officer, an involved officer's law enforcement agency must allow the following individuals, upon their request, to inspect all portable recording system data, redacted no more than what is required by law, documenting the incident within five days of the request, except as otherwise provided in this clause and clause (5):
(i) the deceased individual's next of kin;
(ii) the legal representative of the deceased individual's next of kin; and
(iii) the other parent of the deceased individual's child.
A law enforcement agency may deny a request if the agency determines that there is a compelling reason that inspection would interfere with an active investigation. If the agency denies access, the chief law enforcement officer must provide a prompt, written denial to the individual who requested the data with a short description of the compelling reason access was denied and must provide notice that relief may be sought from the district court pursuant to section 13.82, subdivision 7;
(5) mandate that, when an individual dies as a result of a use of force by a peace officer, an involved officer's law enforcement agency shall release all portable recording system data, redacted no more than what is required by law, documenting the incident no later than 14 days after the incident, unless the chief law enforcement officer asserts in writing that the public classification would interfere with an ongoing investigation, in which case the data remain classified by section 13.82, subdivision 7;
(6) procedures for testing the portable recording system to ensure adequate functioning;
(3) (7) procedures to address a system malfunction or failure, including requirements for documentation by the officer using the system at the time of a malfunction or failure;
(4) (8) circumstances under which recording is mandatory, prohibited, or at the discretion of the officer using the system;
(5) (9) circumstances under which a data subject must be given notice of a recording;
(6) (10) circumstances under which a recording may be ended while an investigation, response, or incident is ongoing;
(7) (11) procedures for the secure storage of portable recording system data and the creation of backup copies of the data; and
(8) (12) procedures to ensure compliance and address violations of the policy, which must include, at a minimum, supervisory or internal audits and reviews, and the employee discipline standards for unauthorized access to data contained in section 13.09.
(c) The board has authority to inspect state and local law enforcement agency policies to ensure compliance with this section. The board may conduct this inspection based upon a complaint it receives about a particular agency or through a random selection process. The board may impose licensing sanctions and seek injunctive relief under section 214.11 for an agency's or licensee's failure to comply with this section.
A program is established within the Department of Public Safety to fund the intensive comprehensive law enforcement education and training of two- and four-year college graduates. The program shall be known as the intensive comprehensive peace officer education and training program.
The program is intended to address the critical shortage of peace officers in the state. The program shall provide a grant to law enforcement agencies that have developed a plan to recruit, educate, and train highly qualified two- and four-year college graduates to become license-eligible peace officers in the state.
(a) The chief law enforcement officer of a law enforcement agency may apply to the commissioner for a grant for the cost of educating, training, and paying an eligible peace officer candidate until the candidate is licensed by the board as a peace officer.
(b) The commissioner must consider all eligible expenses proposed by the chief law enforcement officer in order to issue a grant to the agency for the actual cost of educating, training, and paying an eligible candidate up to $50,000.
(c) The commissioner shall consider geographic diversity in grant distribution based on grant applications received.
The commissioner must prepare the necessary grant application forms and make the forms available on the agency's public website no later than December 31, 2023.
No later than December 31, 2023, the commissioner, in consultation with the executive director of the board and the institutions designated as education providers under subdivision 6, shall develop an intensive comprehensive law enforcement education and skills training curriculum that will provide eligible peace officer candidates with the law enforcement education and skills training needed to be licensed as a peace officer. The curriculum must be designed to be completed in eight months or less and shall be offered at the institutions designated under subdivision 6. The curriculum may overlap, coincide with, or draw upon existing law enforcement education and training programs at institutions designated as education providers under subdivision 6. The executive director of the board may designate existing law enforcement education and training programs that are designed to be completed in eight months or less as intensive comprehensive law enforcement education and skills training programs for the purposes of this section.
(a) No later than October 1, 2023, the Board of Trustees of the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities shall designate at least two regionally diverse system campuses to provide the required intensive comprehensive law enforcement education and skills training to eligible peace officer candidates.
(b) In addition to the campuses designated under paragraph (a), the commissioner may designate private, nonprofit postsecondary institutions to provide the required intensive comprehensive law enforcement education and skills training to eligible peace officer candidates.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.
(c) "Eligible peace officer candidate" means a person who:
(1) has met all of the hiring requirements to become a peace officer in the state, except for (i) completing a professional peace officer education program, and (ii) passing the licensing exam; and
(2) a chief law enforcement officer has agreed to hire upon completing the training required under this chapter and passing the licensing exam.
(d) "Law enforcement agency" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), clause (1).
(e) "Program" means the intensive comprehensive peace officer education and training program.
(a) The law enforcement agency must request a criminal history background check from the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension on an applicant for employment as a licensed peace officer or an applicant for a position leading to employment as a licensed peace officer within the state of Minnesota to determine eligibility for licensing. Applicants must provide, for submission to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension:
(1) an executed criminal history consent form, authorizing the dissemination of state and federal records to the law enforcement agency and the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training and fingerprints; and
(2) a money order or cashier's check payable to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension for the fee for conducting the criminal history background check.
(b) The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall perform the background check required under paragraph (a) by retrieving criminal history data as defined in section 13.87 and shall also conduct a search of the national criminal records repository. The superintendent is authorized to exchange the applicant's fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation to obtain their national criminal history record information. The superintendent must return the results of the Minnesota and federal criminal history records checks to the law enforcement agency who is authorized to share with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training to determine if the individual is eligible for licensing under Minnesota Rules, chapter 6700.
Upon request of a law enforcement agency, an employer shall disclose or otherwise make available for inspection employment information of an employee or former employee who is the subject of an investigation under subdivision 1 or who is a candidate for employment with a law enforcement agency in any other capacity. The request for disclosure of employment information must be in writing, must be accompanied by an original authorization and release signed by the employee or former employee, and must be signed by a sworn peace officer or other an authorized representative of the law enforcement agency conducting the background investigation.
If an employer refuses to disclose employment information in accordance with this section, upon request the district court may issue an ex parte order directing the disclosure of the employment information. The request must be made by a sworn peace officer an authorized representative from the law enforcement agency conducting the background investigation and must include a copy of the original request for disclosure made upon the employer or former employer and the authorization and release signed by the employee or former employee. The request must be signed by the peace officer person requesting the order and an attorney representing the state or the political subdivision on whose behalf the background investigation is being conducted. It is not necessary for the request or the order to be filed with the court administrator. Failure to comply with the court order subjects the person or entity who fails to comply to civil or criminal contempt of court.
Upon initiation of a background investigation under this section for a person described in subdivision 1, the law enforcement agency shall give written notice to the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board of:
(1) the candidate's full name and date of birth; and
(2) the candidate's peace officer license number, if known.
