SF 4612
CCR-SF4612 - 94th Legislature (2025 - 2026)
Posted on 05/17/2026 08:00 p.m.
2.35 2.36
2.37 2.38 2.39 2.40 2.41 2.42 2.43 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9 3.10 3.11 3.12 3.13 3.14 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.19 3.20 3.21 3.22 3.23 3.24 3.25
3.26 3.27 3.28 3.29 3.30 3.31 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.8 4.9 4.10 4.11 4.12 4.13 4.14 4.15 4.16 4.17 4.18
4.19 4.20 4.21 4.22 4.23 4.24 4.25 4.26 4.27 4.28 4.29 4.30 4.31
5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9 5.10 5.11 5.12
5.13 5.14 5.15
5.16 5.17 5.18 5.19 5.20 5.21 5.22 5.23 5.24 5.25 5.26 5.27 5.28 5.29 5.30 5.31 5.32 6.1 6.2
6.3 6.4 6.5 6.6 6.7
6.8 6.9 6.10 6.11 6.12 6.13 6.14 6.15
6.16 6.17 6.18 6.19 6.20 6.21 6.22 6.23 6.24 6.25 6.26 6.27 6.28 6.29 6.30 7.1 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.5 7.6 7.7 7.8 7.9 7.10 7.11 7.12 7.13 7.14
7.15 7.16 7.17 7.18 7.19 7.20 7.21 7.22 7.23 7.24 7.25 7.26 7.27 7.28 7.29 7.30 7.31 7.32 8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.11 8.12 8.13 8.14 8.15 8.16 8.17 8.18 8.19 8.20 8.21 8.22 8.23
8.24 8.25 8.26 8.27 8.28 8.29 8.30 8.31 8.32 9.1 9.2 9.3 9.4 9.5 9.6 9.7 9.8 9.9 9.10 9.11 9.12 9.13 9.14 9.15 9.16 9.17 9.18 9.19
9.20 9.21 9.22 9.23 9.24 9.25 9.26 9.27 9.28 9.29 9.30 9.31 9.32 10.1 10.2 10.3 10.4 10.5 10.6 10.7 10.8 10.9 10.10 10.11 10.12 10.13 10.14 10.15 10.16 10.17 10.18 10.19 10.20 10.21 10.22 10.23 10.24 10.25 10.26 10.27 10.28 10.29 10.30 11.1 11.2 11.3 11.4 11.5 11.6
11.7 11.8 11.9 11.10 11.11 11.12 11.13 11.14 11.15 11.16 11.17 11.18 11.19
11.20 11.21 11.22 11.23 11.24 11.25 11.26 11.27 11.28 11.29 11.30 12.1 12.2 12.3 12.4 12.5 12.6 12.7 12.8 12.9 12.10 12.11 12.12 12.13 12.14 12.15 12.16 12.17
12.18 12.19 12.20 12.21 12.22 12.23 12.24 12.25 12.26 12.27 12.28 12.29 12.30 12.31 13.1 13.2 13.3 13.4 13.5 13.6 13.7 13.8 13.9 13.10 13.11 13.12
13.13 13.14 13.15 13.16 13.17 13.18 13.19 13.20 13.21 13.22 13.23 13.24 13.25 13.26 13.27 13.28 13.29 13.30 13.31 13.32 13.33 14.1 14.2 14.3
14.4 14.5 14.6 14.7 14.8 14.9 14.10 14.11 14.12 14.13 14.14 14.15 14.16 14.17 14.18 14.19 14.20 14.21 14.22 14.23 14.24 14.25 14.26 14.27 14.28 14.29 14.30 14.31 14.32 14.33 15.1 15.2 15.3 15.4 15.5 15.6
15.7 15.8 15.9 15.10 15.11 15.12 15.13 15.14 15.15 15.16
15.17 15.18 15.19 15.20 15.21 15.22 15.23 15.24 15.25 15.26 15.27 15.28 15.29 15.30 15.31 16.1 16.2 16.3 16.4 16.5 16.6 16.7 16.8 16.9 16.10 16.11 16.12 16.13 16.14 16.15 16.16 16.17 16.18 16.19 16.20 16.21 16.22 16.23 16.24 16.25 16.26 16.27 16.28 16.29 16.30 16.31
17.1 17.2 17.3 17.4 17.5 17.6 17.7 17.8 17.9 17.10 17.11 17.12 17.13 17.14 17.15 17.16 17.17 17.18 17.19 17.20 17.21 17.22 17.23 17.24 17.25 17.26 17.27 17.28 17.29 17.30 17.31 17.32 17.33 18.1 18.2 18.3 18.4 18.5 18.6 18.7 18.8 18.9 18.10 18.11 18.12 18.13 18.14 18.15 18.16 18.17 18.18 18.19 18.20 18.21
18.22 18.23 18.24 18.25 18.26 18.27 18.28 18.29 18.30 19.1 19.2 19.3 19.4 19.5 19.6 19.7 19.8 19.9 19.10
19.11 19.12 19.13 19.14 19.15 19.16 19.17 19.18 19.19 19.20 19.21 19.22 19.23 19.24 19.25 19.26 19.27 19.28 19.29 19.30 19.31 19.32 19.33 20.1 20.2 20.3 20.4 20.5 20.6 20.7 20.8 20.9
20.10 20.11 20.12 20.13 20.14 20.15 20.16 20.17 20.18 20.19 20.20 20.21 20.22 20.23 20.24 20.25 20.26 20.27 20.28 20.29 20.30 20.31 21.1 21.2 21.3
21.4 21.5 21.6 21.7 21.8 21.9 21.10 21.11 21.12 21.13 21.14
21.15 21.16 21.17 21.18 21.19
21.20 21.21 21.22 21.23 21.24 21.25 21.26
21.27 21.28 21.29 21.30 21.31 22.1 22.2 22.3 22.4 22.5 22.6 22.7 22.8 22.9 22.10
22.11 22.12 22.13 22.14 22.15 22.16 22.17 22.18 22.19 22.20 22.21 22.22 22.23 22.24 22.25 22.26 22.27 22.28 22.29 22.30 22.31 22.32 22.33 23.1 23.2 23.3 23.4 23.5 23.6 23.7 23.8 23.9 23.10 23.11 23.12 23.13 23.14 23.15 23.16 23.17 23.18 23.19 23.20 23.21
23.22 23.23 23.24 23.25
23.26 23.27 23.28 23.29 23.30 23.31 23.32 24.1 24.2 24.3 24.4 24.5 24.6 24.7 24.8 24.9 24.10 24.11 24.12 24.13 24.14 24.15 24.16 24.17 24.18 24.19 24.20 24.21 24.22 24.23 24.24 24.25 24.26 24.27 24.28 24.29 24.30 24.31 24.32 24.33 25.1 25.2 25.3 25.4 25.5 25.6 25.7 25.8 25.9 25.10 25.11 25.12 25.13 25.14 25.15 25.16 25.17 25.18 25.19 25.20 25.21 25.22 25.23 25.24 25.25 25.26 25.27 25.28 25.29 25.30 25.31 26.1 26.2 26.3 26.4 26.5 26.6 26.7 26.8 26.9 26.10 26.11 26.12 26.13 26.14 26.15 26.16 26.17 26.18 26.19 26.20 26.21 26.22 26.23 26.24 26.25 26.26 26.27 26.28 26.29 26.30 26.31 26.32 26.33 27.1 27.2 27.3 27.4 27.5 27.6 27.7 27.8 27.9 27.10 27.11 27.12 27.13 27.14 27.15 27.16 27.17 27.18 27.19 27.20 27.21 27.22 27.23 27.24 27.25 27.26 27.27 27.28 27.29 27.30 27.31 27.32 28.1 28.2 28.3 28.4 28.5 28.6 28.7 28.8 28.9 28.10 28.11 28.12 28.13 28.14 28.15 28.16 28.17 28.18 28.19 28.20 28.21 28.22 28.23 28.24 28.25 28.26 28.27 28.28 28.29 28.30 28.31 28.32 28.33 28.34 29.1 29.2 29.3 29.4 29.5 29.6 29.7 29.8 29.9 29.10 29.11 29.12 29.13 29.14 29.15 29.16 29.17 29.18 29.19 29.20 29.21 29.22 29.23 29.24 29.25 29.26 29.27 29.28 29.29 29.30 29.31 29.32 29.33 29.34 29.35 30.1 30.2 30.3 30.4 30.5 30.6
30.7
30.8 30.9 30.10 30.11 30.12 30.13 30.14 30.15
30.16 30.17 30.18 30.19 30.20 30.21 30.22 30.23 30.24 30.25 30.26 30.27 30.28 30.29 30.30 31.1 31.2 31.3 31.4 31.5 31.6 31.7 31.8 31.9 31.10 31.11 31.12 31.13 31.14 31.15 31.16 31.17 31.18 31.19 31.20 31.21 31.22 31.23 31.24
31.25 31.26 31.27 31.28 31.29 31.30 31.31
32.1 32.2 32.3 32.4 32.5 32.6 32.7 32.8
32.9 32.10 32.11 32.12 32.13 32.14 32.15 32.16 32.17 32.18 32.19 32.20 32.21 32.22 32.23 32.24
32.25 32.26 32.27 32.28 32.29 32.30 32.31 33.1 33.2
33.3 33.4 33.5 33.6 33.7
33.8 33.9 33.10 33.11 33.12 33.13 33.14 33.15 33.16 33.17
33.18 33.19 33.20 33.21 33.22 33.23 33.24 33.25 33.26
33.27 33.28 33.29 33.30 34.1 34.2 34.3 34.4 34.5 34.6 34.7 34.8 34.9 34.10 34.11 34.12 34.13 34.14 34.15 34.16 34.17
34.18 34.19 34.20 34.21 34.22 34.23 34.24 34.25 34.26 34.27 34.28 34.29 34.30 34.31 34.32
35.1 35.2 35.3 35.4 35.5 35.6 35.7 35.8 35.9 35.10 35.11
35.12 35.13 35.14 35.15
35.16 35.17 35.18
35.19 35.20
35.21 35.22 35.23 35.24 35.25 35.26 35.27 35.28 35.29 35.30 36.1 36.2 36.3 36.4 36.5 36.6 36.7 36.8 36.9 36.10 36.11 36.12 36.13 36.14 36.15 36.16 36.17 36.18 36.19
36.20 36.21 36.22 36.23 36.24
36.25 36.26 36.27 36.28 36.29 36.30 36.31
37.1 37.2 37.3
37.4 37.5 37.6 37.7
37.8 37.9 37.10 37.11
37.12 37.13 37.14 37.15 37.16 37.17
37.18 37.19 37.20 37.21 37.22 37.23 37.24 37.25 37.26 37.27 37.28 37.29 37.30 38.1 38.2
38.3 38.4 38.5 38.6 38.7 38.8 38.9 38.10 38.11 38.12 38.13 38.14 38.15
38.16 38.17 38.18 38.19 38.20 38.21 38.22 38.23 38.24 38.25 38.26 38.27 38.28 38.29 38.30 39.1 39.2 39.3 39.4 39.5
39.6 39.7 39.8 39.9
39.10 39.11 39.12 39.13 39.14 39.15 39.16 39.17
39.18 39.19 39.20 39.21 39.22 39.23 39.24 39.25 39.26 39.27 39.28 39.29 39.30 39.31 40.1 40.2 40.3 40.4 40.5 40.6 40.7 40.8 40.9 40.10 40.11 40.12 40.13 40.14 40.15 40.16 40.17 40.18 40.19 40.20 40.21 40.22 40.23 40.24 40.25 40.26 40.27 40.28 40.29 40.30 40.31 41.1 41.2 41.3 41.4 41.5 41.6 41.7 41.8 41.9 41.10 41.11 41.12 41.13 41.14 41.15 41.16 41.17 41.18 41.19 41.20 41.21 41.22 41.23 41.24 41.25 41.26 41.27 41.28 41.29 41.30 41.31 41.32 42.1 42.2 42.3 42.4 42.5 42.6 42.7 42.8 42.9 42.10 42.11 42.12 42.13 42.14 42.15 42.16 42.17 42.18 42.19 42.20 42.21 42.22 42.23 42.24 42.25 42.26 42.27 42.28 42.29 42.30
43.1 43.2 43.3 43.4 43.5 43.6 43.7 43.8
43.9 43.10 43.11 43.12 43.13 43.14 43.15 43.16 43.17 43.18 43.19
43.20 43.21 43.22 43.23 43.24 43.25 43.26 43.27 43.28
44.1 44.2 44.3 44.4 44.5 44.6 44.7
44.8 44.9
44.10 44.11
44.12 44.13 44.14 44.15 44.16 44.17 44.18
44.19
44.20 44.21 44.22 44.23 44.24 44.25
44.26
45.1 45.2 45.3 45.4 45.5 45.6 45.7 45.8 45.9 45.10 45.11 45.12 45.13 45.14 45.15 45.16 45.17 45.18 45.19 45.20 45.21 45.22 45.23 45.24
45.25
45.26 45.27 45.28 45.29 45.30 45.31 45.32 45.33 46.1 46.2 46.3 46.4 46.5 46.6 46.7 46.8 46.9 46.10 46.11 46.12 46.13 46.14 46.15 46.16 46.17 46.18
46.19
46.20 46.21 46.22 46.23 46.24 46.25 46.26 46.27 46.28 46.29 46.30 46.31 46.32 46.33 47.1 47.2 47.3 47.4 47.5 47.6 47.7 47.8 47.9 47.10 47.11
47.12
47.13 47.14 47.15 47.16 47.17 47.18 47.19 47.20 47.21 47.22 47.23 47.24 47.25 47.26 47.27 47.28 47.29 47.30 47.31 47.32 48.1 48.2 48.3 48.4 48.5 48.6 48.7 48.8 48.9 48.10 48.11 48.12 48.13 48.14 48.15 48.16 48.17 48.18 48.19 48.20 48.21 48.22 48.23 48.24 48.25
48.26
48.27 48.28 48.29 48.30 48.31 48.32 48.33
49.1
49.2 49.3 49.4 49.5 49.6 49.7 49.8 49.9 49.10 49.11 49.12 49.13 49.14 49.15 49.16 49.17 49.18
49.19
49.20 49.21 49.22 49.23 49.24 49.25 49.26 49.27 49.28
49.29
49.30 49.31 49.32 50.1 50.2 50.3 50.4 50.5 50.6 50.7
50.8 50.9 50.10 50.11 50.12 50.13 50.14 50.15 50.16 50.17 50.18 50.19 50.20 50.21 50.22 50.23 50.24 50.25
50.26 50.27 50.28 50.29 50.30 51.1 51.2 51.3 51.4 51.5 51.6 51.7 51.8 51.9 51.10 51.11 51.12 51.13 51.14 51.15 51.16 51.17 51.18 51.19 51.20 51.21 51.22 51.23 51.24 51.25 51.26 51.27 51.28 51.29 51.30 51.31 51.32 51.33 51.34 51.35 52.1 52.2 52.3 52.4 52.5 52.6 52.7 52.8 52.9 52.10 52.11 52.12 52.13 52.14 52.15 52.16 52.17 52.18 52.19 52.20 52.21 52.22 52.23 52.24 52.25 52.26 52.27 52.28 52.29 52.30 52.31 52.32 52.33 53.1 53.2 53.3 53.4 53.5 53.6 53.7 53.8 53.9 53.10 53.11 53.12 53.13 53.14 53.15 53.16 53.17 53.18 53.19 53.20 53.21 53.22 53.23 53.24 53.25 53.26 53.27 53.28 53.29 53.30 53.31 53.32 53.33 53.34 54.1 54.2 54.3 54.4 54.5 54.6 54.7 54.8 54.9 54.10 54.11 54.12 54.13 54.14 54.15 54.16 54.17 54.18 54.19 54.20 54.21 54.22 54.23 54.24 54.25 54.26 54.27 54.28 54.29 54.30 54.31 54.32 54.33 54.34 55.1 55.2 55.3 55.4 55.5 55.6 55.7 55.8 55.9 55.10 55.11 55.12 55.13
55.14
55.15 55.16 55.17 55.18 55.19 55.20 55.21 55.22 55.23 55.24 55.25 55.26 55.27 55.28 55.29 55.30 55.31 55.32 55.33 56.1 56.2 56.3 56.4 56.5 56.6 56.7 56.8 56.9 56.10 56.11
56.12
56.13 56.14 56.15 56.16 56.17 56.18 56.19 56.20 56.21
56.22
56.23 56.24 56.25 56.26 56.27 56.28 56.29 56.30 56.31 57.1 57.2 57.3 57.4 57.5 57.6 57.7 57.8 57.9 57.10 57.11 57.12 57.13 57.14 57.15 57.16 57.17 57.18 57.19 57.20 57.21 57.22 57.23 57.24 57.25 57.26 57.27 57.28 57.29 57.30 58.1 58.2 58.3 58.4 58.5 58.6 58.7 58.8 58.9 58.10 58.11 58.12 58.13 58.14 58.15 58.16 58.17 58.18 58.19 58.20 58.21 58.22 58.23 58.24 58.25 58.26 58.27 58.28 58.29 58.30 58.31 58.32 59.1 59.2 59.3 59.4 59.5 59.6 59.7 59.8 59.9 59.10 59.11 59.12 59.13 59.14 59.15 59.16 59.17 59.18 59.19 59.20 59.21 59.22 59.23 59.24
59.25 59.26 59.27 59.28 59.29 59.30 59.31 60.1 60.2
60.3 60.4 60.5 60.6 60.7 60.8 60.9 60.10 60.11 60.12 60.13 60.14 60.15 60.16 60.17 60.18 60.19 60.20 60.21 60.22 60.23 60.24 60.25 60.26 60.27 60.28 60.29 60.30 60.31 61.1 61.2 61.3 61.4 61.5 61.6 61.7 61.8 61.9 61.10 61.11
61.12
61.13 61.14 61.15 61.16 61.17 61.18 61.19 61.20 61.21 61.22 61.23 61.24 61.25 61.26 61.27 61.28 61.29 61.30 62.1 62.2 62.3 62.4 62.5 62.6 62.7 62.8 62.9 62.10 62.11 62.12 62.13 62.14 62.15 62.16 62.17 62.18 62.19 62.20 62.21 62.22 62.23 62.24 62.25 62.26 62.27 62.28 62.29 62.30 62.31 63.1 63.2 63.3 63.4 63.5 63.6 63.7 63.8 63.9 63.10 63.11 63.12 63.13 63.14 63.15 63.16 63.17 63.18 63.19 63.20 63.21 63.22 63.23 63.24 63.25 63.26 63.27 63.28 63.29 63.30 64.1 64.2 64.3 64.4 64.5 64.6 64.7 64.8 64.9 64.10 64.11 64.12 64.13 64.14 64.15 64.16 64.17 64.18 64.19 64.20 64.21
64.22 64.23
64.24 64.25 64.26 64.27 64.28 64.29 64.30 64.31 65.1 65.2 65.3 65.4 65.5 65.6 65.7 65.8 65.9 65.10 65.11 65.12 65.13 65.14 65.15 65.16 65.17 65.18 65.19 65.20 65.21 65.22 65.23 65.24 65.25 65.26 65.27 65.28 65.29 65.30 65.31 65.32 66.1 66.2 66.3 66.4 66.5 66.6 66.7 66.8 66.9 66.10 66.11 66.12 66.13 66.14 66.15 66.16 66.17 66.18 66.19 66.20 66.21 66.22 66.23 66.24 66.25 66.26 66.27 66.28 66.29 66.30 66.31 66.32 66.33 67.1 67.2 67.3
67.4 67.5 67.6 67.7 67.8 67.9
67.10 67.11 67.12 67.13 67.14 67.15 67.16
67.17 67.18 67.19 67.20 67.21 67.22 67.23 67.24 67.25
67.26 67.27 67.28 67.29 67.30 68.1 68.2 68.3 68.4 68.5 68.6 68.7 68.8 68.9 68.10 68.11 68.12 68.13 68.14 68.15 68.16 68.17 68.18 68.19 68.20 68.21 68.22 68.23 68.24 68.25 68.26 68.27 68.28 68.29 68.30 69.1 69.2 69.3 69.4 69.5 69.6 69.7 69.8 69.9 69.10 69.11 69.12 69.13 69.14 69.15 69.16 69.17 69.18 69.19 69.20 69.21 69.22 69.23 69.24 69.25 69.26 69.27 69.28 69.29 69.30 69.31 69.32 69.33 70.1 70.2
70.3 70.4 70.5 70.6 70.7 70.8 70.9 70.10
70.11 70.12 70.13 70.14 70.15 70.16 70.17 70.18 70.19 70.20 70.21 70.22 70.23 70.24 70.25 70.26 70.27 70.28 70.29 71.1 71.2 71.3 71.4 71.5 71.6 71.7 71.8 71.9 71.10 71.11 71.12 71.13 71.14 71.15 71.16 71.17 71.18 71.19 71.20 71.21 71.22 71.23 71.24 71.25 71.26 71.27 71.28 71.29 71.30 71.31 72.1 72.2 72.3 72.4 72.5 72.6 72.7 72.8 72.9 72.10 72.11 72.12
72.13 72.14 72.15 72.16 72.17 72.18 72.19 72.20 72.21 72.22 72.23 72.24 72.25 72.26 72.27 72.28 72.29 72.30 72.31 72.32 73.1 73.2 73.3 73.4 73.5 73.6 73.7 73.8 73.9 73.10 73.11 73.12 73.13 73.14 73.15 73.16 73.17 73.18 73.19 73.20 73.21 73.22
73.23 73.24 73.25 73.26 73.27 73.28 73.29 73.30 73.31 74.1 74.2 74.3 74.4 74.5 74.6 74.7 74.8 74.9 74.10 74.11 74.12 74.13 74.14
74.15 74.16 74.17 74.18 74.19 74.20 74.21 74.22 74.23 74.24
74.25 74.26 74.27 74.28 74.29 74.30 74.31 75.1 75.2 75.3 75.4 75.5 75.6 75.7 75.8 75.9 75.10 75.11
75.12 75.13 75.14 75.15 75.16 75.17 75.18 75.19 75.20 75.21 75.22 75.23 75.24 75.25 75.26 75.27 75.28
76.1 76.2 76.3 76.4 76.5 76.6 76.7 76.8 76.9 76.10 76.11 76.12 76.13 76.14 76.15 76.16 76.17 76.18 76.19 76.20
76.21 76.22 76.23 76.24 76.25 76.26 76.27 76.28 76.29 76.30 76.31 76.32 77.1 77.2 77.3 77.4 77.5 77.6 77.7
77.8 77.9 77.10 77.11 77.12
77.13 77.14 77.15 77.16 77.17 77.18 77.19 77.20 77.21 77.22 77.23 77.24 77.25 77.26 77.27 77.28 77.29 77.30 77.31 77.32 78.1 78.2 78.3 78.4 78.5 78.6 78.7 78.8 78.9 78.10 78.11 78.12 78.13 78.14 78.15 78.16 78.17
78.18 78.19 78.20 78.21 78.22 78.23 78.24 78.25 78.26 78.27 78.28 78.29
79.1 79.2 79.3 79.4 79.5 79.6 79.7 79.8 79.9 79.10 79.11 79.12 79.13 79.14 79.15 79.16 79.17 79.18 79.19 79.20 79.21
79.22 79.23 79.24 79.25 79.26 79.27 79.28 79.29 79.30 79.31 79.32 80.1 80.2 80.3 80.4 80.5 80.6 80.7 80.8 80.9 80.10 80.11 80.12 80.13 80.14 80.15 80.16
80.17 80.18 80.19 80.20 80.21 80.22 80.23 80.24 80.25 80.26 80.27 80.28 80.29
80.30
81.1 81.2 81.3 81.4
81.5
81.6 81.7 81.8 81.9 81.10 81.11 81.12 81.13 81.14 81.15 81.16 81.17 81.18 81.19 81.20 81.21 81.22 81.23 81.24 81.25 81.26 81.27 81.28 81.29 81.30 82.1 82.2 82.3 82.4 82.5 82.6 82.7 82.8 82.9 82.10 82.11 82.12 82.13 82.14 82.15 82.16 82.17 82.18 82.19 82.20 82.21 82.22 82.23 82.24 82.25 82.26 82.27 82.28 82.29 82.30 82.31 82.32 82.33
83.1 83.2 83.3 83.4 83.5 83.6 83.7 83.8 83.9 83.10 83.11 83.12 83.13 83.14 83.15 83.16 83.17 83.18 83.19 83.20 83.21 83.22 83.23 83.24 83.25 83.26 83.27 83.28 83.29 83.30 83.31 84.1 84.2 84.3 84.4 84.5 84.6 84.7 84.8 84.9 84.10 84.11 84.12 84.13 84.14 84.15
84.16 84.17 84.18 84.19 84.20 84.21 84.22 84.23 84.24 84.26 84.25 84.28 84.27 84.29
84.30 84.31 84.32 84.33
85.1 85.2
85.3 85.4 85.5 85.6 85.7 85.8 85.9 85.10 85.11 85.12 85.13 85.14 85.15 85.16 85.17 85.18 85.19 85.20 85.21 85.22 85.23 85.24 85.25 85.26 85.27 85.28 85.29
86.1 86.2 86.3 86.4 86.5 86.6 86.7 86.8 86.9 86.10 86.11 86.12 86.13 86.14 86.15 86.16 86.17 86.18 86.19 86.20 86.21 86.22 86.23 86.24 86.25 86.26 86.27 86.28 86.29 86.30 86.31 86.32 86.33 87.1 87.2 87.3 87.4 87.5 87.6 87.7 87.8 87.9 87.10 87.11 87.12
87.13
87.14 87.15 87.16 87.17 87.18 87.19 87.20 87.21 87.22 87.23 87.24 87.25 87.26 87.27 87.28 87.29 87.30 88.1 88.2 88.3 88.4 88.5 88.6 88.7 88.8 88.9 88.10 88.11 88.12 88.13 88.14 88.15 88.16 88.17 88.18 88.19 88.20 88.21 88.22 88.23 88.24 88.25 88.26 88.27 88.28 88.29 88.30 88.31 89.1 89.2 89.3 89.4 89.5 89.6 89.7 89.8 89.9 89.10 89.11 89.12 89.13 89.14 89.15 89.16 89.17 89.18 89.19 89.20 89.21 89.22 89.23 89.24 89.25 89.26 89.27 89.28 89.29 89.30 89.31 90.1 90.2 90.3 90.4 90.5 90.6 90.7 90.8 90.9 90.10 90.11 90.12 90.13 90.14 90.15 90.16 90.17 90.18 90.19 90.20 90.21 90.22 90.23 90.24 90.25 90.26 90.27 90.28 90.29 90.30 90.31 90.32 91.1 91.2 91.3 91.4 91.5 91.6
91.7 91.8
91.9 91.10 91.11 91.12 91.13 91.14 91.15 91.16 91.17 91.18 91.19 91.20 91.21 91.22 91.23 91.24 91.25 91.26 91.27 91.28 91.29 91.30 91.31 91.32 92.1 92.2 92.3 92.4 92.5 92.6 92.7 92.8 92.9 92.10 92.11 92.12 92.13 92.14 92.15 92.16 92.17 92.18 92.19 92.20 92.21 92.22 92.23 92.24 92.25 92.26 92.27 92.28 92.29 92.30 92.31 93.1 93.2 93.3 93.4 93.5 93.6 93.7 93.8 93.9 93.10 93.11 93.12 93.13 93.14 93.15 93.16 93.17 93.18 93.19 93.20 93.21 93.22 93.23 93.24 93.25 93.26 93.27 93.28 93.29 93.30 93.31 93.32 93.33 93.34 94.1 94.2 94.3 94.4 94.5 94.6 94.7 94.8 94.9 94.10 94.11 94.12 94.13 94.14 94.15 94.16 94.17 94.18 94.19 94.20 94.21 94.22 94.23 94.24 94.25 94.26 94.27 94.28 94.29 94.30 94.31 94.32 94.33 95.1 95.2 95.3 95.4 95.5 95.6 95.7 95.8 95.9 95.10 95.11 95.12 95.13 95.14
95.15 95.16 95.17 95.18 95.19 95.20 95.21 95.22 95.23 95.24 95.25 95.26 95.27 95.28 95.29 95.30 95.31 95.32 95.33 95.34
96.1 96.2
96.3 96.4 96.5 96.6 96.7 96.8 96.9 96.10 96.11 96.12 96.13 96.14 96.15 96.16 96.17 96.18 96.19 96.20 96.21 96.22
96.23 96.24 96.25 96.26 96.27 96.28 96.29 96.30 97.1 97.2 97.3 97.4 97.5 97.6 97.7
97.8
97.9 97.10 97.11 97.12 97.13 97.14 97.15 97.16 97.17 97.18 97.19 97.20 97.21 97.22 97.23 97.24 97.25 97.26 97.27
97.28
98.1 98.2 98.3 98.4 98.5 98.6 98.7 98.8 98.9 98.10 98.11 98.12 98.13 98.14 98.15 98.16 98.17 98.18 98.19 98.20 98.21 98.22 98.23 98.24
98.25 98.26 98.27 98.28 98.29 98.30 98.31 98.32 98.33 99.1 99.2 99.3 99.4 99.5 99.6 99.7 99.8 99.9 99.10 99.11 99.12 99.13 99.14 99.15 99.16 99.17 99.18 99.19 99.20 99.21 99.22 99.23 99.24 99.25 99.26 99.27 99.28 99.29 99.30 99.31 99.32 100.1 100.2
100.3
100.4 100.5 100.6 100.7 100.8 100.9 100.10 100.11 100.12 100.13 100.14 100.15 100.16 100.17 100.18 100.19 100.20 100.21 100.22 100.23 100.24 100.25 100.26 100.27 100.28 100.29 100.30 100.31 100.32 101.1 101.2 101.3 101.4 101.5 101.6 101.7
101.8
101.9 101.10 101.11 101.12 101.13 101.14 101.15 101.16 101.17 101.18 101.19 101.20 101.21 101.22 101.23 101.24 101.25 101.26 101.27 101.28 101.29 101.30 101.31 101.32 101.33 102.1 102.2 102.3 102.4 102.5 102.6 102.7 102.8 102.9 102.10 102.11 102.12 102.13 102.14 102.15 102.16 102.17 102.18 102.19 102.20 102.21 102.22 102.23 102.24 102.25 102.26 102.27 102.28 102.29 102.30 102.31 102.32 102.33 102.34 103.1 103.2 103.3 103.4
103.5 103.6 103.7 103.8 103.9 103.10 103.11 103.12 103.13 103.14 103.15 103.16 103.17 103.18 103.19 103.20 103.21 103.22 103.23
103.24
103.25 103.26 103.27 103.28 103.29 103.30 103.31 103.32 104.1 104.2 104.3 104.4 104.5 104.6 104.7 104.8 104.9 104.10 104.11 104.12 104.13 104.14 104.15 104.16 104.17
104.18
104.19 104.20 104.21 104.22 104.23 104.24 104.25 104.26 104.27 104.28 104.29 104.30 104.31 104.32 104.33 105.1 105.2
105.3 105.4
105.5 105.6 105.7
105.8 105.9
105.10 105.11
105.12 105.13 105.14 105.15 105.16 105.17
105.18 105.19 105.20 105.21 105.22 105.23 105.24 105.25 105.26 105.27 105.28
105.29
106.1 106.2 106.3 106.4 106.5 106.6 106.7 106.8 106.9 106.10 106.11 106.12 106.13 106.14 106.15
106.16
106.17 106.18 106.19 106.20 106.21 106.22 106.23 106.24
106.25 106.26 106.27 106.28 106.29
107.1 107.2 107.3 107.4 107.5 107.6 107.7 107.8 107.9 107.10 107.11 107.12 107.13 107.14 107.15 107.16 107.17 107.18 107.19 107.20 107.21 107.22 107.23 107.24 107.25 107.26 107.27 107.28 107.29
107.30 107.31 107.32 108.1 108.2 108.3 108.4 108.5 108.6 108.7 108.8 108.9 108.10 108.11 108.12 108.13 108.14 108.15
108.16
108.17 108.18 108.19 108.20 108.21 108.22 108.23 108.24 108.25 108.26 108.27 108.28 108.29 108.30 108.31 108.32 109.1 109.2 109.3 109.4 109.5 109.6 109.7 109.8 109.9 109.10 109.11 109.12 109.13 109.14 109.15 109.16 109.17 109.18 109.19 109.20 109.21 109.22 109.23 109.24
109.25
109.26 109.27 109.28 109.29 109.30 110.1 110.2 110.3 110.4 110.5 110.6 110.7 110.8 110.9 110.10 110.11 110.12 110.13 110.14 110.15 110.16
110.17
110.18 110.19 110.20 110.21 110.22 110.23 110.24 110.25 110.26 110.27 110.28 110.29 110.30 110.31 110.32 111.1 111.2 111.3 111.4 111.5 111.6 111.7 111.8 111.9 111.10 111.11 111.12 111.13 111.14
111.15
111.16 111.17 111.18 111.19 111.20 111.21 111.22 111.23 111.24 111.25 111.26 111.27 111.28 111.29 111.30 112.1 112.2 112.3 112.4 112.5 112.6 112.7 112.8 112.9 112.10 112.11 112.12 112.13 112.14 112.15 112.16 112.17 112.18 112.19 112.20 112.21 112.22 112.23 112.24 112.25 112.26 112.27 112.28 112.29 112.30 112.31 112.32 112.33 113.1 113.2 113.3 113.4 113.5 113.6 113.7 113.8 113.9 113.10 113.11 113.12 113.13 113.14 113.15 113.16 113.17 113.18 113.19 113.20 113.21 113.22 113.23
113.24
113.25 113.26 113.27 113.28 114.1 114.2 114.3 114.4 114.5 114.6 114.7 114.8 114.9 114.10 114.11 114.12 114.13 114.14 114.15 114.16 114.17 114.18 114.19
114.20 114.21 114.22 114.23 114.24 114.25 114.26 114.27 114.28 114.29 114.30 114.31 114.32 115.1 115.2 115.3 115.4 115.5 115.6 115.7 115.8 115.9 115.10 115.11 115.12 115.13 115.14 115.15 115.16 115.17 115.18 115.19 115.20 115.21 115.22 115.23 115.24 115.25 115.26 115.27 115.28 115.29 115.30 115.31 115.32 116.1 116.2 116.3 116.4 116.5 116.6 116.7 116.8 116.9 116.10 116.11 116.12 116.13 116.14 116.15 116.16 116.17 116.18 116.19 116.20 116.21 116.22 116.23 116.24 116.25 116.26 116.27 116.28 116.29 116.30 116.31 117.1 117.2 117.3 117.4 117.5 117.6 117.7 117.8 117.9 117.10 117.11 117.12 117.13 117.14 117.15 117.16 117.17 117.18 117.19 117.20 117.21 117.22 117.23 117.24 117.25 117.26 117.27 117.28 117.29 117.30 118.1 118.2 118.3 118.4 118.5 118.6 118.7 118.8 118.9 118.10 118.11 118.12 118.13 118.14 118.15 118.16 118.17 118.18 118.19 118.20 118.21 118.22 118.23 118.24 118.25 118.26 118.27 118.28 118.29 118.30 119.1 119.2 119.3 119.4 119.5 119.6 119.7 119.8 119.9 119.10 119.11 119.12 119.13 119.14 119.15 119.16 119.17 119.18 119.19 119.20 119.21 119.22 119.23 119.24
119.25 119.26 119.27 119.28 119.29 119.30 119.31 119.32 120.1 120.2 120.3 120.4 120.5 120.6 120.7 120.8 120.9
120.10
120.11 120.12 120.13 120.14 120.15
120.16 120.17 120.18 120.19 120.20 120.21 120.22 120.23 120.24 120.25 120.26 120.27 120.28 120.29 120.30 120.31 121.1 121.2 121.3 121.4
121.5
121.6 121.7 121.8 121.9
121.10
121.11 121.12 121.13 121.14 121.15 121.16 121.17 121.18 121.19 121.20
121.21
121.22 121.23 121.24 121.25 121.26 121.27 121.28 121.29 121.30 122.1 122.2 122.3 122.4 122.5 122.6 122.7 122.8 122.9 122.10 122.11 122.12 122.13 122.14 122.15 122.16 122.17 122.18 122.19 122.20 122.21 122.22 122.23 122.24 122.25 122.26 122.27 122.28 122.29 122.30 122.31 122.32 123.1 123.2 123.3 123.4 123.5 123.6 123.7 123.8 123.9 123.10 123.11 123.12 123.13 123.14 123.15 123.16 123.17 123.18 123.19 123.20 123.21 123.22 123.23 123.24 123.25 123.26 123.27 123.28 123.29 123.30 123.31 123.32
124.1 124.2 124.3 124.4 124.5 124.6 124.7 124.8
124.9 124.10
124.11 124.12 124.13 124.14 124.15 124.16 124.17 124.18 124.19 124.20 124.21 124.22 124.23 124.24 124.25 124.26 124.27 124.28 124.29 124.30 124.31 124.32 124.33
125.1 125.2 125.3 125.4 125.5 125.6 125.7 125.8 125.9
125.10 125.11 125.12 125.13 125.14 125.15 125.16 125.17 125.18 125.19 125.20 125.21 125.22 125.23 125.24 125.25 125.26 125.27 125.28 125.29 125.30 125.31 125.32 125.33 126.1 126.2 126.3 126.4 126.5 126.6 126.7 126.8 126.9 126.10 126.11 126.12 126.13 126.14 126.15 126.16 126.17 126.18 126.19 126.20 126.21 126.22 126.23 126.24 126.25 126.26 126.27 126.28 126.29 126.30 126.31 126.32 126.33 127.1 127.2 127.3 127.4 127.5 127.6 127.7 127.8 127.9 127.10 127.11 127.12 127.13 127.14 127.15 127.16 127.17 127.18 127.19 127.20 127.21 127.22
127.23 127.24
127.25 127.26 127.27 127.28 127.29 127.30 127.31 127.32 128.1 128.2 128.3 128.4 128.5 128.6 128.7 128.8 128.9 128.10 128.11 128.12 128.13 128.14 128.15 128.16 128.17 128.18 128.19 128.20 128.21 128.22 128.23 128.24 128.25 128.26 128.27 128.28 128.29 128.30 128.31 128.32 129.1 129.2 129.3 129.4 129.5 129.6 129.7 129.8 129.9 129.10 129.11 129.12 129.13 129.14 129.15 129.16 129.17 129.18 129.19 129.20 129.21 129.22 129.23 129.24 129.25 129.26 129.27 129.28 129.29 129.30 129.31 129.32 129.33 130.1 130.2 130.3 130.4 130.5 130.6 130.7 130.8 130.9 130.10 130.11 130.12 130.13 130.14 130.15 130.16 130.17 130.18 130.19 130.20 130.21 130.22 130.23 130.24 130.25 130.26 130.27 130.28 130.29 130.30 130.31 131.1 131.2 131.3 131.4 131.5 131.6 131.7 131.8 131.9 131.10 131.11 131.12 131.13 131.14 131.15 131.16 131.17 131.18 131.19 131.20 131.21 131.22 131.23 131.24 131.25 131.26 131.27 131.28 131.29 131.30 131.31
132.1 132.2
132.3 132.4 132.5 132.6 132.7 132.8 132.9 132.10 132.11 132.12 132.13 132.14 132.15 132.16 132.17 132.18 132.19 132.20 132.21 132.22
132.23 132.24 132.25 132.26 132.27 132.28 132.29 132.30 132.31 133.1 133.2 133.3 133.4 133.5 133.6 133.7 133.8 133.9 133.10 133.11 133.12 133.13 133.14 133.15 133.16 133.17 133.18 133.19 133.20 133.21 133.22 133.23 133.24 133.25 133.26 133.27 133.28 133.29 133.30 133.31 133.32 133.33 134.1 134.2 134.3 134.4 134.5
134.6 134.7
134.8 134.9
134.10 134.11 134.12 134.13 134.14 134.15 134.16 134.17 134.18 134.19 134.20 134.21 134.22 134.23 134.24 134.25 134.26 134.27 134.28 134.29 134.30 134.31 134.32 134.33 135.1 135.2 135.3 135.4 135.5 135.6 135.7 135.8 135.9 135.10 135.11 135.12 135.13 135.14 135.15 135.16 135.17 135.18 135.19 135.20 135.21 135.22 135.23
135.24 135.25 135.26 135.27 135.28 135.29
135.30 135.31 135.32 135.33 135.34 136.1 136.2 136.3 136.4 136.5 136.6 136.7 136.8 136.9 136.10 136.11 136.12 136.13 136.14 136.15 136.16 136.17 136.18 136.19 136.20 136.21 136.22 136.23 136.24 136.25 136.26 136.27 136.28 136.29 136.30 136.31 136.32 136.33 137.1 137.2 137.3 137.4 137.5 137.6 137.7 137.8 137.9 137.10 137.11 137.12 137.13 137.14 137.15 137.16 137.17 137.18 137.19 137.20
137.21 137.22 137.23 137.24 137.25 137.26 137.27 137.28 137.29 137.30 137.31 137.32 137.33 137.34 138.1 138.2 138.3 138.4 138.5 138.6 138.7 138.8 138.9 138.10 138.11 138.12 138.13 138.14 138.15 138.16 138.17 138.18 138.19 138.20 138.21 138.22 138.23 138.24 138.25 138.26 138.27 138.28 138.29 138.30 138.31 138.32 138.33 138.34
139.1 139.2 139.3 139.4 139.5 139.6 139.7 139.8 139.9 139.10 139.11 139.12 139.13 139.14 139.15 139.16 139.17 139.18 139.19 139.20 139.21 139.22 139.23 139.24 139.25 139.26 139.27 139.28 139.29 139.30 139.31 139.32 139.33 139.34 140.1 140.2 140.3 140.4 140.5 140.6 140.7 140.8 140.9 140.10 140.11 140.12 140.13 140.14 140.15 140.16 140.17 140.18
140.19 140.20 140.21 140.22 140.23 140.24 140.25 140.26 140.27 140.28 140.29 140.30 140.31 140.32 141.1 141.2 141.3 141.4 141.5 141.6 141.7 141.8 141.9 141.10 141.11 141.12 141.13 141.14 141.15 141.16 141.17 141.18 141.19 141.20 141.21 141.22 141.23 141.24 141.25 141.26 141.27 141.28 141.29 141.30
142.1 142.2 142.3 142.4 142.5 142.6 142.7 142.8 142.9 142.10 142.11 142.12 142.13 142.14 142.15
142.16 142.17
142.18 142.19 142.20 142.21 142.22 142.23 142.24 142.25 142.26 142.27 142.28
143.1 143.2 143.3 143.4 143.5 143.6 143.7 143.8 143.9 143.10 143.11 143.12 143.13 143.14 143.15 143.16 143.17 143.18 143.19 143.20 143.21 143.22 143.23 143.24 143.25 143.26 143.27 143.28 143.29 143.30 143.31 143.32 144.1 144.2 144.3 144.4 144.5 144.6 144.7 144.8 144.9 144.10 144.11 144.12 144.13 144.14 144.15 144.16 144.17 144.18 144.19 144.20 144.21 144.22 144.23 144.24 144.25 144.26 144.27 144.28 144.29 144.30 145.1 145.2 145.3
145.4 145.5 145.6 145.7 145.8 145.9 145.10 145.11 145.12 145.13 145.14 145.15 145.16 145.17 145.18 145.19
145.20 145.21 145.22 145.23 145.24 145.25
145.26 145.27 145.28 145.29 145.30 145.31 146.1 146.2 146.3 146.4 146.5 146.6 146.7 146.8 146.9
146.10
146.11 146.12 146.13 146.14 146.15 146.16 146.17 146.18 146.19 146.20 146.21 146.22 146.23 146.24 146.25 146.26 146.27 146.28 146.29 146.30 146.31 146.32 146.33 147.1 147.2 147.3 147.4 147.5 147.6 147.7 147.8 147.9 147.10 147.11 147.12 147.13 147.14 147.15
147.16
147.17 147.18 147.19 147.20 147.21 147.22
147.23
147.24 147.25 147.26 147.27 147.28 147.29 147.30 147.31 148.1 148.2 148.3 148.4 148.5 148.6 148.7 148.8 148.9 148.10 148.11 148.12 148.13
148.14 148.15 148.16 148.17 148.18 148.19 148.20 148.21 148.22 148.23 148.24 148.25 148.26
148.27 148.28 148.29 149.1 149.2 149.3 149.4 149.5 149.6 149.7 149.8 149.9 149.10 149.11 149.12 149.13 149.14 149.15 149.16 149.17
149.18 149.19 149.20 149.21 149.22 149.23 149.24 149.25 149.26 149.27 149.28 149.29 149.30 149.31 150.1 150.2 150.3 150.4 150.5 150.6 150.7 150.8 150.9 150.10 150.11 150.12 150.13 150.14 150.15 150.16 150.17 150.18
150.19 150.20 150.21 150.22 150.23 150.24 150.25 150.26 150.27 150.28 150.29 150.30 150.31 151.1 151.2 151.3 151.4 151.5 151.6 151.7 151.8 151.9 151.10 151.11 151.12 151.13 151.14 151.15
151.16
151.17 151.18 151.19 151.20 151.21 151.22 151.23 151.24 151.25 151.26 151.27 151.28 151.29 151.30 151.31 152.1 152.2 152.3 152.4 152.5 152.6 152.7 152.8 152.9 152.10 152.11 152.12 152.13 152.14 152.15 152.16 152.17 152.18 152.19 152.20 152.21 152.22 152.23 152.24 152.25 152.26 152.27 152.28 152.29 152.30 152.31 153.1 153.2 153.3 153.4 153.5 153.6 153.7 153.8 153.9 153.10 153.11 153.12 153.13 153.14 153.15 153.16 153.17 153.18 153.19 153.20 153.21 153.22 153.23 153.24 153.25 153.26 153.27 153.28 153.29 153.30 153.31 153.32 153.33 154.1 154.2 154.3 154.4 154.5 154.6 154.7 154.8 154.9 154.10 154.11 154.12 154.13 154.14 154.15 154.16
154.17 154.18 154.19 154.20 154.21 154.22 154.23 154.24 154.25 154.26 154.27 154.28 154.29 154.30
155.1 155.2 155.3 155.4 155.5 155.6 155.7 155.8 155.9 155.10 155.11 155.12 155.13 155.14 155.15 155.16 155.17 155.18 155.19 155.20 155.21 155.22 155.23
155.24 155.25 155.26 155.27 155.28 155.29 155.30 155.31 155.32 155.33 156.1 156.2 156.3 156.4 156.5 156.6
156.7 156.8 156.9 156.10 156.11 156.12 156.13 156.14 156.15 156.16 156.17 156.18 156.19
156.20 156.21 156.22 156.23 156.24 156.25 156.26 156.27 156.28 156.29 156.30 156.31 156.32 156.33 157.1 157.2 157.3 157.4 157.5 157.6 157.7 157.8 157.9 157.10 157.11 157.12 157.13 157.14 157.15 157.16 157.17 157.18 157.19 157.20 157.21 157.22 157.23 157.24 157.25 157.26 157.27 157.28 157.29 157.30 157.31 157.32 158.1 158.2 158.3 158.4 158.5 158.6 158.7 158.8 158.9 158.10 158.11 158.12 158.13 158.14 158.15 158.16 158.17 158.18 158.19 158.20 158.21 158.22 158.23 158.24 158.25 158.26 158.27 158.28 158.29 158.30 158.31 158.32 158.33 158.34 159.1 159.2 159.3 159.4 159.5 159.6 159.7 159.8 159.9 159.10 159.11 159.12 159.13 159.14 159.15 159.16 159.17 159.18 159.19 159.20 159.21 159.22 159.23 159.24 159.25 159.26 159.27 159.28 159.29 159.30 159.31 159.32 159.33 160.1 160.2 160.3 160.4 160.5 160.6 160.7 160.8 160.9 160.10 160.11 160.12 160.13 160.14 160.15 160.16 160.17 160.18 160.19 160.20 160.21 160.22 160.23 160.24 160.25 160.26 160.27 160.28 160.29 160.30 160.31 161.1 161.2 161.3 161.4 161.5 161.6 161.7 161.8 161.9 161.10 161.11 161.12 161.13 161.14 161.15 161.16 161.17 161.18 161.19 161.20 161.21 161.22 161.23 161.24 161.25 161.26 161.27 161.28 161.29 161.30 161.31 162.1 162.2 162.3 162.4 162.5 162.6 162.7 162.8 162.9 162.10 162.11 162.12 162.13 162.14 162.15 162.16 162.17 162.18 162.19
162.20 162.21 162.22 162.23 162.24 162.25 162.26 162.27 162.28 162.29 162.30 162.31 162.32 163.1 163.2 163.3 163.4 163.5 163.6 163.7 163.8 163.9 163.10 163.11 163.12 163.13 163.14 163.15 163.16 163.17 163.18 163.19 163.20 163.21 163.22 163.23 163.24 163.25
163.26 163.27 163.28 163.29 163.30 163.31 163.32 163.33 164.1 164.2 164.3 164.4 164.5
164.6 164.7 164.8 164.9 164.10 164.11 164.12 164.13 164.14 164.15 164.16 164.17 164.18
164.19 164.20 164.21 164.22 164.23 164.24 164.25 164.26 164.27 164.28
165.1 165.2 165.3 165.4 165.5 165.6 165.7 165.8 165.9 165.10 165.11 165.12 165.13
165.14 165.15 165.16 165.17 165.18 165.19 165.20 165.21 165.22 165.23 165.24 165.25 165.26 165.27 165.28 165.29 165.30 165.31 165.32 165.33
166.1 166.2
166.3 166.4 166.5 166.6 166.7 166.8 166.9 166.10 166.11 166.12 166.13 166.14 166.15 166.16 166.17 166.18 166.19 166.20 166.21 166.22 166.23 166.24 166.25 166.26 166.27 166.28 166.29 166.30
167.1 167.2 167.3 167.4 167.5 167.6 167.7 167.8 167.9 167.10 167.11 167.12 167.13 167.14
167.15 167.16 167.17
167.18 167.19 167.20 167.21 167.22 167.23 167.24 167.25 167.26 167.27 167.28 167.29 167.30 167.31 167.32 167.33 167.34 168.1 168.2 168.3 168.4
168.5 168.6 168.7 168.8 168.9 168.10 168.11 168.12 168.13 168.14 168.15 168.16 168.17 168.18 168.19 168.20 168.21 168.22 168.23 168.24 168.25 168.26 168.27 168.28 168.29 168.30 168.31 168.32 168.33 169.1 169.2 169.3 169.4 169.5 169.6 169.7 169.8 169.9 169.10 169.11 169.12 169.13 169.14 169.15 169.16 169.17 169.18 169.19 169.20 169.21
169.22 169.23 169.24 169.25 169.26 169.27 169.28 169.29 169.30 169.31 170.1 170.2 170.3 170.4 170.5 170.6 170.7 170.8 170.9 170.10 170.11 170.12 170.13 170.14 170.15 170.16 170.17 170.18 170.19
170.20 170.21 170.22 170.23 170.24 170.25 170.26 170.27 170.28 170.29 170.30 170.31 171.1 171.2 171.3 171.4 171.5 171.6 171.7 171.8 171.9 171.10 171.11 171.12 171.13 171.14 171.15 171.16 171.17 171.18 171.19 171.20 171.21 171.22 171.23 171.24 171.25 171.26 171.27 171.28 171.29 171.30 172.1 172.2 172.3 172.4 172.5 172.6 172.7 172.8 172.9
172.10 172.11 172.12 172.13 172.14 172.15 172.16 172.17 172.18 172.19 172.20 172.21 172.22 172.23
172.24 172.25 172.26 172.27 172.28 172.29 172.30 172.31 172.32 172.33 173.1 173.2 173.3 173.4 173.5 173.6 173.7 173.8 173.9 173.10 173.11 173.12 173.13 173.14 173.15 173.16 173.17 173.18 173.19 173.20 173.21 173.22 173.23 173.24 173.25 173.26 173.27 173.28 173.29 173.30 173.31 173.32 173.33 174.1 174.2 174.3 174.4 174.5 174.6 174.7 174.8 174.9
174.10 174.11 174.12 174.13 174.14 174.15 174.16 174.17 174.18 174.19 174.20 174.21 174.22 174.23 174.24 174.25 174.26 174.27 174.28 174.29 174.30 174.31 174.32 175.1 175.2 175.3 175.4 175.5 175.6 175.7 175.8 175.9 175.10 175.11 175.12 175.13 175.14
175.15 175.16 175.17 175.18 175.19 175.20 175.21 175.22 175.23 175.24 175.25 175.26 175.27 175.28 175.29 175.30 175.31 175.32 176.1 176.2 176.3 176.4 176.5 176.6 176.7 176.8 176.9 176.10
176.11 176.12 176.13 176.14 176.15 176.16 176.17 176.18 176.19 176.20 176.21 176.22 176.23 176.24 176.25 176.26
176.27 176.28 176.29 176.30 176.31 176.32 177.1 177.2 177.3 177.4 177.5 177.6 177.7 177.8 177.9 177.10 177.11 177.12 177.13 177.14 177.15 177.16 177.17 177.18 177.19 177.20 177.21 177.22 177.23
177.24 177.25 177.26 177.27 177.28 177.29 177.30 178.1 178.2 178.3 178.4 178.5 178.6 178.7 178.8 178.9 178.10 178.11 178.12 178.13 178.14 178.15
178.16
178.17
178.18 178.19
178.20 178.21 178.22 178.23 178.24 178.25 178.26 178.27 178.28 178.29 178.30 178.31 179.1 179.2 179.3 179.4 179.5 179.6 179.7 179.8 179.9 179.10 179.11 179.12 179.13 179.14
179.15 179.16
179.17 179.18
179.19 179.20 179.21 179.22 179.23 179.24 179.25 179.26 179.27 179.28 179.29 179.30 180.1 180.2 180.3 180.4 180.5 180.6 180.7 180.8 180.9 180.10 180.11 180.12 180.13 180.14 180.15 180.16 180.17 180.18 180.19 180.20 180.21 180.22 180.23 180.24 180.25 180.26 180.27 180.28 180.29 180.30 180.31 180.32 181.1 181.2 181.3 181.4 181.5 181.6 181.7 181.8 181.9 181.10 181.11 181.12 181.13 181.14 181.15 181.16 181.17 181.18 181.19 181.20 181.21 181.22 181.23 181.24 181.25 181.26 181.27 181.28 181.29 181.30 182.1 182.2 182.3 182.4 182.5 182.6 182.7 182.8 182.9 182.10 182.11 182.12 182.13 182.14 182.15 182.16 182.17 182.18 182.19 182.20 182.21 182.22 182.23 182.24 182.25 182.26 182.27 182.28 182.29 182.30 182.31 182.32 183.1 183.2 183.3 183.4 183.5 183.6 183.7 183.8 183.9 183.10 183.11 183.12 183.13 183.14 183.15 183.16 183.17 183.18 183.19 183.20 183.21 183.22 183.23 183.24 183.25 183.26 183.27 183.28 183.29 183.30
184.1 184.2 184.3 184.4 184.5 184.6 184.7
184.8 184.9 184.10
184.11 184.12 184.13 184.14 184.15 184.16 184.17 184.18 184.19 184.20 184.21 184.22 184.23
184.24 184.25 184.26 184.27 184.28 184.29 184.30 185.1 185.2 185.3 185.4 185.5 185.6 185.7 185.8 185.9 185.10 185.11 185.12 185.13 185.14 185.15 185.16 185.17 185.18 185.19 185.20 185.21 185.22 185.23 185.24 185.25
185.26 185.27 185.28 185.29 185.30 185.31 186.1 186.2 186.3 186.4 186.5 186.6 186.7 186.8 186.9 186.10 186.11 186.12 186.13 186.14 186.15
186.16 186.17 186.18 186.19 186.20 186.21 186.22 186.23 186.24 186.25 186.26 186.27 186.28 186.29 186.30 186.31 187.1 187.2
187.3 187.4 187.5 187.6 187.7 187.8 187.9 187.10 187.11 187.12 187.13 187.14 187.15 187.16 187.17 187.18 187.19 187.20 187.21 187.22 187.23 187.24 187.25 187.26 187.27 187.28 187.29 187.30 188.1 188.2 188.3 188.4 188.5 188.6 188.7
188.8 188.9 188.10 188.11 188.12 188.13 188.14 188.15 188.16 188.17 188.18 188.19 188.20 188.21 188.22 188.23 188.24 188.25 188.26 188.27 188.28 188.29 189.1 189.2 189.3 189.4 189.5 189.6 189.7 189.8 189.9 189.10 189.11 189.12 189.13 189.14 189.15 189.16 189.17 189.18 189.19 189.20 189.21 189.22 189.23 189.24 189.25 189.26 189.27 189.28 189.29 189.30 190.1 190.2 190.3 190.4 190.5 190.6 190.7 190.8 190.9 190.10 190.11 190.12 190.13 190.14 190.15 190.16 190.17 190.18 190.19 190.20 190.21 190.22 190.23 190.24 190.25 190.26 190.27 190.28 190.29 190.30 190.31 190.32 191.1 191.2 191.3 191.4 191.5 191.6 191.7 191.8 191.9 191.10 191.11 191.12 191.13 191.14 191.15 191.16 191.17 191.18 191.19 191.20 191.21 191.22 191.23 191.24 191.25 191.26 191.27 191.28 191.29 191.30 191.31 191.32 192.1 192.2 192.3 192.4 192.5 192.6 192.7 192.8 192.9 192.10 192.11 192.12 192.13 192.14 192.15 192.16 192.17 192.18 192.19 192.20 192.21 192.22 192.23 192.24 192.25 192.26 192.27 192.28 192.29 192.30 192.31 193.1 193.2 193.3 193.4 193.5 193.6 193.7 193.8 193.9 193.10 193.11 193.12 193.13 193.14 193.15 193.16 193.17 193.18 193.19 193.20 193.21 193.22 193.23 193.24 193.25 193.26 193.27 193.28 193.29 193.30 194.1 194.2 194.3 194.4 194.5 194.6 194.7 194.8 194.9 194.10 194.11
194.12 194.13 194.14 194.15 194.16 194.17 194.18 194.19 194.20 194.21 194.22 194.23 194.24 194.25 194.26 194.27 194.28 194.29 194.30 195.1 195.2 195.3 195.4 195.5 195.6 195.7 195.8 195.9 195.10 195.11 195.12 195.13 195.14 195.15 195.16 195.17 195.18 195.19 195.20 195.21 195.22 195.23 195.24 195.25 195.26 195.27 195.28 195.29 195.30 196.1 196.2 196.3 196.4 196.5 196.6 196.7 196.8 196.9 196.10 196.11 196.12 196.13 196.14 196.15 196.16 196.17 196.18 196.19 196.20 196.21 196.22 196.23 196.24 196.25 196.26 196.27 196.28 196.29 196.30 197.1 197.2 197.3 197.4 197.5
197.6 197.7 197.8 197.9 197.10 197.11 197.12 197.13 197.14 197.15 197.16 197.17 197.18 197.19 197.20 197.21 197.22 197.23 197.24 197.25 197.26 197.27 197.28 197.29 197.30 197.31 198.1 198.2 198.3 198.4 198.5 198.6 198.7 198.8 198.9 198.10 198.11 198.12 198.13 198.14 198.15 198.16 198.17 198.18 198.19 198.20 198.21 198.22 198.23 198.24 198.25 198.26 198.27 198.28 198.29 198.30 198.31 198.32 199.1 199.2
199.3 199.4 199.5 199.6 199.7 199.8 199.9 199.10 199.11 199.12 199.13 199.14 199.15 199.16 199.17 199.18 199.19 199.20 199.21 199.22 199.23 199.24 199.25 199.26 199.27 199.28 199.29 199.30 200.1 200.2 200.3 200.4 200.5 200.6 200.7 200.8 200.9 200.10 200.11 200.12 200.13
200.14 200.15 200.16 200.17 200.18 200.19 200.20 200.21 200.22 200.23 200.24 200.25 200.26 200.27 200.28 200.29 200.30 200.31 201.1 201.2 201.3 201.4 201.5 201.6 201.7 201.8 201.9 201.10 201.11 201.12 201.13 201.14 201.15 201.16 201.17 201.18 201.19 201.20 201.21 201.22 201.23 201.24 201.25 201.26 201.27 201.28 201.29 202.1 202.2 202.3 202.4 202.5 202.6 202.7 202.8 202.9 202.10 202.11 202.12 202.13 202.14 202.15 202.16 202.17 202.18 202.19 202.20 202.21 202.22 202.23 202.24 202.25 202.26 202.27 202.28 202.29 202.30 203.1 203.2 203.3 203.4 203.5 203.6 203.7 203.8 203.9 203.10 203.11 203.12 203.13 203.14 203.15 203.16 203.17 203.18 203.19 203.20 203.21 203.22 203.23 203.24 203.25 203.26 203.27 203.28 203.29 203.30 203.31 203.32 204.1 204.2 204.3 204.4 204.5 204.6 204.7 204.8 204.9
204.10 204.11 204.12 204.13 204.14 204.15 204.16 204.17 204.18 204.19 204.20 204.21 204.22 204.23 204.24 204.25 204.26 204.27 204.28 204.29 204.30 204.31 204.32 205.1 205.2 205.3 205.4 205.5 205.6 205.7 205.8 205.9 205.10 205.11 205.12 205.13 205.14 205.15 205.16 205.17 205.18 205.19 205.20 205.21 205.22 205.23 205.24 205.25 205.26 205.27 205.28 205.29 205.30 205.31 206.1 206.2 206.3 206.4 206.5 206.6 206.7 206.8
206.9 206.10 206.11 206.12 206.13 206.14 206.15 206.16 206.17 206.18 206.19 206.20 206.21 206.22 206.23 206.24 206.25 206.26 206.27 206.28 206.29
207.1 207.2 207.3 207.4 207.5 207.6 207.7 207.8 207.9 207.10 207.11 207.12 207.13 207.14 207.15 207.16 207.17 207.18 207.19 207.20 207.21 207.22 207.23 207.24 207.25 207.26 207.27 207.28 207.29 207.30 207.31 207.32 208.1 208.2 208.3 208.4 208.5 208.6 208.7 208.8 208.9 208.10 208.11 208.12 208.13 208.14 208.15 208.16 208.17 208.18 208.19 208.20 208.21 208.22 208.23 208.24 208.25 208.26 208.27 208.28 208.29 208.30 208.31 209.1 209.2 209.3 209.4 209.5 209.6
209.7 209.8 209.9 209.10 209.11 209.12 209.13 209.14 209.15 209.16 209.17 209.18 209.19 209.20 209.21 209.22 209.23 209.24 209.25 209.26 209.27 209.28 209.29 209.30 209.31 209.32 210.1 210.2 210.3 210.4 210.5 210.6 210.7 210.8 210.9 210.10 210.11 210.12 210.13 210.14 210.15 210.16 210.17 210.18 210.19 210.20 210.21 210.22 210.23 210.24 210.25 210.26 210.27 210.28 210.29 210.30 210.31 210.32 211.1 211.2 211.3 211.4 211.5 211.6
211.7 211.8 211.9 211.10 211.11 211.12 211.13 211.14 211.15 211.16 211.17 211.18 211.19 211.20 211.21 211.22 211.23 211.24 211.25 211.26 211.27 211.28 211.29 211.30 211.31 212.1 212.2 212.3 212.4 212.5 212.6 212.7 212.8 212.9 212.10 212.11 212.12 212.13 212.14 212.15 212.16 212.17 212.18 212.19 212.20 212.21 212.22 212.23 212.24 212.25 212.26 212.27
212.28 212.29 212.30 212.31 213.1 213.2 213.3 213.4 213.5 213.6 213.7 213.8 213.9 213.10 213.11 213.12 213.13 213.14 213.15 213.16 213.17 213.18 213.19 213.20 213.21 213.22 213.23
213.24 213.25 213.26 213.27 213.28 213.29 213.30 213.31 213.32 214.1 214.2 214.3 214.4 214.5 214.6 214.7 214.8 214.9 214.10 214.11 214.12 214.13 214.14 214.15 214.16 214.17 214.18 214.19 214.20 214.21 214.22 214.23 214.24 214.25 214.26 214.27 214.28 214.29 214.30 214.31 215.1 215.2 215.3 215.4 215.5 215.6 215.7 215.8 215.9 215.10 215.11 215.12 215.13 215.14 215.15 215.16 215.17 215.18 215.19 215.20 215.21 215.22 215.23 215.24 215.25 215.26 215.27 215.28 215.29 215.30 215.31 215.32 216.1 216.2 216.3 216.4 216.5 216.6 216.7 216.8 216.9
216.10 216.11 216.12 216.13 216.14 216.15 216.16 216.17 216.18 216.19 216.20 216.21 216.22 216.23 216.24 216.25 216.26 216.27 216.28 216.29 217.1 217.2 217.3 217.4 217.5 217.6 217.7 217.8 217.9 217.10 217.11 217.12 217.13 217.14 217.15 217.16 217.17 217.18 217.19 217.20 217.21 217.22 217.23 217.24 217.25 217.26 217.27 217.28 217.29 217.30
218.1 218.2 218.3 218.4 218.5 218.6 218.7
218.8 218.9 218.10 218.11 218.12 218.13 218.14 218.15 218.16 218.17 218.18 218.19 218.20 218.21 218.22 218.23 218.24
218.25 218.26 218.27 218.28 218.29 218.30 218.31 219.1 219.2 219.3 219.4 219.5 219.6 219.7 219.8 219.9 219.10 219.11 219.12 219.13 219.14 219.15 219.16 219.17 219.18 219.19 219.20 219.21 219.22 219.23 219.24 219.25 219.26 219.27 219.28 219.29 219.30 219.31 220.1 220.2 220.3 220.4 220.5 220.6 220.7 220.8 220.9 220.10 220.11 220.12 220.13 220.14 220.15 220.16 220.17 220.18 220.19 220.20 220.21 220.22 220.23 220.24 220.25 220.26 220.27 220.28 220.29 220.30 221.1 221.2 221.3 221.4 221.5 221.6 221.7 221.8
221.9 221.10 221.11 221.12 221.13 221.14 221.15 221.16 221.17 221.18 221.19 221.20 221.21 221.22 221.23 221.24 221.25 221.26 221.27 221.28 221.29 221.30 221.31 222.1 222.2 222.3 222.4 222.5 222.6 222.7 222.8 222.9 222.10 222.11 222.12 222.13 222.14 222.15 222.16 222.17 222.18 222.19 222.20 222.21 222.22 222.23 222.24 222.25 222.26 222.27 222.28 222.29 222.30 222.31 223.1 223.2 223.3 223.4 223.5 223.6 223.7 223.8 223.9 223.10 223.11 223.12 223.13 223.14 223.15 223.16 223.17 223.18 223.19 223.20 223.21 223.22 223.23 223.24 223.25 223.26 223.27 223.28 223.29 223.30 223.31 224.1 224.2 224.3 224.4 224.5 224.6
224.7 224.8 224.9 224.10 224.11 224.12 224.13 224.14 224.15 224.16 224.17 224.18 224.19 224.20 224.21 224.22
224.23 224.24 224.25 224.26 224.27 224.28 225.1 225.2 225.3 225.4 225.5
225.6 225.7 225.8 225.9 225.10 225.11 225.12 225.13 225.14 225.15 225.16 225.17 225.18 225.19 225.20 225.21 225.22 225.23 225.24 225.25 225.26 225.27 225.28 225.29 226.1 226.2 226.3 226.4 226.5
226.6 226.7 226.8 226.9 226.10 226.11 226.12 226.13 226.14 226.15 226.16 226.17 226.18 226.19
226.20 226.21 226.22 226.23 226.24 226.25 226.26 226.27 226.28 226.29 226.30 226.31 227.1 227.2 227.3 227.4 227.5 227.6 227.7 227.8 227.9 227.10 227.11 227.12 227.13 227.14 227.15 227.16 227.17 227.18 227.19 227.20 227.21 227.22 227.23 227.24 227.25 227.26 227.27 227.28 227.29 227.30 227.31 227.32 228.1 228.2 228.3 228.4 228.5 228.6 228.7 228.8 228.9 228.10 228.11 228.12 228.13 228.14 228.15 228.16 228.17 228.18 228.19 228.20 228.21 228.22 228.23 228.24 228.25 228.26 228.27 228.28 228.29 228.30 228.31 228.32 229.1 229.2 229.3 229.4 229.5 229.6 229.7 229.8 229.9 229.10 229.11 229.12 229.13 229.14 229.15 229.16 229.17 229.18 229.19 229.20 229.21 229.22 229.23 229.24 229.25 229.26 229.27 229.28 229.29 229.30 230.1 230.2 230.3 230.4 230.5 230.6 230.7 230.8 230.9 230.10 230.11 230.12 230.13 230.14 230.15 230.16 230.17 230.18 230.19 230.20 230.21 230.22 230.23 230.24 230.25 230.26 230.27 230.28 230.29 230.30 231.1 231.2 231.3 231.4 231.5 231.6 231.7 231.8 231.9 231.10 231.11 231.12 231.13
231.14 231.15 231.16 231.17 231.18 231.19 231.20 231.21 231.22 231.23 231.24 231.25 231.26 231.27 231.28 231.29
232.1 232.2 232.3 232.4 232.5 232.6 232.7 232.8 232.9 232.10 232.11 232.12 232.13 232.14 232.15 232.16 232.17 232.18 232.19 232.20 232.21 232.22 232.23 232.24 232.25 232.26 232.27 232.28 232.29 232.30 232.31 232.32 233.1 233.2 233.3 233.4
233.5 233.6 233.7 233.8 233.9 233.10 233.11 233.12 233.13 233.14 233.15 233.16 233.17 233.18 233.19 233.20 233.21 233.22 233.23 233.24 233.25 233.26 233.27 233.28 233.29 233.30 234.1 234.2 234.3 234.4 234.5 234.6 234.7 234.8 234.9 234.10 234.11 234.12 234.13 234.14 234.15 234.16 234.17 234.18 234.19 234.20 234.21 234.22 234.23 234.24 234.25 234.26 234.27 234.28 234.29 234.30 234.31 235.1 235.2 235.3 235.4 235.5 235.6 235.7 235.8 235.9 235.10 235.11 235.12 235.13 235.14 235.15 235.16 235.17 235.18 235.19 235.20 235.21 235.22 235.23 235.24 235.25 235.26 235.27 235.28 235.29 235.30 235.31 235.32 236.1 236.2 236.3 236.4 236.5 236.6 236.7 236.8 236.9 236.10
236.11 236.12 236.13 236.14 236.15 236.16 236.17 236.18 236.19 236.20 236.21 236.22 236.23 236.24 236.25 236.26 236.27 236.28 236.29 236.30 237.1 237.2 237.3 237.4 237.5 237.6 237.7 237.8 237.9 237.10 237.11 237.12 237.13 237.14 237.15 237.16 237.17 237.18 237.19 237.20 237.21 237.22 237.23 237.24 237.25 237.26 237.27 237.28 237.29 237.30 237.31 238.1 238.2 238.3 238.4 238.5 238.6 238.7 238.8 238.9 238.10 238.11 238.12 238.13 238.14 238.15 238.16 238.17
238.18 238.19 238.20 238.21 238.22 238.23 238.24 238.25 238.26 238.27 238.28 238.29 238.30 239.1 239.2 239.3 239.4 239.5 239.6 239.7 239.8 239.9 239.10 239.11 239.12 239.13 239.14 239.15 239.16 239.17 239.18 239.19 239.20 239.21 239.22 239.23 239.24 239.25 239.26 239.27 239.28 239.29 239.30 239.31 240.1 240.2 240.3 240.4 240.5 240.6 240.7 240.8 240.9 240.10 240.11 240.12 240.13 240.14 240.15 240.16 240.17 240.18 240.19 240.20 240.21 240.22 240.23 240.24 240.25 240.26 240.27 240.28 240.29 240.30 240.31 240.32 241.1 241.2 241.3 241.4 241.5 241.6 241.7 241.8 241.9 241.10 241.11 241.12 241.13 241.14 241.15 241.16 241.17 241.18 241.19 241.20 241.21 241.22 241.23 241.24 241.25 241.26 241.27 241.28 241.29 241.30 241.31 241.32 242.1 242.2 242.3 242.4 242.5 242.6 242.7 242.8 242.9 242.10 242.11 242.12 242.13 242.14 242.15 242.16 242.17 242.18 242.19 242.20 242.21 242.22 242.23 242.24 242.25 242.26 242.27 242.28 242.29 242.30 242.31 242.32 243.1 243.2 243.3 243.4 243.5 243.6 243.7 243.8 243.9 243.10 243.11 243.12 243.13 243.14 243.15 243.16 243.17 243.18 243.19 243.20 243.21 243.22 243.23 243.24 243.25 243.26 243.27 243.28 243.29
243.30 243.31 243.32 244.1 244.2 244.3 244.4 244.5 244.6 244.7 244.8 244.9 244.10 244.11 244.12 244.13 244.14 244.15 244.16
244.17 244.18 244.19 244.20 244.21 244.22 244.23 244.24 244.25 244.26 244.27 244.28 244.29 245.1 245.2 245.3 245.4 245.5 245.6 245.7 245.8 245.9 245.10 245.11
245.12 245.13 245.14 245.15 245.16
245.17 245.18 245.19 245.20 245.21 245.22 245.23
245.24 245.25 245.26 245.27 245.28 245.29 246.1 246.2 246.3 246.4 246.5
246.6 246.7
246.8 246.9
246.10 246.11 246.12 246.13 246.14 246.15 246.16 246.17 246.18 246.19 246.20 246.21 246.22 246.23 246.24 246.25 246.26 246.27 246.28 246.29 247.1 247.2 247.3 247.4 247.5 247.6 247.7 247.8 247.9 247.10 247.11 247.12 247.13 247.14 247.15 247.16 247.17 247.18 247.19 247.20 247.21 247.22 247.23 247.24 247.25 247.26 247.27 247.28 247.29 247.30 248.1 248.2 248.3 248.4 248.5 248.6 248.7 248.8 248.9 248.10 248.11 248.12 248.13 248.14 248.15 248.16 248.17 248.18 248.19 248.20 248.21 248.22 248.23 248.24 248.25 248.26 248.27 248.28 248.29 248.30 248.31 248.32 249.1 249.2 249.3 249.4 249.5 249.6 249.7 249.8 249.9 249.10 249.11 249.12 249.13 249.14 249.15 249.16 249.17 249.18 249.19 249.20 249.21 249.22 249.23 249.24 249.25 249.26 249.27 249.28 249.29 249.30 249.31 249.32 250.1 250.2 250.3 250.4 250.5 250.6 250.7 250.8 250.9 250.10 250.11 250.12 250.13 250.14 250.15 250.16 250.17 250.18 250.19 250.20 250.21 250.22 250.23 250.24 250.25 250.26 250.27 250.28 250.29 250.30 250.31 250.32 250.33 251.1 251.2 251.3
251.4 251.5 251.6 251.7 251.8 251.9 251.10
251.11 251.12 251.13 251.14 251.15 251.16 251.17 251.18 251.19 251.20 251.21 251.22 251.23 251.24 251.25 251.26 251.27 251.28 251.29 251.30 251.31 252.1 252.2 252.3 252.4 252.5 252.6 252.7 252.8 252.9 252.10 252.11 252.12 252.13 252.14 252.15 252.16 252.17 252.18 252.19 252.20 252.21 252.22 252.23 252.24 252.25 252.26 252.27 252.28 252.29 252.30 252.31 252.32 253.1 253.2 253.3 253.4 253.5 253.6 253.7 253.8 253.9 253.10 253.11 253.12 253.13 253.14 253.15 253.16 253.17 253.18 253.19 253.20 253.21 253.22 253.23 253.24 253.25 253.26 253.27 253.28 253.29 253.30 253.31 254.1 254.2 254.3 254.4 254.5 254.6 254.7 254.8 254.9 254.10 254.11 254.12
254.13 254.14 254.15 254.16 254.17 254.18 254.19 254.20 254.21 254.22 254.23 254.24 254.25 254.26 254.27 254.28 254.29 254.30 254.31 254.32 255.1 255.2 255.3 255.4 255.5 255.6 255.7 255.8
255.9 255.10 255.11 255.12 255.13 255.14 255.15 255.16 255.17 255.18 255.19 255.20 255.21 255.22 255.23 255.24 255.25 255.26 255.27 255.28 255.29 255.30 255.31
256.1 256.2 256.3 256.4 256.5 256.6 256.7 256.8 256.9 256.10 256.11 256.12 256.13 256.14 256.15 256.16 256.17 256.18 256.19 256.20 256.21 256.22 256.23 256.24 256.25 256.26 256.27 256.28 256.29 256.30 256.31 257.1 257.2 257.3 257.4 257.5 257.6 257.7 257.8 257.9 257.10 257.11 257.12 257.13 257.14 257.15 257.16 257.17 257.18 257.19 257.20 257.21 257.22 257.23 257.24 257.25 257.26 257.27 257.28 257.29 257.30 258.1 258.2 258.3 258.4 258.5 258.6 258.7 258.8 258.9 258.10 258.11 258.12 258.13 258.14 258.15 258.16 258.17 258.18 258.19 258.20 258.21 258.22 258.23 258.24 258.25 258.26 258.27 258.28 258.29 259.1 259.2 259.3 259.4 259.5 259.6 259.7 259.8 259.9 259.10 259.11 259.12 259.13 259.14 259.15 259.16 259.17 259.18
259.19 259.20 259.21 259.22 259.23 259.24 259.25 259.26 259.27 259.28 259.29 259.30 259.31 259.32 260.1 260.2 260.3 260.4 260.5 260.6 260.7 260.8 260.9 260.10 260.11 260.12 260.13 260.14 260.15 260.16 260.17 260.18 260.19 260.20 260.21 260.22 260.23 260.24 260.25 260.26 260.27 260.28 260.29 260.30 260.31 260.32 260.33 260.34 260.35 261.1 261.2 261.3 261.4 261.5 261.6 261.7 261.8 261.9 261.10 261.11 261.12 261.13 261.14 261.15 261.16 261.17 261.18 261.19 261.20 261.21 261.22 261.23 261.24 261.25 261.26 261.27 261.28 261.29
261.30 261.31 261.32 262.1 262.2 262.3 262.4 262.5 262.6 262.7 262.8 262.9 262.10 262.11 262.12 262.13 262.14 262.15 262.16 262.17 262.18 262.19 262.20 262.21 262.22 262.23 262.24 262.25 262.26 262.27 262.28 262.29 262.30 262.31 262.32 262.33 263.1 263.2 263.3 263.4 263.5 263.6 263.7 263.8 263.9 263.10 263.11 263.12
263.13 263.14 263.15 263.16 263.17 263.18 263.19 263.20 263.21 263.22 263.23 263.24 263.25 263.26 263.27 263.28 263.29 263.30 263.31 264.1 264.2 264.3 264.4 264.5 264.6 264.7 264.8 264.9 264.10 264.11 264.12 264.13 264.14 264.15 264.16 264.17 264.18 264.19 264.20
264.21 264.22 264.23 264.24 264.25 264.26 264.27 264.28 264.29 264.30 264.31 265.1 265.2 265.3 265.4 265.5 265.6 265.7 265.8 265.9 265.10 265.11 265.12 265.13 265.14 265.15 265.16 265.17 265.18 265.19 265.20 265.21 265.22 265.23 265.24 265.25 265.26 265.27 265.28 265.29 265.30 265.31 266.1 266.2 266.3 266.4 266.5 266.6 266.7 266.8 266.9 266.10 266.11 266.12 266.13 266.14 266.15 266.16 266.17 266.18 266.19 266.20 266.21 266.22 266.23 266.24 266.25 266.26 266.27 266.28 266.29 266.30 266.31 266.32 267.1 267.2 267.3 267.4 267.5 267.6 267.7 267.8 267.9 267.10 267.11 267.12 267.13 267.14 267.15 267.16 267.17 267.18 267.19 267.20 267.21 267.22 267.23 267.24 267.25 267.26 267.27 267.28 267.29 267.30 267.31 267.32 268.1 268.2 268.3 268.4 268.5 268.6 268.7 268.8 268.9 268.10 268.11 268.12 268.13 268.14 268.15 268.16 268.17 268.18 268.19 268.20 268.21 268.22 268.23 268.24 268.25 268.26
268.27 268.28 268.29 268.30 268.31 269.1 269.2 269.3 269.4 269.5 269.6 269.7 269.8 269.9 269.10 269.11 269.12 269.13 269.14 269.15 269.16 269.17 269.18 269.19 269.20 269.21 269.22 269.23 269.24 269.25 269.26 269.27 269.28 269.29 269.30 269.31 269.32 269.33 270.1 270.2 270.3 270.4 270.5 270.6 270.7 270.8 270.9 270.10 270.11 270.12 270.13 270.14 270.15 270.16 270.17 270.18 270.19 270.20 270.21 270.22 270.23 270.24 270.25 270.26 270.27 270.28 270.29 270.30 270.31 270.32 270.33 271.1 271.2
271.3 271.4 271.5 271.6 271.7 271.8 271.9 271.10 271.11 271.12 271.13 271.14 271.15 271.16 271.17 271.18 271.19 271.20 271.21 271.22 271.23 271.24 271.25 271.26
271.27 271.28 271.29 272.1 272.2 272.3 272.4 272.5 272.6 272.7 272.8 272.9 272.10 272.11 272.12 272.13 272.14 272.15 272.16 272.17 272.18 272.19 272.20 272.21 272.22 272.23 272.24 272.25 272.26 272.27 272.28 272.29 273.1 273.2 273.3 273.4 273.5 273.6 273.7 273.8 273.9 273.10 273.11 273.12 273.13 273.14 273.15 273.16 273.17 273.18 273.19 273.20 273.21 273.22 273.23 273.24
273.25 273.26 273.27 273.28 273.29 273.30 273.31 274.1 274.2 274.3 274.4 274.5 274.6 274.7 274.8 274.9 274.10 274.11 274.12 274.13 274.14 274.15 274.16 274.17 274.18 274.19 274.20 274.21 274.22 274.23 274.24 274.25 274.26 274.27 274.28 274.29 274.30 274.31 275.1 275.2 275.3 275.4 275.5 275.6 275.7 275.8 275.9 275.10 275.11 275.12 275.13 275.14 275.15 275.16 275.17 275.18 275.19 275.20 275.21 275.22 275.23 275.24 275.25 275.26 275.27 275.28 275.29 275.30 275.31 275.32 276.1 276.2 276.3 276.4 276.5 276.6 276.7 276.8 276.9 276.10 276.11 276.12 276.13 276.14 276.15 276.16 276.17 276.18 276.19 276.20 276.21 276.22 276.23 276.24 276.25 276.26 276.27 276.28 276.29 276.30 276.31 277.1 277.2 277.3 277.4 277.5 277.6 277.7 277.8 277.9 277.10 277.11 277.12 277.13 277.14 277.15 277.16 277.17 277.18 277.19 277.20 277.21 277.22 277.23 277.24 277.25 277.26 277.27 277.28 277.29 278.1 278.2 278.3 278.4 278.5 278.6 278.7 278.8 278.9 278.10 278.11 278.12 278.13 278.14 278.15 278.16 278.17 278.18 278.19 278.20 278.21 278.22 278.23 278.24 278.25 278.26 278.27 278.28 278.29 278.30 278.31 278.32 279.1 279.2 279.3 279.4 279.5 279.6 279.7 279.8 279.9 279.10 279.11 279.12 279.13 279.14 279.15 279.16 279.17 279.18 279.19 279.20 279.21 279.22 279.23 279.24 279.25 279.26 279.27 279.28 279.29 279.30 279.31 279.32 280.1 280.2 280.3 280.4 280.5 280.6 280.7 280.8 280.9 280.10 280.11 280.12 280.13 280.14 280.15 280.16 280.17 280.18 280.19 280.20 280.21 280.22 280.23 280.24 280.25 280.26 280.27 280.28 280.29 280.30 281.1 281.2 281.3 281.4 281.5 281.6 281.7 281.8 281.9 281.10 281.11 281.12 281.13 281.14 281.15 281.16 281.17 281.18 281.19 281.20
281.21 281.22 281.23 281.24 281.25 281.26 281.27 281.28 281.29 281.30 282.1 282.2 282.3 282.4 282.5 282.6 282.7 282.8 282.9 282.10 282.11 282.12 282.13 282.14 282.15 282.16 282.17 282.18 282.19 282.20 282.21 282.22 282.23 282.24 282.25 282.26 282.27 282.28 282.29 282.30 282.31 283.1 283.2 283.3 283.4 283.5 283.6 283.7 283.8 283.9 283.10 283.11
283.12 283.13 283.14 283.15 283.16 283.17 283.18 283.19 283.20 283.21 283.22 283.23 283.24 283.25 283.26 283.27 283.28 283.29 283.30 283.31 284.1 284.2 284.3 284.4 284.5 284.6 284.7 284.8 284.9 284.10 284.11 284.12 284.13 284.14
284.15 284.16 284.17 284.18 284.19 284.20 284.21 284.22 284.23 284.24 284.25 284.26 284.27 284.28 284.29 284.30 285.1 285.2 285.3 285.4 285.5 285.6 285.7 285.8 285.9 285.10 285.11 285.12 285.13 285.14 285.15 285.16 285.17 285.18 285.19 285.20 285.21 285.22 285.23 285.24 285.25 285.26 285.27 285.28 285.29 285.30 285.31 286.1 286.2 286.3 286.4 286.5 286.6 286.7 286.8 286.9 286.10 286.11 286.12 286.13 286.14 286.15 286.16 286.17 286.18 286.19 286.20 286.21 286.22 286.23 286.24 286.25 286.26 286.27 286.28 286.29 286.30 287.1 287.2 287.3 287.4 287.5 287.6 287.7 287.8 287.9 287.10 287.11 287.12 287.13 287.14 287.15 287.16 287.17 287.18 287.19 287.20 287.21 287.22 287.23 287.24 287.25 287.26 287.27 287.28 288.1 288.2 288.3 288.4 288.5 288.6 288.7 288.8 288.9 288.10 288.11 288.12 288.13 288.14 288.15 288.16 288.17 288.18 288.19 288.20 288.21
288.22 288.23 288.24 288.25 288.26 288.27 288.28 288.29 288.30 289.1 289.2 289.3 289.4 289.5 289.6 289.7 289.8 289.9 289.10 289.11 289.12
289.13 289.14 289.15 289.16 289.17 289.18 289.19 289.20 289.21 289.22 289.23 289.24 289.25 289.26 289.27 289.28 289.29 289.30 289.31 290.1 290.2 290.3 290.4 290.5 290.6 290.7 290.8 290.9 290.10
290.11 290.12 290.13 290.14 290.15 290.16 290.17 290.18 290.19 290.20 290.21 290.22 290.23 290.24 290.25 290.26 290.27 290.28 290.29 290.30 290.31 291.1 291.2 291.3 291.4 291.5 291.6 291.7 291.8 291.9 291.10 291.11 291.12 291.13 291.14 291.15 291.16 291.17 291.18 291.19 291.20 291.21 291.22 291.23 291.24 291.25 291.26 291.27 291.28 291.29 291.30 291.31 292.1 292.2 292.3 292.4 292.5 292.6 292.7 292.8 292.9 292.10 292.11 292.12 292.13 292.14 292.15 292.16 292.17 292.18 292.19 292.20 292.21 292.22 292.23 292.24 292.25 292.26 292.27 292.28 292.29 292.30 292.31 292.32 293.1 293.2 293.3 293.4 293.5 293.6 293.7 293.8 293.9 293.10 293.11 293.12 293.13 293.14 293.15 293.16 293.17 293.18 293.19 293.20 293.21 293.22 293.23 293.24 293.25 293.26 293.27 293.28 293.29 293.30 294.1 294.2 294.3 294.4 294.5 294.6 294.7 294.8 294.9 294.10 294.11 294.12 294.13 294.14 294.15 294.16 294.17 294.18 294.19 294.20 294.21 294.22 294.23 294.24 294.25 294.26 294.27 294.28 294.29 294.30 295.1 295.2 295.3 295.4 295.5 295.6 295.7 295.8 295.9
295.10 295.11 295.12 295.13 295.14 295.15 295.16 295.17 295.18 295.19 295.20 295.21 295.22 295.23 295.24 295.25 295.26 295.27 295.28 295.29 295.30 295.31 295.32 296.1 296.2 296.3 296.4 296.5 296.6 296.7 296.8 296.9 296.10 296.11 296.12 296.13 296.14 296.15 296.16 296.17 296.18 296.19 296.20 296.21 296.22 296.23 296.24 296.25 296.26 296.27 296.28 296.29 296.30
297.1 297.2 297.3 297.4 297.5 297.6 297.7 297.8 297.9 297.10 297.11 297.12 297.13 297.14 297.15 297.16 297.17 297.18 297.19 297.20 297.21 297.22 297.23 297.24 297.25 297.26 297.27
297.28 297.29 297.30 298.1 298.2 298.3 298.4 298.5 298.6 298.7 298.8 298.9 298.10 298.11 298.12 298.13 298.14 298.15 298.16 298.17 298.18 298.19 298.20 298.21 298.22 298.23 298.24 298.25 298.26 298.27 298.28 298.29
299.1 299.2 299.3 299.4 299.5
299.6 299.7 299.8 299.9 299.10 299.11 299.12 299.13 299.14
299.15 299.16
299.17 299.18
299.19 299.20 299.21 299.22 299.23 299.24 299.25 299.26 299.27 299.28
300.1 300.2 300.3 300.4 300.5 300.6 300.7 300.8 300.9 300.10 300.11 300.12 300.13 300.14 300.15 300.16 300.17 300.18 300.19 300.20 300.21 300.22 300.23 300.24 300.25 300.26 300.27 300.28 300.29 300.30 300.31 300.32 301.1 301.2 301.3 301.4 301.5 301.6 301.7 301.8 301.9 301.10
301.11 301.12 301.13 301.14 301.15 301.16 301.17 301.18 301.19 301.20 301.21 301.22 301.23 301.24 301.25 301.26 301.27 301.28 301.29 301.30 301.31 302.1 302.2 302.3 302.4 302.5 302.6 302.7 302.8 302.9 302.10 302.11 302.12 302.13 302.14 302.15 302.16 302.17 302.18 302.19 302.20 302.21 302.22 302.23 302.24 302.25 302.26 302.27 302.28 302.29 302.30 302.31 302.32 303.1 303.2 303.3 303.4 303.5 303.6 303.7 303.8 303.9 303.10 303.11 303.12 303.13 303.14 303.15 303.16 303.17 303.18 303.19 303.20 303.21 303.22 303.23 303.24 303.25 303.26 303.27 303.28 303.29 303.30 303.31 303.32 303.33 303.34 304.1 304.2 304.3 304.4 304.5 304.6 304.7 304.8 304.9 304.10 304.11 304.12 304.13 304.14 304.15 304.16 304.17 304.18
304.19 304.20 304.21 304.22 304.23 304.24 304.25 304.26 304.27 304.28 304.29 304.30 304.31 305.1 305.2 305.3 305.4 305.5 305.6 305.7 305.8 305.9 305.10 305.11 305.12 305.13 305.14 305.15
305.16
305.17 305.18 305.19 305.20 305.21 305.22 305.23 305.24 305.25 305.26 305.27 305.28 305.29 305.30 306.1 306.2 306.3 306.4 306.5 306.6
306.7 306.8 306.9 306.10 306.11 306.12 306.13 306.14 306.15 306.16 306.17 306.18 306.19 306.20 306.21 306.22
306.23 306.24 306.25 306.26 306.27 306.28 306.29 306.30 307.1 307.2 307.3 307.4 307.5 307.6 307.7 307.8 307.9 307.10 307.11 307.12 307.13 307.14 307.15 307.16 307.17 307.18 307.19 307.20 307.21 307.22 307.23 307.24 307.25 307.26 307.27 307.28 307.29 307.30 307.31 308.1 308.2 308.3 308.4 308.5 308.6 308.7 308.8 308.9 308.10 308.11 308.12 308.13 308.14 308.15 308.16 308.17 308.18 308.19 308.20 308.21 308.22 308.23 308.24 308.25 308.26 308.27 308.28 308.29 308.30 309.1 309.2
309.3
309.4 309.5 309.6
309.7 309.8
309.9 309.10 309.11 309.12 309.13 309.14 309.15 309.16 309.17 309.18 309.19 309.20 309.21
309.22 309.23 309.24 309.25 309.26 309.27 309.28 309.29 309.30 309.31 309.32 309.33 310.1 310.2 310.3 310.4
310.5 310.6
310.7 310.8 310.9
310.10 310.11 310.12 310.13 310.14 310.15 310.16 310.17 310.18 310.19 310.20 310.21
310.22 310.23 310.24 310.25 310.26 310.27 310.28 310.29 310.30 310.31 310.32 310.33 311.1
311.2 311.3
311.4 311.5
311.6 311.7 311.8 311.9 311.10 311.11 311.12 311.13 311.14 311.15 311.16 311.17 311.18
311.19 311.20 311.21 311.22
311.23 311.24 311.25 311.26
311.27 311.28 311.29 311.30
311.31 311.32 312.1
312.2 312.3 312.4 312.5 312.6 312.7 312.8 312.9 312.10 312.11 312.12 312.13
312.14 312.15 312.16 312.17 312.18 312.19 312.20 312.21 312.22 312.23
312.24 312.25 312.26 312.27 312.28 312.29 312.30 312.31 312.32
312.33 312.34
313.1 313.2 313.3 313.4 313.5 313.6 313.7 313.8 313.9 313.10 313.11 313.12 313.13 313.14 313.15 313.16 313.17 313.18 313.19 313.20 313.21 313.22 313.23 313.24 313.25 313.26
313.27 313.28
313.29 313.30 313.31 313.32 313.33 313.34 313.35 314.1 314.2 314.3 314.4 314.5 314.6 314.7
314.8 314.9 314.10 314.11 314.12 314.13 314.14 314.15 314.16 314.17 314.18 314.19 314.20 314.21 314.22 314.23 314.24 314.25 314.26 314.27
314.28 314.29 314.30
314.31 314.32 314.33 314.34
315.1 315.2 315.3 315.4
315.5 315.6 315.7 315.8
315.9 315.10
315.11 315.12 315.13 315.14 315.15 315.16 315.17 315.18 315.19 315.20 315.21 315.22
315.23 315.24 315.25 315.26 315.27 315.28 315.29 315.30
315.31 315.32 316.1 316.2 316.3 316.4 316.5 316.6 316.7 316.8 316.9 316.10 316.11 316.12 316.13 316.14 316.15 316.16 316.17 316.18 316.19 316.20 316.21 316.22 316.23 316.24 316.25 316.26 316.27 316.28 316.29 316.30 316.31 316.32 316.33 316.34 317.1 317.2 317.3 317.4 317.5 317.6 317.7 317.8 317.9 317.10 317.11 317.12 317.13 317.14 317.15 317.16 317.17 317.18 317.19 317.20 317.21 317.22 317.23 317.24 317.25 317.26 317.27 317.28 317.29 317.30 317.31 317.32 317.33 317.34 317.35 318.1 318.2 318.3 318.4 318.5 318.6 318.7 318.8 318.9 318.10 318.11 318.12 318.13 318.14 318.15 318.16 318.17 318.18 318.19 318.20
318.21 318.22 318.23 318.24 318.25 318.26
318.27 318.28 318.29 318.30
319.1 319.2 319.3 319.4
319.5 319.6 319.7 319.8
319.9 319.10
319.11 319.12
319.13 319.14 319.15 319.16 319.17 319.18 319.19 319.20 319.21 319.22 319.23 319.24 319.25
319.26 319.27 319.28 319.29
319.30 319.31 319.32 320.1 320.2 320.3 320.4 320.5 320.6 320.7 320.8 320.9 320.10
320.11 320.12
320.13 320.14 320.15 320.16
320.17 320.18 320.19 320.20 320.21
320.22 320.23 320.24 320.25 320.26 320.27 320.28 320.29 320.30 320.31 320.32
320.33 320.34 321.1 321.2 321.3 321.4 321.5 321.6 321.7 321.8 321.9 321.10 321.11 321.12 321.13
321.14 321.15 321.16 321.17 321.18 321.19 321.20 321.21 321.22 321.23 321.24 321.25 321.26 321.27 321.28 321.29 321.30 321.31 321.32
321.33 321.34 322.1 322.2 322.3 322.4 322.5 322.6 322.7 322.8 322.9 322.10 322.11 322.12
322.13 322.14 322.15 322.16 322.17 322.18 322.19 322.20 322.21 322.22 322.23 322.24 322.25 322.26
322.27 322.28 322.29 322.30 322.31 323.1 323.2 323.3 323.4 323.5 323.6 323.7 323.8 323.9 323.10 323.11 323.12 323.13 323.14 323.15 323.16 323.17 323.18 323.19 323.20 323.21 323.22 323.23 323.24 323.25 323.26 323.27 323.28 323.29 323.30 323.31 324.1 324.2 324.3 324.4 324.5 324.6 324.7 324.8 324.9 324.10 324.11 324.12 324.13 324.14 324.15 324.16 324.17 324.18 324.19 324.20 324.21 324.22 324.23 324.24 324.25 324.26 324.27 324.28 324.29
324.30
325.1 325.2 325.3 325.4 325.5 325.6 325.7 325.8 325.9 325.10 325.11 325.12 325.13 325.14 325.15 325.16 325.17 325.18
325.19 325.20 325.21 325.22
325.23 325.24 325.25 325.26
325.27 325.28 325.29 325.30
326.1 326.2
326.3 326.4
326.5 326.6 326.7 326.8 326.9 326.10 326.11 326.12 326.13 326.14 326.15 326.16 326.17
326.18 326.19 326.20 326.21 326.22 326.23 326.24 326.25 326.26 326.27 326.28 326.29 326.30 326.31 326.32
326.33 326.34 327.1 327.2 327.3 327.4 327.5 327.6 327.7 327.8 327.9
327.10 327.11 327.12
327.13 327.14 327.15 327.16 327.17 327.18 327.19
327.20 327.21 327.22 327.23 327.24 327.25 327.26 327.27 327.28 327.29
327.30 327.31 328.1 328.2 328.3 328.4 328.5 328.6 328.7 328.8 328.9 328.10 328.11 328.12 328.13 328.14 328.15 328.16 328.17 328.18 328.19 328.20
328.21 328.22 328.23 328.24
328.25 328.26 328.27 328.28
328.29 328.30 328.31 328.32 329.1 329.2 329.3 329.4 329.5 329.6 329.7 329.8 329.9 329.10 329.11 329.12 329.13 329.14 329.15 329.16 329.17 329.18 329.19 329.20 329.21 329.22 329.23 329.24 329.25 329.26 329.27 329.28 329.29 329.30 329.31 329.32 329.33 329.34 329.35 329.36 329.37 329.38 329.39 329.40 329.41 329.42 329.43 329.44 329.45 329.46 329.47 329.48 329.49 329.50 329.51 329.52 329.53 329.54 329.55 329.56 329.57 330.1 330.2 330.3 330.4 330.5 330.6 330.7 330.8 330.9 330.10 330.11 330.12 330.13 330.14 330.15 330.16 330.17 330.18 330.19 331.1 331.2 331.3 331.4 331.5 331.6 331.7 331.8 331.9 331.10 331.11
CONFERENCE COMMITTEE REPORT ON S.F. No. 4612
A bill for an act
relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to the Departments of
Health, Human Services, and Children, Youth, and Families; making changes for
federal compliance; establishing work or community engagement requirements;
providing for pharmacy dispensing reimbursements; modifying reimbursement
rates for mental health services; modifying mental health provider credentialing
requirements; modifying the county share for Supplemental Nutrition Assistance
Program costs; modernizing child care and family child care licensing; modifying
the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act; establishing a committee, legislative commission, and
advisory task force; establishing a hospital stabilization program; transferring
regulatory oversight of health maintenance organizations to the commissioner of
commerce; requiring coverage of infertility treatment; regulating gas resource
development; providing for health care worker retention and protection; requiring
reports; authorizing rulemaking; requiring transfer; appropriating money; amending
Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 16A.103, by adding a subdivision; 60A.50,
subdivision 3; 60A.951, subdivision 3; 60A.985, subdivision 8; 60A.9853,
subdivision 1; 60A.9854; 60B.03, subdivision 2; 60G.01, subdivisions 2, 4; 62A.02,
subdivision 8; 62A.021, subdivision 1; 62A.61; 62A.65, subdivisions 7, 8; 62D.08,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 7; 62D.12, subdivision 1; 62D.124, subdivision 5; 62D.221,
subdivisions 1, 2; 62E.11, subdivisions 9, 13; 62J.60, subdivision 5; 62L.02,
subdivision 8; 62L.08, subdivision 11; 62L.09, subdivision 3; 62L.10, subdivision
4; 62L.11, subdivision 2; 62M.11; 62Q.01, subdivision 2; 62Q.096; 62Q.106;
62Q.188, subdivision 2; 62Q.37, subdivision 2; 62Q.47; 62Q.51, subdivision 3;
62Q.556, subdivisions 3, 4; 62Q.679; 62Q.69, subdivisions 2, 3; 62Q.71; 62Q.73,
subdivisions 3, 10; 62Q.81, subdivision 7; 62U.04, subdivision 13, by adding a
subdivision; 103I.001; 103I.005, subdivisions 9, 21, by adding subdivisions;
103I.601, subdivision 1, by adding subdivisions; 142D.21, subdivision 3; 142F.05,
by adding subdivisions; 144.1222, subdivision 4, by adding a subdivision; 144.1501,
subdivision 2; 144.1503, subdivision 7; 144.1505, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 144.1507,
subdivisions 1, 2, 4, by adding a subdivision; 144.1911, subdivisions 1, 5, 6;
144.555, by adding subdivisions; 145A.14, subdivision 2a; 151.741, subdivision
4; 245.462, by adding a subdivision; 245.4711, subdivision 5; 245.4881, subdivision
5; 245A.211, subdivision 1; 256.01, by adding a subdivision; 256.017, subdivision
2; 256B.01; 256B.04, subdivision 27; 256B.056, subdivisions 1, 2a, 7, 7a;
256B.0561, subdivision 2; 256B.06, subdivision 4; 256B.0625, by adding a
subdivision; 256B.076, subdivision 1, by adding subdivisions; 256B.094,
subdivisions 2, 3, 6; 256B.75; 260.63, subdivision 10; 260.64, subdivision 2;
260.67, subdivision 2; 260.68, subdivision 2; 260.69, subdivision 1; 260.693,
subdivision 2; 260C.451, by adding a subdivision; 295.52, subdivision 8; Minnesota
Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 62D.21; 62D.211; 142A.03, subdivision 2;
144.125, subdivision 1; 151.741, subdivision 5; 245A.07, subdivision 3; 245C.02,
subdivision 15a; 245C.05, subdivision 5; 256.043, subdivision 3; 256.9657,
subdivision 2b; 256.969, subdivision 2f; 256B.0625, subdivisions 8, 20; 256B.0924,
subdivision 6; 256B.1973, subdivision 9; 256B.69, subdivision 6d; 256B.761, by
adding a subdivision; 260.691, subdivision 1; 260.692, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; Laws
2024, chapter 117, sections 21; 22; Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 67, section 7;
proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 62D; 62Q; 103I;
142D; 144; 245A; 256; 256B; 260; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota
Statutes, chapters 142H; 142I; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.01,
subdivisions 11, 12, 13, 25, 26, 27; 142B.41, subdivisions 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12,
13; 142B.54, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142B.62; 142B.65, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
7, 10; 142B.66, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5; 142B.70, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9,
10, 11, 12; 142B.71; 142B.72; 142B.74; 142B.75; 142B.76; 142B.77; 151.741,
subdivisions 2, 3, 6; 256B.0625, subdivision 38; 256B.198; 260.63, subdivision
9; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.41, subdivision 9; 142B.65,
subdivisions 8, 9; 142B.66, subdivision 3; 142B.70, subdivisions 7, 8; 256B.69,
subdivision 6i; Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300; 9502.0315; 9502.0325;
9502.0335; 9502.0341; 9502.0345; 9502.0355; 9502.0365; 9502.0367; 9502.0375;
9502.0395; 9502.0405; 9502.0415; 9502.0425; 9502.0435, subparts 1, 2, 3, 4, 6,
7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16; 9502.0445; 9503.0005; 9503.0010; 9503.0015;
9503.0030; 9503.0031; 9503.0032; 9503.0033; 9503.0034; 9503.0040; 9503.0045;
9503.0050; 9503.0055; 9503.0060; 9503.0065; 9503.0070; 9503.0075; 9503.0080;
9503.0085; 9503.0090; 9503.0095; 9503.0100; 9503.0105; 9503.0110; 9503.0115;
9503.0120; 9503.0125; 9503.0130; 9503.0140; 9503.0145; 9503.0150; 9503.0155;
9503.0170.
