SF 3295

1st Engrossment - 94th Legislature (2025 - 2026)

Posted on 04/08/2026 10:00 a.m.

KEY: ~~stricken~~ = removed, old language.

underscored = added, new language.

Version List SF3295 Authors and Status

PDF Rtf

Engrossments
Introduction PDF	Posted on 04/03/2025
1st Engrossment PDF	Posted on 04/07/2026

1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 1.13 1.14 1.15 1.16 1.17 1.18 1.19 1.20 1.21 1.22 1.23 1.24 1.25 1.26 1.27 1.28 1.29 1.30 1.31 1.32 1.33 1.34 1.35 1.36 1.37 1.38 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5 2.6 2.7 2.8 2.9 2.10
2.11 2.12
2.13 2.14 2.15 2.16 2.17 2.18 2.19 2.20 2.21 2.22 2.23 2.24 2.25 2.26 2.27 2.28 2.29 2.30 2.31 2.32 2.33 2.34 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9 3.10 3.11 3.12 3.13 3.14 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.19 3.20 3.21 3.22 3.23 3.24 3.25 3.26 3.27 3.28 3.29 3.30 3.31 3.32 3.33 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.8 4.9 4.10 4.11 4.12 4.13 4.14 4.15 4.16 4.17 4.18 4.19 4.20 4.21
4.22 4.23 4.24 4.25 4.26 4.27
4.28 4.29 4.30 4.31 4.32 5.1 5.2
5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9 5.10 5.11
5.12 5.13 5.14 5.15 5.16 5.17 5.18 5.19 5.20 5.21 5.22 5.23 5.24 5.25 5.26 5.27 5.28 5.29 6.1 6.2 6.3 6.4 6.5 6.6 6.7 6.8 6.9 6.10 6.11 6.12 6.13 6.14 6.15 6.16 6.17 6.18 6.19 6.20 6.21 6.22 6.23 6.24 6.25 6.26 6.27 6.28 6.29 6.30 6.31 6.32 7.1 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.5 7.6 7.7 7.8 7.9 7.10 7.11 7.12 7.13 7.14 7.15 7.16 7.17 7.18 7.19 7.20
7.21 7.22 7.23 7.24 7.25 7.26 7.27 7.28
7.29 7.30 7.31 8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.11 8.12 8.13 8.14 8.15 8.16 8.17 8.18 8.19 8.20 8.21 8.22 8.23 8.24 8.25 8.26 8.27 8.28 8.29 8.30 8.31 9.1 9.2 9.3 9.4 9.5 9.6 9.7 9.8 9.9 9.10 9.11 9.12 9.13 9.14 9.15 9.16 9.17 9.18 9.19 9.20 9.21 9.22 9.23 9.24 9.25 9.26 9.27 9.28
9.29
10.1 10.2 10.3 10.4 10.5 10.6 10.7 10.8 10.9 10.10 10.11 10.12 10.13 10.14 10.15 10.16 10.17 10.18 10.19 10.20 10.21 10.22 10.23 10.24 10.25 10.26 10.27 10.28 10.29 10.30 10.31 11.1 11.2 11.3 11.4 11.5 11.6 11.7 11.8 11.9 11.10 11.11
11.12 11.13 11.14 11.15 11.16 11.17 11.18 11.19 11.20 11.21 11.22 11.23 11.24 11.25 11.26 11.27 11.28 11.29 11.30 11.31 12.1 12.2 12.3
12.4 12.5 12.6 12.7 12.8 12.9 12.10 12.11 12.12 12.13
12.14 12.15 12.16 12.17 12.18 12.19 12.20 12.21 12.22 12.23 12.24 12.25 12.26 12.27 12.28 12.29 12.30 12.31
13.1 13.2 13.3 13.4 13.5 13.6 13.7 13.8 13.9 13.10 13.11 13.12 13.13 13.14 13.15 13.16 13.17
13.18 13.19 13.20 13.21 13.22 13.23 13.24 13.25 13.26 13.27 13.28 13.29 13.30 13.31 14.1 14.2 14.3 14.4 14.5 14.6
14.7 14.8 14.9 14.10 14.11
14.12 14.13 14.14 14.15 14.16 14.17 14.18 14.19 14.20 14.21 14.22 14.23
14.24 14.25 14.26 14.27 14.28 14.29 14.30 14.31 14.32 15.1 15.2 15.3 15.4 15.5 15.6 15.7 15.8 15.9 15.10 15.11 15.12 15.13 15.14 15.15 15.16 15.17 15.18 15.19 15.20 15.21
15.22 15.23 15.24 15.25 15.26 15.27 15.28 15.29 15.30 15.31 15.32 16.1 16.2 16.3 16.4 16.5
16.6 16.7 16.8 16.9 16.10 16.11 16.12 16.13 16.14
16.15 16.16 16.17 16.18
16.19 16.20 16.21 16.22 16.23 16.24 16.25 16.26 16.27 16.28 16.29 16.30 16.31 17.1 17.2 17.3 17.4 17.5 17.6 17.7 17.8 17.9 17.10 17.11 17.12 17.13 17.14 17.15 17.16 17.17 17.18 17.19 17.20 17.21 17.22 17.23 17.24 17.25 17.26 17.27 17.28 17.29 17.30 17.31 17.32 17.33 18.1 18.2 18.3 18.4 18.5 18.6 18.7
18.8 18.9 18.10 18.11 18.12 18.13 18.14 18.15 18.16 18.17 18.18 18.19
18.20 18.21 18.22 18.23 18.24 18.25
18.26 18.27 18.28 18.29 18.30 18.31 18.32 19.1 19.2 19.3 19.4 19.5 19.6 19.7 19.8 19.9 19.10 19.11 19.12 19.13 19.14 19.15 19.16 19.17 19.18 19.19 19.20 19.21 19.22 19.23 19.24 19.25 19.26 19.27 19.28 19.29 19.30 19.31 19.32 19.33 20.1 20.2 20.3 20.4 20.5 20.6 20.7 20.8 20.9 20.10 20.11 20.12 20.13 20.14 20.15 20.16 20.17 20.18 20.19 20.20 20.21 20.22 20.23 20.24 20.25 20.26 20.27 20.28 20.29 20.30 20.31 20.32 21.1 21.2
21.3 21.4 21.5 21.6 21.7 21.8 21.9 21.10 21.11 21.12 21.13 21.14 21.15 21.16 21.17 21.18 21.19 21.20 21.21 21.22 21.23 21.24 21.25 21.26 21.27 21.28 21.29
22.1 22.2 22.3 22.4
22.5
22.6 22.7 22.8 22.9 22.10 22.11 22.12 22.13 22.14 22.15 22.16 22.17 22.18 22.19 22.20 22.21 22.22 22.23 22.24 22.25 22.26 22.27 22.28 22.29 22.30 22.31 23.1 23.2 23.3 23.4 23.5 23.6 23.7 23.8 23.9 23.10 23.11 23.12 23.13 23.14 23.15 23.16 23.17 23.18 23.19 23.20 23.21 23.22 23.23 23.24 23.25 23.26 23.27 23.28 23.29
24.1 24.2 24.3 24.4 24.5 24.6 24.7 24.8 24.9 24.10 24.11 24.12 24.13 24.14 24.15 24.16 24.17 24.18 24.19 24.20 24.21 24.22 24.23 24.24 24.25 24.26 24.27 24.28 24.29 24.30 25.1 25.2 25.3 25.4 25.5 25.6 25.7 25.8 25.9 25.10 25.11 25.12 25.13 25.14
25.15 25.16 25.17 25.18 25.19 25.20 25.21 25.22 25.23 25.25 25.24 25.27 25.26 25.28
25.29 25.30 25.31 25.32
26.1 26.2
26.3 26.4 26.5 26.6 26.7 26.8 26.9 26.10 26.11 26.12 26.13 26.14 26.15 26.16 26.17 26.18 26.19 26.20 26.21 26.22 26.23 26.24 26.25 26.26 26.27 26.28 26.29 26.30 26.31 26.32 26.33 26.34
27.1 27.2 27.3 27.4 27.5 27.6 27.7
27.8 27.9 27.10 27.11 27.12 27.13
27.14 27.15 27.16 27.17 27.18 27.19 27.20 27.21 27.22 27.23 27.24 27.25 27.26 27.27 27.28
27.29 27.30 27.31 27.32 28.1 28.2 28.3 28.4 28.5 28.6 28.7 28.8 28.9 28.10 28.11 28.12 28.13
28.14 28.15 28.16 28.17 28.18 28.19 28.20 28.21 28.22 28.23 28.24 28.25 28.26 28.27 28.28 28.29 28.30 28.31 29.1 29.2 29.3 29.4 29.5 29.6 29.7 29.8 29.9 29.10
29.11 29.12 29.13 29.14 29.15 29.16 29.17 29.18 29.19 29.20 29.21
29.22 29.23 29.24 29.25 29.26 29.27 29.28 29.29 29.30 29.31 29.32 29.33 30.1 30.2 30.3 30.4 30.5 30.6
30.7 30.8 30.9 30.10 30.11 30.12 30.13 30.14 30.15 30.16 30.17 30.18 30.19 30.20 30.21 30.22 30.23 30.24 30.25 30.26 30.27 30.28 30.29 30.30
31.1 31.2 31.3 31.4 31.5 31.6 31.7 31.8 31.9 31.10 31.11 31.12 31.13
31.14 31.15 31.16 31.17 31.18 31.19 31.20 31.21 31.22 31.23 31.24 31.25 31.26 31.27 31.28 31.29 31.30 31.31 31.32
32.1 32.2 32.3 32.4 32.5 32.6 32.7 32.8 32.9 32.10 32.11 32.12 32.13 32.14 32.15 32.16 32.17 32.18 32.19 32.20 32.21 32.22 32.23 32.24 32.25 32.26 32.27 32.28 32.29 32.30 32.31 32.32 32.33 32.34 33.1 33.2 33.3 33.4 33.5 33.6 33.7 33.8 33.9
33.10 33.11 33.12 33.13 33.14 33.15 33.16 33.17 33.18 33.19 33.20 33.21 33.22 33.23 33.24 33.25 33.26 33.27 33.28 33.29 33.30 33.31 34.1 34.2 34.3 34.4 34.5 34.6 34.7 34.8 34.9 34.10 34.11 34.12 34.13 34.14 34.15 34.16 34.17 34.18 34.19 34.20 34.21 34.22 34.23 34.24 34.25 34.26 34.27 34.28 34.29 34.30 34.31 34.32 35.1 35.2 35.3 35.4 35.5 35.6 35.7 35.8 35.9 35.10 35.11 35.12 35.13 35.14 35.15 35.16 35.17 35.18
35.19 35.20 35.21 35.22 35.23 35.24 35.25 35.26 35.27 35.28 35.29 35.30 35.31 35.32 36.1 36.2 36.3 36.4 36.5 36.6 36.7 36.8 36.9 36.10 36.11 36.12 36.13 36.14 36.15 36.16 36.17 36.18 36.19 36.20 36.21 36.22 36.23 36.24 36.25 36.26 36.27 36.28 36.29 37.1 37.2 37.3 37.4 37.5 37.6 37.7 37.8 37.9 37.10 37.11 37.12 37.13 37.14 37.15 37.16 37.17
37.18 37.19 37.20 37.21 37.22 37.23 37.24 37.25 37.26 37.27 37.28 37.29 37.30 37.31 37.32 38.1 38.2 38.3 38.4 38.5 38.6 38.7 38.8 38.9 38.10
38.11 38.12 38.13 38.14 38.15 38.16 38.17 38.18 38.19 38.20 38.21 38.22 38.23 38.24 38.25 38.26 38.27 38.28 38.29 38.30 39.1 39.2 39.3 39.4 39.5 39.6 39.7 39.8 39.9 39.10 39.11 39.12 39.13 39.14 39.15 39.16 39.17 39.18 39.19 39.20 39.21 39.22 39.23 39.24 39.25 39.26 39.27 39.28 39.29 39.30 40.1 40.2 40.3 40.4 40.5 40.6 40.7 40.8 40.9 40.10 40.11 40.12 40.13 40.14 40.15 40.16
40.17 40.18 40.19 40.20 40.21 40.22 40.23 40.24 40.25 40.26 40.27 40.28 40.29 40.30 41.1 41.2 41.3 41.4 41.5 41.6 41.7 41.8 41.9 41.10 41.11 41.12 41.13 41.14 41.15 41.16 41.17 41.18 41.19 41.20 41.21 41.22 41.23 41.24 41.25 41.26
41.27 41.28 41.29 41.30 41.31 42.1 42.2 42.3 42.4 42.5 42.6 42.7 42.8 42.9 42.10 42.11 42.12 42.13 42.14 42.15 42.16 42.17 42.18 42.19 42.20 42.21 42.22 42.23 42.24 42.25 42.26 42.27 42.28 42.29 43.1 43.2 43.3 43.4 43.5 43.6 43.7 43.8
43.9 43.10 43.11 43.12 43.13 43.14 43.15 43.16 43.17 43.18 43.19 43.20 43.21 43.22 43.23 43.24 43.25 43.26 43.27 43.28 43.29 43.30 44.1 44.2 44.3 44.4 44.5 44.6 44.7 44.8 44.9 44.10 44.11 44.12 44.13 44.14 44.15 44.16 44.17 44.18 44.19 44.20 44.21
44.22 44.23 44.24 44.25 44.26 44.27 44.28 44.29 44.30 45.1 45.2 45.3
45.4 45.5 45.6
45.7 45.8 45.9 45.10 45.11 45.12 45.13 45.14 45.15 45.16 45.17 45.18 45.19 45.20 45.21 45.22 45.23 45.24 45.25
45.26 45.27 45.28 45.29 45.30
46.1 46.2 46.3 46.4 46.5 46.6 46.7 46.8
46.9 46.10 46.11 46.12 46.13 46.14 46.15 46.16 46.17 46.18 46.19 46.20 46.21 46.22 46.23 46.24 46.25 46.26 46.27 46.28 46.29 46.30 46.31 46.32 47.1 47.2 47.3 47.4 47.5
47.6 47.7 47.8 47.9 47.10 47.11 47.12 47.13 47.14 47.15 47.16 47.17 47.18 47.19 47.20 47.21 47.22 47.23 47.24 47.25 47.26 47.27 47.28 47.29 47.30 47.31 47.32 48.1 48.2
48.3 48.4 48.5 48.6 48.7 48.8 48.9 48.10 48.11 48.12 48.13 48.14 48.15 48.16 48.17 48.18 48.19 48.20 48.21 48.22 48.23 48.24 48.25 48.26 48.27 48.28 48.29 48.30 48.31 48.32 49.1 49.2 49.3 49.4 49.5 49.6 49.7 49.8 49.9 49.10 49.11 49.12 49.13 49.14 49.15 49.16 49.17 49.18 49.19 49.20 49.21 49.22 49.23 49.24 49.25 49.26 49.27 49.28 49.29 49.30 49.31 49.32 49.33 50.1 50.2 50.3 50.4 50.5 50.6 50.7
50.8 50.9 50.10 50.11 50.12 50.13 50.14 50.15 50.16 50.17 50.18 50.19 50.20
50.21 50.22 50.23 50.24
50.25 50.26 50.27 50.28 50.29 50.30 51.1 51.2 51.3 51.4 51.5 51.6 51.7 51.8 51.9 51.10 51.11 51.12 51.13 51.14 51.15 51.16 51.17 51.18 51.19 51.20 51.21 51.22 51.23 51.24 51.25 51.26 51.27 51.28 51.29 51.30 51.31 51.32 51.33 52.1 52.2 52.3 52.4 52.5 52.6 52.7 52.8 52.9 52.10 52.11 52.12 52.13 52.14 52.15 52.16 52.17 52.18 52.19 52.20 52.21 52.22 52.23 52.24 52.25 52.26 52.27 52.28 52.29 52.30 52.31 53.1 53.2 53.3 53.4 53.5 53.6 53.7 53.8 53.9 53.10 53.11 53.12 53.13 53.14 53.15 53.16 53.17 53.18 53.19 53.20 53.21 53.22 53.23 53.24 53.25 53.26 53.27 53.28 53.29 53.30 53.31 53.32 53.33 54.1 54.2 54.3 54.4 54.5 54.6 54.7 54.8 54.9 54.10 54.11 54.12 54.13 54.14 54.15 54.16 54.17 54.18 54.19 54.20 54.21 54.22 54.23 54.24 54.25 54.26 54.27 54.28 54.29 54.30 54.31 54.32 55.1 55.2 55.3 55.4 55.5 55.6 55.7 55.8 55.9 55.10 55.11 55.12 55.13 55.14 55.15 55.16 55.17 55.18 55.19 55.20 55.21 55.22 55.23 55.24 55.25 55.26 55.27 55.28 55.29 55.30 55.31 55.32 55.33 55.34 56.1 56.2 56.3 56.4 56.5 56.6 56.7 56.8 56.9 56.10 56.11 56.12 56.13 56.14 56.15 56.16 56.17 56.18 56.19 56.20 56.21 56.22 56.23 56.24 56.25 56.26 56.27 56.28 56.29 56.30 56.31 56.32 56.33 56.34 56.35 57.1 57.2 57.3 57.4 57.5 57.6
57.7 57.8 57.9 57.10 57.11 57.12 57.13 57.14
57.15 57.16 57.17 57.18 57.19 57.20 57.21 57.22 57.23 57.24 57.25 57.26 57.27 57.28 57.29 57.30 57.31 58.1 58.2 58.3 58.4 58.5 58.6 58.7 58.8 58.9 58.10 58.11 58.12 58.13 58.14 58.15 58.16 58.17 58.18 58.19 58.20 58.21 58.22
58.23 58.24 58.25 58.26 58.27 58.28 58.29
59.1 59.2 59.3 59.4 59.5 59.6 59.7 59.8
59.9 59.10 59.11 59.12 59.13 59.14 59.15 59.16 59.17 59.18 59.19 59.20 59.21 59.22 59.23 59.24 59.25
59.26 59.27 59.28 59.29 59.30
60.1 60.2 60.3 60.4 60.5 60.6 60.7 60.8 60.9
60.10 60.11 60.12 60.13 60.14 60.15 60.16 60.17 60.18
60.19 60.20 60.21 60.22
60.23 60.24 60.25
60.26 60.27
60.28 60.29 60.30 61.1 61.2 61.3 61.4 61.5 61.6 61.7 61.8 61.9 61.10 61.11 61.12 61.13 61.14 61.15 61.16 61.17 61.18 61.19 61.20 61.21 61.22 61.23 61.24 61.25 61.26 61.27 61.28 61.29 61.30 61.31 61.32 61.33 62.1 62.2 62.3 62.4 62.5 62.6 62.7 62.8 62.9 62.10 62.11 62.12 62.13 62.14 62.15 62.16 62.17 62.18 62.19 62.20 62.21 62.22 62.23 62.24 62.25 62.26 62.27 62.28 62.29 62.30 62.31 62.32 62.33 63.1 63.2 63.3 63.4 63.5
63.6 63.7 63.8 63.9 63.10 63.11 63.12 63.13 63.14 63.15 63.16 63.17 63.18 63.19 63.20 63.21
63.22
63.23 63.24 63.25 63.26 63.27 63.28 63.29 63.30 63.31 64.1 64.2 64.3 64.4 64.5 64.6 64.7 64.8 64.9 64.10 64.11 64.12 64.13 64.14 64.15 64.16 64.17 64.18 64.19 64.20 64.21 64.22 64.23 64.24 64.25 64.26 64.27
64.28
64.29 64.30 64.31 64.32 64.33 65.1 65.2 65.3 65.4 65.5 65.6 65.7 65.8 65.9 65.10 65.11 65.12 65.13 65.14
65.15
65.16 65.17 65.18 65.19 65.20 65.21 65.22 65.23 65.24 65.25 65.26 65.27 65.28 65.29 65.30 65.31 65.32 65.33 66.1 66.2 66.3 66.4 66.5 66.6 66.7
66.8
66.9 66.10 66.11 66.12 66.13
66.14
66.15 66.16
66.17 66.18 66.19 66.20 66.21 66.22 66.23 66.24 66.25 66.26 66.27 66.28 66.29 66.30 66.31 67.1 67.2 67.3 67.4 67.5 67.6
67.7 67.8 67.9 67.10 67.11 67.12 67.13 67.14 67.15 67.16 67.17 67.18 67.19 67.20 67.21 67.22 67.23 67.24 67.25 67.26 67.27 67.28 67.29 67.30 68.1 68.2 68.3 68.4 68.5 68.6 68.7 68.8 68.9 68.10 68.11 68.12 68.13 68.14 68.15 68.16 68.17 68.18 68.19 68.20 68.21 68.22 68.23 68.24 68.25 68.26 68.27 68.28 68.29 68.30 69.1 69.2 69.3 69.4 69.5
69.6 69.7 69.8 69.9 69.10 69.11 69.12 69.13 69.14 69.15 69.16 69.17 69.18 69.19 69.20 69.21 69.22 69.23 69.24 69.25 69.26 69.27 69.28 69.29 69.30 69.31 69.32 70.1 70.2 70.3 70.4 70.5 70.6 70.7 70.8 70.9 70.10 70.11 70.12 70.13 70.14 70.15 70.16 70.17 70.18 70.19 70.20 70.21 70.22 70.23 70.24 70.25 70.26
70.27
70.28 70.29 70.30 71.1 71.2 71.3 71.4 71.5 71.6 71.7 71.8 71.9 71.10 71.11 71.12 71.13 71.14 71.15 71.16 71.17 71.18 71.19 71.20 71.21 71.22 71.23 71.24 71.25 71.26 71.27 71.28 71.29 71.30 71.31 72.1 72.2 72.3 72.4 72.5 72.6 72.7 72.8 72.9 72.10 72.11 72.12 72.13 72.14 72.15 72.16 72.17 72.18 72.19 72.20 72.21 72.22 72.23 72.24 72.25 72.26 72.27 72.28 72.29 72.30 73.1 73.2 73.3 73.4 73.5 73.6 73.7 73.8 73.9 73.10 73.11
73.12 73.13 73.14 73.15 73.16 73.17 73.18 73.19 73.20 73.21 73.22 73.23 73.24 73.25 73.26 73.27 73.28 73.29 73.30 73.31
74.1 74.2 74.3 74.4 74.5 74.6 74.7
74.8 74.9 74.10 74.11 74.12 74.13 74.14 74.15 74.16 74.17 74.18 74.19 74.20 74.21 74.22 74.23 74.24 74.25 74.26 74.27 74.28 74.29 74.30 74.31 75.1 75.2 75.3 75.4 75.5 75.6 75.7 75.8
75.9 75.10 75.11 75.12 75.13 75.14 75.15 75.16 75.17 75.18 75.19 75.20 75.21 75.22 75.23 75.24 75.25 75.26 75.27 75.28 75.29 75.30 75.31
76.1 76.2 76.3 76.4 76.5 76.6 76.7 76.8 76.9 76.10 76.11 76.12 76.13 76.14 76.15 76.16 76.17 76.18 76.19 76.20 76.21 76.22 76.23 76.24 76.25 76.26 76.27 76.28 76.29 76.30 76.31 77.1 77.2 77.3 77.4 77.5 77.6 77.7 77.8 77.9 77.10 77.11 77.12 77.13 77.14 77.15 77.16 77.17 77.18 77.19 77.20 77.21 77.22 77.23 77.24 77.25 77.26 77.27 77.28 77.29 77.30 77.31
78.1 78.2 78.3 78.4 78.5 78.6 78.7 78.8 78.9 78.10 78.11 78.12 78.13 78.14 78.15 78.16 78.17 78.18 78.19 78.20 78.21 78.22 78.23 78.24 78.25 78.26 78.27 78.28 78.29 78.30 78.31 78.32 78.33 79.1 79.2 79.3 79.4 79.5 79.6 79.7 79.8 79.9 79.10 79.11 79.12 79.13 79.14 79.15 79.16 79.17 79.18 79.19 79.20 79.21 79.22 79.23 79.24
79.25 79.26 79.27 79.28 79.29 79.30 79.31 79.32 79.33 80.1 80.2 80.3 80.4 80.5 80.6 80.7 80.8 80.9 80.10 80.11 80.12 80.13 80.14
80.15
80.16 80.17 80.18 80.19 80.20 80.21 80.22 80.23 80.24 80.25 80.26 80.27 80.28 80.29 80.30 80.31 81.1 81.2 81.3 81.4 81.5 81.6 81.7 81.8 81.9 81.10 81.11 81.12 81.13 81.14 81.15
81.16
81.17 81.18 81.19 81.20 81.21 81.22 81.23 81.24 81.25 81.26 81.27 81.28 81.29 81.30 81.31 81.32 81.33 82.1 82.2 82.3 82.4 82.5 82.6 82.7 82.8 82.9 82.10 82.11 82.12 82.13 82.14 82.15 82.16 82.17 82.18 82.19 82.20 82.21 82.22 82.23 82.24 82.25 82.26 82.27 82.28 82.29 82.30 82.31 82.32 82.33 83.1 83.2 83.3 83.4 83.5 83.6 83.7 83.8 83.9 83.10 83.11 83.12 83.13 83.14 83.15 83.16 83.17 83.18 83.19 83.20 83.21 83.22 83.23 83.24 83.25 83.26 83.27 83.28 83.29 83.30 83.31 83.32 83.33 83.34 84.1 84.2 84.3 84.4 84.5 84.6 84.7 84.8 84.9 84.10 84.11 84.12 84.13 84.14 84.15 84.16 84.17 84.18 84.19 84.20 84.21 84.22
84.23 84.24 84.25 84.26
84.27
84.28 84.29 84.30 84.31 85.1 85.2 85.3 85.4 85.5 85.6 85.7 85.8 85.9 85.10 85.11 85.12 85.13 85.14 85.15 85.16 85.17 85.18 85.19 85.20 85.21 85.22 85.23 85.24 85.25 85.26 85.27 85.28 85.29 85.30 85.31 85.32 85.33 86.1 86.2 86.3 86.4 86.5 86.6 86.7 86.8 86.9 86.10 86.11 86.12 86.13 86.14 86.15 86.16 86.17 86.18 86.19 86.20 86.21 86.22 86.23 86.24 86.25 86.26 86.27 86.28 86.29 86.30 86.31 86.32 86.33 87.1 87.2 87.3 87.4 87.5 87.6 87.7 87.8
87.9 87.10 87.11 87.12 87.13 87.14 87.15 87.16 87.17 87.18 87.19 87.20 87.21 87.22 87.23 87.24 87.25 87.26 87.27 87.28 87.29 87.30 87.31 87.32 87.33 88.1 88.2 88.3 88.4 88.5 88.6 88.7 88.8
88.9 88.10 88.11 88.12 88.13 88.14 88.15 88.16 88.17 88.18 88.19 88.20 88.21 88.22 88.23 88.24 88.25 88.26 88.27 88.28 88.29 88.30 88.31 88.32 88.33 89.1 89.2 89.3 89.4 89.5 89.6 89.7 89.8 89.9 89.10 89.11 89.12 89.13 89.14 89.15 89.16 89.17 89.18 89.19 89.20 89.21 89.22 89.23 89.24 89.25 89.26 89.27 89.28 89.29 89.30 89.31 90.1 90.2 90.3 90.4 90.5 90.6 90.7 90.8 90.9 90.10 90.11 90.12 90.13 90.14 90.15 90.16 90.17 90.18 90.19 90.20 90.21 90.22 90.23 90.24 90.25 90.26 90.27 90.28 90.29 90.30 90.31 90.32 90.33 91.1 91.2
91.3 91.4 91.5 91.6 91.7 91.8 91.9 91.10 91.11 91.12 91.13 91.14 91.15 91.16 91.17 91.18 91.19 91.20 91.21 91.22 91.23 91.24 91.25 91.26 91.27 91.28 91.29 91.30 91.31 91.32 91.33 92.1 92.2 92.3 92.4 92.5 92.6 92.7 92.8 92.9 92.10 92.11 92.12 92.13 92.14 92.15 92.16 92.17
92.18 92.19 92.20 92.21 92.22 92.23 92.24 92.25 92.26 92.27 92.28 92.29 92.30 92.31 93.1 93.2 93.3 93.4 93.5 93.6 93.7 93.8 93.9 93.10 93.11 93.12 93.13 93.14 93.15 93.16 93.17 93.18 93.19 93.20
93.21 93.22
93.23 93.24 93.25 93.26 93.27 93.28 93.29 93.30 93.31 93.32 94.1 94.2 94.3 94.4 94.5 94.6 94.7 94.8 94.9 94.10 94.11 94.12 94.13 94.14 94.15 94.16 94.17 94.18 94.19 94.20 94.21 94.22 94.23 94.24 94.25 94.26 94.27 94.28 94.29 94.30 94.31 95.1 95.2 95.3 95.4 95.5 95.6 95.7 95.8 95.9 95.10 95.11 95.12 95.13 95.14 95.15 95.16 95.17 95.18 95.19 95.20 95.21 95.22 95.23 95.24 95.25 95.26 95.27 95.28 95.29 95.30 95.31 95.32 96.1 96.2 96.3 96.4 96.5 96.6 96.7 96.8 96.9
96.10 96.11
96.12 96.13 96.14 96.15 96.16 96.17 96.18 96.19 96.20 96.21 96.22 96.23 96.24 96.25 96.26 96.27 96.28 96.29 96.30 96.31 97.1 97.2 97.3 97.4 97.5 97.6
97.7 97.8 97.9 97.10 97.11 97.12 97.13
97.14 97.15
97.16 97.17 97.18 97.19 97.20 97.21 97.22 97.23 97.24
97.25
97.26 97.27 97.28 97.29 97.30 98.1 98.2
98.3
98.4 98.5 98.6 98.7
98.8
98.9 98.10 98.11 98.12 98.13 98.14 98.15 98.16 98.17 98.18 98.19 98.20 98.21 98.22 98.23 98.24 98.25 98.26 98.27 98.28 98.29 98.30 99.1 99.2 99.3 99.4 99.5 99.6 99.7 99.8 99.9 99.10 99.11 99.12 99.13 99.14 99.15 99.16 99.17 99.18 99.19 99.20 99.21 99.22 99.23 99.24 99.25 99.26 99.27 99.28 99.29 99.30 99.31 99.32 99.33 99.34 100.1 100.2 100.3 100.4 100.5 100.6 100.7 100.8 100.9 100.10 100.11 100.12 100.13 100.14 100.15 100.16 100.17 100.18 100.19 100.20 100.21 100.22 100.23
100.24
100.25 100.26 100.27 100.28 100.29 100.30 100.31 100.32 100.33 100.34 101.1 101.2 101.3 101.4 101.5 101.6 101.7 101.8 101.9 101.10 101.11 101.12
101.13
101.14 101.15 101.16 101.17 101.18 101.19
101.20
101.21 101.22 101.23 101.24 101.25 101.26 101.27 101.28 101.29 101.30 101.31 101.32 102.1 102.2 102.3 102.4 102.5 102.6 102.7 102.8 102.9 102.10 102.11 102.12 102.13 102.14 102.15 102.16 102.17 102.18 102.19 102.20
102.21
102.22 102.23 102.24 102.25 102.26 102.27 102.28 102.29 102.30
102.31
103.1 103.2 103.3
103.4
103.5 103.6
103.7 103.8 103.9 103.10 103.11 103.12 103.13 103.14 103.15 103.16 103.17 103.18 103.19 103.20 103.21 103.22 103.23 103.24 103.25 103.26 103.27 103.28 103.29 103.30 103.31 103.32 103.33 103.34 103.35 103.36 103.37 103.38 104.1 104.2 104.3 104.4 104.5 104.6 104.7 104.8 104.9 104.10 104.11 104.12 104.13 104.14 104.15 104.16 104.17 104.18 104.19 104.20 104.21 104.22 104.23 104.24 104.25 104.26 104.27 104.28 104.29 104.30 104.31 104.32 104.33 104.34 104.35 104.36 104.37 104.38 104.39 104.40 104.41 104.42 104.43 104.44 104.45 104.46 105.1 105.2 105.3 105.4 105.5 105.6 105.7 105.8 105.9 105.10 105.11 105.12 105.13 105.14 105.15 105.16 105.17 105.18 105.19 105.20 105.21 105.22 105.23 105.24 105.25 105.26 105.27 105.28 105.29 105.30 105.31 105.32 105.33 106.1 106.2 106.3 106.4 106.5 106.6 106.7 106.8 106.9 106.10 106.11 106.12 106.13 106.14 106.15 106.16 106.17 106.18 106.19 106.20 106.21 106.22 106.23 106.24 106.25 106.26 106.27 106.28 106.29 106.30 106.31 106.32 106.33 106.34 106.35 107.1 107.2 107.3 107.4 107.5 107.6 107.7 107.8
107.9 107.10 107.11 107.12 107.13 107.14 107.15 107.16 107.17 107.18 107.19 107.20 107.21 107.22 107.23 107.24 107.25 107.26 107.27
107.28
108.1 108.2 108.3 108.4 108.5 108.6 108.7 108.8 108.9 108.10 108.11 108.12 108.13 108.14 108.15 108.16 108.17 108.18 108.19 108.20 108.21 108.22 108.23 108.24 108.25 108.26 108.27 108.28
108.29 108.30 108.31 108.32 108.33 109.1 109.2 109.3 109.4 109.5 109.6 109.7 109.8 109.9 109.10 109.11 109.12 109.13 109.14 109.15 109.16 109.17 109.18 109.19
109.20 109.21 109.22 109.23 109.24 109.25 109.26 109.27 109.28 109.29 109.30 110.1 110.2 110.3 110.4 110.5 110.6 110.7 110.8 110.9 110.10 110.11 110.12 110.13 110.14 110.15 110.16 110.17 110.18 110.19 110.20 110.21 110.22 110.23 110.24 110.25 110.26 110.27 110.28 110.29 111.1 111.2 111.3 111.4
111.5
111.6 111.7 111.8 111.9 111.10 111.11 111.12 111.13 111.14 111.15 111.16 111.17 111.18 111.19 111.20 111.21 111.22 111.23 111.24 111.25 111.26 111.27 111.28 111.29 111.30 111.31 112.1 112.2 112.3 112.4 112.5 112.6 112.7 112.8 112.9 112.10 112.11 112.12 112.13 112.14 112.15 112.16 112.17 112.18 112.19 112.20 112.21 112.22 112.23 112.24 112.25 112.26 112.27 112.28 112.29 112.30 112.31 112.32 112.33 113.1 113.2 113.3 113.4 113.5 113.6 113.7 113.8 113.9 113.10 113.11 113.12 113.13 113.14 113.15 113.16 113.17 113.18 113.19 113.20 113.21 113.22 113.23 113.24 113.25 113.26 113.27 113.28 113.29 113.30 113.31 113.32 113.33 114.1 114.2 114.3 114.4 114.5 114.6 114.7
114.8 114.9 114.10 114.11 114.12 114.13 114.14 114.15 114.16 114.17 114.18 114.19 114.20 114.21 114.22 114.23 114.24 114.25 114.26 114.27 114.28 114.29 114.30 114.31 114.32 114.33 115.1 115.2 115.3 115.4 115.5 115.6 115.7 115.8 115.9 115.10 115.11 115.12 115.13 115.14 115.15 115.16 115.17 115.18 115.19 115.20 115.21 115.22 115.23
115.24
115.25 115.26 115.27 115.28 115.29 115.30 115.31 115.32 116.1 116.2 116.3 116.4 116.5 116.6 116.7 116.8 116.9 116.10 116.11 116.12 116.13 116.14 116.15 116.16 116.17 116.18 116.19 116.20 116.21 116.22 116.23 116.24 116.25 116.26 116.27 116.28 116.29 116.30 116.31 116.32 116.33 117.1 117.2 117.3 117.4 117.5 117.6 117.7 117.8 117.9 117.10 117.11 117.12 117.13 117.14 117.15 117.16 117.17 117.18 117.19 117.20 117.21 117.22
117.23
117.24 117.25 117.26 117.27 117.28 117.29 117.30 117.31 117.32 118.1 118.2 118.3 118.4 118.5 118.6 118.7 118.8 118.9 118.10 118.11 118.12 118.13 118.14 118.15 118.16 118.17 118.18 118.19 118.20 118.21 118.22 118.23 118.24 118.25 118.26 118.27 118.28 118.29 118.30 118.31 118.32 118.33 118.34 118.35 119.1 119.2 119.3 119.4 119.5 119.6 119.7 119.8 119.9 119.10 119.11 119.12 119.13 119.14 119.15
119.16 119.17 119.18 119.19 119.20 119.21 119.22 119.23 119.24 119.25 119.26 119.27 119.28 119.29 119.30 119.31 119.32 119.33 119.34 120.1 120.2 120.3 120.4 120.5 120.6 120.7 120.8 120.9 120.10 120.11 120.12 120.13 120.14 120.15 120.16 120.17 120.18 120.19 120.20 120.21 120.22 120.23 120.24 120.25 120.26 120.27 120.28 120.29 120.30
120.31 120.32 120.33 120.34 121.1 121.2 121.3 121.4 121.5 121.6 121.7 121.8 121.9 121.10 121.11 121.12 121.13 121.14 121.15 121.16 121.17 121.18 121.19 121.20 121.21 121.22 121.23 121.24 121.25 121.26 121.27 121.28 121.29 121.30 121.31 121.32 121.33 121.34 121.35 122.1 122.2 122.3 122.4 122.5 122.6 122.7 122.8 122.9 122.10 122.11 122.12 122.13 122.14
122.15 122.16 122.17 122.18 122.19 122.20 122.21 122.22 122.23 122.24 122.25 122.26 122.27 122.28 122.29 122.30 122.31 122.32 122.33 122.34 123.1 123.2 123.3 123.4 123.5 123.6 123.7 123.8 123.9 123.10 123.11 123.12 123.13 123.14 123.15 123.16 123.17 123.18 123.19 123.20 123.21 123.22 123.23 123.24 123.25 123.26 123.27 123.28 123.29 123.30 123.31 123.32 123.33 123.34 124.1 124.2 124.3 124.4 124.5 124.6 124.7 124.8 124.9 124.10 124.11 124.12 124.13 124.14 124.15 124.16 124.17 124.18 124.19 124.20 124.21 124.22 124.23 124.24 124.25 124.26 124.27 124.28 124.29 124.30 124.31 124.32 124.33 124.34 124.35 125.1 125.2 125.3 125.4 125.5 125.6 125.7 125.8 125.9 125.10 125.11 125.12 125.13 125.14 125.15 125.16 125.17 125.18 125.19 125.20 125.21 125.22 125.23 125.24 125.25 125.26 125.27 125.28 125.29 125.30 125.31 126.1 126.2 126.3 126.4 126.5 126.6
126.7 126.8 126.9 126.10 126.11 126.12 126.13 126.14 126.15 126.16 126.17 126.18 126.19 126.20 126.21 126.22 126.23 126.24 126.25 126.26 126.27 126.28 126.29 126.30 126.31 126.32 126.33 127.1 127.2 127.3 127.4 127.5 127.6 127.7 127.8 127.9 127.10 127.11 127.12 127.13 127.14 127.15 127.16 127.17 127.18 127.19
127.20 127.21 127.22 127.23 127.24 127.25 127.26 127.27 127.28 127.29 127.30 127.31 127.32 127.33 128.1 128.2 128.3 128.4 128.5 128.6 128.7 128.8 128.9 128.10 128.11 128.12 128.13 128.14 128.15 128.16 128.17 128.18 128.19 128.20 128.21 128.22 128.23 128.24 128.25 128.26 128.27 128.28 128.29 128.30
128.31 128.32 128.33 129.1 129.2 129.3 129.4 129.5 129.6 129.7 129.8 129.9 129.10 129.11 129.12 129.13 129.14 129.15 129.16 129.17 129.18 129.19 129.20 129.21 129.22 129.23 129.24 129.25 129.26 129.27 129.28 129.29 129.30 129.31 130.1 130.2 130.3 130.4 130.5 130.6 130.7 130.8 130.9 130.10 130.11 130.12 130.13 130.14 130.15 130.16 130.17 130.18 130.19 130.20 130.21 130.22 130.23 130.24 130.25 130.26 130.27 130.28 130.29 130.30 131.1 131.2 131.3 131.4 131.5 131.6 131.7 131.8 131.9 131.10 131.11
131.12
131.13 131.14 131.15 131.16 131.17 131.18 131.19 131.20 131.21 131.22 131.23 131.24 131.25 131.26 131.27 131.28 131.29 131.30 131.31 132.1 132.2 132.3 132.4 132.5 132.6 132.7 132.8 132.9 132.10 132.11 132.12 132.13 132.14 132.15
132.16
132.17 132.18 132.19 132.20 132.21 132.22 132.23 132.24 132.25 132.26 132.27
132.28 132.29 132.30 132.31 132.32 133.1 133.2 133.3 133.4 133.5
133.6 133.7 133.8 133.9 133.10 133.11 133.12 133.13 133.14 133.15 133.16 133.17 133.18 133.19 133.20 133.21 133.22 133.23 133.24 133.25 133.26 133.27 133.28 133.29 133.30 133.31 133.32 133.33 134.1 134.2 134.3
134.4 134.5 134.6 134.7 134.8 134.9 134.10 134.11 134.12 134.13 134.14 134.15 134.16 134.17 134.18 134.19 134.20 134.21 134.22 134.23 134.24 134.25 134.26 134.27 134.28
134.29 134.30 134.31 134.32 134.33 135.1 135.2 135.3 135.4 135.5 135.6
135.7
135.8 135.9
135.10 135.11 135.12 135.13 135.14 135.15 135.16 135.17 135.18 135.19 135.20 135.21 135.22 135.23 135.24 135.25 135.26 135.27 135.28 135.29 135.30 135.31 135.32 135.33 136.1 136.2 136.3 136.4 136.5 136.6 136.7 136.8 136.9 136.10 136.11 136.12 136.13 136.14 136.15 136.16 136.17 136.18 136.19 136.20 136.21 136.22 136.23 136.24 136.25 136.26 136.27 136.28 136.29 136.30 136.31 136.32 136.33 137.1 137.2 137.3 137.4 137.5 137.6 137.7 137.8
137.9 137.10 137.11 137.12 137.13 137.14 137.15 137.16 137.17 137.18 137.19 137.20 137.21 137.22 137.23 137.24
137.25 137.26 137.27 137.28 137.29 137.30 137.31 138.1 138.2 138.3 138.4 138.5 138.6 138.7 138.8 138.9 138.10 138.11 138.12 138.13 138.14 138.15 138.16 138.17 138.18 138.19 138.20 138.21 138.22 138.23 138.24 138.25 138.26 138.27 138.28 138.29 138.30 138.31 138.32 139.1 139.2 139.3 139.4 139.5 139.6 139.7 139.8 139.9 139.10 139.11 139.12 139.13 139.14 139.15 139.16 139.17 139.18 139.19 139.20 139.21 139.22 139.23 139.24 139.25 139.26 139.27 139.28 139.29 139.30 139.31 139.32 139.33 140.1 140.2 140.3 140.4 140.5 140.6 140.7 140.8 140.9 140.10 140.11 140.12 140.13 140.14 140.15 140.16 140.17 140.18 140.19 140.20 140.21 140.22 140.23
140.24 140.25 140.26 140.27 140.28 140.29 140.30 140.31 140.32 141.1 141.2 141.3 141.4 141.5 141.6 141.7 141.8 141.9 141.10 141.11 141.12 141.13
141.14 141.15 141.16 141.17 141.18 141.19 141.20 141.21 141.22 141.23 141.24 141.25 141.26 141.27 141.28 141.29
141.30 141.31 141.32 142.1 142.2 142.3 142.4 142.5 142.6 142.7 142.8 142.9 142.10
142.11 142.12 142.13 142.14 142.15 142.16 142.17 142.18 142.19 142.20 142.21 142.22 142.23 142.24 142.25 142.26 142.27 142.28 142.29 142.30 142.31 142.32 143.1 143.2 143.3 143.4 143.5 143.6 143.7 143.8 143.9 143.10 143.11 143.12 143.13 143.14 143.15 143.16
143.17 143.18 143.19 143.20 143.21 143.22 143.23 143.24 143.25 143.26 143.27 143.28 143.29 143.30 143.31 143.32
144.1 144.2 144.3 144.4 144.5 144.6 144.7 144.8 144.9 144.10 144.11 144.12 144.13 144.14 144.15
144.16 144.17 144.18 144.19 144.20 144.21 144.22 144.23 144.24 144.25 144.26
144.27 144.28 144.29 144.30 144.31 144.32 144.33 145.1 145.2 145.3 145.4 145.5 145.6 145.7 145.8
145.9 145.10
145.11 145.12 145.13 145.14 145.15 145.16 145.17 145.18 145.19 145.20 145.21 145.22 145.23 145.24 145.25 145.26 145.27 145.28 145.29 145.30 145.31 145.32 146.1 146.2 146.3 146.4 146.5
146.6 146.7 146.8 146.9 146.10 146.11 146.12 146.13 146.14 146.15 146.16 146.17 146.18 146.19 146.20 146.21 146.22 146.23 146.24 146.25 146.26 146.27 146.28 146.29 146.30 146.31 146.32 147.1 147.2 147.3 147.4 147.5 147.6 147.7 147.8 147.9 147.10 147.11 147.12 147.13 147.14 147.15 147.16 147.17 147.18
147.19
147.20 147.21
147.22 147.23 147.24 147.25 147.26 147.27 147.28 147.29 147.30 147.31 148.1 148.2 148.3 148.4 148.5 148.6 148.7 148.8 148.9 148.10 148.11 148.12 148.13 148.14 148.15
148.16 148.17 148.18 148.19 148.20 148.21
148.22 148.23 148.24 148.25 148.26 148.27 148.28 148.29 148.30 148.31 149.1 149.2 149.3 149.4 149.5 149.6 149.7 149.8 149.9 149.10 149.11
149.12 149.13 149.14 149.15 149.16 149.17 149.18 149.19 149.20 149.21 149.22 149.23 149.24 149.25 149.26 149.27 149.28 149.29 149.30
150.1 150.2 150.3 150.4 150.5
150.6 150.7 150.8 150.9 150.10 150.11 150.12 150.13 150.14 150.15 150.16 150.17 150.18 150.19 150.20 150.21 150.22 150.23 150.24 150.25 150.26 150.27 150.28 150.29 150.30 150.31 150.32 150.33 151.1 151.2 151.3 151.4 151.5 151.6 151.7 151.8 151.9
151.10 151.11 151.12 151.13 151.14 151.15 151.16 151.17 151.18 151.19 151.20 151.21 151.22
151.23 151.24 151.25

