language to be deleted (2) new language
relating to legislation; correcting erroneous, ambiguous, and omitted text and obsolete references; eliminating certain redundant, conflicting, and superseded provisions; making miscellaneous technical corrections to statutes and other laws;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2004, sections 3.736, subdivision 8; 13.322, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; 13.6905, by adding a subdivision; 16B.85, subdivision 5; 45.011, subdivision 1; 62D.03, subdivision 4; 62D.30, subdivision 8; 62Q.19, subdivision 2; 82.50, subdivision 7; 97A.445, subdivision 3; 103F.205, subdivision 1; 103G.293; 115A.0716, subdivision 3; 145A.09, subdivision 4; 168.187, subdivision 12; 169.781, subdivision 1; 253B.045, subdivision 2; 256.9831, subdivision 1; 256B.0917, subdivision 13; 256B.093, subdivision 3a; 256J.88; 260C.007, subdivision 6; 273.03, subdivision 3; 273.111, subdivision 3; 290.48, subdivision 10; 295.50, subdivision 10b; 297E.01, subdivision 8; 299A.292, subdivision 2; 299A.80, subdivision 1; 299C.091, subdivision 2; 349.12, subdivision 21; 353.27, subdivision 9; 353.33, subdivision 1; 353.656, subdivision 8; 354.05, subdivision 13; 466.06; 581.02; 609.652, subdivision 2; 609.671, subdivision 1; 626.5572, subdivision 2; Minnesota Statutes 2005 Supplement, sections 16C.33, subdivision 3; 116J.575, subdivision 1; 138.17, subdivision 10; 144.225, subdivision 7; 144.335, subdivision 1; 144.602, subdivision 1; 148B.60, subdivision 3; 148D.240, subdivision 5; 168.128, subdivision 2; 168.33, subdivision 2; 169.18, subdivision 11; 216B.1612, subdivision 2; 237.763; 245C.15, subdivision 3; 256B.441, subdivision 13; 270C.96; 289A.42, subdivision 1; 296A.22, subdivision 9; 325E.61, subdivision 5; 349.153; 357.021, subdivision 1a; 604A.33, subdivision 1; Laws 2005, chapter 20, article 2, section 1; Laws 2005, chapter 88, article 3, section 10; Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 6, article 3, section 95; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2004, sections 155A.03, subdivision 11; 299J.061; 309.50, subdivision 8; 326.991, subdivision 2; Laws 2001, First Special Session chapter 5, article 12, sections 31; 32; Laws 2005, chapter 156, article 5, section 20; Laws 2005, First Special Session chapter 4, article 5, section 14.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
A state agency, including an entity defined as a part of the state in section 3.732, subdivision 1, clause (1), may procure insurance against liability of the agency and its employees for damages resulting from the torts of the agency and its employees. Procurement of the insurance is a waiver of the limits of governmental liability under subdivisions 4 and 4a only to the extent that valid and collectible insurance, including where applicable, proceeds from the Minnesota Guarantee Fund, exceeds those limits and covers the claim. Purchase of insurance has no other effect on the liability of the agency and its employees. Procurement of commercial insurance, participation in the risk management fund under section 16B.85, or provisions of an individual self-insurance plan with or without a reserve fund or reinsurance does not constitute a waiver of any governmental immunities or exclusions.
A state agency, including an entity defined as a part of the state in section 3.732, subdivision 1, clause (1), may procure insurance against liability of the agency and its employees for damages resulting from the torts of the agency and its employees. The procurement of this insurance constitutes a waiver of the limits of governmental liability under section 3.736, subdivisions 4 and 4a, only to the extent that valid and collectible insurance, including where applicable, proceeds from the Minnesota Guarantee Fund, exceeds those limits and covers the claim. Purchase of insurance has no other effect on the liability of the agency and its employees. Procurement of commercial insurance, participation in the risk management fund under this section, or provisions of an individual self-insurance plan with or without a reserve fund or reinsurance does not constitute a waiver of any governmental immunities or exclusions.
A license is not required to take fish by angling or spearing for a resident that is:
(1) receiving aid under the federal Railroad Retirement Act of 1937, United States Code, title 45, section 228b(a)5; or
(2) a former employee of the United States Postal Service receiving disability pay under United States Code, title 5, section 8337.
(a) Any government record, including a record with archival value, may be transferred to and stored on a nonerasable optical imaging system and retained only in that format, if the requirements of this section are met.
(b) All documents preserved on nonerasable optical imaging systems must meet standards for permanent records specified in section 15.17, subdivision 1, and must be kept available for retrieval so long as any law requires. Standards under section 15.17, subdivision 1, may not be inconsistent with efficient use of optical imaging systems.
(c) A government entity storing a record on an optical imaging system shall create and store a backup copy of the record at a site other than the site where the original is kept. The government entity shall retain the backup copy and operable retrieval equipment so long as any law requires the original to be retained. The backup copy required by this paragraph must be preserved either (1) on a nonerasable optical imaging system; or (2) by another reproduction method approved by the records disposition panel.
(d) All contracts for the purchase of optical imaging systems used pursuant to this chapter shall contain terms that insure continued retrievability of the optically stored images and conform to any guidelines that may be established by the Office of Enterprise Technology of the Department of Administration for perpetuation of access to stored data.
(a) A person who operates a limousine for other than personal use shall register the motor vehicle as provided in this section.
(b) A person who operates a limousine for personal use may apply. The commissioner shall issue limousine plates to the registered owner of a limousine who:
(1) certifies that an insurance policy under section in an aggregate amount of $300,000 per accident is in effect for the entire period of the registration;
(2) provides the commissioner with proof that the passenger automobile license tax and a $10 fee have been paid for each limousine receiving limousine plates; and
(3) complies with this chapter and rules governing the registration of motor vehicles and licensing of drivers.
(c) The limousine plates must be designed to specifically identify the vehicle as a limousine and must be clearly marked with the letters "LM." Limousine plates may not be transferred upon sale of the limousine, but may be transferred to another limousine owned by the same person upon notifying the commissioner and paying a $5 transfer fee.
(1) The commissioner of public safety shall register proratable vehicles of a fleet upon application and payment of registration fees as provided in subdivision 11. Payment of an additional fee for each vehicle so registered may be required by the commissioner in an amount not to exceed $5 per motor powered vehicle, for issuance of a plate, sticker, or other suitable identification for each vehicle. A registration card shall be issued for each vehicle registered, which shall appropriately identify the vehicle for which it is issued. Such registration card shall be carried in or upon the vehicle for which it has been issued, at all times, except that the registration cards for all vehicles in a combination of vehicles may be carried in or upon the vehicle supplying the motive power.
(2) Fleet vehicles registered as provided in (1) shall be deemed fully registered in this state for any type of movement or operation, except that when a state grant of authority is required for any movement or operation, no such vehicle shall be operated in this state unless the owner or operator thereof has been granted authority or rights therefor by the Public Utilities Commission and unless said vehicle is being operated in conformity with such authority or rights. No registration under this section shall excuse the owner or operator of any vehicle from compliance with the laws of this state, except those requiring registration and licensing.
(a) The commissioner may appoint, and for cause discontinue, a deputy registrar for any statutory or home rule charter city as the public interest and convenience may require, without regard to whether the county auditor of the county in which the city is situated has been appointed as the deputy registrar for the county or has been discontinued as the deputy registrar for the county, and without regard to whether the county in which the city is situated has established a county license bureau that issues motor vehicle licenses as provided in section 373.32.
(b) The commissioner may appoint, and for cause discontinue, a deputy registrar for any statutory or home rule charter city as the public interest and convenience may require, if the auditor for the county in which the city is situated chooses not to accept appointment as the deputy registrar for the county or is discontinued as a deputy registrar, or if the county in which the city is situated has not established a county license bureau that issues motor vehicle licenses as provided in section 373.32. The individual appointed by the commissioner as a deputy registrar for any statutory or home rule charter city must be a resident of the county in which the city is situated.
(c) The commissioner may appoint, and for cause discontinue, the county auditor of each county as a deputy registrar.
(d) Despite any other provision, a person other than a county auditor or a director of a county license bureau, who was appointed by the registrar before August 1, 1976, as a deputy registrar for any statutory or home rule charter city, may continue to serve as deputy registrar and may be discontinued for cause only by the commissioner. The county auditor who appointed the deputy registrars is responsible for the acts of deputy registrars appointed by the auditor.
(e) Each deputy, before entering upon the discharge of duties, shall take and subscribe an oath to faithfully discharge the duties and to uphold the laws of the state.
(f) If a deputy registrar appointed under this subdivision is not an officer or employee of a county or statutory or home rule charter city, the deputy shall in addition give bond to the state in the sum of $10,000, or a larger sum as may be required by the commissioner, conditioned upon the faithful discharge of duties as deputy registrar.
