language to be deleted (2) new language
relating to the operation of state government; appropriating money for the legislature, governor's office, state auditor, attorney general, secretary of state, certain agencies, boards, councils, retirement funds, military affairs, and veterans affairs; cancellation of certain appropriations; requiring general incentive proposals for review by the legislative auditor; allowing counties to elect to have an audit conducted by a CPA firm; changing the signature requirement for phone records of certain public officials; creating three ethnic councils; allowing prepay for certain software and information technology hosting services; changing provisions on report on budget reserve percentage; providing reimbursement for reasonable accommodation; modifying grant agreement provisions; making changes to guaranteed energy-savings program, small business requirements, and veteran-owned small businesses; establishing healthy eating, here at home program; establishing expedited and temporary licensing for former and current members of the military for certain occupations; changing certain provisions governing cosmetology; assessing certain costs for Office of Administrative Hearings; requirements for reinstatement of a foreign corporation; making changes to provisions governing public benefit corporations; modifying provisions for accountants; changing certain requirements for corporations; modifying gambling provisions; limiting railroad condemnation powers in certain interests; modifying debt service provision for legislative parking garage; requiring some room numbers on signage in the Capitol to identify legacy rooms; providing in-lieu of rent evaluation; allowing board of cosmetology to adopt rules; specifying political contribution credit; specifying state agency technology projects; requiring the legislative auditor to evaluate the efficacy of the state auditor's examinations; requiring a report on reduction of chief information officers in state agencies; making changes to provisions governing military and veterans affairs; changing provisions governing pari-mutuel horse racing; setting certain fees; requiring reports;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2014, sections 3.8843, subdivision 5; 10.43; 16A.065; 16A.152, subdivision 8; 16B.97, subdivision 1; 16B.98, subdivisions 1, 11; 16C.144; 16C.16, subdivisions 2, 6a, by adding a subdivision; 16C.19; 148.57, by adding a subdivision; 148.624, subdivision 5; 148B.33, by adding a subdivision; 148B.53, by adding a subdivision; 148B.5301, by adding a subdivision; 148F.025, by adding a subdivision; 153.16, subdivisions 1, 4; 154.003; 154.11, subdivision 3; 155A.21; 155A.23, subdivision 8, by adding subdivisions; 155A.24, subdivision 2; 155A.25, subdivisions 1a, 5, by adding subdivisions; 155A.27, subdivisions 1, 2, 5a; 155A.271; 155A.29, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision; 155A.30, subdivisions 5, 10; 161.1419, subdivision 8; 190.19, subdivisions 2a, 3; 192.38, subdivision 1; 192.501, by adding a subdivision; 197.133; 197.46; 198.01; 211B.37; 240.01, subdivision 22, by adding subdivisions; 240.011; 240.03; 240.08, subdivisions 2, 4, 5; 240.10; 240.13, subdivisions 5, 6; 240.135; 240.15, subdivisions 1, 6; 240.16, subdivision 1; 240.22; 240.23; 272.484; 303.19; 304A.301, subdivisions 1, 5, 6, by adding a subdivision; 326A.01, subdivisions 2, 12, 13a, 15, 16; 326A.02, subdivisions 3, 5; 326A.05, subdivisions 1, 3; 326A.08, subdivision 7; 326A.10; 336A.09, subdivision 1; 349.16, subdivision 6a; 349.161, subdivision 4; 349.163, subdivisions 2, 6; 349.166, subdivision 2; 364.09; Laws 2013, chapter 142, article 1, section 10; Laws 2014, chapter 287, section 25; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 3; 6; 15; 16B; 138; 197; 383B; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2014, sections 3.9223; 3.9225; 3.9226, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7; 6.48; 155A.23, subdivision 6; 197.131; 197.132; 240.01, subdivisions 12, 23; 375.23.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
Legislative staff must provide administrative and research assistance to the commission.
Each representative, senator, constitutional officer, judge, and head of a state department or agency shall sign the person's monthly long-distance telephone bills paid by the state as evidence of the person's approval of each bill.
Notwithstanding section 16A.41, subdivision 1, the commissioner may allow an agency to make advance deposits or payments for software or software maintenance services for state-owned or leased electronic data processing equipment, for sole source maintenance agreements where it is not cost-effective to pay in arrears, for exhibit booth space or boat slip rental when required by the renter to guarantee the availability of space, for registration fees where advance payment is required or advance payment discount is provided, and for newspaper, magazine, and other subscription fees customarily paid for in advance. The commissioner may also allow advance deposits by any department with the Library of Congress and federal Supervisor of Documents for items to be purchased from those federal agencies.
(a) The commissioner of management and budget shall develop and annually review a methodology for evaluating the adequacy of the budget reserve based on the volatility of Minnesota's general fund tax structure. The review must take into consideration relevant statistical and economic literature. After completing the review, the commissioner may revise the methodology if necessary. The commissioner must use the methodology to annually estimate the percentage of the current biennium's general fund nondedicated revenues recommended as a budget reserve.
(b) By January 15 of each year, the commissioner shall report the percentage of the current biennium's general fund nondedicated revenue that is recommended as a budget reserve to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over the Department of Management and Budget . The report must also specify:
(1) whether the commissioner revised the recommendation as a result of significant changes in the mix of general fund taxes or the base of one or more general fund taxes;
(2) whether the commissioner revised the recommendation as a result of a revision to the methodology; and
(3) any additional appropriate information.
(a) A grant agreement is a written instrument or electronic document defining a legal relationship between a granting agency and a grantee when the principal purpose of the relationship is to transfer cash or something of value to the recipient to support a public purpose authorized by law instead of acquiring by professional or technical contract, purchase, lease, or barter property or services for the direct benefit or use of the granting agency.
(b) This section does not apply to capital project grants to political subdivisions as defined by section 16A.86.
As a condition of receiving a grant from an appropriation of state funds, the recipient of the grant must agree to minimize administrative costs. The granting agency is responsible for negotiating appropriate limits to these costs so that the state derives the optimum benefit for grant funding.
Notwithstanding subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (2), or section 16C.05, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), agencies may permit a specifically named, legislatively appropriated, noncompetitive grant recipient to incur eligible expenses based on an agreed upon work plan and budget for up to 60 days prior to an encumbrance being established in the accounting system. For a grant funded in whole or in part with state general obligation bond proceeds, an agency may permit incurring of expenses under this subdivision only with prior approval of the commissioner of management and budget.
The following definitions apply to this section.
(a) "Utility" means electricity, natural gas, or other energy resource, water, and wastewater.
(b) "Utility cost savings" means the difference between the utility costs after installation of the utility cost-savings measures pursuant to the guaranteed energy-savings agreement and the baseline utility costs after baseline adjustments have been made.
(c) "Baseline" means the preagreement utilities, operations, and maintenance costs.
(d) "Utility cost-savings measure" means a measure that produces utility cost savings or operation and maintenance cost savings.
(e) "Operation and maintenance cost savings" means a measurable difference between operation and maintenance costs after the installation of the utility cost-savings measures pursuant to the guaranteed energy-savings agreement and the baseline operation and maintenance costs after inflation adjustments have been made. Operation and maintenance costs savings shall not include savings from in-house staff labor.
(f) "Guaranteed energy-savings agreement" means an agreement for the installation of one or more utility cost-savings measures that includes the qualified provider's guarantee as required under subdivision 2.
(g) "Baseline adjustments" means adjusting the utility cost-savings baselines annually for changes in the following variables:
(1) utility rates;
(2) number of days in the utility billing cycle;
(3) square footage of the facility;
(4) operational schedule of the facility;
(5) facility temperature set points;
(6) weather; and
(7) amount of equipment or lighting utilized in the facility.
(h) "Inflation adjustment" means adjusting the operation and maintenance cost-savings baseline annually for inflation.
(i) "Lease purchase agreement" means an agreement obligating the state to make regular lease payments to satisfy the lease costs of the utility cost-savings measures until the final payment, after which time the utility cost-savings measures become the sole property of the state of Minnesota.
(j) "Qualified provider" means a person or business experienced in the design, implementation, and installation of utility cost-savings measures.
(k) "Engineering report" means a report prepared by a professional engineer licensed by the state of Minnesota summarizing estimates of all costs of installations, modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and estimates of the amounts by which utility and operation and maintenance costs will be reduced.
(l) "Capital cost avoidance" means money expended by a state agency to pay for utility cost-savings measures with a guaranteed savings agreement so long as the measures that are being implemented to achieve the utility, operation, and maintenance cost savings are a significant portion of an overall project as determined by the commissioner.
(m) "Guaranteed energy-savings program guidelines" means policies, procedures, and requirements of guaranteed savings agreements established by the Department of Administration.
