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Capital IconMinnesota Legislature
Office of the Revisor of Statutes

SF 4271

1st Engrossment - 93rd Legislature (2023 - 2024) Posted on 05/14/2024 09:27am

KEY: stricken = removed, old language.
underscored = added, new language.
Version List Authors and Status
Pdf Rtf

Current Version - 1st Engrossment

Line numbers 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 1.10 1.11 1.12 1.13 1.14 1.15 1.16 1.17 1.18 1.19 1.20 1.21 1.22 1.23 1.24 1.25 1.26 1.27 1.28 1.29 1.30 1.31 1.32 1.33 1.34 1.35 1.36 1.37 2.1 2.2 2.3
2.4 2.5
2.6 2.7 2.8 2.9 2.10 2.11 2.12 2.13 2.14 2.15 2.16 2.17
2.18 2.19 2.20 2.21
2.22 2.23 2.24 2.25 2.26 2.27 2.28 2.29 2.30 2.31 2.32 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 3.6 3.7 3.8 3.9 3.10 3.11 3.12 3.13 3.14 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.19 3.20 3.21 3.22 3.23 3.24
3.25 3.26 3.27 3.28 3.29 3.30 3.31 3.32 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.8 4.9 4.10 4.11 4.12 4.13 4.14 4.15 4.16
4.17 4.18 4.19 4.20 4.21 4.22 4.23 4.24 4.25 4.26 4.27 4.28 4.29 4.30 4.31 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5 5.6 5.7 5.8 5.9 5.10 5.11 5.12 5.13
5.14 5.15 5.16 5.17 5.18 5.19 5.20
5.21
5.22 5.23
5.24 5.25 5.26 5.27 5.28 5.29 5.30 5.31 6.1 6.2 6.3 6.4 6.5 6.6 6.7 6.8 6.9 6.10 6.11 6.12 6.13 6.14 6.15 6.16 6.17 6.18 6.19 6.20 6.21 6.22 6.23 6.24 6.25
6.26 6.27 6.28 6.29 6.30 6.31 6.32 6.33 7.1 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.5 7.6 7.7 7.8 7.9 7.10 7.11 7.12 7.13 7.14 7.15 7.16 7.17 7.18 7.19 7.20 7.21 7.22 7.23 7.24 7.25 7.26 7.27 7.28 7.29 8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.11 8.12 8.13 8.14 8.15 8.16 8.17 8.18 8.19 8.20 8.21 8.22 8.23 8.24 8.25 8.26 8.27 8.28 8.29 8.30 8.31 8.32 8.33 8.34 8.35 9.1 9.2 9.3 9.4 9.5 9.6 9.7 9.8 9.9 9.10 9.11 9.12 9.13 9.14 9.15 9.16 9.17 9.18 9.19 9.20 9.21 9.22 9.23 9.24 9.25 9.26 9.27 9.28 9.29 9.30
10.1 10.2 10.3 10.4 10.5 10.6 10.7 10.8 10.9 10.10 10.11 10.12 10.13 10.14 10.15 10.16 10.17 10.18 10.19 10.20 10.21 10.22 10.23 10.24 10.25 10.26 10.27 10.28 10.29 10.30 10.31 10.32 11.1 11.2 11.3 11.4 11.5 11.6 11.7 11.8 11.9 11.10 11.11 11.12 11.13 11.14 11.15 11.16 11.17 11.18 11.19 11.20
11.21 11.22 11.23 11.24 11.25 11.26 11.27 11.28 11.29 11.30 11.31 12.1 12.2 12.3 12.4 12.5 12.6 12.7 12.8 12.9 12.10 12.11
12.12 12.13 12.14 12.15 12.16 12.17 12.18 12.19 12.20 12.21 12.22 12.23 12.24 12.25 12.26
12.27 12.28 12.29 13.1 13.2 13.3 13.4 13.5 13.6 13.7 13.8 13.9 13.10 13.11 13.12 13.13 13.14 13.15 13.16 13.17 13.18 13.19 13.20 13.21 13.22 13.23 13.24 13.25 13.26 13.27 13.28 13.29 14.1 14.2 14.3
14.4 14.5 14.6 14.7 14.8 14.9 14.10 14.11 14.12 14.13 14.14 14.15 14.16 14.17 14.18 14.19 14.20 14.21 14.22 14.23 14.24 14.25 14.26 14.27 14.28 14.29 14.30 14.31 15.1 15.2 15.3 15.4 15.5 15.6 15.7 15.8 15.9 15.10 15.11 15.12 15.13 15.14 15.15 15.16 15.17 15.18 15.19 15.20 15.21 15.22 15.23 15.24 15.25 15.26 15.27 15.28 15.29 15.30 15.31 15.32 16.1 16.2 16.3 16.4 16.5 16.6 16.7 16.8 16.9 16.10 16.11 16.12 16.13 16.14 16.15 16.16 16.17 16.18 16.19 16.20 16.21 16.22 16.23 16.24 16.25 16.26 16.27 16.28 16.29 16.30 16.31 17.1 17.2 17.3 17.4 17.5 17.6 17.7 17.8 17.9 17.10 17.11 17.12 17.13 17.14 17.15 17.16 17.17 17.18 17.19 17.20 17.21 17.22 17.23 17.24 17.25 17.26 17.27 17.28 17.29
17.30 17.31 17.32 18.1 18.2
18.3 18.4 18.5 18.6 18.7 18.8 18.9 18.10 18.11 18.12 18.13 18.14 18.15 18.16 18.17 18.18 18.19 18.20 18.21 18.22 18.23 18.24 18.25 18.26 18.27 18.28 18.29 18.30 19.1 19.2
19.3 19.4 19.5 19.6 19.7 19.8 19.9 19.10
19.11 19.12 19.13 19.14 19.15 19.16 19.17 19.18 19.19 19.20 19.21 19.22 19.23 19.24 19.25 19.26 19.27 19.28 19.29 20.1 20.2 20.3 20.4 20.5 20.6 20.7 20.8 20.9 20.10 20.11 20.12 20.13
20.14 20.15 20.16 20.17 20.18 20.19 20.20 20.21 20.22 20.23 20.24 20.25 20.26 20.27 20.28 20.29 20.30 21.1 21.2 21.3 21.4 21.5 21.6 21.7 21.8 21.9 21.10 21.11 21.12 21.13 21.14 21.15 21.16 21.17 21.18 21.19 21.20 21.21 21.22 21.23
21.24 21.25 21.26 21.27 21.28 21.29 21.30 21.31 21.32 22.1 22.2 22.3 22.4 22.5 22.6 22.7 22.8 22.9 22.10 22.11
22.12 22.13 22.14 22.15 22.16 22.17 22.18 22.19 22.20 22.21 22.22 22.23 22.24 22.25
22.26 22.27 22.28 22.29 22.30 22.31
23.1
23.2 23.3
23.4 23.5 23.6 23.7 23.8 23.9 23.10 23.11 23.12 23.13 23.14 23.15 23.16 23.17 23.18 23.19 23.20 23.21 23.22 23.23 23.24 23.25 23.26 23.27 23.28 23.29 23.30 23.31 23.32 24.1 24.2 24.3 24.4 24.5 24.6 24.7 24.8 24.9 24.10 24.11 24.12 24.13 24.14 24.15 24.16 24.17 24.18 24.19 24.20 24.21 24.22 24.23 24.24 24.25 24.26 24.27 24.28 24.29 24.30 24.31 24.32 25.1 25.2 25.3 25.4 25.5 25.6 25.7 25.8 25.9 25.10 25.11 25.12 25.13 25.14 25.15 25.16 25.17
25.18 25.19
25.20 25.21 25.22 25.23 25.24 25.25 25.26 25.27 25.28 25.29 25.30 25.31 25.32 26.1 26.2 26.3 26.4 26.5 26.6 26.7 26.8 26.9 26.10 26.11 26.12 26.13 26.14 26.15 26.16 26.17
26.18
26.19 26.20 26.21 26.22 26.23 26.24 26.25 26.26 26.27 26.28 26.29 26.30 27.1 27.2 27.3 27.4
27.5
27.6 27.7 27.8 27.9 27.10 27.11 27.12 27.13 27.14 27.15 27.16 27.17 27.18 27.19 27.20 27.21 27.22 27.23 27.24 27.25
27.26
27.27 27.28 27.29 27.30 27.31 27.32 28.1 28.2
28.3 28.4 28.5 28.6 28.7 28.8 28.9 28.10 28.11 28.12 28.13 28.14 28.15 28.16 28.17 28.18 28.19 28.20 28.21 28.22 28.23 28.24 28.25 28.26 28.27 28.28 28.29 28.30 29.1 29.2 29.3 29.4 29.5 29.6 29.7 29.8 29.9
29.10 29.11
29.12 29.13 29.14 29.15 29.16 29.17 29.18 29.19 29.20 29.21 29.22 29.23 29.24 29.25 29.26 29.27 29.28 29.29 29.30 29.31
30.1 30.2 30.3 30.4 30.5 30.6 30.7 30.8 30.9 30.10 30.11 30.12 30.13 30.14 30.15 30.16 30.17 30.18 30.19 30.20 30.21 30.22 30.23 30.24 30.25 30.26 30.27 30.28 30.29 30.30 30.31 30.32 30.33 31.1 31.2 31.3 31.4 31.5 31.6 31.7 31.8 31.9 31.10 31.11 31.12 31.13 31.14
31.15 31.16
31.17 31.18 31.19 31.20 31.21 31.22 31.23 31.24 31.25 31.26 31.27 31.28 31.29 31.30 31.31 31.32 32.1 32.2 32.3 32.4 32.5 32.6 32.7 32.8 32.9 32.10 32.11 32.12
32.13 32.14 32.15 32.16 32.17 32.18
32.19 32.20 32.21 32.22 32.23 32.24 32.25 32.26 32.27 32.28 32.29 32.30 32.31 32.32
33.1 33.2 33.3 33.4
33.5 33.6 33.7 33.8 33.9 33.10 33.11 33.12 33.13 33.14 33.15 33.16 33.17 33.18 33.19 33.20 33.21 33.22 33.23 33.24 33.25 33.26 33.27 33.28 33.29 34.1 34.2 34.3
34.4 34.5
34.6 34.7 34.8 34.9 34.10 34.11 34.12 34.13 34.14 34.15 34.16 34.17 34.18 34.19 34.20 34.21 34.22 34.23 34.24 34.25 34.26 34.27 34.28 34.29 34.30 35.1 35.2 35.3 35.4 35.5 35.6 35.7 35.8 35.9 35.10 35.11 35.12 35.13 35.14 35.15 35.16
35.17 35.18
35.19 35.20
35.21 35.22 35.23 35.24 35.25
35.26 35.27 35.28 35.29 35.30 35.31 36.1 36.2 36.3
36.4 36.5 36.6 36.7 36.8 36.9 36.10 36.11 36.12 36.13 36.14 36.15 36.16 36.17 36.18 36.19 36.20 36.21 36.22 36.23 36.24
36.25 36.26 36.27 36.28
36.29 36.30 36.31 37.1 37.2 37.3 37.4 37.5 37.6 37.7 37.8 37.9
37.10 37.11 37.12 37.13 37.14 37.15 37.16 37.17 37.18 37.19 37.20 37.21 37.22 37.23 37.24 37.25 37.26 37.27 37.28 37.29 37.30 37.31 38.1 38.2 38.3 38.4 38.5 38.6
38.7 38.8 38.9 38.10 38.11 38.12 38.13 38.14 38.15 38.16 38.17 38.18 38.19 38.20 38.21 38.22 38.23 38.24 38.25 38.26 38.27 38.28 38.29 38.30 38.31 38.32 38.33 39.1 39.2 39.3 39.4 39.5 39.6 39.7 39.8 39.9 39.10 39.11
39.12 39.13 39.14 39.15 39.16 39.17 39.18 39.19 39.20 39.21 39.22 39.23 39.24 39.25 39.26 39.27 39.28 39.29 39.30
40.1 40.2 40.3 40.4 40.5 40.6 40.7 40.8 40.9 40.10 40.11 40.12 40.13 40.14 40.15 40.16 40.17 40.18 40.19 40.20 40.21 40.22 40.23 40.24 40.25 40.26 40.27 40.28 40.29 40.30 40.31 40.32 41.1 41.2 41.3 41.4 41.5 41.6 41.7 41.8 41.9 41.10 41.11 41.12 41.13 41.14 41.15 41.16 41.17 41.18 41.19 41.20 41.21 41.22 41.23 41.24 41.25 41.26 41.27 41.28
41.29 41.30 41.31 42.1 42.2 42.3 42.4 42.5 42.6 42.7 42.8
42.9 42.10 42.11 42.12 42.13 42.14 42.15 42.16 42.17 42.18 42.19 42.20 42.21 42.22 42.23 42.24 42.25 42.26 42.27 42.28 42.29 42.30 43.1 43.2 43.3 43.4 43.5 43.6 43.7 43.8 43.9 43.10 43.11 43.12 43.13 43.14 43.15 43.16 43.17 43.18
43.19 43.20 43.21 43.22 43.23 43.24 43.25 43.26 43.27 43.28 43.29 43.30 43.31 43.32 44.1 44.2 44.3 44.4 44.5 44.6 44.7 44.8 44.9 44.10 44.11 44.12 44.13 44.14 44.15 44.16 44.17 44.18 44.19 44.20 44.21 44.22 44.23 44.24 44.25 44.26 44.27 44.28 44.29 44.30 44.31 44.32 45.1 45.2 45.3 45.4 45.5 45.6 45.7 45.8 45.9 45.10 45.11 45.12 45.13 45.14 45.15 45.16 45.17 45.18 45.19 45.20 45.21 45.22
45.23 45.24 45.25 45.26 45.27 45.28 45.29 45.30 45.31 45.32
46.1 46.2 46.3 46.4 46.5 46.6 46.7 46.8 46.9 46.10 46.11 46.12 46.13 46.14 46.15 46.16 46.17 46.18 46.19 46.20 46.21 46.22 46.23 46.24 46.25 46.26 46.27 46.28 46.29 46.30 46.31 46.32 46.33 46.34 47.1 47.2 47.3 47.4 47.5 47.6 47.7 47.8 47.9 47.10 47.11 47.12 47.13 47.14 47.15 47.16 47.17 47.18 47.19 47.20 47.21 47.22
47.23 47.24 47.25 47.26 47.27 47.28 47.29 47.30
47.31 47.32 47.33 48.1 48.2 48.3 48.4 48.5 48.6 48.7 48.8 48.9 48.10 48.11 48.12 48.13 48.14 48.15 48.16 48.17 48.18 48.19 48.20 48.21 48.22 48.23 48.24 48.25 48.26 48.27 48.28 48.29 48.30 48.31 48.32 48.33 48.34 49.1 49.2 49.3 49.4 49.5 49.6 49.7 49.8 49.9 49.10
49.11 49.12 49.13
49.14 49.15 49.16 49.17 49.18 49.19 49.20 49.21 49.22 49.23 49.24 49.25 49.26 49.27 49.28 49.29 49.30 49.31 49.32 50.1 50.2 50.3 50.4 50.5 50.6 50.7 50.8 50.9 50.10 50.11 50.12 50.13 50.14 50.15 50.16 50.17 50.18 50.19 50.20 50.21 50.22 50.23 50.24 50.25 50.26 50.27 50.28 50.29 50.30 50.31 50.32 50.33 51.1 51.2 51.3 51.4 51.5 51.6 51.7 51.8 51.9 51.10 51.11 51.12 51.13 51.14 51.15 51.16 51.17 51.18 51.19 51.20 51.21 51.22 51.23 51.24 51.25 51.26 51.27 51.28 51.29 51.30 51.31 51.32 51.33 51.34 51.35 52.1 52.2 52.3 52.4 52.5 52.6 52.7 52.8 52.9 52.10 52.11 52.12 52.13 52.14 52.15 52.16 52.17 52.18 52.19 52.20 52.21 52.22 52.23 52.24 52.25 52.26 52.27 52.28 52.29 52.30 53.1 53.2 53.3 53.4 53.5 53.6 53.7 53.8 53.9 53.10 53.11 53.12 53.13 53.14 53.15 53.16 53.17 53.18 53.19 53.20 53.21 53.22 53.23 53.24 53.25 53.26 53.27 53.28 53.29 53.30 53.31 53.32 53.33 53.34 54.1 54.2 54.3 54.4 54.5 54.6
54.7 54.8 54.9 54.10 54.11 54.12 54.13 54.14 54.15 54.16 54.17 54.18 54.19 54.20 54.21 54.22 54.23 54.24 54.25 54.26 54.27 54.28 54.29 54.30 54.31 54.32 54.33 55.1 55.2 55.3 55.4 55.5 55.6 55.7 55.8 55.9 55.10 55.11 55.12 55.13 55.14 55.15 55.16 55.17 55.18 55.19
55.20 55.21 55.22 55.23 55.24 55.25 55.26 55.27 55.28 55.29 55.30 55.31 55.32 55.33 56.1 56.2
56.3 56.4 56.5 56.6 56.7 56.8 56.9 56.10 56.11 56.12 56.13 56.14 56.15 56.16 56.17 56.18 56.19 56.20 56.21 56.22 56.23 56.24 56.25 56.26 56.27 56.28
56.29 56.30 56.31 56.32 57.1 57.2 57.3 57.4 57.5 57.6 57.7 57.8 57.9 57.10 57.11 57.12 57.13 57.14 57.15 57.16 57.17 57.18 57.19 57.20 57.21 57.22 57.23 57.24 57.25 57.26 57.27 57.28 57.29 57.30 57.31 57.32 58.1 58.2 58.3 58.4 58.5 58.6 58.7 58.8 58.9 58.10 58.11 58.12 58.13 58.14 58.15 58.16 58.17 58.18 58.19
58.20 58.21 58.22 58.23 58.24 58.25 58.26 58.27 58.28 58.29 58.30 58.31 58.32 58.33 59.1 59.2 59.3 59.4
59.5 59.6 59.7 59.8 59.9 59.10 59.11 59.12 59.13 59.14 59.15 59.16 59.17 59.18 59.19 59.20 59.21 59.22 59.23 59.24 59.25 59.26 59.27 59.28 59.29 59.30
59.31 59.32 59.33
60.1 60.2 60.3 60.4 60.5 60.6 60.7 60.8 60.9 60.10 60.11 60.12 60.13 60.14 60.15 60.16 60.17 60.18 60.19 60.20 60.21 60.22 60.23 60.24 60.25 60.26
60.27 60.28 60.29 60.30 60.31 60.32 61.1 61.2 61.3 61.4 61.5 61.6 61.7 61.8 61.9
61.10 61.11 61.12 61.13 61.14
61.15
61.16 61.17 61.18 61.19 61.20 61.21 61.22 61.23 61.24 61.25 61.26 61.27 61.28 61.29 61.30 61.31 62.1 62.2 62.3 62.4 62.5 62.6
62.7 62.8 62.9 62.10
62.11 62.12 62.13 62.14 62.15 62.16 62.17 62.18 62.19 62.20
62.21 62.22 62.23 62.24 62.25 62.26 62.27 62.28 62.29 63.1 63.2 63.3 63.4 63.5
63.6 63.7 63.8 63.9 63.10 63.11 63.12 63.13 63.14 63.15 63.16 63.17 63.18 63.19 63.20 63.21 63.22 63.23 63.24 63.25 63.26 63.27 63.28
64.1 64.2 64.3 64.4 64.5 64.6 64.7 64.8 64.9 64.10 64.11 64.12 64.13 64.14
64.15 64.16 64.17 64.18
64.19 64.20 64.21 64.22 64.23 64.24
64.25 64.26
64.27 64.28 64.29 64.30 65.1 65.2
65.3 65.4 65.5 65.6 65.7 65.8 65.9 65.10 65.11 65.12 65.13 65.14 65.15 65.16 65.17 65.18 65.19 65.20 65.21 65.22 65.23 65.24
65.25 65.26 65.27 65.28 65.29 65.30 66.1 66.2 66.3 66.4 66.5 66.6 66.7 66.8 66.9 66.10 66.11 66.12 66.13 66.14 66.15 66.16 66.17 66.18 66.19 66.20 66.21 66.22 66.23 66.24 66.25
66.26 66.27 66.28 66.29 66.30 66.31 66.32 67.1 67.2 67.3 67.4 67.5 67.6 67.7 67.8 67.9 67.10 67.11 67.12 67.13 67.14 67.15 67.16 67.17 67.18 67.19 67.20 67.21 67.22 67.23 67.24 67.25 67.26 67.27 67.28 67.29 67.30 67.31 67.32 68.1 68.2 68.3 68.4 68.5 68.6 68.7 68.8 68.9 68.10 68.11 68.12 68.13 68.14 68.15 68.16 68.17 68.18 68.19 68.20 68.21
68.22 68.23 68.24 68.25 68.26 68.27 68.28 68.29 68.30 69.1 69.2 69.3 69.4 69.5 69.6 69.7 69.8 69.9 69.10 69.11 69.12 69.13 69.14 69.15 69.16 69.17 69.18 69.19 69.20
69.21 69.22 69.23 69.24 69.25 69.26 69.27 69.28 69.29 69.30 69.31 69.32
70.1 70.2 70.3 70.4 70.5 70.6 70.7 70.8 70.9 70.10 70.11 70.12 70.13 70.14 70.15 70.16 70.17 70.18
70.19 70.20
70.21 70.22 70.23 70.24 70.25 70.26 70.27 70.28 70.29 70.30 70.31 71.1 71.2 71.3 71.4 71.5 71.6 71.7 71.8 71.9 71.10 71.11 71.12 71.13 71.14 71.15 71.16 71.17 71.18 71.19 71.20 71.21 71.22 71.23 71.24 71.25 71.26 71.27 71.28 72.1 72.2 72.3 72.4 72.5 72.6 72.7 72.8 72.9 72.10 72.11 72.12 72.13 72.14 72.15 72.16 72.17 72.18 72.19 72.20 72.21 72.22 72.23 72.24 72.25 72.26 72.27 72.28 73.1 73.2 73.3 73.4 73.5 73.6 73.7 73.8 73.9 73.10 73.11 73.12 73.13 73.14
73.15 73.16 73.17 73.18 73.19 73.20 73.21 73.22 73.23 73.24 73.25 73.26 73.27 73.28 73.29 73.30 73.31 74.1 74.2 74.3 74.4 74.5 74.6 74.7 74.8 74.9 74.10 74.11 74.12 74.13 74.14 74.15 74.16 74.17 74.18 74.19 74.20 74.21 74.22 74.23 74.24 74.25 74.26 74.27 74.28 74.29 74.30 74.31 75.1 75.2 75.3 75.4 75.5 75.6 75.7 75.8 75.9 75.10 75.11 75.12 75.13 75.14 75.15 75.16 75.17 75.18 75.19 75.20 75.21 75.22 75.23 75.24 75.25 75.26 75.27 75.28 75.29 76.1 76.2 76.3 76.4 76.5 76.6 76.7 76.8 76.9 76.10 76.11 76.12 76.13 76.14 76.15 76.16 76.17 76.18 76.19 76.20 76.21 76.22 76.23 76.24 76.25 76.26 76.27 76.28 76.29 77.1 77.2 77.3 77.4 77.5 77.6 77.7 77.8
77.9 77.10 77.11 77.12
77.13 77.14 77.15 77.16 77.17 77.18 77.19 77.20 77.21 77.22 77.23 77.24 77.25 77.26 77.27 77.28 77.29 77.30 78.1 78.2
78.3 78.4 78.5 78.6
78.7 78.8 78.9 78.10 78.11
78.12 78.13 78.14 78.15 78.16 78.17 78.18 78.19 78.20
78.21 78.22 78.23 78.24 78.25 78.26 78.27 78.28 78.29
79.1 79.2 79.3 79.4 79.5 79.6 79.7 79.8 79.9 79.10 79.11 79.12 79.13 79.14 79.15 79.16 79.17 79.18 79.19 79.20 79.21
79.22 79.23
79.24 79.25 79.26 79.27 79.28 79.29 79.30 79.31 79.32 80.1 80.2 80.3 80.4 80.5 80.6 80.7 80.8 80.9 80.10 80.11 80.12 80.13 80.14 80.15 80.16 80.17
80.18
80.19 80.20 80.21 80.22 80.23 80.24 80.25 80.26 80.27 80.28 80.29 81.1 81.2 81.3 81.4 81.5 81.6 81.7 81.8 81.9 81.10 81.11 81.12 81.13 81.14 81.15 81.16 81.17 81.18 81.19 81.20 81.21 81.22 81.23 81.24 81.25 81.26 81.27 81.28 81.29 81.30 82.1 82.2 82.3 82.4 82.5 82.6 82.7
82.8
82.9 82.10 82.11 82.12 82.13 82.14 82.15 82.16 82.17 82.18 82.19 82.20 82.21 82.22 82.23 82.24 82.25 82.26 82.27
82.28
83.1 83.2 83.3 83.4 83.5 83.6 83.7 83.8 83.9 83.10 83.11 83.12 83.13 83.14 83.15 83.16 83.17 83.18 83.19 83.20 83.21 83.22 83.23 83.24 83.25 83.26 83.27
83.28
84.1 84.2 84.3 84.4 84.5 84.6 84.7 84.8 84.9 84.10 84.11 84.12 84.13 84.14 84.15 84.16 84.17 84.18 84.19 84.20 84.21 84.22 84.23 84.24 84.25 84.26 84.27 84.28 84.29 84.30 84.31 85.1 85.2 85.3 85.4 85.5 85.6 85.7 85.8 85.9 85.10 85.11 85.12 85.13 85.14 85.15 85.16 85.17 85.18
85.19
85.20 85.21 85.22 85.23 85.24 85.25 85.26 85.27 85.28 85.29 85.30 85.31
85.32
86.1 86.2
86.3 86.4 86.5 86.6 86.7 86.8 86.9 86.10 86.11 86.12 86.13 86.14 86.15 86.16 86.17 86.18 86.19 86.20 86.21 86.22 86.23
86.24 86.25 86.26 86.27 86.28 86.29 86.30 86.31 86.32
87.1 87.2 87.3 87.4 87.5 87.6 87.7 87.8 87.9
87.10 87.11 87.12 87.13 87.14
87.15 87.16 87.17 87.18 87.19 87.20 87.21 87.22 87.23 87.24 87.25 87.26 87.27 87.28 87.29 87.30 87.31 88.1 88.2 88.3 88.4 88.5 88.6 88.7 88.8 88.9 88.10 88.11 88.12 88.13 88.14 88.15 88.16 88.17 88.18 88.19
88.20 88.21 88.22 88.23 88.24 88.25 88.26 88.27 88.28 88.29 88.30 88.31 88.32 88.33 88.34 89.1 89.2 89.3 89.4 89.5 89.6 89.7 89.8 89.9 89.10 89.11 89.12 89.13 89.14 89.15 89.16 89.17 89.18 89.19 89.20 89.21 89.22 89.23 89.24
89.25 89.26 89.27 89.28 89.29 89.30 89.31 89.32 89.33 89.34 90.1 90.2
90.3 90.4 90.5 90.6 90.7 90.8 90.9 90.10 90.11 90.12 90.13 90.14 90.15 90.16 90.17 90.18 90.19 90.20 90.21 90.22 90.23 90.24 90.25 90.26 90.27 90.28 90.29 90.30 90.31 90.32 91.1 91.2 91.3 91.4 91.5 91.6 91.7 91.8 91.9 91.10 91.11
91.12 91.13 91.14 91.15 91.16 91.17 91.18
91.19 91.20
91.21 91.22 91.23 91.24 91.25 91.26 91.27 91.28 91.29 91.30 91.31 91.32 91.33 92.1 92.2 92.3 92.4 92.5 92.6 92.7 92.8 92.9 92.10 92.11 92.12 92.13 92.14 92.15 92.16 92.17 92.18 92.19 92.20 92.21 92.22 92.23
92.24 92.25 92.26 92.27 92.28 92.29 92.30 92.31 93.1 93.2 93.3 93.4 93.5 93.6 93.7 93.8 93.9 93.10 93.11 93.12 93.13 93.14 93.15 93.16 93.17 93.18 93.19 93.20 93.21 93.22 93.23 93.24 93.25 93.26 93.27 93.28 93.29 93.30 94.1 94.2 94.3 94.4 94.5
94.6
94.7 94.8 94.9 94.10 94.11 94.12 94.13 94.14 94.15
94.16
94.17 94.18 94.19 94.20 94.21 94.22 94.23 94.24 94.25 94.26 94.27 94.28 94.29 94.30 95.1 95.2 95.3 95.4 95.5 95.6 95.7 95.8 95.9 95.10 95.11 95.12 95.13 95.14 95.15 95.16 95.17 95.18 95.19 95.20 95.21 95.22 95.23 95.24 95.25 95.26 95.27 95.28 95.29 95.30 95.31 95.32 95.33 95.34 96.1 96.2 96.3 96.4 96.5 96.6 96.7 96.8 96.9 96.10 96.11 96.12 96.13 96.14 96.15 96.16 96.17 96.18 96.19 96.20 96.21 96.22 96.23 96.24 96.25 96.26 96.27 96.28 96.29 96.30 96.31 96.32 96.33 96.34 96.35 97.1 97.2 97.3 97.4 97.5 97.6 97.7 97.8 97.9 97.10 97.11 97.12 97.13 97.14 97.15 97.16 97.17 97.18 97.19 97.20 97.21 97.22 97.23 97.24 97.25 97.26 97.27 97.28 97.29 97.30 97.31 97.32 97.33 97.34 98.1 98.2 98.3 98.4 98.5 98.6 98.7 98.8 98.9 98.10 98.11 98.12 98.13 98.14 98.15 98.16 98.17 98.18 98.19 98.20 98.21 98.22 98.23 98.24 98.25 98.26 98.27 98.28 98.29 98.30 98.31 98.32 98.33 98.34 99.1 99.2 99.3 99.4 99.5 99.6 99.7 99.8 99.9 99.10 99.11 99.12 99.13 99.14 99.15 99.16 99.17 99.18 99.19 99.20 99.21 99.22 99.23 99.24 99.25 99.26 99.27 99.28 99.29 99.30 99.31 99.32 99.33 99.34 99.35 100.1 100.2 100.3 100.4 100.5 100.6 100.7 100.8 100.9 100.10 100.11 100.12 100.13 100.14 100.15 100.16 100.17 100.18 100.19 100.20 100.21 100.22 100.23 100.24 100.25 100.26 100.27 100.28 100.29 100.30 100.31 100.32 100.33 100.34 101.1 101.2 101.3 101.4 101.5 101.6 101.7 101.8 101.9 101.10 101.11 101.12 101.13 101.14 101.15 101.16 101.17 101.18 101.19 101.20 101.21 101.22 101.23 101.24 101.25 101.26 101.27 101.28 101.29 101.30 101.31 101.32 101.33 101.34 101.35 102.1 102.2 102.3 102.4 102.5 102.6 102.7 102.8 102.9 102.10 102.11 102.12 102.13 102.14 102.15 102.16 102.17 102.18 102.19 102.20 102.21 102.22 102.23 102.24 102.25 102.26 102.27 102.28 102.29 102.30 102.31 102.32 103.1 103.2 103.3 103.4 103.5 103.6 103.7 103.8 103.9 103.10 103.11 103.12 103.13 103.14 103.15 103.16 103.17 103.18 103.19 103.20 103.21 103.22 103.23
103.24 103.25 103.26 103.27 103.28 103.29 103.30 103.31 104.1 104.2 104.3 104.4 104.5 104.6 104.7 104.8 104.9 104.10 104.11 104.12 104.13 104.14 104.15 104.16 104.17 104.18 104.19 104.20 104.21 104.22 104.23 104.24 104.25 104.26 104.27 104.28 104.29 104.30 104.31 104.32 104.33 104.34 105.1 105.2 105.3 105.4 105.5 105.6 105.7 105.8 105.9 105.10 105.11 105.12 105.13 105.14 105.15 105.16 105.17 105.18 105.19 105.20 105.21
105.22 105.23 105.24 105.25 105.26 105.27 105.28 105.29 105.30 105.31 106.1 106.2
106.3 106.4 106.5 106.6 106.7 106.8 106.9 106.10 106.11 106.12 106.13 106.14 106.15 106.16 106.17 106.18 106.19 106.20 106.21 106.22 106.23 106.24 106.25 106.26 106.27 106.28 106.29 106.30 106.31 107.1 107.2 107.3 107.4 107.5 107.6 107.7 107.8 107.9 107.10 107.11 107.12 107.13 107.14 107.15 107.16 107.17 107.18 107.19 107.20 107.21 107.22 107.23 107.24 107.25 107.26 107.27 107.28 107.29 107.30 107.31 107.32 107.33 108.1 108.2 108.3 108.4 108.5 108.6 108.7 108.8 108.9 108.10 108.11 108.12 108.13 108.14 108.15 108.16 108.17 108.18 108.19 108.20 108.21 108.22 108.23 108.24 108.25 108.26 108.27 108.28 108.29 108.30 108.31 108.32 109.1 109.2 109.3 109.4 109.5 109.6 109.7 109.8 109.9 109.10 109.11 109.12 109.13 109.14 109.15 109.16 109.17 109.18 109.19 109.20 109.21
109.22 109.23 109.24 109.25 109.26 109.27 109.28 109.29 109.30 109.31 109.32 109.33 110.1 110.2 110.3 110.4 110.5 110.6 110.7 110.8 110.9 110.10 110.11 110.12 110.13 110.14 110.15 110.16 110.17 110.18 110.19 110.20 110.21 110.22 110.23 110.24 110.25 110.26 110.27 110.28 110.29 110.30 110.31 110.32 110.33 110.34 111.1 111.2 111.3 111.4 111.5 111.6 111.7 111.8 111.9 111.10 111.11 111.12 111.13 111.14 111.15 111.16 111.17 111.18 111.19 111.20 111.21 111.22 111.23 111.24 111.25 111.26 111.27 111.28 111.29 111.30 111.31 111.32 111.33 111.34 112.1 112.2 112.3 112.4 112.5 112.6 112.7 112.8 112.9 112.10 112.11 112.12 112.13 112.14 112.15 112.16 112.17 112.18 112.19 112.20 112.21 112.22 112.23 112.24 112.25 112.26 112.27 112.28 112.29 112.30 112.31 112.32 112.33 112.34 113.1 113.2 113.3 113.4 113.5 113.6 113.7 113.8 113.9 113.10 113.11 113.12
113.13 113.14 113.15 113.16 113.17 113.18 113.19 113.20 113.21 113.22 113.23 113.24 113.25 113.26 113.27 113.28 113.29 113.30 113.31
113.32 113.33
114.1 114.2 114.3 114.4 114.5 114.6 114.7 114.8 114.9 114.10 114.11 114.12 114.13 114.14 114.15 114.16 114.17 114.18 114.19 114.20 114.21 114.22 114.23 114.24 114.25 114.26 114.27 114.28
114.29 114.30 114.31 114.32 115.1 115.2
115.3 115.4
115.5 115.6 115.7 115.8 115.9 115.10 115.11 115.12 115.13 115.14 115.15 115.16 115.17 115.18 115.19 115.20 115.21 115.22 115.23 115.24 115.25 115.26 115.27 115.28 115.29 115.30 115.31 115.32 115.33 116.1 116.2 116.3 116.4 116.5
116.6 116.7 116.8 116.9 116.10 116.11 116.12 116.13 116.14 116.15 116.16 116.17 116.18 116.19
116.20 116.21 116.22 116.23 116.24 116.25 116.26 116.27 116.28 116.29 116.30 116.31 117.1 117.2 117.3 117.4
117.5 117.6 117.7 117.8 117.9 117.10 117.11 117.12 117.13 117.14 117.15 117.16 117.17 117.18 117.19 117.20 117.21 117.22 117.23 117.24 117.25 117.26 117.27 117.28 117.29 117.30 117.31 117.32 117.33 118.1 118.2 118.3
118.4 118.5 118.6 118.7 118.8 118.9 118.10 118.11 118.12 118.13 118.14 118.15 118.16 118.17 118.18 118.19 118.20 118.21 118.22 118.23 118.24 118.25 118.26 118.27 118.28 118.29 118.30 118.31 118.32
119.1 119.2 119.3 119.4 119.5 119.6 119.7 119.8 119.9 119.10 119.11 119.12 119.13 119.14 119.15 119.16 119.17 119.18 119.19 119.20 119.21 119.22 119.23 119.24 119.25 119.26 119.27 119.28 119.29 119.30 119.31 119.32 119.33 120.1 120.2 120.3 120.4 120.5 120.6 120.7 120.8 120.9 120.10 120.11 120.12 120.13 120.14
120.15 120.16 120.17 120.18 120.19 120.20 120.21 120.22 120.23 120.24 120.25 120.26 120.27
120.28 120.29 120.30 120.31 120.32 121.1 121.2 121.3 121.4 121.5 121.6 121.7 121.8 121.9 121.10 121.11 121.12 121.13 121.14 121.15 121.16 121.17 121.18 121.19 121.20 121.21 121.22 121.23
121.24 121.25 121.26 121.27 121.28 121.29 121.30 121.31 121.32 122.1 122.2 122.3 122.4 122.5 122.6 122.7 122.8 122.9 122.10 122.11 122.12 122.13 122.14 122.15 122.16 122.17 122.18 122.19 122.20 122.21 122.22 122.23 122.24
122.25 122.26 122.27 122.28 122.29 122.30 123.1 123.2 123.3 123.4 123.5 123.6 123.7 123.8
123.9 123.10 123.11 123.12 123.13 123.14 123.15 123.16 123.17 123.18 123.19 123.20 123.21 123.22 123.23 123.24 123.25 123.26 123.27 123.28 123.29 123.30 123.31 123.32 123.33 124.1 124.2 124.3 124.4 124.5 124.6 124.7 124.8 124.9 124.10 124.11 124.12 124.13 124.14 124.15 124.16 124.17 124.18 124.19 124.20 124.21 124.22 124.23 124.24
124.25 124.26 124.27 124.28 124.29 124.30 124.31 124.32 125.1 125.2 125.3 125.4 125.5 125.6 125.7 125.8 125.9 125.10 125.11 125.12 125.13 125.14 125.15 125.16 125.17 125.18 125.19 125.20 125.21 125.22 125.23 125.24 125.25 125.26 125.27 125.28 125.29 125.30 125.31 125.32
126.1 126.2 126.3 126.4 126.5 126.6 126.7 126.8 126.9 126.10 126.11 126.12 126.13 126.14 126.15 126.16 126.17 126.18 126.19 126.20 126.21 126.22 126.23 126.24 126.25 126.26 126.27 126.28 126.29
127.1 127.2 127.3 127.4 127.5 127.6 127.7 127.8 127.9 127.10 127.11 127.12 127.13 127.14 127.15 127.16 127.17 127.18 127.19 127.20 127.21 127.22 127.23 127.24 127.25 127.26 127.27 127.28 127.29 127.30 127.31 127.32 127.33 128.1 128.2 128.3 128.4 128.5 128.6 128.7 128.8 128.9 128.10 128.11 128.12 128.13 128.14 128.15 128.16 128.17
128.18 128.19 128.20 128.21 128.22 128.23 128.24 128.25 128.26 128.27 128.28 128.29 128.30 128.31 128.32 128.33 128.34 129.1 129.2 129.3 129.4 129.5 129.6 129.7 129.8 129.9 129.10 129.11 129.12 129.13 129.14 129.15 129.16 129.17 129.18 129.19 129.20 129.21
129.22 129.23 129.24 129.25 129.26 129.27 129.28 129.29 129.30 129.31 129.32 129.33 130.1 130.2 130.3 130.4 130.5 130.6 130.7 130.8 130.9 130.10 130.11 130.12
130.13 130.14 130.15 130.16 130.17
130.18 130.19 130.20 130.21 130.22 130.23 130.24 130.25 130.26 130.27 130.28 130.29 130.30 130.31 130.32 131.1 131.2 131.3 131.4 131.5 131.6 131.7
131.8 131.9 131.10 131.11 131.12 131.13 131.14 131.15 131.16 131.17 131.18 131.19 131.20 131.21
131.22 131.23 131.24 131.25 131.26 131.27 131.28 131.29 131.30 131.31 131.32 131.33 132.1 132.2
132.3 132.4
132.5 132.6 132.7
132.8 132.9 132.10 132.11 132.12 132.13 132.14 132.15 132.16 132.17 132.18 132.19 132.20 132.21 132.22 132.23 132.24 132.25 132.26 132.27 132.28 132.29 133.1 133.2 133.3 133.4 133.5 133.6 133.7 133.8 133.9 133.10 133.11 133.12 133.13 133.14 133.15 133.16 133.17 133.18 133.19 133.20 133.21 133.22 133.23 133.24 133.25 133.26 133.27 133.28 133.29 133.30 133.31 133.32 134.1 134.2 134.3 134.4 134.5 134.6 134.7
134.8 134.9 134.10 134.11 134.12
134.13 134.14 134.15 134.16 134.17 134.18 134.19 134.20 134.21 134.22 134.23 134.24 134.25 134.26 134.27 134.28 134.29 134.30 134.31 135.1 135.2 135.3 135.4 135.5 135.6 135.7 135.8
135.9 135.10 135.11 135.12 135.13 135.14 135.15 135.16
135.17 135.18 135.19 135.20
135.21 135.22 135.23 135.24 135.25 135.26 135.27 135.28 136.1 136.2 136.3 136.4 136.5 136.6 136.7 136.8 136.9 136.10 136.11 136.12 136.13 136.14
136.15 136.16 136.17
136.18 136.19 136.20 136.21
136.22 136.23 136.24 136.25 136.26 136.27
137.1 137.2 137.3 137.4 137.5
137.6 137.7 137.8
137.9 137.10 137.11 137.12
137.13 137.14 137.15 137.16
137.17 137.18 137.19 137.20 137.21 137.22 137.23 137.24 137.25 137.26 137.27 137.28 137.29 137.30 138.1 138.2 138.3 138.4 138.5 138.6 138.7 138.8 138.9 138.10 138.11 138.12 138.13 138.14 138.15 138.16 138.17 138.18 138.19 138.20 138.21 138.22 138.23 138.24 138.25 138.26 138.27 138.28 138.29 138.30 138.31 138.32 138.33 139.1 139.2 139.3 139.4 139.5 139.6 139.7 139.8 139.9 139.10 139.11 139.12 139.13 139.14 139.15 139.16 139.17 139.18 139.19 139.20 139.21 139.22 139.23 139.24 139.25 139.26 139.27 139.28 139.29 139.30 139.31 139.32 139.33 140.1 140.2 140.3 140.4 140.5
140.6 140.7 140.8
140.9 140.10 140.11
140.12 140.13 140.14
140.15 140.16
140.17 140.18 140.19 140.20 140.21 140.22 140.23 140.24 140.25 140.26 140.27 140.28 141.1 141.2 141.3 141.4 141.5 141.6 141.7 141.8 141.9 141.10 141.11 141.12 141.13 141.14 141.15 141.16 141.17 141.18 141.19 141.20 141.21 141.22 141.23 141.24 141.25 141.26 141.27 141.28 141.29 141.30 141.31 141.32 141.33 141.34 141.35 141.36 142.1 142.2 142.3 142.4 142.5 142.6 142.7 142.8 142.9 142.10 142.11
142.12
142.13 142.14 142.15 142.16 142.17 142.18 142.19 142.20 142.21 142.22 142.23 142.24 142.25 142.26 142.27 142.28 142.29 142.30 142.31 143.1 143.2 143.3 143.4 143.5 143.6 143.7 143.8 143.9 143.10 143.11 143.12 143.13 143.14 143.15 143.16 143.17 143.18 143.19 143.20 143.21 143.22 143.23 143.24 143.25 143.26
143.27 143.28
144.1 144.2 144.3 144.4 144.5 144.6 144.7 144.8 144.9 144.10 144.11 144.12 144.13 144.14 144.15 144.16 144.17 144.18
144.19
144.20 144.21 144.22 144.23 144.24 144.25 144.26 144.27 144.28 144.29 144.30 144.31 144.32 144.33 145.1 145.2 145.3 145.4 145.5 145.6 145.7 145.8 145.9 145.10 145.11 145.12 145.13 145.14 145.15 145.16 145.17 145.18 145.19 145.20 145.21 145.22 145.23 145.24 145.25 145.26 145.27 145.28 145.29 145.30 145.31 145.32 146.1 146.2
146.3
146.4 146.5 146.6 146.7 146.8 146.9 146.10 146.11 146.12 146.13 146.14 146.15 146.16 146.17 146.18 146.19 146.20 146.21 146.22 146.23 146.24 146.25 146.26 146.27 146.28 146.29 146.30 146.31 146.32 146.33
147.1
147.2 147.3 147.4 147.5 147.6 147.7 147.8 147.9 147.10 147.11 147.12 147.13 147.14 147.15 147.16 147.17 147.18 147.19 147.20 147.21 147.22 147.23 147.24 147.25 147.26 147.27 147.28 147.29 147.30 147.31 147.32 147.33 148.1 148.2 148.3 148.4 148.5 148.6 148.7 148.8 148.9 148.10 148.11 148.12 148.13 148.14 148.15 148.16 148.17 148.18 148.19 148.20 148.21 148.22 148.23 148.24 148.25 148.26 148.27
148.28
148.29 148.30 148.31 148.32 149.1 149.2 149.3 149.4 149.5 149.6 149.7 149.8 149.9 149.10 149.11 149.12 149.13 149.14
149.15 149.16
149.17 149.18 149.19 149.20 149.21 149.22 149.23 149.24 149.25 149.26 149.27
149.28 149.29
150.1 150.2 150.3 150.4 150.5 150.6 150.7 150.8 150.9 150.10
150.11 150.12
150.13 150.14 150.15 150.16 150.17 150.18 150.19 150.20 150.21 150.22 150.23 150.24 150.25 150.26 150.27 150.28 150.29 150.30 150.31 150.32 150.33 150.34 151.1 151.2 151.3 151.4 151.5 151.6 151.7 151.8 151.9 151.10 151.11 151.12
151.13
151.14 151.15 151.16 151.17 151.18 151.19 151.20 151.21 151.22 151.23
151.24
151.25 151.26 151.27 151.28 151.29 151.30 151.31 151.32 152.1 152.2 152.3 152.4 152.5 152.6 152.7 152.8 152.9 152.10 152.11 152.12 152.13 152.14 152.15 152.16 152.17 152.18 152.19 152.20 152.21 152.22 152.23 152.24 152.25 152.26 152.27 152.28 152.29 152.30 152.31 153.1 153.2 153.3 153.4 153.5 153.6 153.7 153.8 153.9 153.10 153.11 153.12 153.13 153.14 153.15 153.16 153.17 153.18 153.19 153.20
153.21 153.22
153.23 153.24 153.25 153.26 153.27 153.28 153.29
153.30 153.31
154.1 154.2 154.3 154.4 154.5 154.6 154.7 154.8 154.9 154.10 154.11 154.12 154.13 154.14 154.15 154.16 154.17 154.18 154.19 154.20 154.21 154.22 154.23 154.24 154.25 154.26 154.27 154.28 154.29 154.30 154.31 154.32 154.33 154.34 155.1 155.2 155.3 155.4 155.5 155.6 155.7 155.8 155.9 155.10 155.11 155.12 155.13 155.14 155.15 155.16 155.17 155.18 155.19 155.20 155.21 155.22 155.23 155.24 155.25 155.26 155.27 155.28 155.29 156.1 156.2 156.3 156.4 156.5 156.6 156.7 156.8 156.9 156.10 156.11 156.12 156.13 156.14 156.15 156.16 156.17 156.18 156.19 156.20 156.21 156.22 156.24 156.23 156.26 156.25 156.27 156.28 156.29 156.30 156.31 156.32 156.33 157.1 157.2 157.3 157.4 157.5 157.6 157.7 157.8 157.9 157.10 157.11 157.12 157.13 157.14 157.15 157.16 157.17 157.18 157.19 157.20 157.21 157.22 157.23 157.24 157.25 157.26 157.27 157.28 157.29 157.30 157.31 157.32 158.1 158.2 158.3 158.4 158.5 158.6 158.7 158.8 158.9
158.10 158.11
158.12 158.13 158.14 158.15 158.16 158.17 158.18 158.19 158.20 158.21 158.22 158.23 158.24 158.25 158.26 158.27 158.28 158.29 158.30 158.31 159.1 159.2 159.3 159.4 159.5 159.6 159.7 159.8 159.9 159.10 159.11 159.12 159.13 159.14 159.15 159.16 159.17 159.18 159.19 159.20 159.21 159.22 159.23 159.24 159.25 159.26 159.27 159.28 159.29 159.30 160.1 160.2 160.3 160.4 160.5 160.6 160.7 160.8 160.9 160.10 160.11 160.12 160.13 160.14 160.15 160.16 160.17 160.18 160.19 160.20 160.21 160.22 160.23 160.24 160.25 160.26 160.27 160.28 160.29 160.30 160.31 161.1 161.2 161.3 161.4 161.5 161.6 161.7 161.8 161.9
161.10 161.11
161.12 161.13 161.14 161.15 161.16 161.17 161.18 161.19 161.20 161.21 161.22 161.23 161.24 161.25 161.26 161.27 161.28 161.29 161.30 161.31 161.32 162.1 162.2 162.3 162.4 162.5 162.6 162.7 162.8 162.9 162.10 162.11 162.12 162.13 162.14 162.15 162.16 162.17 162.18 162.19 162.20 162.21 162.22 162.23 162.24 162.25 162.26 162.27 162.28 162.29 162.30 162.31 162.32 162.33 163.1 163.2 163.3 163.4 163.5 163.6 163.7 163.8 163.9 163.10 163.11 163.12 163.13 163.14 163.15 163.16 163.17 163.18 163.19 163.20 163.21 163.22 163.23 163.24 163.25 163.26 163.27 163.28
163.29 163.30
163.31 163.32
164.1
164.2 164.3
164.4 164.5 164.6 164.7 164.8 164.9 164.10 164.11
164.12 164.13 164.14 164.15 164.16 164.17 164.18 164.19 164.20 164.21 164.22 164.23 164.24 164.25 164.26 164.27 164.28 164.29 164.30 164.31 164.32 164.33 165.1 165.2 165.3 165.4 165.5 165.6 165.7 165.8 165.9 165.10 165.11 165.12 165.13 165.14 165.15 165.16 165.17
165.18 165.19 165.20 165.21 165.22 165.23 165.24 165.25 165.26
165.27 165.28 165.29 165.30 165.31 165.32 166.1 166.2 166.3 166.4 166.5 166.6 166.7 166.8 166.9 166.10 166.11 166.12 166.13 166.14 166.15 166.16 166.17 166.18 166.19 166.20 166.21 166.22 166.23 166.24 166.25 166.26 166.27 166.28 166.29 166.30 166.31
166.32 166.33 166.34 167.1 167.2 167.3 167.4 167.5
167.6 167.7 167.8 167.9 167.10 167.11 167.12 167.13 167.14 167.15 167.16 167.17 167.18 167.19 167.20 167.21 167.22 167.23 167.24 167.25 167.26 167.27 167.28 167.29 167.30 167.31 167.32 168.1 168.2 168.3 168.4 168.5 168.6 168.7 168.8 168.9 168.10 168.11 168.12 168.13 168.14
168.15 168.16 168.17 168.18 168.19 168.20 168.21 168.22 168.23 168.24 168.25 168.26 168.27 168.28 168.29 168.30 168.31 168.32 168.33 168.34 169.1 169.2 169.3 169.4 169.5 169.6 169.7 169.8
169.9 169.10 169.11 169.12