A bill for an act
relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to health-related
occupations, the Department of Health, human services health care, behavioral
health, the Department of Human Services Office of the Inspector General, the
medication repository program, drugs, the health care provider wellness program,
emergency medical services, and children, youth, and families; requiring a report;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 62D.02, subdivision 7, by adding a
subdivision; 62D.08, subdivisions 5, 6; 62D.09, subdivisions 1, 5; 62D.124,
subdivision 6; 62J.17, subdivision 6a; 62J.2930, subdivision 1; 62J.497, subdivision
5; 62J.536, subdivision 2a; 62K.02, subdivision 2; 62K.03, subdivision 6; 62K.075;
62K.105; 62K.14; 62M.07, subdivision 2; 62Q.46, subdivision 1; 62V.05,
subdivision 7; 62V.13; 142A.43; 142B.10, subdivision 18; 142G.18, subdivision
1; 144.059, subdivision 8; 144.293, subdivision 7; 144.551, subdivision 1;
144E.123, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 145.56, subdivision 5; 145.561,
subdivision 2; 145.882, by adding subdivisions; 145A.04, subdivision 15; 148.01,
subdivisions 1, 4, by adding subdivisions; 148.09; 148.10, by adding a subdivision;
148.102, subdivision 3; 148.105, subdivision 1; 148.517, subdivisions 1, 2;
148.5191, subdivision 4; 151.01, subdivision 35, by adding a subdivision; 151.065,
subdivisions 4a, 4b, by adding subdivisions; 151.14; 151.19, subdivision 1; 151.555,
subdivision 7; 214.41; 245.991, subdivision 3; 245.992, subdivisions 1, 2; 245C.02,
subdivision 18; 245C.03, subdivision 1; 245C.04, subdivision 1; 245C.15,
subdivisions 2, 3, 4; 245C.24, subdivision 2; 245D.04, subdivision 3, by adding
a subdivision; 245D.10, subdivision 4; 245I.04, by adding a subdivision; 245I.08,
subdivision 4; 256B.057, subdivision 9; 256B.0624, subdivisions 6b, 7; 256B.0625,
subdivisions 4, 47; 256B.0943, subdivision 6; 256B.0946, subdivision 4;
256B.0947, subdivision 5; 256D.05, subdivision 1; 256D.06, subdivision 2;
256D.54, subdivision 1; 256I.04, subdivision 2b; 256K.46, subdivision 5; 256L.05,
subdivision 3; 256L.06, subdivision 3; 259.83, subdivision 1; 260.67, subdivision
1; 260C.190, subdivision 1; 260C.212, subdivision 4a; 260E.02, subdivisions 1,
2, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 3.732,
subdivision 1; 62J.84, subdivisions 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14; 62K.10, subdivision
2; 148.108, subdivision 5; 245.469, subdivision 1; 245.4889, subdivision 1;
245A.10, subdivision 4; 245A.142, subdivision 3; 245A.242, subdivision 2;
245C.07; 245C.13, subdivision 2; 245C.15, subdivision 4a; 245C.22, subdivision
5; 245I.04, subdivision 17; 245I.23, subdivision 7; 254B.04, subdivision 1a;
256B.0625, subdivision 5m; 256B.0943, subdivisions 1, 9; 256B.0947, subdivision
3a; 256B.695, subdivision 5; 256L.03, subdivision 5; 260E.03, subdivision 6;
260E.11, subdivision 1; 260E.14, subdivision 1; 626.5572, subdivision 13; Laws
2024, chapter 125, article 4, section 12, subdivision 5; Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 22, section 20, subdivision 2; article 23, section 2,
subdivision 12; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 148;
151; 245; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13D.08, subdivision 4;
62D.08, subdivision 7; 62D.181; 62J.06; 62J.156; 62J.2930, subdivision 4; 62J.57;
62U.10, subdivision 4; 144.9821; 151.13; 256B.69, subdivision 31a; 256D.024,
subdivision 1; 256D.09, subdivisions 2a, 2b; 256K.45, subdivision 2; Minnesota
Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 5b, 6, 12; 2500.1900; 2500.2020; 2500.2040;
2500.2100; 2500.2110; 6800.0400; 6800.1150.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

ARTICLE 1

HEALTH-RELATED OCCUPATIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

For the purposes of sections 148.01 to 148.10:

new text begin (1) "abnormal articulation" means the condition of opposing bony joint surfaces and
their related soft tissues that do not function normally, including subluxation, fixation,
adhesion, degeneration, deformity, dislocation, or other pathology that results in pain or
disturbances within the nervous system, results in postural alteration, inhibits motion, allows
excessive motion, alters direction of motion, or results in loss of axial loading efficiency,
or a combination of these;
new text end

new text begin (2) "acupuncture" means a modality of treating abnormal physical conditions by
stimulating various points of the body or interruption of the cutaneous integrity by needle
insertion to secure a reflex relief of the symptoms by nerve stimulation as utilized as an
adjunct to chiropractic adjustment;
new text end

new text begin (3) "animal chiropractic diagnosis and treatment" means treatment that includes
identification and resolution of vertebral subluxation complexes, spinal manipulation, and
manipulation of the extremity articulations of nonhuman vertebrates. Animal chiropractic
diagnosis and treatment does not include:
new text end

new text begin (i) performing surgery;
new text end

new text begin (ii) dispensing or administering medications; or
new text end

new text begin (iii) performing traditional veterinary care and diagnosis;
new text end

deleted text begin (1)deleted text end new text begin (4) new text end "chiropractic" means the health care discipline that recognizes the innate
recuperative power of the body to heal itself without the use of drugs or surgery by identifying
and caring for vertebral subluxations and other abnormal articulations by emphasizing the
relationship between structure and function as coordinated by the nervous system and how
that relationship affects the preservation and restoration of health;

deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end "chiropractic services" means the evaluation and facilitation of structural,
biomechanical, and neurological function and integrity through the use of adjustment,
manipulation, mobilization, or other procedures accomplished by manual or mechanical
forces applied to bones or joints and their related soft tissues for correction of vertebral
subluxation, other abnormal articulations, neurological disturbances, structural alterations,
or biomechanical alterations, and includesdeleted text begin ,deleted text end but is not limited todeleted text begin ,deleted text end manual therapy and
mechanical therapy as defined in section 146.23;

deleted text begin (3) "abnormal articulation" means the condition of opposing bony joint surfaces and
their related soft tissues that do not function normally, including subluxation, fixation,
adhesion, degeneration, deformity, dislocation, or other pathology that results in pain or
disturbances within the nervous system, results in postural alteration, inhibits motion, allows
excessive motion, alters direction of motion, or results in loss of axial loading efficiency,
or a combination of these;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end "diagnosis" means the physical, clinical, and laboratory examination of the patient,
and the use of diagnostic services for diagnostic purposes within the scope of the practice
of chiropractic described in sections 148.01 to 148.10;

deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end "diagnostic services" means clinical, physical, laboratory, and other diagnostic
measures, including diagnostic imaging that may be necessary to determine the presence
or absence of a condition, deficiency, deformity, abnormality, or disease as a basis for
evaluation of a health concern, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment, further
examination, or referral;

new text begin (8) "good standing" means that a license is not the subject of current disciplinary action
under section 148.10 or an equivalent disciplinary law in another jurisdiction;
new text end

new text begin (9) "reinstatement" means the process by which a board-terminated license or voluntarily
retired license returns to active license status under section 148.071 or 148.076;
new text end

deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (10)new text end "therapeutic services" means rehabilitative therapy as defined in Minnesota
Rules, part 2500.0100, subpart 11, and all of the therapeutic, rehabilitative, and preventive
sciences and procedures for which the licensee was subject to examination under section
148.06deleted text begin . When provided, therapeutic services must be performed within a practice where
the primary focus is the provision of chiropractic services, to prepare the patient for
chiropractic services, or to complement the provision of chiropractic services. The
administration of therapeutic services is the responsibility of the treating chiropractor and
must be rendered under the direct supervision of qualified staffdeleted text end ;new text begin and
new text end

deleted text begin (7) "acupuncture" means a modality of treating abnormal physical conditions by
stimulating various points of the body or interruption of the cutaneous integrity by needle
insertion to secure a reflex relief of the symptoms by nerve stimulation as utilized as an
adjunct to chiropractic adjustment. Acupuncture may not be used as an independent therapy
or separately from chiropractic services. Acupuncture is permitted under section 148.01
only after registration with the board which requires completion of a board-approved course
of study and successful completion of a board-approved national examination on acupuncture.
Renewal of registration shall require completion of board-approved continuing education
requirements in acupuncture. The restrictions of section 147B.02, subdivision 2, apply to
individuals registered to perform acupuncture under this section; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (8) "animal chiropractic diagnosis and treatment" means treatment that includes
identifying and resolving vertebral subluxation complexes, spinal manipulation, and
manipulation of the extremity articulations of nonhuman vertebrates. Animal chiropractic
diagnosis and treatment does not include:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (i) performing surgery;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (ii) dispensing or administering of medications; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (iii) performing traditional veterinary care and diagnosis.
deleted text end

new text begin (11) "voluntarily retired license" means a license held by a chiropractor who has changed
the chiropractor's license status to a voluntarily retired license under section 148.075.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Practice of chiropractic.

An individual licensed to practice under section
148.06 is authorized to perform chiropractic servicesdeleted text begin , acupuncture,deleted text end and therapeutic services,
and to provide diagnosis and to render opinions pertaining to those services for the purpose
of determining a course of action in the best interests of the patient, such as a treatment
plan, appropriate referral, or both.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Practice of therapeutic services. new text end

new text begin Therapeutic services must be performed
within a practice where the primary focus is the provision of chiropractic services, preparing
the patient for chiropractic services, or complementing the provision of chiropractic services.
The administration of therapeutic services is the responsibility of the treating chiropractor
and must be rendered under the direct supervision of qualified staff.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.01, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Practice of acupuncture. new text end

new text begin Acupuncture must not be used as an independent
therapy or separately from chiropractic services. Acupuncture is permitted under this section
only after registration with the board, which requires completing a board-approved course
of study and a board-approved national examination on acupuncture. Renewal of registration
requires completing board-approved continuing education requirements in acupuncture.
The restrictions of section 147B.02, subdivision 2, apply to individuals registered to perform
acupuncture under this section.
new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin [148.071] REINSTATEMENT OF A LICENSE TERMINATED FOR
FAILING TO RENEW OR TO COMPLETE CONTINUING EDUCATION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Scope. new text end

new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota license
was terminated by the board for failing to timely renew the license or complete annual
continuing education requirements.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Application requirements. new text end

new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement, the
applicant must:
new text end

new text begin (1) submit an application for reinstatement and pay the application fee;
new text end

new text begin (2) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end

new text begin (3) complete a criminal background check as prescribed under section 214.075 and pay
the required fee;
new text end

new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license;
new text end

new text begin (5) submit evidence of passing the board's jurisprudence exam;
new text end

new text begin (6) submit evidence of correcting any outstanding requirements and paying any
outstanding fees that existed at the time the license was terminated; and
new text end

new text begin (7) complete any additional applicable requirements established in subdivisions 3, 4, 5,
6, and 9.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license for licensee in good standing in another
jurisdiction. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant who is currently licensed
and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of the active chiropractic license in good standing in another
jurisdiction; and
new text end

new text begin (3) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours in the year
immediately preceding the application for reinstatement.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license after five years or less. new text end

new text begin The board must
reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3
and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after license termination in Minnesota
or another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end

new text begin (i) completing 20 continuing education hours for each year since the applicant last held
an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another jurisdiction and 20 continuing
education hours in the year immediately preceding the application for reinstatement; or
new text end

new text begin (ii) passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic, or an alternate
examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of terminated license after more than five years. new text end

new text begin The board
must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision
3 and who applies for reinstatement more than five years after license termination in
Minnesota or another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours for each year
since the applicant last held an active license in good standing in Minnesota or another
jurisdiction and 20 continuing education hours in the year immediately preceding the
application for reinstatement, not to exceed a maximum of 100 required continuing education
hours; and
new text end

new text begin (3) provides verification of passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic,
or an alternate examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after
application.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement within the same calendar year of continuing education
termination. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant whose license was
terminated for failing to submit the required number of continuing education hours if within
the same calendar year of termination the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes the required number of continuing education hours and outstanding penalty
hours imposed by the board; and
new text end

new text begin (2) pays all application fees and penalty fees.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Board authority. new text end

new text begin Applications for reinstatement and licenses reinstated under
this section are subject to the same board authority under sections 148.10 and 214.103 as
other applications and licenses issued by the board to deny, refuse to issue, revoke, suspend,
condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or corrective action against a licensee or
applicant for conduct that violates applicable law or professional standards.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement. new text end

new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
terminated license under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the year in
which the license is reinstated.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Previously terminated licenses. new text end

new text begin If a chiropractor's license was terminated
before July 1, 2026, and the chiropractor applies for reinstatement under this section, the
chiropractor is not required to repay any renewal fees that accrued before the license
reinstatement.
new text end

Sec. 6.

new text begin [148.075] VOLUNTARILY RETIRED LICENSE.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Application. new text end

new text begin A Minnesota licensed chiropractor in good standing and
with no continuing education audit deficiencies may apply to the board to voluntarily retire
a license by submitting an application on a form provided by the board and a signed affidavit
stating that the applicant will no longer actively practice chiropractic in Minnesota.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Grounds for denial. new text end

new text begin The board may deny an application to voluntarily retire
a license if the applicant's Minnesota license or license issued in another jurisdiction is not
in good standing or is subject to a pending disciplinary action.
new text end

Sec. 7.

new text begin [148.076] REINSTATEMENT OF A VOLUNTARILY RETIRED LICENSE.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Scope. new text end

new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor who voluntarily retired a
Minnesota chiropractic license under section 148.075.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Application requirements. new text end

new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement, the
applicant must:
new text end

new text begin (1) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end

new text begin (2) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end

new text begin (3) complete a criminal background check as prescribed under section 214.075 and pay
the required fee;
new text end

new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license;
new text end

new text begin (5) submit evidence of passing the board's jurisprudence exam;
new text end

new text begin (6) submit evidence of correcting any outstanding requirements and paying any
outstanding fees that existed at the time the license was voluntarily retired; and
new text end

new text begin (7) complete any additional applicable requirements in subdivisions 3, 4, 5, and 7.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license for licensee in good standing
in another jurisdiction. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the license of an applicant who is currently
licensed and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of the active chiropractic license in good standing in another
jurisdiction; and
new text end

new text begin (3) provides verification of completing 20 continuing education hours in the year
immediately preceding the application for reinstatement.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license after five years or less. new text end

new text begin The
board must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of
subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after voluntary license
retirement in Minnesota or the equivalent in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end

new text begin (ii) passing the Special Purposes Examination for Chiropractic, or an alternate
examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of voluntarily retired license after more than five years. new text end

new text begin The
board must reinstate the license of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of
subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement more than five years after voluntary license
retirement in Minnesota or the equivalent in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Board authority. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement. new text end

new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
voluntarily retired license under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the
year the license is reinstated.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Previously voluntarily retired licensees. new text end

new text begin (a) If a chiropractor who voluntarily
retired before July 1, 2026, applies for reinstatement under this section, the chiropractor is
not required to repay any renewal fees that accrued before the license reinstatement.
new text end

new text begin (b) Before reinstatement under this subdivision, the voluntarily retired licensee must
complete any outstanding continuing education hours due at the time the license was
voluntarily retired.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.09, is amended to read:

148.09 INDEPENDENT EXAMINATION.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Requirements for examiners. new text end

new text begin (a) new text end A doctor of chiropractic conducting
a physical examination of a patient or a review of records by a doctor of chiropractic, for
the purpose of generating a report or opinion to aid a reparation obligor under chapter 65B
in making a determination regarding the condition or further treatment of the patient, shall
meet the following requirements:

(1) the doctor of chiropractic must either be an instructor at an accredited school of
chiropractic or have devoted not less than 50 percent of practice time to direct patient care
during the two years immediately preceding the examination;

(2) the doctor of chiropractic must have completed any annual continuing education
requirements for chiropractors prescribed by the Board of Chiropractic Examiners;

(3) the doctor of chiropractic must not accept a fee of more than $500 for each
independent exam conducted; and

(4) the doctor of chiropractic must register with the Board of Chiropractic Examiners
as an independent examiner and adhere to all rules governing the practice of chiropractic.

new text begin (b) The examiner must identify in the written report the source of all records reviewed
and the dates or period of services covered by those records. The examiner's notes and a
copy of the final written report must be retained for at least four years following the
examination.
new text end

new text begin (c) Before conducting an independent examination, the examiner must provide written
disclosures to the examinee that clearly state the purpose of the examination and the
examinee's right to have a third party present under subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Third-party presence during examinations. new text end

new text begin (a) An examiner performing an
independent examination under this section must not prohibit the examinee from having a
third party of the examinee's choice present during the consultation and examination. The
examiner must not bar the presence of a third party based on the third party's training or
credentials. Advance notice to the examiner or to any other person, organization, or agency
is not required for the presence of a third party under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (b) The third party must provide their name to the examiner. The examiner must document
the presence and stated identity of any third party in the written report of the examination.
new text end

new text begin (c) A third party may make a written or audio recording of the consultation or examination
if the recording does not obstruct the conduct of the examination. A third party must not
make a video recording of the consultation or examination.
new text end

new text begin (d) An examiner must not consider the examinee's exercise of rights under this subdivision
as failing to cooperate with the examination. If an examiner determines that the examination
has been obstructed, the examiner must describe in detail the nature of the obstruction in
the body of the written report. For purposes of this subdivision, "obstruct" means to hinder
the examination to the degree that the examination cannot be completed, unless the
obstruction is necessary for the safety or well-being of the patient.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Violation. new text end

new text begin A violation of this section constitutes unprofessional conduct under
section 148.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (e).
new text end

Sec. 9.

new text begin [148.095] ADMINISTRATIVE HOLD DURING COMPLAINT RESOLUTION
PROCESS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Administrative hold. new text end

new text begin (a) If there is a pending complaint against a licensee
and the licensee fails to pay required renewal fees, fails to renew the license, or fails to
complete required continuing education hours within the time prescribed by law, the board
must place the license on an administrative hold.
new text end

new text begin (b) A license on an administrative hold:
new text end

new text begin (1) is expired and does not authorize the licensee to engage in the practice of chiropractic;
and
new text end

new text begin (2) remains under the board's full jurisdiction for all purposes under sections 148.10 and
214.103, including investigation, adjudication, and imposition of discipline.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Prohibition on status change while on administrative hold. new text end

new text begin (a) If the board
places a license on administrative hold, the board must not:
new text end

new text begin (1) accept an application to voluntarily retire the license under section 148.075;
new text end

new text begin (2) terminate the license for failing to renew or to complete continuing education
requirements; or
new text end

new text begin (3) otherwise change the license status of the licensee in a manner that allows the licensee
to delay, avoid, or terminate the complaint resolution process.
new text end

new text begin (b) The board must remove the administrative hold upon the resolution of all pending
complaints against the licensee.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Licensee obligations not suspended. new text end

new text begin An administrative hold on a license does
not relieve a licensee of the legal obligation to timely renew the license, pay renewal or
other required fees, or complete continuing education hours according to law.
new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.10, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Loss and restoration of good standing. new text end

new text begin The pendency of a complaint does
not cause a license to lose good standing unless: (1) the complaint results in disciplinary
action under this section or an equivalent disciplinary law in another jurisdiction; or (2) a
stipulation and order or an equivalent order in another jurisdiction provides for the loss of
good standing. A license is restored to good standing upon the satisfactory completion,
expiration, or other agreed-upon termination of all terms of a stipulation and order or an
equivalent order in another jurisdiction. An agreement for corrective action as described
under section 214.103, subdivision 6, does not cause a license to lose good standing.
new text end

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.102, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Insurers.

deleted text begin Two times each yeardeleted text end new text begin (a) Every January 1 and July 1, new text end each insurer
authorized to sell insurance described in section 60A.06, subdivision 1, clause (13), and
providing professional liability insurance to chiropractors shall submit to the board a report
concerning the chiropractors against whom malpractice settlements or awards have been
made to the plaintiff. The report must contain at least the following information:

(1) the total number of malpractice settlements or awards made to the plaintiff;

(2) the date the malpractice settlements or awards to the plaintiff were made;

(3) the allegations contained in the claim or complaint leading to the settlements or
awards made to the plaintiff;

(4) the dollar amount of each malpractice settlement or award;

(5) the regular address of the practice of the doctor of chiropractic against whom an
award was made or with whom a settlement was made; and

(6) the name of the doctor of chiropractic against whom an award was made or with
whom a settlement was made.

new text begin (b) new text end The insurance company shall, in addition to the above information, report to the
board any information it possesses which tends to substantiate a charge that a doctor of
chiropractic may have engaged in conduct violating section 148.10 and this section.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.105, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Generally.