The commissioner may enter into a guaranteed energy-savings agreement with a qualified provider if:
(1) the qualified provider is selected through a competitive process in accordance with the guaranteed energy-savings program guidelines within the Department of Administration;
(2) the qualified provider agrees to submit an engineering report prior to the execution of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement. The cost of the engineering report may be considered as part of the implementation costs if the commissioner enters into a guaranteed energy-savings agreement with the provider;
(3) the term of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement shall not exceed 25 years from the date of final installation;
(4) the commissioner finds that the amount it would spend on the utility cost-savings measures recommended in the engineering report will not exceed the amount to be saved in utility operation and maintenance costs over 25 years from the date of implementation of utility cost-savings measures;
(5) the qualified provider provides a written guarantee that the annual utility, operation, and maintenance cost savings during the term of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement will meet or exceed the annual payments due under a lease purchase agreement . The qualified provider shall reimburse the state for any shortfall of guaranteed utility, operation, and maintenance cost savings; and
(6) the qualified provider gives a sufficient bond in accordance with section 574.26 to the commissioner for the faithful implementation and installation of the utility cost-savings measures.
The commissioner may enter into a lease purchase agreement with any party for the implementation of utility cost-savings measures in accordance with the guaranteed energy-savings agreement. The implementation costs of the utility cost-savings measures recommended in the engineering report shall not exceed the amount to be saved in utility and operation and maintenance costs over the term of the lease purchase agreement. The term of the lease purchase agreement shall not exceed 25 years from the date of final installation. The lease is assignable in accordance with terms approved by the commissioner of management and budget.
The affected state agency may contribute funds for capital cost avoidance for guaranteed energy-savings agreements. Use of capital cost avoidance is subject to the guaranteed energy-savings program guidelines within the Department of Administration.
For each guaranteed energy-savings agreement entered into, the commissioner of administration shall contract with an independent third party to evaluate the cost-effectiveness of each utility cost-savings measure implemented to ensure that such measures were the least-cost measures available. For the purposes of this section, "independent third party" means an entity not affiliated with the qualified provider, that is not involved in creating or providing conservation project services to that provider, and that has expertise (or access to expertise) in energy-savings practices.
The commissioner shall adopt rules defining "small business" for purposes of sections 16C.16 to 16C.21, 137.31, 137.35, 161.321, and 473.142. The definition must include only businesses with their principal place of business in Minnesota. The definition must establish different size standards for various types of businesses. In establishing these standards, the commissioner must consider the differences among industries caused by the size of the market for goods or services and the relative size and market share of the competitors operating in those markets.
(a) Except when mandated by the federal government as a condition of receiving federal funds, the commissioner shall award up to a six percent preference, but no less than the percentage awarded to any other group under this section, in the amount bid on state procurement to certified small businesses that are majority-owned and operated by veterans.
(b) The purpose of this designation is to facilitate the transition of veterans from military to civilian life, and to help compensate veterans for their sacrifices, including but not limited to their sacrifice of health and time, to the state and nation during their military service, as well as to enhance economic development within Minnesota.
(a) A small business wishing to participate in the programs under section 16C.16, subdivisions 4 to 7, must be certified by the commissioner. The commissioner shall adopt by rule standards and procedures for certifying that small targeted group businesses, small businesses located in economically disadvantaged areas, and veteran-owned small businesses are eligible to participate under the requirements of sections 16C.16 to 16C.21. The commissioner shall adopt by rule standards and procedures for hearing appeals and grievances and other rules necessary to carry out the duties set forth in sections 16C.16 to 16C.21.
(b) The commissioner may make rules which exclude or limit the participation of nonmanufacturing business, including third-party lessors, brokers, franchises, jobbers, manufacturers' representatives, and others from eligibility under sections 16C.16 to 16C.21.
it has been verified by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs as being either a veteran-owned small business or a service-disabled veteran-owned small business, in accordance with Public Law 109-461 and Code of Federal Regulations, title 38, part 74.
(e) Until rules are adopted pursuant to paragraph (a) for the purpose of certifying veteran-owned small businesses, the provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 1230.1700, may be read to include veteran-owned small businesses. In addition to the documentation required in Minnesota Rules, part 1230.1700, the veteran owner must have been discharged under honorable conditions from active service, as indicated by the veteran owner's most current United States Department of Defense form DD-214.
The board shall issue a temporary permit to members of the military in accordance with section 197.4552.
The fee for the temporary permit is $250.
The board shall issue a license to practice podiatric medicine to a person who meets the following requirements:
(a) The applicant for a license shall file a written notarized application on forms provided by the board, showing to the board's satisfaction that the applicant is of good moral character and satisfies the requirements of this section.
(b) The applicant shall present evidence satisfactory to the board of being a graduate of a podiatric medical school approved by the board based upon its faculty, curriculum, facilities, accreditation by a recognized national accrediting organization approved by the board, and other relevant factors.
(c) The applicant must have received a passing score on each part of the national board examinations, parts one and two, prepared and graded by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners. The passing score for each part of the national board examinations, parts one and two, is as defined by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners.
(d) Applicants graduating after 1986 from a podiatric medical school shall present evidence of successful completion of a residency program approved by a national accrediting podiatric medicine organization.
(e) The applicant shall appear in person before the board or its designated representative to show that the applicant satisfies the requirements of this section, including knowledge of laws, rules, and ethics pertaining to the practice of podiatric medicine. The board may establish as internal operating procedures the procedures or requirements for the applicant's personal presentation.
(f) The applicant shall pay a fee established by the board by rule. The fee shall not be refunded.
(g) The applicant must not have engaged in conduct warranting disciplinary action against a licensee. If the applicant does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph, the board may refuse to issue a license unless it determines that the public will be protected through issuance of a license with conditions and limitations the board considers appropriate.
(h) Upon payment of a fee as the board may require, an applicant who fails to pass an examination and is refused a license is entitled to reexamination within one year of the board's refusal to issue the license. No more than two reexaminations are allowed without a new application for a license.
The board shall establish a temporary permit in accordance with section 197.4552. The fee for the temporary military permit is $250.
(a) The fees collected, as required in this chapter, chapter 214, and the rules of the board, shall be paid to the board. The board shall deposit the fees in the general fund in the state treasury.
(b) The board shall charge the following fees:
(1) examination and certificate, registered barber, $85;
(2) retake of written examination, registered barber, $10;
(3) examination and certificate, apprentice, $80;
(4) retake of written examination, apprentice, $10;
(5) examination, instructor, $180;
(6) certificate, instructor, $65;
(7) temporary teacher or apprentice permit, $80;
renewal of registration, registered barber, $80;
(9) renewal of registration, apprentice, $70;
(10) renewal of registration, instructor, $80;
(11) renewal of temporary teacher permit, $65;
(12) student permit, $45;
(13) renewal of student permit, $25;
(14) initial shop registration, $85;
(15) initial school registration, $1,030;
(16) renewal shop registration, $85;
(17) renewal school registration, $280;
(18) restoration of registered barber registration, $95;
(19) restoration of apprentice registration, $90;
(20) restoration of shop registration, $105;
(21) change of ownership or location, $55;
(22) duplicate registration, $40;
(23) home study course, $75;
(24) letter of registration verification, $25; and
(25) reinspection, $100.
the board shall establish a temporary license
for barbers and master
barbers and a temporary permit for apprentices in accordance with section 197.4552. The fee for a temporary license under this subdivision for a master barber is $85. The fee for a temporary license under this subdivision for a barber is $180. The fee for a temporary permit under this subdivision for an apprentice is $80.
The legislature finds that the health and safety of the people of the state are served by the licensing of the practice of cosmetology because of the use of chemicals, apparatus, and other appliances requiring special skills and education.
To this end, the public will best be served by vesting these responsibilities in the Board of Cosmetologist Examiners.
A "manager" is any person who conducts, operates, or manages a cosmetology school or salon and who also instructs in or provides any services, as defined in subdivision 3. A school manager must maintain an active salon manager's license.
The board has the authority to hire qualified personnel in the classified service to assist in administering the law, including those for the testing and licensing of applicants and the continuing inspections required. All staff must receive periodic training to improve and maintain customer service skills.
The fee schedule for licensees is as follows:
(a) Three-year license fees:
(1) cosmetologist, nail technician, or esthetician:
(i) $90 for each initial license and a $40 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $130; and
(ii) $60 for each renewal and a $15 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $75;
(2) instructor or manager:
(i) $120 for each initial license and a $40 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $160; and
(ii) $90 for each renewal and a $15 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $105;
(i) $130 for each initial license and a $100 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $230; and
(ii) $100 for each renewal and a $50 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $150; and
(i) $1,500 for each initial license and a $1,000 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $2,500; and
(ii) $1,500 for each renewal and a $500 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $2,000
(1) reinspection fee, variable;
(2) manager and owner with lapsed practitioner found on inspection, $150 each;
(3) lapsed practitioner or instructor found on inspection, $200;
(4) lapsed salon found on inspection, $500;
(5) lapsed school found on inspection, $1,000;
(6) failure to display current license, $100;
(7) failure to dispose of single-use equipment, implements, or materials as provided under section 155A.355, subdivision 1, $500;
(8) use of prohibited razor-type callus shavers, rasps, or graters under section 155A.355, subdivision 2, $500;
(9) performing nail or cosmetology services in esthetician salon, or performing esthetician or cosmetology services in a nail salon, $500;
(10) owner and manager allowing an operator to work as an independent contractor, $200;
(11) operator working as an independent contractor, $100;
(12) refusal or failure to cooperate with an inspection, $500;
(13) expired cosmetologist, nail technician, esthetician, manager, school manager, and instructor license, $45; and
(14) expired salon or school license, $50.