(g) Until January 1, 2012, a corporation governed by chapter 302A may be appointed a deputy registrar. Upon application by an individual serving as a deputy registrar and the giving of the requisite bond as provided in this subdivision, personally assured by the individual or another individual approved by the commissioner, a corporation named in an application then becomes the duly appointed and qualified successor to the deputy registrar. The appointment of any corporation as a deputy registrar expires January 1, 2009. The commissioner shall appoint an individual as successor to the corporation as a deputy registrar. The commissioner shall appoint as the successor agent to a corporation whose appointment expires under this paragraph an officer of the corporation if the officer applies for appointment before July 1, 2009 .
(h) Each deputy registrar appointed under this subdivision shall keep and maintain office locations approved by the commissioner for the registration of vehicles and the collection of taxes and fees on vehicles.
(i) The deputy registrar shall keep records and make reports to the commissioner as the commissioner requires. The records must be maintained at the offices of the deputy registrar. The records and offices of the deputy registrar must at all times be open to the inspection of the commissioner or the commissioner's agents. The deputy registrar shall report to the commissioner by the next working day following receipt all registrations made and taxes and fees collected by the deputy registrar.
(j) The filing fee imposed under subdivision 7 must be deposited in the treasury of the place for which appointed or, if not a public official, a deputy shall retain the filing fee, but the registration tax and any additional fees for delayed registration the deputy registrar has collected the deputy registrar shall deposit by the next working day following receipt in an approved state depository to the credit of the state through the commissioner of finance. The place for which the deputy registrar is appointed through its governing body must provide the deputy registrar with facilities and personnel to carry out the duties imposed by this subdivision if the deputy is a public official. In all other cases, the deputy shall maintain a suitable facility for serving the public.
(a) When approaching and before passing an authorized emergency vehicle with its emergency lights activated that is parked or otherwise stopped on or next to a street or highway having two lanes in the same direction, the driver of a vehicle shall safely move the vehicle to the lane farthest away from the emergency vehicle, if it is possible to do so.
(b) When approaching and before passing an authorized emergency vehicle with its emergency lights activated that is parked or otherwise stopped on or next to a street or highway having more than two lanes in the same direction, the driver of a vehicle shall safely move the vehicle so as to leave a full lane vacant between the driver and any lane in which the emergency vehicle is completely or partially parked or otherwise stopped, if it is possible to do so.
(c) A peace officer may issue a citation to the driver of a motor vehicle if the peace officer has probable cause to believe that the driver has operated the vehicle in violation of this subdivision within the four-hour period following the termination of the incident or a receipt of a report under paragraph (d). The citation may be issued even though the violation was not committed in the presence of the peace officer.
(d) Although probable cause may be otherwise satisfied by other evidentiary elements or factors, probable cause is sufficient for purposes of this subdivision when the person cited is operating the vehicle described by a member of the crew of an authorized emergency vehicle responding to an incident in a timely report of the violation of this subdivision, which includes a description of the vehicle used to commit the offense and the vehicle's license plate number. For the purposes of issuance of a citation under paragraph (c), "timely" means that the report must be made within a four-hour period following the termination of the incident.
(e) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) only, "authorized emergency vehicle" and "emergency vehicle" includes a towing vehicle defined in section 169.01, subdivision 52, that has activated flashing lights authorized under section 169.64, subdivision 3.
For purposes of sections 169.781 to 169.783:
(a) "Commercial motor vehicle" means:
(1) a commercial motor vehicle as defined in section 169.01, subdivision 75, paragraph (a); and
(2) each vehicle in a combination of more than 26,000 pounds.
"Commercial motor vehicle" does not include (1) a school bus or Head Start bus displaying a certificate under section 169.451, (2) a bus operated by the Metropolitan Council or by a local transit commission created in chapter 458A, or (3) a motor vehicle with a gross weight of not more than 26,000 pounds, carrying in bulk tanks a total of not more than 200 gallons of petroleum products or liquid fertilizer or pesticide.
(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.
(c) "Owner" means a person who owns, or has control, under a lease of more than 30 days' duration, of one or more commercial motor vehicles.
(d) "Storage semitrailer" means a semitrailer that (1) is used exclusively to store property at a location not on a street or highway, (2) does not contain any load when moved on a street or highway, (3) is operated only during daylight hours, and (4) is marked on each side of the semitrailer "storage only" in letters at least six inches high.
(e) "Building mover vehicle" means a vehicle owned or leased by a building mover as defined in section 221.81, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), and used exclusively for moving buildings.
(a) The terms used in this section have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "C-BED tariff" or "tariff" means a community-based energy development tariff.
(c) "Qualifying owner" means:
(1) a Minnesota resident;
(2) a limited liability corporation that is organized under the laws of this state and that is made up of members who are Minnesota residents;
(3) a Minnesota nonprofit organization organized under chapter 317A;
(4) a Minnesota cooperative association organized under chapter 308A or 308B, other than a rural electric cooperative association or a generation and transmission cooperative;
(5) a Minnesota political subdivision or local government other than a municipal electric utility or municipal power agency, including, but not limited to, a county, statutory or home rule charter city, town, school district, or public or private higher education institution or any other local or regional governmental organization such as a board, commission, or association; or
(6) a tribal council.
(d) "Net present value rate" means a rate equal to the net present value of the nominal payments to a project divided by the total expected energy production of the project over the life of its power purchase agreement.
(e) "Standard reliability criteria" means:
(1) can be safely integrated into and operated within the utility's grid without causing any adverse or unsafe consequences; and
(2) is consistent with the utility's resource needs as identified in its most recent resource plan submitted under section 216B.2422.
(f) "Community-based energy project" or "C-BED project" means a new wind energy project that:
(1) has no single qualifying owner owning more than 15 percent of a C-BED project that consists of more than two turbines; or
(2) for C-BED projects of one or two turbines, is owned entirely by one or more qualifying owners, with at least 51 percent of the total financial benefits over the life of the project flowing to qualifying owners; and
(3) has a resolution of support adopted by the county board of each county in which the project is to be located, or in the case of a project located within the boundaries of a reservation, the tribal council for that reservation.
Each county or a group of counties shall maintain or provide by contract a facility for confinement of persons held temporarily for observation, evaluation, diagnosis, treatment, and care. When the temporary confinement is provided at a regional center, the commissioner shall charge the county of financial responsibility for the costs of confinement of persons hospitalized under section 253B.05, subdivisions 1 and 2, and section 253B.07, subdivision 2b, except that the commissioner shall bill the responsible health plan first. If the person has health plan coverage, but the hospitalization does not meet the criteria in subdivision 6 or section 62M.07, 62Q.53, or 62Q.535, the county is responsible. "County of financial responsibility" means the county in which the person resides at the time of confinement or, if the person has no residence in this state, the county which initiated the confinement. The charge shall be based on the commissioner's determination of the cost of care pursuant to section 246.50, subdivision 5. When there is a dispute as to which county is the county of financial responsibility, the county charged for the costs of confinement shall pay for them pending final determination of the dispute over financial responsibility. Disputes about the county of financial responsibility shall be submitted to the commissioner to be settled in the manner prescribed in section 256G.09.
"Child in need of protection or services" means a child who is in need of protection or services because the child:
(1) is abandoned or without parent, guardian, or custodian;
(2)(i) has been a victim of physical or sexual abuse, (ii) resides with or has resided with a victim of domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 5, (iii) resides with or would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse or child abuse as defined in subdivision 5, or (iv) is a victim of emotional maltreatment as defined in subdivision 8;
(3) is without necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or other required care for the child's physical or mental health or morals because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care;
(4) is without the special care made necessary by a physical, mental, or emotional condition because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care, including a child in voluntary placement due solely to the child's developmental disability or emotional disturbance;
(5) is medically neglected, which includes, but is not limited to, the withholding of medically indicated treatment from a disabled infant with a life-threatening condition. The term "withholding of medically indicated treatment" means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening conditions by providing treatment, including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication which, in the treating physician's or physicians' reasonable medical judgment, will be most likely to be effective in ameliorating or correcting all conditions, except that the term does not include the failure to provide treatment other than appropriate nutrition, hydration, or medication to an infant when, in the treating physician's or physicians' reasonable medical judgment:
(i) the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose;
(ii) the provision of the treatment would merely prolong dying, not be effective in ameliorating or correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or
(iii) the provision of the treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant and the treatment itself under the circumstances would be inhumane;
(6) is one whose parent, guardian, or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved of the child's care and custody, including a child in placement according to voluntary release by the parent under section 260C.212, subdivision 8;
(7) has been placed for adoption or care in violation of law;
(8) is without proper parental care because of the emotional, mental, or physical disability, or state of immaturity of the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian;
(9) is one whose behavior, condition, or environment is such as to be injurious or dangerous to the child or others. An injurious or dangerous environment may include, but is not limited to, the exposure of a child to criminal activity in the child's home;
(10) is experiencing growth delays, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that have been diagnosed by a physician and are due to parental neglect;
(11) has engaged in prostitution as defined in section 609.321, subdivision 9;
(12) has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming ten years old;
(13) is a runaway;
(14) is a habitual truant;
(15) has been found incompetent to proceed or has been found not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency in connection with a delinquency proceeding, a certification under section 260B.125, an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, or a proceeding involving a juvenile petty offense; or
(16) has been found by the court to have committed domestic abuse perpetrated by a minor under Laws 1997, chapter 239, article 10, sections 2 to 26, has been ordered excluded from the child's parent's home by an order for protection/minor respondent, and the parent or guardian is either unwilling or unable to provide an alternative safe living arrangement for the child.