Any person who practices, or attempts to practice, chiropractic
or who uses any of the terms or letters "Doctors of Chiropractic," "Chiropractor," "DC," or
any other title or letters under any circumstances as to lead the public to believe that the
person who so uses the terms is engaged in the practice of chiropractic, without having
complied with the provisions of sections 148.01 to 148.104, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor;
and, upon conviction, fined not less than $1,000 nor more than $10,000 or be imprisoned
in the county jail for not less than 30 days nor more than six months or punished by both
fine and imprisonment, in the discretion of the court. It is the duty of the county attorney
of the county in which the person practices to prosecute. Nothing in sections 148.01 to
deleted text begin 148.105deleted text end new text begin 148.108new text end shall be considered as interfering with any person:

(1) licensed by a health-related licensing board, as defined in section 214.01, subdivision
2, including psychological practitioners with respect to the use of hypnosis;

(2) registered or licensed by the commissioner of health under section 214.13; or

(3) engaged in other methods of healing regulated by law in the state of Minnesota;

provided that the person confines activities within the scope of the license or other regulation
and does not practice or attempt to practice chiropractic.

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 148.108, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:

Subd. 5.

Chiropractic license fees.

Fees for chiropractic licensure are the following
amounts but may be adjusted lower by board action:

(1) initial application for licensure deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $300;

(2) annual renewal of an active license deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $250;

deleted text begin (3) annual renewal of an inactive license fee, 75 percent of the current active license
renewal fee under clause (2);
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end late renewal penalty deleted text begin feedeleted text end , $150 per month late; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end application for reinstatement of a deleted text begin voluntarily retired or inactivedeleted text end new text begin terminatednew text end license
deleted text begin feedeleted text end , deleted text begin $187.50.deleted text end new text begin $100; and
new text end

new text begin (5) penalty for failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal:
new text end

new text begin (i) at the first failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal, the
amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active license under clause (2);
new text end

new text begin (ii) at the second failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal,
two times the amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active license under clause (2);
and
new text end

new text begin (iii) at the third failure to complete CE requirements at the time of license renewal and
every subsequent failure, three times the amount of the fee for annual renewal of an active
license under clause (2).
new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin [151.064] APPLICATION EXPIRATION.
new text end

new text begin Unless otherwise exempted by this chapter or the rules of the board, an application for
initial license or registration, renewal, or reinstatement expires if an applicant, licensee, or
registrant fails to complete the application within 12 months of the date the board received
the application.
new text end

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.065, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:

Subd. 4a.

Application and fee; relocation.

A person who is registered with or licensed
by the board must submit a new application to the board before relocating the physical
location of the person's business. An application must be submitted for each affected license.
The application must set forth the proposed change of location on a form established by the
board. If the licensee or registrant remitted payment for the full amount during the state's
fiscal year, the relocation application fee is the same as the application fee in subdivision
1, except that the fees in new text begin subdivision 1, new text end clauses (6) to (9) and (11) to deleted text begin (16)deleted text end new text begin (15),new text end are reduced
by $5,000 and the fee in new text begin subdivision 1, new text end clause (16)new text begin ,new text end is reduced by $55,000. If the application
is made within deleted text begin 60deleted text end new text begin 90new text end days before the date of the original license or registration expiration,
the applicant must pay the full application fee provided in subdivision 1. Upon approval of
an application for a relocation, the board shall issue a new license or registration.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.065, subdivision 4b, is amended to read:

Subd. 4b.

Application and fee; change of ownership.

new text begin (a) new text end A person who is registered
with or licensed by the board must submit a new application to the board before changing
the ownership of the licensee or registrant. An application must be submitted for each
affected license. The application must set forth the proposed change of ownership on a form
established by the board. If the licensee or registrant remitted payment for the full amount
during the state's fiscal year, the application fee is the same as the application fee in
subdivision 1, except that the fees in new text begin subdivision 1, new text end clauses (6) to (9) and (11) to deleted text begin (16)deleted text end new text begin (15),new text end
are reduced by $5,000 and the fee in new text begin subdivision 1, new text end clause (16)new text begin ,new text end is reduced by $55,000. If
the application is made within deleted text begin 60deleted text end new text begin 90new text end days before the date of the original license or registration
expiration, the applicant must pay the full application fee provided in subdivision 1. Upon
approval of an application for a change of ownership, the board shall issue a new license
or registration.

new text begin (b) The following constitute a change in ownership:
new text end

new text begin (1) the sale of all or substantially all of the assets of the licensee or registrant;
new text end

new text begin (2) the addition or removal of one or more partners in a partnership to which a license
has been issued;
new text end

new text begin (3) the transfer of 20 percent or more of the issued voting stock of the licensee or
registrant since the original issuance of the license or registration;
new text end

new text begin (4) the transfer of 20 percent or more ownership interest in the licensee or registrant
since the original issuance of the license or registration;
new text end

new text begin (5) a change in business structure of an owner who possesses 20 percent or more of the
issued voting stock of the licensee or registrant; and
new text end

new text begin (6) a change in business structure of an owner who possesses 20 percent or more
ownership interest in the licensee or registrant.
new text end

new text begin (c) Paragraph (b), clauses (3) and (4), do not apply if the issued voting stock of the
licensee or registrant is actively traded on any securities exchange or any over-the-counter
market.
new text end

new text begin (d) "Change in business structure" means a change in the structure of a business between
a sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation.
new text end

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.065, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin Subd. 4c. new text end

new text begin Application and fee; change in business structure. new text end

new text begin (a) A person who is
registered with or licensed by the board must submit a new application to the board before
changing the business structure of the licensee or registrant. A person must submit an
application for each affected license. The application must set forth the proposed change
of business structure on a form established by the board. If the licensee or registrant remitted
payment for the full amount during the state's fiscal year, the application fee is the same as
the application fee in subdivision 1, except that the fees in subdivision 1, clauses (6) to (9)
and (11) to (15), are reduced by $5,000 and the fee in subdivision 1, clause (16), is reduced
by $55,000. If the person submits the application within 90 days before the date of the
original license or registration expiration, the applicant must pay the full application fee
provided in subdivision 1. Upon approval of an application for a change in business structure,
the board shall issue a new license or registration.
new text end

new text begin (b) "Changing the business structure" means a change in the structure of a business
between a sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation.
new text end

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.065, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin Subd. 4d. new text end

new text begin Temporary use of license or registration. new text end

new text begin Unless otherwise exempted by
this chapter or the rules of the board, if the physical location of a person's business, the
ownership of the licensee or registrant, or the business structure of the licensee or registrant
changes under subdivision 4a, 4b, or 4c, the original license or registration expires when
the board issues a new license or registration or 30 days after the effective date of the change,
whichever is earlier. An expired license or registration is void. A licensee or registrant must
surrender an expired license or registration to the board.
new text end

Sec. 19.

new text begin [151.099] POSTING REQUIREMENT.
new text end

new text begin A licensee or registrant must post the license or registration most recently issued by the
board in a conspicuous place within or adjacent to the licensed or registered facility at which
the licensee or registrant is employed.
new text end

Sec. 20.

new text begin [151.125] LICENSE AND REGISTRATION EXPIRATION AND
RENEWAL.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin License expiration and renewal. new text end

new text begin (a) A pharmacist license expires on
the last day of February each year. A pharmacist must renew the license annually by filing
an application for license renewal and submitting the fee established in section 151.065 on
or before February 1 each year. A pharmacist license renewal application received after
February 1 is subject to the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin (b) A pharmacy license expires June 30 each year. A pharmacy must renew the license
annually by filing an application for license renewal and submitting the fee established in
section 151.065 on or before June 1 each year. A pharmacy license renewal application
received after June 1 is subject to the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin (c) A manufacturer license expires May 31 each year. A manufacturer must renew the
license annually by filing an application for license renewal and submitting the fee established
in section 151.065 on or before May 1 each year. A manufacturer license renewal application
received after May 1 is subject to the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin (d) A wholesale distributor license expires May 31 each year. A wholesale distributor
must renew the license annually by filing an application for license renewal and submitting
the fee established in section 151.065 on or before May 1 each year. A wholesale distributor
license renewal application received after May 1 is subject to the late filing fee in section
151.065.
new text end

new text begin (e) A third-party logistics provider license expires October 31 each year. A third-party
logistics provider must renew the license annually by filing an application for license renewal
and submitting the fee established in section 151.065 on or before October 1 each year. A
third-party logistics provider license renewal application received after October 1 is subject
to the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Registration and permit expiration and renewal. new text end

new text begin (a) A pharmacy technician
registration expires December 31 each year. A pharmacy technician must renew the
registration annually by filing an application for registration renewal and submitting the fee
established in section 151.065 on or before December 1 each year. A technician registration
renewal application received after December 1 is subject to the late filing fee in section
151.065.
new text end

new text begin (b) A controlled substance researcher permit expires May 31 each year. A controlled
substance researcher must renew the permit annually by filing an application for permit
renewal and submitting the fee established in section 151.065 on or before May 1 each year.
A controlled substance researcher renewal application received after May 1 is subject to
the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin (c) A medical gas dispenser registration expires November 30 each year. A medical gas
dispenser must renew the registration annually by filing an application for registration
renewal and submitting the fee established in section 151.065 on or before November 1
each year. A medical gas dispenser registration renewal application received after November
1 is subject to the late filing fee in section 151.065.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Time limit for renewal. new text end

new text begin (a) Unless otherwise exempted in this chapter or by
the rules of the board, a pharmacist or pharmacy technician must not pursue renewal under
this section if a license or registration has been expired for more than 24 months and must
instead pursue reinstatement under section 151.14. A pharmacist may apply for renewal
within 24 months of expiration without examination.
new text end

new text begin (b) Unless otherwise exempted by this chapter or by the rules of the board, a licensee
or registrant not subject to paragraph (a) must not pursue renewal under this section if a
license or registration has been expired for more than 12 months and must instead pursue
reinstatement under section 151.14.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Prohibition on practice. new text end

new text begin A licensee or registrant whose license or registration
has expired must not practice using that license or registration until the license or registration
is either renewed under this section or reinstated under section 151.14.
new text end

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.14, is amended to read:

151.14 REINSTATEMENTS.

new text begin (a) new text end Any deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin pharmacist or pharmacy techniciannew text end who has been licensed new text begin or registered
new text end by the board and has defaulted in the payment of the renewal fee may deleted text begin be reinstated within
two yearsdeleted text end new text begin apply for reinstatement after 24 months new text end of such default deleted text begin without examination,deleted text end
upon payment of deleted text begin thedeleted text end new text begin any fees and late fees in new text end arrears and upon compliance with the deleted text begin provisions
of section 151.13, subdivision 2deleted text end new text begin continuing education requirements under this chapter and
the rules of the boardnew text end .

new text begin (b) Unless otherwise exempted in this chapter or by the rules of the board, a licensee or
registrant not subject to paragraph (a) may apply for reinstatement of an expired license or
registration after 12 months from the expiration by paying all late and renewal fees and all
arrears in section 151.065.
new text end

Sec. 22.

new text begin [151.145] EXTENSION AND PRORATION OF INITIAL, LATE RENEWAL,
AND REINSTATEMENT APPLICATIONS.
new text end

new text begin If the board receives an initial, late renewal, or reinstatement application within 90 days
before the applicable license or registration type expires under section 151.125, subdivision
1 or 2, the board may extend the license or registration date for that applicant to the
subsequent calendar year and prorate the application fee accordingly.
new text end

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.19, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Pharmacy licensure requirements.

(a) No person shall operate a
pharmacy without first obtaining a license from the board and paying any applicable fee
specified in section 151.065. The license shall be displayed in a conspicuous place in the
pharmacy for which it is issued and expires on June 30 following the date of issue. It is
unlawful for any person to operate a pharmacy unless deleted text begin thedeleted text end new text begin anew text end license has been issued to the
person by the board.

(b) Application for a pharmacy license under this section shall be made in a manner
specified by the board.

(c) No license shall be issued or renewed for a pharmacy located within the state unless
the applicant agrees to operate the pharmacy in a manner prescribed by federal and state
law and according to rules adopted by the board. No license shall be issued new text begin or renewed new text end for
a pharmacy located outside of the state unless the applicant agrees to operate the pharmacy
in a manner prescribed by federal law and, when dispensing medications for residents of
this state, the laws of this state, and Minnesota Rules.

(d) No license shall be issued or renewed for a pharmacy that is required to be licensed
or registered by the state in which it is physically located unless the applicant supplies the
board with proof of such licensure or registration.

(e) The board shall require a separate license for each pharmacy located within the state
and for each pharmacy located outside of the state at which any portion of the dispensing
process occurs for drugs dispensed to residents of this state.

(f) Prior to the issuance of an initial or renewed license for a pharmacy, the board may
require the pharmacy to pass an inspection conducted by an authorized representative of
the board. In the case of a pharmacy located outside of the state, deleted text begin the board may require the
applicant to pay the cost of the inspection, in addition to the license fee in section 151.065,
unlessdeleted text end the applicant deleted text begin furnishesdeleted text end new text begin must furnishnew text end the board with a report, issued by the appropriate
regulatory agency of the state in which the facility is located, of an inspection that has
occurred within the 24 months immediately preceding receipt of the license application by
the board. The board may deleted text begin deny licensuredeleted text end new text begin refuse to issue or renew any license or may deny
a category of license under Minnesota Rules, part 6800.0350,new text end unless the applicant submits
documentation satisfactory to the board that any deficiencies noted in an inspection report
have been corrected.

(g) The board shall not issue an initial or renewed license for a pharmacy located outside
of the state unless the applicant discloses and certifies:

(1) the location, names, and titles of all principal corporate officers and all pharmacists
who are involved in dispensing drugs to residents of this state;

(2) that it maintains its records of drugs dispensed to residents of this state so that the
records are readily retrievable from the records of other drugs dispensed;

(3) that it agrees to cooperate with, and provide information to, the board concerning
matters related to dispensing drugs to residents of this state;

(4) that, during its regular hours of operation, but no less than six days per week, for a
minimum of 40 hours per week, a toll-free telephone service is provided to facilitate
communication between patients in this state and a pharmacist at the pharmacy who has
access to the patients' records; the toll-free number must be disclosed on the label affixed
to each container of drugs dispensed to residents of this state; and

(5) that, upon request of a resident of a long-term care facility located in this state, the
resident's authorized representative, or a contract pharmacy or licensed health care facility
acting on behalf of the resident, the pharmacy will dispense medications prescribed for the
resident in unit-dose packaging or, alternatively, comply with section 151.415, subdivision
5.

(h) This subdivision does not apply to a manufacturer licensed under section 151.252,
subdivision 1, a wholesale drug distributor licensed under section 151.47, or a third-party
logistics provider, to the extent the manufacturer, wholesale drug distributor, or third-party
logistics provider is engaged in the distribution of dialysate or devices necessary to perform
home peritoneal dialysis on patients with end-stage renal disease, if:

(1) the manufacturer or its agent leases or owns the licensed manufacturing or wholesaling
facility from which the dialysate or devices will be delivered;

(2) the dialysate is comprised of dextrose or icodextrin and has been approved by the
United States Food and Drug Administration;

(3) the dialysate is stored and delivered in its original, sealed, and unopened
manufacturer's packaging;

(4) the dialysate or devices are delivered only upon:

(i) receipt of a physician's order by a Minnesota licensed pharmacy; and

(ii) the review and processing of the prescription by a pharmacist licensed by the state
in which the pharmacy is located, who is employed by or under contract to the pharmacy;

(5) prescriptions, policies, procedures, and records of delivery are maintained by the
manufacturer for a minimum of three years and are made available to the board upon request;
and

(6) the manufacturer or the manufacturer's agent delivers the dialysate or devices directly
to:

(i) a patient with end-stage renal disease for whom the prescription was written or the
patient's designee, for the patient's self-administration of the dialysis therapy; or

(ii) a health care provider or institution, for administration or delivery of the dialysis
therapy to a patient with end-stage renal disease for whom the prescription was written.

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 214.41, is amended to read:

214.41 deleted text begin PHYSICIANdeleted text end new text begin HEALTH CARE PROVIDERnew text end WELLNESS PROGRAM.

Subdivision 1.

deleted text begin Definitiondeleted text end new text begin Definitionsnew text end .

new text begin (a) new text end For the purposes of this section, new text begin the following
terms have the meanings given.
new text end

new text begin (b) "Health care provider" or "provider" means an individual who is licensed or registered
by the state to perform health care services within the provider's scope of practice and in
accordance with state law.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text end "deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin Health care providernew text end wellness program" means a program new text begin for health care
providers new text end of evaluation, counseling, or other modality to address an issue related to career
fatigue or wellness related to work stress deleted text begin for physicians licensed under chapter 147deleted text end that is
administered by a statewide association that is exempt from taxation under United States
Code, title 26, section 501(c)(6), and that primarily represents physicians and osteopaths
of multiple specialties. deleted text begin Physiciandeleted text end new text begin Health care providernew text end wellness program does not include
the provision of services intended to monitor for impairment under the authority of section
214.31.

Subd. 2.

Confidentiality.

Any record of a deleted text begin person'sdeleted text end new text begin health care provider'snew text end participation
in a deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program is confidential and not subject to
discovery, subpoena, or a reporting requirement to the applicable new text begin health-related licensing
new text end boardnew text begin or to the commissioner of healthnew text end , unless the deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin providernew text end voluntarily provides for
written release of the information or the disclosure is required to meet the deleted text begin licensee'sdeleted text end new text begin provider'snew text end
obligation to report new text begin certain information to the applicable health-related licensing board or
the commissioner of health new text end according to deleted text begin section 147.111deleted text end new text begin law governing the practice of the
provider's professionnew text end .

Subd. 3.

Civil liability.

Any person, agency, institution, facility, or organization employed
by, contracting with, or operating a deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program is
immune from civil liability for any action related to their duties in connection with a
deleted text begin physiciandeleted text end new text begin health care providernew text end wellness program when acting in good faith.

Sec. 25. new text begin TRANSITION OF INACTIVE LICENSES.
new text end

new text begin On July 1, 2026, the Board of Chiropractic Examiners must administratively change all
chiropractic licenses put on inactive license status under Minnesota Rules, part 2500.2020,
before that date to a voluntarily retired license under Minnesota Statutes, section 148.075.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 26. new text begin INTERIM CHIROPRACTIC ACUPUNCTURE REGISTRATION
REINSTATEMENT PROCEDURES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Scope. new text end

new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota chiropractic
acupuncture registration was canceled.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Application requirements. new text end

new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement of an
acupuncture registration, the applicant must:
new text end

new text begin (1) hold an active Minnesota chiropractic license;
new text end

new text begin (2) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end

new text begin (3) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end

new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license; and
new text end

new text begin (5) complete any additional applicable requirements as established in subdivisions 3, 4,
and 5.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant in good standing in
another jurisdiction. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the chiropractic acupuncture registration
of an applicant in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of a chiropractic acupuncture credential in good standing from
each jurisdiction where the applicant is authorized to perform chiropractic acupuncture; and
new text end

new text begin (3) provides verification of completing two continuing education units in acupuncture
or acupuncture-related subjects in the year immediately preceding the application for
reinstatement.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration after five years or less. new text end

new text begin The board
must reinstate the chiropractic acupuncture registration of an applicant who does not meet
the requirements of subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement five years or less after
the Minnesota registration cancellation if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of:
new text end

new text begin (i) completing two continuing education hours in acupuncture or acupuncture-related
subjects for each year since the applicant last held an active chiropractic acupuncture
registration in Minnesota or credential in another jurisdiction; or
new text end

new text begin (ii) passing the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners Acupuncture Examination or
the National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine (NCCAOM)
Examination, or an alternate examination the board determines is equivalent, within 12
months after application.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration license after more than five
years. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the chiropractic acupuncture registration of an applicant
who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3 and who applies for reinstatement
more than five years after the Minnesota registration cancellation if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of passing either the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners
Acupuncture Examination or the NCCAOM Examination, or an alternative examination
the board determines is equivalent, within 12 months after application.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement. new text end

new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education units obtained for the purpose of applying for reinstatement of a
canceled registration under this section to meet the annual requirement for the year the
license is reinstated.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Board authority. new text end

new text begin Applications for reinstatement and registrations reinstated
under this section are subject to the same board authority under Minnesota Statutes, sections
148.10 and 214.103, as other applications and registrations issued by the board to deny,
refuse to issue, revoke, suspend, condition, or limit a license or to take disciplinary or
corrective action against a registrant or applicant for conduct that violates applicable law
or professional standards.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Expiration. new text end

new text begin This section expires on the date the rules required under section
25, paragraph (a), become effective.
new text end

Sec. 27. new text begin INTERIM ANIMAL CHIROPRACTIC REGISTRATION
REINSTATEMENT PROCEDURES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Scope. new text end

new text begin This section applies to a chiropractor whose Minnesota animal
chiropractic registration was canceled.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Application requirements. new text end

new text begin At the time of application for reinstatement of an
animal chiropractic registration, the applicant must:
new text end

new text begin (1) hold an active Minnesota chiropractic license;
new text end

new text begin (2) submit an application for reinstatement;
new text end

new text begin (3) pay the current renewal fee;
new text end

new text begin (4) submit license verification from each jurisdiction where the applicant holds or has
held a chiropractic license; and
new text end

new text begin (5) complete any additional applicable requirements as established in subdivisions 3 and
4.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant in good standing in
another jurisdiction. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate the animal chiropractic registration of an
applicant who holds an animal chiropractic credential that is equivalent to a Minnesota
registration and in good standing in another jurisdiction if the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of an animal acupuncture credential in good standing from each
jurisdiction where the applicant is authorized to perform animal acupuncture; and
new text end

new text begin (3) provides verification of completing six continuing education units in animal
chiropractic diagnosis and treatment in the year immediately preceding the application for
reinstatement.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Reinstatement of canceled registration for registrant with no animal
chiropractic credential in good standing in another jurisdiction. new text end

new text begin The board must reinstate
the registration of an applicant who does not meet the requirements of subdivision 3 if the
applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) completes all requirements in subdivision 2; and
new text end

new text begin (2) provides verification of completing six continuing education units related to animal
chiropractic diagnosis and treatment for each year the applicant cannot verify an active
animal chiropractic credential that is equivalent to a Minnesota registration and in good
standing.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Continuing education in year of reinstatement. new text end

new text begin A licensee must not use
continuing education hours obtained for the purposes of applying for reinstatement of a
canceled registration under this section to meet the annual hour requirement for the year
the license is reinstated.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Board authority. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Expiration. new text end

new text begin This section expires on the date the rules required under section
25, paragraph (a), become effective.
new text end

Sec. 28. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber each provision of Minnesota Statutes listed in
column A to the number listed in column B. The revisor shall also make necessary
cross-reference changes consistent with the renumbering:
new text end

new text begin Column A new text end	new text begin Column B new text end
new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1a new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 1 new text end
new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1b new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 2 new text end
new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1c new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 3 new text end
new text begin 148.01, subdivision 1d new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 4 new text end
new text begin 148.032, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 5, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end
new text begin 148.032, paragraphs (c) and (d) new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 6, paragraphs (a) and (b) new text end
new text begin 148.032, paragraph (e) new text end	new text begin 148.032, subdivision 7 new text end

Sec. 29. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.13, new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Minnesota Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 5b, 6, and 12; 2500.1900; 2500.2020;
2500.2040; 2500.2100; 2500.2110; 6800.0400; and 6800.1150, new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

ARTICLE 2

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 3.732, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:

Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

As used in this section and section 3.736 the terms defined
in this section have the meanings given them.

(1) "State" includes each of the departments, boards, agencies, commissions, courts, and
officers in the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of the state of Minnesota and
includes but is not limited to the Housing Finance Agency, the Minnesota Office of Higher
Education, the Health and Education Facilities Authority, deleted text begin the Health Technology Advisory
Committee,deleted text end the Armory Building Commission, the Zoological Board, the Department of
Iron Range Resources and Rehabilitation, the Minnesota Historical Society, the State
Agricultural Society, the University of Minnesota, the Minnesota State Colleges and
Universities, state hospitals, and state penal institutions. It does not include a city, town,
county, school district, or other local governmental body corporate and politic.

(2) "Employee of the state" means all present or former officers, members, directors, or
employees of the state, members of the Minnesota National Guard, members of a bomb
disposal unit approved by the commissioner of public safety and employed by a municipality
defined in section 466.01 when engaged in the disposal or neutralization of bombs or other
similar hazardous explosives, as defined in section 299C.063, outside the jurisdiction of the
municipality but within the state, or persons acting on behalf of the state in an official
capacity, temporarily or permanently, with or without compensation. It does not include
either an independent contractor except, for purposes of this section and section 3.736 only,
a guardian ad litem acting under court appointment, or members of the Minnesota National
Guard while engaged in training or duty under United States Code, title 10, or title 32,
section 316, 502, 503, 504, or 505, as amended through December 31, 1983. Notwithstanding
sections 43A.02 and 611.263, for purposes of this section and section 3.736 only, "employee
of the state" includes a district public defender or assistant district public defender in the
Second or Fourth Judicial Districtdeleted text begin , a member of the Health Technology Advisory Committee,deleted text end
and any officer, agent, or employee of the state of Wisconsin performing work for the state
of Minnesota pursuant to a joint state initiative.

(3) "Scope of office or employment" means that the employee was acting on behalf of
the state in the performance of duties or tasks lawfully assigned by competent authority.

(4) "Judicial branch" has the meaning given in section 43A.02, subdivision 25.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.02, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

Subd. 7.

Comprehensive health maintenance services.

"Comprehensive health
maintenance services" means a set of comprehensive health services which the enrollees
might reasonably require to be maintained in good health including as a minimum, but not
limited to, emergency care, emergency ground ambulance transportation services, inpatient
hospital and physician care, outpatient health services and preventive deleted text begin healthdeleted text end new text begin items andnew text end
services.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 18. new text end

new text begin Service area. new text end

new text begin "Service area" means the geographic locations where the health
maintenance organization is approved by the commissioner to sell health maintenance
organization products. Geographic locations shall be identified according to recognized
political subdivisions such as cities, counties, and townships.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.08, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Changes in participating entities; penalty.

Any cancellation or discontinuance
of any contract or agreement listed in section 62D.03, subdivision 4, clause (e), or listed
subsequently in accordance with this subdivision, shall be reported to the commissioner
120 days before the effective date. When the health maintenance organization terminates a
deleted text begin providerdeleted text end new text begin participating entitynew text end for cause, death, disability, or loss of license, the health
maintenance organization must notify the commissioner within ten working days of the
date the health maintenance organization sends out or receives the notice of cancellation,
discontinuance, or termination. Any health maintenance organization which fails to notify
the commissioner within the time periods prescribed in this subdivision shall be subject to
the levy of a fine up to $200 per contract for each day the notice is past due, accruing up to
the date the organization notifies the commissioner of the cancellation or discontinuance.
Any fine levied under this subdivision is subject to the contested case and judicial review
provisions of chapter 14. The levy of a fine does not preclude the commissioner from using
other penalties described in sections 62D.15 to 62D.17.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.08, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

Subd. 6.

new text begin Quarterly new text end financial statements.

new text begin (a) new text end A health maintenance organization shall
submit to the commissioner unaudited financial statements of the organization for the first
three quarters of the year on forms prescribed by the commissioner. The statements are due
30 days after the end of the quarter and shall be maintained as nonpublic data, as defined
by section 13.02, subdivision 9. Unaudited financial statements for the fourth quarter shall
be submitted at the request of the commissioner.

new text begin (b) Every health maintenance organization must directly allocate administrative expenses
to specific lines of business or products when such information is available. Remaining
expenses that cannot be directly allocated must be allocated based on other methods, as
recommended by the Advisory Group on Administrative Expenses. Health maintenance
organizations must submit this information, including administrative expenses for dental
services, using the reporting template provided by the commissioner of health.
new text end

new text begin (c) Every health maintenance organization must allocate investment income based on
cumulative net income over time by business line or product and must submit this
information, including investment income for dental services, using the reporting template
provided by the commissioner of health.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.09, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Marketing requirements.

(a) Any written marketing materials which
may be directed toward potential enrollees and which include a detailed description of
benefits provided by the health maintenance organization shall include a statement of enrollee
information and rights as described in section 62D.07, subdivision 3, clauses (2) and (3).
Prior to any oral marketing presentation, the agent marketing the plan must inform the
potential enrollees that any complaints concerning the material presented should be directed
to the health maintenance organization, the commissioner of health, or, if applicable, the
employer.

(b) Detailed marketing materials must affirmatively disclose all exclusions and limitations
in the organization's services or kinds of services offered to the contracting party, including
but not limited to the following types of exclusions and limitations:

(1) health care services not provided;

(2) health care services requiring co-payments or deductibles paid by enrollees;

(3) the fact that access to health care services does not guarantee access to a particular
new text begin provider or new text end provider type; and

(4) health care services that are or may be provided only by referral of a physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.

(c) No marketing materials may lead consumers to believe that all health care needs will
be covered. All marketing materials must alert consumers to possible uncovered expenses
with the following language in bold print: "THIS HEALTH CARE PLAN MAY NOT
COVER ALL YOUR HEALTH CARE EXPENSES; READ YOUR CONTRACT
CAREFULLY TO DETERMINE WHICH EXPENSES ARE COVERED." Immediately
following the disclosure required under paragraph (b), clause (3), consumers must be given
a telephone number to use to contact the health maintenance organization for specific
information about access to provider types.

(d) The disclosures required in paragraphs (b) and (c) are not required on billboards or
image, and name identification advertisement.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.09, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Participating providers.

new text begin (a) new text end Health maintenance organizations shall deleted text begin provide
enrollees with a list of the names and locations of participating providers to whom enrollees
have direct access without referral no later than the effective date of enrollment or date the
evidence of coverage is issued and upon requestdeleted text end new text begin publish an up-to-date, accurate, and complete
provider directory, including information on which providers are accepting new patients,
the provider's location, contact information, specialty, medical group, and any institutional
affiliations, in a manner that is easily accessible to enrollees and potential enrolleesnew text end . Health
maintenance organizations need not provide the names of their employed providers.

new text begin (b) Upon request, a health maintenance organization shall provide a hard copy of the
provider directory to enrollees or potential enrollees.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62D.124, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

Subd. 6.

Provider network notifications.

new text begin (a) new text end A health maintenance organization must
provide on the organization's website the provider network for each product offered by the
organization, and must update the organization's website at least once a month with any
changes to the organization's provider network, including provider changes from in-network
status to out-of-network status. A health maintenance organization must also provide on
the organization's website, for each product offered by the organization, a list of the current
waivers of the requirements in subdivision 1 or 2, in a format that is easily accessed and
searchable by enrollees and prospective enrollees.

new text begin (b) Upon notification from an enrollee, a health maintenance organization must reprocess
any claim for services provided by a provider whose status has changed from in-network
to out-of-network as an in-network claim if the service was provided after the network
change went into effect but before the change was posted as required under paragraph (a),
unless the health maintenance organization notified the enrollee of the network change prior
to the service being provided. This paragraph does not apply if the health maintenance
organization is able to verify that the health maintenance organization's website displayed
the correct provider network status on the health maintenance organization's website at the
time the service was provided.
new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.17, subdivision 6a, is amended to read:

Subd. 6a.

Prospective review and approval.

(a) No health care provider subject to
prospective review under this subdivision shall make a major spending commitment unless:

(1) the provider has filed an application with the commissioner to proceed with the major
spending commitment and has provided all supporting documentation and evidence requested
by the commissioner; and

(2) the commissioner determines, based upon this documentation and evidence, that the
major spending commitment is appropriate under the criteria provided in subdivision 5a in
light of the alternatives available to the provider.

(b) A provider subject to prospective review and approval shall submit an application
to the commissioner before proceeding with any major spending commitment. The provider
may submit information, with supporting documentation, regarding why the major spending
commitment should be excepted from prospective review under subdivision 7.

(c) The commissioner shall determine, based upon the information submitted, whether
the major spending commitment is appropriate under the criteria provided in subdivision
5a, or whether it should be excepted from prospective review under subdivision 7. In making
this determination, the commissioner may also consider relevant information from other
sources. deleted text begin At the request of the commissioner, the health technology advisory committee shall
convene an expert review panel made up of persons with knowledge and expertise regarding
medical equipment, specialized services, health care expenditures, and capital expenditures
to review applications and make recommendations to the commissioner.deleted text end The commissioner
shall make a decision on the application within 60 days after an application is received.

(d) The commissioner of health has the authority to issue fines, seek injunctions, and
pursue other remedies as provided by law.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.2930, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Establishment.