(c) Administrative fees:
(1) certificate of identification, $20;
(2) name change, $20;
(3) letter of license verification, $30;
(4) duplicate license, $20;
(5) processing fee, $10;
(6) special event permit, $75 per year; and
(7) registration of hair braiders, $20 per year
Within 15 working days of receiving a complete application and the required fees for an initial or renewal individual or salon license, the board must (1) either grant or deny the application, (2) issue the license or notify the applicant of the denial, or (3) issue a temporary license to an applicant for whom no record exists regarding: (i) a complaint filed with the board against the applicant; or (ii) a negative action by the board against the applicant.
Individual licensing shall be required for persons seeking to practice in the state as a cosmetologist, esthetician, nail technician, manager, or instructor.
Qualifications for licensing in each classification shall be determined by the board and established by rule, and shall include educational and experiential prerequisites. The rules shall require a demonstrated knowledge of procedures necessary to protect the health of the practitioner and the consumer of cosmetology services, including but not limited to chemical applications.
The board shall establish temporary licenses for a cosmetologist, nail technician, and esthetician in accordance with section 197.4552. The fee for a temporary license under this subdivision for a cosmetologist, nail technician, or esthetician is $100.
Effective August 1, 2014, to qualify for license renewal under this chapter as an individual cosmetologist, nail technician, esthetician, or salon manager, the applicant must attest to the completion of four hours of continuing education credits from an accredited school or a professional association of cosmetology during the three years prior to the applicant's renewal date. One credit hour of the requirement must include instruction pertaining to state laws and rules governing the practice of cosmetology. Three credit hours must include instruction pertaining to health, safety, and sanitation matters consistent with the United States Department of Labor's Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards applicable to the practice of cosmetology, or other applicable federal health, sanitation, and safety standards, and must be regularly updated so as to incorporate newly developed standards and accepted professional best practices. Credit hours earned are valid for three years and may be applied simultaneously to all individual licenses held by a licensee under this chapter. This subdivision does not apply to instructors or inactive licenses.
(a) Only a board-licensed school of cosmetology, a postsecondary institution as defined in section 136A.103, paragraph (a), or a board-recognized professional association may offer continuing education curriculum for credit under this section.
The school and professional association may offer online and independent study options to achieve maximum involvement of licensees and is encouraged to offer classes available in foreign language formats.
(b) Board recognition of a professional association is valid for three years and is contingent upon submission and preapproval of the general curriculum to be offered. The board may revoke recognition at any time for just cause. The professional association offering continuing education must be organized under chapter 317A.
The school or professional association shall provide to licensees who attend a class a receipt to prove completion of the class. Licensees shall retain proof of their continuing education credits for one year beyond the credit's expiration. The school or professional association shall retain documentation of all licensees successfully completing a class and the licensee's credit hours for five years.
The board shall conduct random audits of active licensees periodically to ensure compliance with continuing education requirements. To initiate an audit, the board shall notify an active licensee of the audit and request proof of credits earned during a specified period. The licensee must provide the requested proof to the board within 30 days of an audit notice. The board may request that a school or professional association verify a licensee's credits. The school or professional association must furnish verification, or a written statement that the credits are not verified, within 15 days of the board's request for verification. If the board determines that a licensee has failed to provide proof of necessary credits earned during the specified time, the board may revoke the individual's license and may deem the individual a lapsed practitioner subject to penalty under section 155A.25 or 155A.36.
Any person who offers cosmetology services for compensation in this state shall be (1) licensed as a salon if not employed by another licensed salon or (2) employed as an esthetician or cosmetologist in connection with medical care in relation to esthiology in the office of a licensed physician.
(a) The conditions and process by which a salon is licensed shall be established by the board by rule. In addition to those requirements, no license shall be issued unless the board first determines that the conditions in clauses (1) to (5) have been satisfied:
(1) compliance with all local and state laws, particularly relating to matters of sanitation, health, and safety;
(2) the employment of a manager, as defined in section 155A.23, subdivision 8;
(3) if applicable, evidence of compliance with section 176.182; and
(4) evidence of continued professional liability insurance coverage of at least $25,000 for each claim and $50,000 total coverage for each policy year for each operator.
(b) A licensed esthetician or nail technician who complies with the health, safety, sanitation, inspection, and insurance rules promulgated by the board to operate a salon solely for the performance of those personal services defined in section 155A.23, subdivision 5, in the case of an esthetician, or subdivision 7, in the case of a nail technician.
A license must not be issued unless the board first determines that the applicant has met the requirements in clauses (1) to (8).
(1) the applicant must have a sound financial condition with sufficient resources available to meet the school's financial obligations; to refund all tuition and other charges, within a reasonable period of time, in the event of dissolution of the school or in the event of any justifiable claims for refund against the school; to provide adequate service to its students and prospective students; and to maintain proper use and support of the school.
(2) the applicant must have satisfactory training facilities with sufficient tools and equipment and the necessary number of work stations to adequately train the students currently enrolled, and those proposed to be enrolled.
(3) the applicant must employ a sufficient number of qualified instructors trained by experience and education to give the training contemplated.
(4) the premises and conditions under which the students work and study must be sanitary, healthful, and safe according to modern standards.
(5) each occupational course or program of instruction or study must be of such quality and content as to provide education and training which will adequately prepare enrolled students for testing, licensing, and entry level positions as a cosmetologist, esthetician, or nail technician.
(6) the school must have coverage by professional liability insurance of at least $25,000 per incident and an accumulation of $150,000 for each premium year.
(7) the applicant shall provide evidence of the school's compliance with section 176.182.
(8) the applicant, except the state and its political subdivisions as described in section 471.617, subdivision 1, shall file with the board a continuous corporate surety bond in the amount of $10,000, conditioned upon the faithful performance of all contracts and agreements with students made by the applicant. The bond shall run to the state of Minnesota and to any person who may have a cause of action against the applicant arising at any time after the bond is filed and before it is canceled for breach of any contract or agreement made by the applicant with any student. The aggregate liability of the surety for all breaches of the conditions of the bond shall not exceed $10,000. The surety of the bond may cancel it upon giving 60 days' notice in writing to the board and shall be relieved of liability for any breach of condition occurring after the effective date of cancellation
The commission expires on June 30, 2016.
Except as otherwise provided in section 211B.36, subdivision 3, the chief administrative law judge shall assess the cost of considering complaints filed under section 211B.32 as provided in this section. Costs of complaints relating to a statewide ballot question or an election for a statewide or legislative office must be assessed against the appropriation from the general fund to the general account of the state elections campaign account in section 10A.31, subdivision 4. Costs of complaints relating to any other ballot question or elective office must be paid from appropriations to the office for this purpose.
The fee for filing and indexing each notice of lien or certificate or notice affecting the lien is:
(1) for a lien, certificate of discharge or subordination, and for all other notices, including a certificate of release or nonattachment filed with the secretary of state, the fee provided by section 336.9-525, except that the filing fee charged to the district directors of internal revenue for filing a federal tax lien is $15 for up to two debtor names and $15 for each additional name;
(2) for a lien, certificate of discharge or subordination, and for all other notices, including a certificate of release or nonattachment filed with the county recorder, the fee for filing a real estate mortgage in the county where filed.
The officer shall bill the district directors of internal revenue or other appropriate federal officials on a monthly basis for fees for documents filed by them.
Any foreign corporation whose certificate of authority to do business in this state shall have been revoked or canceled may file with the secretary of state an application for reinstatement. Such application shall be on forms prescribed by the secretary of state, shall contain all the matters required to be set forth in an original application for a certificate of authority, and such other pertinent information as may be required by the secretary of state.
If the certificate of authority was revoked by the secretary of state pursuant to section 303.17, the corporation shall pay to the commissioner of management and budget $250 before it may be reinstated.
If the certificate of authority was canceled by a judgment pursuant to section 303.18, the corporation shall pay to the commissioner of management and budget $500 before it may be reinstated.
Upon the filing of the application and upon payment of all penalties, fees and charges required by law, not including an initial license fee or additional license fees to the extent that they have previously been paid by the corporation, the secretary of state shall reinstate the license of the corporation.
No later than 90 days after the conclusion of each calendar year, a public benefit corporation must deliver to the secretary of state for filing an annual benefit report covering the 12-month period ending on December 31 of that year and pay a fee of $35 to the secretary of state. The annual benefit report must state the name of the public benefit corporation, be signed by the public benefit corporation's chief executive officer not more than 30 days before the report is delivered to the secretary of state for filing, and must be current when signed.
If a public benefit corporation fails to file an annual benefit report in accordance with this section within 90 days of the date on which an annual benefit report is due , the secretary of state shall revoke the corporation's status as a public benefit corporation under this chapter and must notify the public benefit corporation of the revocation using the information provided by the corporation pursuant to section 5.002 or 5.34 or provided in the articles.
