Key: (1) language to be deleted (2) new language
An act
relating to state government; making changes to health and human services policy provisions; modifying provisions related to children and family services, child support, child care, continuing care, disability services, the telephone equipment program, chemical and mental health, health care, human services licensing, licensing data, and the Office of Inspector General; providing for child safety and permanency reform including adoptions under guardianship of the commissioner; reforming comprehensive assessment and case management services; amending the Human Services Background Study Act; establishing home and community-based services standards; developing payment methodologies; modifying municipal license provisions; requiring data sharing with the Department of Human Services; requiring eligibility determinations; modifying fees; providing criminal penalties; making technical changes; requiring reports;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2010, sections 13.46, subdivisions 2, 3, 4; 13.461, subdivision 17; 13.465, by adding a subdivision; 13.82, subdivision 1; 119B.09, subdivision 7; 119B.12, subdivisions 1, 2; 119B.125, subdivisions 1a, 2, 6; 119B.13, subdivision 6; 144A.071, subdivision 5a; 145.902; 237.50; 237.51; 237.52; 237.53; 237.54; 237.55; 237.56; 245.461, by adding a subdivision; 245.462, subdivision 20; 245.487, by adding a subdivision; 245.4871, subdivision 15; 245.4932, subdivision 1; 245A.03, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 245A.04, subdivisions 1, 7, 11, by adding a subdivision; 245A.041, by adding subdivisions; 245A.05; 245A.07, subdivision 3; 245A.085; 245A.11, subdivisions 2a, 8; 245A.14, subdivision 11, by adding a subdivision; 245A.146, subdivisions 2, 3; 245A.18, subdivision 1; 245A.22, subdivision 2; 245A.66, subdivisions 2, 3; 245B.02, subdivision 10, by adding a subdivision; 245B.04, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 245B.05, subdivision 1; 245B.07, subdivisions 5, 9, 10, by adding a subdivision; 245C.03, subdivision 1; 245C.04, subdivision 1; 245C.05, subdivisions 2, 4, 7, by adding a subdivision; 245C.07; 245C.16, subdivision 1; 245C.17, subdivision 2; 245C.22, subdivision 5; 246.53, by adding a subdivision; 252.32, subdivision 1a; 252A.21, subdivision 2; 256.476, subdivision 11; 256.9657, subdivision 1; 256.998, subdivisions 1, 5; 256B.04, subdivision 14; 256B.056, subdivision 3c; 256B.0595, subdivision 2; 256B.0625, subdivisions 13, 13d, 19c, 42; 256B.0659, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 3a, 4, 9, 13, 14, 19, 20, 21, 24, 30; 256B.0911, subdivisions 1, 2b, 2c, 3, 3b, 4c, 6; 256B.0913, subdivisions 7, 8; 256B.0915, subdivisions 1a, 1b, 3c, 6; 256B.0916, subdivision 7; 256B.092, subdivisions 1, 1a, 1b, 1e, 1g, 2, 3, 5, 7, 8, 8a, 9, 11; 256B.096, subdivision 5; 256B.15, subdivisions 1c, 1f; 256B.19, subdivision 1c; 256B.441, subdivisions 13, 31, 53; 256B.49, subdivisions 13, 21; 256B.4912; 256B.69, subdivision 5; 256F.13, subdivision 1; 256G.02, subdivision 6; 256J.08, subdivision 11; 256J.24, subdivisions 2, 5; 256J.32, subdivision 6; 256J.621; 256J.68, subdivision 7; 256J.95, subdivision 3; 256L.05, subdivision 3; 257.01; 257.75, subdivision 7; 259.22, subdivision 2; 259.23, subdivision 1; 259.24, subdivisions 1, 3, 5, 6a, 7; 259.29, subdivision 2; 259.69; 259.73; 260.012; 260C.001; 260C.007, subdivision 4, by adding subdivisions; 260C.101, subdivision 2; 260C.157, subdivision 1; 260C.163, subdivisions 1, 4; 260C.178, subdivisions 1, 7; 260C.193, subdivisions 3, 6; 260C.201, subdivisions 2, 10, 11a; 260C.212, subdivisions 1, 2, 5, 7; 260C.215, subdivisions 4, 6; 260C.217; 260C.301, subdivisions 1, 8; 260C.317, subdivisions 3, 4; 260C.325, subdivisions 1, 3, 4; 260C.328; 260C.451; 260D.08; 471.709; 514.982, subdivision 1; 518A.40, subdivision 4; 518C.205; 541.04; 548.09, subdivision 1; 609.3785; 626.556, subdivisions 2, 10, 10e, 10f, 10i, 10k, 11; Minnesota Statutes 2011 Supplement, sections 119B.13, subdivision 1; 125A.21, subdivision 7; 144A.071, subdivisions 3, 4a; 245A.03, subdivision 7; 254B.04, subdivision 2a; 256.01, subdivision 14b; 256B.04, subdivision 21; 256B.056, subdivision 3; 256B.057, subdivision 9; 256B.0625, subdivisions 13e, 13h, 14, 56; 256B.0631, subdivisions 1, 2; 256B.0659, subdivision 11; 256B.0911, subdivisions 1a, 3a, 4a; 256B.0915, subdivision 10; 256B.49, subdivisions 14, 15; 256B.69, subdivision 28; 256L.15, subdivision 1; 626.557, subdivisions 9, 9a; 626.5572, subdivision 13; Laws 2008, chapter 338, section 3, subdivisions 1, 8; Laws 2009, chapter 79, article 8, section 81, as amended; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 245A; 252; 256B; 260C; 611; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapters 245D; 259A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2010, sections 256.01, subdivision 18b; 256.022; 256B.431, subdivisions 2c, 2g, 2i, 2j, 2k, 2l, 2o, 3c, 11, 14, 17b, 17f, 19, 20, 25, 27, 29; 256B.434, subdivisions 4a, 4b, 4c, 4d, 4e, 4g, 4h, 7, 8; 256B.435; 256B.436; 259.67; 259.71; 260C.201, subdivision 11; 260C.215, subdivision 2; 260C.456; Minnesota Statutes 2011 Supplement, section 256B.431, subdivision 26; Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.7700; 9560.0071; 9560.0082; 9560.0083; 9560.0091; 9560.0093, subparts 1, 3, 4; 9560.0101; 9560.0102.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
Certain data that may be disclosed to a prospective adoptive parent is governed by section 260C.613, subdivision 2.
(a) The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(b) "Date of hiring" means the earlier of: (1) the first day for which an employee is owed compensation by an employer; or (2) the first day that an employee reports to work or performs labor or services for an employer.
(c) "Earnings" means payment owed by an employer for labor or services rendered by an employee.
(d) "Employee" means a person who resides or works in Minnesota, performs services for compensation, in whatever form, for an employer and satisfies the criteria of an employee under chapter 24 of the Internal Revenue Code. Employee does not include:
(1) persons hired for domestic service in the private home of the employer, as defined in the Federal Tax Code; or
(2) an employee of the federal or state agency performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions, if the head of such agency has determined that reporting according to this law would endanger the safety of the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or intelligence mission.
(e) "Employer" means a person or entity located or doing business in this state that employs one or more employees for payment, and satisfies the criteria of an employer under chapter 24 of the Internal Revenue Code. Employer includes a labor organization as defined in paragraph (g). Employer also includes the state, political or other governmental subdivisions of the state, and the federal government.
(f) "Hiring" means engaging a person to perform services for compensation and includes the reemploying or return to work of any previous employee who was laid off, furloughed, separated, granted a leave without pay, or terminated from employment when a period of 90 60 days elapses from the date of layoff, furlough, separation, leave, or termination to the date of the person's return to work.
(g) "Labor organization" means entities located or doing business in this state that meet the criteria of labor organization under section 2(5) of the National Labor Relations Act. This includes any entity, that may also be known as a hiring hall, used to carry out requirements described in chapter 7 of the National Labor Relations Act.
(h) "Payor" means a person or entity located or doing business in Minnesota who pays money to an independent contractor according to an agreement for the performance of services.
Reports required under this section must contain: all the information required by federal law.
(1) the employee's name, address, Social Security number, and date of birth when available, which can be handwritten or otherwise added to the W-4 form, W-9 form, or other document submitted; and
(2) the employer's name, address, and federal identification number.
The MFIP transitional standard is based on the number of persons in the assistance unit eligible for both food and cash assistance unless the restrictions in subdivision 6 on the birth of a child apply. The following table represents the transitional standards including a breakdown of the cash and food portions effective October 1, 2009.
Number of Eligible People | Transitional Standard | Cash Portion | Food Portion |
1 | $428: | $250 | $178 | |
2 | $764: | $437 | $327 | |
3 | $1,005: | $532 | $473 | |
4 | $1,222: | $621 | $601 | |
5 | $1,399: | $697 | $702 | |
6 | $1,608: | $773 | $835 | |
7 | $1,754: | $850 | $904 | |
8 | $1,940: | $916 | $1,024 | |
9 | $2,125: | $980 | $1,145 | |
10 | $2,304: | $1,035 | $1,269 | |
over 10 | add $178: | $53 | $125 | |
per additional member. |
The amount of the transitional standard is published annually by the Department of Human Services.
No petition for adoption shall be filed unless the person sought to be adopted has been placed by the commissioner of human services, the commissioner's agent, or a licensed child-placing agency. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply if:
(1) the person to be adopted is over 14 years of age;
(2) the child is sought to be adopted by an individual who is related to the child, as defined by section 245A.02, subdivision 13;
(3) the child has been lawfully placed under the laws of another state while the child and petitioner resided in that other state;
(4) the court waives the requirement of this subdivision in the best interests of the child or petitioners, provided that the adoption does not involve a placement as defined in section 259.21, subdivision 8; or
(5) the child has been lawfully placed under section 259.47.
(a) Except as provided in section 260C.101, subdivision 2, The juvenile court shall have original jurisdiction in all adoption proceedings. The proper venue for an adoption proceeding shall be the county of the petitioner's residence, except as provided in paragraph (b) section 260C.621, subdivision 2, for the adoption of children under the guardianship of the commissioner.
(b) Venue for the adoption of a child committed to the guardianship of the commissioner of human services shall be the county with jurisdiction in the matter according to section 260C.317, subdivision 3.
(c) Upon request of the petitioner, the court having jurisdiction over the matter under section 260C.317, subdivision 3, may transfer venue of an adoption proceeding involving a child under the guardianship of the commissioner to the county of the petitioner's residence upon determining that:
(1) the commissioner has given consent to the petitioner's adoption of the child or that consent is unreasonably withheld;
(2) there is no other adoption petition for the child that has been filed or is reasonably anticipated by the commissioner or the commissioner's delegate to be filed; and
(3) transfer of venue is in the best interests of the child.
Transfer of venue under this paragraph shall be according to the rules of adoption court procedure.
(d) (b) In all other adoptions under this chapter, if the petitioner has acquired a new residence in another county and requests a transfer of the adoption proceeding, the court in which an adoption is initiated may transfer the proceeding to the appropriate court in the new county of residence if the transfer is in the best interests of the person to be adopted. The court transfers the proceeding by ordering a continuance and by forwarding to the court administrator of the appropriate court a certified copy of all papers filed, together with an order of transfer. The transferring court also shall forward copies of the order of transfer to the commissioner of human services and any agency participating in the proceedings. The judge of the receiving court shall accept the order of the transfer and any other documents transmitted and hear the case; provided, however, the receiving court may in its discretion require the filing of a new petition prior to the hearing.
(a) No child shall be adopted without the consent of the child's parents and the child's guardian, if there be one, except in the following instances consent is not required of a parent:
(a) Consent shall not be required of a parent (1) who is not entitled to notice of the proceedings.;
(b) Consent shall not be required of a parent (2) who has abandoned the child, or of a parent who has lost custody of the child through a divorce decree or a decree of dissolution, and upon whom notice has been served as required by section 259.49.; or
(c) Consent shall not be required of a parent (3) whose parental rights to the child have been terminated by a juvenile court or who has lost custody of a child through a final commitment of the juvenile court or through a decree in a prior adoption proceeding.
(d) If there be no parent or guardian qualified to consent to the adoption, the consent shall be given by the commissioner. After the court accepts a parent's consent to the adoption under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, consent by the commissioner or commissioner's delegate is also necessary. Agreement to the identified prospective adoptive parent by the responsible social services agency under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, does not constitute the required consent.
(e) (b) If there is no parent or guardian qualified to consent to the adoption, the commissioner or agency having authority to place a child for adoption pursuant to section 259.25, subdivision 1, shall have the exclusive right to consent to the adoption of such the child. The commissioner or agency shall make every effort to place siblings together for adoption. Notwithstanding any rule to the contrary, the commissioner may delegate the right to consent to the adoption or separation of siblings, if it is in the child's best interest, to a local social services agency.
When the child to be adopted is over 14 years of age, the child's written consent to adoption by a particular person is also necessary. A child of any age who is under the guardianship of the commissioner and is legally available for adoption may not refuse or waive the commissioner's agent's exhaustive efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home required under section 260C.317, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), or sign a document relieving county social services agencies of all recruitment efforts on the child's behalf.
All consents to an adoption shall be in writing, executed before two competent witnesses, and acknowledged by the consenting party. In addition, all consents to an adoption, except those by the commissioner, the commissioner's agent, a licensed child-placing agency, an adult adoptee, or the child's parent in a petition for adoption by a stepparent, shall be executed before a representative of the commissioner, the commissioner's agent, or a licensed child-placing agency. All consents by a parent to adoption under this chapter:
(1) shall contain notice to the parent of the substance of subdivision 6a, providing for the right to withdraw consent unless the parent will not have the right to withdraw consent because consent was executed under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, following proper notice that consent given under that provision is irrevocable upon acceptance by the court as provided in subdivision 6a; and
(2) shall contain the following written notice in all capital letters at least one-eighth inch high:
"This The agency responsible for supervising the adoptive placement of the child will submit your consent to adoption to the court. If you are consenting to adoption by the child's stepparent, the consent will be submitted to the court by the petitioner in your child's adoption. The consent itself does not terminate your parental rights. Parental rights to a child may be terminated only by an adoption decree or by a court order terminating parental rights. Unless the child is adopted or your parental rights are terminated, you may be asked to support the child."
Consents shall be filed in the adoption proceedings at any time before the matter is heard provided, however, that a consent executed and acknowledged outside of this state, either in accordance with the law of this state or in accordance with the law of the place where executed, is valid.
Except for consents executed under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, A parent's consent to adoption under this chapter may be withdrawn for any reason within ten working days after the consent is executed and acknowledged. No later than the tenth working day after the consent is executed and acknowledged, written notification of withdrawal of consent must be received by: (1) the agency to which the child was surrendered no later than the tenth working day after the consent is executed and acknowledged; (2) the agency supervising the adoptive placement of the child; or (3) in the case of adoption by the step parent or any adoption not involving agency placement or supervision, by the district court where the adopting stepparent or parent resides. On the day following the tenth working day after execution and acknowledgment, the consent shall become irrevocable, except upon order of a court of competent jurisdiction after written findings that consent was obtained by fraud. A consent to adopt executed under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, is irrevocable upon proper notice to both parents of the effect of a consent to adopt and acceptance by the court, except upon order of the same court after written findings that the consent was obtained by fraud. In proceedings to determine the existence of fraud, the adoptive parents and the child shall be made parties. The proceedings shall be conducted to preserve the confidentiality of the adoption process. There shall be no presumption in the proceedings favoring the birth parents over the adoptive parents.
Consent to an adoption shall not be unreasonably withheld by a guardian, who is not a parent of the child, by the commissioner or by an agency.
The authorized child-placing agency shall consider placement, consistent with the child's best interests and in the following order, with (1) a relative or relatives of the child, or (2) an important friend with whom the child has resided or had significant contact. In implementing this section, an authorized child-placing agency may disclose private or confidential data, as defined in section 13.02, to relatives of the child for the purpose of locating a suitable adoptive home. The agency shall disclose only data that is necessary to facilitate implementing the preference.
If the child's birth parent or parents explicitly request that placement with relatives a specific relative or important friends friend not be considered, the authorized child-placing agency shall honor that request if it is consistent with the best interests of the child and consistent with the requirements of sections 260C.212, subdivision 2, and 260C.221.
If the child's birth parent or parents express a preference for placing the child in an adoptive home of the same or a similar religious background to that of the birth parent or parents, the agency shall place the child with a family that meets the birth parent's religious preference.
This subdivision does not affect the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923, and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act, sections 260.751 to 260.835.
(a) The policy of the state is to ensure that the best interests of children in foster or residential care are met by requiring individualized determinations under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), of the needs of the child and of how the selected placement will serve the needs of the child in foster care placements.
(b) The court shall review whether the responsible social services agency made efforts as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5 260C.221, and made an individualized determination as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 2. If the court finds the agency has not made efforts as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5 260C.221, and there is a relative who qualifies to be licensed to provide family foster care under chapter 245A, the court may order the child placed with the relative consistent with the child's best interests.
(c) If the child's birth parent or parents explicitly request that a relative or important friend not be considered, the court shall honor that request if it is consistent with the best interests of the child and consistent with the requirements of section 260C.221. If the child's birth parent or parents express a preference for placing the child in a foster or adoptive home of the same or a similar religious background to that of the birth parent or parents, the court shall order placement of the child with an individual who meets the birth parent's religious preference.
(d) Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on race, color, or national origin of the foster parent or the child.
(e) Whenever possible, siblings requiring foster care placement should be placed together unless it is determined not to be in the best interests of a sibling after weighing the benefits of separate placement against the benefits of sibling connections for each sibling. If siblings are not placed together according to section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), the responsible social services agency shall report to the court the efforts made to place the siblings together and why the efforts were not successful. If the court is not satisfied with the agency's efforts to place siblings together, the court may order the agency to make further efforts. If siblings are not placed together the court shall review the responsible social services agency's plan for visitation among siblings required as part of the out-of-home placement plan under section 260C.212.
(f) This subdivision does not affect the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923, and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act, sections 260.751 to 260.835.
(a) If the child was under eight years of age at the time the petition was filed alleging the child was in need of protection or services, and the When a child continues in placement out of the home of the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed, no later than six months after the child's placement the court shall conduct a permanency progress hearing to review:
(1) the progress of the case, the parent's progress on the case plan or out-of-home placement plan, and whichever is applicable;
(2) the agency's reasonable, or in the case of an Indian child, active efforts for reunification and its provision of services.;
(3) the agency's reasonable efforts to finalize the permanent plan for the child under section 260.012, paragraph (e), and to make a placement as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, in a home that will commit to being the legally permanent family for the child in the event the child cannot return home according to the timelines in this section; and
(4) in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to prevent the breakup of the Indian family and to make a placement according to the placement preferences under United States Code, title 25, chapter 21, section 1915.
(b) Based on its assessment of the parent's or guardian's progress on the out-of-home placement plan, the responsible social services agency must ask the county attorney to file a petition for termination of parental rights, a petition for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, or the report required under juvenile court rules.
(b) The court shall ensure that notice of the hearing is sent to any relative who:
(1) responded to the agency's notice provided under section 260C.221, indicating an interest in participating in planning for the child or being a permanency resource for the child and who has kept the court apprised of the relative's address; or
(2) asked to be notified of court proceedings regarding the child as is permitted in section 260C.152, subdivision 5.
(c)(1) If the parent or guardian has maintained contact with the child and is complying with the court-ordered out-of-home placement plan, and if the child would benefit from reunification with the parent, the court may either:
(i) return the child home, if the conditions which led to the out-of-home placement have been sufficiently mitigated that it is safe and in the child's best interests to return home; or
(ii) continue the matter up to a total of six additional months. If the child has not returned home by the end of the additional six months, the court must conduct a hearing according to subdivision 11.
(2) If the court determines that the parent or guardian is not complying with the out-of-home placement plan or is not maintaining regular contact with the child as outlined in the visitation plan required as part of the out-of-home placement plan under section 260C.212, the court may order the responsible social services agency:
(i) to develop a plan for legally permanent placement of the child away from the parent and;
(ii) to consider, identify, recruit, and support one or more permanency resources from the child's relatives and foster parent to be the legally permanent home in the event the child cannot be returned to the parent. Any relative or the child's foster parent may ask the court to order the agency to consider them for permanent placement of the child in the event the child cannot be returned to the parent. A relative or foster parent who wants to be considered under this item shall cooperate with the background study required under section 245C.08, if the individual has not already done so, and with the home study process required under chapter 245A for providing child foster care and for adoption under section 259.41. The home study referred to in this item shall be a single-home study in the form required by the commissioner of human services or similar study required by the individual's state of residence when the subject of the study is not a resident of Minnesota. The court may order the responsible social services agency to make a referral under the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children when necessary to obtain a home study for an individual who wants to be considered for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody or adoption of the child; and
(iii) to file a petition to support an order for the legally permanent placement plan.
(d) Following the review under paragraphs (b) and (c) this subdivision:
(1) if the court has either returned the child home or continued the matter up to a total of six additional months, the agency shall continue to provide services to support the child's return home or to make reasonable efforts to achieve reunification of the child and the parent as ordered by the court under an approved case plan;
(2) if the court orders the agency to develop a plan for the transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of the child to a relative, a petition supporting the plan shall be filed in juvenile court within 30 days of the hearing required under this subdivision and a trial on the petition held within 30 60 days of the filing of the pleadings; or
(3) if the court orders the agency to file a termination of parental rights, unless the county attorney can show cause why a termination of parental rights petition should not be filed, a petition for termination of parental rights shall be filed in juvenile court within 30 days of the hearing required under this subdivision and a trial on the petition held within 90 60 days of the filing of the petition.
(a) An out-of-home placement plan shall be prepared within 30 days after any child is placed in foster care by court order or a voluntary placement agreement between the responsible social services agency and the child's parent pursuant to subdivision 8 or chapter 260D.
(b) An out-of-home placement plan means a written document which is prepared by the responsible social services agency jointly with the parent or parents or guardian of the child and in consultation with the child's guardian ad litem, the child's tribe, if the child is an Indian child, the child's foster parent or representative of the residential foster care facility, and, where appropriate, the child. For a child in voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, preparation of the out-of-home placement plan shall additionally include the child's mental health treatment provider. As appropriate, the plan shall be:
(1) submitted to the court for approval under section 260C.178, subdivision 7;
(2) ordered by the court, either as presented or modified after hearing, under section 260C.178, subdivision 7, or 260C.201, subdivision 6; and
(3) signed by the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child's guardian ad litem, a representative of the child's tribe, the responsible social services agency, and, if possible, the child.
(c) The out-of-home placement plan shall be explained to all persons involved in its implementation, including the child who has signed the plan, and shall set forth:
(1) a description of the residential facility foster care home or facility selected including how the out-of-home placement plan is designed to achieve a safe placement for the child in the least restrictive, most family-like, setting available which is in close proximity to the home of the parent or parents or guardian of the child when the case plan goal is reunification, and how the placement is consistent with the best interests and special needs of the child according to the factors under subdivision 2, paragraph (b);
(2) the specific reasons for the placement of the child in a residential facility foster care, and when reunification is the plan, a description of the problems or conditions in the home of the parent or parents which necessitated removal of the child from home and the changes the parent or parents must make in order for the child to safely return home;
(3) a description of the services offered and provided to prevent removal of the child from the home and to reunify the family including:
(i) the specific actions to be taken by the parent or parents of the child to eliminate or correct the problems or conditions identified in clause (2), and the time period during which the actions are to be taken; and
(ii) the reasonable efforts, or in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to be made to achieve a safe and stable home for the child including social and other supportive services to be provided or offered to the parent or parents or guardian of the child, the child, and the residential facility during the period the child is in the residential facility;
(4) a description of any services or resources that were requested by the child or the child's parent, guardian, foster parent, or custodian since the date of the child's placement in the residential facility, and whether those services or resources were provided and if not, the basis for the denial of the services or resources;
(5) the visitation plan for the parent or parents or guardian, other relatives as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 27, and siblings of the child if the siblings are not placed together in foster care, and whether visitation is consistent with the best interest of the child, during the period the child is in foster care;
(6) documentation of steps to finalize the adoption or legal guardianship of the child if the court has issued an order terminating the rights of both parents of the child or of the only known, living parent of the child. At a minimum, the documentation must include child-specific recruitment efforts such as relative search and the use of state, regional, and national adoption exchanges to facilitate orderly and timely placements in and outside of the state. A copy of this documentation shall be provided to the court in the review required under section 260C.317, subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(7) efforts to ensure the child's educational stability while in foster care, including:
(i) efforts to ensure that the child in placement remains in the same school in which the child was enrolled prior to placement or upon the child's move from one placement to another, including efforts to work with the local education authorities to ensure the child's educational stability; or
(ii) if it is not in the child's best interest to remain in the same school that the child was enrolled in prior to placement or move from one placement to another, efforts to ensure immediate and appropriate enrollment for the child in a new school;
(8) the educational records of the child including the most recent information available regarding:
(i) the names and addresses of the child's educational providers;
(ii) the child's grade level performance;
(iii) the child's school record;
(iv) a statement about how the child's placement in foster care takes into account proximity to the school in which the child is enrolled at the time of placement; and
(v) any other relevant educational information;
(9) the efforts by the local agency to ensure the oversight and continuity of health care services for the foster child, including:
(i) the plan to schedule the child's initial health screens;
(ii) how the child's known medical problems and identified needs from the screens, including any known communicable diseases, as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision 2, will be monitored and treated while the child is in foster care;
(iii) how the child's medical information will be updated and shared, including the child's immunizations;
(iv) who is responsible to coordinate and respond to the child's health care needs, including the role of the parent, the agency, and the foster parent;
(v) who is responsible for oversight of the child's prescription medications;
(vi) how physicians or other appropriate medical and nonmedical professionals will be consulted and involved in assessing the health and well-being of the child and determine the appropriate medical treatment for the child; and
(vii) the responsibility to ensure that the child has access to medical care through either medical insurance or medical assistance;
(10) the health records of the child including information available regarding:
(i) the names and addresses of the child's health care and dental care providers;
(ii) a record of the child's immunizations;
(iii) the child's known medical problems, including any known communicable diseases as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision 2;
(iv) the child's medications; and
(v) any other relevant health care information such as the child's eligibility for medical insurance or medical assistance;
(11) an independent living plan for a child age 16 or older who is in placement as a result of a permanency disposition. The plan should include, but not be limited to, the following objectives:
(i) educational, vocational, or employment planning;
(ii) health care planning and medical coverage;
(iii) transportation including, where appropriate, assisting the child in obtaining a driver's license;
(iv) money management, including the responsibility of the agency to ensure that the youth annually receives, at no cost to the youth, a consumer report as defined under section 13C.001 and assistance in interpreting and resolving any inaccuracies in the report;
(v) planning for housing;
(vi) social and recreational skills; and
(vii) establishing and maintaining connections with the child's family and community; and
(12) for a child in voluntary foster care for treatment under chapter 260D, diagnostic and assessment information, specific services relating to meeting the mental health care needs of the child, and treatment outcomes.
(d) The parent or parents or guardian and the child each shall have the right to legal counsel in the preparation of the case plan and shall be informed of the right at the time of placement of the child. The child shall also have the right to a guardian ad litem. If unable to employ counsel from their own resources, the court shall appoint counsel upon the request of the parent or parents or the child or the child's legal guardian. The parent or parents may also receive assistance from any person or social services agency in preparation of the case plan.
After the plan has been agreed upon by the parties involved or approved or ordered by the court, the foster parents shall be fully informed of the provisions of the case plan and shall be provided a copy of the plan.
Upon discharge from foster care, the parent, adoptive parent, or permanent legal and physical custodian, as appropriate, and the child, if appropriate, must be provided with a current copy of the child's health and education record.
(a) The policy of the state of Minnesota is to ensure that the child's best interests are met by requiring an individualized determination of the needs of the child and of how the selected placement will serve the needs of the child being placed. The authorized child-placing agency shall place a child, released by court order or by voluntary release by the parent or parents, in a family foster home selected by considering placement with relatives and important friends in the following order:
(1) with an individual who is related to the child by blood, marriage, or adoption; or
(2) with an individual who is an important friend with whom the child has resided or had significant contact.
(b) Among the factors the agency shall consider in determining the needs of the child are the following:
(1) the child's current functioning and behaviors;
(2) the medical, needs of the child;
(3) the educational, and needs of the child;
(4) the developmental needs of the child;
(3) (5) the child's history and past experience;
(4) (6) the child's religious and cultural needs;
(5) (7) the child's connection with a community, school, and faith community;
(6) (8) the child's interests and talents;
(7) (9) the child's relationship to current caretakers, parents, siblings, and relatives; and
(8) (10) the reasonable preference of the child, if the court, or the child-placing agency in the case of a voluntary placement, deems the child to be of sufficient age to express preferences.
(c) Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on race, color, or national origin of the foster parent or the child.
(d) Siblings should be placed together for foster care and adoption at the earliest possible time unless it is documented that a joint placement would be contrary to the safety or well-being of any of the siblings or unless it is not possible after reasonable efforts by the responsible social services agency. In cases where siblings cannot be placed together, the agency is required to provide frequent visitation or other ongoing interaction between siblings unless the agency documents that the interaction would be contrary to the safety or well-being of any of the siblings.
(e) Except for emergency placement as provided for in section 245A.035, a completed background study is required under section 245C.08 before the approval of a foster placement in a related or unrelated home.
(a) The responsible social services agency shall exercise due diligence to identify and notify adult relatives prior to placement or within 30 days after the child's removal from the parent. The county agency shall consider placement with a relative under subdivision 2 section 260C.221 without delay. The relative search required by this section shall be reasonable and comprehensive in scope and may last up to six months or until a fit and willing relative is identified. The relative search required by this section shall include both maternal relatives of the child and paternal relatives of the child, if paternity is adjudicated. The relatives must be notified:
(1) of the need for a foster home for the child, the option to become a placement resource for the child, and the possibility of the need for a permanent placement for the child;
(2) of their responsibility to keep the responsible social services agency and the court informed of their current address in order to receive notice in the event that a permanent placement is sought for the child and to receive notice of the permanency progress review hearing under section 260C.204. A relative who fails to provide a current address to the responsible social services agency and the court forfeits the right to receive notice of the possibility of permanent placement and of the permanency progress review hearing under section 260C.204. A decision by a relative not to be a placement resource at the beginning of the case shall not affect whether the relative is considered for placement of the child with that relative later;
(3) that the relative may participate in the care and planning for the child, including that the opportunity for such participation may be lost by failing to respond to the notice sent under this subdivision; and
(4) of the family foster care licensing requirements, including how to complete an application and how to request a variance from licensing standards that do not present a safety or health risk to the child in the home under section 245A.04 and supports that are available for relatives and children who reside in a family foster home.
(b) A responsible social services agency may disclose private or confidential data, as defined in section 13.02, to relatives of the child for the purpose of locating a suitable placement. The agency shall disclose only data that is necessary to facilitate possible placement with relatives. If the child's parent refuses to give the responsible social services agency information sufficient to identify the maternal and paternal relatives of the child, the agency shall ask the juvenile court to order the parent to provide the necessary information. If a parent makes an explicit request that relatives or a specific relative not be contacted or considered for placement due to safety reasons including past family or domestic violence, the agency shall bring the parent's request to the attention of the court to determine whether the parent's request is consistent with the best interests of the child and the agency shall not contact relatives or a the specific relative unless authorized to do so by when the juvenile court finds that contacting the specific relative would endanger the parent, guardian, child, sibling, or any family member.
(c) When the placing agency determines that a permanent placement hearing is necessary because there is a likelihood that the child will not return to a parent's care, the agency may send the notice provided in paragraph (d), may ask the court to modify the requirements of the agency under this paragraph, or may ask the court to completely relieve the agency of the requirements of this paragraph (d). The relative notification requirements of this paragraph do not apply when the child is placed with an appropriate relative or a foster home that has committed to being the permanent legal placement for the child and the agency approves of that foster home for permanent placement of the child. The actions ordered by the court under this section must be consistent with the best interests, safety, and welfare of the child.
(d) Unless required under the Indian Child Welfare Act or relieved of this duty by the court under paragraph (c), when the agency determines that it is necessary to prepare for the permanent placement determination hearing, or in anticipation of filing a termination of parental rights petition, the agency shall send notice to the relatives, any adult with whom the child is currently residing, any adult with whom the child has resided for one year or longer in the past, and any adults who have maintained a relationship or exercised visitation with the child as identified in the agency case plan. The notice must state that a permanent home is sought for the child and that the individuals receiving the notice may indicate to the agency their interest in providing a permanent home. The notice must state that within 30 days of receipt of the notice an individual receiving the notice must indicate to the agency the individual's interest in providing a permanent home for the child or that the individual may lose the opportunity to be considered for a permanent placement.
(e) The Department of Human Services shall develop a best practices guide and specialized staff training to assist the responsible social services agency in performing and complying with the relative search requirements under this subdivision.
(a) There shall be an administrative review of the out-of-home placement plan of each child placed in foster care no later than 180 days after the initial placement of the child in foster care and at least every six months thereafter if the child is not returned to the home of the parent or parents within that time. The out-of-home placement plan must be monitored and updated at each administrative review. The administrative review shall be conducted by the responsible social services agency using a panel of appropriate persons at least one of whom is not responsible for the case management of, or the delivery of services to, either the child or the parents who are the subject of the review. The administrative review shall be open to participation by the parent or guardian of the child and the child, as appropriate.
(b) As an alternative to the administrative review required in paragraph (a), the court may, as part of any hearing required under the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure, conduct a hearing to monitor and update the out-of-home placement plan pursuant to the procedure and standard in section 260C.201, subdivision 6, paragraph (d). The party requesting review of the out-of-home placement plan shall give parties to the proceeding notice of the request to review and update the out-of-home placement plan. A court review conducted pursuant to section 260C.193; 260C.201, subdivision 1 or 11; 260C.141, subdivision 2; 260C.317; or 260D.06 shall satisfy the requirement for the review so long as the other requirements of this section are met.
(c) As appropriate to the stage of the proceedings and relevant court orders, the responsible social services agency or the court shall review:
(1) the safety, permanency needs, and well-being of the child;
(2) the continuing necessity for and appropriateness of the placement;
(3) the extent of compliance with the out-of-home placement plan;
(4) the extent of progress which has been made toward alleviating or mitigating the causes necessitating placement in foster care;
(5) the projected date by which the child may be returned to and safely maintained in the home or placed permanently away from the care of the parent or parents or guardian; and
(6) the appropriateness of the services provided to the child.
(d) When a child is age 16 or older, in addition to any administrative review conducted by the agency, at the in-court review required under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, or 260C.317, subdivision 3, clause (3), the court shall review the independent living plan required under subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (11), and the provision of services to the child related to the well-being of the child as the child prepares to leave foster care. The review shall include the actual plans related to each item in the plan necessary to the child's future safety and well-being when the child is no longer in foster care.
(1) At the court review, the responsible social services agency shall establish that it has given the notice required under section 260C.456 or Minnesota Rules, part 9560.0660, regarding the right to continued access to services for certain children in foster care past age 18 and of the right to appeal a denial of social services under section 256.045. If the agency is unable to establish that the notice, including the right to appeal a denial of social services, has been given, the court shall require the agency to give it.
(2) Consistent with the requirements of the independent living plan, the court shall review progress toward or accomplishment of the following goals:
(i) the child has obtained a high school diploma or its equivalent;
(ii) the child has completed a driver's education course or has demonstrated the ability to use public transportation in the child's community;
(iii) the child is employed or enrolled in postsecondary education;
(iv) the child has applied for and obtained postsecondary education financial aid for which the child is eligible;
(v) the child has health care coverage and health care providers to meet the child's physical and mental health needs;
(vi) the child has applied for and obtained disability income assistance for which the child is eligible;
(vii) the child has obtained affordable housing with necessary supports, which does not include a homeless shelter;
(viii) the child has saved sufficient funds to pay for the first month's rent and a damage deposit;
(ix) the child has an alternative affordable housing plan, which does not include a homeless shelter, if the original housing plan is unworkable;
(x) the child, if male, has registered for the Selective Service; and
(xi) the child has a permanent connection to a caring adult.
(3) The court shall ensure that the responsible agency in conjunction with the placement provider assists the child in obtaining the following documents prior to the child's leaving foster care: a Social Security card; the child's birth certificate; a state identification card or driver's license, green card, or school visa; the child's school, medical, and dental records; a contact list of the child's medical, dental, and mental health providers; and contact information for the child's siblings, if the siblings are in foster care.
(e) When a child is age 17 or older, during the 90-day period immediately prior to the date the child is expected to be discharged from foster care, the responsible social services agency is required to provide the child with assistance and support in developing a transition plan that is personalized at the direction of the child. The transition plan must be as detailed as the child may elect and include specific options on housing, health insurance, education, local opportunities for mentors and continuing support services, and work force supports and employment services. The agency shall ensure that the youth receives, at no cost to the youth, a copy of the youth's consumer credit report as defined in section 13C.001 and assistance in interpreting and resolving any inaccuracies in the report. The county agency shall also provide the individual youth with appropriate contact information if the individual youth needs more information or needs help dealing with a crisis situation through age 21.
(a) A certified copy of the findings and the order terminating parental rights, and a summary of the court's information concerning the child shall be furnished by the court to the commissioner or the agency to which guardianship is transferred.
(b) The orders shall be on a document separate from the findings. The court shall furnish the individual to whom guardianship is transferred guardian a copy of the order terminating parental rights.
(b) (c) When the court orders guardianship pursuant to this section, the court shall retain jurisdiction in a case where adoption is the intended permanent placement disposition until the child's adoption is finalized, the child is 18 years of age, or, for children in foster care beyond age 18 pursuant to section 260C.451, until the individual becomes 21 years of age according to the provisions set forth in sections 260C.193, subdivision 6, and 260C.451. The guardian ad litem and counsel for the child shall continue on the case until an adoption decree is entered. An in-court appearance hearing must be held every 90 days following termination of parental rights for the court to review progress toward an adoptive placement and the specific recruitment efforts the agency has taken to find an adoptive family or other placement living arrangement for the child and to finalize the adoption or other permanency plan. Review of the progress toward adoption of a child under guardianship of the commissioner of human services shall be conducted according to section 260C.607.
(c) The responsible social services agency may make a determination of compelling reasons for a child to be in long-term foster care when the agency has made exhaustive efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home, and the child continues in foster care for at least 24 months after the court has issued the order terminating parental rights. A child of any age who is under the guardianship of the commissioner of the Department of Human Services and is legally available for adoption may not refuse or waive the commissioner's agent's exhaustive efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home required under paragraph (b) or sign a document relieving county social services agencies of all recruitment efforts on the child's behalf. Upon approving the agency's determination of compelling reasons, the court may order the child placed in long-term foster care. At least every 12 months thereafter as long as the child continues in out-of-home placement, the court shall conduct an in-court permanency review hearing to determine the future status of the child using the review requirements of section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (g).
(d) Upon terminating parental rights or upon a parent's consent to adoption under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, resulting in an order for guardianship to the commissioner of human services, the court shall retain jurisdiction:
(1) until the child is adopted;
(2) through the child's minority in a case where long-term; or
(3) as long as the child continues in or reenters foster care is the permanent disposition whether under paragraph (c) or section 260C.201, subdivision 11, or, for children in foster care age 18 or older under section 260C.451, until the individual becomes 21 years of age according to the provisions in sections 260C.193, subdivision 6, and 260C.451.
(a) Upon entry of an order terminating the parental rights of any person who is identified as a parent on the original birth record of the child as to whom the parental rights are terminated, the court shall cause written notice to be made to that person setting forth:
(1) the right of the person to file at any time with the state registrar of vital statistics a consent to disclosure, as defined in section 144.212, subdivision 11;
(2) the right of the person to file at any time with the state registrar of vital statistics an affidavit stating that the information on the original birth record shall not be disclosed as provided in section 144.2252; and
(3) the effect of a failure to file either a consent to disclosure, as defined in section 144.212, subdivision 11, or an affidavit stating that the information on the original birth record shall not be disclosed.
(b) A parent whose rights are terminated under this section shall retain the ability to enter into a contact or communication agreement under section 260C.619 if an agreement is determined by the court to be in the best interests of the child. The agreement shall be filed with the court at or prior to the time the child is adopted. An order for termination of parental rights shall not be conditioned on an agreement under section 260C.619.
(a) If When the court terminates parental rights of both parents or of the only known living legal parent, the court shall order the guardianship and the legal custody of the child transferred to:
(1) the commissioner of human services;
(2) a licensed child-placing agency; or
(3) an individual who is willing and capable of assuming the appropriate duties and responsibilities to the child.
(b) The court shall order transfer of guardianship and legal custody of a child to the commissioner of human services only when the responsible county social services agency had legal responsibility for planning for the permanent placement of the child and the child was in foster care under the legal responsibility of the responsible county social services agency at the time the court orders guardianship and legal custody transferred to the commissioner. The court shall not order guardianship to the commissioner under any other circumstances, except as provided in subdivision 3.
(a) If upon petition to the juvenile court for guardianship by a reputable person, including but not limited to an the responsible social services agency as agent of the commissioner of human services, and upon hearing in the manner provided in section 260C.163, the court finds that both parents or the only known legal parent are or is deceased and no appointment has been made or petition for appointment filed pursuant to sections 524.5-201 to 524.5-317, the court shall order the guardianship and legal custody of the child transferred to:
(1) the commissioner of human services; or
(2) a licensed child-placing agency; or
(3) (2) an individual who is willing and capable of assuming the appropriate duties and responsibilities to the child.
(b) The court shall order transfer of guardianship and legal custody of a child to the commissioner of human services only if there is no individual who is willing and capable of assuming the appropriate duties and responsibilities to the child.
(a) A guardian appointed under the provisions of this section has legal custody of a ward unless the court which appoints the guardian gives legal custody to some other person. If the court awards custody to a person other than the guardian, the guardian nonetheless has the right and responsibility of reasonable visitation, except as limited by court order. the child and the right to visit the child in foster care, the adoptive placement, or any other suitable setting at any time prior to finalization of the adoption of the child. When the child is under the guardianship of the commissioner, the responsible social services agency, as agent of the commissioner, has the right to visit the child.
(b) When the guardian is a licensed child-placing agency, the guardian may shall make all major decisions affecting the person of the ward child, including, but not limited to, giving consent, (when consent is legally required), to the marriage, enlistment in the armed forces, medical, surgical, or psychiatric treatment, or adoption of the ward child. When, pursuant to this section, the commissioner of human services is appointed guardian, the commissioner may delegate to the responsible social services agency of the county in which, after the appointment, the ward resides, the authority to act for the commissioner in decisions affecting the person of the ward, including but not limited to giving consent to the marriage, enlistment in the armed forces, medical, surgical, or psychiatric treatment of the ward.
(c) When the commissioner is appointed guardian, the duties of the commissioner of human services are established under sections 260C.601 to 260C.635.
(c) (d) A guardianship created under the provisions of this section shall not of itself include the guardianship of the estate of the ward child.
(e) The commissioner of human services, through the responsible social services agency, or a licensed child-placing agency who is a guardian or who has authority and responsibility for planning for the adoption of the child under section 259.25 or 259.47, has the duty to make reasonable efforts to finalize the adoption of the child.
(a) Upon its own motion or upon petition of an interested party, the juvenile court having jurisdiction of the child may, after notice to the parties and a hearing, remove the guardian appointed by the juvenile court and appoint a new guardian in accordance with the provisions of section 260C.325, subdivision 1., clause (a), (b), or (c). Upon a showing that the child is emancipated, the court may discharge the guardianship. Any child 14 years of age or older who is not adopted but who is placed in a satisfactory foster home, may, with the consent of the foster parents, join with the guardian appointed by the juvenile court in a petition to the court having jurisdiction of the child to discharge the existing guardian and appoint the foster parents as guardians of the child.
(b) The authority of a guardian appointed by the juvenile court terminates when the individual under guardianship is no longer a minor or when guardianship is otherwise discharged. becomes age 18. However, an individual who has been under the guardianship of the commissioner and who has not been adopted may continue in foster care or reenter foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 and the responsible social services agency has continuing legal responsibility for the placement of the individual.
(a) Sections 260C.601 to 260C.635 establish:
(1) the requirements for court review of children under the guardianship of the commissioner; and
(2) procedures for timely finalizing adoptions in the best interests of children under the guardianship of the commissioner.
(b) Adoption proceedings for children not under the guardianship of the commissioner are governed by chapter 259.
The responsible social services agency has the duty to act as the commissioner's agent in making reasonable efforts to finalize the adoption of all children under the guardianship of the commissioner pursuant to section 260C.325. In implementing these duties, the agency shall ensure that:
(1) the best interests of the child are met in the planning and granting of adoptions;
(2) a child under the guardianship of the commissioner is appropriately involved in planning for adoption;
(3) the diversity of Minnesota's population and diverse needs including culture, religion, and language of persons affected by adoption are recognized and respected; and
(4) the court has the timely information it needs to make a decision that is in the best interests of the child in reviewing the agency's planning for adoption and when ordering the adoption of the child.
Consistent with section 245C.33 and United States Code, title 42, section 671, a completed background study is required before the adoptive placement of the child in a related or an unrelated home.
For the purposes of sections 260C.601 to 260C.635, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given them.
"Adopting parent" means an adult who has signed an adoption placement agreement regarding the child and has the same meaning as preadoptive parent under section 259A.01, subdivision 23.
"Adoption placement agreement" means the written agreement between the responsible social services agency, the commissioner, and the adopting parent which reflects the intent of all the signatories to the agreement that the adopting parent establish a parent and child relationship by adoption with the child who is under the guardianship of the commissioner. The adoptive placement agreement must be in the commissioner's designated format.
"Adoptive parent" has the meaning given in section 259A.01, subdivision 3.
"Adoptive placement" means a placement made by the responsible social services agency upon a fully executed adoption placement agreement including the signatures of the adopting parent, the responsible social services agency, and the commissioner of human services according to section 260C.613, subdivision 1.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services or any employee of the Department of Human Services to whom the commissioner has delegated authority regarding children under the commissioner's guardianship.
"Guardianship" has the meaning given in section 259A.01, subdivision 17; 260C.325; or 260C.515, subdivision 3.
"Prospective adoptive parent" means an individual who may become an adopting parent regardless of whether the individual has an adoption study approving the individual for adoption, but who has not signed an adoption placement agreement.
(a) Reasonable efforts to finalize the adoption of a child under the guardianship of the commissioner shall be made by the responsible social services agency responsible for permanency planning for the child.
(b) Reasonable efforts to make a placement in a home according to the placement considerations under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, with a relative or foster parent who will commit to being the permanent resource for the child in the event the child cannot be reunified with a parent are required under section 260.012 and may be made concurrently with reasonable, or if the child is an Indian child, active efforts to reunify the child with the parent.
(c) Reasonable efforts under paragraph (b) must begin as soon as possible when the child is in foster care under this chapter, but not later than the hearing required under section 260C.204.
