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Minnesota Legislature

Office of the Revisor of Statutes

Chapter 245A

Section 245A.04

Recent History

245A.04 Application procedures.

Subdivision 1. Application for licensure. (a) An individual, corporation, partnership, voluntary association, other organization or controlling individual that is subject to licensure under section 245A.03 must apply for a license. The application must be made on the forms and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner. The commissioner shall provide the applicant with instruction in completing the application and provide information about the rules and requirements of other state agencies that affect the applicant.

The commissioner shall act on the application within 90 working days after a complete application and any required reports have been received from other state agencies or departments, counties, municipalities, or other political subdivisions.

(b) An application for licensure must specify one or more controlling individuals as an agent who is responsible for dealing with the commissioner of human services on all matters provided for in this chapter and on whom service of all notices and orders must be made. The agent must be authorized to accept service on behalf of all of the controlling individuals of the program. Service on the agent is service on all of the controlling individuals of the program. It is not a defense to any action arising under this chapter that service was not made on each controlling individual of the program. The designation of one or more controlling individuals as agents under this paragraph does not affect the legal responsibility of any other controlling individual under this chapter.

Subd. 2. Notification of affected municipality. The commissioner must not issue a license without giving 30 calendar days' written notice to the affected municipality or other political subdivision unless the program is considered a permitted single-family residential use under sections 245A.11 and 245A.14. The notification must be given before the first issuance of a license and annually after that time if annual notification is requested in writing by the affected municipality or other political subdivision. State funds must not be made available to or be spent by an agency or department of state, county, or municipal government for payment to a residential or nonresidential program licensed under sections 245A.01 to 245A.16 until the provisions of this subdivision have been complied with in full. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to programs located in hospitals.

Subd. 3. Background study of the applicant. (a) Before the commissioner issues a license, the commissioner shall conduct a study of the individuals specified in paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5), according to rules of the commissioner.

Beginning January 1, 1997, the commissioner shall also conduct a study of employees providing direct contact services for nonlicensed personal care provider organizations described in paragraph (c), clause (5).

The commissioner shall recover the cost of these background studies through a fee of no more than $12 per study charged to the personal care provider organization.

Beginning August 1, 1997, the commissioner shall conduct all background studies required under this chapter for adult foster care providers who are licensed by the commissioner of human services and registered under chapter 144D. The commissioner shall conduct these background studies in accordance with this chapter. The commissioner shall initiate a pilot project to conduct up to 5,000 background studies under this chapter in programs with joint licensure as home and community-based services and adult foster care for people with developmental disabilities when the license holder does not reside in the foster care residence.

(b) Beginning July 1, 1998, the commissioner shall conduct a background study on individuals specified in paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5), who perform direct contact services in a nursing home or a home care agency licensed under chapter 144A or a boarding care home licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, when the subject of the study resides outside Minnesota; the study must be at least as comprehensive as that of a Minnesota resident and include a search of information from the criminal justice data communications network in the state where the subject of the study resides.

(c) The applicant, license holder, the bureau of criminal apprehension, the commissioner of health and county agencies, after written notice to the individual who is the subject of the study, shall help with the study by giving the commissioner criminal conviction data and reports about the maltreatment of adults substantiated under section 626.557 and the maltreatment of minors in licensed programs substantiated under section 626.556. The individuals to be studied shall include:

(1) the applicant;

(2) persons over the age of 13 living in the household where the licensed program will be provided;

(3) current employees or contractors of the applicant who will have direct contact with persons served by the facility, agency, or program;

(4) volunteers or student volunteers who have direct contact with persons served by the program to provide program services, if the contact is not directly supervised by the individuals listed in clause (1) or (3); and

(5) any person who, as an individual or as a member of an organization, exclusively offers, provides, or arranges for personal care assistant services under the medical assistance program as authorized under sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19.

The juvenile courts shall also help with the study by giving the commissioner existing juvenile court records on individuals described in clause (2) relating to delinquency proceedings held within either the five years immediately preceding the application or the five years immediately preceding the individual's 18th birthday, whichever time period is longer. The commissioner shall destroy juvenile records obtained pursuant to this subdivision when the subject of the records reaches age 23.