(a) A public benefit corporation that has lost its public benefit corporation status for failure to timely file an annual benefit report is not entitled to the benefits afforded to a public benefit corporation under this chapter as of the date of revocation.
(b) Within 30 days of issuance of revocation of public benefit corporation status by the secretary of state, filing a renewal complying with this section and a $500 fee with the secretary of state will reinstate the corporation as a public benefit corporation under this chapter as of the date of revocation.
"Attest" means to provide the following financial statement services:
(1) an audit or other engagement performed in accordance with the Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS);
(2) a review of a financial statement performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS);
(3) an examination of prospective financial information performed in accordance with the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE); and
(4) any engagement performed in accordance with auditing and relatedstandards of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board
"Peer review" means an independent study, appraisal, or review of one or more aspects of the professional work of a licensee that issues attest or compilation reports, or the professional work of a person registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), by persons who are not affiliated with the licensee being reviewed.
"Principal place of business" means the office location designated by the licensee for purposes of substantial equivalency and reciprocity in this state and in other states.
"Report," when used with reference to financial statements, means an opinion, report, or other form of language that states or implies assurance as to the reliability of any financial statements and that also includes or is accompanied by a statement or implication that the person or firm issuing it has special knowledge or competence in accounting or auditing. Such a statement or implication of special knowledge or competence may arise from use by the issuer of the report of names or titles indicating that the person or firm is an accountant or auditor, or from the language of the report itself. The term "report" includes any form of language that disclaims an opinion when the form of language is conventionally understood to imply any positive assurance as to the reliability of the financial statements referred to or special competence on the part of the person or firm issuing the language. It includes any other form of language that is conventionally understood to imply such assurance or such special knowledge or competence.
"State" means any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and Guam; except that "this state" means the state of Minnesota.
The board shall elect one of its numberas chair, another as vice-chair, and another as secretary and treasurer. The officers shall hold their respective offices for a term of one year and until their successors are elected. The affirmative vote of a majority of the qualified members of the board, or a majority of a quorum of the board at any meeting duly called, is considered the action of the board. The board shall meet at such times and places as may be fixed by the board. Meetings of the board are subject to chapter 13D. A majority of the board members then in office constitutes a quorum at any meeting duly called. The board shall retain or arrange for the retention of all applications and all documents under oath that are filed with the board and also records of its proceedings, and it shall maintain a registry of the names and addresses of all licensees and registrants under this chapter. In any proceeding in court, civil or criminal, arising out of or founded upon any provision of this chapter, copies of records of the proceeding certified as true copies by the board chair or executive director shall be admissible in evidence as tending to prove the contents of the records.
The board may adopt rules governing its administration and enforcement of this chapter and the conduct of licensees and persons registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), including:
(1) rules governing the board's meetings and the conduct of its business;
(2) rules of procedure governing the conduct of investigations and hearings and discipline by the board;
(3) rules specifying the educational and experience qualifications required for the issuance of certificates and the continuing professional education required for renewal of certificates;
(4) rules of professional conduct directed to controlling the quality and probity of services by licensees, and dealing among other things with independence, integrity, and objectivity; competence and technical standards; and responsibilities to the public and to clients;
(5) rules governing the professional standards applicable to licensees including adoption of the standards specified in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, and as developed for general application by recognized national accountancy organizations such as the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board;
(6) rules governing the manner and circumstances of use of the titles "certified public accountant," "CPA," "registered accounting practitioner," and "RAP";
(7) rules regarding peer review that may be required to be performed under provisions of this chapter;
(8) rules on substantial equivalence to implement section 326A.14;
(9) rules regarding the conduct of the certified public accountant examination;
(10) rules regarding the issuance and renewals of certificates, permits, and registrations;
(11) rules regarding transition provisions to implement this chapter;
(12) rules specifying the educational and experience qualifications for registration, rules of professional conduct, rules regarding peer review, rules governing standards for providing services, and rules regarding the conduct and content of examination for those persons registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b);
(13) rules regarding fees for examinations, certificate issuance and renewal, firm permits, registrations under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), notifications made under section 326A.14, and late processing fees; and
(14) upon any change to this chapter, if the board determines a change in Minnesota Rules is required, the board may initiate the expedited process under section 14.389 up to one year after the effective date of the change to this chapter.
The board shall grant or renew permits to practice as a CPA firm to entities that make application and demonstrate their qualifications in accordance with this section.
(a) The following must hold a permit issued under this section:
(1) any firm with an office in this state performing attest services as defined in section 326A.01, subdivision 2;
(3) any firm with an office in this state that uses the title "CPA" or "CPA firm"; or
(4) any firm that does not have an office in this state but performs attest services as described in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (1), (3), or (4), for a client having its headquarters in this state.
(b) A firm possessing a valid permit from another state which does not have an office in this state may perform services described in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, clause (2) , or subdivision 6, for a client having its headquarters in this state and may use the title "CPA" or "CPA firm" without a permit issued under this section only if:
(1) it has the qualifications described in subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(2) as a condition to the renewal of the firm's permit issued by the other state, that state requires a peer review which contains the requirements equivalent to subdivision 8, paragraphs (a) and (e); and
(3) it performs the services through an individual who has been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14.
(c) A firm possessing a valid permit from another state that does not have an office in this state and which is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a), clause (4), or (b), may perform other professional services while using the title "CPA" or "CPA firm" in this state without a permit issued under this section only if the firm:
(1) has the qualifications described in subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(2) performs the services through an individual who has been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14; and
(3) can lawfully perform the services in the state where the individuals with practice privileges have their principal place of business.
(a) An applicant for initial issuance or renewal of a permit to practice under this section shall comply with the requirements in this subdivision.
(b) Notwithstanding chapter 319B or any other provision of law, a simple majority of the ownership of the firm, in terms of financial interests and voting rights of all partners, officers, shareholders, members, or managers, must belong to holders of certificates who are licensed in some state, and the partners, officers, shareholders, members, or managers, whose principal place of business is in this state, and who perform professional services in this state, must hold valid certificates issued under section 326A.04 or the corresponding provision of prior law. Although firms may include nonlicensee owners, the firm and its ownership must comply with rules adopted by the board. The firm shall register all nonlicensee owners with the state board as set forth by rule. An individual who has been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 and who performs services for which a firm permit is required under section 326A.14, subdivision 1, paragraph (d), is not required to obtain a certificate from the board under section 326A.04.
(c) A CPA firm may include nonlicensee owners provided that:
(1) the firm designates a licensee of this state, or in the case of a firm that must have a permit according to section 326A.14, subdivision 1, paragraph (d), a licensee of another state who meets the requirements in section 326A.14, subdivision 1, paragraph (a) or (b), who is responsible for the proper registration of the firm and identifies that individual to the board;
(2) all nonlicensee owners are persons of good moral character and are active individual participants in the CPA firm or affiliated entities; and
(3) the firm complies with other requirements imposed by the board in rule.
(d) An individual licensee and any individual granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 who is responsible for supervising attest or compilation services and signs or authorizes someone to sign the accountant's report on the financial statements on behalf of the firm, shall meet the competency requirements set out in the professional standards for such services.
(e) An individual licensee and any individual granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 who signs or authorizes someone to sign the accountants' report on the financial statements on behalf of the firm shall meet the competency requirement of paragraph (d).
(a) The board may impose a civil penalty not to exceed $2,000 per violation upon a person or a firm that violates an order, statute, or rule that the board has issued or is empowered to enforce.
(b) The board may, in addition, impose a fee to reimburse the board for all or part of the cost of the proceedings, including reasonable investigative costs, resulting in disciplinary or corrective action authorized by this section, the imposition of civil penalties, or the issuance of a cease and desist order. The fee may be imposed when the board shows that the position of the person or firm that violates a statute, rule, or order that the board has issued or is empowered to enforce is not substantially justified, unless special circumstances make an award unjust, notwithstanding the provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 1400.8401. The costs include, but are not limited to, the amount paid by the board for services from the office of administrative hearings, attorney and reasonable investigative fees, court reporters, witnesses, reproduction of records, board members' per diem compensation, board staff time, and expense incurred by board members and staff.
(a) Only a licensee and individuals who have been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 may issue a report on financial statements of any person, firm, organization, or governmental unit that results from providing attest services, or offer to render or render any attest service. Only a certified public accountant, an individual who has been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14, a CPA firm, or, to the extent permitted by board rule, a person registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may issue a report on financial statements of any person, firm, organization, or governmental unit that results from providing compilation services or offer to render or render any compilation service. These restrictions do not prohibit any act of a public official or public employee in the performance of that person's duties or prohibit the performance by any nonlicensee of other services involving the use of accounting skills, including the preparation of tax returns, management advisory services, and the preparation of financial statements without the issuance of reports on them. Nonlicensees may prepare financial statements and issue nonattest transmittals or information on them which do not purport to be in compliance with the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS). Nonlicensees registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may, to the extent permitted by board rule, prepare financial statements and issue nonattest transmittals or information on them.