(d) Reasonable efforts to finalize the adoption of the child include:
(1) using age-appropriate engagement strategies to plan for adoption with the child;
(2) identifying an appropriate prospective adoptive parent for the child by updating the child's identified needs using the factors in section 260C.212, subdivision 2;
(3) making an adoptive placement that meets the child's needs by:
(i) completing or updating the relative search required under section 260C.221 and giving notice of the need for an adoptive home for the child to:
(A) relatives who have kept the agency or the court apprised of their whereabouts and who have indicated an interest in adopting the child; or
(B) relatives of the child who are located in an updated search;
(ii) an updated search is required whenever:
(A) there is no identified prospective adoptive placement for the child notwithstanding a finding by the court that the agency made diligent efforts under section 260C.221, in a hearing required under section 260C.202;
(B) the child is removed from the home of an adopting parent; or
(C) the court determines a relative search by the agency is in the best interests of the child;
(iii) engaging child's foster parent and the child's relatives identified as an adoptive resource during the search conducted under section 260C.221, to commit to being the prospective adoptive parent of the child; or
(iv) when there is no identified prospective adoptive parent:
(A) registering the child on the state adoption exchange as required in section 259.75 unless the agency documents to the court an exception to placing the child on the state adoption exchange reported to the commissioner;
(B) reviewing all families with approved adoption home studies associated with the responsible social services agency;
(C) presenting the child to adoption agencies and adoption personnel who may assist with finding an adoptive home for the child;
(D) using newspapers and other media to promote the particular child;
(E) using a private agency under grant contract with the commissioner to provide adoption services for intensive child-specific recruitment efforts; and
(F) making any other efforts or using any other resources reasonably calculated to identify a prospective adoption parent for the child;
(4) updating and completing the social and medical history required under sections 259.43 and 260C.609;
(5) making, and keeping updated, appropriate referrals required by section 260.851, the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children;
(6) giving notice regarding the responsibilities of an adoptive parent to any prospective adoptive parent as required under section 259.35;
(7) offering the adopting parent the opportunity to apply for or decline adoption assistance under chapter 259A;
(8) certifying the child for adoption assistance, assessing the amount of adoption assistance, and ascertaining the status of the commissioner's decision on the level of payment if the adopting parent has applied for adoption assistance;
(9) placing the child with siblings. If the child is not placed with siblings, the agency must document reasonable efforts to place the siblings together, as well as the reason for separation. The agency may not cease reasonable efforts to place siblings together for final adoption until the court finds further reasonable efforts would be futile or that placement together for purposes of adoption is not in the best interests of one of the siblings; and
(10) working with the adopting parent to file a petition to adopt the child and with the court administrator to obtain a timely hearing to finalize the adoption.
(a) The responsible social services agency shall make reasonable efforts to recruit, assess, and match an adoptive home for any child under the guardianship of the commissioner and reasonable efforts shall continue until an adoptive placement is made and adoption finalized or until the child is no longer under the guardianship of the commissioner.
(b) A child of any age who is under the guardianship of the commissioner and is legally available for adoption may not refuse or waive the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home required under this section. The agency has an ongoing responsibility to work with the child to explore the child's opportunities for adoption, and what adoption means for the child, and may not accept a child's refusal to consider adoption as an option.
(c) The court may not relieve or otherwise order the responsible social services agency to cease fulfilling the responsible social services agency's duty regarding reasonable efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home.
(a) The court shall conduct a review of the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts to finalize adoption for any child under the guardianship of the commissioner and of the progress of the case toward adoption at least every 90 days after the court issues an order that the commissioner is the guardian of the child.
(b) The review of progress toward adoption shall continue notwithstanding that an appeal is made of the order for guardianship.
(c) The agency's reasonable efforts to finalize the adoption must continue during the pendency of the appeal and all progress toward adoption shall continue except that the court may not finalize an adoption while the appeal is pending.
Notice of review hearings shall be given by the court to:
(1) the responsible social services agency;
(2) the child, if the child is age ten and older;
(3) the child's guardian ad litem;
(4) relatives of the child who have kept the court informed of their whereabouts as required in section 260C.221 and who have responded to the agency's notice under section 260C.221, indicating a willingness to provide an adoptive home for the child unless the relative has been previously ruled out by the court as a suitable foster parent or permanency resource for the child;
(5) the current foster or adopting parent of the child;
(6) any foster or adopting parents of siblings of the child; and
(7) the Indian child's tribe.
Any individual or entity listed in subdivision 2 may participate in the continuing reviews conducted under this section. No other individual or entity is required to be given notice or to participate in the reviews unless the court specifically orders that notice be given or participation in the reviews be required.
(a) The court shall review:
(1) the agency's reasonable efforts under section 260C.605 to finalize an adoption for the child as appropriate to the stage of the case; and
(2) the child's current out-of-home placement plan required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, to ensure the child is receiving all services and supports required to meet the child's needs as they relate to the child's:
(i) placement;
(ii) visitation and contact with siblings;
(iii) visitation and contact with relatives;
(iv) medical, mental, and dental health; and
(v) education.
(b) When the child is age 16 and older, and as long as the child continues in foster care, the court shall also review the agency's planning for the child's independent living after leaving foster care including how the agency is meeting the requirements of section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (11). The court shall use the review requirements of section 260C.203, in any review conducted under this paragraph.
(a) No petition for adoption shall be filed for a child under the guardianship of the commissioner unless the child sought to be adopted has been placed for adoption with the adopting parent by the responsible social services agency. The court may order the agency to make an adoptive placement using standards and procedures under subdivision 6.
(b) Any relative or the child's foster parent who believes the responsible agency has not reasonably considered their request to be considered for adoptive placement as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, and who wants to be considered for adoptive placement of the child shall bring their request for consideration to the attention of the court during a review required under this section. The child's guardian ad litem and the child may also bring a request for a relative or the child's foster parent to be considered for adoptive placement. After hearing from the agency, the court may order the agency to take appropriate action regarding the relative's or foster parent's request for consideration under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
(a) At any time after the district court orders the child under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services, but not later than 30 days after receiving notice required under section 260C.613, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), that the agency has made an adoptive placement, a relative or the child's foster parent may file a motion for an order for adoptive placement of a child who is under the guardianship of the commissioner if the relative or the child's foster parent:
(1) has an adoption home study under section 259.41 approving the relative or foster parent for adoption and has been a resident of Minnesota for at least six months before filing the motion; the court may waive the residency requirement for the moving party if there is a reasonable basis to do so; or
(2) is not a resident of Minnesota, but has an approved adoption home study by an agency licensed or approved to complete an adoption home study in the state of the individual's residence and the study is filed with the motion for adoptive placement.
(b) The motion shall be filed with the court conducting reviews of the child's progress toward adoption under this section. The motion and supporting documents must make a prima facie showing that the agency has been unreasonable in failing to make the requested adoptive placement. The motion must be served according to the requirements for motions under the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure and shall be made on all individuals and entities listed in subdivision 2.
(c) If the motion and supporting documents do not make a prima facie showing for the court to determine whether the agency has been unreasonable in failing to make the requested adoptive placement, the court shall dismiss the motion. If the court determines a prima facie basis is made, the court shall set the matter for evidentiary hearing.
(d) At the evidentiary hearing the responsible social services agency shall proceed first with evidence about the reason for not making the adoptive placement proposed by the moving party. The moving party then has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the agency has been unreasonable in failing to make the adoptive placement.
(e) At the conclusion of the evidentiary hearing, if the court finds that the agency has been unreasonable in failing to make the adoptive placement and that the relative or the child's foster parent is the most suitable adoptive home to meet the child's needs using the factors in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), the court may order the responsible social services agency to make an adoptive placement in the home of the relative or the child's foster parent.
(f) If, in order to ensure that a timely adoption may occur, the court orders the responsible social services agency to make an adoptive placement under this subdivision, the agency shall:
(1) make reasonable efforts to obtain a fully executed adoption placement agreement;
(2) work with the moving party regarding eligibility for adoption assistance as required under chapter 259A; and
(3) if the moving party is not a resident of Minnesota, timely refer the matter for approval of the adoptive placement through the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children.
(g) Denial or granting of a motion for an order for adoptive placement after an evidentiary hearing is an order which may be appealed by the responsible social services agency, the moving party, the child, when age ten or over, the child's guardian ad litem, and any individual who had a fully executed adoption placement agreement regarding the child at the time the motion was filed if the court's order has the effect of terminating the adoption placement agreement. An appeal shall be conducted according to the requirements of the Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure.
When the child's parent has consented to adoption under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, only the person identified by the parent and agreed to by the agency as the prospective adoptive parent qualifies for adoptive placement of the child until the responsible social services agency has reported to the court and the court has found in a hearing under this section that it is not possible to finalize an adoption by the identified prospective adoptive parent within 12 months of the execution of the consent to adopt under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, unless the responsible social services agency certifies that the failure to finalize is not due to either an action or a failure to act by the prospective adoptive parent.
(a) The court may review the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts to finalize an adoption more frequently than every 90 days whenever a more frequent review would assist in finalizing the adoption.
(b) In appropriate cases, the court may review the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts to finalize an adoption less frequently than every 90 days. The court shall not find it appropriate to review progress toward adoption less frequently than every 90 days except when:
(1) the court has approved the agency's reasonable efforts to recruit, identify, and place the child in an adoptive home on a continuing basis for at least 24 months after the court has issued the order for guardianship;
(2) the child is at least 16 years old; and
(3) the child's guardian ad litem agrees that review less frequently than every 90 days is in the child's best interests.
(c) In no event shall the court's review be less frequent than every six months.
(a) The responsible social services agency shall work with the birth family of the child, foster family, medical and treatment providers, and the child's school to ensure there is a detailed, thorough, and currently up-to-date social and medical history of the child as required under section 259.43 on the forms required by the commissioner.
(b) When the child continues in foster care, the agency's reasonable efforts to complete the history shall begin no later than the permanency progress review hearing required under section 260C.204 or six months after the child's placement in foster care.
(c) The agency shall thoroughly discuss the child's history with the adopting parent of the child and shall give a copy of the report of the child's social and medical history to the adopting parent. A copy of the child's social and medical history may also be given to the child as appropriate.
(d) The report shall not include information that identifies birth relatives. Redacted copies of all the child's relevant evaluations, assessments, and records must be attached to the social and medical history.
An adoption study under section 259.41 approving placement of the child in the home of the prospective adoptive parent shall be completed before placing any child under the guardianship of the commissioner in a home for adoption. If a prospective adoptive parent has previously held a foster care license or adoptive home study, any update necessary to the foster care license, or updated or new adoptive home study, if not completed by the licensing authority responsible for the previous license or home study, shall include collateral information from the previous licensing or approving agency, if available.
(a) The responsible social services agency has exclusive authority to make an adoptive placement of a child under the guardianship of the commissioner. The child shall be considered placed for adoption when the adopting parent, the agency, and the commissioner have fully executed an adoption placement agreement on the form prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) The responsible social services agency shall use an individualized determination of the child's current needs pursuant to section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), to determine the most suitable adopting parent for the child in the child's best interests.
(c) The responsible social services agency shall notify the court and parties entitled to notice under section 260C.607, subdivision 2, when there is a fully executed adoption placement agreement for the child.
(d) In the event an adoption placement agreement terminates, the responsible social services agency shall notify the court, the parties entitled to notice under section 260C.607, subdivision 2, and the commissioner that the agreement and the adoptive placement have terminated.
The responsible social services agency may disclose private data, as defined in section 13.02, to prospective adoptive parents for the purpose of identifying an adoptive parent willing and able to meet the child's needs as outlined in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
The responsible social services agency shall place siblings together for adoption according to section 260.012, paragraph (e), clause (4), unless:
(1) the court makes findings required under section 260C.617; and
(2) the court orders that the adoption or progress toward adoption of the child under the court's jurisdiction may proceed notwithstanding that the adoption will result in siblings being separated.
Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on the race, color, or national origin of the prospective parent or the child.
The responsible social services agency shall document, in the records required to be kept under section 259.79, the reasons for the adoptive placement decision regarding the child, including the individualized determination of the child's needs based on the factors in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and the assessment of how the selected adoptive placement meets the identified needs of the child. The responsible social services agency shall retain in the records required to be kept under section 259.79, copies of all out-of-home placement plans made since the child was ordered under guardianship of the commissioner and all court orders from reviews conducted pursuant to section 260C.607.
(a) The agency shall inform the adoptive parents that the adoptive parents of an adopted child under age 19 or an adopted person age 19 or older may maintain a current address on file with the agency and indicate a desire to be notified if the agency receives information of the death of a birth parent. The agency shall notify birth parents of the child's death and the cause of death, if known, provided that the birth parents desire notice and maintain current addresses on file with the agency. The agency shall inform birth parents entitled to notice under section 259.27, that they may designate individuals to notify the agency if a birth parent dies and that the agency receiving information of the birth parent's death will share the information with adoptive parents, if the adopted person is under age 19, or an adopted person age 19 or older who has indicated a desire to be notified of the death of a birth parent and who maintains a current address on file with the agency.
(b) Notice to a birth parent that a child has died or to the adoptive parents or an adopted person age 19 or older that a birth parent has died shall be provided by an employee of the agency through personal and confidential contact, but not by mail.
If a birth parent or the child is terminally ill, the responsible social services agency shall inform the adoptive parents and birth parents of a child who is adopted that the birth parents, the adoptive parents of an adopted person under age 19, or an adopted person age 19 or older may request to be notified of the terminal illness. The agency shall notify the other parties if a request is received under this subdivision and upon a party's request the agency shall share information regarding a terminal illness with the adoptive or birth parents or an adopted person age 19 or older.
The responsible social services agency shall respond to requests from adopted persons age 19 years and over, adoptive parents of a minor child, and birth parents for social and medical history and genetic health conditions of the adopted person's birth family and genetic sibling information according to section 259.83.
(a) For any child who is under the guardianship of the commissioner, the commissioner has the exclusive rights to consent to:
(1) the medical care plan for the treatment of a child who is at imminent risk of death or who has a chronic disease that, in a physician's judgment, will result in the child's death in the near future including a physician's order not to resuscitate or intubate the child; and
(2) the child donating a part of the child's body to another person while the child is living; the decision to donate a body part under this clause shall take into consideration the child's wishes and the child's culture.
(b) In addition to the exclusive rights under paragraph (a), the commissioner has a duty to:
(1) process any complete and accurate request for home study and placement through the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children under section 260.851;
(2) process any complete and accurate application for adoption assistance forwarded by the responsible social services agency according to chapter 259A;
(3) complete the execution of an adoption placement agreement forwarded to the commissioner by the responsible social services agency and return it to the agency in a timely fashion; and
(4) maintain records as required in chapter 259.
All duties, obligations, and consents not specifically reserved to the commissioner in this section are delegated to the responsible social services agency.
(a) The responsible social services agency shall make every effort to place siblings together for adoption.
(b) The court shall review any proposal by the responsible social services agency to separate siblings for purposes of adoption.
(c) If there is venue in more than one county for matters regarding siblings who are under the guardianship of the commissioner, the judges conducting reviews regarding the siblings shall communicate with each other about the siblings' needs and, where appropriate, shall conduct review hearings in a manner that ensures coordinated planning by agencies involved in decision making for the siblings.
(d) After notice to the individuals and entities listed in section 260C.627, the foster or prospective adoptive parent of the child, and any foster, adopting, or adoptive parents of the child's siblings, or relatives with permanent legal and physical custody of the child's sibling, and upon hearing, the court may determine that a child under the court's jurisdiction may be separated from the child's sibling for adoption when:
(1) the responsible social services agency has made reasonable efforts to place the siblings together, and after finding reasonable efforts have been made, the court finds further efforts would significantly delay the adoption of one or more of the siblings and are therefore not in the best interests of one or more of the siblings; or
(2) the court determines it is not in the best interests of one or more of the siblings to be placed together after reasonable efforts by the responsible social services agency to place the siblings together.
(a) An adopting parent and a relative or foster parent of the child may enter into an agreement regarding communication with or contact between the adopted child, adopting parent, and the relative or foster parent. An agreement may be entered between:
(1) an adopting parent and a birth parent;
(2) an adopting parent and any relative or foster parent with whom the child resided before being adopted; and
(3) an adopting parent and the parent or legal custodian of a sibling of the child, if the sibling is a minor, or any adult sibling of the child.
(b) An agreement regarding communication with or contact between the child, adoptive parents, and a relative or foster parent, is enforceable when the terms of the agreement are contained in a written court order. The order must be issued before or at the time of the granting of the decree of adoption. The order granting the communication, contact, or visitation shall be filed in the adoption file.
(c) The court shall mail a certified copy of the order to the parties to the agreement or their representatives at the addresses provided by the parties to the agreement. Service shall be completed in a manner that maintains the confidentiality of confidential information.
(d) The court shall not enter a proposed order unless the terms of the order have been approved in writing by the prospective adoptive parents, the birth relative, the foster parent, or the birth parent or legal custodian of the child's sibling who desires to be a party to the agreement, and the responsible social services agency.
(e) An agreement under this section need not disclose the identity of the parties to be legally enforceable and when the identity of the parties to the agreement is not disclosed, data about the identities in the adoption file shall remain confidential.
(f) The court shall not enter a proposed order unless the court finds that the communication or contact between the minor adoptee, the adoptive parents, and the relative, foster parents, or siblings as agreed upon and contained in the proposed order, would be in the child's best interests.
(g) Failure to comply with the terms of an order regarding communication or contact that has been entered by the court under this section is not grounds for:
(1) setting aside an adoption decree; or
(2) revocation of a written consent to an adoption after that consent has become irrevocable.
(h) An order regarding communication or contact entered under this section may be enforced by filing a motion in the existing adoption file with the court that entered the contact agreement. Any party to the communication or contact order or the child who is the subject of the order has standing to file the motion to enforce the order. The prevailing party may be awarded reasonable attorney fees and costs.
(i) The court shall not modify an order under this section unless it finds that the modification is necessary to serve the best interests of the child, and:
(1) the modification is agreed to by the parties to the agreement; or
(2) exceptional circumstances have arisen since the order was entered that justified modification of the order.
(a) The juvenile court has original jurisdiction for all adoption proceedings involving the adoption of a child under the guardianship of the commissioner, including when the commissioner approves the placement of the child through the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children under section 260.851 for adoption outside the state of Minnesota and an adoption petition is filed in Minnesota.
(b) The receiving state also has jurisdiction to conduct an adoption proceeding for a child under the guardianship of the commissioner when the adopting home was approved by the receiving state through the interstate compact.
(a) Venue for the adoption of a child committed to the guardianship of the commissioner of human services shall be the court conducting reviews in the matter according to section 260C.607.
(b) Upon request of the responsible social services agency, the court conducting reviews under section 260C.607 may order that filing an adoption petition involving a child under the guardianship of the commissioner be permitted in the county where the adopting parent resides upon determining that:
(1) there is no motion for an order for adoptive placement of the child that has been filed or is reasonably anticipated by the responsible social services agency to be filed; and
(2) filing the petition in the adopting parent's county of residence will expedite the proceedings and serve the best interests of the child.
(c) When the court issues an order under paragraph (b), a copy of the court order shall be filed together with the adoption petition in the court of the adopting parent's county of residence.
(d) The court shall notify the court conducting reviews under section 260C.607 when the adoption is finalized so that the court conducting reviews under section 260C.607 may close its jurisdiction and the court record, including the court's electronic case record, in the county conducting the reviews, shall reflect that adoption of the child was finalized.
(a) The responsible social services agency may petition for the adopting parent to adopt a child who is under the guardianship of the commissioner. The petition shall contain or have attached a statement certified by the adopting parent that the adopting parent desires that the relationship of parent and child be established between the adopting parent and the child and that adoption is in the best interests of the child.
(b) The adopting parent may petition the court for adoption of the child.
(c) An adopting parent must be at least 21 years of age at the time the adoption petition is filed unless the adopting parent is an individual related to the child, as defined by section 245A.02, subdivision 13.
(d) The petition may be filed in Minnesota by an adopting parent who resides within or outside the state.
(a) An adoption petition shall be filed not later than nine months after the date of the fully executed adoption placement agreement unless the court finds that:
(1) the time for filing a petition be extended because of the child's special needs as defined under title IV-E of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 672; or
(2) based on a written plan for completing filing of the petition, including a specific timeline, to which the adopting parent has agreed, the time for filing a petition be extended long enough to complete the plan because an extension is in the best interests of the child and additional time is needed for the child to adjust to the adoptive home.
(b) If an adoption petition is not filed within nine months of the execution of the adoption placement agreement as required under section 260C.613, subdivision 1, and after giving the adopting parent written notice of its request together with the date and time of the hearing set to consider its report, the responsible social services agency shall file a report requesting an order for one of the following:
(1) that the time for filing a petition be extended because of the child's special needs as defined under title IV-E of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 673;
(2) that, based on a written plan for completing filing of the petition, including a specific timeline, to which the adopting parent has agreed, the time for filing a petition can be extended long enough to complete the plan because an extension is in the best interests of the child and additional time is needed for the child to adjust to the adoptive home; or
(3) that the child can be removed from the adopting home.
(c) At the conclusion of the review, the court shall issue findings, appropriate orders for the parties to take action or steps required to advance the case toward a finalized adoption, and set the date and time for the next review hearing.
(a) The petition shall be captioned in the legal name of the child as that name is reflected on the child's birth record prior to adoption and shall be entitled "Petition to Adopt Child under the Guardianship of the Commissioner of Human Services." The actual name of the child shall be supplied to the court by the responsible social services agency if unknown to the individual with whom the agency has made the adoptive placement.
(b) The adoption petition shall be verified as required in section 260C.141, subdivision 4, and, if filed by the responsible social services agency, signed and approved by the county attorney.
(c) The petition shall state:
(1) the full name, age, and place of residence of the adopting parent;
(2) if the adopting parents are married, the date and place of marriage;
(3) the date the adopting parent acquired physical custody of the child;
(4) the date of the adoptive placement by the responsible social services agency;
(5) the date of the birth of the child, if known, and the county, state, and country where born;
(6) the name to be given the child, if a change of name is desired;
(7) the description and value of any real or personal property owned by the child;
(8) the relationship of the adopting parent to the child prior to adoptive placement, if any;
(9) whether the Indian Child Welfare Act does or does not apply; and
(10) the name and address of:
(i) the child's guardian ad litem;
(ii) the adoptee, if age ten or older;
(iii) the child's Indian tribe, if the child is an Indian child; and
(iv) the responsible social services agency.
(d) A petition may ask for the adoption of two or more children.
(e) If a petition is for adoption by a married person, both spouses must sign the petition indicating willingness to adopt the child and the petition must ask for adoption by both spouses unless the court approves adoption by only one spouse when spouses do not reside together or for other good cause shown.
(f) If the petition is for adoption by a person residing outside the state, the adoptive placement must have been approved by the state where the person is a resident through the Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children, sections 260.851 to 260.92.
The following must be filed with the petition:
(1) the adoption study report required under section 259.41;
(2) the social and medical history required under sections 259.43 and 260C.609; and
(3) a document prepared by the petitioner that establishes who must be given notice under section 260C.627, subdivision 1, that includes the names and mailing addresses of those to be served by the court administrator.
(a) The following shall be filed by the responsible social services agency prior to finalization of the adoption:
(1) a certified copy of the child's birth record;
(2) a certified copy of the findings and order terminating parental rights or order accepting the parent's consent to adoption under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, and for guardianship to the commissioner;
(3) a copy of any communication or contact agreement under section 260C.619;
(4) certification that the Minnesota Fathers' Adoption Registry has been searched which requirement may be met according to the requirements of the Minnesota Rules of Adoption Procedure, Rule 32.01, subdivision 2;
(5) the original of each consent to adoption required, if any, unless the original was filed in the permanency proceeding conducted under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, and the order filed under clause (2) has a copy of the consent attached; and
(6) the postplacement assessment report required under section 259.53, subdivision 2.
(b) The responsible social services agency shall provide any known aliases of the child to the court.
(a) Notice of the adoption proceedings shall not be given to any parent whose rights have been terminated or who has consented to the adoption of the child under this chapter.
(b) Notice of the adoption proceedings shall be given to the following:
(1) the child's tribe if the child is an Indian child;
(2) the responsible social services agency;
(3) the child's guardian ad litem;
(4) the child, if the child is age ten or over;
(5) the child's attorney; and
(6) the adopting parent.
(c) Notice of a hearing regarding the adoption petition shall have a copy of the petition attached unless service of the petition has already been accomplished.
Notice of adoption proceedings for a child under the guardianship of the commissioner may be served by United States mail or any other method approved by the Minnesota Rules of Adoption Procedure.
(a) A parent whose rights to the child have not been terminated must consent to the adoption of the child. A parent may consent to the adoption of the child under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, and that consent shall be irrevocable upon acceptance by the court except as otherwise provided in section 260C.515, subdivision 3, clause (2)(i). A parent of an Indian child may consent to the adoption of the child according to United States Code, title 25, section 1913, and that consent may be withdrawn for any reason at any time before the entry of a final decree of adoption.
(b) When the child to be adopted is age 14 years or older, the child's written consent to adoption by the adopting parent is required.
(c) Consent by the responsible social services agency or the commissioner is not required because the adoptive placement has been made by the responsible social services agency.
In order to issue a decree for adoption and enter judgment accordingly, the court must have the following documents in the record:
(1) original birth record of the child;
(2) adoption study report including a background study required under section 259.41;
(3) a certified copy of the findings and order terminating parental rights or order accepting the parent's consent to adoption under section 260C.515, subdivision 3, and for guardianship to the commissioner;
(4) any consents required under subdivision 1;
(5) child's social and medical history under section 260C.609;
(6) postplacement assessment report required under section 259.53, subdivision 2, unless waived by the court on the record at a hearing under section 260C.607; and
(7) report from the child's guardian ad litem.
(a) After taking testimony from the responsible social services agency, which may be by telephone or affidavit if the court has transferred venue of the matter to a county not conducting the posttermination of parental rights reviews under section 260C.607, and the adopting parent, if the court finds that it is in the best interests of the child that the petition be granted, a decree of adoption shall be issued ordering that the child to be adopted shall be the child of the adopting parent. In the decree, the court may change the name of the adopted child, if a name change is requested.
(b) After the decree is granted, the court administrator shall mail a copy of the decree to the commissioner of human services.
(a) If the court is not satisfied that the proposed adoption is in the best interests of the child to be adopted, the court shall deny the petition, and order the responsible social services agency to take appropriate action for the protection and safety of the child. If venue has been transferred under section 260C.621, subdivision 2, the court denying the petition shall notify the court originally conducting the guardianship reviews under section 260C.607.
(b) The court responsible for conducting reviews under section 260C.607 shall set a hearing within 30 days of receiving notice of denial of the petition.
(c) Any appeal of the denial of an adoption petition under this section shall be made according to the requirements of the Minnesota Rules of Adoption Procedure.
(a) Upon adoption, the adopted child becomes the legal child of the adopting parent and the adopting parent becomes the legal parent of the child with all the rights and duties between them of a birth parent and child.
(b) The child shall inherit from the adoptive parent and the adoptive parent's relatives the same as though the child were the birth child of the parent, and in case of the child's death intestate, the adoptive parent and the adoptive parent's relatives shall inherit the child's estate as if the child had been the adoptive parent's birth child.
(c) After a decree of adoption is entered, the birth parents or previous legal parents of the child shall be relieved of all parental responsibilities for the child except child support that has accrued to the date of the order for guardianship to the commissioner which continues to be due and owing. The child's birth or previous legal parent shall not exercise or have any rights over the adopted child or the adopted child's property, person, privacy, or reputation.
(d) The adopted child shall not owe the birth parents or the birth parent's relatives any legal duty nor shall the adopted child inherit from the birth parents or kindred unless otherwise provided for in a will of the birth parent or kindred.
(e) Upon adoption, the court shall complete a certificate of adoption form and mail the form to the Office of the State Registrar at the Minnesota Department of Health. Upon receiving the certificate of adoption, the state registrar shall register a replacement vital record in the new name of the adopted child as required under section 144.218.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1, the adoption of a child whose birth parent or parents are enrolled in an American Indian tribe shall not change the child's enrollment in that tribe.
This section does not prohibit birth parents, relatives, birth or legal siblings, and adoptive parents from entering a communication or contact agreement under section 260C.619.
An adopted person may ask the commissioner of health to disclose the information on the adopted person's original birth record according to section 259.89.
No action shall be maintained upon a judgment or decree of a court of the United States, or of any state or territory thereof, unless begun within ten years after the entry of such judgment or, in the case of a judgment for child support, including a judgment by operation of law, unless begun within 20 years after entry of the judgment.
The amendments to this section are effective retroactively from April 15, 2010, the date the language stricken in this section was finally enacted.
Except as provided in section 548.091, every judgment requiring the payment of money shall be entered by the court administrator when ordered by the court and will be docketed by the court administrator upon the filing of an affidavit as provided in subdivision 2. Upon a transcript of the docket being filed with the court administrator in any other county, the court administrator shall also docket it. From the time of docketing the judgment is a lien, in the amount unpaid, upon all real property in the county then or thereafter owned by the judgment debtor, but it is not a lien upon registered land unless it is also recorded pursuant to sections 508.63 and 508A.63. The judgment survives, and the lien continues, for ten years after its entry or, in the case of a judgment for child support, including a judgment by operation of law, for 20 years after its entry. Child support judgments may be renewed pursuant to section 548.091.
The amendments to this section are effective retroactively from April 15, 2010, the date the language stricken in this section was finally enacted.
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:
(a) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege substantial child endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
(b) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports involve substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed under chapter 245A or 245B; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and 124D.10; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(c) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, and in the case of sexual abuse includes a person who has a significant relationship to the child as defined in section 609.341, or a person in a position of authority as defined in section 609.341, who by act or omission commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:
(1) egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) sexual abuse as defined in paragraph (d);
(3) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;
(4) neglect as defined in paragraph (f), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(5) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;
(6) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;
(7) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;
(8) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;
(9) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;
(10) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;
(11) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377 or 609.378;
(12) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or
(13) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.301, subdivision 3, paragraph (a).
(d) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341, or by a person in a position of authority, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), or 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse.
(e) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.
(f) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:
(1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so;
(2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition, length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;
(4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and 260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision 5;
(5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, or caretaker, or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report if a lack of medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does not impose upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;
(6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the child at birth, or medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance;
(7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);
(8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or person responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety; or
(9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired emotional functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.
(g) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been authorized under section 121A.67 or 245.825.
Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not limited to, any of the following that are done in anger or without regard to the safety of the child:
(1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;
(2) striking a child with a closed fist;
(3) shaking a child under age three;
(4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18 months of age;
(5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;
(6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;
(7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;
(8) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;
(9) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or
(10) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's care that is a violation under section 121A.58.
(h) "Report" means any report received by the local welfare agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for assessing or investigating maltreatment pursuant to this section.
(i) "Facility" means:
(1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter 245B;
(2) a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and 124D.10; or
(3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(j) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.
(k) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.
(l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is not limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and parenting time expeditor services.
(m) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's culture.
(n) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in paragraph (e), clause (1), who has:
(1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14, or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, paragraph (b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
(4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), or a similar law of another jurisdiction.
A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the responsible social services agency receives birth match data under paragraph (o) from the Department of Human Services.
(o) Upon receiving data under section 144.225, subdivision 2b, contained in a birth record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to threatened injury under paragraph (n), the Department of Human Services shall send the data to the responsible social services agency. The data is known as "birth match" data. Unless the responsible social services agency has already begun an investigation or assessment of the report due to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of parentage and the parent's previous history with child protection, the agency shall accept the birth match data as a report under this section. The agency may use either a family assessment or investigation to determine whether the child is safe. All of the provisions of this section apply. If the child is determined to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (16), in order to deliver needed services. If the child is determined not to be safe, the agency and the county attorney shall take appropriate action as required under section 260C.301, subdivision 3.
(o) (p) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and safety.
(p) (q) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence or event which:
(1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and
(2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.
(q) (r) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:
(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;
(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;
(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;
(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or not; and
(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the incident.
This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of substantiated maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.
Within ten working days of the conclusion of a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child of the need for services to address child safety concerns or significant risk of subsequent child maltreatment. The local welfare agency and the family may also jointly agree that family support and family preservation services are needed. Within ten working days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall notify the parent or guardian of the child, the person determined to be maltreating the child, and if applicable, the director of the facility, of the determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. When the investigation involves a child foster care setting that is monitored by a private licensing agency under section 245A.16, the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall notify the private licensing agency of the determination and shall provide a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. The notice to the private licensing agency must include identifying private data, but not the identity of the reporter of maltreatment. The notice must also include a certification that the information collection procedures under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j), were followed and a notice of the right of a data subject to obtain access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained under this section. In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept under subdivision 11c. The investigating agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child who is the subject of the report, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a child, of their appeal or review rights under this section or section 256.022. The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a license application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C related to employment or services that are licensed by the Department of Human Services under chapter 245A, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A, the Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related to an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.
(a) Administrative reconsideration is not applicable in family assessments since no determination concerning maltreatment is made. For investigations, except as provided under paragraph (e), an individual or facility that the commissioner of human services, a local social service agency, or the commissioner of education determines has maltreated a child, an interested person acting on behalf of the child, regardless of the determination, who contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment, may request the investigating agency to reconsider its final determination regarding maltreatment. The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after receipt of notice of the final determination regarding maltreatment or, if the request is made by an interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by the parent or guardian of the child. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. Effective January 1, 2002, an individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the maltreatment determination and notice of disqualification. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.
(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section 256.045 may submit to the commissioner of human services or the commissioner of education a written request for a hearing under that section. Section 256.045 also governs hearings requested to contest a final determination of the commissioner of education. For reports involving maltreatment of a child in a facility, an interested person acting on behalf of the child may request a review by the Child Maltreatment Review Panel under section 256.022 if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request or if the interested person contests a reconsidered determination. The investigating agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The request must be submitted in writing to the review panel and a copy sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of receipt of notice of a denial of a request for reconsideration or of a reconsidered determination. The request must specifically identify the aspects of the agency determination with which the person is dissatisfied.
(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the investigating agency changes the final determination of maltreatment, that agency shall notify the parties specified in subdivisions 10b, 10d, and 10f.
(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f), if an individual or facility contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment by requesting a fair hearing under section 256.045, the commissioner of human services shall assure that the hearing is conducted and a decision is reached within 90 days of receipt of the request for a hearing. The time for action on the decision may be extended for as many days as the hearing is postponed or the record is held open for the benefit of either party.
(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and requested reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.
(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the contested case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing regarding the maltreatment determination and disqualification shall not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination as provided under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification as provided under section 245C.22, shall also not be conducted when:
(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;
(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the maltreatment determination or disqualification; and
(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.
Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.
If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the administrative law judge.
(g) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the child" means a parent or legal guardian; stepparent; grandparent; guardian ad litem; adult stepbrother, stepsister, or sibling; or adult aunt or uncle; unless the person has been determined to be the perpetrator of the maltreatment.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) or (d) and subdivisions 10b, 10d, 10g, and 11b, all records concerning individuals maintained by a local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report under this section, including any written reports filed under subdivision 7, shall be private data on individuals, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. All records concerning determinations of maltreatment by a facility are nonpublic data as maintained by the Department of Education, except insofar as copies of reports are required by subdivision 7 to be sent to the local police department or the county sheriff. Reports maintained by any police department or the county sheriff shall be private data on individuals except the reports shall be made available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners. Section 13.82, subdivisions 8, 9, and 14, apply to law enforcement data other than the reports. The local social services agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall make available to the investigating, petitioning, or prosecuting authority, including county medical examiners or county coroners or their professional delegates, any records which contain information relating to a specific incident of neglect or abuse which is under investigation, petition, or prosecution and information relating to any prior incidents of neglect or abuse involving any of the same persons. The records shall be collected and maintained in accordance with the provisions of chapter 13. In conducting investigations and assessments pursuant to this section, the notice required by section 13.04, subdivision 2, need not be provided to a minor under the age of ten who is the alleged victim of abuse or neglect. An individual subject of a record shall have access to the record in accordance with those sections, except that the name of the reporter shall be confidential while the report is under assessment or investigation except as otherwise permitted by this subdivision. Any person conducting an investigation or assessment under this section who intentionally discloses the identity of a reporter prior to the completion of the investigation or assessment is guilty of a misdemeanor. After the assessment or investigation is completed, the name of the reporter shall be confidential. The subject of the report may compel disclosure of the name of the reporter only with the consent of the reporter or upon a written finding by the court that the report was false and that there is evidence that the report was made in bad faith. This subdivision does not alter disclosure responsibilities or obligations under the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
(b) Upon request of the legislative auditor, data on individuals maintained under this section must be released to the legislative auditor in order for the auditor to fulfill the auditor's duties under section 3.971. The auditor shall maintain the data in accordance with chapter 13.
(c) The commissioner of education must be provided with all requested data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are in possession of a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (i), when the data is requested pursuant to an assessment or investigation of a maltreatment report of a student in a school. If the commissioner of education makes a determination of maltreatment involving an individual performing work within a school facility who is licensed by a board or other agency, the commissioner shall provide necessary and relevant information to the licensing entity to enable the entity to fulfill its statutory duties. Notwithstanding section 13.03, subdivision 4, data received by a licensing entity under this paragraph are governed by section 13.41 or other applicable law governing data of the receiving entity, except that this section applies to the classification of and access to data on the reporter of the maltreatment.
(d) The investigating agency shall exchange not public data with the Child Maltreatment Review Panel under section 256.022 if the data are pertinent and necessary for a review requested under section 256.022. Upon completion of the review, the not public data received by the review panel must be returned to the investigating agency.
Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 256.022, is repealed.
This article is effective August 2, 2012.
(a) For purposes of this section, a "safe place" means a hospital licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56, a health care provider who provides urgent care medical services, or an ambulance service licensed under chapter 144E dispatched in response to a 911 call from a mother or a person with the mother's permission to relinquish a newborn infant.
(b) A hospital licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56 safe place shall receive a newborn left with a hospital an employee on the hospital premises of the safe place during its hours of operation, provided that:
(1) the newborn was born within 72 hours seven days of being left at the hospital safe place, as determined within a reasonable degree of medical certainty; and
(2) the newborn is left in an unharmed condition.
(b) (c) The hospital safe place must not inquire as to the identity of the mother or the person leaving the newborn or call the police, provided the newborn is unharmed when presented to the hospital. The hospital safe place may ask the mother or the person leaving the newborn about the medical history of the mother or newborn but the mother or the person leaving the newborn is not required to provide any information. The hospital safe place may provide the mother or the person leaving the newborn with information about how to contact relevant social service agencies.
(d) A safe place that is a health care provider who provides urgent care medical services shall dial 911, advise the dispatcher that the call is being made from a safe place for newborns, and ask the dispatcher to send an ambulance or take other appropriate action to transport the newborn to a hospital. An ambulance with whom a newborn is left shall transport the newborn to a hospital for care. Hospitals must receive a newborn left with a safe place and make the report as required in subdivision 2.
Within 24 hours of receiving a newborn under this section, the hospital must inform the local welfare agency responsible social service agency that a newborn has been left at the hospital, but must not do so before in the presence of the mother or the person leaving the newborn leaves the hospital. The hospital must provide necessary care to the newborn pending assumption of legal responsibility by the responsible social services agency pursuant to section 260C.217, subdivision 4.
(a) A hospital safe place with responsibility for performing duties under this section, and any employee, doctor, ambulance personnel, or other medical professional working at the hospital safe place, are immune from any criminal liability that otherwise might result from their actions, if they are acting in good faith in receiving a newborn, and are immune from any civil liability that otherwise might result from merely receiving a newborn.
(b) A hospital safe place performing duties under this section, or an employee, doctor, ambulance personnel, or other medical professional working at the hospital safe place who is a mandated reporter under section 626.556, is immune from any criminal or civil liability that otherwise might result from the failure to make a report under that section if the person is acting in good faith in complying with this section.
A local responsible social service agency taking custody of with responsibility for a child after discharge from a hospital that received a child under section 145.902 pursuant to subdivision 4, is not required to attempt to reunify the child with the child's parents. Additionally, the agency is not required to search for relatives of the child as a placement or permanency option under section 260C.212, subdivision 5, or to implement other placement requirements that give a preference to relatives if the agency does not have information as to the identity of the child, the child's mother, or the child's father.
For purposes of this section, "safe place" has the meaning given in section 145.902.
For purposes of proceedings under this chapter and adoption proceedings, a newborn left at a hospital under safe place, pursuant to subdivision 3 and section 145.902, is considered an abandoned child under section 626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (3). The child is abandoned under sections 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (1), and 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (1).
A mother or any person, with the mother's permission, may bring a newborn infant to a safe place during its hours of operation and leave the infant in the care of an employee of the safe place. The mother or a person with the mother's permission may call 911 to request to have an ambulance dispatched to an agreed-upon location to relinquish a newborn infant into the custody of ambulance personnel.
The agency contacted by a safe place pursuant to section 145.902, subdivision 2, shall have legal responsibility for the placement of the newborn infant in foster care for 72 hours during which time the agency shall file a petition under section 260C.141 and ask the court to order continued placement of the child in foster care. The agency shall immediately begin planning for adoptive placement of the newborn.
A person may leave a newborn with a hospital an employee at a hospital safe place, as defined in section 145.902, in this state, pursuant to section 260C.217, subdivision 3, without being subjected to prosecution for that act, provided that:
(1) the newborn was born within 72 hours seven days of being left at the hospital safe place, as determined within a reasonable degree of medical certainty;
(2) the newborn is left in an unharmed condition; and
(3) in cases where the person leaving the newborn is not the newborn's mother, the person has the mother's approval to do so.
For the purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given them except as otherwise indicated by the context.
"Adoption assistance" means medical coverage and reimbursement of nonrecurring adoption expenses, and may also include financial support and reimbursement for specific nonmedical expenses provided under agreement with the parent of an adoptive child who would otherwise remain in foster care and whose special needs would otherwise make it difficult to place the child for adoption. Financial support may include a basic maintenance payment and a supplemental needs payment.
"Adoptive parent" means the adult who has been made the legal parent of a child through a court-ordered adoption decree or a customary adoption through tribal court.
"AFDC" means the aid to families with dependent children program under sections 256.741, 256.82, and 256.87.
"Assessment" means the process by which the child-placing agency determines the benefits an eligible child may receive under this chapter.
"At-risk child" means a child who does not have a documented disability but who is at risk of developing a physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral disability based on being related within the first or second degree to persons who have an inheritable physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral disabling condition, or from a background that has the potential to cause the child to develop a physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral disability that the child is at risk of developing. The disability must manifest during childhood.
"Basic maintenance payment" means the maintenance payment made on behalf of a child to support the costs an adoptive parent incurs to meet a child's needs consistent with the care parents customarily provide, including: food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision, school supplies, and a child's personal incidentals. It also supports reasonable travel to participate in face-to-face visitation between child and birth relatives, including siblings.
"Child" means an individual under 18 years of age. For purposes of this chapter, child also includes individuals up to age 21 who have approved adoption assistance agreement extensions under section 259A.45, subdivision 1.
"Child-placing agency" means a business, organization, or department of government, including the responsible social services agency or a federally recognized Minnesota tribe, designated or authorized by law to place children for adoption and assigned legal responsibility for placement, care, and supervision of the child through a court order, voluntary placement agreement, or voluntary relinquishment.
"Child under guardianship of the commissioner of human services" means a child the court has ordered under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services pursuant to section 260C.325.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services or any employee of the Department of Human Services to whom the commissioner has delegated authority regarding children under the commissioner's guardianship.
"Consent of parent to adoption under chapter 260C" means the consent executed pursuant to section 260C.515, subdivision 3.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Human Services.
"Disability" means a physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities. Major life activities include, but are not limited to: thinking, walking, hearing, breathing, working, seeing, speaking, communicating, learning, developing and maintaining healthy relationships, safely caring for oneself, and performing manual tasks. The nature, duration, and severity of the impairment shall be used in determining if the limitation is substantial.
"Foster care" has the meaning given in section 260C.007, subdivision 18.
"Guardian" means an adult who is appointed pursuant to section 260C.325. For a child under guardianship of the commissioner, the child's guardian is the commissioner of human services.
"Guardianship" means the court-ordered rights and responsibilities of the guardian of a child and includes legal custody of the child.
"Indian child" has the meaning given in section 260.755, subdivision 8.
"Legal custodian" means a person to whom permanent legal and physical custody of a child has been transferred under chapter 260C, or for children under tribal court jurisdiction, a similar provision under tribal code which means that the individual responsible for the child has responsibility for the protection, education, care, and control of the child and decision making on behalf of the child.
"Medical assistance" means Minnesota's implementation of the federal Medicaid program.
"Parent" has the meaning given in section 257.52. Parent does not mean a putative father of a child unless the putative father also meets the requirements of section 257.55 or unless the putative father is entitled to notice under section 259.49, subdivision 1. For matters governed by the Indian Child Welfare Act, parent includes any Indian person who has adopted a child by tribal law or custom, as provided in section 260.755, subdivision 14, and does not include the unwed father where paternity has not been acknowledged or established.
"Permanent legal and physical custody" means permanent legal and physical custody ordered by a Minnesota court under section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or for children under tribal court jurisdiction, a similar provision under tribal code which means that the individual with permanent legal and physical custody of the child has responsibility for the protection, education, care, and control of the child and decision making on behalf of the child.
"Preadoptive parent" means an adult who is caring for a child in an adoptive placement, but where the court has not yet ordered a final decree of adoption making the adult the legal parent of the child.
"Reassessment" means an update of a previous assessment through the process under this chapter completed for a child who has been continuously eligible for this benefit.
"Relative" means a person related to the child by blood, marriage, or adoption, or an individual who is an important friend with whom the child has resided or had significant contact. For an Indian child, relative includes members of the extended family as defined by law or custom of the Indian child's tribe, or, in the absence of law or custom, shall be a person who has reached the age of 18 and who is the Indian child's grandparent, aunt or uncle, brother or sister, brother-in-law or sister-in-law, niece or nephew, first or second cousin, or stepparent, as provided in the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1903.
"Relative search" means the search that is required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5.
"Sibling" has the meaning given in section 260C.007, subdivision 32.
"Social and medical history" means the document, on a form or forms prescribed by the commissioner, that contains a child's genetic, medical, and family background as well as the history and current status of a child's physical and mental health, behavior, demeanor, foster care placements, education, and family relationships and has the same meaning as the history required under sections 259.43 and 260C.609.
"Supplemental needs payment" means the payment which is negotiated with the adoptive parent for a child who has a documented physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral disability. The payment is made based on the requirements associated with parenting duties to nurture the child, preserve the child's connections, and support the child's functioning in the home.
"Termination of parental rights" means a court order that severs all rights, powers, privileges, immunities, duties, and obligations, including any rights to custody, control, visitation, or support, existing between a parent and child. For an Indian child who is a ward of tribal court, termination of parental rights means any action resulting in the termination or suspension of the parent-child relationship when the tribe has made a judicial determination that the child cannot or should not be returned to the home of the child's parent or parents.
The title IV-E Adoption Assistance Program shall operate according to the requirements of United States Code, title 42, sections 671 and 673, and Code of Federal Regulations, parts 1355 and 1356.
(a) AFDC relatedness is one eligibility component of title IV-E adoption assistance. The AFDC relatedness determination shall be made by an agency according to policies and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) Subject to commissioner approval, the child-placing agency shall certify a child's eligibility for adoption assistance in writing on the forms prescribed by the commissioner according to section 259A.15.
(c) Children who meet all eligibility criteria except those specific to title IV-E, shall receive adoption assistance paid through state funds.
(d) The child-placing agency is responsible for assisting the commissioner with the administration of the adoption assistance program by conducting assessments, reassessments, negotiations, and other activities as specified by the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(e) The child-placing agency shall notify an adoptive parent of a child's eligibility for Medicaid in the state of residence. In Minnesota, the child-placing agency shall refer the adoptive parent to the appropriate social service agency in the parent's county of residence that administers medical assistance. The child-placing agency shall inform the adoptive parent of the requirement to comply with the rules of the applicable Medicaid program.
The commissioner shall specify procedures, requirements, and deadlines for the administration of adoption assistance in accordance with this section.
(a) Parents who adopt children with special needs must be informed of the adoption tax credit.
(b) The commissioner shall actively seek ways to promote the adoption assistance program, including informing prospective adoptive parents of eligible children under guardianship of the commissioner and the availability of adoption assistance.
(a) To be eligible for adoption assistance, a child must:
(1) be determined to be a child with special needs, according to subdivision 2;
(2) meet the applicable citizenship and immigration requirements in subdivision 3; and
(3)(i) meet the criteria outlined in section 473 of the Social Security Act; or
(ii) have had foster care payments paid on the child's behalf while in out-of-home placement through the county or tribal social service agency and be a child under the guardianship of the commissioner or a ward of tribal court.
(b) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a), the child's adoptive parents must meet the applicable background study requirements outlined in subdivision 4.
(a) A child is considered a child with special needs under this section if all of the requirements in paragraphs (b) to (g) are met.