A bill for an act
 relating to state government; providing law for judiciary, public safety, law
enforcement, corrections, crime, criminal justice, real property, trusts, guardianship,
civil law, contracts for deed, and service of restraining and protection orders;
requiring reports; providing criminal and civil penalties; amending Minnesota
Statutes 2022, sections 5B.02; 5B.03, subdivision 3; 5B.04; 5B.05; 13.02,
subdivision 3a; 13.045, subdivision 3; 13.84, subdivision 6; 13D.05, subdivision
3; 13D.06, subdivision 3; 117.042; 152.025, subdivision 4; 169A.03, by adding a
subdivision; 169A.51, subdivision 3; 171.177, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 5, 8, 12;
171.182, subdivisions 2, 3; 241.021, subdivisions 1h, 4b; 241.75, subdivision 2;
243.05, subdivision 1b; 243.166, subdivisions 1a, 3, 6, by adding a subdivision;
243.167, subdivision 1; 243.52, subdivision 2; 244.052, subdivision 3; 253B.02,
subdivision 4d; 253B.18, subdivision 5a; 253D.14, subdivision 1; 260B.007,
subdivisions 6, 16; 260B.198, subdivision 7; 260C.007, subdivision 6; 272.12;
480.15, subdivision 10c; 491A.01, subdivision 3a; 501C.0202; 501C.0204,
subdivision 1; 507.071; 507.235, subdivisions 1a, 5; 513.73, subdivision 3;
518B.01, subdivisions 2, 3a, 3b, 4, 5, 6a, 7, 8, 8a, 9, 9a, 11, by adding a subdivision;
524.5-315; 524.5-317; 548.251, subdivision 2; 559.21, subdivisions 2a, 4, by
adding subdivisions; 559.211, subdivision 1; 559.213; 563.01; 590.01, subdivision
4; 590.03; 593.50, subdivision 1; 604A.05, subdivision 1; 609.1056, by adding a
subdivision; 609.14, subdivisions 2, 3, by adding a subdivision; 609.324,
subdivision 1; 609.748, subdivisions 3a, 5, 5b, by adding a subdivision; 611A.06,
subdivision 3a, by adding a subdivision; 611A.212, subdivision 1; 611A.73,
subdivision 4; 626.5534; 626.8435, subdivision 1; 626.8457, subdivision 3; 629.72,
subdivisions 1, 7; 629.725; 629.73, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision;
Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, sections 146A.08, subdivision 1; 152.023,
subdivision 2; 152.025, subdivision 2; 169A.51, subdivision 4; 214.10, subdivision
10; 241.021, subdivision 1; 243.166, subdivision 1b; 244.05, subdivision 5; 244.17,
subdivision 3; 244.21, subdivision 2; 325E.21, subdivisions 1b, 11; 401.01,
subdivision 2; 515B.2-103; 515B.3-102; 524.5-313; 609.1095, subdivision 1;
609.133, subdivision 4; 609.135, subdivision 2; 609.14, subdivision 1; 609.35;
609A.015, subdivision 3, as amended; 609A.02, subdivision 3; 611.41, subdivision
7; 611.55, subdivision 1; 611.56, subdivisions 1, 6; 611.57, subdivisions 1, 4;
611A.039, subdivision 1; 611A.52, subdivision 5; 629.292, subdivision 2; 638.12,
subdivision 2; 638.15, subdivision 1; Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24,
subdivisions 3, 4, 7; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters
500; 507; 554; 609; 626; 627; 634; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota
Statutes, chapter 559A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 554.01; 554.02;
554.03; 554.04; 554.045; 554.05; 554.06; 559.201; 559.202.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

ARTICLE 1

LAW ENFORCEMENT PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 214.10, subdivision 10, is amended
to read:


Subd. 10.

Board of Peace Officers Standards and Training; receipt of
complaint.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1 to the contrary, when the
executive director or any member of the Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training
produces or receives a written statement or complaint that alleges a violation of a statute or
rule that the board is empowered to enforce, the executive director deleted text begin shall designate the
appropriate law enforcement agency to investigate the complaint anddeleted text end may order deleted text begin itdeleted text end new text begin an
appropriate law enforcement agencynew text end to conduct an inquiry into the complaint's allegations.
new text begin If directed to complete an investigation, new text end the investigating agency must complete the inquiry
and submit a written summary of it to the executive director within 30 days of the order for
inquiry.

Sec. 2.

new text begin [626.223] ODOR OF CANNABIS; SEARCH PROHIBITED.
 new text end

new text begin A peace officer's perception of the odor of cannabis shall not serve as the sole basis to
search a motor vehicle, or to search the driver, passengers, or any of the contents of a motor
vehicle.
 new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 626.5534, is amended to read:


626.5534 USE OF FORCE REPORTINGnew text begin ; INDEPENDENT INVESTIGATIONS
REQUIREDnew text end .

Subdivision 1.

Report required.

A chief law enforcement officer must provide the
information requested by the Federal Bureau of Investigation about each incident of law
enforcement use of force resulting in serious bodily injury or death, as those terms are
defined in the Federal Bureau of Investigation's reporting requirements, to the superintendent
of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The superintendent shall adopt a reporting form
for use by law enforcement agencies in making the report required under this section. The
report must include for each incident all of the information requested by the Federal Bureau
of Investigation.

Subd. 2.

Use of information collected.

A chief law enforcement officer must file the
report under subdivision 1 once a month in the form required by the superintendent. The
superintendent must summarize and analyze the information received and submit an annual
written report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives
and senate committees with jurisdiction over public safety. The superintendent shall submit
the information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Independent investigations required. new text end

new text begin (a) When an incident of law enforcement
use of force results in death, an investigation of the incident must be undertaken by the
Bureau of Criminal Apprehension's Independent Use of Force Investigations Unit established
under section 299C.80. If a peace officer employed by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension
uses force in the incident the procedure outlined in section 299C.80 must be followed.
 new text end

new text begin (b) A law enforcement agency must fully cooperate with and promptly respond to requests
for information from the entity conducting an investigation mandated under paragraph (a).
 new text end

new text begin (c) An entity that conducts an investigation under this subdivision must prepare a report
detailing the entity's investigation and promptly deliver the report to the prosecutor for the
county in which the incident occurred. Within six months of receiving a report under this
paragraph, a prosecuting authority must release their findings to the public if a law
enforcement officer involved in the incident is not charged with a crime. If a prosecuting
authority determines that there is no basis to file charges against a peace officer involved
in the incident prior to six months elapsing from the date of receiving the report, the
prosecutor must publicly disclose the prosecutor's determination and simultaneously release
the report to the public.
 new text end

new text begin (d) The attorney general may petition a court for a writ of mandamus to compel an
agency to comply with the requirements of this subdivision.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 626.8435, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Establishment and membership.

The deleted text begin Ensuring Police Excellence and
Improving Community Relationsdeleted text end new text begin Public Safetynew text end Advisory Council is established under the
Peace Officer Standards and Training Board. The council consists of the following 15
members:

(1) the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, or a designee;

(2) the executive director of the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, or a
designee;

(3) the executive director of the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association, or a
designee;

(4) the executive director of the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association, or a designee;

(5) the executive director of the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association, or a designee;

(6) six community members, of which:

(i) four members shall represent the community-specific boards established under sections
15.0145 and 3.922, reflecting one appointment made by each board;

(ii) one member shall be a mental health advocate and shall be appointed by the Minnesota
chapter of the National Alliance on Mental Illness; and

(iii) one member shall be an advocate for victims and shall be appointed by Violence
Free Minnesota; and

(7) four members appointed by the legislature, of which one shall be appointed by the
speaker of the house, one by the house minority leader, one by the senate majority leader,
and one by the senate minority leader.

The appointing authorities shall make their appointments by September 15, 2020, and
shall ensure geographical balance when making appointments.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 626.8457, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Report on alleged misconduct; database; report.

(a) A chief law enforcement
officer shall report annually to the board summary data regarding the investigation and
disposition of cases involving alleged misconduct, indicating the total number of
investigations, the total number by each subject matter, the number dismissed as unfounded,
and the number dismissed on grounds that the allegation was unsubstantiated.

(b) Beginning July 1, 2021, a chief law enforcement officer, in real time, must submit
individual peace officer data classified as public data on individuals, as defined by section
13.02, subdivision 15, or private data on individuals, as defined by section 13.02, subdivision
12, and submitted using encrypted data that the board determines is necessary to:

(1) evaluate the effectiveness of statutorily required training;

(2) assist the deleted text begin Ensuring Police Excellence and Improving Community Relationsdeleted text end new text begin Public
Safetynew text end Advisory Council in accomplishing the council's duties; and

(3) allow for the board, the deleted text begin Ensuring Police Excellence and Improving Community
Relationsdeleted text end new text begin Public Safetynew text end Advisory Council, and the board's complaint investigation committee
to identify patterns of behavior that suggest an officer is in crisis or is likely to violate a
board-mandated model policy.

(c) The reporting obligation in paragraph (b) is ongoing. A chief law enforcement officer
must update data within 30 days of final disposition of a complaint or investigation.

(d) Law enforcement agencies and political subdivisions are prohibited from entering
into a confidentiality agreement that would prevent disclosure of the data identified in
paragraph (b) to the board. Any such confidentiality agreement is void as to the requirements
of this section.

(e) By February 1 of each year, the board shall prepare a report that contains summary
data provided under paragraph (b). The board must post the report on its publicly accessible
website and provide a copy to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and
house of representatives committees and divisions having jurisdiction over criminal justice
policy.

Sec. 6. new text begin ANOKA COUNTY; JAIL AND CRIMINAL JUSTICE CENTER.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Jail and criminal justice center. new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes,
section 373.05, Anoka County may build a jail and criminal justice center in any city located
within the county to replace the current jail located in the city of Anoka.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Sheriff's office. new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 382.04, the sheriff
of Anoka County may keep office in the jail and criminal justice center authorized under
subdivision 1 instead of in the county seat.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

ARTICLE 2

CORRECTIONS PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 13.84, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Public benefit data.

(a) The responsible authority or its designee of a parole
or probation authority or correctional agency may release private or confidential court
services data related to:

(1) criminal acts to any law enforcement agency, if necessary for law enforcement
purposes; and

(2) criminal acts or delinquent acts to the victims of criminal or delinquent acts to the
extent that the data are necessary for the victim to assert the victim's legal right to restitution.

(b) A parole or probation authority, a correctional agency, or agencies that provide
correctional services under contract to a correctional agency may release to a law enforcement
agency the following data on defendants, parolees, or probationers: current address, dates
of entrance to and departure from agency programs, and dates and times of any absences,
both authorized and unauthorized, from a correctional program.

(c) The responsible authority or its designee of a juvenile correctional agency may release
private or confidential court services data to a victim of a delinquent act to the extent the
data are necessary to enable the victim to assert the victim's right to request notice of release
under section 611A.06. The data that may be released include only the name, home address,
and placement site of a juvenile who has been placed in a juvenile correctional facility as
a result of a delinquent act.

(d) deleted text begin Upon the victim's written or electronic request and, if the victim and offender have
been household or family members as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph
(b),deleted text end The commissioner of corrections or the commissioner's designee may disclose to the
victim of an offender deleted text begin convicted of a qualified domestic violence-related offense as defined
in section 609.02, subdivision 16,deleted text end notification of the city and five-digit zip code of the
offender's residency upon or after release from a Department of Corrections facility, unlessdeleted text begin :
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) the offender is not under correctional supervision at the time of the victim's request;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) the commissioner or the commissioner's designee does not have the city or zip code;
or
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (3)deleted text end the commissioner or the commissioner's designee reasonably believes that disclosure
of the city or zip code of the offender's residency creates a risk to the victim, offender, or
public safety.

deleted text begin (e) Paragraph (d) applies only where the offender is serving a prison term for a qualified
domestic violence-related offense committed against the victim seeking notification.
 deleted text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Correctional facilities; inspection; licensing.

(a) Except as provided
in paragraph (b), the commissioner of corrections shall inspect and license all correctional
facilities throughout the state, whether public or private, established and operated for the
detention and confinement of persons confined or incarcerated therein according to law
except to the extent that they are inspected or licensed by other state regulating agencies.
The commissioner shall promulgate pursuant to chapter 14, rules establishing minimum
standards for these facilities with respect to their management, operation, physical condition,
and the security, safety, health, treatment, and discipline of persons confined or incarcerated
therein. These minimum standards shall include but are not limited to specific guidance
pertaining to:

(1) screening, appraisal, assessment, and treatment for persons confined or incarcerated
in correctional facilities with mental illness or substance use disorders;

(2) a policy on the involuntary administration of medications;

(3) suicide prevention plans and training;

(4) verification of medications in a timely manner;

(5) well-being checks;

(6) discharge planning, including providing prescribed medications to persons confined
or incarcerated in correctional facilities upon release;

(7) a policy on referrals or transfers to medical or mental health care in a noncorrectional
institution;

(8) use of segregation and mental health checks;

(9) critical incident debriefings;

(10) clinical management of substance use disorders and opioid overdose emergency
procedures;

(11) a policy regarding identification of persons with special needs confined or
incarcerated in correctional facilities;

(12) a policy regarding the use of telehealth;

(13) self-auditing of compliance with minimum standards;

(14) information sharing with medical personnel and when medical assessment must be
facilitated;

(15) a code of conduct policy for facility staff and annual training;

(16) a policy on death review of all circumstances surrounding the death of an individual
committed to the custody of the facility; and

(17) dissemination of a rights statement made available to persons confined or
incarcerated in licensed correctional facilities.

No individual, corporation, partnership, voluntary association, or other private
organization legally responsible for the operation of a correctional facility may operate the
facility unless it possesses a current license from the commissioner of corrections. Private
adult correctional facilities shall have the authority of section 624.714, subdivision 13, if
the Department of Corrections licenses the facility with the authority and the facility meets
requirements of section 243.52.

The commissioner shall review the correctional facilities described in this subdivision
at least once every two years, except as otherwise provided, to determine compliance with
the minimum standards established according to this subdivision or other Minnesota statute
related to minimum standards and conditions of confinement.

The commissioner shall grant a license to any facility found to conform to minimum
standards or to any facility which, in the commissioner's judgment, is making satisfactory
progress toward substantial conformity and the standards not being met do not impact the
interests and well-being of the persons confined or incarcerated in the facility. A limited
license under subdivision 1a may be issued for purposes of effectuating a facility closure.
The commissioner may grant licensure up to two years. Unless otherwise specified by
statute, all licenses issued under this chapter expire at 12:01 a.m. on the day after the
expiration date stated on the license.

The commissioner shall have access to the buildings, grounds, books, records, staff, and
to persons confined or incarcerated in these facilities. The commissioner may require the
officers in charge of these facilities to furnish all information and statistics the commissioner
deems necessary, at a time and place designated by the commissioner.new text begin Notwithstanding
chapter 13 or any other state law classifying or restricting access to data, the officers in
charge of these facilities must furnish all data available to the facility that the commissioner
deems necessary to conduct a review of any emergency or unusual occurrence at the facility.
Failure to provide or grant access to relevant information or statistics necessary to fulfill
inspection or emergency or unusual occurrence reviews, as requested by the commissioner,
may be grounds for the commissioner to take action against a correctional facility's license
under subdivision 1a, 1b, or 1c.
new text end

All facility administrators of correctional facilities are required to report all deaths of
individuals who died while committed to the custody of the facility, regardless of whether
the death occurred at the facility or after removal from the facility for medical care stemming
from an incident or need for medical care at the correctional facility, as soon as practicable,
but no later than 24 hours of receiving knowledge of the death, including any demographic
information as required by the commissioner.

All facility administrators of correctional facilities are required to report all other
emergency or unusual occurrences as defined by rule, including uses of force by facility
staff that result in substantial bodily harm or suicide attempts, to the commissioner of
corrections within ten days from the occurrence, including any demographic information
as required by the commissioner. The commissioner of corrections shall consult with the
Minnesota Sheriffs' Association and a representative from the Minnesota Association of
Community Corrections Act Counties who is responsible for the operations of an adult
correctional facility to define "use of force" that results in substantial bodily harm for
reporting purposes.

The commissioner may require that any or all such information be provided through the
Department of Corrections detention information system. The commissioner shall post each
inspection report publicly and on the department's website within 30 days of completing
the inspection. The education program offered in a correctional facility for the confinement
or incarceration of juvenile offenders must be approved by the commissioner of education
before the commissioner of corrections may grant a license to the facility.

(b) For juvenile facilities licensed by the commissioner of human services, the
commissioner may inspect and certify programs based on certification standards set forth
in Minnesota Rules. For the purpose of this paragraph, "certification" has the meaning given
it in section 245A.02.

(c) Any state agency which regulates, inspects, or licenses certain aspects of correctional
facilities shall, insofar as is possible, ensure that the minimum standards it requires are
substantially the same as those required by other state agencies which regulate, inspect, or
license the same aspects of similar types of correctional facilities, although at different
correctional facilities.

(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the commissioner of corrections'
authority to promulgate rules establishing standards of eligibility for counties to receive
funds under chapter 401, or to require counties to comply with operating standards the
commissioner establishes as a condition precedent for counties to receive that funding.

(e) The department's inspection unit must report directly to a division head outside of
the correctional institutions division.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 241.021, subdivision 1h, is amended to read:


Subd. 1h.

State correctional facilities security audit group.

(a) Beginning in fiscal
year 2022, the commissioner shall form a state correctional facilities security audit group.
The group must consist of the following members:

(1) a Department new text begin of Corrections new text end employee who is not assigned to the correctional
institutions division, appointed by the commissioner;

(2) the ombudsperson for correctionsnew text begin or a designeenew text end ;

(3) an elected sheriff or designee nominated by the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association and
appointed by the commissioner;

deleted text begin (4) a physical plant safety consultant, appointed by the governor;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (5) a private security consultant with expertise in correctional facility security, appointed
by the governor;
 deleted text end

new text begin (4) an individual with expertise in security related to infrastructure and operational
logistics of correctional facilities who is not required to reside in Minnesota, appointed by
the governor;
 new text end

new text begin (5) the commissioner of health or a designee;
 new text end

new text begin (6) the commissioner of administration or a designee;
 new text end

deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end two senators, one appointed by the senate majority leader and one appointed by
the minority leader; and

deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new text begin (8)new text end two representatives, one appointed by the speaker of the house and one appointed
by the minority leader of the house of representatives.

(b) deleted text begin By January 1, 2022,deleted text end new text begin The ombudsperson or a designee shall chair the group.new text end The
group shall establish security audit standards for state correctional facilities. In developing
the standards, the group, or individual members of the group, may gather information from
state correctional facilities and state correctional staff and inmates. The security audit group
must periodically review the standards and modify them as needed. The group must report
the standards to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives
and senate committees with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance deleted text begin by February
15, 2022deleted text end new text begin whenever the standards are updatednew text end .

(c) The group shall new text begin meet twice a year to new text end review facility audit reports submitted to the
group by the agency's inspection unit. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the group
is entitled to review the full audit reports including nonpublic security information and
corrections and detention confidential data. Within 60 days of deleted text begin receiving andeleted text end new text begin meeting to reviewnew text end
audit deleted text begin reportdeleted text end new text begin reportsnew text end from the department's inspection unit, the group must make
recommendations to the commissioner. Within 45 days of receiving the group's
recommendations, the commissioner must reply in writing to the group's findings and
recommendations. The commissioner's response must explain whether the agency will
implement the group's recommendations, the timeline for implementation of the changes,
and, if not, why the commissioner will not or cannot implement the group's recommendations.

(d) Beginning in 2023, the commissioner must include a written aggregate of the group's
recommendations based on each security audit and assessment of a state correctional facility
and the commissioner's responses to the recommendations in the biennial report required
under section 241.016, subdivision 1. The commissioner shall not include corrections and
detention confidential data, as defined in section 13.85, subdivision 3, and nonpublic security
information, as defined in section 13.37, subdivision 1, in the commissioner's report to the
legislature.

(e) The commissioner shall provide staffing and administrative support to the group.

new text begin (f) The state correctional facilities security audit group is not subject to chapter 13D.
 new text end

new text begin (g) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the terms, compensation, and removal
of members of the group are governed by section 15.059. Members of the group serve
without compensation but shall receive expense reimbursement. Notwithstanding section
15.059, subdivision 6, the group does not expire.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 241.021, subdivision 4b, is amended to read:


Subd. 4b.

Health care peer review committee.

The commissioner of corrections shall
establish a health care peer review committee. Sections 145.61 to 145.67 apply to the
committee. The committee shall gather, review, and evaluate information relating to the
on-site and off-site quality of care and treatment of offenders. The committee shall consist
of:

deleted text begin (1) the director of health services;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end the department medical director;

deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end the regional medical director of the contracted health care vendor;

deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end the department director of nursingnew text begin or a designeenew text end ;

deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end a physician from the contracting hospital provider; deleted text begin and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end another physician who provides health care to offenders on site at a correctional
facilitydeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ;
new text end

new text begin (6) one or more licensed physicians or nurse practitioners from the community, in person
or by telephone, with expertise in the most appropriate clinical area;
 new text end

new text begin (7) the director of psychiatry of the contracted vendor;
 new text end

new text begin (8) the pharmacist liaison of the contracted vendor's pharmacy vendor;
 new text end

new text begin (9) the clinical pharmacist of the contracted vendor;
 new text end

new text begin (10) in cases of suicide or unanticipated death, a representative from the Office of Special
Investigations; and
 new text end

new text begin (11) other ad hoc members as indicated at the discretion of the Department of Corrections
medical director or chief medical officer.
 new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 241.75, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Health care decisions.

The medical director of the Department of Correctionsnew text begin ,
or the medical director's designee, who must be a physician licensed under chapter 147,new text end
may make a health care decision for an inmate incarcerated in a state correctional facility
or placed in an outside facility on conditional medical release if the inmate's attending
physician determines that the inmate lacks decision-making capacity and:

(1) there is not a documented health care agent designated by the inmate or the health
care agent is not reasonably available to make the health care decision;

(2) if there is a documented health care directive, the decision is consistent with that
directive;

(3) the decision is consistent with reasonable medical practice and other applicable law;
and

(4) the medical director has made a good faith attempt to consult with the inmate's next
of kin or emergency contact person in making the decision, to the extent those persons are
reasonably available.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.52, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Use of force.

(a) Use of force must not be applied maliciously or sadistically
for the purpose of causing harm to a confined or incarcerated person.

(b) Unless the use of deadly force is justified in this section, a correctional officer working
in an adult correctional facility either under the control of the commissioner of corrections
or licensed by the commissioner under section 241.021 may not use any of the following
restraints:

(1) a choke hold;

(2) a prone restraint;

(3) tying all of a person's limbs together behind the person's back to render the person
immobile; or

(4) securing a person in any way that results in transporting the person face down in a
vehicle, except as directed by a medical professional.

(c) For the purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given
them:

(1) "choke hold" means a method by which a person applies sufficient pressure to a
person to make breathing difficult or impossible, and includes but is not limited to any
pressure to the neck, throat, or windpipe that may prevent or hinder breathing or reduce
intake of air. Choke hold also means applying pressure to a person's neck on either side of
the windpipe, but not to the windpipe itself, to stop the flow of blood to the brain via the
carotid arteries;

(2) "prone restraint" means the use of manual restraint that places a person in a face-down
position; and

(3) "deadly force" has the meaning given in section 609.066, subdivision 1.

(d) Use of deadly force is justified only if an objectively reasonable correctional officer
would believe, based on the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the time
and without the benefit of hindsight, that deadly force is necessary:

(1) to protect the correctional officer or another from death or great bodily harm, provided
that the threat:

(i) can be articulated with specificity deleted text begin by the correctional officerdeleted text end ;

(ii) is reasonably likely to occur absent action by the correctional officer; and

(iii) must be addressed through the use of deadly force without unreasonable delay; or

(2) to effect the capture or prevent the escape of a person when the officer reasonably
believes that the person will cause death or great bodily harm to another person under the
threat criteria in clause (1), unless immediately apprehended.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 244.05, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:


Subd. 5.

Supervised release, life and indeterminate sentences.

(a) The board may,
under rules adopted by the commissioner, grant supervised release or parole as follows:

(1) to an inmate serving a mandatory life sentence after the inmate has served the
minimum term of imprisonment specified in subdivision 4 or section 243.05, subdivision
1, paragraph (a);

(2) at any time for an inmate serving a nonlife indeterminate sentence for a crime
committed on or before April 30, 1980; or

(3) to an inmate eligible for early supervised release under subdivision 4a after the inmate
has served the minimum term of imprisonment.

(b) For cases deleted text begin involvingdeleted text end new text begin where an inmate is servingnew text end multiple sentencesdeleted text begin , the board must
grant or deny supervised release as follows:
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) if an inmate is serving multiple sentencesdeleted text end that are concurrent to one another, the
board must grant or deny supervised release on all unexpired sentencesdeleted text begin ; anddeleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (2)deleted text end Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, if an inmate who was under the age
of 18 at the time of the commission of the relevant offenses and has served the minimum
term of imprisonment specified in subdivision 4b is serving multiple sentences that are
consecutive to one another, the board deleted text begin maydeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end grant or deny supervised release on deleted text begin one or
moredeleted text end new text begin all unexpirednew text end sentences.

(c) No less than three years before an inmate has served the applicable minimum term
of imprisonment, the board must assess the inmate's status and make programming
recommendations relevant to the inmate's release review. The commissioner must ensure
that any board programming recommendations are followed and implemented.

(d) The board must conduct a supervised release review hearing as soon as practicable
before an inmate has served the applicable minimum term of imprisonment.

(e) The board shall require the preparation of a community investigation report. The
report shall:

(1) reflect the sentiment of the various elements of the community toward the inmate,
both at the time of the offense and at the present time;

(2) include the views of the sentencing judge, the prosecutor, any law enforcement
personnel who may have been involved in the case, and any successors to these individuals
who may have information relevant to the supervised release decision; and

(3) include the views of the victim and the victim's family unless the victim or the victim's
family chooses not to participate.

(f) The board shall require the preparation of a development report when making a
supervised release decision regarding an inmate who was under 18 years of age at the time
of the commission of the offense. The report must be prepared by a mental health professional
qualified to provide services to a client under section 245I.04, subdivision 2, clause (1) to
(4) or (6), and must address the inmate's cognitive, emotional, and social maturity. The
board may use a previous report that was prepared within 12 months immediately preceding
the hearing.

(g) The board shall make reasonable efforts to notify the victim, in advance, of the time
and place of the inmate's release review hearing. The victim has a right to submit an oral
or written statement at the review hearing. new text begin Notwithstanding chapter 13D, the board may
meet in closed session to receive and review a victim's statement, at the request of the victim.
new text end The statement may summarize the harm suffered by the victim as a result of the crime and
give the victim's recommendation on whether the inmate should be given supervised release
at this time.

(h) The board shall permit a prosecutor from the office that prosecuted the case to submit
a written statement in advance of the review hearing.

(i) When considering whether to grant supervised release or parole to an inmate serving
a life sentence or indeterminate sentence, the board shall consider, at a minimum, the
following:

(1) the report prepared pursuant to paragraph (e);

(2) the report prepared pursuant to paragraph (f), if applicable;

(3) a victim statement under paragraph (g), if submitted;

(4) the statement of a prosecutor under paragraph (h), if submitted;

(5) the risk the inmate poses to the community if released;

(6) the inmate's progress in treatment, if applicable;

(7) the inmate's behavior while incarcerated;

(8) psychological or other diagnostic evaluations of the inmate;

(9) information on the inmate's rehabilitation while incarcerated;

(10) the inmate's criminal history;

(11) if the inmate was under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of the offense,
relevant science on the neurological development of juveniles and information on the inmate's
maturity and development while incarcerated; and

(12) any other relevant conduct of the inmate while incarcerated or before incarceration.

(j) The board may not grant supervised release or parole to an inmate unless:

(1) while in prison:

(i) the inmate has successfully completed appropriate sex offender treatment, if applicable;

(ii) the inmate has been assessed for substance use disorder needs and, if appropriate,
has successfully completed substance use disorder treatment; and

(iii) the inmate has been assessed for mental health needs and, if appropriate, has
successfully completed mental health treatment; and

(2) a comprehensive individual release plan is in place for the inmate that:

(i) ensures that, after release, the inmate will have suitable housing and receive appropriate
aftercare and community-based treatment; and

(ii) includes a postprison employment or education plan for the inmate.

(k) Supervised release or parole must be granted with a majority vote of the quorum
required under section 244.049, subdivision 3. If there is a tie vote, supervised release or
parole is granted only if the commissioner votes in favor of granting supervised release or
parole.

(l) Within 30 days after a supervised release review hearing, the board must issue a
decision on granting release, including an explanation for the decision. If an inmate is serving
multiple sentences that are concurrent to one another, the board must grant or deny supervised
release on all sentences.

(m) If the board does not grant supervised release, new text begin the board shall conduct a subsequent
supervised release hearing within three years of the initial hearing. If release is denied at
the subsequent hearing, the board shall continue to hold hearings at least once every three
years. If the board denies an inmate's release under this paragraph, new text end the explanation of that
decision must identify specific steps that the inmate can take to increase the likelihood that
release will be granted at a future hearing.

(n) When granting supervised release under this subdivision, the board must set prerelease
conditions to be followed by the inmate, if time permits, before their actual release or before
constructive parole becomes effective. If the inmate violates any of the prerelease conditions,
the commissioner may rescind the grant of supervised release without a hearing at any time
before the inmate's release or before constructive parole becomes effective. A grant of
constructive parole becomes effective once the inmate begins serving the consecutive
sentence.

(o) If the commissioner rescinds a grant of supervised release or parole, the board:

(1) must set a release review date that occurs within 90 days of the commissioner's
rescission; and

(2) by majority vote, may set a new supervised release date or set another review date.

(p) If the commissioner revokes supervised release or parole for an inmate serving a life
sentence, the revocation is not subject to the limitations under section 244.30 and the board:

(1) must set a release review date that occurs within one year of the commissioner's final
revocation decision; and

(2) by majority vote, may set a new supervised release date or set another review date.

(q) The board may, by a majority vote, grant a person on supervised release or parole
for a life or indeterminate sentence a final discharge from their sentence in accordance with
section 243.05, subdivision 3. In no case, however, may a person subject to a mandatory
lifetime conditional release term under section 609.3455, subdivision 7, be discharged from
that term.

(r) For purposes of this subdivision:

(1) "board" means the deleted text begin Indeterminate Sentencedeleted text end new text begin Supervisednew text end Release Board under section
244.049;

(2) "constructive parole" means the status of an inmate who has been paroled from an
indeterminate sentence to begin serving a consecutive sentence in prison; and

(3) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b).

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin The amendments to paragraph (g) of this section are effective
August 1, 2024. The remainder of this section is effective July 1, 2024, and applies to
inmates released on or after that date and retroactively to inmates eligible for early supervised
release under Minnesota Statutes, section 244.05, subdivision 4a, who had supervised release
review hearings conducted between July 1, 2023, and June 30, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 244.17, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:


Subd. 3.

Offenders not eligible.

deleted text begin (a)deleted text end The following offenders are not eligible to be placed
in the challenge incarceration program:

(1) offenders who are committed to the commissioner's custody following a conviction
for murder, manslaughter, criminal sexual conduct, assault, kidnapping, robbery, carjacking,
arson, or any other offense involving death or intentional personal injury;

(2) offenders who were convicted within the preceding ten years of an offense described
in clause (1) and were committed to the custody of the commissioner;

(3) offenders who have been convicted or adjudicated delinquent within the past five
years for a violation of section 609.485;

(4) offenders who are committed to the commissioner's custody for an offense that
requires registration under section 243.166;

(5) offenders who are the subject of a current arrest warrant or detainer;

(6) offenders who have fewer than 180 days remaining until their supervised release
date;

(7) offenders who have had disciplinary confinement time added to their sentence or
who have been placed in segregation, unless 90 days have elapsed from the imposition of
the additional disciplinary confinement time or the last day of segregation;

(8) offenders who have received a suspended formal disciplinary sanction, unless the
suspension has expired;new text begin and
new text end

(9) offenders whose governing sentence is for an offense from another state or the United
Statesdeleted text begin ; anddeleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (10) offenders who have a medical condition included on the list of ineligible conditions
described in paragraph (b).
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (b) The commissioner of corrections shall develop a list of medical conditions that will
disqualify an offender from participating in the challenge incarceration program. The
commissioner shall submit the list and any changes to it to the chairs and ranking minority
members of the senate and house committees having jurisdiction over criminal justice policy
and funding.
 deleted text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 244.21, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Commissioner of corrections; report.

By deleted text begin January 15deleted text end new text begin May 1new text end each year, the
commissioner must report to the chairs of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over
public safety policy and finance on deleted text begin recommended methods of coordinating the exchange
ofdeleted text end information collected on individuals on probation under subdivision 1deleted text begin :deleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (1) between probation service providers; and
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) between probation service providers and the Department of Corrections.
 deleted text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 401.01, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Definitions.

(a) For purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this subdivision
have the meanings given them.

(b) "CCA jurisdiction" means a county or Tribal Nation that participates in the
Community Corrections Act, the subsidy program under this chapter.

(c) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of corrections or a designee.

(d) "Conditional release" means:

(1) parole, supervised release, or conditional release as authorized by section 609.3455,
subdivision 6, 7, or 8; Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.108, subdivision 6; or Minnesota
Statutes 2004, section 609.109, subdivision 7;

(2) work release as authorized by sections 241.26, 244.065, and 631.425; and

(3) probation, furlough, and any other authorized temporary release from a correctional
facility.

(e) "Detain" means to take into actual custody, including custody within a local
correctional facility.

(f) "Joint board" means the board under section 471.59.

new text begin (g) "Local advisory board" means:
 new text end

new text begin (1) for a CCA jurisdiction, a corrections advisory board as defined in section 401.08;
 new text end

new text begin (2) for a non-CCA jurisdiction other than a Tribal Nation, a human services advisory
board as defined in section 402.02, or advisory committee or task force as defined in section
402.03; or
 new text end

new text begin (3) for a Tribal Nation that is a non-CCA jurisdiction, a board with membership as
determined by the Tribal Nation.
 new text end

deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end "Non-CCA jurisdiction" means a county or Tribal Nation that is not participating
in the Community Corrections Act subsidy program and provides or receives probation
services according to section 244.19.

deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end "Probation officer" means a county or Tribal probation officer under a CCA or
non-CCA jurisdiction appointed with the powers under section 244.19.

deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end "Release" means to release from actual custody.

deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end "Tribal Nation" means a federally recognized Tribal Nation within the boundaries
of the state of Minnesota.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609.133, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:


Subd. 4.

Petition; contents; fee.

(a) A prosecutor's petition for sentence adjustment
shall be filed in the district court where the individual was convicted and include the
following:

(1) the full name of the individual on whose behalf the petition is being brought and, to
the extent possible, all other legal names or aliases by which the individual has been known
at any time;

(2) the individual's date of birth;

(3) the individual's address;

(4) a brief statement of the reason the prosecutor is seeking a sentence adjustment for
the individual;

(5) the details of the offense for which an adjustment is sought, including:

(i) the date and jurisdiction of the occurrence;

(ii) either the names of any victims or that there were no identifiable victims;

(iii) whether there is a current order for protection, restraining order, or other no contact
order prohibiting the individual from contacting the victims or whether there has ever been
a prior order for protection or restraining order prohibiting the individual from contacting
the victims;

(iv) the court file number; and

(v) the date of conviction;

(6) what steps the individual has taken since the time of the offense toward personal
rehabilitation, including treatment, work, good conduct within correctional facilities, or
other personal history that demonstrates rehabilitation;

(7) the individual's criminal conviction record indicating all convictions for
misdemeanors, gross misdemeanors, or felonies in this state, and for all comparable
convictions in any other state, federal court, or foreign country, whether the convictions
occurred before or after the conviction for which an adjustment is sought;

(8) the individual's criminal charges record indicating all prior and pending criminal
charges against the individual in this state or another jurisdiction, including all criminal
charges that have been continued for dismissal, stayed for adjudication, or were the subject
of pretrial diversion; and

(9) to the extent known, all prior requests by the individual, whether for the present
offense or for any other offenses in this state or any other state or federal court, for pardon,
return of arrest records, or expungement or sealing of a criminal record, whether granted
or not, and all stays of adjudication or imposition of sentence involving the petitioner.

(b) The filing fee for a petition brought under this section shall be waived.

new text begin (c) Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other statute related to the classification of
government data, a supervising agent or the commissioner of corrections may provide private
or confidential data to a prosecutor for purposes of a petition for sentence adjustment.
 new text end

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 611A.06, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Offender location.

deleted text begin (a) Upon the victim's written or electronic request and if
the victim and offender have been household or family members as defined in section
518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (b),deleted text end The commissioner of corrections or the
commissioner's designee deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin maynew text end disclose to the victim of an offender deleted text begin convicted of a
qualified domestic violence-related offense as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 16,deleted text end
notification of the city and five-digit zip code of the offender's residency upon release from
a Department of Corrections facility, unlessdeleted text begin :
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1) the offender is not under correctional supervision at the time of the victim's request;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (2) the commissioner or the commissioner's designee does not have the city or zip code;
or
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (3)deleted text end the commissioner or the commissioner's designee reasonably believes that disclosure
of the city or zip code of the offender's residency creates a risk to the victim, offender, or
public safety.

deleted text begin (b) All identifying information regarding the victim including, but not limited to, the
notification provided by the commissioner or the commissioner's designee is classified as
private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, and is accessible
only to the victim.
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (c) This subdivision applies only where the offender is serving a prison term for a
qualified domestic violence-related offense committed against the victim seeking notification.
 deleted text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 629.292, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Procedure on receipt of request.

The request shall be delivered to the
commissioner of corrections or other official designated by the commissioner having custody
of the prisoner, who shall forthwith:

(1) certify the term of commitment under which the prisoner is being held, the time
already served on the sentence, the time remaining to be served, the good time earned, the
time of parole eligibility of the prisoner, and any decisions of the commissioner of corrections
relating to the prisoner;new text begin and
new text end

(2) send by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, one copy of the request
and certificate to the court and one copy to the prosecuting attorney to whom it is addresseddeleted text begin ;
anddeleted text end new text begin , or
new text end

deleted text begin (3)deleted text end send by e-filing and e-serving the paperwork, one copy of the request to the court
and one copy to the prosecuting attorney to whom it is addressed.

Sec. 14. new text begin RIGHT TO SUPERVISED RELEASE HEARING BEFORE SUPERVISED
RELEASE BOARD.
new text end

new text begin An inmate who had a supervised release hearing conducted by the commissioner of
corrections during the period between May 19, 2023, and June 30, 2024, has the right to a
new hearing before the Supervised Release Board. The board must attempt to accommodate
any request for a hearing by an inmate under this section in a timely manner.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

ARTICLE 3

CRIMINAL PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 146A.08, subdivision 1, is
amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Prohibited conduct.

(a) The commissioner may impose disciplinary
action as described in section 146A.09 against any unlicensed complementary and alternative
health care practitioner. The following conduct is prohibited and is grounds for disciplinary
action:

(b) Conviction of a crime, including a finding or verdict of guilt, an admission of guilt,
or a no-contest plea, in any court in Minnesota or any other jurisdiction in the United States,
reasonably related to engaging in complementary and alternative health care practices.
Conviction, as used in this subdivision, includes a conviction of an offense which, if
committed in this state, would be deemed a felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor,
without regard to its designation elsewhere, or a criminal proceeding where a finding or
verdict of guilty is made or returned but the adjudication of guilt is either withheld or not
entered.

(c) Conviction of any crime against a person. For purposes of this chapter, a crime against
a person means violations of the following: sections 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20;
609.205; 609.2112; 609.2113; 609.2114; 609.215; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.224;
609.2242; 609.23; 609.231; 609.2325; 609.233; 609.2335; 609.235; 609.24; 609.245;
609.247; 609.25; 609.255; 609.26, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2); 609.265; 609.342;
609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.365; 609.498, subdivision 1new text begin or 1bnew text end ; 609.50, subdivision 1,
clause (1); 609.561; 609.562; 609.595; and 609.72, subdivision 3; and Minnesota Statutes
2012, section 609.21.

(d) Failure to comply with the self-reporting requirements of section 146A.03, subdivision
7.

(e) Engaging in sexual contact with a complementary and alternative health care client,
engaging in contact that may be reasonably interpreted by a client as sexual, engaging in
any verbal behavior that is seductive or sexually demeaning to the client, or engaging in
sexual exploitation of a client or former client.

(f) Advertising that is false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading.

(g) Conduct likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public or demonstrating a willful or
careless disregard for the health, welfare, or safety of a complementary and alternative
health care client; or any other practice that may create danger to any client's life, health,
or safety, in any of which cases, proof of actual injury need not be established.

(h) Adjudication as mentally incompetent or as a person who is dangerous to self or
adjudication pursuant to chapter 253B as chemically dependent, mentally ill, developmentally
disabled, mentally ill and dangerous to the public, or as a sexual psychopathic personality
or sexually dangerous person.

(i) Inability to engage in complementary and alternative health care practices with
reasonable safety to complementary and alternative health care clients.