May 17, 2026
The Honorable Bobby Joe Champion
President of the Senate
The Honorable Lisa M. Demuth
Speaker of the House of Representatives
We, the undersigned conferees for S.F. No. 4612 report that we have agreed upon the
items in dispute and recommend as follows:
That the House recede from its amendments and that S.F. No. 4612 be further amended
as follows:
"ARTICLE 1
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 3.732, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
As used in this section and section 3.736 the terms defined
in this section have the meanings given them.
(1) "State" includes each of the departments, boards, agencies, commissions, courts, and
officers in the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the state of Minnesota and
includes but is not limited to the Housing Finance Agency, the Minnesota Office of Higher
Education, the Health and Education Facilities Authority, deleted text begin the Health Technology Advisory
Committee,deleted text end the Armory Building Commission, the Zoological Board, the Department of
Iron Range Resources and Rehabilitation, the Minnesota Historical Society, the State
Agricultural Society, the University of Minnesota, the Minnesota State Colleges and
Universities, state hospitals, and state penal institutions. It does not include a city, town,
county, school district, or other local governmental body corporate and politic.
(2) "Employee of the state" means all present or former officers, members, directors, or
employees of the state, members of the Minnesota National Guard, members of a bomb
disposal unit approved by the commissioner of public safety and employed by a municipality
defined in section 466.01 when engaged in the disposal or neutralization of bombs or other
similar hazardous explosives, as defined in section 299C.063, outside the jurisdiction of the
municipality but within the state, or persons acting on behalf of the state in an official
capacity, temporarily or permanently, with or without compensation. It does not include
either an independent contractor except, for purposes of this section and section 3.736 only,
a guardian ad litem acting under court appointment, or members of the Minnesota National
Guard while engaged in training or duty under United States Code, title 10, or title 32,
section 316, 502, 503, 504, or 505, as amended through December 31, 1983. Notwithstanding
sections 43A.02 and 611.263, for purposes of this section and section 3.736 only, "employee
of the state" includes a district public defender or assistant district public defender in the
Second or Fourth Judicial Districtdeleted text begin , a member of the Health Technology Advisory Committee,deleted text end
and any officer, agent, or employee of the state of Wisconsin performing work for the state
of Minnesota pursuant to a joint state initiative.
(3) "Scope of office or employment" means that the employee was acting on behalf of
the state in the performance of duties or tasks lawfully assigned by competent authority.
(4) "Judicial branch" has the meaning given in section 43A.02, subdivision 25.
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.17, subdivision 6a, is amended to read:
Subd. 6a.
Prospective review and approval.
(a) No health care provider subject to
prospective review under this subdivision shall make a major spending commitment unless:
(1) the provider has filed an application with the commissioner to proceed with the major
spending commitment and has provided all supporting documentation and evidence requested
by the commissioner; and
(2) the commissioner determines, based upon this documentation and evidence, that the
major spending commitment is appropriate under the criteria provided in subdivision 5a in
light of the alternatives available to the provider.
(b) A provider subject to prospective review and approval shall submit an application
to the commissioner before proceeding with any major spending commitment. The provider
may submit information, with supporting documentation, regarding why the major spending
commitment should be excepted from prospective review under subdivision 7.
(c) The commissioner shall determine, based upon the information submitted, whether
the major spending commitment is appropriate under the criteria provided in subdivision
5a, or whether it should be excepted from prospective review under subdivision 7. In making
this determination, the commissioner may also consider relevant information from other
sources. deleted text begin At the request of the commissioner, the health technology advisory committee shall
convene an expert review panel made up of persons with knowledge and expertise regarding
medical equipment, specialized services, health care expenditures, and capital expenditures
to review applications and make recommendations to the commissioner.deleted text end The commissioner
shall make a decision on the application within 60 days after an application is received.
(d) The commissioner of health has the authority to issue fines, seek injunctions, and
pursue other remedies as provided by law.
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.2930, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Establishment.
The commissioner of health shall establish an information
clearinghouse within the Department of Health to facilitate the ability of consumers,
employers, providers, health plan companies, and others to obtain information on health
reform activities in Minnesota. The commissioner shall make available through the
clearinghouse updates on federal and state health reform activities, including information
developed or collected by the Department of Health on cost containment or other research
initiatives, the development of voluntary purchasing pools, action plans submitted by health
plan companies, reports or recommendations of deleted text begin the Health Technology Advisory Committee
and otherdeleted text end entities on technology assessments, and reports or recommendations from other
formal committees applicable to health reform activities. The clearinghouse shall also refer
requestors to sources of further information or assistance. The clearinghouse is subject to
chapter 13.
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Scope.
(a) This chapter applies only to health plans offered in the individual
market or the small group marketnew text begin , including stand-alone dental plans sold on MNsurenew text end .
(b) This chapter applies to health carriers with respect to individual health plans and
small group health plans, unless otherwise specified.
(c) If a health carrier issues or renews individual or small group health plans in other
states, this chapter applies only to health plans issued or renewed in this state to a Minnesota
resident, or to cover a resident of the state, or issued or renewed to a small employer that
is actively engaged in business in this state, unless otherwise specified.
(d) This chapter does not apply to short-term coverage as defined in section 62A.65,
subdivision 7, or grandfathered plan coverage as defined in section 62A.011, subdivision
1b.
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.03, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6.
Health plan.
"Health plan" means a health plan as defined in section 62A.011,
subdivision 3new text begin , and includes stand-alone dental plans sold on MNsurenew text end .
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.075, is amended to read:
62K.075 PROVIDER NETWORK NOTIFICATIONS.
(a) A health carrier must provide on the carrier's website the provider network for each
product offered by the carrier, and must update the carrier's website at least once a month
with any changes to the carrier's provider network, including provider changes from
in-network status to out-of-network status. A health carrier must also provide on the carrier's
website, for each product offered by the carrier, a list of the current waivers of the
requirements in section 62K.10, subdivision 2 deleted text begin or 3deleted text end , in a format that is easily accessed and
searchable by enrollees and prospective enrollees.
(b) Upon notification from an enrollee, a health carrier must reprocess any claim for
services provided by a provider whose status has changed from in-network to out-of-network
as an in-network claim if the service was provided after the network change went into effect
but before the change was posted as required under paragraph (a) unless the health carrier
notified the enrollee of the network change prior to the service being provided. This paragraph
does not apply if the health carrier is able to verify that the health carrier's website displayed
the correct provider network status on the health carrier's website at the time the service
was provided.
(c) The limitations of section 62Q.56, subdivision 2a, shall apply to payments required
by paragraph (b).
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62K.10, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
Subd. 2.
Time and distance standards.
Health carriers must meet the time and distance
standards under Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 155.1050new text begin , for all covered
health services, including dental, retail pharmacy, and specialty servicesnew text end .
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.105, is amended to read:
62K.105 NETWORK ADEQUACY COMPLAINTS.
The commissioner of health shall establish a clear, easily accessible process for accepting
complaints from enrollees regarding health carrier compliance with section 62K.10,
subdivision 2deleted text begin , 3,deleted text end or 4. Using this process, an enrollee may file a complaint with the
commissioner that a health carrier is not in compliance with the requirements of section
62K.10, subdivision 2deleted text begin , 3,deleted text end or 4. The commissioner of health shall investigate all complaints
received under this section.
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.14, is amended to read:
62K.14 LIMITED-SCOPE PEDIATRIC DENTAL PLANS.
(a) Limited-scope pediatric dental plans must be offered to the extent permitted under
the Affordable Care Act: (1) on a guaranteed issue and guaranteed renewable basis; (2) with
premiums rated on allowable rating factors used for health plans; and (3) without any
exclusions or limitations based on preexisting conditions.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a health carrier may discontinue a limited scope
pediatric dental plan at the end of a plan year if the health carrier provides written notice to
enrollees before coverage is to be discontinued that the particular plan is being discontinued
and the health carrier offers enrollees other dental plan options that are the same or
substantially similar to the dental plan being discontinued in terms of premiums, benefits,
cost-sharing requirements, and network adequacy. The written notice to enrollees must be
provided at least 105 days before the end of the plan year.
deleted text begin (c) Limited-scope pediatric dental plans must ensure primary care dental services are
available within 60 miles or 60 minutes' travel time.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end If a stand-alone dental plan as defined under the Affordable Care Act or a
limited-scope pediatric dental plan is offered, either separately or in conjunction with a
health plan offered to individuals or small employers, the health plan shall not be considered
in noncompliance with the requirements of the essential benefit package in the Affordable
Care Act because the health plan does not offer coverage of pediatric dental benefits if these
benefits are covered through the stand-alone or limited-scope pediatric dental plan, to the
extent permitted under the Affordable Care Act.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end Health carriers offering limited-scope pediatric dental plans must comply with
this section and sections 62K.07, 62K.08,new text begin 62K.10,new text end 62K.13, and 62K.15.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end The commissioner of commerce shall enforce paragraphs (a) and (b). Any
limited-scope pediatric dental plan that is to be offered to replace a discontinued dental plan
under paragraph (b) must be approved by the commissioner of commerce in terms of cost
and benefit similarity, and the commissioner of health in terms of network adequacy
similarity. deleted text begin The commissioner of health shall enforce paragraph (c).
deleted text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Encounter data.
(a) All health plan companies, dental organizations, and
third-party administrators shall submit encounter data on a monthly basis to a private entity
designated by the commissioner of health. The data shall be submitted in a form and manner
specified by the commissioner subject to the following requirements:
(1) the data must be de-identified data as described under the Code of Federal Regulations,
title 45, section 164.514;
(2) the data for each encounter must include an identifier for the patient's health care
home if the patient has selected a health care home, data on contractual value-based payments,
and data deemed necessary by the commissioner to uniquely identify claims in the individual
health insurance market;
(3) the data must include enrollee race and ethnicity, to the extent available, for claims
incurred on or after January 1, 2023; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
(4) except for the data described in clauses (2) and (3), the data must not include
information that is not included in a health care claim, dental care claim, or equivalent
encounter information transaction that is required under section 62J.536deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end
new text begin (5) the data must include at least the following data fields for any fully denied claims:
new text end
new text begin (i) an indicator of which claim lines were denied;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the reason for denial of each denied claim line;
new text end
new text begin (iii) the claim line status in terms of adjudication; and
new text end
new text begin (iv) a claim identifier to link the original claim to subsequent action on the claim.
new text end
(b) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted
under paragraph (a) to carry out the commissioner's responsibilities in this section, including
supplying the data to providers so they can verify their results of the peer grouping process
consistent with the recommendations developed pursuant to subdivision 3c, paragraph (d),
and adopted by the commissioner and, if necessary, submit comments to the commissioner
or initiate an appeal.
(c) Data on providers collected under this subdivision are private data on individuals or
nonpublic data, as defined in section 13.02. Notwithstanding the data classifications in this
paragraph, data on providers collected under this subdivision may be released or published
as authorized in subdivision 11. The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall
establish procedures and safeguards to protect the integrity and confidentiality of any data
that it maintains.
(d) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall not publish analyses or
reports that identify, or could potentially identify, individual patients.
(e) The commissioner shall compile summary information on the data submitted under
this subdivision. The commissioner shall work with its vendors to assess the data submitted
in terms of compliance with the data submission requirements and the completeness of the
data submitted by comparing the data with summary information compiled by the
commissioner and with established and emerging data quality standards to ensure data
quality.
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, subdivision 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 13.
Expanded access to and use of the all-payer claims data.
(a) The
commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall make the data submitted under
subdivisions 4, 5, 5a, and 5b, including data classified as private or nonpublic, available to
individuals and organizations engaged in research on, or efforts to effect transformation in,
health care outcomes, access, quality, disparities, or spending, provided the use of the data
serves a public benefit. Data made available under this subdivision may not be used to:
(1) create an unfair market advantage for any participant in the health care market in
Minnesota, including health plan companies, payers, and providers;
(2) reidentify or attempt to reidentify an individual in the data; or
(3) publicly report contract details between a health plan company and provider and
derived from the data.
(b) To implement paragraph (a), the commissioner shall:
(1) establish detailed requirements for data access; a process for data users to apply to
access and use the data; legally enforceable data use agreements to which data users must
consent; a clear and robust oversight process for data access and use, including a data
management plan, that ensures compliance with state and federal data privacy laws;
agreements for state agencies and the University of Minnesota to ensure proper and efficient
use and security of data; and technical assistance for users of the data and for stakeholders;
(2) deleted text begin develop adeleted text end new text begin assess fees according to thenew text end fee schedule new text begin in subdivision 14 new text end to support the
cost of expanded access to and use of the data, provided the fees charged under the schedule
do not create a barrier to access or use for those most affected by disparities; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
(3) create a research advisory group to advise the commissioner on applications for data
use under this subdivision, including an examination of the rigor of the research approach,
the technical capabilities of the proposed user, and the ability of the proposed user to
successfully safeguard the datadeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end
new text begin (4) annually publish on the Department of Health website a list of projects authorized
under this subdivision.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Fees for expanded access to and use of the all-payer claims database.new text end
new text begin (a)
For purposes of this section:
new text end
new text begin (1) "custom data set or analysis" means a de-identified data set or report for which a
standard data set or limited use data sets are not appropriate, that only provides the minimum
necessary data, and that is de-identified using the expert determination method as defined
in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 164.514(b)(1);
new text end
new text begin (2) "data file" means a data file derived from medical claims, pharmacy claims, dental
claims, eligibility information, membership information, or provider information for a single
year;
new text end
new text begin (3) "limited use data set" means a data set that meets the requirements in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, section 164.514(e)(2), and may include protected health information
from which certain direct identifiers of individuals have been removed under the principle
of minimum information necessary; and
new text end
new text begin (4) "standard data set" means a static data release designed by the commissioner to serve
a wide range of projects in which nearly all de-identified data elements are disclosed in one
release after applying the safe harbor de-identification method defined in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, section 164.514(b)(2), and from which protected health information
and any combination of data elements that directly identify any person are excluded.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must assess fees on an individual or organization that receives
data under subdivision 13 for the cost of accessing or receiving the data. Costs under this
paragraph may include but are not limited to the cost of producing and releasing data to the
individual or organization under subdivision 13 and managing infrastructure and operations.
The commissioner must assess fees according to the following schedule based on the type
of data requested and number of years for which access is requested:
new text end
new text begin (1) the fee for a standard data set is $3,500 per data file per year;
new text end
new text begin (2) the fee for a limited use data set is $7,000 per data file per year; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the fee for a custom data set or analysis is $89 per hour of staff time expended, with
fees not to exceed $5,785.
new text end
new text begin (c) An individual or organization that receives approval to access or receive data under
subdivision 13 must pay all the required fees in full before accessing or receiving the
requested data.
new text end
new text begin (d) The commissioner may grant a partial or full waiver of the fees in paragraph (b) if
the individual or organization requesting the data meets at least one of the following criteria:
new text end
new text begin (1) the fees represent a financial hardship to the individual or organization;
new text end
new text begin (2) the organization is a self-insured data submitter under this section;
new text end
new text begin (3) the individual or organization is affiliated with an academic institution;
new text end
new text begin (4) the individual or organization requests a high volume of data files; or
new text end
new text begin (5) the request is from a Tribal health director for, or the governing body of, one of the
11 federally recognized Tribes in Minnesota.
new text end
new text begin In determining whether to grant a waiver under this paragraph, the commissioner may
consult the research advisory group established under subdivision 13.
new text end
new text begin (e) Fees paid by an individual or organization approved to access or receive data under
subdivision 13 are nonrefundable. Fees collected under this subdivision must be deposited
into an account in the state government special revenue fund. Money in that account does
not cancel.
new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner must publish the fee schedule in paragraph (b) on the Department
of Health website.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.059, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
Subd. 8.
Duties.
(a) The council shall consult with and advise the commissioner on
matters related to the establishment, maintenance, operation, and outcomes evaluation of
palliative care initiatives in the state.
(b) By February 15 of each new text begin odd-numbered new text end year, the council shall submit to the chairs
and ranking minority members of the committees of the senate and the house of
representatives with primary jurisdiction over health care a report containing:
(1) the advisory council's assessment of the availability of palliative care in the state;
(2) the advisory council's analysis of barriers to greater access to palliative care; and
(3) recommendations for legislative action, with draft legislation to implement the
recommendations.
(c) The Department of Health shall publish the report deleted text begin each yeardeleted text end on the department's
website.
Sec. 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1222, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 2e.new text end
new text begin Private residential pool used for certified swimming classes.new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding
Minnesota Rules, part 4717.0250, subpart 7, a private residential pool may be used as part
of a business if the private residential pool is used by a paying guest of the homeowner and
the guest is participating in a certified swimming class conducted by the homeowner,
provided that:
new text end
new text begin (1) the homeowner is a certified swimming instructor and is conducting a certified
swimming class on a one-on-one basis;
new text end
new text begin (2) not more than four individuals are in the pool at the same time during the class;
new text end
new text begin (3) prior to each new paying guest beginning participation in a certified swimming class:
new text end
new text begin (i) the guest, or the guest's parent or legal guardian if the guest is a minor, provides
written consent to use of the pool. The written consent must include a statement that the
guest, or the guest's parent or legal guardian if the guest is a minor, has received and read
materials provided by the Department of Health with information on the risk of disease
transmission and other risks associated with pools; and a statement that the Department of
Health does not monitor or inspect the homeowner's pool to ensure compliance with the
requirements in this section or Minnesota Rules, chapter 4717; and
new text end
new text begin (ii) the homeowner tests the pool's water for the concentration of chlorine or bromine,
pH, and alkalinity, and the water in the pool meets the requirements for disinfection residual,
pH, and alkalinity in Minnesota Rules, part 4717.1750, subparts 3 to 6; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the following notice is conspicuously posted at the pool and, prior to each new paying
guest beginning participation in a certified swimming class, is provided to the guest or to
the guest's parent or legal guardian if the guest is a minor:
new text end
new text begin "NOTICE
new text end
new text begin This pool is exempt from state and local anti-entrapment and sanitary requirements that
prevent waterborne diseases and chemical burns and is not subject to inspection.
new text end
new text begin USE AT YOUR OWN RISK"
new text end
Sec. 15.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1222, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
meanings given them.
(b) "ASME/ANSI standard" means a safety standard accredited by the American National
Standards Institute and published by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
(c) "ASTM standard" means a safety standard issued by ASTM International, formerly
known as the American Society for Testing and Materials.
(d) "Public pool" means any pool other than a private residential pool, that is: (1) open
to the public generally, whether for a fee or free of charge; (2) open exclusively to members
of an organization and their guests; (3) open to residents of a multiunit apartment building,
apartment complex, residential real estate development, or other multifamily residential
area; (4) open to patrons of a hotel or lodging or other public accommodation facility; or
(5) operated by a person in a park, school, licensed child care facility, group home, motel,
camp, resort, club, condominium, manufactured home park, or political subdivision with
the exception of swimming pools at family day care homes licensed under section 142B.41,
subdivision 9, paragraph (a).
(e) "Unblockable suction outlet or drain" means a drain of any size and shape that a
human body cannot sufficiently block to create a suction entrapment hazard and meets
ASME/ANSI standards.
new text begin (f) "Certified swimming class" means an infant swimming resource (ISR) class; an
American Red Cross swimming class, swimming lesson, or learn-to-swim class; or any
other swimming class certified by a nationally accredited organization that operates in all
50 states.
new text end
new text begin (g) "Certified swimming instructor" means a certified ISR instructor; a certified American
Red Cross swimming instructor or swim coach; or any other swimming instructor certified
by a nationally accredited organization that operates in all 50 states.
new text end
Sec. 16.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 144.125, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Duty to perform testing.
(a) It is the duty of (1) the administrative officer
or other person in charge of each institution caring for infants 28 days or less of age, (2) the
person required in pursuance of the provisions of section 144.215, to register the birth of a
child, or (3) the nurse midwife or midwife in attendance at the birth, to arrange to have
administered to every infant or child in its care tests for heritable and congenital disorders
according to subdivision 2 and rules prescribed by the state commissioner of health.
(b) Testing, recording of test results, reporting of test results, and follow-up of infants
with heritable congenital disorders, including hearing loss detected through the early hearing
detection and intervention program in section 144.966, shall be performed at the times and
in the manner prescribed by the commissioner of health.
(c) The fee to support the newborn screening program, including tests administered
under this section and section 144.966, shall be $184.35 per specimen. This fee amount
shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the state government special revenue
fund.new text begin If the individual described in paragraph (a) submits to an insurer a claim for
reimbursement for a newborn screening program fee but does not receive reimbursement
from the insurer, the individual may request a special fee exemption form from the newborn
screening program and may apply for an exemption from the fee. To qualify for the
exemption, the individual must provide documentation to the newborn screening program
that the insurer did not reimburse the individual for the fee.
new text end
(d) The fee to offset the cost of the support services provided under section 144.966,
subdivision 3a, shall be $15 per specimen. This fee shall be deposited in the state treasury
and credited to the general fund.
Sec. 17.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1501, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Availability.
(a) The commissioner of health shall use money appropriated for
health professional education loan forgiveness in this section:
(1) for medical residents, physicians, mental health professionals, and alcohol and drug
counselors agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or underserved urban communities
or specializing in the area of pediatric psychiatry;
(2) for midlevel practitioners agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or to teach
at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing field in a postsecondary program
at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level;
(3) for nurses who agree to practice in a Minnesota nursing home; in an intermediate
care facility for persons with developmental disability; in a hospital if the hospital owns
and operates a Minnesota nursing home and a minimum of 50 percent of the hours worked
by the nurse is in the nursing home; in an assisted living facility as defined in section
144G.08, subdivision 7; or for a home care provider as defined in section 144A.43,
subdivision 4; or agree to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing
field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate
level;
(4) for other health care technicians agreeing to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720
hours per year in their designated field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate
level or the equivalent at the graduate level. The commissioner, in consultation with the
Healthcare Education-Industry Partnership, shall determine the health care fields where the
need is the greatest, including, but not limited to, respiratory therapy, clinical laboratory
technology, radiologic technology, and surgical technology;
(5) for pharmacists, advanced dental therapists, dental therapists, and public health nurses
who agree to practice in designated rural areas;
(6) for dentists agreeing to deliver at least 25 percent of the dentist's yearly patient
encounters to state public program enrollees or patients receiving sliding fee schedule
discounts through a formal sliding fee schedule meeting the standards established by the
United States Department of Health and Human Services under Code of Federal Regulations,
title 42, section 51c.303; and
(7) for nurses employed as a hospital nurse by a nonprofit hospital and providing direct
care to patients at the nonprofit hospital.
(b) Appropriations made for health professional education loan forgiveness in this section
do not cancel and are available until expendeddeleted text begin , except that at the end of each biennium, any
remaining balance in the account that is not committed by contract and not needed to fulfill
existing commitments shall cancel to the funddeleted text end .
Sec. 18.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1503, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Selection process.
The commissioner shall determine a maximum award for
grants and loan forgiveness, and shall make selections based on the information provided
in the grant application, including the demonstrated need for an applicant provider to enhance
the education of its workforce, the proposed employee scholarship or loan forgiveness
selection process, the applicant's proposed budget, and other criteria as determined by the
commissioner. Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, amounts appropriated for
purposes of this section do not cancel and are available until expendeddeleted text begin , except that at the
end of each biennium, any remaining amount that is not committed by contract and not
needed to fulfill existing commitments shall cancel to the general funddeleted text end .
Sec. 19.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) "eligible advanced practice registered nurse program" means a program that is located
in Minnesota and is currently accredited as a master's, doctoral, or postgraduate level
advanced practice registered nurse program by the Commission on Collegiate Nursing
Education or by the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing, or deleted text begin isdeleted text end new text begin presents a
credible plan asnew text end a candidate for accreditation;
(2) "eligible dental therapy program" means a dental therapy education program or
advanced dental therapy education program deleted text begin that isdeleted text end located in Minnesota deleted text begin and is eitherdeleted text end new text begin thatnew text end :
(i) new text begin is new text end approved by the Board of Dentistry; deleted text begin or
deleted text end
(ii) new text begin is new text end currently accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation;new text begin or
new text end
new text begin (iii) presents a credible plan as a candidate for accreditation;
new text end
(3) "eligible mental health professional program" means a program that is located in
Minnesota and is deleted text begin listeddeleted text end new text begin currently accredited new text end as a mental health professional program by the
appropriate accrediting body for clinical social work, psychology, marriage and family
therapy, or licensed professional clinical counseling, or deleted text begin isdeleted text end new text begin presents a credible plan asnew text end a
candidate for accreditation;
(4) "eligible pharmacy program" means a program that is located in Minnesota and is
currently accredited as a doctor of pharmacy program by the Accreditation Council on
Pharmacy Educationnew text begin or presents a credible plan as a candidate for accreditationnew text end ;
(5) "eligible physician assistant program" means a program that is located in Minnesota
and is currently accredited as a physician assistant program by the Accreditation Review
Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, or deleted text begin isdeleted text end new text begin presents a credible plan asnew text end a
candidate for accreditation;
(6) "mental health professional" means an individual providing clinical services in the
treatment of mental illness who meets one of the qualifications under section 245.462,
subdivision 18;
(7) "eligible physician training program" means new text begin a medical school training program or new text end a
physician residency training program located in Minnesota deleted text begin anddeleted text end that is currently accredited
by the accrediting body or has presented a credible plan as a candidate for accreditation;
(8) "eligible dental program" means a dental education program or a dental residency
training program located in Minnesota and that is currently accredited by the accrediting
body or has presented a credible plan as a candidate for accreditation; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
(9) "project" means a project to deleted text begin establish or expanddeleted text end new text begin (i) plan or implement a new eligible
new text end clinical training deleted text begin for physician assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, pharmacists,
dental therapists, advanced dental therapists, or mental health professionals in Minnesota.deleted text end new text begin
program or increase the base number of trainees in an existing eligible clinical training
program, or (ii) add or expand rural rotations or clinical training experiences in an existing
eligible clinical training program;
new text end
new text begin (10) "rural community" means a Tribal Nation, statutory city, home rule charter city, or
township in Minnesota that is outside the seven-county metropolitan area as defined in
section 473.121, subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (11) "underserved community" means a Minnesota area or population included in the
list of designated primary medical care health professional shortage areas, medically
underserved areas, or medically underserved populations maintained and updated by the
United States Department of Health and Human Services.
new text end
Sec. 20.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Programs.
(a) For advanced practice provider clinical training expansion grants,
the commissioner of health shall award deleted text begin health professional training sitedeleted text end grants to eligible
physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, pharmacy, dental therapy, and mental
health professional programs to plan and implement deleted text begin expandeddeleted text end new text begin a new eligible clinical training
program or increase the base number of trainees in an existing eligible new text end clinical trainingnew text begin
programnew text end . new text begin Clinical training must take place in communities outside the seven-county
metropolitan area as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, or in underserved
communities. new text end A planning grant shall not exceed $75,000, and a three-year training grant
shall not exceed $300,000 per project. The commissioner may provide a deleted text begin one-year,deleted text end no-cost
extension for grants.
(b) For health professional rural deleted text begin and underserveddeleted text end clinical rotations grants, the
commissioner of health shall award deleted text begin health professional training sitedeleted text end grants to new text begin existing new text end eligible
physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, pharmacy, dentistry,
dental therapy, and mental health professional new text begin training new text end programs to deleted text begin augment existing clinical
deleted text end deleted text begin training programs todeleted text end addnew text begin , expand, or enhancenew text end rural deleted text begin and underserveddeleted text end rotations or clinical
training experiences, such as credential or certificate rural tracks or other specialized training.
new text begin Rotations and clinical training experiences must take place in rural communities, excluding
the cities of Duluth, Moorhead, Rochester, and St. Cloud. new text end For physician and dentist training,
the expanded training must include rotations in primary care settings such as community
clinics, hospitals, health maintenance organizations, or practices in rural communities.
(c) new text begin Advanced practice provider clinical training expansion grant new text end funds may be used for:
(1) deleted text begin establishing or expanding rotationsdeleted text end new text begin planningnew text end and new text begin implementing a new new text end clinical trainingnew text begin
program or increasing the base number of trainees in an existing clinical training program
as described in paragraph (a)new text end ;
(2) recruitment, training, and retention of students deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end facultynew text begin , and preceptorsnew text end ;
(3) connecting students with appropriate clinical training sites, internships, practicums,
or externship deleted text begin activitiesdeleted text end new text begin opportunitiesnew text end ;
(4) travel and lodging for students;
(5) faculty, student, and preceptor salaries, incentives, or other financial support;
(6) development and implementation of new text begin health equity and new text end cultural deleted text begin competencydeleted text end
new text begin responsiveness new text end training;
(7) evaluationsnew text begin of the clinical training program to inform program improvementsnew text end ;
(8) training site improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required to establish,
maintain, or expand a training program; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
(9) supporting clinical education in which trainees are part of a primary care team modeldeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;
and
new text end
new text begin (10) onboarding expenses for trainees to meet clinical training site requirements.
new text end
new text begin (d) Health professional rural clinical rotation grant funds may be used for:
new text end
new text begin (1) adding, expanding, or enhancing rural rotations and clinical training experiences in
an existing clinical training program as described in paragraph (b);
new text end
new text begin (2) recruitment, training, and retention of students, faculty, and preceptors;
new text end
new text begin (3) connecting students with appropriate clinical training sites, internships, practicums,
or externship opportunities;
new text end
new text begin (4) travel and lodging for students;
new text end
new text begin (5) faculty, student, and preceptor salaries, stipends, or other financial support;
new text end
new text begin (6) development and implementation of health equity and cultural responsiveness training;
new text end
new text begin (7) evaluations of the rural rotation or clinical training experience to inform program
improvements;
new text end
new text begin (8) training site improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required to establish or
expand rural rotations or clinical training experiences;
new text end
new text begin (9) supporting clinical education in which trainees are part of a primary care team model;
and
new text end
new text begin (10) onboarding expenses for trainees to meet clinical training site requirements.
new text end
Sec. 21.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Applications.
new text begin (a) new text end Eligible physician assistant, advanced practice registered
nurse, pharmacy, dental therapy, dental, physician, and mental health professional programs
seeking a grant shall apply to the commissioner. Applications new text begin for advanced practice provider
clinical training expansion grants new text end must include a description of the number of additional
students who will be trained using grant fundsdeleted text begin ;deleted text end new text begin and new text end attestation that funding will be used to
support an increase in the number of clinical training slotsdeleted text begin ;deleted text end new text begin .
new text end
new text begin (b) All applications must includenew text end a description of the problem that the proposed project
will address; a description of the project, including all costs associated with the projectdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end
sources of funds for the projectdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end detailed uses of all funds for the project, and the results
expected; and a plan to maintain or operate deleted text begin any component included indeleted text end the project after the
grant periodnew text begin , including a description of potential barriers to sustainabilitynew text end . deleted text begin The applicantdeleted text end new text begin
Applicantsnew text end must describe achievable objectives, a timetable, and roles and capabilities of
responsible individuals in the organization.
deleted text begin Applicants applying under subdivision 2, paragraph (b),deleted text end new text begin (c) Applications for rural clinical
rotation grantsnew text end must include new text begin a description of the new, expanded, or enhanced rural rotations
or clinical training experiences; attestation that funding will be used to support improved
rural clinical training experiences; and new text end information about length of training and training site
settings, geographic location of rural sites, and rural populations expected to be served.
Sec. 22.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
(b) "Eligible program" means a program that meets the following criteria:
(1) is located in Minnesota;
(2) trains medical residents in the specialties of family medicine, general internal
medicine, general pediatrics, psychiatry, geriatrics, or general surgery in rural residency
training programs or in community-based ambulatory care centers that primarily serve the
underservednew text begin , or trains postdoctoral psychology residentsnew text end ; and
(3) is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education new text begin or the
American Psychological Association new text end or presents a credible plan to obtain accreditation.
new text begin (c) "Rural community" means a Tribal Nation, statutory city, home rule charter city, or
township in Minnesota that is outside the seven-county metropolitan area as defined in
section 473.121, subdivision 2, excluding the cities of Duluth, Mankato, Moorhead,
Rochester, and St. Cloud.
new text end
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end "Rural residency training program" means a new text begin rural medical new text end residency program new text begin or
a rural psychology residency program new text end that provides deleted text begin an initial year ofdeleted text end training in an accredited
residency program in Minnesota. deleted text begin The subsequent years of the residency program aredeleted text end new text begin At
least two-thirds of the residency training must benew text end based in rural communities, utilizing local
clinics and community hospitals, with specialty rotations in nearby regional medical centers.new text begin
When specialty rotations cannot take place within rural communities, training may occur
in nonrural sites provided that at least one-half of all training occurs in rural communities.
For residency training programs in general surgery, pediatrics, and psychiatry, at least
one-half of the residency training must be based in communities outside the seven-county
metropolitan area, with rotations in rural communities.
new text end
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end "Community-based ambulatory care centers" means federally qualified health
centers, community mental health centers, rural health clinics, health centers operated by
the Indian Health Service, an Indian Tribe or Tribal organization, or an urban American
Indian organization or an entity receiving funds under Title X of the Public Health Service
Act.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end "Eligible project" means a project to establish and maintain a rural residency
training program.
Sec. 23.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Rural residency training program.
(a) The commissioner of health shall
award rural residency training program grants to eligible programs to plan, implement, and
sustain rural residency training programs. A rural new text begin medical new text end residency training program grant
shall not exceed $250,000 per year for up to three years for planning and development, and
$225,000 per resident per year for each year thereafter to sustain the program.new text begin A rural
psychology residency training program grant shall not exceed $150,000 per year for up to
three years for planning and development and $150,000 per resident per year for each year
thereafter to sustain the program. Medical and psychology residency programs that meet
eligibility guidelines and continue to demonstrate financial need shall be granted sustaining
funds, renewable every five years.
new text end
(b) Funds may be spent to cover the costs of:
(1) planning related to establishing accredited rural residency training programs;
(2) obtaining accreditation by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Educationnew text begin ,
the American Psychological Association,new text end or another national body that accredits rural
residency training programs;
(3) establishing new rural residency training programs;
(4) recruitment, training, and retention of new residents and faculty related to the new
rural residency training program;
(5) travel and lodging for new residents;
(6) faculty, new resident, and preceptor salaries related to new rural residency training
programs;
(7) training site improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required for new rural
residency training programs; and
(8) supporting clinical education in which trainees are part of a primary care team model.
Sec. 24.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Consideration of grant applications.
The commissioner shall review each
application to determine if the residency program application is complete, if the proposed
rural residency program and residency slots are eligible for a grant, and if the program is
eligible for federal graduate medical education funding, and when the funding is available.
If eligible programs are not eligible for federal graduate medical education funding, the
commissioner may award continuation funding to the eligible program beyond the initial
grant periodnew text begin without requiring a competitive applicationnew text end . The commissioner shall award
grants to support training programs in family medicine, general internal medicine, general
pediatrics, psychiatry, geriatrics, general surgery,new text begin psychology,new text end and other primary care focus
areas.
Sec. 25.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Clinical training program coordination.new text end
new text begin The commissioner may award grants
to the University of Minnesota to provide technical assistance to residency training programs
for coordinated development of rural clinical training programs statewide.
new text end
Sec. 26.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1911, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Establishment.
The international medical graduates assistance program
is established to address barriers to practice and facilitate pathways to assist immigrant
international medical graduates to integrate into the Minnesota health care delivery system,
with the goal of increasing access to primary care in rural and underserved areas of the state.new text begin
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, appropriations made to the program do not cancel
and are available until expended.
new text end
Sec. 27.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1911, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5.
Clinical preparation.
deleted text begin (a)deleted text end The commissioner shall award grants to support
clinical preparation for Minnesota international medical graduates needing additional clinical
preparation or experience to qualify for residency. The grant program shall include:
(1) proposed training curricula;
(2) associated policies and procedures for clinical training sites, which must be part of
existing clinical medical education programs in Minnesota; and
(3) monthly stipends for international medical graduate participants. Priority shall be
given to primary care sites in rural or underserved areas of the statedeleted text begin , anddeleted text end new text begin .new text end International
medical graduate participants new text begin who receive funding through the international medical graduate
primary care residency grant program new text end must commit to serving at least five years in a rural
or underserved community of the state.
deleted text begin (b) The policies and procedures for the clinical preparation grants must be developed
by December 31, 2015, including an implementation schedule that begins awarding grants
to clinical preparation programs beginning in June of 2016.
deleted text end
Sec. 28.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1911, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6.
International medical graduate primary care residency grant program
and revolving account.
(a) The commissioner shall award grants to support primary care
residency positions designated for Minnesota immigrant physicians who are willing to serve
in rural or underserved areas of the state. No grant shall exceed $150,000 per residency
position per year. Eligible primary care residency grant recipients include accredited family
medicine, general surgery, internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, and
pediatric residency programs. Eligible primary care residency programs shall apply to the
commissioner. Applications must include the number of anticipated residents to be funded
using grant funds and a budget. deleted text begin Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, funds awarded to
grantees in a grant agreement do not lapse until the grant agreement expires.deleted text end Before any
funds are distributed, a grant recipient shall provide the commissioner with the following:
(1) a copy of the signed contract between the primary care residency program and the
participating international medical graduate;
(2) certification that the participating international medical graduate has lived in
Minnesota for at least two years and is certified by the Educational Commission on Foreign
Medical Graduates. Residency programs may also require that participating international
medical graduates hold a Minnesota certificate of clinical readiness for residency, once the
certificates become available; and
(3) verification that the participating international medical graduate has executed a
participant agreement pursuant to paragraph (b).
(b) Upon acceptance by a participating residency program, international medical graduates
shall enter into an agreement with the commissioner to provide primary care for at least
five years in a rural or underserved area of Minnesota after graduating from the residency
program and make payments to the revolving international medical graduate residency
account for five years beginning in their second year of postresidency employment.
Participants shall pay $15,000 or ten percent of their annual compensation each year,
whichever is less.
(c) A revolving international medical graduate residency account is established as an
account in the special revenue fund in the state treasury. The commissioner of management
and budget shall credit to the account appropriations, payments, and transfers to the account.
Earnings, such as interest, dividends, and any other earnings arising from fund assets, must
be credited to the account. Funds in the account are appropriated annually to the
commissioner to award grants and administer the grant program established in paragraph
(a). Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, any funds deposited in the account do not
expire. The commissioner may accept contributions to the account from private sector
entities subject to the following provisions:
(1) the contributing entity may not specify the recipient or recipients of any grant issued
under this subdivision;
(2) the commissioner shall make public the identity of any private contributor to the
account, as well as the amount of the contribution provided; and
(3) a contributing entity may not specify that the recipient or recipients of any funds use
specific products or services, nor may the contributing entity imply that a contribution is
an endorsement of any specific product or service.
Sec. 29.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.293, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Exception to consent.
Subdivision 2 does not apply to the release of health
records to the commissioner of health deleted text begin or the Health Data Institute under chapter 62Jdeleted text end , provided
that the commissioner encrypts the patient identifier upon receipt of the data.
Sec. 30.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.551, subdivision 1, as amended by Laws
2026, chapter 91, section 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Restricted construction or modification.
(a) The following construction
or modification may not be commenced:
(1) any erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement,
extension, lease, or other acquisition by or on behalf of a hospital that increases the bed
capacity of a hospital, relocates hospital beds from one physical facility, complex, or site
to another, or otherwise results in an increase or redistribution of hospital beds within the
state; and
(2) the establishment of a new hospital.
(b) This section does not apply to:
(1) construction or relocation within a county by a hospital, clinic, or other health care
facility that is a national referral center engaged in substantial programs of patient care,
medical research, and medical education meeting state and national needs that receives more
than 40 percent of its patients from outside the state of Minnesota;
(2) a project for construction or modification for which a health care facility held an
approved certificate of need on May 1, 1984, regardless of the date of expiration of the
certificate;
(3) a project for which a certificate of need was denied before July 1, 1990, if a timely
appeal results in an order reversing the denial;
(4) a project exempted from certificate of need requirements by Laws 1981, chapter 200,
section 2;
(5) a project involving consolidation of pediatric specialty hospital services within the
Minneapolis-St. Paul metropolitan area that would not result in a net increase in the number
of pediatric specialty hospital beds among the hospitals being consolidated;
(6) a project involving the temporary relocation of pediatric-orthopedic hospital beds to
an existing licensed hospital that will allow for the reconstruction of a new philanthropic,
pediatric-orthopedic hospital on an existing site and that will not result in a net increase in
the number of hospital beds. Upon completion of the reconstruction, the licenses of both
hospitals must be reinstated at the capacity that existed on each site before the relocation;
(7) the relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital building or
identifiable complex of buildings provided the relocation or redistribution does not result
in: (i) an increase in the overall bed capacity at that site; (ii) relocation of hospital beds from
one physical site or complex to another; or (iii) redistribution of hospital beds within the
state or a region of the state;
(8) relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital corporate system that
involves the transfer of beds from a closed facility site or complex to an existing site or
complex provided that: (i) no more than 50 percent of the capacity of the closed facility is
transferred; (ii) the capacity of the site or complex to which the beds are transferred does
not increase by more than 50 percent; (iii) the beds are not transferred outside of a federal
health systems agency boundary in place on July 1, 1983; (iv) the relocation or redistribution
does not involve the construction of a new hospital building; and (v) the transferred beds
are used first to replace within the hospital corporate system the total number of beds
previously used in the closed facility site or complex for mental health services and substance
use disorder services. Only after the hospital corporate system has fulfilled the requirements
of this item may the remainder of the available capacity of the closed facility site or complex
be transferred for any other purpose;
(9) a construction project involving up to 35 new beds in a psychiatric hospital in Rice
County that primarily serves adolescents and that receives more than 70 percent of its
patients from outside the state of Minnesota;
(10) a project to replace a hospital or hospitals with a combined licensed capacity of
130 beds or less if: (i) the new hospital site is located within five miles of the current site;
and (ii) the total licensed capacity of the replacement hospital, either at the time of
construction of the initial building or as the result of future expansion, will not exceed 100
licensed hospital beds, or the combined licensed capacity of the hospitals, whichever is less;
(11) the relocation of licensed hospital beds from an existing state facility operated by
the Direct Care and Treatment executive board to a new or existing facility, building, or
complex operated by the Direct Care and Treatment executive board; from one regional
treatment center site to another; or from one building or site to a new or existing building
or site on the same campus;
(12) the construction or relocation of hospital beds operated by a hospital having a
statutory obligation to provide hospital and medical services for the indigent that does not
result in a net increase in the number of hospital beds, notwithstanding section 144.552, 27
beds, of which 12 serve mental health needs, may be transferred from Hennepin County
Medical Center to Regions Hospital under this clause;
(13) a construction project involving the addition of up to 31 new beds in an existing
nonfederal hospital in Beltrami County;
(14) a construction project involving the addition of up to eight new beds in an existing
nonfederal hospital in Otter Tail County with 100 licensed acute care beds;
(15) a construction project involving the addition of 20 new hospital beds in an existing
hospital in Carver County serving the southwest suburban metropolitan area;
(16) a project for the construction or relocation of up to 20 hospital beds for the operation
of up to two psychiatric facilities or units for children provided that the operation of the
facilities or units have received the approval of the commissioner of human services;
(17) a project involving the addition of 14 new hospital beds to be used for rehabilitation
services in an existing hospital in Itasca County;
(18) a project to add 20 licensed beds in existing space at a hospital in Hennepin County
that closed 20 rehabilitation beds in 2002, provided that the beds are used only for
rehabilitation in the hospital's current rehabilitation building. If the beds are used for another
purpose or moved to another location, the hospital's licensed capacity is reduced by 20 beds;
(19) a critical access hospital established under section 144.1483, clause (9), and section
1820 of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 1395i-4, that
delicensed beds since enactment of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, Public Law 105-33,
to the extent that the critical access hospital does not seek to exceed the maximum number
of beds permitted such hospital under federal law;
(20) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction of a new hospital
in the city of Maple Grove with a licensed capacity of up to 300 beds provided that:
(i) the project, including each hospital or health system that will own or control the entity
that will hold the new hospital license, is approved by a resolution of the Maple Grove City
Council as of March 1, 2006;
(ii) the entity that will hold the new hospital license will be owned or controlled by one
or more not-for-profit hospitals or health systems that have previously submitted a plan or
plans for a project in Maple Grove as required under section 144.552, and the plan or plans
have been found to be in the public interest by the commissioner of health as of April 1,
2005;
(iii) the new hospital's initial inpatient services must include, but are not limited to,
medical and surgical services, obstetrical and gynecological services, intensive care services,
orthopedic services, pediatric services, noninvasive cardiac diagnostics, behavioral health
services, and emergency room services;
(iv) the new hospital:
(A) will have the ability to provide and staff sufficient new beds to meet the growing
needs of the Maple Grove service area and the surrounding communities currently being
served by the hospital or health system that will own or control the entity that will hold the
new hospital license;
(B) will provide uncompensated care;
(C) will provide mental health services, including inpatient beds;
(D) will be a site for workforce development for a broad spectrum of health-care-related
occupations and have a commitment to providing clinical training programs for physicians
and other health care providers;
(E) will demonstrate a commitment to quality care and patient safety;
(F) will have an electronic medical records system, including physician order entry;
(G) will provide a broad range of senior services;new text begin and
new text end
(H) will provide emergency medical services that will coordinate care with regional
providers of trauma services and licensed emergency ambulance services in order to enhance
the continuity of care for emergency medical patients; and
deleted text begin (I) will be completed by December 31, 2009, unless delayed by circumstances beyond
the control of the entity holding the new hospital license; and
deleted text end
(v) as of 30 days following submission of a written plan, the commissioner of health
has not determined that the hospitals or health systems that will own or control the entity
that will hold the new hospital license are unable to meet the criteria of this clause;
(21) a project approved under section 144.553;
(22) a project for the construction of a hospital with up to 25 beds in Cass County within
a 20-mile radius of the state Ah-Gwah-Ching facility, provided the hospital's license holder
is approved by the Cass County Board;
(23) a project for an acute care hospital in Fergus Falls that will increase the bed capacity
from 108 to 110 beds by increasing the rehabilitation bed capacity from 14 to 16 and closing
a separately licensed 13-bed skilled nursing facility;
(24) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction and expansion of a
specialty psychiatric hospital in Hennepin County for up to 50 beds, exclusively for patients
who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission. The commissioner conducted a
public interest review of the mental health needs of Minnesota and the Twin Cities
metropolitan area in 2008. No further public interest review shall be conducted for the
construction or expansion project under this clause;
(25) a project for a 16-bed psychiatric hospital in the city of Thief River Falls, if the
commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public interest review
conducted under section 144.552 is complete;
(26)(i) a project for a 20-bed psychiatric hospital, within an existing facility in the city
of Maple Grove, exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of
admission, if the commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public
interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete;
(ii) this project shall serve patients in the continuing care benefit program under section
256.9693. The project may also serve patients not in the continuing care benefit program;
and
(iii) if the project ceases to participate in the continuing care benefit program, the
commissioner must complete a subsequent public interest review under section 144.552. If
the project is found not to be in the public interest, the license must be terminated six months
from the date of that finding. If the commissioner of human services terminates the contract
without cause or reduces per diem payment rates for patients under the continuing care
benefit program below the rates in effect for services provided on December 31, 2015, the
project may cease to participate in the continuing care benefit program and continue to
operate without a subsequent public interest review;
(27) a project involving the addition of 21 new beds in an existing psychiatric hospital
in Hennepin County that is exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the
date of admission;
(28) a project to add 55 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center
hospital in Ramsey County as regulated under section 383A.91, subdivision 5, of which 15
beds are to be used for inpatient mental health and 40 are to be used for other services. In
addition, five unlicensed observation mental health beds shall be added;
(29) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552 and the addition of the 15 inpatient mental health beds specified in clause
(28), to its bed capacity, a project to add 45 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I
trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as regulated under section 383A.91, subdivision
5. Five of the 45 additional beds authorized under this clause must be designated for use
for inpatient mental health and must be added to the hospital's bed capacity before the
remaining 40 beds are added. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the hospital may add licensed
beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided the hospital
submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public interest
review described in section 144.552;
(30) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552, a project to add up to 30 licensed beds in an existing psychiatric hospital
in Hennepin County that exclusively provides care to patients who are under 21 years of
age on the date of admission. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the psychiatric hospital
may add licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review,
provided the hospital submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for
the public interest review described in section 144.552;
(31) any project to add licensed beds in a hospital located in Cook County or Mahnomen
County that: (i) is designated as a critical access hospital under section 144.1483, clause
(9), and United States Code, title 42, section 1395i-4; (ii) has a licensed bed capacity of
fewer than 25 beds; and (iii) has an attached nursing home, so long as the total number of
licensed beds in the hospital after the bed addition does not exceed 25 beds. Notwithstanding
section 144.552, a public interest review is not required for a project authorized under this
clause;
(32) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552, a project to add 22 licensed beds at a Minnesota freestanding children's
hospital in St. Paul that is part of an independent pediatric health system with freestanding
inpatient hospitals located in Minneapolis and St. Paul. The beds shall be utilized for pediatric
inpatient behavioral health services. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the hospital may add
licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided
the hospital submits its plan by the 2022 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public
interest review described in section 144.552;
(33) a project for a 144-bed psychiatric hospital on the site of the former Bethesda
hospital in the city of Saint Paul, Ramsey County, if the commissioner finds the project is
in the public interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is
complete. Following the completion of the construction project, the commissioner of health
shall monitor the hospital, including by assessing the hospital's case mix and payer mix,
patient transfers, and patient diversions. The hospital must have an intake and assessment
area. The hospital must accommodate patients with acute mental health needs, whether they
walk up to the facility, are delivered by ambulances or law enforcement, or are transferred
from other facilities. The hospital must comply with subdivision 1a, paragraph (b). The
hospital must annually submit de-identified data to the department in the format and manner
defined by the commissioner;
(34) a project involving the relocation of up to 26 licensed long-term acute care hospital
beds from an existing long-term care hospital located in Hennepin County with a licensed
capacity prior to the relocation of 92 beds to dedicated space on the campus of an existing
safety net, level I trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as regulated under section
383A.91, subdivision 5, provided both the commissioner finds the project is in the public
interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete and
the relocated beds continue to be used as long-term acute care hospital beds after the
relocation; or
(35) a project to add 85 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center
hospital in Ramsey County as regulated under section 383A.91, subdivision 5.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 31.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.56, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5.
Periodic evaluations; biennial reports.
To the extent funds are appropriated
for the purposes of this subdivision, the commissioner shall conduct periodic evaluations
of the impact of and outcomes from implementation of the state's suicide prevention plan
and each of the activities specified in this section. deleted text begin By July 1, 2002, anddeleted text end new text begin Onnew text end July 1 of each
even-numbered year deleted text begin thereafterdeleted text end , the commissioner shall report the results of these evaluations
to the chairs of the policy and finance committees in the house of representatives and senate
with jurisdiction over health and human services issues.
Sec. 32.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.561, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
988 Lifeline.
(a) The commissioner shall administer the designation of and
oversight for a 988 Lifeline center or a network of 988 Lifeline centers to answer contacts
from individuals accessing the Suicide and Crisis Lifeline from any jurisdiction within the
state 24 hours per day, seven days per week.
(b) The designated 988 Lifeline Center must:
(1) have an active agreement with the 988 Suicide and Crisis Lifeline program for
participation in the network and the department;
(2) meet the 988 Lifeline program requirements and best practice guidelines for
operational and clinical standards;
(3) provide data and reports, and participate in evaluations and related quality
improvement activities as required by the 988 Lifeline program and the department;
(4) identify or adapt technology that is demonstrated to be interoperable across mobile
crisis and public safety answering points used in the state for the purpose of crisis care
coordination;
(5) facilitate crisis and outgoing services, including mobile crisis teams in accordance
with guidelines established by the 988 Lifeline program and the department;
(6) actively collaborate and coordinate service linkages with mental health and substance
use disorder treatment providers, local community mental health centers including certified
community behavioral health clinics and community behavioral health centers, mobile crisis
teams, and community based and hospital emergency departments;
(7) offer follow-up services to individuals accessing the 988 Lifeline Center that are
consistent with guidance established by the 988 Lifeline program and the department; and
(8) meet the requirements set by the 988 Lifeline program and the department for serving
at-risk and specialized populations.
(c) The commissioner shall adopt rules to allow appropriate information sharing and
communication between and across crisis and emergency response systems.
(d) The commissioner, having primary oversight of suicide prevention, shall work with
the 988 Lifeline program, veterans crisis line, and other SAMHSA-approved networks for
the purpose of ensuring consistency of public messaging about 988 services.
(e) The commissioner shall work with representatives from 988 Lifeline Centers and
public safety answering points, other public safety agencies, and the commissioner of public
safety to facilitate the development of protocols and procedures for interactions between
988 and 911 services across Minnesota. Protocols and procedures shall be developed
following available national standards and guidelines.
(f) The commissioner shall provide deleted text begin an annualdeleted text end new text begin a biennialnew text end public report on 988 Lifeline
usagenew text begin by July 1 of each even-numbered yearnew text end , including data on answer rates, abandoned
calls, and referrals to 911 emergency response.new text begin The biennial report may be included as a
section within the state suicide prevention report required under section 145.56.
new text end
Sec. 33.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.882, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Contracting and procurement.new text end
new text begin The commissioner is exempt from the contract
term limits in chapter 16C for issuance of benefits under the Special Supplemental Nutrition
Program for Women, Infants and Children (WIC) through an electronic benefit transfer
(EBT) system and related services and contracts. The contracts may have an initial term of
up to five years, with extensions not to exceed a ten-year total contract duration.
new text end
Sec. 34.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.882, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Management information systems; contracting and procurement.new text end
new text begin WIC
is exempt from the contract term limits in chapter 16C for the management information
systems used for issuance of supplemental nutrition benefits and the WIC EBT systems
used for processing the redemptions of supplemental nutrition benefits. These contracts
may have an initial term of up to five years, with extensions not to exceed a ten-year total
contract duration.
new text end
Sec. 35.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145A.04, subdivision 15, is amended to read:
Subd. 15.
State and local advisory committees.
(a) A state community health services
advisory committee is established to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to
the commissioner on the development, maintenance, funding, and evaluation of local new text begin and
Tribal new text end public health services. Each community health board may appoint a member to serve
on the committee. new text begin Each of Minnesota's federally recognized Tribal Nations may appoint a
member to serve on the committee. new text end The committee must meet at least quarterly, and special
meetings may be called by the committee chair or a majority of the members. new text begin A Tribal
Nation may elect to participate at any time. new text end Members or their alternates may be reimbursed
for travel and other necessary expenses while engaged in their official duties.
(b) Notwithstanding section 15.059, the State Community Health Services Advisory
Committee does not expire.
(c) The city boards or county boards that have established or are members of a community
health board may appoint a community health advisory committee to advise, consult with,
and make recommendations to the community health board on the duties under subdivision
1a.
Sec. 36.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145A.14, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Subd. 2a.
Tribal governments.
(a) Of the funding available for local public health
grants, $1,500,000 per year is available to Tribal governments for:
(1) maternal and child health activities deleted text begin under section 145.882, subdivision 7deleted text end ;
(2) activities to reduce health disparities deleted text begin under section deleted text end deleted text begin 145.928, subdivision 10deleted text end ; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
(3) emergency preparednessnew text begin ; and
new text end
new text begin (4) additional public health activities identified by each Tribal governmentnew text end .
(b) The commissioner, in consultation with Tribal governments, shall establish a formula
for distributing the funds and developing the outcomes to be measured.
Sec. 37.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.517, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Applicability.
An applicant who applies for licensure as a speech-language
pathologist or audiologist by reciprocity must meet the requirements of subdivisions 2 and
3.new text begin An applicant who applies for licensure as an audiologist by reciprocity must pass the
practical exam required under section 148.515, subdivision 6.
new text end
Sec. 38.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.517, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Current credentials required.
An applicant applying for licensure by
reciprocity must provide evidence to the commissioner that the applicant holds a current
and unrestricted credential for the practice of speech-language pathology or audiology in
another jurisdiction that has requirements equivalent to or higher than those in effect for
determining whether an applicant in this state is qualified to be licensed as a speech-language
pathologist or audiologist. An applicant who provides sufficient evidence need not meet
the requirements of section 148.515,new text begin except for section 148.515, subdivision 6, for applicants
for licensure as an audiologist,new text end provided that the applicant otherwise meets all other
requirements of section 148.514.
Sec. 39.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.5191, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Renewal deadline.
Each license, including a temporary license provided under
section 148.5161, must state an expiration date. An application for licensure renewal must
be received by the Department of Health deleted text begin or postmarkeddeleted text end at least 30 days before the expiration
date. deleted text begin If the postmark is illegible, the application shall be considered timely if received at
least 21 days before the expiration date.
deleted text end
When the commissioner establishes the renewal schedule for an applicant, licensee, or
temporary licensee, if the period before the expiration date is less than two years, the fee
shall be prorated.
Sec. 40.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.91, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Embalming or refrigeration required.
(a) A dead human body must be
embalmed by a licensed mortician or registered intern or practicum student or clinical
student, refrigerated, or packed in dry ice in the following circumstances:
(1) if the body will be transported by public transportation, pursuant to section 149A.93,
subdivision 7;
(2) if final disposition will not be accomplished within 72 hours after death or release
of the body by a competent authority with jurisdiction over the body or the body will be
lawfully stored for final disposition in the future, except as provided in section 149A.94,
subdivision 1;
(3) if the body will be publicly viewed subject to paragraph (b); or
(4) if so ordered by the commissioner of health for the control of infectious disease and
the protection of the public health.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "publicly viewed" means reviewal of a dead human
body by anyone other than those mentioned in section 149A.80, subdivision 2, and their
minor children. Dry ice may only be used when the dead human body is publicly viewed
within private property.
(c) A body may not be kept in refrigeration for a period that exceeds deleted text begin sixdeleted text end new text begin 14new text end calendar
days, or packed in dry ice for a period that exceeds four calendar days, from the time and
release of the body from the place of death or from the time of release from the coroner or
medical examiner.
Sec. 41.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.94, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Generally.
Every dead human body lying within the state, except
unclaimed bodies delivered for dissection by the medical examiner, those delivered for
anatomical study pursuant to section 149A.81, subdivision 2, or lawfully carried through
the state for the purpose of disposition elsewhere; and the remains of any dead human body
after dissection or anatomical study, shall be decently buried or entombed in a public or
private cemetery, alkaline hydrolyzed, cremated, ordeleted text begin , effective July 1, 2025,deleted text end naturally reduced
within deleted text begin a reasonable timedeleted text end new text begin 14 calendar daysnew text end after deathnew text begin or release of the body by a competent
authority with jurisdiction over the bodynew text end . Where final disposition of a body will not be
accomplished, ordeleted text begin , effective July 1, 2025,deleted text end when natural organic reduction will not be initiated,
within 72 hours following death or release of the body by a competent authority with
jurisdiction over the body, the body must be properly embalmed, refrigerated, or packed
with dry ice. A body may not be kept in refrigeration for a period exceeding deleted text begin sixdeleted text end new text begin 14new text end calendar
days, or packed in dry ice for a period that exceeds four calendar days, from the time of
death or release of the body from the coroner or medical examiner.
Sec. 42.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.955, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Subd. 14.
Bodies awaiting natural organic reduction.
A dead human body must be
placed in the natural organic reduction vessel to initiate the natural reduction process within
deleted text begin 24 hoursdeleted text end new text begin 14 calendar daysnew text end after the natural organic reduction facility accepts legal and
physical custody of the body.new text begin A natural organic reduction facility must keep the body in
refrigeration while awaiting natural reduction. If a natural organic reduction facility does
not initiate natural reduction within 14 calendar days after accepting legal and physical
custody of the body, the facility must arrange final disposition of the body by burial or
cremation. The person or persons with the right to control and duty of disposition of the
body must determine whether the body is buried or cremated, and the body must be buried
or cremated within five calendar days after the end of the 14-day period.
new text end
Sec. 43. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end
new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.075, as Minnesota
Statutes, section 62D.081. The revisor shall also make necessary cross-reference changes
consistent with the renumbering.
new text end
Sec. 44. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13D.08, subdivision 4; 62J.06; 62J.156; 62J.2930,
subdivision 4; 62J.57; and 144.9821,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 2
GAS RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 93.514, is amended to read:
93.514 GAS AND OIL PRODUCTION RULEMAKING.
(a) The following agencies may adopt rules governing gas and oil exploration or
production, as applicable:
(1) the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency may adopt or amend rules
regulating air emissions; water discharges, including stormwater management; and storage
tanks as they pertain to gas and oil production;
deleted text begin (2) the commissioner of health may adopt or amend rules on groundwater and surface
water protection, exploratory boring construction, drilling registration and licensure, and
inspections as they pertain to the exploration and appraisal of gas and oil resources;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end the Environmental Quality Board may adopt or amend rules to establish mandatory
categories for environmental review as they pertain to gas and oil production;
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end the commissioner of natural resources must adopt or amend rules pertaining to
deleted text begin the conversion of an exploratory boring to a production well,deleted text end pooling, spacing, unitization,
deleted text begin well abandonment,deleted text end siting, financial assurance, and reclamation for the production of gas
and oil; and
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end the commissioner of labor and industry may adopt or amend rules to protect
workers from exposure and other potential hazards from gas and oil production.
(b) An agency adopting rules under this section must use the expedited procedure in
section 14.389. Rules adopted or amended under this authority are exempt from the 18-month
time limit under section 14.125. The agency must publish notice of intent to adopt expedited
rules within 24 months of May 22, 2024.
(c) For purposes of this section, "gas" includes both hydrocarbon and nonhydrocarbon
gases. "Production" includes extraction and beneficiation of gas or oil from consolidated
or unconsolidated formations in the state.
(d) Any grant of rulemaking authority in this section is in addition to existing rulemaking
authority and does not replace, impair, or interfere with any existing rulemaking authority.
new text begin (e) An entity adopting rules under this section is subject to the Tribal consultation
requirements under section 10.65.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.001, is amended to read:
103I.001 LEGISLATIVE INTENT.
This chapter is intended to protect the health and general welfare by providing a means
for the deleted text begin development anddeleted text end protection of the natural resource of groundwater in an orderly,
healthful, and reasonable manner.
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, subdivision 9, is amended to read:
Subd. 9.
Exploratory boring.
"Exploratory boring" means a surface drilling done to
explore or prospect for deleted text begin oil, naturaldeleted text end gas, apatite, diamonds, graphite, gemstones, kaolin clay,
and metallic minerals, including iron, copper, zinc, lead, gold, silver, titanium, vanadium,
nickel, cadmium, molybdenum, chromium, manganese, cobalt, zirconium, beryllium,
thorium, uranium, aluminum, platinum, palladium, radium, tantalum, tin, and niobiumdeleted text begin , and
a drilling or boring for petroleumdeleted text end .
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 10a.new text end
new text begin Gas.new text end
new text begin "Gas" includes both hydrocarbon and nonhydrocarbon gases.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 10b.new text end
new text begin Gas well.new text end
new text begin "Gas well" means an excavation that is constructed to locate,
extract, or produce gas.
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 10c.new text end
new text begin Gas well contractor.new text end
new text begin "Gas well contractor" means a person with a gas well
contractor's license issued by the commissioner.
new text end
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 11a.new text end
new text begin Hydraulic fracturing treatment.new text end
new text begin "Hydraulic fracturing treatment" means
all stages of the treatment of a gas well by the application of fluid under pressure that is
expressly intended to initiate or propagate fractures in a target geologic formation to enhance
production of oil and gas.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.005, subdivision 21, is amended to read:
Subd. 21.
Well.
"Well" means an excavation that is drilled, cored, bored, washed, driven,
dug, jetted, or otherwise constructed if the excavation is intended for the location, diversion,
artificial recharge, monitoring, testing, remediation, or acquisition of groundwater. Well
includes environmental wells, drive point wells, and dewatering wells. "Well" does not
include:
(1) an excavation by backhoe, or otherwise for temporary dewatering of groundwater
for nonpotable use during construction, if the depth of the excavation is 25 feet or less;
(2) an excavation made to obtain or prospect for oil, deleted text begin naturaldeleted text end gas, minerals, or products
of mining or quarrying;
(3) an excavation to insert media to repressure oil or deleted text begin naturaldeleted text end gas bearing formations or
to store petroleum, deleted text begin naturaldeleted text end gas, or other products;
(4) an excavation for nonpotable use for wildfire suppression activities; deleted text begin or
deleted text end
(5) boringsnew text begin ; or
new text end
new text begin (6) gas and oil wellsnew text end .
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.601, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following words
have the meanings given them.
(b) "Data" includes samples and factual noninterpreted data obtained from exploratory
borings and samples including analytical results.
(c) "Parcel" means a government section, fractional section, or government lot.
