language to be deleted (2) new language
relating to health; requiring a health carrier to update its Web site; amending provisions for the all-payer claims data, statewide trauma system, home care, assisted living, body art, hearing instrument dispensers, and food, beverage, and lodging establishments; directing activities for response to the Zika virus; adopting requirements for a medical faculty license; changing provisions in the medical cannabis program; establishing a residential care and services electronic monitoring work group; appropriating money and canceling a specific appropriation;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2014, sections 144.605, subdivision 5; 144.608, subdivision 1; 144A.471, subdivision 9; 144A.473, subdivision 2; 144A.475, subdivisions 3, 3b, by adding a subdivision; 144A.4791, by adding a subdivision; 144A.4792, subdivision 13; 144A.4799, subdivisions 1, 3; 144A.482; 144D.01, subdivision 2a; 144G.03, subdivisions 2, 4; 146B.01, subdivision 28; 146B.03, subdivisions 4, 6, 7, by adding a subdivision; 146B.07, subdivisions 1, 2; 152.22, subdivision 14; 152.25, subdivisions 3, 4; 152.29, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; 152.36, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 153A.14, subdivisions 2d, 2h; 153A.15, subdivision 2a; 157.15, subdivision 14; 157.16, subdivision 4; Minnesota Statutes 2015 Supplement, section 62U.04, subdivision 11; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 62K; 144; 147.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
(a) Notwithstanding subdivision 4, paragraph (b), and subdivision 5, paragraph (b), the commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted under subdivisions 4 and 5 for the following purposes:
(1) to evaluate the performance of the health care home program as authorized under sections 256B.0751, subdivision 6, and 256B.0752, subdivision 2;
(2) to study, in collaboration with the reducing avoidable readmissions effectively (RARE) campaign, hospital readmission trends and rates;
(3) to analyze variations in health care costs, quality, utilization, and illness burden based on geographical areas or populations;
(4) to evaluate the state innovation model (SIM) testing grant received by the Departments of Health and Human Services, including the analysis of health care cost, quality, and utilization baseline and trend information for targeted populations and communities; and
(5) to compile one or more public use files of summary data or tables that must:
(i) be available to the public for no or minimal cost by March 1, 2016, and available by Web-based electronic data download by June 30, 2019;
(ii) not identify individual patients, payers, or providers;
(iii) be updated by the commissioner, at least annually, with the most current data available;
(iv) contain clear and conspicuous explanations of the characteristics of the data, such as the dates of the data contained in the files, the absence of costs of care for uninsured patients or nonresidents, and other disclaimers that provide appropriate context; and
(v) not lead to the collection of additional data elements beyond what is authorized under this section as of June 30, 2015.
(b) The commissioner may publish the results of the authorized uses identified in paragraph (a) so long as the data released publicly do not contain information or descriptions in which the identity of individual hospitals, clinics, or other providers may be discerned.
(c) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the commissioner from using the data collected under subdivision 4 to complete the state-based risk adjustment system assessment due to the legislature on October 1, 2015.
(d) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee may use the data submitted under subdivisions 4 and 5 for the purpose described in paragraph (a), clause (3), until July 1, 2016.
(e) The commissioner shall consult with the all-payer claims database work group established under subdivision 12 regarding the technical considerations necessary to create the public use files of summary data described in paragraph (a), clause (5).
(a) The commissioner shall grant the appropriate level IV trauma hospital designation to a hospital that successfully completes the designation process under paragraph (b).
(b) The hospital must complete and submit a self-reported survey and application to the Trauma Advisory Council for review, verifying that the hospital meets the criteria as a level IV trauma hospital. When the Trauma Advisory Council is satisfied the application is complete, the council shall review the application and, if the council approves the application, send a letter of recommendation to the commissioner for final approval and designation. The commissioner shall grant a level IV designation and shall arrange a site review visit within three years of the designation and every three years thereafter, to coincide with the three-year reverification process.
(a) A Trauma Advisory Council is established to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to the commissioner on the development, maintenance, and improvement of a statewide trauma system.