The compensation of each special assessor and deputies, appointed under the provisions of section 270C.94 and the expenses as such, shall be fixed by the commissioner and paid out of money appropriated for operation of the department. The commissioner on August 1 shall notify the auditor of each affected county of the amount thereof paid on behalf of such county since August 1 of the preceding year, whereupon the county auditor shall levy a tax upon the taxable property in the assessment district or districts wherein such reassessment was made sufficient to pay the same. One-half of such tax shall be levied in the year in which the commissioner so notifies the county auditor and the remaining one-half shall be levied in the following year. The respective counties shall reimburse the state by paying one-half of the tax so assessed on or before July 1 and the remaining one-half on or before December 1 in the year in which the tax is payable by owner, whether or not the tax was collected by the county. The reimbursement shall be credited to the general fund. If any county fails to reimburse the state within the time specified herein, the commissioner is empowered to order withholding of state aids or distributions to such county equal to the amount delinquent.
(a) The commissioner shall:
(1) gather, develop, and make available throughout the state information and educational materials on preventing and reducing violence in the family and in the community, both directly and by serving as a clearinghouse for information and educational materials from schools, state and local agencies, community service providers, and local organizations;
(2) foster collaboration among schools, state and local agencies, community service providers, and local organizations that assist in violence intervention or prevention;
(3) assist schools, state and local agencies, service providers, and organizations, on request, with training and other programs designed to educate individuals about violence and reinforce values that contribute to ending violence;
(4) after consulting with all state agencies involved in preventing or reducing violence within the family or community, develop a statewide strategy for preventing and reducing violence that encompasses the efforts of those agencies and takes into account all money available for preventing or reducing violence from any source;
(5) submit the strategy to the governor by January 15 of each calendar year, along with a summary of activities occurring during the previous year to prevent or reduce violence experienced by children, young people, and their families;
(6) assist appropriate professional and occupational organizations, including organizations of law enforcement officers, prosecutors, and educators, in developing and operating informational and training programs to improve the effectiveness of activities to prevent or reduce violence within the family or community; and
(7) take other actions deemed necessary to reduce the incidence of crime.
The commissioner also may, through this program, support activities and strategies of the Criminal Gang Council and Strike Force as specified in sections 299A.64, 299A.65, and 299A.66.
(b) The commissioner shall gather and make available information on prevention and supply reduction activities throughout the state, foster cooperation among involved state and local agencies, and assist agencies and public officials in training and other programs designed to improve the effectiveness of prevention and supply reduction activities.
(c) The commissioner shall coordinate the distribution of funds received by the state of Minnesota through the federal Anti-Drug Abuse Act. The commissioner shall determine recipients of grants under section 299A.33, after consultation with the Chemical Abuse Prevention Resource Council.
(d) The commissioner shall:
(1) after consultation with all state agencies involved in prevention or supply reduction activities, develop a state chemical abuse and dependency strategy encompassing the efforts of those agencies and taking into account all money available for prevention and supply reduction activities, from any source;
(2) submit the strategy to the governor by January 15 of each year, along with a summary of prevention and supply reduction activities during the preceding calendar year;
(3) assist appropriate professional and occupational organizations, including organizations of law enforcement officers, prosecutors, and educators, in developing and operating informational and training programs to improve the effectiveness of prevention and supply reduction activities;
(4) provide information, including information on drug trends, and assistance to state and local agencies, both directly and by functioning as a clearinghouse for information from other agencies;
(5) facilitate cooperation among drug program agencies; and
(6) in coordination with the Chemical Abuse Prevention Resource Council, review, approve, and coordinate the administration of prevention, criminal justice, and treatment grants.
(a) A law enforcement agency may submit data on an individual to the criminal gang investigative data system only if the agency obtains and maintains the documentation required under this subdivision. Documentation may include data obtained from other criminal justice agencies, provided that a record of all of the documentation required under paragraph (b) is maintained by the agency that submits the data to the bureau. Data maintained by a law enforcement agency to document an entry in the system are confidential data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 3, but may be released to criminal justice agencies.
(b) A law enforcement agency may submit data on an individual to the bureau for inclusion in the system if the individual is 14 years of age or older and the agency has documented that:
(1) the individual has met at least three of the criteria or identifying characteristics of gang membership developed by the Criminal Gang Oversight Council under section 299A.65 as required by the council; and
(2) the individual has been convicted of a gross misdemeanor or felony or has been adjudicated or has a stayed adjudication as a juvenile for an offense that would be a gross misdemeanor or felony if committed by an adult.
Each government entity shall conduct a comprehensive security assessment of any personal information maintained by the government entity.
The governing body of any municipality may procure insurance against liability of the municipality and its officers, employees, and agents for damages, including punitive damages, resulting from its torts and those of its officers, employees, and agents, including torts specified in section 466.03 for which the municipality is immune from liability. The insurance may provide protection in excess of the limit of liability imposed by section 466.04. If a municipality other than a school district has the authority to levy taxes, the premium costs for such insurance may be levied in excess of any per capita or local tax rate tax limitation imposed by statute or charter. Any independent board or commission in the municipality having authority to disburse funds for a particular municipal function without approval of the governing body may similarly procure liability insurance with respect to the field of its operation. The procurement of such insurance constitutes a waiver of the limits of governmental liability under section 466.04 only to the extent that valid and collectible insurance, including where applicable, proceeds from the Minnesota Guarantee Fund, exceeds those limits and covers the claim. The purchase of insurance has no other effect on the liability of the municipality or its employees. Procurement of commercial insurance, participation in a self-insurance pool pursuant to section 471.981, or provision for an individual self-insurance plan with or without a reserve fund or reinsurance shall not constitute a waiver of any governmental immunities or exclusions.
(a) A person who does any of the following for consideration and with intent to manufacture, sell, issue, publish, or pass more than one fraudulent driver's license or identification card or to cause or permit any of the items listed in clauses (1) to (5) to be used in forging or making more than one false or counterfeit driver's license or identification card is guilty of a crime:
(1) has in control, custody, or possession any plate, block, press, stone, digital image, computer software program, encoding equipment, computer optical scanning equipment, or digital photo printer, or other implement, or any part of such an item, designed to assist in making a fraudulent driver's license or identification card;
(2) engraves, makes, or amends, or begins to engrave, make, or amend, any plate, block, press, stone, or other implement for the purpose of producing a fraudulent driver's license or identification card;
(3) uses a photocopier, digital camera, photographic image, or computer software to generate a fraudulent driver's license or identification card;
(4) has in control, custody, or possession or makes or provides paper or other material adapted and designed for the making of a fraudulent driver's license or identification card; or
(5) prints, photographs, or in any manner makes or executes an engraved photograph, print, or impression purporting to be a driver's license or identification card.
(b) Notwithstanding section 171.22, a person who manufacturers or possesses more than one fraudulent driver's license or identification card with intent to sell is guilty of a crime.
Sec. 10. SUBMISSION TO VOTERS.
The constitutional amendment proposed in section 12 must be presented to the people at the 2006 general election. The question submitted must be:
"Shall the Minnesota Constitution be amended to dedicate revenue from a tax on the sale of new and used motor vehicles over a five-year period, so that after June 30, 2011, all of the revenue is dedicated at least 40 percent for public transit assistance and not more than 60 percent for highway purposes?
(a) General. Data sharing involving the Higher Education Services Office and other institutions is governed by section 136A.05.
(b) Student financial aid. Data collected and used by the Higher Education Services Office on applicants for financial assistance are classified under section 136A.162.
(c) Minnesota college savings plan data. Account owner data, account data, and data on beneficiaries of accounts under the Minnesota college savings plan are classified under section 136G.05, subdivision 10.
(d) School financial records. Financial records submitted by schools registering with the Higher Education Services Office are classified under section 136A.64.
(a) Every user agency, except the Capitol Area Architectural and Planning Board, shall submit a written request for a design-builder for its project to the commissioner who shall forward the request to the board, consistent with section 16B.33, subdivision 3a. The University of Minnesota shall follow the process in subdivision 4 to select design-builders for projects that are subject to section 16B.33. The written request must include a description of the project, the total project cost, a description of any special requirements or unique features of the proposed project, and other information requested by the board which will assist the board in carrying out its duties and responsibilities set forth in this section.