The initiation of a background investigation does not include the submission of an application for employment. Initiation of a background investigation occurs when the law enforcement agency begins its determination of whether an applicant meets the agency's standards for employment as a law enforcement employee.
(a) As used in this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "civilian oversight council" means a civilian review board, commission, or other oversight body established by a local unit of government to provide civilian oversight of a law enforcement agency and officers employed by the agency; and
(2) "misconduct" means a violation of law, standards promulgated by the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, or agency policy.
(b) A local unit of government may establish a civilian review board, commission, or other oversight body shall not have council and grant the council the authority to make a finding of fact or determination regarding a complaint against an officer or impose and recommend discipline on for an officer. A civilian review board, commission, or other oversight body may make a recommendation regarding the merits of a complaint, however, the recommendation shall be advisory only and shall not be binding on nor limit the authority of the chief law enforcement officer of any unit of government.
(c) At the conclusion of any criminal investigation or prosecution, if any, a civilian oversight council may conduct an investigation into allegations of peace officer misconduct and retain an investigator to facilitate an investigation. Subject to other applicable law, a council may subpoena or compel testimony and documents in an investigation. Upon completion of an investigation, a council may make a finding of misconduct and recommend appropriate discipline against peace officers employed by the agency. A council must submit investigation reports that contain findings of peace officer misconduct to the chief law enforcement officer and the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board's complaint committee. A council may also make policy recommendations to the chief law enforcement officer and the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board.
(d) The chief law enforcement officer of a law enforcement agency under the jurisdiction of a civilian oversight council shall cooperate with the council and facilitate the council's achievement of its goals. However, the officer is under no obligation to agree with individual recommendations of the council and may oppose a recommendation. If the officer elects to not implement a recommendation that is within the officer's authority, the officer shall inform the council of the decision along with the officer's underlying reasons.
(e) Data collected, created, received, maintained, or disseminated by a civilian oversight council related to an investigation of a peace officer are personnel data as defined by section 13.43, subdivision 1, and are governed by that section.
(a) The band has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) are met:
(1) the band agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of a law enforcement agency function conferred by this section, to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the band further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity for purposes of claims of this liability;
(2) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount;
(3) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution; and
(4) the band agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
(b) The band shall may enter into mutual aid/cooperative agreements with the Mille Lacs County sheriff under section 471.59 to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section. The agreements must define the trust property involved in the joint powers agreement.
(c) Only if the requirements of paragraph (a) are met, the band shall have concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the Mille Lacs County Sheriff's Department only if the requirements of paragraph (a) are met and under the following circumstances:
(1) over all persons in the geographical boundaries of the property held by the United States in trust for the Mille Lacs Band or the Minnesota Chippewa tribe;
(2) over all Minnesota Chippewa tribal members within the boundaries of the Treaty of February 22, 1855, 10 Stat. 1165, in Mille Lacs County, Minnesota; and.
(3) concurrent jurisdiction over any person who commits or attempts to commit a crime in the presence of an appointed band peace officer within the boundaries of the Treaty of February 22, 1855, 10 Stat. 1165, in Mille Lacs County, Minnesota.
(a) The community has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) are met:
(1) the community agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of the law enforcement agency powers conferred by this section to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the community further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity with respect to claims arising from this liability;
(2) the community files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount;
(3) the community files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution; and
(4) the community agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
(b) The community shall may enter into an agreement under section 471.59 with the Redwood County sheriff to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section and to provide for mutual aid and cooperation. If entered, the agreement must identify and describe the trust property involved in the agreement. For purposes of entering into this agreement, the community shall be considered a "governmental unit" as that term is defined in section 471.59, subdivision 1.
If the community complies with the requirements set forth in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), the community is authorized to appoint peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), who have the same powers as peace officers employed by the Redwood County sheriff over the persons and the geographic areas described in subdivision 3.
(a) The band has the powers of a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), if all of the requirements of clauses (1) to (4) and paragraph (b) are met:
(1) the band agrees to be subject to liability for its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents acting within the scope of their employment or duties arising out of the law enforcement agency powers conferred by this section to the same extent as a municipality under chapter 466, and the band further agrees, notwithstanding section 16C.05, subdivision 7, to waive its sovereign immunity for purposes of claims arising out of this liability;
(2) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a bond or certificate of insurance for liability coverage with the maximum single occurrence amounts set forth in section 466.04 and an annual cap for all occurrences within a year of three times the single occurrence amount or establishes that liability coverage exists under the Federal Torts Claims Act, United States Code, title 28, section 1346(b), et al., as extended to the band pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act of 1975, United States Code, title 25, section 450f(c);
(3) the band files with the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training a certificate of insurance for liability of its law enforcement officers, employees, and agents for lawsuits under the United States Constitution or establishes that liability coverage exists under the Federal Torts Claims Act, United States Code, title 28, section 1346(b) et al., as extended to the band pursuant to the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act of 1975, United States Code, title 25, section 450F(c); and
(4) the band agrees to be subject to section 13.82 and any other laws of the state relating to data practices of law enforcement agencies.
(b) By July 1, 1998, The band shall may enter into written mutual aid or cooperative agreements with the Carlton County sheriff, the St. Louis County sheriff, and the city of Cloquet under section 471.59 to define and regulate the provision of law enforcement services under this section. If entered, the agreements must define the following:
(1) the trust property involved in the joint powers agreement;
(2) the responsibilities of the county sheriffs;
(3) the responsibilities of the county attorneys; and
(4) the responsibilities of the city of Cloquet city attorney and police department.
The band shall have concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the Carlton County and St. Louis County Sheriffs' Departments over crimes committed within the boundaries of the Fond du Lac Reservation as indicated by the mutual aid or cooperative agreements entered into under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and any exhibits or attachments to those agreements if the requirements of subdivision 2, paragraph (a), are met, regardless of whether a cooperative agreement pursuant to subdivision 2, paragraph (b), is entered into.
If the requirements of subdivision 2 are met and the tribe enters into a cooperative agreement pursuant to subdivision 4, the Tribe shall have has concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the local county sheriff within the geographical boundaries of the Tribe's reservation to enforce state criminal law.
In order to coordinate, define, and regulate the provision of law enforcement services and to provide for mutual aid and cooperation, governmental units and the Tribe shall may enter into agreements under section 471.59. For the purposes of entering into these agreements, the Tribe shall be is considered a "governmental unit" as that term is defined in section 471.59, subdivision 1.
Notwithstanding any provisions of the Minneapolis city charter, veterans' preference, or civil service law, rule, or regulation to the contrary, the superintendent of police of the city of Minneapolis shall after the effective date of this act have the title and be designated as chief of police of the city of Minneapolis and may appoint three deputy chiefs of police, five inspectors of police, the supervisor of the morals and narcotics section, the supervisor of the internal affairs unit, and the supervisor of license inspection, such personnel to be appointed from among the members of the Minneapolis police department holding at least the rank of patrolman patrol officer.