(b) Licensees and individuals who have been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 performing attest or compilation services must provide those services in accordance with professional standards. To the extent permitted by board rule, registered accounting practitioners performing compilation services must provide those services in accordance with standards specified in board rule.
(c) A person who does not hold a valid certificate issued under section 326A.04 or a practice privilege granted under section 326A.14 shall not use or assume the title "certified public accountant," the abbreviation "CPA," or any other title, designation, words, letters, abbreviation, sign, card, or device tending to indicate that the person is a certified public accountant.
(d) A firm shall not provide attest services or assume or use the title "certified public accountants," the abbreviation "CPA's," or any other title, designation, words, letters, abbreviation, sign, card, or device tending to indicate that the firm is a CPA firm unless (1) the firm has complied with section 326A.05, and (2) ownership of the firm is in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted by the board.
(e) A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit issued under section 326A.04 or 326A.05 or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use the title "certified accountant," "chartered accountant," "enrolled accountant," "licensed accountant," "registered accountant," "accredited accountant," "accounting practitioner," "public accountant," "licensed public accountant," or any other title or designation likely to be confused with the title "certified public accountant," or use any of the abbreviations "CA," "LA," "RA," "AA," "PA," "AP," "LPA," or similar abbreviation likely to be confused with the abbreviation "CPA." The title "enrolled agent" or "EA" may only be used by individuals so designated by the Internal Revenue Service.
(f) Persons registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may use the title "registered accounting practitioner" or the abbreviation "RAP." A person who does not hold a valid registration under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), shall not assume or use such title or abbreviation.
(g) Except to the extent permitted in paragraph (a), nonlicensees may not use language in any statement relating to the financial affairs of a person or entity that is conventionally used by licensees in reports on financial statements. In this regard, the board shall issue by rule safe harbor language that nonlicensees may use in connection with such financial information. A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit, or a registration issued under section 326A.04, 326A.05, or 326A.06, paragraph (b), or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use any title or designation that includes the word "accountant" or "accounting" in connection with any other language, including the language of a report, that implies that the person or firm holds such a certificate, permit, or registration or has special competence as an accountant. A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit issued under section 326A.04 or 326A.05 or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use any title or designation that includes the word "auditor" in connection with any other language, including the language of a report, that implies that the person or firm holds such a certificate or permit or has special competence as an auditor. However, this paragraph does not prohibit any officer, partner, member, manager, or employee of any firm or organization from affixing that person's own signature to any statement in reference to the financial affairs of such firm or organization with any wording designating the position, title, or office that the person holds, nor prohibit any act of a public official or employee in the performance of the person's duties as such.
(h)(1) No person holding a certificate or registration or firm holding a permit under this chapter shall use a professional or firm name or designation that is misleading about the legal form of the firm, or about the persons who are partners, officers, members, managers, or shareholders of the firm, or about any other matter. However, names of one or more former partners, members, managers, or shareholders may be included in the name of a firm or its successor.
(2) A common brand name or network name part, including common initials, used by a CPA firm in its name, is not misleading if the firm is a network firm as defined in the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) Code of Professional Conduct in effect July 1, 2011, and when offering or rendering services that require independence under AICPA standards, the firm must comply with the AICPA code's applicable standards on independence.
(i) Paragraphs (a) to (h) do not apply to a person or firm holding a certification, designation, degree, or license granted in a foreign country entitling the holder to engage in the practice of public accountancy or its equivalent in that country, if:
(1) the activities of the person or firm in this state are limited to the provision of professional services to persons or firms who are residents of, governments of, or business entities of the country in which the person holds the entitlement;
(2) the person or firm performs no attest or compilation services and issues no reports with respect to the financial statements of any other persons, firms, or governmental units in this state; and
(3) the person or firm does not use in this state any title or designation other than the one under which the person practices in the foreign country, followed by a translation of the title or designation into English, if it is in a different language, and by the name of the country.
(k) No individual licensee may issue a report in standard form upon a compilation of financial information through any form of business that does not hold a valid permit issued under section 326A.05, unless the report discloses the name of the business through which the individual is issuing the report, and the individual:
(1) signs the compilation report identifying the individual as a certified public accountant;
(2) meets the competency requirement provided in applicable standards; and
(3) undergoes no less frequently than once every three years, a peer review conducted in a manner specified by the board in rule, and the review includes verification that the individual has met the competency requirements set out in professional standards for such services.
(l) No person registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may issue a report in standard form upon a compilation of financial information unless the board by rule permits the report and the person:
(1) signs the compilation report identifying the individual as a registered accounting practitioner;
(2) meets the competency requirements in board rule; and
(3) undergoes no less frequently than once every three years a peer review conducted in a manner specified by the board in rule, and the review includes verification that the individual has met the competency requirements in board rule.
(m) Nothing in this section prohibits a practicing attorney or firm of attorneys from preparing or presenting records or documents customarily prepared by an attorney or firm of attorneys in connection with the attorney's professional work in the practice of law.
(n) The board shall adopt rules that place limitations on receipt by a licensee or a person who holds a registration under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), of:
(1) contingent fees for professional services performed; and
(2) commissions or referral fees for recommending or referring to a client any product or service.
(o) Anything in this section to the contrary notwithstanding, it shall not be a violation of this section for a firm not holding a valid permit under section 326A.05 and not having an office in this state to provide its professional services in this state so long as it complies with the applicable requirements of section 326A.05, subdivision 1.
(a) Oral and written inquiries regarding information provided by the filing of effective financing statements or lien notices may be made at any filing office during regular business hours.
(b) A filing office receiving an oral or written inquiry shall, upon request, provide an oral or facsimileresponse to the inquiry.
(c) A filing office shall maintain a record of inquiries made under this section including:
(1) the date of the inquiry;
(2) the name of the debtor inquired about; and
(3) identification of the person making the request for inquiry.
An organization must pay a monthly regulatory fee of 0.1 percent of the organization's gross receipts from lawful gambling conducted each month. The fee must be reported and paid on a monthly basis in a format as determined by the commissioner of revenue, and remitted to the commissioner of revenue with the organization's monthly tax return. All monthly regulatory fees received by the commissioner of revenue under this subdivision must be deposited in the lawful gambling regulation account in the special revenue fund according to section 349.151. Failure to pay the monthly regulatory fees in a timely manner may result in disciplinary action by the board.
(a) The annual fee for a distributor's license is $6,000.
(b) The annual fee for a distributor salesperson license is $100.
The annual fee for a manufacturer's license is $9,000.
(a) The board shall require each licensed manufacturer to submit to the board one or more samples of each item of gambling equipment manufactured for use or resale in this state. For purposes of this subdivision, a manufacturer is also required to submit the applicable version of any software necessary to operate electronic devices and related systems.
(b) The board shall inspect and test all the equipment, including software and software upgrades, it deems necessary to determine the equipment's compliance with law and board rules. Samples required under this subdivision must be approved by the board before the equipment being sampled is shipped into or sold for use or resale in this state. The board shall impose a fee of $25 for each item of gambling equipment that the manufacturer submits for approval or for which the manufacturer requests approval. The board shall impose a fee of $100 for each sample of gambling equipment that it tests.
(c) The board may require samples of gambling equipment to be tested by an independent testing laboratory prior to submission to the board for approval. All costs of testing by an independent testing laboratory must be borne by the manufacturer. An independent testing laboratory used by a manufacturer to test samples of gambling equipment must be approved by the board before the equipment is submitted to the laboratory for testing.
(d) The board may request the assistance of the commissioner of public safety and the director of the State Lottery in performing the tests.
(a) Lawful gambling, with the exception of linked bingo games, may be conducted by an organization without a license and without complying with sections 349.168, subdivisions 1 and 2; 349.17, subdivision 4; 349.18, subdivision 1; and 349.19 if:
(1) the organization conducts lawful gambling on five or fewer days in a calendar year;
(2) the organization does not award more than $50,000 in prizes for lawful gambling in a calendar year;
(3) the organization submits a board-prescribed application and pays a fee of $50 to the board for each gambling occasion, and receives an exempt permit number from the board. If the application is postmarked or received less than 30 days before the gambling occasion, the fee is $100 for that application. The application must include the date and location of the occasion, the types of lawful gambling to be conducted, and the prizes to be awarded;
(4) the organization notifies the local government unit 30 days before the lawful gambling occasion, or 60 days for an occasion held in a city of the first class;
(5) the organization purchases all gambling equipment and supplies from a licensed distributor; and
(6) the organization reports to the board, on a single-page form prescribed by the board, within 30 days of each gambling occasion, the gross receipts, prizes, expenses, expenditures of net profits from the occasion, and the identification of the licensed distributor from whom all gambling equipment was purchased.
(b) If the organization fails to file a timely report as required by paragraph (a), clause (6), the board shall not issue any authorization, license, or permit to the organization to conduct lawful gambling on an exempt, excluded, or licensed basis until the report has been filed and the organization may be subject to penalty as determined by the board. The board may refuse to issue any authorization, license, or permit if a report or application is determined to be incomplete or knowingly contains false or inaccurate information.
