language to be deleted (2) new language
relating to legislative enactments; correcting miscellaneous oversights, inconsistencies, ambiguities, unintended results, and technical errors;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2008, sections 118A.05, subdivision 3, as amended; 160.21, subdivision 6, as added; 171.30, subdivision 1, as amended if enacted; 245A.18, subdivision 2; 253B.185, subdivision 1, as amended; 332.70, subdivision 3, as amended; Minnesota Statutes 2009 Supplement, sections 16C.16, subdivision 6a, as amended; 549.09, subdivision 1, as amended; 626.556, subdivision 2, as amended; Laws 2009, chapter 172, article 1, section 2, subdivision 5; Laws 2010, chapter 189, section 21, subdivision 4; 2010 S.F. No. 2510, article 3, section 76, if enacted.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
(a) Programs licensed by the Department of Human Services under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, that serve a child or children under nine years of age must document training that fulfills the requirements in this subdivision.
(b) Before a license holder, staff person, or caregiver transports a child or children under age nine in a motor vehicle, the person transporting the child must satisfactorily complete training on the proper use and installation of child restraint systems in motor vehicles. Training completed under this section may be used to meet initial or ongoing training under Minnesota Rules, part 2960.3070, subparts 1 and 2.
For all providers licensed prior to July 1, 2006, the training required in this subdivision must be obtained by December 31, 2007.
(c) Training required under this section must be at least one hour in length, completed at orientation or initial training, and repeated at least once every five years. At a minimum, the training must address the proper use of child restraint systems based on the child's size, weight, and age, and the proper installation of a car seat or booster seat in the motor vehicle used by the license holder to transport the child or children.
(d) Training under paragraph (c) must be provided by individuals who are certified and approved by the Department of Public Safety, Office of Traffic Safety. License holders may obtain a list of certified and approved trainers through the Department of Public Safety Web site or by contacting the agency.
(e) Child care providers that only transport school age children as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 16, in school buses as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 71, clauses (1) to (4), are exempt from this subdivision.
$2,000,000 is for a grant to the city of Lake Elmo. $1,000,000 must be used to design and construct an expansion of the city's water pumping, storage, and distribution system to provide approximately 1,000 additional service hookups and replace a city well lost to contamination by perfluorochemicals (PFC's). $1,000,000 must be used to design and construct the extension of a 16-inch sanitary sewer force main from the Metropolitan Council interceptor on Interstate Highway 94 to 30th Street to the proposed southern edge of the Lake Elmo Village area. This appropriation is not available until the council has determined that at least an equal amount has been committed to the project from nonstate sources.
Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.642, grant number RDGP-06-0007-0-FY07, awarded in September 2006 to the city of Tower from an appropriation to the redevelopment account in Laws 2005, chapter 20, article 1, section 23, subdivision 11, is available until June 30, 2013.
(a) A road authority, including a statutory or home rule charter city, may remove snow from unopened or private roads in uncompleted subdivisions containing five or more lots, upon adoption of an annual resolution finding that the subdivision developer, due to general insolvency or pending foreclosure, is unable to maintain the roads and that public safety may be jeopardized if the access of school buses, public works vehicles, or authorized emergency vehicles, as defined in section 169.011, subdivision 3, is obstructed. Snow removal activities are limited to streets reasonably necessary for access by these buses or vehicles.
(b) Snow removal under this subdivision does not constitute:
(1) acceptance of the road from the developer by the road authority for public use;
(2) the opening of the road to public use; nor
(3) a use, repair, or maintenance of the road sufficient for the purposes of dedication of roads under section 160.05.
(c) The road authority may impose a reasonable and proportionate charge on all properties within the subdivision for services provided under this subdivision. These charges, if unpaid, may constitute a lien upon the properties within the subdivision and may be collected as a special assessment as provided by section 492.101 or by charter.
(d) Where a road has been maintained pursuant to this subdivision, the road authority with jurisdiction over the road, and its officers and employees, are exempt from liability for any tort claim for injury to person or property arising from plowing, maintaining, or otherwise working on the road and from traveling on the road and related to its maintenance or condition. This paragraph does not apply to a claim for injury that is affirmatively caused by a negligent act of the road authority or its officers and employees.
(e) This subdivision expires May 2, 2013.