This section is effective the day after the governing body of the city of Minneapolis and its chief clerical officer comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 645.021, subdivisions 2 and 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 626.93, subdivision 7, is repealed.
(a) The court shall sentence a person who is convicted of a violation of section 169A.20 (driving while impaired) under the circumstances described in section 169A.24 (first-degree driving while impaired) to imprisonment for not less than three years. In addition, the court may order the person to pay a fine of not more than $14,000.
(b) The court may stay execution of this mandatory sentence as provided in subdivision 2 (stay of mandatory sentence), but may not stay imposition or adjudication of the sentence or impose a sentence that has a duration of less than three years.
(c) An offender committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections under this subdivision is not eligible for release as provided in section 241.26, 244.065, 244.12, or 244.17, unless the offender has successfully completed a chemical dependency treatment program while in prison treatment recommendations as determined by a comprehensive substance use disorder assessment while incarcerated.
(d) Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence provided in section 169A.24 (first-degree driving while impaired), when the court commits a person to the custody of the commissioner of corrections under this subdivision, it shall provide that after the person has been released from prison the commissioner shall place the person on conditional release for five years. The commissioner shall impose any conditions of release that the commissioner deems appropriate including, but not limited to, successful completion of an intensive probation program as described in section 169A.74 (pilot programs of intensive probation for repeat DWI offenders). If the person fails to comply with any condition of release, the commissioner may revoke the person's conditional release and order the person to serve all or part of the remaining portion of the conditional release term in prison. The commissioner may not dismiss the person from supervision before the conditional release term expires. Except as otherwise provided in this section, conditional release is governed by provisions relating to supervised release. The failure of a court to direct the commissioner of corrections to place the person on conditional release, as required in this paragraph, does not affect the applicability of the conditional release provisions to the person.
(e) The commissioner shall require persons placed on supervised or conditional release under this subdivision to pay as much of the costs of the supervision as possible. The commissioner shall develop appropriate standards for this.
The commissioner of corrections has the following powers and duties:
(a) To accept persons committed to the commissioner by the courts of this state for care, custody, and rehabilitation.
(b) To determine the place of confinement of committed persons in a correctional facility or other facility of the Department of Corrections and to prescribe reasonable conditions and rules for their employment, conduct, instruction, and discipline within or outside the facility. After July 1, 2023, the commissioner shall not allow inmates who have not been conditionally released from prison, whether on parole, supervised release, work release, or an early release program, to be housed in correctional facilities that are not owned and operated by the state, a local unit of government, or a group of local units of government. Inmates shall not exercise custodial functions or have authority over other inmates.
(c) To administer the money and property of the department.
(d) To administer, maintain, and inspect all state correctional facilities.
(e) To transfer authorized positions and personnel between state correctional facilities as necessary to properly staff facilities and programs.
(f) To utilize state correctional facilities in the manner deemed to be most efficient and beneficial to accomplish the purposes of this section, but not to close the Minnesota Correctional Facility-Stillwater or the Minnesota Correctional Facility-St. Cloud without legislative approval. The commissioner may place juveniles and adults at the same state minimum security correctional facilities, if there is total separation of and no regular contact between juveniles and adults, except contact incidental to admission, classification, and mental and physical health care.
(g) To organize the department and employ personnel the commissioner deems necessary to discharge the functions of the department, including a chief executive officer for each facility under the commissioner's control who shall serve in the unclassified civil service and may, under the provisions of section 43A.33, be removed only for cause.
(h) To define the duties of these employees and to delegate to them any of the commissioner's powers, duties and responsibilities, subject to the commissioner's control and the conditions the commissioner prescribes.
(i) To annually develop a comprehensive set of goals and objectives designed to clearly establish the priorities of the Department of Corrections. This report shall be submitted to the governor commencing January 1, 1976. The commissioner may establish ad hoc advisory committees.
(j) To publish, administer, and award grant contracts with state agencies, local units of government, and other entities for correctional programs embodying rehabilitative concepts, for restorative programs for crime victims and the overall community, and for implementing legislative directives.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
If the license of a facility under this section is revoked or suspended, or use of the facility is restricted for any reason under a conditional license order, or a correction order is issued to a facility, the commissioner shall post the facility, the status of the facility's license, and the reason for the correction order, restriction, revocation, or suspension publicly and on the department's website.
The commissioner must not issue grant a license without giving 30 calendar days' written notice to any affected municipality or other political subdivision unless the facility has a licensed capacity of six or fewer persons and is occupied by either the licensee or the group foster home parents. The notification must be given before the license is first issuance of a license granted and annually after that time if annual notification is requested in writing by any affected municipality or other political subdivision. State funds must not be made available to or be spent by an agency or department of state, county, or municipal government for payment to a foster care facility licensed under subdivision 2 until the provisions of this subdivision have been complied with in full.
The commissioner may not:
(1) issue grant a license under this section to operate a correctional facility for the detention or confinement of juvenile offenders if the facility accepts juveniles who reside outside of Minnesota without an agreement with the entity placing the juvenile at the facility that obligates the entity to pay the educational expenses of the juvenile; or
(2) renew a license under this section to operate a correctional facility for the detention or confinement of juvenile offenders if the facility accepts juveniles who reside outside of Minnesota without an agreement with the entity placing the juvenile at the facility that obligates the entity to pay the educational expenses of the juvenile.
The commissioner of corrections shall take reasonable steps to provide meaningful access to limited English proficient (LEP) individuals incarcerated, detained, or supervised by the Department of Corrections. The commissioner shall develop written policy and annual training to implement language access for LEP individuals.
This section applies to juvenile facilities licensed by the commissioner of corrections under section 241.021, subdivision 2.
(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Health care professional" means an individual who is licensed or permitted by a Minnesota health-related licensing board, as defined in section 214.01, subdivision 2, to perform health care services in Minnesota within the professional's scope of practice.
(c) "Strip search" means a visual inspection of a juvenile's unclothed breasts, buttocks, or genitalia.
(a) A staff person working in a facility may not conduct a strip search unless:
(1) a specific, articulable, and immediate contraband concern is present;
(2) other search techniques and technology cannot be used or have failed to identify the contraband; and
(3) the facility's chief administrator or designee has reviewed the situation and approved the strip search.
(b) A strip search must be conducted by:
(1) a health care professional; or
(2) a staff person working in a facility who has received training on trauma-informed search techniques and other applicable training under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960.