For purposes of this section and Minnesota Rules, part 9543.3070, a finding that a delinquency petition is proven in juvenile court shall be considered a conviction in state district court.

For purposes of this subdivision, "direct contact" means providing face-to-face care, training, supervision, counseling, consultation, or medication assistance to persons served by a program. For purposes of this subdivision, "directly supervised" means an individual listed in clause (1), (3), or (5) is within sight or hearing of a volunteer to the extent that the individual listed in clause (1), (3), or (5) is capable at all times of intervening to protect the health and safety of the persons served by the program who have direct contact with the volunteer.

A study of an individual in clauses (1) to (5) shall be conducted at least upon application for initial license and reapplication for a license. The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at the time of reapplication for a license or if the individual has been continuously affiliated with a foster care provider licensed by the commissioner of human services and registered under chapter 144D, other than a family day care or foster care license, if: (i) a study of the individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when the individual became affiliated with the license holder; (ii) the individual has been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last study was conducted; and (iii) the procedure described in paragraph (d) has been implemented and was in effect continuously since the last study was conducted. For the purposes of this section, a physician licensed under chapter 147 is considered to be continuously affiliated upon the license holder's receipt from the commissioner of health or human services of the physician's background study results. For individuals who are required to have background studies under clauses (1) to (5) and who have been continuously affiliated with a foster care provider that is licensed in more than one county, criminal conviction data may be shared among those counties in which the foster care programs are licensed. A county agency's receipt of criminal conviction data from another county agency shall meet the criminal data background study requirements of this section.

The commissioner may also conduct studies on individuals specified in clauses (3) and (4) when the studies are initiated by:

(i) personnel pool agencies;

(ii) temporary personnel agencies;

(iii) educational programs that train persons by providing direct contact services in licensed programs; and

(iv) professional services agencies that are not licensed and which contract with licensed programs to provide direct contact services or individuals who provide direct contact services.

Studies on individuals in items (i) to (iv) must be initiated annually by these agencies, programs, and individuals. Except for personal care provider organizations, no applicant, license holder, or individual who is the subject of the study shall pay any fees required to conduct the study.

(1) At the option of the licensed facility, rather than initiating another background study on an individual required to be studied who has indicated to the licensed facility that a background study by the commissioner was previously completed, the facility may make a request to the commissioner for documentation of the individual's background study status, provided that:

(i) the facility makes this request using a form provided by the commissioner;

(ii) in making the request the facility informs the commissioner that either:

(A) the individual has been continuously affiliated with a licensed facility since the individual's previous background study was completed, or since October 1, 1995, whichever is shorter; or

(B) the individual is affiliated only with a personnel pool agency, a temporary personnel agency, an educational program that trains persons by providing direct contact services in licensed programs, or a professional services agency that is not licensed and which contracts with licensed programs to provide direct contact services or individuals who provide direct contact services; and

(iii) the facility provides notices to the individual as required in paragraphs (a) to (d), and that the facility is requesting written notification of the individual's background study status from the commissioner.

(2) The commissioner shall respond to each request under paragraph (1) with a written or electronic notice to the facility and the study subject. If the commissioner determines that a background study is necessary, the study shall be completed without further request from a licensed agency or notifications to the study subject.

(3) When a background study is being initiated by a licensed facility or a foster care provider that is also registered under chapter 144D, a study subject affiliated with multiple licensed facilities may attach to the background study form a cover letter indicating the additional facilities' names, addresses, and background study identification numbers. When the commissioner receives such notices, each facility identified by the background study subject shall be notified of the study results. The background study notice sent to the subsequent agencies shall satisfy those facilities' responsibilities for initiating a background study on that individual.

(d) If an individual who is affiliated with a program or facility regulated by the department of human services or department of health or who is affiliated with a nonlicensed personal care provider organization, is convicted of a crime constituting a disqualification under subdivision 3d, the probation officer or corrections agent shall notify the commissioner of the conviction. The commissioner, in consultation with the commissioner of corrections, shall develop forms and information necessary to implement this paragraph and shall provide the forms and information to the commissioner of corrections for distribution to local probation officers and corrections agents. The commissioner shall inform individuals subject to a background study that criminal convictions for disqualifying crimes will be reported to the commissioner by the corrections system. A probation officer, corrections agent, or corrections agency is not civilly or criminally liable for disclosing or failing to disclose the information required by this paragraph. Upon receipt of disqualifying information, the commissioner shall provide the notifications required in subdivision 3a, as appropriate to agencies on record as having initiated a background study or making a request for documentation of the background study status of the individual. This paragraph does not apply to family day care and child foster care programs.