Securities lending agreements, including custody agreements, may be entered into with a financial institution meeting the qualifications of subdivision 2, clause (1) or (2), and having a bank office located in Minnesota. Securities lending transactions may be entered into with entities meeting the qualifications of subdivision 2 and the collateral for such transactions shall be restricted to the securities described in this section and section 118A.04.
(a) If the completeness or accuracy of a criminal record maintained by a business screening service is disputed by the individual who is the subject of the record, the screening service shall, without charge, investigate the disputed record. In conducting an investigation, the business screening service shall review and consider all relevant information submitted by the subject of the record with respect to the disputed record to determine whether the record maintained by the screening service accurately reflects the content of the official record, as maintained by the official government custodian.
(b) If, upon investigation, the screening service determines that the record does not accurately reflect the content of the official record, the screening service shall correct the disputed record so as to accurately reflect the content of the official record. If the disputed record is found to be sealed, expunged, or the subject of a pardon, the business screening service shall promptly delete the record.
(c) A business screening service may terminate an investigation of a disputed record if the business screening agency reasonably determines that the dispute is frivolous, which may be based on the failure of the subject of the record to provide sufficient information to investigate the disputed record. Upon making a determination that the dispute is frivolous, the business screening service shall inform the subject of the record of the specific reasons why it has determined that the dispute is frivolous and provide a description of any information required to investigate the disputed record.
(d) The business screening service shall notify the subject of the disputed record of the correction or deletion of the record or of the termination or completion of the investigation related to the record within 30 days of the date when the agency receives notice of the dispute from the subject of the record.
Sections 3 to 10, 12 to 17, and19 to 56 are effective January 1, 2012.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the provisions of this chapter pertaining to persons who are mentally ill and dangerous to the public apply with like force and effect to persons who are alleged or found to be sexually dangerous persons or persons with a sexual psychopathic personality. For purposes of this section, "sexual psychopathic personality" includes any individual committed as a "psychopathic personality" under Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10.
(b) Before commitment proceedings are instituted, the facts shall first be submitted to the county attorney, who, if satisfied that good cause exists, will prepare the petition. The county attorney may request a prepetition screening report. The petition is to be executed by a person having knowledge of the facts and filed with the committing court of the county in which the patient has a settlement or is present. If the patient is in the custody of the commissioner of corrections, the petition may be filed in the county where the conviction for which the person is incarcerated was entered.
(c) Upon the filing of a petition alleging that a proposed patient is a sexually dangerous person or is a person with a sexual psychopathic personality, the court shall hear the petition as provided in section 253B.18.
(d) In commitments under this section, the court shall commit the patient to a secure treatment facility unless the patient establishes by clear and convincing evidence that a less restrictive treatment program is available that is consistent with the patient's treatment needs and the requirements of public safety.
(e) After a determination that a patient is a sexually dangerous person or sexual psychopathic personality, the court shall order commitment for an indeterminate period of time and the patient shall be transferred, provisionally discharged, or discharged, only as provided in this section.
(a) When a judgment or award is for the recovery of money, including a judgment for the recovery of taxes, interest from the time of the verdict, award, or report until judgment is finally entered shall be computed by the court administrator or arbitrator as provided in paragraph (c) and added to the judgment or award.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by contract or allowed by law, preverdict, preaward, or prereport interest on pecuniary damages shall be computed as provided in paragraph (c) from the time of the commencement of the action or a demand for arbitration, or the time of a written notice of claim, whichever occurs first, except as provided herein. The action must be commenced within two years of a written notice of claim for interest to begin to accrue from the time of the notice of claim. If either party serves a written offer of settlement, the other party may serve a written acceptance or a written counteroffer within 30 days. After that time, interest on the judgment or award shall be calculated by the judge or arbitrator in the following manner. The prevailing party shall receive interest on any judgment or award from the time of commencement of the action or a demand for arbitration, or the time of a written notice of claim, or as to special damages from the time when special damages were incurred, if later, until the time of verdict, award, or report only if the amount of its offer is closer to the judgment or award than the amount of the opposing party's offer. If the amount of the losing party's offer was closer to the judgment or award than the prevailing party's offer, the prevailing party shall receive interest only on the amount of the settlement offer or the judgment or award, whichever is less, and only from the time of commencement of the action or a demand for arbitration, or the time of a written notice of claim, or as to special damages from when the special damages were incurred, if later, until the time the settlement offer was made. Subsequent offers and counteroffers supersede the legal effect of earlier offers and counteroffers. For the purposes of clause (2), the amount of settlement offer must be allocated between past and future damages in the same proportion as determined by the trier of fact. Except as otherwise provided by contract or allowed by law, preverdict, preaward, or prereport interest shall not be awarded on the following:
(1) judgments, awards, or benefits in workers' compensation cases, but not including third-party actions;
(2) judgments or awards for future damages;
(3) punitive damages, fines, or other damages that are noncompensatory in nature;
(4) judgments or awards not in excess of the amount specified in section 491A.01; and
(5) that portion of any verdict, award, or report which is founded upon interest, or costs, disbursements, attorney fees, or other similar items added by the court or arbitrator.