(b) A request for qualifications or proposals soliciting design-builders shall be prepared for each design-build contract pursuant to subdivision 5 or 7. The request for qualifications or proposals shall contain, at a minimum, the following elements:
(1) the identity of the agency for which the project will be built and that will award the design-build contract;
(2) procedures for submitting qualifications or proposals, the criteria for evaluation of qualifications or proposals and the relative weight for each criterion and subcriterion, and the procedures for making awards according to the stated criteria and subcriteria, including a reference to the requirements of this section;
(3) the proposed terms and conditions for the contract;
(4) the desired qualifications of the design-builder and the desired or permitted areas of construction to be performed by named members of the design-build team, if applicable. The primary designer shall be a named member of the design-build team;
(5) the schedule for commencement and completion of the project;
(6) any applicable budget limits for the project;
(7) the requirements for insurance and statutorily required performance and payment bonds;
(8) the identification and location of any other information in the possession or control of the agency that the user agency determines is material, which may include surveys, soils reports, drawings or models of existing structures, environmental studies, photographs, or references to public records;
(9) for a design-build design and price-based selection process, the request shall also include the design criteria package, including the performance and technical requirements for the project, and the functional and operational elements for the delivery of the completed project. The request shall also contain a description of the drawings, specifications, or other submittals to be included with the proposal, with guidance as to the form and level of completeness of the drawings, specifications or submittals that will be acceptable, and the stipend to be paid to the design-builders selected to submit the above described information; and
(10) the criteria shall not impose unnecessary conditions beyond reasonable requirements to ensure maximum participation of qualified design-builders. The criteria shall not consider the collective bargaining status of the design-builder.
(c) Notice of requests for qualifications or proposals must be advertised in the State Register.
Each application for a certificate of authority shall be verified by an officer or authorized representative of the applicant, and shall be in a form prescribed by the commissioner of health. Each application shall include the following:
(a) a copy of the basic organizational document, if any, of the applicant and of each major participating entity; such as the articles of incorporation, or other applicable documents, and all amendments thereto;
(b) a copy of the bylaws, rules and regulations, or similar document, if any, and all amendments thereto which regulate the conduct of the affairs of the applicant and of each major participating entity;
(c) a list of the names, addresses, and official positions of the following:
(1) all members of the board of directors, or governing body of the local government unit, and the principal officers and shareholders of the applicant organization; and
(2) all members of the board of directors, or governing body of the local government unit, and the principal officers of the major participating entity and each shareholder beneficially owning more than ten percent of any voting stock of the major participating entity;
The commissioner may by rule identify persons included in the term "principal officers";
(d) a full disclosure of the extent and nature of any contract or financial arrangements between the following:
(1) the health maintenance organization and the persons listed in clause (c)(1);
(2) the health maintenance organization and the persons listed in clause (c)(2);
(3) each major participating entity and the persons listed in clause (c)(1) concerning any financial relationship with the health maintenance organization; and
(4) each major participating entity and the persons listed in clause (c)(2) concerning any financial relationship with the health maintenance organization;
(e) the name and address of each participating entity and the agreed upon duration of each contract or agreement;
(f) a copy of the form of each contract binding the participating entities and the health maintenance organization. Contractual provisions shall be consistent with the purposes of sections 62D.01 to 62D.30, in regard to the services to be performed under the contract, the manner in which payment for services is determined, the nature and extent of responsibilities to be retained by the health maintenance organization, the nature and extent of risk sharing permissible, and contractual termination provisions;
(g) a copy of each contract binding major participating entities and the health maintenance organization. Contract information filed with the commissioner shall be confidential and subject to the provisions of section 13.37, subdivision 1, clause (b), upon the request of the health maintenance organization.
Upon initial filing of each contract, the health maintenance organization shall file a separate document detailing the projected annual expenses to the major participating entity in performing the contract and the projected annual revenues received by the entity from the health maintenance organization for such performance. The commissioner shall disapprove any contract with a major participating entity if the contract will result in an unreasonable expense under section 62D.19. The commissioner shall approve or disapprove a contract within 30 days of filing.
Within 120 days of the anniversary of the implementation of each contract, the health maintenance organization shall file a document detailing the actual expenses incurred and reported by the major participating entity in performing the contract in the preceding year and the actual revenues received from the health maintenance organization by the entity in payment for the performance;
(h) a statement generally describing the health maintenance organization, its health maintenance contracts and separate health service contracts, facilities, and personnel, including a statement describing the manner in which the applicant proposes to provide enrollees with comprehensive health maintenance services and separate health services;
(i) a copy of the form of each evidence of coverage to be issued to the enrollees;
(j) a copy of the form of each individual or group health maintenance contract and each separate health service contract which is to be issued to enrollees or their representatives;
(k) financial statements showing the applicant's assets, liabilities, and sources of financial support. If the applicant's financial affairs are audited by independent certified public accountants, a copy of the applicant's most recent certified financial statement may be deemed to satisfy this requirement;
(l) a description of the proposed method of marketing the plan, a schedule of proposed charges, and a financial plan which includes a three-year projection of the expenses and income and other sources of future capital;
(m) a statement reasonably describing the geographic area or areas to be served and the type or types of enrollees to be served;
(n) a description of the complaint procedures to be utilized as required under section 62D.11;
(o) a description of the procedures and programs to be implemented to meet the requirements of section 62D.04, subdivision 1, clauses (b) and (c) and to monitor the quality of health care provided to enrollees;
(p) a description of the mechanism by which enrollees will be afforded an opportunity to participate in matters of policy and operation under section 62D.06;
(q) a copy of any agreement between the health maintenance organization and an insurer or nonprofit health service corporation regarding reinsurance, stop-loss coverage, insolvency coverage, or any other type of coverage for potential costs of health services, as authorized in sections 62D.04, subdivision 1, clause (f), 62D.05, subdivision 3, and 62D.13;
(r) a copy of the conflict of interest policy which applies to all members of the board of directors and the principal officers of the health maintenance organization, as described in section 62D.04, subdivision 1, paragraph (g). All currently licensed health maintenance organizations shall also file a conflict of interest policy with the commissioner within 60 days after August 1, 1990, or at a later date if approved by the commissioner;
(s) a copy of the statement that describes the health maintenance organization's prior authorization administrative procedures;
(t) a copy of the agreement between the guaranteeing organization and the health maintenance organization, as described in section 62D.043, subdivision 6; and
(u) other information as the commissioner of health may reasonably require to be provided.
(a) The commissioner may permit demonstration projects to allow health maintenance organizations to extend coverage to a health improvement and purchasing coalition located in rural Minnesota, comprised of the health maintenance organization and members from a geographic area. For purposes of this subdivision, rural is defined as greater Minnesota excluding the seven-county metropolitan area of Anoka, Carver, Dakota, Hennepin, Ramsey, Scott, and Washington. The coalition must be designed in such a way that members will:
(1) become better informed about health care trends and cost increases;
(2) be actively engaged in the design of health benefit options that will meet the needs of their community;
(3) pool their insurance risk;
(4) purchase these products from the health maintenance organization involved in the demonstration project; and
(5) actively participate in health improvement decisions for their community.
(b) The commissioner must consider the following when approving applications for rural demonstration projects:
(1) the extent of consumer involvement in development of the project;
(2) the degree to which the project is likely to reduce the number of uninsured or to maintain existing coverage; and
(3) a plan to evaluate and report to the commissioner and legislature as prescribed by paragraph (e).
(c) For purposes of this subdivision, the commissioner must waive compliance with the following statutes and rules: the cost-sharing restrictions under section 62D.095, subdivisions 2, 3, and 4, and Minnesota Rules, part 4685.0801, subparts 1 to 7; for a period of at least two years, participation in government programs under section 62D.04, subdivision 5, in the counties of the demonstration project if that compliance would have been required solely due to participation in the demonstration project and shall continue to waive this requirement beyond two years if the enrollment in the demonstration project is less than 10,000 enrollees; small employer marketing under section 62L.05, subdivisions 1 to 3; and small employer geographic premium variations under section 62L.08, subdivision 4. The commissioner shall approve enrollee cost-sharing features desired by the coalition that appropriately share costs between employers, individuals, and the health maintenance organization.