The commissioner of health shall establish an information
clearinghouse within the Department of Health to facilitate the ability of consumers,
employers, providers, health plan companies, and others to obtain information on health
reform activities in Minnesota. The commissioner shall make available through the
clearinghouse updates on federal and state health reform activities, including information
developed or collected by the Department of Health on cost containment or other research
initiatives, the development of voluntary purchasing pools, action plans submitted by health
plan companies, reports or recommendations of deleted text begin the Health Technology Advisory Committee
and otherdeleted text end entities on technology assessments, and reports or recommendations from other
formal committees applicable to health reform activities. The clearinghouse shall also refer
requestors to sources of further information or assistance. The clearinghouse is subject to
chapter 13.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.497, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Electronic drug prior authorization standardization and transmission.

(a)
The commissioner of health, in consultation with the Minnesota e-Health Advisory
Committee and the Minnesota Administrative Uniformity Committee, shall, by February
15, 2010, identify an outline on how best to standardize drug prior authorization request
transactions between providers and group purchasers with the goal of maximizing
administrative simplification and efficiency in preparation for electronic transmissions.

(b) By January 1, 2014, the Minnesota Administrative Uniformity Committee shall
develop the standard companion guide by which providers and group purchasers will
exchange standard drug authorization requests using electronic data interchange standards,
if available, with the goal of alignment with standards that are or will potentially be used
nationally.

(c) No later than January 1, 2016, drug prior authorization requests must be accessible
and submitted by health care providers, and accepted by group purchasers, electronically
through secure electronic transmissions. Facsimile shall not be considered electronic
transmission.

new text begin (d) Starting January 1, 2027, providers and group purchasers must exchange prescription
drug prior authorization request transactions electronically using the NCPDP SCRIPT
Standard.
new text end

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62J.536, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:

Subd. 2a.

Group purchasers not covered by HIPAA.

deleted text begin For transactions withdeleted text end new text begin (a)new text end Group
purchasers defined in section 62J.03, subdivision 6, that are not covered under United States
Code, title 42, sections 1320d to 1320d-8, deleted text begin the requirements of this section are modified as
follows:deleted text end new text begin are exempt from the requirements of subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), to accept
and transmit the eligibility for a health plan transaction described in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, part 162, subpart L.
new text end

deleted text begin (1) The group purchasers may be exempt from one or more of the requirements to
exchange claims and eligibility information electronically using the transactions, companion
guides, implementation guides, and timelines in subdivision 1 if the commissioner of health
determines that:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (i) a transaction is incapable of exchanging data that are currently being exchanged on
paper and is necessary to accomplish the purpose of the transaction; or
deleted text end

deleted text begin (ii) another national electronic transaction standard would be more appropriate and
effective to accomplish the purpose of the transaction.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) If group purchasers are exempt from one or more of the requirements to exchange
claims and eligibility information electronically using the transactions, companion guides,
implementation guides, and timelines in subdivision 1, providers shall also be exempt from
exchanging those transactions with the group purchaser.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) If the commissioner of health exempts a group purchaser from one or more of the
requirements because a transaction is incapable of exchanging data that are currently being
exchanged on paper and are necessary to accomplish the purpose of the transaction, the
commissioner shall review that exemption annually. If the commissioner determines that
the exemption is no longer necessary or appropriate, the commissioner of health shall adopt
rules pursuant to section 62J.61 establishing and requiring group purchasers and health care
providers to use the transactions and the uniform, standard companion guides required under
subdivision 1, paragraph (e). Group purchasers and providers shall have 12 months to
implement any rules adopted.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (4) If the commissioner of health exempts a group purchaser from one or more of the
requirements because another national electronic transaction standard would be more
appropriate and effective to accomplish the purpose of the transaction, the commissioner
shall adopt rules pursuant to section 62J.61 establishing and requiring group purchasers and
health care providers to use the national electronic transaction standard. Group purchasers
and providers shall have 12 months to implement any rules adopted.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (5) The requirement of paper claims attachments shall not indicate that a health care
claims or equivalent encounter information transaction described under Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, part 162, subpart K, is incapable of exchanging data that are currently
being exchanged on paper provided that the electronic health care claims transaction has a
mechanism to link the paper attachments to the electronic claim.
deleted text end

new text begin (b) Providers exchanging transactions with exempt group purchasers are exempt from
the requirements in subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), to accept and transmit the eligibility
for a health plan transaction described in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 162,
subpart L.
new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:

Subd. 2.

Definitions.

(a) For purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision
have the meanings given.

(b) "Biosimilar" means a drug that is produced or distributed pursuant to a biologics
license application approved under United States Code, title 42, section 262(K)(3).

(1) a new drug application approved under United States Code, title 21, section 355(c),
except for a generic drug as defined under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section
447.502; or

(2) a biologics license application approved under United States Code, title 42, section
262(a)(c).

(d) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.

(e) "Generic drug" means a drug that is marketed or distributed pursuant to:

(1) an abbreviated new drug application approved under United States Code, title 21,
section 355(j);

(2) an authorized generic as defined under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section
447.502; or

(3) a drug that entered the market the year before 1962 and was not originally marketed
under a new drug application.

(f) "Manufacturer" meansnew text begin :
new text end

new text begin (1) new text end a drug manufacturer licensed under section 151.252deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; or
new text end

new text begin (2) an entity that sets the wholesale acquisition cost for prescription drugs that are
distributed in Minnesota.
new text end

(g) "New prescription drug" or "new drug" means a prescription drug approved for
marketing by the United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for which no previous
wholesale acquisition cost has been established for comparison.

(h) "Patient assistance program" means a program that a manufacturer offers to the public
in which a consumer may reduce the consumer's out-of-pocket costs for prescription drugs
by using coupons, discount cards, prepaid gift cards, manufacturer debit cards, or by other
means.

(i) "Prescription drug" or "drug" has the meaning provided in section 151.441, subdivision
8.

(j) "Price" means the wholesale acquisition cost as defined in United States Code, title
42, section 1395w-3a(c)(6)(B).

(k) "30-day supply" means the total daily dosage units of a prescription drug
recommended by the prescribing label approved by the FDA for 30 days. If the
FDA-approved prescribing label includes more than one recommended daily dosage, the
30-day supply is based on the maximum recommended daily dosage on the FDA-approved
prescribing label.

(l) "Course of treatment" means the total dosage of a single prescription for a prescription
drug recommended by the FDA-approved prescribing label. If the FDA-approved prescribing
label includes more than one recommended dosage for a single course of treatment, the
course of treatment is the maximum recommended dosage on the FDA-approved prescribing
label.

(m) "Drug product family" means a group of one or more prescription drugs that share
a unique generic drug description or nontrade name and dosage form.

(n) "National drug code" means the three-segment code maintained by the federal Food
and Drug Administration that includes a labeler code, a product code, and a package code
for a drug product and that has been converted to an 11-digit format consisting of five digits
in the first segment, four digits in the second segment, and two digits in the third segment.
A three-segment code shall be considered converted to an 11-digit format when, as necessary,
at least one "0" has been added to the front of each segment containing less than the specified
number of digits such that each segment contains the specified number of digits.

(o) "Pharmacy" or "pharmacy provider" means a community/outpatient pharmacy as
defined in Minnesota Rules, part 6800.0100, subpart 2, that is also licensed as a pharmacy
by the Board of Pharmacy under section 151.19.

(p) "Pharmacy benefit manager" or "PBM" means an entity licensed to act as a pharmacy
benefit manager under section 62W.03.

(q) "Pricing unit" means the deleted text begin smallest dispensable amount of a prescription drug product
that could be dispensed or administereddeleted text end new text begin standard unit of measure, such as milliliter, gram,
or each, of a prescription drug productnew text end .

(r) "Rebate" means a discount, chargeback, or other price concession that affects the
price of a prescription drug product, regardless of whether conferred through regular
aggregate payments, on a claim-by-claim basis at the point of sale, as part of retrospective
financial reconciliations, including reconciliations that also reflect other contractual
arrangements, or by any other method. Rebate does not mean a bona fide service fee as
defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 447.502.

(s) "Reporting entity" means any manufacturer, pharmacy, pharmacy benefit manager,
wholesale drug distributor, or any other entity required to submit data under this section.

(t) "Wholesale drug distributor" or "wholesaler" means an entity that is licensed to act
as a wholesale drug distributor under section 151.47.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:

Subd. 3.

Prescription drug price increases reporting.

(a) Beginning January 1, 2022,
a drug manufacturer must submit to the commissioner the information described in paragraph
(b) for each prescription drug for which the price was $100 or greater for a 30-day supply
or for a course of treatment lasting less than 30 days and:

(1) for brand name drugs where there is an increase of ten percent or greater in the price
over the previous 12-month period or an increase of 16 percent or greater in the price over
the previous 24-month period; and

(2) for generic or biosimilar drugs where there is an increase of 50 percent or greater in
the price over the previous 12-month period.

(b) For each of the drugs described in paragraph (a), the manufacturer shall submit to
the commissioner no later than 60 days after the price increase goes into effect, in the form
and manner prescribed by the commissioner, the following information, if applicable:

(1) the description and price of the drug and the net increase, expressed as a percentage,
with the following listed separately:

(i) the national drug code;

(ii) the product name;

(iii) the dosage form;

(iv) the strength; and

(v) the package size;

(2) the factors that contributed to the price increase;

(3) the name of any generic version of the prescription drug available on the market;

(4) the year the prescription drug was introduced for sale in the United States;

(5) the introductory price of the prescription drug when it was introduced for sale in the
United States and the price of the drug on the last day of each of the five calendar years
preceding the price increase;

(6) the direct costs incurred during the previous 12-month period by the manufacturer
that are associated with the prescription drug, listed separately:

(i) to manufacture the prescription drug;

(ii) to market the prescription drug, including advertising costs; and

(iii) to distribute the prescription drug;

(7) the number of units of the prescription drug sold during the previous 12-month period;

(8) the total sales revenue for the prescription drug during the previous 12-month period;

(9) the total rebate payable amount accrued for the prescription drug during the previous
12-month period;

(10) the manufacturer's net profit attributable to the prescription drug during the previous
12-month period;

(11) the total amount of financial assistance the manufacturer has provided through
patient prescription assistance programs during the previous 12-month period, if applicable;

(12) any agreement between a manufacturer and another entity contingent upon any
delay in offering to market a generic version of the prescription drug;

(13) the patent expiration date of the prescription drug if it is under patent;

(14) the name and location of the company that manufactured the drug;

(15) if a brand name prescription drug, the highest deleted text begin pricedeleted text end new text begin amountnew text end paid for new text begin a drug product
with the same generic drug description or nontrade name, dosage form, strength, and, where
available, package size of new text end the prescription drug during the previous calendar year in the ten
countries, excluding the United States, that charged the highest single deleted text begin pricedeleted text end new text begin amountnew text end for the
prescription drugdeleted text begin ; anddeleted text end new text begin . Where a package size equivalent is not available, the value provided
should represent the amount paid per unit of measure of the drug product multiplied by the
total package size in the United States of the prescription drug reported;
new text end

(16) if the prescription drug was acquired by the manufacturer during the previous
12-month period, all of the following information:

(i) price at acquisition;

(ii) price in the calendar year prior to acquisition;

(iii) name of the company from which the drug was acquired;

(iv) date of acquisition; and

(v) acquisition price.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 10, is amended
to read:

Subd. 10.

Notice of prescription drugs of substantial public interest.

(a) No later than
January 31, 2024, and new text begin up to new text end quarterly thereafter, the commissioner shall produce and post
on the department's website a list of prescription drugs that the commissioner determines
to represent a substantial public interest and for which the commissioner intends to request
data under subdivisions 11 to 14, subject to paragraph (c). The commissioner shall base its
inclusion of prescription drugs on any information the commissioner determines is relevant
to providing greater consumer awareness of the factors contributing to the cost of prescription
drugs in the state, and the commissioner shall consider drug product families that include
prescription drugs:

(1) that triggered reporting under subdivision 3 or 4 during the previous calendar quarter;

(2) for which average claims paid amounts exceeded 125 percent of the price as of the
claim incurred date during the most recent calendar quarter for which claims paid amounts
are available; or

(3) that are identified by members of the public during a public comment process.

(b) Not sooner than 30 days after publicly posting the list of prescription drugs under
paragraph (a), the department shall notify, via email, reporting entities registered with the
department of:

(1) the requirement to report under subdivisions 11 to 14; and

(2) the reporting period for which data must be provided.

(c) The commissioner must not designate more than 500 prescription drugs as having a
substantial public interest in any one notice.

(d) Notwithstanding subdivision 16, the commissioner is exempt from chapter 14,
including section 14.386, in implementing this subdivision.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 11, is amended
to read:

Subd. 11.

Manufacturer prescription drug substantial public interest reporting.

(a)
Beginning January 1, 2024, a manufacturer must submit to the commissioner the information
described in paragraph (b) for any prescription drug:

(1) included in a notification to report issued to the manufacturer by the department
under subdivision 10;

(2) which the manufacturer manufactures or repackages;

(3) for which the manufacturer sets the wholesale acquisition cost; and

(4) for which the manufacturer has not submitted data under subdivision 3 during the
120-day period prior to the date of the notification to report.

(b) For each of the drugs described in paragraph (a), the manufacturer shall submit to
the commissioner no later than 60 days after the date of the notification to report, in the
form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, the following information, if applicable:

(1) a description of the drug with the following listed separately:

(i) the national drug code;

(ii) the product name;

(iii) the dosage form;

(iv) the strength; and

(v) the package size;

(2) the price of the drug product on the later of:

(i) the day one year prior to the date of the notification to report;

(ii) the introduced to market date; or

(iii) the acquisition date;

(3) the price of the drug product on the date of the notification to report;

(4) the year the prescription drug was introduced for sale in the United States;

(6) the direct costs incurred during the reporting period specified in the notification to
report by the manufacturers that are associated with the prescription drug, listed separately:

(i) to manufacture the prescription drug;

(ii) to market the prescription drug, including advertising costs; and

(iii) to distribute the prescription drug;

(7) the number of units of the prescription drug sold during the reporting period specified
in the notification to report;

(8) the total sales revenue for the prescription drug during the reporting period specified
in the notification to report;

(9) the total rebate payable amount accrued for the prescription drug during the reporting
period specified in the notification to report;

(10) the manufacturer's net profit attributable to the prescription drug during the reporting
period specified in the notification to report;

(11) the total amount of financial assistance the manufacturer has provided through
patient prescription assistance programs during the reporting period specified in the
notification to report, if applicable;

(12) any agreement between a manufacturer and another entity contingent upon any
delay in offering to market a generic version of the prescription drug;

(13) the patent expiration date of the prescription drug if the prescription drug is under
patent;

(14) the name and location of the company that manufactured the drug;

(15) if the prescription drug is a brand name prescription drug, the ten countries other
than the United States that paid the highest deleted text begin pricesdeleted text end new text begin amountsnew text end for new text begin a drug product with the same
generic drug description or nontrade name, dosage form, strength, and, where available,
package size of new text end the prescription drug during the previous calendar year and their deleted text begin pricesdeleted text end new text begin
amounts. Where a package size equivalent is not available, the value provided should
represent the amount paid per unit of measure of the drug product multiplied by the total
package size in the United States of the prescription drug reportednew text end ; and

(16) if the prescription drug was acquired by the manufacturer within the reporting period
specified in the notification to report, all of the following information:

(i) the price at acquisition;

(ii) the price in the calendar year prior to acquisition;

(iii) the name of the company from which the drug was acquired;

(iv) the date of acquisition; and

(v) the acquisition price.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 12, is amended
to read:

Subd. 12.

Pharmacy prescription drug substantial public interest reporting.

(a)
Beginning January 1, 2024, a pharmacy must submit to the commissioner the information
described in paragraph (b) for any prescription drug:

(1) included in a notification to report issued to the pharmacy by the department under
subdivision 10; and

(2) that the pharmacy dispensed in Minnesota or mailed to a Minnesota address.

(b) For each of the drugs described in paragraph (a), the pharmacy shall submit to the
commissioner no later than 60 days after the date of the notification to report, in the form
and manner prescribed by the commissioner, the following information, if applicable:

(1) a description of the drug with the following listed separately:

(i) the national drug code;

(ii) the product name;

(iii) the dosage form;

(iv) the strength; and

(v) the package size;

(2) the number ofnew text begin pricingnew text end units of the drug acquired during the reporting period specified
in the notification to report;

(3) the total spent before rebates by the pharmacy to acquire the drug during the reporting
period specified in the notification to report;

(4) the total rebate receivable amount accrued by the pharmacy for the drug during the
reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(5) the number of pricing units of the drug dispensed by the pharmacy during the reporting
period specified in the notification to report;

(6) the total payment receivable by the pharmacy for dispensing the drug including
ingredient cost, dispensing fee, and administrative fees during the reporting period specified
in the notification to report;

(7) the total rebate payable amount accrued by the pharmacy for the drug during the
reporting period specified in the notification to report; and

(8) the average cash price paid by consumers per pricing unit for prescriptions dispensed
where no claim was submitted to a health care service plan or health insurer during the
reporting period specified in the notification to report.

(d) The commissioner may grant extensions, exemptions, or both to compliance with
the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) by small or independent pharmacies, if compliance
with paragraphs (a) and (b) would represent a hardship or undue burden to the pharmacy.
The commissioner may establish procedures for small or independent pharmacies to request
extensions or exemptions under this paragraph.

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 13, is amended
to read:

Subd. 13.

PBM prescription drug substantial public interest reporting.

(a) Beginning
January 1, 2024, a PBM must submit to the commissioner the information described in
paragraph (b) for any prescription drug:

(1) included in a notification to report issued to the PBM by the department under
subdivision 10; and

(2) for which the PBM fulfilled pharmacy benefit management duties for Minnesota
residents.

(b) For each of the drugs described in paragraph (a), the PBM shall submit to the
commissioner no later than 60 days after the date of the notification to report, in the form
and manner prescribed by the commissioner, the following information, if applicable:

(1) a description of the drug with the following listed separately:

(i) the national drug code;

(ii) the product name;

(iii) the dosage form;

(iv) the strength; and

(v) the package size;

(2) the number of pricing units of the drug product filled during the reporting period
specified in the notification to report;

(3) the total reimbursement amount accrued and payable to pharmacies for pricing units
of the drug product filled during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(4) the total reimbursement amount accrued and receivable from payers for pricing units
of the drug product filled during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(5) the total administrative fee amount accrued and receivable from payers for pricing
units of the drug product filled during the reporting period specified in the notification to
report;

(6) the total rebate receivable amount accrued by the PBM for the drug product during
the reporting period specified in the notification to report; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(7) the total rebate payable amount accrued by the PBM for the drug product during the
reporting period specified in the notification to reportdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;
new text end

new text begin (8) the name of any entity, including but not limited to a group purchasing organization,
that the PBM contracts with or owns, in part or in full, that negotiates rebates for the drug
product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;
new text end

new text begin (9) the total amount accrued and receivable from all organizations reported under clause
(8) for the drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;
and
new text end

new text begin (10) of the amount reported under clause (9), the percentage that is accrued and payable
to health plan companies or other entities for the drug product during the reporting period
specified in the notification to report.
new text end

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62J.84, subdivision 14, is amended
to read:

Subd. 14.

Wholesale drug distributor prescription drug substantial public interest
reporting.

(a) Beginning January 1, 2024, a wholesale drug distributor that distributes
prescription drugs, for which it is not the manufacturer, to persons or entities, or both, other
than a consumer or patient in the state, must submit to the commissioner the information
described in paragraph (b) for any prescription drug:

(1) included in a notification to report issued to the wholesale drug distributor by the
department under subdivision 10; and

(2) that the wholesale drug distributor distributed within or into Minnesota.

(b) For each of the drugs described in paragraph (a), the wholesale drug distributor shall
submit to the commissioner no later than 60 days after the date of the notification to report,
in the form and manner prescribed by the commissioner, the following information, if
applicable:

(1) a description of the drug with the following listed separately:

(i) the national drug code;

(ii) the product name;

(iii) the dosage form;

(iv) the strength; and

(v) the package size;

(2) the number of units of the drug product acquired by the wholesale drug distributor
during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(3) the total spent before rebates by the wholesale drug distributor to acquire the drug
product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(4) the total rebate receivable amount accrued by the wholesale drug distributor for the
drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(5) the number of units of the drug product sold by the wholesale drug distributor during
the reporting period specified in the notification to report;

(6) new text begin the new text end gross revenue from sales in the United States generated by the wholesale drug
distributor for the drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to
report; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(7) new text begin the new text end total rebate payable amount accrued by the wholesale drug distributor for the
drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to reportdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;
new text end

new text begin (8) the name of any entity, including but not limited to a group purchasing organization
that the wholesaler contracts with or owns, in part or in full, that negotiates rebates for the
drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report;
new text end

new text begin (9) the total receivable amount accrued from all organizations reported under clause (8)
for the drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification to report; and
new text end

new text begin (10) of the amount reported under clause (9), the percentage that is accrued and payable
to other entities for the drug product during the reporting period specified in the notification
to report.
new text end

(c) The wholesale drug distributor may submit any documentation necessary to support
the information reported under this subdivision.

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Scope.

(a) This chapter applies only to health plans offered in the individual
market or the small group marketnew text begin , including stand-alone dental plansnew text end .

(b) This chapter applies to health carriers with respect to individual health plans and
small group health plans, unless otherwise specified.

(c) If a health carrier issues or renews individual or small group health plans in other
states, this chapter applies only to health plans issued or renewed in this state to a Minnesota
resident, or to cover a resident of the state, or issued or renewed to a small employer that
is actively engaged in business in this state, unless otherwise specified.

(d) This chapter does not apply to short-term coverage as defined in section 62A.65,
subdivision 7, or grandfathered plan coverage as defined in section 62A.011, subdivision
1b.

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.03, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

Subd. 6.

Health plan.

"Health plan" means a health plan as defined in section 62A.011,
subdivision 3new text begin , and includes stand-alone dental plansnew text end .

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.075, is amended to read:

62K.075 PROVIDER NETWORK NOTIFICATIONS.

(a) A health carrier must provide on the carrier's website the provider network for each
product offered by the carrier, and must update the carrier's website at least once a month
with any changes to the carrier's provider network, including provider changes from
in-network status to out-of-network status. A health carrier must also provide on the carrier's
website, for each product offered by the carrier, a list of the current waivers of the
requirements in section 62K.10, subdivision 2 deleted text begin or 3deleted text end , in a format that is easily accessed and
searchable by enrollees and prospective enrollees.

(b) Upon notification from an enrollee, a health carrier must reprocess any claim for
services provided by a provider whose status has changed from in-network to out-of-network
as an in-network claim if the service was provided after the network change went into effect
but before the change was posted as required under paragraph (a) unless the health carrier
notified the enrollee of the network change prior to the service being provided. This paragraph
does not apply if the health carrier is able to verify that the health carrier's website displayed
the correct provider network status on the health carrier's website at the time the service
was provided.

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 62K.10, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:

Subd. 2.

Time and distance standards.

Health carriers must meet the time and distance
standards under Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 155.1050new text begin , for all covered
health services, including dental, retail pharmacy, and specialty servicesnew text end .

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.105, is amended to read:

62K.105 NETWORK ADEQUACY COMPLAINTS.

The commissioner of health shall establish a clear, easily accessible process for accepting
complaints from enrollees regarding health carrier compliance with section 62K.10,
subdivision 2deleted text begin , 3,deleted text end or 4. Using this process, an enrollee may file a complaint with the
commissioner that a health carrier is not in compliance with the requirements of section
62K.10, subdivision 2deleted text begin , 3,deleted text end or 4. The commissioner of health shall investigate all complaints
received under this section.

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62K.14, is amended to read:

62K.14 LIMITED-SCOPE PEDIATRIC DENTAL PLANS.

(a) Limited-scope pediatric dental plans must be offered to the extent permitted under
the Affordable Care Act: (1) on a guaranteed issue and guaranteed renewable basis; (2) with
premiums rated on allowable rating factors used for health plans; and (3) without any
exclusions or limitations based on preexisting conditions.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a health carrier may discontinue a limited scope
pediatric dental plan at the end of a plan year if the health carrier provides written notice to
enrollees before coverage is to be discontinued that the particular plan is being discontinued
and the health carrier offers enrollees other dental plan options that are the same or
substantially similar to the dental plan being discontinued in terms of premiums, benefits,
cost-sharing requirements, and network adequacy. The written notice to enrollees must be
provided at least 105 days before the end of the plan year.

deleted text begin (c) Limited-scope pediatric dental plans must ensure primary care dental services are
available within 60 miles or 60 minutes' travel time.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end If a stand-alone dental plan as defined under the Affordable Care Act or a
limited-scope pediatric dental plan is offered, either separately or in conjunction with a
health plan offered to individuals or small employers, the health plan shall not be considered
in noncompliance with the requirements of the essential benefit package in the Affordable
Care Act because the health plan does not offer coverage of pediatric dental benefits if these
benefits are covered through the stand-alone or limited-scope pediatric dental plan, to the
extent permitted under the Affordable Care Act.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end Health carriers offering limited-scope pediatric dental plans must comply with
this section and sections 62K.07, 62K.08,new text begin 62K.10,new text end 62K.13, and 62K.15.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end The commissioner of commerce shall enforce paragraphs (a) and (b). Any
limited-scope pediatric dental plan that is to be offered to replace a discontinued dental plan
under paragraph (b) must be approved by the commissioner of commerce in terms of cost
and benefit similarity, and the commissioner of health in terms of network adequacy
similarity. deleted text begin The commissioner of health shall enforce paragraph (c).
deleted text end

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62M.07, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Prior authorization of certain services prohibited.

No utilization review
organization, health plan company, or claims administrator may conduct or require prior
authorization of:

(1) emergency confinement or an emergency service. The enrollee or the enrollee's
authorized representative may be required to notify the health plan company, claims
administrator, or utilization review organization as soon as reasonably possible after the
beginning of the emergency confinement or emergency service;

(2) outpatient mental health treatment or outpatient substance use disorder treatment,
except for treatment which is a medication. Prior authorizations required for medications
used for outpatient mental health treatment or outpatient substance use disorder treatment
must be processed according to section 62M.05, subdivision 3b, for initial determinations,
and according to section 62M.06, subdivision 2, for appeals;

(3) antineoplastic cancer treatment that is consistent with guidelines of the National
Comprehensive Cancer Network, except for treatment which is a medication. Prior
authorizations required for medications used for antineoplastic cancer treatment must be
processed according to section 62M.05, subdivision 3b, for initial determinations, and
according to section 62M.06, subdivision 2, for appeals;

(4) services that currently have a rating of A or B from the United States Preventive
Services Task Force, immunizations deleted text begin recommended by the Advisory Committee on
Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Preventiondeleted text end new text begin required to be
covered under section 62Q.46new text end , or preventive services and screenings provided to women
as described in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 147.130;

(5) pediatric hospice services provided by a hospice provider licensed under sections
144A.75 to 144A.755; and

(6) treatment delivered through a neonatal abstinence program operated by pediatric
pain or palliative care subspecialists.

Clauses (2) to (6) are effective January 1, 2026, and apply to health benefit plans offered,
sold, issued, or renewed on or after that date.

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62Q.46, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Coverage for preventive items and services.

(a) "Preventive items and
services" has the meaning specified in the Affordable Care Act. Preventive items and services
includes:

(1) evidence-based items or services that have in effect a rating of A or B in the current
recommendations of the United States Preventive Services Task Force with respect to the
individual involved;

(2) immunizations for routine use in children, adolescents, and adults that have in effect
new text begin at least one of the following:
new text end

new text begin (i) new text end a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention with respect to the individual involved. For
purposes of this deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin itemnew text end , a recommendation from the Advisory Committee on
Immunization Practices of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is considered in
effect after the recommendation has been adopted by the Director of the Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention, and a recommendation is considered to be for routine use if the
recommendation is listed on the Immunization Schedules of the Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention;new text begin or
new text end

new text begin (ii) a recommendation from at least one of the following organizations: the American
Academy of Pediatrics, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, the
American College of Physicians, the American Academy of Family Physicians, or the
Infectious Disease Society of America. This item does not apply to managed care
organizations or county-based purchasing plans when the plan provides coverage to public
health care program enrollees under chapter 256B or 256L;
new text end

(3) with respect to infants, children, and adolescents, evidence-informed preventive care
and screenings provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources
and Services Administration;

(4) with respect to women, additional preventive care and screenings that are not listed
with a rating of A or B by the United States Preventive Services Task Force but that are
provided for in comprehensive guidelines supported by the Health Resources and Services
Administration;

(5) all contraceptive methods established in guidelines published by the United States
Food and Drug Administration;

(6) screenings for human immunodeficiency virus for:

(i) all individuals at least 15 years of age but less than 65 years of age; and

(ii) all other individuals with increased risk of human immunodeficiency virus infection
according to guidance from the Centers for Disease Control;

(7) all preexposure prophylaxis when used for the prevention or treatment of human
immunodeficiency virus, including but not limited to all preexposure prophylaxis, as defined
in any guidance by the United States Preventive Services Task Force or the Centers for
Disease Control, including the June 11, 2019, Preexposure Prophylaxis for the Prevention
of HIV Infection United States Preventive Services Task Force Recommendation Statement;
and

(8) all postexposure prophylaxis when used for the prevention or treatment of human
immunodeficiency virus, including but not limited to all postexposure prophylaxis as defined
in any guidance by the United States Preventive Services Task Force or the Centers for
Disease Control.

(b) A health plan company must provide coverage for preventive items and services at
a participating provider without imposing cost-sharing requirements, including a deductible,
coinsurance, or co-payment. Nothing in this section prohibits a health plan company that
has a network of providers from excluding coverage or imposing cost-sharing requirements
for preventive items or services that are delivered by an out-of-network provider.

(c) A health plan company is not required to provide coverage for any items or services
specified in any recommendation or guideline described in paragraph (a) if the
recommendation or guideline is no longer included as a preventive item or service as defined
in paragraph (a). Annually, a health plan company must determine whether any additional
items or services must be covered without cost-sharing requirements or whether any items
or services are no longer required to be covered.

(d) Nothing in this section prevents a health plan company from using reasonable medical
management techniques to determine the frequency, method, treatment, or setting for a
preventive item or service to the extent not specified in the recommendation or guideline.

(e) A health plan shall not require prior authorization or step therapy for preexposure
prophylaxis or postexposure prophylaxis, except that: if the United States Food and Drug
Administration has approved one or more therapeutic equivalents of a drug, device, or
product for the prevention of HIV, this paragraph does not require a health plan to cover
all of the therapeutically equivalent versions without prior authorization or step therapy, if
at least one therapeutically equivalent version is covered without prior authorization or step
therapy.

(f) This section does not apply to grandfathered plans.

(g) This section does not apply to plans offered by the Minnesota Comprehensive Health
Association.

Sec. 28.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.059, subdivision 8, is amended to read:

Subd. 8.

Duties.

(a) The council shall consult with and advise the commissioner on
matters related to the establishment, maintenance, operation, and outcomes evaluation of
palliative care initiatives in the state.

(b) By February 15 of each new text begin odd-numbered new text end year, the council shall submit to the chairs
and ranking minority members of the committees of the senate and the house of
representatives with primary jurisdiction over health care a report containing:

(1) the advisory council's assessment of the availability of palliative care in the state;

(2) the advisory council's analysis of barriers to greater access to palliative care; and

(3) recommendations for legislative action, with draft legislation to implement the
recommendations.

(c) The Department of Health shall publish the report deleted text begin each yeardeleted text end on the department's
website.

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.293, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

Subd. 7.

Exception to consent.

Subdivision 2 does not apply to the release of health
records to the commissioner of health deleted text begin or the Health Data Institute under chapter 62Jdeleted text end , provided
that the commissioner encrypts the patient identifier upon receipt of the data.

Sec. 30.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.551, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Restricted construction or modification.

(a) The following construction
or modification may not be commenced:

(1) any erection, building, alteration, reconstruction, modernization, improvement,
extension, lease, or other acquisition by or on behalf of a hospital that increases the bed
capacity of a hospital, relocates hospital beds from one physical facility, complex, or site
to another, or otherwise results in an increase or redistribution of hospital beds within the
state; and

(2) the establishment of a new hospital.