(j) The habitual overindulgence in the use of or the dependence on intoxicating liquors.

(k) Improper or unauthorized personal or other use of any legend drugs as defined in
chapter 151, any chemicals as defined in chapter 151, or any controlled substance as defined
in chapter 152.

(l) Revealing a communication from, or relating to, a complementary and alternative
health care client except when otherwise required or permitted by law.

(m) Failure to comply with a complementary and alternative health care client's request
made under sections 144.291 to 144.298 or to furnish a complementary and alternative
health care client record or report required by law.

(n) Splitting fees or promising to pay a portion of a fee to any other professional other
than for services rendered by the other professional to the complementary and alternative
health care client.

(o) Engaging in abusive or fraudulent billing practices, including violations of the federal
Medicare and Medicaid laws or state medical assistance laws.

(p) Failure to make reports as required by section 146A.03 or cooperate with an
investigation of the office.

(q) Obtaining money, property, or services from a complementary and alternative health
care client, other than reasonable fees for services provided to the client, through the use
of undue influence, harassment, duress, deception, or fraud.

(r) Failure to provide a complementary and alternative health care client with a copy of
the client bill of rights or violation of any provision of the client bill of rights.

(s) Violating any order issued by the commissioner.

(t) Failure to comply with any provision of sections 146A.01 to 146A.11 and the rules
adopted under those sections.

(u) Failure to comply with any additional disciplinary grounds established by the
commissioner by rule.

(v) Revocation, suspension, restriction, limitation, or other disciplinary action against
any health care license, certificate, registration, or right to practice of the unlicensed
complementary and alternative health care practitioner in this or another state or jurisdiction
for offenses that would be subject to disciplinary action in this state or failure to report to
the office that charges regarding the practitioner's license, certificate, registration, or right
of practice have been brought in this or another state or jurisdiction.

(w) Use of the title "doctor," "Dr.," or "physician" alone or in combination with any
other words, letters, or insignia to describe the complementary and alternative health care
practices the practitioner provides.

(x) Failure to provide a complementary and alternative health care client with a
recommendation that the client see a health care provider who is licensed or registered by
a health-related licensing board or the commissioner of health, if there is a reasonable
likelihood that the client needs to be seen by a licensed or registered health care provider.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to violations
that occur on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 152.023, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Possession crimes.

(a) A person is guilty of controlled substance crime in the
third degree if:

(1) on one or more occasions within a 90-day period the person unlawfully possesses
one or more mixtures of a total weight of ten grams or more containing a narcotic drug other
than heroin or fentanyl;

(2) on one or more occasions within a 90-day period the person unlawfully possesses
one or more mixtures of: (i) a total weight of three grams or more containing heroin; or (ii)
a total weight of five grams or more, or 25 dosage units or more, containing fentanyl;

(3) on one or more occasions within a 90-day period the person unlawfully possesses
one or more mixtures containing a narcotic drug other than heroin or fentanyl, it is packaged
in dosage units, and equals 50 or more dosage units;

(4) on one or more occasions within a 90-day period the person unlawfully possesses
deleted text begin anydeleted text end new text begin more than a residualnew text end amount of a schedule I or II narcotic drug or five or more dosage
units of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine, or
3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine in a school zone, a park zone, a public housing zone,
or a drug treatment facility;

(5) on one or more occasions within a 90-day period the person unlawfully possesses:

(i) more than ten kilograms of cannabis flower;

(ii) more than two kilograms of cannabis concentrate; or

(iii) edible cannabis products, lower-potency hemp edibles, hemp-derived consumer
products, or any combination of those infused with more than 200 grams of
tetrahydrocannabinol; or

(6) the person unlawfully possesses one or more mixtures new text begin of more than a residual amount
new text end containing methamphetamine or amphetamine in a school zone, a park zone, a public housing
zone, or a drug treatment facility.

(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, the weight of fluid used in a water pipe may
not be considered in measuring the weight of a mixture except in cases where the mixture
contains four or more fluid ounces of fluid.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from August 1, 2023.
 new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 152.025, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Possession and other crimes.

A person is guilty of controlled substance crime
in the fifth degree and upon conviction may be sentenced as provided in subdivision 4 if:

(1) the person unlawfully possesses one or more mixtures containing a controlled
substance classified in Schedule I, II, III, or IV, except cannabis flower, cannabis products,
lower-potency hemp edibles, or hemp-derived consumer products or a residual amount of
one or more mixtures of controlled substances deleted text begin contained in drug paraphernaliadeleted text end ; or

(2) the person procures, attempts to procure, possesses, or has control over a controlled
substance by any of the following means:

(i) fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or subterfuge;

(ii) using a false name or giving false credit; or

(iii) falsely assuming the title of, or falsely representing any person to be, a manufacturer,
wholesaler, pharmacist, physician, doctor of osteopathic medicine licensed to practice
medicine, dentist, podiatrist, veterinarian, or other authorized person for the purpose of
obtaining a controlled substance.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from August 1, 2023.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 152.025, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Penalty.

(a) A person convicted under the provisions of subdivision 2, clause
(1), who has not been previously convicted of a violation of this chapter or a similar offense
in another jurisdiction, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor if: (1) the amount of the controlled
substance possessed, other than heroin, is less than 0.25 grams or one dosage unit or less if
the controlled substance was possessed in dosage units; or (2) the controlled substance
possessed is heroin and the amount possessed is less than 0.05 grams.

(b) A person convicted under the provisions of subdivision 1; subdivision 2, clause (1),
unless the conduct is described in paragraph (a); or subdivision 2, clause (2), may be
sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more
than $10,000, or both.

new text begin (c) If a peace officer encounters a person who is suspected of violating this section, the
peace officer may refer the person to a local service provider that can offer substance use
assistance to the person. Upon request at the time of initial contact, a peace officer must, if
practicable and available, provide a person suspected of violating this section with a referral
to local service providers. For purposes of this paragraph, "local service provider" includes
but is not limited to substance use disorder treatment and recovery providers, peer support
groups and systems, homeless shelters, detoxification centers, hospital systems, mental
health crisis centers, naloxone providers, syringe service providers, and harm reduction
programs.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from August 1, 2023.
 new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.167, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definition.

As used in this section, "crime against the person" means a
violation of any of the following or a similar law of another state or of the United States:
section 609.165; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223;
609.2231; 609.224, subdivision 2 or 4; 609.2242, subdivision 2 or 4; 609.2247; 609.235;
609.245, subdivision 1; 609.25; 609.255; 609.3451, subdivision 2; 609.498, subdivision 1new text begin
or 1bnew text end ; 609.582, subdivision 1; or 617.23, subdivision 2; or any felony-level violation of
section 609.229; 609.377; 609.749; or 624.713.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.1056, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 3a. new text end

new text begin Reporting. new text end

new text begin (a) If the court imposes a deferred sentence under subdivision 2,
the court shall prepare a deferred sentence report containing the following information:
 new text end

new text begin (1) the name of the defendant;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the case number;
 new text end

new text begin (3) the underlying charge or charges;
 new text end

new text begin (4) the fact that proceedings have been deferred pursuant to this section;
 new text end

new text begin (5) the length of the term of probation ordered by the court;
 new text end

new text begin (6) the conditions of probation; and
 new text end

new text begin (7) a copy of the sentencing worksheet prepared pursuant to section 609.115, if a
worksheet was prepared.
 new text end

new text begin (b) If the defendant violates a condition of probation and the court enters an adjudication
of guilt as described in subdivision 2, paragraph (d), the court shall prepare a violation report
containing the following information:
 new text end

new text begin (1) the name of the defendant;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the case number;
 new text end

new text begin (3) whether the violation was a technical violation as defined in section 244.195,
subdivision 15, or involved allegation of a subsequent criminal act; and
 new text end

new text begin (4) the sentence announced by the court.
 new text end

new text begin (c) The deferred sentence report prepared under paragraph (a) and any violation report
prepared under paragraph (b) must be forwarded to the Sentencing Guidelines Commission.
By January 15 of each year, the Sentencing Guidelines Commission shall provide a report
to the committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy and
veterans and military affairs finance and policy that consists solely of summary data and
includes:
 new text end

new text begin (1) the number of individuals who received a deferred sentence pursuant to subdivision
2 in the previous year, disaggregated by county;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the number of individuals who received an adjudication of guilt as described in
subdivision 2, paragraph (d), in the previous year, disaggregated by county;
 new text end

new text begin (3) for the individuals identified in clause (2), the number who committed a technical
violation of probation and the number alleged to have committed a subsequent criminal act;
and
 new text end

new text begin (4) the number of proceedings dismissed pursuant to subdivision 3 in the previous year,
disaggregated by county.
 new text end

new text begin (d) The report required under paragraph (c) may be submitted as a section of any other
annual report required to be submitted by the Sentencing Guidelines Commission.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to deferred
sentences announced on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609.1095, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

(a) As used in this section, the following terms have the
meanings given.

(b) "Conviction" means any of the following accepted and recorded by the court: a plea
of guilty, a verdict of guilty by a jury, or a finding of guilty by the court. The term includes
a conviction by any court in Minnesota or another jurisdiction.

(c) "Prior conviction" means a conviction that occurred before the offender committed
the next felony resulting in a conviction and before the offense for which the offender is
being sentenced under this section.

(d) "Violent crime" means a violation of or an attempt or conspiracy to violate any of
the following laws of this state or any similar laws of the United States or any other state:
sections 152.137; 609.165; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.2112; 609.2113;
609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.228; 609.235; 609.24; 609.245; 609.247; 609.25;
609.255; 609.2661; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.2665; 609.267; 609.2671; 609.268;
609.322; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.498, subdivision 1new text begin or 1bnew text end ; 609.561;
609.562; 609.582, subdivision 1; 609.66, subdivision 1e; 609.687; and 609.855, subdivision
5; any provision of sections 609.229; 609.377; 609.378; 609.749; and 624.713 that is
punishable by a felony penalty; or any provision of chapter 152 that is punishable by a
maximum sentence of 15 years or more; or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609.135, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Stay of sentence maximum periods.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b),
if the conviction is for a felony, the stay shall be for not more than five years or the maximum
period for which the sentence of imprisonment might have been imposed, whichever is less.

(b) If the conviction is for a felony deleted text begin described indeleted text end new text begin violation of, or a felony-level attempt
or conspiracy to violate,new text end section 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.2112; 609.2113, subdivision
2; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.268; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451;
609.3458; or 609.749new text begin ; or a felony-level attempt or conspiracy to violate section 609.185 or
609.2661new text end , the stay shall be for not more than four years or the maximum period for which
the sentence of imprisonment might have been imposed, whichever is longer.

(c) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor violation of section 169A.20, 609.2113,
subdivision 3, or 609.3451, the stay shall be for not more than four years. The court shall
provide for unsupervised probation for the last year of the stay unless the court finds that
the defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the last year.

(d) If the conviction is for a gross misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (c), the stay
shall be for not more than two years.

(e) If the conviction is for any misdemeanor under section 169A.20; 609.746, subdivision
1; 609.79; or 617.23; or for a misdemeanor under section 609.2242 or 609.224, subdivision
1, in which the victim of the crime was a family or household member as defined in section
518B.01, the stay shall be for not more than two years. The court shall provide for
unsupervised probation for the second year of the stay unless the court finds that the
defendant needs supervised probation for all or part of the second year.

(f) If the conviction is for a misdemeanor not specified in paragraph (e), the stay shall
be for not more than one year.

(g) The defendant shall be discharged six months after the term of the stay expires, unless
the stay has been revoked or extended under paragraph (h), or the defendant has already
been discharged.

(h) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under
paragraphs (a) to (g), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to one year
if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1a, that:

(1) the defendant has not paid court-ordered restitution in accordance with the payment
schedule or structure; and

(2) the defendant is likely to not pay the restitution the defendant owes before the term
of probation expires.

This one-year extension of probation for failure to pay restitution may be extended by the
court for up to one additional year if the court finds, at another hearing conducted under
subdivision 1a, that the defendant still has not paid the court-ordered restitution that the
defendant owes.

Nothing in this subdivision limits the court's ability to refer the case to collections under
section 609.104.

(i) Notwithstanding the maximum periods specified for stays of sentences under
paragraphs (a) to (g), a court may extend a defendant's term of probation for up to three
years if it finds, at a hearing conducted under subdivision 1c, that:

(1) the defendant has failed to complete court-ordered treatment successfully; and

(2) the defendant is likely not to complete court-ordered treatment before the term of
probation expires.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to sentences
announced on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609.14, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Grounds.

(a) When it appears that the defendant has violated any of the
conditions of probation or intermediate sanction, or has otherwise been guilty of misconduct
deleted text begin whichdeleted text end new text begin thatnew text end warrants the deleted text begin imposingdeleted text end new text begin adjudication of guilt, or impositionnew text end or execution of sentence,
the court may without notice revoke the stay and direct that the defendant be taken into
immediate custody. Revocation shall only be used as a last resort when rehabilitation has
failed.

(b) When it appears that the defendant violated any of the conditions of probation during
the term of the stay, but the term of the stay has since expired, the defendant's probation
officer or the prosecutor may ask the court to initiate probation revocation proceedings
under the Rules of Criminal Procedure at any time within six months after the expiration
of the stay. The court also may initiate proceedings under these circumstances on its own
motion. If proceedings are initiated within this six-month period, the court may conduct a
revocation hearing and take any action authorized under rule 27.04 at any time during or
after the six-month period.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 609.135 or any law to the contrary, after
proceedings to revoke the stay have been initiated by a court order revoking the stay and
directing either that the defendant be taken into custody or that a summons be issued in
accordance with paragraph (a), the proceedings to revoke the stay may be concluded and
the summary hearing provided by subdivision 2 may be conducted after the expiration of
the stay or after the six-month period set forth in paragraph (b). The proceedings to revoke
the stay shall not be dismissed on the basis that the summary hearing is conducted after the
term of the stay or after the six-month period. The ability or inability to locate or apprehend
the defendant prior to the expiration of the stay or during or after the six-month period shall
not preclude the court from conducting the summary hearing unless the defendant
demonstrates that the delay was purposefully caused by the state in order to gain an unfair
advantage.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.14, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Notification of grounds for revocation.

The defendant shall thereupon be
notified in writing and in such manner as the court directs of the grounds alleged to exist
for revocation of the stay deleted text begin of imposition or execution of sentencedeleted text end . If such grounds are brought
in issue by the defendant, a summary hearing shall be held thereon at which the defendant
is entitled to be heard and to be represented by counsel.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.14, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Sentence.

If any of such grounds are found to exist the court may:

(1) if imposition of sentence was previously stayed, again stay sentence or impose
sentence and stay the execution thereof, and in either event place the defendant on probation
or order intermediate sanctions pursuant to section 609.135, or impose sentence and order
execution thereof; deleted text begin or
deleted text end

(2) if sentence was previously imposed and execution thereof stayed, continue such stay
and place the defendant on probation or order intermediate sanctions in accordance with
the provisions of section 609.135, or order execution of the sentence previously imposednew text begin ;
or
new text end

new text begin (3) if adjudication was stayed or prosecution was deferred, continue the stay without
intermediate sanctions, continue it with intermediate sanctions, or adjudicate guilt and
proceed as otherwise provided, including, in the event of a felony conviction, as provided
in section 244.10new text end .

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.14, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Definition. new text end

new text begin For the purposes of this section, "stay" means a stay of adjudication,
a stay of imposition, a stay of execution, or a deferred prosecution.
 new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.324, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Engaging in, hiring, or agreeing to hire minor to engage in
prostitution; penalties.

(a) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be
sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 20 years or to payment of a fine of not more
than $40,000, or both:

(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 14 years;

(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 14 years to engage in
sexual penetration or sexual contact; or

(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to
be under the age of 14 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact.

(b) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both:

(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 16 years but at least 14
years;

(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 16 years but at least
14 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact; or

(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to
be under the age of 16 years but at least deleted text begin 13deleted text end new text begin 14new text end years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual
contact.

(c) Whoever intentionally does any of the following may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both:

(1) engages in prostitution with an individual under the age of 18 years but at least 16
years;

(2) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual under the age of 18 years but at least
16 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual contact; or

(3) hires or offers or agrees to hire an individual who the actor reasonably believes to
be under the age of 18 years but at least 16 years to engage in sexual penetration or sexual
contact.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin [609.84] SALE OF CALCIFIED HUMAN REMAINS.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given.
 new text end

new text begin (b) "Human remains" means the calcified portion of a dead human body, not including
isolated teeth; the cremated remains of a dead human body deposited in a container or
discrete feature; or the hydrolyzed remains of a dead human body deposited in a container
or discrete feature.
 new text end

new text begin (c) "Law enforcement agency" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1,
paragraph (f).
 new text end

new text begin (d) "Local organization for emergency management" has the meaning given in section
12.03, subdivision 6.
 new text end

new text begin (e) "Search and rescue unit" means an organization, team, or individual authorized by
the state or federal government, a Tribal government, or by a county, city, town, or a
metropolitan airports commission organized and existing under sections 473.601 to 473.679
whose mission is to locate lost, missing, or trapped persons, victims of natural or other
disasters, and human bodies.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Sale of calcified human remains prohibited; donation and
reimbursement. new text end

new text begin (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a person is prohibited from selling
calcified human remains or offering calcified human remains for sale.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Paragraph (a) shall not be construed to limit the donation of human remains:
 new text end

new text begin (1) to a licensed health care provider, an individual employed by or under contract with
a licensed health care provider, a public or private postsecondary educational institution,
or an individual employed by or under contract with a public or private postsecondary
educational institution, for legitimate medical or scientific purposes or for educational
purposes;
 new text end

new text begin (2) to a law enforcement agency, search and rescue unit, or local organization for
emergency management to conduct search and rescue training or to train dogs to locate
dead human bodies; or
 new text end

new text begin (3) to a company registered with the United States Food and Drug Administration or an
individual, company, or entity employed by or under contract with a company registered
with the United States Food and Drug Administration for legitimate medical or scientific
purposes including but not limited to the development, manufacturing, and research of
medical products.
 new text end

new text begin (c) Paragraph (a) does not apply to the sale or offer for sale of human remains that is
incidental to the sale of real property, including undisturbed burial plots, cemeteries, crypts,
or other burial features.
 new text end

new text begin (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person from recovering
reasonable expenses for the processing, preservation, quality control, storage, and
transportation or final disposition of human remains for the legitimate purposes as described
in this section.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Penalty. new text end

new text begin A person who violates this section is guilty of a felony.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment and
applies to crimes committed on or after that date.
 new text end

ARTICLE 4

PUBLIC SAFETY PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 169A.03, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 23a. new text end

new text begin Search warrant. new text end

new text begin As used in this section, "search warrant" means a judicially
approved search warrant obtained pursuant to the requirements in sections 626.04 to 626.18
or conforming statutes in an adjacent state.
 new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 169A.51, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Blood or urine tests; search warrant required.

(a) Notwithstanding any
contrary provisions in sections 169A.51 to 169A.53, a blood or urine test may be conducted
only pursuant to a search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18,deleted text end or a judicially recognized
exception to the search warrant requirement. In addition, blood and urine tests may be
conducted only as provided in sections 169A.51 to 169A.53 and 171.177.

(b) When, under the provisions of section 169A.20, 169A.51, or 171.177, a search
warrant is required for a blood or urine test, that requirement is met if a judicially recognized
exception to the warrant requirement is applicable.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 169A.51, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:


Subd. 4.

Requirement of urine or blood test.

A blood or urine test may be required
pursuant to a search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end even after a breath test has
been administered if there is probable cause to believe that:

(1) there is impairment by a controlled substance; an intoxicating substance; or cannabis
flower, a cannabis product, a lower-potency hemp edible, a hemp-derived consumer product,
artificially derived cannabinoids, or tetrahydrocannabinols that is not subject to testing by
a breath test;

(2) a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II or its metabolite, other than cannabis
flower, a cannabis product, a lower-potency hemp edible, a hemp-derived consumer product,
artificially derived cannabinoids, or tetrahydrocannabinols, is present in the person's body;
or

(3) the person is unconscious or incapacitated to the point that the peace officer providing
a breath test advisory, administering a breath test, or serving the search warrant has a
good-faith belief that the person is mentally or physically unable to comprehend the breath
test advisory or otherwise voluntarily submit to chemical tests.

Action may be taken against a person who refuses to take a blood test under this
subdivision only if a urine test was offered and action may be taken against a person who
refuses to take a urine test only if a blood test was offered. This limitation does not apply
to an unconscious person under the circumstances described in clause (3).

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Search warrant-required testing advisory.

At the time a blood or urine
test is directed pursuant to a search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end , the person
must be informed that refusal to submit to a blood or urine test is a crime.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

License revocation pursuant to search warrant.

After executing a search
warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end for the collection of a blood or urine sample based
upon probable cause of a violation of section 169A.20, the peace officer acting under sections
626.13 to 626.17 shall certify to the commissioner of public safety:

(1) when a person refuses to comply with the execution of the search warrant; or

(2) if a person submits to the test and the test results indicate:

(i) an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more;

(ii) an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more, if the person was driving, operating, or in
physical control of a commercial motor vehicle at the time of the violation; or

(iii) the presence of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II or its metabolite,
other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Test refusal; license revocation.

(a) Upon certification under subdivision 3
that there existed probable cause to believe the person had been driving, operating, or in
physical control of a motor vehicle in violation of section 169A.20, and that the person
refused to comply with the execution of the search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end ,
the commissioner shall revoke the person's license or permit to drive or nonresident operating
privilege. The commissioner shall revoke the license, permit, or nonresident operating
privilege:

(1) for a person with no qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past ten
years, for a period of not less than one year;

(2) for a person under the age of 21 years and with no qualified prior impaired driving
incidents within the past ten years, for a period of not less than one year;

(3) for a person with one qualified prior impaired driving incident within the past ten
years or two qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period of not less than two
years;

(4) for a person with two qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past ten
years or three qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period of not less than three
years;

(5) for a person with three qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past ten
years, for a period of not less than four years; or

(6) for a person with four or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period
of not less than six years.

(b) When a person who had been driving, operating, or in physical control of a
commercial motor vehicle refuses to comply with the search warrant and permit testing,
the commissioner shall disqualify the person from operating a commercial motor vehicle
and shall revoke the person's license or permit to drive or nonresident operating privilege
according to the federal regulations adopted by reference in section 171.165, subdivision
2.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Test failure; license revocation.

(a) Upon certification under subdivision 3deleted text begin ,deleted text end
pursuant to a search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end , that there existed probable
cause to believe the person had been driving, operating, or in physical control of a motor
vehicle in violation of section 169A.20, and that the person submitted to a test and the test
results indicate an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or the presence of a controlled
substance listed in Schedule I or II or its metabolite, other than marijuana or
tetrahydrocannabinols, the commissioner shall revoke the person's license or permit to drive
or nonresident operating privilege:

(1) for a period of 90 days or, if the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of twice
the legal limit or more, not less than one year;

(2) if the person is under the age of 21 years, for a period of not less than 180 days or,
if the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of twice the legal limit or more, not less
than one year;

(3) for a person with one qualified prior impaired driving incident within the past ten
years or two qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period of not less than one
year or, if the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of twice the legal limit or more,
not less than two years;

(4) for a person with two qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past ten
years or three qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period of not less than three
years;

(5) for a person with three qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past ten
years, for a period of not less than four years; or

(6) for a person with four or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents, for a period
of not less than six years.

(b) On certification by the peace officer that there existed probable cause to believe the
person had been driving, operating, or in physical control of a commercial motor vehicle
with any presence of alcohol and that the person submitted to a test and the test results
indicated an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more, the commissioner shall disqualify the
person from operating a commercial motor vehicle under section 171.165.

(c) If the test is of a person's blood or urine by a laboratory operated by the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension or authorized by the bureau to conduct the analysis of a blood or
urine sample, the laboratory may directly certify to the commissioner the test results, and
the peace officer shall certify to the commissioner that there existed probable cause to
believe the person had been driving, operating, or in physical control of a motor vehicle in
violation of section 169A.20, and that the person submitted to a test. Upon receipt of both
certifications, the commissioner shall undertake the license actions described in paragraphs
(a) and (b).

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Test refusal; driving privilege lost.

(a) On behalf of the commissioner, a peace
officer requiring a test or directing the administration of a chemical test pursuant to a search
warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end shall serve immediate notice of intention to revoke
and of revocation on a person who refuses to permit a test or on a person who submits to a
test, the results of which indicate an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more.

(b) On behalf of the commissioner, a peace officer requiring a test or directing the
administration of a chemical test of a person driving, operating, or in physical control of a
commercial motor vehicle pursuant to a search warrant deleted text begin under sections 626.04 to 626.18deleted text end
shall serve immediate notice of intention to disqualify and of disqualification on a person
who refuses to permit a test or on a person who submits to a test, the results of which indicate
an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more.

(c) The officer shall:

(1) invalidate the person's driver's license or permit card by clipping the upper corner
of the card in such a way that no identifying information including the photo is destroyed,
and immediately return the card to the person;

(2) issue the person a temporary license effective for only seven days; and

(3) send the notification of this action to the commissioner along with the certificate
required by subdivision 4 or 5.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.177, subdivision 12, is amended to read:


Subd. 12.

Judicial hearing; issues, order, appeal.

(a) A judicial review hearing under
this section must be before a district judge in any county in the judicial district where the
alleged offense occurred. The hearing is to the court and may be conducted at the same time
and in the same manner as hearings upon pretrial motions in the criminal prosecution under
section 169A.20, if any. The hearing must be recorded. The commissioner shall appear and
be represented by the attorney general or through the prosecuting authority for the jurisdiction
involved. The hearing must be held at the earliest practicable date, and in any event no later
than 60 days following the filing of the petition for review. The judicial district administrator
shall establish procedures to ensure efficient compliance with this subdivision. To accomplish
this, the administrator may, whenever possible, consolidate and transfer review hearings
among the locations within the judicial district where terms of district court are held.

(b) The scope of the hearing is limited to the issues in clauses (1) to (13):

(1) Did the peace officer have probable cause to believe the person was driving, operating,
or in physical control of a motor vehicle or commercial motor vehicle in violation of section
169A.20?

(2) Was the person lawfully placed under arrest for violation of section 169A.20?

(3) Was the person involved in a motor vehicle accident or collision resulting in property
damage, personal injury, or death?

(4) Did a licensed peace officer apply for a search warrant in accordance with the
requirements set forth in sections 626.04 to 626.18new text begin or conforming statutes in an adjacent
statenew text end ?

(5) Did a neutral magistrate review the application for a search warrant and determine
there was probable cause to believe that the person was driving, operating, or in physical
control of a motor vehicle or commercial motor vehicle in violation of section 169A.20?

(6) Was the search warrant and the process by which it was obtained valid?

(7) At the time of directing the person to take the test, did the peace officer inform the
person that refusing the test was a crime as required by subdivision 1?

(8) Did the person refuse to permit the test?

(9) If a test was taken by a person driving, operating, or in physical control of a motor
vehicle, did the test results indicate at the time of testing:

(i) an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more; or

(ii) the presence of a controlled substance listed in Schedule I or II or its metabolite,
other than marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols?

(10) If a test was taken by a person driving, operating, or in physical control of a
commercial motor vehicle, did the test results indicate an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or
more at the time of testing?

(11) Was the testing method used valid and reliable and were the test results accurately
evaluated?

(12) Did the person prove the defense of necessity?

(13) Did the person prove the defense of controlled substance use in accordance with a
prescription?

(c) Certified or otherwise authenticated copies of laboratory or medical personnel reports,
records, documents, licenses, and certificates are admissible as substantive evidence.

(d) The court shall order that the revocation or disqualification be either rescinded or
sustained and forward the order to the commissioner. The court shall file its order within
14 days following the hearing. If the revocation or disqualification is sustained, the court
shall also forward the person's driver's license or permit to the commissioner for further
action by the commissioner if the license or permit is not already in the commissioner's
possession.

(e) Any party aggrieved by the decision of the reviewing court may appeal the decision
as provided in the Rules of Appellate Procedure.

(f) The civil hearing under this section shall not give rise to an estoppel on any issues
arising from the same set of circumstances in any criminal prosecution.

(g) It is an affirmative defense for the petitioner to prove a necessity.

(h) It is an affirmative defense to the presence of a Schedule I or II controlled substance
that the person used the controlled substance according to the terms of a prescription issued
for the person according to sections 152.11 and 152.12, unless the court finds by a
preponderance of the evidence that the use of the controlled substance impaired the person's
ability to operate a motor vehicle.

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.05, subdivision 1b, is amended to read:


Subd. 1b.

Victim's rights.

(a) This subdivision applies to parole decisions relating to
inmates convicted of first-degree murder who are described in subdivision 1, clauses (a)
and (b). As used in this subdivision, "victim" deleted text begin means the murder victim's surviving spouse
or next of kindeleted text end new text begin has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b)new text end .

(b) The commissioner shall make reasonable efforts to notify the victim, in advance, of
the time and place of the inmate's parole review hearing. The victim has a right to submit
an oral or written statement at the review hearing. The statement may summarize the harm
suffered by the victim as a result of the crime and give the victim's recommendation on
whether the inmate should be paroled at that time. The commissioner must consider the
victim's statement when making the parole decision.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.166, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Definitions.

(a) As used in this section, unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise, the following terms have the meanings given them.

(b) "Bureau" means the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension.

new text begin (c) "Conservator" has the meaning given in chapter 524.
 new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end "Corrections agent" means a county or state probation agent or other corrections
employee. The term also includes United States Probation and Pretrial Services System
employees who work with a person subject to this section.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end "Dwelling" means the building where the person lives under a formal or informal
agreement to do so. However, dwelling does not include a supervised publicly or privately
operated shelter or facility designed to provide temporary living accommodations for
homeless individuals as defined in section 116L.361, subdivision 5.

new text begin (f) "Guardian" has the meaning given in chapter 524.
 new text end

deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end "Incarceration" and "confinement" do not include electronic home monitoring.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end "Law enforcement authority" or "authority" means the chief of police of a home
rule charter or statutory city and the county sheriff of an unincorporated area in that county.
An authority must be located in Minnesota.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end "Motor vehicle" has the meaning given in section 169.011, subdivision 92.

new text begin (j) "Power of attorney" has the meaning given in chapter 523.
 new text end

deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end "Primary address" means the mailing address of the person's dwelling. If the
mailing address is different from the actual location of the dwelling, primary address also
includes the physical location of the dwelling described with as much specificity as possible.

deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (l)new text end "School" includes any public or private educational institution, including any
secondary school, trade, or professional institution, or institution of higher education, that
the person is enrolled in on a full-time or part-time basis.

deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (m)new text end "Secondary address" means the mailing address of any place where the person
regularly or occasionally stays overnight when not staying at the person's primary address.
If the mailing address is different from the actual location of the place, secondary address
also includes the physical location of the place described with as much specificity as possible.
However, the location of a supervised publicly or privately operated shelter or facility
designated to provide temporary living accommodations for homeless individuals as defined
in section 116L.361, subdivision 5, does not constitute a secondary address.

deleted text begin (k)deleted text end new text begin (n)new text end "Treatment facility" means a residential facility, as defined in section 244.052,
subdivision 1, and residential substance use disorder treatment programs and halfway houses
licensed under chapter 245A, including, but not limited to, those facilities directly or
indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States.

deleted text begin (l)deleted text end new text begin (o)new text end "Work" includes employment that is full time or part time for a period of time
exceeding 14 days or for an aggregate period of time exceeding 30 days during any calendar
year, whether financially compensated, volunteered, or for the purpose of government or
educational benefit.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 243.166, subdivision 1b, is amended
to read:


Subd. 1b.

Registration required.

(a) A person shall register under this section if:

(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for a felony violation of or attempt to
violate, or aiding, abetting, or conspiracy to commit, any of the following, and convicted
of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set
of circumstances:

(i) murder under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (2);

(ii) kidnapping under section 609.25;

(iii) criminal sexual conduct under section 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451,
subdivision 3, paragraph (b); or 609.3453;

(iv) indecent exposure under section 617.23, subdivision 3; or

(v) surreptitious intrusion under the circumstances described in section 609.746,
subdivision 1, paragraph (h);

(2) the person was charged with or petitioned for a violation of, or attempt to violate, or
aiding, abetting, or conspiring to commit any of the following and convicted of or adjudicated
delinquent for that offense or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances:

(i) criminal abuse in violation of new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2020,new text end section 609.2325, subdivision
1, paragraph (b);

deleted text begin (ii) false imprisonment in violation of section 609.255, subdivision 2;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (iii)deleted text end new text begin (ii)new text end solicitation, inducement, or promotion of the prostitution of a minor or engaging
in the sex trafficking of a minor in violation of section 609.322;

deleted text begin (iv)deleted text end new text begin (iii)new text end a prostitution offense in violation of section 609.324, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a);

deleted text begin (v)deleted text end new text begin (iv)new text end soliciting a minor to engage in sexual conduct in violation of section 609.352,
subdivision 2 or 2a, clause (1);

deleted text begin (vi)deleted text end new text begin (v)new text end using a minor in a sexual performance in violation of section 617.246; or

deleted text begin (vii)deleted text end new text begin (vi)new text end possessingnew text begin or disseminating anew text end pornographic work involving a minor in violation
of section 617.247;

(3) the person was sentenced as a patterned sex offender under section 609.3455,
subdivision 3a; or

(4) the person was charged with or petitioned for, including pursuant to a court martial,
violating a law of the United States, including the Uniform Code of Military Justice, similar
to an offense or involving similar circumstances to an offense described in clause (1), (2),
or (3), and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another offense arising
out of the same set of circumstances.

(b) A person also shall register under this section if:

(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for an offense in another state similar to
an offense or involving similar circumstances to an offense described in paragraph (a),
clause (1), (2), or (3), and convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for that offense or another
offense arising out of the same set of circumstances;

(2) the person enters this state to reside, work, or attend school, or enters this state and
remains for 14 days or longer or for an aggregate period of time exceeding 30 days during
any calendar year; and

(3) ten years have not elapsed since the person was released from confinement or, if the
person was not confined, since the person was convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for
the offense that triggers registration, unless the person is subject to a longer registration
period under the laws of another state in which the person has been convicted or adjudicated,
or is subject to lifetime registration.

If a person described in this paragraph is subject to a longer registration period in another
state or is subject to lifetime registration, the person shall register for that time period
regardless of when the person was released from confinement, convicted, or adjudicated
delinquent.

(c) A person also shall register under this section if the person was committed pursuant
to a court commitment order under Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.185, chapter
253D, Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10, or a similar law of another state or the
United States, regardless of whether the person was convicted of any offense.

(d) A person also shall register under this section if:

(1) the person was charged with or petitioned for a felony violation or attempt to violate
any of the offenses listed in paragraph (a), clause (1), or a similar law of another state or
the United States, or the person was charged with or petitioned for a violation of any of the
offenses listed in paragraph (a), clause (2), or a similar law of another state or the United
States;

(2) the person was found not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency
after a trial for that offense, or found guilty but mentally ill after a trial for that offense, in
states with a guilty but mentally ill verdict; and

(3) the person was committed pursuant to a court commitment order under section
253B.18 or a similar law of another state or the United States.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2024, and applies to:
 new text end

new text begin (1) convictions and delinquency adjudications for a violation of Minnesota Statutes,
section 609.255, subdivision 2, or another offense arising out of the same set of circumstances
that occur on or after that date and to convictions and delinquency adjudications for such
an offense that are not yet final on that date; and
 new text end

new text begin (2) convictions and delinquency adjudications for disseminating a pornographic work
involving a minor in violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 617.247, or another offense
arising out of the same set of circumstances that occur on or after that date and to convictions
and delinquency adjudications for such an offense that occurred before that date if the court
told the person of the duty to register.
 new text end

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.166, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Registration procedure.

(a) Except as provided in subdivision 3a, a person
required to register under this section shall register with the corrections agent as soon as
the agent is assigned to the person. If the person does not have an assigned corrections agent
or is unable to locate the assigned corrections agent, the person shall register with the law
enforcement authority that has jurisdiction in the area of the person's primary address.

(b) Except as provided in subdivision 3a, at least five days before the person starts living
at a new primary address, including living in another state, the person shall give written
notice of the new primary address to the assigned corrections agent or to the law enforcement
authority with which the person currently is registered. If the person will be living in a new
state and that state has a registration requirement, the person shall also give written notice
of the new address to the designated registration agency in the new state. A person required
to register under this section shall also give written notice to the assigned corrections agent
or to the law enforcement authority that has jurisdiction in the area of the person's primary
address that the person is no longer living or staying at an address, immediately after the
person is no longer living or staying at that address. The written notice required by this
paragraph must be provided in person. The corrections agent or law enforcement authority
shall, within two business days after receipt of this information, forward it to the bureau.
The bureau shall, if it has not already been done, notify the law enforcement authority having
primary jurisdiction in the community where the person will live of the new address. If the
person is leaving the state, the bureau shall notify the registration authority in the new state
of the new address. The person's registration requirements under this section are suspended
after the person begins living in the new state and the bureau has confirmed the address in
the other state through the annual verification process on at least one occasion. new text begin The bureau
may also attempt to confirm the person's address in the other state by the following methods:
new text end

new text begin (1) receipt of a verification letter from the law enforcement authority having primary
jurisdiction in the community where the person is now living, acknowledging the person's
address;
 new text end

new text begin (2) receipt of a written communication or verification letter from a criminal justice
agency confirming the person's location;
 new text end

new text begin (3) confirmation of the individual's compliance with registration requirements or
incarceration status in the new state via an online registry or website, if applicable; or
 new text end

new text begin (4) confirmation of the individual's motor vehicle records under United States Code,
title 18, section 2721, in the new state via the new state's documentation.
 new text end

new text begin The bureau is the sole determinant as to whether the information provided by any of the
methods in clauses (1) to (3) is sufficient for verification purposes and may use more than
one of these methods to satisfy the verification requirement. For purposes of this subdivision,
"criminal justice agency" means an agency of a state, a political subdivision, a federally
recognized Tribe, a United States territory, or the federal government charged with detection,
enforcement, prosecution, adjudication, or incarceration with respect to federal or state
criminal laws. new text end The person's registration requirements under this section are reactivated if
the person resumes living in Minnesota and the registration time period described in
subdivision 6 has not expired.

(c) A person required to register under subdivision 1b, paragraph (b), because the person
is working or attending school in Minnesota shall register with the law enforcement authority
that has jurisdiction in the area where the person works or attends school. In addition to
other information required by this section, the person shall provide the address of the school
or of the location where the person is employed. A person shall comply with this paragraph
within five days of beginning employment or school. A person's obligation to register under
this paragraph terminates when the person is no longer working or attending school in
Minnesota.

(d) A person required to register under this section who works or attends school outside
of Minnesota shall register as a predatory offender in the state where the person works or
attends school. The person's corrections agent, or if the person does not have an assigned
corrections agent, the law enforcement authority that has jurisdiction in the area of the
person's primary address shall notify the person of this requirement.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.166, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 4d. new text end

new text begin Guardians, conservators, and power of attorney. new text end

new text begin Guardians and conservators
of persons required to register shall have the authority to complete all verification and
registration paperwork under this section and section 243.167 on the person's behalf. A
validly executed power of attorney under chapter 523 grants the attorney in fact the authority
to complete all verification and registration paperwork under this section and section 243.167
on behalf of a person required to register.
 new text end

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 243.166, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Registration period.

(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of section 609.165,
subdivision 1, and except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), a person required to
register under this section shall continue to comply with this section until ten years have
elapsed since the person initially registered in connection with the offense, or until the
probation, supervised release, or conditional release period expires, whichever occurs later.
For a person required to register under this section who is committed under section 253B.18,
Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.185, or chapter 253D, the ten-year registration period
does not include the period of commitment.

(b) If a person required to register under this section fails to provide the person's primary
address as required by subdivision 3, paragraph (b), fails to comply with the requirements
of subdivision 3a, fails to provide information as required by subdivision 4a, or fails to
return the verification form referenced in subdivision 4 within ten days, the commissioner
of public safety shall require the person to continue to register for an additional period of
five years. This five-year period is added to the end of the offender's registration period.

(c) If a person required to register under this section is incarcerated due to a conviction
for a new offense new text begin that requires registration under this section or section 243.167 new text end or following
a revocation of probation, supervised release, or conditional release for deleted text begin anydeleted text end new text begin annew text end offensenew text begin that
requires registration under this section or section 243.167new text end , the person shall continue to
register until ten years have elapsed since the person was last released from incarceration
or until the person's probation, supervised release, or conditional release period expires,
whichever occurs later.

(d) A person shall continue to comply with this section for the life of that person:

(1) if the person is convicted of or adjudicated delinquent for any offense for which
registration is required under subdivision 1b, or any offense from another state or any federal
offense similar to the offenses described in subdivision 1b, and the person has a prior
conviction or adjudication for an offense for which registration was or would have been
required under subdivision 1b, or an offense from another state or a federal offense similar
to an offense described in subdivision 1b;

(2) if the person is required to register based upon a conviction or delinquency
adjudication for an offense under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (2), or a similar
statute from another state or the United States;

(3) if the person is required to register based upon a conviction for an offense under
section 609.342, subdivision 1, clause (a) to (c) or (e), or subdivision 1a, clause (a) to (e)
or (h); 609.343, subdivision 1, clause (a) to (c) or (e), or subdivision 1a, clause (a) to (e) or
(h); 609.344, subdivision 1, clause (a) or (c), or subdivision 1a, clause (a), (c), (g), or (h);
or 609.345, subdivision 1, clause (a) or (c), or subdivision 1a, clause (a), (c), (g), or (h); or
a statute from another state or the United States similar to the offenses described in this
clause; or

(4) if the person is required to register under subdivision 1b, paragraph (c), following
commitment pursuant to a court commitment under Minnesota Statutes 2012, section
253B.185, chapter 253D, Minnesota Statutes 1992, section 526.10, or a similar law of
another state or the United States.

(e) A person described in subdivision 1b, paragraph (b), who is required to register under
the laws of a state in which the person has been previously convicted or adjudicated
delinquent, shall register under this section for the time period required by the state of
conviction or adjudication unless a longer time period is required elsewhere in this section.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2024, and applies to convictions
and revocations of probation, supervised release, or conditional release that occur on or
after that date and to convictions that are not yet final on that date.
 new text end

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 244.052, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

End-of-confinement review committee.

(a) The commissioner of corrections
shall establish and administer end-of-confinement review committees at each state
correctional facility and at each state treatment facility where predatory offenders are
confined. The committees shall assess on a case-by-case basis the public risk posed by
predatory offenders who are about to be released from confinement.

(b) Each committee shall be a standing committee and shall consist of the following
members appointed by the commissioner:

(1) the chief executive officer or head of the correctional or treatment facility where the
offender is currently confined, or that person's designee;

(2) a law enforcement officer;

(3) a treatment professional who is trained in the assessment of sex offenders;

(4) a caseworker experienced in supervising sex offenders; and

(5) a victim's services professional.

Members of the committee, other than the facility's chief executive officer or head, shall
be appointed by the commissioner to two-year terms. The chief executive officer or head
of the facility or designee shall act as chair of the committee and shall use the facility's staff,
as needed, to administer the committee, obtain necessary information from outside sources,
and prepare risk assessment reports on offenders.

(c) The committee shall have access to the following data on a predatory offender only
for the purposes of its assessment and to defend the committee's risk assessment
determination upon administrative review under this section:

(1) private medical data under section 13.384 or sections 144.291 to 144.298, or welfare
data under section 13.46 that relate to medical treatment of the offender;

(2) private and confidential court services data under section 13.84;

(3) private and confidential corrections data under section 13.85; and

(4) private criminal history data under section 13.87.

Data collected and maintained by the committee under this paragraph may not be
disclosed outside the committee, except as provided under section 13.05, subdivision 3 or
4. The predatory offender has access to data on the offender collected and maintained by
the committee, unless the data are confidential data received under this paragraph.

(d)(i) Except as otherwise provided in items (ii), (iii), and (iv), at least 90 days before a
predatory offender is to be released from confinement, the commissioner of corrections
shall convene the appropriate end-of-confinement review committee for the purpose of
assessing the risk presented by the offender and determining the risk level to which the
offender shall be assigned under paragraph (e). The offender and the law enforcement agency
that was responsible for the charge resulting in confinement shall be notified of the time
and place of the committee's meeting. The offender has a right to be present and be heard
at the meeting. The law enforcement agencynew text begin , agent, and victimnew text end may provide material in
writing that is relevant to the offender's risk level to the chair of the committee. The
committee shall use the risk factors described in paragraph (g) and the risk assessment scale
developed under subdivision 2 to determine the offender's risk assessment score and risk
level. Offenders scheduled for release from confinement shall be assessed by the committee
established at the facility from which the offender is to be released.

(ii) If an offender is received for confinement in a facility with less than 90 days remaining
in the offender's term of confinement, the offender's risk shall be assessed at the first regularly
scheduled end of confinement review committee that convenes after the appropriate
documentation for the risk assessment is assembled by the committee. The commissioner
shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that offender's risk is assessed and a risk level is
assigned or reassigned at least 30 days before the offender's release date.

(iii) If the offender is subject to a mandatory life sentence under section 609.3455,
subdivision 3 or 4, the commissioner of corrections shall convene the appropriate
end-of-confinement review committee at least nine months before the offender's minimum
term of imprisonment has been served. If the offender is received for confinement in a
facility with less than nine months remaining before the offender's minimum term of
imprisonment has been served, the committee shall conform its procedures to those outlined
in item (ii) to the extent practicable.

(iv) If the offender is granted supervised release, the commissioner of corrections shall
notify the appropriate end-of-confinement review committee that it needs to review the
offender's previously determined risk level at its next regularly scheduled meeting. The
commissioner shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the offender's earlier risk level
determination is reviewed and the risk level is confirmed or reassigned at least 60 days
before the offender's release date. The committee shall give the report to the offender and
to the law enforcement agencynew text begin , and the commissioner shall provide notice of the risk level
assignment to the victim, if requested,new text end at least 60 days before an offender is released from
confinement.

(e) The committee shall assign to risk level I a predatory offender whose risk assessment
score indicates a low risk of reoffense. The committee shall assign to risk level II an offender
whose risk assessment score indicates a moderate risk of reoffense. The committee shall
assign to risk level III an offender whose risk assessment score indicates a high risk of
reoffense.