(c) A strip search must be documented in writing and describe the contraband concern, summarize other inspection techniques used or considered, and verify the approval from the facility's chief administrator or, in the temporary absence of the chief administrator, the staff person designated as the person in charge of the facility. A copy of the documentation must be provided to the commissioner within 24 hours of the strip search.
(d) Nothing in this section prohibits or limits a strip search as part of a health care procedure conducted by a health care professional.
(a) A staff person working in a facility may not discipline a juvenile by physically or socially isolating the juvenile.
(b) Nothing in this subdivision restricts a facility from isolating a juvenile for the juvenile's safety, staff safety, or the safety of other facility residents when the isolation is consistent with rules adopted by the commissioner.
The commissioner may take any action authorized under section 241.021, subdivisions 2 and 3, to address a violation of this section.
(a) By February 15 each year, the commissioner must report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy on the use of strip searches and isolation.
(b) The report must consist of summary data from the previous calendar year and must, at a minimum, include:
(1) how often strip searches were performed;
(2) how often juveniles were isolated;
(3) the length of each period of isolation used and, for juveniles isolated in the previous year, the total cumulative amount of time that the juvenile was isolated that year; and
(4) any injury to a juvenile related to a strip search or isolation, or both, that was reportable as a critical incident.
(c) Data in the report must provide information on the demographics of juveniles who were subject to a strip search and juveniles who were isolated. At a minimum, data must be disaggregated by age, race, and gender.
(d) The report must identify any facility that performed a strip search or used isolation, or both, in a manner that did not comply with this section or rules adopted by the commissioner in conformity with this section.
This section is effective January 1, 2024.
The commissioner of corrections may appoint peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), who shall serve in the classified service subject to the provisions of section 43A.01, subdivision 2, and establish a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), known as the Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit, to perform the duties necessary to make statewide arrests under sections 629.30 and 629.34. The jurisdiction of the law enforcement agency is limited to primarily the arrest of Department of Corrections' discretionary and statutory released violators and Department of Corrections' escapees and this must be its primary focus. The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit may respond to a law enforcement agency's request to exercise general law enforcement duties during the course of official duties by carrying out law enforcement activities at the direction of the law enforcement agency of jurisdiction. In addition, the unit may investigate criminal offenses in agency-operated correctional facilities and surrounding property.
The initial processing of a person arrested by the fugitive apprehension unit for an offense within the agency's jurisdiction is the responsibility of the fugitive apprehension unit unless otherwise directed by the law enforcement agency with primary jurisdiction. A subsequent investigation is the responsibility of the law enforcement agency of the jurisdiction in which a new crime is committed unless the law enforcement agency authorizes the fugitive apprehension unit to assume the subsequent investigation. At the request of the primary jurisdiction, the fugitive apprehension unit may assist in subsequent investigations or law enforcement efforts being carried out by the primary jurisdiction. Persons arrested for violations that the fugitive apprehension unit determines are not within the agency's jurisdiction must be referred to the appropriate local law enforcement agency for further investigation or disposition.
The fugitive apprehension unit must develop and file all policies required under state law for law enforcement agencies. The fugitive apprehension unit also must develop a policy for contacting law enforcement agencies in a city or county before initiating any fugitive surveillance, investigation, or apprehension within the city or county. These policies must be filed with the board of peace officers standards and training by November 1, 2000. Revisions of any of these policies must be filed with the board within ten days of the effective date of the revision. The Department of Corrections shall train all of its peace officers regarding the application of these policies.
(a) A state adult or juvenile facility under the control of the commissioner of corrections must provide incarcerated persons with voice communication services. A facility may supplement voice communication services with other communication services, including but not limited to video communication and email or electronic messaging services. A facility must at least continue to offer the services the facility offered as of January 1, 2023.
(b) To the extent that voice communication services are provided, which must not be limited beyond program participation and routine facility policies and procedures, neither the individual initiating the communication nor the individual receiving the communication must be charged for the service.
Nothing in this section allows an incarcerated person to violate an active protection order, harassment restraining order, or other no-contact order or directive.
A state agency must not receive revenue from the provision of voice communication services or any other communication services under this section, but an agency may collect commissions on communication services provided under any contract entered into before January 1, 2023.
(a) Facilities shall maintain in-person visits for incarcerated persons, and communication services must not be used to replace a facility's in-person visitation program.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the commissioner may waive the in-person visitation program requirement under this subdivision if there is:
(1) a declared emergency under section 12.31; or
(2) a local-, state-, or federal-declared natural disaster.
The Department of Corrections must include the following information covering the previous calendar year in its annual performance report required under section 241.016:
(1) its efforts to renegotiate the agency's communication contracts, including the rates the agency is paying or charging incarcerated people or community members for any and all services in the contracts;
(2) a complete and detailed accounting of how legislatively appropriated funds for communication services are spent, including spending on expenses previously covered by commissions; and
(3) data on usage of all communication services, including monthly call and message volume.
For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "voice communications" means real-time, audio-only communication services, namely phone calls made over wireline telephony, voice over Internet protocol, or any other technology infrastructure; and
(2) "other communication services" means communication services other than voice communications, including but not limited to video calls and electronic messages.
The Office of Ombudsperson for the Department of Corrections is hereby created. The ombudsperson shall serve at the pleasure of be appointed by the governor in the unclassified service, and may be removed only for just cause. The ombudsperson shall be selected without regard to political affiliation, and shall be a person highly competent and qualified to analyze questions of law, administration, and public policy. No person may serve as ombudsperson while holding any other public office. The ombudsperson for corrections shall be accountable to the governor and shall have the authority to investigate decisions, acts, and other matters of the Department of Corrections so as to promote the highest attainable standards of competence, efficiency, and justice in the administration of corrections.
(a) When a person has been committed to the commissioner of corrections, the commissioner under rules shall forthwith cause the person to be examined and studied, and investigate all of the pertinent circumstances of the person's life and the antecedents of the crime or other delinquent conduct because of which the person has been committed to the commissioner, and thereupon order the treatment the commissioner determines to be most conducive to rehabilitation. Except as authorized in paragraph (b), persons convicted of crimes shall not be detained in institutions for adjudicated delinquents, nor shall delinquent children be detained in institutions for persons convicted of crimes. The court and the prosecuting and police authorities and other public officials shall make available to the commissioner of corrections all pertinent data in their possession in respect to the case.
(b) Upon review of safety considerations and the treatment and programming needs of a juvenile convicted of a crime, the commissioner may commit the juvenile to the facility that best meets rehabilitative needs.