(e) The individual who is the subject of the study must provide the applicant or license holder with sufficient information to ensure an accurate study including the individual's first, middle, and last name; home address, city, county, and state of residence for the past five years; zip code; sex; date of birth; and driver's license number. The applicant or license holder shall provide this information about an individual in paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5), on forms prescribed by the commissioner. By January 1, 2000, for background studies conducted by the department of human services, the commissioner shall implement a system for the electronic transmission of: (1) background study information to the commissioner; and (2) background study results to the license holder. The commissioner may request additional information of the individual, which shall be optional for the individual to provide, such as the individual's social security number or race.

(f) Except for child foster care, adult foster care, and family day care homes, a study must include information related to names of substantiated perpetrators of maltreatment of vulnerable adults that has been received by the commissioner as required under section 626.557, subdivision 9c, paragraph (i), and the commissioner's records relating to the maltreatment of minors in licensed programs, information from juvenile courts as required in paragraph (c) for persons listed in paragraph (c), clause (2), and information from the bureau of criminal apprehension. For child foster care, adult foster care, and family day care homes, the study must include information from the county agency's record of substantiated maltreatment of adults, and the maltreatment of minors, information from juvenile courts as required in paragraph (c) for persons listed in paragraph (c), clause (2), and information from the bureau of criminal apprehension. The commissioner may also review arrest and investigative information from the bureau of criminal apprehension, the commissioner of health, a county attorney, county sheriff, county agency, local chief of police, other states, the courts, or the Federal Bureau of Investigation if the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe the information is pertinent to the disqualification of an individual listed in paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5). The commissioner is not required to conduct more than one review of a subject's records from the Federal Bureau of Investigation if a review of the subject's criminal history with the Federal Bureau of Investigation has already been completed by the commissioner and there has been no break in the subject's affiliation with the license holder who initiated the background studies.

When the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe that further pertinent information may exist on the subject, the subject shall provide a set of classifiable fingerprints obtained from an authorized law enforcement agency. For purposes of requiring fingerprints, the commissioner shall be considered to have reasonable cause under, but not limited to, the following circumstances:

(1) information from the bureau of criminal apprehension indicates that the subject is a multistate offender;

(2) information from the bureau of criminal apprehension indicates that multistate offender status is undetermined; or

(3) the commissioner has received a report from the subject or a third party indicating that the subject has a criminal history in a jurisdiction other than Minnesota.

(g) An applicant's or license holder's failure or refusal to cooperate with the commissioner is reasonable cause to disqualify a subject, deny a license application or immediately suspend, suspend, or revoke a license. Failure or refusal of an individual to cooperate with the study is just cause for denying or terminating employment of the individual if the individual's failure or refusal to cooperate could cause the applicant's application to be denied or the license holder's license to be immediately suspended, suspended, or revoked.

(h) The commissioner shall not consider an application to be complete until all of the information required to be provided under this subdivision has been received.

(i) No person in paragraph (c), clause (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) who is disqualified as a result of this section may be retained by the agency in a position involving direct contact with persons served by the program.

(j) Termination of persons in paragraph (c), clause (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5), made in good faith reliance on a notice of disqualification provided by the commissioner shall not subject the applicant or license holder to civil liability.

(k) The commissioner may establish records to fulfill the requirements of this section.

(l) The commissioner may not disqualify an individual subject to a study under this section because that person has, or has had, a mental illness as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 20.

(m) An individual subject to disqualification under this subdivision has the applicable rights in subdivision 3a, 3b, or 3c.

Subd. 3a. Notification to subject and license holder of study results; determination of risk of harm. (a) The commissioner shall notify the applicant or license holder and the individual who is the subject of the study, in writing or by electronic transmission, of the results of the study. When the study is completed, a notice that the study was undertaken and completed shall be maintained in the personnel files of the program.