(d) "Samples" means at least a one-quarter portion of all samples from exploratory
borings that are customarily collected by the explorer. When the exploratory borings are
being done to explore or prospect for kaolin clay, "samples" means a representative sample
of at least two cubic inches of material per foot from exploratory borings of the material
that is customarily collected by the explorer.
new text begin (e) "Encounter gas" means a sustained presence of gas in an exploratory boring for at
least 24 hours and in which gas has not dissipated prior to sealing.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.601, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Exploratory borings encountering gas.new text end
new text begin (a) Requirements in this subdivision
apply only for exploratory borings encountering gas.
new text end
new text begin (b) An explorer must notify the commissioners of health and natural resources:
new text end
new text begin (1) within 24 hours of drilling an exploratory boring encountering gas; and
new text end
new text begin (2) prior to beginning a permanent sealing of an exploratory boring encountering gas.
new text end
new text begin (c) An explorer must submit a permanent sealing notification and fee of $125 to the
commissioner prior to permanently sealing an exploratory boring encountering gas.
new text end
new text begin (d) An explorer must begin permanently sealing an exploratory boring encountering gas
within ten days of encountering gas.
new text end
new text begin (e) An exploratory boring encountering gas is exempt from paragraph (d) if the boring
is constructed to prevent movement of gas and water within and from one geological
formation to another. The boring must be permanently sealed according to rules adopted
by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (f) An exploratory boring encountering gas must be permanently sealed from the bottom
of the boring to within two feet of the established ground surface.
new text end
new text begin (g) A permanent sealing report as required by subdivision 9 must also contain information
indicating gas was encountered during construction and at what depth it was encountered.
new text end
new text begin (h) A person must not use an exploratory boring to extract gas for production.
new text end
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.601, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Conversion of a gas well prohibited.new text end
new text begin A person must not convert a gas well
to any other type of well or boring.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 103I.601, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Conversion of a well or boring to a gas well.new text end
new text begin A person must not convert a
well or boring to a gas well, except that an exploratory boring may be converted to a gas
well if the exploratory boring was constructed:
new text end
new text begin (1) with innermost casing meeting API Specification 5CT;
new text end
new text begin (2) before July 1, 2025; and
new text end
new text begin (3) in compliance with provisions of this chapter.
new text end
Sec. 13.
new text begin [103I.706] GAS WELLS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Rulemaking authority.new text end
new text begin The commissioner of health must adopt rules
for gas wells including requirements for exploratory borings for gas, and drilling,
construction, sealing, use, reporting, and rig registration; and for licensing and certifying
persons constructing, repairing, and sealing gas wells. These rules must include a prohibition
against hydraulic fracturing treatment and a prohibition against the injection or disposal of
surface water, groundwater, or any other liquid, gas, or chemical except for approved drilling
fluids. In adopting rules under this section, the commissioner must use the expedited
procedure in section 14.389. These rules must distinguish between types of gas based on
the risks they pose to groundwater quality, health, and safety, and must specify the
requirements that apply when an exploratory boring or gas well encounters a gas different
from that for which exploration, prospecting, location, extraction, or production was
proposed. Rules adopted or amended under this authority are exempt from the 18-month
time limit under section 14.125. The commissioner must publish notice of intent to adopt
expedited rules within 24 months after May 22, 2026. In adopting rules under this
subdivision, the commissioner is subject to the Tribal consultation requirements under
section 10.65.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Fees.new text end
new text begin (a) License, certification, and registration renewals are not prorated and
expire on December 31 of each year.
new text end
new text begin (b) An applicant must meet the gas well contractor license requirements and fee
requirements to construct, repair, or seal a gas well. The fee for a gas well contractor license
is $300. The annual renewal fee for a gas well contractor license is $300.
new text end
new text begin (c) A gas well contractor must designate a certified representative. The certified
representative must meet the application and fee requirements. The application fee for a
certified representative is $100. The annual renewal fee for a certified representative is
$100.
new text end
new text begin (d) A gas well contractor must meet the registration and fee requirements for rigs used
to construct, repair, service, or seal a gas well. The fee to register gas well rigs is $125. The
annual renewal fee for gas well rig registration is $125.
new text end
new text begin (e) If a gas well contractor or certified representative under paragraphs (b) and (c) fails
to submit all information required for renewal or submits the application and information
after the required renewal date:
new text end
new text begin (1) the gas well contractor or certified representative must include a late fee of $75; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the gas well contractor or certified representative may not conduct activities authorized
by the gas well contractor's license or certified representative's certification until the renewal
application, renewal application fee, and all other information required is submitted.
new text end
new text begin (f) A gas well contractor must submit a notification for construction of a proposed gas
well on a form prescribed by the commissioner, with a fee of $10,000.
new text end
new text begin (g) A gas well contractor must submit a notification for sealing a gas well on a form
prescribed by the commissioner, with a fee of $7,500.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Rig registration.new text end
new text begin (a) Rigs used to drill, maintain, repair, or seal a gas well,
including drilling rigs and workover rigs, must be registered with the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) A person must file an application to register a rig on a form provided by the
commissioner with the fee under subdivision 2, paragraph (d), with the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (c) A registration is valid until the date prescribed by the commissioner in the registration.
new text end
new text begin (d) A person must file an application with the fee under subdivision 2, paragraph (d), to
renew the registration by the date prescribed by the commissioner in the registration.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Gas well contractor's license.new text end
new text begin (a) A person must not construct, repair, or seal
a gas well without a gas well contractor's license issued by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) A person must file a complete application for a gas well contractor's license on a
form provided by the commissioner with the fee under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), with
the commissioner. The person applying must meet the qualifications for a gas well contractor
license.
new text end
new text begin (c) A gas well contractor's license is valid until the date prescribed by the commissioner
in the license.
new text end
new text begin (d) A gas well contractor must file a complete application with the fee under subdivision
2, paragraph (b), to renew the license by the date prescribed by the commissioner in the
license. A person must not construct, repair, or seal a gas well until a gas well contractor's
license is renewed. The commissioner may not renew a license until the renewal fee is paid.
new text end
new text begin (e) A gas well contractor must include information at the time of renewal that the
applicant has met the continuing education requirements established by the commissioner
for gas wells.
new text end
new text begin (f) A gas well contractor must designate a certified representative to supervise and
oversee regulated work on gas wells.
new text end
new text begin (g) A person must file a complete application on a form provided by the commissioner
with the fee under subdivision 2, paragraph (c), to qualify as a certified representative.
new text end
new text begin (h) A certified representative must file an application with the fee under subdivision 2,
paragraph (c), to renew the certification by the expiration date prescribed by the commissioner
on the certification. A certified representative may not supervise or oversee regulated work
on a gas well until the renewal application and application fee are submitted. The
commissioner may not review a certification until the renewal fee is paid.
new text end
new text begin (i) A certified representative must include information at the time of renewal that the
applicant has met the continuing education requirements established by the commissioner
for gas wells.
new text end
new text begin (j) The commissioner of natural resources may require a bond, security, or other assurance
from a gas well contractor if the commissioner of natural resources has reasonable doubts
about the person's financial ability to comply with the requirements of law relating to
reclamation of a gas well and the process to restore the land disturbed by a gas well drilling
and production operations back to the condition of original state.
new text end
new text begin (k) The commissioner may suspend or revoke a licensee's license according to section
144.99.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Construction notification.new text end
new text begin (a) A gas well contractor must not begin drilling
or constructing a gas well unless it is included in a valid gas resource development permit
issued by the commissioner of natural resources.
new text end
new text begin (b) After receiving permit approval from the commissioner of natural resources and
prior to drilling or constructing a gas well, the gas well contractor must submit a notification
to construct a gas well:
new text end
new text begin (1) to the commissioner, along with the fee under subdivision 2, paragraph (f); and
new text end
new text begin (2) to any Tribal Nation for which the gas well will be located within five miles of the
Tribal Nation's exterior boundary, or to the nearest Tribal Nation if the gas well will not be
located within five miles of any Tribal Nation's exterior boundary.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Access to drill sites.new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner of health shall have access to gas
well sites to inspect gas wells, including the drilling, construction, and sealing of gas wells.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner of health has enforcement authority according to section 144.99.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Emergency notification.new text end
new text begin In the event of an occurrence during construction,
repair, or sealing of a gas well that has a potential for significant adverse public health or
environmental effects, the person drilling or constructing a gas or well must promptly:
new text end
new text begin (1) take reasonable action to minimize the adverse effects; and
new text end
new text begin (2) notify the commissioners of health, natural resources, and the Pollution Control
Agency immediately by informing the Minnesota Duty Officer.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Sealing notification.new text end
new text begin (a) A gas well, including an unsuccessful gas well, that
is not in use must be sealed by a gas well contractor.
new text end
new text begin (b) A gas well contractor must file a notification and fee with the commissioner prior
to sealing a gas well.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Report of work.new text end
new text begin Within 60 days after completion or sealing of a gas well, the
gas well contractor must submit a verified report to the commissioner on a form prescribed
by the commissioner or in a format approved by the commissioner.
new text end
Sec. 14.
new text begin [103I.707] MORATORIUM ON GAS WELL CONVERSION AND
CONSTRUCTION.
new text end
new text begin A person shall not drill, convert under section 103I.601, subdivision 12, or construct a
gas well for the primary purpose of extracting or producing gas until:
new text end
new text begin (1) rules are adopted under section 103I.706;
new text end
new text begin (2) the legislature enacts a statute specifically authorizing the issuance of gas resource
development permits; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the legislature enacts fees for gas resource development permits.
new text end
Sec. 15.
new text begin [103I.708] WELLS; RESTRICTIONS.
new text end
new text begin (a) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or chapter 93, or the rules adopted
thereunder, to the contrary, a person shall not explore, prospect, or construct an oil well.
new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or chapter 93, or the rules adopted
thereunder, to the contrary, a person shall not construct a gas well for the primary purpose
of extracting or producing a gas other than helium. Gas wells constructed for the primary
purpose of extracting or producing helium may only be constructed in Cook County, Lake
County, and St. Louis County. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to prevent:
new text end
new text begin (1) the drilling or construction of an exploratory boring; or
new text end
new text begin (2) the sale of carbon dioxide extracted in the ordinary course of extracting or producing
helium.
new text end
Sec. 16.
new text begin [103I.709] GAS WELLS; PROHIBITIONS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Injection prohibited.new text end
new text begin A gas well must not be used to inject or dispose
surface water, groundwater, or any other liquid, gas, or chemical. This does not prohibit
injection:
new text end
new text begin (1) of approved drilling fluids; or
new text end
new text begin (2) if a class 2 injection well permit is obtained for a gas well, as authorized by the
Environmental Protection Agency.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Hydraulic fracturing treatment prohibited.new text end
new text begin Hydraulic fracturing treatment
is prohibited in a gas well.
new text end
Sec. 17. new text begin TRIBAL CONSULTATION; REPORT.
new text end
new text begin An entity adopting rules under Minnesota Statutes, section 93.514 or 103I.706, must
submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees
with jurisdiction over health and the environment and natural resources, the Native American
caucuses of the legislature, and the Minnesota Indian Affairs Council that details the process
and results of meeting the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 10.65, for purposes
of the rulemaking. The report must be submitted within 90 days of adoption of the rules.
new text end
Sec. 18. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
ARTICLE 3
HOSPITAL STABILIZATION
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16A.152, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 1c.new text end
new text begin Hospital stabilization reserve.new text end
new text begin A hospital stabilization reserve account is
created in the general fund in the state treasury. Amounts in the hospital stabilization reserve
are appropriated to the commissioner of management and budget for the uses authorized in
subdivision 1d. Any balance remaining in the account on June 30, 2031, is canceled to the
general fund.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16A.152, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 1d.new text end
new text begin Hospital stabilization reserve uses.new text end
new text begin The commissioner of management and
budget, in consultation with the commissioner of health and after review by the Legislative
Advisory Commission as required in subdivision 1e, may make payments to an eligible
hospital as defined in section 144.7051.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16A.152, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 1e.new text end
new text begin Hospital stabilization reserve Legislative Advisory Commission review.new text end
new text begin (a)
The Legislative Advisory Commission established under section 3.30 must review proposed
allocations from the hospital stabilization reserve account.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner of management and budget must submit proposed expenditures
from the hospital stabilization reserve account to the Legislative Advisory Commission for
its review and recommendation. Upon receiving a submission, the commission has seven
days after the request is submitted to review the proposed expenditures submitted under
this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (c) Commission members may make a positive recommendation, a negative
recommendation, or no recommendation on a proposed expenditure. If a majority of the
commission members from the senate and a majority of the commission members from the
house of representatives make a negative recommendation on a proposed expenditure, the
commissioner is prohibited from expending the money. If a majority of the commission
members from the senate and a majority of the commission members from the house of
representatives do not make a negative recommendation, or if the commission makes no
recommendation, the commissioner may expend the money.
new text end
new text begin (d) The commission may hold a public meeting to approve or disapprove a proposed
expenditure from the hospital stabilization reserve account. Notwithstanding section 3.055,
the commission may conduct a public meeting remotely. The commission may approve or
disapprove proposed expenditures without a public meeting. The commission members
may approve or disapprove proposed expenditures via written communication sent to the
commissioner of management and budget.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16A.152, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Additional revenues; priority.
(a) If on the basis of a forecast of general fund
revenues and expenditures, the commissioner of management and budget determines that
there will be a positive unrestricted budgetary general fund balance at the close of the
biennium, the commissioner of management and budget must allocate money to the following
accounts and purposes in priority order:
(1) the cash flow account established in subdivision 1 until that account reaches
$350,000,000;
(2) the budget reserve account established in subdivision 1a until that account reaches
deleted text begin $2,852,098,000deleted text end new text begin $3,421,764,000new text end ;
(3) the amount necessary to increase the aid payment schedule for school district aids
and credits payments in section 127A.45 to not more than 90 percent rounded to the nearest
tenth of a percent without exceeding the amount available and with any remaining funds
deposited in the budget reserve; and
(4) the amount necessary to restore all or a portion of the net aid reductions under section
127A.441 and to reduce the property tax revenue recognition shift under section 123B.75,
subdivision 5, by the same amount.
(b) The amounts necessary to meet the requirements of this section are appropriated
from the general fund within two weeks after the forecast is released or, in the case of
transfers under paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), as necessary to meet the appropriations
schedules otherwise established in statute.
(c) The commissioner of management and budget shall certify the total dollar amount
of the reductions under paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), to the commissioner of education.
The commissioner of education shall increase the aid payment percentage and reduce the
property tax shift percentage by these amounts and apply those reductions to the current
fiscal year and thereafter.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16A.152, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Reduction.
(a) If the commissioner determines that probable receipts for the
general fund will be less than anticipated, and that the amount available for the remainder
of the biennium will be less than needed, the commissioner shall, with the approval of the
governor, and after consulting the Legislative Advisory Commission, reduce the amount in
the budget reserve accountnew text begin and the hospital stabilization reservenew text end as needed to balance
expenditures with revenue.
(b) An additional deficit shall, with the approval of the governor, and after consulting
the Legislative Advisory Commission, be made up by reducing unexpended allotments of
any prior appropriation or transfer. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the
commissioner is empowered to defer or suspend prior statutorily created obligations which
would prevent effecting such reductions.
(c) If the commissioner determines that probable receipts for any other fund,
appropriation, or item will be less than anticipated, and that the amount available for the
remainder of the term of the appropriation or for any allotment period will be less than
needed, the commissioner shall notify the agency concerned and then reduce the amount
allotted or to be allotted so as to prevent a deficit.
(d) In reducing allotments, the commissioner may consider other sources of revenue
available to recipients of state appropriations and may apply allotment reductions based on
all sources of revenue available.
(e) In like manner, the commissioner shall reduce allotments to an agency by the amount
of any saving that can be made over previous spending plans through a reduction in prices
or other cause.
(f) The commissioner is prohibited from reducing an allotment or appropriation made
to the legislature.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 6.
new text begin [144.7051] HOSPITAL STABILIZATION RESERVE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Eligibility.new text end
new text begin A hospital is eligible to receive payment under section
16A.152, subdivision 1d, if 40 percent of the hospital's total acute care admissions in each
of calendar years 2022, 2023, and 2024 were medical assistance or MinnesotaCare enrollees,
the hospital provided 15 percent or more of Minnesota's total uncompensated care in calendar
year 2024 as determined by the commissioner of health, and costs incurred for uncompensated
care were at least three percent of the hospital's operating revenue in calendar year 2024.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Quarterly financial statements.new text end
new text begin An eligible hospital under subdivision 1 must
submit a quarterly report to the commissioner of health beginning on October 1, 2026. Each
report must provide the following information:
new text end
new text begin (1) the hospital's monthly cash position for the current quarter;
new text end
new text begin (2) the hospital's net operating margin for the previous quarter;
new text end
new text begin (3) updates to the hospital's net operating margin for the last four quarters that reflect
adjustments and any completed audits since the prior quarterly report; and
new text end
new text begin (4) information necessary to support clauses (1) to (3).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Eligibility certification.new text end
new text begin (a) If the chief executive officer of an eligible hospital
under subdivision 1 provides written notice to the commissioner of health that the hospital
had less than 60 days of operating cash at any time during the preceding 12 months, and
that the hospital had an operating margin loss of at least 1.5 percent at any time during the
preceding 12 months, the commissioner must review and certify whether the hospital is
eligible to receive a payment from the hospital stabilization reserve to maintain stable
operations and avoid substantial negative operating effects for the next 12 months. If the
information provided to the commissioner is insufficient to make a certification of eligibility
determination, the commissioner may request additional information to support the
certification request. In making a certification determination, the commissioner must not
include payments received from the hospital stabilization reserve established in section
16A.152, subdivision 1c, or any fiscal year 2026 and 2027 appropriations.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must make a certification decision within 30 days of receiving
the written notice and associated documentation from the chief executive officer. The
commissioner must provide a written response to the chief executive officer within 45 days
of receiving the written notice and associated documentation. If the commissioner certifies
that the hospital should receive a payment from the hospital stabilization reserve, the
commissioner must notify the commissioner of management and budget within 15 days of
making that certification.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Payment.new text end
new text begin (a) If the commissioner of management and budget receives
notification from the commissioner of health under subdivision 3 that a hospital is certified
to receive a payment from the hospital stabilization reserve, the commissioner of management
and budget must submit the proposed payment to the Legislative Advisory Commission
under section 16A.152, subdivision 1e, for the commission's review.
new text end
new text begin (b) A certified hospital must submit sufficient information determined by the
commissioner of management and budget to support the submission of the certified payment
to the Legislative Advisory Commission.
new text end
new text begin (c) If a negative review from the Legislative Advisory Commission is not received, the
commissioner of management and budget must pay the eligible hospital from the hospital
stabilization reserve under section 16A.152, subdivision 1d.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 15, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 383B.903, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Governance.
The corporation shall be governed by a board of directors
deleted text begin consistingdeleted text end new text begin that consistsnew text end of between 11 and 15 directorsnew text begin and that includes members with the
professional training and expertise needed to govern a health system and safety net hospitalnew text end .
Two of the directors on the board of the corporation must be county commissioners currently
serving as elected officials on the county board who are chosen and may be removed by a
majority vote of the county board.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 383B.903, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Qualifications.
Members of the board deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end possess a high degree of
experience and knowledge in deleted text begin relevantdeleted text end fields new text begin needed to govern a health system and safety
net hospital new text end and new text begin must new text end possess a high degree of interest in the corporation and support for
its mission. deleted text begin Members shall be appointed based in part on the objective of ensuring that the
corporation includes diverse and beneficial perspectives and experience including, but not
limited to, those of medical or other health professionals,deleted text end new text begin At least 75 percent of the board's
noncounty commissioner members must have expertise in hospital administration, finance,
business management, law, or health equity, or have other experience relevant to the
administration of a health system and safety net hospital, with a preference for members
with experience working in an urban setting with diverse cultural communities. Up to 25
percent of the board's noncounty commissioner members may representnew text end urban, culturalnew text begin ,new text end
and ethnic perspectives of the population served by the corporationdeleted text begin , business management,
law, finance, health sector employees, public health, serving the uninsured, health
professional training,deleted text end and the patient or consumer perspective. The corporation shall provide
a public announcement of vacancies on the board of the corporation in the manner normally
used by Hennepin County to provide public notice of open appointments.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 383B.904, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Election.
(a) The officers of the board of the corporation shall consist of
the chair, vice-chair, secretary, treasurer, and other officers as the board shall from time to
time deem necessary. The board shall elect officers by a majority vote of the board at the
annual meeting, or in the case of the initial board, at the first meeting following appointment
by the county board.new text begin The county commissioner members of the corporate board are not
eligible to serve as officers of the corporate board.
new text end
(b) Any of the offices or functions, with the exception of the chair and vice-chair, may
be held or exercised by the same person.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 383B.908, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5.
Financial oversight.
The county board deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end approve the annual budget
of the corporationnew text begin as presented by the corporate boardnew text end and new text begin shall new text end receive an annual audited
financial statement. The annual budget shall address how efficiencies and revenues contribute
to stabilize or reduce county liabilities for indigent care. The county board shall also retain
the rightnew text begin :
new text end
new text begin (1)new text end to conduct an independent audit of the finances of the corporationdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end
new text begin (2) in sustained conditions of financial distress, to modify the corporation's annual budget
as needed to respond to the corporation's financial condition while preserving access to
essential health services provided by HCMC.
new text end
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 383B.908, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Dissolution or reorganization of corporation.
The county board shall retain
the right to dissolve the corporation, reorganize the corporation, or remove the entire
corporate board in order to resume management ofnew text begin and financial oversight overnew text end Hennepin
County Medical Center upon a two-thirds vote of the entire county boarddeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin if:
new text end
new text begin (1) the corporation experiences sustained conditions of financial distress, such as but
not limited to the corporation meeting at least two of the following conditions:
new text end
new text begin (i) a negative operating margin of more than $30,000,000 for two consecutive years;
new text end
new text begin (ii) a decline in net assets of more than ten percent in the most recent year; or
new text end
new text begin (iii) a negative cash flow margin of more than ten percent in the most recent year;
new text end
new text begin (2) prior to taking any steps to dissolve the corporation, reorganize the corporation, or
remove the entire corporate board, the county board and the corporate board engage in
mediation in good faith. The attorney general may select an individual to serve as a mediator.
In the mediation, the parties must attempt to address the corporation's conditions of financial
distress through means other than dissolving the corporation, reorganizing the corporation,
or removing the entire corporate board; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the county board and corporate board are not able to agree on another means to
address the corporation's financial distress.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Laws 2023, chapter 68, article 1, section 2, subdivision 2, as amended by Laws
2025, First Special Session chapter 8, article 1, section 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.Multimodal Systems | ||||||
(a) Aeronautics
| (1) Airport Development and Assistance | 69,598,000 | 18,598,000 | ||||
| Appropriations by Fund | ||
| 2024 | 2025 | |
| General | 36,000,000 | -0- |
| Airports | 33,598,000 | 18,598,000 |
The appropriation from the state airports fund
must be spent according to Minnesota Statutes,
section 360.305, subdivision 4.
$36,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is from the
general fund for matches to federal aid and
state investments related to airport
infrastructure projects. This is a onetime
appropriation and is available until June 30,
2027.
$15,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is from the
state airports fund for system maintenance of
critical airport safety systems, equipment, and
essential airfield technology.
Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section
16A.28, subdivision 6, the appropriation from
the state airports fund is available for five
years after the year of the appropriation. If the
appropriation for either year is insufficient,
the appropriation for the other year is available
for it.
If the commissioner of transportation
determines that a balance remains in the state
airports fund following the appropriations
made in this article and that the appropriations
made are insufficient for advancing airport
development and assistance projects, an
amount necessary to advance the projects, not
to exceed the balance in the state airports fund,
is appropriated in each year to the
commissioner and must be spent according to
Minnesota Statutes, section 360.305,
subdivision 4. Within two weeks of a
determination under this contingent
appropriation, the commissioner of
transportation must notify the commissioner
of management and budget and the chairs,
ranking minority members, and staff of the
legislative committees with jurisdiction over
transportation finance concerning the funds
appropriated. Funds appropriated under this
contingent appropriation do not adjust the base
for fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
| (2) Aviation Support Services | 15,397,000 | 8,431,000 | ||||
| Appropriations by Fund | ||
| 2024 | 2025 | |
| General | 8,707,000 | 1,741,000 |
| Airports | 6,690,000 | 6,690,000 |
$7,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is from the
general fund to purchase two utility aircraft
for the Department of Transportation.
| (3) Civil Air Patrol | 80,000 | 80,000 | ||||
This appropriation is from the state airports
fund for the Civil Air Patrol.
| (b) Transit and Active Transportation | 58,478,000 | 18,374,000 | ||||
This appropriation is from the general fund.
$200,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $50,000 in
fiscal year 2025 are for a grant to the city of
Rochester to implement demand response
transit service using electric transit vehicles.
The money is available for mobile software
application development; vehicles and
equipment, including accessible vehicles;
associated charging infrastructure; and capital
and operating costs.
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is for matches
to federal aid and state investments related to
transit and active transportation projects. This
is a onetime appropriation and is available
until June 30, 2027.
| (c) Safe Routes to School | 15,297,000 | 10,500,000 | ||||
This appropriation is from the general fund
for the safe routes to school program under
Minnesota Statutes, section 174.40.
If the appropriation for either year is
insufficient, the appropriation for the other
year is available for it. The appropriations in
each year are available until June 30, 2027.
The base for this appropriation is $1,500,000
in each of fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
| (d) Passenger Rail | 197,521,000 | 4,226,000 | ||||
This appropriation is from the general fund
for passenger rail activities under Minnesota
Statutes, sections 174.632 to 174.636.
$194,700,000 in fiscal year 2024 is for capital
improvements and betterments for the
Minneapolis-Duluth Northern Lights Express
intercity passenger rail project, including
preliminary engineering, design, engineering,
environmental analysis and mitigation,
acquisition of land and right-of-way,
equipment and rolling stock, and construction.
From this appropriation, the amount necessary
is for: (1) Coon Rapids station improvements
to establish a joint station that provides for
Amtrak train service on the Empire Builder
line between Chicago and Seattle; and (2)
acquisition of equipment and rolling stock for
purposes of participation in the Midwest fleet
pool to provide for service on Northern Lights
Express and expanded Amtrak train service
between Minneapolis and St. Paul and
Chicago. The commissioner of transportation
must not approve additional stops or stations
beyond those included in the Federal Railroad
Administration's January 2018 Finding of No
Significant Impact and Section 4(f)
Determination if the commissioner determines
that the resulting speed reduction would
negatively impact total ridership. This
appropriation is onetime and is available until
June 30, 2028.new text begin Any remaining balance must
cancel to the hospital stabilization reserve
account under Minnesota Statutes, section
16A.152, subdivision 1c.
new text end
$1,833,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $3,238,000
in fiscal year 2025 are for a match to federal
aid for capital and operating costs for
expanded Amtrak train service between
Minneapolis and St. Paul and Chicago. These
amounts are available until June 30, 2028.
The base from the general fund is $5,742,000
in each of fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
| (e) Freight | 14,650,000 | 9,066,000 | ||||
| Appropriations by Fund | ||
| 2024 | 2025 | |
| General | 8,283,000 | 2,400,000 |
| Trunk Highway | 6,367,000 | 6,666,000 |
$5,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is from the
general fund for matching federal aid grants
for improvements, engineering, and
administrative costs for the Stone Arch Bridge
in Minneapolis. This is a onetime
appropriation and is available until June 30,
2027.
$1,000,000 in each year is from the general
fund for staff, operating costs, and
maintenance related to weight and safety
enforcement systems.
$974,000 in fiscal year 2024 is from the
general fund for procurement costs of a
statewide freight network optimization tool
under Laws 2021, First Special Session
chapter 5, article 4, section 133. This is a
onetime appropriation and is available until
June 30, 2025.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Laws 2023, chapter 68, article 1, section 3, subdivision 2, as amended by Laws
2024, chapter 127, article 1, section 11, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.Transit System Operations | 75,654,000 | 32,654,000 | ||||
This appropriation is for transit system
operations under Minnesota Statutes, sections
473.371 to 473.449.
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is for a grant
to Hennepin County for the Blue Line light
rail transit extension project, including but not
limited to predesign, design, engineering,
environmental analysis and mitigation,
right-of-way acquisition, construction, and
acquisition of rolling stock. Of this amount,
$30,000,000 is available only upon entering
a full funding grant agreement with the Federal
Transit Administration by June 30, 2027. This
is a onetime appropriation and is available
until June 30, 2030.new text begin If a full funding grant
agreement with the Federal Transit
Administration is not reached by June 30,
2027, this appropriation cancels to the hospital
stabilization reserve under Minnesota Statutes,
section 16A.152, subdivision 1c.
new text end
$3,000,000 in fiscal year 2024 is for highway
bus rapid transit project development in the
marked U.S. Highway 169 and marked Trunk
Highway 55 corridors, including but not
limited to feasibility study, predesign, design,
engineering, environmental analysis and
remediation, and right-of-way acquisition.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 14. new text begin HOSPITAL STABILIZATION RESERVE; TRANSFER.
new text end
new text begin (a) By July 15, 2027, the commissioner of management and budget must transfer
$354,000,000 from the general fund budget reserve account to the hospital stabilization
reserve account. This is a onetime transfer.
new text end
new text begin (b) By July 15, 2028, the commissioner of management and budget must transfer up to
$146,000,000 from the general fund budget reserve account to the hospital stabilization
reserve account. This is a onetime transfer.
new text end
new text begin (c) The total transfers and cancellations credited to the hospital stabilization reserve
account must not exceed $500,000,000.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 15.
new text begin HOSPITAL STABILIZATION PROGRAM.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Establishment.new text end
new text begin The commissioner of health must establish a hospital
stabilization program to provide financial relief to critical access hospitals, rural emergency
hospitals, and hospitals that provide a disproportionate level of uncompensated care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Definitions.new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Qualifying hospital" means a hospital:
new text end
new text begin (1) licensed under section 144.50;
new text end
new text begin (2) located within the state;
new text end
new text begin (3) that has filed a Medicare cost report in the Healthcare Cost Report Information
System; and
new text end
new text begin (4) that is a Medicaid disproportionate share hospital, excluding a hospital that qualifies
as a Medicaid disproportionate share hospital solely based upon providing transplant services.
new text end
new text begin (d) "Qualifying uncompensated episode of care" means the provision by a qualifying
hospital of one or more services that are covered under medical assistance to an individual
during a single patient encounter or episode of care when the:
new text end
new text begin (1) individual is not enrolled in medical assistance, MinnesotaCare, or Medicare and
does not have other health coverage;
new text end
new text begin (2) individual is determined to be ineligible for medical assistance and MinnesotaCare
for the date of service following any retroactive eligibility determination; and
new text end
new text begin (3) total cumulative reimbursement amount for the services provided, if paid under
medical assistance payment methodologies using a cost to charge methodology as defined
in the Minnesota Health Care Cost Information System, would be at least $2,000 but not
more than $50,000.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Payments to critical access hospitals and rural emergency hospitals.new text end
new text begin The
commissioner must make a onetime payment of $50,000 to each of the critical access
hospitals and rural emergency hospitals in the state. Payments shall be made in a form and
manner determined by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Application for payments; qualifying hospitals.new text end
new text begin (a) A qualifying hospital
seeking payment under this section must submit to the commissioner documentation
identifying qualifying uncompensated episodes of care within a reporting period.
new text end
new text begin (b) The reporting periods are:
new text end
new text begin (1) January 1 through June 30; and
new text end
new text begin (2) July 1 through December 31.
new text end
new text begin (c) The initial reporting period begins January 1, 2026.
new text end
new text begin (d) For services provided during the January 1 through June 30 reporting period, a
qualifying hospital must submit the required documentation to the commissioner by
September 15 of the same calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (e) For services provided during the July 1 through December 31 reporting period, a
qualifying hospital must submit the required documentation to the commissioner by March
15 of the next calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (f) Qualifying hospitals must submit documentation in a form and manner specified by
the commissioner and must provide supporting documentation as requested by the
commissioner.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Calculation of payments; qualifying hospitals.new text end
new text begin (a) For each reporting period,
the commissioner must determine each qualifying hospital's share of the total value of
qualifying uncompensated episodes of care submitted under subdivision 4.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must distribute payments proportionally based on each qualifying
hospital's share of the statewide total among qualifying hospitals.
new text end
new text begin (c) A qualifying hospital must not receive more than ten percent of the money available
for a reporting period.
new text end
new text begin (d) If money remains after the payment limitation in paragraph (c), the commissioner
must redistribute the remaining money among qualifying hospitals that have not reached
the limit in paragraph (c) in proportion to their share of the value of qualifying
uncompensated episodes of care.
new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner may establish procedures to reconcile adjustments, corrected
claims, or late submissions in a subsequent reporting period.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Distribution of payments; qualifying hospitals.new text end
new text begin (a) The amount available for
payments to qualifying hospitals is the amount appropriated for this section that remains
after payments are made under subdivision 3. One-half of the amount available for payments
to qualifying hospitals must be allocated to each reporting period.
new text end
new text begin (b) For the January 1 through June 30 reporting period, the commissioner must distribute
payments no later than November 15 of the same calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (c) For the July 1 through December 31 reporting period, the commissioner must
distribute payments no later than May 15 of the next calendar year.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Reporting requirements; qualifying hospitals.new text end
new text begin (a) A qualifying hospital
receiving payment under this section must submit to the commissioner any information
necessary to evaluate the appropriate use of funds. The information must include, at
minimum, by June 30, 2027, a detailed analysis of how the funds were used to preserve
regional and local access to essential health care services, including emergency care, inpatient
hospital care, maternal care and obstetrical services, behavioral and mental health care, and
primary care and clinic services.
new text end
new text begin (b) A qualifying hospital receiving payment under this section must submit to the
commissioner, by June 30, 2027, an organizational chart presenting the identities of and
interrelationships among affiliated entities within the hospital system. No subsidiary of an
entity specified on the chart need be shown if the equity or membership interest of the
subsidiary held by the entity is less than ten percent of the subsidiary. As to each entity
specified in the chart, the qualifying hospital must indicate the type of organization and the
state of domicile.
new text end
new text begin (c) Upon receipt of notice by a qualifying hospital receiving payment under this section
submitted pursuant to section 144.555, the commissioner must provide notice of the hospital's
planned actions and documentation of the amount of any payment distributed to the hospital
under this section to:
new text end
new text begin (1) the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with
jurisdiction over health and human services finance and policy; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the majority and minority leaders of the senate and house of representatives.
new text end
new text begin (d) The commissioner must determine the reporting requirement for payments under
this section in addition to the reporting requirements under section 16B.98, subdivision 12.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Prohibited uses.new text end
new text begin Funds received under this section must not be used to:
new text end
new text begin (1) supplant any other funding sources; or
new text end
new text begin (2) increase the salary, benefits, or other discretionary payment to an officer, director,
manager, or any other executive.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Hospital stabilization program ineligibility.new text end
new text begin Hennepin Healthcare System,
Inc., is ineligible for payment under this section.
new text end
Sec. 16. new text begin CORPORATE BOARD OF HENNEPIN HEALTHCARE SYSTEM, INC.;
RECONSTITUTED AND OPERATIONAL.
new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, "Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc.," means the public
corporation created under Minnesota Statutes, section 383B.901.
new text end
new text begin (b) By January 15, 2027, the Hennepin County Board of Commissioners must:
new text end
new text begin (1) reconstitute the corporate board of Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., with members
who meet the requirements in Minnesota Statutes, section 383B.903, subdivision 4; and
new text end
new text begin (2) complete the transition of governance of Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., to the
reconstituted corporate board.
new text end
Sec. 17. new text begin HENNEPIN HEALTHCARE SYSTEM, INC.; STABILIZATION
PAYMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Definitions.new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
new text end
new text begin (c) "HCMC" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section 383B.902.
new text end
new text begin (d) "Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc.," means the public corporation created under
Minnesota Statutes, section 383B.901.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Annual stabilization payments.new text end
new text begin The commissioner of health must award
stabilization payments to Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., in fiscal years 2026 and 2027
to stabilize HCMC operations, avoid the closure of HCMC, ensure that HCMC continues
to provide high-quality care to patients, and preserve access to essential services at HCMC
that support the health care needs of the communities served by HCMC and of the state of
Minnesota.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Accountability requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) To ensure that Hennepin Healthcare System,
Inc., is meeting the requirements of this section, the commissioner must collect from HCMC
the information necessary to complete the commissioner's reporting requirements under
subdivision 4 and must collect from HCMC the following information in fiscal year 2027:
new text end
new text begin (1) a comprehensive financial analysis that describes the financial stability of HCMC.
The report must consider the core financial metrics of HCMC, including expenses and
staffing data; revenue, including payer mix; utilization data; and necessary data as determined
by the commissioner; and
new text end
new text begin (2) quarterly updates of financial information submitted under the hospital annual report
according to Minnesota Statutes, sections 144.695 to 144.703, on a schedule to be determined
by the commissioner, and long-term capital spending priorities, including mandatory
maintenance and replacement of existing facilities and equipment.
new text end
new text begin (b) Upon receipt of notice by Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., provided according to
Minnesota Statutes, section 144.555, the commissioner must provide notice of Hennepin
Healthcare System, Inc.'s planned actions to:
new text end
new text begin (1) the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with
jurisdiction over health and human services finance and policy; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the majority and minority leaders of the senate and house of representatives.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reporting requirement.new text end
new text begin (a) By January 15, 2028, the commissioner must
report to the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services finance
and policy on the financial stabilization of Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc.
new text end
new text begin (b) Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., must provide the commissioner with all
information and documents requested by the commissioner, including nonpublic data from
HCMC, for purposes of this subdivision and subdivision 3. For purposes of this subdivision
and subdivision 3, "nonpublic data" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes, section
13.02, subdivision 9.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 18. new text begin ADVISORY TASK FORCE ON GOVERNANCE AND FINANCING OF
HENNEPIN HEALTHCARE SYSTEM, INC.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Establishment.new text end
new text begin An advisory task force on governance and financing of
Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc., is established to develop recommendations to the
legislature on the ownership, governance, and financing of Hennepin Healthcare System,
Inc., including its integrated system of health care facilities and services that includes
Hennepin County Medical Center. The advisory task force must evaluate options that
recognize Hennepin County Medical Center as a regional and statewide public health and
public safety asset that:
new text end
new text begin (1) provides critical health care services to:
new text end
new text begin (i) complex patients with high medical needs;
new text end
new text begin (ii) a large proportion of the state's medical assistance, MinnesotaCare, and uninsured
populations; and
new text end
new text begin (iii) patients from health care providers and health systems across Minnesota and the
surrounding region. These services include level I trauma care, hyperbaric medicine,
treatment services for burns and complex wounds, comprehensive cancer care, and accredited
poison control services; and
new text end
new text begin (2) supports Minnesota's future health care workforce through education and training.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Membership.new text end
new text begin (a) The advisory task force shall consist of the following nine
members appointed by the governor. Members shall be direct appointments as defined in
Minnesota Statutes, section 15.0597, subdivision 1:
new text end
new text begin (1) one individual from the Health Subcabinet under Minnesota Statutes, section 4.047;
new text end
new text begin (2) the chief executive officer of Hennepin County Medical Center;
new text end
new text begin (3) one individual representing Hennepin County;
new text end
new text begin (4) one individual with expertise in academic medicine, clinical and public health
research, hospital operations, or health system finance;
new text end
new text begin (5) one individual with professional experience in public health;
new text end
new text begin (6) one individual with professional experience in safety net hospital and clinical system
operations;
new text end
new text begin (7) two individuals with professional experience in health care finance and public health
care programs; and
new text end
new text begin (8) one individual with professional experience in public sector governance and public
authorities.
new text end
new text begin (b) Members must be appointed to the advisory task force by August 1, 2026, and serve
until the advisory task force expires.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Governance; first meeting; chairperson.new text end
new text begin (a) Compensation and removal of
members appointed under subdivision 2 are governed by Minnesota Statutes, section 15.059.
new text end
new text begin (b) The individual from the Health Subcabinet who is appointed to the advisory task
force must convene the first meeting of the advisory task force by September 1, 2026, and
shall serve as the chairperson of the advisory task force.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Duties.new text end
new text begin The advisory task force must:
new text end
new text begin (1) evaluate the current governance structure, payer mix, and financing of Hennepin
Healthcare System, Inc.;
new text end
new text begin (2) evaluate whether public health care program reimbursement rates adequately
reimburse Hennepin County Medical Center for the cost of care provided;
new text end
new text begin (3) evaluate labor and workforce needs and challenges at Hennepin County Medical
Center;
new text end
new text begin (4) identify and evaluate Hennepin County Medical Center's capital, infrastructure, and
technology needs;
new text end
new text begin (5) evaluate governance and ownership models of health systems comparable to Hennepin
Healthcare System, Inc.;
new text end
new text begin (6) evaluate financing and funding mechanisms that would allow Hennepin Healthcare
System, Inc., to achieve sustainable, long-term financial stability while ensuring the continued
operation of critical specialized services by Hennepin County Medical Center that are
essential to Minnesota's comprehensive statewide hospital network of rural, regional, and
safety net hospitals;
new text end
new text begin (7) engage with public health leaders throughout the state and professionals and
individuals with the following qualifications or with expertise in the following areas:
new text end
new text begin (i) rural hospitals and rural health systems;
new text end
new text begin (ii) urban, nonprofit hospitals other than Hennepin County Medical Center;
new text end
new text begin (iii) physicians licensed and practicing in Minnesota with experience in emergency
medicine, trauma care, critical care, or hospital medicine;
new text end
new text begin (iv) registered nurses;
new text end
new text begin (v) organized labor representing hospital workers or health care workers;
new text end
new text begin (vi) ambulance service providers or emergency medical services;
new text end
new text begin (vii) local public health departments or community health boards;
new text end
new text begin (viii) federally qualified health centers or other community clinics serving low-income
patients;
new text end
new text begin (ix) consumer or patient advocates with experience accessing services from a safety net
hospital; and
new text end
new text begin (x) state legislators, county commissioners, and state agency commissioners; and
new text end
new text begin (8) develop specific recommendations for an ownership structure, governance and
oversight, and sustainable, long-term funding for Hennepin Healthcare System, Inc. In
developing these recommendations, the task force must consider how to maintain Hennepin
County Medical Center as a public hospital and whether ownership of Hennepin Healthcare
System, Inc., should be transferred to an entity other than solely Hennepin County. These
recommendations must identify legislative changes needed to implement the
recommendations, provide legislative language for the needed legislative changes, and
specify a process to implement changes to ownership, governance and oversight, and funding.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Data.new text end
new text begin (a) The advisory task force may request data and technical assistance
from state agencies, hospital systems, and other stakeholders as necessary to carry out its
duties.
new text end
new text begin (b) Data provided to the advisory task force under this subdivision retains its classification
under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13, and any other applicable state or federal law.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Administrative support and cooperation.new text end
new text begin The Health Subcabinet must provide
meeting space and administrative services for the advisory task force. State agencies must
provide technical assistance upon the request of the advisory task force.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Findings and recommendations.new text end
new text begin (a) By January 15, 2027, the advisory task
force must submit preliminary findings and recommendations to the chairs and ranking
minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human
services finance and policy. The preliminary findings and recommendations must include
information on the meetings and activities of the advisory task force to date, identification
of priority focus areas and preliminary findings and recommendations on the subjects listed
in subdivision 4, recommendations on steps to improve the stabilization of Hennepin
Healthcare System, Inc., and plans for future meetings and work.
new text end
new text begin (b) By January 15, 2028, the advisory task force must submit final findings and
recommendations to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees
with jurisdiction over health finance and policy and human services finance and policy. The
final findings and recommendations must address the subjects listed in subdivision 4.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Expiration.new text end
new text begin The advisory task force expires June 30, 2028.
new text end
ARTICLE 4
HEALTH LICENSING BOARDS
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
For the purposes of sections 148.01 to 148.10:
new text begin (1) "abnormal articulation" means the condition of opposing bony joint surfaces and
their related soft tissues that do not function normally, including subluxation, fixation,
adhesion, degeneration, deformity, dislocation, or other pathology that results in pain or
disturbances within the nervous system, results in postural alteration, inhibits motion, allows
excessive motion, alters direction of motion, or results in loss of axial loading efficiency,
or a combination of these;
new text end
new text begin (2) "acupuncture" means a modality of treating abnormal physical conditions by
stimulating various points of the body or interruption of the cutaneous integrity by needle
insertion to secure a reflex relief of the symptoms by nerve stimulation as utilized as an
adjunct to chiropractic adjustment;
new text end
new text begin (3) "animal chiropractic diagnosis and treatment" means treatment that includes
identification and resolution of vertebral subluxation complexes, spinal manipulation, and
manipulation of the extremity articulations of nonhuman vertebrates. Animal chiropractic
diagnosis and treatment does not include:
new text end
new text begin (i) performing surgery;
new text end
new text begin (ii) dispensing or administering medications; or
new text end
new text begin (iii) performing traditional veterinary care and diagnosis;
new text end
deleted text begin (1)deleted text end new text begin (4) new text end "chiropractic" means the health care discipline that recognizes the innate
recuperative power of the body to heal itself without the use of drugs or surgery by identifying
and caring for vertebral subluxations and other abnormal articulations by emphasizing the
relationship between structure and function as coordinated by the nervous system and how
that relationship affects the preservation and restoration of health;
deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end "chiropractic services" means the evaluation and facilitation of structural,
biomechanical, and neurological function and integrity through the use of adjustment,
manipulation, mobilization, or other procedures accomplished by manual or mechanical
forces applied to bones or joints and their related soft tissues for correction of vertebral
subluxation, other abnormal articulations, neurological disturbances, structural alterations,
or biomechanical alterations, and includesdeleted text begin ,deleted text end but is not limited todeleted text begin ,deleted text end manual therapy and
mechanical therapy as defined in section 146.23;
deleted text begin (3) "abnormal articulation" means the condition of opposing bony joint surfaces and
their related soft tissues that do not function normally, including subluxation, fixation,
adhesion, degeneration, deformity, dislocation, or other pathology that results in pain or
disturbances within the nervous system, results in postural alteration, inhibits motion, allows
excessive motion, alters direction of motion, or results in loss of axial loading efficiency,
or a combination of these;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end "diagnosis" means the physical, clinical, and laboratory examination of the patient,
and the use of diagnostic services for diagnostic purposes within the scope of the practice
of chiropractic described in sections 148.01 to 148.10;
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end "diagnostic services" means clinical, physical, laboratory, and other diagnostic
measures, including diagnostic imaging that may be necessary to determine the presence
or absence of a condition, deficiency, deformity, abnormality, or disease as a basis for
evaluation of a health concern, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment, further
examination, or referral;
new text begin (8) "good standing" means that a license is not the subject of current disciplinary action
under section 148.10 or an equivalent disciplinary law in another jurisdiction;
new text end
new text begin (9) "reinstatement" means the process by which a board-terminated license or voluntarily
retired license returns to active license status under section 148.071 or 148.076;
new text end
deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (10)new text end "therapeutic services" means rehabilitative therapy as defined in Minnesota
Rules, part 2500.0100, subpart 11, and all of the therapeutic, rehabilitative, and preventive
sciences and procedures for which the licensee was subject to examination under section
148.06deleted text begin . When provided, therapeutic services must be performed within a practice where
the primary focus is the provision of chiropractic services, to prepare the patient for
chiropractic services, or to complement the provision of chiropractic services. The
administration of therapeutic services is the responsibility of the treating chiropractor and
must be rendered under the direct supervision of qualified staffdeleted text end ;new text begin and
new text end
deleted text begin (7) "acupuncture" means a modality of treating abnormal physical conditions by
stimulating various points of the body or interruption of the cutaneous integrity by needle
insertion to secure a reflex relief of the symptoms by nerve stimulation as utilized as an
adjunct to chiropractic adjustment. Acupuncture may not be used as an independent therapy
or separately from chiropractic services. Acupuncture is permitted under section 148.01
only after registration with the board which requires completion of a board-approved course
of study and successful completion of a board-approved national examination on acupuncture.
Renewal of registration shall require completion of board-approved continuing education
requirements in acupuncture. The restrictions of section 147B.02, subdivision 2, apply to
individuals registered to perform acupuncture under this section; and
deleted text end
deleted text begin (8) "animal chiropractic diagnosis and treatment" means treatment that includes
identifying and resolving vertebral subluxation complexes, spinal manipulation, and
manipulation of the extremity articulations of nonhuman vertebrates. Animal chiropractic
diagnosis and treatment does not include:
deleted text end
deleted text begin (i) performing surgery;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (ii) dispensing or administering of medications; or
deleted text end
deleted text begin (iii) performing traditional veterinary care and diagnosis.
deleted text end
new text begin (11) "voluntarily retired license" means a license held by a chiropractor who has changed
the chiropractor's license status to a voluntarily retired license under section 148.075.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Practice of chiropractic.
An individual licensed to practice under section
148.06 is authorized to perform chiropractic servicesdeleted text begin , acupuncture,deleted text end and therapeutic services,
and to provide diagnosis and to render opinions pertaining to those services for the purpose
of determining a course of action in the best interests of the patient, such as a treatment
plan, appropriate referral, or both.
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Practice of therapeutic services.new text end
new text begin Therapeutic services must be performed
within a practice where the primary focus is the provision of chiropractic services, preparing
the patient for chiropractic services, or complementing the provision of chiropractic services.
The administration of therapeutic services is the responsibility of the treating chiropractor
and must be rendered under the direct supervision of qualified staff.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Practice of acupuncture.new text end
new text begin Acupuncture must not be used as an independent
therapy or separately from chiropractic services. Acupuncture is permitted under this section
only after registration with the board, which requires completing a board-approved course
of study and a board-approved national examination on acupuncture. Renewal of registration
requires completing board-approved continuing education requirements in acupuncture.
The restrictions of section 147B.02, subdivision 2, apply to individuals registered to perform
acupuncture under this section.
new text end
Sec. 5.
new text begin [148.071] REINSTATEMENT OF A LICENSE TERMINATED FOR
FAILING TO RENEW OR TO COMPLETE CONTINUING EDUCATION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota license
was terminated by the board for failing to timely renew the license or complete annual
continuing education requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Application requirements.new text end
new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement, the
applicant must:
new text end
new text begin (1) submit an application for reinstatement and pay the application fee;
new text end
new text begin (2) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end
new text begin (3) complete a criminal background check as prescribed under section 214.075 and pay
the required fee;
new text end
new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license;
new text end
new text begin (5) submit evidence of passing the board's jurisprudence exam;
new text end
new text begin (6) submit evidence of correcting any outstanding requirements and paying any
outstanding fees that existed at the time the license was terminated; and
new text end
new text begin (7) complete any additional applicable requirements established in subdivisions 3, 4, 5,
6, and 9.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license for licensee in good standing in another
jurisdiction.new text end
new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant who is currently licensed
and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of the active chiropractic license in good standing in another
jurisdiction; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours in the year
immediately preceding the application for reinstatement.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license after five years or less.new text end
new text begin The board must
reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3
and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after license termination in Minnesota
or another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end
new text begin (i) completing 20 continuing education hours for each year since the applicant last held
an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another jurisdiction and 20 continuing
education hours in the year immediately preceding the application for reinstatement; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic, or an alternate
examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license after more than five years.new text end
new text begin The board
must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision
3 and who applies for reinstatement more than five years after license termination in
Minnesota or another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours for each year
since the applicant last held an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another
jurisdiction and 20 continuing education hours in the year immediately preceding the
application for reinstatement, not to exceed a maximum of 100 required continuing education
hours; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic,
or an alternate examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after
application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement within the same calendar year of continuing education
termination.new text end
new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant whose license was
terminated for failing to submit the required number of continuing education hours if within
the same calendar year of termination the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes the required number of continuing education hours and outstanding penalty
hours imposed by the board; and
new text end
new text begin (2) pays all application fees and penalty fees.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Board authority.new text end
new text begin Applications for reinstatement and licenses reinstated under
this section are subject to the same board authority under sections 148.10 and 214.103 as
other applications and licenses issued by the board to deny, refuse to issue, revoke, suspend,
condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or corrective action against a licensee or
applicant for conduct that violates applicable law or professional standards.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement.new text end
new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
terminated license under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the year in
which the license is reinstated.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Previously terminated licenses.new text end
new text begin If a chiropractor's license was terminated
before July 1, 2026, and the chiropractor applies for reinstatement under this section, the
chiropractor is not required to repay any renewal fees that accrued before the license
reinstatement.
new text end
Sec. 6.
new text begin [148.075] VOLUNTARILY RETIRED LICENSE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Application.new text end
new text begin A Minnesota licensed chiropractor in good standing and
with no continuing education audit deficiencies may apply to the board to voluntarily retire
a license by submitting an application on a form provided by the board and a signed affidavit
stating that the applicant will no longer actively practice chiropractic in Minnesota.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Grounds for denial.new text end
new text begin The board may deny an application to voluntarily retire
a license if the applicant's Minnesota license or license issued in another jurisdiction is not
in good standing or is subject to a pending disciplinary action.
new text end
Sec. 7.
new text begin [148.076] REINSTATEMENT OF A VOLUNTARILY RETIRED LICENSE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor who voluntarily retired a
Minnesota chiropractic license under section 148.075.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Application requirements.new text end
new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement, the
applicant must:
new text end
new text begin (1) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end
new text begin (2) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end
new text begin (3) complete a criminal background check as prescribed under section 214.075 and pay
the required fee;
new text end
new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license;
new text end
new text begin (5) submit evidence of passing the board's jurisprudence exam;
new text end
new text begin (6) submit evidence of correcting any outstanding requirements and paying any
outstanding fees that existed at the time the license was voluntarily retired; and
new text end
new text begin (7) complete any additional applicable requirements in subdivisions 3, 4, 5, and 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license for licensee in good standing
in another jurisdiction.new text end
new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant who is currently
licensed and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of the active chiropractic license in good standing in another
jurisdiction; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours in the year
immediately preceding the application for reinstatement.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license after five years or less.new text end
new text begin The
board must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of
subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after voluntary license
retirement in Minnesota or the equivalent in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end
new text begin (i) completing 20 continuing education hours for each year since the applicant last held
an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another jurisdiction and 20 continuing
education hours in the year immediately preceding the application for reinstatement; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic, or an alternate
examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license after more than five years.new text end
new text begin The
board must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of
subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement more than five years after voluntary license
retirement in Minnesota or the equivalent in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours for each year
since the applicant last held an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another
jurisdiction and 20 continuing education hours in the year immediately preceding the
application for reinstatement, not to exceed a maximum of 100 required continuing education
hours; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic,
or an alternate examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after
application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Board authority.new text end
new text begin Applications for reinstatement and licenses reinstated under
this section are subject to the same board authority under sections 148.10 and 214.103 as
other applications and licenses issued by the board to deny, refuse to issue, revoke, suspend,
condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or corrective action against a licensee or
applicant for conduct that violates applicable law or professional standards.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement.new text end
new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
voluntarily retired license under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the
year the license is reinstated.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Previously voluntarily retired licensees.new text end
new text begin (a) If a chiropractor who voluntarily
retired before July 1, 2026, applies for reinstatement under this section, the chiropractor is
not required to repay any renewal fees that accrued before the license reinstatement.
new text end
new text begin (b) Before reinstatement under this subdivision, the voluntarily retired licensee must
complete any outstanding continuing education hours due at the time the license was
voluntarily retired.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.09, is amended to read:
148.09 INDEPENDENT EXAMINATION.
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Requirements for examiners.new text end
new text begin (a) new text end A doctor of chiropractic conducting
a physical examination of a patient or a review of records by a doctor of chiropractic, for
the purpose of generating a report or opinion to aid a reparation obligor under chapter 65B
in making a determination regarding the condition or further treatment of the patient, shall
meet the following requirements:
(1) the doctor of chiropractic must either be an instructor at an accredited school of
chiropractic or have devoted not less than 50 percent of practice time to direct patient care
during the two years immediately preceding the examination;
(2) the doctor of chiropractic must have completed any annual continuing education
requirements for chiropractors prescribed by the Board of Chiropractic Examiners;
(3) the doctor of chiropractic must not accept a fee of more than $500 for each
independent exam conducted; and
(4) the doctor of chiropractic must register with the Board of Chiropractic Examiners
as an independent examiner and adhere to all rules governing the practice of chiropractic.
new text begin (b) The examiner must identify in the written report the source of all records reviewed
and the dates or period of services covered by those records. The examiner's notes and a
copy of the final written report must be retained for at least four years following the
examination.
new text end
new text begin (c) Before conducting an independent examination, the examiner must provide written
disclosures to the examinee that clearly state the purpose of the examination and the
examinee's right to have a third party present under subdivision 2.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Third-party presence during examinations.new text end
new text begin (a) An examiner performing an
independent examination under this section must not prohibit the examinee from having a
third party of the examinee's choice present during the consultation and examination. The
examiner must not bar the presence of a third party based on the third party's training or
credentials. Advance notice to the examiner or to any other person, organization, or agency
is not required for the presence of a third party under this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (b) The third party must provide their name to the examiner. The examiner must document
the presence and stated identity of any third party in the written report of the examination.
new text end
new text begin (c) A third party may make a written or audio recording of the consultation or examination
if the recording does not obstruct the conduct of the examination. A third party must not
make a video recording of the consultation or examination.
new text end
new text begin (d) An examiner must not consider the examinee's exercise of rights under this subdivision
as failing to cooperate with the examination. If an examiner determines that the examination
has been obstructed, the examiner must describe in detail the nature of the obstruction in
the body of the written report. For purposes of this subdivision, "obstruct" means to hinder
the examination to the degree that the examination cannot be completed, unless the
obstruction is necessary for the safety or well-being of the patient.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Violation.new text end
new text begin A violation of this section constitutes unprofessional conduct under
section 148.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (e).
new text end
Sec. 9.
new text begin [148.095] ADMINISTRATIVE HOLD DURING COMPLAINT RESOLUTION
PROCESS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Administrative hold.new text end
new text begin (a) If there is a pending complaint against a licensee
and the licensee fails to pay required renewal fees, fails to renew the license, or fails to
complete required continuing education hours within the time prescribed by law, the board
must place the license on an administrative hold.
new text end
new text begin (b) A license on an administrative hold:
new text end
new text begin (1) is expired and does not authorize the licensee to engage in the practice of chiropractic;
and
new text end
new text begin (2) remains under the board's full jurisdiction for all purposes under sections 148.10 and
214.103, including investigation, adjudication, and imposition of discipline.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Prohibition on status change while on administrative hold.new text end
new text begin (a) If the board
places a license on administrative hold, the board must not:
new text end
new text begin (1) accept an application to voluntarily retire the license under section 148.075;
new text end
new text begin (2) terminate the license for failing to renew or to complete continuing education
requirements; or
new text end
new text begin (3) otherwise change the license status of the licensee in a manner that allows the licensee
to delay, avoid, or terminate the complaint resolution process.
new text end
new text begin (b) The board must remove the administrative hold upon the resolution of all pending
complaints against the licensee.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Licensee obligations not suspended.new text end
new text begin An administrative hold on a license does
not relieve a licensee of the legal obligation to timely renew the license, pay renewal or
other required fees, or complete continuing education hours according to law.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.10, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Loss and restoration of good standing.new text end
new text begin The pendency of a complaint does
not cause a license to lose good standing unless: (1) the complaint results in disciplinary
action under this section or an equivalent disciplinary law in another jurisdiction; or (2) a
stipulation and order or an equivalent order in another jurisdiction provides for the loss of
good standing. A license is restored to good standing upon the satisfactory completion,
expiration, or other agreed-upon termination of all terms of a stipulation and order or an
equivalent order in another jurisdiction. An agreement for corrective action as described
under section 214.103, subdivision 6, does not cause a license to lose good standing.
new text end
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.102, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Insurers.
deleted text begin Two times each yeardeleted text end new text begin (a) Every January 1 and July 1, new text end each insurer
authorized to sell insurance described in section 60A.06, subdivision 1, clause (13), and
providing professional liability insurance to chiropractors shall submit to the board a report
concerning the chiropractors against whom malpractice settlements or awards have been
made to the plaintiff. The report must contain at least the following information:
(1) the total number of malpractice settlements or awards made to the plaintiff;
(2) the date the malpractice settlements or awards to the plaintiff were made;
(3) the allegations contained in the claim or complaint leading to the settlements or
awards made to the plaintiff;
(4) the dollar amount of each malpractice settlement or award;
(5) the regular address of the practice of the doctor of chiropractic against whom an
award was made or with whom a settlement was made; and
(6) the name of the doctor of chiropractic against whom an award was made or with
whom a settlement was made.
new text begin (b) new text end The insurance company shall, in addition to the above information, report to the
board any information it possesses which tends to substantiate a charge that a doctor of
chiropractic may have engaged in conduct violating section 148.10 and this section.
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.105, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Generally.
Any person who practices, or attempts to practice, chiropractic
or who uses any of the terms or letters "Doctors of Chiropractic," "Chiropractor," "DC," or
any other title or letters under any circumstances as to lead the public to believe that the
person who so uses the terms is engaged in the practice of chiropractic, without having
complied with the provisions of sections 148.01 to 148.104, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor;
and, upon conviction, fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 or be imprisoned
in the county jail for not less than 30 days nor more than six months or punished by both
fine and imprisonment, in the discretion of the court. It is the duty of the county attorney
of the county in which the person practices to prosecute. Nothing in sections 148.01 to
deleted text begin 148.105deleted text end new text begin 148.108new text end shall be considered as interfering with any person:
(1) licensed by a health-related licensing board, as defined in section 214.01, subdivision
2, including psychological practitioners with respect to the use of hypnosis;
(2) registered or licensed by the commissioner of health under section 214.13; or
(3) engaged in other methods of healing regulated by law in the state of Minnesota;
provided that the person confines activities within the scope of the license or other regulation
and does not practice or attempt to practice chiropractic.
Sec. 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 148.108, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
Subd. 5.
Chiropractic license fees.
Fees for chiropractic licensure are the following
amounts but may be adjusted lower by board action:
(1) initial application for licensure deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $300;
(2) annual renewal of an active license deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $250;
deleted text begin (3) annual renewal of an inactive license fee, 75 percent of the current active license
renewal fee under clause (2);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end late renewal penalty deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $150 per month late; deleted text begin and
deleted text end
deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end application for reinstatement of a deleted text begin voluntarily retired or inactivedeleted text end new text begin terminatednew text end license
deleted text begin feedeleted text end , deleted text begin $187.50.deleted text end new text begin $100; and
new text end
new text begin (5) penalty for failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal:
new text end
new text begin (i) at the first failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal, the
amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active license under clause (2);
new text end
new text begin (ii) at the second failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal,
two times the amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active license under clause (2);
and
new text end
new text begin (iii) at the third failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal and
every subsequent failure, three times the amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active
license under clause (2).
new text end
Sec. 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.01, subdivision 35, is amended to read:
Subd. 35.
Compounding.
"Compounding" means preparing, mixing, assembling,
packaging, and labeling a drug for an identified individual patient as a result of a practitioner's
prescription drug order. Compounding also includes anticipatory compounding, as defined
in this section, and the preparation of drugs in which all bulk drug substances and components
are nonprescription substances. Compounding does not include mixing or reconstituting a
drug according to the product's labeling or to the manufacturer's directions, provided that
such labeling has been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
or the manufacturer is licensed under section 151.252. Compounding does not include the
preparation of a drug for the purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical
analysis, provided that the drug is not prepared for dispensing or administration to patients.
All compounding, regardless of the type of product, must be done pursuant to a prescription
drug order unless otherwise permitted in this chapter or by the rules of the board.
Compounding does not include a minor deviation from such directions with regard to
radioactivity, volume, or stability, which is made by or under the supervision of a licensed
nuclear pharmacist or a physician, and which is necessary in order to accommodate
circumstances not contemplated in the manufacturer's instructions, such as the rate of
radioactive decay or geographical distance from the patient.new text begin Compounding does not include
the use of a flavoring agent to flavor a drug.
new text end
Sec. 15.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 44.new text end
new text begin Flavoring agent.new text end
new text begin "Flavoring agent" means a therapeutically inert, nonallergenic
substance consisting of inactive ingredients that is added to a drug to improve the drug's
taste and palatability.
new text end
Sec. 16.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.555, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Standards and procedures for inspecting and storing donated drugs and
supplies.
(a) A pharmacist or authorized practitioner who is employed by or under contract
with the central repository or a local repository shall inspect all donated drugs and supplies
before the drug or supply is dispensed to determine, to the extent reasonably possible in the
professional judgment of the pharmacist or practitioner, that the drug or supply is not
adulterated or misbranded, has not been tampered with, is safe and suitable for dispensing,
has not been subject to a recall, and meets the requirements for donation. If a local repository
receives drugs and supplies from the central repository, the local repository does not need
to reinspect the drugs and supplies.
(b) The central repository and local repositories shall store donated drugs and supplies
in a secure storage area under environmental conditions appropriate for the drug or supply
being stored. Donated drugs and supplies may not be stored with nondonated inventory.
(c) The central repository and local repositories shall dispose of all drugs and medical
supplies that are not suitable for donation in compliance with applicable federal and state
statutes, regulations, and rules concerning hazardous waste.
(d) In the event that controlled substances or drugs that can only be dispensed to a patient
registered with the drug's manufacturer are shipped or delivered to a central or local repository
for donation, the shipment delivery must be documented by the repository and returned
immediately to the donor or the donor's representative that provided the drugs.
(e) Each repository must develop drug and medical supply recall policies and procedures.
If a repository receives a recall notification, the repository shall destroy all of the drug or
medical supply in its inventory that is the subject of the recall and complete a record of
destruction form in accordance with paragraph (f). If a drug or medical supply that is the
subject of a Class I or Class II recall has been dispensed, the repository shall immediately
notify the recipient of the recalled drug or medical supply. A drug that potentially is subject
to a recall need not be destroyed if its packaging bears a lot number and that lot of the drug
is not subject to the recall. If no lot number is on the drug's packaging, it must be destroyed.
(f) A record of destruction ofnew text begin acceptednew text end donated drugs and supplies that are not dispensed
under subdivision 8deleted text begin , are subject to a recall under paragraph (e), or are not suitable for
donationdeleted text end new text begin or are subject to a recall under paragraph (e)new text end shall be maintained by the repository
for at least two years. deleted text begin For each drug or supply destroyed,deleted text end The record shall include the
following information:
(1) the date of destruction;
(2) the name, strength, and quantity of the drug destroyed; and
(3) the name of the person or firm that destroyed the drug.
No other record of destruction is required.
Sec. 17.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.741, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Insulin safety net program account.
new text begin (a) new text end The insulin safety net program account
is established in the special revenue fund in the state treasury. Money in the account is
appropriated each fiscal year to:
(1) the MNsure board in an amount sufficient to carry out assigned duties under section
151.74, subdivision 7; and
(2) the Board of Pharmacy in an amount sufficient to cover costs incurred by the board
deleted text begin in assessing and collecting the registration fee under this section anddeleted text end in administering the
insulin safety net program under section 151.74.
new text begin (b) The commissioner of management and budget shall annually transfer from the health
care access fund to the insulin safety net program account an amount sufficient to implement
paragraph (a).
new text end
Sec. 18.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 151.741, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
Subd. 5.
Insulin repayment account; annual transfer from health care access fund.
(a)
The insulin repayment account is established in the special revenue fund in the state treasury.
Money in the account is appropriated each fiscal year to the commissioner of administration
to reimburse manufacturers for insulin dispensed under the insulin safety net program in
section 151.74, in accordance with section 151.74, subdivisions 3, paragraph (h), and 6,
paragraph (h), and to cover costs incurred by the commissioner in providing these
reimbursement payments.
(b) deleted text begin By June 30, 2025, anddeleted text end Each June 30 deleted text begin thereafterdeleted text end , the commissioner of administration
shall certify to the commissioner of management and budget the total amount expended in
the prior fiscal year for:
(1) reimbursement to manufacturers for insulin dispensed under the insulin safety net
program in section 151.74, in accordance with section 151.74, subdivisions 3, paragraph
(h), and 6, paragraph (h); and
(2) costs incurred by the commissioner of administration in providing the reimbursement
payments described in clause (1).
(c) new text begin Each July 1, new text end the commissioner of management and budget shall transfer from the
health care access fund to the insulin repayment accountdeleted text begin , beginning July 1, 2025, and each
July 1 thereafter,deleted text end an amount equal to the amount to which the commissioner of administration
certified pursuant to paragraph (b).
Sec. 19.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 214.41, is amended to read:
214.41 deleted text begin PHYSICIANdeleted text end new text begin HEALTH CARE PROVIDERnew text end WELLNESS PROGRAM.
Subdivision 1.
deleted text begin Definitiondeleted text end new text begin Definitionsnew text end .
new text begin (a) new text end For the purposes of this section, new text begin the following
terms have the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Health care provider" or "provider" means an individual who is licensed or registered
by the state to perform health care services within the provider's scope of practice and in
accordance with state law.
new text end
new text begin (c) new text end "deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin Health care providernew text end wellness program" means a program new text begin for health care
providers new text end of evaluation, counseling, or other modality to address an issue related to career
fatigue or wellness related to work stress deleted text begin for physicians licensed under chapter 147deleted text end that is
administered by a statewide association that is exempt from taxation under United States
Code, title 26, section 501(c)(6), and that primarily represents physicians and osteopaths
of multiple specialties. deleted text begin Physiciandeleted text end new text begin Health care providernew text end wellness program does not include
the provision of services intended to monitor for impairment under the authority of section
214.31.
Subd. 2.
Confidentiality.
Any record of a deleted text begin person'sdeleted text end new text begin health care provider'snew text end participation
in a deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program is confidential and not subject to
discovery, subpoena, or a reporting requirement to the applicable new text begin health-related licensing
new text end boardnew text begin or to the commissioner of healthnew text end , unless the deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin providernew text end voluntarily provides for
written release of the information or the disclosure is required to meet the deleted text begin licensee'sdeleted text end new text begin provider'snew text end
obligation to report new text begin certain information to the applicable health-related licensing board or
the commissioner of health new text end according to deleted text begin section 147.111deleted text end new text begin law governing the practice of the
provider's professionnew text end .
Subd. 3.
Civil liability.
Any person, agency, institution, facility, or organization employed
by, contracting with, or operating a deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program is
immune from civil liability for any action related to their duties in connection with a
deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program when acting in good faith.
Sec. 20.
Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 23, section 2, subdivision 12,
is amended to read:
Subd. 12.Board of Pharmacy | ||||||
| Appropriations by Fund | ||
| General | 937,000 | 937,000 |
| State Government Special Revenue | 6,280,000 | 6,280,000 |
Medication Repository Program. $450,000
in fiscal year 2026 and $450,000 in fiscal year
2027 are from the general fund for the
medication repository program deleted text begin to purchase
prescription drugsdeleted text end under Minnesota Statutes,
section 151.555deleted text begin , subdivision 6deleted text end deleted text begin , paragraph (g)deleted text end .
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 21. new text begin TRANSITION OF INACTIVE LICENSES.
new text end
new text begin On July 1, 2026, the Board of Chiropractic Examiners must administratively change all
chiropractic licenses put on inactive license status under Minnesota Rules, part 2500.2020,
before that date to a voluntarily retired license under Minnesota Statutes, section 148.075.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 22. new text begin INTERIM CHIROPRACTIC ACUPUNCTURE REGISTRATION
REINSTATEMENT PROCEDURES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota chiropractic
acupuncture registration was canceled.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Application requirements.new text end
new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement of an
acupuncture registration, the applicant must:
new text end
new text begin (1) hold an active Minnesota chiropractic license;
new text end
new text begin (2) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end
new text begin (3) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end
new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license; and
new text end
new text begin (5) complete any additional applicable requirements as established in subdivisions 3, 4,
and 5.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant in good standing in
another jurisdiction.new text end
new text begin The Board of Chiropractic Examiners must reinstate the chiropractic
acupuncture registration of an applicant in good standing in another jurisdiction if the
applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of a chiropractic acupuncture credential in good standing from
each jurisdiction where the applicant is authorized to perform chiropractic acupuncture; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of completing two continuing education units in acupuncture
or acupuncture-related subjects in the year immediately preceding the application for
reinstatement.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration after five years or less.new text end
new text begin The board
must reinstate the chiropractic acupuncture registration of an applicant who does not meet
the requirements of subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after
the Minnesota registration cancellation if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end
new text begin (i) completing two continuing education hours in acupuncture or acupuncture-related
subjects for each year since the applicant last held an active chiropractic acupuncture
registration in Minnesota or credential in another jurisdiction; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) passing the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners Acupuncture Examination or
the National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine (NCCAOM)
Examination, or an alternate examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12
months after application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration license after more than five
years.new text end
new text begin The board must reinstate the chiropractic acupuncture registration of an applicant
who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement
more than five years after the Minnesota registration cancellation if the applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of passing either the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners
Acupuncture Examination or the NCCAOM Examination, or an alternative examination
the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement.new text end
new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education units obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
canceled registration under this section to meet the annual requirement for the year the
license is reinstated.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Board authority.new text end
new text begin Applications for reinstatement and registrations reinstated
under this section are subject to the same board authority under Minnesota Statutes, sections
148.10 and 214.103, as other applications and registrations issued by the board to deny,
refuse to issue, revoke, suspend, condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or
corrective action against a registrant or applicant for conduct that violates applicable law
or professional standards.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Expiration.new text end
new text begin This section expires on the date that rules adopted by the board
removing the inactive status for chiropractic acupuncture registration reinstatement and
establishing new chiropractic acupuncture registration reinstatement procedures become
effective.
new text end
Sec. 23. new text begin INTERIM ANIMAL CHIROPRACTIC REGISTRATION
REINSTATEMENT PROCEDURES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota animal
chiropractic registration was canceled.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Application requirements.new text end
new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement of an
animal chiropractic registration, the applicant must:
new text end
new text begin (1) hold an active Minnesota chiropractic license;
new text end
new text begin (2) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end
new text begin (3) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end
new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license; and
new text end
new text begin (5) complete any additional applicable requirements as established in subdivisions 3 and
4.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant in good standing in
another jurisdiction.new text end
new text begin The Board of Chiropractic Examiners must reinstate the animal
chiropractic registration of an applicant who holds an animal chiropractic credential that is
equivalent to a Minnesota registration and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the
applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of an animal acupuncture credential in good standing from each
jurisdiction where the applicant is authorized to perform animal acupuncture; and
new text end
new text begin (3) provides verification of completing six continuing education units in animal
chiropractic diagnosis and treatment in the year immediately preceding the application for
reinstatement.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant with no animal
chiropractic credential in good standing in another jurisdiction.new text end
new text begin The board must reinstate
the registration of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3 if the
applicant:
new text end
new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (2) provides verification of completing six continuing education units related to animal
chiropractic diagnosis and treatment for each year the applicant cannot verify an active
animal chiropractic credential that is equivalent to a Minnesota registration and in good
standing.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement.new text end
new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purposes of applying for reinstatement of a
canceled registration under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the year
the license is reinstated.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Board authority.new text end
new text begin Applications for reinstatement and registrations reinstated
under this section are subject to the same board authority under Minnesota Statutes, sections
148.10 and 214.103, as other applications and registrations issued by the board to deny,
refuse to issue, revoke, suspend, condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or
corrective action against a registrant or applicant for conduct that violates applicable law
or professional standards.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Expiration.new text end
new text begin This section expires on the date that rules adopted by the board
removing the inactive status for animal chiropractic registration reinstatement and establishing
new animal chiropractic registration reinstatement procedures become effective.
new text end
Sec. 24. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end
new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber each provision of Minnesota Statutes listed in
column A to the number listed in column B. The revisor shall also make necessary
cross-reference changes consistent with the renumbering:
new text end
| new text begin Column A new text end | new text begin Column B new text end |
| new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1a new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 1 new text end |
| new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1b new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 2 new text end |
| new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1c new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 3 new text end |
| new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1d new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 4 new text end |
| new text begin 148.032, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 5, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end |
| new text begin 148.032, paragraphs (c) and (d) new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 6, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end |
| new text begin 148.032, paragraph (e) new text end | new text begin 148.032, subdivision 7 new text end |
Sec. 25. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin (a)new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.741, subdivisions 2, 3, and 6,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
new text begin (b)new text end new text begin Minnesota Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 5b, 6, and 12; 2500.1900; 2500.2020;
2500.2040; 2500.2100; 2500.2110; 6800.0400; and 6800.1150,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 5
HEALTH CARE
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62V.05, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Agreements; consultation.
(a) The board shall:
(1) establish and maintain an agreement with the commissioner of human services for
cost allocation and services regarding eligibility determinations and enrollment for public
health care programs that use a modified adjusted gross income standard to determine
program eligibility. The board may establish and maintain an agreement with the
commissioner of human services for other services;
(2) establish and maintain an agreement with the commissioners of commerce and health
for services regarding enforcement of MNsure certification requirements for health plans
and dental plans offered through MNsure. The board may establish and maintain agreements
with the commissioners of commerce and health for other services; and
(3) establish interagency agreements to transfer funds to other state agencies for their
costs related to implementing and operating MNsure, excluding medical assistance allocatable
costs.
(b) The board shall consult with the commissioners of commerce and health regarding
the operations of MNsure.
(c) The board shall consult with Indian tribes and organizations regarding the operation
of MNsure.
deleted text begin (d) Beginning March 15, 2016, and each March 15 thereafter, the board shall submit a
report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees in the senate and house
of representatives with primary jurisdiction over commerce, health, and human services on
all the agreements entered into with the chief information officer of the Department of
Information Technology Services, or the commissioners of human services, health, or
commerce in accordance with this subdivision. The report shall include the agency in which
the agreement is with; the time period of the agreement; the purpose of the agreement; and
a summary of the terms of the agreement. A copy of the agreement must be submitted to
the extent practicable.
deleted text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62V.13, is amended to read:
62V.13 EASY ENROLLMENT HEALTH INSURANCE OUTREACH PROGRAM.
Subdivision 1.
Establishment.
The board, in cooperation with the commissioner of
revenue, must establish the easy enrollment health insurance outreach program to:
(1) reduce the number of uninsured Minnesotans and increase access to affordable health
insurance coverage;
(2) allow the commissioner of revenue to provide return information, at the request of
the taxpayer, to MNsure to provide the taxpayer with information about the taxpayer's
potential eligibility for financial assistance and health insurance enrollment options through
MNsure;
(3) allow MNsure to deleted text begin estimate taxpayer potential eligibility for financial assistance for
health insurance coveragedeleted text end new text begin provide general information regarding potential eligibility for
health insurance programs and financial assistance available through MNsurenew text end ; and
(4) allow MNsure to conduct targeted outreach to assist interested taxpayer households
in applying for and enrolling in affordable health insurance options through MNsure,
including connecting interested taxpayer households with a navigator or broker for free
enrollment assistance.
Subd. 2.
Screening for eligibility for insurance assistance.
Upon receipt of deleted text begin and based
ondeleted text end return information received from the commissioner of revenue under section 270B.14,
subdivision 22, MNsure may deleted text begin make a projected assessment on whether the interested
taxpayer's household may qualify for a financial assistance program for health insurance
coveragedeleted text end new text begin review the information to identify households that may benefit from health coverage
through MNsure and provide general information on available coverage and financial
assistance programsnew text end .
Subd. 3.
Outreach letter and special enrollment period.
(a) MNsure must provide a
written letter deleted text begin of the projected assessment under subdivision 2deleted text end new text begin with general information
about health insurance coverage and financial assistance available through MNsurenew text end to a
taxpayer who indicates to the commissioner of revenue that the taxpayer is interested in
obtaining information on access to health insurance.
(b) MNsure must allow a special enrollment period for taxpayers who receive the outreach
letter in paragraph (a) and are determined eligible to enroll in a qualified health plan through
MNsure. The triggering event for the special enrollment period is the day the outreach letter
under this subdivision is mailed to the taxpayer. An eligible individual, and their dependents,
have 65 days from the triggering event to select a qualifying health plan and coverage for
the qualifying health plan is effective the first day of the month after plan selection.
(c) Taxpayers who have a member of the taxpayer's household currently enrolled in a
qualified health plan through MNsure are not eligible for the special enrollment under
paragraph (b).
(d) MNsure must provide information to the general public about the easy enrollment
health insurance outreach program and the special enrollment period described in this
subdivision.
Subd. 4.
Appeals.
(a) deleted text begin Projecteddeleted text end new text begin Anynew text end eligibility deleted text begin assessments for financial assistance under
this section are not appealabledeleted text end new text begin information provided under this section is not appealablenew text end .
(b) Qualification for the special enrollment period under this section is appealable to
MNsure under this chapter and Minnesota Rules, chapter 7700.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256.9657, subdivision 2b, is amended
to read:
Subd. 2b.
Hospital assessment.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms
have the meanings given:
(1) "eligible hospital" means:
(i) PrairieCare psychiatric hospital; or
(ii) a hospital licensed under section 144.50, located in Minnesota, and with a Medicare
cost report filed and showing in the Healthcare Cost Report Information System (HCRIS),
except for the following:
(A) federal Indian Health Service facilities;
(B) state-owned or state-operated regional treatment centers and all state-operated
services;
(C) federal Veterans Administration Medical Centers; and
(D) long-term acute care hospitals;
(2) "net outpatient revenue" means total outpatient revenue less Medicare revenue as
calculated from:
(i) values on Worksheet G of the hospital's Medicare cost report; or
(ii) for PrairieCare psychiatric hospital, data available to the commissioner; and
(3) "total patient days" means total hospital inpatient days as reported on:
(i) Worksheet S-3 of the hospital's Medicare cost report; or
(ii) for PrairieCare psychiatric hospital, data available to the commissioner.
(b) Subject to paragraphs (m) to deleted text begin (o)deleted text end new text begin (p)new text end , each eligible hospital must pay assessments to
the hospital directed payment program account in the special revenue fund, with an aggregate
annual assessment amount equal to the sum of the following:
(1) $120.22 multiplied by total patient days; and
(2) 5.96 percent of the hospital's net outpatient revenue.
(c) The assessment amount for calendar years 2026 and 2027 must be based on the total
patient days and net outpatient revenue reflected on an eligible hospital's Medicare cost
report as follows:
(1) an eligible hospital with a fiscal year ending on March 31 or June 30 must use data
from a cost report from the hospital's fiscal year 2022; and
(2) an eligible hospital with a fiscal year ending on September 30 or December 31 must
use data from a cost report from the hospital's fiscal year 2021.
(d) The annual assessment amount for calendar years after 2027 must be set for a two-year
period and must be based on the total patient days and net outpatient revenue reflected on
an eligible hospital's most recent Medicare cost report filed and showing in HCRIS as of
August 1 of the year prior to the subsequent two-year period.
(e) The commissioner may, after consultation with the Minnesota Hospital Association,
modify the rates of assessment in paragraph (b) as necessary to comply with federal law,
obtain or maintain a waiver under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 433.72, or
otherwise maximize under this section federal financial participation for medical assistance.
Notwithstanding the foregoing authorization to maximize federal financial participation for
medical assistance, the commissioner must reduce the rates of assessment in paragraph (b)
as necessary to ensure:
(1) the state's aggregated health care-related taxes on inpatient hospital services do not
exceed 5.75 percent of the net patient revenue attributable to those services; and
(2) the state's aggregated health care-related taxes on outpatient hospital services do not
exceed 5.75 percent of the net patient revenue attributable to those services.
(f) Eligible hospitals must pay the annual assessment amount under paragraph (b) to the
commissioner by paying four equal, quarterly assessments. Eligible hospitals must pay the
quarterly assessments by January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1 each year. Assessments
must be paid in the form and manner specified by the commissioner. An eligible hospital
is prohibited from paying a quarterly assessment until the eligible hospital has received the
applicable invoice under paragraph (g).
(g) The commissioner must provide eligible hospitals with an invoice by December 1
for the assessment due January 1, March 1 for the assessment due April 1, June 1 for the
assessment due July 1, and September 1 for the assessment due October 1 each year.
(h) The commissioner must notify each eligible hospital of the hospital's estimated annual
assessment amount for the subsequent calendar year by October 15 each year.
(i) If any of the dates for assessments or invoices in paragraphs (f) to (h) fall on a holiday,
the applicable date is the next business day.
(j) A hospital that has merged with another hospital must have the surviving hospital's
assessment revised at the start of the hospital's first full fiscal year after the merger is
complete. A closed hospital is retroactively responsible for assessments owed for services
provided through the final date of operations.
(k) If the commissioner determines that a hospital has underpaid or overpaid an
assessment, the commissioner must notify the hospital of the unpaid assessment or of any
refund due. The commissioner must refund a hospital's overpayment from the hospital
directed payment program account created in section 256B.1975, subdivision 1.
(l) Revenue from an assessment under this subdivision must only be used by the
commissioner to pay the nonfederal share of the directed payment program under section
256B.1974.
(m) The commissioner is prohibited from collecting any assessment under this subdivision
during any period of time when:
(1) federal financial participation is unavailable or disallowed, or if the approved
aggregate federal financial participation for the directed payment under section 256B.1974
is less than 51 percent; or
(2) a directed payment under section 256B.1974 is not approved by the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(n) The commissioner must make the following discounts from the inpatient portion of
the assessment under paragraph (b), clause (1), in the stated amount or as necessary to
achieve federal approval of the assessment in this section:
(1) Hennepin Healthcare, with a discount of 25 percent;
(2) Mayo Rochester, with a discount of ten percent;
(3) Gillette Children's Hospital, with a discount of 90 percent;
(4) each hospital not included in another discount category, and with greater than
$200,000,000 in total medical assistance inpatient and outpatient revenue in fee-for-service
and managed care, as reported in state fiscal year 2022 medical assistance fee-for-service
and managed care claims data, with a discount of five percent; and
(5) any hospital responsible for greater than 12 percent of the total assessment annually
collected statewide, with a discount in the amount necessary such that the hospital is
responsible for 12 percent of the total assessment annually collected statewide.