(f) Before the predatory offender is released from confinement, the committee shall
prepare a risk assessment report which specifies the risk level to which the offender has
been assigned and the reasons underlying the committee's risk assessment decision. Except
for an offender subject to a mandatory life sentence under section 609.3455, subdivision 3
or 4, who has not been granted supervised release, the committee shall give the report to
the offender and to the law enforcement agencynew text begin , and the commissioner shall provide notice
of the risk level assignment to the victim, if requested,new text end at least 60 days before an offender
is released from confinement. If the offender is subject to a mandatory life sentence and
has not yet served the entire minimum term of imprisonment, the committee shall give the
report to the offender and to the commissioner at least six months before the offender is
first eligible for release. If the risk assessment is performed under the circumstances described
in paragraph (d), item (ii), the report shall be given to the offender and the law enforcement
agency as soon as it is available. The committee also shall inform the offender of the
availability of review under subdivision 6.

(g) As used in this subdivision, "risk factors" includes, but is not limited to, the following
factors:

(1) the seriousness of the offense should the offender reoffend. This factor includes
consideration of the following:

(i) the degree of likely force or harm;

(ii) the degree of likely physical contact; and

(iii) the age of the likely victim;

(2) the offender's prior offense history. This factor includes consideration of the following:

(i) the relationship of prior victims to the offender;

(ii) the number of prior offenses or victims;

(iii) the duration of the offender's prior offense history;

(iv) the length of time since the offender's last prior offense while the offender was at
risk to commit offenses; and

(v) the offender's prior history of other antisocial acts;

(3) the offender's characteristics. This factor includes consideration of the following:

(i) the offender's response to prior treatment efforts; and

(ii) the offender's history of substance abuse;

(4) the availability of community supports to the offender. This factor includes
consideration of the following:

(i) the availability and likelihood that the offender will be involved in therapeutic
treatment;

(ii) the availability of residential supports to the offender, such as a stable and supervised
living arrangement in an appropriate location;

(iii) the offender's familial and social relationships, including the nature and length of
these relationships and the level of support that the offender may receive from these persons;
and

(iv) the offender's lack of education or employment stability;

(5) whether the offender has indicated or credible evidence in the record indicates that
the offender will reoffend if released into the community; and

(6) whether the offender demonstrates a physical condition that minimizes the risk of
reoffense, including but not limited to, advanced age or a debilitating illness or physical
condition.

(h) Upon the request of the law enforcement agency or the offender's corrections agent,
the commissioner may reconvene the end-of-confinement review committee for the purpose
of reassessing the risk level to which an offender has been assigned under paragraph (e). In
a request for a reassessment, the law enforcement agency which was responsible for the
charge resulting in confinement or agent shall list the facts and circumstances arising after
the initial assignment or facts and circumstances known to law enforcement or the agent
but not considered by the committee under paragraph (e) which support the request for a
reassessment. The request for reassessment by the law enforcement agency must occur
within 30 days of receipt of the report indicating the offender's risk level assignment. The
offender's corrections agent, in consultation with the chief law enforcement officer in the
area where the offender resides or intends to reside, may request a review of a risk level at
any time if substantial evidence exists that the offender's risk level should be reviewed by
an end-of-confinement review committee. This evidence includes, but is not limited to,
evidence of treatment failures or completions, evidence of exceptional crime-free community
adjustment or lack of appropriate adjustment, evidence of substantial community need to
know more about the offender or mitigating circumstances that would narrow the proposed
scope of notification, or other practical situations articulated and based in evidence of the
offender's behavior while under supervision. Upon review of the request, the
end-of-confinement review committee may reassign an offender to a different risk level. If
the offender is reassigned to a higher risk level, the offender has the right to seek review of
the committee's determination under subdivision 6.

(i) An offender may request the end-of-confinement review committee to reassess the
offender's assigned risk level after three years have elapsed since the committee's initial
risk assessment and may renew the request once every two years following subsequent
denials. In a request for reassessment, the offender shall list the facts and circumstances
which demonstrate that the offender no longer poses the same degree of risk to the
community. In order for a request for a risk level reduction to be granted, the offender must
demonstrate full compliance with supervised release conditions, completion of required
post-release treatment programming, and full compliance with all registration requirements
as detailed in section 243.166. The offender must also not have been convicted of any felony,
gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor offenses subsequent to the assignment of the original
risk level. The committee shall follow the process outlined in paragraphs (a) to (c) in the
reassessment. An offender who is incarcerated may not request a reassessment under this
paragraph.

(j) Offenders returned to prison as release violators shall not have a right to a subsequent
risk reassessment by the end-of-confinement review committee unless substantial evidence
indicates that the offender's risk to the public has increased.

(k) If the committee assigns a predatory offender to risk level III, the committee shall
determine whether residency restrictions shall be included in the conditions of the offender's
release based on the offender's pattern of offending behavior.

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 253B.18, subdivision 5a, is amended to read:


Subd. 5a.

Victim notification of petition and release; right to submit statement.

(a)
As used in this subdivision:

(1) "crime" has the meaning given to "violent crime" in section 609.1095, and includes
criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree and offenses within the definition of "crime
against the person" in section 253B.02, subdivision 4e, and also includes offenses listed in
section 253D.02, subdivision 8, paragraph (b), regardless of whether they are sexually
motivated;

(2) "victim" means a person who has incurred loss or harm as a result of a crime the
behavior for which forms the basis for a commitment under this section or chapter 253Dnew text begin ,
and includes the family members, guardian, conservator, or custodian of a minor,
incompetent, incapacitated, or deceased personnew text end ; and

(3) "convicted" and "conviction" have the meanings given in section 609.02, subdivision
5, and also include juvenile court adjudications, findings under Minnesota Rules of Criminal
Procedure, rule 20.02, that the elements of a crime have been proved, and findings in
commitment cases under this section or chapter 253D that an act or acts constituting a crime
occurred or were part of their course of harmful sexual conduct.

(b) A county attorney who files a petition to commit a person under this section or chapter
253D shall make a reasonable effort to provide prompt notice of filing the petition to any
victim of a crime for which the person was convicted. In addition, the county attorney shall
make a reasonable effort to promptly notify the victim of the resolution of the petition and
the process for requesting notification of an individual's change in status as provided in
paragraph (c).

(c) A victim may request notification of an individual's discharge or release as provided
in paragraph (d) by submitting a written request for notification to the executive director of
the facility in which the individual is confined. The Department of Corrections or a county
attorney who receives a request for notification from a victim under this section shall
promptly forward the request to the executive director of the treatment facility in which the
individual is confined.

(d) Before provisionally discharging, discharging, granting pass-eligible status, approving
a pass plan, or otherwise permanently or temporarily releasing a person committed under
this section from a state-operated treatment program or treatment facility, the head of the
state-operated treatment program or head of the treatment facility shall make a reasonable
effort to notify any victim of a crime for which the person was convicted that the person
may be discharged or released and that the victim has a right to submit a written statement
regarding decisions of the medical director, special review board, or commissioner with
respect to the person. To the extent possible, the notice must be provided at least 14 days
before any special review board hearing or before a determination on a pass plan.
Notwithstanding section 611A.06, subdivision 4, the commissioner shall provide the judicial
appeal panel with victim information in order to comply with the provisions of this section.
The judicial appeal panel shall ensure that the data on victims remains private as provided
for in section 611A.06, subdivision 4. These notices shall only be provided to victims who
have submitted a written request for notification as provided in paragraph (c).

(e) The rights under this subdivision are in addition to rights available to a victim under
chapter 611A. This provision does not give a victim all the rights of a "notified person" or
a person "entitled to statutory notice" under subdivision 4a, 4b, or 5 or section 253D.14.

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 253D.14, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

As used in this section:

(1) "crime" has the meaning given to "violent crime" in section 609.1095, and includes
criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree and offenses within the definition of "crime
against the person" in section 253B.02, subdivision 4e, and also includes offenses listed in
section 253D.02, subdivision 8, paragraph (b), regardless of whether they are sexually
motivated;

(2) "victim" means a person who has incurred loss or harm as a result of a crime, the
behavior for which forms the basis for a commitment under this chapternew text begin , and includes the
family members, guardian, conservator, or custodian of a minor, incompetent, incapacitated,
or deceased personnew text end ; and

(3) "convicted" and "conviction" have the meanings given in section 609.02, subdivision
5, and also include juvenile court adjudications, findings under Minnesota Rules of Criminal
Procedure, rule 20.02, that the elements of a crime have been proved, and findings in
commitment cases under this section or section 253B.18, that an act or acts constituting a
crime occurred.

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 260B.198, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Continuance.

(a) When it is in the best interests of the child to do so and not
inimical to public safety and when the child has admitted the allegations contained in the
petition before the judge or referee, or when a hearing has been held as provided for in
section 260B.163 and the allegations contained in the petition have been duly proven but,
in either case, before a finding of delinquency has been entered, the court may continue the
case for a period not to exceed 180 days on any one order. new text begin Except as otherwise provided in
paragraph (c), new text end the continuance may be extended for one additional successive period not to
exceed 180 days, but only with the consent of the prosecutor and only after the court has
reviewed the case and entered its order for the additional continuance without a finding of
delinquency. During a continuance the court may enter an order in accordance with the
provisions of subdivision 1, except clause (4), or enter an order to hold the child in detention
for a period not to exceed 15 days on any one order for the purpose of completing any
consideration, or any investigation or examination ordered in accordance with the provisions
of section 260B.157.

(b) A prosecutor may appeal a continuance ordered in contravention of this subdivision.
This subdivision does not extend the court's jurisdiction under section 260B.193 and does
not apply to an extended jurisdiction juvenile proceeding.

new text begin (c) A continuance granted under paragraph (a) for a violation of section 609.342; 609.343;
609.344; 609.345; 609.3451; 609.746, subdivision 1; 609.79; or 617.23 or another offense
arising out of a delinquency petition based on one or more of those sections that would
require the child to register as a predatory offender under section 243.166, may be extended
for additional successive periods not to exceed a total of 24 months so the offender can
receive sex offender treatment, but only with the consent of the prosecutor and only after
the court has reviewed the case and entered its order for the additional continuance without
a finding of delinquency.
 new text end

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 325E.21, subdivision 1b, is amended
to read:


Subd. 1b.

Purchase or acquisition record required.

(a) Every scrap metal dealer,
including an agent, employee, or representative of the dealer, shall create a deleted text begin permanentdeleted text end record
written in English, using an electronic record program at the time of each purchase or
acquisition of scrap metal or a motor vehicle. The record must include:

(1) a complete and accurate account or description, including the weight if customarily
purchased by weight, of the scrap metal or motor vehicle purchased or acquired;

(2) the date, time, and place of the receipt of the scrap metal or motor vehicle purchased
or acquired and a unique transaction identifier;

(3) a photocopy or electronic scan of the seller's proof of identification including the
identification number;

(4) the amount paid and the number of the check or electronic transfer used to purchase
or acquire the scrap metal or motor vehicle;

(5) the license plate number and description of the vehicle used by the person when
delivering the scrap metal or motor vehicle, including the vehicle make and model, and any
identifying marks on the vehicle, such as a business name, decals, or markings, if applicable;

(6) a statement signed by the seller, under penalty of perjury as provided in section
609.48, attesting that the scrap metal or motor vehicle is not stolen and is free of any liens
or encumbrances and the seller has the right to sell it;

(7) a copy of the receipt, which must include at least the following information: the name
and address of the dealer, the date and time the scrap metal or motor vehicle was received
by the dealer, an accurate description of the scrap metal or motor vehicle, and the amount
paid for the scrap metal or motor vehicle;new text begin and
new text end

deleted text begin (8) in order to purchase or acquire a detached catalytic converter, the vehicle identification
number of the car it was removed from or, as an alternative, any numbers, bar codes, stickers,
or other unique markings, whether resulting from the pilot project created under subdivision
2b or some other source. The alternative number must be under a numbering system that
can be immediately linked to the vehicle identification number by law enforcement; and
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (9)deleted text end new text begin (8)new text end the identity or identifier of the employee completing the transaction.

(b) The record, as well as the scrap metal or motor vehicle purchased or acquired, shall
at all reasonable times be open to the inspection of any properly identified law enforcement
officer.

(c) Except for the purchase or acquisition of detached catalytic converters or motor
vehicles, no record is required for property purchased or acquired from merchants,
manufacturers, salvage pools, insurance companies, rental car companies, financial
institutions, charities, dealers licensed under section 168.27, or wholesale dealers, having
an established place of business, or of any goods purchased or acquired at open sale from
any bankrupt stock, but a receipt as required under paragraph (a), clause (7), shall be obtained
and kept by the person, which must be shown upon demand to any properly identified law
enforcement officer.

(d) The dealer must provide a copy of the receipt required under paragraph (a), clause
(7), to the seller in every transaction.

(e) The commissioner of public safety and law enforcement agencies in the jurisdiction
where a dealer is located may conduct inspections and audits as necessary to ensure
compliance, refer violations to the city or county attorney for criminal prosecution, and
notify the registrar of motor vehicles.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a scrap metal dealer or the dealer's agent,
employee, or representative may not disclose personal information concerning a customer
without the customer's consent unless the disclosure is required by law or made in response
to a request from a law enforcement agency. A scrap metal dealer must implement reasonable
safeguards to protect the security of the personal information and prevent unauthorized
access to or disclosure of the information. For purposes of this paragraph, "personal
information" is any individually identifiable information gathered in connection with a
record under paragraph (a).

Sec. 21.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 325E.21, subdivision 11, is amended
to read:


Subd. 11.

Prohibition on possessing catalytic converters; exception.

(a) It is unlawful
for a person to possess a used catalytic converter that is not attached to a motor vehicle
except when:

(1) the converter is marked with the date the converter was removed from the vehicle
and the identification number of the vehicle from which the converter was removed or deleted text begin an
alternative number to the vehicle identification numberdeleted text end new text begin , as an alternative to the vehicle
identification number, any numbers, bar codes, stickers, or other unique markings, whether
resulting from the pilot project created under subdivision 2b or some other sourcenew text end ; or

(2) the converter has been EPA certified for reuse as a replacement part.

(b) If an alternative number to the vehicle identification number is used, it must be under
a numbering system that can be immediately linked to the vehicle identification number by
law enforcement. The marking of the vehicle identification or alternative number may be
made in any permanent manner, including but not limited to an engraving or use of permanent
ink. The marking must clearly and legibly indicate the date removed and the vehicle
identification number or the alternative number and the method by which law enforcement
can link the converter to the vehicle identification number.

Sec. 22.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609.35, is amended to read:


609.35 COSTS OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION.

(a) Costs incurred by a hospital or other emergency medical facility or by a physician,
sexual assault nurse examiner, forensic nurse, or other licensed health care provider for the
examination of a victim of criminal sexual conduct that occurred in the state shall be paid
by the state. These costs include, but are not limited to, the cost of the medical forensic
examination, associated tests and treatments relating to sexually transmitted infection, and
pregnancy status, including emergency contraception. A hospital, emergency medical facility,
or health care provider shall submit the costs for examination and any associated tests and
treatment to the Office of Justice Programs for payment. Upon receipt of the costs, the
commissioner shall provide payment to the facility or health care provider. Reimbursement
for an examination and any associated test and treatments shall not exceed $1,400. Beginning
on January 1, 2024, the maximum amount of an award shall be adjusted annually by the
inflation rate.

(b) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the duties, responsibilities, or
liabilities of any insurer, whether public or private. The hospital or other licensed health
care provider performing the examination may seek insurance reimbursement from the
victim's insurer only if authorized by the victim. This authorization may only be sought
after the examination is performed. When seeking this authorization, the hospital or other
licensed health care provider shall inform the victim that if the victim does not authorize
this, the state is required by law to pay for the examination and that the victim is in no way
liable for these costs or obligated to authorize the reimbursement.

(c) The applicability of this section does not depend upon whether the victim reports
the offense to law enforcement or the existence or status of any investigation or prosecution.

new text begin (d) Requests for reimbursement and supporting documents are private data on individuals
as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment and
applies to data requests received before that date if the responsible authority has not yet
provided a response.
 new text end

Sec. 23.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611A.039, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Notice required.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2,
within 15 working days after a conviction, acquittal, or dismissal in a criminal case in which
there is an identifiable crime victim, the prosecutor shall make reasonable good faith efforts
to provide to each affected crime victim oral or written notice of the final disposition of the
case and of the victim rights under section 611A.06. When the court is considering modifying
the sentence for a felony or a crime of violence or an attempted crime of violence, the
prosecutor shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to notify the victim of the crime.
deleted text begin If the victim is incapacitated or deceased, notice must be given to the victim's family. If the
victim is a minor, notice must be given to the victim's parent or guardian.deleted text end The notice must
include:

(1) the date and approximate time of the review;

(2) the location where the review will occur;

(3) the name and telephone number of a person to contact for additional information;
and

(4) a statement that the victim deleted text begin and victim's familydeleted text end may provide input to the court
concerning the sentence modification.

(b) The Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety shall develop and
update a model notice of postconviction rights under this subdivision and section 611A.06.

(c) As used in this sectiondeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin :
new text end

new text begin (1)new text end "crime of violence" has the meaning given in section 624.712, subdivision 5, and
also includes violations of section 609.3458, gross misdemeanor violations of section
609.224, and nonfelony violations of sections 518B.01, 609.2231, 609.3451, 609.748, and
609.749deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end

new text begin (2) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b).
 new text end

Sec. 24.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 611A.06, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 2a. new text end

new text begin Notice of end-of-confinement review committee process and opportunity
to provide input. new text end

new text begin If an individual scheduled to be released from imprisonment is subject
to an end-of-confinement review under section 244.052, the commissioner of corrections
shall make a good faith effort to notify the victim of the end-of-confinement review process
and that the victim has a right to submit written input for consideration at the
end-of-confinement review hearing. The victim has a continuing right to submit input if the
end-of-confinement review committee receives a request to reassess the individual's assigned
risk level. These notices shall only be provided to victims who have submitted a written
request for this notice to the commissioner of corrections or an electronic request through
the Department of Corrections electronic victim notification system. The good faith effort
to notify the victim must occur before the offender's end-of-confinement review hearing
and provide sufficient time for the input to be considered in the end-of-confinement
determination.
 new text end

Sec. 25.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 611A.212, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Grants.

The commissioner of public safety shall award grants new text begin for
statewide organizations new text end tonew text begin provide subgrants, support, resources, and technical assistance
to sexual assaultnew text end programs that provide sexual assault primary prevention services to prevent
initial perpetration or victimization of sexual assault.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 26.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611A.52, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:


Subd. 5.

Collateral source.

"Collateral source" means a source of benefits or advantages
for economic loss otherwise reimbursable under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68 which the
victim or claimant has received, or which is readily available to the victim, from:

(1) the offender;

(2) the government of the United States or any agency thereof, a state or any of its
political subdivisions, or an instrumentality of two or more states, unless the law providing
for the benefits or advantages makes them excess or secondary to benefits under sections
611A.51 to 611A.68;

(3) Social Security, Medicare, and Medicaid;

(4) state required temporary nonoccupational disability insurance;

(5) workers' compensation;

(6) wage continuation programs of any employer;

(7) proceeds of a contract of insurance payable to the victim for economic loss sustained
because of the crime;

(8) a contract providing prepaid hospital and other health care services, or benefits for
disability;new text begin or
new text end

deleted text begin (9) any private source as a voluntary donation or gift; or
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (10)deleted text end new text begin (9)new text end proceeds of a lawsuit brought as a result of the crime.

The term does not include a life insurance contract new text begin or benefits from any private source
provided as a voluntary donation or giftnew text end .

Sec. 27.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 611A.73, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Victim.

"Victim" deleted text begin refers to anyone or the next of kin of anyone who has been
or purports to have been subjected to a criminal act, whether a felony, a gross misdemeanor,
or misdemeanordeleted text end new text begin has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b)new text end .

Sec. 28.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 629.72, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have
the meanings given them.

(b) "Domestic abuse" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.

(c) "Harass" and "stalking" have the meanings given in section 609.749.

(d) "Violation of a domestic abuse no contact order" has the meaning given in section
629.75.

(e) "Violation of an order for protection" has the meaning given in section 518B.01,
subdivision 14.

new text begin (f) "Victim" has the meaning in section 611A.01, paragraph (b).
 new text end

Sec. 29.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 629.72, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Notice to victim regarding bail hearing.

(a) When a person arrested for or a
juvenile detained for domestic assault or harassing or stalking is scheduled to be reviewed
under subdivision 2 for release from pretrial detention, the court shall make a reasonable
good faith effort to notifydeleted text begin :
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1)deleted text end the victim of the alleged crimedeleted text begin ;deleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (2) if the victim is incapacitated or deceased, the victim's family; and
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) if the victim is a minor, the victim's parent or guardian.
 deleted text end

(b) The notification must include:

(1) the date and approximate time of the review;

(2) the location where the review will occur;

(3) the name and telephone number of a person that can be contacted for additional
information; and

(4) a statement that the victim deleted text begin and the victim's familydeleted text end may attend the review.

Sec. 30.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 629.725, is amended to read:


629.725 NOTICE TO VICTIM REGARDING BAIL HEARING OF ARRESTED
OR DETAINED PERSON.

(a) When a person arrested or a juvenile detained for a crime of violence or an attempted
crime of violence is scheduled to be reviewed under section 629.715 for release from pretrial
detention, the court shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to notify the victim of the
alleged crime. deleted text begin If the victim is incapacitated or deceased, notice must be given to the victim's
family. If the victim is a minor, notice must be given to the victim's parent or guardian.deleted text end The
notification must include:

(1) the date and approximate time of the review;

(2) the location where the review will occur;

(3) the name and telephone number of a person that can be contacted for additional
information; and

(4) a statement that the victim and the victim's family may attend the review.

(b) As used in this sectiondeleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin :
new text end

new text begin (1)new text end "crime of violence" has the meaning given it in section 624.712, subdivision 5, and
also includes:

deleted text begin (1)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end sections 609.2112, 609.2113, 609.2114, and 609.3458;

deleted text begin (2)deleted text end new text begin (ii)new text end gross misdemeanor violations of section 609.224;

deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (iii)new text end nonfelony violations of sections 518B.01, 609.2231, 609.3451, 609.748, and
609.749; and

deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (iv)new text end Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21deleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end

new text begin (2) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b).
 new text end

Sec. 31.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 629.73, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Oral notice.

When a person arrested or a juvenile detained for a crime
of violence or an attempted crime of violence is about to be released from pretrial detention,
the agency having custody of the arrested or detained person or its designee shall make a
reasonable and good faith effort before release to inform orally the victim deleted text begin or, if the victim
is incapacitated, the same or next of kin, or if the victim is a minor, the victim's parent or
guardiandeleted text end of the following matters:

(1) the conditions of release, if any;

(2) the time of release;

(3) the time, date, and place of the next scheduled court appearance of the arrested or
detained person and, where applicable, the victim's right to be present at the court appearance;
and

(4) the location and telephone number of at least one area crime victim service provider
as designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety.

Sec. 32.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 629.73, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Definition, new text end

new text begin As used in this section, "victim" has the meaning given in section
611A.01, paragraph (b).
 new text end

Sec. 33. new text begin GRAND PORTAGE BAND OF LAKE SUPERIOR CHIPPEWA TRIBE;
COAST GUARD SERVICES; GRANT PURPOSES EXPANSION.
new text end

new text begin In addition to the uses specified in Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 2, section 3, subdivision
3, paragraph (d), the Grand Portage Band of Lake Superior Chippewa may use the grant
awarded for equipment, personnel, patrolling, and other related costs of providing coast
guard services off the north shore of Lake Superior.
 new text end

ARTICLE 5

MISCELLANEOUS CRIMINAL JUSTICE PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 13.02, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Criminal justice agencies.

"Criminal justice agencies" means all state and
local prosecution authorities, all state and local law enforcement agencies, the Sentencing
Guidelines Commission, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, the Department of
Corrections, new text begin the Minnesota National Guard, new text end and all probation officers who are not part of
the judiciary.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 260B.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Delinquent child.

(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)new text begin ,new text end deleted text begin anddeleted text end (c),
new text begin and (d), new text end "delinquent child" means a child:

(1) who has violated any state or local law, except as provided in section 260B.225,
subdivision 1, and except for juvenile offenders as described in subdivisions 16 to 18;

(2) who has violated a federal law or a law of another state and whose case has been
referred to the juvenile court if the violation would be an act of delinquency if committed
in this state or a crime or offense if committed by an adult;

(3) who has escaped from confinement to a state juvenile correctional facility after being
committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections; or

(4) who has escaped from confinement to a local juvenile correctional facility after being
committed to the facility by the court.

(b) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed murder
in the first degree after becoming 16 years of age, but the term delinquent child does include
a child alleged to have committed attempted murder in the first degree.

(c) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have engaged in conduct
which would, if committed by an adult, violate any federal, state, or local law relating to
being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage in
sexual penetration or sexual conduct.

new text begin (d) Effective August 1, 2026, and applied to acts committed on or after that date, the
term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed a delinquent act
before becoming 13 years old.
 new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 260B.007, subdivision 16, is amended to read:


Subd. 16.

Juvenile petty offender; juvenile petty offense.

(a) "Juvenile petty offense"
includes a juvenile alcohol offense, a juvenile controlled substance offense, a violation of
section 609.685, or a violation of a local ordinance, which by its terms prohibits conduct
by a child under the age of 18 years which would be lawful conduct if committed by an
adult.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), "juvenile petty offense" also includes
an offense that would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult.

(c) "Juvenile petty offense" does not include any of the following:

(1) a misdemeanor-level violation of section 518B.01, 588.20, 609.224, 609.2242,
609.324, subdivision 2 or 3, 609.5632, 609.576, 609.66, 609.746, 609.748, 609.79, or
617.23;

(2) a major traffic offense or an adult court traffic offense, as described in section
260B.225;

(3) a misdemeanor-level offense committed by a child whom the juvenile court previously
has found to have committed a misdemeanor, gross misdemeanor, or felony offense; or

(4) a misdemeanor-level offense committed by a child whom the juvenile court has
found to have committed a misdemeanor-level juvenile petty offense on two or more prior
occasions, unless the county attorney designates the child on the petition as a juvenile petty
offender notwithstanding this prior record. As used in this clause, "misdemeanor-level
juvenile petty offense" includes a misdemeanor-level offense that would have been a juvenile
petty offense if it had been committed on or after July 1, 1995.

(d) A child who commits a juvenile petty offense is a "juvenile petty offender." The
term juvenile petty offender does not include a child alleged to have violated any law relating
to being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage
in sexual penetration or sexual conduct which, if committed by an adult, would be a
misdemeanor.

new text begin (e) Effective August 1, 2026, and applied to acts committed on or after that date,
notwithstanding any contrary provision in paragraphs (a) to (d), a juvenile petty offender
does not include a child who is alleged to have committed a juvenile petty offense before
reaching the age of 13 years.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 260C.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:


Subd. 6.

Child in need of protection or services.

"Child in need of protection or
services" means a child who is in need of protection or services because the child:

(1) is abandoned or without parent, guardian, or custodian;

(2)(i) has been a victim of physical or sexual abuse as defined in section 260E.03,
subdivision 18 or 20, (ii) resides with or has resided with a victim of child abuse as defined
in subdivision 5 or domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13, (iii) resides with or
would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13 or child
abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or 13, or (iv) is a victim of emotional maltreatment as
defined in subdivision 15;

(3) is without necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or other required care for the
child's physical or mental health or morals because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian
is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

(4) is without the special care made necessary by a physical, mental, or emotional
condition because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide
that care;

(5) is medically neglected, which includes, but is not limited to, the withholding of
medically indicated treatment from an infant with a disability with a life-threatening
condition. The term "withholding of medically indicated treatment" means the failure to
respond to the infant's life-threatening conditions by providing treatment, including
appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication which, in the treating physician's, advanced
practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment, will be
most likely to be effective in ameliorating or correcting all conditions, except that the term
does not include the failure to provide treatment other than appropriate nutrition, hydration,
or medication to an infant when, in the treating physician's, advanced practice registered
nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment:

(i) the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose;

(ii) the provision of the treatment would merely prolong dying, not be effective in
ameliorating or correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be
futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or

(iii) the provision of the treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of
the infant and the treatment itself under the circumstances would be inhumane;

(6) is one whose parent, guardian, or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved
of the child's care and custody, including a child who entered foster care under a voluntary
placement agreement between the parent and the responsible social services agency under
section 260C.227;

(7) has been placed for adoption or care in violation of law;

(8) is without proper parental care because of the emotional, mental, or physical disability,
or state of immaturity of the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian;

(9) is one whose behavior, condition, or environment is such as to be injurious or
dangerous to the child or others. An injurious or dangerous environment may include, but
is not limited to, the exposure of a child to criminal activity in the child's home;

(10) is experiencing growth delays, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that
have been diagnosed by a physician and are due to parental neglect;

(11) is a sexually exploited youth;

(12) has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming ten
years oldnew text begin . This clause expires July 31, 2026new text end ;

(13) is a runaway;

(14) is a habitual truant;

(15) has been found incompetent to proceed or has been found not guilty by reason of
mental illness or mental deficiency in connection with a delinquency proceeding, a
certification under section 260B.125, an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, or a
proceeding involving a juvenile petty offense; deleted text begin or
deleted text end

(16) has a parent whose parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily
terminated or whose custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to
a relative and there is a case plan prepared by the responsible social services agency
documenting a compelling reason why filing the termination of parental rights petition under
section 260C.503, subdivision 2, is not in the best interests of the childdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; or
new text end

new text begin (17) effective August 1, 2026, has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense
before becoming 13 years old.
 new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 590.01, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Time limit.

(a) No petition for postconviction relief may be filed more than
two years after the later of:

(1) the entry of judgment of conviction or sentence if no direct appeal is filed; or

(2) an appellate court's disposition of petitioner's direct appeal.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a court may hear a petition for postconviction relief
if:

(1) the petitioner establishes that a physical disability or mental disease precluded a
timely assertion of the claim;

(2) the petitioner alleges the existence of newly discovered evidence, including scientific
evidence, that new text begin provides facts necessary to sustain one or more legally cognizable claims for
postconviction relief, if such evidence new text end could not have been ascertained by the exercise of
due diligence by the petitioner or petitioner's attorney within the two-year time period for
filing a postconviction petition, deleted text begin and the evidencedeleted text end is not cumulative to evidence presented
at trial, new text begin and new text end is not for impeachment purposesdeleted text begin , and establishes by a clear and convincing
standard that the petitioner is innocent of the offense or offenses for which the petitioner
was convicteddeleted text end ;

(3) the petitioner asserts a new interpretation of federal or state constitutional or statutory
law by either the United States Supreme Court or a Minnesota appellate court and the
petitioner establishes that this interpretation is retroactively applicable to the petitioner's
case; new text begin or
new text end

(4) the petition is brought pursuant to subdivision 3deleted text begin ; ordeleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (5) the petitioner establishes to the satisfaction of the court that the petition is not frivolous
deleted text end deleted text begin and is in the interests of justice.
 deleted text end

(c) Any petition invoking an exception provided in paragraph (b) must be filed within
two years of the date the claim arises.

new text begin (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), (b), or (c), a court may hear a petition for
postconviction relief regardless of when it is filed if the petitioner establishes to the
satisfaction of the court that the petition is not frivolous and is in the interests of justice.
 new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 590.03, is amended to read:


590.03 PLEADINGS AND PRACTICE AFTER FILING A POSTCONVICTION
PETITION.

Within deleted text begin 20deleted text end new text begin 45new text end days after the filing of the petition pursuant to section 590.01 or within
such time as the judge to whom the matter has been assigned may fix, the county attorney,
or the attorney general, on behalf of the state, shall respond to the petition by answer or
motion which shall be filed with the court administrator of district court and served on the
petitioner if unrepresented or on the petitioner's attorney. No further pleadings are necessary
except as the court may order. The court may at any time prior to its decision on the merits
permit a withdrawal of the petition, may permit amendments thereto, and to the answer.
The court shall liberally construe the petition and any amendments thereto and shall look
to the substance thereof and waive any irregularities or defects in form.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 604A.05, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Person deleted text begin seeking medicaldeleted text end new text begin providingnew text end assistance; immunity from
prosecution.

A person acting in good faith who seeks medical assistance for new text begin or acts in
concert with a person seeking medical assistance for new text end another person who is experiencing a
drug-related overdose may not be charged or prosecuted for the possession, sharing, or use
of a controlled substance under section 152.023, subdivision 2, deleted text begin clauses (4) and (6),deleted text end 152.024,
or 152.025deleted text begin , or possession of drug paraphernaliadeleted text end . A person qualifies for the immunities
provided in this subdivision only if:

(1) the evidence for the charge or prosecution was obtained as a result of the person's
seeking medical assistance for new text begin or acting in concert with a person seeking medical assistance
for new text end another person; and

(2) the person seeks medical assistance for new text begin or acts in concert with a person seeking
medical assistance for new text end another person who is in need of medical assistance for an immediate
health or safety concern, provided that the person deleted text begin who seeks the medical assistance is the
deleted text end deleted text begin first person to seek the assistance,deleted text end provides a name and contact information, remains on the
scene until assistance arrives or is provided, and cooperates with the authorities.

Good faith does not include seeking medical assistance during the course of the execution
of an arrest warrant or search warrant or a lawful search.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to acts
committed on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609A.015, subdivision 3, as amended
by Laws 2024, chapter 80, article 8, section 63, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Eligibility; certain criminal proceedings.

(a) A person is eligible for a grant
of expungement relief if the person:

(1) was convicted of a qualifying offense;

(2) has not been convicted of a new offense, other than an offense that would be a petty
misdemeanor, in Minnesota:

(i) during the applicable waiting period immediately following discharge of the disposition
or sentence for the crime; or

(ii) during the applicable waiting period immediately preceding a subsequent review
performed pursuant to subdivision 5, paragraph (a); and

(3) is not charged with an offense, other than an offense that would be a petty
misdemeanor, in Minnesota at the time the person reaches the end of the applicable waiting
period or at the time of a subsequent review.

(b) As used in this subdivision, "qualifying offense" means a conviction for:

(1) any petty misdemeanor offense other than a violation of a traffic regulation relating
to the operation or parking of motor vehicles;

(2) any misdemeanor offense other than:

(i) section 169A.20 under the terms described in section 169A.27 (fourth-degree driving
while impaired);

(ii) section 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of an order for protection);

(iii) section 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree);

(iv) section 609.2242 (domestic assault);

(v) section 609.746 (interference with privacy);

(vi) section 609.748 (violation of a harassment restraining order);

(vii) section 609.78 (interference with emergency call);

(viii) section 609.79 (obscene or harassing phone calls);

(ix) section 617.23 (indecent exposure); or

(x) section 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order);

(3) any gross misdemeanor offense other than:

new text begin (i) section 169.13, subdivision 1, if the person causes great bodily harm or death to
another (reckless driving resulting in great bodily harm or death);
 new text end

deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (ii)new text end section 169A.25 (second-degree driving while impaired);

deleted text begin (ii)deleted text end new text begin (iii)new text end section 169A.26 (third-degree driving while impaired);

deleted text begin (iii)deleted text end new text begin (iv)new text end section 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violation of an order for protection);

deleted text begin (iv)deleted text end new text begin (v)new text end section 609.2113, subdivision 3 (criminal vehicular operation);

deleted text begin (v)deleted text end new text begin (vi)new text end section 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree);

deleted text begin (vi)deleted text end new text begin (vii)new text end section 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree);

deleted text begin (vii)deleted text end new text begin (viii)new text end section 609.2242 (domestic assault);

deleted text begin (viii)deleted text end new text begin (ix)new text end section 609.233 (criminal neglect);

deleted text begin (ix)deleted text end new text begin (x)new text end section 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree);

deleted text begin (x)deleted text end new text begin (xi)new text end section 609.377 (malicious punishment of child);

deleted text begin (xi)deleted text end new text begin (xii)new text end section 609.485 (escape from custody);

deleted text begin (xii)deleted text end new text begin (xiii)new text end section 609.498 (tampering with witness);

deleted text begin (xiii)deleted text end new text begin (xiv)new text end section 609.582, subdivision 4 (burglary in the fourth degree);

deleted text begin (xiv)deleted text end new text begin (xv)new text end section 609.746 (interference with privacy);

deleted text begin (xv)deleted text end new text begin (xvi)new text end section 609.748 (violation of a harassment restraining order);

deleted text begin (xvi)deleted text end new text begin (xvii)new text end section 609.749 (harassment; stalking);

deleted text begin (xvii)deleted text end new text begin (xviii)new text end section 609.78 (interference with emergency call);

deleted text begin (xviii)deleted text end new text begin (xix)new text end section 617.23 (indecent exposure);

deleted text begin (xix)deleted text end new text begin (xx)new text end section 617.261 (nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images); or

deleted text begin (xx)deleted text end new text begin (xxi)new text end section 629.75 (violation of domestic abuse no contact order); or

(4) any felony offense listed in section 609A.02, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), other
than:

(i) section 152.023, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the third
degree);

(ii) 152.024, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the fourth degree);

(iii) section 609.485, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (2) or (4) (escape from civil
commitment for mental illness); deleted text begin or
deleted text end

(iv) new text begin section 609.582, subdivision 3, paragraph (a) (burglary in the third degree; other
than trespass); or
new text end

new text begin (v)new text end section 609.746, subdivision 1, paragraph deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end (interference with privacy;
subsequent violation or minor victim).

(c) As used in this subdivision, "applicable waiting period" means:

(1) if the offense was a petty misdemeanor, two years since discharge of the sentence;

(2) if the offense was a misdemeanor, two years since discharge of the sentence for the
crime;

(3) if the offense was a gross misdemeanor, three years since discharge of the sentence
for the crime;

(4) if the offense was a felony violation of section 152.025, four years since the discharge
of the sentence for the crime; and

(5) if the offense was any other felony, five years since discharge of the sentence for the
crime.

(d) Felony offenses deemed to be a gross misdemeanor or misdemeanor pursuant to
section 609.13, subdivision 1, remain ineligible for expungement under this section. Gross
misdemeanor offenses ineligible for a grant of expungement under this section remain
ineligible if deemed to be for a misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 2.

(e) The service requirements in section 609A.03, subdivision 8, do not apply to any
expungements ordered under this subdivision.

(f) An expungement order does not apply to records held by the commissioners of
children, youth, and families; health; and human services.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 609A.02, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:


Subd. 3.

Certain criminal proceedings.

(a) A petition may be filed under section
609A.03 to seal all records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, or verdict
if the records are not subject to section 299C.11, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and if:

(1) all pending actions or proceedings were resolved in favor of the petitioner. For
purposes of this chapter, a verdict of not guilty by reason of mental illness is not a resolution
in favor of the petitioner. For the purposes of this chapter, an action or proceeding is resolved
in favor of the petitioner, if the petitioner received an order under section 590.11 determining
that the petitioner is eligible for compensation based on exoneration;

(2) the petitioner has successfully completed the terms of a diversion program or stay
of adjudication and has not been charged with a new crime for at least one year since
completion of the diversion program or stay of adjudication;

(3) the petitioner was convicted of a petty misdemeanor or misdemeanor or the sentence
imposed was within the limits provided by law for a misdemeanor and the petitioner has
not been convicted of a new crime for at least two years since discharge of the sentence for
the crime;

(4) the petitioner was convicted of a gross misdemeanor or the sentence imposed was
within the limits provided by law for a gross misdemeanor and the petitioner has not been
convicted of a new crime for at least three years since discharge of the sentence for the
crime;

(5) the petitioner was convicted of a gross misdemeanor that is deemed to be for a
misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 2, clause (2), and has not been convicted
of a new crime for at least three years since discharge of the sentence for the crime;

(6) the petitioner was convicted of a felony violation of section 152.025 and has not
been convicted of a new crime for at least four years since discharge of the sentence for the
crime;

(7) the petitioner was convicted of a felony that is deemed to be for a gross misdemeanor
or misdemeanor pursuant to section 609.13, subdivision 1, clause (2), and has not been
convicted of a new crime for at leastnew text begin :
new text end

new text begin (i) four years since discharge of the sentence for the crime if the conviction was for an
offense listed in paragraph (b); or
 new text end

new text begin (ii)new text end five years since discharge of the sentence for the crimenew text begin if the conviction was for any
other offensenew text end ; or

(8) the petitioner was convicted of a felony violation of an offense listed in paragraph
(b), and has not been convicted of a new crime for at least four years since discharge of the
sentence for the crime.

(b) Paragraph (a), clause (7), applies to the following offenses:

(1) section 35.824 (altering livestock certificate);

(2) section 62A.41 (insurance regulations);

(3) section 86B.865, subdivision 1 (certification for title on watercraft);

(4) section 152.023, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the third
degree); 152.024, subdivision 2 (possession of a controlled substance in the fourth degree);
152.025 (controlled substance in the fifth degree); or 152.097 (sale of simulated controlled
substance);

(5) section 168A.30, subdivision 1 (certificate of title false information); or 169.09,
subdivision 14, paragraph (a), clause (2) (accident resulting in great bodily harm);

(6) chapter 201; 203B; or 204C (voting violations);

(7) section 228.45; 228.47; 228.49; 228.50; or 228.51 (false bill of lading);

(8) section 256.984 (false declaration in assistance application);

(9) section 296A.23, subdivision 2 (willful evasion of fuel tax);

(10) section 297D.09, subdivision 1 (failure to affix stamp on scheduled substances);

(11) section 297G.19 (liquor taxation); or 340A.701 (unlawful acts involving liquor);

(12) section 325F.743 (precious metal dealers); or 325F.755, subdivision 7 (prize notices
and solicitations);

(13) section 346.155, subdivision 10 (failure to control regulated animal);

(14) section 349.2127; or 349.22 (gambling regulations);

(15) section 588.20 (contempt);

(16) section 609.27, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (5) (coercion);

(17) section 609.31 (leaving state to evade establishment of paternity);

(18) section 609.485, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (2) or (4) (escape from civil
commitment for mental illness);

(19) section 609.49 (failure to appear in court);

(20) section 609.52, subdivision 2, when sentenced pursuant to section 609.52,
subdivision 3, clause (3)(a) (theft of $5,000 or less) or 609.52, subdivision 3a, clause (1)
(theft of $1,000 or less with risk of bodily harm); or any other offense sentenced pursuant
to section 609.52, subdivision 3, clause (3)(a);

(21) section 609.521 (possession of shoplifting gear);

(22) section 609.525 (bringing stolen goods into state);

(23) section 609.526, subdivision 2, clause (2) (metal dealer receiving stolen goods);

(24) section 609.527, subdivision 5b (possession or use of scanning device or reencoder);
609.528, subdivision 3, clause (3) (possession or sale of stolen or counterfeit check); or
609.529 (mail theft);

(25) section 609.53 (receiving stolen goods);

(26) section 609.535, subdivision 2a, paragraph (a), clause (1) (dishonored check over
$500);

(27) section 609.54, clause (1) (embezzlement of public funds $2,500 or less);

(28) section 609.551 (rustling and livestock theft);

(29) section 609.5641, subdivision 1a, paragraph (a) (wildfire arson);

(30) section 609.576, subdivision 1, clause (3), item (iii) (negligent fires);

(31) section 609.582, subdivision 3 (burglary in the third degree);

(32) section 609.59 (possession of burglary or theft tools);

(33) section 609.595, subdivision 1, clauses (3) to (5), and subdivision 1a, paragraph
(a) (criminal damage to property);

(34) section 609.597, subdivision 3, clause (3) (assaulting or harming police horse);

(35) section 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63 (forgery); 609.631, subdivision 4,
clause (3)(a) (check forgery new text begin and offering forged check, new text end $2,500 or less); 609.635 (obtaining
signature by false pretense); 609.64 (recording, filing forged instrument); or 609.645
(fraudulent statements);

(36) section 609.65, clause (1) (false certification by notary); or 609.651, subdivision
4, paragraph (a) (lottery fraud);

(37) section 609.652 (fraudulent driver's license and identification card);

(38) section 609.66, subdivision 1a, paragraph (a) (discharge of firearm; silencer); or
609.66, subdivision 1b (furnishing firearm to minor);

(39) section 609.662, subdivision 2, paragraph (b) (duty to render aid);

(40) section 609.686, subdivision 2 (tampering with fire alarm);

(41) section 609.746, subdivision 1, paragraph (g) (interference with privacy; subsequent
violation or minor victim);

(42) section 609.80, subdivision 2 (interference with cable communications system);

(43) section 609.821, subdivision 2 (financial transaction card fraud);

(44) section 609.822 (residential mortgage fraud);

(45) section 609.825, subdivision 2 (bribery of participant or official in contest);

(46) section 609.855, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), clause (1) (interference with transit
operator);

(47) section 609.88 (computer damage); or 609.89 (computer theft);

(48) section 609.893, subdivision 2 (telecommunications and information services fraud);

(49) section 609.894, subdivision 3 or 4 (cellular counterfeiting);

(50) section 609.895, subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b) (counterfeited intellectual
property);

(51) section 609.896 (movie pirating);

(52) section 624.7132, subdivision 15, paragraph (b) (transfer pistol to minor); 624.714,
subdivision 1a (pistol without permit; subsequent violation); or 624.7141, subdivision 2
(transfer of pistol to ineligible person); or

(53) section 624.7181 (rifle or shotgun in public by minor).

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.55, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Definition.

As used in this section, "board" means the deleted text begin Statedeleted text end new text begin Minnesotanew text end
Competency Attainment Board established in section 611.56.

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.56, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Establishment; membership.

(a) The deleted text begin Statedeleted text end new text begin Minnesotanew text end Competency
Attainment Board is established in the judicial branch. The board is not subject to the
administrative control of the judiciary. The board shall consist of seven members, including:

(1) three members appointed by the supreme court, at least one of whom must be a
defense attorney, one a county attorney, and one public member; and

(2) four members appointed by the governor, at least one of whom must be a mental
health professional with experience in competency attainment.

(b) The appointing authorities may not appoint an active judge to be a member of the
board, but may appoint a retired judge.