(c)(1) For a judgment or award of $50,000 or less or a judgment or award for or against the state or a political subdivision of the state, regardless of the amount, the interest shall be computed as simple interest per annum. The rate of interest shall be based on the secondary market yield of one year United States Treasury bills, calculated on a bank discount basis as provided in this section.
On or before the 20th day of December of each year the state court administrator shall determine the rate from the one-year constant maturity treasury yield for the most recent calendar month, reported on a monthly basis in the latest statistical release of the board of governors of the Federal Reserve System. This yield, rounded to the nearest one percent, or four percent, whichever is greater, shall be the annual interest rate during the succeeding calendar year. The state court administrator shall communicate the interest rates to the court administrators and sheriffs for use in computing the interest on verdicts and shall make the interest rates available to arbitrators.
This clause applies to any section that references section 549.09 by citation for the purposes of computing an interest rate on any amount owed to or by the state or a political subdivision of the state, regardless of if the amount is greater than or less than $50,000.
(2) For a judgment or award over $50,000, other than a judgment or award for or against the state or a political subdivision of the state, the interest rate shall be ten percent per year until paid.
(3) When a judgment creditor, or the judgment creditor's attorney or agent, has received a payment after entry of judgment, whether the payment is made voluntarily by or on behalf of the judgment debtor, or is collected by legal process other than execution levy where a proper return has been filed with the court administrator, the judgment creditor, or the judgment creditor's attorney, before applying to the court administrator for an execution shall file with the court administrator an affidavit of partial satisfaction. The affidavit must state the dates and amounts of payments made upon the judgment after the most recent affidavit of partial satisfaction filed, if any; the part of each payment that is applied to taxable disbursements and to accrued interest and to the unpaid principal balance of the judgment; and the accrued, but the unpaid interest owing, if any, after application of each payment.
(d) This section does not apply to arbitrations between employers and employees under chapter 179 or 179A. An arbitrator is neither required to nor prohibited from awarding interest under chapter 179 or under section 179A.16 for essential employees.
(e) For purposes of this subdivision:
(1) "state" includes a department, board, agency, commission, court, or other entity in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of the state; and
(2) "political subdivision" includes a town, statutory or home rule charter city, county, school district, or any other political subdivision of the state.
Fish, Game, and Wildlife Habitat
|(a) Outdoor Heritage Conservation Partners Grant Program|
$4,000,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources for a pilot program to provide competitive, matching grants of up to $400,000 to local, regional, state, and national organizations, including government, for enhancement, restoration, or protection of forests, wetlands, prairies, and habitat for fish, game, or wildlife in Minnesota. Up to 6-1/2 percent of this appropriation may be used for administering the grant. The funds may be advanced in three equal sums, on or after November 1, 2009, February 1, 2010, and April 1, 2010. Grantees may protect land through acquisition of land or interests in land. Easements must be permanent. Land acquired in fee must be open to hunting and fishing during the open season unless otherwise provided by state law. The commissioner of natural resources must agree to each proposed acquisition of land or interest in land. The program shall require a match of at least $1 nonstate funds to $10 state funds. The nonstate dollars match may be in-kind. The criteria for evaluating grant applications must include amount of habitat restored, enhanced, or protected; local support; degree of collaboration; urgency; multiple benefits; habitat benefits provided; consistency with sound conservation science; adjacency to protected lands; full funding of the project; supplementing existing funding; public access for hunting and fishing during the open season; sustainability; and use of native plant materials. All projects must conform to the Minnesota statewide conservation and preservation plan. Wildlife habitat projects must also conform to the state wildlife action plan. Priority may be given to projects acquiring land or easements associated with existing wildlife management areas. All restoration or enhancement projects must be on land permanently protected by conservation easement or public ownership. To the extent possible, a person conducting prairie restorations with money appropriated in this section must plant vegetation or sow seed only of ecotypes native to Minnesota, and preferably of the local ecotype, using a high diversity of species originating from as close to the restoration site as possible, and protect existing native prairies from genetic contamination. Subdivision 10 applies to grants awarded under this paragraph. This appropriation is available until June 30, 2013, at which time all grant projects must be completed and final products delivered, unless an earlier date is specified in the grant agreement. No less than 15 percent of the amount of each grant must be held back from reimbursement until the grant recipient has completed a grant accomplishment report in the form prescribed by and satisfactory to the Lessard Outdoor Heritage Council.