(o) The commissioner must make the following discounts from the outpatient portion
of the assessment under paragraph (b), clause (2), in the stated amount or as necessary to
achieve federal approval of the assessment in this section:
(1) each critical access hospital or independent hospital located outside a city of the first
class and paid under the Medicare prospective payment system, with a discount of 40 percent;
(2) Gillette Children's Hospital, with a discount of 90 percent;
(3) Hennepin Healthcare, with a discount of 60 percent;
(4) Mayo Rochester, with a discount of 20 percent; and
(5) each hospital not included in another discount category, and with greater than
$200,000,000 in total medical assistance inpatient and outpatient revenue in fee-for-service
and managed care, as reported in state fiscal year 2022 medical assistance fee-for-service
and managed care claims data, with a discount of ten percent.
new text begin (p) The commissioner must not impose any assessment under this subdivision on a
hospital that does not receive payments under section 256B.1974.
new text end
deleted text begin (p)deleted text end new text begin (q)new text end If the federal share of the hospital directed payment program under section
256B.1974 is increased as the result of an increase to the federal medical assistance
percentage, the commissioner must reduce the assessment on a uniform percentage basis
across eligible hospitals on which the assessment is imposed, such that the aggregate amount
collected from hospitals under this subdivision does not exceed the total amount needed to
maintain the same aggregate state and federal funding level for the directed payments
authorized by section 256B.1974.
deleted text begin (q)deleted text end new text begin (r)new text end Eligible hospitals must submit to the commissioner on an annual basis, in the
form and manner specified by the commissioner in consultation with the Minnesota Hospital
Association, all documentation necessary to determine the assessment amounts under this
subdivision.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the date that Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 8, section 4, becomes effective.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256.969, subdivision 2b, is amended to read:
Subd. 2b.
Hospital payment rates.
(a) For discharges occurring on or after November
1, 2014, hospital inpatient services for hospitals located in Minnesota shall be paid according
to the following:
(1) critical access hospitals as defined by Medicare shall be paid using a cost-based
methodology;
(2) long-term hospitals as defined by Medicare shall be paid on a per diem methodology
under subdivision 25;
(3) rehabilitation hospitals or units of hospitals that are recognized as rehabilitation
distinct parts as defined by Medicare shall be paid according to the methodology under
subdivision 12; and
(4) all other hospitals shall be paid on a diagnosis-related group (DRG) methodology.
(b) For the period beginning January 1, 2011, through October 31, 2014, rates shall not
be rebased, except that a Minnesota long-term hospital shall be rebased effective January
1, 2011, based on its most recent Medicare cost report ending on or before September 1,
2008, with the provisions under subdivisions 9 and 23, based on the rates in effect on
December 31, 2010. For rate setting periods after November 1, 2014, in which the base
years are updated, a Minnesota long-term hospital's base year shall remain within the same
period as other hospitals.
(c) Effective for discharges occurring on and after November 1, 2014, payment rates
for hospital inpatient services provided by hospitals located in Minnesota or the local trade
area, except for the hospitals paid under the methodologies described in paragraph (a),
clauses (2) and (3), shall be rebased, incorporating cost and payment methodologies in a
manner similar to Medicare. The base year or years for the rates effective November 1,
2014, shall be calendar year 2012. The rebasing under this paragraph shall be budget neutral,
ensuring that the total aggregate payments under the rebased system are equal to the total
aggregate payments that were made for the same number and types of services in the base
year. Separate budget neutrality calculations shall be determined for payments made to
critical access hospitals and payments made to hospitals paid under the DRG system. Only
the rate increases or decreases under subdivision 3a or 3c that applied to the hospitals being
rebased during the entire base period shall be incorporated into the budget neutrality
calculation.
(d) For discharges occurring on or after November 1, 2014, through the next rebasing
that occurs, the rebased rates under paragraph (c) that apply to hospitals under paragraph
(a), clause (4), shall include adjustments to the projected rates that result in no greater than
a five percent increase or decrease from the base year payments for any hospital. Any
adjustments to the rates made by the commissioner under this paragraph and paragraph (e)
shall maintain budget neutrality as described in paragraph (c).
(e) For discharges occurring on or after November 1, 2014, the commissioner may make
additional adjustments to the rebased rates, and when evaluating whether additional
adjustments should be made, the commissioner shall consider the impact of the rates on the
following:
(1) pediatric services;
(2) behavioral health services;
(3) trauma services as defined by the National Uniform Billing Committee;
(4) transplant services;
(5) obstetric services, newborn services, and behavioral health services provided by
hospitals outside the seven-county metropolitan area;
(6) outlier admissions;
(7) low-volume providers; and
(8) services provided by small rural hospitals that are not critical access hospitals.
(f) Hospital payment rates established under paragraph (c) must incorporate the following:
(1) for hospitals paid under the DRG methodology, the base year payment rate per
admission is standardized by the applicable Medicare wage index and adjusted by the
hospital's disproportionate population adjustment;
(2) for critical access hospitals, payment rates for discharges between November 1, 2014,
and June 30, 2015, shall be set to the same rate of payment that applied for discharges on
October 31, 2014;
(3) the cost and charge data used to establish hospital payment rates must only reflect
inpatient services covered by medical assistance; and
(4) in determining hospital payment rates for discharges occurring on or after the rate
year beginning January 1, 2011, through December 31, 2012, the hospital payment rate per
discharge shall be based on the cost-finding methods and allowable costs of the Medicare
program in effect during the base year or years. In determining hospital payment rates for
discharges in subsequent base years, the per discharge rates shall be based on the cost-finding
methods and allowable costs of the Medicare program in effect during the base year or
years.
(g) The commissioner shall validate the rates effective November 1, 2014, by applying
the rates established under paragraph (c), and any adjustments made to the rates under
paragraph (d) or (e), to hospital claims paid in calendar year 2013 to determine whether the
total aggregate payments for the same number and types of services under the rebased rates
are equal to the total aggregate payments made during calendar year 2013.
(h) Effective for discharges occurring on or after July 1, 2017, and every two years
thereafter, payment rates under this section shall be rebased to reflect only those changes
in hospital costs between the existing base year or years and the next base year or years. In
any year that inpatient claims volume falls below the threshold required to ensure a
statistically valid sample of claims, the commissioner may combine claims data from two
consecutive years to serve as the base year. Years in which inpatient claims volume is
reduced or altered due to a pandemic or other public health emergency shall not be used as
a base year or part of a base year if the base year includes more than one year. Changes in
costs between base years shall be measured using the lower of the hospital cost index defined
in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), or the percentage change in the case mix adjusted cost per
claim. The commissioner shall establish the base year for each rebasing period considering
the most recent year or years for which filed Medicare cost reports are available, except
that the base years for the rebasing effective July 1, 2023, are calendar years 2018 and 2019.
The estimated change in the average payment per hospital discharge resulting from a
scheduled rebasing must be calculated and made available to the legislature by January 15
of each year in which rebasing is scheduled to occur, and must include by hospital the
differential in payment rates compared to the individual hospital's costs.
(i) Effective for discharges occurring on or after July 1, 2015,new text begin through December 31,
2026,new text end inpatient payment rates for critical access hospitals located in Minnesota or the local
trade area shall be determined using a new cost-based methodology. The commissioner
shall establish within the methodology tiers of payment designed to promote efficiency and
cost-effectiveness. Payment rates for hospitals under this paragraph shall be set at a level
that does not exceed the total cost for critical access hospitals as reflected in base year cost
reports. Until the next rebasing that occurs, the new methodology shall result in no greater
than a five percent decrease from the base year payments for any hospital, except a hospital
that had payments that were greater than 100 percent of the hospital's costs in the base year
shall have their rate set equal to 100 percent of costs in the base year. The rates paid for
discharges on and after July 1, 2016, covered under this paragraph shall be increased by the
inflation factor in subdivision 1, paragraph (a). The new cost-based rate shall be the final
rate and shall not be settled to actual incurred costs. Hospitals shall be assigned a payment
tier based on the following criteria:
(1) hospitals that had payments at or below 80 percent of their costs in the base year
shall have a rate set that equals 85 percent of their base year costs;
(2) hospitals that had payments that were above 80 percent, up to and including 90
percent of their costs in the base year shall have a rate set that equals 95 percent of their
base year costs; and
(3) hospitals that had payments that were above 90 percent of their costs in the base year
shall have a rate set that equals 100 percent of their base year costs.
deleted text begin (j) The commissioner may refine the payment tiers and criteria for critical access hospitals
to coincide with the next rebasing under paragraph (h). The factors used to develop the new
methodology may include, but are not limited to:
deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) the ratio between the hospital's costs for treating medical assistance patients and the
hospital's charges to the medical assistance program;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) the ratio between the hospital's costs for treating medical assistance patients and the
hospital's payments received from the medical assistance program for the care of medical
assistance patients;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (3) the ratio between the hospital's charges to the medical assistance program and the
hospital's payments received from the medical assistance program for the care of medical
assistance patients;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4) the statewide average increases in the ratios identified in clauses (1), (2), and (3);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (5) the proportion of that hospital's costs that are administrative and trends in
administrative costs; and
deleted text end
deleted text begin (6) geographic location.
deleted text end
new text begin (j) Effective for discharges occurring on or after January 1, 2027, inpatient payment
rates for critical access hospitals located in Minnesota or the local trade area must be
determined using 100 percent of each hospital's base year costs. The base year costs must
be increased by the percentage change in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
Inpatient Hospital Market Basket between the base year and the payment year. Effective
January 1, 2027, payments made by managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans
must be at least equivalent to those paid by fee-for-service.
new text end
(k) Subject to subdivision 2g, effective for discharges occurring on or after January 1,
2024, the rates paid to hospitals described in paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (4), must include
a rate factor specific to each hospital that qualifies for a medical education and research
cost distribution under section 62J.692, subdivision 4, paragraph (a).
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256.969, subdivision 2f, is amended
to read:
Subd. 2f.
Alternate inpatient payment rate.
(a) Effective January 1, 2022, for a hospital
eligible to receive disproportionate share hospital payments under subdivision 9, paragraph
(d), clause (6), the commissioner shall reduce the amount calculated under subdivision 9,
paragraph (d), clause (6), by deleted text begin 99deleted text end new text begin onenew text end percent and compute an alternate inpatient payment
rate. The alternate payment rate shall be structured to target a total aggregate reimbursement
amount equal to what the hospital would have received for providing fee-for-service inpatient
services under this section to patients enrolled in medical assistance had the hospital received
the entire amount calculated under subdivision 9, paragraph (d), clause (6). This paragraph
expires when paragraph (b) becomes effective.
(b) For hospitals eligible to receive payment under section 256B.1973 or 256B.1974
and meeting the criteria in subdivision 9, paragraph (d), the commissioner deleted text begin mustdeleted text end new text begin maynew text end reduce
the amount calculated under subdivision 9, paragraph (d), by one percent and compute an
alternate inpatient payment rate. The alternate payment rate must be structured to target a
total aggregate reimbursement amount equal to the amount that the hospital would have
received for providing fee-for-service inpatient services under this section to patients enrolled
in medical assistance had the hospital received 99 percent of the entire amount calculated
under subdivision 9, paragraph (d). Hospitals that do not meet federal requirements for
Medicaid disproportionate share hospitals are not eligible for the alternate payment rate.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective upon the date that Laws 2025, First
Special Session chapter 3, article 8, section 5, becomes effective.
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256.969, subdivision 25, is amended to read:
Subd. 25.
Long-term hospital rates.
(a) Long-term hospitals shall be paid on a per diem
basis.
(b) For admissions occurring on or after April 1, 1995, a long-term hospital as designated
by Medicare that does not have admissions in the base year shall have inpatient rates
established at the average of other hospitals with the same designation. For subsequent
rate-setting periods in which base years are updated, the hospital's base year shall be the
first Medicare cost report filed with the long-term hospital designation and shall remain in
effect until it falls within the same period as other hospitals.
(c) For admissions occurring on or after July 1, 2023, long-term hospitals must be paid
the higher of deleted text begin a per diem amount computed using the methodology described in subdivision
2b, paragraph (i), ordeleted text end the per diem rate as of July 1, 2021deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin , or a per diem amount computed
as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) hospitals that had payments at or below 80 percent of the hospital's costs in the base
year must have a rate set that equals 85 percent of the hospital's base year costs;
new text end
new text begin (2) hospitals that had payments that were above 80 percent up to and including 90 percent
of the hospital's costs in the base year must have a rate set that equals 95 percent of the
hospital's base year costs; and
new text end
new text begin (3) hospitals that had payments that were above 90 percent of the hospital's costs in the
base year must have a rate set that equals 100 percent of the hospital's base year costs.
new text end
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Residency.
(a) To be eligible for medical assistance, a person must reside
in Minnesota, or, if absent from the state, be deemed to be a resident of Minnesota, in
accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 435.403.new text begin A child who is
placed in a family foster home in Minnesota by another state is a Minnesota resident in
accordance with Minnesota's interstate agreements and Code of Federal Regulations, title
42, section 435.403(k). For the purposes of this paragraph, "family foster home" has the
meaning given in section 260C.007, subdivision 16b.
new text end
(b) The commissioner shall identify individuals who are enrolled in medical assistance
and who are absent from the state for more than 30 consecutive days, but who continue to
qualify for medical assistance in accordance with paragraph (a).
(c) If the individual is absent from the state for more than 30 consecutive days but still
deemed a resident of Minnesota in accordance with paragraph (a), any covered service
provided to the individual must be paid through the fee-for-service system and not through
the managed care capitated rate payment system under section 256B.69 or 256L.12.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.0625, subdivision 8, is amended
to read:
Subd. 8.
Physical therapy.
(a) Medical assistance covers physical therapy and related
services. Specialized maintenance therapy is covered for recipients age 20 and under.
(b) Services provided by a physical therapy assistant shall be reimbursed at the same
rate as services performed by a physical therapist when the services of the physical therapy
assistant are provided under the direction of a physical therapist who is on the premises.
Services provided by a physical therapy assistant that are provided under the direction of a
physical therapist who is not on the premises shall be reimbursed at 65 percent of the physical
therapist rate.
(c) Payment for physical therapy and related services is limited to 14 visits per year
unless prior authorization of a greater number of visits is obtained.new text begin This paragraph expires
upon the effective date of paragraph (d).
new text end
new text begin (d) Effective January 1, 2027, or upon federal approval, whichever is later, payment for
physical therapy and related services is limited to the following number of visits per year
unless prior authorization of a greater number of visits is obtained:
new text end
new text begin (1) for children following an inpatient or outpatient hospital-based surgery, 30 visits;
and
new text end
new text begin (2) for all other recipients, 14 visits.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.1973, subdivision 9, is amended
to read:
Subd. 9.
Interaction with other directed payments.
new text begin (a) new text end An eligible provider under
subdivision 3 may participate in the hospital directed payment program under section
256B.1974 for inpatient hospital services, outpatient hospital services, or both. A provider
participating in the hospital directed payment program must not receive a directed payment
under this section for any provider classes paid via the hospital directed payment program.
A hospital subject to this section must notify the commissioner in writing no later than 30
days after enactment of this subdivision of the hospital's intention to participate in the
hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974 for inpatient hospital services,
outpatient hospital services, or both.
new text begin (b) new text end The election under this subdivision is a onetime election, except that if an eligible
provider elects to participate in the hospital directed payment program, and the hospital
directed payment program expires or is not federally approved, the eligible provider may
subsequently elect to participate in the directed payment under this section.
new text begin (c) If an eligible provider elects not to participate in the hospital directed payment
program under section 256B.1974 and the federal statutes or regulations related to hospital
directed payment programs are subsequently substantially changed, the eligible provider
may elect to participate in the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974.
new text end
new text begin (d) The effective date of the election to participate in the hospital directed payment
program under this section must align with the beginning of the calendar year in which
payment rates under this section are updated. The eligible provider must notify the
commissioner of the eligible provider's intention to make the election ten months before
the effective date of the election.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.69, subdivision 6d, is amended
to read:
Subd. 6d.
Prescription drugs.
(a) The commissioner may exclude or modify coverage
for prescription drugs from the prepaid managed care contracts entered into under this
section in order to increase savings to the state by collecting additional prescription drug
rebates.
(b) The contracts must maintain incentives for the managed care plan to manage drug
costs and utilization and may require that the managed care plans maintain an open drug
formulary. In order to manage drug costs and utilization, the contracts may authorize the
managed care plans to use preferred drug lists and prior authorization. The contracts must
require that the managed care plans enter into contracts with the state's selected pharmacy
benefit manager vendor to administer the pharmacy benefit.
(c) This subdivision is contingent on federal approval of the managed care contract
changes and the collection of additional prescription drug rebates.
new text begin (d) The commissioner must require that the final reimbursement to a pharmacy from
managed care and county-based purchasing plans and any pharmacy benefit managers under
contract with these entities be at least a dispensing fee of $11.55 per claim for prescriptions
filled with drugs meeting the definition of covered outpatient drugs. The commissioner
must require the payment of a dispensing fee of at least $3.65 for drugs not meeting the
definition of covered outpatient drug.
new text end
new text begin (e) In addition to the dispensing fee set forth in paragraph (d), the commissioner must
require that the final reimbursement to a pharmacy from managed care and county-based
purchasing plans and any pharmacy benefit managers under contract with these entities be
equal to the ingredient cost for a drug as either:
new text end
new text begin (1) the lower of the National Average Drug Acquisition Cost (NADAC) or the Minnesota
actual acquisition cost (MNAAC) under section 256B.0625, subdivision 13, paragraph (g);
new text end
new text begin (2) the maximum allowable cost, if a drug ingredient cost is unreported in the NADAC
and the MNAAC; or
new text end
new text begin (3) the wholesale acquisition cost minus two percent, if a drug ingredient cost is
unreported in the NADAC and the MNAAC and a maximum allowable cost is unavailable.
new text end
new text begin (f) The commissioner must monitor the effect of this requirement on access to
pharmaceutical services in rural and underserved areas of the state. If, for any contract year,
federal approval is not received for paragraphs (d) and (e), the commissioner must adjust
the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans for that
contract year to reflect removal of paragraphs (d) and (e). A contract between a managed
care plan or county-based purchasing plan, or any pharmacy benefit manager under contract
with one of those entities, and a provider to whom paragraphs (d) and (e) apply must allow
recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted in accordance
with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed the amount equal to any increase
in rates that results from paragraphs (d) and (e). This subdivision expires if federal approval
is not received for paragraphs (d) and (e) at any time.
new text end
new text begin (g) Paragraphs (d) to (g) expire upon the effective date of a master contract under section
256B.696. The commissioner shall notify the revisor of statutes of the effective date.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.695, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
Subd. 5.
CARMA enrollment.
(a) Subject to deleted text begin paragraphsdeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (d) deleted text begin and (e)deleted text end , eligible
individuals must be automatically enrolled in CARMA, but may decline enrollment. Eligible
individuals may enroll in fee-for-service medical assistance. Eligible individuals may change
their CARMA elections on an annual basis.
(b) Eligible individuals must be able to enroll in CARMA through the selection process
in accordance with the election period established in section 256B.69, subdivision 4,
paragraph (e).
(c) Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in the medical assistance program or
MinnesotaCare can change their selection once within the first year after enrollment in
CARMA. Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in CARMA have 90 days to make a
change and changes are allowed for additional special circumstances.
(d) The commissioner maynew text begin notnew text end offer a second health plannew text begin to eligible individualsnew text end other
than, deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end in addition to, CARMAnew text begin except that the commissioner may offer a second health
plannew text end to eligible individuals deleted text begin when another health plan isdeleted text end new text begin enrolling in MinnesotaCare, ifnew text end
required by federal law or rule. new text begin Eligible individuals who do not select a health plan at the
time of enrollment must automatically be enrolled in CARMA.
new text end
new text begin (e) new text end The commissioner may offer a replacement plan to eligible individuals, as determined
by the commissioner, when counties administering CARMA have their contract terminated
for cause.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The commissioner may, on a county-by-county basis, offer a health plan other
thandeleted text begin , and in addition to,deleted text end CARMA to individuals who are eligible for both Medicare and
medical assistance due to agenew text begin , income,new text end or disability if deleted text begin the commissioner deems it necessary
for enrollees to have another choice of health plan. Factors the commissioner must consider
when determining if the other health plan is necessary include the number of available
Medicare Advantage Plan options that are not special needs plans in the county, the size of
the enrolling population, the additional administrative burden placed on providers and
counties by multiple health plan options in a county, the need to ensure the viability and
success of the CARMA program, and the impact to the medical assistance programdeleted text end new text begin there
is not already a health plan available under CARMAnew text end .
deleted text begin (f) In counties where the commissioner is required by federal law or elects to offer a
second health plan other than CARMA pursuant to paragraphs (d) and (e), eligible enrollees
who do not select a health plan at the time of enrollment must automatically be enrolled in
CARMA.
deleted text end
(g) This subdivision supersedes section 256B.694.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2028.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.75, is amended to read:
256B.75 HOSPITAL OUTPATIENT REIMBURSEMENT.
(a) For outpatient hospital facility fee payments for services rendered on or after October
1, 1992, the commissioner of human services shall pay the lower of (1) submitted charge,
or (2) 32 percent above the rate in effect on June 30, 1992, except for those services for
which there is a federal maximum allowable payment. Effective for services rendered on
or after January 1, 2000, payment rates for nonsurgical outpatient hospital facility fees and
emergency room facility fees shall be increased by eight percent over the rates in effect on
December 31, 1999, except for those services for which there is a federal maximum allowable
payment. Services for which there is a federal maximum allowable payment shall be paid
at the lower of (1) submitted charge, or (2) the federal maximum allowable payment. Total
aggregate payment for outpatient hospital facility fee services shall not exceed the Medicare
upper limit. If it is determined that a provision of this section conflicts with existing or
future requirements of the United States government with respect to federal financial
participation in medical assistance, the federal requirements prevail. The commissioner
may, in the aggregate, prospectively reduce payment rates to avoid reduced federal financial
participation resulting from rates that are in excess of the Medicare upper limitations.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), payment for outpatient, emergency, and ambulatory
surgery hospital facility fee services for critical access hospitals designated under section
144.1483, clause (9), shall be paid on a cost-based payment system that is based on the
cost-finding methods and allowable costs of the Medicare program. Effective for services
provided on or after July 1, 2015, rates established for critical access hospitals under this
paragraph for the applicable payment year shall be the final payment and shall not be settled
to actual costs. Effective for services delivered on or after the first day of the hospital's fiscal
year ending in 2017, the rate for outpatient hospital services shall be computed using
information from each hospital's Medicare cost report as filed with Medicare for the year
that is two years before the year that the rate is being computed. Rates shall be computed
using information from Worksheet C series until the department finalizes the medical
assistance cost reporting process for critical access hospitals. After the cost reporting process
is finalized, rates shall be computed using information from Title XIX Worksheet D series.
The outpatient rate shall be equal to ancillary cost plus outpatient cost, excluding costs
related to rural health clinics and federally qualified health clinics, divided by ancillary
charges plus outpatient charges, excluding charges related to rural health clinics and federally
qualified health clinics. Effective for services delivered on or after January 1, 2024, the
rates paid to critical access hospitals under this section must be adjusted to include the
amount of any distributions under section 62J.692, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), that were
not included in the rate adjustment described under section 256.969, subdivision 2b,
paragraph (k).
(c) Effective for services provided on or after July 1, 2003, rates that are based on the
Medicare outpatient prospective payment system shall be replaced by a budget neutral
prospective payment system that is derived using medical assistance data. The commissioner
shall provide a proposal to the 2003 legislature to define and implement this provision.
When implementing prospective payment methodologies, the commissioner shall use general
methods and rate calculation parameters similar to the applicable Medicare prospective
payment systems for services delivered in outpatient hospital and ambulatory surgical center
settings unless other payment methodologies for these services are specified in this chapter.
(d) For fee-for-service services provided on or after July 1, 2002, the total payment,
before third-party liability and spenddown, made to hospitals for outpatient hospital facility
services is reduced by .5 percent from the current statutory rate.
(e) In addition to the reduction in paragraph (d), the total payment for fee-for-service
services provided on or after July 1, 2003, made to hospitals for outpatient hospital facility
services before third-party liability and spenddown, is reduced five percent from the current
statutory rates. Facilities defined under section 256.969, subdivision 16, are excluded from
this paragraph.
(f) In addition to the reductions in paragraphs (d) and (e), the total payment for
fee-for-service services provided on or after July 1, 2008, made to hospitals for outpatient
hospital facility services before third-party liability and spenddown, is reduced three percent
from the current statutory rates. Mental health services and facilities defined under section
256.969, subdivision 16, are excluded from this paragraph.
new text begin (g) Critical access hospitals that convert to rural emergency hospitals in accordance with
section 1861(kkk) of the Social Security Act must be paid the rate described in paragraph
(b). The rate must be classified as either an outpatient hospital rate or a clinic rate as
determined upon federal approval.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256L.05, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Effective date of coverage.
(a) The effective date of coverage is the first day
of the month following the month in which eligibility is approved and the first premium
payment has been received. The effective date of coverage for new members added to the
family is the first day of the month following the month in which the change is reported.
All eligibility criteria must be met by the family at the time the new family member is added.
The income of the new family member is included with the family's modified adjusted gross
income and the adjusted premium begins in the month the new family member is added.
(b) The initial premium must be received by the last working day of the month for
coverage to begin the first day of the following month.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, benefits under sections 256L.01 to
256L.18 are secondary to a plan of insurance or benefit program under which an eligible
person may have coverage and the commissioner shall use cost avoidance techniques to
ensure coordination of any other health coverage for eligible persons. The commissioner
shall identify eligible persons who may have coverage or benefits under other plans of
insurance or who become eligible for medical assistance.
(d) The effective date of coverage for individuals or families who are exempt from
paying premiums under section 256L.15, deleted text begin subdivisiondeleted text end new text begin subdivisionsnew text end 1deleted text begin , paragraph (c)deleted text end new text begin and 2new text end ,
is the first day of the month following the month in which eligibility is approved.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256L.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Commissioner's duties and payment.
(a) Premiums are dedicated to the
commissioner for MinnesotaCare.
(b) The commissioner shall develop and implement procedures to: (1) require enrollees
to report changes in income; (2) adjust sliding scale premium payments, based upon both
increases and decreases in enrollee income, at the time the change in income is reported;
and (3) disenroll enrollees from MinnesotaCare for failure to pay required premiums. Failure
to pay includes payment with a dishonored check, a returned automatic bank withdrawal,
or a refused credit card or debit card payment. The commissioner may demand a guaranteed
form of payment, including a cashier's check or a money order, as the only means to replace
a dishonored, returned, or refused payment.
(c) Premiums are calculated on a calendar month basis and may be paid on a monthly,
quarterly, or semiannual basis, with the first payment due upon notice from the commissioner
of the premium amount required. The commissioner shall inform applicants and enrollees
of these premium payment options. Premium payment is required before enrollment is
complete and to maintain deleted text begin eligibilitydeleted text end new text begin coveragenew text end in MinnesotaCare. Premium payments received
before noon are credited the same day. Premium payments received after noon are credited
on the next working day.
(d) Nonpayment of the premium will result in disenrollment from the plan effective for
the calendar month following the month for which the premium was due. Persons disenrolled
for nonpayment may not reenroll prior to the first day of the month following the payment
of an amount equal to deleted text begin two months' premiumsdeleted text end new text begin one monthly premiumnew text end .
(e) The commissioner shall forgive the past-due premium for persons disenrolled under
paragraph (d) prior to issuing a premium invoice for the deleted text begin fourthdeleted text end new text begin next new text end month deleted text begin following
disenrollmentdeleted text end .
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 15.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 295.52, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
Subd. 8.
Contingent reduction in tax rate.
(a) By December 1 of each year, beginning
in 2011, the commissioner of management and budget shall determine the projected balance
in the health care access fund for the biennium.
(b) If the commissioner of management and budget determines that the projected balance
in the health care access fund for the biennium reflects a ratio of revenues to expenditures
and transfers greater than 125 percent, and if the actual cash balance in the fund is adequate,
as determined by the commissioner of management and budget, the commissioner, in
consultation with the deleted text begin commissionerdeleted text end new text begin commissionersnew text end of revenuenew text begin and human servicesnew text end , shall
reduce the tax rates levied under subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 3, and 4, for the subsequent calendar
year sufficient to reduce the structural balance in the fund. The rate may be reduced to the
extent that the projected revenues for the biennium do not exceed 125 percent of expenditures
and transfers. The new rate shall be rounded to the nearest one-tenth of one percent. The
rate reduction under this paragraph expires at the end of each calendar year and is subject
to an annual redetermination by the commissioner of management and budget.
(c) For purposes of the analysis defined in paragraph (b), the commissioner of
management and budget shall include projected revenues.
Sec. 16.
Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 8, section 25, the effective
date, is amended to read:
EFFECTIVE DATE.
This section is effective January 1, deleted text begin 2027deleted text end new text begin 2028new text end , or upon federal
approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor
of statutes when federal approval is obtained.
Sec. 17. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.198,new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 6
FEDERAL CONFORMITY
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 116J.035, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Disclosure to the commissioner of human services.new text end
new text begin The commissioner may
disclose workforce program participation data gathered under chapter 116L to the
commissioner of human services for the purpose of administering section 256B.0562 without
the consent of the subject of the data.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 46.new text end
new text begin Health care eligibility oversight unit.new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner shall establish
and maintain a Department of Human Services health care eligibility oversight unit
responsible for collaboration at a regional level to ensure federal and state Medicaid eligibility
requirements are consistently applied by all processing entities.
new text end
new text begin (b) The oversight unit must monitor compliance, identify systemic issues, and provide
guidance and technical assistance to lead agencies.
new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner shall require lead agencies to work directly with the oversight
unit on corrective action planning and implementation to achieve compliance and strengthen
performance outcomes.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.04, subdivision 27, is amended to read:
Subd. 27.
Disenrollment under medical assistance and MinnesotaCare.
(a) The
commissioner shall regularly new text begin obtain and use information from reliable data sources, including
but not limited to managed care and county-based purchasing plans, state health and human
services programs, mail returned by the United States Postal Service with a forwarding
address, and the National Change of Address database maintained by the United States
Postal Service, to new text end update mailing addresses and other contact information for medical
assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees deleted text begin in cases of returned mail and nonresponse using
information available through managed care and county-based purchasing plans, state health
and human services programs, and other sourcesdeleted text end .
(b) The commissioner shall not disenroll an individual from medical assistance or
MinnesotaCare in cases of returned mail until the commissioner makes at least two attempts
by phone, email, or other methods to contact the individual. The commissioner may disenroll
the individual after providing no less than 30 days for the individual to respond to the most
recent contact attempt.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.05, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5.
Obligation of local agency to process medical assistance applications within
established timelines.
new text begin (a) new text end The local agency must act on an application for medical assistance
within ten working days of receipt of all information needed to act on the application but
no later than required under Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0090, subparts 2 and 3.
new text begin (b) A local agency must notify the commissioner within five calendar days when the
local agency fails to meet at least 80 percent of the local agency's monthly application and
redetermination deadlines.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.05, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Authority to intervene.new text end
new text begin Upon receiving a notice from a local agency pursuant
to subdivision 5, paragraph (b), the commissioner may provide support to the local agency
to timely process the local agency's outstanding applications and redeterminations.
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Subd. 2a.
Home equity limit for medical assistance payment of long-term care
services.
(a) Effective for requests of medical assistance payment of long-term care services
filed on or after July 1, 2006, and for renewals on or after July 1, 2006, for persons who
received payment of long-term care services under a request filed on or after January 1,
2006, the equity interest in the home of a person whose eligibility for long-term care services
is determined on or after January 1, 2006, shall not exceed $500,000, unless it is the lawful
residence of the person's spouse or child who is under age 21, or a child of any age who is
blind or permanently and totally disabled as defined in the Supplemental Security Income
program. The amount specified in this paragraph shall be increased beginning in year 2011,
from year to year based on the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for all urban
consumers (all items; United States city average), rounded to the nearest $1,000.
new text begin (b) Effective January 1, 2028, the amount specified in paragraph (a) must not exceed
$1,000,000.
new text end
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end For purposes of this subdivision, a "home" means any real or personal property
interest, including an interest in an agricultural homestead as defined under section 273.124,
subdivision 1, that, at the time of the request for medical assistance payment of long-term
care services, is the primary dwelling of the person or was the primary dwelling of the
person before receipt of long-term care services began outside of the home.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end A person denied or terminated from medical assistance payment of long-term
care services because the person's home equity exceeds the home equity limit may seek a
waiver based upon a hardship by filing a written request with the county agency. Hardship
is an imminent threat to the person's health and well-being that is demonstrated by
documentation of no alternatives for payment of long-term care services. The county agency
shall make a decision regarding the written request to waive the home equity limit within
30 days if all necessary information has been provided. The county agency shall send the
person and the person's representative a written notice of decision on the request for a
demonstrated hardship waiver that also advises the person of appeal rights under the fair
hearing process of section 256.045.
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 3d, is amended to read:
Subd. 3d.
Reduction of excess assets.
Assets in excess of the limits in subdivisions 3
to 3c may be reduced to allowable limits as follows:
(a) Assets may be reduced in deleted text begin any of the threedeleted text end new text begin either one or twonew text end calendar months before
the month of application in which the applicant seeks coveragenew text begin , according to the applicant's
retroactive eligibility under section 256B.061new text end by paying bills for health services that are
incurred in the retroactive period for which the applicant seeks eligibility, starting with the
oldest bill. After assets are reduced to allowable limits, eligibility begins with the next dollar
of MA-covered health services incurred in the retroactive period. Applicants reducing assets
under this subdivision who also have excess income shall first spend excess assets to pay
health service bills and may meet the income spenddown on remaining bills.
(b) Assets may be reduced beginning the month of application by paying bills for health
services that are incurred during the period specified in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0090,
subpart 2, that would otherwise be paid by medical assistance. After assets are reduced to
allowable limits, eligibility begins with the next dollar of medical assistance covered health
services incurred in the period. Applicants reducing assets under this subdivision who also
have excess income shall first spend excess assets to pay health service bills and may meet
the income spenddown on remaining bills.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2028.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Period of eligibility.
(a)new text begin Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (e),
medical assistance enrollees are eligible for 12 months. Until December 31, 2027,new text end eligibility
is available for the month of application and for three months prior to application if the
person was eligible in those prior months. deleted text begin A redetermination of eligibility must occur every
12 months.deleted text end new text begin Effective January 1, 2028, eligibility is available for the month of application
and for:
new text end
deleted text begin (b) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary:
deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) a child under 19 years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must
remain eligible for a period of 12 months;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) a child 19 years of age and older but under 21 years of age who is determined eligible
for medical assistance must remain eligible for a period of 12 months; and
deleted text end
new text begin (1) one month prior to application for an individual described in paragraph (e) if the
individual was eligible for medical assistance in the prior month; or
new text end
new text begin (2) two months prior to application for all other individuals eligible for medical assistance
if the individual was eligible in those prior months.
new text end
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (b) new text end A child under six years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance
must remain eligible through the month in which the child reaches six years of age.
(c) A child's eligibility under paragraph (b) may be terminated earlier if:
(1) the child or the child's representative requests voluntary termination of eligibility;
(2) the child ceases to be a resident of this state;
(3) the child dies;
(4) the child attains the maximum age; or
(5) the agency determines eligibility was erroneously granted at the most recent eligibility
determination due to agency error or fraud, abuse, or perjury attributed to the child or the
child's representative.
(d) For deleted text begin a persondeleted text end new text begin an individualnew text end eligible for an insurance affordability program as defined
in section 256B.02, subdivision 19, who reports a change that makes the deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin individualnew text end
eligible for medical assistance, eligibility is available for the month the change was reported
and deleted text begin for three months prior to the month the change was reported, if the person was eligible
in those prior months.deleted text end new text begin :
new text end
new text begin (1) until December 31, 2027, for three months prior to the month the change was reported;
and
new text end
new text begin (2) effective January 1, 2028, for:
new text end
new text begin (i) one month prior to the month the change was reported for an individual described in
paragraph (e); or
new text end
new text begin (ii) two months prior to the month the change was reported for all other individuals
eligible for medical assistance if the individual was eligible in the prior month or months.
new text end
new text begin (e) The period of eligibility for a person subject to six-month eligibility redeterminations
under Public Law 119-21, section 71107, is six months.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 7a, is amended to read:
Subd. 7a.
Periodic renewal of eligibility.
(a) new text begin Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and
(e), new text end the commissioner shall make an annual redetermination of eligibility based on
information contained in the enrollee's case file and other information available to the
agency, including but not limited to information accessed through an electronic database,
without requiring the enrollee to submit any information when sufficient data is available
for the agency to renew eligibility.
(b) If the commissioner cannot renew eligibility in accordance with paragraph (a), the
commissioner must provide the enrollee with a prepopulated renewal form containing
eligibility information available to the agency and permit the enrollee to submit the form
with any corrections or additional information to the agency and sign the renewal form via
any of the modes of submission specified in section 256B.04, subdivision 18.
(c) An enrollee who is terminated for failure to complete the renewal process may
subsequently submit the renewal form and required information within four months after
the date of termination and have coverage reinstated without a lapse, if otherwise eligible
under this chapter. The local agency may close the enrollee's case file if the required
information is not submitted within four months of termination.
(d) deleted text begin Notwithstanding paragraph (a),deleted text end A person who is eligible under subdivision 5 deleted text begin shall
bedeleted text end new text begin isnew text end subject to a review of the person's income every six months.
new text begin (e) A person subject to six-month eligibility redeterminations under Public Law 119-21,
section 71107, is subject to a redetermination of eligibility every six months.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0561, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Periodic data matching.
(a) The commissioner shall conduct periodic data
matching to identify recipients who, based on available electronic data, may not meet
eligibility criteria for the public health care program in which the recipient is enrolled. The
commissioner shall conduct data matching for medical assistance or MinnesotaCare recipients
at least once during a recipient's 12-month period of eligibilitynew text begin , except as provided in
paragraph (f)new text end .
(b) If data matching indicates a recipient may no longer qualify for medical assistance
or MinnesotaCare, the commissioner must notify the recipient and allow the recipient no
more than 30 days to confirm the information obtained through the periodic data matching
or provide a reasonable explanation for the discrepancy to the state or county agency directly
responsible for the recipient's case. If a recipient does not respond within the advance notice
period or does not respond with information that demonstrates eligibility or provides a
reasonable explanation for the discrepancy within the 30-day time period, the commissioner
shall terminate the recipient's eligibility in the manner provided for by the laws and
regulations governing the health care program for which the recipient has been identified
as being ineligible.
(c) The commissioner shall not terminate eligibility for a recipient who is cooperating
with the requirements of paragraph (b) and needs additional time to provide information in
response to the notification.
(d) A recipient whose eligibility was terminated according to paragraph (b) may be
eligible for medical assistance no earlier than the first day of the month in which the recipient
provides information that demonstrates the recipient's eligibility.
(e) Any termination of eligibility for benefits under this section may be appealed as
provided for in sections 256.045 to 256.0451, and the laws governing the health care
programs for which eligibility is terminated.
new text begin (f) Effective January 1, 2027, a person subject to six-month eligibility redeterminations
under Public Law 119-21, section 71107, is exempt from periodic data matching under this
subdivision.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 11.
new text begin [256B.0562] WORK OR COMMUNITY ENGAGEMENT REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Definitions.new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Applicable individual" has the meaning given in Public Law 119-21, section 71119,
paragraph (9).
new text end
new text begin (c) "Short-term hardship event" means an event in which a person:
new text end
new text begin (1) receives inpatient hospital or nursing facility services, services in an intermediate
care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, inpatient psychiatric hospital
services, or other services of similar acuity;
new text end
new text begin (2) resides in a county in which there is an emergency or disaster declared by the President
of the United States pursuant to the National Emergencies Act or the Robert T. Stafford
Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act;
new text end
new text begin (3) resides in a county that has an unemployment rate at or above the lesser of:
new text end
new text begin (i) eight percent; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) 1.5 times the national unemployment rate; or
new text end
new text begin (4) must travel, or the person's dependent must travel, outside of the person's community
for an extended period of time to receive medical services that are not available within the
community of residence necessary to treat a serious or complex medical condition of the
person or the person's dependent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Application.new text end
new text begin To be eligible for medical assistance, an applicable individual
applying for medical assistance must either demonstrate work or community engagement
or meet an exemption in accordance with Public Law 119-21, section 71119, for the month
immediately preceding the month during which the person submits an application for medical
assistance.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Renewal requirement.new text end
new text begin (a) To renew eligibility, an applicable individual must
either demonstrate work or community engagement or meet an exemption in accordance
with Public Law 119-21, section 71119, for at least one month during the person's previous
period of eligibility.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must notify an applicable individual of the renewal requirement
in paragraph (a) at least 75 days prior to the individual's renewal date.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Short-term hardship events.new text end
new text begin A person is deemed to have met the requirement
to demonstrate work or community engagement for a given month under subdivisions 2
and 3 if (1) the person experiences a short-term hardship event for part or all of that month,
and (2) for purposes of a short-term hardship described in subdivision 1, paragraph (c),
clause (1) or (4), the person submits a request to the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Noncompliance procedure.new text end
new text begin Before denying or terminating medical assistance
eligibility for failure to demonstrate work or community engagement or meet an exemption,
the commissioner must comply with the procedures in the case of noncompliance set forth
in Public Law 119-21, section 71119, paragraph (6).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Interpretation of federal law.new text end
new text begin (a) In all cases where an obligation imposed on
the commissioner under Public Law 119-21, section 71119, is materially ambiguous, the
commissioner must construe the ambiguity in the light most favorable to the applicant,
enrollee, or disenrollee, as applicable. For purposes of this subdivision, an obligation on
the commissioner includes but is not limited to an obligation respecting the following:
new text end
new text begin (1) enrollee notice and outreach;
new text end
new text begin (2) demonstration of work or community engagement;
new text end
new text begin (3) medical frailty;
new text end
new text begin (4) fair hearing rights;
new text end
new text begin (5) the provision of medical assistance benefits or coverage;
new text end
new text begin (6) submission documentation, including self-attestations of eligibility or exemption;
new text end
new text begin (7) eligibility or termination determinations;
new text end
new text begin (8) short-term hardship requests; and
new text end
new text begin (9) timing.
new text end
new text begin (b) Paragraph (a) does not require the commissioner to take any action that the
commissioner determines:
new text end
new text begin (1) is more likely than not to result in a loss of federal financial participation;
new text end
new text begin (2) would be clearly impractical, absurd, or unreasonably detrimental to the medical
assistance program or another insurance affordability program; or
new text end
new text begin (3) relies on an unreasonable interpretation of federal law.
new text end
new text begin (c) Prior to the interpretation of an ambiguity under paragraph (a), the commissioner
must, in order to determine the reasonable interpretation of the applicable federal law most
favorable to an applicant, enrollee, or disenrollee:
new text end
new text begin (1) consult with the health care eligibility oversight unit established in section 256.01;
new text end
new text begin (2) consult with the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees
with jurisdiction over health and human services finance and policy; and
new text end
new text begin (3) take best efforts to consult with, and receive guidance from, the Centers for Medicare
and Medicaid Services.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Expedited rulemaking authority.new text end
new text begin The commissioner may adopt rules necessary
to implement and administer this section using the expedited rulemaking process under
section 14.389. The 18-month time limit under section 14.125 does not apply to the
rulemaking authority under this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 12.
new text begin [256B.0563] REVIEW OF DEATH MASTER FILE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Definition.new text end
new text begin For purposes of this section, "death master file" means
information about deceased individuals maintained by the Social Security Administration
under United States Code, title 42, section 1306c(d), or any successor system.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Review of the death master file.new text end
new text begin (a) Beginning January 1, 2027, the
commissioner must review the death master file at least quarterly to identify any medical
assistance recipients who are deceased.
new text end
new text begin (b) If review of the death master file or any other source indicates that a recipient is
deceased, the commissioner must:
new text end
new text begin (1) terminate the recipient's eligibility for medical assistance in the manner provided for
by the laws and regulations governing medical assistance;
new text end
new text begin (2) notify the recipient and the recipient's representative no later than the date of the
termination; and
new text end
new text begin (3) discontinue any payments to providers under this chapter made on behalf of the
recipient as of the date of the termination.
new text end
new text begin (c) If the commissioner determines that a recipient was misidentified as deceased and
erroneously disenrolled from medical assistance based on information obtained from the
death master file or any other source, the commissioner must immediately re-enroll the
individual in medical assistance retroactive to the date of termination under paragraph (b).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Review of other sources.new text end
new text begin Nothing in this section prevents the commissioner
from reviewing other sources to identify recipients of medical assistance who are deceased,
provided the commissioner is in compliance with this section and all other requirements
under this chapter related to medical assistance eligibility determination and redetermination.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.06, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Citizenship requirements.
(a) new text begin Except as provided in paragraph (c), new text end eligibility
for medical assistance is limited to citizens new text begin and nationals new text end of the United Statesdeleted text begin , qualified
noncitizens as defined in this subdivision, and other persons residing lawfully in the United
Statesdeleted text end new text begin and noncitizens who are eligible for coverage with federal financial participation
provided by Medicaid or the Children's Health Insurance Programnew text end . new text begin Noncitizens who are
eligible for federal financial participation include but are not limited to:
new text end
new text begin (1) children and pregnant women who are lawfully residing in the United States as
provided by section 214 of the federal Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization
Act of 2009, Public Law 111-3, and who otherwise meet eligibility requirements of this
chapter; and
new text end
new text begin (2) pregnant noncitizens who are ineligible for federal financial participation because
of immigration status; who are not covered by a group health plan or health insurance
coverage according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 457.310; and who
otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter. These individuals are eligible
for medical assistance through the period of pregnancy, including labor and delivery, and
12 months postpartum.
new text end
new text begin (b) new text end Citizens or nationals of the United States must cooperate in obtaining satisfactory
documentary evidence of citizenship or nationality according to the requirements of the
federal Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, Public Law 109-171.
new text begin (c) Beginning October 1, 2003, persons who are receiving care and rehabilitation services
from a nonprofit center established to serve victims of torture and who are otherwise
ineligible for medical assistance under this chapter are eligible for medical assistance without
federal financial participation. These individuals are eligible only for the period during
which they are receiving services from the center. Individuals eligible under this paragraph
are not required to participate in prepaid medical assistance. The nonprofit center referenced
in this paragraph may establish itself as a provider of mental health targeted case management
services through a county contract under section 256.0112, subdivision 6. If the nonprofit
center is unable to secure a contract with a lead county in its service area, then,
notwithstanding the requirements of section 256B.0625, subdivision 20, the commissioner
may negotiate a contract with the nonprofit center for provision of mental health targeted
case management services. When serving clients who are not the financial responsibility
of their contracted lead county, the nonprofit center must gain the concurrence of the county
of financial responsibility prior to providing mental health targeted case management services
for those clients.
new text end
deleted text begin (b) "Qualified noncitizen" means a person who meets one of the following immigration
criteria:
deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) admitted for lawful permanent residence according to United States Code, title 8;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) admitted to the United States as a refugee according to United States Code, title 8,
section 1157;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (3) granted asylum according to United States Code, title 8, section 1158;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4) granted withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8, section
1253(h);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (5) paroled for a period of at least one year according to United States Code, title 8,
section 1182(d)(5);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (6) granted conditional entrant status according to United States Code, title 8, section
1153(a)(7);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (7) determined to be a battered noncitizen by the United States Attorney General
according to the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996,
title V of the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations Bill, Public Law 104-200;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (8) is a child of a noncitizen determined to be a battered noncitizen by the United States
Attorney General according to the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility
Act of 1996, title V, of the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations Bill, Public Law 104-200;
or
deleted text end
deleted text begin (9) determined to be a Cuban or Haitian entrant as defined in section 501(e) of Public
Law 96-422, the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (c) All qualified noncitizens who were residing in the United States before August 22,
1996, who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical
assistance with federal financial participation.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (d) Beginning December 1, 1996, qualified noncitizens who entered the United States
on or after August 22, 1996, and who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this
chapter are eligible for medical assistance with federal participation for five years if they
meet one of the following criteria:
deleted text end
deleted text begin (1) refugees admitted to the United States according to United States Code, title 8, section
1157;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (2) persons granted asylum according to United States Code, title 8, section 1158;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (3) persons granted withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8,
section 1253(h);
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4) veterans of the United States armed forces with an honorable discharge for a reason
other than noncitizen status, their spouses and unmarried minor dependent children; or
deleted text end
deleted text begin (5) persons on active duty in the United States armed forces, other than for training,
their spouses and unmarried minor dependent children.
deleted text end
deleted text begin Beginning July 1, 2010, children and pregnant women who are noncitizens described
in paragraph (b) or who are lawfully present in the United States as defined in Code of
Federal Regulations, title 8, section 103.12, and who otherwise meet eligibility requirements
of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance with federal financial participation as
provided by the federal Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2009,
Public Law 111-3.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end Nonimmigrants who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter
are eligible for the benefits as provided in paragraphs deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end to deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end . For purposes of this
subdivision, a "nonimmigrant" is a person in one of the classes listed in United States Code,
title 8, section 1101(a)(15).
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end Payment shall also be made for care and services that are furnished to noncitizens,
regardless of immigration status, who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this
chapter, if such care and services are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical
condition.
deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end For purposes of this subdivision, the term "emergency medical condition" means
a medical condition that meets the requirements of United States Code, title 42, section
1396b(v).
deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end (1) Notwithstanding paragraph deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end , services that are necessary for the treatment
of an emergency medical condition are limited to the following:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or by an ambulance service licensed under
chapter 144E that are directly related to the treatment of an emergency medical condition;
(ii) services delivered in an inpatient hospital setting following admission from an
emergency room or clinic for an acute emergency condition; and
(iii) follow-up services that are directly related to the original service provided to treat
the emergency medical condition and are covered by the global payment made to the
provider.
(2) Services for the treatment of emergency medical conditions do not include:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or inpatient setting to treat a nonemergency
condition;
(ii) organ transplants, stem cell transplants, and related care;
(iii) services for routine prenatal care;
(iv) continuing care, including long-term care, nursing facility services, home health
care, adult day care, day training, or supportive living services;
(v) elective surgery;
(vi) outpatient prescription drugs, unless the drugs are administered or dispensed as part
of an emergency room visit;
(vii) preventative health care and family planning services;
(viii) rehabilitation services;
(ix) physical, occupational, or speech therapy;
(x) transportation services;
(xi) case management;
(xii) prosthetics, orthotics, durable medical equipment, or medical supplies;
(xiii) dental services;
(xiv) hospice care;
(xv) audiology services and hearing aids;
(xvi) podiatry services;
(xvii) chiropractic services;
(xviii) immunizations;
(xix) vision services and eyeglasses;
(xx) waiver services;
(xxi) individualized education programs; or
(xxii) substance use disorder treatment.
deleted text begin (i) Pregnant noncitizens who are ineligible for federally funded medical assistance
because of immigration status, are not covered by a group health plan or health insurance
coverage according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 457.310, and who
otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance
through the period of pregnancy, including labor and delivery, and 12 months postpartum.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (j) Beginning October 1, 2003, persons who are receiving care and rehabilitation services
from a nonprofit center established to serve victims of torture and are otherwise ineligible
for medical assistance under this chapter are eligible for medical assistance without federal
financial participation. These individuals are eligible only for the period during which they
are receiving services from the center. Individuals eligible under this paragraph shall not
be required to participate in prepaid medical assistance. The nonprofit center referenced
under this paragraph may establish itself as a provider of mental health targeted case
management services through a county contract under section 256.0112, subdivision 6. If
the nonprofit center is unable to secure a contract with a lead county in its service area, then,
notwithstanding the requirements of section 256B.0625, subdivision 20, the commissioner
may negotiate a contract with the nonprofit center for provision of mental health targeted
case management services. When serving clients who are not the financial responsibility
of their contracted lead county, the nonprofit center must gain the concurrence of the county
of financial responsibility prior to providing mental health targeted case management services
for those clients.
deleted text end
deleted text begin (k)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end Notwithstanding paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end , clause (2), the following services are covered
as emergency medical conditions under paragraph deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end except where coverage is prohibited
under federal law for services under clauses (1) and (2):
(1) dialysis services provided in a hospital or freestanding dialysis facility;
(2) surgery and the administration of chemotherapy, radiation, and related services
necessary to treat cancer if the recipient has a cancer diagnosis that is not in remission and
requires surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation treatment; and
(3) kidney transplant if the person has been diagnosed with end stage renal disease, is
currently receiving dialysis services, and is a potential candidate for a kidney transplant.
deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end Effective July 1, 2013, recipients of emergency medical assistance under this
subdivision are eligible for coverage of the elderly waiver services provided under chapter
256S, and coverage of rehabilitative services provided in a nursing facility. The age limit
for elderly waiver services does not apply. In order to qualify for coverage, a recipient of
emergency medical assistance is subject to the assessment and reassessment requirements
of section 256B.0911. Initial and continued enrollment under this paragraph is subject to
the limits of available funding.
Sec. 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.061, is amended to read:
256B.061 ELIGIBILITY; RETROACTIVE EFFECT; RESTRICTIONS.
new text begin (a) new text end If any individual has been determined to be eligible for medical assistancenew text begin and is
subject to six-month eligibility redeterminations under Public Law 119-21, section 71107new text end ,
deleted text begin itdeleted text end new text begin medical assistancenew text end will be made available for care and services included under the plan
and furnished in or after the deleted text begin thirddeleted text end new text begin firstnew text end month before the month in which the individual made
application for such assistancedeleted text begin ,deleted text end if such individual was, or upon application would have been,
eligible for medical assistance at the time the care and services were furnished.
new text begin (b) If any individual has been determined to be eligible for medical assistance and is not
subject to six-month eligibility redeterminations under Public Law 119-21, section 71107,
medical assistance will be made available for care and services included under the plan and
furnished in or after the second month before the month in which the individual made
application for such assistance if such individual was, or upon application would have been,
eligible for medical assistance at the time the care and services were furnished.
new text end
new text begin (c) new text end The commissioner may limit, restrict, or suspend the eligibility of an individual for
up to one year upon that individual's conviction of a criminal offense related to application
for or receipt of medical assistance benefits.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2028.
new text end
Sec. 15.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:
Subd. 1a.
Prohibition on cost-sharing and deductibles.
deleted text begin Effective January 1, 2024deleted text end new text begin
Except for recipients eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 15new text end , the medical assistance
benefit plan must not include cost-sharing or deductibles for any medical assistance recipient
or benefit.
Sec. 16.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Cost sharing.new text end
new text begin (a) Effective for services provided on or after October 1, 2028,
except as provided in subdivision 6, the medical assistance benefit plan includes the following
cost sharing for recipients eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 15, with income
above 100 percent of the federal poverty level:
new text end
new text begin (1) $3 per nonpreventive visit, except as provided in paragraph (c). For purposes of this
subdivision, a visit means an episode of service that is required because of a recipient's
symptoms, diagnosis, or established illness, and that is delivered in an ambulatory setting
by a physician or physician assistant, chiropractor, podiatrist, nurse midwife, advanced
practice nurse, audiologist, optician, or optometrist;
new text end
new text begin (2) $3.50 for nonemergency visits to a hospital-based emergency room; and
new text end
new text begin (3) $3 per brand-name drug prescription, $1 per generic drug prescription, and $1 per
prescription for a brand-name multisource drug listed in preferred status on the preferred
drug list, subject to a $12 maximum per month for prescription drug co-payments. No
co-payments shall apply to antipsychotic drugs when used for the treatment of mental illness.
new text end
new text begin (b) Cost sharing for prescription drugs and related medical supplies to treat chronic
disease must comply with the requirements of section 62Q.481.
new text end
new text begin (c) A person eligible for medical assistance under section 256B.055, subdivision 15, is
responsible for all co-payments and deductibles in this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 17.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Exceptions.new text end
new text begin Co-payments and deductibles are subject to the exceptions and
limits required by Public Law 119-21, section 71120.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 18.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Collection.new text end
new text begin (a) The medical assistance reimbursement to the provider must be
reduced by the amount of the co-payment or deductible, except that reimbursements must
not be reduced:
new text end
new text begin (1) once a recipient has reached the $12 maximum per month for prescription drug
co-payments; or
new text end
new text begin (2) for a recipient who has met the recipient's monthly five percent cost-sharing limit.
new text end
new text begin (b) The provider collects the co-payment or deductible from the recipient. Providers
must not deny services to recipients who are unable to pay the co-payment or deductible.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 19.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 268.19, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Use of data.
(a) Except as provided by this section, data gathered from
any person under the administration of the Minnesota Unemployment Insurance Law are
private data on individuals or nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02,
subdivisions 9 and 12, and may not be disclosed except according to a district court order
or section 13.05. A subpoena is not considered a district court order. These data may be
disseminated to and used by the following agencies without the consent of the subject of
the data:
(1) state and federal agencies specifically authorized access to the data by state or federal
law;
(2) any agency of any other state or any federal agency charged with the administration
of an unemployment insurance program;
(3) any agency responsible for the maintenance of a system of public employment offices
for the purpose of assisting individuals in obtaining employment;
(4) the public authority responsible for child support in Minnesota or any other state in
accordance with section 518A.83;
(5) human rights agencies within Minnesota that have enforcement powers;
(6) the Department of Revenue to the extent necessary for its duties under Minnesota
laws;
(7) public and private agencies responsible for administering publicly financed assistance
programs for the purpose of monitoring the eligibility of the program's recipients;
(8) the Department of Labor and Industry, the Department of Commerce, and the Bureau
of Criminal Apprehension for uses consistent with the administration of their duties under
Minnesota law;
(9) the Department of Human Services and the Office of Inspector General and its agents
within the Department of Human Services, including county fraud investigators, for
investigations related to recipient or provider fraud and employees of providers when the
provider is suspected of committing public assistance fraud;
(10) the Department of Human Services for the purpose of evaluating medical assistance
services deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end supporting program improvementnew text begin , and administering section 256B.0562new text end ;
(11) local and state welfare agencies for monitoring the eligibility of the data subject
for assistance programs, or for any employment or training program administered by those
agencies, whether alone, in combination with another welfare agency, or in conjunction
with the department or to monitor and evaluate the statewide Minnesota family investment
program and other cash assistance programs, the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program,
and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Employment and Training program by
providing data on recipients and former recipients of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance
Program (SNAP) benefits, cash assistance under chapter 256, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child
care assistance under chapter 142E, or medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L or
formerly codified under chapter 256D;
(12) local and state welfare agencies for the purpose of identifying employment, wages,
and other information to assist in the collection of an overpayment debt in an assistance
program;
(13) local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies for the purpose of ascertaining
the last known address and employment location of an individual who is the subject of a
criminal investigation;
(14) the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement has access to data on
specific individuals and specific employers provided the specific individual or specific
employer is the subject of an investigation by that agency;
(15) the Department of Health for the purposes of epidemiologic investigations;
(16) the Department of Corrections for the purposes of case planning and internal research
for preprobation, probation, and postprobation employment tracking of offenders sentenced
to probation and preconfinement and postconfinement employment tracking of committed
offenders;
(17) the state auditor to the extent necessary to conduct audits of job opportunity building
zones as required under section 469.3201;
(18) the Office of Higher Education for purposes of supporting program improvement,
system evaluation, and research initiatives including the Statewide Longitudinal Education
Data System;
(19) the Family and Medical Benefits Division of the Department of Employment and
Economic Development to be used as necessary to administer chapter 268B; and
(20) the executive director or interim executive director of the Minnesota Secure Choice
Retirement Program established under chapter 187 for the purposes of assisting with
communication with employers and to verify employer compliance with chapter 187.
(b) Data on individuals and employers that are collected, maintained, or used by the
department in an investigation under section 268.182 are confidential as to data on individuals
and protected nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 3
and 13, and must not be disclosed except under statute or district court order or to a party
named in a criminal proceeding, administrative or judicial, for preparation of a defense.
(c) Data gathered by the department in the administration of the Minnesota unemployment
insurance program must not be made the subject or the basis for any suit in any civil
proceedings, administrative or judicial, unless the action is initiated by the department.
Sec. 20. new text begin DIRECTION TO COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN SERVICES;
NOTIFICATION TO MEDICAL ASSISTANCE RECIPIENTS.
new text end
new text begin By October 1, 2026, the commissioner of human services must notify medical assistance
recipients who are enrolled under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.055, subdivision 15,
that they may be eligible for medical assistance under a disability determination. The
notification must include information about how the recipient can request a determination
of disability and an explanation about the changes to medical assistance eligibility that go
into effect January 1, 2027.
new text end
ARTICLE 7
MEDICAL ASSISTANCE FRAUD PREVENTION
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 8.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Authority.
new text begin (a) new text end The attorney general, or any deputy, assistant, or special
assistant attorney general whom the attorney general authorizes in writing, has the authority
in any county of the state to subpoena and require the production ofnew text begin : (1)new text end any records ofnew text begin : (i)new text end
telephone companies, cellular phone companies,new text begin andnew text end paging companiesdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end new text begin (ii)new text end subscribers of
private computer networksnew text begin ,new text end including Internet service providers or computer bulletin board
systemsdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end new text begin (iii)new text end electric companies, gas companies,new text begin andnew text end water utilitiesdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ; (iv)new text end chemical suppliersdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;
(v)new text end hotels and motelsdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ; (vi)new text end pawn shopsdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ; (vii)new text end airlines, buses, taxis, and other entities engaged
in the business of transporting peopledeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end andnew text begin (viii)new text end freight companies, self-service storage
facilities, warehousing companies, package delivery companies, and other entities engaged
in the businesses of transport, storage, or deliverydeleted text begin , anddeleted text end new text begin ; (2) wage and employment records
relating to an investigation conducted under the attorney general's authority under section
256B.12; (3)new text end records of the existence of safe deposit box account numbers and customer
savings and checking account numbers maintained by financial institutions and safe deposit
companiesnew text begin ; (4) insurance records related to claim settlement relating to an investigation
conducted under the attorney general's authority under section 256B.12; and (5) banking,
credit card, and financial records, including but not limited to a safe deposit, loan and account
application and agreement, signature card, statement, check, transfer, account authorization,
safe deposit access record, and documentation of fraud, that belong to the subject of an
investigation conducted pursuant to the attorney general's authority under section 256B.12,
whether the record is held in the investigation subject's name or in another person's namenew text end .
new text begin (b) new text end Subpoenas may only be issued for records that are relevant to an ongoing legitimate
law enforcement investigation.
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.12, is amended to read:
256B.12 LEGAL REPRESENTATION.
The attorney general or the appropriate county attorney appearing at the direction of the
attorney general shall be the attorney for the state agency, and the county attorney of the
appropriate county shall be the attorney for the county agency in all matters pertaining
hereto. To prosecute under this chapter or sections deleted text begin 609.466deleted text end new text begin 609.467new text end ; 609.52, subdivision
2; and 609.542 or to recover payments wrongfully made under this chapter, the attorney
general or the appropriate county attorney, acting independently or at the direction of the
attorney general may institute a criminal or civil action.
Sec. 3.
new text begin [609.467] MEDICAL ASSISTANCE FRAUD.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Medical assistance fraud prohibited.new text end
new text begin A person who does any of the
following is guilty of medical assistance fraud and may be sentenced as provided in
subdivision 2:
new text end
new text begin (1) acting with intent to defraud, executes or participates in, or attempts or conspires to
execute or participate in, a scheme or artifice to obtain, by means of any false or fraudulent
pretenses, representations, or promises, or concealment of any material fact, any money or
credits relating to the payment of medical assistance funds under chapter 256B;
new text end
new text begin (2) acting with intent to defraud, presents, submits, tenders, offers, or participates in, or
attempts or conspires to execute or participate in, the preparation of a claim for payment,
claim for reimbursement, cost report, or rate application, knowing or having reason to know
that any part of the claim, report, or application is ineligible for payment or reimbursement;
new text end
new text begin (3) acting with intent to defraud, knowingly provides false information or intentionally
omits material information as part of any enrollment application, provider agreement, or
ownership and management disclosure required by any state or federal law as a medical
assistance provider under chapter 245A or 256B;
new text end
new text begin (4) owns, operates, manages, or exercises control over any entity receiving medical
assistance money, while knowing or having reason to know that the person has been
suspended or prohibited from enrolling as a medical assistance provider by any state agency
or under any state law or is excluded or prohibited from enrolling as a medical assistance
provider by any federal agency or under any federal law;
new text end
new text begin (5) knowingly and intentionally permits another person to own, operate, manage, or
exercise control over any entity receiving medical assistance money, while knowing or
having reason to know the other person is suspended or prohibited from enrolling as a
medical assistance provider by any state agency or under any state law or is excluded or
prohibited from enrolling as a medical assistance provider by any federal agency or under
any federal law;
new text end
new text begin (6) falsely makes or alters any record relating to the delivery of medical assistance
services so that the record purports to have been made by another person or by the maker
or alterer under an assumed or fictitious name, or at another time, or with different provisions,
or by the authority of a person who did not give such authority;
new text end
new text begin (7) acting with intent to defraud, presents, submits, tenders, offers, or participates in, or
attempts or conspires to participate in, the preparation of a claim for reimbursement for
personal care assistance services under section 256B.0659 or community first services and
supports under section 256B.85, knowing or having reason to know that required conditions
for payment under chapter 256B were not met, including applicable service authorization,
service delivery plan, documentation, training, supervision, evaluation, or other program
requirements; or
new text end
new text begin (8) after receiving a lawful request for records by any state agency or law enforcement
agency, intentionally destroys, or attempts or conspires to destroy, medical, health care, and
financial records required to be maintained under chapter 245A or 256B or rules adopted
pursuant to those chapters.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Penalties.new text end
new text begin (a) A person who is convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced
to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of not more than $20,000, or
both.
new text end
new text begin (b) A person who is convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than 20 years or to payment of not more than $100,000, or both, if the violation
causes a loss to any victim in an aggregate amount of more than $100,000, but not more
than $1,000,000.
new text end
new text begin (c) A person who is convicted under subdivision 1 may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than 30 years or to payment of not more than $1,000,000, or both, if the violation
causes a loss to any victim in an aggregate amount of more than $1,000,000.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Failure to keep or maintain medical assistance records.new text end
new text begin A person who
submits a claim for reimbursement, claim for payment, claim for reimbursement cost report,
or rate application and knowingly and intentionally fails to maintain medical, health care,
and financial records as required under chapter 245A or 256B or rules adopted pursuant to
those chapters is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Continuing offense.new text end
new text begin For purposes of calculating the statute of limitations
identified in section 628.26, any violation of subdivision 1 or 3 is a continuing offense. Any
violation of subdivision 1 or 3 extends to any act committed during the course of the scheme,
conspiracy, or conduct and is within the statute of limitations identified in section 628.26
so long as any part of the continuing scheme, conspiracy, or conduct comprising a violation
occurred within the identified statute of limitations.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Venue.new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 627.01, a violation
of this section may be prosecuted in:
new text end
new text begin (1) the county where any part of the offense occurred; or
new text end
new text begin (2) the county where the entity that received a claim for payment, claim for
reimbursement, cost report, or rate application is located.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Restitution.new text end
new text begin The court may order a person convicted of violating this section
to pay restitution for any costs, expenses, or losses resulting from the crime and for costs,
expenses, or losses resulting from similar conduct that was related to the offense but was
not charged. The court may order restitution for similar conduct that was related to the
offense if the related conduct occurred within the applicable statute of limitations and the
prosecutor provides notice of intent to seek restitution for that conduct at least five business
days before the sentencing hearing. The offender may challenge restitution as provided in
section 611A.045, subdivision 3. A dispute as to whether restitution is for similar conduct
that was related to the offense must be resolved by the court by the preponderance of the
evidence. The burden of demonstrating that the court may order restitution for any cost,
expense, or loss described in this subdivision is on the prosecution.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.52, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Acts constituting theft.
(a) Whoever does any of the following commits theft
and may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 3:
(1) intentionally and without claim of right takes, uses, transfers, conceals or retains
possession of movable property of another without the other's consent and with intent to
deprive the owner permanently of possession of the property; or
(2) with or without having a legal interest in movable property, intentionally and without
consent, takes the property out of the possession of a pledgee or other person having a
superior right of possession, with intent thereby to deprive the pledgee or other person
permanently of the possession of the property; or
(3) obtains for the actor or another the possession, custody, or title to property of or
performance of services by a third person by intentionally deceiving the third person with
a false representation which is known to be false, made with intent to defraud, and which
does defraud the person to whom it is made. "False representation" includes without
limitation:
(i) the issuance of a check, draft, or order for the payment of money, except a forged
check as defined in section 609.631, or the delivery of property knowing that the actor is
not entitled to draw upon the drawee therefor or to order the payment or delivery thereof;
or
(ii) a promise made with intent not to perform. Failure to perform is not evidence of
intent not to perform unless corroborated by other substantial evidence; or
deleted text begin (iii) the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement, a rate application, or a cost
report used to establish a rate or claim for payment for medical care provided to a recipient
of medical assistance under chapter deleted text end deleted text begin 256Bdeleted text end deleted text begin , which intentionally and falsely states the costs
of or actual services provided by a vendor of medical care; or
deleted text end
deleted text begin (iv)deleted text end new text begin (iii)new text end the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement for providing treatment
or supplies required to be furnished to an employee under section 176.135 which intentionally
and falsely states the costs of or actual treatment or supplies provided; or
deleted text begin (v)deleted text end new text begin (iv)new text end the preparation or filing of a claim for reimbursement for providing treatment
or supplies required to be furnished to an employee under section 176.135 for treatment or
supplies that the provider knew were medically unnecessary, inappropriate, or excessive;
or
(4) by swindling, whether by artifice, trick, device, or any other means, obtains property
or services from another person; or
(5) intentionally commits any of the acts listed in this subdivision but with intent to
exercise temporary control only and:
(i) the control exercised manifests an indifference to the rights of the owner or the
restoration of the property to the owner; or
(ii) the actor pledges or otherwise attempts to subject the property to an adverse claim;
or
(iii) the actor intends to restore the property only on condition that the owner pay a
reward or buy back or make other compensation; or
(6) finds lost property and, knowing or having reasonable means of ascertaining the true
owner, appropriates it to the finder's own use or to that of another not entitled thereto without
first having made reasonable effort to find the owner and offer and surrender the property
to the owner; or
(7) intentionally obtains property or services, offered upon the deposit of a sum of money
or tokens in a coin or token operated machine or other receptacle, without making the
required deposit or otherwise obtaining the consent of the owner; or
(8) intentionally and without claim of right converts any article representing a trade
secret, knowing it to be such, to the actor's own use or that of another person or makes a
copy of an article representing a trade secret, knowing it to be such, and intentionally and
without claim of right converts the same to the actor's own use or that of another person. It
shall be a complete defense to any prosecution under this clause for the defendant to show
that information comprising the trade secret was rightfully known or available to the
defendant from a source other than the owner of the trade secret; or
(9) leases or rents personal property under a written instrument and who:
(i) with intent to place the property beyond the control of the lessor conceals or aids or
abets the concealment of the property or any part thereof; or
(ii) sells, conveys, or encumbers the property or any part thereof without the written
consent of the lessor, without informing the person to whom the lessee sells, conveys, or
encumbers that the same is subject to such lease or rental contract with intent to deprive the
lessor of possession thereof; or
(iii) does not return the property to the lessor at the end of the lease or rental term, plus
agreed-upon extensions, with intent to wrongfully deprive the lessor of possession of the
property; or
(iv) returns the property to the lessor at the end of the lease or rental term, plus
agreed-upon extensions, but does not pay the lease or rental charges agreed upon in the
written instrument, with intent to wrongfully deprive the lessor of the agreed-upon charges.
For the purposes of items (iii) and (iv), the value of the property must be at least $100.
Evidence that a lessee used a false, fictitious, or not current name, address, or place of
employment in obtaining the property or fails or refuses to return the property or pay the
rental contract charges to lessor within five days after written demand for the return has
been served personally in the manner provided for service of process of a civil action or
sent by certified mail to the last known address of the lessee, whichever shall occur later,
shall be evidence of intent to violate this clause. Service by certified mail shall be deemed
to be complete upon deposit in the United States mail of such demand, postpaid and addressed
to the person at the address for the person set forth in the lease or rental agreement, or, in
the absence of the address, to the person's last known place of residence; or
(10) alters, removes, or obliterates numbers or symbols placed on movable property for
purpose of identification by the owner or person who has legal custody or right to possession
thereof with the intent to prevent identification, if the person who alters, removes, or
obliterates the numbers or symbols is not the owner and does not have the permission of
the owner to make the alteration, removal, or obliteration; or
(11) with the intent to prevent the identification of property involved, so as to deprive
the rightful owner of possession thereof, alters or removes any permanent serial number,
permanent distinguishing number or manufacturer's identification number on personal
property or possesses, sells or buys any personal property knowing or having reason to
know that the permanent serial number, permanent distinguishing number or manufacturer's
identification number has been removed or altered; or
(12) intentionally deprives another of a lawful charge for cable television service by:
(i) making or using or attempting to make or use an unauthorized external connection
outside the individual dwelling unit whether physical, electrical, acoustical, inductive, or
other connection; or by
(ii) attaching any unauthorized device to any cable, wire, microwave, or other component
of a licensed cable communications system as defined in chapter 238. Nothing herein shall
be construed to prohibit the electronic video rerecording of program material transmitted
on the cable communications system by a subscriber for fair use as defined by Public Law
94-553, section 107; or
(13) except as provided in clauses (12) and (14), obtains the services of another with
the intention of receiving those services without making the agreed or reasonably expected
payment of money or other consideration; or
(14) intentionally deprives another of a lawful charge for telecommunications service
by:
(i) making, using, or attempting to make or use an unauthorized connection whether
physical, electrical, by wire, microwave, radio, or other means to a component of a local
telecommunication system as provided in chapter 237; or
(ii) attaching an unauthorized device to a cable, wire, microwave, radio, or other
component of a local telecommunication system as provided in chapter 237.
The existence of an unauthorized connection is prima facie evidence that the occupier
of the premises:
(A) made or was aware of the connection; and
(B) was aware that the connection was unauthorized;
(15) with intent to defraud, diverts corporate property other than in accordance with
general business purposes or for purposes other than those specified in the corporation's
articles of incorporation; or
(16) with intent to defraud, authorizes or causes a corporation to make a distribution in
violation of section 302A.551, or any other state law in conformity with it; or
(17) takes or drives a motor vehicle without the consent of the owner or an authorized
agent of the owner, knowing or having reason to know that the owner or an authorized agent
of the owner did not give consent; or
(18) intentionally, and without claim of right, takes motor fuel from a retailer without
the retailer's consent and with intent to deprive the retailer permanently of possession of
the fuel by driving a motor vehicle from the premises of the retailer without having paid
for the fuel dispensed into the vehicle; or
(19) commits wage theft under subdivision 1, clause (13).
(b) Proof that the driver of a motor vehicle into which motor fuel was dispensed drove
the vehicle from the premises of the retailer without having paid for the fuel permits the
factfinder to infer that the driver acted intentionally and without claim of right, and that the
driver intended to deprive the retailer permanently of possession of the fuel. This paragraph
does not apply if: (1) payment has been made to the retailer within 30 days of the receipt
of notice of nonpayment under section 604.15; or (2) a written notice as described in section
604.15, subdivision 4, disputing the retailer's claim, has been sent. This paragraph does not
apply to the owner of a motor vehicle if the vehicle or the vehicle's license plate has been
reported stolen before the theft of the fuel.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 609.902, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:
Subd. 4.
Criminal act.
"Criminal act" means conduct constituting, or a conspiracy or
attempt to commit, a felony violation of chapter 152, or a felony violation of section 299F.79;
299F.80; 299F.82; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223;
609.2231; 609.228; 609.235; 609.245; 609.25; 609.27; 609.322; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344;
609.345; 609.42;new text begin 609.467;new text end 609.48; 609.485; 609.495; 609.496; 609.497; 609.498; 609.52,
subdivision 2, if the offense is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (1), if the property is
a firearm, clause (3)(b), or clause (3)(d)(v); section 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a),
clause (1) or (4); 609.527, if the crime is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (4); 609.528,
if the crime is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (4); 609.53; 609.561; 609.562; 609.582,
subdivision 1 or 2; 609.668, subdivision 6, paragraph (a); 609.67; 609.687; 609.713; 609.86;
609.894, subdivision 3 or 4; 609.895; 624.713; 624.7191; or 626A.02, subdivision 1, if the
offense is punishable under section 626A.02, subdivision 4, paragraph (a). "Criminal act"
also includes conduct constituting, or a conspiracy or attempt to commit, a felony violation
of section 609.52, subdivision 2, clause (3), (4), (15), or (16), if the violation involves an
insurance company as defined in section 60A.02, subdivision 4, a nonprofit health service
plan corporation regulated under chapter 62C, a health maintenance organization regulated
under chapter 62D, deleted text begin ordeleted text end a fraternal benefit society regulated under chapter 64Bnew text begin , or any state
agencynew text end .
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 628.26, is amended to read:
628.26 LIMITATIONS.
(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be
found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.
(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made
at any time after the commission of the offense.
(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at
any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the
time of the offense.
(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18
years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2),
shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission
of the offense.
(e) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.322, 609.342 to 609.345, and
609.3458 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.
(f) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.561 shall be found or made
and filed in the proper court within ten years after the commission of the offense.
(g) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections deleted text begin 609.466deleted text end new text begin 609.467new text end and 609.52,
subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), item (iii), shall be found or made and filed in the
proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.
(h) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.2335, 609.52, subdivision 2,
paragraph (a), clause (3), items (i) and (ii), (4), (15), or (16), 609.631, or 609.821, where
the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000, or for violation of section
609.527 where the offense involves eight or more direct victims or the total combined loss
to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000, shall be found or made and filed in
the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(i) Except for violations relating to false material statements, representations or omissions,
indictments or complaints for violations of section 609.671 shall be found or made and filed
in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(j) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.562 and 609.563, shall be
found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the
offense.
(k) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.746 shall be found or made
and filed in the proper court within the later of three years after the commission of the
offense or three years after the offense was reported to law enforcement authorities.
(l) In all other cases, indictments or complaints shall be found or made and filed in the
proper court within three years after the commission of the offense.
(m) The limitations periods contained in this section shall exclude any period of time
during which the defendant was not an inhabitant of or usually resident within this state.
(n) The limitations periods contained in this section for an offense shall not include any
period during which the alleged offender participated under a written agreement in a pretrial
diversion program relating to that offense.
(o) The limitations periods contained in this section shall not include any period of time
during which physical evidence relating to the offense was undergoing DNA analysis, as
defined in section 299C.155, unless the defendant demonstrates that the prosecuting or law
enforcement agency purposefully delayed the DNA analysis process in order to gain an
unfair advantage.
Sec. 7. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.466,new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 8
MEDICAL ASSISTANCE FRAUD PREVENTION CONFORMING CHANGES
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 145A.061, subdivision 3, is
amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Denial of service.
The commissioner may deny an application from any
applicant who has been convicted of any of the following crimes:
Section 609.185 (murder in the first degree); section 609.19 (murder in the second
degree); section 609.195 (murder in the third degree); section 609.20 (manslaughter in the
first degree); section 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); section 609.25
(kidnapping); section 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); section
609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); section 609.2663 (murder of
an unborn child in the third degree); section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first
degree); section 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); section 609.344
(criminal sexual conduct in the third degree); section 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in
the fourth degree); section 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); section
609.3453 (criminal sexual predatory conduct); section 609.352 (solicitation of children to
engage in sexual conduct); section 609.352 (communication of sexually explicit materials
to children); section 609.365 (incest); section 609.377 (felony malicious punishment of a
child); section 609.378 (felony neglect or endangerment of a child); section 609.561 (arson
in the first degree); section 609.562 (arson in the second degree); section 609.563 (arson in
the third degree); section 609.749, subdivision 3, 4, or 5 (felony harassment or stalking);
section 152.021 (controlled substance crimes in the first degree); section 152.022 (controlled
substance crimes in the second degree); section 152.023 (controlled substance crimes in the
third degree); section 152.024 (controlled substance crimes in the fourth degree); section
152.025 (controlled substance crimes in the fifth degree); section 243.166 (violation of
predatory offender registration law); section 617.23, subdivision 2, clause (1), or subdivision
3, clause (1) (indecent exposure involving a minor); section 617.246 (use of minors in sexual
performance); section 617.247 (possession of child sexual abuse material); section 609.221
(assault in the first degree); section 609.222 (assault in the second degree); section 609.223
(assault in the third degree); section 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); section 609.224
(assault in the fifth degree); section 609.2242 (domestic assault); section 609.2247 (domestic
assault by strangulation); section 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of
drugs); section 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); section 609.231 (mistreatment
of residents or patients); section 609.2325 (criminal abuse); section 609.233 (criminal
neglect); section 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); section 609.234
(failure to report); section 609.24 (simple robbery); section 609.245 (aggravated robbery);
section 609.247 (carjacking); section 609.255 (false imprisonment); section 609.322
(solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution and sex trafficking); section 609.324,
subdivision 1 (hiring or engaging minors in prostitution); section 609.465 (presenting false
claims to a public officer or body); new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, new text end section 609.466 new text begin or section
609.467 new text end (medical assistance fraud); section 609.52 (felony theft); section 609.82 (felony
fraud in obtaining credit); section 609.527 (felony identity theft); section 609.582 (felony
burglary); section 609.611 (felony insurance fraud); section 609.625 (aggravated forgery);
section 609.63 (forgery); section 609.631 (felony check forgery); section 609.66, subdivision
1e (felony drive-by shooting); section 609.71 (felony riot); section 609.713 (terroristic
threats); section 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct by a caregiver against a vulnerable
adult); section 609.821 (felony financial transaction card fraud); section 609.855, subdivision
5 (shooting at or in a public transit vehicle or facility); or aiding and abetting, attempting,
or conspiring to commit any of the offenses in this subdivision.
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 214.10, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Subd. 2a.
Proceedings.
A board shall initiate proceedings to suspend or revoke a license
or shall refuse to renew a license of a person licensed by the board who is convicted in a
court of competent jurisdiction of violating section 609.2231, subdivision 8, 609.23, 609.231,
609.2325, 609.233, 609.2335, 609.234, 609.465,new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sectionnew text end 609.466,new text begin
section 609.467,new text end 609.52, or 609.72, subdivision 3.
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
15-year disqualification.
(a) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14
if: (1) less than 15 years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, if any,
for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a felony-level violation of any of the
following offenses: sections 152.021, subdivision 1 or 2b, (aggravated controlled substance
crime in the first degree; sale crimes); 152.022, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime
in the second degree; sale crimes); 152.023, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime in
the third degree; sale crimes); 152.024, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime in the
fourth degree; sale crimes); 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 268.182 (fraud);
393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud); 518B.01, subdivision 14
(violation of an order for protection); 609.165 (felon ineligible to possess firearm); 609.2112,
609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.215 (suicide); 609.223
or 609.2231 (assault in the third or fourth degree); repeat offenses under 609.224 (assault
in the fifth degree); 609.229 (crimes committed for benefit of a gang); 609.2325 (criminal
abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.235
(use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.247, subdivision
4 (carjacking in the third degree); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.2664 (manslaughter
of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the
second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671 (assault
of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the
commission of a crime); 609.27 (coercion); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); new text begin Minnesota Statutes
2024, section new text end 609.466 new text begin or section 609.467 new text end (medical assistance fraud); 609.495 (aiding an
offender); 609.498, subdivision 1 or 1b (aggravated first-degree or first-degree tampering
with a witness); 609.52 (theft); 609.521 (possession of shoplifting gear); 609.522 (organized
retail theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53
(receiving stolen property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks); 609.562 (arson in the
second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree); 609.582 (burglary); 609.59 (possession
of burglary tools); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63 (forgery);
609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.635 (obtaining signature by false
pretense); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.67 (machine guns and short-barreled shotguns);
609.687 (adulteration); 609.71 (riot); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.746 (interference
with privacy); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining credit); 609.821 (financial transaction card fraud);
617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving a minor; repeat offenses under 617.241 (obscene
materials and performances; distribution and exhibition prohibited; penalty); or 624.713
(certain persons not to possess firearms).
(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the
offenses listed in paragraph (a), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.
(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the termination of the individual's parental rights under section 260C.301, subdivision
1, paragraph (b), or subdivision 3.
(d) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the
elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of the offenses listed in paragraph
(a) or since the termination of parental rights in any other state or country, the elements of
which are substantially similar to the elements listed in paragraph (c).
(e) If the individual studied commits one of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), but the
sentence or level of offense is a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor, the individual is
disqualified but the disqualification look-back period for the offense is the period applicable
to the gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor disposition.
(f) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Ten-year disqualification.
(a) An individual is disqualified under section
245C.14 if: (1) less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed,
if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a gross misdemeanor-level
violation of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance);
260B.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to status as a juvenile petty offender or
delinquency); 260C.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to need for protection or
services); 268.182 (fraud); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud);
609.2112, 609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 or 609.222
(assault in the first or second degree); 609.223 or 609.2231 (assault in the third or fourth
degree); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (assault
in the fifth degree by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult); 609.2242 and 609.2243
(domestic assault); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of
residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal
neglect of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult);
609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.265 (abduction); 609.275
(attempt to coerce); 609.324, subdivision 1a (other prohibited acts; minor engaged in
prostitution); 609.33 (disorderly house); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378
(neglect or endangerment of a child); new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section new text end 609.466 new text begin or section
609.467 new text end (medical assistance fraud); 609.52 (theft); 609.522 (organized retail theft); 609.525
(bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen
property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks); 609.582 (burglary); 609.59 (possession
of burglary tools); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged
check); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.71 (riot); 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct
against a vulnerable adult); 609.749, subdivision 2 (harassment); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining
credit); 609.821 (financial transaction card fraud); 617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving
a minor; 617.241 (obscene materials and performances); 617.243 (indecent literature,
distribution); 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited);
or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21; or violation of an order for protection under
section 518B.01, subdivision 14.
(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed
since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the
offenses listed in paragraph (a), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.
(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed
since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the
elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in
paragraph (a).