(c) All members must demonstrate an interest in maintaining a high quality, independent
forensic navigator program and a thorough process for certification of competency attainment
programs. Members shall be familiar with the Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure,
particularly rule 20; chapter 253B; and sections 611.40 to 611.59. Following the initial
terms of appointment, at least one member appointed by the supreme court must have
previous experience working as a forensic navigator. At least three members of the board
shall live outside the First, Second, Fourth, and Tenth Judicial Districts. The terms,
compensation, and removal of members shall be as provided in section 15.0575. The members
shall elect the chair from among the membership for a term of two years.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.56, subdivision 6, is amended
to read:


Subd. 6.

Fees and costs; civil actions on contested case.

Sections 15.039 and 15.471
to 15.474 apply to the deleted text begin Statedeleted text end new text begin Minnesotanew text end Competency Attainment Board.

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.57, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Establishment.

The Certification Advisory Committee is established to
provide the deleted text begin Statedeleted text end new text begin Minnesotanew text end Competency Attainment Board with advice and expertise
related to the certification of competency attainment programs, including jail-based programs.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.57, subdivision 4, is amended
to read:


Subd. 4.

Duties.

The Certification Advisory Committee shall consult with the Department
of Human Services, the Department of Health, and the Department of Corrections; make
recommendations to the deleted text begin Statedeleted text end new text begin Minnesotanew text end Competency Attainment Board regarding
competency attainment curriculum, certification requirements for competency attainment
programs including jail-based programs, and certification of individuals to provide
competency attainment services; and provide information and recommendations on other
issues relevant to competency attainment as requested by the board.

Sec. 15.

new text begin [627.16] CRIMINAL SEXUAL CONDUCT; MENTALLY
INCAPACITATED; ASLEEP OR NOT CONSCIOUS.
 new text end

new text begin A criminal action arising out of an incident of alleged criminal sexual conduct may be
prosecuted either in the county where any element of the alleged sexual penetration or sexual
contact was committed or the county where the complainant is found when the complainant
was, at the time of the act:
 new text end

new text begin (1) mentally incapacitated, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 7; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) physically helpless, as defined in section 609.341, subdivision 9, as the result of
being asleep or not conscious.
 new text end

Sec. 16.

new text begin [634.025] CONFESSION; INADMISSIBLE WHEN DECEPTION IS USED.
 new text end

new text begin (a) Any admission, confession, or statement, whether written or oral, made by any person
during a custodial interrogation by a law enforcement agency official or their agent, is
presumed involuntarily made and inadmissible in any proceeding if, during the interrogation,
a law enforcement agency official or their agent knowingly:
 new text end

new text begin (1) communicated false facts about the existence or nature of evidence to the extent such
evidence would be material to assessing any suspected or alleged criminal conduct on behalf
of the individual being interrogated; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) communicated unauthorized statements regarding leniency.
 new text end

new text begin (b) The presumption that any such admission, confession, or statement, or any portion
thereof, is involuntarily made and inadmissible may be overcome if the state proves by a
preponderance of the evidence that the admission, confession, or statement, or the given
portion thereof, was voluntary, reliable, and not induced by any act described in paragraph
(a).
 new text end

new text begin (c) The presumption of inadmissibility set forth in paragraph (a) shall not apply to any
portion of an admission, confession, or statement that occurs prior to the first instance in
which one of the acts described in paragraph (a) occurs.
 new text end

new text begin (d) That an admission, confession, or statement is deemed inadmissible under this section
shall have no effect on the admissibility of evidence obtained as a result of the admission,
confession, or statement if the evidence would have been discovered through independent
lawful means or if knowledge of the evidence was acquired through an independent source.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective January 1, 2025, and applies to admission,
confession, or statement, whether written or oral, made on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 638.12, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:


Subd. 2.

Pardon eligibility; waiver.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c),
an individual convicted of a crime in a court of this state may apply for a pardon of the
individual's conviction on or after five years from the sentence's expiration or discharge
date.

(b) An individual convicted before August 1, 2023, of a violation of section 609.19,
subdivision 1, clause (1), under the theory of liability for crimes of another may apply for
a pardon upon the sentence's expiration or discharge date if the individual:

(1) was charged with a violation of section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), and:

(i) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);

(ii) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(iii) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure
another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or

(2) was charged with a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 2, and:

(i) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);

(ii) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(iii) was not a major participant, as defined in section 609.05, subdivision 2a, paragraph
(c), in the underlying felony deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end did not act with extreme indifference to human life.

(c) An individual may request the board to waive the waiting period if there is a showing
of unusual circumstances and special need.

(d) The commission must review a waiver request and recommend to the board whether
to grant the request. When considering a waiver request, the commission is exempt from
the meeting requirements under section 638.14 and chapter 13D.

(e) The board must grant a waiver request unless the governor or a board majority opposes
the waiver.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 638.15, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:


Subdivision 1.

Grounds for recommending clemency.

(a) When recommending whether
to grant clemency, the commission must consider any factors that the commission deems
appropriate, including but not limited to:

(1) the nature, seriousness, and circumstances of the applicant's crime; the applicant's
age at the time of the crime; and the time that has elapsed between the crime and the
application;

(2) the successful completion or revocation of previous probation, parole, supervised
release, or conditional release;

(3) the number, nature, and circumstances of the applicant's other criminal convictions;

(4) the extent to which the applicant has demonstrated rehabilitation through
postconviction conduct, character, and reputation;

(5) the extent to which the applicant has accepted responsibility, demonstrated remorse,
and made restitution to victims;

(6) whether the sentence is clearly excessive in light of the applicant's crime and criminal
history and any sentence received by an accomplice and with due regard given to:

(i) any plea agreement;

(ii) the sentencing judge's views; and

(iii) the sentencing ranges established by law;

(7) whether the applicant was convicted before August 1, 2023, of a violation of section
609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1), under the theory of liability for crimes of another and, if
so, whether the applicant:

(i) was charged with a violation of section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), and:

(A) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);

(B) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(C) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure
another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or

(ii) was charged with a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 2, and:

(A) thereafter pled guilty to a violation of section 609.19, subdivision 1, clause (1);

(B) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(C) was not a major participant, as defined in section 609.05, subdivision 2a, paragraph
(c), in the underlying felony deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end did not act with extreme indifference to human life;

(8) whether the applicant's age or medical status indicates that it is in the best interest
of society that the applicant receive clemency;

(9) the applicant's asserted need for clemency, including family needs and barriers to
housing or employment created by the conviction;

(10) for an applicant under the department's custody, the adequacy of the applicant's
reentry plan;

(11) the amount of time already served by the applicant and the availability of other
forms of judicial or administrative relief;

(12) the extent to which there is credible evidence indicating that the applicant is or may
be innocent of the crime for which they were convicted; and

(13) if provided by the applicant, the applicant's demographic information, including
race, ethnicity, gender, disability status, and age.

(b) Unless an applicant knowingly omitted past criminal convictions on the application,
the commission or the board must not prejudice an applicant for failing to identify past
criminal convictions.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 19.

Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Notification.

(a) By deleted text begin Decemberdeleted text end new text begin Julynew text end 1, deleted text begin 2023deleted text end new text begin 2024new text end , the commissioner of
corrections shall notify individuals convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section
609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1), of the right to file
a preliminary application for relief if:

(1) the person was convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185,
paragraph (a), clause (3), and the person:

(i) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(ii) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure
another with the intent to cause the death of a human being; or

(2) the person was convicted for a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.19,
subdivision 2, clause (1), and the person:

(i) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(ii) was not a major participant in the underlying felony deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end did not act with extreme
indifference to human life.

(b) The notice shall include the address of the Ramsey County District Court court
administration.

(c) The commissioner of corrections may coordinate with the judicial branch to establish
a standardized notification form.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 20.

Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Preliminary application.

(a) An applicant shall submit a preliminary application
to the Ramsey County District Court. The preliminary application must contain:

(1) the applicant's name and, if different, the name under which the person was convicted;

(2) the applicant's date of birth;

(3) the district court case number of the case for which the person is seeking relief;

(4) a statement as to whether the applicant was convicted following a trial or pursuant
to a plea;

(5) a statement as to whether the person filed a direct appeal from the conviction, a
petition for postconviction relief, or both;

(6) a brief statement, not to exceed 3,000 words, explaining why the applicant is entitled
to relief under this section from a conviction for the death of a human being caused by
another; and

(7) the name and address of any attorney representing the applicant.

(b) The preliminary application may contain:

(1) the name, date of birth, and district court case number of any other person charged
with, or convicted of, a crime arising from the same set of circumstances for which the
applicant was convicted; and

(2) a copy of a criminal complaint or indictment, or the relevant portions of a presentence
investigation or life imprisonment report, describing the facts of the case for which the
applicant was convicted.

(c) The judicial branch may establish a standardized preliminary application form, but
shall not reject a preliminary application for failure to use a standardized form.

(d) Any person seeking relief under this section must submit a preliminary application
no later than October 1, deleted text begin 2025deleted text end new text begin 2026new text end . Submission is complete upon mailing.

(e) Submission of a preliminary application shall be without costs or any fees charged
to the applicant.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 21.

Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Determination; order; resentencing.

(a) A petitioner who was convicted of
a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), is entitled to
relief if the petitioner shows by a preponderance of the evidence that the petitioner:

(1) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(2) did not intentionally aid, advise, hire, counsel, or conspire with or otherwise procure
another with the intent to cause the death of a human being.

(b) A petitioner who was convicted of a violation of Minnesota Statutes, section 609.19,
subdivision 2, clause (1), is entitled to relief if the petitioner shows by a preponderance of
the evidence that the petitioner:

(1) did not cause the death of a human being; and

(2) was not a major participant in the underlying felony deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ornew text end did not act with extreme
indifference to human life.

(c) If the court determines that the petitioner does not qualify for relief, the court shall
issue an order denying the petition. If the court determines that the petitioner is entitled to
relief, the court shall issue an order vacating the conviction for a violation of Minnesota
Statutes, section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), or 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1),
and either:

(1) resentence the petitioner for the most serious remaining offense for which the
petitioner was convicted; or

(2) enter a conviction and impose a sentence for any other predicate felony arising out
of the course of conduct that served as the factual basis for the conviction vacated by the
court.

(d) The new sentence announced by the court under this section must be for the most
serious predicate felony unless the most serious remaining offense for which the petitioner
was convicted is that offense or a more serious offense.

(e) If, pursuant to paragraph (c), the court either resentences a petitioner or imposes a
sentence, the court shall also resentence the petitioner for any other offense if the sentence
was announced by a district court of the same county, the sentence was either ordered to
be served consecutively to the vacated conviction or the criminal history calculation for
that sentence included the vacated sentence, and the changes made pursuant to paragraph
(c) would have resulted in a different criminal history score being used at the time of
sentencing.

(f) The court shall state in writing or on the record the reasons for its decision on the
petition.

(g) If the court intends to resentence a petitioner or impose a sentence on a petitioner,
the court must hold the hearing at a time that allows any victim an opportunity to submit a
statement consistent with Minnesota Statutes, section 611A.038. The prosecutor shall make
a good faith and reasonable effort to notify any person determined to be a victim of the
hearing and the right to submit or make a statement. A sentence imposed under this
subdivision shall not increase the petitioner's total period of confinement or, if the petitioner
was serving a stayed sentence, increase the period of supervision. The court may increase
the period of confinement for a sentence that was ordered to be served consecutively to the
vacated conviction based on a change in the appropriate criminal history score provided the
court does not increase the petitioner's total period of confinement. A person resentenced
under this paragraph is entitled to credit for time served in connection with the vacated
offense.

(h) Relief granted under this section shall not be treated as an exoneration for purposes
of the Incarceration and Exoneration Remedies Act.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 22. new text begin ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS.
new text end

new text begin (a) An individual who was denied relief under Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section
24, for a conviction under Minnesota Statutes, section 609.19, subdivision 2, clause (1),
due to a determination that the individual was not a major participant in the underlying
felony and did not act with extreme indifference to human life, and who is now eligible for
relief under the charges made in this act, may reapply for relief.
 new text end

new text begin (b) By July 1, 2024, the commissioner of corrections shall notify individuals to whom
notice was previously provided under Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24,
subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (2), about the changes to law made in this act. The
notice must inform the individual that the individual may apply or reapply for relief under
Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 4, section 24, if eligible based on the changes made in this
act.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

ARTICLE 6

JUDICIAL BRANCH POLICY

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 117.042, is amended to read:


117.042 POSSESSION.

Whenever the petitioner shall require title and possession of all or part of the owner's
property prior to the filing of an award by the court appointed commissioners, the petitioner
shall, at least 90 days prior to the date on which possession is to be taken, notify the owner
of the intent to possess by notice served by certified mail and before taking title and
possession shall pay to the owner or deposit with the court an amount equal to petitioner's
approved appraisal of value. Amounts deposited with the court shall be paid out under the
direction of the court. If it is deemed necessary to deposit the above amount with the court
the petitioner may apply to the court for an order transferring title and possession of the
property or properties involved from the owner to the petitioner. In all other cases, petitioner
has the right to the title and possession after the filing of the award by the court appointed
commissioners as follows:

(1) if appeal is waived by the parties upon payment of the award;

(2) if appeal is not waived by the parties upon payment or deposit of three-fourths of
the awardnew text begin to be deposited with the court administratornew text end . deleted text begin The amount depositeddeleted text end new text begin If the amount
exceeds $10,000, itnew text end shall be deposited by the court administrator in an interest bearing
account no later than deleted text begin thedeleted text end new text begin fivenew text end business deleted text begin daydeleted text end new text begin daysnew text end next following the day on which the amount
was deposited with the court. All interest credited to the amount deposited from the date of
deposit shall be paid to the ultimate recipient of the amount deposited.

Nothing in this section shall limit rights granted in section 117.155.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.182, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Copy of judgment to commissioner.

If a person fails within 30 days to satisfy
a judgment, the court administrator, upon affidavit of the judgment creditor that the judgment
has not been satisfied, shall immediately deleted text begin forward todeleted text end new text begin notifynew text end the commissioner deleted text begin a certified
copy of the judgment and affidavit of identificationdeleted text end new text begin that the judgment has not been satisfiednew text end .

If the judgment debtor named in a deleted text begin certified copy of adeleted text end judgment reported to the
commissioner is a nonresident, the commissioner shall deleted text begin transmit a certified copy of the
judgment todeleted text end new text begin notifynew text end the official in charge of the issuance of drivers' licenses of the state of
which the judgment debtor is a resident.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 171.182, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Conditions.

(a) The commissioner, upon deleted text begin receipt of a certified copydeleted text end new text begin notificationnew text end
of a judgment, shall suspend the license or the nonresident's operating privilege of the person
against whom judgment was rendered if:

(1) at the time of the accident the person did not maintain the reparation security required
by section 65B.48; and

(2) the judgment has not been satisfied.

(b) Suspensions under this section are subject to the notice requirements of section
171.18, subdivision 2.

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 253B.02, subdivision 4d, is amended to read:


Subd. 4d.

Court examiner.

"Court examiner" means a person appointed to serve the
court, and who is a physician or deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end psychologist who has a doctoral degree in
psychologynew text begin , and is either licensed in Minnesota or who holds current authority to practice
in Minnesota under an approved interstate compactnew text end .

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 480.15, subdivision 10c, is amended to read:


Subd. 10c.

Uniform collections policies and procedures for courts.

(a) The state court
administrator under the direction of the Judicial Council may promulgate uniform collections
policies and procedures for the courts and may contract with credit bureaus, public and
private collection agencies, the Department of Revenue, and other public or private entities
providing collection services as necessary for the collection of court debts. The court
collection process and procedures are not subject to section 16A.1285. Court debts referred
to the Department of Revenue for collection are not subject to section 16D.07.new text begin Court debts
referred to the Department of Revenue for revenue recapture are not subject to section
270A.08 or 270A.09.
new text end

(b) Court debt means an amount owed to the state directly or through the judicial branch
on account of a fee, duty, rent, service, overpayment, fine, assessment, surcharge, court
cost, penalty, restitution, damages, interest, bail bond, forfeiture, reimbursement, liability
owed, an assignment to the judicial branch, recovery of costs incurred by the judicial branch,
or any other source of indebtedness to the judicial branch as well as amounts owed to other
public or private entities for which the judicial branch acts in providing collection services,
or any other amount owed to the judicial branch.

(c) The courts must pay for the collection services of public or private collection entities
as well as the cost of one or more court employees to provide collection interface services
between the Department of Revenue, the courts, and one or more collection entities from
the money collected. The portion of the money collected which must be paid to the collection
entity as collection fees and costs and the portion of the money collected which must be
paid to the courts or Department of Revenue for collection services are appropriated from
the fund to which the collected money is due.

(d) As determined by the state court administrator, collection costs shall be added to the
debts referred to a public or private collection entity for collection.

Collection costs shall include the fees of the collection entity, and may include, if
separately provided, skip tracing fees, credit bureau reporting charges, fees assessed by any
public entity for obtaining information necessary for debt collection, or other
collection-related costs. Collection costs shall also include the costs of one or more court
employees employed by the state court administrator to provide a collection interface
between the collection entity, the Department of Revenue, and the courts.

If the collection entity collects an amount less than the total due, the payment is applied
proportionally to collection costs and the underlying debt. Collection costs in excess of
collection agency fees and court employee collection interface costs must be deposited in
the general fund as nondedicated receipts.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Service; alternate service; publication; notice.

(a) The petition and any order
issued under this section other than orders for dismissal shall be served on the respondent
personallynew text begin , or if the respondent appears remotely for a hearing and is notified at the hearing
by the judicial officer that an order for protection will issue, the order may be served on the
respondent electronically or by first class mail, as ordered by the courtnew text end . Orders for dismissal
may be served personally or by certified mail. In lieu of personal service of an order for
protection, a law enforcement officer may serve a person with a short-form notification as
provided in subdivision 8a.

(b) When service is made out of this state and in the United States, it may be proved by
the affidavit of the person making the service. When service is made outside the United
States, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service, taken before and
certified by any United States minister, charge d'affaires, commissioner, consul, or
commercial agent, or other consular or diplomatic officer of the United States appointed to
reside in the other country, including all deputies or other representatives of the officer
authorized to perform their duties; or before an office authorized to administer an oath with
the certificate of an officer of a court of record of the country in which the affidavit is taken
as to the identity and authority of the officer taking the affidavit.

(c) If personal service cannot be made, the court may order service of the petition and
any order issued under this section by alternate means, or by publication, which publication
must be made as in other actions. The application for alternate service must include the last
known location of the respondent; the petitioner's most recent contacts with the respondent;
the last known location of the respondent's employment; the names and locations of the
respondent's parents, siblings, children, and other close relatives; the names and locations
of other persons who are likely to know the respondent's whereabouts; and a description of
efforts to locate those persons.

The court shall consider the length of time the respondent's location has been unknown,
the likelihood that the respondent's location will become known, the nature of the relief
sought, and the nature of efforts made to locate the respondent. The court shall order service
by first class mail, forwarding address requested, to any addresses where there is a reasonable
possibility that mail or information will be forwarded or communicated to the respondent.

The court may also order publication, within or without the state, but only if it might
reasonably succeed in notifying the respondent of the proceeding. Service shall be deemed
complete 14 days after mailing or 14 days after court-ordered publication.

(d) A petition and any order issued under this section, including the short-form
notification, must include a notice to the respondent that if an order for protection is issued
to protect the petitioner or a child of the parties, upon request of the petitioner in any
parenting time proceeding, the court shall consider the order for protection in making a
decision regarding parenting time.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 593.50, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Juror protection.

An employer shall not deprive an employee of
employment, or threaten or otherwise coerce the employee with respect deleted text begin theretodeleted text end new text begin to
employment statusnew text end , because the employee receives a summons, responds thereto, serves as
a juror, or attends court for prospective jury service.new text begin An employer must release an employee
from the employee's regular work schedule, including any shift work, to permit the employee
to attend court for prospective jury service. An employer must not require an employee to
work an alternative shift on any day the juror is required to report to the courthouse for jury
service. Nothing in this section shall prevent an employee from voluntarily requesting to
work an alternative work schedule on any day the juror is required to report to the courthouse
for jury service, as long as the employer does not encourage, prompt, or ask for the employee
to make such a request.
new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.748, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Restraining order.

(a) The court may issue a restraining order that provides
any or all of the following:

(1) orders the respondent to cease or avoid the harassment of another person; or

(2) orders the respondent to have no contact with another person.

(b) The court may issue an order under paragraph (a) if all of the following occur:

(1) the petitioner has filed a petition under subdivision 3;

(2) a peace officer has served respondent with a copy of the temporary restraining order
obtained under subdivision 4, and with notice of the right to request a hearing, or service
has been made by publication under subdivision 3, paragraph (b); and

(3) the court finds at the hearing that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the
respondent has engaged in harassment.

A restraining order may be issued only against the respondent named in the petition; except
that if the respondent is an organization, the order may be issued against and apply to all of
the members of the organization. If the court finds that the petitioner has had two or more
previous restraining orders in effect against the same respondent or the respondent has
violated a prior or existing restraining order on two or more occasions, relief granted by the
restraining order may be for a period of up to 50 years. In all other cases, relief granted by
the restraining order must be for a fixed period of not more than two years. When a referee
presides at the hearing on the petition, the restraining order becomes effective upon the
referee's signature.

(c) An order issued under this subdivision must be personally served upon the respondentnew text begin ,
or if the respondent appears remotely for a hearing and is notified at the hearing by the
judicial officer that a restraining order will issue, the order may be served on the respondent
electronically or by first class mail, as ordered by the courtnew text end .

(d) If the court orders relief for a period of up to 50 years under paragraph (a), the
respondent named in the restraining order may request to have the restraining order vacated
or modified if the order has been in effect for at least five years and the respondent has not
violated the order. Application for relief under this paragraph must be made in the county
in which the restraining order was issued. Upon receipt of the request, the court shall set a
hearing date. Personal service must be made upon the petitioner named in the restraining
order not less than 30 days before the date of the hearing. At the hearing, the respondent
named in the restraining order has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence
that there has been a material change in circumstances and that the reasons upon which the
court relied in granting the restraining order no longer apply and are unlikely to occur. If
the court finds that the respondent named in the restraining order has met the burden of
proof, the court may vacate or modify the order. If the court finds that the respondent named
in the restraining order has not met the burden of proof, the court shall deny the request and
no request may be made to vacate or modify the restraining order until five years have
elapsed from the date of denial. An order vacated or modified under this paragraph must
be personally served on the petitioner named in the restraining order.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 611.41, subdivision 7, is amended
to read:


Subd. 7.

Court examiner.

"Court examiner" means a person appointed to serve the
court deleted text begin by examining a defendant whose competency is at issuedeleted text end and who is a physician or
deleted text begin licenseddeleted text end psychologist who has a doctoral degree in psychologynew text begin , and is either licensed in
Minnesota or who holds current authority to practice in Minnesota under an approved
interstate compactnew text end .

ARTICLE 7

REAL PROPERTY, TRUSTS, AND GUARDIANSHIP

Section 1.

new text begin [500.217] RESTRICTIONS ON CHILD CARE PROHIBITIONS.
 new text end

new text begin (a) Except as otherwise provided in this section and notwithstanding any covenant,
restriction, or condition contained in a deed, security instrument, homeowners association
document, or any other instrument affecting the transfer, sale of, or an interest in real
property, a private entity must not prohibit or refuse to permit the owner of a dwelling from
providing child care under a family and group family child care provider license under
chapter 245A, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 9502.
 new text end

new text begin (b) A private entity may require an owner or occupant who is seeking licensure or who
is a license holder to indemnify, hold harmless, or defend the private entity against all claims,
including costs and attorney fees, related to the operation of a family or group family child
care program. The private entity may require each parent, guardian, or caretaker of the child
being cared for in the program to sign a waiver of claims for liability, provided that the
waiver is reasonable, consistent with industry standards, and does not require notarization.
 new text end

new text begin (c) The homeowners association is not required to amend the homeowners association
documents to meet a licensing requirement, except when the homeowners association
documents are inconsistent with the requirements of this section. Nothing in this section
prevents an owner or occupant from using provided or legal remedies to amend the
homeowners association documents or from requesting a variance from those requirements.
 new text end

new text begin (d) A license holder who is an owner occupant and all invitees are subject to the rules
and regulations contained in the homeowners association documents of the private entity
except where those rules and regulations conflict with this section.
 new text end

new text begin (e) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
 new text end

new text begin (1) "private entity" means a homeowners association, community association, or other
association that is subject to a homeowners association document; and
 new text end

new text begin (2) "homeowners association document" means a document containing the declaration,
articles of incorporation, bylaws, or rules and regulations of a common interest community,
as defined in section 515B.1-103, regardless of whether the common interest community
is subject to chapter 515B, or a residential community that is not a common interest
community.
 new text end

new text begin (f) This section only applies to:
 new text end

new text begin (1) a single-family detached dwelling whose owner is the sole owner of the entire building
in which the dwelling is located and who is solely responsible for the maintenance, repair,
replacement, and insurance of the entire building; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) a multifamily attached dwelling whose owner is the sole owner of the entire building
in which the dwelling is located and who is solely responsible for the maintenance, repair,
replacement, and insurance of the entire building.
 new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 501C.0202, is amended to read:


501C.0202 SUBJECT MATTER OF JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS.

A judicial proceedingnew text begin , whether filed by petition under the district court's in rem or in
personam jurisdiction,new text end involving a trust may relate to one or more of the following matters:

(1) to confirm an action taken by a trustee;

(2) upon the filing of an account, to settle and allow the account;

(3) to determine the persons having an interest in the income or principal of the trust
and the nature and extent of their interests;

(4) to construe, interpret, or reform the terms of a trust, or authorize a deviation from
the terms of a trust, including a proceeding involving section 501B.31;

(5) to approve payment of the trustee's, attorney, or accountant fees, or any other fees
to be charged against the trust;

(6) to confirm the appointment of a trustee;

(7) to accept a trustee's resignation and discharge the trustee from the trust as provided
in section 501C.0705;

(8) to require a trustee to account;

(9) to remove a trustee as provided in section 501C.0706;

(10) to appoint a successor trustee when required by the terms of the trust instrument or
when by reason of death, resignation, removal, or other cause there is no acting trustee;

(11) to appoint an additional trustee or special fiduciary whether or not a vacancy in
trusteeship exists as provided in section 501C.0704;

(12) to confirm an act taken by a person with respect to a trust while there was no acting
trustee or otherwise in compliance with section 501C.0701;

(13) to subject a trust to or remove a trust from continuing court supervision under
section 501C.0205;

(14) to mortgage, lease, sell, or otherwise dispose of real property held by the trustee
notwithstanding any contrary provision of the trust instrument;

(15) to suspend the powers and duties of a trustee in military service or war service, in
accordance with section 525.95, and to order further action authorized in that section;

(16) to secure compliance with the provisions of sections 501B.33 to 501B.45, in
accordance with section 501B.41, relating to charitable trusts;

(17) to determine the validity of a disclaimer under sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116;

(18) to transfer the trust's principal place of administration as provided in section
501C.0108;

(19) to redress a breach of trust;

(20) to terminate a trust;

(21) to divide a trust or to merge two or more trusts as provided in section 501C.0417;

(22) to approve a nonjudicial settlement as provided in section 501C.0111;

(23) to approve, modify, or object to a proposed trust decanting as provided in section
502.851; or

(24) to instruct the trustee regarding any matter involving the trust's administration or
the discharge of the trustee's duties, including a request for instructions and an action to
declare rights.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from January 1, 2016.
 new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 501C.0204, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

In rem judicial proceedings.

Upon the hearing of a petition under the
district court's in rem jurisdiction, the court shall make an order it considers appropriate.
The order is binding in rem upon the trust estate and deleted text begin upon the interests ofdeleted text end new text begin all interested
persons, including without limitationnew text end all beneficiaries, vested or contingent, even though
unascertained or not in being. An appeal from an order which, in effect, determines the
petition may be taken by any party after service by any party of written notice of its filing
as provided under the Rules of Appellate Procedure or, if no notice is served, within six
months after the filing of the order.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective retroactively from January 1, 2016.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 507.071, is amended to read:


507.071 TRANSFER ON DEATH DEEDS.

Subdivision 1.

Definitions.

For the purposes of this section the following terms have
the meanings given:

(a) "Beneficiary" or "grantee beneficiary" means a person or entity named as a grantee
beneficiary in a transfer on death deed, including a successor grantee beneficiary.

(b) "County agency" means the county department or office designated to recover medical
assistance benefits from the estates of decedents.

(c) "Grantor owner" means an owner, whether individually, as a joint tenant, or as a
tenant in common, named as a grantor in a transfer on death deed upon whose death the
conveyance or transfer of the described real property is conditioned. Grantor owner does
not include a spouse who joins in a transfer on death deed solely for the purpose of conveying
or releasing statutory or other marital interests in the real property to be conveyed or
transferred by the transfer on death deed.

(d) "Owner" means a person having an ownership or other interest in all or part of the
real property to be conveyed or transferred by a transfer on death deed either at the time the
deed is executed or at the time the transfer becomes effective. Owner does not include a
spouse who joins in a transfer on death deed solely for the purpose of conveying or releasing
statutory or other marital interests in the real property to be conveyed or transferred by the
transfer on death deed.

(e) "Property" and "interest in real property" mean any interest in real property located
in this state which is transferable on the death of the owner and includes, without limitation,
an interest in real property defined in chapter 500, a mortgage, a deed of trust, a security
interest in, or a security pledge of, an interest in real property, including the rights to
payments of the indebtedness secured by the security instrument, a judgment, a tax lien,
both the seller's and purchaser's interest in a contract for deed, land contract, purchase
agreement, or earnest money contract for the sale and purchase of real property, including
the rights to payments under such contracts, or any other lien on, or interest in, real property.

(f) "Recorded" means recorded in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles,
as appropriate for the real property described in the instrument to be recorded.

(g) "State agency" means the Department of Human Services or any successor agency.

(h) "Transfer on death deed" means a deed authorized under this section.

Subd. 2.

Effect of transfer on death deed.

A deed that conveys or assigns an interest
in real property, to a grantee beneficiary and that expressly states that the deed is only
effective on the death of one or more of the grantor owners, transfers the interest to the
grantee beneficiary upon the death of the grantor owner upon whose death the conveyance
or transfer is stated to be effective, but subject to the survivorship provisions and requirements
of section 524.2-702. new text begin Until a transfer on death deed becomes effective, it has no effect on
title to the real property described in the deed, but it does create an insurable interest in the
real property in favor of the designated grantee beneficiary or beneficiaries for purposes of
insuring the real property against loss or damage that occurs on or after the transfer on death
deed becomes effective. new text end A transfer on death deed must comply with all provisions of
Minnesota law applicable to deeds of real property including, but not limited to, the
provisions of sections 507.02, 507.24, 507.34, 508.48, and 508A.48. If a spouse who is
neither a grantor owner nor an owner joins in the execution of, or consents in writing to,
the transfer on death deed, such joinder or consent shall be conclusive proof that upon the
transfer becoming effective, the spouse no longer has or can claim any statutory interest or
other marital interest in the interest in real property transferred by the transfer on death deed.
However, such transfer shall remain an interest as identified in section 256B.15 for purposes
of complying with and satisfying any claim or lien as authorized by subdivision 3.

Subd. 3.

Rights of creditors and rights of state and county under sections 246.53,
256B.15, 256D.16, 261.04, and 514.981.

The interest transferred to a beneficiary under a
transfer on death deed after the death of a grantor owner is transferred subject to all effective
conveyances, assignments, contracts, mortgages, deeds of trust, liens, security pledges,
judgments, tax liens, and any other matters or encumbrances to which the interest was
subject on the date of death of the grantor owner, upon whose death the transfer becomes
effective including, but not limited to, any claim by a surviving spouse who did not join in
the execution of, or consent in writing to, the transfer on death deed, and any claim or lien
by the state or county agency authorized by sections 246.53, 256B.15, 256D.16, 261.04,
and 514.981, if other assets of the deceased grantor's estate are insufficient to pay the amount
of any such claim. A beneficiary to whom the interest is transferred after the death of a
grantor owner shall be liable to account to the state or county agency with a claim or lien
authorized by section 246.53, 256B.15, 256D.16, 261.04, or 514.981, to the extent necessary
to discharge any such claim remaining unpaid after application of the assets of the deceased
grantor owner's estate, but such liability shall be limited to the value of the interest transferred
to the beneficiary. To establish compliance with this subdivision and subdivision 23, the
beneficiary must record a clearance certificate issued in accordance with subdivision 23 in
each county in which the real property described in the transfer on death deed is located.

Subd. 4.

Multiple grantee beneficiaries.

A transfer on death deed may designate multiple
grantee beneficiaries to take title as joint tenants, as tenants in common or in any other form
of ownership or tenancy that is valid under the laws of this state.new text begin If a grantee joint tenant
dies before the grantor owner upon whose death the transfer occurs and no successor
beneficiary for the deceased grantee is designated in the transfer on death deed, the surviving
joint tenants are the successors and no interest lapses.
new text end

Subd. 5.

Successor grantee beneficiaries.

A transfer on death deed may designate one
or more successor grantee beneficiaries or a class of successor grantee beneficiaries, or
both. If the transfer on death deed designates successor grantee beneficiaries or a class of
successor grantee beneficiaries, the deed shall state the condition under which the interest
of the successor grantee beneficiaries would vest.

Subd. 6.

Multiple joint tenant grantors.

If an interest in real property is owned as joint
tenants, a transfer on death deed executed by all of the owners and, if required by section
507.02, their respective spouses, if any, that conveys an interest in real property to one or
more grantee beneficiaries transfers the interest to the grantee beneficiary or beneficiaries
effective only after the death of the last surviving grantor owner. If the last surviving joint
tenant owner did not execute the transfer on death deed, the deed is ineffective to transfer
any interest and the deed is void. An estate in joint tenancy is not severed or affected by the
subsequent execution of a transfer on death deed and the right of a surviving joint tenant
owner who did not execute the transfer on death deed shall prevail over a grantee beneficiary
named in a transfer on death deed unless the deed specifically states that it severs the joint
tenancy ownership.

Subd. 7.

Execution by attorney-in-fact.

A transfer on death deed may be executed by
a duly appointed attorney-in-fact pursuant to a power of attorney which grants the
attorney-in-fact the authority to execute deeds.

Subd. 8.

Recording requirements and authorization.

A transfer on death deed is valid
if the deed is recorded in a county in which at least a part of the real property described in
the deed is located and is recorded before the death of the grantor owner upon whose death
the conveyance or transfer is effective. new text begin Notwithstanding the definition of recorded under
subdivision 1, if the real property is registered property, a transfer on death deed that was
recorded incorrectly or incompletely is valid if the deed was recorded before the death of
the grantor owner in the office of the county recorder or the registrar of titles in a county
in which at least part of the real property is located, and is memorialized on the certificate
of title after death. new text end A transfer on death deed is not effective for purposes of section 507.34,
508.47, or 508A.47 until the deed is new text begin properly new text end recorded in the county in which the real
property is located. When a transfer on death deed is presented for recording, no certification
by the county auditor as to transfer of ownership and current and delinquent taxes shall be
required or made and the transfer on death deed shall not be required to be accompanied
by a certificate of real estate value. A transfer on death deed that otherwise satisfies all
statutory requirements for recording may be recorded and shall be accepted for recording
in the county in which the property described in the deed is located. If any part of the property
described in the transfer on death deed is registered property, the registrar of titles shall
accept the transfer on death deed for recording only if at least one of the grantors who
executes the transfer on death deed appears of record to have an ownership interest or other
interest in the real property described in the deed. No certification or approval of a transfer
on death deed shall be required of the examiner of titles prior to recording of the deed in
the office of the registrar of titles.

Subd. 9.

Deed to trustee or other entity.

A transfer on death deed may transfer an
interest in real property to the trustee of an inter vivos trust even if the trust is revocable, to
the trustee of a testamentary trust or to any other entity legally qualified to hold title to real
property under the laws of this state.

Subd. 10.

Revocation or modification of transfer on death deed.

(a) A transfer on
death deed may be revoked at any time by the grantor owner or, if there is more than one
grantor owner, by any of the grantor owners. A revocation revokes the transfer on death
deed in its entirety. To be effective, the revocation must be recorded in a county in which
at least a part of the real property is located before the death of the grantor owner or owners
who execute the revocation. new text begin Notwithstanding the definition of recorded under subdivision
1, if the real property is registered property, a revocation that was recorded incorrectly or
incompletely is effective if it was recorded before the death of the grantor owner in the
office of the county recorder or the registrar of titles in a county in which at least part of
the real property is located, and is memorialized on the certificate of title after death. new text end The
revocation is not effective for purposes of section 507.34, 508.47, or 508A.47 until the
revocation is new text begin properly new text end recorded in a county in which the real property is located.

(b) If a grantor owner conveys to a third party, subsequent to the recording of the transfer
on death deed, by means other than a transfer on death deed, all or a part of such grantor
owner's interest in the property described in the transfer on death deed, no transfer of the
conveyed interest shall occur on such grantor owner's death and the transfer on death deed
shall be ineffective as to the conveyed or transferred interests, but the transfer on death deed
remains effective with respect to the conveyance or transfer on death of any other interests
described in the transfer on death deed owned by the grantor owner at the time of the grantor
owner's death.

(c) A transfer on death deed is a "governing instrument" within the meaning of section
524.2-804 and, except as may otherwise be specifically provided for in the transfer on death
deed, is subject to the same provisions as to revocation, revival, and nonrevocation set forth
in section 524.2-804.

Subd. 11.

Antilapse; deceased beneficiary; words of survivorship.

(a) new text begin Except when
a successor grantee beneficiary is designated in the transfer on death deed for the grantee
beneficiary who did not survive the grantor owner, new text end if a grantee beneficiary who is a
grandparent or lineal descendant of a grandparent of the grantor owner fails to survive the
grantor owner, the issue of the deceased grantee beneficiary who survive the grantor owner
take in place of the deceased grantee beneficiary. If they are all of the same degree of kinship
to the deceased grantee beneficiary, they take equally. If they are of unequal degree, those
of more remote degree take by right of representation.

(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, words of survivorship such as, in a conveyance
to an individual, "if he or she survives me," or, in a class gift, to "my surviving children,"
are a sufficient indication of intent to condition the conveyance or transfer upon the
beneficiary surviving the grantor owner.

new text begin (c) When issue of a deceased grantee beneficiary or members of a class take in place of
the named grantee beneficiary pursuant to subdivision 5 or paragraph (a) or (b) or when a
beneficiary dies and has no issue under paragraph (a), an affidavit of survivorship stating
the names and shares of the beneficiaries or stating that a deceased beneficiary had no issue
is not conclusive and a court order made in accordance with Minnesota probate law
determining the beneficiaries and shares must also be recorded.
 new text end

Subd. 12.

Lapse.

If all beneficiaries and all successor beneficiaries, if any, designated
in a transfer on death deed, and also all successor beneficiaries who would take under the
antilapse provisions of subdivision 11, fail to survive the grantor owner or the last survivor
of the grantor owners if there are multiple grantor owners, if the beneficiary is a trust which
has been revoked prior to the grantor owner's death, or if the beneficiary is an entity no
longer in existence at the grantor owner's death, no transfer shall occur and the transfer on
death deed is void.

Subd. 13.

Multiple transfer on death deeds.

If a grantor owner executes and records
more than one transfer on death deed conveying the same interest in real property or a
greater interest in the real property, new text begin or conveying part of the property in the earlier transfer
on death deed, new text end the transfer on death deed that has the latest acknowledgment date and that
is recorded before the death of the grantor owner upon whose death the conveyance or
transfer is conditioned is the effective transfer on death deed and all other transfer on death
deeds, if any, executed by the grantor owner or the grantor owners are ineffective to transfer
any interest and are voidnew text begin , except that if the later transfer on death deed included only part
of the land of the earlier deed, the earlier deed is effective for the lands not included in the
subsequent deed, absent language to the contrary in the subsequent deednew text end .

Subd. 14.

Nonademption; unpaid proceeds of sale, condemnation, or insurance;
sale by conservator or guardian.

If at the time of the death of the grantor owner upon
whose death the conveyance or transfer is stated to be effective, the grantor owner did not
own a part or all of the real property described in the transfer on death deed, no conveyance
or transfer to the beneficiary of the nonowned part of the real property shall occur upon the
death of the grantor owner and the transfer on death deed is void as to the nonowned part
of the real property, but the beneficiary shall have the same rights to unpaid proceeds of
sale, condemnation or insurance, and, if sold by a conservator or guardian of the grantor
owner during the grantor owner's lifetime, the same rights to a general pecuniary devise, as
that of a specific devisee as set forth in section 524.2-606.

Subd. 15.

Nonexoneration.

Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 3, a conveyance
or transfer under a transfer on death deed passes the described property subject to any
mortgage or security interest existing at the date of death of the grantor owner, without right
of exoneration, regardless of any statutory obligations to pay the grantor owner's debts upon
death and regardless of a general directive in the grantor owner's will to pay debts.

Subd. 16.

Disclaimer by beneficiary.

A grantee beneficiary's interest under a transfer
on death deed may be disclaimed as provided in sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116, or as
otherwise provided by law.

Subd. 17.

Effect on other conveyances.

This section does not prohibit other methods
of conveying property that are permitted by law and that have the effect of postponing
ownership or enjoyment of an interest in real property until the death of the owner. This
section does not invalidate any deed that is not a transfer on death deed and that is otherwise
effective to convey title to the interests and estates described in the deed that is not recorded
until after the death of the owner.

Subd. 18.

Notice, consent, and delivery not required.

The signature, consent or
agreement of, or notice to, a grantee beneficiary under a transfer on death deed, or delivery
of the transfer on death deed to the grantee beneficiary, is not required for any purpose
during the lifetime of the grantor owner.

Subd. 19.

Nonrevocation by will.

A transfer on death deed that is executed,
acknowledged, and recorded in accordance with this section is not revoked by the provisions
of a will.

Subd. 20.

Proof of survivorship and clearance from public assistance claims and
liens; recording.

An affidavit of identity and survivorship with a certified copy of a record
of death as an attachment may be combined with a clearance certificate under this section
and the combined documents may be recorded separately or as one document in each county
in which the real estate described in the clearance certificate is located. The affidavit must
include the name and mailing address of the person to whom future property tax statements
should be sent. The affidavit, record of death, and clearance certificate, whether combined
or separate, shall be prima facie evidence of the facts stated in each, and the registrar of
titles may rely on the statements to transfer title to the property described in the clearance
certificatenew text begin , except in cases where a court order is required pursuant to the provisions of
subdivision 11, paragraph (c)new text end .

Subd. 21.

After-acquired property.

Except as provided in this subdivision, a transfer
on death deed is not effective to transfer any interest in real property acquired by a grantor
owner subsequent to the date of signing of a transfer on death deed. A grantor owner may
provide by specific language in a transfer on death deed that the transfer on death deed will
apply to any interest in the described property acquired by the grantor owner after the signing
or recording of the deed.

Subd. 22.

Anticipatory alienation prohibited.

The interest of a grantee beneficiary
under a transfer on death deed which has not yet become effective is not subject to alienation;
assignment; encumbrance; appointment or anticipation by the beneficiary; garnishment;
attachment; execution or bankruptcy proceedings; claims for alimony, support, or
maintenance; payment of other obligations by any person against the beneficiary; or any
other transfer, voluntary or involuntary, by or from any beneficiary.

Subd. 23.

Clearance for public assistance claims and liens.

Any person claiming an
interest in real property conveyed or transferred by a transfer on death deed, or the person's
attorney or other agent, may apply to the county agency in the county in which the real
property is located for a clearance certificate for the real property described in the transfer
on death deed. The application for a clearance certificate and the clearance certificate must
contain the legal description of each parcel of property covered by the clearance certificate.
The county agency shall provide a sufficient number of clearance certificates to allow a
clearance certificate to be recorded in each county in which the real property described in
the transfer on death deed is located. The real property described in the clearance certificate
is bound by any conditions or other requirements imposed by the county agency as specified
in the clearance certificate. If the real property is registered property, a new certificate of
title must not be issued until the clearance certificate is recorded. If the clearance certificate
shows the continuation of a medical assistance claim or lien after issuance of the clearance
certificate, the real property remains subject to the claim or lien. If the real property is
registered property, the clearance certificate must be carried forward as a memorial in any
new certificate of title. The application shall contain the same information and shall be
submitted, processed, and resolved in the same manner and on the same terms and conditions
as provided in section 525.313 for a clearance certificate in a decree of descent proceeding,
except that a copy of a notice of hearing does not have to accompany the application. The
application may contain a statement that the applicant, after reasonably diligent inquiry, is
not aware of the existence of a predeceased spouse or the existence of a claim which could
be recovered under section 246.53, 256B.15, 256D.16, 261.04, or 514.981. If the county
agency determines that a claim or lien exists under section 246.53, 256B.15, 256D.16,
261.04, or 514.981, the provisions of section 525.313 shall apply to collection, compromise,
and settlement of the claim or lien. A person claiming an interest in real property transferred
or conveyed by a transfer on death deed may petition or move the district court, as
appropriate, in the county in which the real property is located or in the county in which a
probate proceeding affecting the estate of the grantor of the transfer on death deed is pending,
for an order allowing sale of the real property free and clear of any public assistance claim
or lien but subject to disposition of the sale proceeds as provided in section 525.313. On a
showing of good cause and subject to such notice as the court may require, the court without
hearing may issue an order allowing the sale free and clear of any public assistance claim
or lien on such terms and conditions as the court deems advisable to protect the interests of
the state or county agency.

Subd. 24.

Form of transfer on death deed.

A transfer on death deed may be substantially
in the following form:

Transfer on Death Deed

I (we) ................................... (grantor owner or owners and spouses, if any, with
marital status designated), grantor(s), hereby convey(s) and quitclaim(s) to
.................................. (grantee beneficiary, whether one or more) effective (check
only one of the following)

.... on the death of the grantor owner, if only one grantor is named above, or on the
death of the last of the grantor owners to die, if more than one grantor owner is named
above, or

.... on the death of (name of grantor owner)

........................................... (must be one of the grantor owners named above), the
following described real property:

(Legal description)

If checked, the following optional statement applies:

....When effective, this instrument conveys any and all interests in the described real
property acquired by the grantor owner(s) before, on, or after the date of this
instrument.

.
(Signature of grantor(s))
(acknowledgment)

Subd. 25.

Form of instrument of revocation.