The commissioner shall notify the individual studied if the information in the study indicates the individual is disqualified from direct contact with persons served by the program. The commissioner shall disclose the information causing disqualification and instructions on how to request a reconsideration of the disqualification to the individual studied. An applicant or license holder who is not the subject of the study shall be informed that the commissioner has found information that disqualifies the subject from direct contact with persons served by the program. However, only the individual studied must be informed of the information contained in the subject's background study unless the only basis for the disqualification is failure to cooperate, the Data Practices Act provides for release of the information, or the individual studied authorizes the release of the information.

(b) If the commissioner determines that the individual studied has a disqualifying characteristic, the commissioner shall review the information immediately available and make a determination as to the subject's immediate risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact. The commissioner shall consider all relevant information available, including the following factors in determining the immediate risk of harm: the recency of the disqualifying characteristic; the recency of discharge from probation for the crimes; the number of disqualifying characteristics; the intrusiveness or violence of the disqualifying characteristic; the vulnerability of the victim involved in the disqualifying characteristic; and the similarity of the victim to the persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact. The commissioner may determine that the evaluation of the information immediately available gives the commissioner reason to believe one of the following:

(1) The individual poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact. If the commissioner determines that an individual studied poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct contact, the individual and the license holder must be sent a notice of disqualification. The commissioner shall order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied from direct contact. The notice to the individual studied must include an explanation of the basis of this determination.

(2) The individual poses a risk of harm requiring continuous supervision while providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject may request a reconsideration. If the commissioner determines that an individual studied poses a risk of harm that requires continuous supervision, the individual and the license holder must be sent a notice of disqualification. The commissioner shall order the license holder to immediately remove the individual studied from direct contact services or assure that the individual studied is within sight or hearing of another staff person when providing direct contact services during the period in which the individual may request a reconsideration of the disqualification. If the individual studied does not submit a timely request for reconsideration, or the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration, but the disqualification is not set aside for that license holder, the license holder will be notified of the disqualification and ordered to immediately remove the individual from any position allowing direct contact with persons receiving services from the license holder.

(3) The individual does not pose an imminent risk of harm or a risk of harm requiring continuous supervision while providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject may request a reconsideration. If the commissioner determines that an individual studied does not pose a risk of harm that requires continuous supervision, only the individual must be sent a notice of disqualification. The license holder must be sent a notice that more time is needed to complete the individual's background study. If the individual studied submits a timely request for reconsideration, and if the disqualification is set aside for that license holder, the license holder will receive the same notification received by license holders in cases where the individual studied has no disqualifying characteristic. If the individual studied does not submit a timely request for reconsideration, or the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration, but the disqualification is not set aside for that license holder, the license holder will be notified of the disqualification and ordered to immediately remove the individual from any position allowing direct contact with persons receiving services from the license holder.

Subd. 3b. Reconsideration of disqualification. (a) The individual who is the subject of the disqualification may request a reconsideration of the disqualification.

The individual must submit the request for reconsideration to the commissioner in writing. A request for reconsideration for an individual who has been sent a notice of disqualification under subdivision 3a, paragraph (b), clause (1) or (2), must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the disqualified individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. A request for reconsideration for an individual who has been sent a notice of disqualification under subdivision 3a, paragraph (b), clause (3), must be submitted within 15 calendar days of the disqualified individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification. Removal of a disqualified individual from direct contact shall be ordered if the individual does not request reconsideration within the prescribed time, and for an individual who submits a timely request for reconsideration, if the disqualification is not set aside. The individual must present information showing that:

(1) the information the commissioner relied upon is incorrect or inaccurate. If the basis of a reconsideration request is that a maltreatment determination or disposition under section 626.556 or 626.557 is incorrect, and the commissioner has issued a final order in an appeal of that determination or disposition under section 256.045, the commissioner's order is conclusive on the issue of maltreatment; or

(2) the subject of the study does not pose a risk of harm to any person served by the applicant or license holder.