(b) This section does not apply to:

(1) construction or relocation within a county by a hospital, clinic, or other health care
facility that is a national referral center engaged in substantial programs of patient care,
medical research, and medical education meeting state and national needs that receives more
than 40 percent of its patients from outside the state of Minnesota;

(2) a project for construction or modification for which a health care facility held an
approved certificate of need on May 1, 1984, regardless of the date of expiration of the
certificate;

(3) a project for which a certificate of need was denied before July 1, 1990, if a timely
appeal results in an order reversing the denial;

(4) a project exempted from certificate of need requirements by Laws 1981, chapter 200,
section 2;

(5) a project involving consolidation of pediatric specialty hospital services within the
Minneapolis-St. Paul metropolitan area that would not result in a net increase in the number
of pediatric specialty hospital beds among the hospitals being consolidated;

(6) a project involving the temporary relocation of pediatric-orthopedic hospital beds to
an existing licensed hospital that will allow for the reconstruction of a new philanthropic,
pediatric-orthopedic hospital on an existing site and that will not result in a net increase in
the number of hospital beds. Upon completion of the reconstruction, the licenses of both
hospitals must be reinstated at the capacity that existed on each site before the relocation;

(7) the relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital building or
identifiable complex of buildings provided the relocation or redistribution does not result
in: (i) an increase in the overall bed capacity at that site; (ii) relocation of hospital beds from
one physical site or complex to another; or (iii) redistribution of hospital beds within the
state or a region of the state;

(8) relocation or redistribution of hospital beds within a hospital corporate system that
involves the transfer of beds from a closed facility site or complex to an existing site or
complex provided that: (i) no more than 50 percent of the capacity of the closed facility is
transferred; (ii) the capacity of the site or complex to which the beds are transferred does
not increase by more than 50 percent; (iii) the beds are not transferred outside of a federal
health systems agency boundary in place on July 1, 1983; (iv) the relocation or redistribution
does not involve the construction of a new hospital building; and (v) the transferred beds
are used first to replace within the hospital corporate system the total number of beds
previously used in the closed facility site or complex for mental health services and substance
use disorder services. Only after the hospital corporate system has fulfilled the requirements
of this item may the remainder of the available capacity of the closed facility site or complex
be transferred for any other purpose;

(9) a construction project involving up to 35 new beds in a psychiatric hospital in Rice
County that primarily serves adolescents and that receives more than 70 percent of its
patients from outside the state of Minnesota;

(10) a project to replace a hospital or hospitals with a combined licensed capacity of
130 beds or less if: (i) the new hospital site is located within five miles of the current site;
and (ii) the total licensed capacity of the replacement hospital, either at the time of
construction of the initial building or as the result of future expansion, will not exceed 100
licensed hospital beds, or the combined licensed capacity of the hospitals, whichever is less;

(11) the relocation of licensed hospital beds from an existing state facility operated by
the Direct Care and Treatment executive board to a new or existing facility, building, or
complex operated by the Direct Care and Treatment executive board; from one regional
treatment center site to another; or from one building or site to a new or existing building
or site on the same campus;

(12) the construction or relocation of hospital beds operated by a hospital having a
statutory obligation to provide hospital and medical services for the indigent that does not
result in a net increase in the number of hospital beds, notwithstanding section 144.552, 27
beds, of which 12 serve mental health needs, may be transferred from Hennepin County
Medical Center to Regions Hospital under this clause;

(13) a construction project involving the addition of up to 31 new beds in an existing
nonfederal hospital in Beltrami County;

(14) a construction project involving the addition of up to eight new beds in an existing
nonfederal hospital in Otter Tail County with 100 licensed acute care beds;

(15) a construction project involving the addition of 20 new hospital beds in an existing
hospital in Carver County serving the southwest suburban metropolitan area;

(16) a project for the construction or relocation of up to 20 hospital beds for the operation
of up to two psychiatric facilities or units for children provided that the operation of the
facilities or units have received the approval of the commissioner of human services;

(17) a project involving the addition of 14 new hospital beds to be used for rehabilitation
services in an existing hospital in Itasca County;

(18) a project to add 20 licensed beds in existing space at a hospital in Hennepin County
that closed 20 rehabilitation beds in 2002, provided that the beds are used only for
rehabilitation in the hospital's current rehabilitation building. If the beds are used for another
purpose or moved to another location, the hospital's licensed capacity is reduced by 20 beds;

(19) a critical access hospital established under section 144.1483, clause (9), and section
1820 of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 1395i-4, that
delicensed beds since enactment of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, Public Law 105-33,
to the extent that the critical access hospital does not seek to exceed the maximum number
of beds permitted such hospital under federal law;

(20) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction of a new hospital
in the city of Maple Grove with a licensed capacity of up to 300 beds provided that:

(i) the project, including each hospital or health system that will own or control the entity
that will hold the new hospital license, is approved by a resolution of the Maple Grove City
Council as of March 1, 2006;

(ii) the entity that will hold the new hospital license will be owned or controlled by one
or more not-for-profit hospitals or health systems that have previously submitted a plan or
plans for a project in Maple Grove as required under section 144.552, and the plan or plans
have been found to be in the public interest by the commissioner of health as of April 1,
2005;

(iii) the new hospital's initial inpatient services must include, but are not limited to,
medical and surgical services, obstetrical and gynecological services, intensive care services,
orthopedic services, pediatric services, noninvasive cardiac diagnostics, behavioral health
services, and emergency room services;

(iv) the new hospital:

(A) will have the ability to provide and staff sufficient new beds to meet the growing
needs of the Maple Grove service area and the surrounding communities currently being
served by the hospital or health system that will own or control the entity that will hold the
new hospital license;

(B) will provide uncompensated care;

(D) will be a site for workforce development for a broad spectrum of health-care-related
occupations and have a commitment to providing clinical training programs for physicians
and other health care providers;

(E) will demonstrate a commitment to quality care and patient safety;

(F) will have an electronic medical records system, including physician order entry;

(G) will provide a broad range of senior services;

(H) will provide emergency medical services that will coordinate care with regional
providers of trauma services and licensed emergency ambulance services in order to enhance
the continuity of care for emergency medical patients; and

(I) will be completed by December 31, 2009, unless delayed by circumstances beyond
the control of the entity holding the new hospital license; and

(v) as of 30 days following submission of a written plan, the commissioner of health
has not determined that the hospitals or health systems that will own or control the entity
that will hold the new hospital license are unable to meet the criteria of this clause;

(21) a project approved under section 144.553;

(22) a project for the construction of a hospital with up to 25 beds in Cass County within
a 20-mile radius of the state Ah-Gwah-Ching facility, provided the hospital's license holder
is approved by the Cass County Board;

(23) a project for an acute care hospital in Fergus Falls that will increase the bed capacity
from 108 to 110 beds by increasing the rehabilitation bed capacity from 14 to 16 and closing
a separately licensed 13-bed skilled nursing facility;

(24) notwithstanding section 144.552, a project for the construction and expansion of a
specialty psychiatric hospital in Hennepin County for up to 50 beds, exclusively for patients
who are under 21 years of age on the date of admission. The commissioner conducted a
public interest review of the mental health needs of Minnesota and the Twin Cities
metropolitan area in 2008. No further public interest review shall be conducted for the
construction or expansion project under this clause;

(25) a project for a 16-bed psychiatric hospital in the city of Thief River Falls, if the
commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public interest review
conducted under section 144.552 is complete;

(26)(i) a project for a 20-bed psychiatric hospital, within an existing facility in the city
of Maple Grove, exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the date of
admission, if the commissioner finds the project is in the public interest after the public
interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete;

(ii) this project shall serve patients in the continuing care benefit program under section
256.9693. The project may also serve patients not in the continuing care benefit program;
and

(iii) if the project ceases to participate in the continuing care benefit program, the
commissioner must complete a subsequent public interest review under section 144.552. If
the project is found not to be in the public interest, the license must be terminated six months
from the date of that finding. If the commissioner of human services terminates the contract
without cause or reduces per diem payment rates for patients under the continuing care
benefit program below the rates in effect for services provided on December 31, 2015, the
project may cease to participate in the continuing care benefit program and continue to
operate without a subsequent public interest review;

(27) a project involving the addition of 21 new beds in an existing psychiatric hospital
in Hennepin County that is exclusively for patients who are under 21 years of age on the
date of admission;

(28) a project to add 55 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center
hospital in Ramsey County as deleted text begin designateddeleted text end new text begin regulatednew text end under section 383A.91, subdivision 5,
of which 15 beds are to be used for inpatient mental health and 40 are to be used for other
services. In addition, five unlicensed observation mental health beds shall be added;

(29) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552 and the addition of the 15 inpatient mental health beds specified in clause
(28), to its bed capacity, a project to add 45 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I
trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as deleted text begin designateddeleted text end new text begin regulatednew text end under section 383A.91,
subdivision 5. Five of the 45 additional beds authorized under this clause must be designated
for use for inpatient mental health and must be added to the hospital's bed capacity before
the remaining 40 beds are added. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the hospital may add
licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided
the hospital submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public
interest review described in section 144.552;

(30) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552, a project to add up to 30 licensed beds in an existing psychiatric hospital
in Hennepin County that exclusively provides care to patients who are under 21 years of
age on the date of admission. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the psychiatric hospital
may add licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review,
provided the hospital submits its plan by the 2021 deadline and adheres to the timelines for
the public interest review described in section 144.552;

(31) any project to add licensed beds in a hospital located in Cook County or Mahnomen
County that: (i) is designated as a critical access hospital under section 144.1483, clause
(9), and United States Code, title 42, section 1395i-4; (ii) has a licensed bed capacity of
fewer than 25 beds; and (iii) has an attached nursing home, so long as the total number of
licensed beds in the hospital after the bed addition does not exceed 25 beds. Notwithstanding
section 144.552, a public interest review is not required for a project authorized under this
clause;

(32) upon submission of a plan to the commissioner for public interest review under
section 144.552, a project to add 22 licensed beds at a Minnesota freestanding children's
hospital in St. Paul that is part of an independent pediatric health system with freestanding
inpatient hospitals located in Minneapolis and St. Paul. The beds shall be utilized for pediatric
inpatient behavioral health services. Notwithstanding section 144.552, the hospital may add
licensed beds under this clause prior to completion of the public interest review, provided
the hospital submits its plan by the 2022 deadline and adheres to the timelines for the public
interest review described in section 144.552;

(33) a project for a 144-bed psychiatric hospital on the site of the former Bethesda
hospital in the city of Saint Paul, Ramsey County, if the commissioner finds the project is
in the public interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is
complete. Following the completion of the construction project, the commissioner of health
shall monitor the hospital, including by assessing the hospital's case mix and payer mix,
patient transfers, and patient diversions. The hospital must have an intake and assessment
area. The hospital must accommodate patients with acute mental health needs, whether they
walk up to the facility, are delivered by ambulances or law enforcement, or are transferred
from other facilities. The hospital must comply with subdivision 1a, paragraph (b). The
hospital must annually submit de-identified data to the department in the format and manner
defined by the commissioner; deleted text begin or
deleted text end

(34) a project involving the relocation of up to 26 licensed long-term acute care hospital
beds from an existing long-term care hospital located in Hennepin County with a licensed
capacity prior to the relocation of 92 beds to dedicated space on the campus of an existing
safety net, level I trauma center hospital in Ramsey County as deleted text begin designateddeleted text end new text begin regulatednew text end under
section 383A.91, subdivision 5, provided both the commissioner finds the project is in the
public interest after the public interest review conducted under section 144.552 is complete
and the relocated beds continue to be used as long-term acute care hospital beds after the
relocationdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; or
new text end

new text begin (35) a project to add 85 licensed beds in an existing safety net, level I trauma center
hospital in Ramsey County as regulated under section 383A.91, subdivision 5.
new text end

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.56, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Periodic evaluations; biennial reports.

To the extent funds are appropriated
for the purposes of this subdivision, the commissioner shall conduct periodic evaluations
of the impact of and outcomes from implementation of the state's suicide prevention plan
and each of the activities specified in this section. deleted text begin By July 1, 2002, anddeleted text end new text begin Onnew text end July 1 of each
even-numbered year deleted text begin thereafterdeleted text end , the commissioner shall report the results of these evaluations
to the chairs of the policy and finance committees in the house of representatives and senate
with jurisdiction over health and human services issues.

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.561, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

988 Lifeline.

(a) The commissioner shall administer the designation of and
oversight for a 988 Lifeline center or a network of 988 Lifeline centers to answer contacts
from individuals accessing the Suicide and Crisis Lifeline from any jurisdiction within the
state 24 hours per day, seven days per week.

(b) The designated 988 Lifeline Center must:

(1) have an active agreement with the 988 Suicide and Crisis Lifeline program for
participation in the network and the department;

(2) meet the 988 Lifeline program requirements and best practice guidelines for
operational and clinical standards;

(3) provide data and reports, and participate in evaluations and related quality
improvement activities as required by the 988 Lifeline program and the department;

(4) identify or adapt technology that is demonstrated to be interoperable across mobile
crisis and public safety answering points used in the state for the purpose of crisis care
coordination;

(5) facilitate crisis and outgoing services, including mobile crisis teams in accordance
with guidelines established by the 988 Lifeline program and the department;

(6) actively collaborate and coordinate service linkages with mental health and substance
use disorder treatment providers, local community mental health centers including certified
community behavioral health clinics and community behavioral health centers, mobile crisis
teams, and community based and hospital emergency departments;

(7) offer follow-up services to individuals accessing the 988 Lifeline Center that are
consistent with guidance established by the 988 Lifeline program and the department; and

(8) meet the requirements set by the 988 Lifeline program and the department for serving
at-risk and specialized populations.

(c) The commissioner shall adopt rules to allow appropriate information sharing and
communication between and across crisis and emergency response systems.

(d) The commissioner, having primary oversight of suicide prevention, shall work with
the 988 Lifeline program, veterans crisis line, and other SAMHSA-approved networks for
the purpose of ensuring consistency of public messaging about 988 services.

(e) The commissioner shall work with representatives from 988 Lifeline Centers and
public safety answering points, other public safety agencies, and the commissioner of public
safety to facilitate the development of protocols and procedures for interactions between
988 and 911 services across Minnesota. Protocols and procedures shall be developed
following available national standards and guidelines.

(f) The commissioner shall provide deleted text begin an annualdeleted text end new text begin a biennialnew text end public report on 988 Lifeline
usagenew text begin by July 1 of each even-numbered yearnew text end , including data on answer rates, abandoned
calls, and referrals to 911 emergency response.new text begin The biennial report may be included as a
section within the state suicide prevention report required under section 145.56.
new text end

Sec. 33.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.882, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Contracting and procurement. new text end

new text begin The commissioner is exempt from the contract
term limits in chapter 16C for issuance of benefits under the Special Supplemental Nutrition
Program for Women, Infants and Children (WIC) through an electronic benefit transfer
(EBT) system and related services and contracts. The contracts may have an initial term of
up to five years, with extensions not to exceed a ten-year total contract duration.
new text end

Sec. 34.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145.882, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Management information systems; contracting and
procurement. new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding chapter 16C, WIC is exempt from the contract term limits
for the management information systems used for issuance of supplemental nutrition benefits
and the WIC EBT systems used for processing the redemptions of supplemental nutrition
benefits. The contracts may have an initial term of up to five years, with extensions not to
exceed a ten-year total contract duration.
new text end

Sec. 35.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 145A.04, subdivision 15, is amended to read:

Subd. 15.

State and local advisory committees.

(a) A state community health services
advisory committee is established to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to
the commissioner on the development, maintenance, funding, and evaluation of local new text begin and
Tribal new text end public health services. Each community health board may appoint a member to serve
on the committee. new text begin Each of Minnesota's federally recognized Tribal Nations may appoint a
member to the advisory committee established under this section. new text end The committee must meet
at least quarterly, and special meetings may be called by the committee chair or a majority
of the members. new text begin A Tribal Nation may elect to participate at any time. new text end Members or their
alternates may be reimbursed for travel and other necessary expenses while engaged in their
official duties.

(b) Notwithstanding section 15.059, the State Community Health Services Advisory
Committee does not expire.

(c) The city boards or county boards that have established or are members of a community
health board may appoint a community health advisory committee to advise, consult with,
and make recommendations to the community health board on the duties under subdivision
1a.

Sec. 36.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.517, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Applicability.

An applicant who applies for licensure as a speech-language
pathologist or audiologist by reciprocity must meet the requirements of subdivisions 2 and
3.new text begin An applicant who applies for licensure as an audiologist by reciprocity must pass the
practical exam required under section 148.515, subdivision 6.
new text end

Sec. 37.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.517, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Current credentials required.

An applicant applying for licensure by
reciprocity must provide evidence to the commissioner that the applicant holds a current
and unrestricted credential for the practice of speech-language pathology or audiology in
another jurisdiction that has requirements equivalent to or higher than those in effect for
determining whether an applicant in this state is qualified to be licensed as a speech-language
pathologist or audiologist. An applicant who provides sufficient evidence need not meet
the requirements of section 148.515,new text begin except for subdivision 6,new text end provided that the applicant
otherwise meets all other requirements of section 148.514.

Sec. 38.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.5191, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Renewal deadline.

Each license, including a temporary license provided under
section 148.5161, must state an expiration date. An application for licensure renewal must
be received by the Department of Health deleted text begin or postmarkeddeleted text end at least 30 days before the expiration
date. deleted text begin If the postmark is illegible, the application shall be considered timely if received at
least 21 days before the expiration date.
deleted text end

When the commissioner establishes the renewal schedule for an applicant, licensee, or
temporary licensee, if the period before the expiration date is less than two years, the fee
shall be prorated.

Sec. 39. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall renumber Minnesota Statutes, section 62Q.075, as Minnesota
Statutes, section 62D.081. The revisor shall also make necessary cross-reference changes
consistent with the renumbering.
new text end

Sec. 40. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13D.08, subdivision 4; 62D.08, subdivision 7; 62D.181;
62J.06; 62J.156; 62J.2930, subdivision 4; 62J.57; and 144.9821, new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

ARTICLE 3

HUMAN SERVICES HEALTH CARE

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.057, subdivision 9, is amended to read:

Subd. 9.

Employed persons with disabilities.

(a) Medical assistance may be paid for
a person who is employed and who:

(1) but for excess earnings or assets meets the definition of disabled under the
Supplemental Security Income program; and

(2) pays a premium and other obligations under paragraph (d).

(b) For purposes of eligibility, there is a $65 earned income disregard. To be eligible
for medical assistance under this subdivision, a person must have more than $65 of earned
income, be receiving an unemployment insurance benefit under chapter 268 that the person
began receiving while eligible under this subdivision, or be receiving family and medical
leave benefits under chapter 268B that the person began receiving while eligible under this
subdivision. A person who is self-employed must file and pay all applicable taxes. Any
spousal income shall be disregarded for purposes of eligibility and premium determinations.

(c) After the month of enrollment, a person enrolled in medical assistance under this
subdivision who would otherwise be ineligible and be disenrolled due to one of the following
circumstances may retain eligibility for up to four consecutive months after a month of job
loss if the person:

(1) is temporarily unable to work and without receipt of earned income due to a medical
condition, as verified by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician
assistant; or

(2) loses employment for reasons not attributable to the enrollee, and is without receipt
of earned income.

To receive a four-month extension of continued eligibility under this paragraph, enrollees
must verify the medical condition or provide notification of job loss, continue to meet all
other eligibility requirements, and continue to pay all calculated premium costs.

(d) All enrollees must pay a premium to be eligible for medical assistance under this
subdivision, except as provided under clause (5).

(1) An enrollee must pay the greater of a $35 premium or the premium calculated based
on the person's gross earned and unearned income and the applicable family size using a
sliding fee scale established by the commissioner, which begins at one percent of income
at 100 percent of the federal poverty guidelines and increases to 7.5 percent of income for
those with incomes at or above 300 percent of the federal poverty guidelines.

(2) Annual adjustments in the premium schedule based upon changes in the federal
poverty guidelines shall be effective for premiums due in July of each year.

(3) All enrollees who receive unearned income must pay one-half of one percent of
unearned income in addition to the premium amount, except as provided under clause (5).

(4) Increases in benefits under title II of the Social Security Act shall not be counted as
income for purposes of this subdivision until July 1 of each year.

(5) Effective July 1, 2009, American Indians are exempt from paying premiums as
required by section 5006 of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009, Public
Law 111-5. For purposes of this clause, an American Indian is any person who meets the
definition of Indian according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 447.50.

(e) A person's eligibility and premium shall be determined by the local county agency.
Premiums must be paid to the commissioner. All premiums are dedicated to the
commissioner.

(f) Any required premium shall be determined at application and redetermined at the
enrollee's 12-month income review or when a change in income or household size is reported.
Enrollees must report any change in income or household size within 30 days of when the
change occurs. A decreased premium resulting from a reported change in income or
household size shall be effective the first day of the next available billing month after the
change is reported. Except for changes occurring from annual cost-of-living increases, a
change resulting in an increased premium shall not affect the premium amount until the
next 12-month review.

(g) Premium payment is due upon notification from the commissioner of the premium
amount required. Premiums may be paid in installments at the discretion of the commissioner.

(h) Nonpayment of the premium shall result in denial or termination of medical assistance
unless the person demonstrates good cause for nonpayment. "Good cause" means an excuse
for the enrollee's failure to pay the required premium when due because the circumstances
were beyond the enrollee's control or not reasonably foreseeable. The commissioner shall
determine whether good cause exists based on the weight of the supporting evidence
submitted by the enrollee to demonstrate good cause.new text begin The commissioner must not determine
that good cause exists for a month for which the premium has already been paid.new text end Except
when an installment agreement is accepted by the commissioner, all persons disenrolled
for nonpayment of a premium must pay any past due premiums as well as current premiums
due prior to being reenrolled. Nonpayment shall include payment with a returned, refused,
or dishonored instrument. The commissioner may require a guaranteed form of payment as
the only means to replace a returned, refused, or dishonored instrument.

(i) For enrollees whose income does not exceed 200 percent of the federal poverty
guidelines and who are also enrolled in Medicare, the commissioner shall reimburse the
enrollee for Medicare part B premiums under section 256B.0625, subdivision 15, paragraph
(a).

(j) The commissioner is authorized to determine that a premium amount was calculated
or billed in error, make corrections to financial records and billing systems, and refund
premiums collected in error.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0625, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Outpatient and physician-directed clinic services.

Medical assistance covers
outpatient hospital or physician-directed clinic services. deleted text begin Thedeleted text end new text begin All services provided bynew text end
physician-directed clinic staff deleted text begin shall include at least two physicians and all services shalldeleted text end new text begin
mustnew text end be deleted text begin provideddeleted text end under the deleted text begin direct supervisiondeleted text end new text begin directionnew text end of a physician. Hospital outpatient
departments are subject to the same limitations and reimbursements as other enrolled vendors
for all services, except initial triage, emergency services, and services not provided or
immediately available in clinics, physicians' offices, or by other enrolled providers.
"Emergency services" means those medical services required for the immediate diagnosis
and treatment of medical conditions that, if not immediately diagnosed and treated, could
lead to serious physical or mental disability or death or are necessary to alleviate severe
pain. Neither the hospital, its employees, nor any physician or dentist, shall be liable in any
action arising out of a determination not to render emergency services or care if reasonable
care is exercised in determining the condition of the person, or in determining the
appropriateness of the facilities, or the qualifications and availability of personnel to render
these services consistent with this section.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective upon federal approval.
new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.695, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:

Subd. 5.

CARMA enrollment.

(a) Subject to deleted text begin paragraphsdeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (d) deleted text begin and (e)deleted text end , eligible
individuals must be automatically enrolled in CARMA, but may decline enrollment. Eligible
individuals may enroll in fee-for-service medical assistance. Eligible individuals may change
their CARMA elections on an annual basis.

(b) Eligible individuals must be able to enroll in CARMA through the selection process
in accordance with the election period established in section 256B.69, subdivision 4,
paragraph (e).

(c) Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in the medical assistance program or
MinnesotaCare can change their selection once within the first year after enrollment in
CARMA. Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in CARMA have 90 days to make a
change and changes are allowed for additional special circumstances.

(d) The commissioner maynew text begin notnew text end offer a second health plannew text begin to eligible individualsnew text end other
than, deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end in addition to, CARMAnew text begin except that the commissioner may offer a second health
plannew text end to eligible individuals deleted text begin when another health plan isdeleted text end new text begin enrolling in MinnesotaCare, ifnew text end
required by federal law or rule. new text begin Eligible individuals who do not select a health plan at the
time of enrollment must automatically be enrolled in CARMA.
new text end

new text begin (e) new text end The commissioner may offer a replacement plan to eligible individuals, as determined
by the commissioner, when counties administering CARMA have their contract terminated
for cause.

deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The commissioner may, on a county-by-county basis, offer a health plan other
thandeleted text begin , and in addition to,deleted text end CARMA to individuals who are eligible for both Medicare and
medical assistance due to agenew text begin , income,new text end or disability if deleted text begin the commissioner deems it necessary
for enrollees to have another choice of health plan. Factors the commissioner must consider
when determining if the other health plan is necessary include the number of available
Medicare Advantage Plan options that are not special needs plans in the county, the size of
the enrolling population, the additional administrative burden placed on providers and
counties by multiple health plan options in a county, the need to ensure the viability and
success of the CARMA program, and the impact to the medical assistance programdeleted text end new text begin there
is not already a health plan available under CARMAnew text end .

deleted text begin (f) In counties where the commissioner is required by federal law or elects to offer a
second health plan other than CARMA pursuant to paragraphs (d) and (e), eligible enrollees
who do not select a health plan at the time of enrollment must automatically be enrolled in
CARMA.
deleted text end

(g) This subdivision supersedes section 256B.694.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2027.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256L.05, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Effective date of coverage.

(a) The effective date of coverage is the first day
of the month following the month in which eligibility is approved and the first premium
payment has been received. The effective date of coverage for new members added to the
family is the first day of the month following the month in which the change is reported.
All eligibility criteria must be met by the family at the time the new family member is added.
The income of the new family member is included with the family's modified adjusted gross
income and the adjusted premium begins in the month the new family member is added.

(b) The initial premium must be received by the last working day of the month for
coverage to begin the first day of the following month.

(c) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, benefits under sections 256L.01 to
256L.18 are secondary to a plan of insurance or benefit program under which an eligible
person may have coverage and the commissioner shall use cost avoidance techniques to
ensure coordination of any other health coverage for eligible persons. The commissioner
shall identify eligible persons who may have coverage or benefits under other plans of
insurance or who become eligible for medical assistance.

(d) The effective date of coverage for individuals or families who are exempt from
paying premiums under section 256L.15, deleted text begin subdivisiondeleted text end new text begin subdivisionsnew text end 1deleted text begin , paragraph (c)deleted text end new text begin and 2new text end ,
is the first day of the month following the month in which eligibility is approved.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256L.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Commissioner's duties and payment.

(a) Premiums are dedicated to the
commissioner for MinnesotaCare.

(b) The commissioner shall develop and implement procedures to: (1) require enrollees
to report changes in income; (2) adjust sliding scale premium payments, based upon both
increases and decreases in enrollee income, at the time the change in income is reported;
and (3) disenroll enrollees from MinnesotaCare for failure to pay required premiums. Failure
to pay includes payment with a dishonored check, a returned automatic bank withdrawal,
or a refused credit card or debit card payment. The commissioner may demand a guaranteed
form of payment, including a cashier's check or a money order, as the only means to replace
a dishonored, returned, or refused payment.

(c) Premiums are calculated on a calendar month basis and may be paid on a monthly,
quarterly, or semiannual basis, with the first payment due upon notice from the commissioner
of the premium amount required. The commissioner shall inform applicants and enrollees
of these premium payment options. Premium payment is required before enrollment is
complete and to maintain deleted text begin eligibilitydeleted text end new text begin coveragenew text end in MinnesotaCare. Premium payments received
before noon are credited the same day. Premium payments received after noon are credited
on the next working day.

(d) Nonpayment of the premium will result in disenrollment from the plan effective for
the calendar month following the month for which the premium was due. Persons disenrolled
for nonpayment may not reenroll prior to the first day of the month following the payment
of an amount equal to deleted text begin two months' premiumsdeleted text end new text begin one monthly premiumnew text end .

(e) The commissioner shall forgive the past-due premium for persons disenrolled under
paragraph (d) prior to issuing a premium invoice for the deleted text begin fourthdeleted text end new text begin next new text end month deleted text begin following
disenrollmentdeleted text end .

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Laws 2024, chapter 125, article 4, section 12, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Report.

By deleted text begin December 15, 2025deleted text end new text begin November 30, 2026new text end , the commissioner must
provide a summary report on the pilot program to the chairs and ranking minority members
of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over mental health and county correctional
facilities.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from December 15, 2025.
new text end

ARTICLE 4

BEHAVIORAL HEALTH

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245.469, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:

Subdivision 1.

Availability of emergency services.

(a) County boards must provide or
contract for enough emergency services within the county to meet the needs of adults,
children, and families in the county who are experiencing an emotional crisis or mental
illness. Clients must not be charged for services providednew text begin and emergency service providers
must not delay or deny the timely provision of emergency services to a client due to payor
source for the services providednew text end . Emergency service providers must meet the qualifications
under section 256B.0624, subdivision 4. Emergency services must include assessment,
crisis intervention, and appropriate case disposition. Emergency services must:

(1) promote the safety and emotional stability of each client;

(2) minimize further deterioration of each client;

(3) help each client to obtain ongoing care and treatment;

(4) prevent placement in settings that are more intensive, costly, or restrictive than
necessary and appropriate to meet client needs; and

(5) provide support, psychoeducation, and referrals to each client's family members,
service providers, and other third parties on behalf of the client in need of emergency
services.

(b) If a county provides engagement services under section 253B.041, the county's
emergency service providers must refer clients to engagement services when the client
meets the criteria for engagement services.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245.4889, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:

Subdivision 1.

Establishment and authority.

(a) The commissioner is authorized to
make grants from available appropriations to assist:

(1) counties;

(2) Indian tribes;

(3) children's collaboratives under section 142D.15 or 245.493; or

(4) mental health service providers.

(b) The following services are eligible for grants under this section:

(1) services to children with mental illness as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision
15, and their families;

(2) transition services under section 245.4875, subdivision 8, for young adults under
age 21 and their families;

(3) respite care services for children with mental illness or serious mental illness who
are at risk of residential treatment or hospitalization; who are already in residential treatment
or therapeutic foster care or in family foster settings as defined in chapter 142B and at risk
of change in foster care or placement in a residential facility or other higher level of care;
who have utilized crisis services or emergency room services; or who have experienced a
loss of in-home staffing support. Allowable activities and expenses for respite care services
are defined under subdivision 4. A child is not required to have case management services
to receive respite care services. Counties must work to provide access to regularly scheduled
respite care;

(4) children's mental health crisis services;

(5) child-, youth-, and family-specific mobile response and stabilization services models;

(6) mental health services for people from cultural and ethnic minorities, including
supervision of clinical trainees who are Black, indigenous, or people of color;

(7) children's mental health screening and follow-up diagnostic assessment and treatment;

(8) services to promote and develop the capacity of providers to use evidence-based
practices in providing children's mental health services;

(9) school-linked mental health services under section 245.4901;

(10) building evidence-based mental health intervention capacity for children birth to
age five;

(11) suicide prevention and counseling services that use text messaging statewide;

(12) mental health first aid training;

(13) training for parents, collaborative partners, and mental health providers on the
impact of adverse childhood experiences and trauma and development of an interactive
website to share information and strategies to promote resilience and prevent trauma;

(14) transition age services to develop or expand mental health treatment and supports
for adolescents and young adults 26 years of age or younger;

(15) early childhood mental health consultationnew text begin under section 245.4908new text end ;

(16) evidence-based interventions for youth at risk of developing or experiencing a first
episode of psychosis, and a public awareness campaign on the signs and symptoms of
psychosis;

(17) psychiatric consultation for primary care practitioners;

(18) providers to begin operations and meet program requirements when establishing a
new children's mental health program. These may be start-up grants; and

(19) evidence-based interventions for youth and young adults at risk of developing or
experiencing an early episode of bipolar disorder.

(c) Services under paragraph (b) must be designed to help each child to function and
remain with the child's family in the community and delivered consistent with the child's
treatment plan. Transition services to eligible young adults under this paragraph must be
designed to foster independent living in the community.

(d) As a condition of receiving grant funds, a grantee shall obtain all available third-party
reimbursement sources, if applicable.

(e) The commissioner may establish and design a pilot program to expand the mobile
response and stabilization services model for children, youth, and families. The commissioner
may use grant funding to consult with a qualified expert entity to assist in the formulation
of measurable outcomes and explore and position the state to submit a Medicaid state plan
amendment to scale the model statewide.

Sec. 3.

new text begin [245.4908] EARLY CHILDHOOD MENTAL HEALTH CONSULTATION
GRANTS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Establishment. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of human services must establish an
early childhood mental health consultation grant program to support the delivery of
specialized mental health care to children five years of age or younger. The care may include
providing mental health consultation to child care professionals for the development of
knowledge and skills to provide child care to young children with significant mental health
needs.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Eligible applicants; third-party reimbursement. new text end

new text begin (a) An applicant is eligible
for an early childhood mental health consultation grant under this section if the applicant
is:
new text end

new text begin (1) a mental health clinic certified under section 245I.20;
new text end

new text begin (2) a community mental health center under section 256B.0625, subdivision 5;
new text end

new text begin (3) an Indian health service facility or a facility owned and operated by a Tribe or Tribal
organization operating under United States Code, title 25, section 5321; or
new text end

new text begin (4) a provider of children's therapeutic services and supports, as defined in section
256B.0943.
new text end

new text begin (b) Grantees must obtain all available third-party reimbursement sources as a condition
of receiving a grant.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Allowable grant activities and related expenses. new text end

new text begin Grant money must be used
to provide early childhood mental health consultation, including but not limited to:
new text end

new text begin (1) identifying and diagnosing mental health conditions for children five years of age
or younger;
new text end

new text begin (2) training clinicians on evidence-based or evidence-informed clinical practices for
children five years of age or younger and their caregivers, including train-the-trainer models
to build capacity for grantees to train staff. The commissioner may recommend specific
clinical practices, modalities, and trainings under this clause;
new text end

new text begin (3) providing direct consultation to child care providers in licensed child care centers,
Head Start, and licensed family child care settings; and
new text end

new text begin (4) family psychoeducation and individual and group skills for families of children
receiving early childhood mental health services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Data collection and outcome measurement. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner must
consult with grantees to develop ongoing outcome measures for program capacity and
performance.
new text end

new text begin (b) Upon the commissioner's request, grantees must provide the data required under
paragraph (c) and may provide the data requested under paragraph (d) to the commissioner
for the purpose of evaluating the effectiveness of the grant program. The commissioner
must not request data from grantees more than twice per year.
new text end

new text begin (c) Grantees must provide the following quantitative data to the commissioner:
new text end

new text begin (1) number of clients served;
new text end

new text begin (2) client demographics;
new text end

new text begin (3) payor information; and
new text end

new text begin (4) client-related clinical and ancillary services, including hours of direct client services
and hours of consultation provided in child care settings.
new text end

new text begin (d) Grantees may collect and provide qualitative data to the commissioner to demonstrate
outcomes.
new text end

new text begin (e) By July 1, 2027, and every July 1 thereafter, the commissioner must provide a report
to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction
over behavioral health. The report must include the number of grantees receiving grant
money under this section, the number of individuals served under this section, data from
the evaluation conducted under this subdivision, and information on the use of state and
federal money for the services provided under this section. This paragraph expires June 30,
2037.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245D.04, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Protection-related rights.