As a condition of proceeding with this appropriation, the commissioner shall report on the feasibility, process, and timeline for creation of a Minnesota fish and wildlife foundation, to be modeled after the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation, and on the possibility of allowing for the administration by this entity of the conservation partners grant program.
The legislative guide created in this act shall consider whether this program should be administered by the National Fish and Wildlife Foundation, the commissioner of natural resources, or some neutral third party.
|(b) Aquatic Management Area Acquisition|
$5,748,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources to acquire land in fee title and easement to be added to the state aquatic management area system. Acquired land must remain open to hunting and fishing, consistent with the capacity of the land, during the open season, as determined by the commissioner of natural resources. A list of proposed fee title and easement acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.
|(c) Cold Water River and Stream Restoration, Protection, and Enhancement|
$2,050,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Trout Unlimited or successor to restore, enhance, and protect cold water river and stream habitats in Minnesota. A list of proposed acquisitions and a list of proposed projects, describing the types and locations of restorations and enhancements, must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan. The commissioner of natural resources must agree to each proposed acquisition, restoration, and enhancement.
|(d) Dakota County Habitat Protection|
$1,000,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Dakota County for acquisition of permanent easements. A list of proposed acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.
|(e) Lake Rebecca Water Quality Improvement Project|
$450,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the Three Rivers Park District to improve the water quality in Lake Rebecca in Lake Rebecca Park Reserve in Hennepin County. A description of the activities to enhance fish habitat in Lake Rebecca must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.
|(f) Fountain Lake Fish Barriers|
$655,000 in fiscal year 2010 is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the Shell Rock River Watershed District to construct fish barriers at three locations on Fountain Lake. Land acquisition necessary for fish barrier construction is permitted. A list of proposed projects, describing the types and locations of barriers, must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan. The commissioner of natural resources must agree to each proposed barrier.
(a) in any case where a person's license has been
revoked under section
subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (1), (2),
(4), (5), or (6), or
subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (1) if the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of less than twice the legal limit, (2) if the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of less than twice the legal limit,
(4), (5), or (6);
revoked, canceled, or denied under section 169A.54,
subdivision 1, clause (1),
(4), (5), or (6), or
subdivision 2 if the person does not have a qualified prior impaired driving incident as defined in section 169A.03, subdivision 22, on the person's record, the commissioner may issue a limited license to the driver including under the following conditions:
(1) if the driver's livelihood or attendance at a chemical dependency treatment or counseling program depends upon the use of the driver's license;
(2) if the use of a driver's license by a homemaker is necessary to prevent the substantial disruption of the education, medical, or nutritional needs of the family of the homemaker; or
(3) if attendance at a postsecondary institution of education by an enrolled student of that institution depends upon the use of the driver's license.
(b) The commissioner in issuing a limited license may impose such conditions and limitations as in the commissioner's judgment are necessary to the interests of the public safety and welfare including reexamination as to the driver's qualifications. The license may be limited to the operation of particular vehicles, to particular classes and times of operation, and to particular conditions of traffic. The commissioner may require that an applicant for a limited license affirmatively demonstrate that use of public transportation or carpooling as an alternative to a limited license would be a significant hardship.
(c) For purposes of this subdivision: (1) "homemaker" refers to the person primarily performing the domestic tasks in a household of residents consisting of at least the person and the person's dependent child or other dependents; and (2) "twice the legal limit" means an alcohol concentration of two times the limit specified in section 169A.20, subdivision 1, clause (5).