(b) The commissioner may set aside the disqualification under this section if the commissioner finds that the information the commissioner relied upon is incorrect or the individual does not pose a risk of harm to any person served by the applicant or license holder. In determining that an individual does not pose a risk of harm, the commissioner shall consider the consequences of the event or events that lead to disqualification, whether there is more than one disqualifying event, the vulnerability of the victim at the time of the event, the time elapsed without a repeat of the same or similar event, documentation of successful completion by the individual studied of training or rehabilitation pertinent to the event, and any other information relevant to reconsideration. In reviewing a disqualification under this section, the commissioner shall give preeminent weight to the safety of each person to be served by the license holder or applicant over the interests of the license holder or applicant.

(c) Unless the information the commissioner relied on in disqualifying an individual is incorrect, the commissioner may not set aside the disqualification of an individual in connection with a license to provide family day care for children, foster care for children in the provider's own home, or foster care or day care services for adults in the provider's own home if:

(1) less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the individual has been convicted of a violation of any offense listed in sections 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree), 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree), criminal vehicular homicide under 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury), 609.215 (aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide), felony violations under 609.221 to 609.2231 (assault in the first, second, third, or fourth degree), 609.713 (terroristic threats), 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or to facilitate crime), 609.24 (simple robbery), 609.245 (aggravated robbery), 609.25 (kidnapping), 609.255 (false imprisonment), 609.561 or 609.562 (arson in the first or second degree), 609.71 (riot), burglary in the first or second degree under 609.582 (burglary), 609.66 (dangerous weapon), 609.665 (spring guns), 609.67 (machine guns and short-barreled shotguns), 609.749 (harassment; stalking), 152.021 or 152.022 (controlled substance crime in the first or second degree), 152.023, subdivision 1, clause (3) or (4), or subdivision 2, clause (4) (controlled substance crime in the third degree), 152.024, subdivision 1, clause (2), (3), or (4) (controlled substance crime in the fourth degree), 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (fifth-degree assault by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult), 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs), 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined), 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or patients), 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult), 609.233 (criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult), 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult), 609.234 (failure to report), 609.265 (abduction), 609.2664 to 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first or second degree), 609.267 to 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the first, second, or third degree), 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the commission of a crime), 617.293 (disseminating or displaying harmful material to minors), 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child), a gross misdemeanor offense under 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child), 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the foregoing offenses;

(2) regardless of how much time has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense, the individual was convicted of a violation of any offense listed in sections 609.185 to 609.195 (murder in the first, second, or third degree), 609.2661 to 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the first, second, or third degree), a felony offense under 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child), 609.322 (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution), 609.342 to 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the first, second, third, or fourth degree), 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct), 617.246 (use of minors in a sexual performance), 617.247 (possession of pictorial representations of a minor), 609.365 (incest), a felony offense under sections 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault), a felony offense of spousal abuse, a felony offense of child abuse or neglect, a felony offense of a crime against children, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes, or an offense in any other state, the elements of which are substantially similar to any of the foregoing offenses;

(3) within the seven years preceding the study, the individual committed an act that constitutes maltreatment of a child under section 626.556, subdivision 10e, and that resulted in substantial bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence; or

(4) within the seven years preceding the study, the individual was determined under section 626.557 to be the perpetrator of a substantiated incident of maltreatment of a vulnerable adult that resulted in substantial bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence.

In the case of any ground for disqualification under clauses (1) to (4), if the act was committed by an individual other than the applicant or license holder residing in the applicant's or license holder's home, the applicant or license holder may seek reconsideration when the individual who committed the act no longer resides in the home.

The disqualification periods provided under clauses (1), (3), and (4) are the minimum applicable disqualification periods. The commissioner may determine that an individual should continue to be disqualified from licensure because the license holder or applicant poses a risk of harm to a person served by that individual after the minimum disqualification period has passed.

(d) The commissioner shall respond in writing or by electronic transmission to all reconsideration requests for which the basis for the request is that the information relied upon by the commissioner to disqualify is incorrect or inaccurate within 30 working days of receipt of a request and all relevant information. If the basis for the request is that the individual does not pose a risk of harm, the commissioner shall respond to the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration and all relevant information. If the disqualification is set aside, the commissioner shall notify the applicant or license holder in writing or by electronic transmission of the decision.