(a) A person's protection-related rights include the
right to:

(1) have personal, financial, service, health, and medical information kept private, and
be advised of disclosure of this information by the license holder;

(2) access records and recorded information about the person in accordance with
applicable state and federal law, regulation, or rule;

(3) be free from maltreatment;

(4) be free from restraint, time out, seclusion, restrictive intervention, or other prohibited
procedure identified in section 245D.06, subdivision 5, or successor provisions, except for:
(i) emergency use of manual restraint to protect the person from imminent danger to self
or others according to the requirements in section 245D.061 or successor provisions; or (ii)
the use of safety interventions as part of a positive support transition plan under section
245D.06, subdivision 8, or successor provisions;

(5) receive services in a clean and safe environment when the license holder is the owner,
lessor, or tenant of the service site;

(6) be treated with courtesy and respect and receive respectful treatment of the person's
property;

(7) reasonable observance of cultural and ethnic practice and religion;

(8) be free from bias and harassment regarding race, gender, age, disability, spirituality,
and sexual orientation;

(9) be informed of and use the license holder's grievance policy and procedures, including
knowing how to contact persons responsible for addressing problems and to appeal under
section 256.045;

(10) know the name, telephone number, and the website, email, and street addresses of
protection and advocacy services, including the appropriate state-appointed ombudsman,
and a brief description of how to file a complaint with these offices;

(11) assert these rights personally, or have them asserted by the person's family,
authorized representative, or legal representative, without retaliation;

(12) give or withhold written informed consent to participate in any research or
experimental treatment;

(13) associate with other persons of the person's choice in the community;

(14) personal privacy, including the right to use the lock on the person's bedroom or unit
door;

(15) engage in chosen activities; and

(16) access to the person's personal possessions at any time, including financial resources.

(b) For a person residing in a residential site licensed according to chapter 245A, or
where the license holder is the owner, lessor, or tenant of the residential service site,
protection-related rights also include the right to:

(1) have daily, private access to and use of a non-coin-operated telephone for local calls
and long-distance calls made collect or paid for by the person;

(2) receive and send, without interference, uncensored, unopened mail or electronic
correspondence or communication;

(3) have use of and free access to common areas in the residence and the freedom to
come and go from the residence at will;

(4) choose the person's visitors and time of visits and have privacy for visits with the
person's spouse, next of kin, legal counsel, religious adviser, or others, in accordance with
section 363A.09 of the Human Rights Act, including privacy in the person's bedroom;

(5) have access to three nutritionally balanced meals and nutritious snacks between
meals each day;

(6) have freedom and support to access food and potable water at any time;

(7) have the freedom to furnish and decorate the person's bedroom or living unit;

(8) a setting that is clean and free from accumulation of dirt, grease, garbage, peeling
paint, mold, vermin, and insects;

(9) a setting that is free from hazards that threaten the person's health or safety; and

(10) a setting that meets the definition of a dwelling unit within a residential occupancy
as defined in the State Fire Code.

(c) new text begin Except as provided under subdivision 4, new text end restriction of a person's rights under paragraph
(a), clauses (13) to (16), or paragraph (b) is allowed only if determined necessary to ensure
the health, safety, and well-being of the person. Any restriction of those rights must be
documented in the person's support plan or support plan addendum. The restriction must
be implemented in the least restrictive alternative manner necessary to protect the person
and provide support to reduce or eliminate the need for the restriction in the most integrated
setting and inclusive manner. The documentation must include the following information:

(1) the justification for the restriction based on an assessment of the person's vulnerability
related to exercising the right without restriction;

(2) the objective measures set as conditions for ending the restriction;

(3) a schedule for reviewing the need for the restriction based on the conditions for
ending the restriction to occur semiannually from the date of initial approval, at a minimum,
or more frequently if requested by the person, the person's legal representative, if any, and
case manager; and

(4) signed and dated approval for the restriction from the person, or the person's legal
representative, if any. A restriction may be implemented only when the required approval
has been obtained. Approval may be withdrawn at any time. If approval is withdrawn, the
right must be immediately and fully restored.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245D.04, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Rights of minor children. new text end

new text begin (a) For the purposes of this subdivision:
new text end

new text begin (1) "developmentally appropriate" means, for a person under 18 years of age, activities
or items that are determined to be developmentally appropriate based on the development
of a person's cognitive, emotional, physical, and behavioral capacities that are typical for
the person's age or age group; and
new text end

new text begin (2) "reasonable and prudent parenting" means, for a person under 18 years of age, the
standards characterized by careful and sensible parenting decisions that maintain a person's
health and safety; cultural, religious, and Tribal values; and best interests while encouraging
the person's emotional and developmental growth.
new text end

new text begin (b) A person under 18 years of age who is receiving services under this chapter has a
right to:
new text end

new text begin (1) participate in activities or events that are generally accepted as suitable for minor
children of the same chronological age or are developmentally appropriate; and
new text end

new text begin (2) receive reasonable and prudent parenting.
new text end

new text begin (c) Restriction of the rights under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (13) to (16), or
(b), clauses (1) to (4), for a person under 18 years of age is allowed only if determined
necessary to ensure the health, safety, and well-being of the person or pursuant to reasonable
and prudent parenting standards.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245I.04, subdivision 17, is amended
to read:

Subd. 17.

Mental health behavioral aide scope of practice.

While under the treatment
supervision of a mental health professional, a mental health behavioral aide may practice
psychosocial skills with a child client according to the child's treatment plan deleted text begin and individual
behavior plandeleted text end that a mental health professional, clinical trainee, or behavioral health
practitioner has previously taught to the child.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245I.04, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin Subd. 20. new text end

new text begin Limitation on affiliation across service lines. new text end

new text begin (a) A mental health professional
must not simultaneously serve in a clinical, supervisory, or designated role for more than
ten distinct, licensed provider organizations or service lines that deliver services in the
medical assistance program. A mental health professional must not provide clinical or
administrative supervision to more than 20 direct care or clinical staff across all affiliated
provider organizations and service lines, unless an exception is granted by the commissioner
under paragraph (c).
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner must establish criteria and a standardized process for evaluating
exception requests under paragraph (c).
new text end

new text begin (c) Upon written request, the commissioner may grant an exception if the requester
demonstrates that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the mental health professional can effectively meet all clinical, supervisory, and
administrative responsibilities across affiliated programs;
new text end

new text begin (2) the oversight of client care will not be compromised; and
new text end

new text begin (3) the proposed arrangement complies with all applicable supervision, documentation,
and service delivery requirements.
new text end

new text begin (d) In determining whether to grant an exception under paragraph (c), the commissioner
must consider:
new text end

new text begin (1) the geographic distribution of services;
new text end

new text begin (2) the complexity and acuity of client needs;
new text end

new text begin (3) the mental health professional's other responsibilities, including direct service
provision; and
new text end

new text begin (4) whether adequate supervision can be maintained in compliance with program
standards.
new text end

new text begin (e) The commissioner must rescind approval of an exception granted under paragraph
(c) if the requester fails to comply with applicable program standards or with the terms of
the exception.
new text end

new text begin (f) A mental health professional determined to be in violation of this subdivision may
be subject to corrective action, licensing sanctions, or administrative penalties in accordance
with chapter 245A and other applicable law.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245I.08, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Progress notes.

A license holder must use a progress note to document each
occurrence of a mental health service that a staff person provides to a client. A progress
note must include the following:

(1) the type of service;

(2) the date of service;

(3) the start and stop time of the service unless the license holder is licensed as a
residential program;

(4) the location of the service;

(5) the scope of the service, including: (i) the targeted goal and objective; (ii) the
intervention that the staff person provided to the client and the methods that the staff person
used; (iii) the client's response to the intervention; and (iv) the staff person's plan to take
future actions, including changes in treatment that the staff person will implement if the
intervention was ineffective;

(6) the signature and credentials of the staff person who provided the service to the
client;

new text begin (7) the dated signature and credentials of the treatment supervisor;
new text end

deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new text begin (8)new text end the mental health provider travel documentation required by section 256B.0625,
if applicable; and

deleted text begin (8)deleted text end new text begin (9)new text end significant observations by the staff person, if applicable, including: (i) the client's
current risk factors; (ii) emergency interventions by staff persons; (iii) consultations with
or referrals to other professionals, family, or significant others; and (iv) changes in the
client's mental or physical symptoms.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245I.23, subdivision 7, is amended
to read:

Subd. 7.

Intensive residential treatment services assessment and treatment
planning.

(a) Within 12 hours of a client's admission, the license holder must evaluate and
document the client's immediate needs, including the client's:

(1) health and safety, including the client's need for crisis assistance;

(2) responsibilities for children, family and other natural supports, and employers; and

(3) housing and legal issues.

(b) Within 24 hours of the client's admission, the license holder must complete an initial
treatment plan for the client. The license holder must:

(1) base the client's initial treatment plan on the client's referral information and an
assessment of the client's immediate needs;

(2) consider crisis assistance strategies that have been effective for the client in the past;

(3) identify the client's initial treatment goals, measurable treatment objectives, and
specific interventions that the license holder will use to help the client engage in treatment;

(4) identify the participants involved in the client's treatment planning. The client must
be a participant; and

(5) ensure that a treatment supervisor approves of the client's initial treatment plan if a
behavioral health practitioner or clinical trainee completes the client's treatment plan,
notwithstanding section 245I.08, subdivision 3.

(c) According to section 245A.65, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), the license holder must
complete an individual abuse prevention plan as part of a client's initial treatment plan.

(d) Within five days of the client's admission and again within 60 days after the client's
admission, the license holder must complete a level of care assessment of the client. If the
license holder determines that a client does not need a medically monitored level of service,
a treatment supervisor must document how the client's admission to and continued services
in intensive residential treatment services are medically necessary for the client.

(e) Within ten days of a client's admission, new text begin excluding weekends and holidays, new text end the license
holder must complete or review and update the client's standard diagnostic assessment.

(f) Within ten days of a client's admission, the license holder must complete the client's
individual treatment plan, notwithstanding section 245I.10, subdivision 8. Within 40 days
after the client's admission and again within 70 days after the client's admission, the license
holder must update the client's individual treatment plan. The license holder must focus the
client's treatment planning on preparing the client for a successful transition from intensive
residential treatment services to another setting. In addition to the required elements of an
individual treatment plan under section 245I.10, subdivision 8, the license holder must
identify the following information in the client's individual treatment plan: (1) the client's
referrals and resources for the client's health and safety; and (2) the staff persons who are
responsible for following up with the client's referrals and resources. If the client does not
receive a referral or resource that the client needs, the license holder must document the
reason that the license holder did not make the referral or did not connect the client to a
particular resource. The license holder is responsible for determining whether additional
follow-up is required on behalf of the client.

(g) Within 30 days of the client's admission, the license holder must complete a functional
assessment of the client. Within 60 days after the client's admission, the license holder must
update the client's functional assessment to include any changes in the client's functioning
and symptoms.

(h) For a client with a current substance use disorder diagnosis and for a client whose
substance use disorder screening in the client's standard diagnostic assessment indicates the
possibility that the client has a substance use disorder, the license holder must complete a
written assessment of the client's substance use within 30 days of the client's admission. In
the substance use assessment, the license holder must: (1) evaluate the client's history of
substance use, relapses, and hospitalizations related to substance use; (2) assess the effects
of the client's substance use on the client's relationships including with family member and
others; (3) identify financial problems, health issues, housing instability, and unemployment;
(4) assess the client's legal problems, past and pending incarceration, violence, and
victimization; and (5) evaluate the client's suicide attempts, noncompliance with taking
prescribed medications, and noncompliance with psychosocial treatment.

(i) On a weekly basis, a mental health professional or certified rehabilitation specialist
must review each client's treatment plan and individual abuse prevention plan. The license
holder must document in the client's file each weekly review of the client's treatment plan
and individual abuse prevention plan.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 254B.04, subdivision 1a, is amended
to read:

Subd. 1a.

Client eligibility.

(a) Persons eligible for benefits under Code of Federal
Regulations, title 25, part 20, who meet the income standards of section 256B.056,
subdivision 4, and are not enrolled in medical assistance, are entitled to behavioral health
fund services. State money appropriated for this paragraph must be placed in a separate
account established for this purpose.

(b) Persons with dependent children who are determined to be in need of substance use
disorder treatment pursuant to an assessment under section 260E.20, subdivision 1, or in
need of chemical dependency treatment pursuant to a case plan under section 260C.201,
subdivision 6, or 260C.212, shall be assisted by the commissioner to access needed treatment
services. Treatment services must be appropriate for the individual or family, which may
include long-term care treatment or treatment in a facility that allows the dependent children
to stay in the treatment facility. The county shall pay for out-of-home placement costs, if
applicable.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), any person enrolled in medical assistance or
MinnesotaCare is eligible for room and board services under section 254B.0505, subdivision
1, clause (9).

(d) A client is eligible to have substance use disorder treatment paid for with funds from
the behavioral health fund when the client:

(1) is eligible for MFIP as determined under chapter 142G;

(2) is eligible for medical assistance as determined under Minnesota Rules, parts
9505.0010 to 9505.0140;

(3) is eligible for general assistance, general assistance medical care, or work readiness
as determined under Minnesota Rules, parts 9500.1200 to 9500.1272; or

(4) has income that is within current household size and income guidelines for entitled
persons, as defined in this subdivision and subdivision 7.

(e) Clients who meet the financial eligibility requirement in paragraph (a) and who have
a third-party payment source are eligible for the behavioral health fund if the third-party
payment source pays less than 100 percent of the cost of treatment services for eligible
clients.

(f) A client is ineligible to have substance use disorder treatment services paid for with
behavioral health fund money if the client:

(1) has an income that exceeds current household size and income guidelines for entitled
persons as defined in this subdivision and subdivision 7; or

(2) has an available third-party payment source that will pay the total cost of the client's
treatment.

(g) A client who is disenrolled from a state prepaid health plan during a treatment episode
is eligible for continued treatment service that is paid for by the behavioral health fund until
the treatment episode is completed or the client is re-enrolled in a state prepaid health plan
if the client:

(1) continues to be enrolled in MinnesotaCare, medical assistance, or general assistance
medical care; or

(2) is eligible according to paragraphs (a) and (b) and is determined eligible by the
commissioner under section 254B.04.

(h) When a county commits a client under chapter 253B to a regional treatment center
for substance use disorder services and the client is ineligible for the behavioral health fund,
the county is responsible for the payment to the regional treatment center according to
section 254B.0501, subdivision 3.

(i) new text begin Notwithstanding any laws to the contrary, new text end persons enrolled in MinnesotaCarenew text begin or
medical assistancenew text end are eligible for room and board services when provided through intensive
residential treatment services and residential crisis services under section 256B.0632new text begin and
chapter 245Inew text end .

(j) A person is eligible for one 60-consecutive-calendar-day period per year. A person
may submit a request for additional eligibility to the commissioner. A person denied
additional eligibility under this paragraph may request a state agency hearing under section
256.045.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0624, subdivision 6b, is amended to read:

Subd. 6b.

Crisis intervention services.

(a) If the crisis assessment determines mobile
crisis intervention services are needed, the crisis intervention services must be provided
promptly. As opportunity presents during the intervention, at least two members of the
mobile crisis intervention team must confer directly or by telephone about the crisis
assessment, crisis treatment plan, and actions taken and needed. At least one of the team
members must be providing face-to-face crisis intervention services. If providing crisis
intervention services, a clinical trainee or mental health practitioner must seek treatment
supervision as required in subdivision 9.

(b) If a provider delivers crisis intervention services while the recipient is absent, the
provider must document the reason for delivering services while the recipient is absent.

(d) The mobile crisis intervention team must document which crisis treatment plan goals
and objectives have been met and when no further crisis intervention services are required.

(e) If the recipient's mental health crisis is stabilized, but the recipient needs a referral
to other services, the team must provide referrals to these services. If the recipient has a
case manager, planning for other services must be coordinated with the case manager. If
the recipient is unable to follow up on the referral, the team must link the recipient to the
service and follow up to ensure the recipient is receiving the service.

deleted text begin (f) If the recipient's mental health crisis is stabilized and the recipient does not have an
advance directive, the case manager or crisis team shall offer to work with the recipient to
develop one.
deleted text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective upon federal approval.
new text end

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0624, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

Subd. 7.

Crisis stabilization services.

(a) Crisis stabilization services must be provided
by qualified staff of a crisis stabilization services provider entity and must meet the following
standards:

(1) a crisis treatment plan must be developed that meets the criteria in subdivision 11;

(2) staff must be qualified as defined in subdivision 8;

(3) crisis stabilization services must be delivered according to the crisis treatment plan
and include face-to-face contact with the recipient by qualified staff for further assessment,
help with referrals, updating of the crisis treatment plan, skills training, and collaboration
with other service providers in the community; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(4) if a provider delivers crisis stabilization services while the recipient is absent, the
provider must document the reason for delivering services while the recipient is absentdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;
and
new text end

new text begin (5) for a recipient who is 18 years of age or older, the case manager or crisis team must
offer to work with the recipient to develop a health care directive, as defined in section
145C.01, subdivision 5a, or a declaration of preferences under section 253B.03, subdivision
6d, if the recipient's mental health crisis is stabilized and the recipient does not have a
directive or declaration.
new text end

(b) If crisis stabilization services are provided in a supervised, licensed residential setting
that serves no more than four adult residents, and one or more individuals are present at the
setting to receive residential crisis stabilization, the residential staff must include, for at
least eight hours per day, at least one mental health professional, clinical trainee, certified
rehabilitation specialist, or mental health practitioner. The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end establish
a statewide per diem rate for crisis stabilization services provided under this paragraph to
medical assistance enrollees. The rate for a provider deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end not exceed the rate charged
by that provider for the same service to other payers. Payment deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end not be made to
more than one entity for each individual for services provided under this paragraph on a
given day. The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end set rates prospectively for the annual rate period.
The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end require providers to submit annual cost reports on a uniform
cost reporting form and deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end use submitted cost reports to inform the rate-setting
process. The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end recalculate the statewide per diem every year.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective upon federal approval.
new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.0625, subdivision 5m, is
amended to read:

Subd. 5m.

Certified community behavioral health clinic services.

(a) Medical
assistance covers services provided by a not-for-profit certified community behavioral health
clinic (CCBHC) that meets the requirements of section 245.735, subdivision 3.

(b) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end reimburse CCBHCs on a per-day basis for each day
that an eligible service is delivered using the CCBHC daily bundled rate system for medical
assistance payments as described in paragraph (c). The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end include a
quality incentive payment in the CCBHC daily bundled rate system as described in paragraph
(e). There is no county share for medical assistance services when reimbursed through the
CCBHC daily bundled rate system.

(c) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end ensure that the CCBHC daily bundled rate system for
CCBHC payments under medical assistance meets the following requirements:

(1) the CCBHC daily bundled rate deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be a provider-specific rate calculated for
each CCBHC, based on the daily cost of providing CCBHC services and the total annual
allowable CCBHC costs divided by the total annual number of CCBHC visits. For calculating
the payment rate, total annual visits include visits covered by medical assistance and visits
not covered by medical assistance. Allowable costs include but are not limited to the salaries
and benefits of medical assistance providers; the cost of CCBHC services provided under
section 245.735, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (6) and (7); and other costs such as
insurance or supplies needed to provide CCBHC services;

(2) payment deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be limited to one payment per day per medical assistance enrollee
when an eligible CCBHC service is provided. A CCBHC visit is eligible for reimbursement
if at least one of the CCBHC services listed under section 245.735, subdivision 3, paragraph
(a), clause (6), is furnished to a medical assistance enrollee by a health care practitioner or
licensed agency employed by or under contract with a CCBHC;

(3) initial CCBHC daily bundled rates for newly certified CCBHCs under section 245.735,
subdivision 3, deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be established by the commissioner using a provider-specific rate
based on the newly certified CCBHC's audited historical cost report data adjusted for the
expected cost of delivering CCBHC services. Estimates are subject to review by the
commissioner and must include the expected cost of providing the full scope of CCBHC
services and the expected number of visits for the rate period;

(4) the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end rebase CCBHC rates once every two years following
the last rebasing and no less than 12 months following an initial rate or a rate change due
to a change in the scope of servicesdeleted text begin . For CCBHCs certified after September 30, 2020, and
before January 1, 2021, the commissioner shall rebase rates according to this clause for
services provided on or after January 1, 2024deleted text end ;

(5) the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide for a 60-day appeals process after notice of the
results of the rebasing;

(6) an entity that receives a CCBHC daily bundled rate that overlaps with another federal
Medicaid rate is not eligible for the CCBHC rate methodology;

(7) payments for CCBHC services to individuals enrolled in managed care deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end
be coordinated with the state's phase-out of CCBHC wrap payments. The commissioner
deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end complete the phase-out of CCBHC wrap payments within 60 days of the
implementation of the CCBHC daily bundled rate system in the Medicaid Management
Information System (MMIS), for CCBHCs reimbursed under this chapter, with a final
settlement of payments due made payable to CCBHCs no later than 18 months thereafter;

(8) the CCBHC daily bundled rate for each CCBHC deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be updated by trending
each provider-specific rate by the Medicare Economic Index for primary care services. This
update deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end occur each year in between rebasing periods determined by the
commissioner in accordance with clause (4). CCBHCs must provide data on costs and visits
to the state annually using the CCBHC cost report established by the commissioner; and

(9) a CCBHC may request a rate adjustment for changes in the CCBHC's scope of
services when such changes are expected to result in an adjustment to the CCBHC payment
rate by 2.5 percent or more. The CCBHC must provide the commissioner with information
regarding the changes in the scope of services, including the estimated cost of providing
the new or modified services and any projected increase or decrease in the number of visits
resulting from the change. Estimated costs are subject to review by the commissioner. Rate
adjustments for changes in scope deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end occur no more than once per year in between
rebasing periods per CCBHC and are effective on the date of the annual CCBHC rate update.

(d) Managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end reimburse CCBHC
providers at the CCBHC daily bundled rate. The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end monitor the effect
of this requirement on the rate of access to the services delivered by CCBHC providers. If,
for any contract year, federal approval is not received for this paragraph, the commissioner
must adjust the capitation rates paid to managed care plans and county-based purchasing
plans for that contract year to reflect the removal of this provision. Contracts between
managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans and providers to whom this paragraph
applies must allow recovery of payments from those providers if capitation rates are adjusted
in accordance with this paragraph. Payment recoveries must not exceed the amount equal
to any increase in rates that results from this provision. This paragraph expires if federal
approval is not received for this paragraph at any time.

(e) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end implement a quality incentive payment program for
CCBHCs that meets the following requirements:

(1) a CCBHC deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end receive a quality incentive payment upon meeting specific
numeric thresholds for performance metrics established by the commissioner, in addition
to payments for which the CCBHC is eligible under the CCBHC daily bundled rate system
described in paragraph (c);

(2) a CCBHC must be certified and enrolled as a CCBHC for the entire measurement
year to be eligible for incentive payments;

(3) each CCBHC deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end receive written notice of the criteria that must be met in
order to receive quality incentive payments at least 90 days prior to the measurement year;
and

(4) a CCBHC must provide the commissioner with data needed to determine incentive
payment eligibility within six months following the measurement year. The commissioner
deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end notify CCBHC providers of their performance on the required measures and the
incentive payment amount within 12 months following the measurement year.

(f) All claims to managed care plans for CCBHC services as provided under this section
deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be submitted directly to, and paid by, the commissioner on the dates specified
no later than January 1 of the following calendar year, if:

(1) one or more managed care plans does not comply with the federal requirement for
payment of clean claims to CCBHCs, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 42,
section 447.45(b), and the managed care plan does not resolve the payment issue within 30
days of noncompliance; and

(2) the total amount of clean claims not paid in accordance with federal requirements
by one or more managed care plans is 50 percent of, or greater than, the total CCBHC claims
eligible for payment by managed care plans.

If the conditions in this paragraph are met between January 1 and June 30 of a calendar
year, claims deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be submitted to and paid by the commissioner beginning on January
1 of the following year. If the conditions in this paragraph are met between July 1 and
December 31 of a calendar year, claims deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be submitted to and paid by the
commissioner beginning on July 1 of the following year.

(g) Peer services provided by a CCBHC certified under section 245.735 are a covered
service under medical assistance when a licensed mental health professional or alcohol and
drug counselor determines that peer services are medically necessary. Eligibility under this
subdivision for peer services provided by a CCBHC supersede eligibility standards under
sections 256B.0615, 256B.0616, and 245G.07, subdivision 2a, paragraph (b), clause (2).

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0625, subdivision 47, is amended to read:

Subd. 47.

Treatment foster care services.

deleted text begin Effective July 1, 2011, and subject to federal
approval,deleted text end Medical assistance covers deleted text begin treatment foster caredeleted text end new text begin children's intensive behavioral
healthnew text end services according to section 256B.0946.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.0943, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given deleted text begin themdeleted text end .

(b) "Children's therapeutic services and supports" means the flexible package of mental
health services for children who require varying therapeutic and rehabilitative levels of
intervention to treat a diagnosed mental illness, as defined in section 245.462, subdivision
20, or 245.4871, subdivision 15. The services are time-limited interventions that are delivered
using various treatment modalities and combinations of services designed to reach treatment
outcomes identified in the individual treatment plan.

(d) "Crisis planning" has the meaning given in section 245.4871, subdivision 9a.

(e) "Culturally competent provider" means a provider who understands and can utilize
to a client's benefit the client's culture when providing services to the client. A provider
may be culturally competent because the provider is of the same cultural or ethnic group
as the client or the provider has developed the knowledge and skills through training and
experience to provide services to culturally diverse clients.

(f) "Day treatment program" for children means a site-based structured mental health
program consisting of psychotherapy for deleted text begin threedeleted text end new text begin twonew text end or more individuals and individual or
group skills training provided by a team, under the treatment supervision of a mental health
professional.

(g) "Direct service time" means the time that a mental health professional, clinical trainee,
mental health practitioner, or mental health behavioral aide spends face-to-face with a client
and the client's family or providing covered services through telehealth as defined under
section 256B.0625, subdivision 3b. Direct service time includes time in which the provider
obtains a client's history, develops a client's treatment plan, records individual treatment
outcomes, or provides service components of children's therapeutic services and supports.
Direct service time does not include time doing work before and after providing direct
services, including scheduling or maintaining clinical records.

(h) "Direction of mental health behavioral aide" means the activities of a mental health
professional, clinical trainee, or mental health practitioner in guiding the mental health
behavioral aide in providing services to a client. The direction of a mental health behavioral
aide must be based on the client's individual treatment plan and meet the requirements in
subdivision 6, paragraph (b), clause (7).

(i) "Individual treatment plan" means the plan described in section 245I.10, subdivisions
7 and 8.

(j) "Mental health behavioral aide services" means medically necessary one-on-one
activities performed by a mental health behavioral aide qualified according to section
245I.04, subdivision 16, to assist a child retain or generalize psychosocial skills as previously
trained by a mental health professional, clinical trainee, or mental health practitioner and
as described in the child's individual treatment plan deleted text begin and individual behavior plandeleted text end . Activities
involve working directly with the child or child's family as provided in subdivision 9,
paragraph (b), clause (4).

(k) "Mental health certified family peer specialist" means a staff person who is qualified
according to section 245I.04, subdivision 12.

(l) "Mental health practitioner" means a staff person who is qualified according to section
245I.04, subdivision 4.

(m) "Mental health professional" means a staff person who is qualified according to
section 245I.04, subdivision 2.

(n) "Mental health service plan development" includes:

(1) development and revision of a child's individual treatment plan; and

(2) administering and reporting standardized outcome measurements approved by the
commissioner, as periodically needed to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment.

(o) "Mental illness" has the meaning given in section 245.462, subdivision 20, paragraph
(a), for persons at least 18 years of age but under 21 years of age, and has the meaning given
in section 245.4871, subdivision 15, for children under 18 years of age.

(p) "Psychotherapy" means the treatment described in section 256B.0671, subdivision
11.

(q) "Rehabilitative services" or "psychiatric rehabilitation services" means interventions
to: (1) restore a child or adolescent to an age-appropriate developmental trajectory that had
been disrupted by a psychiatric illness; or (2) enable the child to self-monitor, compensate
for, cope with, counteract, or replace psychosocial skills deficits or maladaptive skills
acquired over the course of a psychiatric illness. Psychiatric rehabilitation services for
children combine coordinated psychotherapy to address internal psychological, emotional,
and intellectual processing deficits, and skills training to restore personal and social
functioning. Psychiatric rehabilitation services establish a progressive series of goals with
each achievement building upon a prior achievement.

(r) "Skills training" means individual, family, or group training, delivered by or under
the supervision of a mental health professional, designed to facilitate the acquisition of
psychosocial skills that are medically necessary to rehabilitate the child to an age-appropriate
developmental trajectory heretofore disrupted by a psychiatric illness or to enable the child
to self-monitor, compensate for, cope with, counteract, or replace skills deficits or
maladaptive skills acquired over the course of a psychiatric illness. Skills training is subject
to the service delivery requirements under subdivision 9, paragraph (b), clause (2).

(s) "Standard diagnostic assessment" means the assessment described in section 245I.10,
subdivision 6.

(t) "Treatment supervision" means the supervision described in section 245I.06.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0943, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

Subd. 6.

Provider entity clinical infrastructure requirements.

(a) To be an eligible
provider entity under this section, a provider entity must have a clinical infrastructure that
utilizes diagnostic assessment, individual treatment plans, service delivery, and individual
treatment plan review that are culturally competent, child-centered, and family-driven to
achieve maximum benefit for the client. The provider entity must review, and update as
necessary, the clinical policies and procedures every deleted text begin threedeleted text end new text begin twonew text end years, must distribute the
policies and procedures to staff initially and upon each subsequent update, and must train
staff accordingly.

(b) The clinical infrastructure written policies and procedures must include policies and
procedures for meeting the requirements in this subdivision:

(1) providing or obtaining a client's standard diagnostic assessment, including a standard
diagnostic assessment. When required components of the standard diagnostic assessment
are not provided in an outside or independent assessment or cannot be attained immediately,
the provider entity must determine the missing information within 30 days and amend the
child's standard diagnostic assessment or incorporate the information into the child's
individual treatment plan;

(2) developing an individual treatment plan;

(3) providing treatment supervision plans for staff according to section 245I.06. Treatment
supervision does not include the authority to make or terminate court-ordered placements
of the child. A treatment supervisor must be available for urgent consultation as required
by the individual client's needs or the situation;

(4) requiring a mental health professional to determine the level of supervision for a
behavioral health aide and to document and sign the supervision determination in the
behavioral health aide's supervision plan;

(5) ensuring the immediate accessibility of a mental health professional, clinical trainee,
or mental health practitioner to the behavioral aide during service delivery;

(6) providing service delivery that implements the individual treatment plan and meets
the requirements under subdivision 9; and

(7) individual treatment plan review. The review must determine the extent to which
the services have met each of the goals and objectives in the treatment plan. The review
must assess the client's progress and ensure that services and treatment goals continue to
be necessary and appropriate to the client and the client's family or foster family.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.0943, subdivision 9, is
amended to read:

Subd. 9.

Service delivery criteria.