The Advisory Council on Interstate Adult Offender Supervision consists shall be combined with the State Advisory Council for the Interstate Compact for Juveniles established by section 260.515 and consist of the following individuals or their designees:
(1) the governor;
(2) the chief justice of the supreme court;
(3) two senators, one from the majority and the other from the minority party, selected by the Subcommittee on Committees of the senate Committee on Rules and Administration;
(4) two representatives, one from the majority and the other from the minority party, selected by the house speaker;
(5) the compact administrator, selected as provided in section 243.1607;
(6) a representative from the Department of Human Services regarding the Interstate Compact for the Placement of Children;
(6) (7) the executive director of the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety; and
(8) the deputy compact administrator as defined in section 260.515;
(9) a representative from the State Public Defender's Office;
(10) a representative from the Minnesota County Attorney's Association;
(11) a representative from the Minnesota Sheriff's Association;
(12) a representative from the Minnesota Association of County Probation Officers;
(13) a representative from the Minnesota Association of Community Corrections Act Counties;
(14) a representative from the community at large;
(15) a representative from a community organization working with victims of crimes; and
(7) (16) other members as appointed by the commissioner of corrections.
The council may elect a chair from among its members.
The council shall oversee and administer the state's participation in the compact both compacts described in section sections 243.1605 and 260.515. The council shall appoint the compact administrator as the state's commissioner. In addition to these duties, the council shall develop a model policy concerning the operations and procedures of the compact within the state.
By March 1 of each year, the council shall report to the governor and the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees having jurisdiction over criminal justice policy on its activities along with providing a copy of the annual report published by the national commission that includes the activities of the interstate commission and executive committee as described in section 243.1605 for the preceding year. The council's annual report must also include information required of the State Advisory Council for the Interstate Compact for Juveniles as described in Article IV in section 260.515.
Subject to the amount of money appropriated for this purpose, the commissioner of corrections may reimburse sheriffs for transportation expenses related to the return of probationers to the state who are being held in custody under section 243.1605. Reimbursement shall be based on a fee schedule agreed to by the Department of Corrections and the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association. The required return to the state of a probationer in custody as a result of a nationwide warrant issued pursuant to the Interstate Compact for Adult Supervision shall be arranged and supervised by the sheriff of the county in which the court proceedings are to be held and at the expense of the state as provided for in this section. This expense offset is not applicable to the transport of individuals from pickup locations within 250 miles of the office of the sheriff arranging and supervising the offender's return to the state.
If an inmate escapes from any state correctional facility under the control of the commissioner of corrections, the commissioner shall issue a warrant directed to any peace officer requiring that the fugitive be taken into immediate custody and returned to any state correctional facility designated by the commissioner. The commissioner may also issue such a warrant when a convicted defendant fails to report postsentencing to their county authority or to a state correctional facility. The chief executive officer of the facility from which the escape occurred shall use all proper means to apprehend and return the escapee, which may include the offer of a reward of not more than $100 to be paid from the state treasury, for information leading to the arrest and return to custody of the escapee.
(a) The commissioner may not contract with privately owned and operated prisons for the care, custody, and rehabilitation of inmates committed to the custody of the commissioner.
(b) Notwithstanding section 43A.047, nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner from contracting with privately owned residential facilities, such as halfway houses, group homes, work release centers, or treatment facilities, to provide for the care, custody, and rehabilitation of inmates who have been released from prison under section 241.26, 244.05, 244.0513, 244.065, or 244.172, or any other form of supervised or conditional release.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) The commissioner may order that an inmate be placed on intensive supervised release for:
(1) all or part of the inmate's supervised release or parole term if the commissioner determines that the action will further the goals described in section 244.14, subdivision 1, clauses (2), (3), and (4). In addition, the commissioner may order that an inmate be placed on intensive supervised release for; or
(2) all of the inmate's conditional or supervised release term if the inmate was:
(i) convicted of a sex offense under section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or 609.3453; or
was (ii) sentenced under the provisions of section 609.3455, subdivision 3a.
(b) The commissioner shall must order that all level III predatory offenders be placed on intensive supervised release for the entire supervised release, conditional release, or parole term.
(b) (c) The commissioner may impose appropriate conditions of release on the an inmate, including but not limited to:
(1) unannounced searches by an intensive supervision agent of the inmate's person, vehicle, premises, computer, or other electronic devices capable of accessing the Internet by an intensive supervision agent;
(2) compliance with court-ordered restitution, if any;
(3) random drug testing;
(4) house arrest;
(5) daily curfews;
(6) frequent face-to-face contacts with an assigned intensive supervision agent;
(7) work, education, or treatment requirements; and
(8) electronic surveillance.
In addition, any (d) A sex offender placed on intensive supervised release may be ordered to participate in an appropriate sex offender program as a condition of release.
(e) If electronic surveillance is directed for an inmate on intensive supervised release, the commissioner must require that until electronic surveillance is activated:
(1) the inmate be kept in custody; or
(2) the inmate's intensive supervision agent, or the agent's designee, directly supervise the inmate.
(f) Before being released from custody or the direct supervision of an intensive supervision agent, an inmate placed on electronic surveillance must ensure that:
(1) the inmate's residence is properly equipped to support electronic surveillance; and
(2) the inmate's telecommunications system is properly configured to support electronic surveillance.
(g) An inmate who fails to comply with paragraph (f) may be found in violation of the inmate's conditions of release after a revocation hearing.
(c) (h) As a condition of release for an inmate required to register under section 243.166 who is placed on intensive supervised release under this subdivision, the commissioner shall prohibit the inmate from accessing, creating, or maintaining a personal web page, profile, account, password, or user name username for: (1) a social networking website, or (2) an instant messaging or chat room program, any of which permits persons under the age of 18 to become a member or to create or maintain a personal web page.
(i) An intensive supervised release supervision agent may modify the prohibition described in this under paragraph (h) if doing so does:
(1) the modification would not jeopardize public safety; and
(2) the modification is specifically described and agreed to in advance by the agent.
(d) (j) If the an inmate violates the conditions of the intensive supervised release, the commissioner shall may impose sanctions as provided in subdivision 3 and section 609.3455.
(a) Notwithstanding subdivisions 4 and 5, the commissioner may order that any offender an inmate be placed on conditional medical release before the offender's their scheduled supervised release date or target release date if:
(1) the offender inmate suffers from a grave illness or medical condition; and
(2) the release poses no threat to the public.
(b) If there is an epidemic of any potentially fatal infectious or contagious disease in the community or in a state correctional facility, the commissioner may also release an inmate to home confinement before the inmate's scheduled supervised release date or target release date if:
(1) the inmate has a medical condition or state of health that would make the inmate particularly vulnerable to the disease; and
(2) release to home confinement poses no threat to the public.
In making the decision to (c) When deciding whether to release an offender on this status inmate according to this subdivision, the commissioner must consider:
(1) the offender's inmate's age and medical condition, the health care needs of the offender, the offender's and custody classification and level of risk of violence,;
(2) the appropriate level of community supervision,; and
(3) alternative placements that may be available for the offender inmate.