(e) Except as provided in subdivision 3c, the commissioner's decision to disqualify an individual, including the decision to grant or deny a rescission or set aside a disqualification under this section, is the final administrative agency action and shall not be subject to further review in a contested case under chapter 14 involving a negative licensing appeal taken in response to the disqualification or involving an accuracy and completeness appeal under section 13.04.

Subd. 3c. Contested case. If a disqualification is not set aside, a person who is an employee of an employer, as defined in section 179A.03, subdivision 15, may request a contested case hearing under chapter 14. Rules adopted under this chapter may not preclude an employee in a contested case hearing for disqualification from submitting evidence concerning information gathered under subdivision 3, paragraph (e).

Subd. 3d. Disqualification. When a background study completed under subdivision 3 shows any of the following: a conviction of one or more crimes listed in clauses (1) to (4); the individual has admitted to or a preponderance of the evidence indicates the individual has committed an act or acts that meet the definition of any of the crimes listed in clauses (1) to (4); or an administrative determination listed under clause (4), the individual shall be disqualified from any position allowing direct contact with persons receiving services from the license holder:

(1) regardless of how much time has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense, and unless otherwise specified, regardless of the level of the conviction, the individual was convicted of any of the following offenses: sections 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.322 (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution); 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree); 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree); 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct); 609.365 (incest); felony offense under 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 617.246 (use of minors in sexual performance prohibited); 617.247 (possession of pictorial representations of minors); a felony offense under sections 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault), a felony offense of spousal abuse, a felony offense of child abuse or neglect, a felony offense of a crime against children; or attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes, or an offense in any other state or country, where the elements are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in this clause;

(2) if less than 15 years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the individual has received a felony conviction for a violation of any of these offenses: sections 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury); 609.215 (suicide); 609.221 to 609.2231 (assault in the first, second, third, or fourth degree); repeat offenses under 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); repeat offenses under 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.245 (aggravated robbery); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.561 (arson in the first degree); 609.562 (arson in the second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree); repeat offenses under 617.23 (indecent exposure; penalties); repeat offenses under 617.241 (obscene materials and performances; distribution and exhibition prohibited; penalty); 609.71 (riot); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.67 (machine guns and short-barreled shotguns); 609.749 (harassment; stalking; penalties); 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671 (assault of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the commission of a crime); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.324, subdivision 1 (other prohibited acts); 609.52 (theft); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.521 (possession of shoplifting gear); 609.582 (burglary); 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63 (forgery); 609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.635 (obtaining signature by false pretense); 609.27 (coercion); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); 609.687 (adulteration); 260.221 (grounds for termination of parental rights); and chapter 152 (drugs; controlled substance). An attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of the offenses in this clause. If the individual studied is convicted of one of the felonies listed in this clause, but the sentence is a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor disposition, the lookback period for the conviction is the period applicable to the disposition, that is the period for gross misdemeanors or misdemeanors;

(3) if less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the individual has received a gross misdemeanor conviction for a violation of any of the following offenses: sections 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault); violation of an order for protection under 518B.01, subdivision 14; 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); repeat offenses under 609.746 (interference with privacy); repeat offenses under 617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.241 (obscene materials and performances); 617.243 (indecent literature, distribution); 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); 609.71 (riot); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.749 (harassment; stalking; penalties); 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (assault in the fifth degree by a caregiver against a vulnerable adult); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); 609.265 (abduction); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.324, subdivision 1a (other prohibited acts; minor engaged in prostitution); 609.33 (disorderly house); 609.52 (theft); 609.582 (burglary); 609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in this clause. If the defendant is convicted of one of the gross misdemeanors listed in this clause, but the sentence is a misdemeanor disposition, the lookback period for the conviction is the period applicable to misdemeanors; or