(d) The limited license issued by the commissioner shall clearly indicate the limitations imposed and the driver operating under the limited license shall have the license in possession at all times when operating as a driver.
(e) In determining whether to issue a limited license, the commissioner shall consider the number and the seriousness of prior convictions and the entire driving record of the driver and shall consider the number of miles driven by the driver annually.
(f) If the person's driver's license or permit to drive has been revoked under section 169.792 or 169.797, the commissioner may only issue a limited license to the person after the person has presented an insurance identification card, policy, or written statement indicating that the driver or owner has insurance coverage satisfactory to the commissioner of public safety. The commissioner of public safety may require the insurance identification card provided to satisfy this subdivision be certified by the insurance company to be noncancelable for a period not to exceed 12 months.
(g) The limited license issued by the commissioner to a person under section 171.186, subdivision 4, must expire 90 days after the date it is issued. The commissioner must not issue a limited license to a person who previously has been issued a limited license under section 171.186, subdivision 4.
(h) The commissioner shall not issue a limited driver's license to any person described in section 171.04, subdivision 1, clause (6), (7), (8), (11), or (14).
(i) The commissioner shall not issue a class A, class B, or class C limited license.
(a) the commissioner shall award up to a six percent preference, but no less than the percentage awarded to any other group under this section, in the amount bid on state procurement to certified small businesses that are majority-owned and operated by:
(1) recently separated veterans who have served in active military service, at any time on or after September 11, 2001, and who have been discharged under honorable conditions from active service, as indicated by the person's United States Department of Defense form DD-214 or by the commissioner of veterans affairs;
(2) veterans with service-connected disabilities, as determined at any time by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs; or
(3) any other veteran-owned small businesses certified under section 16C.19, paragraph (d).
(b) The purpose of this designation is to facilitate the transition of veterans from military to civilian life, and to help compensate veterans for their sacrifices, including but not limited to their sacrifice of health and time, to the state and nation during their military service, as well as to enhance economic development within Minnesota.
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:
(a) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child maltreatment report that does not allege substantial child endangerment. Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.
(b) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports involve substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed under chapter 245A or 245B; under sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in sections 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and 124D.10; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider association as defined in sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.
(c) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, and in the case of sexual abuse includes a person who has a significant relationship to the child as defined in section 609.341, or a person in a position of authority as defined in section 609.341, who by act or omission commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that constitutes any of the following:
(1) egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;
(2) sexual abuse as defined in paragraph (d);
(3) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;
(4) neglect as defined in paragraph (f), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(8) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;
(10) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;
(12) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or
(13) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.301, subdivision 3, paragraph (a).
(d) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341, or by a person in a position of authority, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree), or 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse.
(e) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.
(f) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:
(1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so;
(2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;
(3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition, length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;
(4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and 260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision 5;
(5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, or caretaker, or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report if a lack of medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does not impose upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;
(6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision 2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the child at birth, or medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance;
(7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);
(8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or person responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety; or
(9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired emotional functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.
(g) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, that have not been authorized under section 121A.67 or 245.825.
Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not limited to, any of the following that are done in anger or without regard to the safety of the child:
(1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;
(2) striking a child with a closed fist;
(3) shaking a child under age three;
(4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18 months of age;
(5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;
(6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;
(7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;
(8) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the substances;
(9) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or
(10) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's care that is a violation under section 121A.58.
(h) "Report" means any report received by the local welfare agency, police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for assessing or investigating maltreatment pursuant to this section.
(i) "Facility" means:
(1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter 245B;
(j) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.
(k) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.
(l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is not limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and parenting time expeditor services.
(m) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's culture.
(n) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined in paragraph (e), clause (1), who has:
(1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14, or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, paragraph (b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;
(3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights under section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or
(4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and physical custody of a child to a relative under section 260C.201, subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), or a similar law of another jurisdiction.
(o) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare, and safety.
(p) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence or event which:
(1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and
(2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.
(q) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:
(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;
(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;
(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;
(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or not; and
(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the incident.
This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of substantial maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.
Presented to the governor May 18, 2010
Signed by the governor May 27, 2010, 11:06 a.m.
Official Publication of the State of Minnesota
Revisor of Statutes