An instrument of revocation may be
substantially in the following form:

Revocation of Transfer on Death Deed

The undersigned hereby revokes the transfer on death deed recorded on .........., ....,
as Document No. .......... (or in Book .......... of ........., Page .....) in the office of the
(County Recorder) (Registrar of Titles) of ............ County, Minnesota, affecting real
property legally described as follows:

(legal description)
Dated:
.
Signature
(acknowledgment)

Subd. 26.

Jurisdiction.

In counties where the district court has a probate division, new text begin the
application of subdivision 11 or other issues of interpretation or validity of the transfer on
death deed, and new text end actions to enforce a medical assistance lien or claim against real property
described in a transfer on death deed and any matter raised in connection with enforcement
shall be determined in the probate division. deleted text begin Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary,
the provisions of section 256B.15 shall apply to any proceeding to enforce a medical
assistance lien or claim under chapter 524 or 525.deleted text end In other counties, the district court shall
have jurisdiction to determine any matter affecting real property purporting to be transferred
by a transfer on death deed.new text begin Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the provisions
of section 256B.15 shall apply to any proceeding to enforce a medical assistance lien or
claim under chapter 524 or 525.
new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin [507.072] PROPERTY INSURANCE FOR GRANTEE BENEFICIARIES
OF TRANSFER ON DEATH DEEDS.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions
apply unless the context indicates otherwise.
 new text end

new text begin (b) "Grantee beneficiary" has the meaning given in section 507.071, subdivision 1.
 new text end

new text begin (c) "Insurance policy" means an insurance policy governed by chapter 65A.
 new text end

new text begin (d) "Transfer on death deed" means a deed described in section 507.071.
 new text end

new text begin (e) "Grantor owner" has the meaning given in section 507.071, subdivision 1.
 new text end

new text begin (f) "Extended coverage" or "temporary extended coverage" means insurance coverage
continuing beyond the death of the named insured.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Insurance policy to include grantee beneficiary. new text end

new text begin An insurer providing an
insurance policy on real property transferred by a transfer on death deed shall provide
temporary extended coverage on the real property to the designated grantee beneficiary for
a period commencing on the date of death of the grantor owner and ending when the grantee
beneficiary replaces the insurance policy on the insured property with an insurance policy
or the expiration of the time limitations set forth in subdivision 4, whichever is sooner.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Notice to the insurer. new text end

new text begin To obtain temporary extended coverage for a transfer
on death deed as provided in this section, the grantor owner must notify the insurer of the
existence of a transfer on death deed. The notice shall include the names and contact
information of all designated grantee beneficiaries.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Coverage extended. new text end

new text begin The coverage to be extended under this section applies
only with respect to the insurance policy insuring the real property of the grantor owner.
The period of extended coverage shall not exceed 30 days from the date of the grantor
owner's death or the expiration date of the insurance policy, whichever is less. An insurer
is not required to provide notice to the grantee beneficiary for cancellation of coverage
following the shorter of the 30 days or expiration date of the policy or the placement of
replacement insurance coverage.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Proof demanded; policy conditions. new text end

new text begin Before making any payment for a claim
under this section, the insurer may require proof that the claimant is a grantee beneficiary
under a transfer on death deed, that the transfer on death deed was recorded as provided in
section 507.071, and that an affidavit of survivorship and death certificate of the grantor
owner was recorded as provided in section 507.071. The grantee beneficiary shall comply
with the conditions of the policy.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Insurable interest. new text end

new text begin A grantee beneficiary does not hold an insurable interest
in the real property described in a transfer on death deed prior to the death of the grantor
owner. Any claim on the insured real property described in a transfer on death deed initiated
before the death of the grantor owner or the death benefits associated with the policy prior
to the death of the grantor owner shall be settled with the estate of the grantor owner, not
with the grantee beneficiary. A grantee beneficiary is not entitled to recover benefits under
an insurance policy extended as provided in this section in an amount greater than the grantee
beneficiary's insurable interest at the time of loss or damage. A grantee beneficiary is not
entitled to any amounts paid out in prior claims on the property. If the transfer on death
deed designates multiple grantee beneficiaries, nothing in this section requires the insurer
to pay an amount for loss or damage to the insured real property that exceeds the amount
that would be owed to the grantor owner if the grantor owner was living at the time of loss
or damage.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Warnings on transfer on death deeds. new text end

new text begin On or after August 1 of the year of the
effective date of this section, a transfer on death deed shall contain the following warnings
in substantially the following form:
 new text end

new text begin "Warning to Grantor Owner: Temporary extended coverage of any fire and casualty
insurance policy on the property under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 65A, will exist only if
the grantor owner has given notice to the insurer under Minnesota Statutes, section 507.072,
subdivision 3, including the existence of a transfer on death deed and the names and contact
information of all designated grantee beneficiaries. Any temporary extended coverage
terminates on the earlier of (1) 30 days after the date of the grantor owner's death, (2) the
expiration date of the policy, or (3) upon placement of a replacement insurance policy.
 new text end

new text begin Warning to Grantee Beneficiary: A grantee beneficiary shall not presume insurance
coverage continues after the death of the grantor owner. Upon the death of the grantor
owner, the grantee beneficiary should determine whether the provisions of Minnesota
Statutes, section 507.072, apply and consult with an insurance agent or attorney."
 new text end

new text begin The failure to include warnings in a transfer on death deed in accordance with this
subdivision shall not invalidate the transfer on death deed or affect recording of the transfer
on death deed.
 new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 515B.2-103, is amended to read:


515B.2-103 CONSTRUCTION AND VALIDITY OF DECLARATION AND
BYLAWS.

(a) All provisions of the declaration and bylaws are severable.

(b) The rule against perpetuities may not be applied to defeat any provision of the
declaration or this chapter, or any instrument executed pursuant to the declaration or this
chapter.

(c) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of the declaration and the bylaws,
the declaration prevails except to the extent that the declaration is inconsistent with this
chapter.

(d) The declaration and bylaws must comply with sections 500.215 deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end 500.216new text begin , and
500.217new text end .

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 515B.3-102, is amended to read:


515B.3-102 POWERS OF UNIT OWNERS' ASSOCIATION.

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) and subject to the provisions
of the declaration or bylaws, the association shall have the power to:

(1) adopt, amend and revoke rules and regulations not inconsistent with the articles of
incorporation, bylaws and declaration, as follows: (i) regulating the use of the common
elements; (ii) regulating the use of the units, and conduct of unit occupants, which may
jeopardize the health, safety or welfare of other occupants, which involves noise or other
disturbing activity, or which may damage the common elements or other units; (iii) regulating
or prohibiting animals; (iv) regulating changes in the appearance of the common elements
and conduct which may damage the common interest community; (v) regulating the exterior
appearance of the common interest community, including, for example, balconies and patios,
window treatments, and signs and other displays, regardless of whether inside a unit; (vi)
implementing the articles of incorporation, declaration and bylaws, and exercising the
powers granted by this section; and (vii) otherwise facilitating the operation of the common
interest community;

(2) adopt and amend budgets for revenues, expenditures and reserves, and levy and
collect assessments for common expenses from unit owners;

(3) hire and discharge managing agents and other employees, agents, and independent
contractors;

(4) institute, defend, or intervene in litigation or administrative proceedings (i) in its
own name on behalf of itself or two or more unit owners on matters affecting the common
elements or other matters affecting the common interest community or, (ii) with the consent
of the owners of the affected units on matters affecting only those units;

(5) make contracts and incur liabilities;

(6) regulate the use, maintenance, repair, replacement, and modification of the common
elements and the units;

(7) cause improvements to be made as a part of the common elements, and, in the case
of a cooperative, the units;

(8) acquire, hold, encumber, and convey in its own name any right, title, or interest to
real estate or personal property, but (i) common elements in a condominium or planned
community may be conveyed or subjected to a security interest only pursuant to section
515B.3-112, or (ii) part of a cooperative may be conveyed, or all or part of a cooperative
may be subjected to a security interest, only pursuant to section 515B.3-112;

(9) grant or amend easements for public utilities, public rights-of-way or other public
purposes, and cable television or other communications, through, over or under the common
elements; grant or amend easements, leases, or licenses to unit owners for purposes authorized
by the declaration; and, subject to approval by a vote of unit owners other than declarant
or its affiliates, grant or amend other easements, leases, and licenses through, over or under
the common elements;

(10) impose and receive any payments, fees, or charges for the use, rental, or operation
of the common elements, other than limited common elements, and for services provided
to unit owners;

(11) impose interest and late charges for late payment of assessments and, after notice
and an opportunity to be heard before the board or a committee appointed by it, levy
reasonable fines for violations of the declaration, bylaws, and rules and regulations of the
association, provided that attorney fees and costs must not be charged or collected from a
unit owner who disputes a fine or assessment and, if after the homeowner requests a hearing
and a hearing is held by the board or a committee of the board, the board does not adopt a
resolution levying the fine or upholding the assessment against the unit owner or owner's
unit;

(12) impose reasonable charges for the review, preparation and recordation of
amendments to the declaration, resale certificates required by section 515B.4-107, statements
of unpaid assessments, or furnishing copies of association records;

(13) provide for the indemnification of its officers and directors, and maintain directors'
and officers' liability insurance;

(14) provide for reasonable procedures governing the conduct of meetings and election
of directors;

(15) exercise any other powers conferred by law, or by the declaration, articles of
incorporation or bylaws; and

(16) exercise any other powers necessary and proper for the governance and operation
of the association.

(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) the declaration or bylaws may not impose limitations
on the power of the association to deal with the declarant which are more restrictive than
the limitations imposed on the power of the association to deal with other persons.

(c) An association that levies a fine pursuant to subsection (a)(11), or an assessment
pursuant to section 515B.3-115(g), or 515B.3-1151(g), must provide a dated, written notice
to a unit owner that:

(1) states the amount and reason for the fine or assessment;

(2) for fines levied under section 515B.3-102(a)(11), specifies: (i) the violation for which
a fine is being levied and the date of the levy; and (ii) the specific section of the declaration,
bylaws, rules, or regulations allegedly violated;

(3) for assessments levied under section 515B.3-115(g) or 515B.3-1151(g), identifies:
(i) the damage caused; and (ii) the act or omission alleged to have caused the damage;

(4) states that all unpaid fines and assessments are liens which, if not satisfied, could
lead to foreclosure of the lien against the owner's unit;

(5) describes the unit owner's right to be heard by the board or a committee appointed
by the board;

(6) states that if the assessment, fine, late fees, and other allowable charges are not paid,
the amount may increase as a result of the imposition of attorney fees and other collection
costs; and

(7) informs the unit owner that homeownership assistance is available from the Minnesota
Homeownership Center.

(d) Notwithstanding subsection (a), powers exercised under this section must comply
with sections 500.215 deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin ,new text end 500.216new text begin , and 500.217new text end .

(e) Notwithstanding subsection (a)(4) or any other provision of this chapter, the
association, before instituting litigation or arbitration involving construction defect claims
against a development party, shall:

(1) mail or deliver written notice of the anticipated commencement of the action to each
unit owner at the addresses, if any, established for notices to owners in the declaration and,
if the declaration does not state how notices are to be given to owners, to the owner's last
known address. The notice shall specify the nature of the construction defect claims to be
alleged, the relief sought, and the manner in which the association proposes to fund the cost
of pursuing the construction defect claims; and

(2) obtain the approval of owners of units to which a majority of the total votes in the
association are allocated. Votes allocated to units owned by the declarant, an affiliate of the
declarant, or a mortgagee who obtained ownership of the unit through a foreclosure sale
are excluded. The association may obtain the required approval by a vote at an annual or
special meeting of the members or, if authorized by the statute under which the association
is created and taken in compliance with that statute, by a vote of the members taken by
electronic means or mailed ballots. If the association holds a meeting and voting by electronic
means or mailed ballots is authorized by that statute, the association shall also provide for
voting by those methods. Section 515B.3-110(c) applies to votes taken by electronic means
or mailed ballots, except that the votes must be used in combination with the vote taken at
a meeting and are not in lieu of holding a meeting, if a meeting is held, and are considered
for purposes of determining whether a quorum was present. Proxies may not be used for a
vote taken under this paragraph unless the unit owner executes the proxy after receipt of
the notice required under subsection (e)(1) and the proxy expressly references this notice.

(f) The association may intervene in a litigation or arbitration involving a construction
defect claim or assert a construction defect claim as a counterclaim, crossclaim, or third-party
claim before complying with subsections (e)(1) and (e)(2) but the association's complaint
in an intervention, counterclaim, crossclaim, or third-party claim shall be dismissed without
prejudice unless the association has complied with the requirements of subsection (e) within
90 days of the association's commencement of the complaint in an intervention or the
assertion of the counterclaim, crossclaim, or third-party claim.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2023 Supplement, section 524.5-313, is amended to read:


524.5-313 POWERS AND DUTIES OF GUARDIAN.

(a) A guardian shall be subject to the control and direction of the court at all times and
in all things.

(b) The court shall grant to a guardian only those powers necessary to provide for the
demonstrated needs of the person subject to guardianship.

(c) The court may appoint a guardian if it determines that all the powers and duties listed
in this section are needed to provide for the needs of the incapacitated person. The court
may also appoint a guardian if it determines that a guardian is needed to provide for the
needs of the incapacitated person through the exercise of some, but not all, of the powers
and duties listed in this section. The duties and powers of a guardian or those which the
court may grant to a guardian include, but are not limited to:

(1) the power to have custody of the person subject to guardianship and the power to
establish a place of abode within or outside the state, except as otherwise provided in this
clause. The person subject to guardianship or any interested person may petition the court
to prevent or to initiate a change in abode. A person subject to guardianship may not be
admitted to a regional treatment center by the guardian except:

(i) after a hearing under chapter 253B;

(ii) for outpatient services; or

(iii) for the purpose of receiving temporary care for a specific period of time not to
exceed 90 days in any calendar year;

(2) the duty to provide for the care, comfort, and maintenance needs of the person subject
to guardianship, including food, clothing, shelter, health care, social and recreational
requirements, and, whenever appropriate, training, education, and habilitation or
rehabilitation. The guardian has no duty to pay for these requirements out of personal funds.
Whenever possible and appropriate, the guardian should meet these requirements through
governmental benefits or services to which the person subject to guardianship is entitled,
rather than from the estate of the person subject to guardianshipdeleted text begin . Failure to satisfy the needs
and requirements of this clause shall be grounds for removal of a private guardian, but the
guardian shall have no personal or monetary liabilitydeleted text end ;

(3) the duty to take reasonable care of the clothing, furniture, vehicles, and other personal
effects of the person subject to guardianship, and, if other property requires protection, the
power to seek appointment of a conservator of the estate. The guardian must give notice by
mail to interested persons prior to the disposition of the clothing, furniture, vehicles, or
other personal effects of the person subject to guardianship. The notice must inform the
person of the right to object to the disposition of the property within ten days of the date of
mailing and to petition the court for a review of the guardian's proposed actions. Notice of
the objection must be served by mail or personal service on the guardian and the person
subject to guardianship unless the person subject to guardianship is the objector. The guardian
served with notice of an objection to the disposition of the property may not dispose of the
property unless the court approves the disposition after a hearing;

(4)(i) the power to give any necessary consent to enable the person subject to guardianship
to receive necessary medical or other professional care, counsel, treatment, or service, except
that no guardian may give consent for psychosurgery, electroshock, sterilization, or
experimental treatment of any kind unless the procedure is first approved by order of the
court as provided in this clause. The guardian shall not consent to any medical care for the
person subject to guardianship which violates the known conscientious, religious, or moral
belief of the person subject to guardianship;

(ii) a guardian who believes a procedure described in item (i) requiring prior court
approval to be necessary for the proper care of the person subject to guardianship, shall
petition the court for an order and, in the case of a public guardianship under chapter 252A,
obtain the written recommendation of the commissioner of human services. The court shall
fix the time and place for the hearing and shall give notice to the person subject to
guardianship in such manner as specified in section 524.5-308 and to interested persons.
The court shall appoint an attorney to represent the person subject to guardianship who is
not represented by counsel, provided that such appointment shall expire upon the expiration
of the appeal time for the order issued by the court under this section or the order dismissing
a petition, or upon such other time or event as the court may direct. In every case the court
shall determine if the procedure is in the best interest of the person subject to guardianship.
In making its determination, the court shall consider a written medical report which
specifically considers the medical risks of the procedure, whether alternative, less restrictive
methods of treatment could be used to protect the best interest of the person subject to
guardianship, and any recommendation of the commissioner of human services for a public
person subject to guardianship. The standard of proof is that of clear and convincing evidence;

(iii) in the case of a petition for sterilization of a person with developmental disabilities
subject to guardianship, the court shall appoint a licensed physician, a psychologist who is
qualified in the diagnosis and treatment of developmental disability, and a social worker
who is familiar with the social history and adjustment of the person subject to guardianship
or the case manager for the person subject to guardianship to examine or evaluate the person
subject to guardianship and to provide written reports to the court. The reports shall indicate
why sterilization is being proposed, whether sterilization is necessary and is the least intrusive
method for alleviating the problem presented, and whether it is in the best interest of the
person subject to guardianship. The medical report shall specifically consider the medical
risks of sterilization, the consequences of not performing the sterilization, and whether
alternative methods of contraception could be used to protect the best interest of the person
subject to guardianship;

(iv) any person subject to guardianship whose right to consent to a sterilization has not
been restricted under this section or section 252A.101 may be sterilized only if the person
subject to guardianship consents in writing or there is a sworn acknowledgment by an
interested person of a nonwritten consent by the person subject to guardianship. The consent
must certify that the person subject to guardianship has received a full explanation from a
physician or registered nurse of the nature and irreversible consequences of the sterilization;

(v) a guardian or the public guardian's designee who acts within the scope of authority
conferred by letters of guardianship under section 252A.101, subdivision 7, and according
to the standards established in this chapter or in chapter 252A shall not be civilly or criminally
liable for the provision of any necessary medical care, including, but not limited to, the
administration of psychotropic medication or the implementation of aversive and deprivation
procedures to which the guardian or the public guardian's designee has consented;

(5) in the event there is no duly appointed conservator of the estate of the person subject
to guardianship, the guardian shall have the power to approve or withhold approval of any
contract, except for necessities, which the person subject to guardianship may make or wish
to make;

(6) the duty and power to exercise supervisory authority over the person subject to
guardianship in a manner which limits civil rights and restricts personal freedom only to
the extent necessary to provide needed care and services. A guardian may not restrict the
ability of the person subject to guardianship to communicate, visit, or interact with others,
including receiving visitors or making or receiving telephone calls, personal mail, or
electronic communications including through social media, or participating in social activities,
unless the guardian has good cause to believe restriction is necessary because interaction
with the person poses a risk of significant physical, psychological, or financial harm to the
person subject to guardianship, and there is no other means to avoid such significant harm.
In all cases, the guardian shall provide written notice of the restrictions imposed to the court,
to the person subject to guardianship, and to the person subject to restrictions. The person
subject to guardianship or the person subject to restrictions may petition the court to remove
or modify the restrictions;

(7) if there is no acting conservator of the estate for the person subject to guardianship,
the guardian has the power to apply on behalf of the person subject to guardianship for any
assistance, services, or benefits available to the person subject to guardianship through any
unit of government;

(8) unless otherwise ordered by the court, the person subject to guardianship retains the
right to vote;

(9) the power to establish an ABLE account for a person subject to guardianship or
conservatorship. By this provision a guardian only has the authority to establish an ABLE
account, but may not administer the ABLE account in the guardian's capacity as guardian.
The guardian may appoint or name a person to exercise signature authority over an ABLE
account, including the individual selected by the eligible individual or the eligible individual's
agent under a power of attorney; conservator; spouse; parent; sibling; grandparent; or
representative payee, whether an individual or organization, appointed by the SSA, in that
order; and

(10) if there is no conservator appointed for the person subject to guardianship, the
guardian has the duty and power to institute suit on behalf of the person subject to
guardianship and represent the person subject to guardianship in expungement proceedings,
harassment proceedings, and all civil court proceedings, including but not limited to
restraining orders, orders for protection, name changes, conciliation court, housing court,
family court, probate court, and juvenile court, provided that a guardian may not settle or
compromise any claim or debt owed to the estate without court approval.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 524.5-315, is amended to read:


524.5-315 RIGHTS AND IMMUNITIES OF GUARDIAN; LIMITATIONS.

(a) A guardian is entitled to reasonable compensation for services as guardian and to
reimbursement for expenditures made on behalf of the person subject to guardianship, in a
manner consistent with section 524.5-502.

(b) a guardian is not liable to a third person for acts of the person subject to guardianship
solely by reason of the relationship. A guardian who exercises reasonable care in choosing
a third person providing medical or other care, treatment, or service for the person subject
to guardianship is not liable for injury to the person subject to guardianship resulting from
the wrongful conduct of the third person.

(c) A guardian may not revoke the health care directive of a person subject to guardianship
or conservatorship absent a court order.

(d) A guardian may not initiate the commitment of a person subject to guardianship to
an institution except in accordance with section 524.5-313.

new text begin (e) Failure to satisfy the duties of a guardian under section 524.5-313, paragraph (c),
shall be grounds for removal of a private guardian, but the guardian shall not be held liable
for acts or omissions made in the discharge of the guardian's duties except for acts or
omissions that result in harm to the person subject to guardianship and that constitute reckless
or willful misconduct, or gross negligence.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to causes
of action accruing on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 524.5-317, is amended to read:


524.5-317 TERMINATION OR MODIFICATION OF GUARDIANSHIP; COURT
ORDERS.

(a) A guardianship terminates upon the death of the person subject to guardianship, upon
the expiration of the duration of guardianship established in the order appointing the guardian,
or upon order of the court.

(b) On petition of any person interested in the welfare of the person subject to
guardianship the court may terminate a guardianship if the person subject to guardianship
no longer needs the assistance or protection of a guardian. The court may modify the type
of appointment or powers granted to the guardian if the extent of protection or assistance
previously granted is currently excessive or insufficient or the capacity of the person subject
to guardianship to provide for support, care, education, health, and welfare has so changed
as to warrant that action. The court may make any other order that is in the best interests of
the person subject to guardianship or may grant other appropriate relief.

(c) Except as otherwise ordered by the court for good cause, the court, before terminating
a guardianship, shall follow the same procedures to safeguard the rights of the person subject
to guardianship as apply to a petition for guardianship. Upon presentation by the petitioner
of evidence establishing a prima facie case for termination, the court shall order the
termination and discharge the guardian unless it is proven that continuation of the
guardianship is in the best interest of the person subject to guardianship.

(d) Any documents or information disclosing or pertaining to health or financial
information shall be filed as confidential documents, consistent with the bill of particulars
under section 524.5-121.

(e) A guardian has the right to petition the court for discharge from the guardianship.

new text begin (f) If, after a good faith effort, the guardian is unable to find a successor guardian, the
guardian may petition the court for resignation. The court may allow the guardian to resign
if such resignation would not result in substantial harm to the person subject to guardianship
based on clear and convincing evidence.
 new text end

Sec. 11. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end

new text begin Sections 4 and 5 are effective on the day following final enactment and apply to insurance
policies issued or renewed in Minnesota on or after August 1 of the year of final enactment.
Sections 4 and 5 do not apply to insurance policies issued or renewed prior to August 1 of
the year of final enactment or to transfer on death deeds recorded prior to that date unless
the grantor owner provides the notice specified by section 5, subdivision 3.
 new text end

ARTICLE 8

OTHER CIVIL LAW PROVISIONS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 5B.02, is amended to read:


5B.02 DEFINITIONS.

(a) For purposes of this chapter and unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the
definitions in this section have the meanings given them.

(b) "Address" means an individual's work address, school address, or residential street
address, as specified on the individual's application to be a program participant under this
chapter.

(c) "Applicant" means an adult, a parent or guardian acting on behalf of an eligible
minor, or a guardian acting on behalf of an incapacitated person, as defined in section
524.5-102.

(d) "Domestic violence" means an act as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2,
paragraph (a), and includes a threat of such acts committed against an individual in a domestic
situation, regardless of whether these acts or threats have been reported to law enforcement
officers.

(e) "Eligible person" means an adult, a minor, or an incapacitated person, as defined in
section 524.5-102 for whom there is good reason to believe (1) that the eligible person is a
victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or harassment or stalking, or (2) that the eligible
person fears for the person's safety, the safety of another person who resides in the same
household, or the safety of persons on whose behalf the application is made. new text begin In order to be
an eligible person, new text end an individual must reside in Minnesota deleted text begin in order to be an eligible persondeleted text end new text begin
or must certify that the individual intends to reside in Minnesota within 60 daysnew text end . A person
registered or required to register as a predatory offender under section 243.166 or 243.167,
or the law of another jurisdiction, is not an eligible person.

(f) "Mail" means first class letters and flats delivered via the United States Postal Service,
including priority, express, and certified mail, and excluding (1) periodicals and catalogues,
and (2) packages and parcels unless they are clearly identifiable as nonrefrigerated
pharmaceuticals or clearly indicate that they are sent by the federal government or a state
or county government agency of the continental United States, Hawaii, District of Columbia,
or United States territories.

(g) "Program participant" means an individual certified as a program participant under
section 5B.03.

(h) "Harassment" or "stalking" means acts criminalized under section 609.749 and
includes a threat of such acts committed against an individual, regardless of whether these
acts or threats have been reported to law enforcement officers.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 5B.03, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Certification.

(a) Upon filing a completed application, the secretary of state
shall certify the eligible person as a program participant.new text begin Unless the program participant is
not a Minnesota resident,new text end program participants deleted text begin shalldeleted text end new text begin mustnew text end be certified for four years following
the date of filing unless the certification is canceled, withdrawn or invalidated before that
date.new text begin Applicants from outside of Minnesota must be certified for 60 days. Upon receiving
notice that the participant has moved to Minnesota, the participant must be certified for four
years following the date of filing unless the certification is canceled, withdrawn, or
invalidated before that date.new text end The secretary of state shall by rule establish a renewal procedure.

(b) Certification under this subdivision is for the purpose of participation in the
confidentiality program established under this chapter only. Certification must not be used
as evidence or be considered for any purpose in any civil, criminal, or administrative
proceeding related to the behavior or actions giving rise to the application under subdivision
1.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 5B.04, is amended to read:


5B.04 CERTIFICATION CANCELLATION.

(a) If the program participant obtains a legal change of identity, the participant loses
certification as a program participant.

(b) The secretary of state may cancel a program participant's certification if there is a
change in the program participant's legal name or contact information, unless the program
participant or the person who signed as the applicant on behalf of an eligible person provides
the secretary of state with prior notice in writing of the change.

(c) The secretary of state may cancel certification of a program participant if mail
forwarded by the secretary to the program participant's address is returned as nondeliverable.

(d) The secretary of state may cancel a program participant's certification if the program
participant is no longer an eligible person.

(e) The secretary of state shall cancel certification of a program participant who applies
using false information.

new text begin (f) The secretary of state shall cancel certification of a program participant who does
not reside in Minnesota within 60 days of Safe at Home certification.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 5B.05, is amended to read:


5B.05 USE OF DESIGNATED ADDRESS.

(a) When a program participant presents the address designated by the secretary of state
to any person or entity, that address must be accepted as the address of the program
participant. The person deleted text begin maydeleted text end new text begin or entity mustnew text end not require the program participant to submit
any address that could be used to physically locate the participant either as a substitute or
in addition to the designated address, or as a condition of receiving a service or benefit,
unless the service or benefit would be impossible to provide without knowledge of the
program participant's physical location. Notwithstanding a person's or entity's knowledge
of a program participant's physical location, the person or entity must use the program
participant's designated address for all mail correspondence with the program participantnew text begin ,
unless the participant owns real property through a limited liability company or trust. A
person or entity may only mail to an alternative address if the participant owns real property
through a trust or a limited liability company and the participant has requested that the
person or entity mail correspondence regarding that ownership to an alternate addressnew text end .

(b) A program participant may use the address designated by the secretary of state as
the program participant's work address.

(c) The Office of the Secretary of State shall forward all mail sent to the designated
address to the proper program participants.

(d) If a program participant has notified a personnew text begin or entitynew text end in writing, on a form prescribed
by the program, that the individual is a program participant and of the requirements of this
section, the personnew text begin or entitynew text end must not knowingly disclose the participant's name or address
identified by the participant on the notice. If identified on the notice, the deleted text begin individualdeleted text end new text begin person
or entitynew text end receiving the notice must not knowingly disclose the program participant's name,
home address, work address, or school address, unless the person to whom the address is
disclosed also lives, works, or goes to school at the address disclosed, or the participant has
provided written consent to disclosure of the participant's name, home address, work address,
or school address for the purpose for which the disclosure will be made. This paragraph
applies to the actions and reports of guardians ad litem, except that guardians ad litem may
disclose the program participant's name. This paragraph does not apply to records of the
judicial branch governed by rules adopted by the supreme court or government entities
governed by section 13.045.

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 13.045, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Classification of identity and location data; amendment of records; sharing
and dissemination.

(a) Identity and location data for which a program participant seeks
protection under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), that are not otherwise classified by lawnew text begin as
not publicnew text end are private data on individuals.

(b) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, private or confidential location
data on a program participant who submits a notice under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), may
not be shared with any other government entity or nongovernmental entity unless:

(1) the program participant has expressly consented in writing to sharing or dissemination
of the data for the purpose for which the sharing or dissemination will occur;

(2) the data are subject to sharing or dissemination pursuant to court order under section
13.03, subdivision 6;

(3) the data are subject to sharing pursuant to section 5B.07, subdivision 2;

(4) the location data related to county of residence are needed to provide public assistance
or other government services, or to allocate financial responsibility for the assistance or
services;

(5) the data are necessary to perform a government entity's health, safety, or welfare
functions, including the provision of emergency 911 services, the assessment and
investigation of child or vulnerable adult abuse or neglect, or the assessment or inspection
of services or locations for compliance with health, safety, or professional standards; or

(6) the data are necessary to aid an active law enforcement investigation of the program
participant.

(c) Data disclosed under paragraph (b), clauses (4) to (6), may be used only for the
purposes authorized in this subdivision and may not be further disclosed to any other person
or government entity. Government entities receiving or sharing private or confidential data
under this subdivision shall establish procedures to protect the data from further disclosure.

(d) Real property record data are governed by subdivision 4a.

(e) Notwithstanding sections 15.17 and 138.17, a government entity may amend records
to replace a participant's location data with the participant's designated address.

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 13D.05, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

What meetings may be closed.

(a) A public body may close a meeting to
evaluate the performance of an individual who is subject to its authority. The public body
shall identify the individual to be evaluated prior to closing a meeting. At its next open
meeting, the public body shall summarize its conclusions regarding the evaluation. A meeting
must be open at the request of the individual who is the subject of the meeting.

(b) Meetings may be closed if the closure is expressly authorized by statute deleted text begin or permitted
by the attorney-client privilegedeleted text end .

new text begin (c) A meeting may be closed if permitted by the attorney-client privilege. A public body
must identify on the record the legal issue or case to be discussed prior to closing a meeting
under this paragraph. Any person in any court of competent jurisdiction where the
administrative office of the local body is located may bring an action claiming that a public
body closed a meeting in violation of this paragraph or discussed public business not
permitted by attorney-client privilege.
 new text end

deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (d)new text end A public body may close a meeting:

(1) to determine the asking price for real or personal property to be sold by the
government entity;

(2) to review confidential or protected nonpublic appraisal data under section 13.44,
subdivision 3; and

(3) to develop or consider offers or counteroffers for the purchase or sale of real or
personal property.

Before holding a closed meeting under this paragraph, the public body must identify on
the record the particular real or personal property that is the subject of the closed meeting.
The proceedings of a meeting closed under this paragraph must be tape recorded at the
expense of the public body. The recording must be preserved for eight years after the date
of the meeting and made available to the public after all real or personal property discussed
at the meeting has been purchased or sold or the governing body has abandoned the purchase
or sale. The real or personal property that is the subject of the closed meeting must be
specifically identified on the tape. A list of members and all other persons present at the
closed meeting must be made available to the public after the closed meeting. If an action
is brought claiming that public business other than discussions allowed under this paragraph
was transacted at a closed meeting held under this paragraph during the time when the tape
is not available to the public, section 13D.03, subdivision 3, applies.

An agreement reached that is based on an offer considered at a closed meeting is contingent
on approval of the public body at an open meeting. The actual purchase or sale must be
approved at an open meeting after the notice period required by statute or the governing
body's internal procedures, and the purchase price or sale price is public data.

deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end Meetings may be closed to receive security briefings and reports, to discuss issues
related to security systems, to discuss emergency response procedures and to discuss security
deficiencies in or recommendations regarding public services, infrastructure and facilities,
if disclosure of the information discussed would pose a danger to public safety or compromise
security procedures or responses. Financial issues related to security matters must be
discussed and all related financial decisions must be made at an open meeting. Before closing
a meeting under this paragraph, the public body, in describing the subject to be discussed,
must refer to the facilities, systems, procedures, services, or infrastructures to be considered
during the closed meeting. A closed meeting must be tape recorded at the expense of the
governing body, and the recording must be preserved for at least four years.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 13D.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Forfeit office if three violations.

(a) If a person has been found to have
deleted text begin intentionally violated this chapter indeleted text end new text begin committednew text end three or more deleted text begin actions brought underdeleted text end new text begin separate,
intentional violations ofnew text end this chapter involving the same governing body, such person shall
forfeit any further right to serve on such governing body or in any other capacity with such
public body for a period of time equal to the term of office such person was then serving.

(b) The court determining the merits of any action in connection with any alleged third
violation shall receive competent, relevant evidence in connection therewith and, upon
finding as to the occurrence of a separate third violation, deleted text begin unrelated to the previous violations,deleted text end
issue its order declaring the position vacant and notify the appointing authority or clerk of
the governing body.

(c) As soon as practicable thereafter the appointing authority or the governing body shall
fill the position as in the case of any other vacancy.

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 491A.01, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Jurisdiction; general.

(a) Except as provided in subdivisions 4 and 5, the
conciliation court has jurisdiction to hear, conciliate, try, and determine civil claims if the
amount of money or property that is the subject matter of the claim does not exceed: (1)
deleted text begin $15,000deleted text end new text begin $20,000new text end ; or (2) $4,000, if the claim involves a consumer credit transaction.

(b) "Consumer credit transaction" means a sale of personal property, or a loan arranged
to facilitate the purchase of personal property, in which:

(1) credit is granted by a seller or a lender who regularly engages as a seller or lender
in credit transactions of the same kind;

(2) the buyer is a natural person;

(3) the claimant is the seller or lender in the transaction; and

(4) the personal property is purchased primarily for a personal, family, or household
purpose and not for a commercial, agricultural, or business purpose.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision and subdivisions 5 to 11, the
territorial jurisdiction of conciliation court is coextensive with the county in which the court
is established. The summons in a conciliation court action under subdivisions 6 to 10 may
be served anywhere in the state, and the summons in a conciliation court action under
subdivision 7, paragraph (b), may be served outside the state in the manner provided by
law. The court administrator shall serve the summons in a conciliation court action by first
class mail, except that if the amount of money or property that is the subject of the claim
exceeds $2,500, the summons must be served by the plaintiff by certified mail, and service
on nonresident defendants must be made in accordance with applicable law or rule.
Subpoenas to secure the attendance of nonparty witnesses and the production of documents
at trial may be served anywhere within the state in the manner provided by law.

When a court administrator is required to summon the defendant by certified mail under
this paragraph, the summons may be made by personal service in the manner provided in
the Rules of Civil Procedure for personal service of a summons of the district court as an
alternative to service by certified mail.

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Definitions.

As used in this section, the following terms shall have the meanings
given them:

(a) "Domestic abuse" means the following, if committed against a family or household
member by a family or household member:

(1) physical harm, bodily injury, or assault;

(2) the infliction of fear of imminent physical harm, bodily injury, or assault; or

(3) terroristic threats, within the meaning of section 609.713, subdivision 1; criminal
sexual conduct, within the meaning of section 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, or
609.3451; sexual extortion within the meaning of section 609.3458; or interference with an
emergency call within the meaning of section 609.78, subdivision 2.

(b) "Family or household members" means:

(1) spouses and former spouses;

(2) parents and children;

(3) persons related by blood;

(4) persons who are presently residing together or who have resided together in the past;

(5) persons who have a child in common regardless of whether they have been married
or have lived together at any time;

(6) a man and woman if the woman is pregnant and the man is alleged to be the father,
regardless of whether they have been married or have lived together at any time; and

(7) persons involved in a significant romantic or sexual relationship.

Issuance of an order for protection on the ground in clause (6) does not affect a
determination of paternity under sections 257.51 to 257.74. In determining whether persons
are or have been involved in a significant romantic or sexual relationship under clause (7),
the court shall consider the length of time of the relationship; type of relationship; frequency
of interaction between the parties; and, if the relationship has terminated, length of time
since the termination.

(c) "Qualified domestic violence-related offense" has the meaning given in section
609.02, subdivision 16.

new text begin (d) "Custodian" means any person other than the petitioner or respondent who is under
a legal obligation to provide care and support for a minor child of a petitioner or who is in
fact providing care and support for a minor child of a petitioner. Custodian does not include
any person caring for a minor child if the petitioner's parental rights have been terminated.
 new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 3b, is amended to read:


Subd. 3b.

Information on petitioner's location or residence.

new text begin (a) new text end Upon the petitioner's
request, information maintained by the court regarding the petitioner's location or residence
is not accessible to the public and may be disclosed only to court personnel or law
enforcement for purposes of service of process, conducting an investigation, or enforcing
an order.

new text begin (b) Upon request of the petitioner or a custodian of the petitioner's minor children,
information maintained by the court regarding the location or residence of the petitioner's
minor children is not accessible to the public and may be disclosed only to court personnel
or law enforcement for purposes of service of process, conducting an investigation, or
enforcing an order. If any custodian is a program participant as defined in section 5B.02,
paragraph (g), the protections, limitations, and requirements in chapter 5B apply and
information maintained by the court regarding the location or residence of the petitioner's
minor children is not accessible to the public.
 new text end

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Order for protection.

There shall exist an action known as a petition for an
order for protection in cases of domestic abuse.

(a) A petition for relief under this section may be made by any family or household
member personally or by a family or household member, a guardian as defined in section
524.1-201, clause (27), or, if the court finds that it is in the best interests of the minor, by
a reputable adult age 25 or older on behalf of minor family or household members. A minor
age 16 or older may make a petition on the minor's own behalf against a spouse or former
spouse, or a person with whom the minor has a child in common, if the court determines
that the minor has sufficient maturity and judgment and that it is in the best interests of the
minor.

(b) A petition for relief shall allege the existence of domestic abuse, and shall be
accompanied by an affidavit made under oath stating the specific facts and circumstances
from which relief is sought.

(c) A petition for relief must state whether the petitioner has ever had an order for
protection in effect against the respondent.

(d) A petition for relief must state whether there is an existing order for protection in
effect under this chapter governing both the parties and whether there is a pending lawsuit,
complaint, petition or other action between the parties under chapter 257, 518, 518A, 518B,
or 518C. The court administrator shall verify the terms of any existing order governing the
parties. The court may not delay granting relief because of the existence of a pending action
between the parties or the necessity of verifying the terms of an existing order. A subsequent
order in a separate action under this chapter may modify only the provision of an existing
order that grants relief authorized under subdivision 6, paragraph (a), clause (1). A petition
for relief may be granted, regardless of whether there is a pending action between the parties.

new text begin (e) A petition for relief must state whether the petitioner has any minor children and, if
so, must provide the name of any custodian of the minor children and must identify the
location or residence of the custodian. If any custodian is a program participant as defined
in section 5B.02, paragraph (g), the location or residence of the custodian is the address
designated by the secretary of state as the address of the program participant. A petition
must not be rejected or denied for failure to identify any custodian.
 new text end

deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end The court shall provide simplified forms and clerical assistance to help with the
writing and filing of a petition under this section.

deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (g)new text end The court shall advise a petitioner under paragraph deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end of the right to file a
motion and affidavit and to sue in forma pauperis pursuant to section 563.01 and shall assist
with the writing and filing of the motion and affidavit.

deleted text begin (g)deleted text end new text begin (h)new text end The court shall advise a petitioner under paragraph deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (f)new text end of the right to serve
the respondent by published notice under subdivision 5, paragraph (b), if the respondent is
avoiding personal service by concealment or otherwise, and shall assist with the writing
and filing of the affidavit.

deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end The court shall advise the petitioner of the right to seek restitution under the
petition for relief.

deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end The court shall advise the petitioner of the right to request a hearing under
subdivision 7, paragraph (c). If the petitioner does not request a hearing, the court shall
advise the petitioner that the respondent may request a hearing and that notice of the hearing
date and time will be provided to the petitioner new text begin and the custodian of any of the petitioner's
minor children new text end by mail at least five days before the hearing.

deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end The court shall advise the petitioner of the right to request supervised parenting
time, as provided in section 518.175, subdivision 1a.

Sec. 12.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Hearing on application; notice.

(a) Upon receipt of the petition, the court
shall order a hearing which shall be held not later than 14 days from the date of the order
for hearing unless an ex parte order is issued.

(b) If an ex parte order has been issued under subdivision 7 and the petitioner seeks only
the relief under subdivision 7, paragraph (a), a hearing is not required unless:

(1) the court declines to order the requested relief; or

(2) one of the parties requests a hearing.

(c) If an ex parte order has been issued under subdivision 7 and the petitioner seeks relief
beyond that specified in subdivision 7, paragraph (a), or if the court declines to order relief
requested by the petitioner, a hearing must be held within seven days. Personal service of
the ex parte order may be made upon the respondent new text begin and any custodian new text end at any time up to
12 hours prior to the time set for the hearing, provided that the respondent at the hearing
may request a continuance of up to five days if served fewer than five days prior to the
hearing which continuance shall be granted unless there are compelling reasons not to.

(d) If an ex parte order has been issued only granting relief under subdivision 7, paragraph
(a), and the respondent requests a hearing, the hearing shall be held within ten days of the
court's receipt of the respondent's request. Service of the notice of hearing must be made
upon the petitioner new text begin and any custodian new text end not less than five days prior to the hearing. The court
shall serve the notice of hearing upon the petitioner new text begin and any custodian new text end by mail in the manner
provided in the Rules of Civil Procedure for pleadings subsequent to a complaint and motions
and shall also mail notice of the date and time of the hearing to the respondent. In the event
that service cannot be completed in time to give the respondent deleted text begin ordeleted text end new text begin ,new text end petitionernew text begin , or any custodiannew text end
the minimum notice required under this subdivision, the court may set a new hearing date
no more than five days later.

(e) If for good cause shown either party is unable to proceed at the initial hearing and
requests a continuance and the court finds that a continuance is appropriate, the hearing
may be continued. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties and approved by the court, the
continuance shall be for no more than five days. If the court grants the requested continuance,
the court shall also issue a written order continuing all provisions of the ex parte order
pending the issuance of an order after the hearing.

(f) Notwithstanding the preceding provisions of this subdivision, service on the respondent
may be made by one week published notice, as provided under section 645.11, provided
the petitioner files with the court an affidavit stating that an attempt at personal service
made by a sheriff or other law enforcement or corrections officer was unsuccessful because
the respondent is avoiding service by concealment or otherwise, and that a copy of the
petition and notice of hearing has been mailed to the respondent at the respondent's residence
or that the residence is not known to the petitioner. Service under this paragraph is complete
seven days after publication. The court shall set a new hearing date if necessary to allow
the respondent the five-day minimum notice required under paragraph (d).

Sec. 13.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 6a, is amended to read:


Subd. 6a.

Subsequent orders and extensions.

(a) Upon application, notice to all parties,
new text begin notice to any custodian, new text end and hearing, the court may extend the relief granted in an existing
order for protection or, if a petitioner's order for protection is no longer in effect when an
application for subsequent relief is made, grant a new order. If the petitioner seeks only the
relief under subdivision 7, paragraph (a), a hearing is not required unless the court declines
to order the requested relief or the respondent requests a hearing. If a hearing is required,
subdivisions 5 and 7 apply to service of the application, notice to the partiesnew text begin and any
custodiannew text end , and time for the hearing.

(b) The court may extend the terms of an existing order or, if an order is no longer in
effect, grant a new order upon a showing that:

(1) the respondent has violated a prior or existing order for protection;

(2) the petitioner is reasonably in fear of physical harm from the respondent;

(3) the respondent has engaged in the act of harassment within the meaning of section
609.749, subdivision 2; or

(4) the respondent is incarcerated and about to be released, or has recently been released
from incarceration.

A petitioner does not need to show that physical harm is imminent to obtain an extension
or a subsequent order under this subdivision.

(c) Relief granted by the order for protection may be for a period of up to 50 years, if
the court finds:

(1) the respondent has violated a prior or existing order for protection on two or more
occasions; or

(2) the petitioner has had two or more orders for protection in effect against the same
respondent.

An order issued under this paragraph may restrain the abusing party from committing
acts of domestic abuse; or prohibit the abusing party from having any contact with the
petitioner, whether in person, by telephone, mail or electronic mail or messaging, through
electronic devices, through a third party, or by any other means.

Sec. 14.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 7, is amended to read:


Subd. 7.

Ex parte order.

(a) Where an application under this section alleges an immediate
and present danger of domestic abuse, the court may grant an ex parte order for protection
and granting relief as the court deems proper, including an order:

(1) restraining the abusing party from committing acts of domestic abuse;

(2) excluding any party from the dwelling they share or from the residence of the other,
including a reasonable area surrounding the dwelling or residence, which area shall be
described specifically in the order, except by further order of the court;

(3) excluding the abusing party from the place of employment of the petitioner or
otherwise limiting access to the petitioner by the abusing party at the petitioner's place of
employment;

(4) ordering the abusing party to have no contact with the petitioner whether in person,
by telephone, mail, email, through electronic devices, or through a third party;

(5) continuing all currently available insurance coverage without change in coverage or
beneficiary designation;

(6) directing the care, possession, or control of a pet or companion animal owned,
possessed, or kept by a party or a child of a party; and

(7) directing the respondent to refrain from physically abusing or injuring any pet or
companion animal, without legal justification, known to be owned, possessed, kept, or held
by either party or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either party as an
indirect means of intentionally threatening the safety of such person.

(b) A finding by the court that there is a basis for issuing an ex parte order for protection
constitutes a finding that sufficient reasons exist not to require notice under applicable court
rules governing applications for ex parte relief.