(d) The health maintenance organization may make the starting date of the project contingent upon a minimum number of enrollees as cited in the application, provide for an initial term of contract with the purchasers of a minimum of three years, and impose a reasonable penalty for employers who withdraw early from the project. For purposes of this subdivision, loss ratios are to be determined as if the policies issued under this section are considered individual or small employer policies pursuant to section 62A.021, subdivision 1, paragraph (f). The health maintenance organization may consider businesses of one to be a small employer under section 62L.02, subdivision 26. The health maintenance organization may limit enrollment and establish enrollment criteria for businesses of one. Health improvement and purchasing coalitions under this subdivision are not associations under section 62L.045, subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
(e) The health improvement and purchasing coalition must report to the commissioner and legislature annually on the progress of the demonstration project and, to the extent possible, any significant findings in the criteria listed in clauses (1), (2), and (3) for the final report. The coalition must submit a final report five years from the starting date of the project. The final report must detail significant findings from the project and must include, to the extent available, but should not be limited to, information on the following:
(1) the extent to which the project had an impact on the number of uninsured in the project area;
(2) the effect on health coverage premiums for groups in the project's geographic area, including those purchasing health coverage outside the health improvement and purchasing coalition; and
(3) the degree to which health care consumers were involved in the development and implementation of the demonstration project.
(f) The commissioner must limit the number of demonstration projects under this subdivision to five projects.
(g) Approval of the application for the demonstration project is deemed to be in compliance with sections 62E.03 and 62E.06, subdivisions 1, paragraph (a), 2, and 3.
(h) Subdivisions 2 to 7 apply to demonstration projects under this subdivision. Waivers permitted under subdivision 1 do not apply to demonstration projects under this subdivision.
(i) If a demonstration project under this subdivision works in conjunction with a purchasing alliance formed under chapter 62T, that chapter will apply to the purchasing alliance except to the extent that chapter 62T is inconsistent with this subdivision.
(a) Any provider may apply to the commissioner for designation as an essential community provider by submitting an application form developed by the commissioner. Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e), applications must be accepted within two years after the effective date of the rules adopted by the commissioner to implement this section.
(b) Each application submitted must be accompanied by an application fee in an amount determined by the commissioner. The fee shall be no more than what is needed to cover the administrative costs of processing the application.
(c) The name, address, contact person, and the date by which the commissioner's decision is expected to be made shall be classified as public data under section 13.41. All other information contained in the application form shall be classified as private data under section 13.41 until the application has been approved, approved as modified, or denied by the commissioner. Once the decision has been made, all information shall be classified as public data unless the applicant designates and the commissioner determines that the information contains trade secret information.
(d) The commissioner shall accept an application for designation as an essential community provider until June 30, 2004, from one applicant that is a nonprofit community services agency certified as a medical assistance provider that provides mental health, behavioral health, chemical dependency, employment, and health wellness services to the underserved Spanish-speaking Latino families and individuals with locations in Minneapolis and St. Paul.
The definitions in this section apply to sections 103F.201 to .
The commissioner shall establish a plan to respond to drought-related emergencies and to prepare a statewide framework for drought response. The plan must consider metropolitan water supply plans of the Metropolitan Council prepared under section 473.156. The plan must provide a framework for implementing drought response actions in a staged approach related to decreasing levels of flows. Permits issued under section 103G.271 must provide conditions on water appropriation consistent with the drought response plan established by this section.
All repayments of loans awarded under this subdivision, including principal and interest, must be credited to the environmental fund. Money deposited in the fund under this section is annually appropriated to the director for loans for purposes identified in subdivisions 1 and 2.
The commissioner may make a grant for up to 50 percent of the eligible costs of a project. The determination of whether to make a grant for a site is within the discretion of the commissioner, subject to this section and sections 116J.571 to 116J.574 and available unencumbered money in the redevelopment account. Notwithstanding section 116J.573, If the commissioner determines that the applications for grants for projects in greater Minnesota are less than the amount of grant funds available, the commissioner may make grants for projects anywhere in Minnesota. The commissioner's decisions and application of the priorities under this section are not subject to judicial review, except for abuse of discretion.
(a) The state or local registrar shall issue a certified birth or death record or a statement of no vital record found to an individual upon the individual's proper completion of an attestation provided by the commissioner:
(1) to a person who has a tangible interest in the requested vital record. A person who has a tangible interest is:
(i) the subject of the vital record;
(ii) a child of the subject;
(iii) the spouse of the subject;
(iv) a parent of the subject;
(v) the grandparent or grandchild of the subject;
(vi) if the requested record is a death record, a sibling of the subject;
(vii) the party responsible for filing the vital record;
(viii) the legal custodian or guardian or conservator of the subject;
(ix) a personal representative, by sworn affidavit of the fact that the certified copy is required for administration of the estate;
(x) a successor of the subject, as defined in section 524.1-201, if the subject is deceased, by sworn affidavit of the fact that the certified copy is required for administration of the estate;
(xi) if the requested record is a death record, a trustee of a trust by sworn affidavit of the fact that the certified copy is needed for the proper administration of the trust;
(xii) a person or entity who demonstrates that a certified vital record is necessary for the determination or protection of a personal or property right, pursuant to rules adopted by the commissioner; or
(xiii) adoption agencies in order to complete confidential postadoption searches as required by section 259.83;
(2) to any local, state, or federal governmental agency upon request if the certified vital record is necessary for the governmental agency to perform its authorized duties. An authorized governmental agency includes the Department of Human Services, the Department of Revenue, and the United States Immigration and Naturalization Service;
(3) to an attorney upon evidence of the attorney's license;
(4) pursuant to a court order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction. For purposes of this section, a subpoena does not constitute a court order; or
(5) to a representative authorized by a person under clauses (1) to (4).
(b) The state or local registrar shall also issue a certified death record to an individual described in paragraph (a), clause (1), items (ii) to (vii), if, on behalf of the individual, a licensed mortician furnishes the registrar with a properly completed attestation in the form provided by the commissioner within 180 days of the time of death of the subject of the death record. This paragraph is not subject to the requirements specified in Minnesota Rules, part 4601.2600, subpart 5, item B.
For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them:
(a) "Patient" means a natural person who has received health care services from a provider for treatment or examination of a medical, psychiatric, or mental condition, the surviving spouse and parents of a deceased patient, or a person the patient appoints in writing as a representative, including a health care agent acting pursuant to chapter 145C, unless the authority of the agent has been limited by the principal in the principal's health care directive. Except for minors who have received health care services pursuant to sections 144.341 to 144.347, in the case of a minor, patient includes a parent or guardian, or a person acting as a parent or guardian in the absence of a parent or guardian.
(b) "Provider" means (1) any person who furnishes health care services and is regulated to furnish the services pursuant to chapter 147, 147A, 147B, 147C, 147D, 148, 148B, 148C, 148D, 150A, 151, 153, or 153A, or Minnesota Rules, chapter 4666; (2) a home care provider licensed under section 144A.46; (3) a health care facility licensed pursuant to this chapter or chapter 144A; (4) a physician assistant registered under chapter 147A; and (5) an unlicensed mental health practitioner regulated pursuant to sections 148B.60 to 148B.71.
(c) "Individually identifiable form" means a form in which the patient is or can be identified as the subject of the health records.
For purposes of sections to 144.608, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given them.
"Unlicensed mental health practitioner" or "practitioner" means a person who provides or purports to provide, for remuneration, mental health services as defined in subdivision 4. It does not include persons licensed by the Board of Medical Practice under chapter 147 or registered by the Board of Medical Practice under chapter 147A; the Board of Nursing under sections 148.171 to 148.285; the Board of Psychology under sections 148.88 to 148.98; the Board of Social Work under sections 148B.18 to 148B.289; the Board of Marriage and Family Therapy under sections 148B.29 to 148B.39; the Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy under sections 148B.50 to 148B.593 and chapter 148C; or another licensing board if the person is practicing within the scope of the license; members of the clergy who are providing pastoral services in the context of performing and fulfilling the salaried duties and obligations required of a member of the clergy by a religious congregation; American Indian medicine men and women; licensed attorneys; probation officers; school counselors employed by a school district while acting within the scope of employment as school counselors; licensed occupational therapists; or licensed occupational therapy assistants. For the purposes of complaint investigation or disciplinary action relating to an individual practitioner, the term includes:
(1) persons employed by a program licensed by the commissioner of human services who are acting as mental health practitioners within the scope of their employment;
(2) persons employed by a program licensed by the commissioner of human services who are providing chemical dependency counseling services; persons who are providing chemical dependency counseling services in private practice; and
(3) clergy who are providing mental health services that are equivalent to those defined in subdivision 4.
The board has grounds to take action under sections 148D.255 to when an applicant or licensee fails to report to the board conduct:
(1) by another licensee or applicant which the applicant or licensee has reason to believe may reasonably constitute grounds for disciplinary action under this section; or
(2) by an unlicensed person that constitutes the practice of social work when a license is required to practice social work.
Except as provided in the plan and any subsequent plans, a company that has an alternative regulation plan approved under section 237.764, is not subject to the rate-of-return regulation or earnings investigations provisions of section 237.075 or 237.081 during the term of the plan. A company with an approved plan is not subject to the provisions of section 237.57; 237.59; 237.60, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, and 5; or 237.65, during the term of the plan. Except as specifically provided in this section or in the approved plan, the commission retains all of its authority under section 237.081 to investigate other matters and to issue appropriate orders, and the department retains its authority under sections 216A.07 and 237.15 to investigate matters other than the earnings of the company.