(d) An inmate may not be released under this provision subdivision unless the commissioner has determined that the inmate's health costs are likely to be borne by:
(1) the inmate; or
(2) medical assistance, Medicaid, veteran's benefits, or by any other federal or state medical assistance programs or by the inmate.
Conditional medical release is governed by provisions relating to supervised release except that it may be rescinded (e) The commissioner may rescind conditional medical release without a hearing by the commissioner if the offender's commissioner considers that the inmate's medical condition improves has improved to the extent that the continuation of the conditional medical release presents a more serious risk to the public.:
(1) the illness or condition is no longer grave or can be managed by correctional health care options; or
(2) the epidemic that precipitated release has subsided or effective vaccines or other treatments have become available.
(f) Release under this subdivision may also be revoked in accordance with subdivisions 2 and 3 if the inmate violates any conditions of release imposed by the commissioner.
An offender who has been committed to the commissioner's custody may petition the commissioner for conditional release from prison before the offender's scheduled supervised release date or target release date if:
(1) the offender is serving a sentence for violating section 152.021, subdivision 2 or 2a; 152.022, subdivision 2; 152.023, subdivision 2; 152.024; or 152.025;
(2) the offender committed the crime as a result of a controlled substance addiction use disorder;
(3) the offender has served at least:
(i) 18 months or one-half of the offender's term of imprisonment, whichever is less, if the offense for which the offender is seeking conditional release is a violation of section 152.024 or 152.025; or
(ii) 36 months or one-half of the offender's term of imprisonment, whichever is less, if the offense for which the offender is seeking conditional release is a violation of section 152.021, subdivision 2 or 2a, 152.022, subdivision 2, or 152.023, subdivision 2;
(4) the offender successfully completed a substance use disorder treatment program of the type described in this section while in prison treatment recommendations as determined by a comprehensive substance use disorder assessment while incarcerated;
(5) the offender has not previously been conditionally released under this section; and
(6) the offender has not within the past ten years been convicted or adjudicated delinquent for a violent crime as defined in section 609.1095 other than the current conviction for the controlled substance offense.
(a) The substance use disorder treatment program described in subdivisions 2 and 3 must:
(1) contain a highly structured daily schedule for the offender;
(2) contain individualized educational programs designed to improve the basic educational skills of the offender and to provide vocational training, if appropriate individual or group counseling or both to help the offender identify and address needs related to substance use and develop strategies to avoid harmful substance use after discharge and to help the offender obtain the services necessary to establish a lifestyle free of the harmful effects of substance use disorder;
(3) contain programs designed to promote the offender's self-worth and the offender's acceptance of responsibility for the consequences of the offender's own decisions;
(4) be licensed by the Department of Human Services and designed to serve the inmate population; and
(5) require that each offender submit to a chemical use assessment substance use disorder assessment and that the offender receive the appropriate level of treatment as indicated by the assessment.
(b) The commissioner shall may expel from the substance use disorder treatment program any offender who:
(1) commits a material violation of or repeatedly fails to follow the rules of the program;
(2) commits any criminal offense while in the program; or
(3) presents any risk to other inmates based on the offender's behavior or attitude.
(a) The commissioner shall impose severe and meaningful sanctions for violating the conditions of the challenge incarceration program. The commissioner shall remove an offender from the challenge incarceration program if the offender:
(1) commits a material violation of or repeatedly fails to follow the rules of the program;
(2) commits any misdemeanor, gross misdemeanor, or felony offense; or
(3) presents a risk to the public, based on the offender's behavior, attitude, or abuse of alcohol or controlled substances. The removal of an offender from the challenge incarceration program is governed by the procedures in the commissioner's rules adopted under section 244.05, subdivision 2.
(b) An offender who is removed from the challenge incarceration program shall be imprisoned for a time period equal to the offender's term of imprisonment, minus earned good time if any, but in no case for longer than the time remaining in the offender's sentence. "Term of imprisonment" means a time period equal to two-thirds of the sentence originally executed by the sentencing court, minus jail credit, if any.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), an offender who has been removed from the challenge incarceration program but who remains otherwise eligible for acceptance into the program may be readmitted at the commissioner's discretion. An offender readmitted to the program under this paragraph must participate from the beginning and complete all of the program's phases.
Phase I of the program lasts at least six months. The offender must be confined at the Minnesota Correctional Facility - Willow River/Moose Lake or, the Minnesota Correctional Facility - Togo, or the Minnesota Correctional Facility - Shakopee and must successfully participate in all intensive treatment, education, and work programs required by the commissioner. The offender must also submit on demand to random drug and alcohol testing at time intervals set by the commissioner. Throughout phase I, the commissioner must severely restrict the offender's telephone and visitor privileges.
The Interstate Compact for Juveniles is enacted into law and entered into with all other states legally joining in it in substantially the following form:
ARTICLE I
PURPOSE
The compacting states to this Interstate Compact recognize that each state is responsible for the proper supervision or return of juveniles, delinquents, and status offenders who are on probation or parole and who have absconded, escaped, or run away from supervision and control and in so doing have endangered their own safety and the safety of others. The compacting states also recognize that each state is responsible for the safe return of juveniles who have run away from home and in doing so have left their state of residence. The compacting states also recognize that Congress, by enacting the Crime Control Act, United States Code, title 4, section 112 (1965), has authorized and encouraged compacts for cooperative efforts and mutual assistance in the prevention of crime.
It is the purpose of this compact, through means of joint and cooperative action among the compacting states to:
(A) ensure that the adjudicated juveniles and status offenders subject to this compact are provided adequate supervision and services in the receiving state as ordered by the adjudicating judge or parole authority in the sending state;
(B) ensure that the public safety interests of the citizens, including the victims of juvenile offenders, in both the sending and receiving states are adequately protected;
(C) return juveniles who have run away, absconded, or escaped from supervision or control or have been accused of an offense to the state requesting their return;
(D) make contracts for the cooperative institutionalization in public facilities in member states for delinquent youth needing special services;
(E) provide for the effective tracking and supervision of juveniles;
(F) equitably allocate the costs, benefits, and obligations of the compact states;
(G) establish procedures to manage the movement between states of juvenile offenders released to the community under the jurisdiction of courts, juvenile departments, or any other criminal or juvenile justice agency which has jurisdiction over juvenile offenders;
(H) insure immediate notice to jurisdictions where defined juvenile offenders are authorized to travel or to relocate across state lines;
(I) establish procedures to resolve pending charges (detainers) against juvenile offenders prior to transfer or release to the community under the terms of this compact;
(J) establish a system of uniform data collection on information pertaining to juveniles subject to this compact that allows access by authorized juvenile justice and criminal justice officials, and regular reporting of compact activities to heads of state; executive, judicial, and legislative branches; and juvenile criminal justice administrators;
(K) monitor compliance with rules governing interstate movement of juveniles and initiate interventions to address and correct noncompliance;
(L) coordinate training and education regarding the regulation of interstate movement of juveniles for officials involved in such activity; and
(M) coordinate the implementation and operation of the compact with the Interstate Compact for the Placement of Children, the Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, and other compacts affecting juveniles particularly in those cases where concurrent or overlapping supervision issues arise.