(4) if less than seven years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the individual has received a misdemeanor conviction for a violation of any of the following offenses: sections 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 (domestic assault); violation of an order for protection under 518B.01 (Domestic Abuse Act); violation of an order for protection under 609.3232 (protective order authorized; procedures; penalties); 609.746 (interference with privacy); 609.79 (obscene or harassing phone calls); 609.795 (letter, telegram, or package; opening; harassment); 617.23 (indecent exposure; penalties); 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the third degree); 617.293 (harmful materials; dissemination and display to minors prohibited); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.665 (spring guns); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.52 (theft); 609.27 (coercion); or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed in this clause; failure to make required reports under section 626.556, subdivision 3, or 626.557, subdivision 3, for incidents in which: (i) the final disposition under section 626.556 or 626.557 was substantiated maltreatment, and (ii) the maltreatment was recurring or serious; or substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under section 626.556 or of a vulnerable adult under section 626.557 for which there is a preponderance of evidence that the maltreatment occurred, and that the subject was responsible for the maltreatment. For the purposes of this section, serious maltreatment means sexual abuse; maltreatment resulting in death; or maltreatment resulting in serious injury or harm which reasonably requires the care of a physician whether or not the care of a physician was sought; or abuse resulting in serious injury. For purposes of this section, abuse resulting in serious injury means: bruises, bites, skin laceration or tissue damage; fractures; dislocations; evidence of internal injuries; head injuries with loss of consciousness; extensive second-degree or third-degree burns and other burns for which complications are present; extensive second-degree or third-degree frostbite, and others for which complications are present; irreversible mobility or avulsion of teeth; injuries to the eyeball; ingestion of foreign substances and objects that are harmful; near drowning; and heat exhaustion or sunstroke. For purposes of this section, "care of a physician" is treatment received or ordered by a physician, but does not include diagnostic testing, assessment, or observation. For the purposes of this section, recurring maltreatment means more than one incident of maltreatment for which there is a preponderance of evidence that the maltreatment occurred, and that the subject was responsible for the maltreatment.

Subd. 4. Inspections; waiver. (a) Before issuing an initial license, the commissioner shall conduct an inspection of the program. The inspection must include but is not limited to:

(1) an inspection of the physical plant;

(2) an inspection of records and documents;

(3) an evaluation of the program by consumers of the program; and

(4) observation of the program in operation.

For the purposes of this subdivision, "consumer" means a person who receives the services of a licensed program, the person's legal guardian, or the parent or individual having legal custody of a child who receives the services of a licensed program.

(b) The evaluation required in paragraph (a), clause (3) or the observation in paragraph (a), clause (4) is not required prior to issuing an initial license under subdivision 7. If the commissioner issues an initial license under subdivision 7, these requirements must be completed within one year after the issuance of an initial license.

Subd. 5. Commissioner's right of access. When the commissioner is exercising the powers conferred by this chapter, the commissioner must be given access to the physical plant and grounds where the program is provided, documents, persons served by the program, and staff whenever the program is in operation and the information is relevant to inspections or investigations conducted by the commissioner. The commissioner must be given access without prior notice and as often as the commissioner considers necessary if the commissioner is conducting an investigation of allegations of maltreatment or other violation of applicable laws or rules. In conducting inspections, the commissioner may request and shall receive assistance from other state, county, and municipal governmental agencies and departments. The applicant or license holder shall allow the commissioner to photocopy, photograph, and make audio and video tape recordings during the inspection of the program at the commissioner's expense. The commissioner shall obtain a court order or the consent of the subject of the records or the parents or legal guardian of the subject before photocopying hospital medical records.

Persons served by the program have the right to refuse to consent to be interviewed, photographed, or audio or videotaped. Failure or refusal of an applicant or license holder to fully comply with this subdivision is reasonable cause for the commissioner to deny the application or immediately suspend or revoke the license.

Subd. 6. Commissioner's evaluation. Before granting, suspending, revoking, or making conditional a license, the commissioner shall evaluate information gathered under this section. The commissioner's evaluation shall consider facts, conditions, or circumstances concerning the program's operation, the well-being of persons served by the program, available consumer evaluations of the program, and information about the qualifications of the personnel employed by the applicant or license holder.

The commissioner shall evaluate the results of the study required in subdivision 3 and determine whether a risk of harm to the persons served by the program exists. In conducting this evaluation, the commissioner shall apply the disqualification standards set forth in rules adopted under this chapter.

Subd. 7. Issuance of a license; extension of a license. (a) If the commissioner determines that the program complies with all applicable rules and laws, the commissioner shall issue a license. At minimum, the license shall state:

(1) the name of the license holder;

(2) the address of the program;

(3) the effective date and expiration date of the license;

(4) the type of license;

(5) the maximum number and ages of persons that may receive services from the program; and

(6) any special conditions of licensure.