(a) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if: (1) less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a gross misdemeanor-level violation of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 268.182 (false representation; concealment of facts); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal Food Stamp Program fraud); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (assault in the fifth degree by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult); 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.265 (abduction); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); 609.324, subdivision 1a (other prohibited acts; minor engaged in prostitution); 609.33 (disorderly house); 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); (medical assistance fraud); 609.52 (theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks); 609.582 (burglary); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.71 (riot); 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); repeat offenses under 609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.749, subdivision 2 (harassment; stalking); repeat offenses under 617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.241 (obscene materials and performances); 617.243 (indecent literature, distribution); 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); or violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01, subdivision 14.
(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.
(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a).
(d) If the defendant is convicted of one of the gross misdemeanors listed in paragraph (a), but the sentence is a misdemeanor disposition, the individual is disqualified but the disqualification lookback period for the conviction is the period applicable to misdemeanors.
(e) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction, the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission in court. When a disqualification is based on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.
For purposes of this section, "gambling establishment" means a bingo hall licensed under section 349.164, a racetrack licensed under section 240.06 or 240.09, a casino operated under a tribal-state compact under section 3.9221, or any other establishment that receives at least 50 percent of its gross revenue from the conduct of gambling.
The commissioner shall award contracts for grants to public and private nonprofit agencies to establish services that strengthen a community's ability to provide a system of home and community-based services for elderly persons. The commissioner shall use a request for proposal process. The commissioner shall give preference when awarding grants under this section to areas where nursing facility closures have occurred or are occurring. The commissioner shall consider grants for:
(1) caregiver support and respite care projects under subdivision 6;
(2) on-site coordination under section 256.9731;
(3) the living-at-home/block nurse grant under subdivisions 7 to 10; and
(4) services identified as needed for community transition.
The annual appropriation established under section 171.29, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), clause (5) , shall be used for traumatic brain injury program services that include, but are not limited to:
(1) collaborating with counties, providers, and other public and private organizations to expand and strengthen local capacity for delivering needed services and supports, including efforts to increase access to supportive residential housing options;
(2) participating in planning and accessing services not otherwise covered in subdivision 3 to allow individuals to attain and maintain community-based services;
(3) providing information, referral, and case consultation to access health and human services for persons with traumatic brain injury not eligible for medical assistance, though direct access to this assistance may be limited due to the structure of the program; and
(4) collaborating on injury prevention efforts.
"External fixed costs category" means costs related to the nursing home surcharge under section 256.9657, subdivision 1; licensure fees under section 144.122; long-term care consultation fees under section 256B.0911, subdivision 6; family advisory council fee under section ; scholarships under section 256B.431, subdivision 36; planned closure rate adjustments under section 256B.437; property taxes and property insurance; and PERA.
Children who receive assistance under this chapter, in which the assistance unit does not include a caregiver, but only includes a minor child, shall become part of the program established under this section.
(a) Real estate consisting of ten acres or more or a nursery or greenhouse, and qualifying for classification as class 1b, 2a, or 2b under section 273.13, subdivision 23, paragraph (d), shall be entitled to valuation and tax deferment under this section only if it is primarily devoted to agricultural use, and meets the qualifications in subdivision 6, and either:
(1) is the homestead of the owner, or of a surviving spouse, child, or sibling of the owner or is real estate which is farmed with the real estate which contains the homestead property; or
(2) has been in possession of the applicant, the applicant's spouse, parent, or sibling, or any combination thereof, for a period of at least seven years prior to application for benefits under the provisions of this section, or is real estate which is farmed with the real estate which qualifies under this clause and is within four townships or cities or combination thereof from the qualifying real estate; or
(3) is the homestead of a shareholder in a family farm corporation as defined in section 500.24, notwithstanding the fact that legal title to the real estate may be held in the name of the family farm corporation; or
(4) is in the possession of a nursery or greenhouse or an entity owned by a proprietor, partnership, or corporation which also owns the nursery or greenhouse operations on the parcel or parcels.
(b) Valuation of real estate under this section is limited to parcels the ownership of which is in noncorporate entities except for:
(1) family farm corporations organized pursuant to section 500.24; and
(2) corporations that derive 80 percent or more of their gross receipts from the wholesale or retail sale of horticultural or nursery stock.
Corporate entities who previously qualified for tax deferment pursuant to this section and who continue to otherwise qualify under subdivisions 3 and 6 for a period of at least three years following the effective date of Laws 1983, chapter 222, section 8, will not be required to make payment of the previously deferred taxes, notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 9. Special assessments are payable at the end of the three-year period or at time of sale, whichever comes first.
(c) Land that previously qualified for tax deferment under this section and no longer qualifies because it is not primarily used for agricultural purposes but would otherwise qualify under subdivisions 3 and 6 for a period of at least three years will not be required to make payment of the previously deferred taxes, notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 9. Sale of the land prior to the expiration of the three-year period requires payment of deferred taxes as follows: sale in the year the land no longer qualifies requires payment of the current year's deferred taxes plus payment of deferred taxes for the two prior years; sale during the second year the land no longer qualifies requires payment of the current year's deferred taxes plus payment of the deferred taxes for the prior year; and sale during the third year the land no longer qualifies requires payment of the current year's deferred taxes. Deferred taxes shall be paid even if the land qualifies pursuant to subdivision 11a. When such property is sold or no longer qualifies under this paragraph, or at the end of the three-year period, whichever comes first, all deferred special assessments plus interest are payable in equal installments spread over the time remaining until the last maturity date of the bonds issued to finance the improvement for which the assessments were levied. If the bonds have matured, the deferred special assessments plus interest are payable within 90 days. The provisions of section 429.061, subdivision 2, apply to the collection of these installments. Penalties are not imposed on any such special assessments if timely paid.
If before the expiration of time prescribed in sections 270C.58, subdivision 13, 289A.38, and 289A.40 for the assessment of tax or the filing of a claim for refund, both the commissioner and the taxpayer have consented in writing to the assessment or filing of a claim for refund after that time, the tax may be assessed or the claim for refund filed at any time before the expiration of the agreed upon period. The period may be extended by later agreements in writing before the expiration of the period previously agreed upon. The taxpayer and the commissioner may also agree to extend the period for collection of the tax.
(a) If the individual who is in physical possession of cash in excess of $10,000 does not claim such cash, or does not claim it belongs to another person whose identity the commissioner can readily ascertain and who acknowledges ownership of such cash, then, for purposes of subdivisions 3 and 4, it shall be presumed that the cash represents gross income of a single individual for the taxable year in which the possession occurs, and that the collection of tax will be jeopardized by delay.
(b) In the case of any assessment resulting from the application of clause (a), the entire amount of the cash shall be treated as taxable income for the taxable year in which the possession occurs, such income shall be treated as taxable at an eight percent rate, and except as provided in clause (c), the possessor of the cash shall be treated (solely with respect to the cash) as the taxpayer for purposes of this chapter and the assessment and collection of the tax.
(c) If, after an assessment resulting from the application of clause (a), the assessment is abated and replaced by an assessment against the owner of the cash, the later assessment shall be treated for purposes of all laws relating to lien, levy, and collection as relating back to the date of the original assessment.
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, the definitions contained in section 6867 of the Internal Revenue Code shall apply.
"Regional treatment center" means a regional center as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 18, and named in sections 252.025, subdivision 1; 253.015, subdivision 1; 253.201; and 254.05.
(a) The commissioner may by written order abate any penalty imposed under this section, if in the commissioner's opinion there is reasonable cause to do so.
(b) A request for abatement of penalty must be filed with the commissioner within 60 days of the date the notice stating that a penalty has been imposed was mailed to the taxpayer's last known address.
(c) If the commissioner issues an order denying a request for abatement of penalty, the taxpayer may file an administrative appeal as provided in section 296A.25 or appeal to Tax Court as provided in section 271.06. If the commissioner does not issue an order on the abatement request within 60 days from the date the request is received, the taxpayer may appeal to Tax Court as provided in section 271.06.
"Gross receipts" means all receipts derived from lawful gambling activity including, but not limited to, the following items:
(1) gross sales of bingo hard cards and paper sheets before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(2) the ideal gross of pull-tab and tipboard deals or games less the value of unsold and defective tickets and before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(3) gross sales of raffle tickets and paddle tickets before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(4) admission, commission, cover, or other charges imposed on participants in lawful gambling activity as a condition for or cost of participation; and
(5) interest, dividends, annuities, profit from transactions, or other income derived from the accumulation or use of gambling proceeds.
Gross receipts does not include proceeds from rental under section 349.164 or 349.18, subdivision 3.