(c) Merchandise prizes must be valued at their fair market value.
(d) Organizations that qualify to conduct exempt raffles under paragraph (a), are exempt from section 349.173, paragraph (b), clause (2), if the raffle tickets are sold only in combination with an organization's membership or a ticket for an organization's membership dinner and are not included with any other raffle conducted under the exempt permit.
(e) Unused pull-tab and tipboard deals must be returned to the distributor within seven working days after the end of the lawful gambling occasion. The distributor must accept and pay a refund for all returns of unopened and undamaged deals returned under this paragraph.
(f) The organization must maintain all required records of exempt gambling activity for 3-1/2 years.
OFFICE OF ENTERPRISE TECHNOLOGY
During the biennium ending June 30, 2015, the Office of Enterprise Technology must not charge fees to a public noncommercial educational television broadcast station eligible for funding under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 129D, for access to the state broadcast infrastructure. If the access fees not charged to public noncommercial educational television broadcast stations total more than $400,000 for the biennium, the office may charge for access fees in excess of these amounts.
The commissioner of Minnesota management and budget is authorized to provide cash flow assistance of up to $110,000,000 from the special revenue fund or other statutory general funds as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.671, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), to the Office of Enterprise Technology for the purpose of managing revenue and expenditure differences during the initial phases of IT consolidation. These funds shall be repaid with interest by June 30, 2015.
debt service on the design and construction costs allocated to the parking garage to be located on the block bounded by Sherburne Avenue on the north, Park Street on the west, University Avenue on the south, and North Capitol Boulevard on the east must be user-financed from parking fees collected and deposited into the state parking account and credited to the debt service account for the Legislative Office Facility.
Money appropriated to the Department of Veterans Affairs from the Minnesota "Support Our Troops" account may be used for:
(1) grants to veterans service organizations;
(2) outreach to underserved veterans;
(3) providing services and programs for veterans and their families; and
(4) transfers to the vehicle services account for Gold Star license plates under section 168.1253.
The adjutant general must report by February 1, 2007, and each year thereafter, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over military and veterans' affairs on the number, amounts, and use of grants made by the adjutant general from the Minnesota "Support Our Troops" account in the previous year.
If any officer or enlisted member of the military forces is wounded or otherwise disabled, dies from disease contracted or injuries received, or is killed while in state active service as defined in section 190.05, subdivision 5a, the officer or member, or in the case of death the officer's or member's dependent spouse, child, or parent, may be provided with immediate temporary relief as necessary in cases of severe hardship, in an amount to be determined by the adjutant general and approved by the governor. All payments under this subdivision shall be made from appropriations for the maintenance of the state military forces . The adjutant general shall notify the Department of Management and Budget of any payments made pursuant to this subdivision and the amount of it shall be subtracted from any award made by the Department of Management and Budget.
If a majority of the board determines that the disposal of thecamp or a portion of the camp is in the best interests of Minnesota veterans, or if the camp is not used solely as a camp for and by disabled and other veterans and their families and operated and maintained in compliance with all state, federal, and local laws, the board may dispose of the property at market value as provided in this section. Before disposing of the property, the board shall give notice by certified mail to the commissioner of veterans affairs of its decision to dispose of the property. The commissioner shall publish the notice in the State Register. Interested governmental agencies have until the end of the next legislative session after the notice to appropriate money to purchase the property.
Proceeds realized from the disposal of the property and any assets on hand at the time of the disposal of the property, must be placed in an irrevocable trust to be used for the initiation or maintenance of veterans programs in the state of Minnesota. Trustees must be appointed in the same manner as provided for under section 197.131. The trustees shall consult with the commissioner of veterans affairs to determine the needs of Minnesota veterans and provide the commissioner with an annual written report on the trust. The commissioner must approve all expenditures from the trust. A certified audit of all assets, expenditures, and property must be conducted prior to any disposition of any assets under the control of the board. Any board member who would benefit directly or indirectly financially from the sale of this property must be removed by the board and a successor appointed as provided by section 197.131. Upon final disposition of all assets to the trust, the board must disband. Should the assets of the trust be exhausted, the trust must be terminated.
Any person whose rights may be in any way prejudiced contrary to any of the provisions of this section, shall be entitled to a writ of mandamus to remedy the wrong. No person holding a position by appointment or employment in the several counties, cities, towns, school districts and all other political subdivisions in the state, who is a veteran separated from the military service under honorable conditions, shall be removed from such position or employment except for incompetency or misconduct shown after a hearing, upon due notice, upon stated charges, in writing.
Any veteran who has been notified of the intent to discharge the veteran from an appointed position or employment pursuant to this section shall be notified in writing of such intent to discharge and of the veteran's right to request a hearing within 60 days of receipt of the notice of intent to discharge. The failure of a veteran to request a hearing within the provided 60-day period shall constitute a waiver of the right to a hearing. Such failure shall also waive all other available legal remedies for reinstatement.
Request for a hearing concerning such a discharge shall be made in writing and submitted by mail or personal service to the employment office of the concerned employer or other appropriate office or person.
In all governmental subdivisions having an established civil service board or commission, or merit system authority, such hearing for removal or discharge shall be held before such civil service board or commission or merit system authority. Where no such civil service board or commission or merit system authority exists, such hearing shall be held by a board of three persons appointed as follows: one by the governmental subdivision, one by the veteran, and the third by the two so selected. In the event that the hearing is authorized to be held before a three-person board, the governmental subdivision's notice of intent to discharge shall state that the veteran must respond within 60 days of receipt of the notice of intent to discharge, and provide in writing to the governmental subdivision the name, United States mailing address, and telephone number of the veteran's selected representative for the three-person board. The failure of a veteran to submit the name, address, and telephone number of the veteran's selected representative to the governmental subdivision by mail or by personal service within the provided notice's 60-day period, shall constitute a waiver of the veteran's right to the hearing and all other legal remedies available for reinstatement of the veteran's employment position. In the event the two persons selected by the veteran and governmental subdivision do not appoint the third person within ten days after the appointment of the last of the two, then the judge of the district court of the county wherein the proceeding is pending, or if there be more than one judge in said county then any judge in chambers, shall have jurisdiction to appoint, and upon application of either or both of the two so selected shall appoint, the third person to the board and the person so appointed by the judge with the two first selected shall constitute the board.
Either the veteran or the governmental subdivision may appeal from the decision of the board upon the charges to the district court by causing written notice of appeal, stating the grounds thereof, to be served upon the other party within 15 days after notice of the decision and by filing the original notice of appeal with proof of service thereof in the office of the court administrator of the district court within ten days after service thereof. Nothing in section 197.455 or this section shall be construed to apply to the position of private secretary, superintendent of schools, or one chief deputy of any elected official or head of a department, or to any person holding a strictly confidential relation to the appointing officer. Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to the position of teacher. The burden of establishing such relationship shall be upon the appointing officer in all proceedings and actions relating thereto.
All officers, boards, commissions, and employees shall conform to, comply with, and aid in all proper ways in carrying into effect the provisions of section 197.455 and this section notwithstanding any laws, charter provisions, ordinances or rules to the contrary. Any willful violation of such sections by officers, officials, or employees is a misdemeanor.
The Minnesota veterans homes shall provide nursing care and related health and social services for veterans and their spouses who meet eligibility and admission requirements of the Minnesota veterans homes. The word "veteran" as used in this section has the meaning provided in section 197.447.
"Racing season" means that portion of the calendar year starting at the beginning of the day of the first live horse race conducted by the licensee and concluding at the end of the day of the last live horse race conducted by the licensee in any year.
For purposes of this chapter, the racing season begins before the first Saturday in May and continues for not less than 25 consecutive weeks.
The governor shall appoint the director of the Minnesota Racing Commission, who serves in the unclassified service at the governor's pleasure. The director must be a person qualified by experience in the administration and regulation of pari-mutuel racing to discharge the duties of the director. The governor must select a director from a list of one or more names submitted by the Minnesota Racing Commission.
The commission has the following powers and duties:
(1) to regulate horse racing in Minnesota to ensure that it is conducted in the public interest;
(2) to issue licenses as provided in this chapter;
(3) to enforce all laws and rules governing horse racing;
(4) to collect and distribute all taxes provided for in this chapter;
(5) to conduct necessary investigations and inquiries and compel the submission of information, documents, and records it deems necessary to carry out its duties;
(6) to supervise the conduct of pari-mutuel betting on horse racing;
(7) to employ and supervise personnel under this chapter;
(8) to determine the number of racing days to be held in the state and at each licensed racetrack;
(9) to take all necessary steps to ensure the integrity of racing in Minnesota; and
(10) to impose fees on the racing and card playing industries sufficient to recover the operating costs of the commission with the approval of the legislature according to section 16A.1283. Notwithstanding section 16A.1283, when the legislature is not in session, the commissioner of management and budget may grant interim approval for any new fees or adjustments to existing fees that are not statutorily specified, until such time as the legislature reconvenes and acts upon the new fees or adjustments. As part of its biennial budget request, the commission must propose changes to its fees that will be sufficient to recover the operating costs of the commission.