(c) Subject to paragraph (d), an ex parte order for protection shall be effective for a fixed
period set by the court, as provided in subdivision 6, paragraph (b), or until modified or
vacated by the court pursuant to a hearing. When signed by a referee, the ex parte order
becomes effective upon the referee's signature. Upon request, a hearing, as provided by this
section, shall be set. Except as provided in paragraph (d), the respondent shall be personally
served forthwith a copy of the ex parte order along with a copy of the petition and, if
requested by the petitioner, notice of the date set for the hearing. new text begin Any custodian must be
served with a copy of the ex parte order. Service on a custodian may be made by personal
service or by certified mail. new text end If the petitioner does not request a hearing, an order served on
a respondent under this subdivision must include a notice advising the respondent of the
right to request a hearing, must be accompanied by a form that can be used by the respondent
to request a hearing and must include a conspicuous notice that a hearing will not be held
unless requested by the respondent within five days of service of the order.

(d) Service of the ex parte ordernew text begin on the respondentnew text end may be made by published notice,
as provided under subdivision 5, provided that the petitioner files the affidavit required
under that subdivision. If personal service is not made or the affidavit is not filed within 14
days of issuance of the ex parte order, the order expires. If the petitioner does not request
a hearing, the petition mailed to the respondent's residence, if known, must be accompanied
by the form for requesting a hearing and notice described in paragraph (c). Unless personal
service is completed, if service by published notice is not completed within 28 days of
issuance of the ex parte order, the order expires.new text begin Notice that an order has expired under this
paragraph must be sent to any custodian.
new text end

(e) If the petitioner seeks relief under subdivision 6 other than the relief described in
paragraph (a), the petitioner must request a hearing to obtain the additional relief.

(f) Nothing in this subdivision affects the right of a party to seek modification of an
order under subdivision 11.

Sec. 15.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Service; alternate service; publication; notice.

(a) The petition and any order
issued under this section other than orders for dismissal shall be served on the respondent
personally. Orders for dismissal may be served new text begin on the respondent new text end personally or by certified
mail. In lieu of personal service of an order for protection, a law enforcement officer may
serve a deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin respondentnew text end with a short-form notification as provided in subdivision 8a.new text begin The
petition and any order issued under this section may be served on any custodian personally
or by certified mail.
new text end

(b) When service is made out of this state and in the United States, it may be proved by
the affidavit of the person making the service. When service is made outside the United
States, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service, taken before and
certified by any United States minister, charge d'affaires, commissioner, consul, or
commercial agent, or other consular or diplomatic officer of the United States appointed to
reside in the other country, including all deputies or other representatives of the officer
authorized to perform their duties; or before an office authorized to administer an oath with
the certificate of an officer of a court of record of the country in which the affidavit is taken
as to the identity and authority of the officer taking the affidavit.

(c) If personal service cannot be madenew text begin on a respondentnew text end , the court may order service of
the petition and any order issued under this section by alternate means, or by publication,
which publication must be made as in other actions. The application for alternate service
must include the last known location of the respondent; the petitioner's most recent contacts
with the respondent; the last known location of the respondent's employment; the names
and locations of the respondent's parents, siblings, children, and other close relatives; the
names and locations of other persons who are likely to know the respondent's whereabouts;
and a description of efforts to locate those persons.

The court shall consider the length of time the respondent's location has been unknown,
the likelihood that the respondent's location will become known, the nature of the relief
sought, and the nature of efforts made to locate the respondent. The court shall order service
by first class mail, forwarding address requested, to any addresses where there is a reasonable
possibility that mail or information will be forwarded or communicated to the respondent.

The court may also order publication, within or without the state, but only if it might
reasonably succeed in notifying the respondent of the proceeding. Service shall be deemed
complete 14 days after mailing or 14 days after court-ordered publication.

(d) A petition and any order issued under this section, including the short-form
notification, must include a notice to the respondent that if an order for protection is issued
to protect the petitioner or a child of the parties, upon request of the petitioner in any
parenting time proceeding, the court shall consider the order for protection in making a
decision regarding parenting time.

Sec. 16.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 8a, is amended to read:


Subd. 8a.

Short-form notification.

(a) In lieu of personal service of an order for
protection under subdivision 8, a law enforcement officer may serve a deleted text begin persondeleted text end new text begin respondentnew text end
with a short-form notification. The short-form notification must include the following
clauses: the respondent's name; the respondent's date of birth, if known; the petitioner's
name; the names of other protected parties; the date and county in which the ex parte order
for protection or order for protection was filed; the court file number; the hearing date and
time, if known; the conditions that apply to the respondent, either in checklist form or
handwritten; and the name of the judge who signed the order.

The short-form notification must be in bold print in the following form:

The order for protection is now enforceable. You must report to your nearest sheriff
office or county court to obtain a copy of the order for protection. You are subject to arrest
and may be charged with a misdemeanor, gross misdemeanor, or felony if you violate any
of the terms of the order for protection or this short-form notification.

(b) Upon verification of the identity of the respondent and the existence of an unserved
order for protection against the respondent, a law enforcement officer may detain the
respondent for a reasonable time necessary to complete and serve the short-form notification.

(c) When service is made by short-form notification, it may be proved by the affidavit
of the law enforcement officer making the service.

(d) For service under this section only, service upon an individual may occur at any
time, including Sundays, and legal holidays.

(e) The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall provide the short
form to law enforcement agencies.

new text begin (f) This section does not apply to service of an order for protection on any custodian.
 new text end

Sec. 17.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 9a, is amended to read:


Subd. 9a.

Service by others.

Peace officers licensed by the state of Minnesota and
corrections officers, including, but not limited to, probation officers, court services officers,
parole officers, and employees of jails or correctional facilities, may serve an order for
protectionnew text begin on a respondent or any custodiannew text end .

Sec. 18.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 11, is amended to read:


Subd. 11.

Modifying or vacating order.

(a) Upon application, notice to all parties,
new text begin notice to any custodian, new text end and hearing, the court may modify the terms of an existing order
for protection.

(b) If the court orders relief under subdivision 6a, paragraph (c), the respondent named
in the order for protection may request to have the order vacated or modified if the order
has been in effect for at least five years and the respondent has not violated the order during
that time. Application for relief under this subdivision must be made in the county in which
the order for protection was issued. Upon receipt of the request, the court shall set a hearing
date. Personal service must be made upon the petitioner named in the order for protection
not less than 30 days before the date of the hearing.new text begin Notice of the request and hearing may
be made on any custodian personally or by certified mail.new text end At the hearing, the respondent
named in the order for protection has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the
evidence that there has been a material change in circumstances and that the reasons upon
which the court relied in granting or extending the order for protection no longer apply and
are unlikely to occur. If the court finds that the respondent named in the order for protection
has met the burden of proof, the court may vacate or modify the order. If the court finds
that the respondent named in the order for protection has not met the burden of proof, the
court shall deny the request and no request may be made to vacate or modify the order for
protection until five years have elapsed from the date of denial. An order vacated or modified
under this paragraph must be personally served on the petitioner named in the order for
protectionnew text begin and may be served on any custodian personally or by certified mailnew text end .

Sec. 19.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:


new text begin Subd. 11a. new text end

new text begin Notice to custodian; Safe at Home participants; failure not a bar to
enforcement. new text end

new text begin (a) A custodian who is a program participant as defined in section 5B.02,
paragraph (g), may direct the court to use the address designated by the secretary of state
as the address of the program participant. Section 5B.03, subdivision 1, clause (3), applies
to service of any notice, order, or other document required to be served under this section.
The protections, limitations, and requirements in chapter 5B apply to any information
regarding a custodian who is a program participant.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Failure to serve a custodian with a petition, order for protection, dismissal, or any
other order must not prevent any order from taking effect or otherwise invalidate any order
issued pursuant to this section. In the event that service of a notice of a hearing is not
completed on any custodian at least 24 hours prior to the time set for the hearing, the court
may set a new hearing date no more than five days later.
 new text end

Sec. 20.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 548.251, subdivision 2, is amended to read:


Subd. 2.

Motion.

In a civil action, whether based on contract or tort, when liability is
admitted or is determined by the trier of fact, and when damages include an award to
compensate the plaintiff for losses available to the date of the verdict by collateral sources,
a party may file a motion within ten days of the date of entry of the verdict requesting
determination of collateral sources. If the motion is filed, the parties shall submit written
evidence of, and the court shall determine:

(1) amounts of collateral sources that have been paid for the benefit of the plaintiff or
are otherwise available to the plaintiff as a result of losses except those for which a
subrogation right has been asserted; and

(2) amounts that have been paid, contributed, or forfeited by, or on behalf of, the plaintiff
or members of the plaintiff's immediate family for the two-year period immediately before
the accrual of the action new text begin and until judgment is entered new text end to secure the right to a collateral
source benefit that the plaintiff is receiving as a result of losses.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to causes
of action commenced on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 21.

new text begin [554.07] SHORT TITLE.
 new text end

new text begin Sections 554.07 to 554.19 may be cited as the "Uniform Public Expression Protection
Act."
 new text end

Sec. 22.

new text begin [554.08] SCOPE.
 new text end

new text begin (a) For the purposes of sections 554.07 to 554.19, the terms in this section have the
meanings given them.
 new text end

new text begin (1) "Goods or services" does not include the creation, dissemination, exhibition, or
advertisement or similar promotion of a dramatic, literary, musical, political, journalistic,
or artistic work.
 new text end

new text begin (2) "Governmental unit" means a public corporation or government or governmental
subdivision, agency, or instrumentality.
 new text end

new text begin (3) "Person" means an individual, estate, trust, partnership, business or nonprofit entity,
governmental unit, or other legal entity.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), sections 554.07 to 554.19 apply to a
cause of action asserted in a civil action against a person based on the person's:
 new text end

new text begin (1) communication in a legislative, executive, judicial, administrative, or other
governmental proceeding;
 new text end

new text begin (2) communication on an issue under consideration or review in a legislative, executive,
judicial, administrative, or other governmental proceeding; or
 new text end

new text begin (3) exercise of the right of freedom of speech or of the press, the right to assemble or
petition, or the right of association, guaranteed by the United States Constitution or the
Minnesota Constitution on a matter of public concern.
 new text end

new text begin (c) Sections 554.07 to 554.19 do not apply to a cause of action:
 new text end

new text begin (1) against a governmental unit or an employee or agent of a governmental unit acting
or purporting to act in an official capacity;
 new text end

new text begin (2) by a governmental unit or an employee or agent of a governmental unit acting in an
official capacity to enforce a law to protect against an imminent threat to public health Next or
safety;
 new text end

new text begin (3) against a person primarily engaged in the business of selling or leasing goods or
services if the cause of action arises out of a communication related to the person's sale or
lease of the goods or services;
 new text end

new text begin (4) against a person named in a civil suit brought by a victim of a crime against a
perpetrator;
 new text end

new text begin (5) against a person named in a civil suit brought to establish or declare real property
possessory rights, use of real property, recovery of real property, quiet title to real property,
or related claims relating to real property;
 new text end

new text begin (6) seeking recovery for bodily injury, wrongful death, or survival or to statements made
regarding that legal action, unless the claims involve damage to reputation;
 new text end

new text begin (7) brought under the insurance code or arising out of an insurance contract;
 new text end

new text begin (8) based on a common law fraud claim;
 new text end

new text begin (9) brought under chapters 517 to 519A; or counterclaims based on a criminal no-contact
order pursuant to section 629.72 or 629.75; for or based on an antiharassment order or a
sexual assault protection order under section 518B.01; or for or based on a vulnerable adult
protection order for crimes against the vulnerable adult under sections 609.232, 609.2325,
609.233, 609.2335, and 609.234;
 new text end

new text begin (10) brought under chapters 175, 177, 178, 179, and 179A; negligent supervision,
retention, or infliction of emotional distress unless the claims involve damage to reputation;
wrongful discharge in violation of public policy; whistleblowing; or enforcement of employee
rights under civil service, collective bargaining, or handbooks and policies;
 new text end

new text begin (11) brought under consumer protection, chapter 325F or 325G; or
 new text end

new text begin (12) for any claim brought under federal law.
 new text end

new text begin (d) Sections 554.07 to 554.19 apply to a cause of action asserted under paragraph (c),
clause (3), (8), or (11), when the cause of action is:
 new text end

new text begin (1) a legal action against a person arising from any act of that person, whether public or
private, related to the gathering, receiving, posting, or processing of information for
communication to the public, whether or not the information is actually communicated to
the public, for the creation, dissemination, exhibition, or advertisement or other similar
promotion of a dramatic, literary, musical, political, journalistic, or otherwise artistic work,
including audiovisual work regardless of the means of distribution, a motion picture, a
television or radio program, or an article published in a newspaper, website, magazine, or
other platform, no matter the method or extent of distribution; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) a legal action against a person related to the communication, gathering, receiving,
posting, or processing of consumer opinions or commentary, evaluations of consumer
complaints, or reviews or ratings of businesses.
 new text end

Sec. 23.

new text begin [554.09] SPECIAL MOTION FOR EXPEDITED RELIEF.
 new text end

new text begin Not later than 60 days after a party is served with a complaint, crossclaim, counterclaim,
third-party claim, or other pleading that asserts a cause of action to which sections 554.07
to 554.19 apply, or at a later time on a showing of good cause, the party may file a special
motion for expedited relief to dismiss the cause of action or part of the cause of action.
 new text end

Sec. 24.

new text begin [554.10] STAY.
 new text end

new text begin (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (d) to (g), on the filing of a motion under
section 554.09:
 new text end

new text begin (1) all other proceedings between the moving party and responding party, including
discovery and a pending hearing or motion, are stayed; and
 new text end

new text begin (2) on motion by the moving party, the court may stay a hearing or motion involving
another party, or discovery by another party, if the hearing or ruling on the motion would
adjudicate, or the discovery would relate to, an issue material to the motion under section
554.09.
 new text end

new text begin (b) A stay under paragraph (a) remains in effect until entry of an order ruling on the
motion under section 554.09 and expiration of the time under section 554.15 for the moving
party to appeal the order.
 new text end

new text begin (c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (e), (f), and (g), if a party appeals from
an order ruling on a motion under section 554.09, all proceedings between all parties in the
action are stayed. The stay remains in effect until the conclusion of the appeal.
 new text end

new text begin (d) During a stay under paragraph (a), the court may allow limited discovery if a party
shows that specific information is necessary to establish whether a party has satisfied or
failed to satisfy a burden under section 554.13, paragraph (a), and the information is not
reasonably available unless discovery is allowed.
 new text end

new text begin (e) A motion under section 554.16 for costs, attorney fees, and expenses is not subject
to a stay under this section.
 new text end

new text begin (f) A stay under this section does not affect a party's ability voluntarily to dismiss a cause
of action or part of a cause of action or move to sever a cause of action.
 new text end

new text begin (g) During a stay under this section, the court for good cause may hear and rule on:
 new text end

new text begin (1) a motion unrelated to the motion under section 554.09; and
 new text end

new text begin (2) a motion seeking a special or preliminary injunction to protect against an imminent
threat to Previous public health or safety.
 new text end

Sec. 25.

new text begin [554.11] HEARING.
 new text end

new text begin (a) The court shall hear a motion under section 554.09 not later than 60 days after filing
of the motion, unless the court orders a later hearing:
 new text end

new text begin (1) to allow discovery under section 554.10, paragraph (d); or
 new text end

new text begin (2) for other good cause.
 new text end

new text begin (b) If the court orders a later hearing under paragraph (a), clause (1), the court shall hear
the motion under section 554.09 not later than 60 days after the court order allowing the
discovery, unless the court orders a later hearing under paragraph (a), clause (2).
 new text end

Sec. 26.

new text begin [554.12] PROOF.
 new text end

new text begin In ruling on a motion under section 554.09, the court shall consider the pleadings, the
motion, any reply or response to the motion, and any evidence that could be considered in
ruling on a motion for summary judgment under Minnesota Rules of Civil Procedure 56.03.
 new text end

Sec. 27.

new text begin [554.13] DISMISSAL OF CAUSE OF ACTION IN WHOLE OR PART.
 new text end

new text begin (a) In ruling on a motion under section 554.09, the court shall dismiss with prejudice a
cause of action, or part of a cause of action, if:
 new text end

new text begin (1) the moving party establishes under section 554.08, paragraph (b), that sections 554.07
to 554.19 apply;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the responding party fails to establish under section 554.08, paragraph (c), that
sections 554.07 to 554.19 do not apply; and
 new text end

new text begin (3) either:
 new text end

new text begin (i) the responding party fails to establish a prima facie case as to each essential element
of the cause of action; or
 new text end

new text begin (ii) the moving party establishes that:
 new text end

new text begin (A) the responding party failed to state a cause of action upon which relief can be granted;
or
 new text end

new text begin (B) there is no genuine issue as to any material fact and the moving party is entitled to
judgment as a matter of law on the cause of action or part of the cause of action.
 new text end

new text begin (b) A voluntary dismissal without prejudice of a responding party's cause of action, or
part of a cause of action, that is the subject of a motion under section 554.09 does not affect
a moving party's right to obtain a ruling on the motion and seek costs, attorney fees, and
expenses under section 554.16.
 new text end

new text begin (c) A voluntary dismissal with prejudice of a responding party's cause of action, or part
of a cause of action, that is the subject of a motion under section 554.09 establishes for the
purpose of section 554.16 that the moving party prevailed on the motion.
 new text end

Sec. 28.

new text begin [554.14] RULING.
 new text end

new text begin The court shall rule on a motion under section 554.09 not later than 60 days after a
hearing under section 554.11.
 new text end

Sec. 29.

new text begin [554.15] APPEAL.
 new text end

new text begin A moving party may appeal as a matter of right from an order denying, in whole or in
part, a motion under section 554.09. The appeal must be filed not later than 30 days after
entry of the order.
 new text end

Sec. 30.

new text begin [554.16] COSTS, ATTORNEY FEES, AND EXPENSES.
 new text end

new text begin On a motion under section 554.09, the court shall award court costs, reasonable attorney
fees, and reasonable litigation expenses related to the motion:
 new text end

new text begin (1) to the moving party if the moving party prevails on the motion; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) to the responding party if the responding party prevails on the motion and the court
finds that the motion was frivolous or filed solely with intent to delay the proceeding.
 new text end

Sec. 31.

new text begin [554.17] CONSTRUCTION.
 new text end

new text begin Sections 554.07 to 554.19 must be broadly construed and applied to protect the exercise
of the right of freedom of speech and of the press, the right to assemble and petition, and
the right of association, guaranteed by the United States Constitution or Minnesota
Constitution.
 new text end

Sec. 32.

new text begin [554.18] UNIFORMITY OF APPLICATION AND CONSTRUCTION.
 new text end

new text begin In applying and construing this uniform act, consideration must be given to the need to
promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.
 new text end

Sec. 33.

new text begin [554.19] SAVINGS CLAUSE.
 new text end

new text begin Sections 554.07 to 554.19 do not affect a cause of action asserted before the effective
date of sections 554.07 to 554.19 in a civil action or a motion under Minnesota Statutes
2022, sections 554.01 to 554.06, regarding the cause of action.
 new text end

Sec. 34.

new text begin [554.20] NO WAIVER OF OTHER PLEADINGS OR DEFENSES.
 new text end

new text begin A special motion for expedited relief under sections 554.07 to 554.19 is not meant to
waive a defense or preclude the filing of another pleading or motion regarding the cause of
action.
 new text end

Sec. 35.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 563.01, is amended to read:


563.01 deleted text begin IN FORMA PAUPERIS PROCEEDINGSdeleted text end new text begin COURT FEE WAIVERnew text end ;
AUTHORIZATION.

Subd. 2.

Expenses.

Whenever pursuant to this section the court directs expenses to be
paid, the expenses shall be paid by the state.

Subd. 3.

new text begin Court fee waiver; new text end authorization deleted text begin of in forma pauperisdeleted text end .

(a) Any court of the
state of Minnesota or any political subdivision thereof may authorize the commencement
or defense of any civil action, or appeal therein, without deleted text begin prepaymentdeleted text end new text begin paymentnew text end of fees, costsnew text begin ,new text end
and security for costs by a natural person who makes affidavit stating deleted text begin (a)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end the nature of
the action, defense or appeal, deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end a belief that affiant is entitled to redress, and deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end
that affiant is financially unable to pay the fees, costs and security for costs.

(b) Upon a finding by the court that the actionnew text begin , defense, or appealnew text end is not of a frivolous
nature, the court shall allow the person to proceed deleted text begin in forma pauperisdeleted text end new text begin without payment of
fees, costs, and security for costsnew text end if the affidavit is substantially in the language required by
this subdivision and is not found by the court to be untrue. Persons deleted text begin meetingdeleted text end new text begin presumed to
meetnew text end the requirements of this subdivision include, but are not limited to, a person who is
receiving public assistance described in section 550.37, subdivision 14, who is represented
by an attorney on behalf of a civil legal services program or a volunteer attorney program
based on indigency, or who has an annual income not greater than 125 percent of the poverty
line established under United States Code, title 42, section 9902(2), except as otherwise
provided by section 563.02.

(c) If, at commencement of the action, the court finds that a party does not meet the
eligibility criteria under paragraph (b), but the court also finds that the party is not able to
pay all of the fees, costs, and security for costs, the court may order payment of a fee of $75
or partial payment of the fees, costs, and security for costs, to be paid as directed by the
court.

The court administrator shall transmit any fees or payments to the commissioner of
management and budget for deposit in the state treasury and credit to the general fund.

new text begin (d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a person who is represented by a civil legal services
program or a volunteer attorney program based on indigency may be allowed to proceed
without payment of fees, costs, and security for costs without additional findings if the
attorney representing the person submits an affidavit or makes an oral attestation during a
court proceeding stating that civil legal services or a volunteer attorney program services
are being provided to the client.
 new text end

Subd. 4.

Payment of expenses.

Upon order of the court, the court administrator and the
sheriff of any Minnesota county shall perform their duties without charge to the person
proceeding deleted text begin in forma pauperisdeleted text end new text begin with a court fee waivernew text end . The court shall direct payment of the
reasonable expense of service of process pursuant to subdivision 2 if served by a private
process server, if the sheriff is unavailable, or by publication.

Subd. 5.

Witness fees.

If the court finds that a witness, including an expert witness, has
evidence material and necessary to the case and is within the state of Minnesota, the court
shall direct payment of the reasonable expenses incurred in subpoenaing the witness, if
necessary, and in paying the fees and costs of the witness.

Subd. 6.

Deposition expenses.

If the court finds that a deposition and transcript thereof
are necessary to adequately prepare, present or decide an issue presented by the action, the
court shall direct payment of the reasonable expenses incurred in taking the deposition and
in obtaining the transcript thereof.

Subd. 7.

Transcript expenses.

If the court finds that a transcript of any part or all of
the action is necessary to adequately prepare, present or decide an issue presented by the
action, the court shall direct the payment of the reasonable expenses incurred in obtaining
the transcript.

Subd. 7a.

Copy costs.

The court administrator shall provide a person who is proceeding
deleted text begin in forma pauperisdeleted text end new text begin with a court fee waiver under subdivision 3new text end with a copy of the person's
court file without charge.

Subd. 8.

Appellate briefs.

In any case on appeal the appellate court shall, upon granting
permission to proceed deleted text begin in forma pauperis following application in the mannerdeleted text end new text begin with a court
fee waiver asnew text end provided in subdivision 3, direct payment of the reasonable expenses incurred
in obtaining the record and reproducing the appellate briefs.

Subd. 8a.

Reimbursement.

Following commencement of the action, the court may order
reimbursement of all or a portion of any fees, costs, and security for costs if the party either
(1) no longer meets the eligibility criteria under subdivision 3, paragraph (b); or (2) the
amount ordered under subdivision 3, paragraph (c), is no longer appropriate because the
party is able to pay a higher amount. The reimbursement must be paid as directed by the
court.

Subd. 9.

Rescinding deleted text begin in forma pauperis statusdeleted text end new text begin court fee waiver authorizationnew text end .

Upon
motion, the court may rescind its permission to proceed deleted text begin in forma pauperisdeleted text end new text begin with a court fee
waiver under subdivision 3new text end if it finds the allegations of poverty contained in the affidavit
are untrue, or if, following commencement of the action, the party becomes able to pay the
fees, costs and security for the costs. In such cases, the court may direct the party to pay to
the court administrator any costs allowing the action to proceed. The court administrator
shall transmit the costs to the commissioner of management and budget for deposit in the
state treasury and credit them to the general fund.

Subd. 10.

Judgment.

Judgment may be rendered for costs at the conclusion of the action
as in other cases. In the event any person recovers moneys by either settlement or judgment
as a result of commencing or defending an action deleted text begin in forma pauperisdeleted text end new text begin with a court fee waiver
under subdivision 3new text end , the costs deferred and the expenses directed by the court to be paid
under this section shall be included in such moneys and shall be paid directly to the court
administrator by the opposing party. The court administrator shall transmit the costs to the
commissioner of management and budget for deposit in the state treasury and credit them
to the general fund.

Subd. 11.

Fraud; perjury.

A person who fraudulently invokes the privilege of this
section shall be guilty of perjury and shall, upon conviction thereof, be punished as provided
in section 609.48.

Subd. 12.

Not supersede other remedies.

The provisions of this section do not replace
or supersede remedies otherwise provided by law.

Sec. 36. new text begin REVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall prepare legislation for the 2025 legislative session making
any additional conforming changes arising out of sections 16 to 29 and 32.
 new text end

Sec. 37. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 554.01; 554.02; 554.03; 554.04; 554.045; 554.05;
and 554.06, new text end new text begin are repealed.
 new text end

Sec. 38. new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE.
new text end

new text begin Sections 21 to 34, 36, and 37 are effective the day following final enactment and apply
to a civil action pending on or commenced on or after that date.
 new text end

ARTICLE 9

CONTRACTS FOR DEED

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 272.12, is amended to read:


272.12 CONVEYANCES, TAXES PAID BEFORE RECORDING.

When:

(a) a deed or other instrument conveying land,

(b) a plat of any townsite or addition thereto,

(c) a survey required pursuant to section 508.47,

(d) a condominium plat subject to chapter 515 or 515A or a declaration that contains
such a plat, or

(e) a common interest community plat subject to chapter 515B or a declaration that
contains such a plat,

is presented to the county auditor for transfer, the auditor shall ascertain from the records
if there be taxes delinquent upon the land described therein, or if it has been sold for taxes.
An assignment of a sheriff's or referee's certificate of sale, when the certificate of sale
describes real estate, and certificates of redemption from mortgage or lien foreclosure sales,
when the certificate of redemption encompasses real estate and is issued to a junior creditor,
are considered instruments conveying land for the purposes of this section and section
272.121. If there are taxes delinquent, the auditor shall certify to the same; and upon payment
of such taxes, or in case no taxes are delinquent, shall transfer the land upon the books of
the auditor's office, and note upon the instrument, over official signature, the words, "no
delinquent taxes and transfer entered," or, if the land described has been sold or assigned
to an actual purchaser for taxes, the words "paid by sale of land described within;" and,
unless such statement is made upon such instrument, the county recorder or the registrar of
titles shall refuse to receive or record the same; provided, that sheriff's or referees' certificates
of sale on execution or foreclosure of a lien or mortgage, certificates of redemption from
mortgage or lien foreclosure sales issued to the redeeming mortgagor or lienee, new text begin documents
evidencing the termination of a contract for deed as described in section 559.213, new text end deeds of
distribution made by a personal representative in probate proceedings, transfer on death
deeds under section 507.071, decrees and judgments, receivers receipts, patents, and copies
of town or statutory city plats, in case the original plat filed in the office of the county
recorder has been lost or destroyed, and the instruments releasing, removing and discharging
reversionary and forfeiture provisions affecting title to land and instruments releasing,
removing or discharging easement rights in land or building or other restrictions, may be
recorded without such certificate; and, provided that instruments conveying land and, as
appurtenant thereto an easement over adjacent tract or tracts of land, may be recorded
without such certificate as to the land covered by such easement; and provided further, that
any instrument granting an easement made in favor of any public utility or pipe line for
conveying gas, liquids or solids in suspension, in the nature of a right-of-way over, along,
across or under a tract of land may be recorded without such certificate as to the land covered
by such easement. Documents governing homeowners associations of condominiums,
townhouses, common interest ownership communities, and other planned unit developments
may be recorded without the auditor's certificate to the extent provided in section
515B.1-116(e).

A deed of distribution made by a personal representative in a probate proceeding, a
decree, or a judgment that conveys land shall be presented to the county auditor, who shall
transfer the land upon the books of the auditor's office and note upon the instrument, over
official signature, the words, "transfer entered", and the instrument may then be recorded.
A decree or judgment that affects title to land but does not convey land may be recorded
without presentation to the auditor.

A violation of this section by the county recorder or the registrar of titles shall be a gross
misdemeanor, and, in addition to the punishment therefor, the recorder or registrar shall be
liable to the grantee of any instrument so recorded for the amount of any damages sustained.

When, as a condition to permitting the recording of deed or other instrument affecting
the title to real estate previously forfeited to the state under the provisions of sections 281.16
to 281.25, county officials, after such real estate has been purchased or repurchased, have
required the payment of taxes erroneously assumed to have accrued against such real estate
after forfeiture and before the date of purchase or repurchase, the sum required to be so paid
shall be refunded to the persons entitled thereto out of moneys in the funds in which the
sum so paid was placed. Delinquent taxes are those taxes deemed delinquent under section
279.02.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 507.235, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:


Subd. 1a.

Requirements of vendor.

(a) A vendor entering into a contract for deed
involving residential real property must, contemporaneously with the execution of the
contract for deeddeleted text begin :
deleted text end

deleted text begin (1)deleted text end deliver to the vendee a copy of the contract for deed containing original signatures
in recordable formdeleted text begin ; anddeleted text end new text begin .
new text end

deleted text begin (2) deleted text end new text begin (b) Within four months of the execution of the contract for deed, the vendor must:
 new text end

new text begin (1)new text end paydeleted text begin , or reimburse the vendee for payment of,deleted text end any delinquent taxes necessary for
recordation of the contract for deeddeleted text begin , unless the contract for deed provides for the vendee to
pay the delinquent taxesdeleted text end new text begin ; and
new text end

new text begin (2) record the contract for deed in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles
in the county in which the land is locatednew text end .

new text begin (c) The following statement included in a contract for deed for other than residential
real property shall constitute prima facie evidence that this subdivision does not apply: "The
property is not residential real property."
 new text end

new text begin (d) If the contract for deed is not in recordable form, the vendor must make a good faith
effort to correct the defects that rendered the contract unrecordable. A good faith effort
includes but is not limited to determining the reason or reasons why the contract was not
in recordable form, and revising and, if necessary, having all parties re-execute, the contract
to render it in recordable form. The vendee must, in good faith, cooperate with the vendor
to the extent that cooperation is necessary to correct the defects.
 new text end

deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end For purposes of this subdivision:

(1) "contract for deed" means an executory contract for the conveyance of residential
real property under which the seller provides financing for the purchase of the residential
real property and under which the purchaser does or has a right to go into possession.
Contract for deed does not include:

(i) a purchase agreement;

(ii) an earnest money contract;

(iii) an exercised option or a lease, including a lease with an option to purchase; or

(iv) a mortgage, as defined in section 287.01; and

(2) "residential real property" means real property deleted text begin occupied, or intended to be occupied,
by one to four families, if the purchaser intends to occupy the real propertydeleted text end new text begin consisting of
one to four family dwelling units, one of which is intended to be occupied as the principal
place of residence by:
new text end

new text begin (i) the purchaser;
 new text end

new text begin (ii) if the purchaser is an entity, the natural person who is the majority or controlling
owner of the entity; or
 new text end

new text begin (iii) if the purchaser is a trust, the settlor of the trustnew text end .

Residential real property does not include deleted text begin property subject to a family farm security loan
ordeleted text end a transaction subject to sections 583.20 to 583.32.

new text begin (f) The performance of the obligations by the vendor required under this subdivision
satisfies any of the obligations of the original vendee, as required under subdivision 1.
 new text end

new text begin (g) The requirements of this subdivision may not be waived or altered by any provision
in a contract for deed. A provision in a contract for deed to the contrary is void and
unenforceable.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to all contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 507.235, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Civil enforcement.

(a) A city in which the land is located or, if the land is not
located within a city, the county in which the land is located, may enforce the provisions
of this section. The city or county may bring an action to compel the recording of a contract
for deed or any assignments of a contract for deed, an action to impose the civil penalty, or
an action to compel disclosure of information.

(b) Prior to bringing an action under this subdivision to compel recording or to impose
the penalty, deleted text begin or an action under subdivision 4,deleted text end the city or county must provide written notice
to the person, subject to subdivision 1, of the person's duty to record the contract for deed
or the assignment. If the person so notified fails to record the contract for deed or assignment
documents within 14 days of receipt of the notice, an action may be brought.

(c) It is an affirmative defense in an enforcement action under this section that the contract
for deed or assignment document is not recordable, or that section 272.121 prohibits the
recording of the contract for deed or assignment, and that the defendant has provided to the
city or county attorney true and correct copies of the documents within 14 days after receipt
of the notice.

(d) In an action brought under this subdivision, the city or county attorney may recover
costs and disbursements, including reasonable attorney fees.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 513.73, subdivision 3, is amended to read:


Subd. 3.

Private transfer fee.

"Private transfer fee" means a fee or charge required by
a private transfer fee obligation and payable upon the transfer of an interest in real property,
or payable for the right to make or accept the transfer, regardless of whether the fee or
charge is a fixed amount or is determined as a percentage of the value of the property, the
purchase price, or other consideration given for the transfer. The following are not private
transfer fees for purposes of this section:

(1) consideration payable by the grantee to the grantor for the interest in real property
being transferred, including any subsequent additional consideration for the property payable
by the grantee based upon any subsequent appreciation, development, or sale of the property,
provided that the additional consideration is payable on a onetime basis only, and the
obligation to make the payment does not bind successors in title to the property. For the
purposes of this clause, an interest in real property may include a separate mineral estate
and its appurtenant surface access rights;

(2) commission payable to a licensed real estate broker for the transfer of real property
pursuant to an agreement between the broker and the grantor or the grantee, including any
subsequent additional commission for that transfer payable by the grantor or the grantee
based upon any subsequent appreciation, development, or sale of the property;

(3) interest, charges, fees, or other amounts payable by a borrower to a lender pursuant
to a loan secured by a mortgage against real property, including but not limited to a fee
payable to the lender for consenting to an assumption of the loan or a transfer of the real
property subject to the mortgage, fees, or charges payable to the lender for estoppel letters
or certificates, and shared appreciation interest or profit participation or other consideration
and payable to the lender in connection with the loan;

(4) rent, reimbursement, charge, fee, or other amount payable by a lessee to a lessor
under a lease, including but not limited to a fee payable to the lessor for consenting to an
assignment, subletting, encumbrance, or transfer of the lease;

(5) consideration payable to the holder of an option to purchase an interest in real property
or the holder of a right of first refusal or first offer to purchase an interest in real property
for waiving, releasing, or not exercising the option or right upon the transfer of the property
to another person;

deleted text begin (6) consideration payable by a contract for deed vendee to the vendor pursuant to the
terms of a recorded contract for deed, including any subsequent additional consideration
for the property payable by the vendee based upon any subsequent appreciation, development,
or sale of the property;
 deleted text end

deleted text begin (7)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end a tax, fee, charge, assessment, fine, or other amount payable to or imposed by a
governmental authority;

deleted text begin (8)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end a fee, charge, assessment, fine, or other amount payable to a homeowner's
condominium, cooperative, mobile home, or property owner's association pursuant to a
declaration or covenant or law applicable to the association, including but not limited to
fees or charges payable for estoppel letters or certificates issued by the association or its
authorized agent;

deleted text begin (9)deleted text end new text begin (8)new text end a fee, a charge, an assessment, dues, a contribution, or other amount pertaining
to the purchase or transfer of a club membership relating to real property owned by the
member, including but not limited to any amount determined by reference to the value,
purchase price, or other consideration given for the transfer of the real property; and

deleted text begin (10)deleted text end new text begin (9)new text end a mortgage from the purchaser of real property granted to the seller or to a
licensed real estate broker.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.21, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:


Subd. 2a.

For post 7/31/1985 contract.

If a default occurs in the conditions of a contract
for the conveyance of real estate or an interest in real estate executed on or after August 1,
1985, that gives the seller a right to terminate it, the seller may terminate the contract by
serving upon the purchaser or the purchaser's personal representatives or assigns, within or
outside of the state, a notice specifying the conditions in which default has been made. The
notice must state that the contract will terminate 60 days, or a shorter period allowed new text begin or a
longer period required new text end in subdivision 4, after the service of the notice, unless prior to the
termination date the purchaser:

(1) complies with the conditions in default;

(2) makes all payments due and owing to the seller under the contract through the date
that payment is made;

(3) pays the costs of service of the notice, including the reasonable costs of service by
sheriff, public officer, or private process server; except payment of costs of service is not
required unless the seller notifies the purchaser of the actual costs of service by certified
mail to the purchaser's last known address at least ten days prior to the date of termination;

(4) except for earnest money contracts, purchase agreements, and exercised options,
pays two percent of any amount in default at the time of service, not including the final
balloon payment, any taxes, assessments, mortgages, or prior contracts that are assumed by
the purchaser; and

(5) new text begin if the contract for deed is executed on or after August 1, 2024, pays an amount to
apply on attorneys' fees actually expended or incurred of $1,000; new text end if the contract is executed
on or after August 1, 1999, new text begin and before August 1, 2024, new text end pays an amount to apply on attorneys'
fees actually expended or incurred, of $250 if the amount in default is less than $1,000, and
of $500 if the amount in default is $1,000 or more; or if the contract is executed before
August 1, 1999, pays an amount to apply on attorneys' fees actually expended or incurred,
of $125 if the amount in default is less than $750, and of $250 if the amount in default is
$750 or more; except that no amount for attorneys' fees is required to be paid unless some
part of the conditions of default has existed for at least 30 days prior to the date of service
of the notice.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.21, subdivision 4, is amended to read:


Subd. 4.

Law prevails over contract; procedure; conditions.

(a) The notice required
by this section must be given notwithstanding any provisions in the contract to the contrary,
except that new text begin (1) new text end earnest money contracts, purchase agreements, and exercised options that
are subject to this section may, unless by their terms they provide for a longer termination
period, be terminated on 30 days' notice, or may be canceled under section 559.217new text begin and (2)
contracts for deed executed by an investor seller shall be terminated on 90 days' noticenew text end . The
notice must be served within the state in the same manner as a summons in the district court,
and outside of the state, in the same manner, and without securing any sheriff's return of
not found, making any preliminary affidavit, mailing a copy of the notice or doing any other
preliminary act or thing whatsoever. Service of the notice outside of the state may be proved
by the affidavit of the person making the same, made before an authorized officer having
a seal, and within the state by such an affidavit or by the return of the sheriff of any county
therein.

(b) If a person to be served is a resident individual who has departed from the state, or
cannot be found in the state; or is a nonresident individual or a foreign corporation,
partnership, or association, service may be made by publication as provided in this paragraph.
Three weeks' published notice has the same effect as personal service of the notice. The
published notice must comply with subdivision 3 and state (1) that the person to be served
is allowed 90 days after the first date of publication of the notice to comply with the
conditions of the contract, and (2) that the contract will terminate 90 days after the first date
of publication of the notice, unless before the termination date the purchaser complies with
the notice. If the real estate described in the contract is actually occupied, then, in addition
to publication, a person in possession must be personally served, in like manner as the
service of a summons in a civil action in state district court, within 30 days after the first
date of publication of the notice. If an address of a person to be served is known, then within
30 days after the first date of publication of the notice a copy of the notice must be mailed
to the person's last known address by first class mail, postage prepaid.

(c) The contract is reinstated if, within the time mentioned, the person served:

(1) complies with the conditions in default;

(2) if subdivision 1d or 2a applies, makes all payments due and owing to the seller under
the contract through the date that payment is made;

(3) pays the costs of service as provided in subdivision 1b, 1c, 1d, or 2a;

(4) if subdivision 2a applies, pays two percent of the amount in default, not including
the final balloon payment, any taxes, assessments, mortgages, or prior contracts that are
assumed by the purchaser; and

(5) pays attorneys' fees as provided in subdivision 1b, 1c, 1d, or 2a.

(d) The contract is terminated if the provisions of paragraph (c) are not met.

(e) In the event that the notice was not signed by an attorney for the seller and the seller
is not present in the state, or cannot be found in the state, then compliance with the conditions
specified in the notice may be made by paying to the court administrator of the district court
in the county wherein the real estate or any part thereof is situated any money due and filing
proof of compliance with other defaults specified, and the court administrator of the district
court shall be deemed the agent of the seller for such purposes. A copy of the notice with
proof of service thereof, and the affidavit of the seller, the seller's agent or attorney, showing
that the purchaser has not complied with the terms of the notice, may be recorded with the
county recorder or registrar of titles, and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in it; but
this section in no case applies to contracts for the sale or conveyance of lands situated in
another state or in a foreign country. If the notice is served by publication, the affidavit must
state that the affiant believes that the party to be served is not a resident of the state, or
cannot be found in the state, and either that the affiant has mailed a copy of the notice by
first class mail, postage prepaid, to the party's last known address, or that such address is
not known to the affiant.

new text begin (f) No notice under this section may be given for a contract for deed executed by an
investor seller unless, at least 30 days prior to the service of the notice, some part of the
conditions of default has existed and the investor seller has notified the purchaser of such
conditions of default by certified mail to the purchaser's last known address.
 new text end

new text begin (g) For purposes of this subdivision, "investor seller" has the meaning given in section
559A.01, subdivision 6.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.21, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 4a. new text end

new text begin Termination prohibited for certain transfers regarding residential real
property. new text end

new text begin (a) Notwithstanding any provisions in a contract for deed to the contrary, the
notice under this section may not be given and no other remedies may be exercised for any
contract for deed based on any of the following transfers:
 new text end

new text begin (1) a transfer on death deed conveying or assigning the deceased purchaser's interest in
the property to a grantee beneficiary;
 new text end

new text begin (2) a transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant occurs;
 new text end

new text begin (3) a transfer by which the spouse or children of the purchaser become an owner of the
property;
 new text end

new text begin (4) a transfer resulting from a decree of a dissolution of marriage, legal separation
agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement, by which the spouse of
the purchaser becomes an owner of the property; or
 new text end

new text begin (5) a transfer into an inter vivos trust by which the purchaser is and remains a beneficiary
and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property.
 new text end

new text begin (b) For the purposes of this subdivision, "contract for deed" has the meaning given in
section 507.235, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to all contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.21, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 4b. new text end

new text begin Termination prohibited if vendor fails to record contracts for deed
involving residential real property. new text end

new text begin (a) Notwithstanding subdivision 2a or any provision
to the contrary in a contract for deed, a vendor may not terminate a contract for deed under
this section if the contract has not been recorded as required under section 507.235,
subdivision 1a, paragraph (b), or the vendor has failed to make a good faith effort to record
the contract as provided under section 507.235, subdivision 1a, paragraph (d).
 new text end

new text begin (b) Nothing contained in this subdivision bars judicial termination of a contract for deed.
 new text end

new text begin (c) For the purposes of this subdivision, "contract for deed" has the meaning given in
section 507.235, subdivision 1a, paragraph (e).
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to all contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 9.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.21, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Affidavit of seller constituting prima facie evidence. new text end

new text begin In any instance where
the copy of the notice of default, proof of service of the notice, and an affidavit showing
that the purchaser has not complied with the terms of the notice have been or may be
recorded, an affidavit of the seller, the seller's agent, or attorney verified by a person having
knowledge of the facts and attesting that the seller is not an investor seller or that the seller
has complied with the requirements of subdivision 4, paragraph (f), may be recorded with
the county recorder or registrar of titles and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in
the affidavit.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 10.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.211, subdivision 1, is amended to read:


Subdivision 1.