(b) There has been a determination that the child cannot or should not be returned to the home of the child's parents as evidenced by:
(1) court-ordered termination of parental rights;
(2) petition to terminate parental rights;
(3) consent of parent to adoption accepted by the court under chapter 260C;
(4) in circumstances where tribal law permits the child to be adopted without a termination of parental rights, a judicial determination by tribal court indicating the valid reason why the child cannot or should not return home;
(5) voluntary relinquishment under section 259.25 or 259.47 or, if relinquishment occurred in another state, the applicable laws in that state; or
(6) death of the legal parent, or parents if the child has two legal parents.
(c) There exists a specific factor or condition because of which it is reasonable to conclude that the child cannot be placed with adoptive parents without providing adoption assistance as evidenced by:
(1) determination by the Social Security Administration that the child meets all medical or disability requirements of title XVI of the Social Security Act with respect to eligibility for Supplemental Security Income benefits;
(2) documented physical, mental, emotional, or behavioral disability not covered under clause (1);
(3) a member in a sibling group being adopted at the same time by the same parent;
(4) adoptive placement in the home of a parent who previously adopted a sibling for whom they receive adoption assistance; or
(5) documentation that the child is an at-risk child.
(d) A reasonable but unsuccessful effort was made to place the child with adoptive parents without providing adoption assistance as evidenced by:
(1) a documented search for an appropriate adoptive placement; or
(2) determination by the commissioner that a search under clause (1) is not in the best interests of the child.
(e) The requirement for a documented search for an appropriate adoptive placement under paragraph (d), including the registration of the child with the State Adoption Exchange and other recruitment methods under paragraph (f), must be waived if:
(1) the child is being adopted by a relative and it is determined by the child-placing agency that adoption by the relative is in the best interests of the child;
(2) the child is being adopted by a foster parent with whom the child has developed significant emotional ties while in their care as a foster child and it is determined by the child-placing agency that adoption by the foster parent is in the best interests of the child; or
(3) the child is being adopted by a parent that previously adopted a sibling of the child, and it is determined by the child-placing agency that adoption by this parent is in the best interests of the child.
When the Indian Child Welfare Act applies, a waiver must not be granted unless the child-placing agency has complied with the placement preferences required by the Indian Child Welfare Act according to United States Code, title 25, section 1915(a).
(f) To meet the requirement of a documented search for an appropriate adoptive placement under paragraph (d), clause (1), the child-placing agency minimally must:
(1) conduct a relative search as required by section 260C.212, subdivision 5, and give consideration to placement with a relative as required by section 260C.212, subdivision 2;
(2) comply with the adoptive placement preferences required under the Indian Child Welfare Act when the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, section 1915(a), applies;
(3) locate prospective adoptive families by registering the child on the State Adoption Exchange, as required under section 259.75; and
(4) if registration with the State Adoption Exchange does not result in the identification of an appropriate adoptive placement, the agency must employ additional recruitment methods, as outlined in requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(g) Once the child-placing agency has determined that placement with an identified parent is in the child's best interest and has made full written disclosure about the child's social and medical history, the agency must ask the prospective adoptive parent if they are willing to adopt the child without adoption assistance. If the identified parent is either unwilling or unable to adopt the child without adoption assistance, the child-placing agency must provide documentation as prescribed by the commissioner to fulfill the requirement to make a reasonable effort to place the child without adoption assistance. If the identified parent desires to adopt the child without adoption assistance, the parent must provide a written statement to this effect to the child-placing agency and the statement must be maintained in the permanent adoption record of the child-placing agency. For children under guardianship of the commissioner, the child-placing agency shall submit a copy of this statement to the commissioner to be maintained in the permanent adoption record.
(a) A child must be a citizen of the United States or otherwise eligible for federal public benefits according to the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, as amended, in order to be eligible for the title IV-E Adoption Assistance Program.
(b) A child must be a citizen of the United States or meet the qualified alien requirements as defined in the Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996, as amended, in order to be eligible for state-funded adoption assistance.
(a) A background study under section 259.41 must be completed on each prospective adoptive parent. An adoptive parent is prohibited from receiving adoption assistance on behalf of an otherwise eligible child if the background study reveals:
(1) a felony conviction at any time for:
(i) child abuse or neglect;
(ii) spousal abuse;
(iii) a crime against children, including child pornography; or
(iv) a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault, or homicide, but not including other physical assault or battery; or
(2) a felony conviction within the past five years for:
(i) physical assault;
(ii) battery; or
(iii) a drug-related offense.
The state will determine eligibility for:
(1) a Minnesota child under the guardianship of the commissioner who would otherwise remain in foster care;
(2) a child who is not under the guardianship of the commissioner who meets title IV-E eligibility defined in section 473 of the Social Security Act and no state agency has legal responsibility for placement and care of the child;
(3) a Minnesota child under tribal jurisdiction who would otherwise remain in foster care; and
(4) an Indian child being placed in Minnesota who meets title IV-E eligibility defined in section 473 of the Social Security Act. The agency or entity assuming responsibility for the child is responsible for the nonfederal share of the adoption assistance payment.
The commissioner shall not enter into an adoption assistance agreement with:
(1) a child's biological parent or stepparent;
(2) a child's relative, according to section 260C.007, subdivision 27, with whom the child resided immediately prior to child welfare involvement unless:
(i) the child was in the custody of a Minnesota county or tribal agency pursuant to an order under chapter 260C or equivalent provisions of tribal code and the agency had placement and care responsibility for permanency planning for the child; and
(ii) the child is under guardianship of the commissioner of human services according to the requirements of section 260C.325, subdivision 1, paragraphs (a) and (b), or subdivision 3, paragraphs (a) and (b), or is a ward of a Minnesota tribal court after termination of parental rights, suspension of parental rights, or a finding by the tribal court that the child cannot safely return to the care of the parent;
(3) a child's legal custodian or guardian who is now adopting the child;
(4) an individual adopting a child who is the subject of a direct adoptive placement under section 259.47 or the equivalent in tribal code; or
(5) an individual who is adopting a child who is not a citizen or resident of the United States and was either adopted in another country or brought to this country for the purposes of adoption.
(a) The child-placing agency shall certify a child as eligible for adoption assistance according to requirements and procedures, and on forms prescribed by the commissioner. Documentation from a qualified expert must be provided to verify that a child meets the special needs criteria in section 259A.10, subdivision 2.
(b) Expert documentation of a disability is limited to evidence deemed appropriate by the commissioner and must be submitted with the certification. Examples of appropriate documentation include, but are not limited to, medical records, psychological assessments, educational or early childhood evaluations, court findings, and social and medical history.
(c) Documentation that the child is an at-risk child must be submitted according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(a) An adoption assistance agreement is a binding contract between the adopting parent, the child-placing agency, and the commissioner. The agreement outlines the benefits to be provided on behalf of an eligible child.
(b) In order to receive adoption assistance benefits, a written agreement on a form prescribed by the commissioner must be signed by the parent, an approved representative from the child-placing agency, and the commissioner prior to the effective date of the adoption decree. No later than 30 days after the parent is approved for the adoptive placement, the agreement must be negotiated with the parent as required in section 259A.25, subdivision 1. Adoption assistance must be approved or denied by the commissioner no later than 15 business days after the receipt of a complete adoption assistance application prescribed by the commissioner. A fully executed copy of the signed agreement must be given to each party. Termination or disruption of the adoptive placement preceding adoption finalization makes the agreement with that parent void.
(c) The agreement must specify the following:
(1) duration of the agreement;
(2) the nature and amount of any payment, services, and assistance to be provided under the agreement;
(3) the child's eligibility for Medicaid services;
(4) the terms of the payment;
(5) eligibility for reimbursement of nonrecurring expenses associated with adopting the child, to the extent that the total cost does not exceed $2,000 per child;
(6) that the agreement will remain in effect regardless of the state in which the adoptive parent resides at any given time;
(7) provisions for modification of the terms of the agreement; and
(8) the effective date of the agreement.
(d) The agreement is effective on the date of the adoption decree.
An assessment tool prescribed by the commissioner must be completed for any child who has a documented disability that necessitates care, supervision, and structure beyond that ordinarily provided in a family setting to children of the same age. This assessment tool must be submitted with the adoption assistance certification and establishes eligibility for the amount of assistance requested.
(a) Payments to parents under adoption assistance must be made monthly.
(b) Payments must commence when the commissioner receives the adoption decree from the court, the child-placing agency, or the parent. Payments must be made according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(c) Payments shall only be made to the adoptive parent specified on the agreement. If there is more than one adoptive parent, both parties must be listed as the payee unless otherwise specified in writing according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(d) Payment must be considered income and resource attributable to the child. Payment must not be assigned or transferred to another party. Payment is exempt from garnishment, except as permissible under the laws of the state where the child resides.
Eligibility for medical assistance for children receiving adoption assistance is as specified in section 256B.055.
(a) The basic maintenance payments must be made according to the following schedule for all children except those eligible for adoption assistance based on being an at-risk child:
Birth through age five | up to $247 per month |
Age six through age 11 | up to $277 per month |
Age 12 through age 14 | up to $307 per month |
Age 15 and older | up to $337 per month |
A child must receive the maximum payment amount for the child's age, unless a lesser amount is negotiated with and agreed to by the prospective adoptive parent.
(b) Supplemental needs payments, in addition to basic maintenance payments, are available based on the severity of a child's disability and the level of parenting required to care for the child, and must be made according to the following amounts:
Level I | up to $150 per month |
Level II | up to $275 per month |
Level III | up to $400 per month |
Level IV | up to $500 per month |
A child's level shall be assessed on an assessment tool prescribed by the commissioner. A child must receive the maximum payment for the child's assessed level, unless a lesser amount is negotiated with and agreed to by the prospective adoptive parent.
(a) Reimbursement for special nonmedical expenses is available to children, except those eligible for adoption assistance based on being an at-risk child.
(b) Reimbursements under this paragraph shall be made only after the adoptive parent documents that the requested service was denied by the local social service agency, community agencies, local school district, local public health department, the parent's insurance provider, or the child's program. The denial must be for an eligible service or qualified item under the program requirements of the applicable agency or organization.
(c) Reimbursements must be previously authorized, adhere to the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner, and be limited to:
(1) child care for a child age 12 and younger, or for a child age 13 or 14 who has a documented disability that requires special instruction for and services by the child care provider. Child care reimbursements may be made if all available adult caregivers are employed or attending educational or vocational training programs. If a parent is attending an educational or vocational training program, child care reimbursement is limited to no more than the time necessary to complete the credit requirements for an associate or baccalaureate degree as determined by the educational institution. Child care reimbursement is not limited for an adoptive parent completing basic or remedial education programs needed to prepare for postsecondary education or employment;
(2) respite care provided for the relief of the child's parent up to 504 hours of respite care annually;
(3) camping up to 14 days per state fiscal year for a child to attend a special needs camp. The camp must be accredited by the American Camp Association as a special needs camp in order to be eligible for camp reimbursement;
(4) postadoption counseling to promote the child's integration into the adoptive family that is provided by the placing agency during the first year following the date of the adoption decree. Reimbursement is limited to 12 sessions of postadoption counseling;
(5) family counseling that is required to meet the child's special needs. Reimbursement is limited to the prorated portion of the counseling fees allotted to the family when the adoptive parent's health insurance or Medicaid pays for the child's counseling but does not cover counseling for the rest of the family members;
(6) home modifications to accommodate the child's special needs upon which eligibility for adoption assistance was approved. Reimbursement is limited to once every five years per child;
(7) vehicle modifications to accommodate the child's special needs upon which eligibility for adoption assistance was approved. Reimbursement is limited to once every five years per family; and
(8) burial expenses up to $1,000, if the special needs, upon which eligibility for adoption assistance was approved, resulted in the death of the child.
(d) The adoptive parent shall submit statements for expenses incurred between July 1 and June 30 of a given fiscal year to the state adoption assistance unit within 60 days after the end of the fiscal year in order for reimbursement to occur.
(a) A monthly payment is provided as part of the adoption assistance agreement to support the care of a child who has manifested special needs. The amount of the payment made on behalf of a child eligible for adoption assistance is determined through negotiation between the adoptive parent and the child-placing agency on behalf of the commissioner. The negotiation shall take into consideration the circumstances of the adopting parent and the needs of the child being adopted. The income of the adoptive parent must not be taken into consideration when determining eligibility for adoption assistance or the amount of the payments under section 259A.20. At the written request of the adoptive parent, the amount of the payment in the agreement may be renegotiated when there is a change in the child's needs or the family's circumstances.
(b) The adoption assistance agreement of a child who is identified as an at-risk child must not include a monthly payment unless and until the potential disability upon which the eligibility for the agreement was based has manifested during childhood.
(a) An adoptive parent of a child with an adoption assistance agreement may request renegotiation of the agreement when there is a change in the needs of the child or in the family's circumstances. When an adoptive parent requests renegotiation of the agreement, a reassessment of the child must be completed by: (1) the responsible social services agency in the child's county of residence; or (2) the child-placing agency that facilitated the adoption when the child's residence is out of state. If the reassessment indicates that the child's needs have changed, the child-placing agency, on behalf of the commissioner and the parent, shall renegotiate the agreement to include a payment of the level determined appropriate through the reassessment process using the assessment tool prescribed by the commissioner according to section 259A.15, subdivision 3. The agreement must not be renegotiated unless the commissioner and the parent mutually agree to the changes. The effective date of any renegotiated agreement must be determined according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) An adoptive parent of a child with an adoption assistance agreement based on the child being an at-risk child may request renegotiation of the agreement to include a monthly payment. The parent must have written documentation from a qualified expert that the potential disability upon which eligibility for adoption assistance was approved has manifested. Documentation of the disability must be limited to evidence deemed appropriate by the commissioner. Prior to renegotiating the agreement, a reassessment of the child must be conducted using an assessment tool prescribed by the commissioner according to section 259A.15, subdivision 3. The reassessment must be used to renegotiate the agreement to include an appropriate monthly payment. The agreement must not be renegotiated unless the commissioner and the adoptive parent mutually agree to the changes. The effective date of any renegotiated agreement must be determined according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
No income received by a child will be considered in determining a child's adoption assistance payment amount. If a child for whom a parent is receiving adoption assistance is also receiving Supplemental Security Income (SSI) or Retirement, Survivors, Disability Insurance (RSDI), the certifying agency shall inform the adoptive parent that the child's adoption assistance must be reported to the Social Security Administration.
(a) An adoptive parent who has an adoption assistance agreement shall keep the agency administering the program informed of changes in status or circumstances that would make the child ineligible for the payments or eligible for payments in a different amount.
(b) As long as the agreement is in effect, the adoptive parent agrees to notify the agency administering the program in writing within 30 days of any of the following changes:
(1) the child's or adoptive parent's legal name;
(2) the family's address;
(3) the child's legal custody status;
(4) the child's completion of high school, if this occurs after the child attains age 18;
(5) the end of an adoptive parent's legal responsibility to support the child based on: termination of parental rights of the adoptive parent, transfer of guardianship to another person, or transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to another person;
(6) the end of an adoptive parent's financial support of the child;
(7) the death of the child;
(8) the death of the adoptive parent;
(9) the child enlists in the military;
(10) the child gets married;
(11) the child becomes an emancipated minor through legal action;
(12) the adoptive parents separate or divorce;
(13) the child is residing outside the adoptive home for a period of more than 30 consecutive days; and
(14) the child's status upon which eligibility for extension under section 259A.45, subdivision 2 or 3, was based.
If the adoptive parent reports information the adoptive parent knows is untrue, the adoptive parent fails to notify the commissioner of changes that may affect eligibility, or the agency administering the program receives information the adoptive parent did not report, the adoptive parent may be investigated for theft and, if charged and convicted, shall be sentenced under section 609.52, subdivision 3, clauses (1) to (5).
(a) An adoption assistance agreement shall terminate in any of the following circumstances:
(1) the child has attained the age of 18, or up to age 21, when the child meets a condition for extension as outlined in section 259A.45, subdivision 1;
(2) the child has not attained the age of 18, but the commissioner determines the adoptive parent is no longer legally responsible for support of the child;
(3) the commissioner determines the adoptive parent is no longer providing financial support to the child up to age 21;
(4) the death of the child; or
(5) the adoptive parent requests in writing termination of the adoption assistance agreement.
(b) An adoptive parent is considered no longer legally responsible for support of the child in any of the following circumstances:
(1) parental rights to the child are legally terminated or a court accepted the parent's consent to adoption under chapter 260C;
(2) permanent legal and physical custody or guardianship of the child is transferred to another individual;
(3) death of adoptive parent;
(4) child enlists in the military;
(5) child gets married; or
(6) child is determined an emancipated minor through legal action.
The adoption assistance agreement ends upon death or termination of parental rights of both adoptive parents in the case of a two-parent adoption, or the sole adoptive parent in the case of a single-parent adoption. The child's adoption assistance eligibility may be continued according to section 259A.40.
The commissioner shall provide the child's parent written notice of termination of payment. Termination notices must be sent according to the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(a) The child maintains eligibility for title IV-E adoption assistance in a subsequent adoption if the following criteria are met:
(1) the child is determined to be a child with special needs as outlined in section 259A.10, subdivision 2; and
(2) the subsequent adoptive parent resides in Minnesota.
(b) If the child had a title IV-E adoption assistance agreement prior to the death of the adoptive parent or dissolution of the adoption, and the subsequent adoptive parent resides outside of Minnesota, the state is not responsible for determining whether the child meets the definition of special needs, entering into the adoption assistance agreement, and making any adoption assistance payments outlined in the new agreement unless a state agency in Minnesota has responsibility for placement and care of the child at the time of the subsequent adoption. If there is no state agency in Minnesota that has responsibility for placement and care of the child at the time of the subsequent adoption, it is the public child welfare agency in the subsequent adoptive parent's residence that is responsible for determining whether the child meets the definition of special needs and entering into the adoption assistance agreement.
(a) State-funded adoption assistance may be continued with the written consent of the commissioner to an individual who is a guardian appointed by a court for the child upon the death of both the adoptive parents in the case of a two-parent adoption, or the sole adoptive parent in the case of a single-parent adoption, unless the child is under the custody of a child-placing agency.
(b) Temporary assignment of adoption assistance may be approved by the commissioner for a maximum of six consecutive months from the death of the parent or parents and must adhere to the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner. If, within six months, the child has not been adopted by a person agreed upon by the commissioner, or if a court has not appointed a legal guardian under either section 260C.325 or 524.5-313, or similar law of another jurisdiction, the adoption assistance shall terminate. Upon assignment of payments pursuant to this subdivision, funding shall be from state funds only.
(a) Under certain limited circumstances a child may qualify for extension of the adoption assistance agreement beyond the date the child attains age 18, up to the date the child attains the age of 21.
(b) A request for extension of the adoption assistance agreement must be completed in writing and submitted, including all supporting documentation, by the adoptive parent at least 60 calendar days prior to the date that the current agreement will terminate.
(c) A signed amendment to the current adoption assistance agreement must be fully executed between the adoptive parent and the commissioner at least ten business days prior to the termination of the current agreement. The request for extension and the fully executed amendment must be made according to the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner, including documentation of eligibility, and on forms prescribed by the commissioner.
(d) If a child-placing agency is certifying a child for adoption assistance and the child will attain the age of 18 within 60 calendar days of submission, the request for extension must be completed in writing and submitted, including all supporting documentation, with the adoption assistance application.
A child who has attained the age of 16 prior to finalization of the child's adoption is eligible for extension of the adoption assistance agreement up to the date the child attains age 21 if the child is:
(1) dependent on the adoptive parent for care and financial support; and
(2)(i) completing a secondary education program or a program leading to an equivalent credential;
(ii) enrolled in an institution that provides postsecondary or vocational education;
(iii) participating in a program or activity designed to promote or remove barriers to employment;
(iv) employed for at least 80 hours per month; or
(v) incapable of doing any of the activities described in clauses (i) to (iv) due to a medical condition where incapability is supported by documentation from an expert according to the requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
A child who has not attained the age of 16 prior to finalization of the child's adoption is eligible for extension of the adoption assistance agreement up to the date the child attains the age of 21 if the child is:
(1) dependent on the adoptive parent for care and financial support; and
(2)(i) enrolled in a secondary education program or a program leading to the equivalent; or
(ii) incapable of sustaining employment because of the continuation of a physical or mental disability, upon which eligibility for adoption assistance was approved.
An amount of adoption assistance paid to an adoptive parent in excess of the payment that was actually due is recoverable by the commissioner, even when the overpayment was caused by agency error or circumstances outside the responsibility and control of the parent or provider. Adoption assistance amounts covered by this section include basic maintenance needs payments, monthly supplemental maintenance needs payments, reimbursement of nonrecurring adoption expenses, reimbursement of special nonmedical costs, and reimbursement of medical costs.
An adoptive parent or a prospective adoptive parent has the right to appeal to the commissioner under section 256.045, for reasons including, but not limited to: when eligibility for adoption assistance is denied, when a specific payment or reimbursement is modified or denied, and when the agreement for an eligible child is terminated. A prospective adoptive parent who disagrees with a decision by the commissioner prior to finalization of the adoption may request review of the decision by the commissioner, or may appeal the decision under section 256.045.
(a) An adoption assistance agreement must be signed and fully executed prior to the court order that finalizes the adoption. An adoptive parent who believes that extenuating circumstances exist, as to why the adoption was finalized prior to fully executing an adoption assistance agreement, may request a fair hearing. The parent has the responsibility to prove the existence of extenuating circumstances, such as:
(1) relevant facts regarding the child were known by the child-placing agency and not presented to the parent prior to finalization of the adoption; or
(2) the child-placing agency failed to advise a potential parent about the availability of adoption assistance for a child in the county-paid foster care system.
(b) If an appeals judge finds through the fair hearing process that extenuating circumstances existed and that the child met all eligibility criteria at the time the adoption was finalized, the effective date and any associated federal financial participation shall be retroactive to the date of the request for a fair hearing.
It is the purpose and policy of the state of Minnesota to:
(1) enter into interstate agreements with agencies of other states to safeguard and protect the interests of children covered by an adoption assistance agreement when they are adopted across state lines or move to another state after adoption finalization; and
(2) provide a framework for uniformity and consistency in administrative procedures when a child with special needs is adopted by a family in another state and for children adopted in Minnesota who move to another state.
For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
(a) "Adoption assistance state" means the state that certifies eligibility for Medicaid in an adoption assistance agreement.
(b) "Resident state" means the state where the adopted child is a resident.
(c) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, Guam, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or a territory or possession of the United States.
The commissioner is authorized to develop, negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on behalf of this state with other states to implement Medicaid for children with adoption assistance agreements.
(a) A compact must include:
(1) a provision allowing all states to join the compact;
(2) a provision for withdrawal from the compact upon written notice to the parties, effective one year after the notice is provided;
(3) a requirement that the protections afforded under the compact continue in force for the duration of the adoption assistance from a party state other than the one in which the adopted child is a resident;
(4) a requirement that each instance of adoption assistance to which the compact applies be covered by an adoption assistance agreement in writing between the adoptive parent and the state child welfare agency of the state that provides the adoption assistance, and that the agreement be expressly for the benefit of the adopted child and enforceable by the adoptive parent and the state agency providing the adoption assistance; and
(5) other provisions necessary and appropriate for the proper administration of the compact.
(b) A compact may contain provisions establishing requirements and entitlements to medical, developmental, child care, or other social services for the child under state law, even though the child and the adoptive parent are in a state other than the one responsible for or providing the services or funds to pay part or all of the costs.
(a) The commissioner of human services shall:
(1) provide Minnesota medical assistance for an adopted child who is title IV-E eligible;
(2) provide Minnesota medical assistance for an adopted child who is not title IV-E eligible who:
(i) was determined to have a special need for medical or rehabilitative care;
(ii) is living in another state; and
(iii) is covered by an adoption assistance agreement made by the commissioner for medical coverage or benefits when the child is not eligible for Medicaid in the child's residence state;
(3) consider the holder of a medical assistance identification card under this subdivision as any other recipient of medical assistance under chapter 256B; and
(4) process and make payments on claims for the recipient in the same manner as for other recipients of medical assistance.
(b) Coverage must be limited to providers authorized by Minnesota's medical assistance program, and according to Minnesota's program requirements.
The adoptive parent shall cooperate with and abide by the Medicaid program requirements and procedures of the state which provides medical coverage.
The commissioner shall apply for and administer all relevant aid in accordance with state and federal law.
(a) The commissioner of human services shall provide reimbursement to an adoptive parent for costs incurred in an adoption of a child with special needs according to section 259A.10, subdivision 2. Reimbursement shall be made for expenses that are reasonable and necessary for the adoption to occur, subject to a maximum of $2,000. The expenses must directly relate to the legal adoption of the child, not be incurred in violation of state or federal law, and must not have been reimbursed from other sources or funds.
(b) Children who have special needs but are not citizens or residents of the United States and were either adopted in another country or brought to this country for the purposes of adoption are categorically ineligible for this reimbursement program, except if the child meets the eligibility criteria after the dissolution of the international adoption.
(c) An adoptive parent, in consultation with the responsible child-placing agency, may request reimbursement of nonrecurring adoption expenses by submitting a complete application, according to the requirements and procedures and on forms prescribed by the commissioner.
(d) The commissioner shall determine the child's eligibility for adoption expense reimbursement under title IV-E of the Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 670 to 676. If determined eligible, the commissioner of human services shall sign the agreement for nonrecurring adoption expense reimbursement, making this a fully executed agreement. To be eligible, the agreement must be fully executed prior to the child's adoption finalization.
(e) An adoptive parent who has an adoption assistance agreement under section 259A.15, subdivision 2, is not required to make a separate application for reimbursement of nonrecurring adoption expenses for the child who is the subject of that agreement.
(f) If determined eligible, the adoptive parent shall submit reimbursement requests within 21 months of the date of the child's adoption decree, and according to requirements and procedures prescribed by the commissioner.
(a) Subject to the procedures required by the commissioner and the provisions of this section, a Minnesota county or tribal social services agency shall receive a reimbursement from the commissioner equal to 100 percent of the reasonable and appropriate cost for contracted adoption placement services identified for a specific child that are not reimbursed under other federal or state funding sources.
(b) The commissioner may spend up to $16,000 for each purchase of service contract. Only one contract per child per adoptive placement is permitted. Funds encumbered and obligated under the contract for the child remain available until the terms of the contract are fulfilled or the contract is terminated.
(c) The commissioner shall set aside an amount not to exceed five percent of the total amount of the fiscal year appropriation from the state for the adoption assistance program to reimburse placing agencies for child-specific adoption placement services. When adoption assistance payments for children's needs exceed 95 percent of the total amount of the fiscal year appropriation from the state for the adoption assistance program, the amount of reimbursement available to placing agencies for adoption services is reduced correspondingly.
(a) A child who is the subject of a purchase of service contract must:
(1) have the goal of adoption, which may include an adoption in accordance with tribal law;
(2) be under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services or be a ward of tribal court pursuant to section 260.755, subdivision 20; and
(3) meet all of the special needs criteria according to section 259A.10, subdivision 2.
(b) A child under the guardianship of the commissioner must have an identified adoptive parent and a fully executed adoption placement agreement according to section 260C.613, subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
(a) A Minnesota county or tribal social services agency shall receive reimbursement for child-specific adoption placement services for an eligible child that it purchases from a private adoption agency licensed in Minnesota or any other state or tribal social services agency.
(b) Reimbursement for adoption services is available only for services provided prior to the date of the adoption decree.
(a) A county or tribal social services agency may request reimbursement of costs for adoption placement services by submitting a complete purchase of service application, according to the requirements and procedures and on forms prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner shall determine eligibility for reimbursement of adoption placement services. If determined eligible, the commissioner of human services shall sign the purchase of service agreement, making this a fully executed contract. No reimbursement under this section shall be made to an agency for services provided prior to the fully executed contract.
(c) Separate purchase of service agreements shall be made, and separate records maintained, on each child. Only one agreement per child per adoptive placement is permitted. For siblings who are placed together, services shall be planned and provided to best maximize efficiency of the contracted hours.
(a) The agency providing adoption services is responsible to track and record all service activity, including billable hours, on a form prescribed by the commissioner. The agency shall submit this form to the state for reimbursement after services have been completed.
(b) The commissioner shall make the final determination whether or not the requested reimbursement costs are reasonable and appropriate and if the services have been completed according to the terms of the purchase of service agreement.
Agencies entering into purchase of service contracts shall keep a copy of the agreements, service records, and all applicable billing and invoicing according to the department's record retention schedule. Agency records shall be provided upon request by the commissioner.
This article is effective August 1, 2012.
(a) Once a child alleged to be in need of protection or services is under the court's jurisdiction, the court shall ensure that reasonable efforts, including culturally appropriate services, by the social services agency are made to prevent placement or to eliminate the need for removal and to reunite the child with the child's family at the earliest possible time, and the court must ensure that the responsible social services agency makes reasonable efforts to finalize an alternative permanent plan for the child as provided in paragraph (e). In determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect to a child and in making those reasonable efforts, the child's best interests, health, and safety must be of paramount concern. Reasonable efforts to prevent placement and for rehabilitation and reunification are always required except upon a determination by the court that a petition has been filed stating a prima facie case that:
(1) the parent has subjected a child to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) the parental rights of the parent to another child have been terminated involuntarily;
(3) the child is an abandoned infant under section 260C.301, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (2);
(4) the parent's custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2, against the child or another child of the parent;
(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or
(5) (7) the provision of services or further services for the purpose of reunification is futile and therefore unreasonable under the circumstances.
(b) When the court makes one of the prima facie determinations under paragraph (a), either permanency pleadings under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, or a termination of parental rights petition under sections 260C.141 and 260C.301 must be filed. A permanency hearing under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, must be held within 30 days of this determination.
(c) In the case of an Indian child, in proceedings under sections 260B.178 or 260C.178, 260C.201, and 260C.301 the juvenile court must make findings and conclusions consistent with the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1901 et seq., as to the provision of active efforts. In cases governed by the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1901, the responsible social services agency must provide active efforts as required under United States Code, title 25, section 1911(d).
(d) "Reasonable efforts to prevent placement" means:
(1) the agency has made reasonable efforts to prevent the placement of the child in foster care by working with the family to develop and implement a safety plan; or
(2) given the particular circumstances of the child and family at the time of the child's removal, there are no services or efforts available which could allow the child to safely remain in the home.
(e) "Reasonable efforts to finalize a permanent plan for the child" means due diligence by the responsible social services agency to:
(1) reunify the child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed;
(2) assess a noncustodial parent's ability to provide day-to-day care for the child and, where appropriate, provide services necessary to enable the noncustodial parent to safely provide the care, as required by section 260C.212, subdivision 4;
(3) conduct a relative search to identify and provide notice to adult relatives as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5;
(4) place siblings removed from their home in the same home for foster care or adoption, or transfer permanent legal and physical custody to a relative. Visitation between siblings who are not in the same foster care, adoption, or custodial placement or facility shall be consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2; and
(5) when the child cannot return to the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed, to plan for and finalize a safe and legally permanent alternative home for the child, and considers permanent alternative homes for the child inside or outside of the state, preferably through adoption or transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of the child.
(f) Reasonable efforts are made upon the exercise of due diligence by the responsible social services agency to use culturally appropriate and available services to meet the needs of the child and the child's family. Services may include those provided by the responsible social services agency and other culturally appropriate services available in the community. At each stage of the proceedings where the court is required to review the appropriateness of the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts as described in paragraphs (a), (d), and (e), the social services agency has the burden of demonstrating that:
(1) it has made reasonable efforts to prevent placement of the child in foster care;
(2) it has made reasonable efforts to eliminate the need for removal of the child from the child's home and to reunify the child with the child's family at the earliest possible time;
(3) it has made reasonable efforts to finalize an alternative permanent home for the child, and considers permanent alternative homes for the child inside or outside of the state; or
(4) reasonable efforts to prevent placement and to reunify the child with the parent or guardian are not required. The agency may meet this burden by stating facts in a sworn petition filed under section 260C.141, by filing an affidavit summarizing the agency's reasonable efforts or facts the agency believes demonstrate there is no need for reasonable efforts to reunify the parent and child, or through testimony or a certified report required under juvenile court rules.
(g) Once the court determines that reasonable efforts for reunification are not required because the court has made one of the prima facie determinations under paragraph (a), the court may only require reasonable efforts for reunification after a hearing according to section 260C.163, where the court finds there is not clear and convincing evidence of the facts upon which the court based its prima facie determination. In this case when there is clear and convincing evidence that the child is in need of protection or services, the court may find the child in need of protection or services and order any of the dispositions available under section 260C.201, subdivision 1. Reunification of a surviving child with a parent is not required if the parent has been convicted of:
(1) a violation of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit a violation of, sections 609.185 to 609.20; 609.222, subdivision 2; or 609.223 in regard to another child of the parent;
(2) a violation of section 609.222, subdivision 2; or 609.223, in regard to the surviving child; or
(3) a violation of, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit a violation of, United States Code, title 18, section 1111(a) or 1112(a), in regard to another child of the parent.;
(4) committing sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2, against the child or another child of the parent; or
(5) an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).
(h) The juvenile court, in proceedings under sections 260B.178 or 260C.178, 260C.201, and 260C.301 shall make findings and conclusions as to the provision of reasonable efforts. When determining whether reasonable efforts have been made, the court shall consider whether services to the child and family were:
(1) relevant to the safety and protection of the child;
(2) adequate to meet the needs of the child and family;
(3) culturally appropriate;
(4) available and accessible;
(5) consistent and timely; and
(6) realistic under the circumstances.
In the alternative, the court may determine that provision of services or further services for the purpose of rehabilitation is futile and therefore unreasonable under the circumstances or that reasonable efforts are not required as provided in paragraph (a).
(i) This section does not prevent out-of-home placement for treatment of a child with a mental disability when it is determined to be medically necessary as a result of the child's diagnostic assessment or individual treatment plan indicates that appropriate and necessary treatment cannot be effectively provided outside of a residential or inpatient treatment program and the level or intensity of supervision and treatment cannot be effectively and safely provided in the child's home or community and it is determined that a residential treatment setting is the least restrictive setting that is appropriate to the needs of the child.
(j) If continuation of reasonable efforts to prevent placement or reunify the child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed is determined by the court to be inconsistent with the permanent plan for the child or upon the court making one of the prima facie determinations under paragraph (a), reasonable efforts must be made to place the child in a timely manner in a safe and permanent home and to complete whatever steps are necessary to legally finalize the permanent placement of the child.
(k) Reasonable efforts to place a child for adoption or in another permanent placement may be made concurrently with reasonable efforts to prevent placement or to reunify the child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed. When the responsible social services agency decides to concurrently make reasonable efforts for both reunification and permanent placement away from the parent under paragraph (a), the agency shall disclose its decision and both plans for concurrent reasonable efforts to all parties and the court. When the agency discloses its decision to proceed on both plans for reunification and permanent placement away from the parent, the court's review of the agency's reasonable efforts shall include the agency's efforts under both plans.
(a) Sections 260C.001 to 260C.451 260C.521 may be cited as the child juvenile protection provisions of the Juvenile Court Act.
(b) Juvenile protection proceedings include:
(1) a child in need of protection or services matters;
(2) permanency matters, including termination of parental rights;
(3) postpermanency reviews under sections 260C.317 and 260C.521; and
(4) adoption matters including posttermination of parental rights proceedings that review the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts to finalize adoption.
(a) The paramount consideration in all juvenile protection proceedings concerning a child alleged or found to be in need of protection or services is the health, safety, and best interests of the child. In proceedings involving an American Indian child, as defined in section 260.755, subdivision 8, the best interests of the child must be determined consistent with sections 260.751 to 260.835 and the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923.
(b) The purpose of the laws relating to juvenile courts protection proceedings is:
(1) to secure for each child alleged or adjudicated in need of protection or services and under the jurisdiction of the court, the care and guidance, preferably in the child's own home, as will best serve the spiritual, emotional, mental, and physical welfare of the child;
(2) to provide judicial procedures which that protect the welfare of the child;
(3) to preserve and strengthen the child's family ties whenever possible and in the child's best interests, removing the child from the custody of parents only when the child's welfare or safety cannot be adequately safeguarded without removal;
(4) to ensure that when removal from the child's own family is necessary and in the child's best interests, the responsible social services agency has legal responsibility for the child removal either:
(i) pursuant to a voluntary placement agreement between the child's parent or guardian or the child, when the child is over age 18, and the responsible social services agency; or
(ii) by court order pursuant to section 260C.151, subdivision 6; 206C.178; or 260C.178; 260C.201; 260C.325; or 260C.515;
(5) to ensure that, when placement is pursuant to court order, the court order removing the child or continuing the child in foster care contains an individualized determination that placement is in the best interests of the child that coincides with the actual removal of the child; and
(6) to ensure that when the child is removed, the child's care and discipline is, as nearly as possible, equivalent to that which should have been given by the parents and is either in:
(i) the home of a noncustodial parent pursuant to section 260C.178 or 260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (1);
(ii) the home of a relative pursuant to emergency placement by the responsible social services agency under chapter 245A; or
(iii) a foster home care licensed under chapter 245A.; and
(7) to ensure appropriate permanency planning for children in foster care including:
(i) unless reunification is not required under section 260.012, developing a permanency plan for the child that includes a primary plan for reunification with the child's parent or guardian and a secondary plan for an alternative, legally permanent home for the child in the event reunification cannot be achieved in a timely manner;
(ii) identifying, locating, and assessing both parents of the child as soon as possible and offering reunification services to both parents of the child as required under section 260.012 and 260C.219;
(iii) identifying, locating, and notifying relatives of both parents of the child according to section 260C.221;
(iv) making a placement with a family that will commit to being the legally permanent home for the child in the event reunification cannot occur at the earliest possible time while at the same time actively supporting the reunification plan; and
(v) returning the child home with supports and services, as soon as return is safe for the child, or when safe return cannot be timely achieved, moving to finalize another legally permanent home for the child.
The purpose of the laws relating to permanency and, termination of parental rights, and children who come under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services is to ensure that:
(1) when required and appropriate, reasonable efforts have been made by the social services agency to reunite the child with the child's parents in a home that is safe and permanent; and
(2) if placement with the parents is not reasonably foreseeable, to secure for the child a safe and permanent placement according to the requirements of section 260C.212, subdivision 2, preferably with adoptive parents or, if that is not possible or in the best interests of the child, a fit and willing relative through transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to that relative; and
(3) when a child is under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services, reasonable efforts are made to finalize an adoptive home for the child in a timely manner.
Nothing in this section requires reasonable efforts to prevent placement or to reunify the child with the parent or guardian to be made in circumstances where the court has determined that the child has been subjected to egregious harm, when the child is an abandoned infant, the parent has involuntarily lost custody of another child through a proceeding under section 260C.201, subdivision 11 260C.515, subdivision 4, or similar law of another state, the parental rights of the parent to a sibling have been involuntarily terminated, or the court has determined that reasonable efforts or further reasonable efforts to reunify the child with the parent or guardian would be futile.
The paramount consideration in all proceedings for permanent placement of the child under section 260C.201, subdivision 11 sections 260C.503 to 260C.521, or the termination of parental rights is the best interests of the child. In proceedings involving an American Indian child, as defined in section 260.755, subdivision 8, the best interests of the child must be determined consistent with the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1901, et seq.
The laws relating to the child protection provisions of the juvenile courts protection proceedings shall be liberally construed to carry out these purposes.
"Child" means an individual under 18 years of age. For purposes of this chapter and chapter 260D, child also includes individuals under age 21 who are in foster care pursuant to section 260C.451.
"Putative father" has the meaning given in section 259.21, subdivision 12.
"Responsible social services agency" means the county social services agency that has responsibility for public child welfare and child protection services and includes the provision of adoption services as an agent of the commissioner of human services.
"Sibling" means one of two or more individuals who have one or both parents in common through blood, marriage, or adoption, including siblings as defined by the child's tribal code or custom.
Except as provided in clause (4), The juvenile court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in proceedings concerning:
(1) the termination of parental rights to a child in accordance with the provisions of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328;
(2) permanency matters under sections 260C.503 to 260C.521;
(3) the appointment and removal of a juvenile court guardian for a child, where parental rights have been terminated under the provisions of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328;
(3) (4) judicial consent to the marriage of a child when required by law;
(4) the juvenile court in those counties in which the judge of the probate-juvenile court has been admitted to the practice of law in this state shall proceed under the laws relating to adoptions in all adoption matters. In those counties in which the judge of the probate-juvenile court has not been admitted to the practice of law in this state the district court shall proceed under the laws relating to adoptions in
(5) all adoption matters and review of the efforts to finalize the adoption of the child under section 260C.317;
(5) (6) the review of the placement of a child who is in foster care pursuant to a voluntary placement agreement between the child's parent or parents and the responsible social services agency under section 260C.212, subdivision 8 260C.227; or between the child, when the child is over age 18, and the agency under section 260C.229; and
(6) (7) the review of voluntary foster care placement of a child for treatment under chapter 260D according to the review requirements of that chapter.
Upon request of the court the responsible social services agency or probation officer shall investigate the personal and family history and environment of any minor coming within the jurisdiction of the court under section 260C.101 and shall report its findings to the court. The court may order any minor coming within its jurisdiction to be examined by a duly qualified physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist appointed by the court.
Adoption investigations shall be conducted in accordance with the laws relating to adoptions in chapter 259. Any funds received under the provisions of this subdivision shall not cancel until the end of the fiscal year immediately following the fiscal year in which the funds were received. The funds are available for use by the commissioner of corrections during that period and are hereby appropriated annually to the commissioner of corrections as reimbursement of the costs of providing these services to the juvenile courts.
(a) Except for hearings arising under section 260C.425, hearings on any matter shall be without a jury and may be conducted in an informal manner. In all adjudicatory proceedings involving a child alleged to be in need of protection or services regarding juvenile protection matters under this chapter, the court shall admit only evidence that would be admissible in a civil trial. To be proved at trial, allegations of a petition alleging a child to be in need of protection or services must be proved by clear and convincing evidence.
(b) Except for proceedings involving a child alleged to be in need of protection or services and petitions for the termination of parental rights, hearings may be continued or adjourned from time to time. In proceedings involving a child alleged to be in need of protection or services and petitions for the termination of parental rights, hearings may not be continued or adjourned for more than one week unless the court makes specific findings that the continuance or adjournment is in the best interests of the child. If a hearing is held on a petition involving physical or sexual abuse of a child who is alleged to be in need of protection or services or neglected and in foster care, the court shall file the decision with the court administrator as soon as possible but no later than 15 days after the matter is submitted to the court. When a continuance or adjournment is ordered in any proceeding, the court may make any interim orders as it deems in the best interests of the minor in accordance with the provisions of sections 260C.001 to 260C.421 this chapter.
(c) Absent exceptional circumstances, hearings under this chapter, except hearings in adoption proceedings, are presumed to be accessible to the public, however the court may close any hearing and the records related to any matter as provided in the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure.
(d) Adoption hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of laws relating to adoptions are closed to the public and all records related to an adoption are inaccessible except as provided in the Minnesota Rules of Adoption Procedure.
(e) In any permanency hearing, including the transition of a child from foster care to independent living, the court shall ensure that its consult with the child during the hearing is in an age-appropriate manner.
Except in adoption proceedings, the county attorney shall present the evidence upon request of the court. In representing the responsible social services agency, the county attorney shall also have the responsibility for advancing the public interest in the welfare of the child.
(a) If a child was taken into custody under section 260C.175, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), item (ii), the court shall hold a hearing within 72 hours of the time the child was taken into custody, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays, to determine whether the child should continue in custody.
(b) Unless there is reason to believe that the child would endanger self or others or not return for a court hearing, or that the child's health or welfare would be immediately endangered, the child shall be released to the custody of a parent, guardian, custodian, or other suitable person, subject to reasonable conditions of release including, but not limited to, a requirement that the child undergo a chemical use assessment as provided in section 260C.157, subdivision 1.
(c) If the court determines there is reason to believe that the child would endanger self or others or not return for a court hearing, or that the child's health or welfare would be immediately endangered if returned to the care of the parent or guardian who has custody and from whom the child was removed, the court shall order the child into foster care under the legal responsibility of the responsible social services agency or responsible probation or corrections agency for the purposes of protective care as that term is used in the juvenile court rules or into the home of a noncustodial parent and order the noncustodial parent to comply with any conditions the court determines to be appropriate to the safety and care of the child, including cooperating with paternity establishment proceedings in the case of a man who has not been adjudicated the child's father. The court shall not give the responsible social services legal custody and order a trial home visit at any time prior to adjudication and disposition under section 260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (3), but may order the child returned to the care of the parent or guardian who has custody and from whom the child was removed and order the parent or guardian to comply with any conditions the court determines to be appropriate to meet the safety, health, and welfare of the child.
(d) In determining whether the child's health or welfare would be immediately endangered, the court shall consider whether the child would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse.
(e) The court, before determining whether a child should be placed in or continue in foster care under the protective care of the responsible agency, shall also make a determination, consistent with section 260.012 as to whether reasonable efforts were made to prevent placement or whether reasonable efforts to prevent placement are not required. In the case of an Indian child, the court shall determine whether active efforts, according to the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978, United States Code, title 25, section 1912(d), were made to prevent placement. The court shall enter a finding that the responsible social services agency has made reasonable efforts to prevent placement when the agency establishes either:
(1) that it has actually provided services or made efforts in an attempt to prevent the child's removal but that such services or efforts have not proven sufficient to permit the child to safely remain in the home; or
(2) that there are no services or other efforts that could be made at the time of the hearing that could safely permit the child to remain home or to return home. When reasonable efforts to prevent placement are required and there are services or other efforts that could be ordered which would permit the child to safely return home, the court shall order the child returned to the care of the parent or guardian and the services or efforts put in place to ensure the child's safety. When the court makes a prima facie determination that one of the circumstances under paragraph (g) exists, the court shall determine that reasonable efforts to prevent placement and to return the child to the care of the parent or guardian are not required.
If the court finds the social services agency's preventive or reunification efforts have not been reasonable but further preventive or reunification efforts could not permit the child to safely remain at home, the court may nevertheless authorize or continue the removal of the child.
(f) The court may not order or continue the foster care placement of the child unless the court makes explicit, individualized findings that continued custody of the child by the parent or guardian would be contrary to the welfare of the child and that placement is in the best interest of the child.
(g) At the emergency removal hearing, or at any time during the course of the proceeding, and upon notice and request of the county attorney, the court shall determine whether a petition has been filed stating a prima facie case that:
(1) the parent has subjected a child to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) the parental rights of the parent to another child have been involuntarily terminated;
(3) the child is an abandoned infant under section 260C.301, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (2);
(4) the parents' custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (e), clause (1); section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2, against the child or another child of the parent;
(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or
(7) the provision of services or further services for the purpose of reunification is futile and therefore unreasonable.
(h) When a petition to terminate parental rights is required under section 260C.301, subdivision 3 or 4, but the county attorney has determined not to proceed with a termination of parental rights petition, and has instead filed a petition to transfer permanent legal and physical custody to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11 260C.507, the court shall schedule a permanency hearing within 30 days of the filing of the petition.
(i) If the county attorney has filed a petition under section 260C.307, the court shall schedule a trial under section 260C.163 within 90 days of the filing of the petition except when the county attorney determines that the criminal case shall proceed to trial first under section 260C.201, subdivision 3 260C.503, subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
(j) If the court determines the child should be ordered into foster care and the child's parent refuses to give information to the responsible social services agency regarding the child's father or relatives of the child, the court may order the parent to disclose the names, addresses, telephone numbers, and other identifying information to the responsible social services agency for the purpose of complying with the requirements of sections 260C.151, 260C.212, and 260C.215.
(k) If a child ordered into foster care has siblings, whether full, half, or step, who are also ordered into foster care, the court shall inquire of the responsible social services agency of the efforts to place the children together as required by section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), if placement together is in each child's best interests, unless a child is in placement for treatment or a child is placed with a previously noncustodial parent who is not a parent to all siblings. If the children are not placed together at the time of the hearing, the court shall inquire at each subsequent hearing of the agency's reasonable efforts to place the siblings together, as required under section 260.012. If any sibling is not placed with another sibling or siblings, the agency must develop a plan to facilitate visitation or ongoing contact among the siblings as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, unless it is contrary to the safety or well-being of any of the siblings to do so.