An application for a class C license must be on a form the commission prescribes and must be accompanied by an affidavit of qualification that the applicant:
(a) is not in default in the payment of an obligation or debt to the state under Laws 1983, chapter 214;
(b) does not have a felony conviction of record in a state or federal court and does not have a state or federal felony charge pending;
(c) is not and never has been connected with or engaged in an illegal business;
(d) has never been found guilty of fraud or misrepresentation in connection with racing or breeding;
(e) has never been found guilty of a violation of law or rule relating to horse racing, pari-mutuel betting or any other form of gambling which is a serious violation as defined by the commission's rules; and
(f) has never knowingly violated a rule or order of the commission or a law of Minnesota relating to racing.
The application must also contain an irrevocable consent statement, to be signed by the applicant, which states that suits and actions relating to the subject matter of the application or acts or omissions arising from it may be commenced against the applicant in any court of competent jurisdiction in this state by the service on the secretary of state of any summons, process, or pleading authorized by the laws of this state. If any summons, process, or pleading is served upon the secretary of state, it must be by duplicate copies. One copy must be retained in the Office of the Secretary of State and the other copy must be forwarded immediately by certified mail to the address of the applicant, as shown by the records of the commission.
If the commission determines that the applicant is qualified for the occupation for which licensing is sought and will not adversely affect the public health, welfare, and safety or the integrity of racing in Minnesota, it may issue a class C license to the applicant. If it makes a similar finding for a renewal of a class C license it may renew the license. Class C licenses are effective for one year.
The commission may revoke a class C license for a violation of law or rule which in the commission's opinion adversely affects the integrity of horse racing in Minnesota, or for an intentional false statement made in a license application.
The commission may suspend a class C license for up to one year for a violation of law, order or rule.
The commission may delegate to its designated agents the authority to impose suspensions of class C licenses, and the suspension may be appealed to the commission according to its rules.
A license revocation or suspension for more than 90 days is a contested case under sections 14.57 to 14.69 of the Administrative Procedure Act and is in addition to criminal penalties imposed for a violation of law or rule. The commission may summarily suspend a license for more than 90 days prior to a contested case hearing where it is necessary to ensure the integrity of racing. A contested case hearing must be held within 20 days of the summary suspension and the administrative law judge's report must be issued within 20 days from the close of the hearing record. In all cases involving summary suspension the commission must issue its final decision within 30 days from receipt of the report of the administrative law judge and subsequent exceptions and argument under section 14.61.
The fee for a class A license is $253,000 per year and must be remitted on July 1. The fee for a class B license is $500 for each assigned racing day and $100 for each day on which simulcasting is authorized and must be remitted on July 1. Included herein are all days assigned to be conducted after January 1, 2003. The fee for a class D license is $50 for each assigned racing day on which racing is actually conducted. Fees imposed on class D licenses must be paid to the commission at a time and in a manner as provided by rule of the commission.
The commission shall by rule establish an annual license fee for each occupation it licenses under section 240.08 but no annual fee for a class C license may exceed $100.
(a) From the amounts deducted from all pari-mutuel pools by a licensee, an amount equal to not less than the following percentages of all money in all pools must be set aside by the licensee and used for purses for races conducted by the licensee, provided that a licensee may agree by contract with an organization representing a majority of the horsepersons racing the breed involved to set aside amounts in addition to the following percentages:
(1) for live races conducted at a class A facility, and for races that are part of full racing card simulcasting that takes place within the time period of the live races, 8.4 percent;
(2) for simulcasts conducted during the racing season other than as provided for in clause (1), 50 percent of the takeout remaining after deduction for taxes on pari-mutuel pools, payment to the breeders fund, and payment to the sending out-of-state racetrack for receipt of the signal; and
(3) for simulcasts conducted outside of the racing season, 25 percent of the takeout remaining after deduction for the state pari-mutuel tax, payment to the breeders fund, payment to the sending out-of-state racetrack for receipt of the signal and, before January 1, 2005, a further deduction of eight percent of all money in all pools. In the event that wagering on simulcasts outside of the racing season exceeds $125 million in any calendar year, the amount set aside for purses by this formula is increased to 30 percent on amounts between $125,000,000 and $150,000,000 wagered; 40 percent on amounts between $150,000,000 and $175,000,000 wagered; and 50 percent on amounts in excess of $175,000,000 wagered. In lieu of the eight percent deduction, A deduction as agreed to between the licensee and the horsepersons' organization representing the majority of horsepersons racing at the licensee's class A facility during the preceding 12 months, is allowed after December 31, 2004.
The commission may by rule provide for the administration and enforcement of this subdivision. The deductions for payment to the sending out-of-state racetrack must be actual, except that when there exists any overlap of ownership, control, or interest between the sending out-of-state racetrack and the receiving licensee, the deduction must not be greater than three percent unless agreed to between the licensee and the horsepersons' organization representing the majority of horsepersons racing the breed racing the majority of races during the existing racing meeting or, if outside of the racing season, during the most recent racing meeting.
In lieu of the amount the licensee must pay to the commission for deposit in the Minnesota breeders fund under section 240.15, subdivision 1, The licensee shall pay 5-1/2 percent of the takeout from all pari-mutuel pools generated by wagering at the licensee's facility on full racing card simulcasts of races not conducted in this state.
(b) From the money set aside for purses, the licensee shall pay to the horseperson's organization representing the majority of the horsepersons racing the breed involved and contracting with the licensee with respect to purses and the conduct of the racing meetings and providing representation,benevolent programs, benefits, and services for horsepersons and their on-track employees, an amount, sufficient to perform these services, as may be determined by agreement by the licensee and the horseperson's organization. The amount paid may be deducted only from the money set aside for purses to be paid in races for the breed represented by the horseperson's organization. With respect to racing meetings where more than one breed is racing, the licensee may contract independently with the horseperson's organization representing each breed racing.
(c) Notwithstanding sections 325D.49 to 325D.66, a horseperson's organization representing the majority of the horsepersons racing a breed at a meeting, and the members thereof, may agree to withhold horses during a meeting.
(d) Money set aside for purses from wagering, during the racing season, on simulcasts must be used for purses for live races conducted at the licensee's class A facility during the same racing season, over and above the 8.4 percent purse requirement or any higher requirement to which the parties agree, for races conducted in this state. Money set aside for purses from wagering, outside of the racing season, on simulcasts must be for purses for live races conducted at the licensee's class A facility during the next racing season, over and above the 8.4 percent purse requirement or any higher requirement to which the parties agree, for races conducted in this state.
(e) Money set aside for purses from wagering on simulcasts must be used for purses for live races involving the same breed involved in the simulcast except that money set aside for purses and payments to the breeders fund from wagering on full racing card simulcasts of races not conducted in this state, occurring during a live mixed meet, must be allotted to the purses and breeders fund for each breed participating in the mixed meet in the same proportion that the number of live races run by each breed bears to the total number of live races conducted during the period of the mixed meet.
(f) The allocation of money set aside for purses to particular racing meets may be adjusted, relative to overpayments and underpayments, by contract between the licensee and the horsepersons' organization representing the majority of horsepersons racing the breed involved at the licensee's facility.
(g) Subject to the provisions of this chapter, money set aside from pari-mutuel pools for purses must be for the breed involved in the race that generated the pool, except that if the breed involved in the race generating the pari-mutuel pool is not racing in the current racing meeting, or has not raced within the preceding 12 months at the licensee's class A facility, money set aside for purses may be distributed proportionately to those breeds that have run during the preceding 12 months or paid to the commission and used for purses or to promote racing for the breed involved in the race generating the pari-mutuel pool, or both, in a manner prescribed by the commission.
(h) This subdivision does not apply to a class D licensee.
(a) The commission may permit an authorized licensee to conduct simulcasting at the licensee's facility on any day authorized by the commission. All simulcasts must comply with the Interstate Horse Racing Act of 1978, United States Code, title 15, sections 3001 to 3007.
(b) The commission may not authorize any day for simulcasting at a class A facility during the racing season, and a licensee may not be allowed to transmit out-of-state telecasts of races the licensee conducts, unless the licensee has obtained the approval of the horsepersons' organization representing the majority of the horsepersons racing the breed involved at the licensed racetrack during the preceding 12 months. In the case of a class A facility licensed under section 240.06, subdivision 5a, the approval applicable to the first year of the racetrack's operation may be obtained from the horsepersons' organization that represents the majority of horsepersons who will race the breed involved at the licensed racetrack during the first year of the racetrack's operation.
(c) The licensee may pay fees and costs to an entity transmitting a telecast of a race to the licensee for purposes of conducting pari-mutuel wagering on the race. The licensee may deduct fees and costs related to the receipt of televised transmissions from a pari-mutuel pool on the televised race, provided that one-half of any amount recouped in this manner must be added to the amounts required to be set aside for purses.