(d) If the individual studied commits one of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), but the
sentence or level of offense is a misdemeanor disposition, the individual is disqualified but
the disqualification lookback period for the offense is the period applicable to misdemeanors.
(e) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Seven-year disqualification.
(a) An individual is disqualified under section
245C.14 if: (1) less than seven years has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed,
if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a misdemeanor-level violation
of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 260B.425
(criminal jurisdiction for contributing to status as a juvenile petty offender or delinquency);
260C.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to need for protection or services); 268.182
(fraud); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud); 609.2112, 609.2113,
or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 (assault in the first degree);
609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231
(assault in the fourth degree); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 (domestic
assault); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report
maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the third degree);
609.27 (coercion); violation of an order for protection under 609.3232 (protective order
authorized; procedures; penalties); new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section new text end 609.466 new text begin or section
609.467 new text end (medical assistance fraud); 609.52 (theft); 609.522 (organized retail theft); 609.525
(bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen
property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.66
(dangerous weapons); 609.665 (spring guns); 609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.79
(obscene or harassing telephone calls); 609.795 (letter, telegram, or package; opening;
harassment); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining credit); 609.821 (financial transaction card fraud);
617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving a minor; 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination
and display to minors prohibited); or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21; or violation
of an order for protection under section 518B.01 (Domestic Abuse Act).
(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since a determination or disposition of the individual's:
(1) failure to make required reports under section 260E.06 or 626.557, subdivision 3,
for incidents in which: (i) the final disposition under section 626.557 or chapter 260E was
substantiated maltreatment, and (ii) the maltreatment was recurring or serious; or
(2) substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under chapter 260E, a
vulnerable adult under section 626.557, or serious or recurring maltreatment in any other
state, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of maltreatment under
section 626.557 or chapter 260E for which: (i) there is a preponderance of evidence that
the maltreatment occurred, and (ii) the subject was responsible for the maltreatment.
(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of
the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota
Statutes.
(d) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or
country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses
listed in paragraphs (a) and (b).
(e) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.
(f) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has passed
since the individual was disqualified under section 256.98, subdivision 8.
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 609.531, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
For the purpose of sections 609.531 to 609.5318, the
following terms have the meanings given.
(a) "Conveyance device" means a device used for transportation and includes, but is not
limited to, a motor vehicle, trailer, snowmobile, airplane, and vessel and any equipment
attached to it. The term "conveyance device" does not include property which is, in fact,
itself stolen or taken in violation of the law.
(b) "Weapon used" means a dangerous weapon as defined under section 609.02,
subdivision 6, that the actor used or had in possession in furtherance of a crime.
(c) "Property" means property as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (1).
(d) "Contraband" means property which is illegal to possess under Minnesota law.
(e) "Appropriate agency" means the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, the Minnesota
Division of Driver and Vehicle Services, the Minnesota State Patrol, a county sheriff's
department, the Three Rivers Park District Department of Public Safety, the Department of
Natural Resources Division of Enforcement, the University of Minnesota Police Department,
the Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit, a city, metropolitan transit, or
airport police department; or a multijurisdictional entity established under section 299A.642
or 299A.681.
(f) "Designated offense" includes:
(1) for weapons used: any violation of this chapter, chapter 152 or 624;
(2) for driver's license or identification card transactions: any violation of section 171.22;
and
(3) for all other purposes: a felony violation of, or a felony-level attempt or conspiracy
to violate, section 325E.17; 325E.18; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.2112; 609.2113;
609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.2231; 609.2335; 609.24; 609.245; 609.247;
609.25; 609.255; 609.282; 609.283; 609.322; 609.342, subdivision 1, or subdivision 1a,
clauses (a) to (f) and (i); 609.343, subdivision 1, or subdivision 1a, clauses (a) to (f) and (i);
609.344, subdivision 1, or subdivision 1a, clauses (a) to (e), (h), or (i); 609.345, subdivision
1, or subdivision 1a, clauses (a) to (e), (h), and (i); 609.352; 609.42; 609.425;new text begin Minnesota
Statutes 2024, sectionnew text end 609.466;new text begin section 609.467;new text end 609.485; 609.487; 609.52; 609.525; 609.527;
609.528; 609.53; 609.54; 609.551; 609.561; 609.562; 609.563; 609.582; 609.59; 609.595;
609.611; 609.631; 609.66, subdivision 1e; 609.671, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, 8, and 12; 609.687;
609.821; 609.825; 609.86; 609.88; 609.89; 609.893; 609.895; 617.246; 617.247; or a gross
misdemeanor or felony violation of section 609.891 or 624.7181; or any violation of section
609.324; or a felony violation of, or a felony-level attempt or conspiracy to violate, Minnesota
Statutes 2012, section 609.21.
(g) "Controlled substance" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 4.
(h) "Prosecuting authority" means the attorney who is responsible for prosecuting an
offense that is the basis for a forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5318.
(i) "Asserting person" means a person, other than the driver alleged to have used a vehicle
in the transportation or exchange of a controlled substance intended for distribution or sale,
claiming an ownership interest in a vehicle that has been seized or restrained under this
section.
Sec. 7.
Laws 2026, chapter 88, article 1, section 181, is amended to read:
Sec. 181.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 299C.061, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
(b) "Fraud involving state funded or administered programs or services" includes any
violation of section 609.445, 609.465,new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sectionnew text end 609.466,new text begin section
609.467,new text end 609.52, 609.611, 609.651, 609.7475, or 609.821 involving a state agency or
state-funded or administered program or service.
(c) "Peace officer" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph
(c).
(d) "Section" means the Financial Crimes and Fraud Section of the Bureau of Criminal
Apprehension.
(e) "State agency" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 17.
(f) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.
ARTICLE 9
CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES POLICY
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 124D.19, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 13a.new text end
new text begin School-age care programs; priority for children in foster care.new text end
new text begin Each
district operating a school-age care, youth after-school enrichment, or other before- and
after-school community education program under this section must ensure that children in
foster care, as defined under section 260C.007, subdivision 18, or in a voluntary or
involuntary foster care placement under the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act
receive priority for enrollment in community education programs. In order to give a child
priority under this paragraph, the district may require a letter or other documentation from
a responsible social services agency or child-placing agency verifying that the child is in
foster care.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142A.43, is amended to read:
142A.43 deleted text begin GRANTS-IN-AIDdeleted text end new text begin GRANTSnew text end TO YOUTH INTERVENTION PROGRAMS.
Subdivision 1.
Grants.
new text begin (a) new text end The commissioner deleted text begin maydeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end make grants to nonprofit agencies
administering youth intervention programs in communities where the programs are or may
be established.new text begin Grants under this section are limited to available appropriations. No grant
may exceed $75,000.
new text end
new text begin (b) new text end "Youth intervention program" means a nonresidential community-based program
providing advocacy, education, counseling, mentoring, and referral services to youth and
their families experiencing personal, familial, school, legal, or chemical problems with the
goal of resolving the present problems and preventing the occurrence of the problems in
the future. The intent of the youth intervention program is to provide an ongoing stable
funding source to community-based early intervention programs for youth. Program design
may be different for the grantees depending on youth service needs of the communities
being served.
new text begin (c) A grant under this section is contingent upon the agency obtaining local matching
money equal to the amount of the grant from the community in which the youth intervention
program is established. The matching requirement is intended to leverage the investment
of state and community money in supporting the efforts of the grantees to provide early
intervention services to youth and their families.
new text end
Subd. 2.
Applications.
Applications for a deleted text begin grant-in-aid shalldeleted text end new text begin grant mustnew text end be deleted text begin madedeleted text end new text begin submittednew text end
by the administering agency to the commissioner.new text begin The commissioner must provide the
application form, procedures for submitting application forms, criteria for review of the
application, and a description of the kinds of contributions in addition to cash that qualify
as local matching money.
new text end
deleted text begin The grant-in-aid is contingent upon the agency having obtained from the community in
which the youth intervention program is established local matching money equal to the
amount of the grant that is sought. The matching requirement is intended to leverage the
investment of state and community dollars in supporting the efforts of the grantees to provide
early intervention services to youth and their families.
deleted text end
deleted text begin The commissioner shall provide the application form, procedures for making application
form, criteria for review of the application, and kinds of contributions in addition to cash
that qualify as local matching money. No grant to any agency may exceed $75,000.
deleted text end
Subd. 3.
deleted text begin Grant allocation formuladeleted text end new text begin Youth Intervention Programs Association
grantnew text end .
Up to deleted text begin fivedeleted text end new text begin sixnew text end percent of the deleted text begin appropriations to the grants-in-aid to the youth
intervention program maydeleted text end new text begin appropriation for grants under this section mustnew text end be used for a
grant to the Minnesota Youth Intervention Programs Association for deleted text begin expenses indeleted text end providing
collaboration, program development, professional development training, technical assistance,
new text begin and new text end tracking, deleted text begin anddeleted text end analyzingnew text begin ,new text end and reporting outcome data for the community-based grantees
of the program. The Minnesota Youth Intervention Programs Association is not required
to meet the deleted text begin match obligationdeleted text end new text begin matching requirementnew text end under subdivision deleted text begin 2deleted text end new text begin 1, paragraph (c)new text end .
Subd. 4.
Report.
On or before March 31 of each year, the Minnesota Youth Intervention
Programs Association shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the
committees and divisions with jurisdiction over deleted text begin public safety policy and financedeleted text end new text begin children
and youthnew text end on the implementation, use, and administration of the grant program deleted text begin createddeleted text end
under this section. The report shall include information sent by agencies administering youth
intervention programs to the Minnesota Youth Intervention Programs Association deleted text begin and the
Office of Justice Programsdeleted text end . At a minimum, the report must identify:
(1) the grant recipients;
(2) the geographic location of the grant recipients;
(3) the total number of individuals served by all grant recipients, disaggregated by race,
ethnicity, and gender;
(4) the total number of individuals served by all grant recipients who successfully
completed programming, disaggregated by age, race, ethnicity, and gender;
(5) the total amount of money awarded in grants and the total amount remaining to be
awarded from each appropriation;
(6) the amount of money granted to each recipient;
(7) deleted text begin granteedeleted text end new text begin grant recipientnew text end workplan objectives;
(8) how the grant was used based on deleted text begin granteedeleted text end new text begin grant recipientnew text end quarterly narrative reports
and financial reports; and
(9) summarized relevant youth intervention program outcome survey data measuring
the developmental assets of participants, based on Search Institute's Developmental Assets
Framework.
deleted text begin Subd. 5.deleted text end
deleted text begin Administrative costs.deleted text end
deleted text begin The commissioner may use up to ten percent of the
biennial appropriation for grants-in-aid to the youth intervention program to pay costs
incurred by the department in administering the youth intervention program.
deleted text end
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142B.10, subdivision 18, is amended to read:
Subd. 18.
Adoption agency; additional requirements.
In addition to the other
requirements of this section, an individual or organization applying for a license to place
children for adoption must:
(1) incorporate as a nonprofit corporation under chapter 317Anew text begin or a nonprofit limited
liability company under chapter 322Cnew text end ;
(2) file with the application for licensure a copy of the disclosure form required under
section 259.37, subdivision 2;
(3) provide evidence that a bond has been obtained and will be continuously maintained
throughout the entire operating period of the agency, to cover the cost of transfer of records
to and storage of records by the agency which has agreed, according to rule established by
the commissioner, to receive the applicant agency's records if the applicant agency voluntarily
or involuntarily ceases operation and fails to provide for proper transfer of the records. The
bond must be made in favor of the agency which has agreed to receive the records; and
(4) submit a financial review completed by an accountant to the commissioner each year
the license is renewed as required under section 142B.05, subdivision 1.
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142B.30, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:
new text begin Subd. 9a.new text end
new text begin Child foster care licensing agency information to applicants.new text end
new text begin In addition
to the requirements in Minnesota Rules, part 9543.0040, subpart 1, the licensing agency
must provide information to child foster care license applicants on the background study
process and the procedure for reconsideration of a background study disqualification.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142B.65, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7.
Abusive head trauma training.
(a) Before caring for children under school
age, the director, staff persons, substitutes, and unsupervised volunteers must receive training
on the risk of abusive head trauma during orientation and each calendar year thereafter.
(b) Abusive head trauma training under this subdivision must be at least one-half hour
in length. At a minimum, the training must address the risk factors related to shaking infants
and young children, means to reduce the risk of abusive head trauma in child care, and
license holder communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of abusive head
trauma.new text begin The training must be interactive and not only consist of reading or viewing
information.
new text end
(c) Except if completed during orientation, training taken under this subdivision may
be used to meet the in-service training requirements under subdivision 9.
(d) The commissioner shall make available for viewing a video presentation on the
dangers associated with shaking infants and young children, which may be used in
conjunction with the annual training required under paragraph (b).
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142B.70, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6.
Sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma training.
(a)
License holders must ensure and document that before the license holder, second adult
caregivers, substitutes, and helpers assist in the care of infants, they are instructed on the
standards in section 142B.46 and receive training on reducing the risk of sudden unexpected
infant death. In addition, license holders must ensure and document that before the license
holder, second adult caregivers, substitutes, and helpers assist in the care of infants and
children under school age, they receive training on reducing the risk of abusive head trauma
from shaking infants and young children. The training in this subdivision may be provided
as initial training under subdivision 1 or ongoing annual training under subdivision 8.
(b) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training required under this subdivision
must, at a minimum, address the risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death,
means of reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death in child care, and license
holder communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant
death.
(c) Abusive head trauma training required under this subdivision must, at a minimum,
address the risk factors related to shaking infants and young children, means of reducing
the risk of abusive head trauma in child care, and license holder communication with parents
regarding reducing the risk of abusive head trauma.new text begin The training must be interactive and
not only consist of reading or viewing information.
new text end
(d) Training for family and group family child care providers must be developed by the
commissioner in conjunction with the Minnesota Sudden Infant Death Center and approved
by the Minnesota Center for Professional Development. Sudden unexpected infant death
reduction training and abusive head trauma training may be provided in a single course of
no more than two hours in length.
(e) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma training
required under this subdivision must be completed in person deleted text begin or as allowed under subdivision
11, clause (1) or (2), at least once every two years. On the years when the individual receiving
training is not receiving training in person or as allowed under subdivision 11, clause (1)
or (2), the individual receiving training in accordance with this subdivision must receive
sudden unexpected infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma training through
a video of no more than one hour in length. The video must be developed or approved by
the commissionerdeleted text end new text begin or online each calendar yearnew text end .
(f) An individual who is related to the license holder as defined in section 142B.01,
subdivision 15, and who is involved only in the care of the license holder's own infant or
child under school age and who is not designated to be a second adult caregiver, helper, or
substitute for the licensed program, is exempt from the sudden unexpected infant death and
abusive head trauma training.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142C.12, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Abusive head trauma.
A certified center that cares for a child under school
age must ensure that the director and all staff persons, including substitutes and unsupervised
volunteers, receive training on abusive head trauma before assisting in the care of a child
under school age.new text begin The training must be interactive and not only consist of reading or viewing
information.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142D.05, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
Subd. 8.
Eligibility.
new text begin (a) new text end A child is eligible to participate in a school readiness program
if the child:
(1) is at least three years old on September 1;
(2) has completed health and developmental screening within 90 days of program
enrollment under sections 142D.09 to 142D.093; and
(3) has one or more of the following risk factors:
(i) qualifies for free or reduced-price meals;
(ii) is an English learner;
(iii) is homeless;
(iv) has an individualized education program (IEP) or standardized written plan;
(v) is identified, through health and developmental screenings under sections 142D.09
to 142D.093, with a potential risk factor that may influence learning; deleted text begin or
deleted text end
(vi)new text begin is in foster care; or
new text end
new text begin (vii)new text end is defined as at risk by the school district.
new text begin (b) The commissioner may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible
social services agency or child-placing agency for a child eligible under paragraph (a),
clause (3), item (vi), verifying that the child is in foster care, as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 18, or in a voluntary or involuntary foster care placement under the Minnesota
Indian Family Preservation Act. The commissioner must process a verification letter or
other documentation within five business days of receiving the letter or documentation.
new text end
Sec. 9.
new text begin [142D.095] PRESCHOOL ASSESSMENT.
new text end
new text begin (a) For programs serving children under section 142D.08, the commissioner of children,
youth, and families must implement a preschool assessment of children's development in
the year prior to kindergarten entry that is:
new text end
new text begin (1) aligned to the state early childhood indicators of progress and based on the criteria
for an early learning assessment approved by the commissioner; and
new text end
new text begin (2) based in part on information collected from teachers, early learning professionals,
families, and other partners.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must evaluate and approve assessment tools that meet the
requirements in paragraph (a). School districts and charter schools operating a program
under section 142D.08 must choose an assessment tool approved under this paragraph.
new text end
new text begin (c) The commissioner may provide technical assistance and professional development
related to the assessment to educators, school districts, and charter schools.
new text end
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142D.21, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6.
Payments.
(a) The commissioner shall provide payments under this section to
all eligible programs on a noncompetitive basis. The payment amounts shall be based on
the number of full-time equivalent staff who regularly care for children in the program,
including any employees, sole proprietors, or independent contractors.
(b) For purposes of this section, "one full-time equivalent" is defined as an individual
caring for children 32 hours per weeknew text begin , including associated required paid break timenew text end . An
individual can count as more or less than one full-time equivalent staff, but as no more than
two full-time equivalent staff.
(c) The commissioner must establish an amount to award per full-time equivalent
individual who regularly cares for children in the program.
(d) Payments must be increased by ten percent for programs receiving child care
assistance payments under section 142E.08 or 142E.17 or early learning scholarships under
section 142D.25, or for programs located in a child care access equity area. The commissioner
must develop a method for establishing child care access equity areas. For purposes of this
section, "child care access equity area" means an area with low access to child care, high
poverty rates, high unemployment rates, low homeownership rates, and low median
household incomes.
(e) The commissioner shall establish the form, frequency, and manner for making
payments under this section.
Sec. 11.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142D.25, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Applications; priorities.
(a) The commissioner shall establish application
timelines and determine the schedule for awarding scholarships that meet the operational
needs of eligible families and programs.
(b) The commissioner must give highest prioritynew text begin on an equal basisnew text end to applications from
children who:
(1) are not yet four years of age;
(2) have a parent under age 21 who is pursuing a high school diploma or a course of
study for a high school equivalency test;
(3) are in foster care;
(4) have been referred as in need of child protection services;
(5) have an incarcerated parent;
(6) are in or have a parent in a substance use treatment program;
(7) are in or have a parent in a mental health treatment program;
(8) have experienced domestic violence;
(9) have an individualized education program or individualized family service plan; or
(10) have experienced homelessness in the last 24 months, as defined under the federal
McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, United States Code, title 42, section 1143a.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), beginning July 1, 2025, the commissioner must give
highest priority to applications from children in families with income equal to or less than
the rate specified under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (1), item (i), and within this
group must prioritize children who meet one or more of the criteria listed in paragraph (b).
(d) The commissioner may prioritize applications on additional factors, including but
not limited to availability of funding, family income, geographic location, and whether the
child's family is on a waiting list for a publicly funded program providing early education
or child care services.
new text begin (e) The commissioner may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible
social services agency or child-placing agency for a child receiving priority as a child in
foster care verifying that the child is in foster care, as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision 18, or in a voluntary or involuntary foster care placement under the Minnesota
Indian Family Preservation Act. The commissioner must process a verification letter or
other documentation within five business days of receiving the letter or documentation.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142E.04, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4.
Funding priorities.
(a) In the event that inadequate funding necessitates the
use of waiting lists, priority for child care assistance under the basic sliding fee assistance
program shall be determined according to this subdivision.
(b) First priority must be given to eligible non-MFIP families who do not have a high
school diploma or commissioner of education-selected high school equivalency certification
or who need remedial and basic skill courses in order to pursue employment or to pursue
education leading to employment and who need child care assistance to participate in the
education program. This includes student parents as defined under section 142E.01,
subdivision 26. Within this priority, the following subpriorities must be used:
(1) child care needs of minor parents;
(2) child care needs of parents under 21 years of age; and
(3) child care needs of other parents within the priority group described in this paragraph.
(c) Second priority must be given to families in which at least one parent is a veteran,
as defined under section 197.447.
(d) Thirdnew text begin priority must be given to eligible foster parents providing care to a child placed
in a family foster home under section 260C.007, subdivision 16b; eligible relative custodians
to whom permanent legal and physical custody of a child has been transferred pursuant to
section 260C.515, subdivision 4; or eligible individuals with whom an Indian child has been
placed under section 260.773.
new text end
new text begin (e) Fourthnew text end priority must be given to eligible families who do not meet the specifications
of paragraph (b), (c), deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (d), (f)new text end , or deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end .
deleted text begin (e) Fourthdeleted text end new text begin (f) Fifthnew text end priority must be given to families who are eligible for portable basic
sliding fee assistance through the portability pool under subdivision 10.
deleted text begin (f) Fifthdeleted text end new text begin (g) Sixthnew text end priority must be given to eligible families receiving services under
section 142E.01, subdivision 27, if the parents have completed their MFIP transition year.
deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end Families under paragraph deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end must be added to the basic sliding fee waiting
list on the date they complete their transition year under section 142E.01, subdivision 28.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.04, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Licensed programs; other child care programs.
(a) The commissioner
shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be studied under section
245C.03, subdivision 1, at least upon application for initial license for all license types.
(b) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual required to be
studied under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, including a child care background study
subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, in a family child care program, licensed
child care center, certified license-exempt child care center, or legal nonlicensed child care
provider, on a schedule determined by the commissioner. Except as provided in section
245C.05, subdivision 5a, a child care background study must include submission of
fingerprints for a national criminal history record check and a review of the information
under section 245C.08. A background study for a child care program must be repeated
within five years from the most recent study conducted under this paragraph.
(c) deleted text begin At reauthorization ordeleted text end When a new background study is needed under section 142E.16,
subdivision 2, for a legal nonlicensed child care provider authorized under chapter 142E:
(1) for a background study affiliated with a legal nonlicensed child care provider, the
individual shall provide information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1,
paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the commissioner and be fingerprinted and photographed
under section 245C.05, subdivision 5; and
(2) the commissioner shall verify the information received under clause (1) and submit
the request in NETStudy 2.0 to complete the background study.
(d) At reapplication for a family child care license:
(1) for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child care center, the
individual shall provide information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1,
paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the county agency, and be fingerprinted and photographed
under section 245C.05, subdivision 5;
(2) the county agency shall verify the information received under clause (1) and forward
the information to the commissioner and submit the request in NETStudy 2.0 to complete
the background study; and
(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08.
(e) The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at the time of
reapplication for a license if the individual's background study was completed by the
commissioner of human services and the following conditions are met:
(1) a study of the individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when
the individual became affiliated with the license holder;
(2) the individual has been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last
study was conducted; and
(3) the last study of the individual was conducted on or after October 1, 1995.
(f) The commissioner of human services shall conduct a background study of an
individual specified under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6),
who is newly affiliated with a child foster family setting license holder:
(1) the county or private agency shall collect and forward to the commissioner the
information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1 and 5, when the child foster
family setting applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care services
are provided; and
(2) the background study conducted by the commissioner of human services under this
paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08,
subdivisions 1, 3, and 4.
(g) The commissioner shall conduct a background study of an individual specified under
section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), who is newly affiliated
with an adult foster care or family adult day services and with a family child care license
holder or a legal nonlicensed child care provider authorized under chapter 142E and:
(1) except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, the county shall collect and
forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivision
1, paragraphs (a) and (b), and subdivision 5, paragraph (b), for background studies conducted
by the commissioner for all family adult day services, for adult foster care when the adult
foster care license holder resides in the adult foster care residence, and for family child care
and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 142E;
(2) the license holder shall collect and forward to the commissioner the information
required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1, paragraphs (a) and (b); and 5, paragraphs
(a) and (b), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for adult foster care
when the license holder does not reside in the adult foster care residence; and
(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a), and subdivisions 3 and 4.
(h) Applicants for licensure, license holders, and other entities as provided in this chapter
must submit completed background study requests to the commissioner using the electronic
system known as NETStudy before individuals specified in section 245C.03, subdivision
1, begin positions allowing direct contact in any licensed program.
(i) For an individual who is not on the entity's active roster, the entity must initiate a
new background study through NETStudy when:
(1) an individual returns to a position requiring a background study following an absence
of 120 or more consecutive days; or
(2) a program that discontinued providing licensed direct contact services for 120 or
more consecutive days begins to provide direct contact licensed services again.
The license holder shall maintain a copy of the notification provided to the commissioner
under this paragraph in the program's files. If the individual's disqualification was previously
set aside for the license holder's program and the new background study results in no new
information that indicates the individual may pose a risk of harm to persons receiving
services from the license holder, the previous set-aside shall remain in effect.
(j) For purposes of this section, a physician licensed under chapter 147, advanced practice
registered nurse licensed under chapter 148, or physician assistant licensed under chapter
147A is considered to be continuously affiliated upon the license holder's receipt from the
commissioner of health or human services of the physician's, advanced practice registered
nurse's, or physician assistant's background study results.
(k) For purposes of family child care, a substitute caregiver must receive repeat
background studies at the time of each license renewal.
(l) A repeat background study at the time of license renewal is not required if the family
child care substitute caregiver's background study was completed by the commissioner on
or after October 1, 2017, and the substitute caregiver is on the license holder's active roster
in NETStudy 2.0.
(m) Before and after school programs authorized under chapter 142E, are exempt from
the background study requirements under section 123B.03, for an employee for whom a
background study under this chapter has been completed.
Sec. 14.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.055, subdivision 17, is amended to read:
Subd. 17.
Adults who were in foster care at the age of 18, 19, or 20.
(a) Medical
assistance may be paid for a person under 26 years of age who was in foster care under the
commissioner's responsibility on the date of attaining 18, 19, or 20 years of agenew text begin or receiving
foster care benefits past 18 years of age under section 260C.451new text end , and who was enrolled in
medical assistance under the state plan or a waiver of the plan while in foster care, in
accordance with section 2004 of the Affordable Care Act.
(b) Medical assistance may be paid for a person under 26 years of age who was in foster
care and enrolled in any state's Medicaid program as provided by Public Law 115-271,
section 1002.
(c) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end seek federal waiver approval under United States Code,
title 42, section 1315, to include youth who were in a state's foster care program and who
turned age 18 prior to January 1, 2023, without regard to potential eligibility under a Medicaid
mandatory group.
Sec. 15.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 259.83, subdivision 1, as amended by Laws
2026, chapter 88, article 1, section 159, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Services provided.
(a) Agencies deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide assistance and
counseling services upon receiving a request for current information from adoptive parents,
birth parents, adopted persons aged 18 years of age and older, or adult siblings of adopted
persons. The agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end contact the other adult persons or the adoptive parents of a
minor child in a personal and confidential manner to determine whether there is a desire to
receive or share information or to have contact. If there is such a desire, the agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin
mustnew text end provide the services requested. The agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end complete the search request
within six months of the request being made. If the agency is unable to complete the search
request within the specified time frame, the agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end inform the requester of the
status of the request and include a reasonable estimate of when the request can be completed.
(b) Upon a request for assistance or services from an adoptive parent of a minor child,
birth parent, or an adopted person 18 years of age or older, the agency must inform the
person:
(1) about the right of an adopted person to request and obtain a copy of the adopted
person's original birth record at the age and circumstances specified in section 144.2252;
and
(2) about the right of the birth parent named on the adopted person's original birth record
to file a contact preference form with the state registrar pursuant to section 144.2253.
When making or supervising an adoptive placement, the agency must provide in writing to
the birth parents listed on the original birth record the information required under this
paragraph and section 259.37, subdivision 2, clause (7).
Sec. 16.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.67, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Preference for permanency placement with a relative.
Consistent with
section 260C.513, if an African American or disproportionately represented child cannot
be returned to the child's parent, permanency placement with a relative is preferred. The
court deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end consider the requirements of and responsibilities under section 260.012,
paragraph (a), and, if possible and if requirements under section 260C.515, subdivision 4,
are met, transfer permanent legal and physical custody of the child to:
(1) a noncustodial parent under section 260C.515, subdivision 4, if the child cannot
return to the care of the parent or custodian from whom the child was removed or who had
legal custody at the time that the child was placed in foster care; or
(2) a willing and able relative, according to the requirements of section 260C.515,
subdivision 4. When the responsible social services agency is the petitioner, prior to the
court ordering a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, the responsible
social services agency must inform the relative of Northstar kinship assistance benefits and
eligibility requirements and of the relative's ability to apply for benefits on behalf of the
child under deleted text begin chapter deleted text end deleted text begin 256Ndeleted text end new text begin sections 142A.60 to 142A.612new text end .
Sec. 17.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.190, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Placement.
(a) An agency with legal responsibility for a child under
section 260C.178, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), or legal custody of a child under section
260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end , may colocate a child with a parent
who is receiving services in a licensed residential family-based substance use disorder
treatment program for up to 12 months.
(b) During the child's placement under paragraph (a), the agency: (1) may visit the child
as the agency deems necessary and appropriate; (2) deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end continue to have access to
information under section 260C.208; and (3) deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end continue to provide appropriate
services to both the parent and the child.
(c) The agency may terminate the child's placement under paragraph (a) to protect the
child's health, safety, or welfare and may remove the child to foster care without a prior
court order or authorization.
Sec. 18.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.212, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Out-of-home placement; plan.
(a) An out-of-home placement plan shall
be prepared within 30 days after any child is placed in foster care by court order or a
voluntary placement agreement between the responsible social services agency and the
child's parent pursuant to section 260C.227 or chapter 260D.
(b) An out-of-home placement plan means a written document individualized to the
needs of the child and the child's parents or guardians that is prepared by the responsible
social services agency jointly with the child's parents or guardians and in consultation with
the child's guardian ad litem; the child's tribe, if the child is an Indian child; the child's foster
parent or representative of the foster care facility; and, when appropriate, the child. When
a child is age 14 or older, the child may include two other individuals on the team preparing
the child's out-of-home placement plan. The child may select one member of the case
planning team to be designated as the child's advisor and to advocate with respect to the
application of the reasonable and prudent parenting standards. The responsible social services
agency may reject an individual selected by the child if the agency has good cause to believe
that the individual would not act in the best interest of the child. For a child in voluntary
foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, preparation of the out-of-home placement
plan shall additionally include the child's mental health treatment provider. For a child 18
years of age or older, the responsible social services agency shall involve the child and the
child's parents as appropriate. As appropriate, the plan shall be:
(1) submitted to the court for approval under section 260C.178, subdivision 7;
(2) ordered by the court, either as presented or modified after hearing, under section
260C.178, subdivision 7, or 260C.201, subdivision 6; and
(3) signed by the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child's guardian ad litem,
a representative of the child's tribe, the responsible social services agency, and, if possible,
the child.
(c) The out-of-home placement plan shall be explained by the responsible social services
agency to all persons involved in the plan's implementation, including the child who has
signed the plan, and shall set forth:
(1) a description of the foster care home or facility selected, including how the
out-of-home placement plan is designed to achieve a safe placement for the child in the
least restrictive, most family-like setting available that is in close proximity to the home of
the child's parents or guardians when the case plan goal is reunification; and how the
placement is consistent with the best interests and special needs of the child according to
the factors under subdivision 2, paragraph (b);
(2) the specific reasons for the placement of the child in foster care, and when
reunification is the plan, a description of the problems or conditions in the home of the
parent or parents that necessitated removal of the child from home and the changes the
parent or parents must make for the child to safely return home;
(3) a description of the services offered and provided to prevent removal of the child
from the home and to reunify the family including:
(i) the specific actions to be taken by the parent or parents of the child to eliminate or
correct the problems or conditions identified in clause (2), and the time period during which
the actions are to be taken; and
(ii) the reasonable efforts, or in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to be made to
achieve a safe and stable home for the child including social and other supportive services
to be provided or offered to the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child, and the
residential facility during the period the child is in the residential facility;
(4) a description of any services or resources that were requested by the child or the
child's parent, guardian, foster parent, or custodian since the date of the child's placement
in the residential facility, and whether those services or resources were provided and if not,
the basis for the denial of the services or resources;
(5) the visitation plan for the parent or parents or guardian, other relatives as defined in
section 260C.007, subdivision 26b or 27, and siblings of the child if the siblings are not
placed together in foster care, and whether visitation is consistent with the best interest of
the child, during the period the child is in foster care;
(6) when a child cannot return to or be in the care of either parent, documentation of
steps to finalize adoption as the permanency plan for the child through reasonable efforts
to place the child for adoption pursuant to section 260C.605. At a minimum, the
documentation must include consideration of whether adoption is in the best interests of
the child and child-specific recruitment efforts such as a relative search, consideration of
relatives for adoptive placement, and the use of state, regional, and national adoption
exchanges to facilitate orderly and timely placements in and outside of the state. A copy of
this documentation shall be provided to the court in the review required under section
260C.317, subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(7) when a child cannot return to or be in the care of either parent, documentation of
steps to finalize the transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative as the
permanency plan for the child. This documentation must support the requirements of the
kinship placement agreement under section 142A.605 and must include the reasonable
efforts used to determine that it is not appropriate for the child to return home or be adopted,
and reasons why permanent placement with a relative through a Northstar kinship assistance
arrangement is in the child's best interest; how the child meets the eligibility requirements
for Northstar kinship assistance payments; agency efforts to discuss adoption with the child's
relative foster parent and reasons why the relative foster parent chose not to pursue adoption,
if applicable; and agency efforts to discuss with the child's parent or parents the permanent
transfer of permanent legal and physical custody or the reasons why these efforts were not
made;
(8) efforts to ensure the child's educational stability while in foster care for a child deleted text begin who
attained the minimum age fordeleted text end new text begin subject tonew text end compulsory school attendance under deleted text begin state lawdeleted text end new text begin
section 120A.22new text end and is enrolled full time in elementary or secondary school, or instructed
in elementary or secondary education at home, or instructed in an independent study
elementary or secondary program, or incapable of attending school on a full-time basis due
to a medical condition that is documented and supported by regularly updated information
in the child's case plan. Educational stability efforts include:
(i) efforts to ensure that the child remains in the same school in which the child was
enrolled prior to placement or upon the child's move from one placement to another, including
efforts to work with the local education authorities to ensure the child's educational stability
and attendance; or
(ii) if it is not in the child's best interest to remain in the same school that the child was
enrolled in prior to placement or move from one placement to another, efforts to ensure
immediate and appropriate enrollment for the child in a new school;
new text begin (9) for a child not yet subject to compulsory school attendance under section 120A.22,
efforts to ensure the child's educational stability while in foster care if the child is enrolled
in an early childhood education or child care program. If enrollment in an early childhood
education or child care program is not feasible or not in the child's best interest, the
out-of-home placement plan must state specific reasons for discontinuing the child's
enrollment in the same program or not seeking enrollment in a similar program. Early
childhood education or child care stability efforts include:
new text end
new text begin (i) efforts to ensure that the child remains in the same program in which the child was
enrolled prior to placement or upon the child's move from one placement to another, if in
the child's best interest, including efforts to work with the program to ensure the child's
educational stability and attendance; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) if it is not feasible or not in the child's best interest for the child to remain in the same
program that the child was enrolled in prior to placement or to a move from one placement
to another, efforts to ensure enrollment for the child in a similar program;
new text end
deleted text begin (9)deleted text end new text begin (10)new text end the educationalnew text begin , child care, or early childhood education programnew text end records of the
child including the most recent information available regarding:
(i) the names and addresses of the child's educational providers;
(ii) the child's grade level performancenew text begin , if applicablenew text end ;
(iii) the child's schoolnew text begin or programnew text end record;
(iv) a statement about how the child's placement in foster care takes into account
proximity to the schoolnew text begin or programnew text end in which the child is enrolled at the time of placement;
and
(v) any other relevant educational information;
deleted text begin (10)deleted text end new text begin (11)new text end the efforts by the responsible social services agency to ensure the oversight
and continuity of health care services for the foster child, including:
(i) the plan to schedule the child's initial health screens;
(ii) how the child's known medical problems and identified needs from the screens,
including any known communicable diseases, as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision
2, shall be monitored and treated while the child is in foster care;
(iii) how the child's medical information shall be updated and shared, including the
child's immunizations;
(iv) who is responsible to coordinate and respond to the child's health care needs,
including the role of the parent, the agency, and the foster parent;
(v) who is responsible for oversight of the child's prescription medications;
(vi) how physicians or other appropriate medical and nonmedical professionals shall be
consulted and involved in assessing the health and well-being of the child and determine
the appropriate medical treatment for the child; and
(vii) the responsibility to ensure that the child has access to medical care through either
medical insurance or medical assistance;
deleted text begin (11)deleted text end new text begin (12)new text end the health records of the child including information available regarding:
(i) the names and addresses of the child's health care and dental care providers;
(ii) a record of the child's immunizations;
(iii) the child's known medical problems, including any known communicable diseases
as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision 2;
(iv) the child's medications; and
(v) any other relevant health care information such as the child's eligibility for medical
insurance or medical assistance;
deleted text begin (12)deleted text end new text begin (13)new text end an independent living plan for a child 14 years of age or older, developed in
consultation with the child. The child may select one member of the case planning team to
be designated as the child's advisor and to advocate with respect to the application of the
reasonable and prudent parenting standards in subdivision 14. The plan should include, but
not be limited to, the following objectives:
(i) educational, vocational, or employment planning;
(ii) health care planning and medical coverage;
(iii) transportation including, where appropriate, assisting the child in obtaining a driver's
license;
(iv) money management, including the responsibility of the responsible social services
agency to ensure that the child annually receives, at no cost to the child, a consumer report
as defined under section 13C.001 and assistance in interpreting and resolving any inaccuracies
in the report;
(v) planning for housing;
(vi) social and recreational skills;
(vii) establishing and maintaining connections with the child's family and community;
and
(viii) regular opportunities to engage in age-appropriate or developmentally appropriate
activities typical for the child's age group, taking into consideration the capacities of the
individual child;
deleted text begin (13)deleted text end new text begin (14)new text end for a child in voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, diagnostic
and assessment information, specific services relating to meeting the mental health care
needs of the child, and treatment outcomes;
deleted text begin (14)deleted text end new text begin (15)new text end for a child 14 years of age or older, a signed acknowledgment that describes
the child's rights regarding education, health care, visitation, safety and protection from
exploitation, and court participation; receipt of the documents identified in section 260C.452;
and receipt of an annual credit report. The acknowledgment shall state that the rights were
explained in an age-appropriate manner to the child; and
deleted text begin (15)deleted text end new text begin (16)new text end for a child placed in a qualified residential treatment program, the plan must
include the requirements in section 260C.708.
(d) The parent or parents or guardian and the child each shall have the right to legal
counsel in the preparation of the case plan and shall be informed of the right at the time of
placement of the child. The child shall also have the right to a guardian ad litem. If unable
to employ counsel from their own resources, the court shall appoint counsel upon the request
of the parent or parents or the child or the child's legal guardian. The parent or parents may
also receive assistance from any person or social services agency in preparation of the case
plan.
(e) Before an out-of-home placement plan is signed by the parent or parents or guardian
of the child, the responsible social services agency must provide the parent or parents or
guardian with a one- to two-page summary of the plan using a form developed by the
commissioner. The out-of-home placement plan summary must clearly summarize the plan's
contents under paragraph (c) and list the requirements and responsibilities for the parent or
parents or guardian using plain language. The summary must be updated and provided to
the parent or parents or guardian when the out-of-home placement plan is updated under
subdivision 1a.
(f) After the plan has been agreed upon by the parties involved or approved or ordered
by the court, the foster parents shall be fully informed of the provisions of the case plan and
shall be provided a copy of the plan.
(g) Upon the child's discharge from foster care, the responsible social services agency
must provide the child's parent, adoptive parent, or permanent legal and physical custodian,
and the child, if the child is 14 years of age or older, with a current copy of the child's health
and education record. If a child meets the conditions in subdivision 15, paragraph (b), the
agency must also provide the child with the child's social and medical history. The responsible
social services agency may give a copy of the child's health and education record and social
and medical history to a child who is younger than 14 years of age, if it is appropriate and
if subdivision 15, paragraph (b), applies.
Sec. 19.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.212, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:
Subd. 4a.
Monthly caseworker visits.
(a) Every child in foster care or on a trial home
visit deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be visited by the child's caseworker or another person who has responsibility
for visitation of the child on a monthly basis, with the majority of visits occurring in the
child's residence. The responsible social services agency may designate another person
responsible for monthly case visits. For the purposes of this section, the following definitions
apply:
(1) "visit" is defined as a face-to-face contact between a child and the child's caseworkernew text begin .
For a youth 18 years of age or older, a visit may be conducted via video conference with
the youth's informed consentnew text end ;
(2) "visited on a monthly basis" is defined as at least one visit per calendar month;
(3) "the child's caseworker" is defined as the person who has responsibility for managing
the child's foster care placement case as assigned by the responsible social services agency;
(4) "another person" means the professional staff whom the responsible social services
agency has assigned in the out-of-home placement plan or case plan. Another person must
be professionally trained to assess the child's safety, permanency, well-being, and case
progress. The agency may not designate the guardian ad litem, the child foster care provider,
residential facility staff, or a qualified individual as defined in section 260C.007,
subdivision26b, as another person; and
(5) "the child's residence" is defined as the home where the child is residing, and can
include the foster home, child care institution, or the home from which the child was removed
if the child is on a trial home visit.
(b) Caseworker visits deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be of sufficient substance and duration to address issues
pertinent to case planning and service delivery to ensure the safety, permanency, and
well-being of the child, including whether the child is enrolled and attending school as
required by law.
(c) Every effort deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be made by the responsible social services agency and
professional staff to have the monthly visit with the child outside the presence of the child's
parents, foster parents, or facility staff. There may be situations related to the child's needs
when a caseworker visit cannot occur with the child alone. The reason the caseworker visit
occurred in the presence of others must be documented in the case record and may include:
(1) that the child exhibits intense emotion or behavior indicating that visiting without
the presence of the parent, foster parent, or facility staff would be traumatic for the child;
(2) that despite a caseworker's efforts, the child declines to visit with the caseworker
outside the presence of the parent, foster parent, or facility staff; and
(3) that the child has a specific developmental delay, physical limitation, incapacity,
medical device, or significant medical need, such that the parent, foster parent, or facility
staff is required to be present with the child during the visit.
Sec. 20.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.212, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 14a.new text end
new text begin Information on early childhood education and child care for children
in foster care.new text end
new text begin For a child not yet subject to compulsory school attendance under section
120A.22, the responsible social services agency; licensed child-placing agency, if applicable;
and the child's guardian ad litem must provide information to the foster parent about:
new text end
new text begin (1) early childhood education and child care program options in the foster parent's
geographic area;
new text end
new text begin (2) the Northstar foster care benefits child care allowance;
new text end
new text begin (3) eligibility requirements for the child care assistance program and early learning
scholarships; and
new text end
new text begin (4) application processes for the child care assistance program and early learning
scholarships.
new text end
Sec. 21.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.451, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Independent living plan.
deleted text begin Upon the request ofdeleted text end new text begin (a) For any child in foster care
who is 14 years of age or older, the responsible social services agency must, in conjunction
with the child and other appropriate parties, develop and update the child's independent
living plan required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (12).
new text end
new text begin (b) Fornew text end any child in foster care immediately prior to the child's 18th birthday deleted text begin and who
is in foster care at the time of the requestdeleted text end , the responsible social services agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end ,
in conjunction with the child and other appropriate parties, update the new text begin child's new text end independent
living plan required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (12),
related to the child's employment, vocational, educational, social, or maturational needsnew text begin and
submit the updated plan to the court as part of the required review under section 260C.202,
subdivision 3new text end . The agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide continued services and foster care for the
child including those services that are necessary to implement the independent living plan.
Sec. 22.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.451, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Eligibility to continue in foster care.
A child in foster care immediately prior
to the child's 18th birthday may continue in foster care past age 18 unless:
(1) the child can safely return home;new text begin or
new text end
(2) deleted text begin the child is in placement pursuant to the agency's duties under section 256B.092 and
Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016, to meet the child's needs due to a
developmental disability or related condition, and the child will be served as an adult under
section 256B.092 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016; or
deleted text end
deleted text begin (3)deleted text end the child can be adopted or have permanent legal and physical custody transferred
to a relative prior to the child's 18th birthday.
Sec. 23.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.451, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:
Subd. 3a.
Eligibility criteria.
The child must meet at least one of the following conditions
to be considered eligible to continue in or return to foster care and remain there to age 21.
The child must be:
(1) completing secondary education or a program leading to an equivalent credentialnew text begin ,
including transition programs through a public or private schoolnew text end ;
(2) enrolled in an institution that provides postsecondary or vocational education;
(3) participating in a program or activity designed to promote or remove barriers to
employment;
(4) employed for at least 80 hours per monthnew text begin , including receiving benefits under chapter
268Bnew text end ; or
(5) incapable of doing any of the activities described in clauses (1) to (4) due to a medical
condition.
Sec. 24.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260C.451, subdivision 8, is amended
to read:
Subd. 8.
Notice of termination of foster care.
When a child in foster care between the
ages of 18 and 21 ceases to meet one of the eligibility criteria of subdivision 3a, the
responsible social services agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end give the child written notice that foster care
will terminate 30 days from the date the notice is sent. new text begin The agency must send a copy of the
written notice to the commissioner of children, youth, and families. new text end The child or the child's
guardian ad litem may file a motion asking the court to review the agency's determination
within 15 days of receiving the notice. The child deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end not be discharged from foster
care until the motion is heard. The agency deleted text begin shall workdeleted text end new text begin must engagenew text end with the child tonew text begin develop
anew text end transition deleted text begin out of foster caredeleted text end new text begin plannew text end as required under new text begin section 260C.452, subdivision 4,
paragraph (d), that addresses the goals listed in new text end section 260C.203, subdivision 4, clause (2).
The written notice of termination of benefits deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be on a form prescribed by the
commissioner and deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end also give notice of the right to have the agency's determination
reviewed by the court in the proceeding where the court conducts the reviews required under
section 260C.203, 260C.317, or 260C.515, subdivision 5 or 6. A copy of the termination
notice deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be sent to the child and the child's attorney, if any, the foster care provider,
the child's guardian ad litem, new text begin the commissioner of children, youth, and families, new text end and the
court. The agency is not responsible for paying foster care benefits for any period of time
after the child actually leaves foster care.
ARTICLE 10
CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES BUDGET
Section 1. new text begin REGIONAL FOOD BANK GRANTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Establishment.new text end
new text begin The commissioner of children, youth, and families must
establish regional food bank grants to increase the availability of food to individuals and
families in need.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Distribution of appropriation.new text end
new text begin The commissioner must distribute money
appropriated under this section to regional food banks and Minnesota Tribal governments,
as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 10.65, using a formula based on the number of
persons in households having incomes below the federal poverty level and the number of
unemployed persons in the service area of the food bank or Minnesota Tribal government.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Allowable use of money.new text end
new text begin (a) Grant money distributed under this section must
be used to purchase, transport, and coordinate the distribution of food to sites approved by
the commissioner. Grant money distributed under this section may also be used to purchase
personal hygiene products, including but not limited to diapers and toilet paper.
new text end
new text begin (b) Food and other allowable products purchased with grant money under this section
must be available at no cost at sites approved by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (c) Grant money distributed under this section must not be used for the compensation
of officers, directors, trustees, key employees, and highest compensated employees as
reported on Internal Revenue Service Form 990.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Reporting.new text end
new text begin (a) Food banks and Minnesota Tribal governments receiving grant
money under this section must retain records documenting expenditures of the grant money
and comply with any additional documentation requirements imposed by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) Food banks and Minnesota Tribal governments must report on the use of grant money
received under this section to the commissioner. The commissioner must determine the
timing and form required for the reports.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Ineligible expenditures.new text end
new text begin If the commissioner determines that ineligible
expenditures were made by a food bank or Minnesota Tribal government under this section,
the ineligible amount must be repaid by the food bank or Tribal government to the
commissioner and deposited in the general fund.
new text end
Sec. 2. new text begin DIRECTION TO COMMISSIONER OF CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND
FAMILIES; CRISIS NURSERY LICENSING.
new text end
new text begin The commissioner of children, youth, and families must develop a licensing framework
for crisis nurseries. The framework must include pathways for organizations to become
licensed crisis nurseries, a definition for crisis nurseries, background study and training
requirements, and ways to reduce redundancy and resolve conflicting requirements between
Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0510 to 2960.0530, 2960.3000 to 2960.3100, and chapter 9502,
and Minnesota Statutes, chapter 142B. In developing the framework, the commissioner
must work with stakeholders seeking to develop a crisis nursery license. By January 15,
2028, the commissioner must submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members
of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over children, youth, and families licensing.
The report must contain an overview of the licensing framework, a detailed explanation of
the framework, and proposed legislation to make any statutory changes that are needed to
implement the new license for crisis nurseries.
new text end
ARTICLE 11
MINNESOTA AFRICAN AMERICAN FAMILY PRESERVATION AND CHILD
WELFARE DISPROPORTIONALITY ACT CHANGES
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.63, subdivision 10, is amended to read:
Subd. 10.
Disproportionately represented child.
new text begin (a) new text end "Disproportionately represented
child" means a person who is under the age of 18 and who is a member of a community
whose race, deleted text begin culture,deleted text end ethnicity, disability status, or low-income socioeconomic status is
disproportionately encountered, engaged, or identified in the child welfare system as
compared to the representation in the state's total child population, as determined deleted text begin on an
annual basisdeleted text end by the commissionernew text begin under section 260.631new text end . A child's race, deleted text begin culture, ordeleted text end ethnicitynew text begin ,
disability status, or low-income socioeconomic statusnew text end is determined deleted text begin based upondeleted text end new text begin bynew text end a child's
self-identification or identification of a child's race, deleted text begin culture, ordeleted text end ethnicitynew text begin , disability status,
or low-income socioeconomic statusnew text end as reported by the child's parent or guardian.
new text begin (b) For the purposes of this subdivision:
new text end
new text begin (1) disability means a physical, sensory, or mental impairment that materially limits one
or more major life activities, including an impairment that is episodic or in remission and
would materially limit a major life activity when active; and
new text end
new text begin (2) low-income socioeconomic status is established by the child's household income
being below 300 percent of the federal poverty guidelines published by the United States
Department of Health and Human Services. For purposes of this subdivision, low-income
socioeconomic status is also established when a child or a member of the child's household
receives benefits from one or more means-tested public assistance programs, or when a
child meets income and resource requirements to be eligible for title IV-E foster care
maintenance payments under the federal Social Security Act.
new text end
Sec. 2.
new text begin [260.631] DETERMINATIONS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Determination of disproportionate overrepresentation.new text end
new text begin (a) The
commissioner must determine the communities that are disproportionately overrepresented
in Minnesota's child protection system pursuant to this section for the purposes of the
Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality
Act. In making this determination, the commissioner may consider the recommendations
provided under paragraph (d). The commissioner's determination under this paragraph is
in effect until the effective date of the next determination issued by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner must make the initial determination under paragraph (a) by
September 1, 2026, and then by September 1 on every even-numbered year thereafter.
new text end
new text begin (c) A responsible social services agency must use the commissioner's determination
under paragraph (a) to determine whether a child meets the definition of a disproportionately
represented child under section 260.63, subdivision 10.
new text end
new text begin (d) The African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council must submit
recommendations to the commissioner on the disproportionate overrepresentation of African
American children in Minnesota's child protection system using state and federal census
data. The council must provide its initial recommendations to the commissioner by August
1, 2026, and then provide recommendations by August 1 on every even-numbered year
thereafter.
new text end
new text begin (e) If the commissioner makes a determination under paragraph (a) that differs from the
recommendations provided by the African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory
Council under paragraph (d) regarding the disproportionate overrepresentation of African
American children in Minnesota's child protection system, the commissioner must provide
the reasons for diverging from the council's recommendations and identify the data the
commissioner relied upon in making the determination of disproportionate overrepresentation.
The commissioner must provide the information required under this paragraph to:
new text end
new text begin (1) the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with
jurisdiction over the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act;
new text end
new text begin (2) the African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council;
new text end
new text begin (3) the Children's Justice Initiative; and
new text end
new text begin (4) responsible social services agencies statewide.
new text end
new text begin (f) By September 15, 2026, and every even-numbered year thereafter, the commissioner
must notify responsible social services agencies, the African American Child and Family
Well-Being Advisory Council, and the Children's Justice Initiative of the commissioner's
determination under paragraph (a). The notification must include but is not limited to:
new text end
new text begin (1) a list of the communities the commissioner determined are disproportionately
represented in Minnesota's child protection system and whether there are any changes from
the previous notification;
new text end
new text begin (2) how a responsible social services agency must implement the commissioner's
determination;
new text end
new text begin (3) the effective date of the commissioner's determination; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the method or methods the commissioner used, or the data the commissioner relied
upon, to make the determination.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Determination of child's status.new text end
new text begin The responsible social services agency must
document the efforts the agency takes when determining whether a child meets or does not
meet the definition of a disproportionately represented child under section 260.63, subdivision
10, and must provide that information to the commissioner upon the commissioner's request.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Exempt from rulemaking.new text end
new text begin Chapter 14 does not apply to determinations under
this section.
new text end
Sec. 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.64, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Safety plan.
(a) Prior to petitioning the court to remove an African American
or a disproportionately represented child from the child's home under section 260.66, a
responsible social services agency must work with the child's family to allow the child to
remain in the child's home while implementing a safety plan based on the family's needs.
The responsible social services agency must:
(1) make active efforts to engage the child's parent or custodian and the child, when
appropriate;
(2) assess the family's cultural and economic needs and, if applicable, needs and services
related to the child's disability;
(3) hold a family group consultation meeting and connect the family with supports to
establish a safety network for the family; and
(4) provide support, guidance, and input to assist the family and the family's safety
network with developing the safety plan.
(b) The safety plan must:
(1) address the specific allegations impacting the child's safety in the home. If neglectnew text begin ,
as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 15,new text end is alleged, the safety plan must incorporate
economic services and supports for the child and the child's family, if eligible, to address
the family's specific needs and prevent neglect;
(2) incorporate family and community support to ensure the child's safety while keeping
the family intact; and
(3) be adjusted as needed to address the child's and family's ongoing needs and support.
(c) The responsible social services agency is not required to establish a safety plan:
(1) in a case with allegations of sexual abuse or egregious harm;
(2) when the parent is not willing to follow a safety plan;
(3) when the parent has abandoned the child or is unavailable to follow a safety plan;
or
(4) when the parent has chronic substance use disorder issues and is unable to parent
the child.
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.68, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Case review.
(a) Each responsible social services agency shall conduct a review
of all child welfare cases for African American and other disproportionately represented
children handled by the agency. Each responsible social services agency shall create a
summary report of trends identified under paragraphs (b) and (c), a remediation plan as
provided in paragraph (d), and an update on implementation of any previous remediation
plans. The first report shall be provided to the African American Child Well-Being Advisory
Council, the commissioner, and the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative
committees with jurisdiction over child welfare by October 1, 2029, and annually thereafter.
For purposes of determining outcomes in this subdivision, responsible social services
agencies shall use guidance from the commissioner. The commissioner shall provide guidance
starting on November 1, 2028, and annually thereafter.
(b) The case review must include:
(1) the number of African American and disproportionately represented children
represented in the county child deleted text begin welfaredeleted text end new text begin protectionnew text end system;
(2) the number and sources of maltreatment reports received and reports screened in for
investigation or referred for family assessment and the race of the children and parents or
custodians involved in each report;
(3) the number and race of children and parents or custodians who receive in-home
preventive case management services;
(4) the number and race of children whose parents or custodians are referred to
community-based, culturally appropriate, strength-based, or trauma-informed services;
(5) the number and race of children removed from their homes;
(6) the number and race of children reunified with their parents or custodians;
(7) the number and race of children whose parents or custodians are offered family group
decision-making services;
(8) the number and race of children whose parents or custodians are offered the parent
support outreach program;
(9) the number and race of children in foster care or out-of-home placement at the time
that the data is gathered;
(10) the number and race of children who achieve permanency through a transfer of
permanent legal and physical custody to a relative or an adoption; and
(11) the number and race of children who are under the guardianship of the commissioner
or awaiting a permanency disposition.
(c) The required case review must also:
(1) identify barriers to reunifying children with their families;
(2) identify the family conditions that led to the out-of-home placement;
(3) identify any barriers to accessing culturally informed mental health or substance use
disorder treatment services for the parents or children;
(4) document efforts to identify fathers and maternal and paternal relatives and to provide
services to custodial and noncustodial fathers, if appropriate; and
(5) document and summarize court reviews of active efforts.
(d) Any responsible social services agency that has a case review showing
disproportionality and disparities in child welfare outcomes for African American and other
disproportionately represented children and the children's families, compared to the agency's
overall outcomes, must include in their case review summary report a remediation plan with
measurable outcomes to identify, address, and reduce the factors that led to the
disproportionality and disparities in the agency's child welfare outcomes. The remediation
plan shall also include information about how the responsible social services agency will
achieve and document trauma-informed, positive child well-being outcomes through
remediation efforts.
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.69, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Applicability.
new text begin (a) new text end The commissioner of children, youth, and families
must collaborate with the Children's Justice Initiative to ensure that cultural competency
training is given new text begin or made available new text end to individuals working in the child welfare system,
including child welfare workers and supervisors. Training deleted text begin mustdeleted text end new text begin developed by the Child
Welfare Training Academy maynew text end also be made available to attorneys, juvenile court judges,
new text begin guardians ad litem, new text end and family law judges.new text begin The commissioner must give priority to child
welfare workers and supervisors for in-person trainings or other trainings with limited
attendance or availability.
new text end
new text begin (b) This subdivision does not require the commissioner or the Child Welfare Training
Academy to develop or provide training specifically for attorneys, juvenile court judges,
guardians ad litem, family law judges, or any other individuals beyond the primary training
audiences required to be served under Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 9, article
1, section 37, subdivision 2, paragraph (e).
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260.691, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Establishment and duties.
(a) The African American Child and Family
Well-Being Advisory Council is established for the Department of Children, Youth, and
Families.
(b) The council shall consist of 31 members appointed by the commissioner and must
include representatives with lived personal or professional experience within African
American communities. Members may include but are not limited to youth who have exited
the child welfare system; parents; legal custodians; relative and kinship caregivers or foster
care providers; community service providers, advocates, and members; county and private
social services agency case managers; representatives from faith-based institutions; academic
professionals; a representative from the Council for Minnesotans of African Heritage; the
Ombudsperson for African American Families; and other individuals with experience and
knowledge of African American communities. Council members must be selected through
an open appointments process under section 15.0597. The terms, compensation, and removal
of council members are governed by section 15.059.
(c) The council must:
(1) review annual reports related to African American children involved in the child
welfare system. These reports may include but are not limited to the maltreatment,
out-of-home placement, and permanency of African American children;
(2) assist with and make recommendations to the commissioner for developing strategies
to reduce maltreatment determinations, prevent unnecessary out-of-home placement, promote
culturally appropriate foster care and shelter or facility placement decisions and settings for
African American children in need of out-of-home placement, ensure timely achievement
of permanency, and improve child welfare outcomes for African American children and
their families;
(3) review summary reports on targeted case reviews prepared by the commissioner to
ensure that responsible social services agencies meet the needs of African American children
and their families. Based on data collected from those reviews, the council shall assist the
commissioner with developing strategies needed to improve any identified child welfare
outcomes, including but not limited to maltreatment, out-of-home placement, and permanency
for African American children;
(4) make recommendations to the commissioner and the legislature for public policy
and statutory changes that specifically consider the needs of African American children and
their families involved in the child welfare system;
(5) advise the commissioner on stakeholder engagement strategies and actions that the
commissioner and responsible social services agencies may take to improve child welfare
outcomes for African American children and their families;
(6) assist the commissioner with developing strategies for public messaging and
communication related to racial deleted text begin disproportionality anddeleted text end disparities in child welfare outcomes
for African American children and their families;
(7) assist the commissioner with identifying and developing internal and external
partnerships to support adequate access to services and resources for African American
children and their families, including but not limited to housing assistance, employment
assistance, food and nutrition support, health care, child care assistance, and educational
support and training; and
(8) assist the commissioner with developing strategies to promote the development of
a culturally diverse and representative child welfare workforce in Minnesota that includes
professionals who are reflective of the community served and who have been directly
impacted by lived experiences within the child welfare system. The council must also assist
the commissioner with exploring strategies and partnerships to address education and training
needs, hiring, recruitment, retention, and professional advancement practices.
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260.692, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Subdivision 1.
Duties.
The African American Child and Family Well-Being Unit,
currently established by the commissioner, must:
(1) assist with the development of African American cultural competency training and
review child welfare curriculum in the Minnesota Child Welfare Training Academy to
ensure that responsible social services agency staff and other child welfare professionals
are appropriately prepared to engage with African American children and their families and
to support family preservation and reunification;
(2) provide technical assistance, including on-site technical assistance, and case
consultation to responsible social services agencies to assist agencies with implementing
and complying with the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act;
(3) monitor individual county and statewide disaggregated and nondisaggregated data
to identify trends and patterns in child welfare outcomes, including but not limited to
reporting, maltreatment, out-of-home placement, and permanency of African American
children and develop strategies to address deleted text begin disproportionality anddeleted text end disparities in the child
welfare system;
(4) develop and implement a system for conducting case reviews when the commissioner
receives reports of noncompliance with the Minnesota African American Family Preservation
and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act or when requested by the parent or custodian of
an African American child. Case reviews may include but are not limited to a review of
placement prevention efforts, safety planning, case planning and service provision by the
responsible social services agency, relative placement consideration, and permanency
planning;
(5) establish and administer a request for proposals process for African American and
disproportionately represented family preservation grants under section 260.693, monitor
grant activities, and provide technical assistance to grantees;
(6) in coordination with the African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory
Council, coordinate services and create internal and external partnerships to support adequate
access to services and resources for African American children and their families, including
but not limited to housing assistance, employment assistance, food and nutrition support,
health care, child care assistance, and educational support and training; and
(7) develop public messaging and communication to inform the public about racial
disparities in child welfare outcomes, current efforts and strategies to reduce racial disparities,
and resources available to African American children and their families involved in the
child welfare system.
Sec. 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260.692, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
Subd. 2.
Case reviews.
(a) The African American Child and Family Well-Being Unit
must conduct systemic case reviews to monitor targeted child welfare outcomes, including
but not limited to maltreatment, out-of-home placement, and permanency of African
American children.
(b) The reviews under this subdivision must be conducted using a random sampling of
representative child deleted text begin welfaredeleted text end new text begin protectionnew text end cases stratified for certain case related factors,
including but not limited to case type, maltreatment type, if the case involves out-of-home
placement, and other demographic variables. In conducting the reviews, unit staff may use
court records and documents, information from the social services information system, and
other available case file information to complete the case reviews.
(c) The frequency of the reviews and the number of cases, child welfare outcomes, and
selected counties reviewed shall be determined by the unit in consultation with the African
American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council, with consideration given to the
availability of unit resources needed to conduct the reviews.
(d) The unit must monitor all case reviews and use the collective case review information
and data to generate summary case review reports, ensure compliance with the Minnesota
African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act, and
identify trends or patterns in child welfare outcomes for African American children.
(e) The unit must review information from members of the public received through the
compliance and feedback portal, including policy and practice concerns related to individual
child deleted text begin welfaredeleted text end new text begin protectionnew text end cases. After assessing a case concern, the unit may determine if
further necessary action should be taken, which may include coordinating case remediation
with other relevant child welfare agencies in accordance with data privacy laws, including
the African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council, and offering case
consultation and technical assistance to the responsible local social services agency as
needed or requested by the agency.
Sec. 9.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260.692, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
Subd. 3.
Reports.
(a) The African American Child and Family Well-Being Unit must
provide regular updates on unit activities, including summary reports of case reviews, to
the African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council, and must publish
an annual census of African American children in out-of-home placements statewide. The
annual census must include data on the types of placements, age and sex of the children,
how long the children have been in out-of-home placements, and other relevant demographic
information.
(b) The African American Child and Family Well-Being Unit shall gather summary data
about the practice and policy inquiries and individual case concerns received through the
compliance and feedback portal under subdivision 2, paragraph (e). The unit shall provide
regular reports of the nonidentifying compliance and feedback portal summary data to the
African American Child and Family Well-Being Advisory Council to identify child welfare
trends and patterns to assist with developing policy and practice recommendations to support
eliminating deleted text begin disparity and disproportionalitydeleted text end new text begin disparitiesnew text end for African American children.
Sec. 10.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.693, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Eligible services.
(a) Services eligible for grants under this section include but
are not limited to:
(1) child out-of-home placement prevention and reunification services;
(2) family-based services and reunification therapy;
(3) culturally specific individual and family counseling;
(4) court advocacy;
(5) training for and consultation to responsible social services agencies and private social
services agencies regarding this act;
(6) development and promotion of culturally informed, affirming, and responsive
community-based prevention and family preservation services that target the children, youth,
families, and communities of African American and African heritage experiencing the
highest disparitiesdeleted text begin , disproportionality,deleted text end and overrepresentation in the Minnesota child welfare
system;
(7) culturally affirming and responsive services that work with children and families in
their communities to address their needs and ensure child and family safety and well-being
within a culturally appropriate lens and framework;
(8) services to support informal kinship care arrangements; and
(9) other activities and services approved by the commissioner that further the goals of
the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality
Act, including but not limited to the recruitment of African American staff and staff from
other communities disproportionately represented in the child welfare system to work for
responsible social services agencies and licensed child-placing agencies.
(b) The commissioner may specify the priority of an activity and service based on its
success in furthering these goals. The commissioner shall give preference to programs and
service providers that are located in or serve counties with the highest rates of child welfare
deleted text begin disproportionalitydeleted text end new text begin disproportionate representationnew text end for African American and other
disproportionately represented children and their families and employ staff who represent
the population primarily served.
Sec. 11.
new text begin [260.694] MINNESOTA AFRICAN AMERICAN FAMILY PRESERVATION
AND CHILD WELFARE DISPROPORTIONALITY GRANT ALLOCATION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Formula for county staffing and services funds.new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner
shall allocate state funds appropriated under this section to each county board on a calendar
year basis in an amount determined according to the following formula:
new text end
new text begin (1) 50 percent must be distributed on the basis of the child population residing in the
county as determined by the most recent data of the state demographer;
new text end
new text begin (2) 25 percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of screened-in reports of
child maltreatment under chapter 260E, and in the county as determined by the most recent
data of the commissioner; and
new text end
new text begin (3) 25 percent must be distributed on the basis of the number of open child protection
case management cases in the county as determined by the most recent data of the
commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding this subdivision, no county shall be awarded an allocation of less
than $100,000.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Prohibition on supplanting existing funds.new text end
new text begin Funds received under this section
must be used to address staffing and services needed for child protection and expansion of
child protection services, including making active efforts to prevent entry into the child
protection system, prevent out-of-home placement, reunify children with families, and
finalize alternative permanency arrangements if reunification is not an option. Funds must
not be used to supplant current county expenditures for these purposes but may be used to
maintain staff and services paid for by temporary funding.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Laws 2024, chapter 117, section 9, the effective date, is amended to read:
EFFECTIVE DATE.
This section is effective January 1, 2027,new text begin except subdivision 2
is effective July 1, 2027, andnew text end except as provided under section 20.
Sec. 13.
Laws 2024, chapter 117, section 21, is amended to read:
Sec. 21. MINNESOTA AFRICAN AMERICAN FAMILY PRESERVATION AND
CHILD WELFARE DISPROPORTIONALITY ACT; WORKING GROUP.
(a) The commissioner of human services must establish a working group to provide
guidance and oversight for the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child
Welfare Disproportionality Act phase-in program.
(b) The members of the working group must include representatives from the Minnesota
Association of County Social Service Administrators, the Association of Minnesota Counties,
the Minnesota Inter-County Association, the Minnesota County Attorneys Association,
Hennepin County, Ramsey County, the Department of Human Services, and community
organizations with experience in child welfare. The legislature may provide recommendations
to the commissioner on the selection of the representatives from the community organizations.
(c) The working group must provide oversight of the phase-in program and evaluate the
cost of the phase-in program. The working group must also assess future costs of
implementing the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act statewide.
(d) By January 1, 2026, the working group must develop and submit an interim report
to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction
over child welfare detailing initial needs for the implementation of the Minnesota African
American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act. The interim report
must also include recommendations for any statutory or policy changes necessary to
implement the act.
(e) By September 1, 2026, the working group must develop an implementation plan and
best practices for the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act to go into effect statewide.
new text begin (f) The working group under this section expires December 31, 2026.
new text end
Sec. 14. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260.63, subdivision 9,new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 12
CHILD CARE CENTER LICENSING MODERNIZATION
Section 1.
new text begin [142H.01] DEFINITIONS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin For the purposes of this chapter, the terms in this section have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Accessible to children.new text end
new text begin "Accessible to children" means capable of being reached
or utilized by a child without the aid of an adult.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Accredited.new text end
new text begin "Accredited" means a postsecondary institution or technical college
recognized and listed in The Database of Accredited Postsecondary Institutions and Programs
maintained by the United States Department of Education.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Age categories. new text end
new text begin (a) "Infant" means a child who is at least six weeks old but
less than 16 months old.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Toddler" means a child who is at least 16 months old but less than 33 months old.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Preschooler" means a child who is at least 33 months old up to school age.
new text end
new text begin (d) "School age" means a child who is at least of sufficient age to have attended the first
day of kindergarten, or is eligible to enter kindergarten within the next four months, but is
younger than 13 years of age. A child who becomes 13 during the school year may continue
to be considered a school-age child for the remainder of the school year.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Applicant.new text end
new text begin "Applicant" has the meaning given in section 142B.01, subdivision
4.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Arrival and departure times.new text end
new text begin "Arrival and departure times" means the times
when children typically arrive at or depart from a center. A center cannot designate more
than 25 percent of licensed hours of operation as arrival and departure times. The designated
arrival and departure times must be used at the beginning or end of a center's licensed hours
of operation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Building official.new text end
new text begin "Building official" means the person appointed pursuant to
section 326B.133 to administer the State Building Code or the building official's authorized
representative.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Center.new text end
new text begin "Center" means a child care program that is not excluded by section
142B.05, subdivision 2, and is not a family child care program, as defined in section 142I.01,
subdivision 22.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Child.new text end
new text begin "Child" means a person receiving child care services who falls within
the age categories in subdivision 4.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Child care program.new text end
new text begin "Child care program" means the organization or
arrangement of activities, personnel, materials, and equipment in a facility to promote the
physical, intellectual, social, and emotional development of a child in the absence of the
parent for a period of less than 24 hours a day.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Child care program plan.new text end
new text begin "Child care program plan" means the written
document that states specific activities that will be provided by the license holder to promote
the physical, intellectual, social, and emotional development of the children enrolled in the
center.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Clean.new text end
new text begin "Clean" means free from dirt or other contaminants that can be detected
by sight, smell, or touch.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Commissioner.new text end
new text begin "Commissioner" means the commissioner of children, youth,
and families or the commissioner's designated representative, including county agencies
and private agencies.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Day program.new text end
new text begin "Day program" means a nonresidential child care program
that operates during waking hours and does not provide overnight care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Department.new text end
new text begin "Department" means the Department of Children, Youth, and
Families.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 16.new text end
new text begin Direct contact.new text end
new text begin "Direct contact" has the meaning given in section 245C.02,
subdivision 11.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 17.new text end
new text begin Disinfected.new text end
new text begin "Disinfected" means the chemical process to kill most germs and
viruses on surfaces and objects after they have been cleaned.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 18.new text end
new text begin Drop-in child care program.new text end
new text begin "Drop-in child care program" means a
nonresidential program of child care in which children participate on a onetime only or
occasional basis up to a maximum of 90 hours per child, per month.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 19.new text end
new text begin Experience.new text end
new text begin "Experience" means paid or unpaid employment:
new text end
new text begin (1) caring for children as a teacher, assistant teacher, aide, or student intern:
new text end
new text begin (i) in a licensed child care center, a licensed family child care program, or a Tribally
licensed child care program in any United States state or territory; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) in a public or nonpublic school;
new text end
new text begin (2) caring for children as a staff person or unsupervised volunteer in a certified
license-exempt child care center under chapter 142C; or
new text end
new text begin (3) providing direct contact services in a home or residential facility serving children
with disabilities that requires a background study under section 245C.03.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 20.new text end
new text begin Facility.new text end
new text begin "Facility" means the indoor and outdoor space where a child care
program is provided.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 21.new text end
new text begin Fire marshal.new text end
new text begin "Fire marshal" means the person designated by section 299F.011
to administer and enforce the State Fire Code or the fire marshal's authorized representative.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 22.new text end
new text begin Health care provider.new text end
new text begin "Health care provider" means a physician or physician's
assistant licensed to practice medicine under chapter 147 or an advanced practice registered
nurse licensed under chapter 148.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 23.new text end
new text begin Health consultant.new text end
new text begin "Health consultant" means a registered nurse, a public
health nurse, or a health care provider as defined in subdivision 22 who performs health
consultation services for a child care center pursuant to section 142H.29, subdivision 2.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 24.new text end
new text begin Inaccessible to children.new text end
new text begin "Inaccessible to children" means not capable of
being reached or utilized by a child without the aid of an adult.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 25.new text end
new text begin License.new text end
new text begin "License" has the meaning given in section 142B.01, subdivision
16.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 26.new text end
new text begin License holder.new text end
new text begin "License holder" has the meaning given in section 142B.01,
subdivision 17.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 27.new text end
new text begin Licensed capacity.new text end
new text begin "Licensed capacity" means the maximum number of
children permitted at any one time in the program for which the license holder is licensed
to operate.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 28.new text end
new text begin Medication.new text end
new text begin "Medication" means any substance or preparation that is used
to prevent or treat a wound, injury, infection, and disease; maintain health; heal; or relieve
pain. This includes medication that is over the counter, or prescribed by a physician, physician
assistant, dentist, or advance practice registered nurse certified to prescribe medication, and
permitted by the parent for administration or application. This term applies to medication
taken internally or applied externally.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 29.new text end
new text begin Night care program.new text end
new text begin "Night care program" means a nonresidential child care
program that provides overnight care to children during sleeping hours, approximately 11:00
p.m. to 5:00 a.m. Night care programs are subject to the requirements in section 142H.16.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 30.new text end
new text begin Parent.new text end
new text begin "Parent" means the person or persons who has the legal responsibility
for a child such as the child's mother, father, or legally appointed guardian.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 31.new text end
new text begin Program staff person.new text end
new text begin "Program staff person" means an employee of the
child care center who carries out the child care program plan and has direct contact with
children. This includes unsupervised volunteers and substitutes.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 32.new text end
new text begin Sick care program.new text end
new text begin "Sick care program" means a nonresidential child care
program that exclusively cares for sick children. Sick care programs are subject to the
requirements in section 142H.19.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 33.new text end
new text begin Staff supervision.new text end
new text begin "Staff supervision" means responsibility to hire, train,
assign duties, and direct staff in day-to-day activities and evaluate staff performance. A
"supervisor" is a person with staff supervision responsibility.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 34.new text end
new text begin State Building Code.new text end
new text begin "State Building Code" means the codes and regulations
adopted by the commissioner of the administration according to section 326B.101, and
contained in Minnesota Rules, chapter 1300.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 35.new text end
new text begin State Fire Code.new text end
new text begin "State Fire Code" means the codes and regulations adopted
by the state fire marshal pursuant to section 299F.011, and contained in Minnesota Rules,
chapter 7511.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 36.new text end
new text begin Student intern.new text end
new text begin "Student intern" means a student of a postsecondary institution
assigned by that institution for a supervised experience with children. The experience must
be in a licensed center, an elementary school operated by the commissioner of education
or a legally constituted local school board, or a private school approved under rules
administered by the commissioner of education. Student intern includes a person who is
practice teaching, student teaching, or carrying out a practicum or internship.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 37.new text end
new text begin Substitute.new text end
new text begin "Substitute" means a person who is temporarily filling a position
as a director, teacher, assistant teacher, or aide in a licensed child care center for less than
500 hours total in a calendar year due to the absence of a regularly employed program staff
person.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 38.new text end
new text begin Supervision of children.new text end
new text begin "Supervision of children" means when a program
staff person:
new text end
new text begin (1) is accountable for the child's care;
new text end
new text begin (2) is able to intervene to protect the health and safety of the child; and
new text end
new text begin (3) is within sight and hearing of the child at all times, except as described in section
142H.24, subdivision 1.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 39.new text end
new text begin Variance.new text end
new text begin "Variance" means written permission by the department for a license
holder or applicant to depart from the provisions of a requirement in this chapter pursuant
to section 142B.10, subdivision 16.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 40.new text end
new text begin Volunteer.new text end
new text begin (a) "Volunteer" means an individual who assists in the care of a
child and is not employed by the child care center.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Supervised volunteer" means a volunteer who may only have direct contact with
children when a program staff person is able to intervene to protect the health and safety of
children.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Unsupervised volunteer" means a volunteer who may have direct contact with
children without a program staff person present, must receive the training required under
section 142H.08, and may be counted in the staff-to-child ratios under section 142H.10.
new text end
Sec. 2.
new text begin [142H.02] APPLICABILITY AND LICENSING PROCESS.
new text end
new text begin (a) No child care center may operate in Minnesota without a license pursuant to this
chapter and chapter 142B. An applicant for a license and the license holder is governed by,
and must comply with, the general requirements in this chapter and chapters 142B, 245C,
and 260E.
new text end
new text begin (b) The department may grant variances to the requirements in this chapter if the
conditions in section 142B.10, subdivision 16, are met.
new text end
Sec. 3.
new text begin [142H.03] OPERATING OPTIONS.
new text end
new text begin A license holder must operate a day program, drop-in child care program, night care
program, sick child care program, or a combination of two or more kinds of programs.
new text end
Sec. 4.
new text begin [142H.04] POLICIES AND PROCEDURES FOR PROGRAM
ADMINISTRATION.
new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must maintain and enforce program policies and procedures
necessary to comply with licensing requirements under Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota
Rules.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) provide training to employees and volunteers related to their duties in implementing
the program's policies and procedures developed under paragraph (a);
new text end
new text begin (2) document the provision of this training; and
new text end
new text begin (3) monitor implementation of policies and procedures by employees and volunteers.
new text end
new text begin (c) The license holder must keep program policies and procedures readily accessible to
employees and volunteers and index the policies and procedures with a table of contents or
another method approved by the commissioner.
new text end
Sec. 5.
new text begin [142H.05] DIRECTORS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin General requirements for a director.new text end
new text begin (a) A center must have a director
who is responsible for overseeing implementation of written policies relating to the
management and control of the daily activities of the program, ensuring the health and safety
of program participants, and supervising staff and volunteers.
new text end
new text begin (b) A director must:
new text end
new text begin (1) be at least 21 years old;
new text end
new text begin (2) be a graduate of a high school or hold an equivalent diploma attained through
successful completion of the commissioner of education-selected high school equivalency
test pursuant to section 124D.549;
new text end
new text begin (3) have at least 1,040 hours of paid or unpaid staff supervision experience; and
new text end
new text begin (4) have at least 12 semester credits in accredited coursework in postsecondary child
development education, supervision, management, administration, or leadership or 120
hours of training earned in the topics of child development, supervision, management,
administration, or leadership.
new text end
new text begin (c) Paragraph (b), clauses (3) and (4), are satisfied if an individual has completed a
Minnesota Association for the Education of Young Children early childhood director's
credential; Child Care Aware Minnesota director's credential; Montessori administrator
credential; or diploma issued by the American Montessori Society, Association Montessori
International, or an institution accredited by the Montessori Accreditation Council for
Teacher Education.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Director or designee on site.new text end
new text begin (a) The director or a designee must be on site
while the center is in operation.
new text end
new text begin (b) Any program staff person who is at least 18 years old may serve as the designee.
The designee does not have to meet the director qualifications in subdivision 1 but must be
aware of the designation and be able to perform the responsibilities.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Director functioning as a teacher.new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding section 142H.06, a director
may be used as a teacher in any classroom as needed.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Incumbent director recognition.new text end
new text begin Notwithstanding subdivision 1, an individual
who is designated as the director of a licensed child care center on July 1, 2027, meets the
director qualification requirements of this section as long as the individual continues to
work at the program.
new text end
Sec. 6.
new text begin [142H.06] TEACHERS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Teacher general qualifications.new text end
new text begin A teacher must:
new text end
new text begin (1) be at least 18 years old; and
new text end
new text begin (2) be a graduate of a high school or hold an equivalent diploma attained through
successful completion of the commissioner of education-selected high school equivalency
test pursuant to section 124D.549.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Teacher education and experience requirements.new text end
new text begin In addition to the general
requirements in subdivision 1, a teacher must have at least one of:
new text end
new text begin (1) 12 postsecondary semester credits and 480 hours of experience;
new text end
new text begin (2) 100 hours of commissioner-approved training within the previous five years and 480
hours of experience. After initial qualification, a teacher qualified under this clause must
fulfill at least 50 percent of in-service training requirements under section 142H.09,
subdivision 10, with commissioner-approved trainings;
new text end
new text begin (3) a credential or diploma from the American Montessori Society, Association
Montessori International, or an institution accredited by the Montessori Accreditation
Council for Teacher Education;
new text end
new text begin (4) an accredited certificate in child development or early childhood education from a
postsecondary institution;
new text end
new text begin (5) an accredited diploma, associate's degree, or bachelor's degree in child development
or early childhood education from a postsecondary institution; or
new text end
new text begin (6) a Child Development Associate (CDA) credential;
new text end
Sec. 7.
new text begin [142H.07] ASSISTANT TEACHERS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Assistant teacher general qualifications.new text end
new text begin An assistant teacher must
work under the supervision of a teacher and be:
new text end
new text begin (1) at least 18 years old; and
new text end
new text begin (2) a graduate of a high school or hold an equivalent diploma attained through successful
completion of the commissioner of education-selected high school equivalency test.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Assistant teacher education and experience requirements.new text end
new text begin In addition to
the general requirements in subdivision 1, an assistant teacher must have at least one of:
new text end
new text begin (1) at least six postsecondary semester credits;
new text end
new text begin (2) at least 50 hours of commissioner-approved training within the previous five years.