(l) When the court has ordered the child into foster care or into the home of a noncustodial parent, the court may order a chemical dependency evaluation, mental health evaluation, medical examination, and parenting assessment for the parent as necessary to support the development of a plan for reunification required under subdivision 7 and section 260C.212, subdivision 1, or the child protective services plan under section 626.556, subdivision 10, and Minnesota Rules, part 9560.0228.
(a) An out-of-home placement plan required under section 260C.212 shall be filed with the court within 30 days of the filing of a juvenile protection petition alleging the child to be in need of protection or services under section 260C.141, subdivision 1, when the court orders emergency removal of the child under this section, or filed with the petition if the petition is a review of a voluntary placement under section 260C.141, subdivision 2.
(b) Upon the filing of the out-of-home placement plan which has been developed jointly with the parent and in consultation with others as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, the court may approve implementation of the plan by the responsible social services agency based on the allegations contained in the petition and any evaluations, examinations, or assessments conducted under subdivision 1, paragraph (l). The court shall send written notice of the approval of the out-of-home placement plan to all parties and the county attorney or may state such approval on the record at a hearing. A parent may agree to comply with the terms of the plan filed with the court.
(c) The responsible social services agency shall make reasonable attempts efforts to engage a parent both parents of the child in case planning. If the parent refuses to cooperate in the development of the out-of-home placement plan or disagrees with the services recommended by The responsible social service agency, the agency shall note such refusal or disagreement for the court report the results of its efforts to engage the child's parents in the out-of-home placement plan filed with the court. The agency shall notify the court of the services it will provide or efforts it will attempt under the plan notwithstanding the parent's refusal to cooperate or disagreement with the services. The parent may ask the court to modify the plan to require different or additional services requested by the parent, but which the agency refused to provide. The court may approve the plan as presented by the agency or may modify the plan to require services requested by the parent. The court's approval shall be based on the content of the petition.
(d) Unless the parent agrees to comply with the terms of the out-of-home placement plan, the court may not order a parent to comply with the provisions of the plan until the court finds the child is in need of protection or services and orders disposition under section 260C.201, subdivision 1. However, the court may find that the responsible social services agency has made reasonable efforts for reunification if the agency makes efforts to implement the terms of an out-of-home placement plan approved under this section.
(a) The policy of the state is to ensure that the best interests of children in foster or residential care, who experience transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative under section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or adoption under chapter 259 are met by requiring individualized determinations under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), of the needs of the child and of how the selected placement home will serve the needs of the child in foster care placements.
(b) No later than three months after a child is ordered removed from the care of a parent in the hearing required under section 260C.202, the court shall review and enter findings regarding whether the responsible social services agency made:
(1) diligent efforts to identify and search for relatives as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5, 260C.221; and made
(2) an individualized determination as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, to select a home that meets the needs of the child.
(c) If the court finds the agency has not made efforts as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 5 260C.221, and there is a relative who qualifies to be licensed to provide family foster care under chapter 245A, the court may order the child placed with the relative consistent with the child's best interests.
(d) If the agency's efforts under section 260C.221 are found to be sufficient, the court shall order the agency to continue to appropriately engage relatives who responded to the notice under section 260C.221 in placement and case planning decisions and to appropriately engage relatives who subsequently come to the agency's attention.
(c) (e) If the child's birth parent or parents explicitly request that a relative or important friend not be considered, the court shall honor that request if it is consistent with the best interests of the child. If the child's birth parent or parents express a preference for placing the child in a foster or adoptive home of the same or a similar religious background to that of the birth parent or parents, the court shall order placement of the child with an individual who meets the birth parent's religious preference.
(d) (f) Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on race, color, or national origin of the foster parent or the child.
(e) (g) Whenever possible, siblings should be placed together unless it is determined not to be in the best interests of a sibling siblings. If siblings are were not placed together according to section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (d), the responsible social services agency shall report to the court the efforts made to place the siblings together and why the efforts were not successful. If the court is not satisfied with that the agency's agency has made reasonable efforts to place siblings together, the court may must order the agency to make further reasonable efforts. If siblings are not placed together the court shall review order the responsible social services agency's agency to implement the plan for visitation among siblings required as part of the out-of-home placement plan under section 260C.212.
(f) (h) This subdivision does not affect the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923, and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act, sections 260.751 to 260.835.
(a) Jurisdiction over a child in foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 may shall continue to age 21 for the purpose of conducting the reviews required under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), 260C.212, subdivision 7, or 260C.317, subdivision 3, 260C.203, or 260C.515, subdivision 5 or 6. Jurisdiction over a child in foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 shall not be terminated without giving the child notice of any motion or proposed order to dismiss jurisdiction and an opportunity to be heard on the appropriateness of the dismissal. When a child in foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 asks to leave foster care or actually leaves foster care, the court may terminate its jurisdiction.
(b) Except when a court order is necessary for a child to be in foster care or when continued review under (1) section 260C.212, subdivision 7, paragraph (d), or 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), and (2) section 260C.317, subdivision 3, is required for a child in foster care under section 260C.451, The court may terminate jurisdiction on its own motion or the motion of any interested party upon a determination that jurisdiction is no longer necessary to protect the child's best interests except when:
(1) a court order is necessary for a child to be in foster care; or
(2) continued review under section 260C.203, 260C.515, subdivision 5 or 6, or 260C.317, subdivision 3, is required for a child in foster care under section 260C.451.
(c) Unless terminated by the court, and except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, the jurisdiction of the court shall continue until the child becomes 18 years of age. The court may continue jurisdiction over an individual and all other parties to the proceeding to the individual's 19th birthday when continuing jurisdiction is in the individual's best interest in order to:
(1) protect the safety or health of the individual;
(2) accomplish additional planning for independent living or for the transition out of foster care; or
(3) support the individual's completion of high school or a high school equivalency program.
(a) Any order for a disposition authorized under this section shall contain written findings of fact to support the disposition and case plan ordered and shall also set forth in writing the following information:
(1) why the best interests and safety of the child are served by the disposition and case plan ordered;
(2) what alternative dispositions or services under the case plan were considered by the court and why such dispositions or services were not appropriate in the instant case;
(3) when legal custody of the child is transferred, the appropriateness of the particular placement made or to be made by the placing agency using the factors in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b);
(4) whether reasonable efforts to finalize the permanent plan for the child consistent with section 260.012 were made including reasonable efforts:
(i) to prevent or eliminate the necessity of the child's removal placement and to reunify the family after removal child with the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed at the earliest time consistent with the child's safety. The court's findings must include a brief description of what preventive and reunification efforts were made and why further efforts could not have prevented or eliminated the necessity of removal or that reasonable efforts were not required under section 260.012 or 260C.178, subdivision 1;
(ii) to identify and locate any noncustodial or nonresident parent of the child and to assess such parent's ability to provide day-to-day care of the child, and, where appropriate, provide services necessary to enable the noncustodial or nonresident parent to safely provide day-to-day care of the child as required under section 260C.219, unless such services are not required under section 260.012 or 260C.178, subdivision 1;
(iii) to make the diligent search for relatives and provide the notices required under section 260C.221; a finding made pursuant to a hearing under section 260C.202 that the agency has made diligent efforts to conduct a relative search and has appropriately engaged relatives who responded to the notice under section 260C.221 and other relatives, who came to the attention of the agency after notice under section 260C.221 was sent, in placement and case planning decisions fulfills the requirement of this item;
(iv) to identify and make a foster care placement in the home of an unlicensed relative, according to the requirements of section 245A.035, a licensed relative, or other licensed foster care provider who will commit to being the permanent legal parent or custodian for the child in the event reunification cannot occur, but who will actively support the reunification plan for the child; and
(v) to place siblings together in the same home or to ensure visitation is occurring when siblings are separated in foster care placement and visitation is in the siblings' best interests under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (d); and
(5) if the child has been adjudicated as a child in need of protection or services because the child is in need of special services or care to treat or ameliorate a mental disability or emotional disturbance as defined in section 245.4871, subdivision 15, the written findings shall also set forth:
(i) whether the child has mental health needs that must be addressed by the case plan;
(ii) what consideration was given to the diagnostic and functional assessments performed by the child's mental health professional and to health and mental health care professionals' treatment recommendations;
(iii) what consideration was given to the requests or preferences of the child's parent or guardian with regard to the child's interventions, services, or treatment; and
(iv) what consideration was given to the cultural appropriateness of the child's treatment or services.
(b) If the court finds that the social services agency's preventive or reunification efforts have not been reasonable but that further preventive or reunification efforts could not permit the child to safely remain at home, the court may nevertheless authorize or continue the removal of the child.
(c) If the child has been identified by the responsible social services agency as the subject of concurrent permanency planning, the court shall review the reasonable efforts of the agency to recruit, identify, and make a placement in a home where the foster parent or relative that has committed to being the legally permanent home for the child in the event reunification efforts are not successful develop a permanency plan for the child that includes a primary plan which is for reunification with the child's parent or guardian and a secondary plan which is for an alternative, legally permanent home for the child in the event reunification cannot be achieved in a timely manner.
(a) If the court orders a child placed in foster care, the court shall review the out-of-home placement plan and the child's placement at least every 90 days as required in juvenile court rules to determine whether continued out-of-home placement is necessary and appropriate or whether the child should be returned home. This review is not required if the court has returned the child home, ordered the child permanently placed away from the parent under subdivision 11, or terminated rights under section 260C.301. Court review for a child permanently placed away from a parent, including where the child is under guardianship and legal custody of the commissioner, shall be governed by subdivision 11 or section 260C.317, subdivision 3, whichever is applicable 260C.607.
(b) No later than six three months after the child's placement in foster care, the court shall review agency efforts pursuant to section 260C.212, subdivision 2 260C.221, and order that the efforts continue if the agency has failed to perform the duties under that section. The court must order the agency to continue to appropriately engage relatives who responded to the notice under section 260C.221 in placement and case planning decisions and to engage other relatives who came to the agency's attention after notice under section 260C.221 was sent.
(c) The court shall review the out-of-home placement plan and may modify the plan as provided under subdivisions 6 and 7.
(d) When the court orders transfer of custody to a responsible social services agency resulting in foster care or protective supervision with a noncustodial parent under subdivision 1, the court shall notify the parents of the provisions of subdivisions 11 and subdivision 11a and sections 260C.503 to 260C.521, as required under juvenile court rules.
(e) When a child remains in or returns to foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 and the court has jurisdiction pursuant to section 260C.193, subdivision 6, paragraph (c), the court shall at least annually conduct the review required under subdivision 11, paragraph (d), or sections 260C.212, subdivision 7, and 260C.317, subdivision 3 section 260C.203.
(a) The responsible social services agency shall exercise due diligence to identify and notify adult relatives prior to placement or within 30 days after the child's removal from the parent. The county agency shall consider placement with a relative under subdivision 2 without delay and whenever the child must move from or be returned to foster care. The relative search required by this section shall be reasonable and comprehensive in scope and may last up to six months or until a fit and willing relative is identified. After a finding that the agency has made reasonable efforts to conduct the relative search under this paragraph, the agency has the continuing responsibility to appropriately involve relatives, who have responded to the notice required under this paragraph, in planning for the child and to continue to consider relatives according to the requirements of section 260C.212, subdivision 2. At any time during the course of juvenile protection proceedings, the court may order the agency to reopen its search for relatives when it is in the child's best interest to do so. The relative search required by this section shall include both maternal relatives of the child and paternal relatives of the child, if paternity is adjudicated. The search shall also include getting information from the child in an age-appropriate manner about who the child considers to be family members and important friends with whom the child has resided or had significant contact. The relative search required under this section must fulfill the agency's duties under the Indian Child Welfare Act regarding active efforts to prevent the breakup of the Indian family under United States Code, title 25, section 1912(d), and to meet placement preferences under United States Code, title 25, section 1915. The relatives must be notified:
(1) of the need for a foster home for the child, the option to become a placement resource for the child, and the possibility of the need for a permanent placement for the child;
(2) of their responsibility to keep the responsible social services agency informed of their current address in order to receive notice in the event that a permanent placement is sought for the child. A relative who fails to provide a current address to the responsible social services agency forfeits the right to notice of the possibility of permanent placement. A decision by a relative not to be identified as a potential permanent placement resource or participate in planning for the child at the beginning of the case shall not affect whether the relative is considered for placement of the child with that relative later;
(3) that the relative may participate in the care and planning for the child, including that the opportunity for such participation may be lost by failing to respond to the notice. "Participate in the care and planning" includes, but is not limited to, participation in case planning for the parent and child, identifying the strengths and needs of the parent and child, supervising visits, providing respite and vacation visits for the child, providing transportation to appointments, suggesting other relatives who might be able to help support the case plan, and to the extent possible, helping to maintain the child's familiar and regular activities and contact with friends and relatives; and
(4) of the family foster care licensing requirements, including how to complete an application and how to request a variance from licensing standards that do not present a safety or health risk to the child in the home under section 245A.04 and supports that are available for relatives and children who reside in a family foster home.; and
(5) of the relatives' right to ask to be notified of any court proceedings regarding the child, to attend the hearings, and of a relative's right or opportunity to be heard by the court as required under section 260C.152, subdivision 5.
(b) A responsible social services agency may disclose private or confidential data, as defined in section sections 13.02 and 626.556, to relatives of the child for the purpose of locating and assessing a suitable placement and may use any reasonable means of identifying and locating relatives including the Internet or other electronic means of conducting a search. The agency shall disclose only data that is necessary to facilitate possible placement with relatives and to ensure that the relative is informed of the needs of the child so the relative can participate in planning for the child and be supportive of services to the child and family. If the child's parent refuses to give the responsible social services agency information sufficient to identify the maternal and paternal relatives of the child, the agency shall ask the juvenile court to order the parent to provide the necessary information. If a parent makes an explicit request that relatives or a specific relative not be contacted or considered for placement, the agency shall bring the parent's request to the attention of the court to determine whether the parent's request is consistent with the best interests of the child and the agency shall not contact relatives or a specific relative unless authorized to do so by the juvenile court.
(c) At a regularly scheduled hearing not later than three months after the child's placement in foster care and as required in section 260C.202, the agency shall report to the court:
(1) its efforts to identify maternal and paternal relatives of the child, to engage the relatives in providing support for the child and family, and document that the relatives have been provided the notice required under paragraph (a); and
(2) its decision regarding placing the child with a relative as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 2, and to ask relatives to visit or maintain contact with the child in order to support family connections for the child, when placement with a relative is not possible or appropriate.
(d) Notwithstanding chapter 13, the agency shall disclose data about particular relatives identified, searched for, and contacted for the purposes of the court's review of the agency's due diligence.
(e) When the court is satisfied that the agency has exercised due diligence to identify relatives and provide the notice required in paragraph (a), the court may find that reasonable efforts have been made to conduct a relative search to identify and provide notice to adult relatives as required under section 260.012, paragraph (e), clause (3). If the court is not satisfied that the agency has exercised due diligence to identify relatives and provide the notice required in paragraph (a), the court may order the agency to continue its search and notice efforts and to report back to the court.
(f) When the placing agency determines that a permanent placement hearing is proceedings are necessary because there is a likelihood that the child will not return to a parent's care, the agency may must send the notice provided in paragraph (d) (g), may ask the court to modify the requirements duty of the agency under this paragraph to send the notice required in paragraph (g), or may ask the court to completely relieve the agency of the requirements of this paragraph (g). The relative notification requirements of this paragraph (g) do not apply when the child is placed with an appropriate relative or a foster home that has committed to being the adopting the child or taking permanent legal placement for and physical custody of the child and the agency approves of that foster home for permanent placement of the child. The actions ordered by the court under this section must be consistent with the best interests, safety, permanency, and welfare of the child.
(d) (g) Unless required under the Indian Child Welfare Act or relieved of this duty by the court under paragraph (c) (e), when the agency determines that it is necessary to prepare for the permanent placement determination hearing proceedings, or in anticipation of filing a termination of parental rights petition, the agency shall send notice to the relatives, any adult with whom the child is currently residing, any adult with whom the child has resided for one year or longer in the past, and any adults who have maintained a relationship or exercised visitation with the child as identified in the agency case plan. The notice must state that a permanent home is sought for the child and that the individuals receiving the notice may indicate to the agency their interest in providing a permanent home. The notice must state that within 30 days of receipt of the notice an individual receiving the notice must indicate to the agency the individual's interest in providing a permanent home for the child or that the individual may lose the opportunity to be considered for a permanent placement.
(e) The Department of Human Services shall develop a best practices guide and specialized staff training to assist the responsible social services agency in performing and complying with the relative search requirements under this subdivision.
(a) Unless the court is conducting the reviews required under section 260C.202, there shall be an administrative review of the out-of-home placement plan of each child placed in foster care no later than 180 days after the initial placement of the child in foster care and at least every six months thereafter if the child is not returned to the home of the parent or parents within that time. The out-of-home placement plan must be monitored and updated at each administrative review. The administrative review shall be conducted by the responsible social services agency using a panel of appropriate persons at least one of whom is not responsible for the case management of, or the delivery of services to, either the child or the parents who are the subject of the review. The administrative review shall be open to participation by the parent or guardian of the child and the child, as appropriate.
(b) As an alternative to the administrative review required in paragraph (a), the court may, as part of any hearing required under the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure, conduct a hearing to monitor and update the out-of-home placement plan pursuant to the procedure and standard in section 260C.201, subdivision 6, paragraph (d). The party requesting review of the out-of-home placement plan shall give parties to the proceeding notice of the request to review and update the out-of-home placement plan. A court review conducted pursuant to section 260C.141, subdivision 2; 260C.193; 260C.201, subdivision 1 or 11; 260C.141, subdivision 2; 260C.317 260C.202; 260C.204; 260C.317; or 260D.06 shall satisfy the requirement for the review so long as the other requirements of this section are met.
(c) As appropriate to the stage of the proceedings and relevant court orders, the responsible social services agency or the court shall review:
(1) the safety, permanency needs, and well-being of the child;
(2) the continuing necessity for and appropriateness of the placement;
(3) the extent of compliance with the out-of-home placement plan;
(4) the extent of progress which that has been made toward alleviating or mitigating the causes necessitating placement in foster care;
(5) the projected date by which the child may be returned to and safely maintained in the home or placed permanently away from the care of the parent or parents or guardian; and
(6) the appropriateness of the services provided to the child.
(d) When a child is age 16 or older, in addition to any administrative review conducted by the agency, at the in-court review required under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, or 260C.317, subdivision 3, clause (3), or 260C.515, subdivision 5 or 6, the court shall review the independent living plan required under section 260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (11), and the provision of services to the child related to the well-being of the child as the child prepares to leave foster care. The review shall include the actual plans related to each item in the plan necessary to the child's future safety and well-being when the child is no longer in foster care.
(1) (e) At the court review required under paragraph (d) for a child age 16 or older the following procedures apply:
(1) six months before the child is expected to be discharged from foster care, the responsible social services agency shall establish that it has given give the written notice required under section 260C.456 or Minnesota Rules, part 9560.0660 260C.451, subdivision 1, regarding the right to continued access to services for certain children in foster care past age 18 and of the right to appeal a denial of social services under section 256.045. If The agency is unable to establish that shall file a copy of the notice, including the right to appeal a denial of social services, has been given, with the court. If the agency does not file the notice by the time the child is age 17-1/2, the court shall require the agency to give it.;
(2) consistent with the requirements of the independent living plan, the court shall review progress toward or accomplishment of the following goals:
(i) the child has obtained a high school diploma or its equivalent;
(ii) the child has completed a driver's education course or has demonstrated the ability to use public transportation in the child's community;
(iii) the child is employed or enrolled in postsecondary education;
(iv) the child has applied for and obtained postsecondary education financial aid for which the child is eligible;
(v) the child has health care coverage and health care providers to meet the child's physical and mental health needs;
(vi) the child has applied for and obtained disability income assistance for which the child is eligible;
(vii) the child has obtained affordable housing with necessary supports, which does not include a homeless shelter;
(viii) the child has saved sufficient funds to pay for the first month's rent and a damage deposit;
(ix) the child has an alternative affordable housing plan, which does not include a homeless shelter, if the original housing plan is unworkable;
(x) the child, if male, has registered for the Selective Service; and
(xi) the child has a permanent connection to a caring adult.; and
(3) the court shall ensure that the responsible agency in conjunction with the placement provider assists the child in obtaining the following documents prior to the child's leaving foster care: a Social Security card; the child's birth certificate; a state identification card or driver's license, green card, or school visa; the child's school, medical, and dental records; a contact list of the child's medical, dental, and mental health providers; and contact information for the child's siblings, if the siblings are in foster care.
(e) When a child is age 17 or older, during the 90-day period immediately prior to the date the child is expected to be discharged from foster care, the responsible social services agency is required to provide the child with assistance and support in developing a transition plan that is personalized at the direction of the child. (f) For a child who will be discharged from foster care at age 18 or older, the responsible social services agency is required to develop a personalized transition plan as directed by the youth. The transition plan must be developed during the 90-day period immediately prior to the expected date of discharge. The transition plan must be as detailed as the child may elect and include specific options on housing, health insurance, education, local opportunities for mentors and continuing support services, and work force supports and employment services. The plan must include information on the importance of designating another individual to make health care treatment decisions on behalf of the child if the child becomes unable to participate in these decisions and the child does not have, or does not want, a relative who would otherwise be authorized to make these decisions. The plan must provide the child with the option to execute a health care directive as provided under chapter 145C. The county shall also provide the individual with appropriate contact information if the individual needs more information or needs help dealing with a crisis situation through age 21.
The commissioner of human services, after seeking and considering advice from representatives reflecting diverse populations from the councils established under sections 3.922, 3.9223, 3.9225, and 3.9226, and other state, local, and community organizations shall:
(1) review and, where necessary, revise the Department of Human Services Social Service Manual and Practice Guide provide practice guidance to responsible social services agencies and child-placing agencies that reflect federal and state laws and policy direction on placement of children;
(2) develop criteria for determining whether a prospective adoptive or foster family has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background;
(3) develop provide a standardized training curriculum for adoption and foster care workers, family-based providers, and administrators who work with children. Training must address the following objectives:
(a) (i) developing and maintaining sensitivity to all cultures;
(b) (ii) assessing values and their cultural implications; and
(c) (iii) making individualized placement decisions that advance the best interests of a particular child under section 260C.212, subdivision 2; and
(iv) issues related to cross-cultural placement;
(4) develop provide a training curriculum for family and extended family members all prospective adoptive and foster families that prepares them to care for the needs of adoptive and foster children. The curriculum must address issues relating to cross-cultural placements as well as issues that arise after a foster or adoptive placement is made taking into consideration the needs of children outlined in section 260C.212, subdivision 2, paragraph (b); and
(5) develop and provide to agencies an assessment tool to be used in combination with group interviews and other preplacement activities a home study format to evaluate assess the capacities and needs of prospective adoptive and foster families. The tool format must assess address problem-solving skills; identify parenting skills; and evaluate the degree to which the prospective family has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background, and other issues needed to provide sufficient information for agencies to make an individualized placement decision consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2. If a prospective adoptive parent has also been a foster parent, any update necessary to a home study for the purpose of adoption may be completed by the licensing authority responsible for the foster parent's license. If a prospective adoptive parent with an approved adoptive home study also applies for a foster care license, the license application may be made with the same agency which provided the adoptive home study; and
(6) shall consult with representatives reflecting diverse populations from the councils established under sections 3.922, 3.9223, 3.9225, and 3.9226, and other state, local, and community organizations.
(a) Each authorized child-placing agency must:
(1) develop and follow procedures for implementing the requirements of section 260C.193, subdivision 3 260C.212, subdivision 2, and the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923;
(2) have a written plan for recruiting adoptive and foster families that reflect the ethnic and racial diversity of children who are in need of foster and adoptive homes. The plan must include:
(i) strategies for using existing resources in diverse communities,;
(ii) use of diverse outreach staff wherever possible,;
(iii) use of diverse foster homes for placements after birth and before adoption,; and
(iv) other techniques as appropriate;
(3) have a written plan for training adoptive and foster families;
(4) have a written plan for employing staff in adoption and foster care who have the capacity to assess the foster and adoptive parents' ability to understand and validate a child's cultural and meet the child's individual needs, and to advance the best interests of the child, as required in section 260C.212, subdivision 2. The plan must include staffing goals and objectives;
(5) ensure that adoption and foster care workers attend training offered or approved by the Department of Human Services regarding cultural diversity and the needs of special needs children; and
(6) develop and implement procedures for implementing the requirements of the Indian Child Welfare Act and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act.
(b) In determining the suitability of a proposed placement of an Indian child, the standards to be applied must be the prevailing social and cultural standards of the Indian child's community, and the agency shall defer to tribal judgment as to suitability of a particular home when the tribe has intervened pursuant to the Indian Child Welfare Act.
(a) When a child asks to continue or to reenter foster care after age 18 under section 260C.451, the child and the responsible social services agency may enter into a voluntary agreement for the child to be in foster care under the terms of section 260C.451. The voluntary agreement must be in writing and on a form prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) When the child is in foster care pursuant to a voluntary foster care agreement between the agency and child and the child is not already under court jurisdiction pursuant to section 260C.193, subdivision 6, the agency responsible for the child's placement in foster care shall:
(1) file a motion to reopen the juvenile protection matter where the court previously had jurisdiction over the child within 30 days of the child and the agency executing the voluntary placement agreement under paragraph (a) and ask the court to review the child's placement in foster care and find that the placement is in the best interests of the child; and
(2) file the out-of-home placement plan required under subdivision 1 with the motion to reopen jurisdiction.
(c) The court shall conduct a hearing on the matter within 30 days of the agency's motion to reopen the matter and, if the court finds that placement is in the best interest of the child, shall conduct the review for the purpose and with the content required under section 260C.203, at least every 12 months as long as the child continues in foster care.
In any proceeding under this section, the court shall make specific findings:
(1) that reasonable efforts to prevent the placement and finalize the permanency plan to reunify the child and the parent were made including individualized and explicit findings regarding the nature and extent of efforts made by the social services agency to rehabilitate the parent and reunite the family; or
(2) that reasonable efforts at for reunification are not required as provided under section 260.012.
(a) Upon its own motion or upon petition of an interested party, the juvenile court having jurisdiction of the child may, after notice to the parties and a hearing, remove the guardian appointed by the juvenile court and appoint a new guardian in accordance with the provisions of section 260C.325, subdivision 1, clause (a), (b), or (c). Upon a showing that the child is emancipated, the court may discharge the guardianship. Any child 14 years of age or older who is not adopted but who is placed in a satisfactory foster home, may, with the consent of the foster parents, join with the guardian appointed by the juvenile court in a petition to the court having jurisdiction of the child to discharge the existing guardian and appoint the foster parents as guardians of the child.
(b) The authority of a guardian appointed by the juvenile court terminates when the individual under guardianship is no longer a minor or when guardianship is otherwise discharged becomes age 18. However, an individual who has been under the guardianship of the commissioner and who has not been adopted may continue in foster care or reenter foster care pursuant to section 260C.451 and the responsible social services agency has continuing legal responsibility for the placement of the individual.
Within the Six months prior to the child's 18th birthday, the local responsible social services agency shall advise provide written notice on a form prescribed by the commissioner of human services to any child in foster care under this chapter who cannot reasonably be expected to return home or have another legally permanent family by the age of 18, the child's parents or legal guardian, if any, and the child's guardian ad litem, and the child's foster parents of the availability of benefits of the foster care program up to age 21, when the child is eligible under subdivisions 3 and 3a.
Upon the request of any child receiving in foster care benefits immediately prior to the child's 18th birthday and who is in foster care at the time of the request, the local responsible social services agency shall, in conjunction with the child and other appropriate parties, update the independent living plan required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), clause (11), related to the child's employment, vocational, educational, social, or maturational needs. The agency shall provide continued services and foster care for the child including those services that are necessary to implement the independent living plan.
A child already in foster care immediately prior to the child's 18th birthday may continue in foster care past age 18 unless:
(1) the child can safely return home;
(2) the child is in placement pursuant to the agency's duties under section 256B.092 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016, to meet the child's needs due to developmental disability or related condition, and the child will be served as an adult under section 256B.092 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0016; or
(3) the child can be adopted or have permanent legal and physical custody transferred to a relative prior to the child's 18th birthday.
The child must meet at least one of the following conditions to be considered eligible to continue in or return to foster care and remain there to age 21. The child must be:
(1) completing secondary education or a program leading to an equivalent credential;
(2) enrolled in an institution which that provides postsecondary or vocational education;
(3) participating in a program or activity designed to promote or remove barriers to employment;
(4) employed for at least 80 hours per month; or
(5) incapable of doing any of the activities described in clauses (1) to (4) due to a medical condition.
For children between the ages of 18 and 21, "foster care benefits" means payment for those foster care settings defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 18. Additionally, foster care benefits means payment for a supervised setting, approved by the responsible social services agency, in which a child may live independently.
The particular foster care setting, including supervised settings, shall be selected by the agency and the child based on the best interest of the child consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2. Supervision in approved settings must be determined by an individual determination of the child's needs by the responsible social services agency and consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 4a.
(a) Upon request of an individual between the ages of 18 and 21 who, within six months of the individual's 18th birthday, had been under the guardianship of the commissioner and who has left foster care without being adopted, the responsible social services agency which had been the commissioner's agent for purposes of the guardianship shall develop with the individual a plan related to the individual's vocational, educational, social, or maturational needs to increase the individual's ability to live safely and independently using the plan requirements of section 260C.212, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (11), and to assist the individual to meet one or more of the eligibility criteria in subdivision 4 if the individual wants to reenter foster care. The agency shall provide foster care with maintenance and counseling benefits as required to implement the plan. The agency shall enter into a voluntary placement agreement under section 260C.229 with the individual if the plan includes foster care.
(b) Individuals who had not been under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services prior to age 18 and are between the ages of 18 and 21 may ask to reenter foster care after age 18 and, to the extent funds are available, the responsible social services agency that had responsibility for planning for the individual before discharge from foster care may provide foster care or other services to the individual for the purpose of increasing the individual's ability to live safely and independently and to meet the eligibility criteria in subdivision 3a, if the individual:
(1) was in foster care for the six consecutive months prior to the person's 18th birthday and was not discharged home, adopted, or received into a relative's home under a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody under section 260C.515, subdivision 4; or
(2) was discharged from foster care while on runaway status after age 15.
(c) In conjunction with a qualifying and eligible individual under paragraph (b) and other appropriate persons, the responsible social services agency shall develop a specific plan related to that individual's vocational, educational, social, or maturational needs and, to the extent funds are available, provide foster care as required to implement the plan. The agency shall enter into a voluntary placement agreement with the individual if the plan includes foster care.
(d) Youth who left foster care while under guardianship of the commissioner of human services retain eligibility for foster care for placement at any time between the ages of 18 and 21.
Notwithstanding that the court retains jurisdiction pursuant to this section, Individuals in foster care pursuant to this section are adults for all purposes except the continued provision of foster care. Any order establishing guardianship under section 260C.325, any legal custody order under section 260C.201, subdivision 1, and any order for legal custody associated with an order for long-term foster care permanent custody under section 260C.201, subdivision 11 260C.515, subdivision 5, terminates on the child's 18th birthday. The responsible social services agency has legal responsibility for the individual's placement and care when the matter continues under court jurisdiction pursuant to section 260C.193 or when the individual and the responsible agency execute a voluntary placement agreement pursuant to section 260C.229.
When a child in foster care between the ages of 18 and 21 ceases to meet one of the eligibility criteria of subdivision 3a, the responsible social services agency shall give the child written notice that foster care will terminate 30 days from the date the notice is sent. The child or the child's guardian ad litem may file a motion asking the court to review the agency's determination within 15 days of receiving the notice. The child shall not be discharged from foster care until the motion is heard. The agency shall work with the child to transition out of foster care as required under section 260C.203, paragraph (e). The written notice of termination of benefits shall be on a form prescribed by the commissioner and shall also give notice of the right to have the agency's determination reviewed by the court in the proceeding where the court conducts the reviews required under section 260C.203, 260C.317, or 260C.515, subdivision 5 or 6. A copy of the termination notice shall be sent to the child and the child's attorney, if any, the foster care provider, the child's guardian ad litem, and the court. The agency is not responsible for paying foster care benefits for any period of time after the child actually leaves foster care.
Except for children in foster care pursuant to chapter 260D, where the child is in foster care or in the care of a noncustodial or nonresident parent, the court shall commence proceedings to determine the permanent status of a child by holding the admit-deny hearing required under section 260C.507 not later than 12 months after the child is placed in foster care or in the care of a noncustodial or nonresident parent. Permanency proceedings for children in foster care pursuant to chapter 260D shall be according to section 260D.07.
(a) The responsible social services agency must ask the county attorney to immediately file a termination of parental rights petition when:
(1) the child has been subjected to egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) the child is determined to be the sibling of a child who was subjected to egregious harm;
(3) the child is an abandoned infant as defined in section 260C.301, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), clause (2);
(4) the child's parent has lost parental rights to another child through an order involuntarily terminating the parent's rights;
(5) the parent has committed sexual abuse as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2, against the child or another child of the parent;
(6) the parent has committed an offense that requires registration as a predatory offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b); or
(7) another child of the parent is the subject of an order involuntarily transferring permanent legal and physical custody of the child to a relative under this chapter or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
The county attorney shall file a termination of parental rights petition unless the conditions of paragraph (d) are met.
(b) When the termination of parental rights petition is filed under this subdivision, the responsible social services agency shall identify, recruit, and approve an adoptive family for the child. If a termination of parental rights petition has been filed by another party, the responsible social services agency shall be joined as a party to the petition.
(c) If criminal charges have been filed against a parent arising out of the conduct alleged to constitute egregious harm, the county attorney shall determine which matter should proceed to trial first, consistent with the best interests of the child and subject to the defendant's right to a speedy trial.
(d) The requirement of paragraph (a) does not apply if the responsible social services agency and the county attorney determine and file with the court:
(1) a petition for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative under sections 260C.505 and 260C.515, subdivision 3, including a determination that adoption is not in the child's best interests and that transfer of permanent legal and physical custody is in the child's best interests; or
(2) a petition under section 260C.141 alleging the child, and where appropriate, the child's siblings, to be in need of protection or services accompanied by a case plan prepared by the responsible social services agency documenting a compelling reason why filing a termination of parental rights petition would not be in the best interests of the child.
(a) For purposes of this section, the date of the child's placement in foster care is the earlier of the first court-ordered placement or 60 days after the date on which the child has been voluntarily placed in foster care by the child's parent or guardian. For purposes of this section, time spent by a child in the home of the noncustodial parent pursuant to court order under section 260C.178 or under the protective supervision of the responsible social services agency in the home of the noncustodial parent pursuant to an order under section 260C.201, subdivision 1, counts towards the requirement of a permanency hearing under this section. Time spent on a trial home visit counts towards the requirement of a permanency hearing under this section and the permanency progress review required under section 260C.204.
(b) For the purposes of this section, 12 months is calculated as follows:
(1) during the pendency of a petition alleging that a child is in need of protection or services, all time periods when a child is placed in foster care or in the home of a noncustodial parent are cumulated;
(2) if a child has been placed in foster care within the previous five years under one or more previous petitions, the lengths of all prior time periods when the child was placed in foster care within the previous five years are cumulated. If a child under this clause has been in foster care for 12 months or more, the court, if it is in the best interests of the child and for compelling reasons, may extend the total time the child may continue out of the home under the current petition up to an additional six months before making a permanency determination.
(c) If the child is on a trial home visit 12 months after the child was placed in foster care or in the care of a noncustodial parent, the responsible social services agency may file a report with the court regarding the child's and parent's progress on the trial home visit and the agency's reasonable efforts to finalize the child's safe and permanent return to the care of the parent in lieu of filing the petition required under section 260C.505. The court shall make findings regarding the reasonable efforts of the agency to finalize the child's return home as the permanency disposition order in the best interests of the child. The court may continue the trial home visit to a total time not to exceed six months as provided in section 260C.201, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (3). If the court finds the agency has not made reasonable efforts to finalize the child's return home as the permanency disposition order in the child's best interests, the court may order other or additional efforts to support the child remaining in the care of the parent. If a trial home visit ordered or continued at permanency proceedings under sections 260C.503 to 260C.521 terminates, the court shall commence or recommence permanency proceedings under this chapter no later than 30 days after the child is returned to foster care or to the care of a noncustodial parent.
(a) A permanency or termination of parental rights petition must be filed at or prior to the time the child has been in foster care or in the care of a noncustodial or nonresident parent for 11 months or in the expedited manner required in section 260C.503, subdivision 2, paragraph (a). The court administrator shall serve the petition as required in the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure and section 260C.152 for the admit-deny hearing on the petition required in section 260C.507.
(b) A petition under this section is not required if the responsible social services agency intends to recommend that the child return to the care of the parent from whom the child was removed at or prior to the time the court is required to hold the admit-deny hearing required under section 260C.507.
(a) An admit-deny hearing on the permanency or termination of parental rights petition shall be held not later than 12 months from the child's placement in foster care or an order for the child to be in the care of a noncustodial or nonresident parent.
(b) An admit-deny hearing on the termination of parental rights or transfer of permanent legal and physical custody petition required to be immediately filed under section 260C.503, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), shall be within ten days of the filing of the petition.
(c) At the admit-deny hearing, the court shall determine whether there is a prima facie basis for finding that the agency made reasonable efforts, or in the case of an Indian child active efforts, for reunification as required or that reasonable efforts for reunification are not required under section 260.012 and proceed according to the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure.
The permanency proceedings shall be conducted in a timely fashion including that any trial required under section 260C.163 shall be commenced within 60 days of the admit-deny hearing required under section 260C.507. At the conclusion of the permanency proceedings, the court shall:
(1) order the child returned to the care of the parent or guardian from whom the child was removed; or
(2) order a permanency disposition under section 260C.515 or termination of parental rights under sections 260C.301 to 260C.328 if a permanency disposition order or termination of parental rights is in the child's best interests.
(a) The "best interests of the child" means all relevant factors to be considered and evaluated.
(b) In making a permanency disposition order or termination of parental rights, the court must be governed by the best interests of the child, including a review of the relationship between the child and relatives and the child and other important persons with whom the child has resided or had significant contact.
(a) Termination of parental rights and adoption, or guardianship to the commissioner of human services through a consent to adopt are preferred permanency options for a child who cannot return home. If the court finds that termination of parental rights and guardianship to the commissioner is not in the child's best interests, the court may transfer permanent legal and physical custody of the child to a relative when that order is in the child's best interests.
(b) When the court has determined that permanent placement of the child away from the parent is necessary, the court shall consider permanent alternative homes that are available both inside and outside the state.
If the child is not returned to the home at or before the conclusion of permanency proceedings under sections 260C.503 to 260C.521, the court must order one of the permanency dispositions in this section.
The court may order:
(1) termination of parental rights when the requirements of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328 are met; or
(2) the responsible social services agency to file a petition for termination of parental rights in which case all the requirements of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328 remain applicable.
The court may order guardianship to the commissioner of human services under the following procedures and conditions:
(1) there is an identified prospective adoptive parent agreed to by the responsible social services agency having legal custody of the child pursuant to court order under this chapter and that prospective adoptive parent has agreed to adopt the child;
(2) the court accepts the parent's voluntary consent to adopt in writing on a form prescribed by the commissioner, executed before two competent witnesses and confirmed by the consenting parent before the court or executed before court. The consent shall contain notice that consent given under this chapter:
(i) is irrevocable upon acceptance by the court unless fraud is established and an order issues permitting revocation as stated in clause (9) unless the matter is governed by the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, section 1913(c); and
(ii) will result in an order that the child is under the guardianship of the commissioner of human services;
(3) a consent executed and acknowledged outside of this state, either in accordance with the law of this state or in accordance with the law of the place where executed, is valid;
(4) the court must review the matter at least every 90 days under section 260C.317;
(5) a consent to adopt under this subdivision vests guardianship of the child with the commissioner of human services and makes the child a ward of the commissioner of human services under section 260C.325;
(6) the court must forward to the commissioner a copy of the consent to adopt, together with a certified copy of the order transferring guardianship to the commissioner;
(7) if an adoption is not finalized by the identified prospective adoptive parent within six months of the execution of the consent to adopt under this clause, the responsible social services agency shall pursue adoptive placement in another home unless the court finds in a hearing under section 260C.317 that the failure to finalize is not due to either an action or a failure to act by the prospective adoptive parent;
(8) notwithstanding clause (7), the responsible social services agency must pursue adoptive placement in another home as soon as the agency determines that finalization of the adoption with the identified prospective adoptive parent is not possible, that the identified prospective adoptive parent is not willing to adopt the child, or that the identified prospective adoptive parent is not cooperative in completing the steps necessary to finalize the adoption;
(9) unless otherwise required by the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, section 1913(c), a consent to adopt executed under this section shall be irrevocable upon acceptance by the court except upon order permitting revocation issued by the same court after written findings that consent was obtained by fraud.
The court may order permanent legal and physical custody to a relative in the best interests of the child according to the following conditions:
(1) an order for transfer of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative shall only be made after the court has reviewed the suitability of the prospective legal and physical custodian;
(2) in transferring permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, the juvenile court shall follow the standards applicable under this chapter and chapter 260, and the procedures in the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure;
(3) a transfer of legal and physical custody includes responsibility for the protection, education, care, and control of the child and decision making on behalf of the child;
(4) a permanent legal and physical custodian may not return a child to the permanent care of a parent from whom the court removed custody without the court's approval and without notice to the responsible social services agency;
(5) the social services agency may file a petition naming a fit and willing relative as a proposed permanent legal and physical custodian;
(6) another party to the permanency proceeding regarding the child may file a petition to transfer permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, but the petition must be filed not later than the date for the required admit/deny hearing under section 260C.507; or if the agency's petition is filed under section 260C.503, subdivision 2, the petition must be filed not later than 30 days prior to the trial required under section 260C.509; and
(7) the juvenile court may maintain jurisdiction over the responsible social services agency, the parents or guardian of the child, the child, and the permanent legal and physical custodian for purposes of ensuring appropriate services are delivered to the child and permanent legal custodian for the purpose of ensuring conditions ordered by the court related to the care and custody of the child are met.
The court may order permanent custody to the responsible social services agency for continued placement of the child in foster care but only if it approves the responsible social services agency's compelling reasons that no other permanency disposition order is in the child's best interests, and:
(1) the child has reached age 12;
(2) the child is a sibling of a child described in clause (1) and the siblings have a significant positive relationship and are ordered into the same foster home;
(3) the responsible social services agency has made reasonable efforts to locate and place the child with an adoptive family or a fit and willing relative who would either agree to adopt the child or to a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of the child, but these efforts have not proven successful; and
(4) the parent will continue to have visitation or contact with the child and will remain involved in planning for the child.
The court may order temporary legal custody to the responsible social services agency for continued placement of the child in foster care for a specified period of time according to the following conditions:
(1) the sole basis for an adjudication that the child is in need of protection or services is the child's behavior;
(2) the court finds that foster care for a specified period of time is in the best interests of the child;
(3) the court approves the responsible social services agency's compelling reasons that neither an award of permanent legal and physical custody to a relative, nor termination of parental rights is in the child's best interests; and
(4) the order specifies that the child continue in foster care no longer than one year.
(a) Except for an order terminating parental rights, an order permanently placing a child out of the home of the parent or guardian must include the following detailed findings:
(1) how the child's best interests are served by the order;
(2) the nature and extent of the responsible social services agency's reasonable efforts, or, in the case of an Indian child, active efforts to reunify the child with the parent or guardian where reasonable efforts are required;
(3) the parent's or parents' efforts and ability to use services to correct the conditions which led to the out-of-home placement; and
(4) that the conditions which led to the out-of-home placement have not been corrected so that the child can safely return home.
(b) The court shall issue an order required under section 260C.515 and this section within 15 days of the close of the proceedings. The court may extend issuing the order an additional 15 days when necessary in the interests of justice and the best interests of the child.
Once a permanency disposition order has been made, further court hearings are necessary if:
(1) the child is ordered on a trial home visit or under the protective supervision of the responsible social services agency;
(2) the child continues in foster care;
(3) the court orders further hearings in a transfer of permanent legal and physical custody matter including if a party seeks to modify an order under section 260C.521, subdivision 2;
(4) an adoption has not yet been finalized; or
(5) the child returns to foster care after the court has entered an order for a permanency disposition under this section.
(a) Court reviews of an order for permanent custody to the responsible social services agency for placement of the child in foster care must be conducted at least yearly at an in-court appearance hearing.
(b) The purpose of the review hearing is to ensure:
(1) the order for permanent custody to the responsible social services agency for placement of the child in foster care continues to be in the best interests of the child and that no other permanency disposition order is in the best interests of the child;
(2) that the agency is assisting the child to build connections to the child's family and community; and
(3) that the agency is appropriately planning with the child for development of independent living skills for the child, and as appropriate, for the orderly and successful transition to independent living that may occur if the child continues in foster care without another permanency disposition order.
(c) The court must review the child's out-of-home placement plan and the reasonable efforts of the agency to finalize an alternative permanent plan for the child including the agency's efforts to:
(1) ensure that permanent custody to the agency with placement of the child in foster care continues to be the most appropriate legal arrangement for meeting the child's need for permanency and stability or, if not, to identify and attempt to finalize another permanency disposition order under this chapter that would better serve the child's needs and best interests;
(2) identify a specific foster home for the child, if one has not already been identified;
(3) support continued placement of the child in the identified home, if one has been identified;
(4) ensure appropriate services are provided to address the physical health, mental health, and educational needs of the child during the period of foster care and also ensure appropriate services or assistance to maintain relationships with appropriate family members and the child's community; and
(5) plan for the child's independence upon the child's leaving foster care living as required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1.
(d) The court may find that the agency has made reasonable efforts to finalize the permanent plan for the child when:
(1) the agency has made reasonable efforts to identify a more legally permanent home for the child than is provided by an order for permanent custody to the agency for placement in foster care; and
(2) the agency's engagement of the child in planning for independent living is reasonable and appropriate.
An order for a relative to have permanent legal and physical custody of a child may be modified using standards under sections 518.18 and 518.185. The social services agency is a party to the proceeding and must receive notice.
(a) A parent may seek modification of an order for permanent custody of the child to the responsible social services agency for placement in foster care upon motion and a showing by the parent of a substantial change in the parent's circumstances such that the parent could provide appropriate care for the child and that removal of the child from the permanent custody of the agency and the return to the parent's care would be in the best interests of the child.
(b) The responsible social services agency may ask the court to vacate an order for permanent custody to the agency upon a petition and hearing pursuant to section 260C.163 establishing the basis for the court to order another permanency disposition under this chapter, including termination of parental rights based on abandonment if the parent has not visited the child, maintained contact with the child, or participated in planning for the child as required under section 260C.515, subdivision 5. The responsible social services agency must establish that the proposed permanency disposition order is in the child's best interests. Upon a hearing where the court determines the petition is proved, the court may vacate the order for permanent custody and enter a different order for a permanent disposition that is in the child's best interests. The court shall not require further reasonable efforts to reunify the child with the parent or guardian as a basis for vacating the order for permanent custody to the agency and ordering a different permanency disposition in the child's best interests. The county attorney must file the petition and give notice as required under the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure in order to modify an order for permanent custody under this subdivision.
This article is effective August 1, 2012.
(a) The commissioner of human services may authorize projects to test tribal delivery of child welfare services to American Indian children and their parents and custodians living on the reservation. The commissioner has authority to solicit and determine which tribes may participate in a project. Grants may be issued to Minnesota Indian tribes to support the projects. The commissioner may waive existing state rules as needed to accomplish the projects. Notwithstanding section 626.556, the commissioner may authorize projects to use alternative methods of investigating and assessing reports of child maltreatment, provided that the projects comply with the provisions of section 626.556 dealing with the rights of individuals who are subjects of reports or investigations, including notice and appeal rights and data practices requirements. The commissioner may seek any federal approvals necessary to carry out the projects as well as seek and use any funds available to the commissioner, including use of federal funds, foundation funds, existing grant funds, and other funds. The commissioner is authorized to advance state funds as necessary to operate the projects. Federal reimbursement applicable to the projects is appropriated to the commissioner for the purposes of the projects. The projects must be required to address responsibility for safety, permanency, and well-being of children.