It is the policy of the compacting states that the activities conducted by the Interstate Commission created herein are the information of public policies and therefore are public business. Furthermore, the compacting states shall cooperate and observe their individual and collective duties and responsibilities for the prompt return and acceptance of juveniles subject to the provisions of this compact. The provisions of this compact shall be reasonably and liberally construed to accomplish the purpose and policies of the compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, unless the context clearly requires a different construction:
A. "Bylaws" means those bylaws established by the commission for its governance, or for directing or controlling its actions or conduct.
B. "Compact administrator" means the individual in each compacting state appointed pursuant to the terms of this compact responsible for the administration and management of the state's supervision and transfer of juveniles subject to the terms of this compact, the rules adopted by the Interstate Commission, and policies adopted by the state council under this compact.
C. "Compacting state" means any state which has enacted the enabling legislation for this compact.
D. "Commissioner" means the voting representative of each compacting state appointed pursuant to Article III of this compact.
E. "Court" means any court having jurisdiction over delinquent, neglected, or dependent children.
F. "Deputy compact administrator" means the individual, if any, in each compacting state appointed to act on behalf of a compact administrator pursuant to the terms of this compact responsible for the administration and management of the state's supervision and transfer of juveniles subject to the terms of this compact, the rules adopted by the Interstate Commission, and policies adopted by the state council under this compact.
G. "Interstate Commission" means the Interstate Commission for Juveniles created by Article III of this compact.
H. "Juvenile" means any person defined as a juvenile in any member state or by the rules of the Interstate Commission, including:
(1) accused delinquent - a person charged with an offense that, if committed by an adult, would be a criminal offense;
(2) adjudicated delinquent - a person found to have committed an offense that, if committed by an adult, would be a criminal offense;
(3) accused status offender - a person charged with an offense that would not be a criminal offense if committed by an adult;
(4) adjudicated status offender - a person found to have committed an offense that would not be a criminal offense if committed by an adult; and
(5) nonoffender - a person in need of supervision who has not been accused or adjudicated a status offender or delinquent.
I. "Noncompacting state" means any state which has not enacted the enabling legislation for this compact.
J. "Probation" or "parole" means any kind of supervision or conditional release of juveniles authorized under the laws of the compacting states.
K. "Rule" means a written statement by the Interstate Commission promulgated pursuant to Article VI of this compact that is of general applicability, implements, interprets, or prescribes a policy or provision of the compact, or an organizational, procedural, or practice requirement of the commission, and has the force and effect of statutory law in a compacting state, and includes the amendment, repeal, or suspension of an existing rule.
L. "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia (or its designee), the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Marianas.
ARTICLE III
INTERSTATE COMMISSION FOR JUVENILES
A. The compacting states hereby create the "Interstate Commission for Juveniles." The commission shall be a body corporate and joint agency of the compacting states. The commission shall have all the responsibilities, powers, and duties set forth herein, and such additional powers as may be conferred upon it by subsequent action of the respective legislatures of the compacting states in accordance with the terms of this compact.
B. The Interstate Commission shall consist of commissioners appointed by the appropriate appointing authority in each state pursuant to the rules and requirements of each compacting state and in consultation with the State Advisory Council for Interstate Supervision of Juvenile Offenders and Runaways created hereunder. The commissioner shall be the compact administrator. The commissioner of corrections or the commissioner's designee shall serve as the compact administrator, who shall serve on the Interstate Commission in such capacity under or pursuant to the applicable law of the compacting state.
C. In addition to the commissioners who are the voting representatives of each state, the Interstate Commission shall include individuals who are not commissioners but who are members of interested organizations. Such noncommissioner members must include a member of the national organizations of governors, legislators, state chief justices, attorneys general, Interstate Compact for Adult Offender Supervision, Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children, juvenile justice and juvenile corrections officials, and crime victims. All noncommissioner members of the Interstate Commission shall be ex-officio (nonvoting) members. The Interstate Commission may provide in its bylaws for such additional ex-officio (nonvoting) members, including members of other national organizations, in such numbers as shall be determined by the commission.
D. Each compacting state represented at any meeting of the commission is entitled to one vote. A majority of the compacting states shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business, unless a larger quorum is required by the bylaws of the Interstate Commission.
E. The commission shall meet at least once each calendar year. The chair may call additional meetings and, upon the request of a simple majority of the compacting states, shall call additional meetings. Public notice shall be given of all meetings and meetings shall be open to the public.
F. The Interstate Commission shall establish an executive committee, which shall include commission officers, members, and others as determined by the bylaws. The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the Interstate Commission during periods when the Interstate Commission is not in session, with the exception of rulemaking and/or amendment to the compact. The executive committee shall oversee the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact managed by an executive director and Interstate Commission staff; administer enforcement and compliance with the provisions of the compact, its bylaws, and rules; and perform such other duties as directed by the Interstate Commission or set forth in the bylaws.
G. Each member of the Interstate Commission shall have the right and power to cast a vote to which that compacting state is entitled and to participate in the business and affairs of the Interstate Commission. A member shall vote in person and shall not delegate a vote to another compacting state. However, a commissioner, in consultation with the state council, shall appoint another authorized representative, in the absence of the commissioner from that state, to cast a vote on behalf of the compacting state at a specified meeting. The bylaws may provide for members' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of telecommunication or electronic communication.
H. The Interstate Commission's bylaws shall establish conditions and procedures under which the Interstate Commission shall make its information and official records available to the public for inspection or copying. The Interstate Commission may exempt from disclosure any information or official records to the extent they would adversely affect personal privacy rights or proprietary interests.
I. Public notice shall be given of all meetings and all meetings shall be open to the public, except as set forth in the rules or as otherwise provided in the compact. The Interstate Commission and any of its committees may close a meeting to the public where it determines by two-thirds vote that an open meeting would be likely to:
1. relate solely to the Interstate Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
2. disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute;
3. disclose trade secrets or commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential;
4. involve accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
5. disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
6. disclose investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
7. disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating or condition reports prepared by, or on behalf of or for the use of, the Interstate Commission with respect to a regulated person or entity for the purpose of regulation or supervision of such person or entity;
8. disclose information, the premature disclosure of which would significantly endanger the stability of a regulated person or entity;
9. specifically relate to the Interstate Commission's issuance of a subpoena or its participation in a civil action or other legal proceeding.