After initial qualification, an assistant teacher qualified under this clause must fulfill at least
50 percent of in-service training requirements under section 142H.09, subdivision 10, with
commissioner-approved trainings; or
new text end
new text begin (3) at least 160 hours of experience and be making progress toward any of the teacher
qualifications in section 142H.06, subdivision 2, clauses (3) to (6). An assistant teacher
qualified under this clause must be able to provide:
new text end
new text begin (i) documentation of current enrollment; and
new text end
new text begin (ii) evidence of working toward the successful completion of the credential.
new text end
Sec. 8.
new text begin [142H.08] AIDES, VOLUNTEERS, AND SUBSTITUTES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Aide qualifications.new text end
new text begin (a) An aide must work under the supervision of a
teacher or assistant teacher, except when performing the tasks in paragraph (b). An aide
must be used pursuant to the staff distribution requirements in section 142H.10, subdivision
2.
new text end
new text begin (b) An aide may work without being supervised by a teacher or assistant teacher when
they are assisting with the supervision of sleeping children; assisting children with washing,
toileting, and diapering; or accompanying children to and from the bus stop.
new text end
new text begin (c) An aide must be at least 16 years old.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Volunteers.new text end
new text begin (a) A volunteer may work as a teacher, assistant teacher, aide, or
substitute if the volunteer meets the requirements of that position.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must maintain a list of all volunteers with relevant information,
including first and last name, whether the volunteer must be supervised at all times or may
occasionally be unsupervised, and the first date of direct contact with children.
new text end
new text begin (c) Unsupervised volunteers must successfully complete training as required in section
142H.09.
new text end
new text begin (d) Supervised volunteers must successfully complete the training required in section
142H.09, subdivision 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Substitutes.new text end
new text begin (a) A substitute must either meet the requirements for the assigned
staff position or be designated as an unqualified substitute by the director or the director
designee. A director or director designee can designate a substitute as unqualified if:
new text end
new text begin (1) a teacher is continuously on site, except as provided in section 142H.10, subdivision
2, paragraph (e);
new text end
new text begin (2) when substituting as a teacher or assistant teacher, the unqualified substitute is aware
of the unqualified substitute's designated staffing position; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the unqualified substitute is at least 18 years of age.
new text end
new text begin (b) All substitutes must successfully complete the required training under section
142H.09.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Tracking unqualified substitute hours.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must document
the use of unqualified substitute hours on the day the unqualified substitute works.
new text end
new text begin (b) In a calendar year, a license holder must not use unqualified substitutes more than
60 hours multiplied by the number of the center's classrooms.
new text end
new text begin (c) A license holder must maintain a log of the use of unqualified substitutes in the center
administrative record for review by the commissioner. The log must be on a form prescribed
by the commissioner.
new text end
Sec. 9.
new text begin [142H.09] STAFF ORIENTATION AND TRAINING.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Orientation training.new text end
new text begin (a) Program staff persons must complete orientation
training before providing direct contact services to a child.
new text end
new text begin (b) The orientation training must include the following topics:
new text end
new text begin (1) abusive head trauma for staff working with a child under school age pursuant to
subdivision 8;
new text end
new text begin (2) the center's policy on administration of medication pursuant to section 142H.29,
subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (3) the center's policy on allergy prevention and response pursuant to section 142H.15,
subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (4) the center's policy on behavior guidance pursuant to section 142H.13;
new text end
new text begin (5) child passenger restraint systems pursuant to subdivision 9;
new text end
new text begin (6) the center's child care program plan pursuant to section 142H.11;
new text end
new text begin (7) the center's policy on cleaning, sanitizing, and disinfecting pursuant to section
142H.31;
new text end
new text begin (8) the center's emergency preparedness plan and procedures pursuant to section 142H.23,
subdivision 1;
new text end
new text begin (9) procedures for the handling and disposal of bodily fluids pursuant to section 142H.29,
subdivision 10;
new text end
new text begin (10) the center's emergency and accident policies pursuant to section 142H.23, subdivision
2;
new text end
new text begin (11) the center's health policies pursuant to section 142H.29;
new text end
new text begin (12) individual child care program plan or plans pursuant to section 142H.15, if
applicable;
new text end
new text begin (13) job responsibilities specific to the individual's position at the center;
new text end
new text begin (14) prevention and control of infectious diseases pursuant to section 142H.18;
new text end
new text begin (15) the center's policy on research, cameras, and social media participation procedures
pursuant to section 142H.22;
new text end
new text begin (16) the center's policy on the use of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco products pursuant to
section 142B.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c);
new text end
new text begin (17) recognition and reporting of maltreatment, abuse and neglect pursuant to chapter
260E;
new text end
new text begin (18) the center's risk reduction plan pursuant to section 142H.24;
new text end
new text begin (19) reduction of risk of sudden unexpected infant death pursuant to the requirements
of subdivision 7 and section 142B.46; and
new text end
new text begin (20) transportation and field trip safety procedures pursuant to section 142H.33.
new text end
new text begin (c) Training for orientation may be used to meet in-service training requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Child care basics training.new text end
new text begin (a) Any program staff person hired after July 1,
2027, must complete child care licensing basics training no more than 90 days after the first
date of direct contact with a child, unless the person has completed the training within the
previous two years.
new text end
new text begin (b) Child care basics training covers information on effectively working in a child care
center setting in Minnesota. Child care basics training must be developed and updated by
the commissioner. Child care basics training may be used to meet in-service training
requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Child development and learning training.new text end
new text begin (a) Program staff persons must
complete at least two hours of child development and learning training within 90 days after
the first date of direct contact with a child and every two calendar years thereafter. For the
purposes of this subdivision, "child development and learning training" means any training
in understanding how children develop physically, cognitively, emotionally, and socially
and learn as part of the children's family, culture, and community.
new text end
new text begin (b) An individual is exempt from this subdivision if the individual:
new text end
new text begin (1) has taken a three-credit college course on early childhood development within the
past five years;
new text end
new text begin (2) has received a bachelor's or master's degree in early childhood education or school-age
child care within the past five years;
new text end
new text begin (3) is licensed in Minnesota as a prekindergarten teacher, an early childhood educator,
a kindergarten to sixth grade teacher with a prekindergarten specialty, an early childhood
special education teacher, or an elementary teacher with a kindergarten endorsement; or
new text end
new text begin (4) has received a Montessori certificate or diploma issued by American Montessori
Society, Association Montessori International, or an institution accredited by the Montessori
Accreditation Council for Teacher Education within the past five years.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Pediatric first aid. new text end
new text begin (a) Before direct contact with a child, a program staff person
must satisfactorily complete pediatric first aid. Pediatric first aid training completed within
the previous two calendar years meets this requirement.
new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a program staff person who has yet to complete initial
pediatric first aid training may provide direct contact services within 90 days after the first
date of direct contact with a child while under the continuous direct supervision of an
individual who has met the pediatric first aid training requirements of this subdivision. For
purposes of this paragraph, "continuous direct supervision" means the program staff person
is within sight or hearing of the program's supervising individual and the program's
supervising individual is capable at all times of intervening to protect the health and safety
of the children served by the program.
new text end
new text begin (c) The first aid training must have been provided by an individual approved to provide
pediatric first aid instruction.
new text end
new text begin (d) A program staff person must complete training in pediatric first aid every two calendar
years. Documentation of the training must be maintained at the center.
new text end
new text begin (e) Online training reviewed and approved by the commissioner satisfies the training
requirement of this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (f) Pediatric first aid training in this subdivision must not be used to meet in-service
training requirements under subdivision 10.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation.new text end
new text begin (a) Before direct contact with a
child, a program staff person must satisfactorily complete pediatric cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) training, including CPR techniques for infants and children and the
treatment of obstructed airways. Pediatric CPR training completed within the previous two
calendar years meets this requirement.
new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a program staff person who has yet to complete initial
pediatric CPR training may provide direct contact services within 90 days after the first
date of direct contact with a child, if they are under the continuous direct supervision of an
individual who has met pediatric CPR training requirements under this subdivision. For the
purposes of this paragraph, "continuous direct supervision" means the individual is within
sight or hearing of the program's supervising individual to the extent that the program's
supervising individual is capable at all times of intervening to protect the health and safety
of the children served by the program.
new text end
new text begin (c) A program staff person must complete training in pediatric CPR every two calendar
years. A center must maintain documentation of the trainings on site.
new text end
new text begin (d) A pediatric CPR training under this subdivision must incorporate a hands-on skill
session to support the instruction and have been developed:
new text end
new text begin (1) by the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross; or
new text end
new text begin (2) using nationally recognized, evidence-based guidelines for pediatric CPR training.
new text end
new text begin (e) Pediatric CPR training must not be used to meet in-service training requirements
under subdivision 10.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Sudden unexpected infant death training.new text end
new text begin (a) Before direct contact with
infants, program staff persons and volunteers must receive training on the standards under
section 142B.46 and on reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death during orientation
and each calendar year thereafter.
new text end
new text begin (b) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training required under this subdivision
must be at least one-half hour in length and include at minimum the infant sleep standards
under section 142B.46, the risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death, methods
of reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death in child care, and license holder
communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death.
new text end
new text begin (c) Training taken under this subdivision may be used to meet the in-service training
requirements under subdivision 10.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Abusive head trauma training.new text end
new text begin (a) Before direct contact with children under
school age, a program staff person must receive training on the risk of abusive head trauma
during orientation and each calendar year thereafter.
new text end
new text begin (b) Abusive head trauma training under this subdivision must be at least one-half hour
in length and include at minimum the risk factors related to shaking infants and young
children, methods of reducing the risk of abusive head trauma in child care, and license
holder communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of abusive head trauma.
new text end
new text begin (c) training taken under this subdivision may be used to meet the in-service training
requirements under subdivision 10.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Child passenger restraint systems; training requirement.new text end
new text begin (a) Before a license
holder transports a child or children under age nine in a motor vehicle, the person placing
the child or children in a passenger restraint must satisfactorily complete training on the
proper use and installation of child restraint systems in motor vehicles.
new text end
new text begin (b) Training required under this subdivision must be repeated at least once every five
years and include at minimum the proper use of child restraint systems based on the size,
weight, and age of the child and the proper installation of a car seat or booster seat in the
motor vehicle used by the license holder to transport the child or children.
new text end
new text begin (c) Training required under this subdivision must be provided by individuals who are
certified and approved by the Department of Public Safety, Office of Traffic Safety.
new text end
new text begin (d) Training completed under this subdivision may be used to meet in-service training
requirements under subdivision 10. Staff training completed within the previous five years
is transferable upon change in employment to another child care center.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin In-service training requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must ensure that program
staff persons complete in-service training.
new text end
new text begin (b) In-service training completed within the past 12 months by a program staff person
that is not specific to a child care center is transferable upon the program staff person's
change in employment to another child care program. The program staff person must provide
documentation of the completed training to the new child care program.
new text end
new text begin (c) All program staff persons, except substitutes and unsupervised volunteers, who work
more than 20 hours per week must complete at least 20 hours of in-service training each
calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (d) All program staff persons, except substitutes and unsupervised volunteers, who work
20 hours or less per week must complete at least ten hours of in-service training each calendar
year.
new text end
new text begin (e) Substitutes and unsupervised volunteers must complete a minimum of two hours of
training each calendar year and the training must include the topics identified under
subdivision 11.
new text end
new text begin (f) The number of in-service training hours may be prorated for center directors and
program staff persons not employed for an entire year or on a documented leave of absence.
new text end
new text begin (g) Pediatric first aid and pediatric CPR training must not be used to meet in-service
training requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin In-service content.new text end
new text begin (a) Each calendar year, in-service training must include
the following:
new text end
new text begin (1) abusive head trauma training of at least one-half hour duration for individuals working
with a child under school age pursuant to subdivision 8;
new text end
new text begin (2) the center policies and procedures for maintaining health and safety, including:
new text end
new text begin (i) allergy prevention and response training pursuant to section 142H.15, subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (ii) emergency preparedness and procedures pursuant to section 142H.23, subdivision
1;
new text end
new text begin (iii) handling emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries pursuant to section 142H.23,
subdivision 2; and
new text end
new text begin (iv) handling and disposal of bodily fluids pursuant to section 142H.29, subdivision 10;
new text end
new text begin (3) maltreatment, abuse, and neglect reporting pursuant to chapter 260E;
new text end
new text begin (4) reduction of risk of sudden unexpected infant death training of at least one-half hour
duration for individuals working with infants pursuant to the requirements of subdivision
7 and section 142B.46;
new text end
new text begin (5) a risk reduction plan pursuant to section 142H.24;
new text end
new text begin (6) the center policies and procedures on behavior guidance pursuant to section 142H.13;
and
new text end
new text begin (7) the center policies and procedures on supervision pursuant to section 142H.24.
new text end
new text begin (b) At least once every two calendar years, in-service training must include the following:
new text end
new text begin (1) child development and learning pursuant to subdivision 4;
new text end
new text begin (2) at least one hour on cultural awareness and inclusion;
new text end
new text begin (3) pediatric first aid that meets the requirements of subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (4) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation training that meets the requirements of
subdivision 5; and
new text end
new text begin (5) at least one hour on identifying and supporting children with special needs.
new text end
new text begin (c) At least once every five calendar years, training must include child passenger restraint
systems pursuant to subdivision 9, if applicable.
new text end
new text begin (d) The remaining hours of the in-service training requirement must be met by completing
training in the Minnesota knowledge and competency framework areas.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Documentation required.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must document completed
training for program staff persons in a manner prescribed by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) For pediatric first aid and CPR trainings, the license holder must maintain copies of
training cards or certificates issued by the training organization.
new text end
Sec. 10.
new text begin [142H.10] STAFF RATIOS, GROUP SIZE, AND STAFF DISTRIBUTION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Staff-to-child ratios and maximum group size.new text end
new text begin (a) Except as provided
in this subdivision and section 142H.12 regarding naps and rest, the minimally acceptable
staff-to-child ratios and the maximum group size within each age category are:
new text end
| new text begin Age Category new text end | new text begin Staff-to-Child Ratio new text end | new text begin Maximum Group Size new text end |
| new text begin Infant new text end | new text begin 1:4 new text end | new text begin 8 new text end |
| new text begin Toddler new text end | new text begin 1:7 new text end | new text begin 14 new text end |
| new text begin Preschooler new text end | new text begin 1:10 new text end | new text begin 20 new text end |
| new text begin School-age child new text end | new text begin 1:15 new text end | new text begin 30 new text end |
new text begin (b) Except for groups that include an infant, the staff-to-child ratio may be doubled for
no more than two hours during nap time. During the nap time, there must be enough program
staff persons in the facility to meet staff-to-child ratio and staff distribution requirements
under paragraph (a) and subdivision 2 for the groups in case of an emergency. The program
must return to following the staff-to-child ratios and staff distribution requirements under
paragraph (a) and subdivision 2 when the number of awake children exceeds the number
of children who could be supervised by one program staff person under subdivision 1.
new text end
new text begin (c) The maximum group size applies at all times except during meals, outdoor activities,
field trips, naps and rest, and special activities at the center such as guest speakers and
holiday programs.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Staff distribution.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must ensure that the following
requirements for staff distribution are met and a documented staff schedule is kept in the
administrative record.
new text end
new text begin (b) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e), staff distribution within each age
category must be as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) the first staff member needed to meet the required staff child ratio must be a teacher;
new text end
new text begin (2) the second staff member must have at least the qualifications of an aide;
new text end
new text begin (3) the third staff member must have at least the qualifications of an assistant teacher;
and
new text end
new text begin (4) the fourth staff member must have at least the qualifications of an aide.
new text end
new text begin (c) Only a program staff person can be included in meeting the staff-to-child ratios in
this section.
new text end
new text begin (d) An aide must not work alone with a child unless the aide is performing certain duties
as specified in section 142H.08, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
new text end
new text begin (e) An assistant teacher or an aide may be substituted for a teacher during arrival and
departure times if the total arrival and departure time does not exceed 25 percent of the
center's daily hours of operation. For an aide to be substituted for a teacher under this
subdivision, the aide must:
new text end
new text begin (1) be 18 years of age or older;
new text end
new text begin (2) have been employed by the child care center for a minimum of 30 days; and
new text end
new text begin (3) have completed the training required under section 142H.09, including orientation
and the training required within the first 90 days of the first date of direct contact with a
child.
new text end
new text begin (f) A volunteer who is included in the staff-to-child ratio must meet the requirements
for the assigned staff position in sections 142H.06 to 142H.08.
new text end
new text begin (g) The pattern in paragraph (e) must be repeated until the number of staff needed to
meet the staff-to-child ratio for each age category has been achieved.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Age category grouping.new text end
new text begin (a) Each center must specify arrival and departure
times of the day in their program's policies. Children in different age categories may be
grouped according to paragraphs (b) and (c).
new text end
new text begin (b) During arrival and departure times, children in different age categories may be
grouped together if:
new text end
new text begin (1) the staff-to-child ratio, group size, and staff distribution applied are for the age
category of the youngest child present; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the group is divided when the number of children present reaches the maximum
group size of the youngest child present.
new text end
new text begin (c) Outside of arrival and departure times, children in different age categories may be
mixed within a group if:
new text end
new text begin (1) infants are not grouped with children of other age categories;
new text end
new text begin (2) there is no more than a 36-month range in age among children in a group, unless all
children in the group are school age; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the staff-to-child ratios, group size, and staff distribution applied are for the youngest
child present.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Age designation.new text end
new text begin (a) Except as provided in this subdivision, a child must be
designated as a member of the age category that is consistent with the date of birth of the
child.
new text end
new text begin (b) A child with special health care needs must be included in the group that best meets
the child's developmental needs, best interest of the child, and in accordance with the
individual child care program plan for the child.
new text end
new text begin (c) A child may be designated as an "infant" up to the age of 18 months if the parent,
teacher, and director determine that such a designation is in the best interest of the child.
The center must document the determination and designation in the file of the child.
new text end
new text begin (d) A child may be designated as a "toddler" up to the age of 35 months if the parent,
teacher, and director determine that the designation is in the best interest of the child. The
center must document the determination and designation in the file of the child.
new text end
new text begin (e) A child may be designated as a "preschooler" at the age of 31 months if the parent,
teacher, and director determine that the designation is in the best interest of the child. The
center must document the determination and designation in the file of the child.
new text end
new text begin (f) When a child is transitioning age groups pursuant to subdivision 5 and with the child's
new class, the child must be designated as if the child has already aged into the class.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Transitioning children.new text end
new text begin (a) Transitions to the next age group may occur up to
two weeks prior to the child aging into the next age group. The transition must be planned
in advance based on the child's readiness and in consultation with parents and program staff.
new text end
new text begin (b) A center must develop a written policy on transitioning children to the next age
group.
new text end
Sec. 11.
new text begin [142H.11] CHILD CARE PROGRAM PLAN AND ACTIVITIES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin General requirements.new text end
new text begin The child care program plan must:
new text end
new text begin (1) include a statement mandating that children are supervised at all times as defined in
section 142H.01, subdivision 38, and pursuant to the requirements of section 142H.24,
subdivision 1;
new text end
new text begin (2) specify the age categories and number of children to be served by the program;
new text end
new text begin (3) specify the days and hours of operation of the program;
new text end
new text begin (4) describe the general educational methods to be used by the program and the religious,
political, or philosophical basis, if any;
new text end
new text begin (5) be developed and evaluated in writing each calendar year by a program staff person
qualified as a teacher or director under sections 142H.05 and 142H.06. Documentation of
the evaluation, the date of the evaluation, and the signature of the teacher or director
completing the evaluation must be maintained in the center administrative records;
new text end
new text begin (6) specify planned activities designed to support and nurture the whole child in all areas
of the development and learning of the child, including but not limited to the following:
intellectual, social, emotional, and physical development. The activities must be in a manner
consistent with the cultural and ethnic backgrounds of a child, as feasible;
new text end
new text begin (7) specify that the intellectual, social, emotional, and physical development of each
child be documented in the record of the child and conveyed to the parent during the
conferences specified under section 142H.20, subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (8) include a daily schedule of planned indoor and outdoor activities for each age category
served;
new text end
new text begin (9) specify activities that are quiet, active, teacher directed, and child initiated;
new text end
new text begin (10) specify a variety of activities that require the use of varied equipment and materials;
new text end
new text begin (11) include a schedule if equipment is rotated between groups of children;
new text end
new text begin (12) describe use of technology and screen time for each age category; and
new text end
new text begin (13) be available to a parent for review upon request.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Outdoor activities.new text end
new text begin (a) Child care activities must promote the physical,
intellectual, social, and emotional development of the child. To facilitate child development,
programs must include daily outdoor activities when weather conditions allow, as defined
in this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (b) The applicant must develop a written outdoor weather and activity policy. The license
holder must ensure that the policies and procedures are carried out. The policies and
procedures must incorporate guidance from national, state, or local authorities in public
health and at a minimum require the provider to consider the following conditions when
determining if outdoor play poses a health and safety risk:
new text end
new text begin (1) heat in excess of 100 degrees Fahrenheit accounting for heat index, or pursuant to
advice of the local authority;
new text end
new text begin (2) cold less than 15 degrees Fahrenheit accounting for wind chill, or pursuant to advice
of the local authority;
new text end
new text begin (3) extreme weather, including but not limited to a lightning storm, blizzard, tornado,
or flooding;
new text end
new text begin (4) an air quality emergency order by a local or state authority on air quality or public
health; or
new text end
new text begin (5) a lockdown notification ordered by a public safety authority.
new text end
new text begin (c) The center's outdoor weather and activity policy must specify, if children are to go
outside beyond the temperature range specified in paragraph (b), clauses (1) and (2), what
procedures will be used to keep the children safe, including but not limited to ensuring
children have appropriate clothing, providing frequent indoor breaks, or matching the
intensity of the activity level to the weather conditions.
new text end
new text begin (d) For toddlers, preschool, and school-age children attending four or more hours per
day, the license holder must provide at least one opportunity for outdoor activity per day
pursuant to paragraph (b).
new text end
new text begin (e) For infants attending four or more hours per day, the license holder must provide at
least one opportunity for outdoor activity per day as practicable, pursuant to paragraph (b)
and the individual needs of the infants in care.
new text end
new text begin (f) Programs operating three or fewer hours per day are exempt from the daily outdoor
activity requirement.
new text end
new text begin (g) If the weather is not suitable for outdoor activities, the program must provide indoor
gross motor play activities that support physical development.
new text end
Sec. 12.
new text begin [142H.12] NAPS AND REST.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Naps and rest policy.new text end
new text begin An applicant must develop and a license holder
must implement a policy for naps and rest that is consistent with the developmental level
of the children enrolled in the center. The policy must include but is not limited to the
requirements in this section, as applicable.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Parent consultation. new text end
new text begin The parent of each child must be informed at the time
the child is enrolled of the center's policy on naps and rest and be offered the opportunity
to provide information specific to their child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin General nap and rest requirements. new text end
new text begin (a) The child care center must provide
a quiet space for children to nap and rest.
new text end
new text begin (b) Nap and rest time must be in accordance with the developmental needs of the child.
A child care center may not withhold sleep or rest from a child, including at a parent's
request, if such time is allowed in the child care center's naps and rest policy.
new text end
new text begin (c) Nap and rest areas must be lighted to allow for visual supervision of all children at
all times.
new text end
new text begin (d) Evacuation routes must not be blocked by resting or napping children. Each child
must have a free and direct means of escape, and the staff must have a clear path to each
resting child, including full access to at least one long side of a crib, cot, or mat.
new text end
new text begin (e) A crib that meets the safety requirements of section 142B.45 must be provided for
each infant for whom the center is licensed to provide care.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must follow the infant safe sleep requirements under section
142B.46.
new text end
new text begin (g) Cribs, cots, and mats must be placed directly on the floor and must not be stacked
when in use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Monitoring napping infants.new text end
new text begin (a) An infant must be supervised as defined in
section 142H.01, subdivision 38, and pursuant to section 142H.24, subdivision 1, paragraph
(b).
new text end
new text begin (b) Staff must conduct in-person checks of the sleeping infant every 15 minutes.
new text end
new text begin (c) When a baby monitor or other mechanical equipment is used to hear or see infants
during sleep, the monitoring equipment must be:
new text end
new text begin (1) able to pick up the sounds of all infants in the separate room;
new text end
new text begin (2) actively monitored by program staff at all times; and
new text end
new text begin (3) checked daily prior to use to ensure it is working correctly. If equipment is
malfunctioning, a program staff person must put in place an alternate means of supervision
until the equipment can be fixed.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Confinement limitation.new text end
new text begin A child who has completed a nap or rested quietly
for 30 minutes must not be required to remain on a cot, mat, or in a crib. Any child who
does not fall asleep during a designated nap time must have the opportunity to engage in
quiet activities.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Bedding and sleeping equipment.new text end
new text begin Separate bedding must be provided and
stored separately for each child in care.
new text end
Sec. 13.
new text begin [142H.13] BEHAVIOR GUIDANCE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Definitions.new text end
new text begin (a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Behavior guidance" means an ongoing process where a program staff person offers
constructive, positive, and developmentally appropriate guidance to a child to help manage
the child's behavior in a socially acceptable manner.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Persistent unacceptable behavior" means when a child:
new text end
new text begin (1) exhibits behaviors that present a serious safety risk for the child or others and the
program is not able to reduce or eliminate the safety concern; or
new text end
new text begin (2) significantly disrupts the learning environment and requires an increased amount of
staff guidance and time to address the child's behavior. Significantly disruptive behavior
may include physical aggression, verbal threats, or repetitive behaviors that have been
addressed through standard behavior guidance techniques without improvement.
new text end
new text begin (d) "Redirection" means a positive guidance technique where a program staff person
intervenes and guides a child away from potential problems toward constructive activity or
talks with a child to help the child calm down and self-regulate.
new text end
new text begin (e) "Separation" means a form of behavior guidance that involves interruption of
unacceptable behavior by the removal of a child from a situation with the intention of
allowing the child an opportunity to pause and gain self-control. During a separation a child
is isolated from participating in activities with other children. Separation of children must
be done pursuant to subdivision 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Behavior guidance policies and procedures.new text end
new text begin The applicant must develop
written behavior guidance policies and procedures approved by the commissioner. The
license holder must ensure that the policies and procedures are carried out. The policies and
procedures must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) methods of promoting positive behavior as specified under subdivision 3;
new text end
new text begin (2) prohibited actions as specified under subdivision 4;
new text end
new text begin (3) addressing persistent unacceptable behavior as specified under subdivision 6; and
new text end
new text begin (4) separation from the group as specified in subdivision 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Methods of promoting positive behavior.new text end
new text begin A license holder must promote
positive behavior by:
new text end
new text begin (1) ensuring that each child is provided with a positive model of acceptable behavior;
new text end
new text begin (2) tailoring methods of promoting positive behavior to the developmental level of the
children the center is licensed to serve;
new text end
new text begin (3) ensuring redirection is used, as appropriate in addressing the behavior of a child, to
guide a child away from potential problems and toward constructive activity or to talk with
a child to help them calm down and self-regulate;
new text end
new text begin (4) teaching children how to use acceptable alternatives to problem behavior to reduce
conflict;
new text end
new text begin (5) protecting the safety and well-being of children, employees, and volunteers; and
new text end
new text begin (6) providing immediate and directly related consequences for the unacceptable behavior
of a child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Prohibited actions.new text end
new text begin A license holder must prohibit the following actions by or
at the direction of employees or volunteers:
new text end
new text begin (1) subjecting a child to corporal or physical punishment, including but not limited to
rough handling, shoving, hair pulling, ear pulling, shaking, slapping, kicking, biting, pinching,
spitting, hitting, or spanking;
new text end
new text begin (2) subjecting a child to name calling, ostracism, shaming, derogatory remarks about
the child or the child's family, cultural or racial slurs, yelling, or profane language that
threatens, humiliates, or frightens the child;
new text end
new text begin (3) forcing a child to maintain an uncomfortable position or to continuously repeat
physical movements;
new text end
new text begin (4) utilizing group punishments for the behavior of an individual child;
new text end
new text begin (5) separation of a child from the group except as provided in subdivision 7;
new text end
new text begin (6) punishment for not resting, napping, or sleeping; toileting accidents; failing to eat
all or part of meals or snacks; or failing to complete an activity;
new text end
new text begin (7) denial of food or drink or forcing food or drink upon a child;
new text end
new text begin (8) denial of light, warmth, clothing, or medical care as a punishment for unacceptable
behavior;
new text end
new text begin (9) the use of physical restraint other than to physically hold a child when containment
is necessary to protect the child or others from harm;
new text end
new text begin (10) the use of mechanical restraints, including tying a child up, or any device or
equipment intended to restrict or prevent movement as a means of discipline or for reasons
unrelated to the child's care, safety, or planned activity;
new text end
new text begin (11) the use of prone or contraindicated restraints as prohibited in section 245A.211;
new text end
new text begin (12) the use of any substance given to a child to subdue or restrict movement or behavior;
new text end
new text begin (13) discipline and punishment must not be delegated to another child; and
new text end
new text begin (14) punishing or shaming a child for the actions of a parent, including but not limited
to failure to pay fees, failure to provide appropriate clothing, failure to provide materials
for an activity, or any conflict between the license holder or staff and the parent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Additional provisions.new text end
new text begin (a) When providing services to a child with a
developmental disability or related condition, the license holder must follow section 142B.63.
new text end
new text begin (b) A program that cares for a child with a developmental disability or related condition
must comply with the individual child care program plan requirements under section 142H.15.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Persistent unacceptable behavior. new text end
new text begin (a) A program staff person who observes
persistent unacceptable behavior must document the behavior of the child and staff response
to the behavior, including:
new text end
new text begin (1) information on where the child was, what activity the child was doing, and the
employees or volunteers present when the incident occurred; and
new text end
new text begin (2) staff actions, including the positive guidance techniques that were tried.
new text end
new text begin (b) When persistent unacceptable behavior as defined in subdivision 1, paragraph (c),
occurs, a behavior plan must be developed to address the behavior documented in paragraph
(a) in consultation with the child's parent, the program staff, and other professionals involved
in the care and treatment of the child, as appropriate. The behavior plan must include but
is not limited to the following:
new text end
new text begin (1) a description of the specific behavior;
new text end
new text begin (2) the planned behavior management method to be used in response to the behavior
pursuant to subdivision 3 or any other previously approved methods; and
new text end
new text begin (3) an area to document the effectiveness of the plan and progress of the child.
new text end
new text begin (c) The plan must be signed and dated by the child's parent, the director, and other
professionals involved in the care and treatment of the child, as applicable, and kept in the
child's record.
new text end
new text begin (d) The plan and the child's progress must be reviewed at least twice each calendar year,
or more frequently as needed, and changes must be made based on the child's needs and
the input of the child's parent, program staff, or other individuals involved in the provision
of care and treatment of the child. Documentation of the review must be kept in the child's
record. If the child's parent and the program staff agree that the behavior plan is no longer
needed, the license holder must document the date the behavior plan is no longer in effect.
new text end
new text begin (e) The license holder must ensure that all staff who work directly with the child are
trained on the behavior plan prior to working with the child or when a new behavior plan
is developed. Documentation of staff training must be maintained on file.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must ensure that all staff who work directly with the child are
trained on the behavior plan prior to working with the child or when a new behavior plan
is developed. Documentation of staff training must be maintained on file.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Separation time from the group.new text end
new text begin No child may be separated from the group
unless the license holder has tried less intrusive methods of guiding the child's behavior
that have been ineffective and the behavior of the child threatens the well-being of the child
or other children in the center. Separation from the group must meet the following
requirements:
new text end
new text begin (1) the separation time must be limited to the amount of time necessary for the child to
gain self-control and rejoin the group;
new text end
new text begin (2) the duration of separation of the child must be documented, including the beginning
and end time of the separation;
new text end
new text begin (3) infants and toddlers must not be separated from the group as a means of behavior
guidance. Positive behavior guidance techniques such as redirection may be used with
toddlers; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the child must be supervised as defined under section 142H.01, subdivision 38, while
separated.
new text end
Sec. 14.
new text begin [142H.14] FURNISHINGS, EQUIPMENT, MATERIALS AND SUPPLIES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin General requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) Each center must have on the premises the
quantity and type of equipment and materials necessary to implement the child care program
plan under section 142H.11 and the indoor and outdoor equipment requirements in
subdivisions 2 and 3.
new text end
new text begin (b) Equipment and furniture must be durable, in good repair, structurally sound, stable,
and free of sharp edges, dangerous protrusions, points where extremities of a child could
be pinched or crushed, and openings or angles that could trap part of a child.
new text end
new text begin (c) License holders and program staff must ensure equipment and furnishings are not
hazardous objects as specified in section 142H.34, subdivision 17.
new text end
new text begin (d) Equipment designed and marketed for use by children must be appropriate to the
age and size of children and used in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
Equipment and play materials not designed or marketed for use by children, including but
not limited to repurposed, homemade, and open-ended items, must be appropriate to the
age and size of children, in good repair, and used under the supervision of a program staff
person. Such equipment and play materials are not required to have manufacturer's
instructions and are subject to the requirements of this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Indoor play equipment.new text end
new text begin The license holder must provide sufficient indoor
play equipment and materials so that at any point in the day when children are indoors and
using equipment every child can choose from at least three activities involving equipment
or materials. The quantity of indoor equipment provided must be based on the maximum
licensed capacity of the classroom and must be accessible to children as specified in
subdivision 5.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Outdoor play equipment.new text end
new text begin The license holder must provide sufficient outdoor
play equipment and materials so that when all children are outdoors every child can choose
from at least one activity involving equipment or materials. The quantity of outdoor
equipment and materials provided must be based on the maximum licensed capacity and
must be accessible to children as specified in subdivision 5.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Interest areas.new text end
new text begin The license holder must have equipment and materials in each
of the following developmental and interest areas to support a child's learning and growth:
new text end
new text begin (1) creative arts and crafts;
new text end
new text begin (2) construction and building;
new text end
new text begin (3) social interaction, dramatic play, or practical life activities;
new text end
new text begin (4) math and science;
new text end
new text begin (5) music;
new text end
new text begin (6) fine motor skills;
new text end
new text begin (7) physical and movement activities;
new text end
new text begin (8) sensory exploration activities; and
new text end
new text begin (9) language and literacy.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Equipment rotation and accessibility.new text end
new text begin A child care program may rotate
equipment throughout the day as specified in the child care program plan if the number of
choices required in subdivisions 2 and 3 is available for each child in attendance. Equipment
and materials from each interest area must be accessible to children at least once per day.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Furnishings.new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure that each child has access to
furniture that is developmentally appropriate and the appropriate size, including at a
minimum:
new text end
new text begin (1) one diaper changing table for every 12 infants or 14 toddlers. The same table may
not be counted to fulfill the requirement under this clause for both infants and toddlers;
new text end
new text begin (2) one hands-free covered diaper container per diaper changing table;
new text end
new text begin (3) one crib and waterproof mattress per infant, including enough cribs with wheels to
evacuate the number of infants the program is licensed to serve;
new text end
new text begin (4) one cot or mat per toddler or preschooler. This clause does not apply to programs
operating for less than five hours per day if rest is not indicated as part of the center's child
care program;
new text end
new text begin (5) for infants, one nonfolding seating option per child based on licensed capacity; and
new text end
new text begin (6) for toddlers, preschoolers, and school-age children, one nonfolding seating option
per child based on licensed capacity, with a corresponding amount of table space to allow
the child to do table work or eat a meal while seated.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Supplies.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must maintain enough diapers, disposable
paper for the diaper changing table, facial tissues, liquid hand soap, and single-service towels
to maintain cleanliness and sanitation for children in care.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must provide at least two sets of sheets for each crib.
new text end
Sec. 15.
new text begin [142H.141] NATURAL ELEMENTS AND MATERIALS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Natural elements and materials.new text end
new text begin A license holder may provide children
with access to natural elements and materials as equipment and play materials. Natural
elements and materials and appropriate uses of natural elements and materials include, but
are not limited to:
new text end
new text begin (1) natural loose parts, such as sticks, leaves, pine cones, acorns, seeds, pods, bark, and
moss for construction, art, sensory exploration, and imaginative play;
new text end
new text begin (2) natural materials, such as dirt, mud, sand, water, ice, and snow for sensory play and
exploration;
new text end
new text begin (3) plants, flowers, seeds, vegetables, and gardening materials for science exploration
and learning;
new text end
new text begin (4) rocks, pebbles, stones, and minerals for counting, sorting, building, and art;
new text end
new text begin (5) natural areas such as gardens, prairie, forest, wetlands, and ponds for exploration
and learning; and
new text end
new text begin (6) other natural elements as appropriate to age and development of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Supervision.new text end
new text begin A program staff person must supervise a child's use of natural
elements and materials and provide guidance on safe and appropriate use. Natural elements
and materials that are a choking hazard must not be accessible to children under the age of
three without direct supervision of a program staff person.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Other uses.new text end
new text begin Natural elements and materials may qualify as equipment and
materials from interest areas under section 142H.14, subdivision 4.
new text end
Sec. 16.
new text begin [142H.15] CHILDREN WITH SPECIAL HEALTH CARE NEEDS OR
DISABILITIES.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Child with special health care needs or disabilities.new text end
new text begin For the purposes
of this section, "child with special health care needs or disabilities" means a child who:
new text end
new text begin (1) has developmental disabilities or is otherwise eligible for case management pursuant
to Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0036;
new text end
new text begin (2) has been identified by the local school district as a child with a disability as defined
in section 125A.02, subdivision 1; or
new text end
new text begin (3) has been determined by a health care provider as defined in section 142H.01,
subdivision 22; licensed psychiatrist; licensed psychologist; or licensed consulting
psychologist as having a special health care need or disability relating to physical, social,
or emotional development.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Report to parent. new text end
new text begin The license holder must inform the parent when there is a
developmental concern or potential special health care need of a child that was not previously
identified.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Individual child care program plan. new text end
new text begin (a) When a license holder admits a child
with a disability or special health care need or a special need is identified, the license holder
must ensure that an individual child care program plan (ICCPP) is developed in a form and
manner prescribed by the commissioner to meet the child's individual needs.
new text end
new text begin (b) When developing or updating the ICCPP, the license holder must obtain relevant
information from the child's parent and program staff who work directly with the child.
new text end
new text begin (c) For a child who meets the criteria in subdivision 1, clause (1), the ICCPP must be
coordinated with the child's individual service plan (ISP).
new text end
new text begin (d) For a child who meets the criteria in subdivision 1, clause (2), the ICCPP must be
coordinated with the child's individualized educational plan (IEP).
new text end
new text begin (e) For a child who meets the criteria in subdivision 1, clause (3), the ICCPP must be
coordinated with the child's health care provider or other necessary medical professionals.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must ensure that all program staff who work directly with the
child are trained on the ICCPP prior to working with the child. Documentation of staff
training must be maintained on file.
new text end
new text begin (g) Before the ICCPP is implemented, the parent and the director must sign and date the
form. The ICCPP must be kept in the child's record.
new text end
new text begin (h) The ICCPP must be reviewed and updated at least once each calendar year and more
frequently if needed. The ICCPP must be signed and dated by the parent and the director
upon their yearly review.
new text end
new text begin (i) The most recent ICCPP must be available at all times to program staff when the child
is in care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Inclusion.new text end
new text begin All activities must be designed to include all children unless a specific
medical contraindication exists or an exclusion is otherwise specified in a child's ICCPP.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Allergy prevention and response. new text end
new text begin (a) An applicant must develop a written
policy on allergy prevention and response. A license holder must ensure the policy is carried
out and provided to parents at the time of enrollment.
new text end
new text begin (b) Before admitting a child for care, the license holder must obtain documentation of
any known allergy from the child's parent or the child's health care provider.
new text end
new text begin (c) If a child has a known allergy, the license holder must maintain current information
about the allergy in the child's record and develop an ICCPP pursuant to subdivision 3,
including:
new text end
new text begin (1) a description of the allergy;
new text end
new text begin (2) specific triggers and avoidance techniques;
new text end
new text begin (3) symptoms of an allergic reaction;
new text end
new text begin (4) procedures for responding to an allergic reaction, including medication to be
administered in an emergency situation and dosages; and
new text end
new text begin (5) the child's health care provider contact information.
new text end
new text begin (d) If a child has an ICCPP related to a food allergy, the ICCPP must be readily available
to the person in the area where food is prepared and served to the child. If food is prepared
off site, the center must notify the person or entity preparing the food of any food allergies
of children in their care. Food allergy information for all children in care must be readily
available to staff in the classroom and wherever food is served.
new text end
new text begin (e) The license holder must contact the parent of the child immediately after any instance
of exposure or allergic reaction.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must call 911 when epinephrine is administered to a child in care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Temporary physical needs.new text end
new text begin If a child has a temporary physical need as
identified by their health care provider, including but not limited to a brace, cast, or helmet,
the license holder must maintain current documentation about the temporary physical need
from the child's health care provider and any necessary accommodations in the child's record.
The license holder must ensure staff who work with the child are aware of the child's
temporary physical need and follow the identified necessary accommodations. An ICCPP
is not required for documenting a temporary physical need under this subdivision and the
accommodation.
new text end
Sec. 17.
new text begin [142H.16] NIGHT CARE PROGRAM.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Applicability.new text end
new text begin A license holder providing overnight care must comply
with this section.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Furnishings.new text end
new text begin Each child enrolled in a night care program must be provided
with a crib or bed, described as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) a crib that meets the requirements under section 142B.45 and two sets of sheets must
be provided for each infant and meet the requirements under section 142H.14;
new text end
new text begin (2) an individual age-appropriate bed with two sets of sheets and a blanket or quilt must
be provided for each toddler, preschooler, or school-age child;
new text end
new text begin (3) each bed or crib must have a waterproof mattress or mattress pad that can be cleaned
and disinfected;
new text end
new text begin (4) bedding and sleeping equipment must be cleaned and disinfected as specified in
section 142H.31, subdivision 4, clause (3); and
new text end
new text begin (5) separate bedding must be provided and stored separately for each child in care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Clothing intended for sleeping.new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure that all children
are put to bed in clothing for sleeping as designated by the parent of the child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Personal care items.new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure that all children have
personal items needed to clean up and prepare for sleep. The items must include an individual
washcloth, towel, toothbrush, toothpaste, and liquid hand soap.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Meals and snacks.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must ensure that a child who will be
present in the center has had or will be provided with an evening meal. A bedtime snack
must be available for all children in attendance. Eating times and schedules for the individual
child must be consistent with patterns established in consultation with the parent of the
child.
new text end
new text begin (b) Night care programs are exempt from the requirements of section 142H.32,
subdivision 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Staffing.new text end
new text begin At least two program staff persons, one of whom must qualify as a
teacher under section 142H.06, must be present in the center at all times during the hours
the night program is in operation. When more than 80 percent of the children present are
asleep, the remaining program staff persons needed to meet the required staff-to-child ratio
must have at least the qualifications of an aide. Program staff must be awake, dressed, and
provide supervision as specified in sections 142H.01, subdivision 38, and 142H.12 to
children who are sleeping.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Hygiene assistance. new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure that children have the
opportunity to wash up and brush their teeth before bedtime. Program staff must assist
children during washing and changing clothes according to the developmental needs of the
child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Showers and bathtubs.new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure bathtubs and showers
are equipped to prevent slipping, if the center provides bathing.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Bathing procedures.new text end
new text begin The center must have written permission from the parent
prior to allowing the child to bathe and ensure bathtubs and showers are cleaned and
disinfected after each use. The tub or showers do not have to be disinfected between uses
if the children are siblings and the parent has provided written consent. All children must
bathe separately unless the children are siblings and the parent has provided written consent
that the children can be bathed together.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Privacy.new text end
new text begin To ensure privacy, school-age boys and girls must be separated
during bedtime washing and changing activities.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Sleeping arrangements.new text end
new text begin The center must provide sleeping arrangements so
that sleeping children are cared for separately from children who are awake and so that
sleeping children are not disturbed by arrivals and departures. Infants must have a sleep
area separate from the center's play and activity areas.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Bedtime.new text end
new text begin A child's bedtime must be scheduled in consultation with the child's
parent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Light.new text end
new text begin The center must provide adequate lighting indoors in all areas, including
bathrooms, hallways, and sleeping rooms to ensure that staff are able to see all children at
all times.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Outdoor illumination.new text end
new text begin The center must ensure that parking areas, outdoor
walkways, and all building entrances are adequately lighted for safety and security.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Program emphasis.new text end
new text begin A license holder operating a night care program must
comply with the child care program standards in 142H.11.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 16.new text end
new text begin Exceptions.new text end
new text begin The outdoor activity area required by section 142H.34, subdivision
7; outdoor activities required by section 142H.11, subdivision 2; and outdoor equipment
required by section 142H.14 need not be provided for children enrolled in a night care
program.
new text end
Sec. 18.
new text begin [142H.17] DROP-IN CHILD CARE PROGRAMS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Drop-in child care programs.new text end
new text begin If a license holder chooses to operate as
a drop-in child care program, the license holder must comply with the requirements in this
section.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Exemptions.new text end
new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Drop-in child care programs that meet one of the requirements
in paragraph (b) are exempt from:
new text end
new text begin (1) section 142H.10;
new text end
new text begin (2) section 142H.11, subdivision 1, clauses (6) and (7); and
new text end
new text begin (3) section 142H.12, subdivisions 3 and 5, except for infants and toddlers.
new text end
new text begin (b) A drop-in child care program is exempt from the requirements in paragraph (a) if
the program operates:
new text end
new text begin (1) in a child care center that houses no child care program except the drop-in child care
program;
new text end
new text begin (2) in the same child care center but not during the same hours as a regularly scheduled
ongoing child care program with a stable enrollment; or
new text end
new text begin (3) in a child care center at the same time as a regularly scheduled ongoing child care
program with a stable enrollment, but activities, except for bathroom use and outdoor play,
are conducted separately from each other.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Staffing requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) A drop-in child care program must have at least
two program staff persons on site whenever the program is operating: the director or a
designee and a program staff member who is qualified as a teacher.
new text end
new text begin (b) If the drop-in child care program has additional staff who are on call as a mandatory
condition of their employment, the minimum child-to-staff ratio may be exceeded only for
preschool and school-age children by a maximum of four children for no more than 20
minutes while additional staff are in transit. If the ratio is exceeded for more than 20 minutes,
the license holder must review the mandatory on-call staff procedures and revise as necessary
to ensure compliance with this section, including hiring additional on-call staff as needed.
new text end
new text begin (c) Whenever there is a total of 20 children or more at a drop-in child care center, children
that are younger than 30 months must be cared for in a separate group. The group may
contain children up to 60 months old. The group must be cared for in an area that is physically
separated from older children.
new text end
new text begin (d) In drop-in care programs that serve both infants and older children, children up to
30 months old may be supervised by assistant teachers as long as other staff are present in
appropriate ratios.
new text end
new text begin (e) A drop-in child care program may care for siblings who are all at least 16 months
old together in any group. For purposes of this section, "sibling" is defined as sister or
brother, half sister or half brother, or stepsister or stepbrother.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Staff-to-child ratio requirements in a drop-in program.new text end
new text begin The minimum
staff-to-child ratio that a license holder may maintain in a drop-in program is:
new text end
new text begin (1) for infants, one program staff person for every four infants;
new text end
new text begin (2) for toddlers, one program staff person for every seven children;
new text end
new text begin (3) for preschoolers, one program staff person for every ten children; and
new text end
new text begin (4) for school-age children, one program staff person for every 15 children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Staff distribution.new text end
new text begin (a) The minimum staff distribution pattern for a drop-in
child care program is:
new text end
new text begin (1) the first staff member needed to meet the required staff-to-child ratio must be a
teacher;
new text end
new text begin (2) the second and third staff members must have at least the qualifications of a child
care aide; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the fourth staff member must have at least the qualifications of an assistant teacher.
new text end
new text begin (b) The pattern in paragraph (a) must be repeated until the number of staff needed to
meet the staff-to-child ratio for each age category has been achieved.
new text end
Sec. 19.
new text begin [142H.18] EXCLUSION OF SICK CHILDREN .
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Care of sick children.new text end
new text begin If a child becomes sick while at the center, the
child must be isolated from other children in care and the child's parent called immediately.
When determining if a child is sick and exclusion is necessary, license holders must follow:
new text end
new text begin (1) the requirements on reportable diseases in Minnesota Rules, parts 4605.7040,
4605.7070, and 4605.7080; and
new text end
new text begin (2) guidelines from the commissioner of health on infectious diseases in child care
settings.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Notification.new text end
new text begin (a) A child care center's program policies must require a parent
to inform the center within 24 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, when a child is
diagnosed by a child's health care provider or dental care provider as having a reportable
or infectious disease as specified in subdivision 1.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must ensure that the commissioner of health is notified of any
suspected case of reportable disease as specified in Minnesota Rules, parts 4605.7040,
4605.7050, or 4605.7080, within 24 hours of receiving the parent's or staff report.
Documentation of the notification must be kept at the center.
new text end
new text begin (c) The license holder must notify the parents of exposed children within 24 hours of
when a parent, employee, or volunteer notifies the center of a reportable disease under
subdivision 1, lice, scabies, impetigo, ringworm, or chicken pox. The notice must be posted
in a clearly visible, accessible place or provided individually to each parent of a child who
was exposed.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Return to center.new text end
new text begin Children with a reportable or infectious disease as specified
in subdivision 1 must be excluded from the center for a length of time as specified in the
commissioner of health guidelines on infectious diseases in child care settings and until the
child can participate in routine activities without more staff supervision than usual. The
center must exclude a child for a longer period if the child's health care provider determines
that it is necessary.
new text end
Sec. 20.
new text begin [142H.19] SICK CARE PROGRAM.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Licensure of sick care programs.new text end
new text begin If a license holder chooses to operate
as a sick care program, the license holder must operate a sick care program that complies
with the requirements in this section.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Review of admission and health policies and practices.new text end
new text begin (a) A licensed
physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse with a specialization
in pediatric care must review and approve a sick care program's admission policy at the
time of initial license application, after the first six months of initial operation, and at least
once each calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (b) The review must include consultation with the licensed registered nurse or physician
responsible for admissions.
new text end
new text begin (c) A report of the findings must be sent to the commissioner with the initial application
for licensure, and subsequent reports must be placed in the center's administrative record.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Evaluation of a sick child.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder that operates a sick care program
must evaluate the condition of a sick child before admitting the child to the center.
new text end
new text begin (b) The evaluation must be based on the physical symptoms of the child each day of
admission, the probable contagion and risk to the health of others present, the ability of the
program to provide the care the child requires, and whether the child can be grouped together
with other children in care with contagious or noncontagious illnesses. Documentation of
the evaluation must be placed in the child's record.
new text end
new text begin (c) Before admitting a child to a sick care program:
new text end
new text begin (1) a parent must describe the child's symptoms over the phone;
new text end
new text begin (2) a health care provider affiliated with the center must tell the parent whether the parent
may bring the child to the center for further evaluation; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the health care provider must conduct a physical assessment of the child and obtain
a health history from the parent at the center.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Information to parents.new text end
new text begin A summary of the sick care program's health care
policies and practices and the center's procedures for notification of parents in the event of
an emergency must be given to the parent the first time a child is admitted and every
admission following a change to any of the information.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Parent conference exception.new text end
new text begin Centers licensed to provide child care exclusively
to sick children are not required to provide parent conferences under section 142H.20,
subdivision 2.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Child care program emphasis exception.new text end
new text begin A sick care program does not need
to meet the child care program plan requirements under section 142H.11. However, the
child care program plan for the care of sick children must emphasize quiet activities.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Group size and age category grouping exceptions.new text end
new text begin The maximum group
sizes specified under section 142H.10, subdivision 1, and the age category grouping
restrictions under section 142H.10, subdivision 3, do not apply to sick care programs. There
must be no more than 16 children in sick care in the same room at the same time.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Staff-to-child ratios and staff distribution requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) A one-to-four
staff-to-child ratio must be maintained at all times in a room used to care for sick children.
new text end
new text begin (b) At least two program staff persons must be present in a center operating a sick care
program whenever sick children are in care.
new text end
new text begin (c) The first program staff person must be a registered nurse. The remaining program
staff persons must at least meet the qualifications and follow the staff distribution pattern
under section 142H.10.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Limitation on staff assignment.new text end
new text begin Staff must not care for nonsick children or
prepare food for nonsick children on the same day as sick children. Staff caring for sick
children must not enter the kitchen used to prepare food for nonsick children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Food preparation.new text end
new text begin Food provided by the license holder and prepared at the
center must be prepared in a room separate from rooms where sick care is provided and
must be delivered to each sick care room in individual servings and in covered containers.
Procedures for preparing, handling, and serving food and washing food, utensils, and
equipment must comply with the requirements in the Minnesota Food Code, Minnesota
Rules, chapter 4626.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Menus.new text end
new text begin Menus for sick children must be modified to meet the individual needs
of the child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Additional facility requirements.new text end
new text begin A license holder operating a sick care
program must provide:
new text end
new text begin (1) a room or rooms that are exclusively used to care for sick children and that are not
used at any time for any other child care purpose; and
new text end
new text begin (2) toilets and hand sinks that are within or immediately adjacent to the room or rooms
used for sick care and are not used by well children in care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Outdoor activity area, activities, and equipment exception.new text end
new text begin Sick care
programs under this section are exempt from the requirements for an outdoor activity area
under section 142H.34, subdivision 7; outdoor activities under section 142H.11, subdivision
2; and outdoor equipment under section 142H.14.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Cleaning and disinfection.new text end
new text begin Floors in rooms where sick care is provided and
all linens, toileting equipment, sinks, furnishings, objects, and equipment used by sick
children must be cleaned and disinfected at least daily and as needed pursuant to the
requirements under section 142H.31.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Bedding and sleeping equipment.new text end
new text begin (a) Each sick child must be provided
appropriate bedding and sleeping equipment, depending on the age of the child, as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) a crib and crib sheets pursuant to the requirements of section 142B.45, cot, mat, or
bed, depending on the age of the child;
new text end
new text begin (2) a pillow, except if the child is an infant;
new text end
new text begin (3) a pillowcase, except if the child is an infant; and
new text end
new text begin (4) a blanket or quilt, except if the child is an infant.
new text end
new text begin (b) Bedding provided by the center must be laundered after each use. Sleeping equipment
must be cleaned and disinfected after each use.
new text end
Sec. 21.
new text begin [142H.20] INFORMATION TO PARENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Policies provided to parents.new text end
new text begin At the time of a child's enrollment, the
center must provide the parent with written notification of the:
new text end
new text begin (1) ages and numbers of children the center is licensed to serve;
new text end
new text begin (2) hours and days of operation;
new text end
new text begin (3) child care program options the center is licensed to operate, including a description
of the program's educational methods; the program's religious, political, or philosophical
basis, if any; and how parents may review the center's child care program plan;
new text end
new text begin (4) policy on parent conferences and notification to a parent of a child's intellectual,
physical, social, and emotional development;
new text end
new text begin (5) policy requiring a health care summary and immunization record of a child;
new text end
new text begin (6) policies and procedures for the care of children who become sick at the center and
parent notification practices for the onset of or exposure to a contagious illness or condition
pursuant to section 142H.18 or when there is an emergency or injury requiring medical
attention;
new text end
new text begin (7) policies and procedures for administering first aid and sources of care to be used in
case of emergencies;
new text end
new text begin (8) policies on the administration of medicine;
new text end
new text begin (9) procedures for obtaining written parental permission for transportation of children
and field trips as required in section 142H.33, subdivision 4, paragraph (d);
new text end
new text begin (10) procedures for obtaining written parental consent for research, cameras, and social
media participation pursuant to section 142H.22;
new text end
new text begin (11) policies on transitioning a child to the next age group, pursuant to section 142H.10;
new text end
new text begin (12) policies on the provision of meals and snacks;
new text end
new text begin (13) behavior guidance policies and procedures;
new text end
new text begin (14) presence of pets;
new text end
new text begin (15) policy on visitation and parental access to children pursuant to section 142H.21;
new text end
new text begin (16) policy on the prohibition of smoking, use of tobacco products, vaping, electronic
cigarettes, alcohol, and drugs on the premises of the program pursuant to section 142H.29,
subdivision 11;
new text end
new text begin (17) policy on use of technology and screen time pursuant to section 142H.11, subdivision
1, clause (12);
new text end
new text begin (18) telephone number of the Department of Children, Youth, and Families, Division
of Licensing;
new text end
new text begin (19) policy on naps and rest pursuant to section 142H.12; and
new text end
new text begin (20) procedures for notifying parents of an evacuation, including procedures for
reunification with families.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Parent conferences.new text end
new text begin The license holder must inform the parent of a child's
progress and:
new text end
new text begin (1) complete individual assessments of each child's intellectual, physical, social, and
emotional development at least twice a year. Individual assessments for school-age children
must be completed at least once a year;
new text end
new text begin (2) plan and offer parent conferences by program staff at least twice a year to review
and discuss the child's assessment. Parent conferences for school-age children must be
planned and offered at least once a year; and
new text end
new text begin (3) maintain documentation of the child's assessment and that individual parent
conferences were planned and offered in each child's record.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Daily reports for infants and toddlers.new text end
new text begin Daily written individualized reports
must be provided to the parent of an infant or toddler about the child's food intake,
elimination, sleeping patterns, and general behavior.
new text end
Sec. 22.
new text begin [142H.21] PARENT VISITATION AND ACCESS TO PROGRAM.
new text end
new text begin (a) The center must have a parent visitation and access policy that meets the requirements
of this section at a minimum.
new text end
new text begin (b) An enrolled child's parent must be allowed access to their child at any time while
the child is in care unless a legal restriction or court order restricts access.
new text end
new text begin (c) A copy of the order or other legal restriction in paragraph (b) must be kept in the
child's record.
new text end
Sec. 23.
new text begin [142H.22] CONSENT FOR RESEARCH, CAMERAS, AND SOCIAL MEDIA
PARTICIPATION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Policy.new text end
new text begin A center must have and follow a policy governing the center's
use of social media and the use of photos and videos of children in care. The policy must
include:
new text end
new text begin (1) procedures for obtaining written consent from parents for release of photos and
videos of children for promotional or publicity purposes, including on social media accounts
or public digital platforms; and
new text end
new text begin (2) a statement prohibiting any employee or volunteer from posting content of children
in care or enrolled families on a personal social media account or public digital platform,
including photos, videos, or personal identifying information of the children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Participation in research, fundraising, or public relations projects.new text end
new text begin (a) The
license holder must obtain written permission from a parent before a child is involved in
research, fundraising, or public relations projects while at the center. A separate written
permission form must be obtained before each occasion of a research, fundraising, or public
relations activity.
new text end
new text begin (b) The permission form must be maintained in the child's record.
new text end
Sec. 24.
new text begin [142H.23] EMERGENCY AND ACCIDENT POLICIES AND RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Emergency preparedness plan.new text end
new text begin (a) An applicant must develop a written
plan for emergencies that require evacuation, relocation, sheltering in place, or lockdown
resulting from a fire, blizzard, tornado or other natural disaster, or other threatening situations
that may pose a health or safety hazard to a child, such as an intruder or violence at the
facility. A license holder must carry out the emergency plan during emergencies. The plan
must be written on a form developed by the commissioner and include:
new text end
new text begin (1) procedures for an evacuation, including building evacuation routes and identification
of primary and secondary exits;
new text end
new text begin (2) procedures for relocation, including a designated relocation site;
new text end
new text begin (3) procedures for sheltering in place and lockdown;
new text end
new text begin (4) procedures for notifying a child's parent of an evacuation, relocation, sheltering in
place, or lockdown, including procedures for reunification with families;
new text end
new text begin (5) accommodations for a child with a disability or a chronic medical condition;
new text end
new text begin (6) accommodations for infants and toddlers;
new text end
new text begin (7) procedures for storing a child's medically necessary medicine that facilitates easy
removal during an evacuation or relocation;
new text end
new text begin (8) procedures for continuing operations in the period during and after a crisis; and
new text end
new text begin (9) procedures for communicating with local emergency management officials, law
enforcement officials, or other appropriate state or local authorities.
new text end
new text begin (b) A license holder must review and update the emergency plan at least once each
calendar year and as needed when changes to the circumstances or facilities necessitate an
updated plan. Documentation of the yearly review and when changes are made must be
maintained in the program's administrative records.
new text end
new text begin (c) Program staff must be trained on the emergency plan at orientation as specified under
section 142H.09 when changes are made to the plan and at least once each calendar year.
Training must be documented and maintained on site.
new text end
new text begin (d) A center must have an operable on-site flashlight for use in an emergency situation.
A cell phone may not be used to meet this requirement.
new text end
new text begin (e) A license holder must conduct fire drills every month and hold tornado drills monthly
from April 1 through September 30. Fire and tornado drills must be documented and include
the date of the drill, the start and end time of the drill, and the name of the program staff
person completing the documentation. Documentation must be maintained in the program's
administrative records.
new text end
new text begin (f) Primary and secondary exits and evacuation routes must remain unblocked.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries.new text end
new text begin (a) The policies and
procedures for emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) procedures for administering first aid;
new text end
new text begin (2) procedures for the daily inspection of potential hazards;
new text end
new text begin (3) procedures for fire prevention and procedures to follow in the event of a fire, persons
responsible for the evacuation of children and areas for which they are responsible, instruction
on how to use a fire extinguisher, and instructions on how to close off the fire area;
new text end
new text begin (4) procedures to follow when a child is missing, including when a school-age child
does not arrive at the center when expected after school;
new text end
new text begin (5) procedures to follow if a person who is unknown, unauthorized, incapacitated, or
suspected of abuse attempts to pick up a child or if no one comes to pick up a child. The
procedure must include a practice for verifying a person's identity;
new text end
new text begin (6) procedures for obtaining emergency medical care; and
new text end
new text begin (7) procedures for recording emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries involving a
child enrolled in the center. The written record must include:
new text end
new text begin (i) the name and age of the child involved;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the name of employees or volunteers present;
new text end
new text begin (iii) the date, time, and place of the emergency, accident, incident, or injury;
new text end
new text begin (iv) the type of injury;
new text end
new text begin (v) actions taken by staff; and
new text end
new text begin (vi) to whom the emergency, accident, incident, or injury was reported.
new text end
new text begin (b) At a minimum, the emergency, accident, incident, or injury must be reported in
writing to the parent and as otherwise required in section 142H.28.
new text end
new text begin (c) Each calendar year, the license holder must conduct an analysis of the emergencies,
accidents, incidents, and injuries that have been documented pursuant to paragraph (a),
clause (7). Documentation of the yearly analysis and any modification of the center's policies
based on the analysis must be maintained in the program's administrative records.
new text end
new text begin (d) The license holder must post a facility floor plan in a visible location in each classroom
and other areas in the facility where child care is provided. The posted floor plan in each
area must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) identification of primary and secondary exits;
new text end
new text begin (2) building evacuation routes;
new text end
new text begin (3) identification of tornado shelter and other shelter-in-place locations;
new text end
new text begin (4) identification of staff positions responsible for the evacuation or sheltering of children;
new text end
new text begin (5) the name and address of the designated relocation site; and
new text end
new text begin (6) phone numbers and sources of emergency medical services, the poison control center,
the fire department, and the department's licensing division.
new text end
new text begin (e) The license holder must ensure program staff are trained on the emergency, accident,
incident, and injury policies and procedures at orientation as required in section 142H.09
when changes are made to the policies and procedures and at least once each calendar year.
Training must be documented and maintained on site.
new text end
Sec. 25.
new text begin [142H.24] SUPERVISION AND RISK REDUCTION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Supervision; sight and hearing exceptions.new text end
new text begin (a) A child is still supervised
as defined in section 142H.01, subdivision 38, when:
new text end
new text begin (1) an infant is placed in a crib to sleep and a program staff person is within sight or
hearing of the infant pursuant to section 142H.12, subdivision 4;
new text end
new text begin (2) a single school-age child uses a restroom that is not available to the public when the
child care center is operating and serving children and a program staff person has knowledge
of the child's activity and location and checks on the child at least every five minutes. When
services are provided away from the child care facility, including but not limited to field
trips, a school-age child who uses a restroom that is available to the public must be
accompanied by a program staff person;
new text end
new text begin (3) a school-age child leaves the classroom but remains within the licensed child care
center space to deliver or retrieve items from the child's personal storage space and a program
staff person has knowledge of the child's activity and location and checks on the child at
least every five minutes; or
new text end
new text begin (4) a single preschool child uses an individual, private restroom within the classroom
with the door closed and a program staff person has knowledge of the child's activity and
location, can hear the child, and checks on the child at least every five minutes.
new text end
new text begin (b) A program must account for each exception in paragraph (a) in the risk reduction
plan under subdivision 2.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Risk reduction plan.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must develop a risk reduction plan
that identifies the general risks to children served by the child care center in a form and
manner prescribed by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must establish procedures to minimize identified risks, train staff
on the procedures, and review the procedures each calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (c) The risk reduction plan must include an assessment of risk to children the center
serves or intends to serve and identify specific risks based on the outcome of the assessment.
The assessment of risk must be composed of:
new text end
new text begin (1) an assessment of the risks presented by the facility where the licensed services are
provided, including an evaluation of:
new text end
new text begin (i) the condition and design of the facility and its outdoor space, bathrooms, and storage
areas;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the accessibility of medications and cleaning products that are harmful to children;
and
new text end
new text begin (iii) the existence of areas that are difficult to supervise, including restrooms with multiple
entrances; and
new text end
new text begin (2) an assessment of the risks presented by the environment for each facility and for
each site, including an evaluation of the type of grounds and terrain surrounding the building
and the proximity to hazards, busy roads, and publicly accessed businesses.
new text end
new text begin (d) The risk reduction plan must include a statement of measures that will be taken to
minimize the risk of harm presented to children for each risk identified in the assessment
under paragraph (c) related to the facility and environment.
new text end
new text begin (e) In addition to any program-specific risks identified in paragraph (c), the plan must
include specific policies and procedures that minimize the risk of harm or injury to children,
including from:
new text end
new text begin (1) closing children's fingers in doors, including cabinet doors;
new text end
new text begin (2) leaving children in the community without supervision;
new text end
new text begin (3) children leaving the facility without supervision;
new text end
new text begin (4) dislocation of children's elbows by program staff pulling or lifting children by the
hands or wrists or swinging by the arms;
new text end
new text begin (5) burns, including from hot food or beverages, whether served to children or being
consumed by program staff, and devices used to warm food and beverages;
new text end
new text begin (6) injuries from equipment, such as scissors and glue guns;
new text end
new text begin (7) sunburn;
new text end
new text begin (8) feeding children foods to which they are allergic;
new text end
new text begin (9) children falling from changing tables;
new text end
new text begin (10) children accessing dangerous items or chemicals or coming into contact with residue
from harmful cleaning products;
new text end
new text begin (11) traffic and pedestrian accidents, including when walking with children on
neighborhood walks, to an off-site outdoor play area, or in areas with heavy traffic or difficult
terrain such as railroad tracks; and
new text end
new text begin (12) children choking or suffocating.
new text end
new text begin (f) The plan must ensure hazardous objects as defined in section 142H.34, subdivision
17, are inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin (g) The plan must include specific policies and procedures to ensure adequate supervision
of children at all times as defined in subdivision 1 and section 142H.01, subdivision 38,
and pursuant to the staffing requirements of section 142H.10, subdivision 1, with particular
emphasis on:
new text end
new text begin (1) times when children are transitioned from one area within the facility to another,
including the use of a name-to-face check during transition time;
new text end
new text begin (2) nap-time supervision, including infant sleep supervision;
new text end
new text begin (3) child arrival and departure times, including when children arrive or depart from the
center by bus;
new text end
new text begin (4) supervision during outdoor play, outdoor learning activities, and community activities,
including but not limited to field trips and neighborhood walks;
new text end
new text begin (5) supervision of children in hallways;
new text end
new text begin (6) supervision of preschool children when using an individual private restroom within
the classroom; and
new text end
new text begin (7) supervision of school-age children when using the restroom and visiting the child's
personal storage space.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Yearly review of risk reduction plan.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must review the
risk reduction plan each calendar year and document the review.
new text end
new text begin (b) When conducting the review, the license holder must consider incidents that have
occurred in the center since the last review, including:
new text end
new text begin (1) incidents covered by the assessment factors in subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) the internal reviews conducted under section 142H.36, if any;
new text end
new text begin (3) substantiated maltreatment findings, if any; and
new text end
new text begin (4) any other incidents that caused injury or harm to a child.
new text end
new text begin (c) Within ten days following any change to the risk reduction plan, the license holder
must train program staff on the change and document that the staff were trained on the
change.
new text end
Sec. 26.
new text begin [142H.25] CENTER ADMINISTRATIVE RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin (a) In addition to the personnel records requirements under section 142B.03, subdivision
1, paragraph (a), a center must maintain the following records:
new text end
new text begin (1) a record of the information given to parents specified in section 142H.20;
new text end
new text begin (2) the personnel records specified in section 142H.26;
new text end
new text begin (3) the children's records specified in section 142H.27;
new text end
new text begin (4) health consultant reviews of the center's health policies and practices as specified in
section 142H.29, subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (5) the child care program plan specified in section 142H.11;
new text end
new text begin (6) the emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries records specified in section
142H.23, subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (7) the child separation reports mandated in section 142H.13;
new text end
new text begin (8) daily center and classroom attendance records specified in section 142H.30; and
new text end
new text begin (9) staffing schedules.
new text end
new text begin (b) The requirements in section 142B.03, subdivisions 1 and 2, apply to records retained
pursuant to this section.
new text end
Sec. 27.
new text begin [142H.26] PERSONNEL RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin A license holder must maintain a current personnel record for each program staff person
in a manner prescribed by the commissioner and consistent with section 142B.03. The
personnel record for each program staff person must contain:
new text end
new text begin (1) the program staff person's name, home address, telephone number, date of birth, and
emergency contact information;
new text end
new text begin (2) the program staff person's first date of direct contact and first date of unsupervised
direct contact with a child;
new text end
new text begin (3) documentation indicating that the program staff person meets the requirements of
the staff person's job in sections 142H.05 to 142H.08; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the program staff person's hire date and last day of employment, as applicable.
new text end
Sec. 28.
new text begin [142H.27] CHILDREN'S RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Requirements.new text end
new text begin Prior to or on the day of enrollment in the center, the
license holder must maintain a record on site for each child served by the program. The
record must contain:
new text end
new text begin (1) the child's full name, date of birth, and current home address;
new text end
new text begin (2) the child's date of enrollment in the program;
new text end
new text begin (3) the name, address, and telephone number of the child's parent;
new text end
new text begin (4) the name and telephone number of at least one emergency contact person who can
be contacted if a parent cannot be reached in an emergency or when there is an injury
requiring medical attention;
new text end
new text begin (5) the names and telephone numbers of any additional persons authorized by the parent
to pick up the child from the center;
new text end
new text begin (6) the child's health and immunization information required by section 142H.29,
subdivisions 3 and 4;
new text end
new text begin (7) written authorization for the license holder to act in an emergency or when a parent
or designee cannot be reached or is delayed;
new text end
new text begin (8) the hours and days of the week the child will attend the center;
new text end
new text begin (9) for infants and toddlers, a description of the child's eating, sleeping, toileting, and
communication habits and effective methods for comforting the child;
new text end
new text begin (10) documentation of any dietary or medical needs of the child;
new text end
new text begin (11) documentation of a child's individual child care program plan as required by section
142H.15; and
new text end
new text begin (12) the date of parent conferences and a summary of the information provided to the
parent at the conferences.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Disclosure.new text end
new text begin The license holder must not disclose a child's record to any person
other than the child, the child's parent, the child's legal representative, employees of the
license holder, or the commissioner unless the child's parent has given written consent. This
subdivision does not apply to information needed by a first responder in the case of an
emergency.
new text end
Sec. 29.
new text begin [142H.28] REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Maltreatment, abuse, and neglect reporting.new text end
new text begin The license holder must
comply with the reporting requirements for abuse and neglect specified in chapter 260E.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Other reporting.new text end
new text begin Within 24 hours, the license holder must notify the
commissioner of the following in a manner prescribed by the commissioner:
new text end
new text begin (1) of the death or notification of the death of a child enrolled in the center as required
under section 142B.10, subdivision 24;
new text end
new text begin (2) of the occurrence or notification of any injury to a child in care in the program that
required treatment by a dentist or health care provider as defined in section 142H.01,
subdivision 22. Treatment does not include application of or recommendation to use
nonprescription medication or diagnostic testing;
new text end
new text begin (3) of the occurrence of structural damage to the building or a fire that requires the
service of a fire department; and
new text end
new text begin (4) of the provision of any emergency medical service to a child while in care.
new text end
Sec. 30.
new text begin [142H.29] HEALTH.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Health policies.new text end
new text begin An applicant must develop written health policies
approved by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Health consultation.new text end
new text begin (a) The center must have a health consultant as defined
in section 142H.01, subdivision 23, review the center's health policies and practices in
person and certify that the policies and practices are adequate to protect the health of children
in care.
new text end
new text begin (b) The health consultant's review, including an on-site visit, must be done before initial
licensure and must be repeated each calendar year.
new text end
new text begin (c) For programs serving infants, an in-person review must be done before initial licensure
and at least quarterly thereafter. At least every other quarter, a health consultant may conduct
the health review visit virtually.
new text end
new text begin (d) A health consultant must review the center's health policies and practices before
implementing a change in the center's health policies or practices and after an outbreak of
a contagious reportable illness as specified in Minnesota Rules, parts 4605.7040, 4605.7050,
and 4605.7080.
new text end
new text begin (e) The consultant must review and approve:
new text end
new text begin (1) the emergencies, accidents, incidents, and injuries policies and procedures required
by section 142H.23, subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) the diapering procedures and practices specified in subdivision 6;
new text end
new text begin (3) the programs' cleaning and disinfecting products and procedures; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the sanitation procedures and practices for food catered in or provided by the child's
parent as specified in section 142H.32, subdivision 6, and for infants as specified in section
142H.32, subdivision 11.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Health information at admission.new text end
new text begin Before a child is admitted to a center or
within 30 days of admission, the license holder must obtain a report on a current physical
examination of the child signed by the child's health care provider.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Immunizations.new text end
new text begin (a) Before a child is admitted to a center, the license holder
must obtain documentation of current immunization records according to section 121A.15
and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4604; a signed notarized statement of parental objection to
the immunization; or a medical exemption. The license holder must maintain record of
current immunizations, a signed notarized statement of parental objection to the
immunization, or a medical exemption throughout the child's enrollment at the center.
new text end
new text begin (b) License holders must file an immunization report each calendar year with the
Department of Health, as required under the Minnesota School and Child Care Immunization
Law, section 121A.15, subdivision 8, and Minnesota Rules, part 4604.0410.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Administration of medication.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder that administers medication
must:
new text end
new text begin (1) get written permission from the child's parent before administering medication;
new text end
new text begin (2) get written permission from the child's parent before administering items that may
be applied externally, including but not limited to diapering products, sunscreen lotions,
hand sanitizer, lip balm, body lotion, and insect repellents. Items under this clause must be
administered according to the manufacturer's instructions unless a dentist or health care
provider gives alternative written instructions;
new text end
new text begin (3) get and follow written instructions from a dentist or a health care provider before
administering each prescription. Medication with the child's name and current prescription
information on the label constitutes instructions;
new text end
new text begin (4) follow written dosage instructions from a child's parent or health care provider for
over-the-counter medication that is intended to be ingested and does not include dosage
information within the manufacturer's instructions;
new text end
new text begin (5) keep all medication in its original container and have a legible label stating the child's
first and last name. The medication must be given only to the child whose name is on the
label, unless as described in paragraph (b);
new text end
new text begin (6) not give medication after an expiration date on the label, return any unused portion
to the child's parent if possible, and destroy any unused portion that cannot be returned;
new text end
new text begin (7) document the administration of any ingested nonprescription medication and all
prescription medication. The documentation must include the first and last name of the
child, name of the medication or prescription number, date, time, dosage, and printed name
and signature or initials of the person who administered the medication. This documentation
must be available to the parent and maintained in the child's record;
new text end
new text begin (8) store all medications, insect repellents, sunscreen lotions, and diaper rash control
products according to directions on the original container and in a place inaccessible to
children; and
new text end
new text begin (9) not use herbal remedies and essential oils, unless prescribed or recommended by a
dentist or a health care provider. If these are administered, they must be administered in
compliance with the requirements of this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (b) Sunscreen lotions and insect repellents supplied by the license holder may be used
on more than one child and must be labeled for use for all children. A product to control or
prevent diaper rash, including premoistened commercial wipes that cannot be dispensed in
a manner that prevents cross contamination of the product and container as determined by
the health consultant, must be labeled with the child's first and last name and used only for
the individual child whose name is written on the label.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Diapers, changing areas, and disposal.new text end
new text begin Sanitary diaper procedures must be
used to reduce the spread of communicable disease. A license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) make an adequate supply of clean diapers available for each child and store the
diapers in a clean place;
new text end
new text begin (2) change diapers following the diaper changing procedure reviewed and approved by
the center's health consultant pursuant to subdivision 2, paragraph (e), clause (2);
new text end
new text begin (3) post diaper changing procedures reviewed and certified by the center's health
consultant in the diaper changing area;
new text end
new text begin (4) keep children in diapers clean and dry. Diapers and clothing must be changed
immediately or as soon as practicable when wet or soiled. Soiled clothing must be placed
in a plastic bag and sent home with the parent daily;
new text end
new text begin (5) use single-service wipes for cleaning a wet or soiled child;
new text end
new text begin (6) clean and disinfect changing tables and changing pads between children;
new text end
new text begin (7) use smooth, nonabsorbent surfaces for the diaper changing area and flooring;
new text end
new text begin (8) require the program staff person to maintain a hand on the child at all times during
diapering. Children must not be left unattended on the changing table;
new text end
new text begin (9) clean and disinfect diaper changing areas, including but not limited to counters, sinks,
and floors, daily or immediately when soiled;
new text end
new text begin (10) keep a covered diaper disposal receptacle lined with a disposable plastic bag in the
diaper changing area. Diapers cannot be disposed of in a kitchen disposal area;
new text end
new text begin (11) empty, clean, and disinfect diaper receptacles daily or more often as needed; and
new text end
new text begin (12) only change a diaper in the diaper changing area. The diaper changing area must
be separate from areas used for food storage, food preparation, and eating.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Hand washing; child.new text end
new text begin (a) A child's hands must be washed with soap and water
after a diaper change, after use of a toilet or toilet training chair, and immediately before
eating a meal or snack.
new text end
new text begin (b) Program staff must monitor hand washing and assist a child who needs help.
new text end
new text begin (c) The use of a common basin or a hand sink filled with standing water is prohibited.
new text end
new text begin (d) Hands must be dried on a single-use towel or warm air hand dryer. The use of a
common or shared cloth or towel is prohibited.
new text end
new text begin (e) In sinks accessible to children, the water temperature must not exceed 120 degrees
Fahrenheit to prevent children from scalding themselves while washing.
new text end
new text begin (f) A hand sanitizer with at least 60 percent alcohol may be used to clean a child's hands
when soap and water are unavailable.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Hand washing; program staff.new text end
new text begin Program staff must wash their hands with soap
and water after changing a child's diaper, after assisting a child on the toilet, after washing
the diapering surface, after using toilet facilities, and before handling food or eating. Hands
must be dried on a single-use towel or warm air hand dryer. The use of a common or shared
cloth or towel is prohibited. Program staff may use a hand sanitizer with at least 60 percent
alcohol when soap and water are unavailable.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin First aid kit.new text end
new text begin The license holder must have a first aid kit that is accessible in
the center at all times and whenever children are off site that includes:
new text end
new text begin (1) adhesive bandages in assorted sizes and tape;
new text end
new text begin (2) sterile compresses;
new text end
new text begin (3) elastic bandage wrap;
new text end
new text begin (4) scissors;
new text end
new text begin (5) ice bag or cold pack;
new text end
new text begin (6) digital thermometer;
new text end
new text begin (7) mild liquid soap or hand sanitizer that is at least 60 percent alcohol;
new text end
new text begin (8) bottled water;
new text end
new text begin (9) disposable powder-free, latex-free gloves;
new text end
new text begin (10) face shield or protective barrier for giving CPR; and
new text end
new text begin (11) first aid instructions.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Handling and disposal of bodily fluids.new text end
new text begin A license holder must comply with
the following procedures for safely handling and disposing of bodily fluids:
new text end
new text begin (1) surfaces that come in contact with urine, feces, vomit, and blood must be cleaned
and disinfected;
new text end
new text begin (2) blood-contaminated material must be disposed of in a plastic bag with a secure tie;
new text end
new text begin (3) sharp items used for a child with special care needs must be disposed of in a sharps
container. The sharps container must be inaccessible to a child when stored;
new text end
new text begin (4) the license holder must have bodily fluid disposal supplies in the center, including
disposable gloves, disposal bags, and eye protection; and
new text end
new text begin (5) each employee and volunteer must follow universal precautions to reduce the risk
of spreading infectious disease.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Tobacco products, vaping, drugs, and alcohol use prohibitions.new text end
new text begin (a) A
license holder must comply with the drug and alcohol policy requirements in section 142B.10,
subdivision 1, paragraph (c), including ensuring that no employee, subcontractor, or volunteer
is under the influence of a chemical that impairs the individual's ability to provide services
or care.
new text end
new text begin (b) The possession or use of marijuana, products containing THC, alcohol, and illegal
drugs is prohibited on the premises of the program during operating hours, including all
indoor and outdoor licensed program environments and in any vehicles used by the program.
new text end
new text begin (c) The use of tobacco products, vaping devices, and electronic cigarettes is prohibited
indoors, in vehicles used by the program, and in outdoor areas where children are present.
new text end
new text begin (d) The license holder must post in a prominent location at the main entrance of the
center a notice stating that use of tobacco products is prohibited inside the building and in
outdoor areas where children are present.
new text end
Sec. 31.
new text begin [142H.30] ATTENDANCE RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Attendance records.new text end
new text begin A child care center must maintain documentation
of actual attendance for each child receiving care. The records must be accessible to the
commissioner during the program's hours of operation, be completed on the actual day of
attendance, and include:
new text end
new text begin (1) the first and last name of the child;
new text end
new text begin (2) the time of day that the child was dropped off; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the time of day that the child was picked up.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Daily classroom tracking.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must ensure that program staff
track children in their classroom on a daily basis to ensure the center has an active roster
of children present in their classroom.
new text end
new text begin (b) Children must be tracked as they arrive in and depart from the classroom.
new text end
new text begin (c) Tracking must include the first and last name of each child.
new text end
new text begin (d) The classroom tracking documentation must remain with each group at all times
throughout the day including outdoor play, emergency evacuations, field trips, and when
groups are combined.
new text end
Sec. 32.
new text begin [142H.31] CLEANING, SANITIZING, AND DISINFECTING.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Products and procedures.new text end
new text begin Cleaning and disinfecting must be done in
accordance with policies, procedures, and products approved by the program's health
consultant as specified in section 142H.29, subdivision 2.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Indoor and outdoor equipment.new text end
new text begin (a) The indoor and outdoor space and
equipment of the program must be clean.
new text end
new text begin (b) Natural elements and materials used as equipment and play materials under section
142H.141; natural features used for outdoor play under section 142H.34, subdivision 7,
paragraph (h); and play materials used in outdoor settings are exempt from being clean, as
defined under section 142H.01, subdivision 12. A program staff person must inspect natural
elements and materials, natural features, and play materials used for outdoor play for
hazardous objects and other safety hazards, including animal feces, and remove or mitigate
the hazard before a child's use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Pacifiers.new text end
new text begin Pacifiers must be labeled with each child's name or other individual
identifier and stored separately.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Cleaning frequency.new text end
new text begin The license holder must develop and follow a cleaning
schedule that requires:
new text end
new text begin (1) cleaning and sanitizing food preparation areas, tables, high chairs, and food service
counters before and after each meal and snack. Sanitizing must be done by using an
Environmental Protection Agency-registered sanitizer or a bleach solution or by heating to
temperatures sufficient to destroy most germs, pursuant to guidelines from the commissioner
of health on infectious diseases in child care settings;
new text end
new text begin (2) cleaning and sanitizing items that have been inside a child's mouth or come into
contact with bodily fluids prior to being used by another child;
new text end
new text begin (3) cleaning sleeping equipment and bedding, including:
new text end
new text begin (i) washing bedding used by a child before being used by another child;
new text end
new text begin (ii) washing bedding used by the same child weekly or when soiled;
new text end
new text begin (iii) cleaning and disinfecting sleeping equipment used by a child before being used by
another child; and
new text end
new text begin (iv) cleaning and disinfecting sleeping equipment used by the same child weekly or
when soiled;
new text end
new text begin (4) cleaning toileting areas daily, including:
new text end
new text begin (i) emptying and disinfecting toilet training chairs after each use; and
new text end
new text begin (ii) disinfecting toilets and seats when soiled or at least daily; and
new text end
new text begin (5) emptying garbage cans and diaper receptacles on a daily basis and cleaning and
disinfecting the cans and receptacles as needed.
new text end
Sec. 33.
new text begin [142H.32] FOOD, DRINKING WATER, AND NUTRITION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin On-site food preparation.new text end
new text begin A license holder that prepares, handles, or
serves food or washes food, utensils, or equipment on site must comply with applicable
requirements for food and beverage service establishments in chapter 157 and Minnesota
Rules, chapter 4626, and local health department requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Off-site food preparation.new text end
new text begin (a) Meals or snacks may be provided by an off-site,
licensed food and beverage service establishment.
new text end
new text begin (b) The center must maintain on file a copy of the off-site food and beverage service
establishment's current license and the contract to provide food for the center.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Providing food.new text end
new text begin A license holder must provide meals and snacks to the children
in attendance. The license holder must supplement food provided by the parent if it does
not meet United States Department of Agriculture Child and Adult Care Food Program
(CACFP) nutritional requirements.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Drinking water.new text end
new text begin (a) The center must have a safe supply of drinking water
pursuant to section 142H.35.
new text end
new text begin (b) Drinking water must be available to children throughout the hours of operation and
offered at frequent intervals. Drinking water for children must be provided in single-service
drinking cups, in reusable water bottles, in reusable cups, or from drinking fountains
accessible to children.
new text end
new text begin (c) A license holder may provide drinking water to a child in a reusable water bottle or
reusable cup if the center develops and ensures implementation of a written policy that at
a minimum includes the following procedures:
new text end
new text begin (1) each day the water bottle or cup is used, the license holder must clean the water bottle
or cup or allow the child's parent to bring the water bottle or cup home to clean it;
new text end
new text begin (2) a water bottle or cup must be assigned to a specific child and labeled with the child's
first and last name;
new text end
new text begin (3) water bottles and cups must be stored in a manner that reduces the risk of a child
using the wrong water bottle or cup; and
new text end
new text begin (4) a water bottle or cup must be used only for water.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Menus.new text end
new text begin The license holder must ensure:
new text end
new text begin (1) meals and snacks prepared or provided by the license holder or catered by a licensed
food and beverage caterer comply with the meal pattern and nutritional requirements
contained in the most current edition of the CACFP standards in Code of Federal Regulations,
title 7, section 226.20;
new text end
new text begin (2) menus comply with the meal pattern and nutritional requirements contained in the
most current edition of the CACFP standards in Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, section
226.20;
new text end
new text begin (3) the current menu is posted or made readily available to parents; and
new text end
new text begin (4) any food substitutions are noted on the menu at the time of the change.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Sanitation.new text end
new text begin (a) Procedures for preparing, handling, storing, and serving food
and washing food, utensils, and equipment must comply with the requirements for food and
beverage establishments in Minnesota Rules, chapter 4626.
new text end
new text begin (b) If the food is prepared off site by another facility or if food service is provided
according to a contract with a food service provider, the facility or license holder must
ensure that food is prepared in compliance with Minnesota Rules, chapter 4626.
new text end
new text begin (c) The license holder must provide refrigeration for dairy products and other perishable
foods, whether supplied by the license holder or supplied by the parent. The refrigeration
must have a temperature of 41 degrees Fahrenheit or less.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Meals and snacks.new text end
new text begin Except for infants under subdivision 11, the license holder
must serve meals and snacks to children as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) one snack for a child in attendance for two to five hours;
new text end
new text begin (2) one meal and two snacks or two meals and one snack for a child in attendance for
five to ten hours;
new text end
new text begin (3) a minimum of two meals and two snacks for a child in attendance for more than ten
hours; and
new text end
new text begin (4) a minimum of three meals and two snacks for a child in attendance for more than 14
hours.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Prescribed diet requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) If a child is unable to follow the CACFP
meal pattern requirements due to a diet-related medical condition, a prescribed diet
accommodation is required.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must obtain documentation from the child's health care provider
about the child's special dietary needs and keep that information current. The license holder
must use this information to accommodate the child's dietary needs.