(b) For the purposes of this section, "American Indian child" means a person under 18 years of age 21 years old and who is a tribal member or eligible for membership in one of the tribes chosen for a project under this subdivision and who is residing on the reservation of that tribe.
(c) In order to qualify for an American Indian child welfare project, a tribe must:
(1) be one of the existing tribes with reservation land in Minnesota;
(2) have a tribal court with jurisdiction over child custody proceedings;
(3) have a substantial number of children for whom determinations of maltreatment have occurred;
(4) have capacity to respond to reports of abuse and neglect under section 626.556;
(5) provide a wide range of services to families in need of child welfare services; and
(6) have a tribal-state title IV-E agreement in effect.
(d) Grants awarded under this section may be used for the nonfederal costs of providing child welfare services to American Indian children on the tribe's reservation, including costs associated with:
(1) assessment and prevention of child abuse and neglect;
(2) family preservation;
(3) facilitative, supportive, and reunification services;
(4) out-of-home placement for children removed from the home for child protective purposes; and
(5) other activities and services approved by the commissioner that further the goals of providing safety, permanency, and well-being of American Indian children.
(e) When a tribe has initiated a project and has been approved by the commissioner to assume child welfare responsibilities for American Indian children of that tribe under this section, the affected county social service agency is relieved of responsibility for responding to reports of abuse and neglect under section 626.556 for those children during the time within which the tribal project is in effect and funded. The commissioner shall work with tribes and affected counties to develop procedures for data collection, evaluation, and clarification of ongoing role and financial responsibilities of the county and tribe for child welfare services prior to initiation of the project. Children who have not been identified by the tribe as participating in the project shall remain the responsibility of the county. Nothing in this section shall alter responsibilities of the county for law enforcement or court services.
(f) Participating tribes may conduct children's mental health screenings under section 245.4874, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (14), for children who are eligible for the initiative and living on the reservation and who meet one of the following criteria:
(1) the child must be receiving child protective services;
(2) the child must be in foster care; or
(3) the child's parents must have had parental rights suspended or terminated.
Tribes may access reimbursement from available state funds for conducting the screenings. Nothing in this section shall alter responsibilities of the county for providing services under section 245.487.
(g) Participating tribes may establish a local child mortality review panel. In establishing a local child mortality review panel, the tribe agrees to conduct local child mortality reviews for child deaths or near-fatalities occurring on the reservation under subdivision 12. Tribes with established child mortality review panels shall have access to nonpublic data and shall protect nonpublic data under subdivision 12, paragraphs (c) to (e). The tribe shall provide written notice to the commissioner and affected counties when a local child mortality review panel has been established and shall provide data upon request of the commissioner for purposes of sharing nonpublic data with members of the state child mortality review panel in connection to an individual case.
(h) The commissioner shall collect information on outcomes relating to child safety, permanency, and well-being of American Indian children who are served in the projects. Participating tribes must provide information to the state in a format and completeness deemed acceptable by the state to meet state and federal reporting requirements.
(i) In consultation with the White Earth Band, the commissioner shall develop and submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services a plan to transfer legal responsibility for providing child protective services to White Earth Band member children residing in Hennepin County to the White Earth Band. The plan shall include a financing proposal, definitions of key terms, statutory amendments required, and other provisions required to implement the plan. The commissioner shall submit the plan by January 15, 2012.
Hospitals that provide obstetric services and the state registrar of vital statistics shall distribute the educational materials and recognition of parentage forms prepared by the commissioner of human services to new parents; and shall assist parents in understanding the recognition of parentage form, including following the provisions for notice under subdivision 5; shall provide notary services for parents who complete the recognition of parentage form; and shall timely file the completed recognition of parentage form with the Office of the State Registrar of Vital Statistics unless otherwise instructed by the Office of the State Registrar of Vital Statistics. On and after January 1, 1994, hospitals may not distribute the declaration of parentage forms.
(a) When a court order provides for child care expenses, and child care support is not assigned under section 256.741, the public authority, if the public authority provides child support enforcement services, must may suspend collecting the amount allocated for child care expenses when:
(1) either party informs the public authority that no child care costs are being incurred; and:
(2) (1) the public authority verifies the accuracy of the information with the obligee.; or
(2) the obligee fails to respond within 30 days of the date of a written request from the public authority for information regarding child care costs. A written or oral response from the obligee that child care costs are being incurred is sufficient for the public authority to continue collecting child care expenses.
The suspension is effective as of the first day of the month following the date that the public authority received the verification either verified the information with the obligee or the obligee failed to respond. The public authority will resume collecting child care expenses when either party provides information that child care costs have resumed are incurred, or when a child care support assignment takes effect under section 256.741, subdivision 4. The resumption is effective as of the first day of the month after the date that the public authority received the information.
(b) If the parties provide conflicting information to the public authority regarding whether child care expenses are being incurred, or if the public authority is unable to verify with the obligee that no child care costs are being incurred, the public authority will continue or resume collecting child care expenses. Either party, by motion to the court, may challenge the suspension, continuation, or resumption of the collection of child care expenses under this subdivision. If the public authority suspends collection activities for the amount allocated for child care expenses, all other provisions of the court order remain in effect.
(c) In cases where there is a substantial increase or decrease in child care expenses, the parties may modify the order under section 518A.39.
(a) A tribunal of this state issuing a support order consistent with the law of this state has continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over a child support order unless:
(1) as long as this state remains is no longer the residence of the obligor, the individual obligee, or and the child for whose benefit the support order is issued; or
(2) until all of the parties who are individuals have filed written consents with the tribunal of this state for a tribunal of another state to modify the order and assume continuing, exclusive jurisdiction.
(b) A tribunal of this state issuing a child support order consistent with the law of this state may not exercise its continuing jurisdiction to modify the order if the order has been modified by a tribunal of another state pursuant to this chapter or a law substantially similar to this chapter.
(c) If a child support order of this state is modified by a tribunal of another state pursuant to this chapter or a law substantially similar to this chapter, a tribunal of this state loses its continuing, exclusive jurisdiction with regard to prospective enforcement of the order issued in this state, and may only:
(1) enforce the order that was modified as to amounts accruing before the modification;
(2) enforce nonmodifiable aspects of that order; and
(3) provide other appropriate relief for violations of that order which occurred before the effective date of the modification.
(d) A tribunal of this state shall recognize the continuing, exclusive jurisdiction of a tribunal of another state which has issued a child support order pursuant to this chapter or a law substantially similar to this chapter.
(e) A temporary support order issued ex parte or pending resolution of a jurisdictional conflict does not create continuing, exclusive jurisdiction in the issuing tribunal.
(f) A tribunal of this state issuing a support order consistent with the law of this state has continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over a spousal support order throughout the existence of the support obligation. A tribunal of this state may not modify a spousal support order issued by a tribunal of another state having continuing, exclusive jurisdiction over that order under the law of that state.
The commissioner of human services shall initiate procedures no later than October 1, 2012, to enter into a reciprocal agreement with Bermuda for the establishment and enforcement of child support obligations pursuant to United States Code, title 42, section 659a(d).
This section is effective upon Bermuda's written acceptance and agreement to enforce Minnesota child support orders. If Bermuda does not accept and declines to enforce Minnesota orders, this section expires October 1, 2013.
This article is effective August 1, 2012.
Each person or authorized child-placing agency permitted by law to receive children, secure homes for children, or care for children, shall keep a record containing the name, age, former residence, legal status, health records, sex, race, and accumulated length of time in foster care, if applicable, of each child received; the name, former residence, occupation, health history, and character, of each birth parent; the date of reception, placing out, and adoption of each child, and the name, race, occupation, and residence of the person with whom a child is placed; the date of the removal of any child to another home and the reason for removal; the date of termination of the guardianship; the history of each child until the child reaches the age of 18 21 years, is legally adopted, or is discharged according to law; and further demographic and other information as is required by the commissioner of human services.
The commissioner of human services may transfer funds into the subsidized adoption assistance account when a deficit in the subsidized adoption assistance program occurs.
The commissioner of human services shall provide reimbursement of up to $2,000 to the adoptive parent or parents for costs incurred in adopting a child with special needs. The commissioner shall determine the child's eligibility for adoption expense reimbursement under title IV-E of the Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, sections 670 to 676. To be reimbursed, costs must be reasonable, necessary, and directly related to the legal adoption of the child. An individual may apply for reimbursement for costs incurred in an adoption of a child with special needs under section 259A.70.
The juvenile court may upon petition, terminate all rights of a parent to a child:
(a) with the written consent of a parent who for good cause desires to terminate parental rights; or
(b) if it finds that one or more of the following conditions exist:
(1) that the parent has abandoned the child;
(2) that the parent has substantially, continuously, or repeatedly refused or neglected to comply with the duties imposed upon that parent by the parent and child relationship, including but not limited to providing the child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, and other care and control necessary for the child's physical, mental, or emotional health and development, if the parent is physically and financially able, and either reasonable efforts by the social services agency have failed to correct the conditions that formed the basis of the petition or reasonable efforts would be futile and therefore unreasonable;
(3) that a parent has been ordered to contribute to the support of the child or financially aid in the child's birth and has continuously failed to do so without good cause. This clause shall not be construed to state a grounds for termination of parental rights of a noncustodial parent if that parent has not been ordered to or cannot financially contribute to the support of the child or aid in the child's birth;
(4) that a parent is palpably unfit to be a party to the parent and child relationship because of a consistent pattern of specific conduct before the child or of specific conditions directly relating to the parent and child relationship either of which are determined by the court to be of a duration or nature that renders the parent unable, for the reasonably foreseeable future, to care appropriately for the ongoing physical, mental, or emotional needs of the child. It is presumed that a parent is palpably unfit to be a party to the parent and child relationship upon a showing that the parent's parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily terminated or that the parent's custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (e), clause (1), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(5) that following the child's placement out of the home, reasonable efforts, under the direction of the court, have failed to correct the conditions leading to the child's placement. It is presumed that reasonable efforts under this clause have failed upon a showing that:
(i) a child has resided out of the parental home under court order for a cumulative period of 12 months within the preceding 22 months. In the case of a child under age eight at the time the petition was filed alleging the child to be in need of protection or services, the presumption arises when the child has resided out of the parental home under court order for six months unless the parent has maintained regular contact with the child and the parent is complying with the out-of-home placement plan;
(ii) the court has approved the out-of-home placement plan required under section 260C.212 and filed with the court under section 260C.178;
(iii) conditions leading to the out-of-home placement have not been corrected. It is presumed that conditions leading to a child's out-of-home placement have not been corrected upon a showing that the parent or parents have not substantially complied with the court's orders and a reasonable case plan; and
(iv) reasonable efforts have been made by the social services agency to rehabilitate the parent and reunite the family.
This clause does not prohibit the termination of parental rights prior to one year, or in the case of a child under age eight, prior to six months after a child has been placed out of the home.
It is also presumed that reasonable efforts have failed under this clause upon a showing that:
(A) the parent has been diagnosed as chemically dependent by a professional certified to make the diagnosis;
(B) the parent has been required by a case plan to participate in a chemical dependency treatment program;
(C) the treatment programs offered to the parent were culturally, linguistically, and clinically appropriate;
(D) the parent has either failed two or more times to successfully complete a treatment program or has refused at two or more separate meetings with a caseworker to participate in a treatment program; and
(E) the parent continues to abuse chemicals.
(6) that a child has experienced egregious harm in the parent's care which is of a nature, duration, or chronicity that indicates a lack of regard for the child's well-being, such that a reasonable person would believe it contrary to the best interest of the child or of any child to be in the parent's care;
(7) that in the case of a child born to a mother who was not married to the child's father when the child was conceived nor when the child was born the person is not entitled to notice of an adoption hearing under section 259.49 and the person has not registered with the fathers' adoption registry under section 259.52;
(8) that the child is neglected and in foster care; or
(9) that the parent has been convicted of a crime listed in section 260.012, paragraph (g), clauses (1) to (3) (5).
In an action involving an American Indian child, sections 260.751 to 260.835 and the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title 25, sections 1901 to 1923, control to the extent that the provisions of this section are inconsistent with those laws.
(a) After the court conducts a permanency review hearing under section 260D.07, the matter must be returned to the court for further review of the responsible social services reasonable efforts to finalize the permanent plan for the child and the child's foster care placement at least every 12 months while the child is in foster care. The court shall give notice to the parent and child, age 12 or older, and the foster parents of the continued review requirements under this section at the permanency review hearing.
(b) Every 12 months, the court shall determine whether the agency made reasonable efforts to finalize the permanency plan for the child, which means the exercise of due diligence by the agency to:
(1) ensure that the agreement for voluntary foster care is the most appropriate legal arrangement to meet the child's safety, health, and best interests and to conduct a genuine examination of whether there is another permanency disposition order under chapter 260C, including returning the child home, that would better serve the child's need for a stable and permanent home;
(2) engage and support the parent in continued involvement in planning and decision making for the needs of the child;
(3) strengthen the child's ties to the parent, relatives, and community;
(4) implement the out-of-home placement plan required under section 260C.212, subdivision 1, and ensure that the plan requires the provision of appropriate services to address the physical health, mental health, and educational needs of the child; and
(5) ensure appropriate planning for the child's safe, permanent, and independent living arrangement after the child's 18th birthday.
A peace officer who arrests a person accompanied by a child of the person may release the child to any person designated by the parent unless it is necessary to remove the child under section 260C.175 because the child is found in surroundings or conditions which endanger the child's health or welfare or which the peace officer reasonably believes will endanger the child's health or welfare. An officer releasing a child under this section to a person designated by the parent has no civil or criminal liability for the child's release.
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:
(a) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege substantial child endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
(b) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports involve substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed under chapter 245A or 245B; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and 124D.10; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(c) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, and in the case of sexual abuse includes a person who has a significant relationship to the child as defined in section 609.341, or a person in a position of authority as defined in section 609.341, who by act or omission commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:
(1) egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) sexual abuse as defined in paragraph (d);
(3) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;
(4) neglect as defined in paragraph (f), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(5) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;
(6) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;
(7) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;
(8) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;
(9) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;
(10) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;
(11) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377 or 609.378;
(12) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or
(13) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.301, subdivision 3, paragraph (a).
(d) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341, or by a person in a position of authority, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), or 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse which includes the status of a parent or household member who has committed a violation which requires registration as an offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b), or required registration under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).
(e) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.
(f) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:
(1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so;
(2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition, length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;
(4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and 260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision 5;
(5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, or caretaker, or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report if a lack of medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does not impose upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;
(6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the child at birth, or medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, or the presence of a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder;
(7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);
(8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or person responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety; or
(9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired emotional functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.
(g) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been authorized under section 121A.67 or 245.825.
Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not limited to, any of the following that are done in anger or without regard to the safety of the child:
(1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;
(2) striking a child with a closed fist;
(3) shaking a child under age three;
(4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18 months of age;
(5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;
(6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;
(7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;
(8) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;
(9) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or
(10) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's care that is a violation under section 121A.58.
(h) "Report" means any report received by the local welfare agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for assessing or investigating maltreatment pursuant to this section.
(i) "Facility" means:
(1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter 245B;
(2) a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and 124D.10; or
(3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(j) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.
(k) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.
(l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is not limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and parenting time expeditor services.
(m) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's culture.
(n) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in paragraph (e), clause (1), who has:
(1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14, or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, paragraph (b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
(4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), or a similar law of another jurisdiction.
(o) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and safety.
(p) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence or event which:
(1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and
(2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.
(q) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:
(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;
(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;
(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;
(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or not; and
(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the incident.
This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of substantiated maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.
(a) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare agency shall determine whether to conduct a family assessment or an investigation as appropriate to prevent or provide a remedy for child maltreatment. The local welfare agency:
(1) shall conduct an investigation on reports involving substantial child endangerment;
(2) shall begin an immediate investigation if, at any time when it is using a family assessment response, it determines that there is reason to believe that substantial child endangerment or a serious threat to the child's safety exists;
(3) may conduct a family assessment for reports that do not allege substantial child endangerment. In determining that a family assessment is appropriate, the local welfare agency may consider issues of child safety, parental cooperation, and the need for an immediate response; and
(4) may conduct a family assessment on a report that was initially screened and assigned for an investigation. In determining that a complete investigation is not required, the local welfare agency must document the reason for terminating the investigation and notify the local law enforcement agency if the local law enforcement agency is conducting a joint investigation.
If the report alleges neglect, physical abuse, or sexual abuse by a parent, guardian, or individual functioning within the family unit as a person responsible for the child's care, or sexual abuse by a person with a significant relationship to the child when that person resides in the child's household or by a sibling, the local welfare agency shall immediately conduct a family assessment or investigation as identified in clauses (1) to (4). In conducting a family assessment or investigation, the local welfare agency shall gather information on the existence of substance abuse and domestic violence and offer services for purposes of preventing future child maltreatment, safeguarding and enhancing the welfare of the abused or neglected minor, and supporting and preserving family life whenever possible. If the report alleges a violation of a criminal statute involving sexual abuse, physical abuse, or neglect or endangerment, under section 609.378, the local law enforcement agency and local welfare agency shall coordinate the planning and execution of their respective investigation and assessment efforts to avoid a duplication of fact-finding efforts and multiple interviews. Each agency shall prepare a separate report of the results of its investigation. In cases of alleged child maltreatment resulting in death, the local agency may rely on the fact-finding efforts of a law enforcement investigation to make a determination of whether or not maltreatment occurred. When necessary the local welfare agency shall seek authority to remove the child from the custody of a parent, guardian, or adult with whom the child is living. In performing any of these duties, the local welfare agency shall maintain appropriate records.
If the family assessment or investigation indicates there is a potential for abuse of alcohol or other drugs by the parent, guardian, or person responsible for the child's care, the local welfare agency shall conduct a chemical use assessment pursuant to Minnesota Rules, part 9530.6615.
(b) When a local agency receives a report or otherwise has information indicating that a child who is a client, as defined in section 245.91, has been the subject of physical abuse, sexual abuse, or neglect at an agency, facility, or program as defined in section 245.91, it shall, in addition to its other duties under this section, immediately inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97. The commissioner of education shall inform the ombudsman established under sections 245.91 to 245.97 of reports regarding a child defined as a client in section 245.91 that maltreatment occurred at a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and 124D.10.
(c) Authority of the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the child abuse or neglect report, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, and of the local law enforcement agency for investigating the alleged abuse or neglect includes, but is not limited to, authority to interview, without parental consent, the alleged victim and any other minors who currently reside with or who have resided with the alleged offender. The interview may take place at school or at any facility or other place where the alleged victim or other minors might be found or the child may be transported to, and the interview conducted at, a place appropriate for the interview of a child designated by the local welfare agency or law enforcement agency. The interview may take place outside the presence of the alleged offender or parent, legal custodian, guardian, or school official. For family assessments, it is the preferred practice to request a parent or guardian's permission to interview the child prior to conducting the child interview, unless doing so would compromise the safety assessment. Except as provided in this paragraph, the parent, legal custodian, or guardian shall be notified by the responsible local welfare or law enforcement agency no later than the conclusion of the investigation or assessment that this interview has occurred. Notwithstanding rule 32 of the Minnesota Rules of Procedure for Juvenile Courts, the juvenile court may, after hearing on an ex parte motion by the local welfare agency, order that, where reasonable cause exists, the agency withhold notification of this interview from the parent, legal custodian, or guardian. If the interview took place or is to take place on school property, the order shall specify that school officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification of intent to interview the child on school property, as provided under this paragraph, and any other related information regarding the interview that may be a part of the child's school record. A copy of the order shall be sent by the local welfare or law enforcement agency to the appropriate school official.
(d) When the local welfare, local law enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment determines that an interview should take place on school property, written notification of intent to interview the child on school property must be received by school officials prior to the interview. The notification shall include the name of the child to be interviewed, the purpose of the interview, and a reference to the statutory authority to conduct an interview on school property. For interviews conducted by the local welfare agency, the notification shall be signed by the chair of the local social services agency or the chair's designee. The notification shall be private data on individuals subject to the provisions of this paragraph. School officials may not disclose to the parent, legal custodian, or guardian the contents of the notification or any other related information regarding the interview until notified in writing by the local welfare or law enforcement agency that the investigation or assessment has been concluded, unless a school employee or agent is alleged to have maltreated the child. Until that time, the local welfare or law enforcement agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating a report of maltreatment shall be solely responsible for any disclosures regarding the nature of the assessment or investigation.
Except where the alleged offender is believed to be a school official or employee, the time and place, and manner of the interview on school premises shall be within the discretion of school officials, but the local welfare or law enforcement agency shall have the exclusive authority to determine who may attend the interview. The conditions as to time, place, and manner of the interview set by the school officials shall be reasonable and the interview shall be conducted not more than 24 hours after the receipt of the notification unless another time is considered necessary by agreement between the school officials and the local welfare or law enforcement agency. Where the school fails to comply with the provisions of this paragraph, the juvenile court may order the school to comply. Every effort must be made to reduce the disruption of the educational program of the child, other students, or school staff when an interview is conducted on school premises.
(e) Where the alleged offender or a person responsible for the care of the alleged victim or other minor prevents access to the victim or other minor by the local welfare agency, the juvenile court may order the parents, legal custodian, or guardian to produce the alleged victim or other minor for questioning by the local welfare agency or the local law enforcement agency outside the presence of the alleged offender or any person responsible for the child's care at reasonable places and times as specified by court order.
(f) Before making an order under paragraph (e), the court shall issue an order to show cause, either upon its own motion or upon a verified petition, specifying the basis for the requested interviews and fixing the time and place of the hearing. The order to show cause shall be served personally and shall be heard in the same manner as provided in other cases in the juvenile court. The court shall consider the need for appointment of a guardian ad litem to protect the best interests of the child. If appointed, the guardian ad litem shall be present at the hearing on the order to show cause.
(g) The commissioner of human services, the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities, the local welfare agencies responsible for investigating reports, the commissioner of education, and the local law enforcement agencies have the right to enter facilities as defined in subdivision 2 and to inspect and copy the facility's records, including medical records, as part of the investigation. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 13, they also have the right to inform the facility under investigation that they are conducting an investigation, to disclose to the facility the names of the individuals under investigation for abusing or neglecting a child, and to provide the facility with a copy of the report and the investigative findings.
(h) The local welfare agency responsible for conducting a family assessment or investigation shall collect available and relevant information to determine child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs and share not public information with an Indian's tribal social services agency without violating any law of the state that may otherwise impose duties of confidentiality on the local welfare agency in order to implement the tribal state agreement. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for investigating the report shall collect available and relevant information to ascertain whether maltreatment occurred and whether protective services are needed. Information collected includes, when relevant, information with regard to the person reporting the alleged maltreatment, including the nature of the reporter's relationship to the child and to the alleged offender, and the basis of the reporter's knowledge for the report; the child allegedly being maltreated; the alleged offender; the child's caretaker; and other collateral sources having relevant information related to the alleged maltreatment. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report may make a determination of no maltreatment early in an assessment investigation, and close the case and retain immunity, if the collected information shows no basis for a full assessment or investigation.
Information relevant to the assessment or investigation must be asked for, and may include:
(1) the child's sex and age, prior reports of maltreatment, information relating to developmental functioning, credibility of the child's statement, and whether the information provided under this clause is consistent with other information collected during the course of the assessment or investigation;
(2) the alleged offender's age, a record check for prior reports of maltreatment, and criminal charges and convictions. The local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report must provide the alleged offender with an opportunity to make a statement. The alleged offender may submit supporting documentation relevant to the assessment or investigation;
(3) collateral source information regarding the alleged maltreatment and care of the child. Collateral information includes, when relevant: (i) a medical examination of the child; (ii) prior medical records relating to the alleged maltreatment or the care of the child maintained by any facility, clinic, or health care professional and an interview with the treating professionals; and (iii) interviews with the child's caretakers, including the child's parent, guardian, foster parent, child care provider, teachers, counselors, family members, relatives, and other persons who may have knowledge regarding the alleged maltreatment and the care of the child; and
(4) information on the existence of domestic abuse and violence in the home of the child, and substance abuse.
Nothing in this paragraph precludes the local welfare agency, the local law enforcement agency, or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report from collecting other relevant information necessary to conduct the assessment or investigation. Notwithstanding sections 13.384 or 144.291 to 144.298, the local welfare agency has access to medical data and records for purposes of clause (3). Notwithstanding the data's classification in the possession of any other agency, data acquired by the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report during the course of the assessment or investigation are private data on individuals and must be maintained in accordance with subdivision 11. Data of the commissioner of education collected or maintained during and for the purpose of an investigation of alleged maltreatment in a school are governed by this section, notwithstanding the data's classification as educational, licensing, or personnel data under chapter 13.
In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (i), the commissioner of education shall collect investigative reports and data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are from local law enforcement and the school facility.
(i) Upon receipt of a report, the local welfare agency shall conduct a face-to-face contact with the child reported to be maltreated and with the child's primary caregiver sufficient to complete a safety assessment and ensure the immediate safety of the child. The face-to-face contact with the child and primary caregiver shall occur immediately if substantial child endangerment is alleged and within five calendar days for all other reports. If the alleged offender was not already interviewed as the primary caregiver, the local welfare agency shall also conduct a face-to-face interview with the alleged offender in the early stages of the assessment or investigation. At the initial contact, the local child welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report must inform the alleged offender of the complaints or allegations made against the individual in a manner consistent with laws protecting the rights of the person who made the report. The interview with the alleged offender may be postponed if it would jeopardize an active law enforcement investigation.
(j) When conducting an investigation, the local welfare agency shall use a question and answer interviewing format with questioning as nondirective as possible to elicit spontaneous responses. For investigations only, the following interviewing methods and procedures must be used whenever possible when collecting information:
(1) audio recordings of all interviews with witnesses and collateral sources; and
(2) in cases of alleged sexual abuse, audio-video recordings of each interview with the alleged victim and child witnesses.
(k) In conducting an assessment or investigation involving a school facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (i), the commissioner of education shall collect available and relevant information and use the procedures in paragraphs (i), (k), and subdivision 3d, except that the requirement for face-to-face observation of the child and face-to-face interview of the alleged offender is to occur in the initial stages of the assessment or investigation provided that the commissioner may also base the assessment or investigation on investigative reports and data received from the school facility and local law enforcement, to the extent those investigations satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (i) and (k), and subdivision 3d.
(a) The local welfare agency shall conclude the family assessment or the investigation within 45 days of the receipt of a report. The conclusion of the assessment or investigation may be extended to permit the completion of a criminal investigation or the receipt of expert information requested within 45 days of the receipt of the report.
(b) After conducting a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall determine whether services are needed to address the safety of the child and other family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
(c) After conducting an investigation, the local welfare agency shall make two determinations: first, whether maltreatment has occurred; and, second, whether child protective services are needed. No determination of maltreatment shall be made when the alleged perpetrator is a child under the age of ten.
(d) If the commissioner of education conducts an assessment or investigation, the commissioner shall determine whether maltreatment occurred and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. If a determination is made that maltreatment has occurred, the commissioner shall report to the employer, the school board, and any appropriate licensing entity the determination that maltreatment occurred and what corrective or protective action was taken by the school facility. In all other cases, the commissioner shall inform the school board or employer that a report was received, the subject of the report, the date of the initial report, the category of maltreatment alleged as defined in paragraph (f), the fact that maltreatment was not determined, and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination.
(e) When maltreatment is determined in an investigation involving a facility, the investigating agency shall also determine whether the facility or individual was responsible, or whether both the facility and the individual were responsible for the maltreatment using the mitigating factors in paragraph (i). Determinations under this subdivision must be made based on a preponderance of the evidence and are private data on individuals or nonpublic data as maintained by the commissioner of education.
(f) For the purposes of this subdivision, "maltreatment" means any of the following acts or omissions:
(1) physical abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (g);
(2) neglect as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (f);
(3) sexual abuse as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (d);
(4) mental injury as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (m); or
(5) maltreatment of a child in a facility as defined in subdivision 2, paragraph (i).
(g) For the purposes of this subdivision, a determination that child protective services are needed means that the local welfare agency has documented conditions during the assessment or investigation sufficient to cause a child protection worker, as defined in section 626.559, subdivision 1, to conclude that a child is at significant risk of maltreatment if protective intervention is not provided and that the individuals responsible for the child's care have not taken or are not likely to take actions to protect the child from maltreatment or risk of maltreatment.
(h) This subdivision does not mean that maltreatment has occurred solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child, in lieu of medical care. However, if lack of medical care may result in serious danger to the child's health, the local welfare agency may ensure that necessary medical services are provided to the child.
(i) When determining whether the facility or individual is the responsible party, or whether both the facility and the individual are responsible for determined maltreatment in a facility, the investigating agency shall consider at least the following mitigating factors:
(1) whether the actions of the facility or the individual caregivers were according to, and followed the terms of, an erroneous physician order, prescription, individual care plan, or directive; however, this is not a mitigating factor when the facility or caregiver was responsible for the issuance of the erroneous order, prescription, individual care plan, or directive or knew or should have known of the errors and took no reasonable measures to correct the defect before administering care;
(2) comparative responsibility between the facility, other caregivers, and requirements placed upon an employee, including the facility's compliance with related regulatory standards and the adequacy of facility policies and procedures, facility training, an individual's participation in the training, the caregiver's supervision, and facility staffing levels and the scope of the individual employee's authority and discretion; and
(3) whether the facility or individual followed professional standards in exercising professional judgment.
The evaluation of the facility's responsibility under clause (2) must not be based on the completeness of the risk assessment or risk reduction plan required under section 245A.66, but must be based on the facility's compliance with the regulatory standards for policies and procedures, training, and supervision as cited in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota Rules.
(j) Notwithstanding paragraph (i), when maltreatment is determined to have been committed by an individual who is also the facility license holder, both the individual and the facility must be determined responsible for the maltreatment, and both the background study disqualification standards under section 245C.15, subdivision 4, and the licensing actions under sections 245A.06 or 245A.07 apply.
(k) Individual counties may implement more detailed definitions or criteria that indicate which allegations to investigate, as long as a county's policies are consistent with the definitions in the statutes and rules and are approved by the county board. Each local welfare agency shall periodically inform mandated reporters under subdivision 3 who work in the county of the definitions of maltreatment in the statutes and rules and any additional definitions or criteria that have been approved by the county board.
Within ten working days of the conclusion of a family assessment, the local welfare agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child of the need for services to address child safety concerns or significant risk of subsequent child maltreatment. The local welfare agency and the family may also jointly agree that family support and family preservation services are needed. Within ten working days of the conclusion of an investigation, the local welfare agency or agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall notify the parent or guardian of the child, the person determined to be maltreating the child, and if applicable, the director of the facility, of the determination and a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. When the investigation involves a child foster care setting that is monitored by a private licensing agency under section 245A.16, the local welfare agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall notify the private licensing agency of the determination and shall provide a summary of the specific reasons for the determination. The notice to the private licensing agency must include identifying private data, but not the identity of the reporter of maltreatment. The notice must also include a certification that the information collection procedures under subdivision 10, paragraphs (h), (i), and (j), were followed and a notice of the right of a data subject to obtain access to other private data on the subject collected, created, or maintained under this section. In addition, the notice shall include the length of time that the records will be kept under subdivision 11c. The investigating agency shall notify the parent or guardian of the child who is the subject of the report, and any person or facility determined to have maltreated a child, of their appeal or review rights under this section or section 256.022. The notice must also state that a finding of maltreatment may result in denial of a license application or background study disqualification under chapter 245C related to employment or services that are licensed by the Department of Human Services under chapter 245A, the Department of Health under chapter 144 or 144A, the Department of Corrections under section 241.021, and from providing services related to an unlicensed personal care provider organization under chapter 256B.
(a) Administrative reconsideration is not applicable in family assessments since no determination concerning maltreatment is made. For investigations, except as provided under paragraph (e), an individual or facility that the commissioner of human services, a local social service agency, or the commissioner of education determines has maltreated a child, an interested person acting on behalf of the child, regardless of the determination, who contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment, may request the investigating agency to reconsider its final determination regarding maltreatment. The request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after receipt of notice of the final determination regarding maltreatment or, if the request is made by an interested person who is not entitled to notice, within 15 days after receipt of the notice by the parent or guardian of the child. If mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 15 calendar days of the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 15 calendar days after the individual's or facility's receipt of the final determination. Effective January 1, 2002, an individual who was determined to have maltreated a child under this section and who was disqualified on the basis of serious or recurring maltreatment under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, may request reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification. The request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be submitted within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification under sections 245C.16 and 245C.17. If mailed, the request for reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and the disqualification must be postmarked and sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of the individual's receipt of the maltreatment determination and notice of disqualification. If the request for reconsideration is made by personal service, it must be received by the investigating agency within 30 calendar days after the individual's receipt of the notice of disqualification.
(b) Except as provided under paragraphs (e) and (f), if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request within 15 working days after receiving the request for reconsideration, the person or facility entitled to a fair hearing under section 256.045 may submit to the commissioner of human services or the commissioner of education a written request for a hearing under that section. Section 256.045 also governs hearings requested to contest a final determination of the commissioner of education. For reports involving maltreatment of a child in a facility, an interested person acting on behalf of the child may request a review by the Child Maltreatment Review Panel under section 256.022 if the investigating agency denies the request or fails to act upon the request or if the interested person contests a reconsidered determination. The investigating agency shall notify persons who request reconsideration of their rights under this paragraph. The request must be submitted in writing to the review panel and a copy sent to the investigating agency within 30 calendar days of receipt of notice of a denial of a request for reconsideration or of a reconsidered determination. The request must specifically identify the aspects of the agency determination with which the person is dissatisfied. The hearings specified under this section are the only administrative appeal of a decision issued under paragraph (a). Determinations under this section are not subject to accuracy and completeness challenges under section 13.04.
(c) If, as a result of a reconsideration or review, the investigating agency changes the final determination of maltreatment, that agency shall notify the parties specified in subdivisions 10b, 10d, and 10f.
(d) Except as provided under paragraph (f), if an individual or facility contests the investigating agency's final determination regarding maltreatment by requesting a fair hearing under section 256.045, the commissioner of human services shall assure that the hearing is conducted and a decision is reached within 90 days of receipt of the request for a hearing. The time for action on the decision may be extended for as many days as the hearing is postponed or the record is held open for the benefit of either party.
(e) If an individual was disqualified under sections 245C.14 and 245C.15, on the basis of a determination of maltreatment, which was serious or recurring, and the individual has requested reconsideration of the maltreatment determination under paragraph (a) and requested reconsideration of the disqualification under sections 245C.21 to 245C.27, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be consolidated into a single reconsideration. If reconsideration of the maltreatment determination is denied and the individual remains disqualified following a reconsideration decision, the individual may request a fair hearing under section 256.045. If an individual requests a fair hearing on the maltreatment determination and the disqualification, the scope of the fair hearing shall include both the maltreatment determination and the disqualification.
(f) If a maltreatment determination or a disqualification based on serious or recurring maltreatment is the basis for a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, the license holder has the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 and Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612. As provided for under section 245A.08, subdivision 2a, the scope of the contested case hearing shall include the maltreatment determination, disqualification, and licensing sanction or denial of a license. In such cases, a fair hearing regarding the maltreatment determination and disqualification shall not be conducted under section 256.045. Except for family child care and child foster care, reconsideration of a maltreatment determination as provided under this subdivision, and reconsideration of a disqualification as provided under section 245C.22, shall also not be conducted when:
(1) a denial of a license under section 245A.05 or a licensing sanction under section 245A.07, is based on a determination that the license holder is responsible for maltreatment or the disqualification of a license holder based on serious or recurring maltreatment;
(2) the denial of a license or licensing sanction is issued at the same time as the maltreatment determination or disqualification; and
(3) the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, and denial of a license or licensing sanction.
Notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), if the license holder appeals the maltreatment determination or disqualification, but does not appeal the denial of a license or a licensing sanction, reconsideration of the maltreatment determination shall be conducted under sections 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d, and reconsideration of the disqualification shall be conducted under section 245C.22. In such cases, a fair hearing shall also be conducted as provided under sections 245C.27, 626.556, subdivision 10i, and 626.557, subdivision 9d.
If the disqualified subject is an individual other than the license holder and upon whom a background study must be conducted under chapter 245C, the hearings of all parties may be consolidated into a single contested case hearing upon consent of all parties and the administrative law judge.
(g) For purposes of this subdivision, "interested person acting on behalf of the child" means a parent or legal guardian; stepparent; grandparent; guardian ad litem; adult stepbrother, stepsister, or sibling; or adult aunt or uncle; unless the person has been determined to be the perpetrator of the maltreatment.
Records maintained under subdivision 11c, paragraph (a), may be shared with another local welfare agency that requests the information because it is conducting an assessment or investigation under this section of the subject of the records.
(a) The revisor of statutes shall renumber each section of Minnesota Statutes listed in column A with the number listed in column B.
Column A | Column B | |
259.69 | 259A.05, subd. 5 | |
260C.217 | 260C.139 | |
260C.501 | 260C.177 | |
260C.201, subd. 10 | 260C.202 | |
260C.212, subd. 7 | 260C.203 | |
260C.201, subd. 11a | 260C.204 | |
260C.212, subd. 4 | 260C.219 | |
260C.212, subd. 5 | 260C.221 | |
260C.213 | 260C.223 | |
260C.206 | 260C.225 | |
260C.212, subd. 8 | 260C.227 | |
260C.212, subd. 6 | 260C.521, subd. 4 | |
260C.205 | 260D.11 |
(b) The revisor of statutes shall make necessary cross-reference changes in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota Rules consistent with the numbering in articles 1 and 2 and the renumbering in paragraph (a).
(a) Minnesota Statutes 2010, sections 256.022; 259.67; 259.71; 260C.201, subdivision 11; 260C.215, subdivision 2; and 260C.456, are repealed.
(b) Minnesota Rules, parts 9560.0071; 9560.0082; 9560.0083; 9560.0091; 9560.0093, subparts 1, 3, and 4; 9560.0101; and 9560.0102, are repealed.
This article is effective August 1, 2012.
(a) The date of eligibility for child care assistance under this chapter is the later of the date the application was signed received by the county; the beginning date of employment, education, or training; the date the infant is born for applicants to the at-home infant care program; or the date a determination has been made that the applicant is a participant in employment and training services under Minnesota Rules, part 3400.0080, or chapter 256J.
(b) Payment ceases for a family under the at-home infant child care program when a family has used a total of 12 months of assistance as specified under section 119B.035. Payment of child care assistance for employed persons on MFIP is effective the date of employment or the date of MFIP eligibility, whichever is later. Payment of child care assistance for MFIP or DWP participants in employment and training services is effective the date of commencement of the services or the date of MFIP or DWP eligibility, whichever is later. Payment of child care assistance for transition year child care must be made retroactive to the date of eligibility for transition year child care.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), payment of child care assistance for participants eligible under section 119B.05 may only be made retroactive for a maximum of six months from the date of application for child care assistance.
All changes to parent fees must be implemented on the first Monday of the service period following the effective date of the change.
PARENT FEE SCHEDULE. The parent fee schedule is as follows, except as noted in subdivision 2:
Income Range (as a percent of the state median income, except at the start of the first tier) | Co-payment (as a percentage of adjusted gross income) |
0-74.99% of federal poverty guidelines | $0/month biweekly |
75.00-99.99% of federal poverty guidelines | $5/month $2/biweekly |
100.00% of federal poverty guidelines-27.72% | 2.61% |
27.73-29.04% | 2.61% |
29.05-30.36% | 2.61% |
30.37-31.68% | 2.61% |
31.69-33.00% | 2.91% |
33.01-34.32% | 2.91% |
34.33-35.65% | 2.91% |
35.66-36.96% | 2.91% |
36.97-38.29% | 3.21% |
38.30-39.61% | 3.21% |
39.62-40.93% | 3.21% |
40.94-42.25% | 3.84% |
42.26-43.57% | 3.84% |
43.58-44.89% | 4.46% |
44.90-46.21% | 4.76% |
46.22-47.53% | 5.05% |
47.54-48.85% | 5.65% |
48.86-50.17% | 5.95% |
50.18-51.49% | 6.24% |
51.50-52.81% | 6.84% |
52.82-54.13% | 7.58% |
54.14-55.45% | 8.33% |
55.46-56.77% | 9.20% |
56.78-58.09% | 10.07% |
58.10-59.41% | 10.94% |
59.42-60.73% | 11.55% |
60.74-62.06% | 12.16% |
62.07-63.38% | 12.77% |
63.39-64.70% | 13.38% |
64.71-66.99 67.00% | 14.00% |
Greater than 67.00% | ineligible |
A family's monthly biweekly co-payment fee is the fixed percentage established for the income range multiplied by the highest possible income within that income range.
A family must be assessed a parent fee for each service period. A family's parent fee must be a fixed percentage of its annual gross income. Parent fees must apply to families eligible for child care assistance under sections 119B.03 and 119B.05. Income must be as defined in section 119B.011, subdivision 15. The fixed percent is based on the relationship of the family's annual gross income to 100 percent of the annual state median income. Parent fees must begin at 75 percent of the poverty level. The minimum parent fees for families between 75 percent and 100 percent of poverty level must be $5 per month $2 per biweekly period. Parent fees must provide for graduated movement to full payment. Payment of part or all of a family's parent fee directly to the family's child care provider on behalf of the family by a source other than the family shall not affect the family's eligibility for child care assistance, and the amount paid shall be excluded from the family's income. Child care providers who accept third-party payments must maintain family specific documentation of payment source, amount, and time period covered by the payment.
This subdivision only applies to legal, nonlicensed family child care providers. Prior to authorization, and as part of each reauthorization required in subdivision 1, the county shall perform a background study on every member of the provider's household who is age 13 and older. The background study shall be conducted according to the procedures under subdivision 2. The county shall also perform a background study on an individual who has reached age ten but is not yet age 13 and is living in the household where the nonlicensed child care will be provided when the county has reasonable cause as defined under section 245C.02, subdivision 15.
(a) When any member of the legal, nonlicensed family child care provider's household meets any of the conditions under paragraphs (b) to (n), the provider must not be authorized as a legal nonlicensed family child care provider. To determine whether any of the listed conditions exist, the county must request information about the provider and other household members for whom a background study is required under subdivision 1a from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, the juvenile courts, and social service agencies. When one of the listed entities does not maintain information on a statewide basis, the county must contact the entity in the county where the provider resides and any other county in which the provider or any household member previously resided in the past year. For purposes of this subdivision, a finding that a delinquency petition is proven in juvenile court must be considered a conviction in state district court. The provider seeking authorization under this section shall collect the information required under section 245C.05, subdivision 1, and forward the information to the county agency. The background study must include a review of the information required under section 245C.08, subdivisions 2, 3, and 4, paragraph (b). A nonlicensed family child care provider is not authorized under this section if any household member who is the subject of a background study is determined to have a disqualifying characteristic under paragraphs (b) to (e) or under section 245C.14 or 245C.15. If a county has determined that a provider is able to be authorized in that county, and a family in another county later selects that provider, the provider is able to be authorized in the second county without undergoing a new background investigation unless one of the following conditions exists:
(1) two years have passed since the first authorization;
(2) another person age 13 or older has joined the provider's household since the last authorization;
(3) a current household member has turned 13 since the last authorization; or
(4) there is reason to believe that a household member has a factor that prevents authorization.
(b) The person has been convicted of one of the following offenses or has admitted to committing or a preponderance of the evidence indicates that the person has committed an act that meets the definition of one of the following offenses: sections 609.185 to 609.195, murder in the first, second, or third degree; 609.2661 to 609.2663, murder of an unborn child in the first, second, or third degree; 609.322, solicitation, inducement, promotion of prostitution, or receiving profit from prostitution; 609.342 to 609.345, criminal sexual conduct in the first, second, third, or fourth degree; 609.352, solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct; 609.365, incest; 609.377, felony malicious punishment of a child; 617.246, use of minors in sexual performance; 617.247, possession of pictorial representation of a minor; 609.2242 to 609.2243, felony domestic assault; a felony offense of spousal abuse; a felony offense of child abuse or neglect; a felony offense of a crime against children; or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country where the elements are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in this paragraph.
(c) Less than 15 years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense and the person has received a felony conviction for one of the following offenses, or the person has admitted to committing or a preponderance of the evidence indicates that the person has committed an act that meets the definition of a felony conviction for one of the following offenses: sections 609.20 to 609.205, manslaughter in the first or second degree; 609.21, criminal vehicular homicide; 609.215, aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide; 609.221 to 609.2231, assault in the first, second, third, or fourth degree; 609.224, repeat offenses of fifth-degree assault; 609.228, great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs; 609.2325, criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult; 609.2335, financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult; 609.235, use of drugs to injure or facilitate a crime; 609.24, simple robbery; 617.241, repeat offenses of obscene materials and performances; 609.245, aggravated robbery; 609.25, kidnapping; 609.255, false imprisonment; 609.2664 to 609.2665, manslaughter of an unborn child in the first or second degree; 609.267 to 609.2672, assault of an unborn child in the first, second, or third degree; 609.268, injury or death of an unborn child in the commission of a crime; 609.27, coercion; 609.275, attempt to coerce; 609.324, subdivision 1, other prohibited acts, minor engaged in prostitution; 609.3451, repeat offenses of criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree; 609.378, neglect or endangerment of a child; 609.52, theft; 609.521, possession of shoplifting gear; 609.561 to 609.563, arson in the first, second, or third degree; 609.582, burglary in the first, second, third, or fourth degree; 609.625, aggravated forgery; 609.63, forgery; 609.631, check forgery, offering a forged check; 609.635, obtaining signature by false pretenses; 609.66, dangerous weapon; 609.665, setting a spring gun; 609.67, unlawfully owning, possessing, or operating a machine gun; 609.687, adulteration; 609.71, riot; 609.713, terrorist threats; 609.749, stalking; 260C.301, termination of parental rights; 152.021 to 152.022 and 152.0262, controlled substance crime in the first or second degree; 152.023, subdivision 1, clause (3) or (4), or 152.023, subdivision 2, clause (4), controlled substance crime in third degree; 152.024, subdivision 1, clause (2), (3), or (4), controlled substance crime in fourth degree; 617.23, repeat offenses of indecent exposure; an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country where the elements are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in this paragraph.
(d) Less than ten years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense and the person has received a gross misdemeanor conviction for one of the following offenses or the person has admitted to committing or a preponderance of the evidence indicates that the person has committed an act that meets the definition of a gross misdemeanor conviction for one of the following offenses: sections 609.224, fifth-degree assault; 609.2242 to 609.2243, domestic assault; 518B.01, subdivision 14, violation of an order for protection; 609.3451, fifth-degree criminal sexual conduct; 609.746, repeat offenses of interference with privacy; 617.23, repeat offenses of indecent exposure; 617.241, obscene materials and performances; 617.243, indecent literature, distribution; 617.293, disseminating or displaying harmful material to minors; 609.71, riot; 609.66, dangerous weapons; 609.749, stalking; 609.224, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), fifth-degree assault against a vulnerable adult by a caregiver; 609.23, mistreatment of persons confined; 609.231, mistreatment of residents or patients; 609.2325, criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult; 609.2335, financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult; 609.233, criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult; 609.234, failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult; 609.72, subdivision 3, disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult; 609.265, abduction; 609.378, neglect or endangerment of a child; 609.377, malicious punishment of a child; 609.324, subdivision 1a, other prohibited acts, minor engaged in prostitution; 609.33, disorderly house; 609.52, theft; 609.582, burglary in the first, second, third, or fourth degree; 609.631, check forgery, offering a forged check; 609.275, attempt to coerce; an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country where the elements are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in this paragraph.