(a) For purposes of sections 299A.80 to 299A.802, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(b) "Administrative agent" means a person or entity licensed by or granted authority by the commissioner of public safety under:
(1) section 168.33 as a deputy registrar;
(2) section 168C.11 as a deputy registrar of bicycles; or
(3) section 171.061 as a driver's license agent.
(c) "Other authority" means licenses, orders, stipulation agreements, settlements, or compliance agreements adopted or issued by the commissioner of public safety.
(d) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of public safety.
(e) "License" means a license, permit, registration, appointment, or certificate issued or granted to an administrative agent by the commissioner of public safety.
"Gross receipts" means all receipts derived from lawful gambling activity including, but not limited to, the following items:
(1) gross sales of bingo hard cards and paper sheets before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(2) the ideal gross of pull-tab and tipboard deals or games less the value of unsold and defective tickets and before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(3) gross sales of raffle tickets and paddletickets before reduction for prizes, expenses, shortages, free plays, or any other charges or offsets;
(4) admission, commission, cover, or other charges imposed on participants in lawful gambling activity as a condition for or cost of participation; and
(5) interest, dividends, annuities, profit from transactions, or other income derived from the accumulation or use of gambling proceeds.
Gross receipts does not include proceeds from rental under section 349.164 or 349.18, subdivision 3.
(a) A person may not serve on the board, be the director, or be an employee of the board who has an interest in any corporation, association, limited liability company, or partnership that is licensed by the board as a distributor, manufacturer, or linked bingo game provider under section 349.164.
(b) A member of the board, the director, or an employee of the board may not accept employment with, receive compensation directly or indirectly from, or enter into a contractual relationship with an organization that conducts lawful gambling, a distributor, a linked bingo game provider, or a manufacturer while employed with or a member of the board or within one year after terminating employment with or leaving the board.
(c) A distributor, manufacturer, linked bingo game provider, or organization licensed to conduct lawful gambling may not hire a former employee, director, or member of the Gambling Control Board for one year after the employee, director, or member has terminated employment with or left the Gambling Control Board.
Any appointed or elected officer of a governmental subdivision who was or is a "public employee" within the meaning of section 353.01 and was or is a member of the fund and whose salary was or is paid in whole or in part from revenue derived by fees and assessments, shall pay employee contribution in the amount, at the time, and in the manner provided in subdivisions 2 and 4. This subdivision shall not apply to district court reporters. The employer contribution as provided in subdivision 3, and the additional employer contribution as provided in subdivision 3a, and section 353.36, subdivision 2a, with respect to such service shall be paid by the governmental subdivision. This subdivision shall have both retroactive and prospective application as to all such members; and every employing governmental subdivision is deemed liable, retroactively and prospectively, for all employer and additional employer contributions for every such member in its employ. Delinquencies under this section shall be governed in all respects by section 353.28.
A coordinated member who has at least three years of allowable service and becomes totally and permanently disabled before normal retirement age, and a basic member who has at least three years of allowable service and who becomes totally and permanently disabled is entitled to a disability benefit in an amount under subdivision 3. If the disabled person's public service has terminated at any time, at least two of the required three years of allowable service must have been rendered after last becoming a member. A repayment of a refund must be made within six months after the effective date of disability benefits under subdivision 2 or within six months after the date of the filing of the disability application, whichever is later. No purchase of prior service or payment made in lieu of salary deductions otherwise authorized under section 353.01, subdivision 16, 353.017, subdivision 4, or 353.36, subdivision 2, may be made after the occurrence of the disability for which an application under this section is filed.
(a) An application for disability benefits must be made in writing on a form or forms prescribed by the executive director.
(b) If an application for disability benefits is filed within two years of the date of the injury or the onset of the illness that gave rise to the disability application, the application must be supported by evidence that the applicant is unable to perform the duties of the position held by the applicant on the date of the injury or the onset of the illness causing the disability. The employer must provide evidence indicating whether the applicant is able or unable to perform the duties of the position held on the date of the injury or onset of illness causing the disability and the specifications of any duties that the individual can or cannot perform.
(c) If an application for disability benefits is filed more than two years after the date of the injury or the onset of an illness causing the disability, the application must be supported by evidence that the applicant is unable to perform the most recent duties that are expected to be performed by the applicant during the 90 days before the filing of the application. The employer must provide evidence of the duties that are expected to be performed by the applicant during the 90 days before the filing of the application, whether the applicant can or cannot perform those duties overall, and the specifications of any duties that the applicant can or cannot perform.
(d) Unless otherwise permitted by law, no application for disability benefits can be filed by a former member of the police and fire plan more than three years after the former member has terminated from Public Employees Retirement Association police and fire plan covered employment. If an application is filed within three years after the termination of public employment, the former member must provide evidence that the disability is the direct result of an injury or the contracting of an illness that occurred while the person was still actively employed and participating in the police and fire plan.
(e) Any application for duty-related disability must be supported by a first report of injury as defined in section 176.231.
(f) If a member who has applied for and been approved for disability benefits before the termination of service does not terminate service or is not placed on an authorized leave of absence as certified by the governmental subdivision within 45 days following the date on which the application is approved, the application shall be canceled. If an approved application for disability benefits has been canceled, a subsequent application for disability benefits may not be filed on the basis of the same medical condition for a minimum of one year from the date on which the previous application was canceled.
(g) An applicant may file a retirement application under section 353.29, subdivision 4, at the same time as the disability application is filed. If the disability application is approved, the retirement application is canceled. If the disability application is denied, the retirement application must be initiated and processed upon the request of the applicant. A police and fire fund member may not receive a disability benefit and a retirement annuity from the police and fire fund at the same time.
(h) A repayment of a refund must be made within six months after the effective date of disability benefits or within six months after the date of the filing of the disability application, whichever is later. No purchase of prior service or payment made in lieu of salary deductions otherwise authorized under section 353.01 or 353.36, subdivision 2, may be made after the occurrence of the disability for which an application is filed under this section.
"Allowable service" means:
(1) Any service rendered by a teacher for which on or before July 1, 1957, the teacher's account in the retirement fund was credited by reason of employee contributions in the form of salary deductions, payments in lieu of salary deductions, or in any other manner authorized by Minnesota Statutes 1953, sections 135.01 to 135.13, as amended by Laws 1955, chapters 361, 549, 550, 611, or
(2) Any service rendered by a teacher for which on or before July 1, 1961, the teacher elected to obtain credit for service by making payments to the fund pursuant to Minnesota Statutes 1980, section 354.09 and section 354.51, or
(3) Any service rendered by a teacher after July 1, 1957, for any calendar month when the member receives salary from which deductions are made, deposited and credited in the fund, or
(4) Any service rendered by a person after July 1, 1957, for any calendar month where payments in lieu of salary deductions are made, deposited and credited into the fund as provided in Minnesota Statutes 1980, section 354.09, subdivision 4, and section 354.53, or
(5) Any service rendered by a teacher for which the teacher elected to obtain credit for service by making payments to the fund pursuant to Minnesota Statutes 1980, section 354.09, subdivisions 1 and 4, sections 354.50, 354.51, Minnesota Statutes 1957, section 135.41, subdivision 4, Minnesota Statutes 1971, section 354.09, subdivision 2, or Minnesota Statutes, 1973 Supplement, section 354.09, subdivision 3, or
(6) Both service during years of actual membership in the course of which contributions were currently made and service in years during which the teacher was not a member but for which the teacher later elected to obtain credit by making payments to the fund as permitted by any law then in effect, or
(7) Any service rendered where contributions were made and no allowable service credit was established because of the limitations contained in Minnesota Statutes 1957, section 135.09, subdivision 2, as determined by the ratio between the amounts of money credited to the teacher's account in a fiscal year and the maximum retirement contribution allowable for that year, or
(8) MS 2002 (Expired)
(9) A period of time during which a teacher who is a state employee was on strike without pay, not to exceed a period of one year, if the teacher makes a payment in lieu of salary deductions or makes a prior service credit purchase payment, whichever applies. If the payment is made within 12 months, the payment by the teacher must be an amount equal to the employee and employer contribution rates set forth in section 354.42, subdivisions 2 and 3, applied to the teacher's rate of salary in effect on the conclusion of the strike for the period of the strike without pay, plus compound interest at a monthly rate of 0.71 percent from the last day of the strike until the date of payment. If the payment by the employee is not made within 12 months, the payment must be in an amount equal to the payment amount determined under section 356.55 or 356.551, whichever applies.
(a) Every person, including the state of Minnesota and all bodies politic and corporate, who shall transact any business in the district court, shall pay to the court administrator of said court the sundry fees prescribed in subdivision 2. Except as provided in paragraph (d), the court administrator shall transmit the fees monthly to the commissioner of finance for deposit in the state treasury and credit to the general fund. $30 of each fee collected in a dissolution action under subdivision 2, clause (1), must be deposited by the commissioner of finance in the special revenue fund and is appropriated to the commissioner of employment and economic development for the displaced homemaker program under section 116L.96.