new text end
new text begin (c) When a license holder enrolls a child who requires a prescribed diet, the license
holder must ensure that an individual child care program plan is developed and maintained
in the child's record, pursuant to sections 142H.15, subdivision 3, and 142H.27.
new text end
new text begin (d) The license holder must provide for a child's prescribed dietary needs or require the
parent to provide the prescribed diet items that are not part of the center's menu plan.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Cultural or religious diet accommodations.new text end
new text begin (a) When special diets are
requested for cultural or religious reasons, the center must obtain written, dated, and signed
instructions from the child's parent on how to accommodate the diet.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must provide for a child's special diet for cultural or religious
reasons or require the parent to provide the food items that are not part of the center's menu
plan.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Food allergy information.new text end
new text begin Information about food allergies of the children
in the center must follow the requirements in section 142H.15, subdivision 5.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Infant food and feeding schedule.new text end
new text begin The diet and feeding schedule of an infant
must be determined by the infant's parent. The license holder of a center serving infants
must:
new text end
new text begin (1) obtain written dietary instructions from the parent of the child that are used to develop
the infant's feeding schedule and are updated as needed as the child's feeding needs change;
new text end
new text begin (2) have each individual infant's feeding schedule available in the food preparation area;
new text end
new text begin (3) offer the child formula or milk and nutritionally adequate solid foods in quantities
at specified time intervals as determined by the parent;
new text end
new text begin (4) ensure infants are held or fed sitting up for bottled feedings until the infant can
independently sit up and feed themselves. A bottle must not be propped at any time for an
infant or fed to an infant in a crib, infant seat, or playpen;
new text end
new text begin (5) use sanitary procedures and practices to prepare, handle, and store formula, milk,
breast milk, solid foods, and supplements, including having procedures to ensure bottles
are matched to the correct infant. Procedures must be reviewed and certified by a health
consultant;
new text end
new text begin (6) not warm or heat bottles in a microwave;
new text end
new text begin (7) not allow children access to bottle-warming devices; and
new text end
new text begin (8) label all bottles, breast milk, or prepared parent-provided food with the child's first
and last name and date of preparation. All formula must be refrigerated immediately after
preparation or upon arrival if the formula is prepared by the parent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Additional requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) The center must serve food that is not a choking
hazard and that is developmentally appropriate in size, amount, and texture.
new text end
new text begin (b) Program staff must be seated with the children during meal and snack times.
new text end
Sec. 34.
new text begin [142H.33] TRANSPORTATION AND FIELD TRIP REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Requirements.new text end
new text begin A license holder that provides transportation for children
or that takes children off site must comply with the requirements in this section.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Driver requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) A driver who transports children for a license holder
must:
new text end
new text begin (1) be at least 18 years old;
new text end
new text begin (2) hold a current and valid driver's license appropriate to the vehicle used to transport
children;
new text end
new text begin (3) have a copy of the driver's current driver's license on file at the center;
new text end
new text begin (4) be free from the influence of any substance that could impair driving abilities; and
new text end
new text begin (5) follow seat belt and child passenger restraint system requirements under sections
169.685 and 169.686.
new text end
new text begin (b) Parents who are not employed by the center who use personal vehicles for
transportation to occasional field trips do not have to meet the requirements of paragraph
(a), clause (3). For the purposes of this subdivision, "occasional" means three or fewer times
per calendar year.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Requirements during transportation.new text end
new text begin (a) One program staff is required per
vehicle when transporting school-age children. Two program staff are required per vehicle
when transporting infants, toddlers, and preschoolers. An additional program staff person
is required in the vehicle if there are 12 or more infants and toddlers. The driver of the
vehicle is considered a program staff person, unless the driver is employed by a contractor
or third party.
new text end
new text begin (b) A two-way communication system and first aid kit must be present in the vehicle
during transportation.
new text end
new text begin (c) Once children have exited, the vehicle must be checked to ensure that no child has
been left in the vehicle.
new text end
new text begin (d) When the license holder provides transportation to and from the center, children
must not be transported more than one hour per one-way trip.
new text end
new text begin (e) When children board or exit the vehicle, the license holder must ensure that each
child safely boards and exits the vehicle from the curb side of the street whenever physically
possible and out of the path of moving vehicles.
new text end
new text begin (f) Drop off or pick up must be conducted in a safe manner with supervision by the
program staff responsible for the child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Field trip requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) For the purposes of this section, a field trip is
defined as any time the center takes children off the property, including routine outings
such as walking around the neighborhood. A center providing transportation for children
to and from the center is not considered a field trip.
new text end
new text begin (b) Staff-to-child ratios must be maintained on all field trips.
new text end
new text begin (c) Written permission must be obtained from each child's parent before taking a child
on a field trip. The written permission form must be obtained before each field trip or on a
form that yearly summarizes all field trips that will be taken. The permission forms must
be kept on file at the center.
new text end
new text begin (d) The parent's written permission form must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) the date and destination of the field trip;
new text end
new text begin (2) the times of departure from and return to the facility;
new text end
new text begin (3) the method of transportation; and
new text end
new text begin (4) if the method of transportation is walking, an estimated total distance of the walk.
new text end
new text begin (e) Unscheduled neighborhood walks may be taken, provided the program has obtained
advance written parental permission for the general plan for neighborhood walks.
new text end
new text begin (f) A child care program that includes daily or regular off-site outdoor activities in its
child care program plan may use an annual permission form for these activities. Parents
must be informed of specific destinations and any substantial changes to the general plan
outlined in the annual permission form through the child care program's regular
communication methods. The annual permission form must include the following
information:
new text end
new text begin (1) the general geographic area or areas where the off-site outdoor activities will occur;
new text end
new text begin (2) the general hours during which off-site activities may occur;
new text end
new text begin (3) the typical method of transportation; and
new text end
new text begin (4) the typical maximum distance of walks, if the method of transportation is walking.
new text end
new text begin (g) When centers take children on a walk or field trip, program staff must bring:
new text end
new text begin (1) a first aid kit as required under section 142H.29, subdivision 9;
new text end
new text begin (2) a child's allergy information as required under section 142H.15, including the
individual child care program plan;
new text end
new text begin (3) the name and telephone number of each child's parent and at least one emergency
contact person;
new text end
new text begin (4) medication and supplies needed for a child who has a health condition that could
need medication, special procedures, or precautions during the course of the trip; and
new text end
new text begin (5) a working cell phone or other means of immediate communication.
new text end
Sec. 35.
new text begin [142H.34] FACILITY.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Occupancy designation.new text end
new text begin (a) At initial licensure, an applicant must
demonstrate compliance with the standards specified by the State Building Code and any
applicable local building ordinances.
new text end
new text begin (b) Prior to the child care facility being remodeled, substantially improved, renovated,
or reconstructed, the license holder must verify whether approval from the applicable state
or local building officials is needed. If needed, the license holder must obtain written
verification of compliance with the State Building Code and any applicable local building
ordinances.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Fire inspection.new text end
new text begin (a) The center must be inspected by a fire marshal within 12
months prior to initial licensure. The commissioner must not grant an initial license until
receiving written approval of compliance with the State Fire Code from the fire marshal
with jurisdiction.
new text end
new text begin (b) Pursuant to the time frames in paragraph (d), the center must have a fire inspection
at least once every five calendar years from the date of the last fire inspection report. The
fire inspection must include written approval of compliance with the State Fire Code from
the fire marshal with jurisdiction.
new text end
new text begin (c) Prior to the use of any areas of the structure not previously inspected and approved
for child care use, the center must:
new text end
new text begin (1) receive written confirmation from the state fire marshal that approval from the state
fire marshal is not needed; or
new text end
new text begin (2) conduct a fire inspection, which must include written approval of compliance with
the State Fire Code from the fire marshal with jurisdiction.
new text end
new text begin (d) For centers holding a valid license as of July 1, 2029:
new text end
new text begin (1) centers initially licensed before January 1, 1998, must meet the requirement under
paragraph (b) no later than July 1, 2029;
new text end
new text begin (2) centers initially licensed on or after January 1, 1998, but before January 1, 2013,
must meet the requirement under paragraph (b) no later than July 1, 2030;
new text end
new text begin (3) centers initially licensed on or after January 1, 2013, but before January 1, 2021,
must meet the requirement under paragraph (b) no later than July 1, 2031; and
new text end
new text begin (4) centers initially licensed on or after January 1, 2021, must meet the requirement
under paragraph (b) no later than July 1, 2032.
new text end
new text begin (e) Centers that have already completed a fire inspection within five years of July 1,
2029, are exempt from paragraph (d).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Reinspection for cause.new text end
new text begin If the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe
that a potential hazard exists or the license holder is operating out of compliance with
applicable codes, the commissioner may request another inspection and written report by
a fire marshal, building official, or health authority.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Facility floor plan and designated areas.new text end
new text begin (a) Indoor and outdoor space to be
used for child care must be designated on a facility floor plan.
new text end
new text begin (b) Space designated on a facility floor plan must be exclusively used for child care by
the center during the hours of operation.
new text end
new text begin (c) The initial application for licensure and the center's administrative record must contain
a floor plan of the center. Precise scale drawings are not required. The plan must indicate:
new text end
new text begin (1) the dimensions and location of all areas of the center designated for the provision of
child care including planned use of each area; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the size and location of areas used for outdoor activity.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Child's personal storage space.new text end
new text begin A center must have storage space for each
child's clothing and personal belongings. The space must be at a height appropriate for the
age of the child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Space for children who become sick.new text end
new text begin (a) Space must be provided in the center
for a child who becomes sick at a center not licensed to operate a sick care program under
section 142H.19.
new text end
new text begin (b) The space must be separate from activity areas used by other children but may still
be within the classroom.
new text end
new text begin (c) A cot, mat, or crib and blanket must be provided as appropriate to the developmental
level of the child.
new text end
new text begin (d) The space must be supervised by a program staff person when occupied by a sick
child.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Outdoor learning environment and play space.new text end
new text begin (a) A center must provide
or have available an outdoor activity area that complies with this subdivision unless licensed
to exclusively provide night care as specified under section 142H.16, licensed to provide
drop-in care as specified under section 142H.17, licensed to provide sick care as specified
under section 142H.19, or operating for fewer than three hours a day.
new text end
new text begin (b) A center must have an outdoor activity area of at least 1,500 square feet, and there
must be at least 75 square feet of space per child within the outdoor play area at any given
time during use.
new text end
new text begin (c) The outdoor activity area must be enclosed if it is located adjacent to a hazard,
including but not limited to traffic, rail, water, or machinery, unless the area is a public park
or playground.
new text end
new text begin (d) An outdoor activity area used daily by children under school age must be within
2,000 feet of the center or transportation must be provided by the license holder. The outdoor
activity area must not be farther than one-half mile from the center.
new text end
new text begin (e) The area must contain the outdoor equipment required under section 142H.14.
new text end
new text begin (f) The play area must be free of potential hazards, including but not limited to broken
glass, toxic materials, machinery, unlocked vehicles, feces, and sewage contaminants.
new text end
new text begin (g) An energy-absorbing surface is required under installed climbing equipment, swings,
and slides. An energy-absorbing surface can be loose sand, pea gravel, or mulch in a depth
of at least nine inches; any material that meets ASTM F1292 specifications; or shredded
rubber and poured energy-absorbing surfacing installed to manufacturer's specifications
based on the height of the equipment. A fall zone is required around the equipment.
new text end
new text begin (h) Natural features used for outdoor play that are not installed as equipment are not
subject to the requirements of paragraph (g). When a child uses natural features for outdoor
play, a program staff person must remove hazardous objects as specified in subdivision 17
and mitigate hazards whenever possible from the surrounding area where children might
fall. Natural features used for outdoor play must be appropriate to the age and size of children,
in safe condition, and used under the supervision of a program staff person.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Indoor space.new text end
new text begin A center must have a minimum of 35 square feet of indoor space
available per child in attendance. Hallways, stairways, closets, utility rooms, restrooms,
kitchens, and space occupied by cribs are not indoor space for the purposes of this
subdivision. Twenty-five percent of the space occupied by furniture or equipment used by
staff or children may be counted as indoor space.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Shielding of hot surfaces.new text end
new text begin Heating appliances must be installed and maintained
in accordance with the manufacturer's instruction and the State Building Code. Radiators,
fireplaces, hot pipes, and other hot surfaces in areas used by children must be shielded or
insulated to prevent burns.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Electrical outlets.new text end
new text begin Except in a center that serves only school-age children,
electrical outlets must be tamper proof or shielded when not in use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Water hazards.new text end
new text begin Bodies of water within or adjacent to the center must be
inaccessible to children. When using a pool or beach, children must be supervised at all
times.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Room temperature.new text end
new text begin An indoor temperature of 68 degrees Fahrenheit to 82
degrees Fahrenheit must be maintained in all rooms used by children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Hazardous areas.new text end
new text begin Kitchens, stairs, and other hazardous areas must be
inaccessible to children except during periods of supervised use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Fire extinguisher inspection.new text end
new text begin Fire extinguishers must be serviced by a qualified
inspector at least once every 365 days. The name of the inspector and date of the inspection
must be written on a tag attached to the extinguisher.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Toilet articles. new text end
new text begin As needed, a license holder must provide and make available
toilet paper, liquid hand soap, facial tissues, and single-use paper towels or warm air hand
dryers.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 16.new text end
new text begin Toilets and hand sinks.new text end
new text begin (a) The center must have at least one hand sink for
every 15 children in the center's licensed capacity.
new text end
new text begin (b) The center must have at least one toilet for every 15 children, excluding infants, in
the center's licensed capacity. Toilet training chairs may be used for toddlers in lieu of a
toilet.
new text end
new text begin (c) The center must provide handwashing sinks within three feet of the diaper changing
surface. The sink must have hot and cold running water. In newly constructed centers or
those undergoing major remodeling to the plumbing system, foot- or wrist-operated sinks
must be provided in the diaper changing area.
new text end
new text begin (d) Any hand sink required for children other than infants must be in the toilet area. The
temperature of hot water in the hand sinks used by children must not exceed 120 degrees
Fahrenheit. Hand sinks for children must not be used for custodial work or food preparation,
including preparing infant bottles. Single-service towels or air dryers must be available to
dry hands and designed for easy use by children.
new text end
new text begin (e) Toilets, sinks, faucets, and hand-drying devices in the toilet area used by children
under school age other than infants must be placed at a height appropriate to the ages of the
children. A sturdy nonslip platform on which children may stand may be used to meet the
height requirement in this paragraph for toddlers and preschoolers.
new text end
new text begin (f) Plungers and toilet-cleaning devices must be inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 17.new text end
new text begin Hazardous objects.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must prevent children from
accessing hazardous objects, including any item that could reasonably cause injury, choking,
poisoning, burning, cutting, or other harm to a child, or any item designated by the
manufacturer to be stored out of reach of children.
new text end
new text begin (b) Activities that are part of the program plan may include the use of hazardous objects
when supervised by program staff.
new text end
new text begin (c) Supplies and materials used by children must be labeled "nontoxic" by the
manufacturer.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 18.new text end
new text begin Telephone.new text end
new text begin (a) A working telephone that is capable of making outgoing calls
and receiving incoming calls must be located within the licensed child care center at all
times. The telephone must be accessible to staff as needed and be sufficiently charged for
use at all times.
new text end
new text begin (b) Program staff must have access to a working telephone while providing care and
supervision to children in care outside of the child care facility.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 19.new text end
new text begin Animals.new text end
new text begin A license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) keep each animal housed in the program up to date on vaccines required for that
species under state law or local ordinance and maintain documentation of vaccinations, if
any;
new text end
new text begin (2) notify parents prior to their child's enrollment of the presence of animals in the
program, before new animals are housed, and prior to any animals visiting the program;
new text end
new text begin (3) not let children handle animals without adult supervision; and
new text end
new text begin (4) notify the parent of a child whose skin is broken by an animal bite or scratch or who
is otherwise injured by an animal in writing of the injury.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 20.new text end
new text begin Pest control.new text end
new text begin (a) Effective measures must be taken to protect the center against
rodents and insects. If rodents, insects, or other pests are found, the license holder must take
steps to remove or exterminate them. Chemicals, baits, and traps for insect and rodent control
must not be used in areas accessible to children when children are present and must be used
according to the manufacturer's instructions.
new text end
new text begin (b) Chemicals to control weeds, rodents, insects, and other pests must be used only after
other means have been used for control, such as eliminating harborages, removing access
to food, and sealing points of entry. These compounds must be used according to labeled
instructions. If chemicals are used, the license holder must notify the parents of enrolled
children what pesticide will be applied and where it will be applied no less than 48 hours
before application, unless in cases of emergency. Only approved, United States
Environmental Protection Agency-registered insecticides, rodenticides, and herbicides may
be used. Application must strictly follow all label instructions and must be authorized by
the director.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 21.new text end
new text begin Posting license.new text end
new text begin A license holder must post the license in a clearly visible
place within the child care center that is accessible to parents and guardians.
new text end
Sec. 36.
new text begin [142H.35] ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Water supply.new text end
new text begin A child care center must have a safe water supply. Child
care centers that obtain water from privately owned wells or sources must test any water
used for cooking or drinking by a Department of Health-certified laboratory to verify safety.
License holders must follow the lead testing requirements in section 145.9273.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Radon testing.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must notify parents whether radon testing
has been conducted in the program upon enrollment and within 30 days of any subsequent
testing done after enrollment.
new text end
new text begin (b) When notifying parents, the license holder must use a form prescribed by the
commissioner. The notice must include information from the Department of Health about
what radon is and the potential risks associated with radon exposure. If testing has been
completed, the notice must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) the date of the most recent test;
new text end
new text begin (2) the rooms or areas tested; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the detected radon level or levels, stated in picocuries per liter.
new text end
new text begin (c) A license holder must keep a copy of the most recent notice to parents and the radon
test results on site and make the notice and results available to parents and the commissioner
upon request. The provider may meet this requirement by posting the radon testing results
in a conspicuous place.
new text end
Sec. 37.
new text begin [142H.36] MALTREATMENT OF MINORS INTERNAL REVIEW.
new text end
new text begin If a license holder has reason to know that an internal or external report of alleged or
suspected maltreatment has been made, the license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) establish and maintain policies and procedures to ensure that an internal review is
completed within 30 calendar days and that corrective action is taken if necessary to protect
the health and safety of children in care. The review must include an evaluation of whether:
new text end
new text begin (i) related policies and procedures were followed;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the policies and procedures were adequate;
new text end
new text begin (iii) there is a need for additional staff training;
new text end
new text begin (iv) the reported event is similar to past events with the children or the services involved;
and
new text end
new text begin (v) there is a need for corrective action by the license holder to protect the health and
safety of children in care;
new text end
new text begin (2) develop, document, and implement a corrective action plan designed to correct any
current lapses and prevent future lapses in performance by individuals or the license holder,
based on the results of the review;
new text end
new text begin (3) identify the primary and secondary person or position who will ensure that, when
required, internal reviews are completed. The secondary person must be involved when
there is reason to believe that the primary person was involved in the alleged or suspected
maltreatment; and
new text end
new text begin (4) document and make internal reviews accessible to the commissioner immediately
upon the commissioner's request. For the purposes of this section, the documentation provided
to the commissioner by the license holder may consist of a completed checklist that verifies
completion of each of the requirements of the review.
new text end
Sec. 38.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245A.211, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1.
Applicability.
This section applies to all programs licensed or certified
under this chapter, chapters 142C, new text begin 142H, 142I, new text end 245D, 245F, 245G, and sections 245I.20
and 245I.23. The requirements in this section are in addition to any applicable requirements
for the use of holds or restraints for each license or certification type.
Sec. 39. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end
new text begin (a) The revisor of statutes must renumber Minnesota Statutes, section 142B.68, as
Minnesota Statutes, section 142H.37.
new text end
new text begin (b) The revisor of statutes must make any necessary changes to statutory cross-references
to reflect the changes in this article.
new text end
new text begin (c) The revisor of statutes must replicate the statutory history for all sections and
subdivisions repealed and reenacted in this article.
new text end
Sec. 40. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin (a)new text end new text begin Minnesota Rules, parts 9503.0005; 9503.0010; 9503.0015; 9503.0030; 9503.0031;
9503.0032; 9503.0033; 9503.0034; 9503.0040; 9503.0045; 9503.0050; 9503.0055;
9503.0060; 9503.0065; 9503.0070; 9503.0075; 9503.0080; 9503.0085; 9503.0090;
9503.0095; 9503.0100; 9503.0105; 9503.0110; 9503.0115; 9503.0120; 9503.0125;
9503.0130; 9503.0140; 9503.0145; 9503.0150; 9503.0155; and 9503.0170,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
new text begin (b)new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.01, subdivisions 11, 12, 25, 26, and 27;
142B.41, subdivisions 6, 7, 10, 11, 12, and 13; 142B.54, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3; 142B.65,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, and 10; and 142B.66, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, and 5,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
new text begin (c)new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.65, subdivisions 8 and 9; and
142B.66, subdivision 3,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
Sec. 41. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective July 1, 2027.
new text end
ARTICLE 13
FAMILY CHILD CARE LICENSING MODERNIZATION
Section 1.
new text begin [142I.01] DEFINITIONS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Scope.new text end
new text begin For the purposes of this chapter, the terms in this section have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Accessible to children.new text end
new text begin "Accessible to children" means capable of being reached
or used by a child without the aid of an adult.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Accredited.new text end
new text begin "Accredited" means a postsecondary institution or technical college
recognized and listed in the database of accredited postsecondary institutions and programs
maintained by the federal Department of Education.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Adult.new text end
new text begin "Adult" means a person at least 18 years of age.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Age categories.new text end
new text begin (a) "Newborn" means a child from birth up to six weeks old.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Infant" means a child who is at least six weeks old but less than 12 months old.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Toddler" means a child who is at least 12 months old but less than 24 months old.
new text end
new text begin (d) "Preschooler" means a child who is at least 24 months old but less than five years
of age.
new text end
new text begin (e) "School age" means a child who is at least five years of age but is less than 11 years
of age.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Agency.new text end
new text begin "Agency" means a county or multicounty social or human services
agency governed by a county board or a multicounty human services board.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Annual or annually.new text end
new text begin "Annual" or "annually" means at least once each calendar
year.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Applicant.new text end
new text begin "Applicant" has the same meaning as section 142B.01, subdivision
4.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Behavior guidance.new text end
new text begin "Behavior guidance" means an ongoing process whereby
caregivers offer constructive, positive, and developmentally appropriate guidance to children
to help them manage their own behavior in a socially acceptable manner.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Bodily fluid.new text end
new text begin "Bodily fluid" means urine, feces, vomit, blood, and other bodily
fluids with blood present.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Building official.new text end
new text begin "Building official" means the person appointed pursuant to
section 326B.133 to administer the State Building Code or the building official's authorized
representative.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Caregiver.new text end
new text begin "Caregiver" means the license holder, primary provider of care,
second adult caregiver, intermittent caregiver, helper, or substitute.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Child.new text end
new text begin "Child" means a person receiving child care services who falls within
the age categories in subdivision 5.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Child care.new text end
new text begin "Child care" means the care of a child in a family child care
program. This includes the children of the license holder and any other caregivers in the
family child care program who receive child care during child care hours.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Child with special health care needs or disabilities.new text end
new text begin "Child with special
health care needs or disabilities" means a child who:
new text end
new text begin (1) has developmental disabilities or is otherwise eligible for case management as
specified in Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0036;
new text end
new text begin (2) has been identified by the local school district as a child with a disability as specified
in section 125A.02, subdivision 1; or
new text end
new text begin (3) has been determined to be a child with a disability by a health care provider as defined
in subdivision 25.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 16.new text end
new text begin Clean.new text end
new text begin "Clean" means free from dirt or other contaminants that can be detected
by sight, smell, or touch.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 17.new text end
new text begin Commissioner.new text end
new text begin "Commissioner" means the commissioner of children, youth,
and families or the commissioner's designated representative, including county agencies
and private agencies.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 18.new text end
new text begin Community-based family child care program.new text end
new text begin "Community-based family
child care program" means a family child care program that operates at a location other than
the primary residence of the license holder.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 19.new text end
new text begin Department.new text end
new text begin "Department" means the Department of Children, Youth, and
Families.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 20.new text end
new text begin Disinfect.new text end
new text begin "Disinfect" means the chemical process to kill most germs and
viruses on surfaces and objects after the surfaces and objects have been cleaned.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 21.new text end
new text begin Emergency replacement.new text end
new text begin "Emergency replacement" means an adult who
supervises children in a family child care program due to an emergency and who has not
completed the training requirements under this chapter or the background study requirements
under chapter 245C.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 22.new text end
new text begin Family child care program.new text end
new text begin "Family child care program" means a child care
program licensed under this chapter and chapter 142B operating from the license holder's
residence or other approved space that serves up to 18 children and is provided for less than
24 hours a day.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 23.new text end
new text begin Fire marshal.new text end
new text begin "Fire marshal" means the person designated by section 299F.011
to administer and enforce the State Fire Code or a local fire code inspector approved by the
fire marshal.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 24.new text end
new text begin Hazardous materials.new text end
new text begin "Hazardous materials" means any item that could
reasonably cause injury, choking, poisoning, burning, cutting, or other harm to a child, or
any item designated by the manufacturer to be stored out of reach of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 25.new text end
new text begin Health care provider.new text end
new text begin "Health care provider" means a physician or physician's
assistant licensed to practice medicine under chapter 147; an advanced practice registered
nurse licensed under section 148.171; or a licensed psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or
licensed consulting psychologist.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 26.new text end
new text begin Helper.new text end
new text begin "Helper" means a minor, 14 through 17 years of age, who assists an
adult caregiver with the care of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 27.new text end
new text begin Inaccessible to children.new text end
new text begin "Inaccessible to children" means not capable of
being reached or utilized by a child without the aid of an adult.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 28.new text end
new text begin Intermittent caregiver.new text end
new text begin "Intermittent caregiver" means an adult who cares
for children in a family child care program alongside another adult caregiver for a cumulative
total of no more than 500 hours annually.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 29.new text end
new text begin License.new text end
new text begin "License" has the meaning given in section 142B.01, subdivision
16.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 30.new text end
new text begin License holder.new text end
new text begin "License holder" has the meaning given in section 142B.01,
subdivision 17, for a family child care program.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 31.new text end
new text begin Licensed capacity.new text end
new text begin "Licensed capacity" means the total number of children
ten years of age or younger permitted at any one time on the premises of a family child care
program. All children ten years of age or younger on the premises count toward the capacity
of the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 32.new text end
new text begin Medication.new text end
new text begin "Medication" means any substance or preparation that is used
to prevent or treat a wound, injury, infection, or disease; maintain health; heal; or relieve
pain, including substances purchased over the counter or prescribed by a health care provider
or dentist. Medication includes substances taken internally or applied externally.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 33.new text end
new text begin Owner or renter.new text end
new text begin "Owner" or "renter" means the individual, individuals,
organization, or government entity listed in the property title, deed, lease, or equivalent
legal document.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 34.new text end
new text begin Parent.new text end
new text begin "Parent" means a person who has the legal responsibility for a child,
such as the child's mother, father, or legally appointed guardian.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 35.new text end
new text begin Pests.new text end
new text begin "Pests" means any animals, insects, or other living creatures that are
not housed within the family child care program and are considered harmful or detrimental
to the health, safety, and well-being of individuals within a family child care program. This
includes but is not limited to ants, rodents, cockroaches, bedbugs, or bats.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 36.new text end
new text begin Pets.new text end
new text begin "Pets" means all animals housed at the family child care program or that
have contact with children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 37.new text end
new text begin Premises.new text end
new text begin "Premises" means the indoor and outdoor space in which a family
child care program is located.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 38.new text end
new text begin Primary provider of care.new text end
new text begin "Primary provider of care" means the person
responsible for providing care to children during the hours of operation and operating a
family child care program in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations under this
chapter and chapters 142B and 245C. All individual license holders are primary providers
of care, as are individuals designated under section 142I.22, paragraph (f).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 39.new text end
new text begin Radon testing.new text end
new text begin "Radon testing" means the measurement of radon gas levels
in the indoor air of the building.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 40.new text end
new text begin Related.new text end
new text begin "Related" means any of the following relationships by marriage,
blood, or adoption: a spouse, a parent, an adoptive parent, a birth or adopted child or
stepchild, a stepparent, a stepbrother, a stepsister, a niece, a nephew, a grandparent, a
grandchild, a sibling, an aunt, an uncle, or a legal guardian.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 41.new text end
new text begin Second adult caregiver.new text end
new text begin "Second adult caregiver'' means an adult who cares
for children in the family child care program for a cumulative total of more than 500 hours
annually along with the primary provider of care or substitute caregiver.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 42.new text end
new text begin Separation.new text end
new text begin "Separation" is a form of behavior guidance that involves
interruption of unacceptable behavior by the removal of a child from a situation with the
intention of allowing the child an opportunity to pause and gain self-control. During a
separation a child is not allowed to participate in activities with other children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 43.new text end
new text begin State Building Code.new text end
new text begin "State Building Code" means the codes and regulations
adopted by the commissioner of administration pursuant to section 326B.107 and contained
in Minnesota Rules, chapter 1300.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 44.new text end
new text begin State Fire Code.new text end
new text begin "State Fire Code" means the codes and regulations adopted
by the state fire marshal pursuant to section 299F.011 and contained in Minnesota Rules,
chapter 7511.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 45.new text end
new text begin Substitute.new text end
new text begin "Substitute" means an adult who is responsible for the duties of
a primary provider of care when the primary provider of care is not present at the family
child care program. A substitute may not provide care for more than 500 hours per calendar
year.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 46.new text end
new text begin Supervision.new text end
new text begin "Supervision" means:
new text end
new text begin (1) caregivers must be within sight or hearing of newborns, infants, toddlers, and
preschoolers at all times and must intervene in an effort to protect the health and safety of
the child. Electronic monitoring devices can only be used to monitor infants, toddlers, and
preschoolers when they are asleep;
new text end
new text begin (2) for a school-age child, a caregiver must be available and in close enough proximity
to provide in-person assistance and care to ensure the child's health and safety is protected.
Electronic devices may be used to support supervision, but must not replace the caregiver's
ability to provide assistance or care in person; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the caregiver has an awareness of and responsibility for the activity of each child
and is near enough to respond and reach children immediately, including responding to the
child's basic needs and intervening to protect them from harm.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 47.new text end
new text begin Variance.new text end
new text begin "Variance" means written permission from the department pursuant
to the requirements in section 142B.10, subdivision 16, paragraph (c), for a license holder
or applicant to depart from a specific requirement in this chapter or chapter 142B.
new text end
Sec. 2.
new text begin [142I.02] LICENSING OF PROGRAMS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Purpose.new text end
new text begin The purpose of this chapter is to establish procedures and
standards for licensing family child care and community-based family child care programs
to ensure that minimum standards of care and service are given and the protection, care,
health, safety, and development of the children are assured.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Applicability.new text end
new text begin A family child care program must be licensed under this chapter
and chapter 142B to operate in Minnesota.
new text end
Sec. 3.
new text begin [142I.03] LICENSING PROCESS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin License application.new text end
new text begin (a) An applicant for a family child care license
must follow the requirements of this section and section 142B.10.
new text end
new text begin (b) Applicants must use the application issued by the department. The application must
be made in the county where the family child care program will operate.
new text end
new text begin (c) Applicants must be the proposed license holders of the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin (d) An application for licensure is complete and ready for the agency's review after the
applicant completes, signs, and submits all department forms and documentation needed
for licensure to the agency and the agency receives all inspection, zoning, evaluation, and
investigative reports, documentation, and information required to verify compliance with
this chapter and applicable statutes, including a completed background study for individuals
subject to a study, as required under chapter 245C.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Licensing study.new text end
new text begin (a) The applicant must give the agency access to the family
child care program for a licensing study to determine compliance with all applicable rules
and statutes.
new text end
new text begin (b) If the commissioner determines a potentially hazardous condition exists due to
noncompliance with this chapter or local ordinances, the applicant must obtain an inspection
from a fire marshal, building official, or authorized community health board agent under
section 145A.04 to verify the absence of hazard or identify needed corrections. Any condition
cited as hazardous and creating an immediate danger of fire or threat to life or safety must
be corrected.
new text end
new text begin (c) An applicant must undergo an initial inspection of the family child care program by
a fire marshal to determine compliance with the State Fire Code and compliance with orders
issued if the program:
new text end
new text begin (1) has freestanding solid-fuel-heating appliances;
new text end
new text begin (2) will operate in a manufactured or mobile home;
new text end
new text begin (3) will use a basement for child care;
new text end
new text begin (4) is located in mixed- or multiple-occupancy buildings. For the purposes of this clause,
"mixed-occupancy building" means a structure that contains nonresidential occupancies,
such as an attached garage, and "multiple-occupancy building" means a structure with two
or more residential dwelling units, such as a duplex, apartment building, or townhome; or
new text end
new text begin (5) is located in a commercial space.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Ineligibility factors.new text end
new text begin (a) An applicant, caregiver, or any person who resides
where the family child care program operates and who is present when children are in care
or works with the children in care is prohibited from:
new text end
new text begin (1) abusing prescribed or nonprescribed drugs or use alcohol or controlled substances
specified in chapter 152 to the extent that the use or abuse has or may have a negative effect
on the ability of the primary provider of care to give care or is apparent during the hours of
operation;
new text end
new text begin (2) having had a child placed in foster care within the prior 12 months for reasons that
the agency determines reflect on the ability of the license holder or the primary provider of
care to safely provide family child care. This clause does not apply if the primary reason
for the placement was due to a physical illness of the parent due to a disability of the child,
including developmental disability of the child; or for the temporary care of a newborn or
infant being relinquished for adoption;
new text end
new text begin (3) having had a child placed in a residential facility within the prior 12 months for
reasons that the agency determines reflect on the ability of the license holder or the primary
provider of care to safely provide family child care; or
new text end
new text begin (4) exhibiting behavior that could pose a risk to children being served in the family child
care program. Additional assessments or documentation may be requested to determine the
impact on the provider's ability to provide care.
new text end
new text begin (b) Caregivers who have abused prescribed or nonprescribed drugs or have been
dependent on alcohol or controlled substances specified in chapter 152, such that the use,
abuse, or dependency has negatively affected the ability to give care, was apparent during
the hours of operation, or required treatment or therapy, must have 12 months of verified
abstinence before licensure.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Variances.new text end
new text begin The department may grant variances to this chapter. Upon receipt
of a variance request, the department must make a determination on the variance request
within 30 business days.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Posting license.new text end
new text begin The license holder must post the license in the family child
care program in a location where parents, visitors, and authorized representatives of the
commissioner can easily access and view the license.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Change in license terms.new text end
new text begin A license holder must submit a new application form
in accordance with section 142B.10 before:
new text end
new text begin (1) relocating the family child care program;
new text end
new text begin (2) changing from family child care to community-based family child care;
new text end
new text begin (3) changing from community-based family child care to family child care;
new text end
new text begin (4) changing between any class A and class C license type; or
new text end
new text begin (5) changing a current C license class to a higher C license class.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Number of licenses.new text end
new text begin Each individual applicant is limited to one family child
care license.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Access to program.new text end
new text begin As required in section 142B.10, subdivision 12, caregivers
must give authorized representatives of the commissioner access to the family child care
program premises during the hours of operation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Disposal of license.new text end
new text begin When a family child care program is closed, or if a license
is revoked, suspended, or not renewed, the license holder must remove the license from
being posted in the home within 14 days of ceasing operation or upon the final order of
revocation, denial, or suspension of license; stop all advertising; and refrain from providing
care to children as required in section 142B.05, subdivision 1.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Local government authority.new text end
new text begin The authority of local units of government to
establish requirements for family child care programs is limited by section 299F.011,
subdivision 4a, paragraph (a), clauses (1) and (2).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Background studies.new text end
new text begin All individuals subject to a background study must
comply with the requirements of chapter 245C.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Child care license holder insurance.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must complete
and provide to parents a form prescribed by the commissioner that includes information
about the license holder's liability insurance status. The license holder must update the form
and obtain each parent's signature whenever insurance coverage changes, a policy lapses,
or a new policy takes effect. If the license holder has a continuous insurance policy that
renews each year, the license holder may indicate the policy's renewal date in the initial
written notice to parents, and no further notices are required until the insurance coverage
changes or the policy lapses.
new text end
new text begin (b) The form under this subdivision must include the date of the policy's expiration or
renewal or indicate if the license holder does not carry liability insurance.
new text end
new text begin (c) A copy of the current certificate of liability insurance must be made available upon
request to parents, the commissioner, and agency licensing staff.
new text end
Sec. 4.
new text begin [142I.04] AGENCY RECORDS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Agency records.new text end
new text begin An agency must maintain the following records for
each license holder:
new text end
new text begin (1) a copy of the completed licensing application form signed by the applicant and the
agency;
new text end
new text begin (2) a physical health report on any adult caregiver that was submitted prior to giving
care in the family child care program. The physical health report must verify that the adult
caregiver is physically able to care for children;
new text end
new text begin (3) any written reports from a fire marshal, building official, or agent of a community
health board authorized under chapter 145A;
new text end
new text begin (4) if the applicant has been licensed through another jurisdiction, a reference from the
licensing authority in that jurisdiction;
new text end
new text begin (5) the initial and annual inspection by the agency of the license holder. Any comments
of the license holder about the inspections by the agency must also be noted in the agency
record;
new text end
new text begin (6) a copy of the notification given to parents, prior to a child's admission, indicating
that pets are present in the residence and documentation as required in section 142I.19,
subdivision 4;
new text end
new text begin (7) documentation of any variance requests and the approval or denial of the request in
accordance with section 142I.03; and
new text end
new text begin (8) the results of each background study required under chapter 245C.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Data privacy.new text end
new text begin The agency, commissioner, and authorized agent as defined in
section 142B.01, subdivision 5, must have access to license holder records on children in
care to determine compliance with this chapter. All caregivers must maintain the privacy
of records on children by refraining from discussing or disclosing any records, including
electronic records, or information on children in care to any persons other than the parent
of the child, the agency, the commissioner, and medical or public safety persons if the
information is necessary to protect the health and safety of the child.
new text end
Sec. 5.
new text begin [142I.05] REPORTING TO AGENCY.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Maltreatment, abuse, and neglect reporting.new text end
new text begin All caregivers who suspect,
know, or have reason to believe a child is being or has been maltreated under section 260E.03,
subdivision 12, must immediately report the information to the local welfare agency, agency
responsible for assessing or investigating the report, police department, county sheriff,
Tribal social services agency, or Tribal police as required by chapter 260E.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Other reporting.new text end
new text begin Primary providers of care must notify the agency:
new text end
new text begin (1) prior to anyone moving into the residence where family child care services are
provided. A background study must be completed in accordance with section 245C.13,
subdivision 2;
new text end
new text begin (2) within ten calendar days after a household member has moved out of the residence
where family child care services are provided;
new text end
new text begin (3) before a new caregiver provides direct contact services for the first time, unless an
individual is acting as an emergency replacement according to section 142I.09, subdivision
2;
new text end
new text begin (4) of any damage to the premises that may affect compliance with this chapter or any
incident at the premises that results in the loss of utility services, within 24 hours after the
occurrence;
new text end
new text begin (5) within 24 hours after the occurrence of any serious injury, head injury, hospitalization,
or death of a child in care. For the purposes of this clause, "serious injury" means an injury
that reasonably requires the care of a health care provider or dentist; and
new text end
new text begin (6) within 24 hours after the occurrence of an animal bite in accordance with section
142I.19, subdivision 4.
new text end
Sec. 6.
new text begin [142I.06] ADMISSIONS; RECORDS; REPORTING.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Admission and ongoing information.new text end
new text begin (a) Prior to admission of a child
and annually while the child is enrolled, the parents and primary provider of care must
discuss family child care program policies and licensing requirements.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must not disclose a child's record to any person other than the
child, the child's parent or guardian, the child's legal representative, employees of the license
holder, and the agency unless the child's parent or guardian has given written consent or as
otherwise required by law.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Statutory summary for parents.new text end
new text begin A descriptive summary of this chapter must
be distributed to the parent by the license holder at the time a child is admitted to care. The
summary must be provided by the department to the agencies for distribution to license
holders and must:
new text end
new text begin (1) state that this chapter and chapter 142B govern the licensing of family child care
programs;
new text end
new text begin (2) specify the section headings contained in this chapter; and
new text end
new text begin (3) state that a complete copy of this chapter is available at the family child care program,
agency, department, or State Law Library or through the revisor of statutes website.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Parental access.new text end
new text begin A parent who has enrolled a child must be allowed access to
the child and the licensed space at any time while the child is in care unless a court order
or other legal documentation restricts access. A copy of the order or other legal
documentation must be kept in the child's record at the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Attendance records.new text end
new text begin A license holder must maintain documentation of
attendance for each child receiving care for a minimum of five years. The records must be
accessible to the commissioner during the family child care program's hours of operation,
must be completed on the day of attendance, and must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) the first and last name of the child;
new text end
new text begin (2) the time of day that the child was dropped off; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the time of day that the child was picked up.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin License holder policies.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must follow and monitor
implementation of the policies and procedures by all caregivers as required in section
142B.10, subdivision 21.
new text end
new text begin (b) When applicable for the program, the license holder must have written policies
available for discussion with parents and the commissioner and provide an electronic or
hard copy to the parent at the time of admission or upon request. The policies must include,
at a minimum:
new text end
new text begin (1) program operation policies, including:
new text end
new text begin (i) the ages and numbers of children the family child care program is licensed to serve;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the hours and days of operation, including plans for holiday closings, personal time,
and policies for inclement weather closings;
new text end
new text begin (iii) fees, including payment schedule, overtime charges, and registration fees as
applicable;
new text end
new text begin (iv) parental access to the family child care program that states a parent who enrolls a
child must be allowed access to the child and the licensed space at any time while the child
is in care;
new text end
new text begin (v) nondiscrimination practices to comply with section 142I.21;
new text end
new text begin (vi) the termination of child care and expulsion notice procedures; and
new text end
new text begin (vii) the use of a helper, a substitute for personal leave or holidays, and an emergency
substitute according to the licensing requirements in section 142I.09;
new text end
new text begin (2) health and safety policies, including on:
new text end
new text begin (i) allergy prevention and response;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the administration and storage of medication and topical products;
new text end
new text begin (iii) the care of ill children, isolation precautions, symptoms for discharge and return,
immunizations, medicine permission policies, and whether the license holder will care for
an ill child;
new text end
new text begin (iv) disease notification procedures, including notifying the parents of exposed children
within 24 hours of a parent or caregiver notifying the license holder of a reportable disease
under section 142I.19, subdivision 9. The notice must be posted in a clearly visible, accessible
place or provided individually to each parent of a child who was exposed;
new text end
new text begin (v) meals, snacks, infant formula, breast milk, and supplemental foods to be provided,
including labeling requirements for food brought from the child's home;
new text end
new text begin (vi) sleeping and resting arrangements;
new text end
new text begin (vii) emergency procedures, fire and storm plans, and transportation in an emergency,
including whether parent permission is required;
new text end
new text begin (viii) how the license holder prevents abuse of prescription medication or being in any
manner under the influence of a chemical that impairs the caregiver's ability to provide
services or care as required under section 142B.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c); and
new text end
new text begin (ix) the legal requirements for firearms in a family child care program through a statement
that must include the language under section 142I.19, subdivision 7; and
new text end
new text begin (3) program environment policies, including:
new text end
new text begin (i) behavior guidance and discipline;
new text end
new text begin (ii) field trips, including by foot, and whether parent permission is required;
new text end
new text begin (iii) the presence of pets in the family child care program, including notification prior
to the introduction of a new pet to the program;
new text end
new text begin (iv) the use of screen time; and
new text end
new text begin (v) the use of social media, images, and video in accordance with subdivision 7.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Records for each child.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must obtain the records in this
subdivision from parents prior to the admission of a child. The license holder must keep
this information up to date and on file for each child. The license holder must have a parent
annually review the information in a child's record, update the information as necessary,
and keep the information on file.
new text end
new text begin (b) For each enrolled child, the license holder must maintain a signed and completed
admission and arrangement form, as prescribed by the commissioner, and a completed
enrollment form, as developed and approved by the commissioner.
new text end
new text begin (c) Immunization records must be kept in accordance with section 121A.15 and Minnesota
Rules, chapter 4604. Prior to enrollment, a license holder must request a child's immunization
record. The record must be kept on file and updated as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) for an infant, every six months;
new text end
new text begin (2) for a toddler, annually;
new text end
new text begin (3) for a preschooler, every 18 months; and
new text end
new text begin (4) for a school-age child, every three years.
new text end
new text begin (d) For each enrolled child, the license holder must obtain signed written consent from
a parent allowing the license holder to obtain emergency medical care or treatment for the
child.
new text end
new text begin (e) A license holder must release a child from care only to a parent or other person
authorized in writing by the parent. The information must be reviewed at least annually by
the parent and updated when information changes.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Social media, images, and video sharing.new text end
new text begin (a) Caregivers are prohibited from
sharing photos, videos, or other personal identifying information of enrolled children, except
to provide updates to parents who have provided written consent. If a license holder wishes
to use photos or videos of the family child care program and the enrolled children for
promotional or publicity purposes, including on social media accounts or public digital
platforms, the license holder must obtain written consent from parents prior to use.
new text end
new text begin (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the license holder must share photos, videos, and
other personal identifying information of enrolled children with the commissioner upon
request.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Nondiscrimination.new text end
new text begin A caregiver is prohibited from discriminating in relation
to enrollment in their program based on race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex,
gender identity, marital status, disability, sexual orientation, or familial status.
new text end
Sec. 7.
new text begin [142I.07] CAPACITY AND RATIOS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Capacity limits.new text end
new text begin License holders must be licensed for the total number
of children ten years of age or younger who are present on the premises of the family child
care program at any one time during child care hours, including the caregiver's own children
and foster children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Capacity, ratios, and age distribution restrictions.new text end
new text begin (a) The commissioner
must issue licenses based on the capacity and ratios in this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (b) License holders with a class A license must meet the following requirements:
new text end
| new text begin Class new text end | new text begin Capacity new text end | new text begin Minimum Adult Caregivers new text end | new text begin Maximum Children Under School Age new text end | new text begin Maximum Total Infants and Toddlers new text end | new text begin Maximum Infants new text end |
| new text begin A new text end | new text begin 10 new text end | new text begin 1 new text end | new text begin 6 new text end | new text begin 3 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end |
new text begin (c) License holders with a class C license must meet the following requirements:
new text end
| new text begin Class new text end | new text begin Capacity new text end | new text begin Minimum Adult Caregivers new text end | new text begin Maximum Children Under School Age new text end | new text begin Maximum Total Infants and Toddlers new text end | new text begin Maximum Infants new text end |
| new text begin C1 new text end | new text begin 5 new text end | new text begin 1 new text end | new text begin 5 new text end | new text begin 3 new text end | new text begin 3 new text end |
| new text begin C2 new text end | new text begin 10 new text end | new text begin 1 new text end | new text begin 8 new text end | new text begin 4 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end |
| new text begin C3 new text end | new text begin 12 new text end | new text begin 1 new text end | new text begin 10 new text end | new text begin 3 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end |
| new text begin C4 new text end | new text begin 14 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end | new text begin 10 new text end | new text begin 6 new text end | new text begin 4 new text end |
| new text begin C5 new text end | new text begin 18 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end | new text begin 12 new text end | new text begin 5 new text end | new text begin 2 new text end |
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Newborn care.new text end
new text begin When a newborn is in care and only one adult caregiver is
present, the newborn must be the only child under 12 months of age present, and the license
holder must not care for more than two other children at the same time unless the newborn
is the license holder's child. When a second adult caregiver is also present or the newborn
is the child of the license holder, then the newborn is considered an infant for the purposes
of child-to-adult ratios and age distribution restrictions.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Supervision, primary provider of care, and use of substitutes.new text end
new text begin (a) Children
in care must be supervised by an adult caregiver. The adult caregiver must have knowledge
of each child's needs, including but not limited to developmental and behavioral needs and
parental preferences, and be accountable for each child's care at all times. A caregiver must
be within sight or hearing of newborns, infants, toddlers, and preschoolers at all times
without the use of monitoring devices, except as provided in section 142I.18.
new text end
new text begin (b) The primary provider of care must be the primary caregiver in the family child care
program unless a substitute is being used in accordance with section 142I.09. A helper may
be used in place of a second adult caregiver when there is no more than one newborn, infant,
or toddler present.
new text end
new text begin (c) The use of a substitute caregiver must be in accordance with section 142I.09.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Overnight care.new text end
new text begin When a family child care program has a child in care after 11
p.m. and before 5 a.m.:
new text end
new text begin (1) at least one adult caregiver must remain awake and available to respond to children's
needs at all times. The program must maintain required caregiver-to-child ratios. Additional
caregivers may sleep when ratios are maintained and must be available to resume supervision
when needed;
new text end
new text begin (2) all awake children must be given the opportunity to engage in age-appropriate
activities in a separate room away from sleeping children; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the child care emergency plan must include a plan tailored to sleeping children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Class C5 licenses.new text end
new text begin (a) Class C5 licenses must always operate at the level of
exit discharge.
new text end
new text begin (b) A family child care program with a class C license may operate as a lower C-class
level family child care program on days when the adult-to-child ratios allow it to operate
at a lower capacity.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Care of the license holder's own child or children.new text end
new text begin (a) With the license
holder's consent, an individual may be present in the licensed space and care for the license
holder's own child both inside and outside of the licensed space and is exempt from the
training and supervision requirements of section 142I.10 if the individual:
new text end
new text begin (1) is related to the license holder or to the license holder's child, as defined in section
142I.01, subdivision 40, or is a household member who the license holder has reported to
the county agency;
new text end
new text begin (2) is not a caregiver for the family child care program at the time that they are supervising
the license holder's own child;
new text end
new text begin (3) only cares for the license holder's own child; and
new text end
new text begin (4) does not have direct, unsupervised contact with any nonrelative children in care.
new text end
new text begin (b) If the individual in paragraph (a) is not a household member, the individual is also
exempt from background study requirements under chapter 245C.
new text end
new text begin (c) Where a caregiver is also a parent providing care to their own child in the family
child care program, sections 142I.13; 142I.17; 142I.20, subdivisions 1 to 3; and 142I.21 do
not apply to caregivers with regards to the care of their own children.
new text end
new text begin (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), family child care programs with license holders or
caregivers providing care to their own child are not exempt from the capacity, ratio, and
age distribution requirements under this section. License holders and caregivers remain
subject to chapters 260E and 609 and other applicable statutes and rules.
new text end
new text begin (e) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), the agency may enforce the standards in sections
142I.13; 142I.17; 142I.20, subdivisions 1 to 3; and 142I.21 when the caregiver's actions
with regards to the care of their own children affect the other children in the caregiver's
care.
new text end
Sec. 8.
new text begin [142I.08] QUALIFICATIONS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Age.new text end
new text begin An applicant for a family child care license must be an adult at the
time of application.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Physical and behavioral health.new text end
new text begin (a) An adult caregiver must be physically
and mentally able to care for children. An applicant or primary provider of care must provide
documentation to the agency along with the license application verifying that the applicant
has had a physical examination by a licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse,
or physician assistant within 12 months prior to the application for initial licensure and that
the applicant or primary provider of care is physically able to care for children. Prior to
assisting in the care of children, the applicant must also provide documentation verifying
that any adult caregiver has had a physical examination by a licensed physician, advanced
practice registered nurse, or physician assistant within the past 12 months and is physically
able to care for children.
new text end
new text begin (b) The commissioner may require a caregiver to provide reports on the caregiver's
physical or mental health from a health care provider when there is reason to believe that
a caregiver exhibits physical or mental health symptoms that could impair the caregiver's
ability to ensure the health and safety of children. The reports must not be used for any other
purpose than to determine whether the caregiver's physical or mental health impacts the
health and safety of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Additional class C5 license requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) An applicant or primary provider
of care receiving a class C5 license must have at least one of:
new text end
new text begin (1) a minimum of one year of substantial compliance with this chapter as a
Minnesota-licensed family child care license holder, primary provider of care, or second
adult caregiver and a minimum of 1500 hours of direct care in a family child care program
serving children;
new text end
new text begin (2) a minimum of six months of substantial compliance with this chapter as a family
child care license holder, primary provider of care, or second adult caregiver in Minnesota
and:
new text end
new text begin (i) a minimum of 520 hours of experience as an assistant teacher, student teacher, or
intern in an elementary school, after-school program, or Minnesota-licensed child care
center or as an adult caregiver in a Minnesota-licensed family child care program and 30
hours of child care, health, and nutrition training as specified in section 142I.10; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) a minimum of 520 hours of experience as a licensed practical or registered nurse,
and 30 hours of child development or early childhood education training, as specified in
section 142I.10;
new text end
new text begin (3) certification or licensure indicating completion of one of the following:
new text end
new text begin (i) a two-year child development or early childhood education associate or certificate
program at an accredited college or university;
new text end
new text begin (ii) a child development associate certification;
new text end
new text begin (iii) a certification from a recognized Montessori organization;
new text end
new text begin (iv) a bachelor's degree or higher in early childhood education from an accredited college
or university; or
new text end
new text begin (v) an elementary education degree from an accredited college or university that includes
a minimum of 30 hours of child development training; or
new text end
new text begin (4) six months' experience working an average of 30 hours a week or more as a teacher,
as defined in section 142H.06, at a Minnesota-licensed child care center.
new text end
new text begin (b) An applicant or primary provider of care must complete an additional large group
training created by the commissioner as a condition of receiving a class C5 license.
new text end
Sec. 9.
new text begin [142I.09] SUBSTITUTE CAREGIVERS AND REPLACEMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Total hours allowed.new text end
new text begin The use of a substitute caregiver in a family child
care program is limited to a cumulative total of not more than 500 hours annually. When a
substitute is used, prior to the end of each business day the license holder must document
the name, date, and number of hours of each substitute who provided care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Emergency replacement supervision.new text end
new text begin (a) In an emergency, a license holder
may allow an adult who has not completed the training requirements under this chapter or
the background study requirements under chapter 245C to supervise children in a family
child care program. For purposes of this subdivision, "emergency" means a situation in
which the license holder has begun operating the family child care program for the day and
for reasons beyond the control of the license holder, including but not limited to a serious
illness or injury, accident, or situation requiring the immediate attention of the license holder,
the license holder needs to leave the licensed space and close the program for the day.
new text end
new text begin (b) To the extent practicable, the license holder must attempt to arrange for emergency
care by a substitute caregiver before using an emergency replacement.
new text end
new text begin (c) When an emergency occurs:
new text end
new text begin (1) the license holder or emergency replacement must contact the parents of the children
attending the family child care program and inform the parents that the program is closing
for the day and that the children need to be picked up as soon as practicable;
new text end
new text begin (2) the license holder must not knowingly use a person as an emergency replacement
who has committed an action or has been convicted of a crime that would cause the person
to be disqualified from providing care to children if a background study was conducted
under chapter 245C;
new text end
new text begin (3) the license holder must make reasonable efforts to minimize the amount of time the
emergency replacement has unsupervised contact with the children in care not to exceed
12 hours per emergency incident;
new text end
new text begin (4) the family child care program must be closed for the day once the last unrelated child
has left the program; and
new text end
new text begin (5) the license holder must notify the county licensing agency within seven days that an
emergency replacement was used and specify the circumstances that led to the use of the
emergency replacement.
new text end
new text begin (d) The county licensing agency must notify the commissioner within three business
days after receiving the license holder's notice that an emergency replacement was used and
specify to the commissioner the circumstances that led to the use of the emergency
replacement.
new text end
new text begin (e) A license holder is not required to provide the names of persons who may be used
as replacements in emergencies to parents or the county licensing agency. However, once
an emergency replacement has been used, the license holder must provide the name of the
individual used to the county licensing agency.
new text end
Sec. 10.
new text begin [142I.10] APPLICANT, PRIMARY PROVIDER OF CARE, AND SECOND
ADULT CAREGIVER TRAINING REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Initial training; applicant, primary provider of care, and second
adult caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a) Before providing care, an applicant, a primary provider of care, and
each second adult caregiver must have completed all required initial training within the
prior 24 months.
new text end
new text begin (b) Initial training does not need to be completed before providing care in the following
circumstances:
new text end
new text begin (1) a primary provider of care who voluntarily closes a license and reopens within 12
months has one year from the new license's effective date to complete annual and ongoing
training and is exempt from repeating initial training;
new text end
new text begin (2) a primary provider of care who relocates within the state has until the end of the
calendar year to complete annual and ongoing training and is not required to repeat initial
training previously completed; and
new text end
new text begin (3) a primary provider of care who relocates to a new county must not be required by
the new county to complete orientation or other training required for new applicants.
new text end
new text begin (c) Each applicant, primary provider of care, and second adult caregiver must complete
and document the following before providing care:
new text end
new text begin (1) at least four hours of child development, learning, or behavior guidance training. An
individual is exempt if the individual provides documentation verifying that the individual:
new text end
new text begin (i) has completed a three-credit early childhood development course within the past five
years;
new text end
new text begin (ii) holds a baccalaureate or master's degree in early childhood education or school-age
child care;
new text end
new text begin (iii) holds a Minnesota teaching license in early childhood education, kindergarten
through grade 6, or special education; or
new text end
new text begin (iv) holds a Montessori certificate;
new text end
new text begin (2) the six-hour supervising for safety for family child care course developed by the
commissioner;
new text end
new text begin (3) pediatric first aid training provided by an instructor certified to teach pediatric first
aid. Current training documentation must be maintained at the family child care program
and made available upon request. Online training reviewed and approved by the county
licensing agency satisfies this requirement;
new text end
new text begin (4) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) training that:
new text end
new text begin (i) is instructor led or blended with a hands-on skills component. Online-only CPR
courses without a hands-on component do not meet this requirement;
new text end
new text begin (ii)(A) is developed by the American Heart Association or the American Red Cross; or
new text end
new text begin (B) uses nationally recognized, evidence-based guidelines for CPR training; and
new text end
new text begin (iii) is provided by an instructor approved by the commissioner to teach CPR;
new text end
new text begin (5) for programs licensed for children younger than school age, training on reducing the
risk of sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma, which may be combined
in a single commissioner-approved course. This training must, at a minimum, address the
risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma and the
means of reducing the risk of each;
new text end
new text begin (6) training on proper use and installation of child passenger restraint systems under
section 169.685 of at least one hour in length that is provided by an instructor certified and
approved by the Department of Public Safety. At a minimum, the training must address the
proper use of child restraint systems based on the child's size, weight, and age and the proper
installation of a car seat or booster seat in the motor vehicle used by the caregiver to transport
the child or children. This requirement does not apply to family child care programs that
transport only school-age children as defined in section 142I.01, subdivision 5, paragraph
(e), in child care buses as defined in section 169.448, subdivision 1, paragraph (e);
new text end
new text begin (7) training on the child care emergency plan required under section 142I.19, subdivision
2;
new text end
new text begin (8) training on allergy prevention and response required under section 142I.06,
subdivision 5, paragraph (b);
new text end
new text begin (9) training on the community-based family child care program plan required under
section 142I.22, if applicable;
new text end
new text begin (10) training on the family child care program policies and procedures required under
section 142I.06;
new text end
new text begin (11) training on reporting suspected maltreatment of children as required under chapter
260E; and
new text end
new text begin (12) swimming pool training under section 142I.14, subdivision 6, if a pool at the family
child care program is used by children in care.
new text end
new text begin (d) County licensing staff must accept approved training on the primary provider of care
or second adult caregiver's learning record in the Develop data system for early education
and school-age care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Annual training; primary provider of care and second adult caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a)
A primary provider of care and each second adult caregiver must annually complete and
document the following training:
new text end
new text begin (1) at least two hours of child development, learning, or behavior guidance training. A
three-credit early childhood development course completed within the calendar year meets
this requirement;
new text end
new text begin (2) a two-hour active supervision course developed or approved by the commissioner;
new text end
new text begin (3) training on reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death if caring for infants
and training on reducing the risk of abusive head trauma if caring for children under school
age, which must:
new text end
new text begin (i) be completed in person or online at least once every two years; and
new text end
new text begin (ii) in alternating years, be completed through a commissioner-approved video not
exceeding one hour in length; and
new text end
new text begin (4) at least four hours of ongoing training each calendar year that must include topics
identified in the Minnesota knowledge and competency framework. Repeat of topical training
requirements in subdivision 1 counts toward the annual ten-hour requirement.
new text end
new text begin (b) A caregiver who is approved as a trainer through the Develop data system may count
up to two hours of training instruction toward the annual ten-hour training requirement in
paragraph (a), clause (4), if:
new text end
new text begin (1) the training is the first instance in which the caregiver delivers a particular
content-specific training during each training year;
new text end
new text begin (2) the caregiver is a Develop-approved active trainer; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the hours counted as training instruction are approved through the Develop data
system with attendance verified on the trainer's individual learning record and are in the
knowledge and competency framework content areas VII A, establishing healthy practices,
or B, ensuring safety.
new text end
new text begin (c) Unless specifically authorized in this section, one training does not fulfill two different
training requirements. Courses within the identified knowledge and competency areas that
are specific to child care centers or legal nonlicensed programs do not fulfill the requirements
of this section.
new text end
new text begin (d) County licensing staff must accept training designated by the commissioner as
satisfying training requirements if the training is within the knowledge and competency
framework for child development and learning, behavior guidance, and active supervision
as indicated on the department's website.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Ongoing training; primary provider of care and second adult caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a)
A primary provider of care and each second adult caregiver must complete and document
the following training:
new text end
new text begin (1) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation training that meets the requirements of
subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (4), and is repeated every two years within 90 days of
the second anniversary of the previous training. Documentation must be maintained at the
family child care program or electronically and made available upon request;
new text end
new text begin (2) pediatric first aid training by a certified instructor repeated every two years within
90 days of the second anniversary of the previous training. Documentation of the training
must be maintained at the family child care program or electronically and made available
upon request;
new text end
new text begin (3) commissioner-developed Health and Safety I and Health and Safety II training at
least once every five years. Completion of either course in a given year meets the annual
active supervision training requirement in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (2);
new text end
new text begin (4) proper use and installation of child passenger restraint systems under section 169.685
that meets the requirements of subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (6), and is repeated at
least once every five years. This requirement does not apply to family child care programs
that transport only school-age children as defined in section 142I.01, subdivision 5, paragraph
(e), in child care buses as defined in section 169.448, subdivision 1, paragraph (e); and
new text end
new text begin (5) fire safety training developed by the State Fire Marshal's Office that must be
completed once every five years.
new text end
new text begin (b) If a license holder changes any of the policies and procedures under section 142I.06,
subdivision 5, the primary provider of care and each second adult caregiver must review
the revised policies and procedures within ten days of the change.
new text end
new text begin (c) The license holder must maintain documentation of each review of the revised policies
and procedures at the family child care program. The documentation requirements under
this paragraph may be met by a date noted on the revised policies or procedures.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Commissioner designated training.new text end
new text begin Training designated by the commissioner
satisfies the training requirements under this section if the training is within the knowledge
and competency framework for child development and learning, behavior guidance, and
active supervision, as indicated on the department's website.
new text end
Sec. 11.
new text begin [142I.11] SUBSTITUTE AND INTERMITTENT CAREGIVER TRAINING
REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Initial training; substitute and intermittent caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a) Before
providing care, each substitute and intermittent caregiver must complete the following
training requirements within the previous 12 months:
new text end
new text begin (1) the four-hour basics of family child care for substitutes course developed by the
commissioner;
new text end
new text begin (2) pediatric first aid training provided by an instructor certified to teach pediatric first
aid. Current training documentation must be maintained at the family child care program
and made available upon request. Online training reviewed and approved by the county
licensing agency satisfies this requirement;
new text end
new text begin (3) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation training that meets the requirements of
section 142I.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (4);
new text end
new text begin (4) for programs licensed for children younger than school age, training on reducing the
risk of sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma, which may be combined
in a single commissioner-approved course. This training must, at a minimum, address the
risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma and the
means of reducing the risk of each;
new text end
new text begin (5) training on proper use and installation of child passenger restraint systems under
section 169.685 of at least one hour in length, provided by an instructor certified and
approved by the Department of Public Safety. This requirement does not apply to family
child care programs that transport only school-age children as defined in section 142I.01,
subdivision 5, paragraph (e), in child care buses as defined in section 169.448, subdivision
1, paragraph (e). At a minimum, the training must address the proper use of child restraint
systems based on the child's size, weight, and age and the proper installation of a car seat
or booster seat in the motor vehicle used by the caregiver to transport the child or children;
new text end
new text begin (6) training on the child care emergency plan required under section 142I.19, subdivision
2;
new text end
new text begin (7) training on allergy prevention and response required under section 142I.06,
subdivision 5, paragraph (b);
new text end
new text begin (8) training on the community-based family child care program plan required under
section 142I.22, if applicable;
new text end
new text begin (9) training on the family child care program policies and procedures required under
section 142I.06;
new text end
new text begin (10) training on reporting suspected maltreatment of children as required under chapter
260E; and
new text end
new text begin (11) swimming pool training under section 142I.14, subdivision 6, if a pool at the family
child care program is used by children in care.
new text end
new text begin (b) County licensing staff must accept approved training on the substitute or intermittent
caregiver's learning record in the Develop data system for early education and school-age
care.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Annual training; substitute and intermittent caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a) Substitutes and
intermittent caregivers must complete a minimum of one hour of training each calendar
year, and the training must include the requirements in this section.
new text end
new text begin (b) Each calendar year, a substitute or intermittent caregiver must receive training on
reducing the risk of abusive head trauma from shaking infants and young children if caring
for children under school age and reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death if
caring for infants. A substitute must complete each applicable course at least once every
two years either in person or online. In a year a substitute or intermittent caregiver is not
completing an applicable course under this paragraph in person or online, the individual
must watch a video on the respective topic of no more than one hour in length. The video
must be developed or approved by the commissioner. A license holder must maintain
documentation of compliance with this paragraph for each substitute and intermittent
caregiver employed.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Ongoing training; substitute and intermittent caregiver.new text end
new text begin (a) At least once
every three years, a substitute or intermittent caregiver must complete the four-hour basics
of family child care for substitutes course.
new text end
new text begin (b) A substitute or intermittent caregiver must complete the following training:
new text end
new text begin (1) pediatric cardiopulmonary resuscitation training that meets the requirements of
section 142I.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (4), and is repeated every two years
within 90 days of the second anniversary of the previous training. Documentation must be
maintained at the family child care program or electronically and made available upon
request;
new text end
new text begin (2) pediatric first aid that is given by an instructor certified to provide pediatric first aid
and is repeated every two years within 90 days of the second anniversary of the previous
training. Documentation of the training must be maintained at the family child care program
or electronically and made available upon request; and
new text end
new text begin (3) proper use and installation of child passenger restraint systems under section 169.685
that meets the requirements of section 142I.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (6), and
is repeated at least once every five years. This requirement does not apply to family child
care programs that transport only school-age children as defined in section 142I.01,
subdivision 5, paragraph (e), in child care buses as defined in section 169.448, subdivision
1, paragraph (e).
new text end
Sec. 12.
new text begin [142I.12] HELPER TRAINING REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Initial training; helper.new text end
new text begin (a) Before assisting in care, a helper who assists
with care must complete a minimum of four hours of training within the previous 12 months.
The four hours must include courses on:
new text end
new text begin (1) reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death if the program is licensed to care
for infants;
new text end
new text begin (2) abusive head trauma if the program is licensed to care for children younger than
school age; and
new text end
new text begin (3) reporting suspected maltreatment of children as required under chapter 260E.
new text end
new text begin (b) The trainings required under paragraph (a) may be combined in a single
commissioner-approved course.
new text end
new text begin (c) A license holder must maintain written or electronic documentation showing that
each helper has complied with this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Annual training; helper.new text end
new text begin (a) Each calendar year, a helper who assists in the
care of children must receive training on reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant
death if the program is licensed to care for infants, and abusive head trauma if the program
is licensed to care for children younger than school age. The trainings under this paragraph
may be combined in a single commissioner-approved course and must, at a minimum,
address risk factors, methods of risk reduction in child care, and communication with parents
regarding risk reduction.
new text end
new text begin (b) A license holder must maintain documentation showing each helper has complied
with this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (c) County licensing staff must accept approved training on the helper's learning record
in the Develop data system.
new text end
Sec. 13.
new text begin [142I.13] BEHAVIOR GUIDANCE.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Methods of promoting positive behavior.new text end
new text begin A license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) positively role model acceptable behavior to each child;
new text end
new text begin (2) tailor methods of promoting positive behavior to the developmental level of the
children the family child care program is licensed to serve;
new text end
new text begin (3) ensure redirection is used as appropriate in addressing a child's behavior, to guide a
child away from potential challenges toward constructive activity. For the purposes of this
clause, "redirection" means when a caregiver intervenes and guides a child toward
constructive activity through positive techniques;
new text end
new text begin (4) teach children how to use acceptable alternatives to reduce conflict; and
new text end
new text begin (5) protect the safety and well-being of children and caregivers.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Prohibited actions.new text end
new text begin A license holder must prohibit every caregiver from:
new text end
new text begin (1) subjecting a child to corporal or physical punishment. This includes but is not limited
to rough handling, shoving, hair pulling, ear pulling, shaking, slapping, kicking, biting,
pinching, spitting, hitting, and spanking;
new text end
new text begin (2) subjecting a child to name calling, ostracism, shaming, making derogatory remarks
about the child or the child's family, cultural or racial slurs, and yelling or using profane
language that threatens, humiliates, or frightens the child;
new text end
new text begin (3) forcing a child to maintain an uncomfortable position or to continuously repeat
physical movements;
new text end
new text begin (4) separating a child from the group except as provided in subdivision 3;
new text end
new text begin (5) punishing a child for:
new text end
new text begin (i) not resting, napping, or sleeping;
new text end
new text begin (ii) toileting accidents;
new text end
new text begin (iii) failing to eat all or part of meals or snacks; or
new text end
new text begin (iv) failing to complete an activity;
new text end
new text begin (6) denying a child food or drink or forcing food or drink upon a child;
new text end
new text begin (7) denying light, warmth, clothing, or medical care as a punishment for unacceptable
behavior;
new text end
new text begin (8) the use of physical restraint other than to physically hold a child when containment
is necessary to protect a child or others from harm;
new text end
new text begin (9) the use of prone restraints, as prohibited by section 245A.211;
new text end
new text begin (10) the use of mechanical restraints, such as tying, or any device or equipment intended
to restrict or prevent movement as a means of discipline or for reasons unrelated to the
child's care, safety, or planned activity;
new text end
new text begin (11) giving a child any nonprescribed substance to subdue or restrict movement or
behavior;
new text end
new text begin (12) delegating the discipline or punishment of a child to another child; and
new text end
new text begin (13) punishing or shaming a child for the actions of a parent. This includes but is not
limited to failure to pay fees, failure to provide appropriate clothing, failure to provide
materials for an activity, or any conflict between the license holder or caregiver and the
parent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Separation time from the group.new text end
new text begin A caregiver must not separate a child from
the child's group as a means of behavior guidance unless the caregiver has tried less intrusive
methods of guiding the child's behavior that have been ineffective and the child's behavior
threatens the well-being of the child or other children in the family child care program.
Separation from the group must meet the following requirements:
new text end
new text begin (1) children younger than three years old must not be separated from the group as a
means of behavior guidance;
new text end
new text begin (2) the separation time must be limited to the amount of time necessary for the child to
gain self-control and rejoin the group while being supported by the caregiver;
new text end
new text begin (3) the child must be supervised;
new text end
new text begin (4) the child must not be placed in a locked room to separate the child from the group;
and
new text end
new text begin (5) the caregiver must provide the separation time in an age-appropriate, nonhumiliating
manner for the child.
new text end
Sec. 14.
new text begin [142I.14] PHYSICAL SPACE REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Indoor space.new text end
new text begin (a) The licensed capacity of the family child care program
must be limited by the amount of usable indoor space available to children. A minimum of
35 square feet of usable indoor space is required per child.
new text end
new text begin (b) Bathrooms, closets, space occupied by major appliances, and other space not used
by children may not be counted as usable space. Space occupied by adult furniture, if it is
used by children, may be counted as usable indoor space.
new text end
new text begin (c) Usable indoor space may include a basement if it has been inspected and approved
by a fire marshal, is free of hazards, and meets the requirements of subdivision 4.
new text end
new text begin (d) All exits leading from indoor to outdoor space must be fully clear of obstruction.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Escape routes.new text end
new text begin (a) The main means of escape must be a stairway or door leading
to the floor with an exit to the outside.
new text end
new text begin (b) Any room that has sleeping children must have an escape route separate from the
main exit referenced in paragraph (a). This escape route must be a door or an egress window
leading directly outside.
new text end
new text begin (c) When the basement is used for care, the basement must have at least one escape route
separate from the main exit under paragraph (a). This escape route must be a door or an
egress window leading directly outside.
new text end
new text begin (d) Required escape routes must not be obstructed and must be accessible and openable
without special knowledge.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Outdoor learning environment and play space.new text end
new text begin (a) A family child care
program must have an outdoor play space of at least 50 square feet per child the program
is licensed to serve for regular use or a park, playground, or play space within 1,500 feet of
the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin (b) During outdoor play:
new text end
new text begin (1) the adult caregiver must remain outdoors with infants, toddlers, and preschoolers at
all times;
new text end
new text begin (2) school-age children may be permitted in the approved outdoor play space at the
family child care program without a caregiver if:
new text end
new text begin (i) the children are engaged in age-appropriate activities using age-appropriate equipment;
and
new text end
new text begin (ii) a caregiver remains accessible to provide supervision when needed in accordance
with section 142I.01, subdivision 46; and
new text end
new text begin (3) when the outdoor play space is not at the family child care program, a caregiver must
accompany and supervise all children in transit and at the outdoor play space.
new text end
new text begin (c) Caregivers must prevent children from accessing hazardous materials.
new text end
new text begin (d) Outdoor play areas must be protected from traffic and nearby hazards. If traffic or
other hazards are present, the family child care program must have:
new text end
new text begin (1) a continuous fence in good condition with functioning gates or a continuous natural
barrier or a combination of fence and naturally occurring or landscaping barrier. The fence
or natural barrier must ensure that children are not able to leave the outdoor play area
unsupervised; or
new text end
new text begin (2) a supervision and safety plan if a fence is not used that includes alternative methods
to ensure the health, safety, and protection of children in care.
new text end
new text begin (e) Electrical fences must be inaccessible to children in care.
new text end
new text begin (f) Caregivers must take measures to protect children from the dangers of sun exposure,
extreme heat or cold, and air quality.
new text end
new text begin (g) Outdoor equipment, whether stationary or portable, must be safe, be in good repair,
be assembled according to the manufacturer's guidelines, and meet the developmental needs
of the age groups of children using the space.
new text end
new text begin (h) Equipment including but not limited to climbing gyms, swings, and slides must:
new text end
new text begin (1) not have openings between 3-1/2 inches and nine inches in size to prevent entrapment
of the head or other body parts;
new text end
new text begin (2) have guardrails or protective barriers on platforms that are 30 inches or higher. A
protective barrier is a continuous structure surrounding the platform that is designed to
prevent a person from falling or passing through, whether intentionally or accidentally; and
new text end
new text begin (3) be assembled, installed, and utilized according to the manufacturer's guidelines.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Conditions of the program.new text end
new text begin The licensed space must be maintained in a manner
that protects the health and safety of children in care. The license holder must ensure that:
new text end
new text begin (1) the family child care program space is free from conditions that endanger the health
or safety of children, including unsanitary conditions or excessive accumulation of materials
that can start a fire or create other safety hazards;
new text end
new text begin (2) the furnishings, equipment, and materials are arranged and stored so that hallways,
stairways, doors, and exit routes remain unobstructed and usable for safe exit; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the amount and placement of stored items do not create an increased risk of fire or
injury or impede the safe supervision of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Portable wading pools.new text end
new text begin (a) A child must not use a portable wading pool as
defined in section 144.1222, subdivision 2a, at a family child care program unless the parent
of the child has provided written consent. The written consent must include a statement that
the parent has received and read material provided by the Department of Health on wading
pool safety for parents related to the risk of disease transmission as well as other health
risks associated with the use of portable wading pools.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must empty wading pools daily.
new text end
new text begin (c) A caregiver must supervise children at all times while a wading pool is in use and
must be able to clearly see all parts of the wading area. When not in use under the supervision
of a caregiver, wading pools must be inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Swimming pools.new text end
new text begin (a) For the purposes of this subdivision, "swimming pool"
has the meaning in section 144.1222, subdivision 2b, and does not include a portable wading
pool as defined in section 144.1222, subdivision 2a, or a spa pool as defined in Minnesota
Rules, part 4717.0250.
new text end
new text begin (b) A license holder must comply with the following requirements in order for children
in the program to use a swimming pool located at the program:
new text end
new text begin (1) not have had a licensing sanction under section 142B.18 or a correction order or
conditional license under section 142B.16 relating to the supervision or health and safety
of children during the prior 24 months;
new text end
new text begin (2) notify the county agency before initial use of the swimming pool each calendar year;
new text end
new text begin (3) obtain written consent from a child's parent allowing the child to use the swimming
pool and renew the parent's written consent at least annually. The written consent must
include a statement that the parent has received and read materials provided by the
Department of Health related to the risk of disease transmission as well as other health risks
associated with swimming pools. The written consent must also include a statement that
neither the Department of Health nor the county agency will monitor or inspect the license
holder's swimming pool;
new text end
new text begin (4) attend and successfully complete a swimming pool supervision training course
annually;
new text end
new text begin (5) attend and successfully complete one of the following swimming pool operator
training courses once every five years:
new text end
new text begin (i) both of the National Spa and Pool Institute Tech I and Tech II courses; or
new text end
new text begin (ii) the National Recreation and Park Association aquatic facility operator course;
new text end
new text begin (6) ensure all toilet-trained children use the bathroom before the children enter the
swimming pool;
new text end
new text begin (7) require all children who are not toilet trained to wear swim diapers while in the
swimming pool;
new text end
new text begin (8) if fecal material enters the swimming pool water, add three times the normal shock
treatment to the pool water to raise the chlorine level to at least 20 parts per million and
close the pool to swimming for the 24 hours following the entrance of fecal material into
the water or until the water pH and disinfectant concentration levels have returned to the
standards specified in clause (10), whichever is later;
new text end
new text begin (9) prevent any person from entering the swimming pool who has an open wound or has
or is suspected of having a communicable disease;
new text end
new text begin (10) maintain the swimming pool water at a pH of not less than 7.2 and not more than
8.0, maintain the disinfectant concentration between two and five parts per million for
chlorine or between 2.3 and 4.5 parts per million for bromine, and maintain a daily record
of the swimming pool's operation with pH and disinfectant concentration readings on days
when children cared for at the family child care program are present;
new text end
new text begin (11) have a disinfectant feeder or feeders;
new text end
new text begin (12) have a recirculation system that will clarify and disinfect the swimming pool volume
of water in ten hours or less;
new text end
new text begin (13) maintain the swimming pool's water clarity so that an object on the pool floor at
the pool's deepest point is easily visible;
new text end
new text begin (14) comply with the provisions in section 144.1222, subdivisions 1c and 1d;
new text end
new text begin (15) have in place and enforce written safety rules and swimming pool policies;
new text end
new text begin (16) have in place at all times a safety rope that divides the shallow and deep portions
of the swimming pool;
new text end
new text begin (17) maintain compliance with any existing local ordinances regarding swimming pool
installation, decks, and fencing;
new text end
new text begin (18) maintain a water temperature of not more than 104 degrees Fahrenheit and not less
than 70 degrees Fahrenheit;
new text end
new text begin (19) cover the swimming pool when not in use;
new text end
new text begin (20) follow the requirements of subdivision 7; and
new text end
new text begin (21) for lifesaving equipment, have a United States Coast Guard-approved life ring
attached to a rope, an exit ladder, and a shepherd's hook available at all times to the caregiver
supervising the swimming pool.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Water hazards.new text end
new text begin (a) Swimming and wading pools, beaches, wells, or other
bodies of water on or adjacent to the site of the family child care program must be
inaccessible to children except during periods of supervised use.
new text end
new text begin (b) All water hazards, such as inground or aboveground swimming pools, hot tubs,
stationary wading pools, fish ponds, and water retention or detention basins on the site of
the family child care program must be enclosed with a permanent fence, wall, building wall,
other physical barrier, or combination thereof that is at least four feet in height. A house
exterior wall can constitute one side of a fence if the wall has no openings capable of
providing direct access to the hazard, including but not limited to doors or windows.
new text end
new text begin (c) The family child care program may not allow a child in care to use a swimming pool
or beach without an adult caregiver trained in first aid and CPR present.
new text end
new text begin (d) Bodies of water must be separated from the play area by a fence or other physical
barrier that prevents children from accessing the water. The house door alone is not a
sufficient barrier.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Water play.new text end
new text begin (a) Parental permission is not required for children to use splash
pads, sprinklers, or other water toys that spray or jet water on the users and do not have
standing water. Splash pads, sprinklers, or other water toys that retain water are considered
wading pools and are required to meet the requirements of subdivision 5.
new text end
new text begin (b) Water tables designed for children to play with their hands must be emptied daily.
The caregiver must supervise children at all times while a water table is in use and must be
able to clearly see all parts of the water table. When not in use under the supervision of a
caregiver, water tables must be inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Separation between attached garage and family child care program.new text end
new text begin The
separation wall between the residence and garage must meet the requirements of Minnesota
Rules, part 1309.0302.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Ventilation, heating, and cooling systems.new text end
new text begin (a) Heating, ventilation, and air
conditioning systems must be operated according to the manufacturer's instructions and in
good repair. Gas, coal, wood, kerosene, or oil heaters must be vented to the outside in
accordance with the State Building Code.
new text end
new text begin (b) Items that can be ignited and support combustion, including but not limited to plastic,
fabric, and wood products, must not be located within:
new text end
new text begin (1) 18 inches of a gas or fuel-oil heater or furnace; or
new text end
new text begin (2) 36 inches of a solid-fuel-burning appliance.
new text end
new text begin (c) If a license holder produces manufacturer instructions listing a distance closer than
the requirements under paragraph (b), the manufacturer instructions control the required
distance of combustible items from gas, fuel-oil, or solid-fuel-burning heaters or furnaces.
new text end
new text begin (d) When in use, fireplaces, wood-burning stoves, solid-fuel-burning appliances, space
heaters, steam radiators, outdoor fire pits, and other potentially hot surfaces, such as steam
pipes, must be protected by guards or protective covering to keep hands and bodies away,
prevent burns, and prevent fires. All fireplaces, wood-burning stoves, space heaters, steam
radiators, and furnaces must be installed according to the State Building Code. The furnace,
hot water heater, and utility rooms must be inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin (e) Ventilation of usable space must meet the requirements of the State Building Code.