(e) Less than seven years have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense and the person has received a misdemeanor conviction for one of the following offenses or the person has admitted to committing or a preponderance of the evidence indicates that the person has committed an act that meets the definition of a misdemeanor conviction for one of the following offenses: sections 609.224, fifth-degree assault; 609.2242, domestic assault; 518B.01, violation of an order for protection; 609.3232, violation of an order for protection; 609.746, interference with privacy; 609.79, obscene or harassing telephone calls; 609.795, letter, telegram, or package opening, harassment; 617.23, indecent exposure; 609.2672, assault of an unborn child, third degree; 617.293, dissemination and display of harmful materials to minors; 609.66, dangerous weapons; 609.665, spring guns; an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country where the elements are substantially similar to any of the offenses listed in this paragraph.
(f) The person has been identified by the child protection agency in the county where the provider resides or a county where the provider has resided or by the statewide child protection database as a person found by a preponderance of evidence under section 626.556 to be responsible for physical or sexual abuse of a child within the last seven years.
(g) The person has been identified by the adult protection agency in the county where the provider resides or a county where the provider has resided or by the statewide adult protection database as the person responsible for abuse or neglect of a vulnerable adult within the last seven years.
(h) (b) The person has refused to give written consent for disclosure of criminal history records.
(i) (c) The person has been denied a family child care license or has received a fine or a sanction as a licensed child care provider that has not been reversed on appeal.
(j) (d) The person has a family child care licensing disqualification that has not been set aside.
(k) (e) The person has admitted or a county has found that there is a preponderance of evidence that fraudulent information was given to the county for child care assistance application purposes or was used in submitting child care assistance bills for payment.
(l) The person has been convicted of the crime of theft by wrongfully obtaining public assistance or has been found guilty of wrongfully obtaining public assistance by a federal court, state court, or an administrative hearing determination or waiver, through a disqualification consent agreement, as part of an approved diversion plan under section 401.065, or a court-ordered stay with probationary or other conditions.
(m) The person has a household member age 13 or older who has access to children during the hours that care is provided and who meets one of the conditions listed in paragraphs (b) to (l).
(n) The person has a household member ages ten to 12 who has access to children during the hours that care is provided; information or circumstances exist which provide the county with articulable suspicion that further pertinent information may exist showing the household member meets one of the conditions listed in paragraphs (b) to (l); and the household member actually meets one of the conditions listed in paragraphs (b) to (l).
All providers receiving child care assistance payments must keep daily attendance records for children receiving child care assistance and must make those records available immediately to the county upon request. The attendance records must be completed daily and include the date, the first and last name of each child in attendance, and the times when each child is dropped off and picked up. To the extent possible, the times that the child was dropped off to and picked up from the child care provider must be entered by the person dropping off or picking up the child. The daily attendance records must be retained for six years after the date of service. A county may deny authorization as a child care provider to any applicant or rescind authorization of any provider when the county knows or has reason to believe that the provider has not complied with the record-keeping requirement in this subdivision.
(a) Beginning October 31, 2011, the maximum rate paid for child care assistance in any county or multicounty region under the child care fund shall be the rate for like-care arrangements in the county effective July 1, 2006, decreased by 2.5 percent.
(b) Every year Biennially, beginning in 2012, the commissioner shall survey rates charged by child care providers in Minnesota to determine the 75th percentile for like-care arrangements in counties. When the commissioner determines that, using the commissioner's established protocol, the number of providers responding to the survey is too small to determine the 75th percentile rate for like-care arrangements in a county or multicounty region, the commissioner may establish the 75th percentile maximum rate based on like-care arrangements in a county, region, or category that the commissioner deems to be similar.
(c) A rate which includes a special needs rate paid under subdivision 3 or under a school readiness service agreement paid under section 119B.231, may be in excess of the maximum rate allowed under this subdivision.
(d) The department shall monitor the effect of this paragraph on provider rates. The county shall pay the provider's full charges for every child in care up to the maximum established. The commissioner shall determine the maximum rate for each type of care on an hourly, full-day, and weekly basis, including special needs and disability care. The maximum payment to a provider for one day of care must not exceed the daily rate. The maximum payment to a provider for one week of care must not exceed the weekly rate.
(e) Child care providers receiving reimbursement under this chapter must not be paid activity fees or an additional amount above the maximum rates for care provided during nonstandard hours for families receiving assistance.
(f) When the provider charge is greater than the maximum provider rate allowed, the parent is responsible for payment of the difference in the rates in addition to any family co-payment fee.
(g) All maximum provider rates changes shall be implemented on the Monday following the effective date of the maximum provider rate.
(a) The provider shall bill for services provided within ten days of the end of the service period. If bills are submitted within ten days of the end of the service period, payments under the child care fund shall be made within 30 days of receiving a bill from the provider. Counties or the state may establish policies that make payments on a more frequent basis.
(b) If a provider has received an authorization of care and been issued a billing form for an eligible family, the bill must be submitted within 60 days of the last date of service on the bill. A bill submitted more than 60 days after the last date of service must be paid if the county determines that the provider has shown good cause why the bill was not submitted within 60 days. Good cause must be defined in the county's child care fund plan under section 119B.08, subdivision 3, and the definition of good cause must include county error. Any bill submitted more than a year after the last date of service on the bill must not be paid.
(c) If a provider provided care for a time period without receiving an authorization of care and a billing form for an eligible family, payment of child care assistance may only be made retroactively for a maximum of six months from the date the provider is issued an authorization of care and billing form.
(d) A county may refuse to issue a child care authorization to a licensed or legal nonlicensed provider, revoke an existing child care authorization to a licensed or legal nonlicensed provider, stop payment issued to a licensed or legal nonlicensed provider, or may refuse to pay a bill submitted by a licensed or legal nonlicensed provider if:
(1) the provider admits to intentionally giving the county materially false information on the provider's billing forms; or
(2) a county finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the provider intentionally gave the county materially false information on the provider's billing forms.;
(3) the provider is in violation of child care assistance program rules, until the agency determines those violations have been corrected;
(4) the provider is operating after receipt of an order of suspension or an order of revocation of the provider's license, or the provider has been issued an order citing violations of licensing standards that affect the health and safety of children in care due to the nature, chronicity, or severity of the licensing violations, until the licensing agency determines those violations have been corrected;
(5) the provider submits false attendance reports or refuses to provide documentation of the child's attendance upon request; or
(6) the provider gives false child care price information.
(e) A county's payment policies must be included in the county's child care plan under section 119B.08, subdivision 3. If payments are made by the state, in addition to being in compliance with this subdivision, the payments must be made in compliance with section 16A.124.
The commissioner shall amend Minnesota Rules, part 3400.0035, subpart 2, to remove the requirement that applications must be submitted by mail or delivered to the agency within 15 calendar days after the date of signature. The commissioner shall comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 14.389, in adopting the amendment.
"Caregiver" means a minor child's natural birth or adoptive parent or parents and stepparent who live in the home with the minor child. For purposes of determining eligibility for this program, caregiver also means any of the following individuals, if adults, who live with and provide care and support to a minor child when the minor child's natural birth or adoptive parent or parents or stepparents do not reside in the same home: legal custodian or guardian, grandfather, grandmother, brother, sister, half brother, half sister, stepbrother, stepsister, uncle, aunt, first cousin or first cousin once removed, nephew, niece, person of preceding generation as denoted by prefixes of "great," "great-great," or "great-great-great," or a spouse of any person named in the above groups even after the marriage ends by death or divorce.
Except for minor caregivers and their children who must be in a separate assistance unit from the other persons in the household, when the following individuals live together, they must be included in the assistance unit:
(1) a minor child, including a pregnant minor;
(2) the minor child's minor siblings, minor half siblings, and minor stepsiblings;
(3) the minor child's natural birth parents, adoptive parents, and stepparents; and
(4) the spouse of a pregnant woman.
A minor child must have a caregiver for the child to be included in the assistance unit.
(a) The county agency shall recertify eligibility in an annual face-to-face interview with the participant and. The county agency may waive the face-to-face interview and conduct a phone interview for participants who qualify under paragraph (b). During the interview the county agency shall verify the following:
(1) presence of the minor child in the home, if questionable;
(2) income, unless excluded, including self-employment expenses used as a deduction or deposits or withdrawals from business accounts;
(3) assets when the value is within $200 of the asset limit;
(4) information to establish an exception under section 256J.24, subdivision 9, if questionable;
(5) inconsistent information, if related to eligibility; and
(6) whether a single caregiver household meets requirements in section 256J.575, subdivision 3.
(b) A participant who is employed any number of hours must be given the option of conducting a face-to-face or phone interview to recertify eligibility. The participant must be employed at the time the interview is scheduled. If the participant loses the participant's job between the time the interview is scheduled and when it is to be conducted, the phone interview may still be conducted.
This section is effective October 1, 2012.
(a) Effective October 1, 2009, upon exiting the diversionary work program (DWP) or upon terminating the Minnesota family investment program with earnings, a participant who is employed may be eligible for work participation cash benefits of $25 per month to assist in meeting the family's basic needs as the participant continues to move toward self-sufficiency.
(b) To be eligible for work participation cash benefits, the participant shall not receive MFIP or diversionary work program assistance during the month and the participant or participants must meet the following work requirements:
(1) if the participant is a single caregiver and has a child under six years of age, the participant must be employed at least 87 hours per month;
(2) if the participant is a single caregiver and does not have a child under six years of age, the participant must be employed at least 130 hours per month; or
(3) if the household is a two-parent family, at least one of the parents must be employed an average of at least 130 hours per month.
Whenever a participant exits the diversionary work program or is terminated from MFIP and meets the other criteria in this section, work participation cash benefits are available for up to 24 consecutive months.
(c) Expenditures on the program are maintenance of effort state funds under a separate state program for participants under paragraph (b), clauses (1) and (2). Expenditures for participants under paragraph (b), clause (3), are nonmaintenance of effort funds. Months in which a participant receives work participation cash benefits under this section do not count toward the participant's MFIP 60-month time limit.
The procedure established by this section is exclusive of all other legal, equitable, and statutory remedies against the state, its political subdivisions, or employees of the state or its political subdivisions. The claimant shall not be entitled to seek damages from any state, county, tribal, or reservation insurance policy or self-insurance program. A provider who accepts or agrees to accept an injury protection program payment for services provided to an individual must not require any payment from the individual.
(a) Except for the categories of family units listed below in clauses (1) to (8), all family units who apply for cash benefits and who meet MFIP eligibility as required in sections 256J.11 to 256J.15 are eligible and must participate in the diversionary work program. Family units or individuals that are not eligible for the diversionary work program include:
(1) child only cases;
(2) a single-parent family unit units that includes include a child under 12 months of age. A parent is eligible for this exception once in a parent's lifetime;
(3) family units with a minor parent without a high school diploma or its equivalent;
(4) family units with an 18- or 19-year-old caregiver without a high school diploma or its equivalent who chooses to have an employment plan with an education option;
(5) a caregiver age 60 or over;
(6) (5) family units with a caregiver who received DWP benefits in within the 12 months prior to the month the family applied for DWP, except as provided in paragraph (c);
(7) (6) family units with a caregiver who received MFIP within the 12 months prior to the month the family unit applied for DWP;
(8) a (7) family unit units with a caregiver who received 60 or more months of TANF assistance; and
(9) (8) family units with a caregiver who is disqualified from the work participation cash benefit program, DWP, or MFIP due to fraud; and.
(10) refugees and asylees as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 400, subpart d, section 400.43, who arrived in the United States in the 12 months prior to the date of application for family cash assistance.
(b) A two-parent family must participate in DWP unless both caregivers meet the criteria for an exception under paragraph (a), clauses (1) through (5), or the family unit includes a parent who meets the criteria in paragraph (a), clause (6), (7), or (8), (9), or (10).
(c) Once DWP eligibility is determined, the four months run consecutively. If a participant leaves the program for any reason and reapplies during the four-month period, the county must redetermine eligibility for DWP.
(a) The commissioner of health, in coordination with the commissioner of human services, may approve the addition of new licensed and Medicare and Medicaid certified nursing home beds, using the criteria and process set forth in this subdivision.
(b) The commissioner, in cooperation with the commissioner of human services, shall consider the following criteria when determining that an area of the state is a hardship area with regard to access to nursing facility services:
(1) a low number of beds per thousand in a specified area using as a standard the beds per thousand people age 65 and older, in five year age groups, using data from the most recent census and population projections, weighted by each group's most recent nursing home utilization, of the county at the 20th percentile, as determined by the commissioner of human services;
(2) a high level of out-migration for nursing facility services associated with a described area from the county or counties of residence to other Minnesota counties, as determined by the commissioner of human services, using as a standard an amount greater than the out-migration of the county ranked at the 50th percentile;
(3) an adequate level of availability of noninstitutional long-term care services measured as public spending for home and community-based long-term care services per individual age 65 and older, in five year age groups, using data from the most recent census and population projections, weighted by each group's most recent nursing home utilization, as determined by the commissioner of human services using as a standard an amount greater than the 50th percentile of counties;
(4) there must be a declaration of hardship resulting from insufficient access to nursing home beds by local county agencies and area agencies on aging; and
(5) other factors that may demonstrate the need to add new nursing facility beds.
(c) On August 15 of odd-numbered years, the commissioner, in cooperation with the commissioner of human services, may publish in the State Register a request for information in which interested parties, using the data provided under section 144A.351, along with any other relevant data, demonstrate that a specified area is a hardship area with regard to access to nursing facility services. For a response to be considered, the commissioner must receive it by November 15. The commissioner shall make responses to the request for information available to the public and shall allow 30 days for comment. The commissioner shall review responses and comments and determine if any areas of the state are to be declared hardship areas.
(d) For each designated hardship area determined in paragraph (c), the commissioner shall publish a request for proposals in accordance with section 144A.073 and Minnesota Rules, parts 4655.1070 to 4655.1098. The request for proposals must be published in the State Register by March 15 following receipt of responses to the request for information. The request for proposals must specify the number of new beds which may be added in the designated hardship area, which must not exceed the number which, if added to the existing number of beds in the area, including beds in layaway status, would have prevented it from being determined to be a hardship area under paragraph (b), clause (1). Beginning July 1, 2011, the number of new beds approved must not exceed 200 beds statewide per biennium. After June 30, 2019, the number of new beds that may be approved in a biennium must not exceed 300 statewide. For a proposal to be considered, the commissioner must receive it within six months of the publication of the request for proposals. The commissioner shall review responses to the request for proposals and shall approve or disapprove each proposal by the following July 15, in accordance with section 144A.073 and Minnesota Rules, parts 4655.1070 to 4655.1098. The commissioner shall base approvals or disapprovals on a comparison and ranking of proposals using only the criteria in subdivision 4a. Approval of a proposal expires after 18 months unless the facility has added the new beds using existing space, subject to approval by the commissioner, or has commenced construction as defined in section 144A.071, subdivision 1a, paragraph (d). Operating If, after the approved beds have been added, fewer than 50 percent of the beds in a facility are newly licensed, the operating payment rates previously in effect shall remain. If, after the approved beds have been added, 50 percent or more of the beds in a facility are newly licensed, operating payment rates shall be determined according to Minnesota Rules, part 9549.0057, using the limits under section 256B.441. External fixed payment rates must be determined according to section 256B.441, subdivision 53. Property payment rates for facilities with beds added under this subdivision must be determined in the same manner as rate determinations resulting from projects approved and completed under section 144A.073.
(e) The commissioner may:
(1) certify or license new beds in a new facility that is to be operated by the commissioner of veterans affairs or when the costs of constructing and operating the new beds are to be reimbursed by the commissioner of veterans affairs or the United States Veterans Administration; and
(2) license or certify beds in a facility that has been involuntarily delicensed or decertified for participation in the medical assistance program, provided that an application for relicensure or recertification is submitted to the commissioner by an organization that is not a related organization as defined in section 256B.441, subdivision 34, to the prior licensee within 120 days after delicensure or decertification.
It is in the best interest of the state to ensure that nursing homes and boarding care homes continue to meet the physical plant licensing and certification requirements by permitting certain construction projects. Facilities should be maintained in condition to satisfy the physical and emotional needs of residents while allowing the state to maintain control over nursing home expenditure growth.
The commissioner of health in coordination with the commissioner of human services, may approve the renovation, replacement, upgrading, or relocation of a nursing home or boarding care home, under the following conditions:
(a) to license or certify beds in a new facility constructed to replace a facility or to make repairs in an existing facility that was destroyed or damaged after June 30, 1987, by fire, lightning, or other hazard provided:
(i) destruction was not caused by the intentional act of or at the direction of a controlling person of the facility;
(ii) at the time the facility was destroyed or damaged the controlling persons of the facility maintained insurance coverage for the type of hazard that occurred in an amount that a reasonable person would conclude was adequate;
(iii) the net proceeds from an insurance settlement for the damages caused by the hazard are applied to the cost of the new facility or repairs;
(iv) the number of licensed and certified beds in the new facility does not exceed the number of licensed and certified beds in the destroyed facility; and
(v) the commissioner determines that the replacement beds are needed to prevent an inadequate supply of beds.
Project construction costs incurred for repairs authorized under this clause shall not be considered in the dollar threshold amount defined in subdivision 2;
(b) to license or certify beds that are moved from one location to another within a nursing home facility, provided the total costs of remodeling performed in conjunction with the relocation of beds does not exceed $1,000,000;
(c) to license or certify beds in a project recommended for approval under section 144A.073;
(d) to license or certify beds that are moved from an existing state nursing home to a different state facility, provided there is no net increase in the number of state nursing home beds;
(e) to certify and license as nursing home beds boarding care beds in a certified boarding care facility if the beds meet the standards for nursing home licensure, or in a facility that was granted an exception to the moratorium under section 144A.073, and if the cost of any remodeling of the facility does not exceed $1,000,000. If boarding care beds are licensed as nursing home beds, the number of boarding care beds in the facility must not increase beyond the number remaining at the time of the upgrade in licensure. The provisions contained in section 144A.073 regarding the upgrading of the facilities do not apply to facilities that satisfy these requirements;
(f) to license and certify up to 40 beds transferred from an existing facility owned and operated by the Amherst H. Wilder Foundation in the city of St. Paul to a new unit at the same location as the existing facility that will serve persons with Alzheimer's disease and other related disorders. The transfer of beds may occur gradually or in stages, provided the total number of beds transferred does not exceed 40. At the time of licensure and certification of a bed or beds in the new unit, the commissioner of health shall delicense and decertify the same number of beds in the existing facility. As a condition of receiving a license or certification under this clause, the facility must make a written commitment to the commissioner of human services that it will not seek to receive an increase in its property-related payment rate as a result of the transfers allowed under this paragraph;
(g) to license and certify nursing home beds to replace currently licensed and certified boarding care beds which may be located either in a remodeled or renovated boarding care or nursing home facility or in a remodeled, renovated, newly constructed, or replacement nursing home facility within the identifiable complex of health care facilities in which the currently licensed boarding care beds are presently located, provided that the number of boarding care beds in the facility or complex are decreased by the number to be licensed as nursing home beds and further provided that, if the total costs of new construction, replacement, remodeling, or renovation exceed ten percent of the appraised value of the facility or $200,000, whichever is less, the facility makes a written commitment to the commissioner of human services that it will not seek to receive an increase in its property-related payment rate by reason of the new construction, replacement, remodeling, or renovation. The provisions contained in section 144A.073 regarding the upgrading of facilities do not apply to facilities that satisfy these requirements;
(h) to license as a nursing home and certify as a nursing facility a facility that is licensed as a boarding care facility but not certified under the medical assistance program, but only if the commissioner of human services certifies to the commissioner of health that licensing the facility as a nursing home and certifying the facility as a nursing facility will result in a net annual savings to the state general fund of $200,000 or more;
(i) to certify, after September 30, 1992, and prior to July 1, 1993, existing nursing home beds in a facility that was licensed and in operation prior to January 1, 1992;
(j) to license and certify new nursing home beds to replace beds in a facility acquired by the Minneapolis Community Development Agency as part of redevelopment activities in a city of the first class, provided the new facility is located within three miles of the site of the old facility. Operating and property costs for the new facility must be determined and allowed under section 256B.431 or 256B.434;
(k) to license and certify up to 20 new nursing home beds in a community-operated hospital and attached convalescent and nursing care facility with 40 beds on April 21, 1991, that suspended operation of the hospital in April 1986. The commissioner of human services shall provide the facility with the same per diem property-related payment rate for each additional licensed and certified bed as it will receive for its existing 40 beds;
(l) to license or certify beds in renovation, replacement, or upgrading projects as defined in section 144A.073, subdivision 1, so long as the cumulative total costs of the facility's remodeling projects do not exceed $1,000,000;
(m) to license and certify beds that are moved from one location to another for the purposes of converting up to five four-bed wards to single or double occupancy rooms in a nursing home that, as of January 1, 1993, was county-owned and had a licensed capacity of 115 beds;
(n) to allow a facility that on April 16, 1993, was a 106-bed licensed and certified nursing facility located in Minneapolis to layaway all of its licensed and certified nursing home beds. These beds may be relicensed and recertified in a newly constructed teaching nursing home facility affiliated with a teaching hospital upon approval by the legislature. The proposal must be developed in consultation with the interagency committee on long-term care planning. The beds on layaway status shall have the same status as voluntarily delicensed and decertified beds, except that beds on layaway status remain subject to the surcharge in section 256.9657. This layaway provision expires July 1, 1998;
(o) to allow a project which will be completed in conjunction with an approved moratorium exception project for a nursing home in southern Cass County and which is directly related to that portion of the facility that must be repaired, renovated, or replaced, to correct an emergency plumbing problem for which a state correction order has been issued and which must be corrected by August 31, 1993;
(p) to allow a facility that on April 16, 1993, was a 368-bed licensed and certified nursing facility located in Minneapolis to layaway, upon 30 days prior written notice to the commissioner, up to 30 of the facility's licensed and certified beds by converting three-bed wards to single or double occupancy. Beds on layaway status shall have the same status as voluntarily delicensed and decertified beds except that beds on layaway status remain subject to the surcharge in section 256.9657, remain subject to the license application and renewal fees under section 144A.07 and shall be subject to a $100 per bed reactivation fee. In addition, at any time within three years of the effective date of the layaway, the beds on layaway status may be:
(1) relicensed and recertified upon relocation and reactivation of some or all of the beds to an existing licensed and certified facility or facilities located in Pine River, Brainerd, or International Falls; provided that the total project construction costs related to the relocation of beds from layaway status for any facility receiving relocated beds may not exceed the dollar threshold provided in subdivision 2 unless the construction project has been approved through the moratorium exception process under section 144A.073;
(2) relicensed and recertified, upon reactivation of some or all of the beds within the facility which placed the beds in layaway status, if the commissioner has determined a need for the reactivation of the beds on layaway status.
The property-related payment rate of a facility placing beds on layaway status must be adjusted by the incremental change in its rental per diem after recalculating the rental per diem as provided in section 256B.431, subdivision 3a, paragraph (c). The property-related payment rate for a facility relicensing and recertifying beds from layaway status must be adjusted by the incremental change in its rental per diem after recalculating its rental per diem using the number of beds after the relicensing to establish the facility's capacity day divisor, which shall be effective the first day of the month following the month in which the relicensing and recertification became effective. Any beds remaining on layaway status more than three years after the date the layaway status became effective must be removed from layaway status and immediately delicensed and decertified;
(q) to license and certify beds in a renovation and remodeling project to convert 12 four-bed wards into 24 two-bed rooms, expand space, and add improvements in a nursing home that, as of January 1, 1994, met the following conditions: the nursing home was located in Ramsey County; had a licensed capacity of 154 beds; and had been ranked among the top 15 applicants by the 1993 moratorium exceptions advisory review panel. The total project construction cost estimate for this project must not exceed the cost estimate submitted in connection with the 1993 moratorium exception process;
(r) to license and certify up to 117 beds that are relocated from a licensed and certified 138-bed nursing facility located in St. Paul to a hospital with 130 licensed hospital beds located in South St. Paul, provided that the nursing facility and hospital are owned by the same or a related organization and that prior to the date the relocation is completed the hospital ceases operation of its inpatient hospital services at that hospital. After relocation, the nursing facility's status under section 256B.431, subdivision 2j, shall be the same as it was prior to relocation. The nursing facility's property-related payment rate resulting from the project authorized in this paragraph shall become effective no earlier than April 1, 1996. For purposes of calculating the incremental change in the facility's rental per diem resulting from this project, the allowable appraised value of the nursing facility portion of the existing health care facility physical plant prior to the renovation and relocation may not exceed $2,490,000;
(s) to license and certify two beds in a facility to replace beds that were voluntarily delicensed and decertified on June 28, 1991;
(t) to allow 16 licensed and certified beds located on July 1, 1994, in a 142-bed nursing home and 21-bed boarding care home facility in Minneapolis, notwithstanding the licensure and certification after July 1, 1995, of the Minneapolis facility as a 147-bed nursing home facility after completion of a construction project approved in 1993 under section 144A.073, to be laid away upon 30 days' prior written notice to the commissioner. Beds on layaway status shall have the same status as voluntarily delicensed or decertified beds except that they shall remain subject to the surcharge in section 256.9657. The 16 beds on layaway status may be relicensed as nursing home beds and recertified at any time within five years of the effective date of the layaway upon relocation of some or all of the beds to a licensed and certified facility located in Watertown, provided that the total project construction costs related to the relocation of beds from layaway status for the Watertown facility may not exceed the dollar threshold provided in subdivision 2 unless the construction project has been approved through the moratorium exception process under section 144A.073.
The property-related payment rate of the facility placing beds on layaway status must be adjusted by the incremental change in its rental per diem after recalculating the rental per diem as provided in section 256B.431, subdivision 3a, paragraph (c). The property-related payment rate for the facility relicensing and recertifying beds from layaway status must be adjusted by the incremental change in its rental per diem after recalculating its rental per diem using the number of beds after the relicensing to establish the facility's capacity day divisor, which shall be effective the first day of the month following the month in which the relicensing and recertification became effective. Any beds remaining on layaway status more than five years after the date the layaway status became effective must be removed from layaway status and immediately delicensed and decertified;
(u) to license and certify beds that are moved within an existing area of a facility or to a newly constructed addition which is built for the purpose of eliminating three- and four-bed rooms and adding space for dining, lounge areas, bathing rooms, and ancillary service areas in a nursing home that, as of January 1, 1995, was located in Fridley and had a licensed capacity of 129 beds;
(v) to relocate 36 beds in Crow Wing County and four beds from Hennepin County to a 160-bed facility in Crow Wing County, provided all the affected beds are under common ownership;
(w) to license and certify a total replacement project of up to 49 beds located in Norman County that are relocated from a nursing home destroyed by flood and whose residents were relocated to other nursing homes. The operating cost payment rates for the new nursing facility shall be determined based on the interim and settle-up payment provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 9549.0057, and the reimbursement provisions of section 256B.431, except that subdivision 26, paragraphs (a) and (b), shall not apply until the second rate year after the settle-up cost report is filed. Property-related reimbursement rates shall be determined under section 256B.431, taking into account any federal or state flood-related loans or grants provided to the facility;
(x) to license and certify a total replacement project of up to 129 beds located in Polk County that are relocated from a nursing home destroyed by flood and whose residents were relocated to other nursing homes. The operating cost payment rates for the new nursing facility shall be determined based on the interim and settle-up payment provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 9549.0057, and the reimbursement provisions of section 256B.431, except that subdivision 26, paragraphs (a) and (b), shall not apply until the second rate year after the settle-up cost report is filed. Property-related reimbursement rates shall be determined under section 256B.431, taking into account any federal or state flood-related loans or grants provided to the facility;
(y) to license and certify beds in a renovation and remodeling project to convert 13 three-bed wards into 13 two-bed rooms and 13 single-bed rooms, expand space, and add improvements in a nursing home that, as of January 1, 1994, met the following conditions: the nursing home was located in Ramsey County, was not owned by a hospital corporation, had a licensed capacity of 64 beds, and had been ranked among the top 15 applicants by the 1993 moratorium exceptions advisory review panel. The total project construction cost estimate for this project must not exceed the cost estimate submitted in connection with the 1993 moratorium exception process;
(z) to license and certify up to 150 nursing home beds to replace an existing 285 bed nursing facility located in St. Paul. The replacement project shall include both the renovation of existing buildings and the construction of new facilities at the existing site. The reduction in the licensed capacity of the existing facility shall occur during the construction project as beds are taken out of service due to the construction process. Prior to the start of the construction process, the facility shall provide written information to the commissioner of health describing the process for bed reduction, plans for the relocation of residents, and the estimated construction schedule. The relocation of residents shall be in accordance with the provisions of law and rule;
(aa) to allow the commissioner of human services to license an additional 36 beds to provide residential services for the physically disabled under Minnesota Rules, parts 9570.2000 to 9570.3400, in a 198-bed nursing home located in Red Wing, provided that the total number of licensed and certified beds at the facility does not increase;
(bb) to license and certify a new facility in St. Louis County with 44 beds constructed to replace an existing facility in St. Louis County with 31 beds, which has resident rooms on two separate floors and an antiquated elevator that creates safety concerns for residents and prevents nonambulatory residents from residing on the second floor. The project shall include the elimination of three- and four-bed rooms;
(cc) to license and certify four beds in a 16-bed certified boarding care home in Minneapolis to replace beds that were voluntarily delicensed and decertified on or before March 31, 1992. The licensure and certification is conditional upon the facility periodically assessing and adjusting its resident mix and other factors which may contribute to a potential institution for mental disease declaration. The commissioner of human services shall retain the authority to audit the facility at any time and shall require the facility to comply with any requirements necessary to prevent an institution for mental disease declaration, including delicensure and decertification of beds, if necessary;
(dd) to license and certify 72 beds in an existing facility in Mille Lacs County with 80 beds as part of a renovation project. The renovation must include construction of an addition to accommodate ten residents with beginning and midstage dementia in a self-contained living unit; creation of three resident households where dining, activities, and support spaces are located near resident living quarters; designation of four beds for rehabilitation in a self-contained area; designation of 30 private rooms; and other improvements;
(ee) to license and certify beds in a facility that has undergone replacement or remodeling as part of a planned closure under section 256B.437;
(ff) to license and certify a total replacement project of up to 124 beds located in Wilkin County that are in need of relocation from a nursing home significantly damaged by flood. The operating cost payment rates for the new nursing facility shall be determined based on the interim and settle-up payment provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 9549.0057, and the reimbursement provisions of section 256B.431, except that section 256B.431, subdivision 26, paragraphs (a) and (b), shall not apply until the second rate year after the settle-up cost report is filed. Property-related reimbursement rates shall be determined under section 256B.431, taking into account any federal or state flood-related loans or grants provided to the facility;
(gg) to allow the commissioner of human services to license an additional nine beds to provide residential services for the physically disabled under Minnesota Rules, parts 9570.2000 to 9570.3400, in a 240-bed nursing home located in Duluth, provided that the total number of licensed and certified beds at the facility does not increase;
(hh) to license and certify up to 120 new nursing facility beds to replace beds in a facility in Anoka County, which was licensed for 98 beds as of July 1, 2000, provided the new facility is located within four miles of the existing facility and is in Anoka County. Operating and property rates shall be determined and allowed under section 256B.431 and Minnesota Rules, parts 9549.0010 to 9549.0080, or section 256B.434 or 256B.435. The provisions of section 256B.431, subdivision 26, paragraphs (a) and (b), do not apply until the second rate year following settle-up 256B.441; or
(ii) to transfer up to 98 beds of a 129-licensed bed facility located in Anoka County that, as of March 25, 2001, is in the active process of closing, to a 122-licensed bed nonprofit nursing facility located in the city of Columbia Heights or its affiliate. The transfer is effective when the receiving facility notifies the commissioner in writing of the number of beds accepted. The commissioner shall place all transferred beds on layaway status held in the name of the receiving facility. The layaway adjustment provisions of section 256B.431, subdivision 30, do not apply to this layaway. The receiving facility may only remove the beds from layaway for recertification and relicensure at the receiving facility's current site, or at a newly constructed facility located in Anoka County. The receiving facility must receive statutory authorization before removing these beds from layaway status, or may remove these beds from layaway status if removal from layaway status is part of a moratorium exception project approved by the commissioner under section 144A.073.
(a) The commissioner shall not issue an initial license for child foster care licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3000 to 2960.3340, or adult foster care licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, under this chapter for a physical location that will not be the primary residence of the license holder for the entire period of licensure. If a license is issued during this moratorium, and the license holder changes the license holder's primary residence away from the physical location of the foster care license, the commissioner shall revoke the license according to section 245A.07. Exceptions to the moratorium include:
(1) foster care settings that are required to be registered under chapter 144D;
(2) foster care licenses replacing foster care licenses in existence on May 15, 2009, and determined to be needed by the commissioner under paragraph (b);
(3) new foster care licenses determined to be needed by the commissioner under paragraph (b) for the closure of a nursing facility, ICF/MR, or regional treatment center, or restructuring of state-operated services that limits the capacity of state-operated facilities;
(4) new foster care licenses determined to be needed by the commissioner under paragraph (b) for persons requiring hospital level care; or
(5) new foster care licenses determined to be needed by the commissioner for the transition of people from personal care assistance to the home and community-based services.
(b) The commissioner shall determine the need for newly licensed foster care homes as defined under this subdivision. As part of the determination, the commissioner shall consider the availability of foster care capacity in the area in which the licensee seeks to operate, and the recommendation of the local county board. The determination by the commissioner must be final. A determination of need is not required for a change in ownership at the same address.
(c) Residential settings that would otherwise be subject to the moratorium established in paragraph (a), that are in the process of receiving an adult or child foster care license as of July 1, 2009, shall be allowed to continue to complete the process of receiving an adult or child foster care license. For this paragraph, all of the following conditions must be met to be considered in the process of receiving an adult or child foster care license:
(1) participants have made decisions to move into the residential setting, including documentation in each participant's care plan;
(2) the provider has purchased housing or has made a financial investment in the property;
(3) the lead agency has approved the plans, including costs for the residential setting for each individual;
(4) the completion of the licensing process, including all necessary inspections, is the only remaining component prior to being able to provide services; and
(5) the needs of the individuals cannot be met within the existing capacity in that county.
To qualify for the process under this paragraph, the lead agency must submit documentation to the commissioner by August 1, 2009, that all of the above criteria are met.
(d) (c) The commissioner shall study the effects of the license moratorium under this subdivision and shall report back to the legislature by January 15, 2011. This study shall include, but is not limited to the following:
(1) the overall capacity and utilization of foster care beds where the physical location is not the primary residence of the license holder prior to and after implementation of the moratorium;
(2) the overall capacity and utilization of foster care beds where the physical location is the primary residence of the license holder prior to and after implementation of the moratorium; and
(3) the number of licensed and occupied ICF/MR beds prior to and after implementation of the moratorium.
(e) (d) When a foster care recipient moves out of a foster home that is not the primary residence of the license holder according to section 256B.49, subdivision 15, paragraph (f), the county shall immediately inform the Department of Human Services Licensing Division, and the department shall immediately decrease the licensed capacity for the home. A decreased licensed capacity according to this paragraph is not subject to appeal under this chapter.
(e) At the time of application and reapplication for licensure, the applicant and the license holder that are subject to the moratorium or an exclusion established in paragraph (a) are required to inform the commissioner whether the physical location where the foster care will be provided is or will be the primary residence of the license holder for the entire period of licensure. If the primary residence of the applicant or license holder changes, the applicant or license holder must notify the commissioner immediately. The commissioner shall print on the foster care license certificate whether or not the physical location is the primary residence of the license holder.
(f) License holders of foster care homes identified under paragraph (e) that are not the primary residence of the license holder and that also provide services in the foster care home that are covered by a federally approved home and community-based services waiver, as authorized under section 256B.0915, 256B.092, or 256B.49 must inform the human services licensing division that the license holder provides or intends to provide these waiver-funded services. These license holders must be considered registered under section 256B.092, subdivision 11, paragraph (c), and this registration status must be identified on their license certificates.
(a) The commissioner shall issue adult foster care licenses with a maximum licensed capacity of four beds, including nonstaff roomers and boarders, except that the commissioner may issue a license with a capacity of five beds, including roomers and boarders, according to paragraphs (b) to (f).
(b) An adult foster care license holder may have a maximum license capacity of five if all persons in care are age 55 or over and do not have a serious and persistent mental illness or a developmental disability.
(c) The commissioner may grant variances to paragraph (b) to allow a foster care provider with a licensed capacity of five persons to admit an individual under the age of 55 if the variance complies with section 245A.04, subdivision 9, and approval of the variance is recommended by the county in which the licensed foster care provider is located.
(d) The commissioner may grant variances to paragraph (b) to allow the use of a fifth bed for emergency crisis services for a person with serious and persistent mental illness or a developmental disability, regardless of age, if the variance complies with section 245A.04, subdivision 9, and approval of the variance is recommended by the county in which the licensed foster care provider is located.
(e) If the 2009 legislature adopts a rate reduction that impacts providers of adult foster care services, the commissioner may issue an adult foster care license with a capacity of five adults if the fifth bed does not increase the overall statewide capacity of licensed adult foster care beds in homes that are not the primary residence of the license holder, over the licensed capacity in such homes on July 1, 2009, as identified in a plan submitted to the commissioner by the county, when the capacity is recommended by the county licensing agency of the county in which the facility is located and if the recommendation verifies that:
(1) the facility meets the physical environment requirements in the adult foster care licensing rule;
(2) the five-bed living arrangement is specified for each resident in the resident's:
(i) individualized plan of care;
(ii) individual service plan under section 256B.092, subdivision 1b, if required; or
(iii) individual resident placement agreement under Minnesota Rules, part 9555.5105, subpart 19, if required;
(3) the license holder obtains written and signed informed consent from each resident or resident's legal representative documenting the resident's informed choice to living in the home and that the resident's refusal to consent would not have resulted in service termination; and
(4) the facility was licensed for adult foster care before March 1, 2009.
(f) The commissioner shall not issue a new adult foster care license under paragraph (e) after June 30, 2011 2014. The commissioner shall allow a facility with an adult foster care license issued under paragraph (e) before June 30, 2011 2016, to continue with a capacity of five adults if the license holder continues to comply with the requirements in paragraph (e).
(a) The commissioner shall establish provider standards for residential support services that integrate service standards and the residential setting under one license. The commissioner shall propose statutory language and an implementation plan for licensing requirements for residential support services to the legislature by January 15, 2011 2012, as a component of the quality outcome standards recommendations required by Laws 2010, chapter 352, article 1, section 24.
(b) Providers licensed under chapter 245B, and providing, contracting, or arranging for services in settings licensed as adult foster care under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, or child foster care under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3000 to 2960.3340; and meeting the provisions of section 256B.092, subdivision 11, paragraph (b), must be required to obtain a community residential setting license.
(a) Provision of support grants must be limited to families who require support and whose dependents are under the age of 21 and who have been certified disabled under section 256B.055, subdivision 12, paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e). Families who are receiving: home and community-based waivered services for persons with developmental disabilities authorized under section 256B.092 or 256B.49; personal care assistance under section 256B.0652; or a consumer support grant under section 256.476 are not eligible for support grants.
Families whose annual adjusted gross income is $60,000 or more are not eligible for support grants except in cases where extreme hardship is demonstrated. Beginning in state fiscal year 1994, the commissioner shall adjust the income ceiling annually to reflect the projected change in the average value in the United States Department of Labor Bureau of Labor Statistics Consumer Price Index (all urban) for that year.
(b) Support grants may be made available as monthly subsidy grants and lump-sum grants.
(c) Support grants may be issued in the form of cash, voucher, and direct county payment to a vendor.
(d) Applications for the support grant shall be made by the legal guardian to the county social service agency. The application shall specify the needs of the families, the form of the grant requested by the families, and the items and services to be reimbursed.
Beginning January 1, 2013, the commissioner of human services shall provide a biennial report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and funding. The report must provide a summary of overarching goals and priorities for persons with disabilities, including the status of how each of the following programs administered by the commissioner is supporting the overarching goals and priorities:
(1) home and community-based services waivers for persons with disabilities under sections 256B.092 and 256B.49;
(2) home care services under section 256B.0652; and
(3) other relevant programs and services as determined by the commissioner.
The commissioner shall adopt rules to implement this chapter. The rules must include standards for performance of guardianship or conservatorship duties including, but not limited to: twice a year visits with the ward; quarterly reviews of records from day, residential, and support services; a requirement that the duties of guardianship or conservatorship and case management not be performed by the same person; specific standards for action on "do not resuscitate" orders, sterilization requests, and the use of psychotropic medication and aversive procedures.
Effective July 1, 2001, the commissioner shall allocate consumer support grant resources to serve additional individuals based on a review of Medicaid authorization and payment information of persons eligible for a consumer support grant from the most recent fiscal year. The commissioner shall use the following methodology to calculate maximum allowable monthly consumer support grant levels:
(1) For individuals whose program of origination is medical assistance home care under sections 256B.0651 and 256B.0653 to 256B.0656, the maximum allowable monthly grant levels are calculated by:
(i) determining 50 percent of the average the service authorization for each individual based on the individual's home care rating assessment;
(ii) calculating the overall ratio of actual payments to service authorizations by program;
(iii) applying the overall ratio to the average 50 percent of the service authorization level of each home care rating; and
(iv) adjusting the result for any authorized rate increases changes provided by the legislature; and.
(v) adjusting the result for the average monthly utilization per recipient.
(2) The commissioner may review and evaluate shall ensure the methodology to reflect changes in is consistent with the home care programs.
(a) Effective July 1, 1993, each non-state-operated nursing home licensed under chapter 144A shall pay to the commissioner an annual surcharge according to the schedule in subdivision 4. The surcharge shall be calculated as $620 per licensed bed. If the number of licensed beds is reduced, the surcharge shall be based on the number of remaining licensed beds the second month following the receipt of timely notice by the commissioner of human services that beds have been delicensed. The nursing home must notify the commissioner of health in writing when beds are delicensed. The commissioner of health must notify the commissioner of human services within ten working days after receiving written notification. If the notification is received by the commissioner of human services by the 15th of the month, the invoice for the second following month must be reduced to recognize the delicensing of beds. Beds on layaway status continue to be subject to the surcharge. The commissioner of human services must acknowledge a medical care surcharge appeal within 30 days of receipt of the written appeal from the provider.
(b) Effective July 1, 1994, the surcharge in paragraph (a) shall be increased to $625.
(c) Effective August 15, 2002, the surcharge under paragraph (b) shall be increased to $990.
(d) Effective July 15, 2003, the surcharge under paragraph (c) shall be increased to $2,815.
(e) The commissioner may reduce, and may subsequently restore, the surcharge under paragraph (d) based on the commissioner's determination of a permissible surcharge.
(f) Between April 1, 2002, and August 15, 2004, a facility governed by this subdivision may elect to assume full participation in the medical assistance program by agreeing to comply with all of the requirements of the medical assistance program, including the rate equalization law in section 256B.48, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), and all other requirements established in law or rule, and to begin intake of new medical assistance recipients. Rates will be determined under Minnesota Rules, parts 9549.0010 to 9549.0080. Notwithstanding section 256B.431, subdivision 27, paragraph (i), Rate calculations will be subject to limits as prescribed in rule and law. Other than the adjustments in sections 256B.431, subdivisions 30 and 32; 256B.437, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), Minnesota Rules, part 9549.0057, and any other applicable legislation enacted prior to the finalization of rates, facilities assuming full participation in medical assistance under this paragraph are not eligible for any rate adjustments until the July 1 following their settle-up period.
Medical assistance covers personal care assistance services provided by an individual who is qualified to provide the services according to subdivision 19a and sections 256B.0651 to 256B.0656, provided in accordance with a plan, and supervised by a qualified professional.
"Qualified professional" means a mental health professional as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6), or 245.4871, subdivision 27, clauses (1) to (6); or a registered nurse as defined in sections 148.171 to 148.285, a licensed social worker as defined in sections 148D.010 and 148D.055, or a qualified developmental disabilities specialist under section 245B.07, subdivision 4. The qualified professional shall perform the duties required in section 256B.0659.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in paragraphs (b) to (r) have the meanings given unless otherwise provided in text.
(b) "Activities of daily living" means grooming, dressing, bathing, transferring, mobility, positioning, eating, and toileting.
(c) "Behavior," effective January 1, 2010, means a category to determine the home care rating and is based on the criteria found in this section. "Level I behavior" means physical aggression towards self, others, or destruction of property that requires the immediate response of another person.
(d) "Complex health-related needs," effective January 1, 2010, means a category to determine the home care rating and is based on the criteria found in this section.
(e) "Critical activities of daily living," effective January 1, 2010, means transferring, mobility, eating, and toileting.
(f) "Dependency in activities of daily living" means a person requires assistance to begin and complete one or more of the activities of daily living.
(g) "Extended personal care assistance service" means personal care assistance services included in a service plan under one of the home and community-based services waivers authorized under sections 256B.0915, 256B.092, subdivision 5, and 256B.49, which exceed the amount, duration, and frequency of the state plan personal care assistance services for participants who:
(1) need assistance provided periodically during a week, but less than daily will not be able to remain in their homes without the assistance, and other replacement services are more expensive or are not available when personal care assistance services are to be terminated reduced; or
(2) need additional personal care assistance services beyond the amount authorized by the state plan personal care assistance assessment in order to ensure that their safety, health, and welfare are provided for in their homes.
(h) "Health-related procedures and tasks" means procedures and tasks that can be delegated or assigned by a licensed health care professional under state law to be performed by a personal care assistant.
(i) "Instrumental activities of daily living" means activities to include meal planning and preparation; basic assistance with paying bills; shopping for food, clothing, and other essential items; performing household tasks integral to the personal care assistance services; communication by telephone and other media; and traveling, including to medical appointments and to participate in the community.
(j) "Managing employee" has the same definition as Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.
(k) "Qualified professional" means a professional providing supervision of personal care assistance services and staff as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19c.
(l) "Personal care assistance provider agency" means a medical assistance enrolled provider that provides or assists with providing personal care assistance services and includes a personal care assistance provider organization, personal care assistance choice agency, class A licensed nursing agency, and Medicare-certified home health agency.
(m) "Personal care assistant" or "PCA" means an individual employed by a personal care assistance agency who provides personal care assistance services.
(n) "Personal care assistance care plan" means a written description of personal care assistance services developed by the personal care assistance provider according to the service plan.
(o) "Responsible party" means an individual who is capable of providing the support necessary to assist the recipient to live in the community.
(p) "Self-administered medication" means medication taken orally, by injection or insertion, or applied topically without the need for assistance.
(q) "Service plan" means a written summary of the assessment and description of the services needed by the recipient.
(r) "Wages and benefits" means wages and salaries, the employer's share of FICA taxes, Medicare taxes, state and federal unemployment taxes, workers' compensation, mileage reimbursement, health and dental insurance, life insurance, disability insurance, long-term care insurance, uniform allowance, and contributions to employee retirement accounts.
(a) Personal care assistance services are not eligible for medical assistance payment under this section when provided:
(1) by the recipient's spouse, parent of a recipient under the age of 18, paid legal guardian, licensed foster provider, except as allowed under section 256B.0652, subdivision 10, or responsible party;
(2) in lieu of other staffing options order to meet staffing or license requirements in a residential or child care setting;
(3) solely as a child care or babysitting service; or
(4) without authorization by the commissioner or the commissioner's designee.
(b) The following personal care services are not eligible for medical assistance payment under this section when provided in residential settings:
(1) effective January 1, 2010, when the provider of home care services who is not related by blood, marriage, or adoption owns or otherwise controls the living arrangement, including licensed or unlicensed services; or
(2) when personal care assistance services are the responsibility of a residential or program license holder under the terms of a service agreement and administrative rules.
(c) Other specific tasks not covered under paragraph (a) or (b) that are not eligible for medical assistance reimbursement for personal care assistance services under this section include:
(1) sterile procedures;
(2) injections of fluids and medications into veins, muscles, or skin;
(3) home maintenance or chore services;
(4) homemaker services not an integral part of assessed personal care assistance services needed by a recipient;
(5) application of restraints or implementation of procedures under section 245.825;
(6) instrumental activities of daily living for children under the age of 18, except when immediate attention is needed for health or hygiene reasons integral to the personal care services and the need is listed in the service plan by the assessor; and
(7) assessments for personal care assistance services by personal care assistance provider agencies or by independently enrolled registered nurses.