Order; proceedings; security.

new text begin (a) new text end In an action arising under or in relation
to a contract for the conveyance of real estate or any interest therein, the district court,
notwithstanding the service or publication pursuant to the provisions of section 559.21 of
a notice of termination of the contract, has the authority at any time prior to the effective
date of termination of the contract and subject to the requirements of rule 65 of the Rules
of Civil Procedure for the District Courts to enter an order temporarily restraining or enjoining
further proceedings to effectuate the termination of the contract, including recording of the
notice of termination with proof of service, recording of an affidavit showing noncompliance
with the terms of the notice, taking any action to recover possession of the real estate, or
otherwise interfering with the purchaser's lawful use of the real estate. In the action, the
purchaser may plead affirmatively any matter that would constitute a defense to an action
to terminate the contract.

new text begin (b)new text end Upon a motion for a temporary restraining order the court has the discretion,
notwithstanding any rule of court to the contrary, to grant the order without requiring the
giving of any security or undertaking, and in exercising that discretion, the court shall
consider, as one factor, the moving party's ability to afford monetary security. Upon a motion
for a temporary injunction, the court shall condition the granting of the order either upon
the tender to the court or vendor of installments as they become due under the contract or
upon the giving of other security in a sum as the court deems proper. Upon written
application, the court may disburse from payments tendered to the court an amount the court
determines necessary to insure the timely payment of property taxes, property insurance,
installments of special assessments, mortgage installments, prior contract for deed
installments or other similar expenses directly affecting the real estate, or for any other
purpose the court deems just.

new text begin (c)new text end If a temporary restraining order or injunction is granted pursuant to this subdivision,
the contract shall not terminate until the expiration of 15 days after the entry of the order
or decision dissolving or modifying the temporary restraining order or injunction.new text begin If the
vendor has made an appearance and the restraining order or injunction is granted, the court
may award court filing fees, reasonable attorneys' fees, and costs of service to the purchaser.
new text end

new text begin (d) If the court subsequently grants permanent relief to the purchaser or determines by
final order or judgment that the notice of termination was invalid or the purchaser asserted
a valid defense, the purchaser is entitled to an order granting court filing fees, reasonable
attorneys' fees, and costs of service.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024.
 new text end

Sec. 11.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 559.213, is amended to read:


559.213 PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE OF TERMINATION.

The recording, heretofore or hereafter, of the copy of notice of default, proof of service
thereof, and the affidavit showing that the purchaser has not complied with the terms of the
notice, provided for by deleted text begin Minnesota Statutes 1941,deleted text end section 559.21, shall be prima facie evidence
that the contract referred to in such notice has been terminated.new text begin It shall not be necessary to
pay current or delinquent real estate taxes owed on the real property which is the subject of
the contract to record the documents required by this section, provided that the documents
must be first presented to the county auditor for entry upon the transfer record and must
have "Transfer Entered" noted in them over the county auditor's official signature.
new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
 new text end

Sec. 12.

new text begin [559A.01] CONTRACTS FOR DEED INVOLVING INVESTOR SELLERS
AND RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY; DEFINITIONS.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Application. new text end

new text begin The definitions in this section apply to sections 559A.01
to 559A.05.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Balloon payment. new text end

new text begin "Balloon payment" means a scheduled payment of principal,
interest, or both under a contract for deed that is significantly larger than the regular
installment payments and that may be due prior to the end of the contract term or may be
the final payment that satisfies the contract.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Churning. new text end

new text begin "Churning" means the act of an investor seller executing a contract
for deed on or after August 1, 2024, if previously the investor had frequently or repeatedly
executed contracts for deed and subsequently terminated those contracts under section
559.21.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Contract for deed. new text end

new text begin "Contract for deed" has the meaning given in section
507.235, subdivision 1a.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Investor seller. new text end

new text begin (a) "Investor seller" means a person entering into a contract
for deed to sell residential real property, or, in the event of a transfer or assignment of the
seller's interest, the holder of the interest.
 new text end

new text begin (b) An investor seller does not include a person entering into a contract for deed who
is:
 new text end

new text begin (1) a natural person who has owned and occupied the residential real property as the
natural person's primary residence for a continuous 12-month period at any time prior to
the execution of the contract for deed;
 new text end

new text begin (2) any spouse, parent, child, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew,
or cousin of the natural person;
 new text end

new text begin (3) a personal representative of the natural person;
 new text end

new text begin (4) a devisee of the natural person;
 new text end

new text begin (5) a grantee under a transfer on death deed made by the natural person; or
 new text end

new text begin (6) a trust whose settlor is the natural person;
 new text end

new text begin (7) a trust whose beneficiary is a natural person where the trust or the natural person, or
a combination of the two, has owned, and the natural person has occupied, the residential
real property as the natural person's primary residence for a continuous 12-month period at
any time prior to the execution of the contract for deed, or any spouse, parent, child, sibling,
grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin of the natural person;
 new text end

new text begin (8) a natural person selling on contract for deed to any spouse, parent, child, sibling,
grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin; or
 new text end

new text begin (9) a bank, credit union, or residential mortgage originator that is under the supervision
of or regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit
Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, or the Minnesota
Department of Commerce.
 new text end

new text begin (c) If, substantially contemporaneous with the execution of the contract for deed, the
seller's interest is assigned or transferred to a person who does not meet any of the
qualifications of paragraph (b), the assignee or transferee shall be deemed to be an investor
seller who has executed the contract for deed.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Person. new text end

new text begin "Person" means a natural person, partnership, corporation, limited
liability company, association, trust, or other legal entity, however organized.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Purchase agreement. new text end

new text begin "Purchase agreement" means a purchase agreement for
a contract for deed, an earnest money contract, or an executed option contemplating that,
at closing, the investor seller and the purchaser will enter into a contract for deed.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Purchaser. new text end

new text begin "Purchaser" means a person who executes a contract for deed to
purchase residential real property. Purchaser includes all purchasers who execute the same
contract for deed to purchase residential real property.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Residential real property. new text end

new text begin "Residential real property" means real property
consisting of one to four family dwelling units, one of which is intended to be occupied as
the principal place of residence by:
 new text end

new text begin (1) the purchaser;
 new text end

new text begin (2) if the purchaser is an entity, the natural person who is the majority or controlling
owner of the entity; or
 new text end

new text begin (3) if the purchaser is a trust, the settlor or beneficiary of the trust.
 new text end

new text begin Residential real property does not include a transaction subject to sections 583.20 to 583.32.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 13.

new text begin [559A.02] APPLICABILITY.
 new text end

new text begin This chapter applies only to residential real property where a purchaser is entering into
a contract for deed with an investor seller. Either of the following statements included in a
contract for deed in which the property is not residential real property or the seller is not an
investor seller shall constitute prima facie evidence that this chapter does not apply to the
contract for deed: "The property is not residential real property" or "The seller is not an
investor seller." A person examining title to the property may rely on either statement.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin [559A.03] CONTRACTS FOR DEED INVOLVING INVESTOR SELLERS
AND RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY; DISCLOSURES.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Disclosures required. new text end

new text begin (a) In addition to the disclosures required under
sections 513.52 to 513.61, an investor seller must deliver to a prospective purchaser the
disclosures specified under this section and instructions for cancellation as provided under
section 559A.04, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
 new text end

new text begin (b) The disclosures must be affixed to the front of any purchase agreement executed
between an investor seller and a prospective purchaser. The investor seller may not enter
into a contract for deed with a prospective purchaser earlier than ten calendar days after the
execution of the purchase agreement by all parties and provision by the investor seller of
the disclosures required under this section and instructions for cancellation as required under
section 559A.04, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
 new text end

new text begin (c) If there is no purchase agreement, an investor seller must provide the disclosures
required under this section to the prospective purchaser no less than ten calendar days before
the prospective purchaser executes the contract for deed. The disclosures must be provided
in a document separate from the contract for deed. The investor seller may not enter into a
contract for deed with a prospective purchaser earlier than ten calendar days after providing
the disclosures to the prospective purchaser.
 new text end

new text begin (d) The first page of the disclosures must contain the disclosures required in subdivisions
2, 3, and 4 of this section, in that order. The title must be centered, be in bold, capitalized,
and underlined 20-point type, and read "IMPORTANT INFORMATION YOU NEED TO
KNOW." The disclosures required under subdivisions 5 and 6 must follow in subsequent
pages in that order.
 new text end

new text begin (e) The investor seller must acknowledge delivery, and the purchaser must acknowledge
receipt, of the disclosures by signing and dating the disclosures. The acknowledged
disclosures shall constitute prima facie evidence that the disclosures have been provided as
required by this section.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Disclosure of balloon payment. new text end

new text begin (a) The investor seller must disclose the
amount and due date of, if any, all balloon payments. For purposes of disclosure of a balloon
payment, the investor seller may assume that all prior scheduled payments were timely
made and no prepayments were made. If there is more than one balloon payment due, each
one must be listed separately.
 new text end

new text begin (b) The disclosure must be in the following form, with the title in 14-point type and the
text in 12-point type:
 new text end

new text begin "BALLOON PAYMENT
 new text end

new text begin This contract contains a lump-sum balloon payment or several balloon payments. When
the final balloon payment comes due, you may need to get mortgage or other financing to
pay it off (or you will have to sell the property). Even if you are able to sell the property,
you may not get back all the money you paid for it.
 new text end

new text begin If you can't come up with this large amount - even if you have made all your monthly
payments - the seller can cancel the contract.
 new text end

new text begin Amount of Balloon Payment
 new text end 		new text begin When Balloon Payment is Due
 new text end
new text begin $ (amount)
 new text end 		new text begin (month, year)"
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Disclosure of price paid by investor seller to acquire property. new text end

new text begin (a) The
investor seller must disclose to the purchaser the purchase price and the date of earliest
acquisition of the property by the investor seller, unless the acquisition occurs more than
one year prior to the execution of the contract for deed.
 new text end

new text begin (b) The disclosure must be in the following form, with the title in 14-point type and the
text in 12-point type:
 new text end

new text begin "INVESTOR SELLER'S PRICE TO BUY HOUSE BEING SOLD TO BUYER
 new text end

new text begin Date Investor Seller Acquired Property:
 new text end

new text begin (date seller acquired ownership)
 new text end

new text begin Price Paid by Investor Seller to Acquire the Property:
 new text end

new text begin $ (total purchase price paid by seller to acquire ownership)
 new text end

new text begin Contract for Deed Purchase Price:
 new text end

new text begin $ (total sale price to the purchaser under the contract)"
 new text end

new text begin (c) For the purposes of this subdivision, unless the acquisition occurred more than one
year prior to the execution of the contract for deed, the person who first acquires the property
is deemed to be the same person as the investor seller where the person who first acquires
the property:
 new text end

new text begin (1) is owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (2) owns or controls, in whole or in part, the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (3) is under common ownership or control, in whole or in part, with the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (4) is a spouse, parent, child, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew,
or cousin of the investor seller, or of the natural person who owns or controls, in whole or
in part, the investor seller; or
 new text end

new text begin (5) is an entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a person who is a spouse,
parent, child, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin of the
investor seller, or of the natural person who owns or controls, in whole or in part, the investor
seller.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Disclosure of other essential terms. new text end

new text begin (a) An investor seller must disclose to
the prospective purchaser the purchase price, the annual interest rate, the amount of any
down payment, and whether the purchaser is responsible for any or all of the following:
paying property taxes, acquiring homeowner's insurance, making repairs, and maintaining
the property.
 new text end

new text begin (b) The disclosure must be in the following form, with the title in 14-point type and the
text in 12-point type:
 new text end

new text begin "COSTS AND ESSENTIAL TERMS
 new text end

new text begin 1. Purchase Price:
 new text end 		new text begin $ (price)
 new text end
new text begin 2. Annual Interest Rate:
 new text end 		new text begin (interest rate) %
 new text end
new text begin 3. Down payment:
 new text end 		new text begin $ (down payment)
 new text end
new text begin 4. Monthly/Period Installments:
 new text end 		new text begin $ (amount of installment payment)
 new text end

new text begin 5. Taxes, Homeowner's Insurance, Repairs and Maintenance:
 new text end

new text begin You (seller must circle one):
 new text end

new text begin (a) DO
 new text end 		new text begin DO NOT
 new text end 		new text begin have to pay property taxes
 new text end
new text begin (b) DO
 new text end 		new text begin DO NOT
 new text end 		new text begin have to pay homeowner's
insurance
 new text end
new text begin (c) ARE
 new text end 		new text begin ARE NOT
 new text end 		new text begin responsible for repairs and
maintenance."
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin General disclosure. new text end

new text begin (a) An investor seller must provide the prospective
purchaser with a general disclosure about contracts for deeds as provided in this subdivision.
 new text end

new text begin (b) The disclosure must be in the following form, with the title in 18-point type, the titles
of the sections in 14-point type and underlined, and the text of each section in 12-point type,
with a double space between each section:
 new text end

new text begin "KNOW WHAT YOU ARE GETTING INTO BEFORE YOU SIGN
 new text end

new text begin 1. How Contracts for Deed Work
 new text end

new text begin A contract for deed is a complicated legal arrangement. Be sure you know exactly what
you are getting into before you sign a contract for deed. A contract for deed is NOT a
mortgage. Minnesota's foreclosure protections do NOT apply.
 new text end

new text begin You should get advice from a lawyer or the Minnesota Homeownership Center
before you sign the contract. You can contact the Homeownership Center at
1-(866)-462-6466 or go to www.hocmn.org.
 new text end

new text begin 2. What If I Can't Make My Payments?
 new text end

new text begin If you don't make your monthly installment payment or the balloon payment, the seller
can cancel the contract in only 120 days from the date you missed the payment. If the
contract is cancelled, you lose your home and all the money you have paid, including
any down payment, all the monthly payments, and any improvements to the property
you have made.
 new text end

new text begin If the contract contains a final lump-sum "balloon payment," you will need to get a
mortgage or other financing to pay it off (or you will have to sell the property). If you
can't come up with this large amount - even if you have made all your monthly payments
- the seller can cancel the contract. Even if you are able to sell the property, you may not
get back all the money you have paid for it.
 new text end

new text begin 3. BEFORE YOU SIGN, YOU SHOULD:
 new text end

new text begin A. Get an Independent, Professional Appraisal of the property to learn what it's worth
and make sure you are not overpaying for the house.
 new text end

new text begin B. Get an Independent, Professional Inspection of the property because you will
probably be responsible for maintaining and making repairs on the house.
 new text end

new text begin C. Buy Title Insurance from a title insurance company or ask a lawyer for a "title
opinion" to address or minimize potential title problems.
 new text end

new text begin 4. YOUR RIGHTS BEFORE YOU SIGN
 new text end

new text begin A. Waiting Period After Getting Disclosures There is a 10 calendar day waiting period
after you get these disclosures. The contract for deed cannot be signed by you or the seller
during that 10 calendar day period.
 new text end

new text begin B. Cancelling a Purchase Agreement You have 10 calendar days after you get these
disclosures to cancel your purchase agreement and get back any money you paid."
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Amortization schedule. new text end

new text begin In a document separate from all others, an investor
seller must provide to the prospective purchaser an amortization schedule consistent with
the contract for deed, including the portion of each installment payment that will be applied
to interest and to principal and the amount and due date of any balloon payments.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Disclosures in other languages. new text end

new text begin If the contract was advertised or primarily
negotiated with the purchaser in a language other than English, the investor seller must
provide the disclosures required in this section in the language in which the contract was
advertised or primarily negotiated.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin No waiver. new text end

new text begin The provisions of this section may not be waived.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Effects of violation. new text end

new text begin Except as provided in section 559A.05, subdivision 2, a
violation of this section has no effect on the validity of the contract for deed.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 15.

new text begin [559A.04] CONTRACTS FOR DEED INVOLVING INVESTOR SELLERS
AND RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY; RIGHTS AND REQUIREMENTS.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Requirement of investor seller if property subject to mortgage. new text end

new text begin An
investor may not execute a contract for deed that is subject to a mortgage with a due-on-sale
clause and not expressly assumed by the contract for deed purchaser unless the investor
seller has:
 new text end

new text begin (1) procured a binding agreement with the mortgage holder whereby the holder either
consents to the sale of the property to the purchaser by contract for deed or agrees not to
exercise the holder's rights under a due-on-sale clause in the mortgage based on the contract
for deed; and
 new text end

new text begin (2) in the contract:
 new text end

new text begin (i) disclosed the existence of the investor seller's mortgage;
 new text end

new text begin (ii) covenants that the investor seller will perform all obligations under the mortgage;
and
 new text end

new text begin (iii) expressly represents to the purchaser that the seller has procured the binding
agreement required under clause (1).
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Right to cancel purchase agreement. new text end

new text begin (a) A prospective purchaser may cancel
a purchase agreement prior to the execution by all parties of the contract for deed or within
ten calendar days of receiving the disclosures required under section 559A.03, whichever
is earlier.
 new text end

new text begin (b) In addition to the disclosures required under section 559A.03, an investor seller must
provide the prospective purchaser with notice of the person to whom, and the mailing address
to where, cancellation of the purchase agreement must be delivered or sent. Cancellation
of the purchase agreement is effective upon personal delivery or upon mailing.
 new text end

new text begin (c) In the event of cancellation or if no purchase agreement has been signed and the
prospective purchaser elects not to execute the contract for deed, the investor seller may
not impose a penalty or fee and must promptly refund all payments made by the prospective
purchaser.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Duty of investor seller to account. new text end

new text begin The investor seller must inform the purchaser
in a separate writing of the right to request an annual accounting. Upon reasonable written
request by the purchaser and no more than once every calendar year, an investor seller must
provide an accounting of:
 new text end

new text begin (1) all payments made pursuant to the contract for deed during the prior calendar year
with payments allocated between interest and principal;
 new text end

new text begin (2) any delinquent payments;
 new text end

new text begin (3) the total principal amount remaining to satisfy the contract for deed; and
 new text end

new text begin (4) the anticipated amounts and due dates of all balloon payments.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Churning prohibited. new text end

new text begin (a) An investor seller is prohibited from churning. There
is a rebuttable presumption that the investor seller has violated this subdivision if, on or
after August 1, 2024, the investor seller executes a contract for deed and, within the previous
48 months, the investor seller either:
 new text end

new text begin (1) had completed two or more termination proceedings under section 559.21 on the
same residential real property being sold by the contract for deed; or
 new text end

new text begin (2) had completed four or more termination proceedings under section 559.21 on contracts
for deed for any residential real property, where terminated contracts comprise 20 percent
or more of all contracts executed by the investor seller during that period.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Nothing contained in this subdivision or in section 559A.01, subdivision 3, shall
invalidate, impair, affect, or give rise to any cause of action with respect to any contract for
deed or termination proceeding under section 559.21 used as a predicate to establish the
presumption under paragraph (a).
 new text end

new text begin (c) For the purposes of this subdivision, a person who sold residential real property on
a contract for deed is deemed to be the same person as the investor seller where the person
who sold on a contract for deed:
 new text end

new text begin (1) is owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (2) owns or controls, in whole or in part, the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (3) is under common ownership or control, in whole or in part, with the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (4) is a spouse, parent, child, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew,
or cousin of the investor seller, or of the natural person who owns or controls, in whole or
in part, the investor seller; or
 new text end

new text begin (5) is an entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a person who is a spouse,
parent, child, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, or cousin of the
investor seller, or of the natural person who owns or controls, in whole or in part, the investor
seller.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Duty of investor seller to refund down payments. new text end

new text begin (a) If an investor seller
terminates a contract for deed under section 559.21 within 48 months of executing the
contract, any portion of the down payment that exceeded ten percent of the purchase price
shall be refunded to the purchaser within 180 days of the termination of the contract.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Upon delivery to the purchaser by the investor seller of reasonable documentation
that any of the following expenses were incurred or taxes and contract payments were
unpaid, an investor seller may offset against the refund for, as applicable:
 new text end

new text begin (1) any unpaid real estate taxes for the period prior to termination of the contract;
 new text end

new text begin (2) any unpaid insurance premiums for the period prior to termination of the contract
incurred by the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (3) the reasonable cost of necessary repairs for damage to the residential real property
caused by the purchaser, beyond ordinary wear and tear, incurred by the investor seller;
 new text end

new text begin (4) attorney fees, not to exceed $1,000, and costs of service incurred in connection with
the termination of the contract;
 new text end

new text begin (5) any unpaid utility arrears for the period prior to termination of the contract incurred
by the investor seller; and
 new text end

new text begin (6) one-half of the unpaid monthly contract installment payments, exclusive of balloon
payments, that accrued prior to termination of the contract.
 new text end

new text begin (c) If the purchaser disputes any amount that an investor seller claims as the refund or
an offset, the purchaser may commence an action in district court or conciliation court to
determine the amount of the refund or the offsets and recover any money owed by the
investor seller to the purchaser. The purchaser is entitled to recover from the investor seller
any portion of the down payment that the court finds is owed by the investor seller to the
purchaser not previously paid to the purchaser. Any attorney expressly authorized by the
investor seller to receive payments in the notice of termination is designated as the attorney
who may receive service as agent for the investor seller in such action in the same manner
as provided in section 559.21, subdivision 8.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 16.

new text begin [559A.05] CONTRACTS FOR DEED INVOLVING INVESTOR SELLERS
AND RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY; REMEDIES FOR VIOLATION.
 new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Definition. new text end

new text begin For the purposes of this section, "material violation of section
559A.03" means:
 new text end

new text begin (1) if applicable, failure to disclose any balloon payment as required under section
559A.03, subdivision 2;
 new text end

new text begin (2) failure to disclose the price paid by the investor seller under the contract for deed to
acquire property as required under section 559A.03, subdivision 3;
 new text end

new text begin (3) failure to disclose the other essential terms of the contract as required under section
559A.03, subdivision 4;
 new text end

new text begin (4) failure to provide the general disclosure in substantially the form required under
section 559A.03, subdivision 5;
 new text end

new text begin (5) failure to disclose the amortization schedule as required under section 559A.03,
subdivision 6;
 new text end

new text begin (6) a violation of section 559A.03, subdivision 1, paragraph (b) or (c);
 new text end

new text begin (7) a violation of section 559A.03, subdivision 7; or
 new text end

new text begin (8) a material omission or misstatement of any of the information required to be disclosed
under section 559A.03.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Remedy for violation of disclosure requirements or churning. new text end

new text begin (a)
Notwithstanding any provision in the purchase agreement or contract for deed to the contrary,
a purchaser may, within two years of the execution of the contract for deed, bring an action
for relief for a material violation of section 559A.03 or a violation of 559A.04, subdivision
4. A prevailing purchaser may rescind a contract and, in conjunction with the rescission,
may recover against the investor seller a sum equal to:
 new text end

new text begin (1) all amounts paid by the purchaser under the contract for deed, including payments
to third parties, less the fair rental value of the residential real property for the period of
time the purchaser was in possession of the property;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the reasonable value of any improvements to the residential real property made by
the purchaser;
 new text end

new text begin (3) actual, consequential, and incidental damages; and
 new text end

new text begin (4) reasonable attorneys' fees and costs.
 new text end

new text begin (b) A claim for rescission and a money judgment awarded under this subdivision shall
not affect any rights or responsibilities of a successor in interest to the investor seller prior
to the filing of a lis pendens in the action in which such relief is sought, unless it is established
by clear and convincing evidence that the successor in interest had prior knowledge that
the contract for deed was executed in violation of the requirements of section 559A.03 or
559A.04, subdivision 4.
 new text end

new text begin (c) A purchaser barred under paragraph (b) from making a claim against a successor in
interest to the investor seller may, within two years of the execution of the contract for deed,
bring a claim for violation of the requirements of section 559A.03 or 559A.04, subdivision
4, against the original investor seller who entered into the contract for deed and may recover
the greater of actual damages or statutory damages of $5,000, plus reasonable attorneys'
fees and costs. The original investor seller shall have no claim for indemnification or
contribution against the successor in interest.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Remedy for failure of investor seller to procure agreement with mortgage
holder. new text end

new text begin (a) If a mortgage holder commences foreclosure of its mortgage based on the sale
to a purchaser under the contract for deed and notwithstanding any provision in the purchase
agreement or contract for deed to the contrary, a purchaser may bring an action for the
failure of the investor seller to procure the agreement with the mortgage holder as required
under section 559A.04, subdivision 2. A prevailing purchaser may rescind a contract and
may recover against the investor seller a sum equal to:
 new text end

new text begin (1) all amounts paid by the purchaser under the contract for deed, including payments
to third parties, less the fair rental value of the residential real property for the period of
time the purchaser was in possession of the property;
 new text end

new text begin (2) the reasonable value of any improvements to the residential real property made by
the purchaser;
 new text end

new text begin (3) actual, consequential, and incidental damages; and
 new text end

new text begin (4) reasonable attorneys' fees and costs.
 new text end

new text begin (b) An action under this subdivision may be brought at any time and is not subject to
the statute of limitations in subdivision 2, provided that, at least 30 days prior to bringing
the action, a purchaser must deliver a notice of violation to the investor seller under the
contract for deed personally or by United States mail.
 new text end

new text begin (c) An investor seller may cure the violation at any time prior to entry of a final judgment
by delivering to the purchaser either evidence of the agreement with the mortgage holder
as required under section 559A.04, subdivision 2, or evidence that the mortgage holder has
abandoned foreclosure of the mortgage. If the violation is cured, the purchaser's action must
be dismissed. An investor seller is liable to the purchaser for reasonable attorneys' fees and
court costs if the seller delivers evidence of the mortgage holder's agreement or abandonment
of the foreclosure after the purchaser has commenced the action.
 new text end

new text begin (d) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to bar or limit any other claim by a
purchaser arising from the investor seller's breach of a senior mortgage.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Defense to termination. new text end

new text begin A purchaser's right to the remedy under subdivision
2 or 3 shall constitute grounds for injunctive relief under section 559.211.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Effect of action on title. new text end

new text begin An action under subdivision 2 or 3 is personal to the
purchaser only, does not constitute an interest separate from the purchaser's interest in the
contract for deed, and may not be assigned except to a successor in interest.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Rights cumulative. new text end

new text begin The rights and remedies provided in this section are
cumulative to, and not a limitation of, any other rights and remedies provided under law
and at equity. Nothing in this chapter shall preclude a court from construing a contract for
deed as an equitable mortgage.
 new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Public enforcement. new text end

new text begin The attorney general has authority under section 8.31 to
investigate and prosecute violations of sections 559A.03 and 559A.04, subdivision 4.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024, and applies to all contracts
for deed executed by all parties on or after that date.
 new text end

Sec. 17. new text begin REPEALER.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2022, sections 559.201; and 559.202, new text end new text begin are repealed.
 new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2024.
 new text end

ARTICLE 10

SERVICE OF RESTRAINING AND PROTECTION ORDERS

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Filing fee.

The filing fees for an order for protection under this section are
waived for the petitioner and respondent. deleted text begin The court administrator, the sheriff of any county
in this state, and other law enforcement and corrections officers shall perform their duties
relating to service of process without charge to the petitioner. The court shall direct payment
of the reasonable costs of service of process if served by a private process server when the
sheriff or other law enforcement or corrections officer is unavailable or if service is made
by publication, without requiring the petitioner to make application under section 563.01.
deleted text end

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 8, is amended to read:


Subd. 8.

Service; alternate service; publication; notice.

(a) The petition and any order
issued under this section other than orders for dismissal shall be served on the respondent
personallynew text begin , or if the respondent appears remotely for a hearing and is notified at the hearing
by the judicial officer that an order for protection will be issued, the order may be served
on the respondent electronically or by first class mail, as ordered by the courtnew text end . Orders for
dismissal may be served personally or by certified mail. In lieu of personal service of an
order for protection, a law enforcement officer may serve a person with a short-form
notification as provided in subdivision 8a.

(b) When service is made out of this state and in the United States, it may be proved by
the affidavit of the person making the service. When service is made outside the United
States, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the service, taken before and
certified by any United States minister, charge d'affaires, commissioner, consul, or
commercial agent, or other consular or diplomatic officer of the United States appointed to
reside in the other country, including all deputies or other representatives of the officer
authorized to perform their duties; or before an office authorized to administer an oath with
the certificate of an officer of a court of record of the country in which the affidavit is taken
as to the identity and authority of the officer taking the affidavit.

(c) If personal service cannot be made, the court may order service of the petition and
any order issued under this section by alternate means, or by publication, which publication
must be made as in other actions. The application for alternate service must include the last
known location of the respondent; the petitioner's most recent contacts with the respondent;
the last known location of the respondent's employment; the names and locations of the
respondent's parents, siblings, children, and other close relatives; the names and locations
of other persons who are likely to know the respondent's whereabouts; and a description of
efforts to locate those persons.

The court shall consider the length of time the respondent's location has been unknown,
the likelihood that the respondent's location will become known, the nature of the relief
sought, and the nature of efforts made to locate the respondent. The court shall order service
by first class mail, forwarding address requested, to any addresses where there is a reasonable
possibility that mail or information will be forwarded or communicated to the respondent.

The court may also order publication, within or without the state, but only if it might
reasonably succeed in notifying the respondent of the proceeding. Service shall be deemed
complete 14 days after mailing or 14 days after court-ordered publication.

(d) A petition and any order issued under this section, including the short-form
notification, must include a notice to the respondent that if an order for protection is issued
to protect the petitioner or a child of the parties, upon request of the petitioner in any
parenting time proceeding, the court shall consider the order for protection in making a
decision regarding parenting time.

Sec. 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 9, is amended to read:


Subd. 9.

Assistance of sheriff deleted text begin in service or executiondeleted text end new text begin ; possession of dwelling or
residencenew text end .

When an order is issued under this section upon request of the petitioner, the
court shall order the sheriff to accompany the petitioner and assist in placing the petitioner
in possession of the dwelling or residencedeleted text begin , or otherwise assist in execution or service of the
order of protection. If the application for relief is brought in a county in which the respondent
is not present, the sheriff shall forward the pleadings necessary for service upon the
respondent to the sheriff of the county in which the respondent is present. This transmittal
must be expedited to allow for timely servicedeleted text end .

Sec. 4.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 518B.01, subdivision 9a, is amended to read:


Subd. 9a.

new text begin Personal new text end service deleted text begin by othersdeleted text end new text begin ; procedures; cost; reasonable efforts and
cooperation requirednew text end .

new text begin (a) Where personal service is required under this section, service
must comply with subdivision 8 and rule 4.03 of the Rules of Civil Procedure.
 new text end

new text begin (b) Upon request of the petitioner or order of the court, the sheriff of any county in this
state in which a respondent resides or is present must execute or serve any petition, ex parte
order, notice of hearing, order for protection, and any other order of a court on the respondent.
If the application for relief is brought in a county in which the respondent is not present,
the sheriff of the county where the application for relief was brought shall forward the
pleadings necessary for service upon the respondent to the sheriff of the county in which
the respondent is present. This transmittal must be expedited to allow for timely service.
 new text end

new text begin (c) new text end Peace officers licensed by the state of Minnesota and corrections officers, including,
but not limited to, probation officers, court services officers, parole officers, and employees
of jails or correctional facilities, may serve an order for protectionnew text begin and must, to the extent
possible, provide any sheriff, law enforcement officer, or other peace officer attempting to
effectuate service with relevant information regarding where a respondent may be found,
such as the respondent's residence, the respondent's place of employment or schooling, or
other locations frequented by the respondentnew text end .

new text begin (d) The court administrator, the sheriff of any county in this state, and any other law
enforcement officer, peace officer, or corrections officer shall perform the duties relating
to service of process without charge to the petitioner. The court shall direct payment of the
reasonable costs of service of process if served by a private process server when the sheriff
or other law enforcement officer, peace officer, or corrections officer is unavailable or if
service is made by publication, without requiring the petitioner to make application under
section 563.01.
 new text end

new text begin (e) A sheriff, law enforcement officer, or any other peace officer must make reasonable
efforts to locate a respondent to effectuate service. Reasonable efforts may include a search
of any information that is publicly available; a search of any government data in a database
to which the sheriff, law enforcement officer, or other peace officer has access, provided
the data is classified as public data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision
15, or is otherwise available to criminal justice agencies, as defined in section 13.02,
subdivision 3a; and communication with any court administrator, the sheriff of any county
in this state, and any other law enforcement officer, peace officer, or corrections officer.
 new text end

new text begin (f) A sheriff, law enforcement officer, or any other peace officer who serves a respondent
who the sheriff or officer knows is on supervised probation with an ex parte order, order
for protection, or short-form notification must provide a copy of the served order or
notification to the respondent's probation officer.
 new text end

Sec. 5.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.748, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:


Subd. 3a.

Filing feedeleted text begin ; cost of servicedeleted text end .

The filing fees for a restraining order under this
section are waived for the petitioner and the respondent if the petition alleges acts that would
constitute a violation of section 609.749, subdivision 2, 3, 4, or 5, or sections 609.342 to
609.3451. deleted text begin The court administrator and any peace officer in this state shall perform their
duties relating to service of process without charge to the petitioner. The court shall direct
payment of the reasonable costs of service of process if served by a private process server
when a peace officer is unavailable or if service is made by publication.
deleted text end

Sec. 6.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.748, subdivision 5, is amended to read:


Subd. 5.

Restraining order.

(a) The court may issue a restraining order that provides
any or all of the following:

(1) orders the respondent to cease or avoid the harassment of another person; or

(2) orders the respondent to have no contact with another person.

(b) The court may issue an order under paragraph (a) if all of the following occur:

(1) the petitioner has filed a petition under subdivision 3;

(2) a peace officer has served respondent with a copy of the temporary restraining order
obtained under subdivision 4, and with notice of the right to request a hearing, or service
has been made by publication under subdivision 3, paragraph (b); and

(3) the court finds at the hearing that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the
respondent has engaged in harassment.

A restraining order may be issued only against the respondent named in the petition; except
that if the respondent is an organization, the order may be issued against and apply to all of
the members of the organization. If the court finds that the petitioner has had two or more
previous restraining orders in effect against the same respondent or the respondent has
violated a prior or existing restraining order on two or more occasions, relief granted by the
restraining order may be for a period of up to 50 years. In all other cases, relief granted by
the restraining order must be for a fixed period of not more than two years. When a referee
presides at the hearing on the petition, the restraining order becomes effective upon the
referee's signature.

(c) An order issued under this subdivision must be personally served upon the respondentnew text begin ,
or if the respondent appears remotely for a hearing and is notified at the hearing by the
judicial officer that a restraining order will be issued, the order may be served on the
respondent electronically or by first class mail, as ordered by the courtnew text end .

(d) If the court orders relief for a period of up to 50 years under paragraph (a), the
respondent named in the restraining order may request to have the restraining order vacated
or modified if the order has been in effect for at least five years and the respondent has not
violated the order. Application for relief under this paragraph must be made in the county
in which the restraining order was issued. Upon receipt of the request, the court shall set a
hearing date. Personal service must be made upon the petitioner named in the restraining
order not less than 30 days before the date of the hearing. At the hearing, the respondent
named in the restraining order has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence
that there has been a material change in circumstances and that the reasons upon which the
court relied in granting the restraining order no longer apply and are unlikely to occur. If
the court finds that the respondent named in the restraining order has met the burden of
proof, the court may vacate or modify the order. If the court finds that the respondent named
in the restraining order has not met the burden of proof, the court shall deny the request and
no request may be made to vacate or modify the restraining order until five years have
elapsed from the date of denial. An order vacated or modified under this paragraph must
be personally served on the petitioner named in the restraining order.

Sec. 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.748, subdivision 5b, is amended to read:


Subd. 5b.

new text begin Personal new text end service deleted text begin by othersdeleted text end new text begin ; procedures; cost; reasonable efforts and
cooperation requirednew text end .

new text begin (a) Where personal service is required under this section, service
must comply with rule 4.03 of the Rules of Civil Procedure.
 new text end

new text begin (b) new text end In addition to peace officers, corrections officers, including but not limited to
probation officers, court services officers, parole officers, and employees of jails or
correctional facilities, may serve a temporary restraining order or restraining ordernew text begin and must,
to the extent possible, provide any sheriff, law enforcement officer, or other peace officer
attempting to effectuate service with relevant information regarding where a respondent
may be found, such as the respondent's residence, the respondent's place of employment or
schooling, or other locations frequented by the respondentnew text end .

new text begin (c) The court administrator and any peace officer in this state shall perform their duties
relating to service of process without charge to the petitioner. The court shall direct payment
of the reasonable costs of service of process if served by a private process server when a
peace officer is unavailable or if service is made by publication.
 new text end

new text begin (d) A peace officer must make reasonable efforts to locate a respondent to effectuate
service. Reasonable efforts may include a search of any information that is publicly available;
a search of any government data in a database to which the sheriff, law enforcement officer,
or other peace officer has access, provided the data is classified as public data on individuals
as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 15, or is otherwise available to criminal justice
agencies, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 3a; and communication with any court
administrator, the sheriff of any county in this state, and any other law enforcement officer,
peace officer, or corrections officer.
 new text end

new text begin (e) A sheriff, law enforcement officer, or any other peace officer who serves a respondent
who the sheriff or officer knows is on supervised probation with a temporary restraining
order, restraining order, or short-form notification must provide a copy of the served order
or notification to the respondent's probation officer, supervised release or conditional release
agent, or parole officer.
 new text end

Sec. 8.

Minnesota Statutes 2022, section 609.748, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:


new text begin Subd. 5c. new text end

new text begin Dismissals. new text end

new text begin Orders for dismissal of a temporary restraining order or a
restraining order may be served personally or by certified mail.
 new text end

APPENDIX

Repealed Minnesota Statutes: S4271-1

554.01 DEFINITIONS.

Subdivision 1.

Scope.

The definitions in this section apply to this chapter.

Subd. 2.

Government.

"Government" includes a branch, department, agency, official, employee, agent, or other person with authority to act on behalf of the federal government, this state, or any political subdivision of this state, including municipalities and their boards, commissions, and departments, or other public authority.

Subd. 3.

Judicial claim; claim.

"Judicial claim" or "claim" includes any civil lawsuit, cause of action, claim, cross-claim, counterclaim, or other judicial pleading or filing seeking damages for an alleged injury. "Judicial claim" does not include a claim solely for injunctive relief.

Subd. 4.

Motion.

"Motion" includes any motion to dismiss, motion for summary judgment, or any other judicial pleading filed to dispose of a judicial claim.

Subd. 5.

Moving party.

"Moving party" means any person on whose behalf the motion described in section 554.02, subdivision 1, is filed seeking dismissal of an action under this chapter.

Subd. 6.

Public participation.

"Public participation" means speech or lawful conduct that is genuinely aimed in whole or in part at procuring favorable government action, including but not limited to:

(1) seeking assistance from, or reporting suspected unlawful conduct to, law enforcement;

(2) speaking before a zoning board regarding a real estate development project;

(3) communicating with an elected official concerning a change in law;

(4) demonstrating peacefully for or against a government action; and

(5) filing a complaint with a government entity regarding safety, sexual harassment, civil rights, or equal employment rights.

Subd. 7.

Responding party.

"Responding party" means any person against whom a motion described in section 554.02, subdivision 1, is filed.

554.02 PROTECTION OF CITIZENS TO PARTICIPATE IN GOVERNMENT.

Subdivision 1.

Applicability.

This section applies to any motion in a judicial proceeding to dispose of a judicial claim on the grounds that the claim materially relates to an act of the moving party that involves public participation.

Subd. 2.

Procedure.

On the filing of any motion described in subdivision 1:

(1) discovery must be suspended pending the final disposition of the motion, including any appeal; provided that the court may, on motion and after a hearing and for good cause shown, order that specified and limited discovery be conducted;

(2) the responding party has the burden of proof, of going forward with the evidence, and of persuasion on the motion;

(3) the court shall grant the motion and dismiss the judicial claim unless the court finds that the responding party has produced clear and convincing evidence that the acts of the moving party are not immunized from liability under section 554.03; and

(4) any governmental body to which the moving party's acts were directed or the attorney general's office may intervene in, defend, or otherwise support the moving party.

554.03 IMMUNITY.

Lawful conduct or speech that is genuinely aimed in whole or in part at procuring favorable government action is immune from liability, unless the conduct or speech constitutes a tort or a violation of a person's constitutional rights.

554.04 FEES AND DAMAGES.

Subdivision 1.

Attorney fees and costs.

The court shall award a moving party who prevails in a motion under this chapter reasonable attorney fees and costs associated with the bringing of the motion.

Subd. 2.

Damages.

(a) A moving party may petition the court for damages under this section in conjunction with a motion under this chapter.

(b) If a motion under this chapter is granted and the moving party demonstrates that the respondent brought the cause of action in the underlying lawsuit for the purpose of harassment, to inhibit the moving party's public participation, to interfere with the moving party's exercise of protected constitutional rights, or otherwise wrongfully injure the moving party, the court shall award the moving party actual damages. The court may award the moving party punitive damages under section 549.20. A motion to amend the pleadings under section 549.191 is not required under this section, but the claim for punitive damages must meet all other requirements of section 549.191.

554.045 ACTION IN DISTRICT COURT.

A person may bring an action under this section in state district court against a respondent who has brought a claim in federal court that materially relates to public participation by the person. If the person demonstrates that the respondent's action in federal court was brought for the purpose of harassment, to inhibit the person's public participation, to interfere with the person's exercise of protected constitutional rights, or otherwise wrongfully injure the person, the court shall award the person actual damages and reasonable attorney fees and costs. The court may award the person punitive damages under section 549.20.

554.05 RELATIONSHIPS TO OTHER LAW.

Nothing in this chapter limits or precludes any rights the moving party or responding party may have under any other constitutional, statutory, case, or common law, or rule. Nothing in this chapter exempts individuals from their professional obligations of confidentiality.

554.06 RULE OF CONSTRUCTION.

This chapter shall be construed liberally to effectuate its purposes and intent.

559.201 DEFINITIONS.

Subdivision 1.

Application.

The definitions in this section apply to section 559.202.

Subd. 2.

Business day.

"Business day" means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday as defined in section 645.44, subdivision 5.

Subd. 3.

Family farm security loan.

"Family farm security loan" has the meaning given in Minnesota Statutes 2008, section 41.52, subdivision 5.

Subd. 4.

Multiple seller.

"Multiple seller" means a person that has acted as a seller in four or more contracts for deed involving residential real property during the 12-month period that precedes either: (1) the date on which the purchaser executes a purchase agreement under section 559.202; or (2) if there is no purchase agreement, the date on which the purchaser executes a contract for deed under section 559.202. A contract for deed transaction that is exempt under section 559.202, subdivision 2, is a contract for deed for the purposes of determining whether a seller is a multiple seller.

Subd. 5.

Person.

"Person" means a natural person, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, association, trust, or other legal entity, however organized.

Subd. 6.

Purchase agreement.

"Purchase agreement" means a purchase agreement for a contract for deed, an earnest money contract, or an executed option contemplating that, at closing, the seller and the purchaser will enter into a contract for deed.

Subd. 7.

Purchaser.

"Purchaser" means a natural person who enters into a contract for deed to purchase residential real property. Purchaser includes all purchasers who enter into the same contract for deed to purchase residential real property.

Subd. 8.

Residential real property.

"Residential real property" means real property consisting of one to four family dwelling units, one of which the purchaser intends to occupy as the purchaser's principal place of residence. Residential real property does not include property subject to a family farm security loan or a transaction subject to sections 583.20 to 583.32.

559.202 CONTRACTS FOR DEED INVOLVING RESIDENTIAL PROPERTY.

Subdivision 1.

Notice required.

(a) In addition to the disclosures required under sections 513.52 to 513.60, a multiple seller must deliver the notice specified under subdivision 3 to a prospective purchaser as provided under this subdivision.

(b) If there is a purchase agreement, the notice must be affixed to the front of the purchase agreement. A contract for deed for which notice is required under this subdivision may not be executed for five business days following the execution of the purchase agreement and delivery of the notice and instructions for cancellation.

(c) If there is no purchase agreement, a multiple seller must deliver the notice in a document separate from any other document or writing to a prospective purchaser no less than five business days before the prospective purchaser executes the contract for deed.

(d) The notice must be:

(1) written in at least 12-point type; and

(2) signed and dated by the purchaser.

(e) If a dispute arises concerning whether or when the notice required by this subdivision was provided to the purchaser, there is a rebuttable presumption that the notice was not provided unless the original executed contract for deed contains the following statement, initialed by the purchaser: "By initialing here ....... purchaser acknowledges receipt at least five business days before signing this contract for deed of the disclosure statement entitled "Important Information About Contracts for Deed" required by Minnesota Statutes, section 559.202, subdivision 3."

Subd. 2.

Exception.

This section does not apply to sales made under chapter 282 or if the purchaser is represented throughout the transaction by either:

(1) a person licensed to practice law in this state; or

(2) a person licensed as a real estate broker or salesperson under chapter 82, provided that the representation does not create a dual agency, as that term is defined in section 82.55, subdivision 6.

Subd. 3.

Content of the notice.

The notice must contain the following verbatim language:

"IMPORTANT INFORMATION ABOUT CONTRACTS FOR DEED

Know What You Are Getting Into

(1) A contract for deed is a complex legal agreement. You are NOT a tenant. Mortgage foreclosure laws don't apply.

(2) You should know ALL of your obligations and rights before you sign a purchase agreement or contract for deed.

(3) You (seller must circle one):

(a) DO DO NOT have to pay homeowner's insurance.
(b) DO DO NOT have to pay property taxes.
(c) DO DO NOT have to make and pay for some or all of the repairs or maintenance, as described in the contract for deed.

(4) After some time, you may need to make a large lump sum payment (called a "balloon payment"). Know when it is due and how much it will be. You'll probably need to get a new mortgage, another financial arrangement, or pay for the balance in cash at that time.

(5) If you miss just a single payment or can't make the balloon payment, the seller can cancel your contract. You will likely lose all the money you have already paid. You will likely lose your ability to purchase the home. The seller can begin an eviction action against you in just a few months.

(6) Within four months of signing the contract for deed, you must "record" it in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles in the county in which the property is located. If you do not do so, you could face a fine.

Key Things Highly Recommended Before You Sign

(1) Get advice from a lawyer or the Minnesota Home Ownership Center at 1-866-462-6466 or go to www.hocmn.org. To find a lawyer through the Minnesota State Bar Association, go to www.mnfindalawyer.com.

(2) Get an independent, professional appraisal of the property to learn what it is worth.

(3) Get an independent, professional inspection of the property.

(4) Buy title insurance or ask a real estate lawyer for a "title opinion."

(5) Check with the city or county to find out if there are inspection reports or unpaid utility bills.

(6) Check with a title agent or the county where the property is located to find out if there is a mortgage or other lien on the property and if the property taxes have been paid.

(7) Ensure that your interest rate does not exceed the maximum allowed by law by calling the Department of Commerce to get a recorded message for the current month's maximum rate.

If You Are Entering into a Purchase Agreement

(1) If you haven't already signed the contract for deed, you can cancel the purchase agreement (and get all your money back) if you do so within five business days after getting this notice.

(2) To cancel the purchase agreement, you must follow the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 559.217, subdivision 4. Ask a lawyer for help."

Subd. 4.

Right to cancel purchase agreement.

(a) A prospective purchaser may cancel a purchase agreement within five business days after actually receiving the notice required under subdivision 1 if a multiple seller fails to timely deliver the notice, provided that the contract for deed has not been executed by all parties.

(b) A prospective purchaser may cancel the purchase agreement in accordance with the provisions of section 559.217, subdivision 4.

(c) In the event of cancellation, the multiple seller may not impose a penalty and must promptly refund all payments made by the prospective purchaser prior to cancellation.

Subd. 5.

Remedies for failure to timely deliver notices.

(a) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in the purchase agreement or contract for deed, a purchaser has a private right of action against a multiple seller who fails to timely deliver the notice required under subdivision 1. The multiple seller is liable to the purchaser for:

(1) the greater of actual damages or statutory damages of $2,500; and

(2) reasonable attorney fees and court costs.

(b) A multiple seller who knowingly fails to timely deliver the notice required under subdivision 1 is liable to the purchaser for triple the actual or statutory damages available under paragraph (a), whichever is greater, provided that the purchaser must elect the remedy provided under either paragraph (a) or this paragraph and may not recover damages under both paragraphs.

(c) The rights and remedies provided in this subdivision are cumulative to, and not a limitation of, any other rights and remedies provided under law. An action brought pursuant to this subdivision must be commenced within four years from the date of the alleged violation.

Subd. 6.

Effects of violation.

A violation of this section has no effect on the validity of the contract.

Subd. 7.

Duty of multiple seller to account.

Upon reasonable request by the purchaser and no more than once every 12-month period, a multiple seller must provide an accounting of all payments made pursuant to the contract for deed, the amount of interest paid, and the amount remaining to satisfy the principal balance under the contract.

Subd. 8.

No waiver.

The provisions of this section may not be waived.