Outside doors and windows used for ventilation in summer months must be screened when
biting insects are prevalent. The screens must be in good repair. Sources of harmful and
unpleasant odors including urine and pet waste must be removed to the extent possible by
removing the source of the odor or by removing odors through cleaning and ventilation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Temperature.new text end
new text begin A minimum temperature of 62 degrees Fahrenheit must be
maintained in indoor areas used by children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 12.new text end
new text begin Sewage disposal.new text end
new text begin Family child care programs must have working toilets and
a sewage disposal system that conform to the State Building Code or local septic system
ordinances. Toilet training equipment must be emptied and cleaned after each use. Outdoor
toilets, including compostable toilets, are permissible in accordance with local septic system
ordinances.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 13.new text end
new text begin Construction or remodeling.new text end
new text begin During construction or remodeling, children
must not have access to construction or remodeling areas within or around the premises.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 14.new text end
new text begin Interior walls and ceilings.new text end
new text begin The walls and ceilings within a family child care
program, including those in corridors, stairways, and lobbies, must have a flame spread
rating of 200 or less.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 15.new text end
new text begin Electrical services.new text end
new text begin (a) All electric outlets in a family child care program
accessible to children must be tamper-proof or shielded when not in use. All major electrical
appliances must be properly installed and grounded in accordance with the State Electrical
Code and in good working order.
new text end
new text begin (b) Electrical wiring must be sized to provide for the load and be in good repair. Extension
cords must not be used as a substitute for permanent wiring.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 16.new text end
new text begin Fire extinguisher.new text end
new text begin A portable, operational, multipurpose, and dry chemical
fire extinguisher with a minimum 2-A 10-BC rating must be located near the required exit
door of the program at all times. The fire extinguisher must be serviced annually by a
qualified inspector and evidence of annual service must be documented. All caregivers must
know how to properly use the fire extinguisher.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 17.new text end
new text begin Carbon monoxide and smoke alarms.new text end
new text begin (a) A family child care program must
have an approved and operational carbon monoxide alarm installed within ten feet of each
area used for sleeping children in care.
new text end
new text begin (b) A family child care program must properly install and maintain smoke alarms models
that have been approved by the Underwriter Laboratory on all levels, including basements,
and in hallways outside rooms used for sleeping children in care. Smoke alarms are not
required in crawl spaces and uninhabitable attics. For family child care programs in buildings
that began construction on or after March 31, 2020, smoke alarms must be installed and
maintained in each room used for children in care to sleep.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 18.new text end
new text begin Stairways.new text end
new text begin All family child care programs with stairways must:
new text end
new text begin (1) have handrails on at least one side of stairways of four or more steps;
new text end
new text begin (2) enclose any open area between the handrail and stair tread with a protective guardrail
as specified in the State Building Code. The back of the stair risers must also be enclosed;
new text end
new text begin (3) use gates at the top and bottom of stairways when children who are six to 18 months
old are in care; and
new text end
new text begin (4) keep stairways well lit, in good repair, and free of clutter and obstructions.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 19.new text end
new text begin Lofted spaces.new text end
new text begin Decks, balconies, or lofts that are used by children and are
more than 30 inches above the ground or floor must be surrounded by a protective guardrail
and be constructed in compliance with the State Building Code. The State Building Code
allows appropriate openings for access to the spaces under this subdivision, such as a
doorway or a gate. Wooden decks must be free of splinters and in good repair.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 20.new text end
new text begin Locks and latches.new text end
new text begin (a) A door latch on a closet or other confining space must
be able to be unlatched so that the door can be opened from inside the closet or other
confining space.
new text end
new text begin (b) Every interior door lock must permit opening of the locked door from the outside
and the opening device must be readily accessible to all caregivers.
new text end
new text begin (c) Exit doors must not have double cylinder locks where a key is required on both sides.
new text end
new text begin (d) Locks may not be used in place of supervision.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 21.new text end
new text begin Tobacco products, cannabis, vaping, drugs, and alcohol use
prohibitions.new text end
new text begin (a) Smoking of tobacco, cannabis, or any other product, including through
electronic delivery devices, is prohibited in both indoor and outdoor family child care
program environments and in any vehicles used by the family child care program during
hours of operation.
new text end
new text begin (b) The use of alcohol or illegal or recreational drugs is prohibited on the premises of a
family child care program during hours of operation.
new text end
new text begin (c) If the license holder allows smoking of tobacco, cannabis, or any other product,
including through electronic delivery devices, on the premises outside of child care hours,
the license holder must verbally provide notice to parents and must post written notice in
an obvious location disclosing this information.
new text end
new text begin (d) While caring for children, a caregiver must not be under the influence of any substance
that impairs the individual's ability to supervise children or perform the individual's duties.
new text end
Sec. 15.
new text begin [142I.15] CLEANING AND DISINFECTING.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin General requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) The family child care program must be free
from accumulations of dirt, peeling paint, visible or known debris, soiled items, hazardous
clutter, and pet waste.
new text end
new text begin (b) Disinfectants must:
new text end
new text begin (1) not be used prior to or in place of cleaning compounds;
new text end
new text begin (2) be mixed and used according to the manufacturer's instructions; and
new text end
new text begin (3) be used on surfaces that are contaminated with bodily fluids.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Toys.new text end
new text begin A caregiver must clean and disinfect a toy that has been in a child's mouth
prior to use by another child. Toys that come into contact with bodily fluids must be cleaned
and disinfected prior to next use. Toys must be cleaned and disinfected as needed if there
are visible or known contaminants or debris on them.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Food and eating areas.new text end
new text begin Surfaces and tools that are used for preparing or serving
food must be cleaned.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Indoor and outdoor equipment.new text end
new text begin (a) The indoor and outdoor space and
equipment of the family child care program must be clean.
new text end
new text begin (b) Natural features, elements, and materials used as equipment and play materials for
outdoor play under section 142I.14, subdivision 3, are exempt from being clean, as defined
under section 142I.01, subdivision 16. A caregiver must inspect natural features, elements,
and materials used for outdoor play for hazardous objects and other safety hazards, including
animal feces, and remove or mitigate the hazard before a child's use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Sleeping.new text end
new text begin Bedding, as defined in section 142I.17, subdivision 10, must be
cleaned and disinfected at least weekly or when visibly dirty.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Toilet training equipment.new text end
new text begin Toilet training chairs and seats must be cleaned
and disinfected after each use.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Hand washing.new text end
new text begin (a) A child's hands must be washed with soap and running
water when soiled, after the use of a toilet or toilet training chair, and before eating a meal
or snack. The caregiver must monitor and assist a child who needs help. Children's hands
must be dried on a separate or single-use towel.
new text end
new text begin (b) In sinks and tubs accessible to children, the water temperature must not be able to
exceed 120 degrees Fahrenheit.
new text end
new text begin (c) Caregivers must wash their hands with soap and water after each diaper change, after
assisting a child on the toilet, after washing the diapering surface, and before food
preparation. The caregiver's hands must be dried on a separate or single-use towel.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Diapers, changing areas, and disposal.new text end
new text begin (a) An adequate supply of clean diapers
must be available for each child who uses diapers. Diapers may be disposable or made of
cloth. Diapers must be stored in a clean space that is inaccessible to children.
new text end
new text begin (b) If a family child care program uses cloth diapers, then:
new text end
new text begin (1) the cloth diapers must have an absorbent inner layer that is completely covered with
an outer waterproof layer that has a waist closure;
new text end
new text begin (2) the cloth diaper and waterproof layer must be changed at the same time; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the cloth diapers supplied by parents, except those supplied by a commercial diaper
service, must be labeled with the child's name and must be placed in a plastic bag after
removal with any soiled clothing and sent home with the parent daily.
new text end
new text begin (c) Single-service disposable wipes or clean washcloths must be used for washing a
soiled child before rediapering.
new text end
new text begin (d) The diaper changing area must be covered with a smooth, nonabsorbent surface.
Changing tables, changing pads, and other diaper changing areas must be cleaned and
disinfected between children, even if using a nonabsorbent covering that is discarded after
each use. Diapering must not take place in a food preparation area.
new text end
new text begin (e) Disposable diapers must be disposed of in a covered container located in the diaper
changing area and lined with a disposable plastic bag or directly outdoors in a garbage can.
new text end
Sec. 16.
new text begin [142I.16] ENVIRONMENTAL HEALTH.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Water supply.new text end
new text begin (a) All family child care programs must have a safe water
supply.
new text end
new text begin (b) Family child care programs that draw water from privately owned wells must test
the water annually by a Department of Health-certified laboratory for coliform bacteria and
nitrate nitrogen and receive confirmation that the water is safe. The family child care program
must submit a copy of the test results with the agency. Retesting and corrective measures
may be required by the agency if results do not meet state drinking water standards or where
the supply may be subject to off-site contamination. A copy of the most recent water testing
results must be kept on the licensed premises. If the water test results are at or above
Department of Health-recommended levels or if the license holder declines to test the water
supply in the program, the license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) supply bottled or packaged water;
new text end
new text begin (2) use water filtration devices that have been certified by the National Science
Foundation or American National Standards Institute to remove the contaminant. The water
filtration device must be attached directly to water faucets, inserted into the refrigerator
water dispenser, or inserted into water pitchers or bottles. The water filtration device must
be maintained according to manufacturer guidelines; or
new text end
new text begin (3) close the family child care program to prevent children from using or consuming
unsafe water.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Radon testing.new text end
new text begin (a) The license holder must notify parents whether radon testing
has been conducted in the family child care program upon enrollment and within 30 days
of any subsequent testing done after enrollment.
new text end
new text begin (b) When notifying parents, the license holder must use a form prescribed by the
commissioner. The notice must include information from the Department of Health about
what radon is and the potential risks associated with radon exposure. If testing has been
completed, the notice must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) the date of the most recent test;
new text end
new text begin (2) the rooms or areas tested; and
new text end
new text begin (3) the detected radon level or levels, stated in picocuries per liter (pCi/L).
new text end
new text begin (c) A copy of the most recent notice to parents and the radon test results must be kept
on site and made available to parents and the commissioner upon request.
new text end
new text begin (d) The notification requirements under this subdivision may be met by posting the form
in a prominent place.
new text end
Sec. 17.
new text begin [142I.17] ACTIVITIES AND EQUIPMENT.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin General activities.new text end
new text begin Child care activities must provide for the physical,
intellectual, emotional, and social development of the children in care at a family child care
program. Activities must include infants, toddlers, preschoolers, and school-age children
and:
new text end
new text begin (1) be scheduled indoors and outdoors daily, weather permitting. When determining if
the weather permits outdoor play, a license holder must defer to weather advisory
notifications, including air quality emergencies, provided by local weather experts, local or
state authority on air quality, or public health;
new text end
new text begin (2) be appropriate to the age and developmental stage of the child;
new text end
new text begin (3) include active and quiet activity; and
new text end
new text begin (4) include both caregiver- and child-directed activities.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Equipment.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must provide children in a family child care
program with:
new text end
new text begin (1) sufficient play equipment to allow each child a choice of at least three activities
involving equipment when all children are using equipment;
new text end
new text begin (2) early learning materials, play equipment, and space that are age and developmentally
appropriate and support understanding of the culturally diverse world; and
new text end
new text begin (3) play equipment that is safe, in good repair, and used in accordance with the
manufacturer's instructions, if applicable. Equipment and play materials not designed or
marketed for use by children, including but not limited to repurposed, homemade, and
open-ended items, must be appropriate to the age and size of children, in good repair, and
used under the supervision of a caregiver. Such equipment and play materials are not required
to have manufacturer's instructions and are subject to the requirements of this subdivision.
new text end
new text begin (b) Equipment provided to children under this section may be new, used, commercially
made, or homemade. The equipment must be appropriate for the ages of the children and
for the activities for which it will be used. As appropriate, nature material may be used in
place of any equipment.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Newborn or infant activities.new text end
new text begin A caregiver must:
new text end
new text begin (1) hold a newborn or infant during feedings until the child can hold the bottle. A bottle
cannot be propped up for a newborn or infant;
new text end
new text begin (2) respond to a newborn's or infant's attempts to communicate;
new text end
new text begin (3) develop infant language and communication by responding to a newborn's or infant's
attempts to communicate by mirroring similar sounds, sharing the child's focus of attention,
talking to the newborn or infant, naming objects, and describing actions;
new text end
new text begin (4) provide a newborn or infant with freedom of movement to sit safely and comfortably,
crawl, toddle, walk, and play both indoors and outdoors throughout the day;
new text end
new text begin (5) provide a newborn or infant an opportunity to stimulate the senses by providing a
variety of activities and objects to see, touch, feel, smell, hear, and taste;
new text end
new text begin (6) provide activities for a newborn or infant that develop the child's manipulative and
fine motor skills;
new text end
new text begin (7) provide activities for self-awareness;
new text end
new text begin (8) provide activities to support a newborn or infant to develop social-emotional skills;
new text end
new text begin (9) provide activities to support a newborn or infant to develop gross motor skills; and
new text end
new text begin (10) allow a newborn or infant actively supervised tummy time. For the purposes of this
clause, "tummy time" means placing a newborn or infant in a nonrestrictive prone position,
lying on their stomach. Tummy time should occur throughout the day when a newborn or
infant is awake. A newborn or infant must not be wearing anything to restrict movement
during tummy time.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Newborn and infant equipment.new text end
new text begin When caring for newborns or infants, a
license holder must provide:
new text end
new text begin (1) an infant seat or high chair, as appropriate, for each newborn and infant in attendance;
new text end
new text begin (2) a crib or portable crib with a mattress or pad for each newborn and infant in attendance
that is in compliance with current Consumer Product Safety Commission safety standards
and chapter 142B.45. The license holder must maintain documentation on site that the
equipment used meets these requirements and provide it to the commissioner and parents
as requested;
new text end
new text begin (3) books and literacy materials;
new text end
new text begin (4) gross motor activity equipment; and
new text end
new text begin (5) fine motor activity materials.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Toddler activities.new text end
new text begin When caring for toddlers, a license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) provide the toddler with freedom of movement and freedom to explore outside the
crib or portable crib and allow the toddler to comfortably sit, crawl, toddle, walk, and play
according to the toddler's stage of development;
new text end
new text begin (2) talk to, listen to, and interact with the toddler to encourage language development;
new text end
new text begin (3) provide the toddler with activities that develop the toddler's fine and gross motor
skills;
new text end
new text begin (4) give the toddler opportunities to stimulate the senses by providing a variety of
age-appropriate activities and objects to see, touch, feel, smell, hear, and taste; and
new text end
new text begin (5) provide activities to support the toddler to develop social-emotional skills.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Toddler equipment.new text end
new text begin When caring for toddlers, a license holder must provide:
new text end
new text begin (1) separate sleeping equipment for each toddler such as a mat, crib, cot, bed, sofa, or
sleeping bag that is cleaned and maintained as required in subdivision 10 and section 142I.15,
subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (2) gross motor play equipment;
new text end
new text begin (3) books and literacy materials;
new text end
new text begin (4) fine motor, math, and science materials; and
new text end
new text begin (5) music, movement, and art activity materials.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Preschooler activities.new text end
new text begin When caring for preschoolers, a license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) encourage conversation between the preschooler and other children and adults;
new text end
new text begin (2) provide opportunity to play near and with other children, provide time and space for
individual and group play, allow for quiet times to talk or rest, and allow for unplanned
time and individual play time;
new text end
new text begin (3) foster understanding of personal and peer feelings and actions and allow for the
constructive release of a range of feelings through discussion or play;
new text end
new text begin (4) give assistance in toileting and provide time to carry out self-help skills and provide
opportunities to be responsible for activities;
new text end
new text begin (5) provide opportunities for each preschooler to make decisions about daily activities
and to learn from the decision-making experiences;
new text end
new text begin (6) provide time and areas for age-appropriate gross motor play;
new text end
new text begin (7) provide learning, fine-motor, manipulative, creative, or sensory activities; and
new text end
new text begin (8) read stories, look at books, and talk about new words and ideas with the preschooler.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin Preschooler equipment.new text end
new text begin When caring for preschoolers, a license holder must
provide:
new text end
new text begin (1) separate sleeping equipment for each preschooler such as a mat, bed, cot, sofa, or
sleeping bag for each preschooler that is cleaned and maintained as required under
subdivision 10 and section 142I.15, subdivision 5;
new text end
new text begin (2) dramatic play equipment;
new text end
new text begin (3) books and literacy materials;
new text end
new text begin (4) fine motor materials;
new text end
new text begin (5) gross motor play equipment;
new text end
new text begin (6) math materials;
new text end
new text begin (7) science materials;
new text end
new text begin (8) music and movement materials; and
new text end
new text begin (9) art materials.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin School-age activities and equipment.new text end
new text begin When caring for school-age children,
a license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) provide opportunities for individual discussion about the day and planning for
activities;
new text end
new text begin (2) provide space, opportunities, and materials or equipment for games, activities, or
sports using the whole body;
new text end
new text begin (3) have available space, bedding materials, and opportunities for individual rest and
quiet time required under subdivision 10;
new text end
new text begin (4) allow increased freedom as the school-age child demonstrates increased responsibility;
new text end
new text begin (5) provide opportunities for group experiences with other children;
new text end
new text begin (6) provide opportunities to develop or expand self-help skills or real-life experiences;
and
new text end
new text begin (7) provide opportunities and materials for creative and dramatic activity, arts, and crafts.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Bedding.new text end
new text begin Clean, separate, and individual bedding such as sheets, towels,
blankets, or sleeping bags must be available for each child in care. For children not using
cribs or portable cribs, the license holder must provide developmentally appropriate mats,
cots, or other sleep equipment that can be cleaned and disinfected according to section
142I.15. Mats, cots, and other sleep equipment used in the family child care program must
be in good condition and have no tears or holes and be covered in individual bedding.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 11.new text end
new text begin Separation of personal articles.new text end
new text begin Separate towels, wash cloths, water bottles,
and drinking cups must be used for each child and labeled appropriately.
new text end
Sec. 18.
new text begin [142I.171] NATURAL ELEMENTS AND MATERIALS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Natural elements and materials.new text end
new text begin A license holder may provide children
with access to natural elements and materials as equipment and play materials. Natural
elements and materials and appropriate uses of natural elements and materials include, but
are not limited to:
new text end
new text begin (1) natural loose parts, such as sticks, leaves, pine cones, acorns, seeds, pods, bark, and
moss for construction, art, sensory exploration, and imaginative play;
new text end
new text begin (2) natural materials, such as dirt, mud, sand, water, ice, and snow for sensory play and
exploration;
new text end
new text begin (3) plants, flowers, seeds, vegetables, and gardening materials for science exploration
and learning;
new text end
new text begin (4) rocks, pebbles, stones, and minerals for counting, sorting, building, and art;
new text end
new text begin (5) natural areas such as gardens, prairie, forest, wetlands, and ponds for exploration
and learning; and
new text end
new text begin (6) other natural elements as appropriate to age and development of children.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Supervision.new text end
new text begin A caregiver must supervise a child's use of natural elements and
materials and provide guidance on safe and appropriate use. Natural elements and materials
that are a choking hazard must not be accessible to children under the age of three without
direct supervision of a caregiver.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Other uses.new text end
new text begin Natural elements and materials may qualify as equipment and
materials under section 142I.17, subdivisions 4, 6, 8, and 9.
new text end
Sec. 19.
new text begin [142I.18] INFANT SLEEP AND CRIB REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Safety.new text end
new text begin All caregivers must follow the crib safety requirements in section
142B.45 and the requirements to reduce the risk of sudden unexpected infant deaths in
section 142B.46. During routine licensing inspections and when investigating complaints
regarding alleged violations of this section, the commissioner must review the license
holder's documentation required under section 142B.45.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Monitoring sleeping newborns and infants.new text end
new text begin (a) Caregivers must directly
supervise newborns once they are placed in a crib or portable crib.
new text end
new text begin (b) License holders of programs that serve infants are encouraged to monitor sleeping
infants by conducting in-person checks on each infant in the license holder's care every 30
minutes.
new text end
new text begin (c) Upon enrollment of an infant, the license holder is encouraged to conduct in-person
checks on the sleeping infant every 15 minutes during the first four months of care.
new text end
new text begin (d) When an infant has an upper respiratory infection, the license holder is encouraged
to conduct in-person checks on the sleeping infant every 15 minutes throughout the hours
of sleep.
new text end
new text begin (e) Monitors may be used to supervise infants when the infants are sleeping. However,
the use of monitors does not replace the in-person checks encouraged under paragraphs (b)
to (d). When in use, monitors must meet the following conditions:
new text end
new text begin (1) the sound monitoring equipment must be able to pick up the sounds of all infants in
the separate room;
new text end
new text begin (2) the receiver of the sound monitoring equipment must be actively monitored by the
adult caregiver at all times; and
new text end
new text begin (3) sound monitoring equipment must be checked daily prior to use to ensure it is working
correctly. If the sound equipment is not functioning, infants must sleep in the same room
as the adult caregiver.
new text end
new text begin (f) If music or other sounds are played in the infant sleep area, the music or other sound
equipment must not be played at a volume that would prevent infants from being heard by
the adult caregiver. This paragraph applies to fans used to create sound.
new text end
Sec. 20.
new text begin [142I.19] HEALTH POLICIES AND SAFETY REQUIREMENTS.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Handling and disposal of bodily fluids.new text end
new text begin (a) Surfaces that come in contact
with bodily fluids must be cleaned and disinfected as described in section 142I.15.
new text end
new text begin (b) Blood-contaminated material must be disposed of in a plastic bag and securely tied.
new text end
new text begin (c) If a program cares for a child with a health care need that requires injectable
medication, the program must have a sharps container available.
new text end
new text begin (d) A license holder must keep disposable gloves, disposal bags, and eye protection
available. Prescription eyewear does not meet the requirements of this paragraph.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Emergencies.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must have a written child care emergency
plan for emergencies that require evacuation, sheltering, or other protection of children,
including for fires, natural disasters, intruders, or other threatening situations that may pose
a health or safety hazard to children. The plan must be written on a form prescribed by the
commissioner and updated at least annually. The plan must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) procedures for an evacuation, relocation, shelter-in-place, or lockdown;
new text end
new text begin (2) a designated relocation site and evacuation route;
new text end
new text begin (3) procedures for notifying a child's parent of an evacuation, shelter-in-place, or
lockdown, including procedures for reunification with families;
new text end
new text begin (4) accommodations for a child with a disability or a medical condition;
new text end
new text begin (5) procedures for storing a child's medically necessary medicine that facilitate easy
removal during an evacuation or relocation;
new text end
new text begin (6) procedures for continuing operations in the period during and after a crisis;
new text end
new text begin (7) procedures for communicating with local emergency management officials, law
enforcement officials, or other appropriate state or local authorities; and
new text end
new text begin (8) accommodations for infants and toddlers.
new text end
new text begin (b) The license holder must train each caregiver on the child care emergency plan before
the caregiver provides care and document this training. The information must be reviewed
at least annually and updated when information changes.
new text end
new text begin (c) The child care emergency plan must be available for review by the agency during
inspections.
new text end
new text begin (d) In addition to the emergency plan required under paragraph (a), the license holder
must maintain preparedness for emergencies. An operable telephone must be located in the
family child care program. A cellular telephone may be used if it is sufficiently charged for
use at all times. Emergency phone numbers for parents must be readily available within the
program and taken on all emergency drills and evacuations.
new text end
new text begin (e) For severe storms and tornadoes, the license holder must have a designated area that
children can go to for shelter, a battery-operated flashlight, and a portable radio or TV
available. An application on a smartphone may be used to meet the requirements of this
paragraph. The license holder must follow guidance and instructions from the Emergency
Alert System or local alerting systems.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must have a written fire escape plan that includes:
new text end
new text begin (1) the address of the family child care program;
new text end
new text begin (2) emergency phone numbers;
new text end
new text begin (3) a designated place to meet and confirm that all children in attendance are present;
new text end
new text begin (4) fire extinguisher locations;
new text end
new text begin (5) plans for monthly fire and storm drills; and
new text end
new text begin (6) escape routes to the outside from all levels used by children. In buildings with three
or more dwelling units, enclosed exit stairs must be indicated.
new text end
new text begin (g) The license holder must complete a monthly fire and storm drill and have
documentation of completed fire drills available for review by the agency during inspections.
The log must include the date of the drill, the time of day the drill occurred, the name of
the caregiver who conducted the drill, and the length of time taken to evacuate all children
safely.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Transporting children.new text end
new text begin Children must only be transported in an enclosed
passenger vehicle capable of using car seats or a bus operated by a common carrier. When
transporting children in an enclosed passenger vehicle other than a bus operated by a common
carrier, a license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) ensure compliance with all seat belt and child passenger restraint system requirements
under sections 169.685 and 169.686;
new text end
new text begin (2) ensure that the child is fastened in a safety seat, seat belt, or harness appropriate to
the age and weight of the child and the restraint is installed and used in accordance with the
manufacturer's instructions;
new text end
new text begin (3) only use a vehicle licensed in accordance with the laws of the state and driven by a
caregiver with a current, valid driver's license. A copy of the current driver's license for
each caregiver who transports a child in care must be kept at the family child care program;
new text end
new text begin (4) receive written permission to transport children from parents prior to transport; and
new text end
new text begin (5) not allow a child to remain unattended in any vehicle.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Pets and animals.new text end
new text begin When keeping pets or animals on the site of a family child
care program or allowing children to have contact with pets or animals, the primary provider
of care must:
new text end
new text begin (1) maintain the pets or animals in good health and proper housing. Pets or animals must
be appropriately immunized, and rabies vaccinations must be documented with a current
certificate from a veterinarian when appropriate;
new text end
new text begin (2) follow all local and state ordinances regarding the keeping, licensing, number, and
health status of animals;
new text end
new text begin (3) restrict any animals that pose a risk of injury or illness to children from indoor and
outdoor areas used by children;
new text end
new text begin (4) inform parents in writing of the presence of pets and animals on the premises. If pets
or animals are allowed to roam in areas occupied by children, the license holder must obtain
written acknowledgment from parents. Parents must be notified in writing prior to the
introduction of a new pet;
new text end
new text begin (5) keep any reptiles, amphibians, ferrets, poisonous animals, psittacine birds, exotic
animals, and wild animals inaccessible to children. Licensed animal exhibitions, such as
mobile petting zoos, reptile shows, and educational presentations are exempt from this
clause with written parental notice and consent;
new text end
new text begin (6) not allow any contact between children and pets or animals that is not directly
supervised by an adult caregiver who is in close physical proximity and able to immediately
intervene if the child or animal shows distress or aggression or if the child is treating the
animal inappropriately;
new text end
new text begin (7) immediately intervene to protect a child when necessary;
new text end
new text begin (8) prevent pets and animals from accessing food preparation, storage, and serving areas
when food is being prepared or served, unless confined in a cage or kennel. Litter boxes
are prohibited in any food preparation, storage, or serving areas;
new text end
new text begin (9) keep indoor and outdoor areas accessible to children free of animal waste, including
litter boxes and their contents. Pet cages, enclosures, and aquariums accessible to children
must be located and cleaned away from food areas;
new text end
new text begin (10) immediately notify a parent of a child who receives an animal bite or scratch;
new text end
new text begin (11) notify the local animal authority whenever an individual is bitten by an animal on
the day of injury. The notification must be made before any steps are taken to euthanize the
animal, and the license holder must take reasonable steps to confine the animal; and
new text end
new text begin (12) notify the licensing agency within 24 hours of any animal bite from an animal
housed at the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Pest control.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must take effective measures to protect the
family child care program against pests. The license holder must take steps to prevent
attracting pests and, if pests are present inside the family child care program, to remove or
exterminate the pests.
new text end
new text begin (b) Chemicals for pest control must not be applied in areas accessible to children when
children are present. The license holder must use chemicals according to manufacturer
instructions. Only approved, Environmental Protection Agency-registered insecticides,
rodenticides, and herbicides may be used. Application must strictly follow all label
instructions.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Garbage.new text end
new text begin Garbage must be inaccessible to infants and toddlers. Garbage is
considered inaccessible when the garbage container has a lid on.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Firearms.new text end
new text begin Ammunition and firearms must be stored in locked areas separated
from areas accessible to children. Firearms must be unloaded while stored.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text end
new text begin First aid kit.new text end
new text begin A license holder must have a first aid kit that is accessible to
caregivers in the family child care program at all times and taken on field trips. A caregiver
must have access to first aid instructions. The first aid kit must contain:
new text end
new text begin (1) adhesive bandages in assorted sizes and tape;
new text end
new text begin (2) sterile compresses;
new text end
new text begin (3) scissors;
new text end
new text begin (4) an ice bag or cold pack;
new text end
new text begin (5) a thermometer;
new text end
new text begin (6) mild liquid soap, hand sanitizer, or alcohol wipes; and
new text end
new text begin (7) disposable powder-free, latex-free gloves.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin Care of sick children.new text end
new text begin (a) If the child becomes sick while at the family child
care program, the child must be separated from other children in care to the extent possible
while still maintaining appropriate supervision, and the child's parent must be called
immediately. When determining if a child is sick and exclusion is necessary, a license holder
must follow:
new text end
new text begin (1) the requirements on reportable diseases in Minnesota Rules, parts 4605.7040,
4605.7070, and 4605.7080; and
new text end
new text begin (2) the guidelines from the commissioner of health on infectious diseases in child care
settings.
new text end
new text begin (b) When notified a child in care is sick with a reportable disease under Minnesota Rules,
part 4605.7040, 4605.7050, or 4605.7080, the license holder must:
new text end
new text begin (1) follow the family child care program policies on reportable or infectious diseases;
and
new text end
new text begin (2) notify the commissioner of health within 24 hours of receiving the parent or staff
report. Documentation of the notification must be kept at the family child care program.
new text end
new text begin (c) Children with a reportable disease in paragraph (b) must be excluded from the family
child care program for the length of time specified in the commissioner of health guidelines
on infectious diseases in child care settings, until the child can participate in routine activities
without more caregiver supervision than usual or until the child's health care provider
determines that exclusion is no longer necessary, whichever is longer.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 10.new text end
new text begin Medication administration requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) A license holder must obtain
written permission from the parent of a child prior to administering nonprescription medicine,
diapering products, sunscreen lotions, and insect repellents. These items must be administered
according to the manufacturer instructions unless written instructions for their use are
provided by a health care provider.
new text end
new text begin (b) A license holder must obtain and follow written instructions from a health care
provider or dentist prior to administering each prescribed medication. For the purposes of
this paragraph, "instructions" means the label on a medicine container with the child's name
and current prescription information.
new text end
Sec. 21.
new text begin [142I.20] FOOD AND NUTRITION.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Feeding.new text end
new text begin (a) Bottles of frozen breast milk or formula must be thawed
under warm running water, in a container of warm water, with a warming device, or in a
refrigerator. Thawed milk must be used, sent home, or disposed of the same day it is thawed.
new text end
new text begin (b) Caregivers must not warm plastic bottles, sippy cups, or other plastic food containers
in a microwave.
new text end
new text begin (c) Once bottle feeding is complete, any unused portion must be disposed of or stored
inaccessible to children in care. Bottles provided by or stored at the family child care program
must be washed prior to the next use.
new text end
new text begin (d) Caregivers must not serve food to infants or toddlers using polystyrene foam
(Styrofoam) cups, bowls, or plates.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Milk.new text end
new text begin Cow's milk served to children in care must be pasteurized. Milk
alternatives that are nutritionally equivalent to cow's milk can be served in place of milk
for children who require it.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Drinking water.new text end
new text begin Drinking water from a safe source according to section 142I.16
must be readily available and offered to the children throughout the day in indoor and
outdoor areas.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Meals and snacks.new text end
new text begin (a) Well-balanced meals and snacks must be supplied by
the license holder or parents daily. Every meal and snack served to children in care must
meet the following requirements:
new text end
new text begin (1) breakfast must contain at least three of the following:
new text end
new text begin (i) pasteurized milk or milk alternatives;
new text end
new text begin (ii) vegetables;
new text end
new text begin (iii) fruit; or
new text end
new text begin (iv) grains;
new text end
new text begin (2) lunch and dinner must contain at least four of the following:
new text end
new text begin (i) pasteurized milk or milk alternatives;
new text end
new text begin (ii) meat or meat alternatives;
new text end
new text begin (iii) vegetables;
new text end
new text begin (iv) fruit; or
new text end
new text begin (v) grains; and
new text end
new text begin (3) snacks must contain at least two of the following:
new text end
new text begin (i) pasteurized milk or milk alternatives;
new text end
new text begin (ii) meat or meat alternatives;
new text end
new text begin (iii) vegetables;
new text end
new text begin (iv) fruit; or
new text end
new text begin (v) grains.
new text end
new text begin (b) Food, liquids, and bottles brought from home must be labeled with the first and last
name of each child.
new text end
new text begin (c) Flexible feeding schedules must be provided for infants.
new text end
new text begin (d) When special diets are required for cultural, religious, or medical reasons, the provider
must obtain written, dated, and signed instructions from the child's parent.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Food and liquid safety.new text end
new text begin (a) Food and liquids must be handled and stored
properly to prevent contamination and spoilage. Foods and liquids requiring refrigeration
must be refrigerated and maintained at no more than 40 degrees Fahrenheit. Food requiring
heating must be maintained at no less than 140 degrees Fahrenheit until ready to serve.
Frozen foods must be kept frozen until use and cooked according to the manufacturer's
instructions.
new text end
new text begin (b) Appliances used in food and liquid storage and preparation must be safe and clean.
new text end
new text begin (c) All canned food provided by the license holder must be commercially processed.
Locally grown fresh and frozen fruits and vegetables may be served at the family child care
program. Food canned or preserved at home and home-butchered meats, poultry, and fish
may not be served to children in care.
new text end
Sec. 22.
new text begin [142I.21] CHILDREN WITH SPECIAL HEALTH CARE NEEDS OR
DISABILITIES.
new text end
new text begin (a) For children with disabilities who require therapy, additional behavior guidance,
programming, or alternative accommodations, a parent or health care provider must provide
written instructions for the license holder to follow.
new text end
new text begin (b) All activities must be designed to include all children unless a specific medical
contraindication exists.
new text end
new text begin (c) All caregivers responsible for the care of a child with a disability or special health
care need must explain to a parent and the agency how the child's specific needs are being
met.
new text end
new text begin (d) Before enrolling a child for care, the license holder must obtain documentation of
any known allergies on a form prescribed by the commissioner. The form must be readily
available to all caregivers and reviewed by the license holder and each caregiver annually
and when any updates or changes are made.
new text end
new text begin (e) If a child has a known allergy, the primary provider of care must maintain current
information about the allergy in the child's record, ensure that required medication is on
hand, and follow the allergy plan signed by a treating medical professional. The child's plan
must include:
new text end
new text begin (1) a description of the allergy;
new text end
new text begin (2) specific triggers and avoidance techniques;
new text end
new text begin (3) symptoms of an allergic reaction; and
new text end
new text begin (4) procedures for responding to an allergic reaction, including any medication and
dosage to be administered in an emergency situation.
new text end
new text begin (f) A caregiver must call emergency medical services when epinephrine is administered
to a child in the license holder's care.
new text end
new text begin (g) The caregiver must contact the child's parent immediately after any instance of
exposure to an allergen or allergic reaction.
new text end
Sec. 23.
new text begin [142I.22] COMMUNITY-BASED FAMILY CHILD CARE.
new text end
new text begin (a) A family child care program located on a site other than the license holder's primary
residence must be licensed under this section if:
new text end
new text begin (1) the family child care program is conducted in a dwelling on a residential lot or in a
commercial space other than the license holder's primary residence;
new text end
new text begin (2) the license holder is an organization, employer, church, or religious entity; or
new text end
new text begin (3) the license holder is a community collaborative child care provider. For purposes of
this clause, a "community collaborative child care provider" is a provider participating in
a cooperative agreement with a community action agency as defined in section 142F.301.
new text end
new text begin (b) Programs licensed under paragraph (a) must comply with local zoning regulations,
the applicable State Fire Code, and the State Building Code. Any age and capacity limitations
established by the fire code must be printed on the license.
new text end
new text begin (c) A license holder under this section must designate at least one primary provider of
care as follows:
new text end
new text begin (1) one individual for programs operating eight or fewer hours per day;
new text end
new text begin (2) up to two individuals for programs operating more than eight but no more than 16
hours per day; and
new text end
new text begin (3) up to three individuals for programs operating more than 16 hours per day.
new text end
new text begin (d) The license issued under this section must include the statement: "This
community-based family child care license holder is not licensed as a child care center."
new text end
new text begin (e) The commissioner may approve up to six licenses at the same location or under one
contiguous roof if each license holder independently meets all applicable requirements and
the program location site does not have an R-2 residential occupancy designation. Each
family child care program must operate as a distinct family child care program within its
licensed capacity, age, and ratio limits as determined by the state fire marshal. Only one
license may be issued per single-family residential home.
new text end
new text begin (f) The license holder must notify the commissioner in writing before any change in the
persons designated as primary providers of care. A primary provider of care is authorized
to communicate with the commissioner on licensing matters.
new text end
new text begin (g) Each license holder must complete the commissioner-developed community-based
family child care program plan at the time of initial application, review the plan each calendar
year, and update the plan before any change in program information occurs.
new text end
Sec. 24. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end
new text begin (a) The revisor of statutes must make any necessary changes to statutory cross-references
to reflect the changes in this article.
new text end
new text begin (b) The revisor of statutes must replicate the statutory history for all sections and
subdivisions repealed and reenacted in this article.
new text end
Sec. 25. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin (a)new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.01, subdivision 13; 142B.41, subdivisions
4 and 8; 142B.62; 142B.70, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11, and 12; 142B.71; 142B.72;
142B.74; 142B.75; 142B.76; and 142B.77,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
new text begin (b)new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.41, subdivision 9; and 142B.70,
subdivisions 7 and 8,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
new text begin (c)new text end new text begin Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300; 9502.0315; 9502.0325; 9502.0335; 9502.0341;
9502.0345; 9502.0355; 9502.0365; 9502.0367; 9502.0375; 9502.0395; 9502.0405;
9502.0415; 9502.0425; 9502.0435; and 9502.0445,new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end
Sec. 26. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective July 1, 2027.
new text end
ARTICLE 14
MISCELLANEOUS
Section 1.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62A.01, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Direct primary care service agreements.new text end
new text begin (a) A direct primary care service
agreement under section 62Q.20 is not insurance and is not subject to this chapter. Entering
into a direct primary care service agreement is not the business of insurance and is not
subject to this chapter or chapter 60A.
new text end
new text begin (b) A health care provider or agent of a health care provider is not required to obtain a
certificate of authority or license under this chapter or chapter 60A, 62C, 62D, or 62N to
market, sell, or offer to sell a direct primary care service agreement that meets the
requirements of section 62Q.20.
new text end
Sec. 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62A.011, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3.
Health plan.
"Health plan" means a policy or certificate of accident and sickness
insurance as defined in section 62A.01 offered by an insurance company licensed under
chapter 60A; a subscriber contract or certificate offered by a nonprofit health service plan
corporation operating under chapter 62C; a health maintenance contract or certificate offered
by a health maintenance organization operating under chapter 62D; a health benefit certificate
offered by a fraternal benefit society operating under chapter 64B; or health coverage offered
by a joint self-insurance employee health plan operating under chapter 62H. Health plan
means individual and group coverage, unless otherwise specified. Health plan does not
include coverage that is:
(1) limited to disability or income protection coverage;
(2) automobile medical payment coverage;
(3) liability insurance, including general liability insurance and automobile liability
insurance, or coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance;
(4) designed solely to provide payments on a per diem, fixed indemnity, or
non-expense-incurred basis, including coverage only for a specified disease or illness or
hospital indemnity or other fixed indemnity insurance, if the benefits are provided under a
separate policy, certificate, or contract for insurance; there is no coordination between the
provision of benefits and any exclusion of benefits under any group health plan maintained
by the same plan sponsor; and the benefits are paid with respect to an event without regard
to whether benefits are provided with respect to such an event under any group health plan
maintained by the same plan sponsor;
(5) credit accident and health insurance as defined in section 62B.02;
(6) designed solely to provide hearing, dental, or vision care;
(7) blanket accident and sickness insurance as defined in section 62A.11;
(8) accident-only coverage;
(9) a long-term care policy as defined in section 62A.46 or 62S.01;
(10) issued as a supplement to Medicare, as defined in sections 62A.3099 to 62A.44, or
policies, contracts, or certificates that supplement Medicare issued by health maintenance
organizations or those policies, contracts, or certificates governed by section 1833 or 1876,
section 1851, et seq.; or section 1860D-1, et seq., of title XVIII of the federal Social Security
Act, et seq., as amended;
(11) workers' compensation insurance;
(12) issued solely as a companion to a health maintenance contract as described in section
62D.12, subdivision 1a, so long as the health maintenance contract meets the definition of
a health plan;
(13) coverage for on-site medical clinics; deleted text begin or
deleted text end
(14) coverage supplemental to the coverage provided under United States Code, title
10, chapter 55, Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services
(CHAMPUS)deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; or
new text end
new text begin (15) coverage provided under a direct primary care service agreement described under
section 62Q.20.
new text end
Sec. 3.
new text begin [62Q.20] DIRECT PRIMARY CARE SERVICE AGREEMENT.
new text end
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text end
new text begin Definitions.new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
new text end
new text begin (b) "Direct fee" means a fee charged by a direct primary care practice as consideration
for being available to provide and for providing primary care services to a direct patient as
specified in the direct agreement.
new text end
new text begin (c) "Direct patient" means an individual who is party to a direct agreement and is entitled
to receive primary care services under the direct agreement from the direct primary care
practice.
new text end
new text begin (d) "Direct primary care practice" or "direct practice" means a primary care provider
who furnishes primary care services through a direct agreement.
new text end
new text begin (e) "Direct primary care service agreement" or "direct agreement" means a written
agreement entered into between a direct primary care practice and a direct patient, or the
direct patient's legal representative, in which the primary care direct practice charges a direct
fee as consideration for being available to provide and for providing direct primary care
services to the direct patient.
new text end
new text begin (f) "Primary care provider" means a physician who is licensed under chapter 147 or an
advanced practice registered nurse licensed under chapter 148, who is authorized to engage
in independent practice, and who is qualified to provide primary care services. This term
includes an individual primary care provider or a group of primary care providers.
new text end
new text begin (g) "Primary care services" means:
new text end
new text begin (1) routine health care services, including screening, assessment, diagnosis, and treatment
for the purpose of the promotion of health, and the detection and management of disease
or injury within the competency and training of the primary care provider;
new text end
new text begin (2) medical supplies and prescription drugs that are administered or dispensed in the
primary care provider's office or clinic; and
new text end
new text begin (3) laboratory work, including routine blood screening and routine pathology screening
performed by a laboratory that is either associated with the direct primary care practice or
is not associated with the direct primary care practice but has entered into a contract with
the practice to provide laboratory work without charging a fee to the patient for the laboratory
work.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text end
new text begin Direct primary care services agreement requirements.new text end
new text begin (a) To be considered
a direct primary care service agreement for purposes of this section, the direct agreement
must:
new text end
new text begin (1) be in writing;
new text end
new text begin (2) be signed by the primary care provider or agent of the primary care practice and the
direct patient or the patient's legal representative;
new text end
new text begin (3) allow either party to terminate the direct agreement upon written notice to the other
party according to subdivision 3;
new text end
new text begin (4) describe the scope of the primary care services that are to be covered under the direct
agreement;
new text end
new text begin (5) specify the fee to be paid on a monthly basis or as specified in the direct agreement;
and
new text end
new text begin (6) specify the duration of the direct agreement.
new text end
new text begin (b) The direct agreement must clearly state that a direct primary care service agreement:
is not considered health insurance; does not meet the requirements of federal law mandating
individuals to purchase health insurance; and the fees charged in the agreement may not be
reimbursed or applied toward a deductible under a health plan offered through a health plan
company.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text end
new text begin Acceptance and discontinuance of patients.new text end
new text begin (a) A direct practice may not
decline to accept a new patient or discontinue care to an existing patient solely on the basis
of the patient's health status. A direct practice may decline to accept a patient if:
new text end
new text begin (1) the practice has reached its maximum capacity;
new text end
new text begin (2) the patient's medical condition is such that the practice is unable to provide the level
and type of primary care services the patient requires; or
new text end
new text begin (3) the patient has previously terminated a direct agreement with the direct practice
within the preceding year.
new text end
new text begin (b) A direct patient or the patient's legal representative may terminate a direct agreement
for any reason by providing written notice to the direct practice. Termination of the direct
agreement is effective the first day of the month following the month the termination notice
is provided to the direct practice. A direct practice may subsequently decline to accept the
direct patient as a patient if the patient has terminated a previous direct agreement with the
direct practice within the preceding year.
new text end
new text begin (c) A direct practice may terminate a direct agreement for any reason by providing
written notice to the direct patient or the direct patient's representative. A direct practice
must provide notice of termination at least 30 days prior to the effective date of termination.
new text end
new text begin (d) A direct practice may discontinue care to a direct patient if the direct practice
discontinues operation as a direct primary care practice. Notice must be provided to the
direct patient or the patient's legal representative specifying the effective date of termination.
Notice must be sufficient to provide the patient with the opportunity to obtain care from
another provider.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text end
new text begin Direct fees.new text end
new text begin (a) The direct fee charged must represent the total amount due for
all primary care services specified in the direct agreement provided to the direct patient
within the specified time period. The direct fee must not vary from patient to patient based
on the patient's health status or sex. The direct fee may be paid by the direct patient, by the
patient's legal representative, or on the patient's behalf by a third party. The direct fee may
be billed at the end of each monthly period or may be paid in advance for a period not to
exceed 12 months.
new text end
new text begin (b) Upon receipt of a written notice of termination of the direct agreement from a direct
patient or the patient's legal representative, the direct practice must promptly refund the
unearned amount of the direct fees. If the direct practice discontinues care for any reason
described under subdivision 3, the direct practice must promptly refund to the direct patient
the unearned amount of the direct fees at a prorated amount of the direct fee earned for the
current month based on the date the notice for termination was sent to the direct patient or
the direct patient's legal representative.
new text end
new text begin (c) A direct practice shall not increase the monthly fee that has been negotiated with an
existing direct patient more frequently than on an annual basis. A direct practice must
provide advance notice of at least 60 days to existing patients of any change in the direct
fee.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text end
new text begin Conduct of business.new text end
new text begin (a) A direct practice must maintain appropriate accounts
regarding payments made and services received by a direct patient and upon request provide
any data requested to the direct patient or the patient's legal representative.
new text end
new text begin (b) A direct practice must not submit a claim for payment to a health plan company for
a primary care service provided to a direct patient that is covered by a direct agreement.
new text end
new text begin (c) No person shall make, publish, or disseminate any false, deceptive, or misleading
representation or advertising related to the business of a direct practice.
new text end
new text begin (d) No person shall make, issue, or circulate, or cause to be made, issued, or circulated,
a misrepresentation of the terms of a direct agreement or the benefits or advantages promised,
or use the name or title of a direct agreement misrepresenting the nature of the direct
agreement.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text end
new text begin Other care not prohibited.new text end
new text begin A direct primary care practice is not prohibited
from providing services to other patients under a separate contract with a health plan
company.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text end
new text begin Enforcement.new text end
new text begin A violation of this section shall constitute unprofessional conduct
and may be grounds for disciplinary action under chapters 147 and 148.
new text end
Sec. 4.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 116.943, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2.
Information required.
(a) On or before January 1, 2026, a manufacturer of a
product new text begin manufactured after July 1, 2023; new text end sold, offered for sale, or distributed in the statenew text begin ;
andnew text end that contains intentionally added PFAS must submit to the commissioner information
that includes:
(1) a brief description of the product, including a universal product code (UPC), stock
keeping unit (SKU), or other numeric code assigned to the product;
(2) the purpose for which PFAS are used in the product, including in any product
components;
(3) the amount of each PFAS, identified by its chemical abstracts service registry number,
in the product, reported as an exact quantity determined using commercially available
analytical methods or as falling within a range approved for reporting purposes by the
commissioner;
(4) the name and address of the manufacturer and the name, address, and phone number
of a contact person for the manufacturer; and
(5) any additional information requested by the commissioner as necessary to implement
the requirements of this section.
(b) With the approval of the commissioner, a manufacturer may supply the information
required in paragraph (a) for a category or type of product rather than for each individual
product.
(c) A manufacturer must submit the information required under this subdivision whenever
a new product that contains intentionally added PFAS is sold, offered for sale, or distributed
in the state and update and revise the information whenever there is significant change in
the information or when requested to do so by the commissioner.
(d) A person may not sell, offer for sale, or distribute for sale in the state a product
containing intentionally added PFAS if the manufacturer has failed to provide the information
required under this subdivision and the person has received notification under subdivision
4.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 5.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 145C.18, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
Subd. 3.
Compliance with nonopioid directive; exception.
(a) Except as specified in
deleted text begin paragraphdeleted text end new text begin paragraphsnew text end (b)new text begin and (c)new text end , prescribers and health professionals must comply with a
nonopioid directive executed under this section.
(b) A prescriber or a health professional acting on the order of a prescriber may administer
an opioid to a patient with a nonopioid directive if:
(1) the patient is being treated, in emergency circumstances, in a hospital setting or in
a setting outside a hospital;
(2) in the prescriber's professional opinion, it is medically necessary to administer an
opioid to the patient in order to treat the patient, including but not limited to during a surgical
procedure when one or more complications arise; and
(3) it is not practical or feasible for the prescriber or health professional to access the
patient's health care record.
If an opioid is administered according to this paragraph to a patient with a nonopioid
directive, the prescriber must ensure that the patient is provided with information on substance
use disorder services.
new text begin (c) A prescriber or a health professional acting on the order of a prescriber may prescribe
or administer an opioid to a patient with a nonopioid directive if the opioid is prescribed or
administered to treat the patient for a substance use disorder.
new text end
Sec. 6.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 145C.18, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:
Subd. 4.
Immunities.
Except as otherwise provided by law, the following persons or
entities are not subject to criminal prosecution, civil liability, or professional disciplinary
action for failing to prescribe, administer, or dispense an opioid to a patient with a nonopioid
directive; for the administration of an opioid in the circumstances in subdivision 3, paragraph
(b), to a patient with a nonopioid directive; new text begin for the prescribing or administration of an opioid
in the circumstances in subdivision 3, paragraph (c), to a patient with a nonopioid directive;
new text end or for the inadvertent administration of an opioid to a patient with a nonopioid directive, if
the act or failure to act was performed in good faith and in accordance with the applicable
standard of care:
(1) a health professional whose scope of practice includes prescribing, administering,
or dispensing a controlled substance;
(2) an employee of a health professional described in clause (1);
(3) a health care facility or an employee of a health care facility; or
(4) an emergency medical services provider.
Sec. 7.
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 471.6161, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:
new text begin Subd. 9.new text end
new text begin School districts and charter schools; reports.new text end
new text begin (a) For purposes of this
subdivision, an entity offering or providing group health insurance includes both health
plan companies and third-party administrators of health plans.
new text end
new text begin (b) By July 15, 2026, and July 1 each year thereafter, the Legislative Budget Office must
send an annual survey regarding health insurance costs to all school districts and charter
schools in the state.
new text end
new text begin (c) The annual survey must be completed by the school district or charter school using
data from its most recent plan year, be returned to the Legislative Budget Office by September
1 each year, and provide the following information about school employees who meet the
definition of public employee under section 179A.03, subdivision 14:
new text end
new text begin (1) the total number of salaried employees;
new text end
new text begin (2) the total number of nonsalaried or hourly employees;
new text end
new text begin (3) for employees participating in the group health insurance offered by the school district
or charter school, the total number of people, as of May 1, in each of the following categories:
new text end
new text begin (i) salaried employees;
new text end
new text begin (ii) nonsalaried or hourly employees; and
new text end
new text begin (iii) retirees and any other persons who continue to receive coverage through the school
district's or charter school's health plan after separation from employment;
new text end
new text begin (4) the total number of employees not participating in the health plan;
new text end
new text begin (5) the total number of insured persons covered by the health plan;
new text end
new text begin (6) the total dollar amount the school district or charter school paid in health insurance
premiums on behalf of all employees, not including employee contributions transmitted to
an entity providing group health insurance coverage or payments made on behalf of former
employees;
new text end
new text begin (7) if a school district or charter school funds an individual coverage health reimbursement
arrangement, the total amount contributed by the school district or charter school;
new text end
new text begin (8) the total amount employees paid in health insurance premiums;
new text end
new text begin (9) an accounting of all forms of compensation, either direct or indirect, including but
not limited to fees, commissions, incentives, or rewards of any kind paid to a broker or
agent, regardless of whether it was billed as a flat fee or percentage of premium and whether
paid directly by the school district or charter school or through the entity offering group
health insurance;
new text end
new text begin (10) the name of any entity providing group health insurance the school district or charter
school has contracted with and the expiration date of the contract;
new text end
new text begin (11) the date range of the most recent plan year;
new text end
new text begin (12) for each type of health plan offered to employees of a school district or charter
school:
new text end
new text begin (i) the name of the plan and its actuarial value, using the minimum value calculator
information required in bid proposals under section 471.6161, subdivision 8, paragraph (d),
clause (2), and described in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 156.145. The plan
data must also delineate amounts for single, family, and two-party plans, if offered;
new text end
new text begin (ii) the monthly contribution by the school district or charter school for each employee
group per plan, including contributions to individual coverage health reimbursement
arrangements;
new text end
new text begin (iii) the amount per month an employee must pay in health insurance premiums for the
plan; and
new text end
new text begin (iv) the plan design for each type of plan, including:
new text end
new text begin (A) in-network deductibles;
new text end
new text begin (B) in-network out-of-pocket limits;
new text end
new text begin (C) out-of-network limits;
new text end
new text begin (D) co-payments;
new text end
new text begin (E) the employee's share of coinsurance; and
new text end
new text begin (F) the prescription annual out-of-pocket maximum, if separate from subitem (B);
new text end
new text begin (13) the dollar or percentage cost for all prescription levels, commonly generic or tier
1, formulary or tier 2, and nonformulary or tier 3;
new text end
new text begin (14) the total amount of annual contributions, per employee, paid by the school district
or charter school to an individual coverage health reimbursement arrangement or health
savings account, excluding amounts contributed solely to a health care retirement account;
new text end
new text begin (15) the total amount assessed by the entity providing group health insurance as an
administrative fee and the rate of the fee assessed;
new text end
new text begin (16) if a school district is self-insured, the total amount that is in a district set-aside health
insurance reserve account; and
new text end
new text begin (17) any additional items as determined by the Legislative Budget Office.
new text end
new text begin (d) The Legislative Budget Office must compile information from the surveys described
above and provide a report by December 1 each year to the chairs and ranking minority
members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over education and health insurance.
The Legislative Budget Office must post the report, including the executive summary and
all underlying data received from school districts and charter schools, on its public website.
Data posted on the Legislative Budget Office's website must be in a standardized format.
new text end
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
Sec. 8. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end
new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 62U.10, subdivision 4; and 256B.69, subdivision 31a,new text end new text begin
are repealed.
new text end
ARTICLE 15
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS
Section 1. new text begin HUMAN SERVICES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS. |
new text begin The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter
3, article 20, and Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 9, article 12, to the commissioner
of human services from the general fund or other named fund for the purposes specified in
section 2 and are available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2026"
and "2027" used in this article mean that the addition to or subtraction from the appropriation
listed under them is available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027,
respectively.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN | ||||||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Total Appropriation | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 739,634,000 new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 775,035,000 new text end | ||
| new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end | ||
| new text begin General Fund new text end | new text begin 652,953,000 new text end | new text begin 615,407,000 new text end |
| new text begin Health Care Access Fund new text end | new text begin 86,681,000 new text end | new text begin 159,628,000 new text end |
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Forecasted Programs | ||||||
| new text begin (a) General Assistance new text end | new text begin 7,909,000 new text end | new text begin 9,653,000 new text end | ||||
| new text begin (b) Minnesota Supplemental Aid new text end | new text begin 2,976,000 new text end | new text begin 3,233,000 new text end | ||||
| new text begin (c) Housing Support new text end | new text begin 29,593,000 new text end | new text begin 44,727,000 new text end | ||||
| new text begin (d) MinnesotaCare new text end | new text begin 86,681,000 new text end | new text begin 159,628,000 new text end | ||||
new text begin These appropriations are from the health care
access fund.
new text end
| new text begin (e) Medical Assistance new text end | new text begin 589,777,000 new text end | new text begin 525,140,000 new text end | ||||
| new text begin (f) Behavioral Health Fund new text end | new text begin 22,698,000 new text end | new text begin 32,654,000 new text end | ||||
Sec. 3. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
ARTICLE 16
DEPARTMENT OF CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES FORECAST
ADJUSTMENTS
Section 1. new text begin CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS. |
new text begin The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter
3, article 22, to the commissioner of children, youth, and families from the general fund or
other named fund for the purposes specified in section 2 and are available for the fiscal
years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2026" and "2027" used in this article mean
that the addition to or subtraction from the appropriation listed under them is available for
the fiscal year ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF CHILDREN, | ||||||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Total Appropriation | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (45,161,000) new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (36,451,000) new text end | ||
| new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end | ||
| new text begin General Fund new text end | new text begin (22,395,000) new text end | new text begin (10,320,000) new text end |
| new text begin Federal TANF new text end | new text begin (22,766,000) new text end | new text begin (26,131,000) new text end |
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Forecasted Programs | ||||||
| new text begin (a) MFIP/DWP new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end | ||
| new text begin General Fund new text end | new text begin (7,245,000) new text end | new text begin (3,125,000) new text end |
| new text begin Federal TANF new text end | new text begin (22,766,000) new text end | new text begin (26,131,000) new text end |
| new text begin (b) MFIP Child Care Assistance new text end | new text begin (26,220,000) new text end | new text begin (18,822,000) new text end | ||||
| new text begin (c) Northstar Care for Children new text end | new text begin 11,070,000 new text end | new text begin 11,627,000 new text end | ||||
Sec. 3. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
ARTICLE 17
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES APPROPRIATIONS
Section 1. new text begin DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES APPROPRIATIONS. |
new text begin The dollar amounts shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if
shown in parentheses, are subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 20, from the general fund or any fund named for the purposes
specified in this article, to be available for the fiscal year indicated for each purpose. The
figures "2026" and "2027" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under them
are available for the fiscal years ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively. "The
first year" is fiscal year 2026. "The second year" is fiscal year 2027. "The biennium" is
fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 132,522,000 new text end | ||
new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in this article.
new text end
Sec. 3. new text begin CENTRAL OFFICE; OPERATIONS | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 2,154,000 new text end | ||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$6,741,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $7,577,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 4. new text begin CENTRAL OFFICE; HEALTH CARE | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 19,403,000 new text end | ||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$59,838,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $60,350,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 5. new text begin CENTRAL OFFICE; BEHAVIORAL | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 896,000 new text end | ||
new text begin This is a onetime appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 6. new text begin CENTRAL OFFICE; OFFICE OF | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 330,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Crisis Nursery Licensing | ||||||
new text begin $304,000 in fiscal year 2027 is to develop a
licensing framework for crisis nurseries. The
base for this appropriation is $358,000 in fiscal
year 2028 and $0 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Level Adjustments | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$384,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased by
$26,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 7. new text begin FORECASTED PROGRAMS; | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 94,505,000 new text end | ||
new text begin $100,000,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for the
nonfederal share of the directed payment
arrangement under Minnesota Statutes, section
256B.1973. This is a onetime appropriation
and is available until June 30, 2028. This
appropriation is not effective until the day
following final enactment of H.F. 2438 in the
2026 regular legislative session.
new text end
Sec. 8. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILD AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (407,000) new text end | ||
new text begin Any unexpended amount in fiscal year 2027
and any amounts in the planning estimate for
fiscal year 2028 and fiscal year 2029 for the
emergency shelter facility grant and
emergency services grants must be transferred
from child and economic support grants to
housing support grants.
new text end
Sec. 9. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; FRAUD | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (425,000) new text end | ||
Sec. 10. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; HEALTH | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 1,500,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Health Care Navigator Incentive | ||||||
new text begin $250,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for application
assistance bonuses to organizations and
licensed insurance producers for applicants
successfully enrolled in medical assistance
under Minnesota Statutes, section 256.962,
subdivision 5. The base for this appropriation
is $500,000 in fiscal year 2028 and $500,000
in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Community Minigrant Program | ||||||
new text begin $1,250,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for the
community minigrant program under
Minnesota Statutes, section 256.01,
subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (6). Grants
under this subdivision are subject to the grant
requirements under Minnesota Statutes,
chapter 16B. The base for this appropriation
is $1,250,000 in fiscal year 2028 and $625,000
in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text endnew text begin Base Level Adjustments | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$1,750,000 in fiscal year 2028 and $1,125,000
in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 11. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; HOUSING AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 192,000 new text end | ||
Sec. 12. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; ADULT | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 2,483,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Mobile Crisis Grants | ||||||
new text begin $3,800,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for the
mobile crisis grants under Minnesota Statutes,
sections 245.4661, subdivision 9, paragraph
(b), clause (15), and 245.4889, subdivision 1,
paragraph (b), clause (4). This is a onetime
appropriation and is available until June 30,
2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Level Adjustments | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is reduced by
$1,317,000 in fiscal year 2028 and reduced
by $1,317,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 13. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILD | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 12,252,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin School-Linked Behavioral Health | ||||||
new text begin $11,891,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for
school-linked behavioral health grants under
Minnesota Statutes, section 245.4901. Grant
awards under this subdivision must allow a
grantee to use grant funds for a partnership
with a nonpublic school or a Tribal contract
school to provide services to students
attending a nonpublic or Tribal contract school
and to provide staff professional development
activities for school's licensed and unlicensed
staff. This is a onetime appropriation and is
available until June 30, 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Level Adjustments | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$361,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased by
$361,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 14. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHEMICAL | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (361,000) new text end | ||
Sec. 15. new text begin GRANT ADMINISTRATION COSTS.
new text end
new text begin This article appropriates necessary administrative costs. The administrative costs retention
requirement under Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.98, subdivision 14, is inapplicable to
any appropriation in this article for a grant.
new text end
Sec. 16. new text begin EXPIRATION OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
new text end
new text begin All uncodified language contained in this article expires on June 30, 2027, unless a
different expiration date is explicit or an appropriation is made available beyond June 30,
2027.
new text end
Sec. 17. new text begin APPROPRIATIONS GIVEN EFFECT ONCE.
new text end
new text begin If an appropriation, transfer, or cancellation in this article is enacted more than once
during the 2026 legislative session, the appropriation, transfer, or cancellation must be given
effect once.
new text end
ARTICLE 18
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH APPROPRIATIONS
Section 1. new text begin HEALTH APPROPRIATIONS. |
new text begin The dollar amounts shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if
shown in parentheses, are subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 21, from the general fund or any named fund and are available
for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2026" and "2027" used in this
article mean that the addition to or subtraction from the appropriations listed under them
are available for the fiscal years ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively. "The
first year" is fiscal year 2026. "The second year" is fiscal year 2027.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF HEALTH | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 50,440,000 new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 89,010,000 new text end | ||
| new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end | ||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |
| new text begin General new text end | new text begin 50,000,000 new text end | new text begin 88,383,000 new text end |
| new text begin State Government Special Revenue new text end | new text begin 440,000 new text end | new text begin 627,000 new text end |
new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in the following sections.
new text end
Sec. 3. new text begin HEALTH IMPROVEMENT | ||||||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Total Appropriation | ||||||
| new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end | ||
| new text begin General new text end | new text begin 50,000,000 new text end | new text begin 86,330,000 new text end |
| new text begin State Government Special Revenue new text end | new text begin 440,000 new text end | new text begin 627,000 new text end |
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Helping Paws | ||||||
new text begin (a) Helping Paws Grant. $200,000 in fiscal
year 2027 is from the general fund for a grant
to Helping Paws, Inc., to breed, train, and
place service or facility dogs with individuals
who have physical disabilities; veterans and
first responders living with service-related
post-traumatic stress disorder; and
professionals in courthouse, educational, and
mental health settings. This is a onetime
appropriation in memory of Speaker Emerita
Melissa Hortman. Up to $10,000 in fiscal year
2027 may be used for administration.
new text end
new text begin (b) Helping Paws; Private Donations. The
commissioner of health may accept private
donations to supplement the state money
appropriated under paragraph (a). All
donations accepted by the commissioner under
this paragraph must be deposited in the gift
fund and are appropriated to the commissioner
for the purposes of paragraph (a).
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text endnew text begin Crisis Telephone Services | ||||||
new text begin $1,125,000 in fiscal year 2027 is from the
general fund for regional coordination and
24-hour-a-day, seven-day-a-week statewide
crisis telephone services. Up to $112,500 in
fiscal year 2027 is for administration.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 4.new text endnew text begin Hospital Stabilization Program | ||||||
new text begin $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2027 is from the
general fund for the hospital stabilization
program. This is a onetime appropriation. Of
this appropriation, $600,000 in fiscal year
2027 is for the commissioner to administer
the program.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 5.new text endnew text begin Hennepin Healthcare Stabilization | ||||||
new text begin $50,000,000 in fiscal year 2026 and
$54,950,000 in fiscal year 2027 are for direct
payments to Hennepin Healthcare System,
Inc., to avoid closure of the Hennepin County
Medical Center. The commissioner must make
a payment of the amount appropriated in fiscal
year 2026 by June 30, 2026. For the purposes
of these payments, the statewide grant-making
requirements, including but not limited to
those under Minnesota Statutes, sections
16A.15; 16B.97; 16C.05, subdivisions 1 to 4
and 6 to 8; and 16C.06, do not apply. The
commissioner may use up to $350,000 in fiscal
year 2027 for administration. This is a onetime
appropriation. Notwithstanding section 8, this
appropriation is not effective until the day
following final enactment of House File No.
2438 from the 2026 regular session.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 6.new text endnew text begin Licensing and Regulation of Health | ||||||
new text begin $440,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $440,000 in
fiscal year 2027 are from the state government
special revenue fund for licensing and
regulation of health maintenance organizations
under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 7.new text endnew text begin All-Payer Claims Database; | ||||||
new text begin $187,000 in fiscal year 2027 is from the state
government special revenue fund for
administering the all-payer claims database
under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.04. The
state government special revenue fund base
for this subdivision is increased by $233,000
in fiscal year 2028 and increased by $291,000
in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 8.new text endnew text begin All-Payer Claims Database; Data on | ||||||
new text begin $55,000 in fiscal year 2027 is from the general
fund for the collection of data on fully denied
claims according to Minnesota Statutes,
section 62U.04, subdivision 4. This is a
onetime appropriation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 9.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$1,125,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $1,125,000 in fiscal year 2029. The state
government special revenue fund base is
increased by $673,000 in fiscal year 2028 and
increased by $731,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 4. new text begin HEALTH PROTECTION | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 2,053,000 new text end | ||
new text begin $2,053,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for
rulemaking and administrative activities under
Minnesota Statutes, section 103I.706. This is
a onetime appropriation and is available until
December 31, 2029.
new text end
Sec. 5. new text begin GRANT ADMINISTRATION COSTS.
new text end
new text begin This article appropriates necessary administrative costs. The administrative costs retention
requirement under Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.98, subdivision 14, is inapplicable to
any appropriation in this article for a grant.
new text end
Sec. 6. new text begin EXPIRATION OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
new text end
new text begin All uncodified language contained in this article expires on June 30, 2027, unless a
different expiration date is explicit or an appropriation is made available beyond June 30,
2027.
new text end
Sec. 7. new text begin APPROPRIATIONS GIVEN EFFECT ONCE.
new text end
new text begin If an appropriation, transfer, or cancellation in this article is enacted more than once
during the 2026 legislative session, the appropriation, transfer, or cancellation must be given
effect once.
new text end
Sec. 8. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end
ARTICLE 19
DEPARTMENT OF CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES APPROPRIATIONS
Section 1. new text begin CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES APPROPRIATIONS. |
new text begin The dollar amounts shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if
shown in parentheses, are subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 22, from the general fund or any fund named for the purposes
specified in this article, to be available for the fiscal year indicated for each purpose. The
figures "2026" and "2027" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under them
are available for the fiscal years ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively. "The
first year" is fiscal year 2026. "The second year" is fiscal year 2027. "The biennium" is
fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF CHILDREN, | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 46,952,000 new text end | ||
new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in the following sections.
new text end
Sec. 3. new text begin OPERATIONS AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 6,546,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Crisis Nursery Licensing | ||||||
new text begin $212,000 in fiscal year 2027 is to develop a
licensing framework for crisis nurseries. The
base for this appropriation is $441,000 in fiscal
year 2028 and $0 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustments | ||||||
new text begin The base is increased by $6,260,000 in fiscal
year 2028 and increased by $5,819,000 in
fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 4. new text begin OPERATIONS AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 281,000 new text end | ||
Sec. 5. new text begin OPERATIONS AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 147,000 new text end | ||
new text begin This is a onetime appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 6. new text begin OPERATIONS AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 2,818,000 new text end | ||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$3,308,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $3,308,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 7. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; SUPPORT | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 10,728,000 new text end | ||
new text begin County allocation for SNAP administrative
costs. $10,728,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for
an allocation to counties for SNAP
administrative costs. The commissioner must
allocate money under this section to counties
based on each county's proportional share of
SNAP administrative costs in the most recent
year for which data are available. This is a
onetime appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 8. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILD CARE | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 450,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Child Care Licensing Basics | ||||||
new text begin $450,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for a contract
with a vendor to provide child care licensing
basics training, including course content
creation, translation, marketing, promotion,
and underwriting. The base for this
appropriation is $338,000 in fiscal year 2028
and $338,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$338,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased by
$338,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 9. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILDREN'S | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 250,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Forensic Interview Training Scholarships.
$250,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for grants to
provide training scholarships for recipients to
attend nationally recognized forensic interview
protocol training. Eligible grantees must award
scholarships for recipients to attend basic
forensic interview training, advanced forensic
interview training, and specialized interview
topics training. Scholarship recipients may
include individuals in law enforcement, child
protection, and prosecution; health
professionals investigating, treating, and
managing child maltreatment cases in
Minnesota; advocates working with a
multidisciplinary team; and forensic
interviewers at children's advocacy centers.
This is a onetime appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 10. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILD AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 15,000,000 new text end | ||
new text begin new text begin County Implementation of Minnesota
African American Family Preservation and
Child Welfare Disproportionality Act.new text end
$15,000,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for initial
county implementation of the Minnesota
African American Family Preservation and
Child Welfare Disproportionality Act under
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 260. The
commissioner must distribute this
appropriation to counties under Minnesota
Statutes, section 260.694. This is a onetime
appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 11. new text begin GRANT PROGRAMS; CHILD AND | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 10,732,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Regional Food Bank Grants | ||||||
new text begin $4,900,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for regional
food bank grants. This is a onetime
appropriation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Minnesota Food Shelf Program | ||||||
new text begin $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for food shelf
programs under Minnesota Statutes, section
142F.14. This is a onetime appropriation.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 3.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$832,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased by
$832,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256.043, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
Subd. 3.
Appropriations from registration and license fee account.
(a) The
appropriations in paragraphs (b) to (n) shall be made from the registration and license fee
account on a fiscal year basis in the order specified.
(b) The appropriations specified in Laws 2019, chapter 63, article 3, section 1, paragraphs
(b), (f), (g), and (h), as amended by Laws 2020, chapter 115, article 3, section 35, shall be
made accordingly.
(c) $100,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of human services for grants for opiate
antagonist distribution. Grantees may utilize funds for opioid overdose prevention,
community asset mapping, education, and opiate antagonist distribution.
(d) $2,000,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of human services for direct payments
to Tribal nations and five urban Indian communities for traditional healing practices for
American Indians and to increase the capacity of culturally specific providers in the
behavioral health workforce. Any evaluations of practices under this paragraph must be
designed cooperatively by the commissioner and Tribal nations or urban Indian communities.
The commissioner must not require recipients to provide the details of specific ceremonies
or identities of healers.
(e) $400,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of human services for competitive
grants for opioid-focused Project ECHO programs.
(f) deleted text begin $277,000deleted text end new text begin $321,000new text end in fiscal year deleted text begin 2024deleted text end new text begin 2027new text end and deleted text begin $321,000deleted text end each year thereafter is
appropriated to the commissioner of deleted text begin human servicesdeleted text end new text begin children, youth, and familiesnew text end to
administer the funding distribution and reporting requirements in paragraph deleted text begin (o)deleted text end new text begin (m)new text end .
(g) $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2025 and $3,000,000 each year thereafter is appropriated
to the commissioner of human services for safe recovery sites start-up and capacity building
grants under section 254B.18.
(h) $395,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $415,000 each year thereafter is appropriated to
the commissioner of human services for the opioid overdose surge alert system under section
245.891.
(i) $300,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of management and budget for
evaluation activities under section 256.042, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
(j) $261,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of human services for the provision of
administrative services to the Opiate Epidemic Response Advisory Council and for the
administration of the grants awarded under paragraph (n).
(k) $126,000 is appropriated to the Board of Pharmacy for the collection of the registration
fees under section 151.066.
(l) $672,000 is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension. Of this amount, $384,000 is for drug scientists and lab supplies
and $288,000 is for special agent positions focused on drug interdiction and drug trafficking.
(m) After the appropriations in paragraphs (b) to (l) are made, 50 percent of the remaining
amount is appropriated to the commissioner of children, youth, and families for distribution
to county social service agencies and Tribal social service agency initiative projects
authorized under section 256.01, subdivision 14b, to provide prevention and child protection
services to children and families who are affected by addiction. The commissioner shall
distribute this money proportionally to county social service agencies and Tribal social
service agency initiative projects through a formula based on intake data from the previous
three calendar years related to substance use and out-of-home placement episodes where
parental drug abuse is a reason for the out-of-home placement. County social service agencies
and Tribal social service agency initiative projects receiving funds from the opiate epidemic
response fund must annually report to the commissioner on how the funds were used to
provide prevention and child protection services, including measurable outcomes, as
determined by the commissioner. County social service agencies and Tribal social service
agency initiative projects must not use funds received under this paragraph to supplant
current state or local funding received for child protection services for children and families
who are affected by addiction.
(n) After the appropriations in paragraphs (b) to (m) are made, the remaining amount in
the account is appropriated to the commissioner of human services to award grants as
specified by the Opiate Epidemic Response Advisory Council in accordance with section
256.042, unless otherwise appropriated by the legislature.
(o) Beginning in fiscal year 2022 and each year thereafter, funds for county social service
agencies and Tribal social service agency initiative projects under paragraph (m) and grant
funds specified by the Opiate Epidemic Response Advisory Council under paragraph (n)
may be distributed on a calendar year basis.
(p) Notwithstanding section 16A.28, subdivision 3, funds appropriated in paragraphs
(c), (d), (e), (g), (m), and (n) are available for three years after the funds are appropriated.
new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.new text end
new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end
Sec. 13.
Laws 2024, chapter 117, section 22, is amended to read:
Sec. 22. APPROPRIATIONS; MINNESOTA AFRICAN AMERICAN FAMILY
PRESERVATION AND CHILD WELFARE DISPROPORTIONALITY ACT.
(a) $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2025 is appropriated from the general fund to the
commissioner of human services for grants to Hennepin and Ramsey Counties to implement
the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality
Act phase-in program. Of this amount, $2,500,000 must be provided to Hennepin County
and $2,500,000 must be provided to Ramsey County. This is a onetime appropriation and
is available until deleted text begin June 30deleted text end new text begin December 31new text end , 2026.
(b) $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2025 is appropriated from the general fund to the
commissioner of human services for the African American and disproportionately represented
family preservation grant program under Minnesota Statutes, section 260.693.
Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.98, subdivision 14, the amount for
administrative costs under this paragraph is $0.
(c) $2,367,000 in fiscal year 2025 is appropriated from the general fund to the
commissioner of human services to implement the African American Family Preservation
and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act. The base for this appropriation is $3,251,000 in
fiscal year 2026 and $3,110,000 in fiscal year 2027.
Sec. 14. new text begin GRANT ADMINISTRATION COSTS.
new text end
new text begin This article appropriates necessary administrative costs. The administrative costs retention
requirement under Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.98, subdivision 14, is inapplicable to
any appropriation in this article for a grant.
new text end
Sec. 15. new text begin EXPIRATION OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
new text end
new text begin All uncodified language contained in this article expires on June 30, 2027, unless a
different expiration date is explicit or an appropriation is made available beyond June 30,
2027.
new text end
Sec. 16. new text begin APPROPRIATIONS GIVEN EFFECT ONCE.
new text end
new text begin If an appropriation, transfer, or cancellation in this article is enacted more than once
during the 2026 legislative session, the appropriation, transfer, or cancellation must be given
effect once.
new text end
Sec. 17. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end
new text begin This article is effective the day following final enactment unless otherwise indicated.
new text end
ARTICLE 20
OTHER AGENCY APPROPRIATIONS
Section 1. new text begin OTHER AGENCY APPROPRIATIONS. |
new text begin The dollar amounts shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if
shown in parentheses, are subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, articles 23 and 24, from the general fund or any fund named for the
purposes specified in this article, to be available for the fiscal year indicated for each purpose.
The figures "2026" and "2027" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under
them are available for the fiscal years ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively.
"The first year" is fiscal year 2026. "The second year" is fiscal year 2027. "The biennium"
is fiscal years 2026 and 2027.
new text end
| new text begin APPROPRIATIONS new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Available for the Year new text end | ||||||
| new text begin Ending June 30 new text end | ||||||
| new text begin 2026 new text end | new text begin 2027 new text end | |||||
Sec. 2. new text begin LEGISLATIVE COORDINATING | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 17,000 new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 74,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Education Group Insurance | ||||||
new text begin $17,000 in fiscal year 2026 and $74,000 in
fiscal year 2027 are for the Legislative Budget
Office to complete the annual report under
Minnesota Statutes, section 471.6161,
subdivision 9. The base for this appropriation
is $36,000 in fiscal year 2028 and $36,000 in
fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by $36,000
in fiscal year 2028 and increased by $36,000
in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 3. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF PUBLIC | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Child Care Licensing | ||||||
new text begin The base in fiscal year 2029 must include
$544,000 for child care licensing
modernization under Minnesota Statutes,
chapters 142H and 142I.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$544,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 4. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF EDUCATION | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin (281,000) new text end | ||
new text begin This reduction is for preschool assessment
funding.
new text end
Sec. 5. new text begin COMMISSIONER OF MANAGEMENT | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 193,000 new text end | ||
new text begin $193,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for
administration of the advisory task force on
governance and financing of Hennepin
Healthcare System, Inc. This is a onetime
appropriation.
new text end
Sec. 6. new text begin ATTORNEY GENERAL | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin -0- new text end | new text begin $ new text end | new text begin 1,230,000 new text end | ||
new text begin Subdivision 1.new text endnew text begin Medicaid Fraud Control Unit | ||||||
new text begin $1,230,000 in fiscal year 2027 is for the
Medicaid fraud control unit. The base for this
appropriation is $1,230,000 in fiscal year 2028
and $1,230,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
new text begin Subd. 2.new text endnew text begin Base Adjustment | ||||||
new text begin The general fund base is increased by
$1,230,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $1,230,000 in fiscal year 2029.
new text end
Sec. 7.
Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 67, section 7, is amended to read:
Sec. 7. BOARD OF DIRECTORS OF MNSURE | $ | -0- | $ | 2,330,000 | ||
(a) Information Technology deleted text begin to Implement
Federal Deferred Action for Childhood
Arrivals Regulatory Requirementsdeleted text end .
$2,330,000 in fiscal year 2025 is deleted text begin for
information technology to implement federal
Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals
regulatory requirementsdeleted text end new text begin for technology and
operational needs. This appropriation is for
information technology enhancements, system
readiness, consumer communications, and
operational changes to maintain service
continuity and improve the consumer
experiencenew text end . This is a onetime appropriation
and is available until June 30, 2027.
(b) Transfer to Enterprise Account. The
Board of Directors of MNsure must transfer
$2,330,000 in fiscal year 2025 from the
general fund to the enterprise account under
Minnesota Statutes, section 62V.07. This is a
onetime transfer.
Sec. 8. new text begin GRANT ADMINISTRATION COSTS.
new text end
new text begin This article appropriates necessary administrative costs. The administrative costs retention
requirement under Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.98, subdivision 14, is inapplicable to
any appropriation in this article for a grant.
new text end
Sec. 9. new text begin EXPIRATION OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
new text end
new text begin All uncodified language contained in this article expires on June 30, 2027, unless a
different expiration date is explicit or an appropriation is made available beyond June 30,
2027.
new text end
Sec. 10. new text begin APPROPRIATIONS GIVEN EFFECT ONCE.
new text end
new text begin If an appropriation, transfer, or cancellation in this article is enacted more than once
during the 2026 legislative session, the appropriation, transfer, or cancellation must be given
effect once.new text end "
"A bill for an act
relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to the Department of
Health, gas resource development, hospital stabilization, health licensing boards,
health care, federal conformity, medical assistance fraud prevention and conforming
changes, children, youth, and families policy, children, youth, and families budget,
the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare
Disproportionality Act, child care center licensing modernization, and family child
care licensing modernization; making forecast adjustments for the Department of
Human Services and Department of Children, Youth, and Families; appropriating
money for the Department of Children, Youth, and Families, Department of Human
Services, and other agencies; requiring reports; authorizing rulemaking; providing
criminal penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 8.16, subdivision
1; 16A.152, subdivisions 2, 4, by adding subdivisions; 62A.01, by adding a
subdivision; 62A.011, subdivision 3; 62J.17, subdivision 6a; 62J.2930, subdivision
1; 62K.02, subdivision 2; 62K.03, subdivision 6; 62K.075; 62K.105; 62K.14;
62U.04, subdivisions 4, 13, by adding a subdivision; 62V.05, subdivision 7; 62V.13;
93.514; 103I.001; 103I.005, subdivisions 9, 21, by adding subdivisions; 103I.601,
subdivision 1, by adding subdivisions; 116.943, subdivision 2; 116J.035, by adding
a subdivision; 124D.19, by adding a subdivision; 142A.43; 142B.10, subdivision
18; 142B.30, by adding a subdivision; 142B.65, subdivision 7; 142B.70, subdivision
6; 142C.12, subdivision 3; 142D.05, subdivision 8; 142D.21, subdivision 6;
142D.25, subdivision 3; 142E.04, subdivision 4; 144.059, subdivision 8; 144.1222,
subdivision 4, by adding a subdivision; 144.1501, subdivision 2; 144.1503,
subdivision 7; 144.1505, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 144.1507, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, by
adding a subdivision; 144.1911, subdivisions 1, 5, 6; 144.293, subdivision 7;
144.551, subdivision 1, as amended; 145.56, subdivision 5; 145.561, subdivision
2; 145.882, by adding subdivisions; 145A.04, subdivision 15; 145A.14, subdivision
2a; 148.01, subdivisions 1, 4, by adding subdivisions; 148.09; 148.10, by adding
a subdivision; 148.102, subdivision 3; 148.105, subdivision 1; 148.517, subdivisions
1, 2; 148.5191, subdivision 4; 149A.91, subdivision 3; 149A.94, subdivision 1;
149A.955, subdivision 14; 151.01, subdivision 35, by adding a subdivision;
151.555, subdivision 7; 151.741, subdivision 4; 214.10, subdivision 2a; 214.41;
245A.211, subdivision 1; 245C.04, subdivision 1; 245C.15, subdivisions 2, 3, 4;
256.01, by adding a subdivision; 256.969, subdivisions 2b, 25; 256B.04, subdivision
27; 256B.05, subdivision 5, by adding a subdivision; 256B.055, subdivision 17;
256B.056, subdivisions 1, 2a, 3d, 7, 7a; 256B.0561, subdivision 2; 256B.06,
subdivision 4; 256B.061; 256B.0631, subdivision 1a, by adding subdivisions;
256B.75; 256L.05, subdivision 3; 256L.06, subdivision 3; 259.83, subdivision 1,
as amended; 260.63, subdivision 10; 260.64, subdivision 2; 260.67, subdivision
1; 260.68, subdivision 2; 260.69, subdivision 1; 260.693, subdivision 2; 260C.190,
subdivision 1; 260C.212, subdivisions 1, 4a, by adding a subdivision; 260C.451,
subdivisions 2, 3, 3a; 295.52, subdivision 8; 383B.903, subdivisions 1, 4; 383B.904,
subdivision 1; 383B.908, subdivisions 5, 7; 471.6161, by adding a subdivision;
609.52, subdivision 2; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 3.732,
subdivision 1; 62K.10, subdivision 2; 144.125, subdivision 1; 145A.061,
subdivision 3; 145C.18, subdivisions 3, 4; 148.108, subdivision 5; 151.741,
subdivision 5; 256.043, subdivision 3; 256.9657, subdivision 2b; 256.969,
subdivision 2f; 256B.0625, subdivision 8; 256B.12; 256B.1973, subdivision 9;
256B.69, subdivision 6d; 256B.695, subdivision 5; 260.691, subdivision 1; 260.692,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 260C.451, subdivision 8; 268.19, subdivision 1; 609.531,
subdivision 1; 609.902, subdivision 4; 628.26; Laws 2023, chapter 68, article 1,
sections 2, subdivision 2, as amended; 3, subdivision 2, as amended; Laws 2024,
chapter 117, sections 9; 21; 22; Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 67, section 7; Laws
2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 8, section 25; article 23, section 2,
subdivision 12; Laws 2026, chapter 88, article 1, section 181; proposing coding
for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 62Q; 103I; 142D; 144; 148; 256B;
260; 609; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapters 142H;
142I; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13D.08, subdivision 4; 62J.06;
62J.156; 62J.2930, subdivision 4; 62J.57; 62U.10, subdivision 4; 142B.01,
subdivisions 11, 12, 13, 25, 26, 27; 142B.41, subdivisions 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12,
13; 142B.54, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142B.62; 142B.65, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,
7, 10; 142B.66, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5; 142B.70, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9,
10, 11, 12; 142B.71; 142B.72; 142B.74; 142B.75; 142B.76; 142B.77; 144.9821;
151.741, subdivisions 2, 3, 6; 256B.198; 256B.69, subdivision 31a; 260.63,
subdivision 9; 609.466; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.41,
subdivision 9; 142B.65, subdivisions 8, 9; 142B.66, subdivision 3; 142B.70,
subdivisions 7, 8; Minnesota Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 5b, 6, 12; 2500.1900;
2500.2020; 2500.2040; 2500.2100; 2500.2110; 6800.0400; 6800.1150; 9502.0300;
9502.0315; 9502.0325; 9502.0335; 9502.0341; 9502.0345; 9502.0355; 9502.0365;
9502.0367; 9502.0375; 9502.0395; 9502.0405; 9502.0415; 9502.0425; 9502.0435;
9502.0445; 9503.0005; 9503.0010; 9503.0015; 9503.0030; 9503.0031; 9503.0032;
9503.0033; 9503.0034; 9503.0040; 9503.0045; 9503.0050; 9503.0055; 9503.0060;
9503.0065; 9503.0070; 9503.0075; 9503.0080; 9503.0085; 9503.0090; 9503.0095;
9503.0100; 9503.0105; 9503.0110; 9503.0115; 9503.0120; 9503.0125; 9503.0130;
9503.0140; 9503.0145; 9503.0150; 9503.0155; 9503.0170."
| We request the adoption of this report and repassage of the bill. |
||
|
Senate Conferees:
. |
||
|
.
|
.
|
|
| Melissa Wiklund |
Alice Mann |
|
|
.
|
.
|
|
| Liz Boldon |
Paul Utke |
|
|
House Conferees:
. |
||
|
.
|
.
|
|
| Robert Bierman |
Liz Reyer |
|
|
.
|
.
|
|
| Jeff Backer |
Danny Nadeau |
|