(a) "Responsible party" means an individual who is capable of providing the support necessary to assist the recipient to live in the community.
(b) A responsible party must be 18 years of age, actively participate in planning and directing of personal care assistance services, and attend all assessments for the recipient.
(c) A responsible party must not be the:
(1) personal care assistant;
(2) qualified professional;
(3) home care provider agency owner or staff manager; or
(4) home care provider agency staff unless staff who are not listed in clauses (1) to (3) are related to the recipient by blood, marriage, or adoption; or
(3) (5) county staff acting as part of employment.
(d) A licensed family foster parent who lives with the recipient may be the responsible party as long as the family foster parent meets the other responsible party requirements.
(e) A responsible party is required when:
(1) the person is a minor according to section 524.5-102, subdivision 10;
(2) the person is an incapacitated adult according to section 524.5-102, subdivision 6, resulting in a court-appointed guardian; or
(3) the assessment according to subdivision 3a determines that the recipient is in need of a responsible party to direct the recipient's care.
(f) There may be two persons designated as the responsible party for reasons such as divided households and court-ordered custodies. Each person named as responsible party must meet the program criteria and responsibilities.
(g) The recipient or the recipient's legal representative shall appoint a responsible party if necessary to direct and supervise the care provided to the recipient. The responsible party must be identified at the time of assessment and listed on the recipient's service agreement and personal care assistance care plan.
(a) A personal care assistant must meet the following requirements:
(1) be at least 18 years of age with the exception of persons who are 16 or 17 years of age with these additional requirements:
(i) supervision by a qualified professional every 60 days; and
(ii) employment by only one personal care assistance provider agency responsible for compliance with current labor laws;
(2) be employed by a personal care assistance provider agency;
(3) enroll with the department as a personal care assistant after clearing a background study. Except as provided in subdivision 11a, before a personal care assistant provides services, the personal care assistance provider agency must initiate a background study on the personal care assistant under chapter 245C, and the personal care assistance provider agency must have received a notice from the commissioner that the personal care assistant is:
(i) not disqualified under section 245C.14; or
(ii) is disqualified, but the personal care assistant has received a set aside of the disqualification under section 245C.22;
(4) be able to effectively communicate with the recipient and personal care assistance provider agency;
(5) be able to provide covered personal care assistance services according to the recipient's personal care assistance care plan, respond appropriately to recipient needs, and report changes in the recipient's condition to the supervising qualified professional or physician;
(6) not be a consumer of personal care assistance services;
(7) maintain daily written records including, but not limited to, time sheets under subdivision 12;
(8) effective January 1, 2010, complete standardized training as determined by the commissioner before completing enrollment. The training must be available in languages other than English and to those who need accommodations due to disabilities. Personal care assistant training must include successful completion of the following training components: basic first aid, vulnerable adult, child maltreatment, OSHA universal precautions, basic roles and responsibilities of personal care assistants including information about assistance with lifting and transfers for recipients, emergency preparedness, orientation to positive behavioral practices, fraud issues, and completion of time sheets. Upon completion of the training components, the personal care assistant must demonstrate the competency to provide assistance to recipients;
(9) complete training and orientation on the needs of the recipient within the first seven days after the services begin; and
(10) be limited to providing and being paid for up to 275 hours per month, except that this limit shall be 275 hours per month for the period July 1, 2009, through June 30, 2011, of personal care assistance services regardless of the number of recipients being served or the number of personal care assistance provider agencies enrolled with. The number of hours worked per day shall not be disallowed by the department unless in violation of the law.
(b) A legal guardian may be a personal care assistant if the guardian is not being paid for the guardian services and meets the criteria for personal care assistants in paragraph (a).
(c) Persons who do not qualify as a personal care assistant include parents and, stepparents, and legal guardians of minors,; spouses,; paid legal guardians, of adults; family foster care providers, except as otherwise allowed in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a, or; and staff of a residential setting. When the personal care assistant is a relative of the recipient, the commissioner shall pay 80 percent of the provider rate. For purposes of this section, relative means the parent or adoptive parent of an adult child, a sibling aged 16 years or older, an adult child, a grandparent, or a grandchild.
(a) The qualified professional must work for a personal care assistance provider agency and meet the definition under section 256B.0625, subdivision 19c. Before a qualified professional provides services, the personal care assistance provider agency must initiate a background study on the qualified professional under chapter 245C, and the personal care assistance provider agency must have received a notice from the commissioner that the qualified professional:
(1) is not disqualified under section 245C.14; or
(2) is disqualified, but the qualified professional has received a set aside of the disqualification under section 245C.22.
(b) The qualified professional shall perform the duties of training, supervision, and evaluation of the personal care assistance staff and evaluation of the effectiveness of personal care assistance services. The qualified professional shall:
(1) develop and monitor with the recipient a personal care assistance care plan based on the service plan and individualized needs of the recipient;
(2) develop and monitor with the recipient a monthly plan for the use of personal care assistance services;
(3) review documentation of personal care assistance services provided;
(4) provide training and ensure competency for the personal care assistant in the individual needs of the recipient; and
(5) document all training, communication, evaluations, and needed actions to improve performance of the personal care assistants.
(c) Effective July 1, 2010 2011, the qualified professional shall complete the provider training with basic information about the personal care assistance program approved by the commissioner. Newly hired qualified professionals must complete the training within six months of the date hired by a personal care assistance provider agency. Qualified professionals who have completed the required training as a worker from a personal care assistance provider agency do not need to repeat the required training if they are hired by another agency, if they have completed the training within the last three years. The required training shall must be available in languages other than English and to those who need accommodations due to disabilities, with meaningful access according to title VI of the Civil Rights Act and federal regulations adopted under that law or any guidance from the United States Health and Human Services Department. The required training must be available online, or by electronic remote connection, and. The required training must provide for competency testing to demonstrate an understanding of the content without attending in-person training. A qualified professional is allowed to be employed and is not subject to the training requirement until the training is offered online or through remote electronic connection. A qualified professional employed by a personal care assistance provider agency certified for participation in Medicare as a home health agency is exempt from the training required in this subdivision. When available, the qualified professional working for a Medicare-certified home health agency must successfully complete the competency test. The commissioner shall ensure there is a mechanism in place to verify the identity of persons completing the competency testing electronically.
This section is effective retroactively from July 1, 2011.
(a) Effective January 1, 2010, all personal care assistants must be supervised by a qualified professional.
(b) Through direct training, observation, return demonstrations, and consultation with the staff and the recipient, the qualified professional must ensure and document that the personal care assistant is:
(1) capable of providing the required personal care assistance services;
(2) knowledgeable about the plan of personal care assistance services before services are performed; and
(3) able to identify conditions that should be immediately brought to the attention of the qualified professional.
(c) The qualified professional shall evaluate the personal care assistant within the first 14 days of starting to provide regularly scheduled services for a recipient, or sooner as determined by the qualified professional, except for the personal care assistance choice option under subdivision 19, paragraph (a), clause (4). For the initial evaluation, the qualified professional shall evaluate the personal care assistance services for a recipient through direct observation of a personal care assistant's work. The qualified professional may conduct additional training and evaluation visits, based upon the needs of the recipient and the personal care assistant's ability to meet those needs. Subsequent visits to evaluate the personal care assistance services provided to a recipient do not require direct observation of each personal care assistant's work and shall occur:
(1) at least every 90 days thereafter for the first year of a recipient's services;
(2) every 120 days after the first year of a recipient's service or whenever needed for response to a recipient's request for increased supervision of the personal care assistance staff; and
(3) after the first 180 days of a recipient's service, supervisory visits may alternate between unscheduled phone or Internet technology and in-person visits, unless the in-person visits are needed according to the care plan.
(d) Communication with the recipient is a part of the evaluation process of the personal care assistance staff.
(e) At each supervisory visit, the qualified professional shall evaluate personal care assistance services including the following information:
(1) satisfaction level of the recipient with personal care assistance services;
(2) review of the month-to-month plan for use of personal care assistance services;
(3) review of documentation of personal care assistance services provided;
(4) whether the personal care assistance services are meeting the goals of the service as stated in the personal care assistance care plan and service plan;
(5) a written record of the results of the evaluation and actions taken to correct any deficiencies in the work of a personal care assistant; and
(6) revision of the personal care assistance care plan as necessary in consultation with the recipient or responsible party, to meet the needs of the recipient.
(f) The qualified professional shall complete the required documentation in the agency recipient and employee files and the recipient's home, including the following documentation:
(1) the personal care assistance care plan based on the service plan and individualized needs of the recipient;
(2) a month-to-month plan for use of personal care assistance services;
(3) changes in need of the recipient requiring a change to the level of service and the personal care assistance care plan;
(4) evaluation results of supervision visits and identified issues with personal care assistance staff with actions taken;
(5) all communication with the recipient and personal care assistance staff; and
(6) hands-on training or individualized training for the care of the recipient.
(g) The documentation in paragraph (f) must be done on agency forms templates.
(h) The services that are not eligible for payment as qualified professional services include:
(1) direct professional nursing tasks that could be assessed and authorized as skilled nursing tasks;
(2) supervision of personal care assistance completed by telephone;
(3) (2) agency administrative activities;
(4) (3) training other than the individualized training required to provide care for a recipient; and
(5) (4) any other activity that is not described in this section.
(a) Under personal care assistance choice, the recipient or responsible party shall:
(1) recruit, hire, schedule, and terminate personal care assistants according to the terms of the written agreement required under subdivision 20, paragraph (a);
(2) develop a personal care assistance care plan based on the assessed needs and addressing the health and safety of the recipient with the assistance of a qualified professional as needed;
(3) orient and train the personal care assistant with assistance as needed from the qualified professional;
(4) effective January 1, 2010, supervise and evaluate the personal care assistant with the qualified professional, who is required to visit the recipient at least every 180 days;
(5) monitor and verify in writing and report to the personal care assistance choice agency the number of hours worked by the personal care assistant and the qualified professional;
(6) engage in an annual face-to-face reassessment to determine continuing eligibility and service authorization; and
(7) use the same personal care assistance choice provider agency if shared personal assistance care is being used.
(b) The personal care assistance choice provider agency shall:
(1) meet all personal care assistance provider agency standards;
(2) enter into a written agreement with the recipient, responsible party, and personal care assistants;
(3) not be related as a parent, child, sibling, or spouse to the recipient, qualified professional, or the personal care assistant; and
(4) ensure arm's-length transactions without undue influence or coercion with the recipient and personal care assistant.
(c) The duties of the personal care assistance choice provider agency are to:
(1) be the employer of the personal care assistant and the qualified professional for employment law and related regulations including, but not limited to, purchasing and maintaining workers' compensation, unemployment insurance, surety and fidelity bonds, and liability insurance, and submit any or all necessary documentation including, but not limited to, workers' compensation and unemployment insurance;
(2) bill the medical assistance program for personal care assistance services and qualified professional services;
(3) request and complete background studies that comply with the requirements for personal care assistants and qualified professionals;
(4) pay the personal care assistant and qualified professional based on actual hours of services provided;
(5) withhold and pay all applicable federal and state taxes;
(6) verify and keep records of hours worked by the personal care assistant and qualified professional;
(7) make the arrangements and pay taxes and other benefits, if any, and comply with any legal requirements for a Minnesota employer;
(8) enroll in the medical assistance program as a personal care assistance choice agency; and
(9) enter into a written agreement as specified in subdivision 20 before services are provided.
(a) Before services commence under the personal care assistance choice option, and annually thereafter, the personal care assistance choice provider agency and the recipient or responsible party shall enter into a written agreement. The annual agreement must be provided to the recipient or responsible party, each personal care assistant, and the qualified professional when completed, and include at a minimum:
(1) duties of the recipient, qualified professional, personal care assistant, and personal care assistance choice provider agency;
(2) salary and benefits for the personal care assistant and the qualified professional;
(3) administrative fee of the personal care assistance choice provider agency and services paid for with that fee, including background study fees;
(4) grievance procedures to respond to complaints;
(5) procedures for hiring and terminating the personal care assistant; and
(6) documentation requirements including, but not limited to, time sheets, activity records, and the personal care assistance care plan.
(b) Effective January 1, 2010, except for the administrative fee of the personal care assistance choice provider agency as reported on the written agreement, the remainder of the rates paid to the personal care assistance choice provider agency must be used to pay for the salary and benefits for the personal care assistant or the qualified professional. The provider agency must use a minimum of 72.5 percent of the revenue generated by the medical assistance rate for personal care assistance services for employee personal care assistant wages and benefits. The revenue generated by the qualified professional and the reasonable costs associated with the qualified professional shall not be used in making this calculation.
(c) The commissioner shall deny, revoke, or suspend the authorization to use the personal care assistance choice option if:
(1) it has been determined by the qualified professional or public health nurse that the use of this option jeopardizes the recipient's health and safety;
(2) the parties have failed to comply with the written agreement specified in this subdivision;
(3) the use of the option has led to abusive or fraudulent billing for personal care assistance services; or
(4) the department terminates the personal care assistance choice option.
(d) The recipient or responsible party may appeal the commissioner's decision in paragraph (c) according to section 256.045. The denial, revocation, or suspension to use the personal care assistance choice option must not affect the recipient's authorized level of personal care assistance services.
(a) All personal care assistance provider agencies must provide, at the time of enrollment as a personal care assistance provider agency in a format determined by the commissioner, information and documentation that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(1) the personal care assistance provider agency's current contact information including address, telephone number, and e-mail address;
(2) proof of surety bond coverage in the amount of $50,000 or ten percent of the provider's payments from Medicaid in the previous year, whichever is less;
(3) proof of fidelity bond coverage in the amount of $20,000;
(4) proof of workers' compensation insurance coverage;
(5) proof of liability insurance;
(6) a description of the personal care assistance provider agency's organization identifying the names of all owners, managing employees, staff, board of directors, and the affiliations of the directors, owners, or staff to other service providers;
(7) a copy of the personal care assistance provider agency's written policies and procedures including: hiring of employees; training requirements; service delivery; and employee and consumer safety including process for notification and resolution of consumer grievances, identification and prevention of communicable diseases, and employee misconduct;
(8) copies of all other forms the personal care assistance provider agency uses in the course of daily business including, but not limited to:
(i) a copy of the personal care assistance provider agency's time sheet if the time sheet varies from the standard time sheet for personal care assistance services approved by the commissioner, and a letter requesting approval of the personal care assistance provider agency's nonstandard time sheet;
(ii) the personal care assistance provider agency's template for the personal care assistance care plan; and
(iii) the personal care assistance provider agency's template for the written agreement in subdivision 20 for recipients using the personal care assistance choice option, if applicable;
(9) a list of all training and classes that the personal care assistance provider agency requires of its staff providing personal care assistance services;
(10) documentation that the personal care assistance provider agency and staff have successfully completed all the training required by this section;
(11) documentation of the agency's marketing practices;
(12) disclosure of ownership, leasing, or management of all residential properties that is used or could be used for providing home care services;
(13) documentation that the agency will use the following percentages of revenue generated from the medical assistance rate paid for personal care assistance services for employee personal care assistant wages and benefits: 72.5 percent of revenue in the personal care assistance choice option and 72.5 percent of revenue from other personal care assistance providers. The revenue generated by the qualified professional and the reasonable costs associated with the qualified professional shall not be used in making this calculation; and
(14) effective May 15, 2010, documentation that the agency does not burden recipients' free exercise of their right to choose service providers by requiring personal care assistants to sign an agreement not to work with any particular personal care assistance recipient or for another personal care assistance provider agency after leaving the agency and that the agency is not taking action on any such agreements or requirements regardless of the date signed.
(b) Personal care assistance provider agencies shall provide the information specified in paragraph (a) to the commissioner at the time the personal care assistance provider agency enrolls as a vendor or upon request from the commissioner. The commissioner shall collect the information specified in paragraph (a) from all personal care assistance providers beginning July 1, 2009.
(c) All personal care assistance provider agencies shall require all employees in management and supervisory positions and owners of the agency who are active in the day-to-day management and operations of the agency to complete mandatory training as determined by the commissioner before enrollment of the agency as a provider. Employees in management and supervisory positions and owners who are active in the day-to-day operations of an agency who have completed the required training as an employee with a personal care assistance provider agency do not need to repeat the required training if they are hired by another agency, if they have completed the training within the past three years. By September 1, 2010, the required training must be available in languages other than English and to those who need accommodations due to disabilities, with meaningful access according to title VI of the Civil Rights Act and federal regulations adopted under that law or any guidance from the United States Health and Human Services Department. The required training must be available online, or by electronic remote connection, and. The required training must provide for competency testing. Personal care assistance provider agency billing staff shall complete training about personal care assistance program financial management. This training is effective July 1, 2009. Any personal care assistance provider agency enrolled before that date shall, if it has not already, complete the provider training within 18 months of July 1, 2009. Any new owners or employees in management and supervisory positions involved in the day-to-day operations are required to complete mandatory training as a requisite of working for the agency. Personal care assistance provider agencies certified for participation in Medicare as home health agencies are exempt from the training required in this subdivision. When available, Medicare-certified home health agency owners, supervisors, or managers must successfully complete the competency test.
A personal care assistance provider agency shall:
(1) enroll as a Medicaid provider meeting all provider standards, including completion of the required provider training;
(2) comply with general medical assistance coverage requirements;
(3) demonstrate compliance with law and policies of the personal care assistance program to be determined by the commissioner;
(4) comply with background study requirements;
(5) verify and keep records of hours worked by the personal care assistant and qualified professional;
(6) not engage in any agency-initiated direct contact or marketing in person, by phone, or other electronic means to potential recipients, guardians, or family members;
(7) pay the personal care assistant and qualified professional based on actual hours of services provided;
(8) withhold and pay all applicable federal and state taxes;
(9) effective January 1, 2010, document that the agency uses a minimum of 72.5 percent of the revenue generated by the medical assistance rate for personal care assistance services for employee personal care assistant wages and benefits. The revenue generated by the qualified professional and the reasonable costs associated with the qualified professional shall not be used in making this calculation;
(10) make the arrangements and pay unemployment insurance, taxes, workers' compensation, liability insurance, and other benefits, if any;
(11) enter into a written agreement under subdivision 20 before services are provided;
(12) report suspected neglect and abuse to the common entry point according to section 256B.0651;
(13) provide the recipient with a copy of the home care bill of rights at start of service; and
(14) request reassessments at least 60 days prior to the end of the current authorization for personal care assistance services, on forms provided by the commissioner.
The commissioner must provide:
(1) by October 31, 2009, information to recipients likely to be affected that (i) describes the changes to the personal care assistance program that may result in the loss of access to personal care assistance services, and (ii) includes resources to obtain further information; and
(2) notice of changes in medical assistance personal care assistance services to each affected recipient at least 30 days before the effective date of the change.
The notice shall include how to get further information on the changes, how to get help to obtain other services, a list of community resources, and appeal rights. Notwithstanding section 256.045, a recipient may request continued services pending appeal within the time period allowed to request an appeal; and
(3) (2) a service agreement authorizing personal care assistance hours of service at the previously authorized level, throughout the appeal process period, when a recipient requests services pending an appeal.
This section is effective July 1, 2012.
(a) Beginning November 1, 2001, and each November 1 thereafter, the commissioner shall issue an annual report on county and state use of available resources for the home and community-based waiver for persons with developmental disabilities. For each county or county partnership, the report shall include:
(1) the amount of funds allocated but not used;
(2) the county specific allowed reserve amount approved and used;
(3) the number, ages, and living situations of individuals screened and waiting for services;
(4) the urgency of need for services to begin within one, two, or more than two years for each individual;
(5) the services needed;
(6) the number of additional persons served by approval of increased capacity within existing allocations;
(7) results of action by the commissioner to streamline administrative requirements and improve county resource management; and
(8) additional action that would decrease the number of those eligible and waiting for waivered services.
The commissioner shall specify intended outcomes for the program and the degree to which these specified outcomes are attained.
(b) This subdivision expires January 1, 2013.
(a) Upon federal approval, there is established a new service called residential support that is available on the community alternative care, community alternatives for disabled individuals, developmental disabilities, and traumatic brain injury waivers. Existing waiver service descriptions must be modified to the extent necessary to ensure there is no duplication between other services. Residential support services must be provided by vendors licensed as a community residential setting as defined in section 245A.11, subdivision 8.
(b) Residential support services must meet the following criteria:
(1) providers of residential support services must own or control the residential site;
(2) the residential site must not be the primary residence of the license holder;
(3) the residential site must have a designated program supervisor responsible for program oversight, development, and implementation of policies and procedures;
(4) the provider of residential support services must provide supervision, training, and assistance as described in the person's community support plan; and
(5) the provider of residential support services must meet the requirements of licensure and additional requirements of the person's community support plan.
(c) Providers of residential support services that meet the definition in paragraph (a) must be registered using a process determined by the commissioner beginning July 1, 2009. Providers licensed to provide child foster care under Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.3000 to 2960.3340, or adult foster care licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, and that meet the requirements in section 245A.03, subdivision 7, paragraph (e), are considered registered under this section.
(a) The commissioner shall provide a biennial report to the chairs of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and funding beginning January 15, 2009, on the development and activities of the quality management, assurance, and improvement system designed to meet the federal requirements under the home and community-based services waiver programs for persons with disabilities. By January 15, 2008, the commissioner shall provide a preliminary report on priorities for meeting the federal requirements, progress on development and field testing of the annual survey, appropriations necessary to implement an annual survey of service recipients once field testing is completed, recommendations for improvements in the incident reporting system, and a plan for incorporating quality assurance efforts under section 256B.095 and other regional efforts into the statewide system.
(b) This subdivision expires January 1, 2013.
"External fixed costs" means costs related to the nursing home surcharge under section 256.9657, subdivision 1; licensure fees under section 144.122; long-term care consultation fees under section 256B.0911, subdivision 6; family advisory council fee under section 144A.33; scholarships under section 256B.431, subdivision 36; planned closure rate adjustments under section 256B.436 or 256B.437; or single bed room incentives under section 256B.431, subdivision 42; property taxes and property insurance; and PERA.
"Prior system operating cost payment rate" means the operating cost payment rate in effect on September 30, 2008, under Minnesota Rules and Minnesota Statutes, not including planned closure rate adjustments under section 256B.436 or 256B.437, or single bed room incentives under section 256B.431, subdivision 42.
The commissioner shall calculate a payment rate for external fixed costs.
(a) For a facility licensed as a nursing home, the portion related to section 256.9657 shall be equal to $8.86. For a facility licensed as both a nursing home and a boarding care home, the portion related to section 256.9657 shall be equal to $8.86 multiplied by the result of its number of nursing home beds divided by its total number of licensed beds.
(b) The portion related to the licensure fee under section 144.122, paragraph (d), shall be the amount of the fee divided by actual resident days.
(c) The portion related to scholarships shall be determined under section 256B.431, subdivision 36.
(d) The portion related to long-term care consultation shall be determined according to section 256B.0911, subdivision 6.
(e) The portion related to development and education of resident and family advisory councils under section 144A.33 shall be $5 divided by 365.
(f) The portion related to planned closure rate adjustments shall be as determined under sections 256B.436 and section 256B.437, subdivision 6, and Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 256B.436. Planned closure rate adjustments that take effect before October 1, 2014, shall no longer be included in the payment rate for external fixed costs beginning October 1, 2016. Planned closure rate adjustments that take effect on or after October 1, 2014, shall no longer be included in the payment rate for external fixed costs beginning on October 1 of the first year not less than two years after their effective date.
(g) The portions related to property insurance, real estate taxes, special assessments, and payments made in lieu of real estate taxes directly identified or allocated to the nursing facility shall be the actual amounts divided by actual resident days.
(h) The portion related to the Public Employees Retirement Association shall be actual costs divided by resident days.
(i) The single bed room incentives shall be as determined under section 256B.431, subdivision 42. Single bed room incentives that take effect before October 1, 2014, shall no longer be included in the payment rate for external fixed costs beginning October 1, 2016. Single bed room incentives that take effect on or after October 1, 2014, shall no longer be included in the payment rate for external fixed costs beginning on October 1 of the first year not less than two years after their effective date.
(j) The payment rate for external fixed costs shall be the sum of the amounts in paragraphs (a) to (i).
(a) The commissioner shall expand on the annual report required under section 256B.0916, subdivision 7, to include information on the county of residence and financial responsibility, age, and major diagnoses for persons eligible for the home and community-based waivers authorized under subdivision 11 who are:
(1) receiving those services;
(2) screened and waiting for waiver services; and
(3) residing in nursing facilities and are under age 65.
(b) This subdivision expires January 1, 2013.
(a) Each county board shall designate a common entry point for reports of suspected maltreatment. Two or more county boards may jointly designate a single common entry point. The common entry point is the unit responsible for receiving the report of suspected maltreatment under this section.
(b) The common entry point must be available 24 hours per day to take calls from reporters of suspected maltreatment. The common entry point shall use a standard intake form that includes:
(1) the time and date of the report;
(2) the name, address, and telephone number of the person reporting;
(3) the time, date, and location of the incident;
(4) the names of the persons involved, including but not limited to, perpetrators, alleged victims, and witnesses;
(5) whether there was a risk of imminent danger to the alleged victim;
(6) a description of the suspected maltreatment;
(7) the disability, if any, of the alleged victim;
(8) the relationship of the alleged perpetrator to the alleged victim;
(9) whether a facility was involved and, if so, which agency licenses the facility;
(10) any action taken by the common entry point;
(11) whether law enforcement has been notified;
(12) whether the reporter wishes to receive notification of the initial and final reports; and
(13) if the report is from a facility with an internal reporting procedure, the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the person who initiated the report internally.
(c) The common entry point is not required to complete each item on the form prior to dispatching the report to the appropriate lead investigative agency.
(d) The common entry point shall immediately report to a law enforcement agency any incident in which there is reason to believe a crime has been committed.
(e) If a report is initially made to a law enforcement agency or a lead investigative agency, those agencies shall take the report on the appropriate common entry point intake forms and immediately forward a copy to the common entry point.
(f) The common entry point staff must receive training on how to screen and dispatch reports efficiently and in accordance with this section.
(g) When a centralized database is available, the common entry point has access to the centralized database and must log the reports into the database. The commissioner of human services shall maintain a centralized database for the collection of common entry point data, lead investigative agency data including maltreatment report disposition, and appeals data.
The common entry point must screen the reports of alleged or suspected maltreatment for immediate risk and make all necessary referrals as follows:
(1) if the common entry point determines that there is an immediate need for adult protective services, the common entry point agency shall immediately notify the appropriate county agency;
(2) if the report contains suspected criminal activity against a vulnerable adult, the common entry point shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agency;
(3) the common entry point shall refer all reports of alleged or suspected maltreatment to the appropriate lead investigative agency as soon as possible, but in any event no longer than two working days; and
(4) if the report involves services licensed by the Department of Human Services and subject to chapter 245D, the common entry point shall refer the report to the county as the lead agency according to clause (3), but shall also notify the Department of Human Services of the report; and
(4) (5) if the report contains information about a suspicious death, the common entry point shall immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agencies, the local medical examiner, and the ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities established under section 245.92. Law enforcement agencies shall coordinate with the local medical examiner and the ombudsman as provided by law.
"Lead investigative agency" is the primary administrative agency responsible for investigating reports made under section 626.557.
(a) The Department of Health is the lead investigative agency for facilities or services licensed or required to be licensed as hospitals, home care providers, nursing homes, boarding care homes, hospice providers, residential facilities that are also federally certified as intermediate care facilities that serve people with developmental disabilities, or any other facility or service not listed in this subdivision that is licensed or required to be licensed by the Department of Health for the care of vulnerable adults. "Home care provider" has the meaning provided in section 144A.43, subdivision 4, and applies when care or services are delivered in the vulnerable adult's home, whether a private home or a housing with services establishment registered under chapter 144D, including those that offer assisted living services under chapter 144G.
(b) Except as provided under paragraph (c), for services licensed according to chapter 245D, the Department of Human Services is the lead investigative agency for facilities or services licensed or required to be licensed as adult day care, adult foster care, programs for people with developmental disabilities, family adult day services, mental health programs, mental health clinics, chemical dependency programs, the Minnesota sex offender program, or any other facility or service not listed in this subdivision that is licensed or required to be licensed by the Department of Human Services.
(c) The county social service agency or its designee is the lead investigative agency for all other reports, including, but not limited to, reports involving vulnerable adults receiving services from a personal care provider organization under section 256B.0659, or receiving home and community-based services licensed by the Department of Human Services and subject to chapter 245D.
(a) The commissioner of human services, in cooperation with the commissioners of health and housing finance, shall develop and implement, beginning July 1, 2009, a three-year five-year demonstration project for older adult services community consortiums. An older adult services community consortium may consist of health care and social service providers, county agencies, health plan companies, and other community stakeholders within a demonstration site that have established a process for joint decision making. Demonstration sites may include a portion of a county, an entire county, or multiple counties.
(b) Each community consortium seeking to participate as a demonstration site must submit an application to the commissioner. The application must include:
(1) a description of the entities participating in the consortium, the scope of collaboration, and the process to be used for joint-decision making;
(2) the methods by which the consortium plans to achieve the goals specified in subdivision 2;
(3) a description of the proposed demonstration site; and
(4) other information the commissioner determines to be necessary to evaluate proposals.
(c) The commissioner of human services shall establish a process to review and consider applicants. The commissioner shall designate up to three community consortiums as demonstration projects.
(d) Each community consortium selected to participate shall establish a local group to assist in planning, designing, implementing, and evaluating the coordinated service delivery system within the demonstration site. Planning for each consortium shall build upon current planning processes developed by county gaps analyses and Elder Care Development Partnerships under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0917.
The commissioner of human services, in cooperation with the commissioners of health and housing finance, shall evaluate the demonstration project, and report preliminary findings and recommendations to the legislature by November 15, 2011, on whether the demonstration project should be continued and whether the number of demonstration project sites increased. The final report of findings and recommendations shall be delivered to the legislature by January 15, 2013 2015. The preliminary and final evaluation and report must include:
(1) a comparison of the performance of demonstration sites relative to nonconsortium communities on the quality measures specified in subdivision 5;
(2) an assessment of the extent to which the demonstration project can be successfully expanded to other parts of the state;
(3) legislative changes necessary to improve the effectiveness of the demonstration project and to expand the projects to other parts of the state; and
(4) any actions taken by the commissioner of health under subdivision 5.
The commissioner of human services may withhold up to $50,000 of the funding provided to each participating community consortium under this section to fund the evaluation and report.
(a) The commissioner of human services shall consult with disability service providers, advocates, counties, and consumer families to develop a single set of standards, to be referred to as "quality outcome standards," governing services for people with disabilities receiving services under the home and community-based waiver services program, with the exception of customized living services because the service license is under the jurisdiction of the Department of Health, to replace all or portions of existing laws and rules including, but not limited to, data practices, licensure of facilities and providers, background studies, reporting of maltreatment of minors, reporting of maltreatment of vulnerable adults, and the psychotropic medication checklist. The standards must:
(1) enable optimum consumer choice;
(2) be consumer driven;
(3) link services to individual needs and life goals;
(4) be based on quality assurance and individual outcomes;
(5) utilize the people closest to the recipient, who may include family, friends, and health and service providers, in conjunction with the recipient's risk management plan to assist the recipient or the recipient's guardian in making decisions that meet the recipient's needs in a cost-effective manner and assure the recipient's health and safety;
(6) utilize person-centered planning; and
(7) maximize federal financial participation.
(b) The commissioner may consult with existing stakeholder groups convened under the commissioner's authority, including the home and community-based expert services panel established by the commissioner in 2008, to meet all or some of the requirements of this section.
(c) The commissioner shall provide the reports and plans required by this section to the legislative committees and budget divisions with jurisdiction over health and human services policy and finance by January 15, 2012.
By December 1, 2012, the commissioner shall request all federal approvals and waiver amendments to the disability home and community-based waivers to allow properly licensed adult foster care homes to provide residential services for up to five individuals.
This section is effective July 1, 2012.
A service provider applying for medical assistance payments for private duty nursing services under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0654, must complete and submit to the commissioner of human services an hourly nursing determination matrix for each recipient of private duty nursing services. The commissioner of human services will collect and analyze data from the hourly nursing determination matrix.
(a) Minnesota Statutes 2010, sections 256B.431, subdivisions 2c, 2g, 2i, 2j, 2k, 2l, 2o, 3c, 11, 14, 17b, 17f, 19, 20, 25, 27, and 29; 256B.434, subdivisions 4a, 4b, 4c, 4d, 4e, 4g, 4h, 7, and 8; 256B.435; and 256B.436, are repealed.
(b) Minnesota Statutes 2011 Supplement, section 256B.431, subdivision 26, is repealed.
(c) Minnesota Rules, part 9555.7700, is repealed.
The terms used in sections 237.50 to 237.56 have the meanings given them in this section.
"Communication impaired disability" means certified as deaf, severely hearing impaired, hard-of-hearing having a hearing loss, speech impaired, deaf and blind disability, or mobility impaired if the mobility impairment significantly impedes the ability physical disability that makes it difficult or impossible to use standard customer premises telecommunications services and equipment.
"Communication device" means a device that when connected to a telephone enables a communication-impaired person to communicate with another person utilizing the telephone system. A "communication device" includes a ring signaler, an amplification device, a telephone device for the deaf, a Brailling device for use with a telephone, and any other device the Department of Human Services deems necessary.
"Deaf" means a hearing impairment loss of such severity that the individual must depend primarily upon visual communication such as writing, lip reading, manual communication sign language, and gestures.
"Deafblind" means any combination of vision and hearing loss which interferes with acquiring information from the environment to the extent that compensatory strategies and skills are necessary to access that or other information.
"Exchange" means a unit area established and described by the tariff of a telephone company for the administration of telephone service in a specified geographical area, usually embracing a city, town, or village and its environs, and served by one or more central offices, together with associated facilities used in providing service within that area.
"Fund" means the telecommunications access Minnesota fund established in section 237.52.
"Hard-of-hearing" means a hearing impairment loss resulting in a functional loss limitation, but not to the extent that the individual must depend primarily upon visual communication.
"Interexchange service" means telephone service between points in two or more exchanges.
"Inter-LATA interexchange service" means interexchange service originating and terminating in different LATAs.
"Local access and transport area (LATA)" means a geographical area designated by the Modification of Final Judgment in U.S. v. Western Electric Co., Inc., 552 F. Supp. 131 (D.D.C. 1982), including modifications in effect on the effective date of sections 237.51 to 237.54.
"Local exchange service" means telephone service between points within an exchange.
"Telecommunications device" means a device that (1) allows a person with a communication disability to have access to telecommunications services as defined in subdivision 13, and (2) is specifically selected by the Department of Human Services for its capacity to allow persons with communication disabilities to use telecommunications services in a manner that is functionally equivalent to the ability of an individual who does not have a communication disability. A telecommunications device may include a ring signaler, an amplified telephone, a hands-free telephone, a text telephone, a captioned telephone, a wireless device, a device that produces Braille output for use with a telephone, and any other device the Department of Human Services deems appropriate.
"Telecommunication Telecommunications Relay service Services" or "TRS" means a central statewide service through which a communication-impaired person, using a communication device, may send and receive messages to and from a non-communication-impaired person whose telephone is not equipped with a communication device and through which a non-communication-impaired person may, by using voice communication, send and receive messages to and from a communication-impaired person the telecommunications transmission services required under Federal Communications Commission (FCC) regulations at Code of Federal Regulations, title 47, sections 64.604 to 64.606. TRS allows an individual who has a communication disability to use telecommunications services in a manner that is functionally equivalent to the ability of an individual who does not have a communication disability.
"Telecommunications" means the transmission, between or among points specified by the user, of information of the user's choosing, without change in the form or content of the information as sent and received.
"Telecommunications services" means the offering of telecommunications for fee directly to the public, or to such classes of users as to be effectively available to the public, regardless of the facilities used.
The commissioner of commerce shall:
(1) administer through interagency agreement with the commissioner of human services a program to distribute communication telecommunications devices to eligible communication-impaired persons who have communication disabilities; and
(2) contract with a one or more qualified vendor vendors that serves communication-impaired serve persons who have communication disabilities to create and maintain a telecommunication provide telecommunications relay service services.
For purposes of sections 237.51 to 237.56, the Department of Commerce and any organization with which it contracts pursuant to this section or section 237.54, subdivision 2, are not telephone companies or telecommunications carriers as defined in section 237.01.
In addition to any duties specified elsewhere in sections 237.51 to 237.56, the commissioner of commerce shall:
(1) prepare the reports required by section 237.55;
(2) administer the fund created in section 237.52; and
(3) adopt rules under chapter 14 to implement the provisions of sections 237.50 to 237.56.
(a) In addition to any duties specified elsewhere in sections 237.51 to 237.56, the commissioner of human services shall:
(1) define economic hardship, special needs, and household criteria so as to determine the priority of eligible applicants for initial distribution of devices and to determine circumstances necessitating provision of more than one communication telecommunications device per household;
(2) establish a method to verify eligibility requirements;
(3) establish specifications for communication telecommunications devices to be purchased provided under section 237.53, subdivision 3; and
(4) inform the public and specifically the community of communication-impaired persons who have communication disabilities of the program.; and
(5) provide devices based on the assessed need of eligible applicants.
(b) The commissioner may establish an advisory board to advise the department in carrying out the duties specified in this section and to advise the commissioner of commerce in carrying out duties under section 237.54. If so established, the advisory board must include, at a minimum, the following communication-impaired persons:
(1) at least one member who is deaf;
(2) at least one member who is has a speech impaired disability;
(3) at least one member who is mobility impaired has a physical disability that makes it difficult or impossible for the person to access telecommunications services; and
(4) at least one member who is hard-of-hearing.
The membership terms, compensation, and removal of members and the filling of membership vacancies are governed by section 15.059. Advisory board meetings shall be held at the discretion of the commissioner.
A telecommunications access Minnesota fund is established as an account in the state treasury. Earnings, such as interest, dividends, and any other earnings arising from fund assets, must be credited to the fund.
(a) The commissioner of commerce, the commissioner of employment and economic development, and the commissioner of human services shall annually recommend to the Public Utilities Commission (PUC) an adequate and appropriate surcharge and budget to implement sections 237.50 to 237.56, 248.062, and 256C.30, respectively. The maximum annual budget for section 248.062 must not exceed $100,000 and for section 256C.30 must not exceed $300,000. The Public Utilities Commission shall review the budgets for reasonableness and may modify the budget to the extent it is unreasonable. The commission shall annually determine the funding mechanism to be used within 60 days of receipt of the recommendation of the departments and shall order the imposition of surcharges effective on the earliest practicable date. The commission shall establish a monthly charge no greater than 20 cents for each customer access line, including trunk equivalents as designated by the commission pursuant to section 403.11, subdivision 1.
(b) If the fund balance falls below a level capable of fully supporting all programs eligible under subdivision 5 and sections 248.062 and 256C.30, expenditures under sections 248.062 and 256C.30 shall be reduced on a pro rata basis and expenditures under sections 237.53 and 237.54 shall be fully funded. Expenditures under sections 248.062 and 256C.30 shall resume at fully funded levels when the commissioner of commerce determines there is a sufficient fund balance to fully fund those expenditures.
Every telephone company or communications carrier that provides service provider of services capable of originating a telecommunications relay TRS call, including cellular communications and other nonwire access services, in this state shall collect the charges established by the commission under subdivision 2 and transfer amounts collected to the commissioner of public safety in the same manner as provided in section 403.11, subdivision 1, paragraph (d). The commissioner of public safety must deposit the receipts in the fund established in subdivision 1.
Money in the fund is appropriated to the commissioner of commerce to implement sections 237.51 to 237.56, to the commissioner of employment and economic development to implement section 248.062, and to the commissioner of human services to implement section 256C.30.
(a) Money in the fund may only be used for:
(1) expenses of the Department of Commerce, including personnel cost, public relations, advisory board members' expenses, preparation of reports, and other reasonable expenses not to exceed ten percent of total program expenditures;
(2) reimbursing the commissioner of human services for purchases made or services provided pursuant to section 237.53; and
(3) reimbursing telephone companies for purchases made or services provided under section 237.53, subdivision 5 ; and
(4) (3) contracting for establishment and operation of the telecommunication relay service the provision of TRS required by section 237.54.
(b) All costs directly associated with the establishment of the program, the purchase and distribution of communication telecommunications devices, and the establishment and operation of the telecommunication relay service provision of TRS are either reimbursable or directly payable from the fund after authorization by the commissioner of commerce. The commissioner of commerce shall contract with the message relay service operator one or more TRS providers to indemnify the local exchange carriers of the relay telecommunications service providers for any fines imposed by the Federal Communications Commission related to the failure of the relay service to comply with federal service standards. Notwithstanding section 16A.41, the commissioner may advance money to the contractor of the telecommunication relay service TRS providers if the contractor establishes providers establish to the commissioner's satisfaction that the advance payment is necessary for the operation provision of the service. The advance payment may be used only for working capital reserve for the operation of the service. The advance payment must be offset or repaid by the end of the contract fiscal year together with interest accrued from the date of payment.
A person applying for a communication telecommunications device under this section must apply to the program administrator on a form prescribed by the Department of Human Services.
To be eligible to obtain a communication telecommunications device under this section, a person must be:
(1) be able to benefit from and use the equipment for its intended purpose;
(2) have a communication impaired disability;
(3) be a resident of the state;
(4) be a resident in a household that has a median income at or below the applicable median household income in the state, except a deaf and blind person who is deafblind applying for a telebraille unit Braille device may reside in a household that has a median income no more than 150 percent of the applicable median household income in the state; and
(5) be a resident in a household that has telephone telecommunications service or that has made application for service and has been assigned a telephone number; or a resident in a residential care facility, such as a nursing home or group home where telephone telecommunications service is not included as part of overall service provision.
The commissioner of human services shall purchase and distribute a sufficient number of communication telecommunications devices so that each eligible household receives an appropriate device devices as determined under section 237.51, subdivision 5a. The commissioner of human services shall distribute the devices to eligible households in each service area free of charge as determined under section 237.51, subdivision 5a.
The commissioner of human services shall maintain the communication telecommunications devices until the warranty period expires, and provide training, without charge, to first-time users of the devices.
If a communication-impaired person is not served by telephone service and is subject to economic hardship as determined by the Department of Human Services, the telephone company providing local service shall at the direction of the administrator of the program install necessary outside wiring without charge to the household.
All communication Telecommunications devices purchased pursuant to subdivision 3 will become are the property of the state of Minnesota. Policies and procedures for the return of devices from individuals who withdraw from the program or whose eligibility status changes shall be determined by the commissioner of human services.
The communication telecommunications devices distributed under this section must comply with the electronic industries association alliance standards and be approved by the Federal Communications Commission. The commissioner of human services must provide each eligible person a choice of several models of devices, the retail value of which may not exceed $600 for a communication device for the deaf text telephone, and a retail value of $7,000 for a telebraille Braille device, or an amount authorized by the Department of Human Services for a telephone device for the deaf with auxiliary equipment all other telecommunications devices and auxiliary equipment it deems cost-effective and appropriate to distribute according to sections 237.51 to 237.56.
(a) The commissioner of commerce shall contract with a one or more qualified vendor vendors for the operation and maintenance of the telecommunication relay system provision of Telecommunications Relay Services (TRS).
(b) The telecommunication relay service provider TRS providers shall operate the relay service within the state of Minnesota. The operator of the system TRS providers shall keep all messages confidential, shall train personnel in the unique needs of communication-impaired people, and shall inform communication-impaired persons and the public of the availability and use of the system. Except in the case of a speech- or mobility-impaired person, the operator shall not relay a message unless it originates or terminates through a communication device for the deaf or a Brailling device for use with a telephone comply with all current and subsequent FCC regulations at Code of Federal Regulations, title 47, sections 64.601 to 64.606, and shall inform persons who have communication disabilities and the public of the availability and use of TRS.
The commissioner of commerce must prepare a report for presentation to the Public Utilities Commission by January 31 of each year. Each report must review the accessibility of the telephone system to communication-impaired persons, review the ability of non-communication-impaired persons to communicate with communication-impaired persons via the telephone system telecommunications services to persons who have communication disabilities, describe services provided, account for money received and disbursed annually annual revenues and expenditures for each aspect of the program fund to date, and include predicted program future operation.
The services required to be provided under sections 237.50 to 237.55 may be enforced under section 237.081 upon a complaint of at least two communication-impaired persons within the service area of any one telephone company telecommunications service provider, provided that if only one person within the service area of a company is receiving service under sections 237.50 to 237.55, the commission Public Utilities Commission may proceed upon a complaint from that person.
(a) Medical assistance covers in-reach community-based service coordination that is performed in through a hospital emergency department as an eligible procedure under a state healthcare program or private insurance for a frequent user. A frequent user is defined as an individual who has frequented the hospital emergency department for services three or more times in the previous four consecutive months. In-reach community-based service coordination includes navigating services to address a client's mental health, chemical health, social, economic, and housing needs, or any other activity targeted at reducing the incidence of emergency room and other nonmedically necessary health care utilization.
(b) Reimbursement must be made in 15-minute increments under current Medicaid mental health social work reimbursement methodology and allowed for up to 60 days posthospital discharge based upon the specific identified emergency department visit or inpatient admitting event. A frequent user who is participating in care coordination within a health care home framework is ineligible for reimbursement under this subdivision. In-reach community-based service coordination shall seek to connect frequent users with existing covered services available to them, including, but not limited to, targeted case management, waiver case management, or care coordination in a health care home. Eligible in-reach service coordinators must hold a minimum of a bachelor's degree in social work, public health, corrections, or a related field. The commissioner shall submit any necessary application for waivers to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to implement this subdivision.
(c) For the purposes of this subdivision, "in-reach community-based service coordination" means the practice of a community-based worker with training, knowledge, skills, and ability to access a continuum of services, including housing, transportation, chemical and mental health treatment, employment, and peer support services, by working with an organization's staff to transition an individual back into the individual's living environment. In-reach community-based service coordination includes working with the individual during their discharge and for up to a defined amount of time in the individual's living environment, reducing the individual's need for readmittance.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in paragraphs (b) to (r) have the meanings given unless otherwise provided in text.
(b) "Activities of daily living" means grooming, dressing, bathing, transferring, mobility, positioning, eating, and toileting.
(c) "Behavior," effective January 1, 2010, means a category to determine the home care rating and is based on the criteria found in this section. "Level I behavior" means physical aggression towards self, others, or destruction of property that requires the immediate response of another person.
(d) "Complex health-related needs," effective January 1, 2010, means a category to determine the home care rating and is based on the criteria found in this section.
(e) "Critical activities of daily living," effective January 1, 2010, means transferring, mobility, eating, and toileting.
(f) "Dependency in activities of daily living" means a person requires assistance to begin and complete one or more of the activities of daily living.
(g) "Extended personal care assistance service" means personal care assistance services included in a service plan under one of the home and community-based services waivers authorized under sections 256B.0915, 256B.092, subdivision 5, and 256B.49, which exceed the amount, duration, and frequency of the state plan personal care assistance services for participants who:
(1) need assistance provided periodically during a week, but less than daily will not be able to remain in their homes without the assistance, and other replacement services are more expensive or are not available when personal care assistance services are to be terminated; or
(2) need additional personal care assistance services beyond the amount authorized by the state plan personal care assistance assessment in order to ensure that their safety, health, and welfare are provided for in their homes.
(h) "Health-related procedures and tasks" means procedures and tasks that can be delegated or assigned by a licensed health care professional under state law to be performed by a personal care assistant.
(i) "Instrumental activities of daily living" means activities to include meal planning and preparation; basic assistance with paying bills; shopping for food, clothing, and other essential items; performing household tasks integral to the personal care assistance services; communication by telephone and other media; and traveling, including to medical appointments and to participate in the community.
(j) "Managing employee" has the same definition as Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.
(k) "Qualified professional" means a professional providing supervision of personal care assistance services and staff as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19c.
(l) "Personal care assistance provider agency" means a medical assistance enrolled provider that provides or assists with providing personal care assistance services and includes a personal care assistance provider organization, personal care assistance choice agency, class A licensed nursing agency, and Medicare-certified home health agency.
(m) "Personal care assistant" or "PCA" means an individual employed by a personal care assistance agency who provides personal care assistance services.