(b) In a county which has a screener-collector position, fees paid by a county pursuant to this subdivision shall be transmitted monthly to the county treasurer, who shall apply the fees first to reimburse the county for the amount of the salary paid for the screener-collector position. The balance of the fees collected shall then be forwarded to the commissioner of finance for deposit in the state treasury and credited to the general fund. In a county in a judicial district under section 480.181, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), which has a screener-collector position, the fees paid by a county shall be transmitted monthly to the commissioner of finance for deposit in the state treasury and credited to the general fund. A screener-collector position for purposes of this paragraph is an employee whose function is to increase the collection of fines and to review the incomes of potential clients of the public defender, in order to verify eligibility for that service.
(c) No fee is required under this section from the public authority or the party the public authority represents in an action for:
(1) child support enforcement or modification, medical assistance enforcement, or establishment of parentage in the district court, or in a proceeding under section 484.702;
(2) civil commitment under chapter 253B;
(3) the appointment of a public conservator or public guardian or any other action under chapters 252A and 525;
(4) wrongfully obtaining public assistance under section 256.98 or 256D.07, or recovery of overpayments of public assistance;
(5) court relief under chapter 260;
(6) forfeiture of property under sections 169A.63 and 609.531 to 609.5317;
(7) recovery of amounts issued by political subdivisions or public institutions under sections 246.52, 252.27, 256.045, 256.25, 256.87, 256B.042, 256B.14, 256B.15, 256B.37, 260B.331, and 260C.331, or other sections referring to other forms of public assistance;
(8) restitution under section 611A.04; or
(9) actions seeking monetary relief in favor of the state pursuant to section 16D.14, subdivision 5.
(d) $20 from each fee collected for child support modifications under subdivision 2, clause (13), must be transmitted to the county treasurer for deposit in the county general fund and $35 from each fee shall be credited to the state general fund. The fees must be used by the county to pay for child support enforcement efforts by county attorneys.
The provisions of sections 580.08, 580.09, 580.12, 580.16, 580.22, 580.25, and 580.27, so far as they relate to the form of the certificate of sale, shall apply to and govern the foreclosure of mortgages by action.
This section applies to residential treatment programs for children or group homes for children licensed under chapter 245A, residential services and programs for juveniles licensed under section 241.021, providers licensed pursuant to sections 144A.01 to 144A.33 or sections 144A.43 to , personal care provider organizations under section 256B.0655, subdivision 1g, providers of day training and habilitation services under sections 252.40 to 252.46, board and lodging facilities licensed under chapter 157, intermediate care facilities for persons with mental retardation or related conditions, and other facilities licensed to provide residential services to persons with developmental disabilities.
The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(a) "Agency" means the Pollution Control Agency.
(b) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the transfer of possession of hazardous waste, with or without consideration.
(c) "Dispose" or "disposal" has the meaning given it in section 115A.03, subdivision 9.
(d) "Hazardous air pollutant" means an air pollutant listed under United States Code, title 42, section 7412(b).
(e) "Hazardous waste" means any waste identified as hazardous under the authority of section 116.07, subdivision 4, except for those wastes exempted under Minnesota Rules, part 7045.0120, wastes generated under Minnesota Rules, part 7045.0213 or 7045.0304, and household appliances.
(f) "Permit" means a permit issued by the Pollution Control Agency under chapter 115 or 116 or the rules promulgated under those chapters including interim status for hazardous waste facilities.
(g) "Solid waste" has the meaning given in section 116.06, subdivision 22.
(h) "Toxic pollutant" means a toxic pollutant on the list established under United States Code, title 33, section 1317.
(a) An act against a vulnerable adult that constitutes a violation of, an attempt to violate, or aiding and abetting a violation of:
(1) assault in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections 609.221 to 609.224;
(2) the use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime as defined in section 609.235;
(3) the solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution as defined in section 609.322; and
(4) criminal sexual conduct in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections 609.342 to 609.3451.
A violation includes any action that meets the elements of the crime, regardless of whether there is a criminal proceeding or conviction.
(b) Conduct which is not an accident or therapeutic conduct as defined in this section, which produces or could reasonably be expected to produce physical pain or injury or emotional distress including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) hitting, slapping, kicking, pinching, biting, or corporal punishment of a vulnerable adult;
(2) use of repeated or malicious oral, written, or gestured language toward a vulnerable adult or the treatment of a vulnerable adult which would be considered by a reasonable person to be disparaging, derogatory, humiliating, harassing, or threatening;
(3) use of any aversive or deprivation procedure, unreasonable confinement, or involuntary seclusion, including the forced separation of the vulnerable adult from other persons against the will of the vulnerable adult or the legal representative of the vulnerable adult; and
(4) use of any aversive or deprivation procedures for persons with developmental disabilities or related conditions not authorized under section 245.825.
(c) Any sexual contact or penetration as defined in section 609.341, between a facility staff person or a person providing services in the facility and a resident, patient, or client of that facility.
(d) The act of forcing, compelling, coercing, or enticing a vulnerable adult against the vulnerable adult's will to perform services for the advantage of another.
(e) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult under sections 144.651, 144A.44, chapter 145B, 145C or 252A, or section 253B.03 or 525.539 to 525.6199, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult or, where permitted under law, to provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation. This paragraph does not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:
(1) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or
(2) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct.
(f) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult.
(g) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason that the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with:
(1) a person, including a facility staff person, when a consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or
(2) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship.
Section 1. TABLE OF ORIGINAL AND ADJUSTED AUTHORIZATIONS.
Column A lists the citation to each law authorizing general obligation bonds since Laws 1983, chapter 323, section 6, to which a further adjustment is being made in this section.
The original authorization amount in each law is shown in column B opposite the citation of the law it appears in.
The original authorization amount in column B is hereby adjusted to the amount shown in column C. The adjustments resulting in the column C amount reflect specific changes to an authorization in law, executive vetoes sustained or not challenged, administrative action reflecting cancellation and abandonment of all or the unused balance from specific projects for which the proceeds of authorized bonds were intended to be used, and other action pursuant to law resulting in the adjusted authorizations shown in column C. The amounts shown in column C are validated as the lawful adjusted authorization for the cited law as of February 1, 2005, for all purposes for which the authorization is required or used.
|Column A||Column B||Column C|
|L 1983, c 323, s 6||$ 30,000,000||$ 29,935,000|
|L 1987, c 400, s 25, subd 1||370,972,200||369,560,500|
|L 1987, c 400, s 25, subd 5||66,747,000||66,740,000|
|L 1989, c 300, art 1, s 23, subd 1||142,585,000||135,060,000|
|L 1991, c 354, art 11, s 2, subd 1||12,000,000||11,360,000|
|L 1992, c 558, s 28, subd 1||231,695,000||219,085,000|
|L 1992, c 558, s 28, subd 3||17,500,000||17,368,000|
|L 1993, c 373, s 19, subd 1||54,640,000||53,355,000|
|L 1993, c 373, s 19, subd 2||9,900,000||9,480,000|
|L 1994, c 643, s 31, subd 1||573,385,000||564,650,523|
|L 1994, c 643, s 31, subd 2||45,000,000||34,820,000|
|L 1995, 1SS c 2, s 14, subd 1||5,630,000||5,590,000|
|L 1996, c 463, s 27, subd 1||597,110,000||549,302,898|
|L 1997, c 246, s 10, subd 1||86,625,000||86,192,000|
|L 1997, 2SS c 2, s 12||55,305,000||38,308,054|
|L 1998, c 404, s 27, subd 1||463,795,000||104,478,674|
|L 1999, c 240, art 1, s 13, subd 1||139,510,000||111,905,000|
|L 1999, c 240, art 1, s 13, subd 2||10,440,000||- 0 -|
|L 1999, c 240, art 2, s 16, subd 1||372,400,000||367,418,000|
|L 2000, c 492, art 1, s 26, subd 1||426,870,000||487,730,000|
|L 2001, 1SS c 12, s 11, subd 1||99,205,000||98,205,000|
|L 2002, c 393, s 30, subd 1||920,235,000||567,312,000|
Sec. 95. REMEDIATION FOR CONVICTIONS.
A court in which a conviction for an offense referred to in section 101 occurred, must vacate the conviction, on its own motion, without cost to the person convicted, and must immediately notify the commissioner of public safety. The commissioner must then notify the person convicted that the conviction has been vacated and that the person's driving record has been purged of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 169.796, subdivision 3, or any other related suspension or violation, including driving after license suspension, for failure to comply with that subdivision.
Presented to the governor May 15, 2006
Signed by the governor May 18, 2006, 7:15 p.m.
Official Publication of the State of Minnesota
Revisor of Statutes