(a) In delivering services under this section, a certified
provider entity must ensure that:

(1) the provider's caseload size should reasonably enable the provider to play an active
role in service planning, monitoring, and delivering services to meet the client's and client's
family's needs, as specified in each client's individual treatment plan;

(2) site-based programs, including day treatment programs, provide staffing and facilities
to ensure the client's health, safety, and protection of rights, and that the programs are able
to implement each client's individual treatment plan; and

(3) a day treatment program is provided to a group of clients by a team under the treatment
supervision of a mental health professional. The day treatment program must be provided
in and by: (i) an outpatient hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation
of Health Organizations and licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.55; (ii) a community
mental health center under section 245.62; or (iii) an entity that is certified under subdivision
4 to operate a program that meets the requirements of section 245.4884, subdivision 2, and
Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.0170 to 9505.0475. The day treatment program must stabilize
the client's mental health status while developing and improving the client's independent
living and socialization skills. The goal of the day treatment program must be to reduce or
relieve the effects of mental illness and provide training to enable the client to live in the
community. The remainder of the structured treatment program may include patient and/or
family or group psychotherapy, and individual or group skills training, if included in the
client's individual treatment plan. Day treatment programs are not part of inpatient or
residential treatment services. When a day treatment group that meets the minimum group
size requirement temporarily falls below the minimum group size because of a member's
temporary absence, medical assistance covers a group session conducted for the group
members in attendance. deleted text begin A day treatment program may provide fewer than the minimally
required hours for a particular child during a billing period in which the child is transitioning
into, or out of, the program.
deleted text end

(b) To be eligible for medical assistance payment, a provider entity must delivernew text begin at least
one ofnew text end the service components of children's therapeutic services and supports in compliance
with the following requirements:

(1) psychotherapy to address the child's underlying mental health disorder must be
documented as part of the child's ongoing treatment. A provider must deliver or arrange for
medically necessary psychotherapy unless the child's parent or caregiver chooses not to
receive it or the provider determines that psychotherapy is no longer medically necessary.
When a provider determines that psychotherapy is no longer medically necessary, the
provider must update required documentation, including but not limited to the individual
treatment plan, the child's medical record, or other authorizations, to include the
determination. When a provider determines that a child needs psychotherapy but
psychotherapy cannot be delivered due to a shortage of licensed mental health professionals
in the child's community, the provider must document the lack of access in the child's
medical record;

(2) individual, family, or group skills training is subject to the following requirements:

(i) a mental health professional, clinical trainee, or mental health practitioner shall provide
skills training;

(ii) skills training delivered to a child or the child's family must be targeted to the specific
deficits or maladaptations of the child's mental health disorder and must be prescribed in
the child's individual treatment plan;

(iii) group skills training may be provided to multiple recipients who, because of the
nature of their emotional, behavioral, or social dysfunction, can derive mutual benefit from
interaction in a group setting, which must be staffed as follows:

(A) one mental health professional, clinical trainee, or mental health practitioner must
work with a group of deleted text begin threedeleted text end new text begin twonew text end to eight clients; or

(B) any combination of two mental health professionals, clinical trainees, or mental
health practitioners must work with a group of nine to 12 clients;

(iv) a mental health professional, clinical trainee, or mental health practitioner must have
taught the psychosocial skill before a mental health behavioral aide may practice that skill
with the client; and

(v) for group skills training, when a skills group that meets the minimum group size
requirement temporarily falls below the minimum group size because of a group member's
temporary absence, the provider may conduct the session for the group members in
attendance;

(3) crisis planning to a child and family must include development of a written plan that
anticipates the particular factors specific to the child that may precipitate a psychiatric crisis
for the child in the near future. The written plan must document actions that the family
should be prepared to take to resolve or stabilize a crisis, such as advance arrangements for
direct intervention and support services to the child and the child's family. Crisis planning
must include preparing resources designed to address abrupt or substantial changes in the
functioning of the child or the child's family when sudden change in behavior or a loss of
usual coping mechanisms is observed, or the child begins to present a danger to self or
others;

(4) mental health behavioral aide services must be medically necessary treatment services,
identified in the child's individual treatment plan.

To be eligible for medical assistance payment, mental health behavioral aide services must
be delivered to a child who has been diagnosed with a mental illness, as provided in
subdivision 1, paragraph (a). The mental health behavioral aide must document the delivery
of services in written progress notes. Progress notes must reflect implementation of the
treatment strategies, as performed by the mental health behavioral aide and the child's
responses to the treatment strategies; and

(5) mental health service plan development must be performed in consultation with the
child's family and, when appropriate, with other key participants in the child's life by the
child's treating mental health professional or clinical trainee or by a mental health practitioner
and approved by the treating mental health professional. Treatment plan drafting consists
of development, review, and revision by face-to-face or electronic communication. The
provider must document events, including the time spent with the family and other key
participants in the child's life to approve the individual treatment plan. Medical assistance
covers service plan development before completion of the child's individual treatment plan.
Service plan development is covered only if a treatment plan is completed for the child. If
upon review it is determined that a treatment plan was not completed for the child, the
commissioner shall recover the payment for the service plan development.

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0946, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Service delivery payment requirements.

(a) To be eligible for payment under
this section, a provider must develop and practice written policies and procedures for
children's intensive behavioral health services, consistent with subdivision 1, paragraph (b),
and comply with the following requirements in paragraphs (b) to (n).

(b) Each previous and current mental health, school, and physical health treatment
provider must be contacted to request documentation of treatment and assessments that the
eligible client has received. This information must be reviewed and incorporated into the
standard diagnostic assessment and team consultation and treatment planning review process.

(c) Each client receiving treatment must be assessed for a trauma history, and the client's
treatment plan must document how the results of the assessment will be incorporated into
treatment.

(d) The level of care assessment as defined in section 245I.02, subdivision 19, and
functional assessment as defined in section 245I.02, subdivision 17, must be updated at
least every 180 days or prior to discharge from the service, whichever comes first.

(e) Each client receiving treatment services must have an individual treatment plan that
is reviewed, evaluated, and approved every 180 days using the team consultation and
treatment planning process.

(f) Clinical care consultation must be provided in accordance with the client's individual
treatment plan.

(g) Each client must have a crisis plan within ten days of initiating services and must
have access to clinical phone support 24 hours per day, seven days per week, during the
course of treatment. The crisis plan must demonstrate coordination with the local or regional
mobile crisis intervention team.

(h) Services must be delivered and documented at least three days per week, equaling
at least six hours of treatment per week. If the mental health professional, client, and family
agree, service units may be temporarily reduced for a period of no more than 60 days in
order to meet the needs of the client and family, or as part of transition or on a discharge
plan to another service or level of care. The reasons for service reduction must be identifieddeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin
andnew text end documenteddeleted text begin , and includeddeleted text end in the treatment plannew text begin or case filenew text end . Billing and payment are
prohibited for days on which no services are delivered and documented.

(i) Location of service delivery must be in the client's home, day care setting, school, or
other community-based setting that is specified on the client's individualized treatment plan.

(j) Treatment must be developmentally and culturally appropriate for the client.

(k) Services must be delivered in continual collaboration and consultation with the
client's medical providers and, in particular, with prescribers of psychotropic medications,
including those prescribed on an off-label basis. Members of the service team must be aware
of the medication regimen and potential side effects.

(l) Parents, siblings, foster parents, legal guardians, and members of the child's
permanency plan must be involved in treatment and service delivery unless otherwise noted
in the treatment plan.

(m) Transition planning for the child must be conducted starting with the first treatment
plan and must be addressed throughout treatment to support the child's permanency plan
and postdischarge mental health service needs.

(n) In order for a provider to receive the daily per-client encounter rate, at least one of
the services listed in subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clauses (1) to (3), must be provided. The
services listed in subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clauses (4) and (5), may be included as part
of the daily per-client encounter rate.

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.0947, subdivision 3a, is
amended to read:

Subd. 3a.

Required service components.

(a) Intensive nonresidential rehabilitative
mental health services, supports, and ancillary activities that are covered by a single daily
rate per client must include the following, as needed by the individual client:

(1) individual, family, and group psychotherapy;

(2) individual, family, and group skills training, as defined in section 256B.0943,
subdivision 1, paragraph (r);

(3) crisis planning as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision 9a;

(4) medication management provided by a deleted text begin physician, an advanced practice registered
nurse with certification in psychiatric and mental health care, or a physician assistantdeleted text end new text begin qualified
providernew text end ;

(5) mental health case management as provided in section 256B.0625, subdivision 20;

(6) medication education services as defined in this section;

(7) care coordination by a client-specific lead worker assigned by and responsible to the
treatment team;

(8) psychoeducation of and consultation and coordination with the client's biological,
adoptive, or foster family and, in the case of a youth living independently, the client's
immediate nonfamilial support network;

(9) clinical consultation to a client's employer or school or to other service agencies or
to the courts to assist in managing the mental illness or co-occurring disorder and to develop
client support systems;

(10) coordination with, or performance of, crisis intervention and stabilization services
as defined in section 256B.0624;

(11) transition services;

(12) co-occurring substance use disorder treatment as defined in section 245I.02,
subdivision 11; and

(13) housing access support that assists clients to find, obtain, retain, and move to safe
and adequate housing. Housing access support does not provide monetary assistance for
rent, damage deposits, or application fees.

(b) The provider shall ensure and document the following by means of performing the
required function or by contracting with a qualified person or entity: client access to crisis
intervention services, as defined in section 256B.0624, and available 24 hours per day and
seven days per week.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2027, or upon federal approval,
whichever is later.
new text end

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0947, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Standards for intensive nonresidential rehabilitative providers.

(a) Services
must meet the standards in this section and chapter 245I as required in section 245I.011,
subdivision 5.

(b) The treatment team must have specialized training in providing services to the specific
age group of youth that the team serves. An individual treatment team must serve youth
who are: (1) at least eight years of age or older and under 16 years of agedeleted text begin , ordeleted text end new text begin ;new text end (2) at least
14 years of age or older and under 21 years of agenew text begin ; or (3) if a treatment team demonstrates
to the commissioner expertise in meeting the developmental and clinical needs of an
expanded age range, at least eight years of age or older and under 21 years of agenew text end .

(c) The treatment team for intensive nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services
comprises both permanently employed core team members and client-specific team members
as follows:

(1) Based on professional qualifications and client needs, clinically qualified core team
members are assigned on a rotating basis as the client's lead worker to coordinate a client's
care. The core team must comprise at least four full-time equivalent direct care staff and
must minimally include:

(i) a mental health professional who serves as team leader to provide administrative
direction and treatment supervision to the team;

(ii) deleted text begin an advanced-practice registered nurse with certification in psychiatric or mental
health care or a board-certified child and adolescent psychiatrist, either of which must be
credentialed to prescribe medicationsdeleted text end new text begin a psychiatric care provider who is credentialed to
prescribe medications and who is either an advanced practice registered nurse with advanced
education and training in psychiatric and mental health care or a board-certified psychiatrist.
The psychiatric care provider must have demonstrated clinical experience and qualifications
for working with children and adolescents with serious mental illness and co-occurring
mental illness and substance use disordersnew text end ;

(iii) a mental health certified peer specialist who is qualified according to section 245I.04,
subdivision 10, and is also a former children's mental health consumer; and

(iv) a co-occurring disorder specialist who meets the requirements under section
256B.0622, subdivision 7a, paragraph (a), clause (4), who will provide or facilitate the
provision of co-occurring disorder treatment to clients.

(2) The core team may also include any of the following:

(i) additional mental health professionals;

(ii) a vocational specialist;

(iii) an educational specialist with knowledge and experience working with youth
regarding special education requirements and goals, special education plans, and coordination
of educational activities with health care activities;

(iv) a child and adolescent psychiatrist who may be retained on a consultant basis;

(v) a clinical trainee qualified according to section 245I.04, subdivision 6;

(vi) a mental health practitioner qualified according to section 245I.04, subdivision 4;

(vii) a case management service provider, as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision
4;

(viii) a housing access specialist; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(ix) a family peer specialist as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (j)deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end

new text begin (x) a registered nurse, as defined in section 148.171, subdivision 20.
new text end

(3) A treatment team may include, in addition to those in clause (1) or (2), ad hoc
members not employed by the team who consult on a specific client and who must accept
overall clinical direction from the treatment team for the duration of the client's placement
with the treatment team and must be paid by the provider agency at the rate for a typical
session by that provider with that client or at a rate negotiated with the client-specific
member. Client-specific treatment team members may include:

(i) the mental health professional treating the client prior to placement with the treatment
team;

(ii) the client's current substance use counselor, if applicable;

(iii) a lead member of the client's individualized education program team or school-based
mental health provider, if applicable;

(iv) a representative from the client's health care home or primary care clinic, as needed
to ensure integration of medical and behavioral health care;

(v) the client's probation officer or other juvenile justice representative, if applicable;
and

(vi) the client's current vocational or employment counselor, if applicable.

(d) The treatment supervisor shall be an active member of the treatment team and shall
function as a practicing clinician at least on a part-time basis. The treatment team shall meet
with the treatment supervisor at least weekly to discuss recipients' progress and make rapid
adjustments to meet recipients' needs. The team meeting must include client-specific case
reviews and general treatment discussions among team members. Client-specific case
reviews and planning must be documented in the individual client's treatment record.

(e) The staffing ratio must not exceed ten clients to one full-time equivalent treatment
team position.

(f) The treatment team shall serve no more than 80 clients at any one time. Should local
demand exceed the team's capacity, an additional team must be established rather than
exceed this limit.

(g) Nonclinical staff shall have prompt access in person or by telephone to a mental
health practitioner, clinical trainee, or mental health professional. The provider shall have
the capacity to promptly and appropriately respond to emergent needs and make any
necessary staffing adjustments to ensure the health and safety of clients.

(h) The intensive nonresidential rehabilitative mental health services provider shall
participate in evaluation of the assertive community treatment for youth (Youth ACT) model
as conducted by the commissioner, including the collection and reporting of data and the
reporting of performance measures as specified by contract with the commissioner.

(i) A regional treatment team may serve multiple counties.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin The amendment made to paragraph (c), clause (1), item (ii), of
this section is effective July 1, 2027, or upon federal approval, whichever is later.
new text end

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256L.03, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:

Subd. 5.

Cost-sharing.

(a) Co-payments, coinsurance, and deductibles do not apply to
children under the age of 21 and to American Indians as defined in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 42, section 600.5.

(b) The commissioner must adjust co-payments, coinsurance, and deductibles for covered
services in a manner sufficient to maintain the actuarial value of the benefit to 94 percent.
The cost-sharing changes described in this paragraph do not apply to eligible recipients or
services exempt from cost-sharing under state law. The cost-sharing changes described in
this paragraph shall not be implemented prior to January 1, 2016.

(c) The cost-sharing changes authorized under paragraph (b) must satisfy the requirements
for cost-sharing under the Basic Health Program as set forth in Code of Federal Regulations,
title 42, sections 600.510 and 600.520.

(d) Cost-sharing for prescription drugs and related medical supplies to treat chronic
disease must comply with the requirements of section 62Q.481.

(e) Co-payments, coinsurance, and deductibles do not apply to additional diagnostic
services or testing that a health care provider determines an enrollee requires after a
mammogram, as specified under section 62A.30, subdivision 5.

(f) Cost-sharing must not apply to drugs used for tobacco and nicotine cessation or to
tobacco and nicotine cessation services covered under section 256B.0625, subdivision 68.

(g) Co-payments, coinsurance, and deductibles do not apply to pre-exposure prophylaxis
(PrEP) and postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) medications when used for the prevention or
treatment of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

(h) Co-payments, coinsurance, and deductibles do not apply to mobile crisis interventionnew text begin ,
crisis stabilization provided in a community setting,new text end or crisis assessment as defined in section
256B.0624, subdivision 2.

Sec. 22. new text begin DIRECTION TO COMMISSIONER; CERTIFIED COMMUNITY
BEHAVIORAL HEALTH CLINIC REBASING.
new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0625, subdivision 5m, paragraph (c),
clause (4), for certified community behavioral health clinics certified on or after January 1,
2021, and before January 1, 2022, the commissioner of human services must rebase rates
for purposes of Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0625, subdivision 5m, paragraph (c),
clause (4), for services provided on or after January 1, 2026.
new text end

ARTICLE 5

DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES HOUSING AND SUPPORT SERVICES

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245.991, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Allowable grant activities.

Grantees must provide homeless outreach and case
management services. Projects may provide clinical assessment, habilitation and rehabilitation
services, community mental health services, substance use disorder treatment, housing
transition and sustaining services, or direct assistance funding. Services must be provided
to individuals with a serious mental illness,new text begin substance use disorder,new text end or deleted text begin with adeleted text end co-occurring
substance use disorderdeleted text begin ,deleted text end and who are homeless or at imminent risk of homelessness.
Individuals receiving homeless outreach services may be presumed eligible until a serious
mental illness can be verified.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245.992, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Establishment.

The commissioner of human services must establish a
housing with support for adults with serious mental illness program to prevent or end
homelessness for people with serious mental illness,new text begin substance use disorder, or co-occurring
substance use disorder;new text end to increase the availability of housing with supportdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end and to ensure
the commissioner may achieve the goals of the housing mission statement in section 245.461,
subdivision 4.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245.992, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Eligible beneficiaries.

Program activities must be provided to people with a
serious mental illness,new text begin substance use disorder,new text end or deleted text begin with adeleted text end co-occurring substance use disorder,
who meet homeless criteria determined by the commissioner.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256D.05, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Eligibility.

(a) Each assistance unit with income and resources less than
the standard of assistance established by the commissioner and with a member who is a
resident of the state deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be eligible for and entitled to general assistance if the
assistance unit is:

(1) a person who is suffering from a professionally certified permanent or temporary
illness, injury, or incapacity which is expected to continue for more than 45 days and which
prevents the person from obtaining or retaining employment;

(2) a person whose presence in the home on a substantially continuous basis is required
because of the professionally certified illness, injury, incapacity, or the age of another
member of the household;

(3) a person who has been placed in, and is residing in, a licensed or certified facility
for purposes of physical or mental health or rehabilitation, or in an approved substance use
disorder domiciliary facility, if the placement is based on illness or incapacity and is
according to a plan developed or approved by the county agency through its director or
designated representative;

(4) a person not described in clause (1) or (3) who is diagnosed by a licensed physician,
psychological practitioner, or other qualified professional, as developmentally disabled or
mentally ill, and that condition prevents the person from obtaining or retaining employment;

(5) a person who has an application pending for, or is appealing termination of benefits
from, the Social Security disability program or the program of Supplemental Security Income
for the aged, blind, and disabled, provided the person has a professionally certified permanent
or temporary illness, injury, or incapacity which is expected to continue for more than 30
days and which prevents the person from obtaining or retaining employment;

(6) a person who is unable to obtain or retain employment because advanced age
significantly affects the person's ability to seek or engage in substantial work;

(7) a person who has been assessed by a vocational specialist and, in consultation with
the county agency, has been determined to be unemployable for purposes of this clause; a
person is considered employable if there exist positions of employment in the local labor
market, regardless of the current availability of openings for those positions, that the person
is capable of performing. The person's eligibility under this category must be reassessed at
least annually. The county agency must provide notice to the person not later than 30 days
before annual eligibility under this item ends, informing the person of the date annual
eligibility will end and the need for vocational assessment if the person wishes to continue
eligibility under this clause. For purposes of establishing eligibility under this clause, it is
the applicant's or recipient's duty to obtain any needed vocational assessment;

(8) a person who is determined by the county agency, according to permanent rules
adopted by the commissioner, to have a condition that qualifies under Minnesota's special
education rules as a specific learning disability, provided that a rehabilitation plan for the
person is developed or approved by the county agency, and the person is following the plan;

(9) a child under the age of 18 who is not living with a parent, stepparent, or legal
custodian, and only if: the child is legally emancipated or living with an adult with the
consent of an agency acting as a legal custodian; the child is at least 16 years of age and the
general assistance grant is approved by the director of the county agency or a designated
representative as a component of a social services case plan for the child; or the child is
living with an adult with the consent of the child's legal custodian and the county agency.
For purposes of this clause, "legally emancipated" means a person under the age of 18 years
who: (i) has been married; (ii) is on active duty in the uniformed services of the United
States; (iii) has been emancipated by a court of competent jurisdiction; or (iv) is otherwise
considered emancipated under Minnesota law, and for whom county social services has not
determined that a social services case plan is necessary, for reasons other than the child has
failed or refuses to cooperate with the county agency in developing the plan;

(10) a person who is eligible for displaced homemaker services, programs, or assistance
under section 116L.96, but only if that person is enrolled as a full-time student;

(11) a person who is involved with protective or court-ordered services that prevent the
applicant or recipient from working at least four hours per day;

(12) a person over age 18 whose primary language is not English and who is attending
high school at least half time; or

(13) a person whose alcohol and drug addiction is a material factor that contributes to
the person's disabilitydeleted text begin ; applicants who assert this clause as a basis for eligibility must be
assessed by the county agency to determine if they are amenable to treatment; if the applicant
is determined to be not amenable to treatment, but is otherwise eligible for benefits, then
general assistance must be paid in vendor form, for the individual's shelter costs up to the
limit of the grant amount, with the residual, if any, paid according to section 256D.09,
subdivision 2a; if the applicant is determined to be amenable to treatment, then in order to
receive benefits, the applicant must be in a treatment program or on a waiting list and the
benefits must be paid in vendor form, for the individual's shelter costs, up to the limit of
the grant amount, with the residual, if any, paid according to section 256D.09, subdivision
2adeleted text end .

(b) As a condition of eligibility under paragraph (a), clauses (1), (3), (4), (7), and (8),
the recipient must complete an interim assistance agreement and must apply for other
maintenance benefits as specified in section 256D.06, subdivision 5, and must comply with
efforts to determine the recipient's eligibility for those other maintenance benefits.

(c) The burden of providing documentation for a county agency to use to verify eligibility
for general assistance or for exemption from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
(SNAP) employment and training program is upon the applicant or recipient. The county
agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end use documents already in its possession to verify eligibility, and deleted text begin shalldeleted text end
new text begin mustnew text end help the applicant or recipient obtain other existing verification necessary to determine
eligibility which the applicant or recipient does not have and is unable to obtain.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256D.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Emergency need.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1, a grant
of emergency general assistance deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end , to the extent funds are available, be made to
an eligible single adult, married couple, or family for an emergency need where the recipient
requests temporary assistance not exceeding 30 days if an emergency situation appears to
exist under written criteria adopted by the county agencynew text begin and provided to the commissioner
annuallynew text end . If an applicant or recipient relates facts to the county agency which may be
sufficient to constitute an emergency situation, the county agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end , to the extent
funds are available, advise the person of the procedure for applying for assistance according
to this subdivision.

(b) The applicant must be ineligible for assistance under chapter 142G, must have annual
net income no greater than 200 percent of the federal poverty guidelines for the previous
calendar year, and may receive an emergency assistance grant not more than once in any
12-month period.

(c) Funding for an emergency general assistance program is limited to the appropriation.
Each fiscal year, the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end allocate to counties the money appropriated
for emergency general assistance grants based on each county agency's average share of
state's emergency general expenditures for the immediate past three fiscal years as determined
by the commissioner, and may reallocate any unspent amounts to other counties. No county
shall be allocated less than $1,000 for a fiscal year.

(d) Any emergency general assistance expenditures by a county above the amount of
the commissioner's allocation to the county must be made from county funds.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256D.54, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Potential eligibility.

An applicant or recipient who is otherwise eligible
for supplemental aid and who is potentially eligible for maintenance benefits from any other
source deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end (1) apply for those benefits within deleted text begin 30deleted text end new text begin 90new text end days of the county's determination
of potential eligibility for those benefits; and (2) execute an interim assistance authorization
agreement on a form as directed by the commissioner.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256I.04, subdivision 2b, is amended to read:

Subd. 2b.

Housing support agreements.

(a) Agreements between agencies and providers
of housing support must be in writing on a form developed and approved by the commissioner
and must specify the name and address under which the establishment subject to the
agreement does business and under which the establishment, or service provider, if different
from the establishment, is licensed by the Department of Health or the Department of Human
Services; the specific license or registration from the Department of Health or the Department
of Human Services held by the provider and the number of beds subject to that license; the
address of the location or locations at which housing support is provided under this
agreement; the per diem and monthly rates that are to be paid from housing support funds
for each eligible resident at each location; the number of beds at each location which are
subject to the agreement; whether the license holder is a not-for-profit corporation under
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code; and a statement that the agreement is subject
to the provisions of sections 256I.01 to 256I.06 and subject to any changes to those sections.

(b) Providers are required to verify the following minimum requirements in the
agreement:

(1) current license or registration, including authorization if managing or monitoring
medications;

(2) all staff who have direct contact with recipients meet the staff qualifications;

(3) the provision of housing support;

(4) the provision of supplementary services, if applicable;

(5) reports of adverse events, including recipient death or serious injury;

(6) submission of residency requirements that could result in recipient eviction; and

(7) confirmation that the provider will not limit or restrict the number of hours an
applicant or recipient chooses to be employed, as specified in subdivision 5.

(c) Agreements may be terminated with or without cause by the commissioner, the
agency, or the provider with two calendar months prior notice. The commissioner may
immediately terminate an agreement under subdivision 2d.

new text begin (d) Agencies must develop a process by which the agency seeks, reviews, and approves
housing support agreements. Agencies must report the processes and results to the
commissioner in a format determined by the commissioner and must make the processes
available to prospective housing support providers.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256K.46, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Reporting.

Grant recipients deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end report annually on the use of
shelter-linked youth mental health grants to the commissioner by December 31deleted text begin , beginning
in 2020deleted text end . Each report deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end include the name and location of the grant recipient, the
amount of each grant, the youth mental health services provided, and the number of youth
receiving services. The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end determine the form required for the reports
and may specify additional reporting requirements. deleted text begin The commissioner shall include the
shelter-linked youth mental health services program in the biennial report required under
section 256K.45, subdivision 2.
deleted text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 9. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 256D.09, subdivisions 2a and 2b; and 256K.45,
subdivision 2, new text end new text begin are repealed.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

ARTICLE 6

DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245A.10, subdivision 4, is
amended to read:

Subd. 4.

License or certification fee for certain programs.

(a)(1) A program licensed
to provide one or more of the home and community-based services and supports identified
under chapter 245D to persons with disabilities or age 65 and older, deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual
nonrefundable license fee based on revenues derived from the provision of services that
would require licensure under chapter 245D during the calendar year immediately preceding
the year in which the license fee is paid, according to the following schedule:

License Holder Annual Revenue		License Fee
less than or equal to $10,000		$250
greater than $10,000 but less than or equal to $25,000		$375
greater than $25,000 but less than or equal to $50,000		$500
greater than $50,000 but less than or equal to $100,000		$625
greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $150,000		$750
greater than $150,000 but less than or equal to $200,000		$1,000
greater than $200,000 but less than or equal to $250,000		$1,250
greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $300,000		$1,500
greater than $300,000 but less than or equal to $350,000		$1,750
greater than $350,000 but less than or equal to $400,000		$2,000
greater than $400,000 but less than or equal to $450,000		$2,250
greater than $450,000 but less than or equal to $500,000		$2,500
greater than $500,000 but less than or equal to $600,000		$2,850
greater than $600,000 but less than or equal to $700,000		$3,200
greater than $700,000 but less than or equal to $800,000		$3,600
greater than $800,000 but less than or equal to $900,000		$3,900
greater than $900,000 but less than or equal to $1,000,000		$4,250
greater than $1,000,000 but less than or equal to $1,250,000		$4,550
greater than $1,250,000 but less than or equal to $1,500,000		$4,900
greater than $1,500,000 but less than or equal to $1,750,000		$5,200
greater than $1,750,000 but less than or equal to $2,000,000		$5,500
greater than $2,000,000 but less than or equal to $2,500,000		$5,900
greater than $2,500,000 but less than or equal to $3,000,000		$6,200
greater than $3,000,000 but less than or equal to $3,500,000		$6,500
greater than $3,500,000 but less than or equal to $4,000,000		$7,200
greater than $4,000,000 but less than or equal to $4,500,000		$7,800
greater than $4,500,000 but less than or equal to $5,000,000		$9,000
greater than $5,000,000 but less than or equal to $7,500,000		$10,000
greater than $7,500,000 but less than or equal to $10,000,000		$14,000
greater than $10,000,000 but less than or equal to $12,500,000		$18,000
greater than $12,500,000 but less than or equal to $15,000,000		$25,000
greater than $15,000,000 but less than or equal to $17,500,000		$28,000
greater than $17,500,000 but less than new text begin or equal to new text end $20,000,000		$32,000
greater than $20,000,000 but less than new text begin or equal to new text end $25,000,000		$36,000
greater than $25,000,000 but less than new text begin or equal to new text end $30,000,000		$45,000
greater than $30,000,000 but less than new text begin or equal to new text end $35,000,000		$55,000
greater than $35,000,000		$75,000

(2) If requested, the license holder deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide the commissioner information to
verify the license holder's annual revenues or other information as needed, including copies
of documents submitted to the Department of Revenue.

(3) At each annual renewal, a license holder may elect to pay the highest renewal fee,
and not provide annual revenue information to the commissioner.

(4) A license holder that knowingly provides the commissioner incorrect revenue amounts
for the purpose of paying a lower license fee deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be subject to a civil penalty in the
amount of double the fee the provider should have paid.

(b) A substance use disorder treatment program licensed under chapter 245G, to provide
substance use disorder treatment deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based
on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$2,600
	25 to 49 persons	$3,000
	50 to 74 persons	$5,000
	75 to 99 persons	$10,000
	100 to 199 persons	$15,000
	200 or more persons	$20,000

(c) A detoxification program licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6510 to
9530.6590, or a withdrawal management program licensed under chapter 245F deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end
pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$2,600
	25 to 49 persons	$3,000
	50 or more persons	$5,000

A detoxification program that also operates a withdrawal management program at the same
location deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end only pay one fee based upon the licensed capacity of the program with
the higher overall capacity.

(d) A children's residential facility licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, to
serve children shall pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$1,000
	25 to 49 persons	$1,100
	50 to 74 persons	$1,200
	75 to 99 persons	$1,300
	100 or more persons	$1,400

(e) A residential facility licensed under section 245I.23 or Minnesota Rules, parts
9520.0500 to 9520.0670, to serve persons with mental illness deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual
nonrefundable license fee based on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$2,600
	25 to 49 persons	$3,000
	50 or more persons	$20,000

(f) A residential facility licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9570.2000 to 9570.3400,
to serve persons with physical disabilities deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual nonrefundable license
fee based on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$450
	25 to 49 persons	$650
	50 to 74 persons	$850
	75 to 99 persons	$1,050
	100 or more persons	$1,250

(g) A program licensed as an adult day care center licensed under Minnesota Rules,
parts 9555.9600 to 9555.9730, deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual nonrefundable license fee based
on the following schedule:

	Licensed Capacity	License Fee
	1 to 24 persons	$2,600
	25 to 49 persons	$3,000
	50 to 74 persons	$5,000
	75 to 99 persons	$10,000
	100 to 199 persons	$15,000
	200 or more persons	$20,000

(h) A program licensed to provide treatment services to persons with sexual psychopathic
personalities or sexually dangerous persons under Minnesota Rules, parts 9515.3000 to
9515.3110, deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual nonrefundable license fee of $20,000.

(i) A mental health clinic certified under section 245I.20 deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end pay an annual
nonrefundable certification fee of $1,550. If the mental health clinic provides services at a
primary location with satellite facilities, the satellite facilities deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be certified with
the primary location without an additional charge.

(j) If a program subject to annual fees under paragraph (b) provides services at a primary
location with satellite facilities, the satellite facilities must be licensed with the primary
location and must be subject to an additional $500 annual nonrefundable license fee per
satellite facility.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245A.142, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:

Subd. 3.

Provisional license.

(a) Beginning January 1, 2026, the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin
mustnew text end begin issuing provisional licenses to agencies enrolled under chapter 256B to provide
EIDBI services.

(b) Agencies enrolled before July 1, 2025, have until May 31, 2026, to submit an
application for provisional licensure on the forms and in the manner prescribed by the
commissioner.

(c) Beginning June 1, 2026, an agency must not operate if it has not submitted an
application for provisional licensure under this section. The commissioner shall disenroll
an agency from providing EIDBI services under chapter 256B if the agency fails to submit
an application for provisional licensure by May 31, 2026.

(d) The commissioner must determine whether a provisional license applicant complies
with all applicable rules and laws and either issue a provisional license to the applicant or
deny the application by December 31, 2026.

(e) A provisional license is effective until comprehensive EIDBI agency licensure
standards are in effect unless the provisional license is suspended or revoked.

new text begin (f) Initial provisional license applications are subject to the application fee under section
245A.10, subdivision 3.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245A.242, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:

Subd. 2.

Emergency overdose treatment.

(a) A license holder must maintain a supply
of opiate antagonists as defined in section 604A.04, subdivision 1, available for emergency
treatment of opioid overdose deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin . For administration via intramuscular injection, a license
holdernew text end must have a written standing order protocol by a physician who is licensed under
chapter 147, advanced practice registered nurse who is licensed under chapter 148, or
physician assistant who is licensed under chapter 147A, that permits the license holder to
maintain a supply of new text begin intramuscular injection new text end opiate antagonists on site. A license holder
must require staff to undergo training in the specific mode of administration used at the
program, which may include intranasal administration, intramuscular injection, or both,
before the staff has direct contact, as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 11, with a
person served by the program.

(b) Notwithstanding any requirements to the contrary in Minnesota Rules, chapters 2960
and 9530, and Minnesota Statutes, chapters 245F, 245G, and 245I:

(1) emergency opiate antagonist medications are not required to be stored in a locked
area and staff and adult clients may carry this medication on them and store it in an unlocked
location;

(2) staff persons who only administer emergency opiate antagonist medications only
require the training required by paragraph (a), which any knowledgeable trainer may provide.
The trainer is not required to be a registered nurse or part of an accredited educational
institution; and

(3) nonresidential substance use disorder treatment programs that do not administer
client medications beyond emergency opiate antagonist medications are not required to
have the policies and procedures required in section 245G.08, subdivisions 5 and 6, and
must instead describe the program's procedures for administering opiate antagonist
medications in the license holder's description of health care services under section 245G.08,
subdivision 1.

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.02, subdivision 18, is amended to read:

Subd. 18.

Serious maltreatment.