(n) "Personal care assistance care plan" means a written description of personal care assistance services developed by the personal care assistance provider according to the service plan.
(o) "Responsible party" means an individual who is capable of providing the support necessary to assist the recipient to live in the community.
(p) "Self-administered medication" means medication taken orally, by injection, nebulizer, or insertion, or applied topically without the need for assistance.
(q) "Service plan" means a written summary of the assessment and description of the services needed by the recipient.
(r) "Wages and benefits" means wages and salaries, the employer's share of FICA taxes, Medicare taxes, state and federal unemployment taxes, workers' compensation, mileage reimbursement, health and dental insurance, life insurance, disability insurance, long-term care insurance, uniform allowance, and contributions to employee retirement accounts.
(a) The personal care assistance services eligible for payment include services and supports furnished to an individual, as needed, to assist in:
(1) activities of daily living;
(2) health-related procedures and tasks;
(3) observation and redirection of behaviors; and
(4) instrumental activities of daily living.
(b) Activities of daily living include the following covered services:
(1) dressing, including assistance with choosing, application, and changing of clothing and application of special appliances, wraps, or clothing;
(2) grooming, including assistance with basic hair care, oral care, shaving, applying cosmetics and deodorant, and care of eyeglasses and hearing aids. Nail care is included, except for recipients who are diabetic or have poor circulation;
(3) bathing, including assistance with basic personal hygiene and skin care;
(4) eating, including assistance with hand washing and application of orthotics required for eating, transfers, and feeding;
(5) transfers, including assistance with transferring the recipient from one seating or reclining area to another;
(6) mobility, including assistance with ambulation, including use of a wheelchair. Mobility does not include providing transportation for a recipient;
(7) positioning, including assistance with positioning or turning a recipient for necessary care and comfort; and
(8) toileting, including assistance with helping recipient with bowel or bladder elimination and care including transfers, mobility, positioning, feminine hygiene, use of toileting equipment or supplies, cleansing the perineal area, inspection of the skin, and adjusting clothing.
(c) Health-related procedures and tasks include the following covered services:
(1) range of motion and passive exercise to maintain a recipient's strength and muscle functioning;
(2) assistance with self-administered medication as defined by this section, including reminders to take medication, bringing medication to the recipient, and assistance with opening medication under the direction of the recipient or responsible party, including medications given through a nebulizer;
(3) interventions for seizure disorders, including monitoring and observation; and
(4) other activities considered within the scope of the personal care service and meeting the definition of health-related procedures and tasks under this section.
(d) A personal care assistant may provide health-related procedures and tasks associated with the complex health-related needs of a recipient if the procedures and tasks meet the definition of health-related procedures and tasks under this section and the personal care assistant is trained by a qualified professional and demonstrates competency to safely complete the procedures and tasks. Delegation of health-related procedures and tasks and all training must be documented in the personal care assistance care plan and the recipient's and personal care assistant's files. A personal care assistant must not determine the medication dose or time for medication.
(e) Effective January 1, 2010, for a personal care assistant to provide the health-related procedures and tasks of tracheostomy suctioning and services to recipients on ventilator support there must be:
(1) delegation and training by a registered nurse, certified or licensed respiratory therapist, or a physician;
(2) utilization of clean rather than sterile procedure;
(3) specialized training about the health-related procedures and tasks and equipment, including ventilator operation and maintenance;
(4) individualized training regarding the needs of the recipient; and
(5) supervision by a qualified professional who is a registered nurse.
(f) Effective January 1, 2010, a personal care assistant may observe and redirect the recipient for episodes where there is a need for redirection due to behaviors. Training of the personal care assistant must occur based on the needs of the recipient, the personal care assistance care plan, and any other support services provided.
(g) Instrumental activities of daily living under subdivision 1, paragraph (i).
(a) "Assessment" means a review and evaluation of a recipient's need for home personal care assistance services conducted in person. Assessments for personal care assistance services shall be conducted by the county public health nurse or a certified public health nurse under contract with the county except when a long-term care consultation assessment is being conducted for the purposes of determining a person's eligibility for home and community-based waiver services including personal care assistance services according to section 256B.0911. An in-person assessment must include: documentation of health status, determination of need, evaluation of service effectiveness, identification of appropriate services, service plan development or modification, coordination of services, referrals and follow-up to appropriate payers and community resources, completion of required reports, recommendation of service authorization, and consumer education. Once the need for personal care assistance services is determined under this section or sections 256B.0651, 256B.0653, 256B.0654, and 256B.0656, the county public health nurse or certified public health nurse under contract with the county is responsible for communicating this recommendation to the commissioner and the recipient. An in-person assessment must occur at least annually or when there is a significant change in the recipient's condition or when there is a change in the need for personal care assistance services. A service update may substitute for the annual face-to-face assessment when there is not a significant change in recipient condition or a change in the need for personal care assistance service. A service update may be completed by telephone, used when there is no need for an increase in personal care assistance services, and used for two consecutive assessments if followed by a face-to-face assessment. A service update must be completed on a form approved by the commissioner. A service update or review for temporary increase includes a review of initial baseline data, evaluation of service effectiveness, redetermination of service need, modification of service plan and appropriate referrals, update of initial forms, obtaining service authorization, and on going consumer education. Assessments or reassessments must be completed on forms provided by the commissioner within 30 days of a request for home care services by a recipient or responsible party or personal care provider agency.
(b) This subdivision expires when notification is given by the commissioner as described in section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a.
(a) An assessment as defined in subdivision 3a must be completed for personal care assistance services.
(b) The following limitations apply to the assessment:
(1) a person must be assessed as dependent in an activity of daily living based on the person's daily need or need on the days during the week the activity is completed for:
(i) cuing and constant supervision to complete the task; or
(ii) hands-on assistance to complete the task; and
(2) a child may not be found to be dependent in an activity of daily living if because of the child's age an adult would either perform the activity for the child or assist the child with the activity. Assistance needed is the assistance appropriate for a typical child of the same age.
(c) Assessment for complex health-related needs must meet the criteria in this paragraph. During the assessment process, A recipient qualifies as having complex health-related needs if the recipient has one or more of the interventions that are ordered by a physician, specified in a personal care assistance care plan or community support plan developed under section 256B.0911, and found in the following:
(1) tube feedings requiring:
(i) a gastrojejunostomy tube; or
(ii) continuous tube feeding lasting longer than 12 hours per day;
(2) wounds described as:
(i) stage III or stage IV;
(ii) multiple wounds;
(iii) requiring sterile or clean dressing changes or a wound vac; or
(iv) open lesions such as burns, fistulas, tube sites, or ostomy sites that require specialized care;
(3) parenteral therapy described as:
(i) IV therapy more than two times per week lasting longer than four hours for each treatment; or
(ii) total parenteral nutrition (TPN) daily;
(4) respiratory interventions, including:
(i) oxygen required more than eight hours per day;
(ii) respiratory vest more than one time per day;
(iii) bronchial drainage treatments more than two times per day;
(iv) sterile or clean suctioning more than six times per day;
(v) dependence on another to apply respiratory ventilation augmentation devices such as BiPAP and CPAP; and
(vi) ventilator dependence under section 256B.0652;
(5) insertion and maintenance of catheter, including:
(i) sterile catheter changes more than one time per month;
(ii) clean intermittent catheterization, and including self-catheterization more than six times per day; or
(iii) bladder irrigations;
(6) bowel program more than two times per week requiring more than 30 minutes to perform each time;
(7) neurological intervention, including:
(i) seizures more than two times per week and requiring significant physical assistance to maintain safety; or
(ii) swallowing disorders diagnosed by a physician and requiring specialized assistance from another on a daily basis; and
(8) other congenital or acquired diseases creating a need for significantly increased direct hands-on assistance and interventions in six to eight activities of daily living.
(d) An assessment of behaviors must meet the criteria in this paragraph. A recipient qualifies as having a need for assistance due to behaviors if the recipient's behavior requires assistance at least four times per week and shows one or more of the following behaviors:
(1) physical aggression towards self or others, or destruction of property that requires the immediate response of another person;
(2) increased vulnerability due to cognitive deficits or socially inappropriate behavior; or
(3) increased need for assistance for recipients who are verbally aggressive and or resistive to care so that the time needed to perform activities of daily living is increased.
(a) The purpose of long-term care consultation services is to assist persons with long-term or chronic care needs in making long-term care decisions and selecting support and service options that meet their needs and reflect their preferences. The availability of, and access to, information and other types of assistance, including assessment and support planning, is also intended to prevent or delay certified nursing facility institutional placements and to provide access to transition assistance after admission. Further, the goal of these services is to contain costs associated with unnecessary certified nursing facility institutional admissions. Long-term consultation services must be available to any person regardless of public program eligibility. The commissioner of human services shall seek to maximize use of available federal and state funds and establish the broadest program possible within the funding available.
(b) These services must be coordinated with long-term care options counseling provided under section 256.975, subdivision 7, and section 256.01, subdivision 24, for telephone assistance and follow up and to offer a variety of cost-effective alternatives to persons with disabilities and elderly persons. The county or tribal lead agency or managed care plan providing long-term care consultation services shall encourage the use of volunteers from families, religious organizations, social clubs, and similar civic and service organizations to provide community-based services.
For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(a) Until additional requirements apply under paragraph (b), "long-term care consultation services" means:
(1) intake for and access to assistance in identifying services needed to maintain an individual in the most inclusive environment;
(2) providing recommendations on for and referrals to cost-effective community services that are available to the individual;
(3) development of an individual's person-centered community support plan;
(4) providing information regarding eligibility for Minnesota health care programs;
(5) face-to-face long-term care consultation assessments, which may be completed in a hospital, nursing facility, intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities (ICF/DDs), regional treatment centers, or the person's current or planned residence;
(6) federally mandated preadmission screening to determine the need for an institutional level of care under subdivision 4a activities described under subdivisions 4a and 4b;
(7) determination of home and community-based waiver and other service eligibility as required under sections 256B.0913, 256B.0915, and 256B.49, including level of care determination for individuals who need an institutional level of care as determined under section 256B.0911, subdivision 4a, paragraph (d), or 256B.092, service eligibility including state plan home care services identified in sections 256B.0625, subdivisions 6, 7, and 19, paragraphs (a) and (c), and 256B.0657, based on assessment and community support plan development with, appropriate referrals to obtain necessary diagnostic information, and including the option an eligibility determination for consumer-directed community supports;
(8) providing recommendations for nursing facility institutional placement when there are no cost-effective community services available; and
(9) providing access to assistance to transition people back to community settings after facility institutional admission.; and
(10) providing information about competitive employment, with or without supports, for school-age youth and working-age adults and referrals to the Disability Linkage Line and Disability Benefits 101 to ensure that an informed choice about competitive employment can be made. For the purposes of this subdivision, "competitive employment" means work in the competitive labor market that is performed on a full-time or part-time basis in an integrated setting, and for which an individual is compensated at or above the minimum wage, but not less than the customary wage and level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar work performed by individuals without disabilities.
(b) Upon statewide implementation of lead agency requirements in subdivisions 2b, 2c, and 3a, "long-term care consultation services" also means:
(1) service eligibility determination for state plan home care services identified in:
(i) section 256B.0625, subdivisions 7, 19a, and 19c;
(ii) section 256B.0657; or
(iii) consumer support grants under section 256.476;
(2) notwithstanding provisions in Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0004 to 9525.0024, determination of eligibility for case management services available under sections 256B.0621, subdivision 2, paragraph (4), and 256B.0924 and Minnesota Rules, part 9525.0016;
(3) determination of institutional level of care, home and community-based service waiver, and other service eligibility as required under section 256B.092, determination of eligibility for family support grants under section 252.32, semi-independent living services under section 252.275, and day training and habilitation services under section 256B.092; and
(4) obtaining necessary diagnostic information to determine eligibility under clauses (2) and (3).
(b) (c) "Long-term care options counseling" means the services provided by the linkage lines as mandated by sections 256.01 and 256.975, subdivision 7, and also includes telephone assistance and follow up once a long-term care consultation assessment has been completed.
(c) (d) "Minnesota health care programs" means the medical assistance program under chapter 256B and the alternative care program under section 256B.0913.
(d) (e) "Lead agencies" means counties administering or a collaboration of counties, tribes, and health plans administering under contract with the commissioner to administer long-term care consultation assessment and support planning services.
(a) Beginning January 1, 2011, Each lead agency shall use certified assessors who have completed training and the certification processes determined by the commissioner in subdivision 2c. Certified assessors shall demonstrate best practices in assessment and support planning including person-centered planning principals and have a common set of skills that must ensure consistency and equitable access to services statewide. Assessors must be part of a multidisciplinary team of professionals that includes public health nurses, social workers, and other professionals as defined in paragraph (b). For persons with complex health care needs, a public health nurse or registered nurse from a multidisciplinary team must be consulted. A lead agency may choose, according to departmental policies, to contract with a qualified, certified assessor to conduct assessments and reassessments on behalf of the lead agency.
(b) Certified assessors are persons with a minimum of a bachelor's degree in social work, nursing with a public health nursing certificate, or other closely related field with at least one year of home and community-based experience, or a two-year registered nursing degree nurse without public health certification with at least three two years of home and community-based experience that have has received training and certification specific to assessment and consultation for long-term care services in the state.
The commissioner shall develop and implement a curriculum and an assessor certification process to begin no later than January 1, 2010. All existing lead agency staff designated to provide the services defined in subdivision 1a must be certified by December 30, 2010. within timelines specified by the commissioner, but no sooner than six months after statewide availability of the training and certification process. The commissioner must establish the timelines for training and certification in a manner that allows lead agencies to most efficiently adopt the automated process established in subdivision 5. Each lead agency is required to ensure that they have sufficient numbers of certified assessors to provide long-term consultation assessment and support planning within the timelines and parameters of the service by January 1, 2011. Certified assessors are required to be recertified every three years.
(a) Until January 1, 2011, A long-term care consultation team shall be established by the county board of commissioners. Each local consultation team shall consist of at least one social worker and at least one public health nurse from their respective county agencies. The board may designate public health or social services as the lead agency for long-term care consultation services. If a county does not have a public health nurse available, it may request approval from the commissioner to assign a county registered nurse with at least one year experience in home care to participate on the team. Two or more counties may collaborate to establish a joint local consultation team or teams.
(b) Certified assessors must be part of a multidisciplinary long-term care consultation team of professionals that includes public health nurses, social workers, and other professionals as defined in subdivision 2b, paragraph (b). The team is responsible for providing long-term care consultation services to all persons located in the county who request the services, regardless of eligibility for Minnesota health care programs.
(c) The commissioner shall allow arrangements and make recommendations that encourage counties and tribes to collaborate to establish joint local long-term care consultation teams to ensure that long-term care consultations are done within the timelines and parameters of the service. This includes integrated service models as required in subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
(d) Tribes and health plans under contract with the commissioner must provide long-term care consultation services as specified in the contract.
(e) The lead agency must provide the commissioner with an administrative contact for communication purposes.
(a) Persons requesting assessment, services planning, or other assistance intended to support community-based living, including persons who need assessment in order to determine waiver or alternative care program eligibility, must be visited by a long-term care consultation team within 15 20 calendar days after the date on which an assessment was requested or recommended. After January 1, 2011, these requirements also apply to Upon statewide implementation of subdivisions 2b, 2c, and 5, this requirement also applies to an assessment of a person requesting personal care assistance services, and private duty nursing, and home health agency services, on timelines established in subdivision 5. The commissioner shall provide at least a 90-day notice to lead agencies prior to the effective date of this requirement. Face-to-face assessments must be conducted according to paragraphs (b) to (i).
(b) The county lead agency may utilize a team of either the social worker or public health nurse, or both. After January 1, 2011 Upon implementation of subdivisions 2b, 2c, and 5, lead agencies shall use certified assessors to conduct the assessment in a face-to-face interview assessment. The consultation team members must confer regarding the most appropriate care for each individual screened or assessed. For a person with complex health care needs, a public health or registered nurse from the team must be consulted.
(c) The assessment must be comprehensive and include a person-centered assessment of the health, psychological, functional, environmental, and social needs of referred individuals and provide information necessary to develop a community support plan that meets the consumers needs, using an assessment form provided by the commissioner.
(d) The assessment must be conducted in a face-to-face interview with the person being assessed and the person's legal representative, as required by legally executed documents, and other individuals as requested by the person, who can provide information on the needs, strengths, and preferences of the person necessary to develop a community support plan that ensures the person's health and safety, but who is not a provider of service or has any financial interest in the provision of services.
(e) The person, or the person's legal representative, must be provided with written recommendations for community-based services, including consumer-directed options, or institutional care that include documentation that the most cost-effective alternatives available were offered to the individual, and alternatives to residential settings, including, but not limited to, foster care settings that are not the primary residence of the license holder. For purposes of this requirement, "cost-effective alternatives" means community services and living arrangements that cost the same as or less than institutional care.
(f) (e) If the person chooses to use community-based services, the person or the person's legal representative must be provided with a written community support plan within 40 calendar days of the assessment visit, regardless of whether the individual is eligible for Minnesota health care programs. The written community support plan must include:
(1) a summary of assessed needs as defined in paragraphs (c) and (d);
(2) the individual's options and choices to meet identified needs, including all available options for case management services and providers;
(3) identification of health and safety risks and how those risks will be addressed, including personal risk management strategies;
(4) referral information; and
(5) informal caregiver supports, if applicable.
For a person determined eligible for state plan home care under subdivision 1a, paragraph (b), clause (1), the person or person's representative must also receive a copy of the home care service plan developed by the certified assessor.
(f) A person may request assistance in identifying community supports without participating in a complete assessment. Upon a request for assistance identifying community support, the person must be transferred or referred to the long-term care options counseling services available under sections 256.975, subdivision 7, and 256.01, subdivision 24, for telephone assistance and follow up.
(g) The person has the right to make the final decision between institutional placement and community placement after the recommendations have been provided, except as provided in subdivision 4a, paragraph (c).
(h) The team lead agency must give the person receiving assessment or support planning, or the person's legal representative, materials, and forms supplied by the commissioner containing the following information:
(1) written recommendations for community-based services and consumer-directed options;
(2) documentation that the most cost-effective alternatives available were offered to the individual. For purposes of this clause, "cost-effective" means community services and living arrangements that cost the same as or less than institutional care. For an individual found to meet eligibility criteria for home and community-based service programs under section 256B.0915 or 256B.49, "cost effectiveness" has the meaning found in the federally approved waiver plan for each program;
(3) the need for and purpose of preadmission screening if the person selects nursing facility placement;
(2) (4) the role of the long-term care consultation assessment and support planning in waiver and alternative care program eligibility determination for waiver and alternative care programs, and state plan home care, case management, and other services as defined in subdivision 1a, paragraphs (a), clause (7), and (b);
(3) (5) information about Minnesota health care programs;
(4) (6) the person's freedom to accept or reject the recommendations of the team;
(5) (7) the person's right to confidentiality under the Minnesota Government Data Practices Act, chapter 13;
(6) (8) the long-term care consultant's certified assessor's decision regarding the person's need for institutional level of care as determined under criteria established in section 144.0724, subdivision 11, or 256B.092 256B.0911, subdivision 4a, paragraph (d), and the certified assessor's decision regarding eligibility for all services and programs as defined in subdivision 1a, paragraphs (a), clause (7), and (b); and
(7) (9) the person's right to appeal the certified assessor's decision regarding eligibility for all services and programs as defined in subdivision 1a, paragraphs (a), clause (7), and (b), and incorporating the decision regarding the need for nursing facility institutional level of care or the county's lead agency's final decisions regarding public programs eligibility according to section 256.045, subdivision 3.
(i) Face-to-face assessment completed as part of eligibility determination for the alternative care, elderly waiver, community alternatives for disabled individuals, community alternative care, and traumatic brain injury waiver programs under sections 256B.0913, 256B.0915, 256B.0917, and 256B.49 is valid to establish service eligibility for no more than 60 calendar days after the date of assessment.
(j) The effective eligibility start date for these programs in paragraph (i) can never be prior to the date of assessment. If an assessment was completed more than 60 days before the effective waiver or alternative care program eligibility start date, assessment and support plan information must be updated in a face-to-face visit and documented in the department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS). Notwithstanding retroactive medical assistance coverage of state plan services, the effective date of program eligibility in this case for programs included in paragraph (i) cannot be prior to the date the most recent updated assessment is completed.
(a) A long-term care consultation team Lead agency certified assessors shall provide assistance to persons residing in a nursing facility, hospital, regional treatment center, or intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities who request or are referred for assistance. Transition assistance must include assessment, community support plan development, referrals to long-term care options counseling under section 256B.975 256.975, subdivision 10 7, for community support plan implementation and to Minnesota health care programs, including home and community-based waiver services and consumer-directed options through the waivers, and referrals to programs that provide assistance with housing. Transition assistance must also include information about the Centers for Independent Living and the Senior LinkAge Line, Disability Linkage Line, and about other organizations that can provide assistance with relocation efforts, and information about contacting these organizations to obtain their assistance and support.
(b) The county lead agency shall develop transition processes with institutional social workers and discharge planners to ensure that:
(1) referrals for in-person assessments are taken from long-term care options counselors as provided for in section 256.975, subdivision 7, paragraph (b), clause (11);
(2) persons admitted to facilities assessed in institutions receive information about transition assistance that is available;
(2) (3) the assessment is completed for persons within ten working 20 calendar days of the date of request or recommendation for assessment; and
(3) (4) there is a plan for transition and follow-up for the individual's return to the community. The plan must require, including notification of other local agencies when a person who may require assistance is screened by one county for admission to a facility from agencies located in another county.; and
(5) relocation targeted case management as defined in section 256B.0621, subdivision 2, clause (4), is authorized for an eligible medical assistance recipient.
(c) If a person who is eligible for a Minnesota health care program is admitted to a nursing facility, the nursing facility must include a consultation team member or the case manager in the discharge planning process.
(a) All applicants to Medicaid certified nursing facilities, including certified boarding care facilities, must be screened prior to admission regardless of income, assets, or funding sources for nursing facility care, except as described in subdivision 4b. The purpose of the screening is to determine the need for nursing facility level of care as described in paragraph (d) and to complete activities required under federal law related to mental illness and developmental disability as outlined in paragraph (b).
(b) A person who has a diagnosis or possible diagnosis of mental illness or developmental disability must receive a preadmission screening before admission regardless of the exemptions outlined in subdivision 4b, paragraph (b), to identify the need for further evaluation and specialized services, unless the admission prior to screening is authorized by the local mental health authority or the local developmental disabilities case manager, or unless authorized by the county agency according to Public Law 101-508.
The following criteria apply to the preadmission screening:
(1) the county lead agency must use forms and criteria developed by the commissioner to identify persons who require referral for further evaluation and determination of the need for specialized services; and
(2) the evaluation and determination of the need for specialized services must be done by:
(i) a qualified independent mental health professional, for persons with a primary or secondary diagnosis of a serious mental illness; or
(ii) a qualified developmental disability professional, for persons with a primary or secondary diagnosis of developmental disability. For purposes of this requirement, a qualified developmental disability professional must meet the standards for a qualified developmental disability professional under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.430.
(c) The local county mental health authority or the state developmental disability authority under Public Law Numbers 100-203 and 101-508 may prohibit admission to a nursing facility if the individual does not meet the nursing facility level of care criteria or needs specialized services as defined in Public Law Numbers 100-203 and 101-508. For purposes of this section, "specialized services" for a person with developmental disability means active treatment as that term is defined under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.440 (a)(1).
(d) The determination of the need for nursing facility level of care must be made according to criteria developed by the commissioner, and in section 256B.092, using forms developed by the commissioner. Effective no sooner than on or after July 1, 2012, for individuals age 21 and older, and on or after October 1, 2019, for individuals under age 21, the determination of need for nursing facility level of care shall be based on criteria in section 144.0724, subdivision 11. In assessing a person's needs, consultation team members shall have a physician available for consultation and shall consider the assessment of the individual's attending physician, if any. The individual's physician must be included if the physician chooses to participate. Other personnel may be included on the team as deemed appropriate by the county lead agency.
(a) A person may be screened for nursing facility admission by telephone or in a face-to-face screening interview. Consultation team members Certified assessors shall identify each individual's needs using the following categories:
(1) the person needs no face-to-face screening interview to determine the need for nursing facility level of care based on information obtained from other health care professionals;
(2) the person needs an immediate face-to-face screening interview to determine the need for nursing facility level of care and complete activities required under subdivision 4a; or
(3) the person may be exempt from screening requirements as outlined in subdivision 4b, but will need transitional assistance after admission or in-person follow-along after a return home.
(b) Persons admitted on a nonemergency basis to a Medicaid-certified nursing facility must be screened prior to admission.
(c) The county lead agency screening or intake activity must include processes to identify persons who may require transition assistance as described in subdivision 3b.
(a) The total payment for each county must be paid monthly by certified nursing facilities in the county. The monthly amount to be paid by each nursing facility for each fiscal year must be determined by dividing the county's annual allocation for long-term care consultation services by 12 to determine the monthly payment and allocating the monthly payment to each nursing facility based on the number of licensed beds in the nursing facility. Payments to counties in which there is no certified nursing facility must be made by increasing the payment rate of the two facilities located nearest to the county seat.
(b) The commissioner shall include the total annual payment determined under paragraph (a) for each nursing facility reimbursed under section 256B.431 or, 256B.434 according to section 256B.431, subdivision 2b, paragraph (g), or 256B.441.
(c) In the event of the layaway, delicensure and decertification, or removal from layaway of 25 percent or more of the beds in a facility, the commissioner may adjust the per diem payment amount in paragraph (b) and may adjust the monthly payment amount in paragraph (a). The effective date of an adjustment made under this paragraph shall be on or after the first day of the month following the effective date of the layaway, delicensure and decertification, or removal from layaway.
(d) Payments for long-term care consultation services are available to the county or counties to cover staff salaries and expenses to provide the services described in subdivision 1a. The county shall employ, or contract with other agencies to employ, within the limits of available funding, sufficient personnel to provide long-term care consultation services while meeting the state's long-term care outcomes and objectives as defined in section 256B.0917, subdivision 1. The county shall be accountable for meeting local objectives as approved by the commissioner in the biennial home and community-based services quality assurance plan on a form provided by the commissioner.
(e) Notwithstanding section 256B.0641, overpayments attributable to payment of the screening costs under the medical assistance program may not be recovered from a facility.
(f) The commissioner of human services shall amend the Minnesota medical assistance plan to include reimbursement for the local consultation teams.
(g) Until the alternative payment methodology in paragraph (h) is implemented, the county may bill, as case management services, assessments, support planning, and follow-along provided to persons determined to be eligible for case management under Minnesota health care programs. No individual or family member shall be charged for an initial assessment or initial support plan development provided under subdivision 3a or 3b.
(h) The commissioner shall develop an alternative payment methodology for long-term care consultation services that includes the funding available under this subdivision, and sections 256B.092 and 256B.0659. In developing the new payment methodology, the commissioner shall consider the maximization of other funding sources, including federal funding, for this all long-term care consultation and preadmission screening activity.
(a) The provision of case management under the alternative care program is governed by requirements in section 256B.0915, subdivisions 1a and 1b.
(b) The case manager must not approve alternative care funding for a client in any setting in which the case manager cannot reasonably ensure the client's health and safety.
(c) The case manager is responsible for the cost-effectiveness of the alternative care individual care coordinated service and support plan and must not approve any care plan in which the cost of services funded by alternative care and client contributions exceeds the limit specified in section 256B.0915, subdivision 3 3a, paragraph (b) paragraphs (a) and (c).
(d) Case manager responsibilities include those in section 256B.0915, subdivision 1a, paragraph (g).
(a) The case manager shall implement the coordinated service and support plan of care for each alternative care client and ensure that a client's service needs and eligibility are reassessed at least every 12 months. The coordinated service and support plan must meet the requirements in section 256B.0915, subdivision 6. The plan shall include any services prescribed by the individual's attending physician as necessary to allow the individual to remain in a community setting. In developing the individual's care plan, the case manager should include the use of volunteers from families and neighbors, religious organizations, social clubs, and civic and service organizations to support the formal home care services. The lead agency shall be held harmless for damages or injuries sustained through the use of volunteers under this subdivision including workers' compensation liability. The case manager shall provide documentation in each individual's plan of care and, if requested, to the commissioner that the most cost-effective alternatives available have been offered to the individual and that the individual was free to choose among available qualified providers, both public and private, including qualified case management or service coordination providers other than those employed by any county; however, the county or tribe maintains responsibility for prior authorizing services in accordance with statutory and administrative requirements. The case manager must give the individual a ten-day written notice of any denial, termination, or reduction of alternative care services.
(b) The county of service or tribe must provide access to and arrange for case management services, including assuring implementation of the coordinated service and support plan. "County of service" has the meaning given it in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0015, subpart 11. The county of service must notify the county of financial responsibility of the approved care plan and the amount of encumbered funds.
(a) Elderly Except as provided to individuals under prepaid medical assistance programs as described in paragraph (h), case management services under the home and community-based services waiver for elderly individuals are available from providers meeting qualification requirements and the standards specified in subdivision 1b. Eligible recipients may choose any qualified provider of elderly case management services.
(b) Case management services assist individuals who receive waiver services in gaining access to needed waiver and other state plan services, and assist individuals in appeals under section 256.045, as well as needed medical, social, educational, and other services regardless of the funding source for the services to which access is gained. Case managers shall collaborate with consumers, families, legal representatives, and relevant medical experts and service providers in the development and periodic review of the coordinated service and support plan.
(c) A case aide shall provide assistance to the case manager in carrying out administrative activities of the case management function. The case aide may not assume responsibilities that require professional judgment including assessments, reassessments, and care plan development. The case manager is responsible for providing oversight of the case aide.
(d) Case managers shall be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the provision of services included in the individual's plan of care. Case managers shall initiate and oversee the process of assessment and reassessment of the individual's care coordinated service and support plan and review the plan of care at intervals specified in the federally approved waiver plan.
(e) The county of service or tribe must provide access to and arrange for case management services. County of service has the meaning given it in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0015, subpart 11.
(f) Except as described in paragraph (h), case management services must be provided by a public or private agency that is enrolled as a medical assistance provider determined by the commissioner to meet all of the requirements in subdivision 1b. Case management services must not be provided to a recipient by a private agency that has a financial interest in the provision of any other services included in the recipient's coordinated service and support plan. For purposes of this section, "private agency" means any agency that is not identified as a lead agency under section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).
(g) Case management service activities provided to or arranged for a person include:
(1) development of the coordinated service and support plan under subdivision 6;
(2) informing the individual or the individual's legal guardian or conservator of service options, and options for case management services and providers;
(3) consulting with relevant medical experts or service providers;
(4) assisting the person in the identification of potential providers;
(5) assisting the person to access services;
(6) coordination of services; and
(7) evaluation and monitoring of the services identified in the plan, which must incorporate at least one annual face-to-face visit by the case manager with each person.
(h) Notwithstanding any requirements in this section, for individuals enrolled in prepaid medical assistance programs under section 256B.69, subdivisions 6b and 23, the health plan shall provide or arrange to provide elderly waiver case management services in paragraph (g), in accordance with contract requirements established by the commissioner.
(a) The commissioner must enroll qualified providers of elderly case management services under the home and community-based waiver for the elderly under section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act. The enrollment process shall ensure the provider's ability to meet the qualification requirements and standards in this subdivision and other federal and state requirements of this service. An elderly A case management provider is an enrolled medical assistance provider who is determined by the commissioner to have all of the following characteristics:
(1) the demonstrated capacity and experience to provide the components of case management to coordinate and link community resources needed by the eligible population;
(2) administrative capacity and experience in serving the target population for whom it will provide services and in ensuring quality of services under state and federal requirements;
(3) a financial management system that provides accurate documentation of services and costs under state and federal requirements;
(4) the capacity to document and maintain individual case records under state and federal requirements; and
(5) the lead agency may allow a case manager employed by the lead agency to delegate certain aspects of the case management activity to another individual employed by the lead agency provided there is oversight of the individual by the case manager. The case manager may not delegate those aspects which require professional judgment including assessments, reassessments, and care coordinated service and support plan development. Lead agencies include counties, health plans, and federally recognized tribes who authorize services under this section.
(b) A health plan shall provide or arrange to provide elderly waiver case management services in subdivision 1a, paragraph (g), in accordance with contract requirements established by the commissioner related to provider standards and qualifications.
(a) Medical assistance funding for skilled nursing services, private duty nursing, home health aide, and personal care services for waiver recipients must be approved by the case manager and included in the individual care coordinated service and support plan.
(b) A lead agency is not required to contract with a provider of supplies and equipment if the monthly cost of the supplies and equipment is less than $250.
(a) Each elderly waiver client shall be provided a copy of a written care coordinated service and support plan that meets the requirements outlined in section 256B.0913, subdivision 8. The care plan must be implemented by the county of service when it is different than the county of financial responsibility. The county of service administering waivered services must notify the county of financial responsibility of the approved care plan. which:
(1) is developed and signed by the recipient within ten working days after the case manager receives the assessment information and written community support plan as described in section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, from the certified assessor;
(2) includes the person's need for service and identification of service needs that will be or that are met by the person's relatives, friends, and others, as well as community services used by the general public;
(3) reasonably ensures the health and safety of the recipient;
(4) identifies the person's preferences for services as stated by the person or the person's legal guardian or conservator;
(5) reflects the person's informed choice between institutional and community-based services, as well as choice of services, supports, and providers, including available case manager providers;
(6) identifies long and short-range goals for the person;
(7) identifies specific services and the amount, frequency, duration, and cost of the services to be provided to the person based on assessed needs, preferences, and available resources;
(8) includes information about the right to appeal decisions under section 256.045; and
(9) includes the authorized annual and estimated monthly amounts for the services.
(b) In developing the coordinated service and support plan, the case manager should also include the use of volunteers, religious organizations, social clubs, and civic and service organizations to support the individual in the community. The lead agency must be held harmless for damages or injuries sustained through the use of volunteers and agencies under this paragraph, including workers' compensation liability.
The commissioner shall adjust the elderly waiver capitation payment rates for managed care organizations paid under section 256B.69, subdivisions 6a 6b and 23, to reflect the maximum service rate limits for customized living services and 24-hour customized living services under subdivisions 3e and 3h. Medical assistance rates paid to customized living providers by managed care organizations under this section shall not exceed the maximum service rate limits and component rates as determined by the commissioner under subdivisions 3e and 3h.
Before any services shall be rendered to persons with developmental disabilities who are in need of social service and medical assistance, the county of financial responsibility shall conduct or arrange for a diagnostic evaluation in order to determine whether the person has or may have a developmental disability or has or may have a related condition. If the county of financial responsibility determines that the person has a developmental disability, the county shall inform the person of case management services available under this section. Except as provided in subdivision 1g or 4b, if a person is diagnosed as having a developmental disability, the county of financial responsibility shall conduct or arrange for a needs assessment by a certified assessor, and develop or arrange for an individual service a community support plan according to section 256B.0911, provide or arrange for ongoing case management services at the level identified in the individual service plan, provide or arrange for case management administration, and authorize services identified in the person's individual service coordinated service and support plan developed according to subdivision 1b. Diagnostic information, obtained by other providers or agencies, may be used by the county agency in determining eligibility for case management. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring: (1) assessment in areas agreed to as unnecessary by the case manager a certified assessor and the person, or the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, or (2) assessments in areas where there has been a functional assessment completed in the previous 12 months for which the case manager certified assessor and the person or person's guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, agree that further assessment is not necessary. For persons under state guardianship, the case manager certified assessor shall seek authorization from the public guardianship office for waiving any assessment requirements. Assessments related to health, safety, and protection of the person for the purpose of identifying service type, amount, and frequency or assessments required to authorize services may not be waived. To the extent possible, for wards of the commissioner the county shall consider the opinions of the parent of the person with a developmental disability when developing the person's individual service community support plan and coordinated service and support plan.
(a) The administrative functions of case management provided to or arranged for a person include: Each recipient of a home and community-based waiver shall be provided case management services by qualified vendors as described in the federally approved waiver application.
(1) review of eligibility for services;
(2) screening;
(3) intake;
(4) diagnosis;
(5) the review and authorization of services based upon an individualized service plan; and
(6) responding to requests for conciliation conferences and appeals according to section 256.045 made by the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor.
(b) Case management service activities provided to or arranged for a person include:
(1) development of the individual service coordinated service and support plan under subdivision 1b;
(2) informing the individual or the individual's legal guardian or conservator, or parent if the person is a minor, of service options;
(3) consulting with relevant medical experts or service providers;
(4) assisting the person in the identification of potential providers;
(5) assisting the person to access services and assisting in appeals under section 256.045;
(6) coordination of services, if coordination is not provided by another service provider;
(7) evaluation and monitoring of the services identified in the coordinated service and support plan, which must incorporate at least one annual face-to-face visit by the case manager with each person; and
(8) annual reviews of service plans and services provided reviewing coordinated service and support plans and providing the lead agency with recommendations for service authorization based upon the individual's needs identified in the coordinated service and support plan.
(c) Case management administration and service activities that are provided to the person with a developmental disability shall be provided directly by county agencies or under contract. Case management services must be provided by a public or private agency that is enrolled as a medical assistance provider determined by the commissioner to meet all of the requirements in the approved federal waiver plans. Case management services must not be provided to a recipient by a private agency that has a financial interest in the provision of any other services included in the recipient's coordinated service and support plan. For purposes of this section, "private agency" means any agency that is not identified as a lead agency under section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).
(d) Case managers are responsible for the administrative duties and service provisions listed in paragraphs (a) and (b). Case managers shall collaborate with consumers, families, legal representatives, and relevant medical experts and service providers in the development and annual review of the individualized service coordinated service and support plan and habilitation plans plan.
(e) The Department of Human Services shall offer ongoing education in case management to case managers. Case managers shall receive no less than ten hours of case management education and disability-related training each year.
The individual service plan must (a) Each recipient of home and community-based waivered services shall be provided a copy of the written coordinated service and support plan which:
(1) is developed and signed by the recipient within ten working days after the case manager receives the assessment information and written community support plan as described in section 256B.0911, subdivision 3a, from the certified assessor;
(1) include the results of the assessment information on (2) includes the person's need for service, including identification of service needs that will be or that are met by the person's relatives, friends, and others, as well as community services used by the general public;
(3) reasonably ensures the health and safety of the recipient;
(2) identify (4) identifies the person's preferences for services as stated by the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, including the person's choices made on self-directed options and on services and supports to achieve employment goals;
(5) provides for an informed choice, as defined in section 256B.77, subdivision 2, paragraph (o), of service and support providers, and identifies all available options for case management services and providers;
(3) identify (6) identifies long- and short-range goals for the person;
(4) identify (7) identifies specific services and the amount and frequency of the services to be provided to the person based on assessed needs, preferences, and available resources. The individual service coordinated service and support plan shall also specify other services the person needs that are not available;
(5) identify (8) identifies the need for an individual program plan to be developed by the provider according to the respective state and federal licensing and certification standards, and additional assessments to be completed or arranged by the provider after service initiation;
(6) identify (9) identifies provider responsibilities to implement and make recommendations for modification to the individual service coordinated service and support plan;
(7) include (10) includes notice of the right to request a conciliation conference or a hearing under section 256.045;
(8) be (11) is agreed upon and signed by the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, and the authorized county representative; and
(9) be (12) is reviewed by a health professional if the person has overriding medical needs that impact the delivery of services.; and
(13) includes the authorized annual and monthly amounts for the services.
Service planning formats developed for interagency planning such as transition, vocational, and individual family service plans may be substituted for service planning formats developed by county agencies.
(b) In developing the coordinated service and support plan, the case manager is encouraged to include the use of volunteers, religious organizations, social clubs, and civic and service organizations to support the individual in the community. The lead agency must be held harmless for damages or injuries sustained through the use of volunteers and agencies under this paragraph, including workers' compensation liability.
(a) If the individual service coordinated service and support plan identifies the need for individual program plans for authorized services, the case manager shall assure that individual program plans are developed by the providers according to clauses (2) to (5). The providers shall assure that the individual program plans:
(1) are developed according to the respective state and federal licensing and certification requirements;
(2) are designed to achieve the goals of the individual service coordinated service and support plan;
(3) are consistent with other aspects of the individual service coordinated service and support plan;
(4) assure the health and safety of the person; and
(5) are developed with consistent and coordinated approaches to services among the various service providers.
(b) The case manager shall monitor the provision of services:
(1) to assure that the individual service coordinated service and support plan is being followed according to paragraph (a);
(2) to identify any changes or modifications that might be needed in the individual service coordinated service and support plan, including changes resulting from recommendations of current service providers;
(3) to determine if the person's legal rights are protected, and if not, notify the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, protection services, or licensing agencies as appropriate; and
(4) to determine if the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, is satisfied with the services provided.
(c) If the provider fails to develop or carry out the individual program plan according to paragraph (a), the case manager shall notify the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, the provider, the respective licensing and certification agencies, and the county board where the services are being provided. In addition, the case manager shall identify other steps needed to assure the person receives the services identified in the individual service coordinated service and support plan.
Unless otherwise required by federal law, the county agency is not required to complete an individual service a coordinated service and support plan as defined in subdivision 1b for:
(1) persons whose families are requesting respite care for their family member who resides with them, or whose families are requesting a family support grant and are not requesting purchase or arrangement of habilitative services; and
(2) persons with developmental disabilities, living independently without authorized services or receiving funding for services at a rehabilitation facility as defined in section 268A.01, subdivision 6, and not in need of or requesting additional services.
To assure quality case management to those persons who are eligible for medical assistance, the commissioner shall, upon request:
(1) provide consultation on the case management process;
(2) assist county agencies in the screening and annual reviews of clients review process to assure that appropriate levels of service are provided to persons;
(3) provide consultation on service planning and development of services with appropriate options;
(4) provide training and technical assistance to county case managers; and
(5) authorize payment for medical assistance services according to this chapter and rules implementing it.
County agency case managers, under rules of the commissioner, shall authorize and terminate services of community and regional treatment center providers according to individual service support plans. Services provided to persons with developmental disabilities may only be authorized and terminated by case managers or certified assessors according to (1) rules of the commissioner and (2) the individual service coordinated service and support plan as defined in subdivision 1b. Medical assistance services not needed shall not be authorized by county agencies or funded by the commissioner. When purchasing or arranging for unlicensed respite care services for persons with overriding health needs, the county agency shall seek the advice of a health care professional in assessing provider staff training needs and skills necessary to meet the medical needs of the person.
(a) The commissioner shall apply for any federal waivers necessary to secure, to the extent allowed by law, federal financial participation under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 et seq., as amended, for the provision of services to persons who, in the absence of the services, would need the level of care provided in a regional treatment center or a community intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities. The commissioner may seek amendments to the waivers or apply for additional waivers under United States Code, title 42, sections 1396 et seq., as amended, to contain costs. The commissioner shall ensure that payment for the cost of providing home and community-based alternative services under the federal waiver plan shall not exceed the cost of intermediate care services including day training and habilitation services that would have been provided without the waivered services.
The commissioner shall seek an amendment to the 1915c home and community-based waiver to allow properly licensed adult foster care homes to provide residential services to up to five individuals with developmental disabilities. If the amendment to the waiver is approved, adult foster care providers that can accommodate five individuals shall increase their capacity to five beds, provided the providers continue to meet all applicable licensing requirements.
(b) The commissioner, in administering home and community-based waivers for persons with developmental disabilities, shall ensure that day services for eligible persons are not provided by the person's residential service provider, unless the person or the person's legal representative is offered a choice of providers and agrees in writing to provision of day services by the residential service provider. The individual service coordinated service and support plan for individuals who choose to have their residential service provider provide their day services must describe how health, safety, protection, and habilitation needs will be met, including how frequent and regular contact with persons other than the residential service provider will occur. The individualized service coordinated service and support plan must address the provision of services during the day outside the residence on weekdays.
(c) When a county lead agency is evaluating denials, reductions, or terminations of home and community-based services under section 256B.0916 for an individual, the case manager lead agency shall offer to meet with the individual or the individual's guardian in order to discuss the prioritization of service needs within the individualized service coordinated service and support plan. The reduction in the authorized services for an individual due to changes in funding for waivered services may not exceed the amount needed to ensure medically necessary services to meet the individual's health, safety, and welfare.
(a) Assessments and reassessments shall be conducted by certified assessors according to section 256B.0911, and must incorporate appropriate referrals to determine eligibility for case management under subdivision 1a.
(b) For persons with developmental disabilities, screening teams shall be established which a certified assessor shall evaluate the need for the an institutional level of care. provided by residential-based habilitation services, residential services, training and habilitation services, and nursing facility services. The evaluation assessment shall address whether home and community-based services are appropriate for persons who are at risk of placement in an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities, or for whom there is reasonable indication that they might require this level of care. The screening team certified assessor shall make an evaluation of need within 60 working days of a request for service by a person with a developmental disability, and within five working days of an emergency admission of a person to an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities. The screening team shall consist of the case manager for persons with developmental disabilities, the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, and a qualified developmental disability professional, as defined in the Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 483.430, as amended through June 3, 1988. The case manager may also act as the qualified developmental disability professional if the case manager meets the federal definition. County social service agencies may contract with a public or private agency or individual who is not a service provider for the person for the public guardianship representation required by the screening or individual service planning process. The contract shall be limited to public guardianship representation for the screening and individual service planning activities. The contract shall require compliance with the commissioner's instructions and may be for paid or voluntary services. For persons determined to have overriding health care needs and are seeking admission to a nursing facility or an ICF/MR, or seeking access to home and community-based waivered services, a registered nurse must be designated as either the case manager or the qualified developmental disability professional. For persons under the jurisdiction of a correctional agency, the case manager must consult with the corrections administrator regarding additional health, safety, and supervision needs. The case manager, with the concurrence of the person, the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, may invite other individuals to attend meetings of the screening team. No member of the screening team shall have any direct or indirect service provider interest in the case. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring the screening team meeting to be separate from the service planning meeting.
In addition to the responsibilities of certified assessors described in section 256B.0911, for persons with developmental disabilities, the screening team certified assessor shall:
(1) review diagnostic data;
(2) review health, social, and developmental assessment data using a uniform screening tool specified by the commissioner;
(3) identify the level of services appropriate to maintain the person in the most normal and least restrictive setting that is consistent with the person's treatment needs;
(4) (1) identify other noninstitutional public assistance or social service that may prevent or delay long-term residential placement;
(5) (2) assess whether a person is in need of long-term residential care;
(6) (3) make recommendations regarding placement and payment for:
(i) social service or public assistance support, or both, to maintain a person in the person's own home or other place of residence;
(ii) training and habilitation service, vocational rehabilitation, and employment training activities;
(iii) community residential service placement;
(iv) regional treatment center placement; or
(v) a home and community-based service alternative to community residential placement service or regional treatment center placement including self-directed service options;
(7) (4) evaluate the availability, location, and quality of the services listed in clause (6) (3), including the impact of placement alternatives on the person's ability to maintain or improve existing patterns of contact and involvement with parents and other family members;
(8) (5) identify the cost implications of recommendations in clause (6) (3); and
(9) (6) make recommendations to a court as may be needed to assist the court in making decisions regarding commitment of persons with developmental disabilities; and.
(10) inform the person and the person's legal guardian or conservator, or the parent if the person is a minor, that appeal may be made to the commissioner pursuant to section 256.045.
(a) If the county of financial responsibility wishes to place a person in another county for services, the county of financial responsibility shall seek concurrence from notify the proposed county of service and the placement shall be made cooperatively between the two counties. Arrangements shall be made between the two counties for ongoing social service, including annual reviews of the person's individual service coordinated service and support plan. The county where services are provided may not make changes in the person's service coordinated service and support plan without approval by the county of financial responsibility.
(b) When a person has been screened and authorized for services in an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities or for home and community-based services for persons with developmental disabilities, the case manager shall assist that person in identifying a service provider who is able to meet the needs of the person according to the person's individual service plan. If the identified service is to be provided in a county other than the county of financial responsibility, the county of financial responsibility shall request concurrence of the county where the person is requesting to receive the identified services. The county of service