J. For every meeting closed pursuant to this provision, the Interstate Commission's legal counsel shall publicly certify that, in the legal counsel's opinion, the meeting may be closed to the public, and shall reference each relevant exemptive provision. The Interstate Commission shall keep minutes which shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in any meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote (reflected in the vote of each member on the question). All documents considered in connection with any action shall be identified in such minutes.
K. The Interstate Commission shall collect standardized data concerning the interstate movement of juveniles as directed through its rules which shall specify the data to be collected, the means of collection, and data exchange and reporting requirements. Such methods of data collection, exchange, and reporting shall insofar as is reasonably possible conform to up-to-date technology and coordinate its information functions with the appropriate repository of records.
ARTICLE IV
POWERS AND DUTIES OF THE INTERSTATE COMMISSION
The commission shall have the following powers and duties:
1. To provide for dispute resolution among compacting states.
2. To promulgate rules to affect the purposes and obligations as enumerated in this compact, which shall have the force and effect of statutory law and shall be binding in the compact states to the extent and in the manner provided in this compact.
3. To oversee, supervise, and coordinate the interstate movement of juveniles subject to the terms of this compact and any bylaws adopted and rules promulgated by the Interstate Commission.
4. To enforce compliance with the compact provisions, the rules promulgated by the Interstate Commission, and the bylaws, using all necessary and proper means, including but not limited to the use of judicial process.
5. To establish and maintain offices which shall be located within one or more of the compacting states.
6. To purchase and maintain insurance and bonds.
7. To borrow, accept, hire, or contract for services of personnel.
8. To establish and appoint committees and hire staff which it deems necessary for the carrying out of its functions including, but not limited to, an executive committee as required by Article III, which shall have the power to act on behalf of the Interstate Commission in carrying out its powers and duties hereunder.
9. To elect or appoint such officers, attorneys, employees, agents, or consultants, and to fix their compensation, define their duties, and determine their qualifications; and to establish the Interstate Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to, inter alia, conflicts of interest, rates of compensation, and qualifications of personnel.
10. To accept any and all donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and to receive, utilize, and dispose of it.
11. To lease, purchase, accept contributions or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed.
12. To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property, real, personal, or mixed.
13. To establish a budget, make expenditures, and levy dues as provided in Article VIII of this compact.
14. To sue and be sued.
15. To adopt a seal and bylaws governing the management and operation of the Interstate Commission.
16. To perform such functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact.
17. To report annually to the legislatures, governors, judiciary, and state councils of the compacting states concerning the activities of the Interstate Commission during the preceding year. Such reports shall also include any recommendations that may have been adopted by the Interstate Commission.
18. To coordinate education, training, and public awareness regarding the interstate movement of juveniles for officials involved in such activity.
19. To establish uniform standards of the reporting, collecting, and exchanging of data.
20. The Interstate Commission shall maintain its corporate books and records in accordance with the bylaws.
ARTICLE V
ORGANIZATION AND OPERATION
OF THE INTERSTATE COMMISSION
Section A. Bylaws.
1. The Interstate Commission shall, by a majority of the members present and voting, within 12 months after the first Interstate Commission meeting, adopt bylaws to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of the compact, including, but not limited to:
a. establishing the fiscal year of the Interstate Commission;
b. establishing an executive committee and such other committees as may be necessary;
c. provide: (i) for the establishment of committees, and (ii) governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the Interstate Commission;
d. providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Interstate Commission and ensuring reasonable notice of each such meeting;
e. establishing the titles and responsibilities of the officers of the Interstate Commission;
f. providing a mechanism for concluding the operations of the Interstate Commission and the return of any surplus funds that may exist upon the termination of the compact after the payment and/or reserving of all of its debts and obligations;
g. providing "start-up" rules for initial administration of the compact;
h. establishing standards and procedures for compliance and technical assistance in carrying out the compact.
Section B. Officers and staff.
1. The Interstate Commission shall, by a majority of the members, elect annually from among its members a chair and a vice-chair, each of whom shall have such authority and duties as may be specified in the bylaws. The chair or, in the chair's absence or disability, the vice-chair shall preside at all meetings of the Interstate Commission. The officers so elected shall serve without compensation or remuneration from the Interstate Commission; provided that, subject to the availability of budget funds, the officers shall be reimbursed for any ordinary and necessary costs and expenses incurred by them in the performance of their responsibilities as officers of the Interstate Commission.
2. The Interstate Commission shall, through its executive committee, appoint or retain an executive director for such period, upon such terms and conditions, and for such compensation as the Interstate Commission may deem appropriate. The executive director shall serve as secretary to the Interstate Commission, but shall not be a member and shall hire and supervise such other staff as may be authorized by the Interstate Commission.
Section C. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification.
1. The commission's executive director and employees shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused or arising out of or relating to any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided, that any such person shall not be protected from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful and wanton misconduct of any such person.
2. The liability of any commissioner, or the employee or agent of a commissioner, acting within the scope of such person's employment or duties for acts, errors, or omissions occurring within such person's state may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the Constitution and laws of that state for state officials, employees, and agents. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful and wanton misconduct of any such person.
3. The Interstate Commission shall defend the executive director or the employees or representatives of the Interstate Commission and, subject to the approval of the attorney general of the state represented by any commissioner of a compacting state, shall defend such commissioner or the commissioner's representatives or employees in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the defendant has a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from intentional or willful and wanton misconduct on the part of such person.
4. The Interstate Commission shall indemnify and hold the commissioner of a compacting state, or the commissioner's representatives or employees, or the Interstate Commission's representatives or employees, harmless in the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against such persons arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such persons had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Interstate Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from intentional or willful and wanton misconduct on the part of such persons.
ARTICLE VI
RULEMAKING FUNCTIONS OF THE INTERSTATE COMMISSION
1. The Interstate Commission shall promulgate and publish rules in order to effectively and efficiently achieve the purposes of the compact.
2. Rulemaking shall occur pursuant to the criteria set forth in this article and the bylaws and rules adopted pursuant thereto. Such rulemaking shall substantially conform to the principles of the "Model State Administrative Procedures Act," 1981 Act, Uniform Laws Annotated, Vol. 15, page 1 (2000), or such other administrative procedures act, as the Interstate Commission deems appropriate consistent with due process requirements under the United States Constitution as now or hereafter interpreted by the United States Supreme Court. All rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified, as published with the final version of the rule as approved by the commission.
3. When promulgating a rule, the Interstate