(a) "Serious maltreatment" means sexual abusedeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end
maltreatment resulting in deathdeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ;new text end neglect resulting in serious injury which reasonably requires
the care of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant whether
or not the care of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant was
soughtdeleted text begin , ordeleted text end new text begin ;new text end abuse resulting in serious injurynew text begin ; or financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult,
if the value of the funds or property is $1,000 or greaternew text end .

(b) For purposes of this deleted text begin definitiondeleted text end new text begin subdivisionnew text end , "care of a physician, advanced practice
registered nurse, or physician assistant" is treatment received or ordered by a physician,
physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse, but does not include:

(1) diagnostic testing, assessment, or observation;

(2) the application of, recommendation to use, or prescription solely for a remedy that
is available over the counter without a prescription; or

(3) a prescription solely for a topical antibiotic to treat burns when there is no follow-up
appointment.

(c) For purposes of this deleted text begin definitiondeleted text end new text begin subdivisionnew text end , "abuse resulting in serious injury" means:
bruises, bites, skin laceration, or tissue damage; fractures; dislocations; evidence of internal
injuries; head injuries with loss of consciousness; extensive second-degree or third-degree
burns and other burns for which complications are present; extensive second-degree or
third-degree frostbite and other frostbite for which complications are present; irreversible
mobility or avulsion of teeth; injuries to the eyes; ingestion of foreign substances and objects
that are harmful; near drowning; and heat exhaustion or sunstroke.

(d) Serious maltreatment includes neglect when it results in criminal sexual conduct
against a child or vulnerable adult.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Programs licensed by the commissioner.

(a) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin
mustnew text end conduct a background study on:

(1) the person or persons applying for a license;

(2) an individual age 13 and over living in the household where the licensed program
will be provided who is not receiving licensed services from the program;

(3) current or prospective employees of the applicant or license holder who will have
direct contact with persons served by the facility, agency, or program;

(4) volunteers or student volunteers who will have direct contact with persons served
by the program to provide program services if the contact is not under the continuous, direct
supervision by an individual listed in clause (1) or (3);

(5) an individual age ten to 12 living in the household where the licensed services will
be provided when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02,
subdivision 15;

(6) an individual who, without providing direct contact services at a licensed program,
may have unsupervised access to children or vulnerable adults receiving services from a
program, when the commissioner has reasonable cause as defined in section 245C.02,
subdivision 15; and

(7) all controlling individuals as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 5a;

(8) notwithstanding clause (3), for children's residential facilities and foster residence
settings, any adult working in the facility, whether or not the individual will have direct
contact with persons served by the facility.

(b) For child foster care when the license holder resides in the home where foster care
services are provided, a short-term substitute caregiver providing direct contact services for
a child for less than 72 hours of continuous care is not required to receive a background
study under this chapter.

(1) adult foster care;

(2) children's residential facilities;

(3) licensed home and community-based services under chapter 245D;

(4) residential mental health programs for adults;

(5) substance use disorder treatment programs under chapter 245G;

(6) withdrawal management programs under chapter 245F;

(7) adult day care centers;

(8) family adult day services;

(9) detoxification programs;

(10) community residential settings;

(11) intensive residential treatment services and residential crisis stabilization under
chapter 245I; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(12) treatment programs for persons with sexual psychopathic personality or sexually
dangerous persons, licensed under chapter 245A and according to Minnesota Rules, parts
9515.3000 to 9515.3110deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end

new text begin (13) children's foster residence settings.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective November 3, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.04, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1.

Licensed programs; other child care programs.

(a) The commissioner
deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end conduct a background study of an individual required to be studied under section
245C.03, subdivision 1, at least upon application for initial license for all license types.

(b) The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end conduct a background study of an individual required
to be studied under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, including a child care background study
subject as defined in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, in a family child care program, licensed
child care center, certified license-exempt child care center, or legal nonlicensed child care
provider, on a schedule determined by the commissioner. Except as provided in section
245C.05, subdivision 5a, a child care background study must include submission of
fingerprints for a national criminal history record check and a review of the information
under section 245C.08. A background study for a child care program must be repeated
within five years from the most recent study conducted under this paragraph.

(c) At reauthorization or when a new background study is needed under section 142E.16,
subdivision 2, for a legal nonlicensed child care provider authorized under chapter 142E:

(1) for a background study affiliated with a legal nonlicensed child care provider, the
individual deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1,
paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the commissioner and be fingerprinted and photographed
under section 245C.05, subdivision 5; and

(2) the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end verify the information received under clause (1) and
submit the request in NETStudy 2.0 to complete the background study.

(d) At reapplication for a family child care license:

(1) for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child care center, the
individual deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end provide information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1,
paragraphs (a), (b), and (d), to the county agency, and be fingerprinted and photographed
under section 245C.05, subdivision 5;

(2) the county agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end verify the information received under clause (1) and
forward the information to the commissioner and submit the request in NETStudy 2.0 to
complete the background study; and

(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08.

deleted text begin (e) The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at the time of
reapplication for a license if the individual's background study was completed by the
commissioner of human services and the following conditions are met:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) a study of the individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when
the individual became affiliated with the license holder;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) the individual has been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last
study was conducted; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) the last study of the individual was conducted on or after October 1, 1995.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end The commissioner of human services deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end conduct a background study of
an individual specified under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to
(6), who is newly affiliatednew text begin , or currently affiliated without a background study that was
submitted through the electronic system known as NETStudy 2.0,new text end with a child foster family
setting license holder:

(1) the county or private agency deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end collect and forward to the commissioner the
information required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1 and 5, when the child foster
family setting applicant or license holder resides in the home where child foster care services
are provided; and

(2) the background study conducted by the commissioner of human services under this
paragraph must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08,
subdivisions 1, 3, and 4.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end conduct a background study of an individual specified
under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (6), who is newly
affiliatednew text begin , or currently affiliated without a background study that was submitted through the
electronic system known as NETStudy 2.0,new text end with an adult foster care or family adult day
services and with a family child care license holder or a legal nonlicensed child care provider
authorized under chapter 142E and:

(1) except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5a, the county deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end collect
and forward to the commissioner the information required under section 245C.05, subdivision
1, paragraphs (a) and (b), and subdivision 5, paragraph (b), for background studies conducted
by the commissioner for all family adult day services, for adult foster care when the adult
foster care license holder resides in the adult foster care residence, and for family child care
and legal nonlicensed child care authorized under chapter 142E;

(2) the license holder deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end collect and forward to the commissioner the information
required under section 245C.05, subdivisions 1, paragraphs (a) and (b); and 5, paragraphs
(a) and (b), for background studies conducted by the commissioner for adult foster care
when the license holder does not reside in the adult foster care residence; and

(3) the background study conducted by the commissioner under this paragraph must
include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a), and subdivisions 3 and 4.

deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end Applicants for licensure, license holders, and other entities as provided in this
chapter must submit completed background study requests to the commissioner using the
electronic system known as NETStudynew text begin 2.0new text end before individuals specified in section 245C.03,
subdivision 1, begin positions allowing direct contact in any licensed program.

deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end For an individual who is not on the entity's active roster, the entity must initiate
a new background study through NETStudy when:

(1) an individual returns to a position requiring a background study following an absence
of 120 or more consecutive days; or

(2) a program that discontinued providing licensed direct contact services for 120 or
more consecutive days begins to provide direct contact licensed services again.

The license holder deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end maintain a copy of the notification provided to the
commissioner under this paragraph in the program's files. If the individual's disqualification
was previously set aside for the license holder's program and the new background study
results in no new information that indicates the individual may pose a risk of harm to persons
receiving services from the license holder, the previous set-aside deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end remain in effect.

deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end For purposes of this section, a physician licensed under chapter 147, advanced
practice registered nurse licensed under chapter 148, or physician assistant licensed under
chapter 147A is considered to be continuously affiliated upon the license holder's receipt
from the commissioner of health or human services of the physician's, advanced practice
registered nurse's, or physician assistant's background study results.

deleted text begin (k)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end For purposes of family child care, a substitute caregiver must receive repeat
background studies at the time of each license renewal.

deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end A repeat background study at the time of license renewal is not required if the
family child care substitute caregiver's background study was completed by the commissioner
on or after October 1, 2017, and the substitute caregiver is on the license holder's active
roster in NETStudy 2.0.

deleted text begin (m)deleted text end new text begin (l)new text end Before and after school programs authorized under chapter 142E, are exempt
from the background study requirements under section 123B.03, for an employee for whom
a background study under this chapter has been completed.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245C.07, is amended to read:

245C.07 STUDY SUBJECT AFFILIATED WITH MULTIPLE FACILITIES.

(a) Subject to the conditions in paragraph (d), when a license holder, applicant, or other
entity owns multiple programs or services that are licensed by the Department of Human
Services; Department of Children, Youth, and Families; Department of Health; or Department
of Corrections, only one background study is required for an individual who provides direct
contact services in one or more of the licensed programs or services if:

(1) the license holder designates one individual with one address and telephone number
as the person to receive sensitive background study information for the multiple licensed
programs or services that depend on the same background study; and

(2) the individual designated to receive the sensitive background study information is
capable of determining, upon request of the department, whether a background study subject
is providing direct contact services in one or more of the license holder's programs or services
and, if so, at which location or locations.

(b) When a license holder maintains background study compliance for multiple licensed
programs according to paragraph (a), and one or more of the licensed programs closes, the
license holder shall immediately notify the commissioner which staff must be transferred
to an active license so that the background studies can be electronically paired with the
license holder's active program.

(c) When a background study is being initiated by a licensed program or service or a
foster care provider that is also licensed under chapter 144G, a study subject affiliated with
multiple licensed programs or services may attach to the background study form a cover
letter indicating the additional names of the programs or services, addresses, and background
study identification numbers.

When the commissioner receives a notice, the commissioner deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end notify each
program or service identified by the background study subject of the study results.

The background study notice the commissioner sends to the subsequent agencies deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin
mustnew text end satisfy those programs' or services' responsibilities for initiating a background study
on that individual.

(d) deleted text begin If a background study was conducted on an individual related to child foster care
and the requirements under paragraph (a) are met, the background study is transferable
across all licensed programs.deleted text end If a background study was conducted on an individual under
a license other than child foster care and the requirements under paragraph (a) are met, the
background study is transferable to all licensed programs except child foster care.

(e) The provisions of this section that allow a single background study in one or more
licensed programs or services do not apply to background studies submitted by adoption
agencies, supplemental nursing services agencies, personnel pool agencies, educational
programs, professional services agencies, temporary personnel agencies, and unlicensed
personal care provider organizations.

(f) For an entity operating under NETStudy 2.0, the entity's active roster must be the
system used to document when a background study subject is affiliated with multiple entities.
For a background study to be transferable:

(1) the background study subject must be on and moving to a roster for which the person
designated to receive sensitive background study information is the same; and

(2) the same entity must own or legally control both the roster from which the transfer
is occurring and the roster to which the transfer is occurring. For an entity that holds or
controls multiple licenses, or unlicensed personal care provider organizations, there must
be a common highest level entity that has a legally identifiable structure that can be verified
through records available from the secretary of state.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245C.13, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:

Subd. 2.

Activities pending completion of background study.

The subject of a
background study may not perform any activity requiring a background study under
paragraph (c) until the commissioner has issued one of the notices under paragraph (a).

(a) Notices from the commissioner required prior to activity under paragraph (c) include:

(1) a notice of the study results under section 245C.17 stating that:

(i) the individual is not disqualified; or

(ii) more time is needed to complete the study but the individual is not required to be
removed from direct contact or access to people receiving services prior to completion of
the study as provided under section 245C.17, subdivision 1, paragraph (b) or (c). The notice
that more time is needed to complete the study must also indicate whether the individual is
required to be under continuous direct supervision prior to completion of the background
study. When more time is necessary to complete a background study of an individual
affiliated with a Title IV-E eligible children's residential facility or foster residence setting,
the individual may not work in the facility or setting regardless of whether or not the
individual is supervised;

(2) a notice that a disqualification has been set aside under section 245C.23; or

(3) a notice that a variance has been granted related to the individual under section
245C.30.

(b) For a new text begin child care new text end background study deleted text begin affiliated with a licensed child care center or
certified license-exempt child care centerdeleted text end new text begin subject required to submit fingerprints for a
national criminal history check, except as provided in section 245C.05, subdivision 5anew text end , the
notice sent under paragraph (a), clause (1), item (ii), must not be issued until the
commissioner receives a qualifying result for the individual for the fingerprint-based national
criminal history record check or the fingerprint-based criminal history information from
the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The notice must require the individual to be under
continuous direct supervision prior to completion of the remainder of the background study
except as permitted in subdivision 3.

(1) being issued a license;

(2) living in the household where the licensed program will be provided;

(3) providing direct contact services to persons served by a program unless the subject
is under continuous direct supervision;

(4) having access to persons receiving services if the background study was completed
under section 144.057, subdivision 1, or 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2),
(5), or (6), unless the subject is under continuous direct supervision;

(5) for deleted text begin licensed child care centers and certified license-exempt child care centersdeleted text end new text begin a child
care background study subjectnew text end , deleted text begin providing direct contact services to persons served by the
programdeleted text end new text begin performing any act listed in section 245C.02, subdivision 6a, unless the study is
being renewed under section 245C.04, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and it has been less
than five years since the child care background study subject was previously disqualified
or provided notice under paragraph (a), clause (1), item (i)new text end ;

(6) for children's residential facilities or foster residence settings, working in the facility
or setting;

(7) for background studies affiliated with a personal care provider organization, except
as provided in section 245C.03, subdivision 3b, before a personal care assistant provides
services, the personal care assistance provider agency must initiate a background study of
the personal care assistant under this chapter and the personal care assistance provider
agency must have received a notice from the commissioner that the personal care assistant
is:

(i) not disqualified under section 245C.14; or

(ii) disqualified, but the personal care assistant has received a set aside of the
disqualification under section 245C.22; or

(8) for background studies affiliated with an early intensive developmental and behavioral
intervention provider, before an individual provides services, the early intensive
developmental and behavioral intervention provider must initiate a background study for
the individual under this chapter and the early intensive developmental and behavioral
intervention provider must have received a notice from the commissioner that the individual
is:

(i) not disqualified under section 245C.14; or

(ii) disqualified, but the individual has received a set-aside of the disqualification under
section 245C.22.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2026.
new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

15-year disqualification.

(a) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14
if: (1) less than 15 years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, if any,
for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a felony-level violation of any of the
following offenses: sections 152.021, subdivision 1 or 2b, (aggravated controlled substance
crime in the first degree; sale crimes); 152.022, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime
in the second degree; sale crimes); 152.023, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime in
the third degree; sale crimes); 152.024, subdivision 1 (controlled substance crime in the
fourth degree; sale crimes); 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 268.182 (fraud);
393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud); 518B.01, subdivision 14
(violation of an order for protection); 609.165 (felon ineligible to possess firearm); 609.2112,
609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.215 (suicide); 609.223
or 609.2231 (assault in the third or fourth degree); repeat offenses under 609.224 (assault
in the fifth degree); 609.229 (crimes committed for benefit of a gang); 609.2325 (criminal
abuse of a vulnerable adult); new text begin 609.2334 (violation of an order for protection against financial
exploitation of a vulnerable adult); new text end 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult);
609.235 (use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.247,
subdivision 4 (carjacking in the third degree); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.2664
(manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn
child in the second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671
(assault of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn
child in the commission of a crime); 609.27 (coercion); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); 609.466
(medical assistance fraud); 609.495 (aiding an offender); 609.498, subdivision 1 or 1b
(aggravated first-degree or first-degree tampering with a witness); 609.52 (theft); 609.521
(possession of shoplifting gear); 609.522 (organized retail theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen
goods into Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen property); 609.535
(issuance of dishonored checks); new text begin 609.542 (illegal remunerations); new text end 609.562 (arson in the
second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree); 609.582 (burglary); 609.59 (possession
of burglary tools); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63 (forgery);
609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.635 (obtaining signature by false
pretense); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.67 (machine guns and short-barreled shotguns);
609.687 (adulteration); 609.71 (riot); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.746 (interference
with privacy); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining credit); 609.821 (financial transaction card fraud);
617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving a minor; repeat offenses under 617.241 (obscene
materials and performances; distribution and exhibition prohibited; penalty); or 624.713
(certain persons not to possess firearms).

(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the
offenses listed in paragraph (a), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.

(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the termination of the individual's parental rights under section 260C.301, subdivision
1, paragraph (b), or subdivision 3.

(d) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than 15 years has passed
since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the
elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of the offenses listed in paragraph
(a) or since the termination of parental rights in any other state or country, the elements of
which are substantially similar to the elements listed in paragraph (c).

(e) If the individual studied commits one of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), but the
sentence or level of offense is a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor, the individual is
disqualified but the disqualification look-back period for the offense is the period applicable
to the gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor disposition.

(f) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3.

Ten-year disqualification.

(a) An individual is disqualified under section
245C.14 if: (1) less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed,
if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a gross misdemeanor-level
violation of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance);
260B.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to status as a juvenile petty offender or
delinquency); 260C.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to need for protection or
services); 268.182 (fraud); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud);
609.2112, 609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 or 609.222
(assault in the first or second degree); 609.223 or 609.2231 (assault in the third or fourth
degree); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (assault
in the fifth degree by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult); 609.2242 and 609.2243
(domestic assault); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of
residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal
neglect of a vulnerable adult); new text begin 609.2334 (violation of an order for protection against financial
exploitation of a vulnerable adult); new text end 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult);
609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.265 (abduction); 609.275
(attempt to coerce); 609.324, subdivision 1a (other prohibited acts; minor engaged in
prostitution); 609.33 (disorderly house); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378
(neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.466 (medical assistance fraud); 609.52 (theft);
609.522 (organized retail theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into Minnesota); 609.527
(identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen property); 609.535 (issuance of dishonored checks);
609.582 (burglary); 609.59 (possession of burglary tools); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.631
(check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.71 (riot); 609.72,
subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); new text begin 609.746 (interference with
privacy); new text end 609.749, subdivision 2 (harassment); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining credit); 609.821
(financial transaction card fraud); 617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving a minor; 617.241
(obscene materials and performances); 617.243 (indecent literature, distribution); 617.293
(harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); or Minnesota Statutes
2012, section 609.21; or violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01,
subdivision 14.

(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed
since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the
offenses listed in paragraph (a), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes.

(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than ten years has passed
since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or country, the
elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in
paragraph (a).

(d) If the individual studied commits one of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), but the
sentence or level of offense is a misdemeanor disposition, the individual is disqualified but
the disqualification lookback period for the offense is the period applicable to misdemeanors.

(e) When a disqualification is based on a judicial determination other than a conviction,
the disqualification period begins from the date of the court order. When a disqualification
is based on an admission, the disqualification period begins from the date of an admission
in court. When a disqualification is based on an Alford Plea, the disqualification period
begins from the date the Alford Plea is entered in court. When a disqualification is based
on a preponderance of evidence of a disqualifying act, the disqualification date begins from
the date of the dismissal, the date of discharge of the sentence imposed for a conviction for
a disqualifying crime of similar elements, or the date of the incident, whichever occurs last.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.15, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4.

Seven-year disqualification.

(a) An individual is disqualified under section
245C.14 if: (1) less than seven years has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed,
if any, for the offense; and (2) the individual has committed a misdemeanor-level violation
of any of the following offenses: sections 256.98 (wrongfully obtaining assistance); 260B.425
(criminal jurisdiction for contributing to status as a juvenile petty offender or delinquency);
260C.425 (criminal jurisdiction for contributing to need for protection or services); 268.182
(fraud); 393.07, subdivision 10, paragraph (c) (federal SNAP fraud); 609.2112, 609.2113,
or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 (assault in the first degree);
609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231
(assault in the fourth degree); 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 (domestic
assault); new text begin 609.2334 (violation of an order for protection against financial exploitation of a
vulnerable adult); new text end 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure
to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the
third degree); 609.27 (coercion); violation of an order for protection under 609.3232
(protective order authorized; procedures; penalties); 609.466 (medical assistance fraud);
609.52 (theft); 609.522 (organized retail theft); 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into
Minnesota); 609.527 (identity theft); 609.53 (receiving stolen property); 609.535 (issuance
of dishonored checks); 609.611 (insurance fraud); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.665
(spring guns); 609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.79 (obscene or harassing telephone
calls); 609.795 (letter, telegram, or package; opening; harassment); 609.82 (fraud in obtaining
credit); 609.821 (financial transaction card fraud); 617.23 (indecent exposure), not involving
a minor; 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); or
Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21; or violation of an order for protection under section
518B.01 (Domestic Abuse Act).

(b) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since a determination or disposition of the individual's:

(1) failure to make required reports under section 260E.06 or 626.557, subdivision 3,
for incidents in which: (i) the final disposition under section 626.557 or chapter 260E was
substantiated maltreatment, and (ii) the maltreatment was recurring or serious; or

(2) substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under chapter 260E, a
vulnerable adult under section 626.557, or serious or recurring maltreatment in any other
state, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of maltreatment under
section 626.557 or chapter 260E for which: (i) there is a preponderance of evidence that
the maltreatment occurred, and (ii) the subject was responsible for the maltreatment.

(c) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of
the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota
Statutes.

(d) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for an offense in any other state or
country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses
listed in paragraphs (a) and (b).

(f) An individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if less than seven years has passed
since the individual was disqualified under section 256.98, subdivision 8.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245C.15, subdivision 4a, is amended
to read:

Subd. 4a.

Licensed family foster setting disqualifications.

(a) Notwithstanding
subdivisions 1 to 4new text begin , 4b, and 4cnew text end , for a background study affiliated with a licensed family
foster setting, regardless of how much time has passed, an individual is disqualified under
section 245C.14 if the individual committed an act that resulted in a felony-level conviction
for sections: 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree);
609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205
(manslaughter in the second degree); 609.2112 (criminal vehicular homicide); 609.221
(assault in the first degree); 609.223, subdivision 2 (assault in the third degree, past pattern
of child abuse); 609.223, subdivision 3 (assault in the third degree, victim under four); a
felony offense under sections 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault, spousal abuse,
child abuse or neglect, or a crime against children); 609.2247 (domestic assault by
strangulation); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult resulting in the death of a
vulnerable adult); 609.245 (aggravated robbery); 609.247, subdivision 2 or 3 (carjacking
in the first or second degree); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.2661
(murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the
second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.2664
(manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn
child in the second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671
(assault of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn
child in the commission of a crime); 609.322, subdivision 1 (solicitation, inducement, and
promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking in the first degree); 609.324, subdivision 1 (other
prohibited acts; engaging in, hiring, or agreeing to hire minor to engage in prostitution);
609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree); 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in
the second degree); 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal
sexual conduct in the fourth degree); 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree);
609.3453 (criminal sexual predatory conduct); 609.3458 (sexual extortion); 609.352
(solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a
child); 609.3775 (child torture); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.561
(arson in the first degree); 609.582, subdivision 1 (burglary in the first degree); 609.746
(interference with privacy); 617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.246 (use of minors in sexual
performance prohibited); or 617.247 (possession of child sexual abuse material).

(b) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4new text begin , 4b, and 4cnew text end , for the purposes of a background
study affiliated with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under
section 245C.14, regardless of how much time has passed, if the individual:

(1) committed an action under paragraph (e) that resulted in death or involved sexual
abuse, as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 20;

(2) committed an act that resulted in a gross misdemeanor-level conviction for section
609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree);

(3) committed an act against or involving a minor that resulted in a felony-level conviction
for: section 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223, subdivision 1 (assault in the
third degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); or 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree);
or

(4) committed an act that resulted in a misdemeanor or gross misdemeanor-level
conviction for section 617.293 (dissemination and display of harmful materials to minors).

(c) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4new text begin , 4b, and 4cnew text end , for a background study affiliated
with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if
fewer than 20 years have passed since the termination of the individual's parental rights
under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), or if the individual consented to a
termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), to settle
a petition to involuntarily terminate parental rights. An individual is disqualified under
section 245C.14 if fewer than 20 years have passed since the termination of the individual's
parental rights in any other state or country, where the conditions for the individual's
termination of parental rights are substantially similar to the conditions in section 260C.301,
subdivision 1, paragraph (b).

(d) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4new text begin , 4b, and 4cnew text end , for a background study affiliated
with a licensed family foster setting, an individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if
fewer than five years have passed since a felony-level violation for sections: 152.021
(controlled substance crime in the first degree); 152.022 (controlled substance crime in the
second degree); 152.023 (controlled substance crime in the third degree); 152.024 (controlled
substance crime in the fourth degree); 152.025 (controlled substance crime in the fifth
degree); 152.0261 (importing controlled substances across state borders); 152.0262,
subdivision 1, paragraph (b) (possession of substance with intent to manufacture
methamphetamine); 152.027, subdivision 6, paragraph (c) (sale or possession of synthetic
cannabinoids); 152.096 (conspiracies prohibited); 152.097 (simulated controlled substances);
152.136 (anhydrous ammonia; prohibited conduct; criminal penalties; civil liabilities);
152.137 (fentanyl- and methamphetamine-related crimes involving children or vulnerable
adults); 169A.24 (felony first-degree driving while impaired); 243.166 (violation of predatory
offender registration requirements); 609.2113 (criminal vehicular operation; bodily harm);
609.2114 (criminal vehicular operation; unborn child); 609.228 (great bodily harm caused
by distribution of drugs); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult not resulting in
the death of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure
or facilitate a crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.247, subdivision 4 (carjacking in the
third degree); 609.322, subdivision 1a (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of
prostitution; sex trafficking in the second degree); 609.498, subdivision 1 (tampering with
a witness in the first degree); 609.498, subdivision 1b (aggravated first-degree witness
tampering); 609.562 (arson in the second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree);
609.582, subdivision 2 (burglary in the second degree); 609.66 (felony dangerous weapons);
609.687 (adulteration); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.749, subdivision 3, 4, or 5
(felony-level harassment or stalking); 609.855, subdivision 5 (shooting at or in a public
transit vehicle or facility); or 624.713 (certain people not to possess firearms).

(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 4new text begin , 4b, and 4cnew text end , except as provided in paragraph
(a), for a background study affiliated with a licensed family child foster care license, an
individual is disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since:

(1) a felony-level violation for an act not against or involving a minor that constitutes:
section 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223, subdivision 1 (assault in the third
degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); or 609.224, subdivision 4 (assault in the
fifth degree);

(2) a violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01, subdivision 14;

(3) a determination or disposition of the individual's failure to make required reports
under section 260E.06 or 626.557, subdivision 3, for incidents in which the final disposition
under chapter 260E or section 626.557 was substantiated maltreatment and the maltreatment
was recurring or serious;

(4) a determination or disposition of the individual's substantiated serious or recurring
maltreatment of a minor under chapter 260E, a vulnerable adult under section 626.557, or
serious or recurring maltreatment in any other state, the elements of which are substantially
similar to the elements of maltreatment under chapter 260E or section 626.557 and meet
the definition of serious maltreatment or recurring maltreatment;

(5) a gross misdemeanor-level violation for sections: 609.224, subdivision 2 (assault in
the fifth degree); 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault); 609.233 (criminal neglect);
609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child);
609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.749 (stalking); or 617.23 (indecent exposure); or

(6) committing an act against or involving a minor that resulted in a misdemeanor-level
violation of section 609.224, subdivision 1 (assault in the fifth degree).

(f) For purposes of this subdivision, the disqualification begins from:

(1) the date of the alleged violation, if the individual was not convicted;

(2) the date of conviction, if the individual was convicted of the violation but not
committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections; or

(3) the date of release from prison, if the individual was convicted of the violation and
committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections.

Notwithstanding clause (3), if the individual is subsequently reincarcerated for a violation
of the individual's supervised release, the disqualification begins from the date of release
from the subsequent incarceration.

(g) An individual's aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the
offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b), as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota
Statutes, permanently disqualifies the individual under section 245C.14. An individual is
disqualified under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since the individual's
aiding and abetting, attempt, or conspiracy to commit any of the offenses listed in paragraphs
(d) and (e).

(h) An individual's offense in any other state or country, where the elements of the
offense are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in paragraphs (a) and (b),
permanently disqualifies the individual under section 245C.14. An individual is disqualified
under section 245C.14 if fewer than five years have passed since an offense in any other
state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any
offense listed in paragraphs (d) and (e).

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 245C.22, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:

Subd. 5.

Scope of set-aside.

(a) If the commissioner sets aside a disqualification under
this section, the disqualified individual remains disqualified, but may hold a license and
have direct contact with or access to persons receiving services. Except as provided in
paragraph (b), the commissioner's set-aside of a disqualification is limited solely to the
licensed program, applicant, or agency specified in the set aside notice under section 245C.23.
For personal care provider organizations, financial management services organizations,
community first services and supports organizations, unlicensed home and community-based
organizations, and consumer-directed community supports organizations, the commissioner's
set-aside may further be limited to a specific individual who is receiving services. For new
background studies required under section 245C.04, subdivision 1, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end , if an
individual's disqualification was previously set aside for the license holder's program and
the new background study results in no new information that indicates the individual may
pose a risk of harm to persons receiving services from the license holder, the previous
set-aside shall remain in effect.

(b) If the commissioner has previously set aside an individual's disqualification for one
or more programs or agencies, and the individual is the subject of a subsequent background
study for a different program or agency, the commissioner shall determine whether the
disqualification is set aside for the program or agency that initiated the subsequent
background study. A notice of a set-aside under paragraph (c) shall be issued within 15
working days if all of the following criteria are met:

(1) the subsequent background study was initiated in connection with a program licensed
or regulated under the same provisions of law and rule for at least one program for which
the individual's disqualification was previously set aside by the commissioner;

(2) the individual is not disqualified for an offense specified in section 245C.15,
subdivision 1 or 2;

(3) the commissioner has received no new information to indicate that the individual
may pose a risk of harm to any person served by the program; and

(4) the previous set-aside was not limited to a specific person receiving services.

(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), clause (2), for an individual who is employed in the
substance use disorder field, if the commissioner has previously set aside an individual's
disqualification for one or more programs or agencies in the substance use disorder treatment
field, and the individual is the subject of a subsequent background study for a different
program or agency in the substance use disorder treatment field, the commissioner shall set
aside the disqualification for the program or agency in the substance use disorder treatment
field that initiated the subsequent background study when the criteria under paragraph (b),
clauses (1), (3), and (4), are met and the individual is not disqualified for an offense specified
in section 245C.15, subdivision 1. A notice of a set-aside under paragraph (d) shall be issued
within 15 working days.

(d) When a disqualification is set aside under paragraph (b), the notice of background
study results issued under section 245C.17, in addition to the requirements under section
245C.17, shall state that the disqualification is set aside for the program or agency that
initiated the subsequent background study. The notice must inform the individual that the
individual may request reconsideration of the disqualification under section 245C.21 on the
basis that the information used to disqualify the individual is incorrect.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245C.24, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Permanent bar to set aside a disqualification.

(a) Except as provided in
paragraphs (b) to deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end , the commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of any
individual disqualified pursuant to this chapter, regardless of how much time has passed,
if the individual was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed in section 245C.15, subdivision
1.

(b) For an individual in the substance use disorder or corrections field who was
disqualified for a crime or conduct listed under section 245C.15, subdivision 1, and whose
disqualification was set aside prior to July 1, 2005, the commissioner must consider granting
a variance pursuant to section 245C.30 for the license holder for a program dealing primarily
with adults. A request for reconsideration evaluated under this paragraph must include a
letter of recommendation from the license holder that was subject to the prior set-aside
decision addressing the individual's quality of care to children or vulnerable adults and the
circumstances of the individual's departure from that service.

(c) If an individual who requires a background study for nonemergency medical
transportation services under section 245C.03, subdivision 12, was disqualified for a crime
or conduct listed under section 245C.15, subdivision 1, and if more than 40 years have
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed, the commissioner may consider granting
a set-aside pursuant to section 245C.22. A request for reconsideration evaluated under this
paragraph must include a letter of recommendation from the employer. This paragraph does
not apply to a person disqualified based on a violation of sections 243.166; 609.185 to
609.205; 609.25; 609.342 to 609.3453; 609.352; 617.23, subdivision 2, clause (1), or 3,
clause (1); 617.246; or 617.247.

(d) When a licensed foster care provider adopts an individual who had received foster
care services from the provider for over six months, and the adopted individual is required
to receive a background study under section 245C.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause
(2) or (6), the commissioner may grant a variance to the license holder under section 245C.30
to permit the adopted individual with a permanent disqualification to remain affiliated with
the license holder under the conditions of the variance when the variance is recommended
by the county of responsibility for each of the remaining individuals in placement in the
home and the licensing agency for the home.

(e) For an individual 18 years of age or older affiliated with a licensed family foster
setting, the commissioner must not set aside or grant a variance for the disqualification of
any individual disqualified pursuant to this chapter, regardless of how much time has passed,
if the individual was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed in section 245C.15, subdivision
4a, paragraphs (a) and (b).

(f) In connection with a family foster setting license, the commissioner may grant a
variance to the disqualification for an individual who is under 18 years of age at the time
the background study is submitted.

deleted text begin (g) In connection with foster residence settings and children's residential facilities, the
commissioner must not set aside or grant a variance for the disqualification of any individual
disqualified pursuant to this chapter, regardless of how much time has passed, if the individual
was disqualified for a crime or conduct listed in section 245C.15, subdivision 4a, paragraph
(a) or (b).
deleted text end