(b) The commissioner may issue an initial license for a period not to exceed two years if:

(1) the commissioner is unable to conduct the evaluation or observation required by subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), because the program is not yet operational;

(2) certain records and documents are not available because persons are not yet receiving services from the program; and

(3) the applicant complies with applicable laws and rules in all other respects.

(c) A decision by the commissioner to issue a license does not guarantee that any person or persons will be placed or cared for in the licensed program. A license shall not be transferable to another individual, corporation, partnership, voluntary association, other organization, or controlling or to another location.

For purposes of reimbursement for meals only, under the Child and Adult Care Food Program, Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, subtitle B, chapter II, subchapter A, part 226, relocation within the same county by a licensed family day care provider, shall be considered an extension of the license for a period of no more than 30 calendar days or until the new license is issued, whichever occurs first, provided the county agency has determined the family day care provider meets licensure requirements at the new location.

Unless otherwise specified by statute, all licenses expire at 12:01 a.m. on the day after the expiration date stated on the license. A license holder must apply for and be granted a new license to operate the program or the program must not be operated after the expiration date.

Subd. 8. Hospital inspections. Licensing authority granted under this section shall not modify the presumption regarding routine hospital inspections under section 144.55, subdivision 4.

Subd. 9. Variances. The commissioner may grant variances to rules that do not affect the health or safety of persons in a licensed program if the following conditions are met:

(1) the variance must be requested by an applicant or license holder on a form and in a manner prescribed by the commissioner;

(2) the request for a variance must include the reasons that the applicant or license holder cannot comply with a requirement as stated in the rule and the alternative equivalent measures that the applicant or license holder will follow to comply with the intent of the rule; and

(3) the request must state the period of time for which the variance is requested.

The commissioner may grant a permanent variance when conditions under which the variance is requested do not affect the health or safety of persons being served by the licensed program, nor compromise the qualifications of staff to provide services. The permanent variance shall expire as soon as the conditions that warranted the variance are modified in any way. Any applicant or license holder must inform the commissioner of any changes or modifications that have occurred in the conditions that warranted the permanent variance. Failure to advise the commissioner shall result in revocation of the permanent variance and may be cause for other sanctions under sections 245A.06 and 245A.07.

The commissioner's decision to grant or deny a variance request is final and not subject to appeal under the provisions of chapter 14.

Subd. 10. Adoption agency; additional requirements. In addition to the other requirements of this section, an individual, corporation, partnership, voluntary association, other organization, or controlling individual applying for a license to place children for adoption must:

(1) incorporate as a nonprofit corporation under chapter 317A;

(2) file with the application for licensure a copy of the disclosure form required under section 259.37, subdivision 2;

(3) provide evidence that a bond has been obtained and will be continuously maintained throughout the entire operating period of the agency, to cover the cost of transfer of records to and storage of records by the agency which has agreed, according to rule established by the commissioner, to receive the applicant agency's records if the applicant agency voluntarily or involuntarily ceases operation and fails to provide for proper transfer of the records. The bond must be made in favor of the agency which has agreed to receive the records; and

(4) submit a certified audit to the commissioner each year the license is renewed as required under section 245A.03, subdivision 1.

HIST: 1987 c 333 s 4; 1988 c 411 s 3,4; 1988 c 608 s 2; 1989 c 282 art 2 s 69-76; 1990 c 542 s 7; 1990 c 568 art 2 s 42-44; 1991 c 38 s 1; 1992 c 513 art 9 s 10; 1993 c 171 s 3,4; 1993 c 306 s 1; 1993 c 338 s 5; 1993 c 351 s 29; 1994 c 434 s 1-3; 1994 c 465 art 1 s 29; 1994 c 631 s 5,31; 1995 c 207 art 2 s 7-10; 1995 c 229 art 3 s 5; art 4 s 11; 1996 c 408 art 10 s 5; 1997 c 177 s 1; 1997 c 248 s 10-18; 1998 c 367 art 2 s 32; 1998 c 406 art 1 s 6,7,37; 1998 c 407 art 9 s 6,7