(d) With the approval of the commission and subject to the provisions of this subdivision, a licensee may transmit telecasts of races it conducts, for wagering purposes, to locations outside the state, and the commission may allow this to be done on a commingled pool basis.
(e) Except as otherwise provided in this section, simulcasting may be conducted on a separate pool basis or, with the approval of the commission, on a commingled pool basis. All provisions of law governing pari-mutuel betting apply to simulcasting except as otherwise provided in this subdivision or in the commission's rules. If pools are commingled, wagering at the licensed facility must be on equipment electronically linked with the equipment at the licensee's class A facility or with the sending racetrack via the totalizator computer at the licensee's class A facility. Subject to the approval of the commission, the types of betting, takeout, and distribution of winnings on commingled pari-mutuel pools are those in effect at the sending racetrack. Breakage for pari-mutuel pools on a televised race must be calculated in accordance with the law or rules governing the sending racetrack for these pools, and must be distributed in a manner agreed to between the licensee and the sending racetrack. Notwithstanding subdivision 7 and section 240.15, subdivision 5, the commission may approve procedures governing the definition and disposition of unclaimed tickets that are consistent with the law and rules governing unclaimed tickets at the sending racetrack. For the purposes of this section, "sending racetrack" is either the racetrack outside of this state where the horse race is conducted or, with the consent of the racetrack, an alternative facility that serves as the racetrack for the purpose of commingling pools.
(f) Except as otherwise provided in section 240.06, subdivision 5b, paragraph (2), if there is more than one class B licensee conducting racing within the seven-county metropolitan area, simulcasting may be conducted only on races run by a breed that ran at the licensee's class A facility within the 12 months preceding the event.
(a) From the amounts received from charges authorized under section 240.30, subdivision 4, the licensee shall set aside the amounts specified in this section to be used for purse payments. These amounts are in addition to the breeders fund and purse requirements set forth elsewhere in this chapter.
(1) For amounts between zero and $6,000,000, the licensee shall set aside ten percent to be used as purses.
(2) For amounts in excess of $6,000,000, the licensee shall set aside 14 percent to be used as purses.
(b) From all amounts set aside under paragraph (a), the licensee shall set aside ten percent to be deposited in the breeders fund. The licensee and the horseperson's organization representing the majority of horsepersons who have raced at the racetrack during the preceding 12 months may negotiate percentages different from those stated in this section if the agreement is in writing and filed with the Racing Commission.
(c) It is the intent of the legislature that the proceeds of the card playing activities authorized by this chapter be used to improve the horse racing industry by improving purses. The commission shall annually review the financial details of card playing activities and determine if the present use of card playing proceeds is consistent with the policy established by this paragraph. If the commission determines that the use of the proceeds does not comply with the policy set forth herein, then the commission shall direct the parties to make the changes necessary to ensure compliance. If these changes require legislation, the commission shall make the appropriate recommendations to the legislature.
(a) There is imposed a tax at the rate of six percent of the amount in excess of $12,000,000 annually withheld from all pari-mutuel pools by the licensee, including breakage and amounts withheld under section 240.13, subdivision 4. For the purpose of this subdivision, "annually" is the period from July 1 to June 30 of the next year.
In addition to the above tax, the licensee must designate and pay to the commission a tax of one percent of the total amount bet on each racing day, for deposit in the Minnesota breeders fund.
The taxes imposed by this clause must be paid from the amounts permitted to be withheld by a licensee under section 240.13, subdivision 4.
(b) The commission may impose an admissions tax of not more than ten cents on each paid admission at a licensed racetrack on a racing day if:
(1) the tax is requested by a local unit of government within whose borders the track is located;
(2) a public hearing is held on the request; and
(3) the commission finds that the local unit of government requesting the tax is in need of its revenue to meet extraordinary expenses caused by the racetrack.
The commission shall distribute all money received under this section, and all money received from license fees and fines it collects, according to this subdivision. All money designated for deposit in the Minnesota breeders fund must be paid into that fund for distribution under section 240.18 except that all money generated by full racing card simulcasts must be distributed as provided in section 240.18, subdivisions 2, paragraph (d), clauses (1), (2), and (3); and 3. Revenue from an admissions tax imposed under subdivision 1 must be paid to the local unit of government at whose request it was imposed, at times and in a manner the commission determines. Taxes received under this section and fines collected under section 240.22 must be paid to the commissioner of management and budget for deposit in the general fund. All revenues from licenses and other fees imposed by the commission must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to a racing and card playing regulation account in the special revenue fund. Receipts in this account are available for the operations of the commission up to the amount authorized in biennial appropriations from the legislature.
All horse races run at a licensed racetrack must be presided over by a board of three stewards, who must be appointees of the commission or persons approved by it. The commission shall designate one steward as chair. At least two stewards for all races either shall be employees of the commission who shall serve in the unclassified service, or shall be under contract with the commission to serve as stewards. The commission may delegate the following duties and powers to a board of stewards:
(a) to ensure that races are run in accordance with the commission's rules;
(b) to supervise the conduct of racing to ensure the integrity of the sport;
(c) to settle disputes arising from the running of horse races, and to certify official results;
(d) to impose on licensees, for violation of law or commission rules, fines not exceeding $2,000 and license suspensions not exceeding 90 days;
(e) to recommend to the commission where warranted penalties in excess of those in clause (d);
(f) to otherwise enforce the laws and rules of racing; and
(g) to perform other duties and have other powers assigned by the commission.
The commission shall by rule establish a graduated schedule of civil fines for violations of laws related to horse racing or of the commission's rules. The schedule must include minimum and maximum fines for each violation and be based on and reflect the culpability, frequency and severity of the violator's actions. The commission may impose a fine from this schedule on a licensee for a violation of those rules or laws relating to horse racing. The fine is in addition to any criminal penalty imposed for the same violation. Fines imposed by the commission must be paid to the commission and forwarded to the commissioner of management and budget for deposit in the general fund. A fine in excess of $2,000 is a contested case under the Administrative Procedure Act.
The commission has the authority, in addition to all other rulemaking authority granted elsewhere in this chapter to promulgate rules governing:
(a) the conduct of horse races held at licensed racetracks in Minnesota, including but not limited to the rules of racing, standards of entry, operation of claiming races, filing and handling of objections, carrying of weights, and declaration of official results;
(b) wire communications between the premises of a licensed racetrack and any place outside the premises;
(c) information on horse races which is sold on the premises of a licensed racetrack;
(d) liability insurance which it may require of all class A, class B, and class D licensees;
(e) the auditing of the books and records of a licensee by an auditor employed or appointed by the commission;
(f) emergency action plans maintained by licensed racetracks and their periodic review;
(g) safety, security, and sanitation of stabling facilities at licensed racetracks;
(h) entry fees and other funds received by a licensee in the course of conducting racing which the commission determines must be placed in escrow accounts;
(i) affirmative action in employment and contracting by class A, class B, and class D licensees; and
(j) any other aspect of horse racing or pari-mutuel betting which in its opinion affects the integrity of racing or the public health, welfare, or safety.
Rules of the commission are subject to chapter 14, the Administrative Procedure Act.
(a) This chapter does not apply to the licensing process for peace officers; to law enforcement agencies as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f); to fire protection agencies; to eligibility for a private detective or protective agent license; to the licensing and background study process under chapters 245A and 245C; to eligibility for school bus driver endorsements; to eligibility for special transportation service endorsements; to eligibility for a commercial driver training instructor license, which is governed by section 171.35 and rules adopted under that section; to emergency medical services personnel, or to the licensing by political subdivisions of taxicab drivers, if the applicant for the license has been discharged from sentence for a conviction within the ten years immediately preceding application of a violation of any of the following:
(2) any provision of chapter 152 that is punishable by a maximum sentence of 15 years or more; or
(3) a violation of chapter 169 or 169A involving driving under the influence, leaving the scene of an accident, or reckless or careless driving.
This chapter also shall not apply to eligibility for juvenile corrections employment, where the offense involved child physical or sexual abuse or criminal sexual conduct.
(b) This chapter does not apply to a school district or to eligibility for a license issued or renewed by the Board of Teaching or the commissioner of education.
(c) Nothing in this section precludes the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Training Board or the state fire marshal from recommending policies set forth in this chapter to the attorney general for adoption in the attorney general's discretion to apply to law enforcement or fire protection agencies.
(d) This chapter does not apply to a license to practice medicine that has been denied or revoked by the Board of Medical Practice pursuant to section 147.091, subdivision 1a.
(e) This chapter does not apply to any person who has been denied a license to practice chiropractic or whose license to practice chiropractic has been revoked by the board in accordance with section 148.10, subdivision 7.
(f) This chapter does not apply to any license, registration, or permit that has been denied or revoked by the Board of Nursing in accordance with section 148.261, subdivision 1a.
(g) This chapter does not supersede a requirement under law to conduct a criminal history background investigation or consider criminal history records in hiring for particular types of employment.
Presented to the governor May 20, 2015
Signed by the governor May 23, 2015, 12:25 p.m.