(b) The council shall consist of the following members:
(1) a trauma surgeon certified by the American Board of Surgery or the American Osteopathic Board of Surgery who practices in a level I or II trauma hospital;
(2) a general surgeon certified by the American Board of Surgery or the American Osteopathic Board of Surgery whose practice includes trauma and who practices in a designated rural area as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(3) a neurosurgeon certified by the American Board of Neurological Surgery who practices in a level I or II trauma hospital;
(4) a trauma program nurse manager or coordinator practicing in a level I or II trauma hospital;
(5) an emergency physician certified by the American Board of Emergency Medicine or the American Osteopathic Board of Emergency Medicine whose practice includes emergency room care in a level I, II, III, or IV trauma hospital;
(6) a trauma program manager or coordinator who practices in a level III or IV trauma hospital;
(7) a physician certified by the American Board of Family Medicine or the American Osteopathic Board of Family Practice whose practice includes emergency department care in a level III or IV trauma hospital located in a designated rural area as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(8) a nurse practitioner, as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (h), or a physician assistant, as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (j), whose practice includes emergency room care in a level IV trauma hospital located in a designated rural area as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(9) a pediatrician certified by the American Board of Pediatrics or the American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics whose practice includes emergency department care in a level I, II, III, or IV trauma hospital;
(10) an orthopedic surgeon certified by the American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery or the American Osteopathic Board of Orthopedic Surgery whose practice includes trauma and who practices in a level I, II, or III trauma hospital;
(11) the state emergency medical services medical director appointed by the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board;
(12) a hospital administrator of a level III or IV trauma hospital located in a designated rural area as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (b);
(13) a rehabilitation specialist whose practice includes rehabilitation of patients with major trauma injuries or traumatic brain injuries and spinal cord injuries as defined under section 144.661;
(14) an attendant or ambulance director who is an EMT, EMT-I, or EMT-P within the meaning of section 144E.001 and who actively practices with a licensed ambulance service in a primary service area located in a designated rural area as defined under section 144.1501, subdivision 1, paragraph (b); and
(15) the commissioner of public safety or the commissioner's designee.
The following are excluded from home care licensure and are not required to provide the home care bill of rights:
(1) an individual or business entity providing only coordination of home care that includes one or more of the following:
(i) determination of whether a client needs home care services, or assisting a client in determining what services are needed;
(ii) referral of clients to a home care provider;
(iii) administration of payments for home care services; or
(iv) administration of a health care home established under section 256B.0751;
(2) an individual who is not an employee of a licensed home care provider if the individual:
(i) only provides services as an independent contractor to one or more licensed home care providers;
(ii) provides no services under direct agreements or contracts with clients; and
(iii) is contractually bound to perform services in compliance with the contracting home care provider's policies and service plans;
(3) a business that provides staff to home care providers, such as a temporary employment agency, if the business:
(i) only provides staff under contract to licensed or exempt providers;
(ii) provides no services under direct agreements with clients; and
(iii) is contractually bound to perform services under the contracting home care provider's direction and supervision;
(4) any home care services conducted by and for the adherents of any recognized church or religious denomination for its members through spiritual means, or by prayer for healing;
(5) an individual who only provides home care services to a relative;
(6) an individual not connected with a home care provider that provides assistance with basic home care needs if the assistance is provided primarily as a contribution and not as a business;
(7) an individual not connected with a home care provider that shares housing with and provides primarily housekeeping or homemaking services to an elderly or disabled person in return for free or reduced-cost housing;
(8) an individual or provider providing home-delivered meal services;
(9) an individual providing senior companion services and other older American volunteer programs (OAVP) established under the Domestic Volunteer Service Act of 1973, United States Code, title 42, chapter 66;
(10) an employee of a nursing home licensed under this chapter or an employee of a boarding care home licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56 who responds to occasional emergency calls from individuals residing in a residential setting that is attached to or located on property contiguous to the nursing home or boarding care home;
(11) a member of a professional corporation organized under chapter 319B that does not regularly offer or provide home care services as defined in section 144A.43, subdivision 3;
(12) the following organizations established to provide medical or surgical services that do not regularly offer or provide home care services as defined in section 144A.43, subdivision 3: a business trust organized under sections 318.01 to 318.04, a nonprofit corporation organized under chapter 317A, a partnership organized under chapter 323, or any other entity determined by the commissioner;
(13) an individual or agency that provides medical supplies or durable medical equipment, except when the provision of supplies or equipment is accompanied by a home care service;
(14) a physician licensed under chapter 147;
(15) an individual who provides home care services to a person with a developmental disability who lives in a place of residence with a family, foster family, or primary caregiver;
(16) a business that only provides services that are primarily instructional and not medical services or health-related support services;
(17) an individual who performs basic home care services for no more than 14 hours each calendar week to no more than one client;
(18) an individual or business licensed as hospice as defined in sections 144A.75 to 144A.755 who is not providing home care services independent of hospice service;
(19) activities conducted by the commissioner of health or a community health board as defined in section 145A.02, subdivision 5, including communicable disease investigations or testing; or
(20) administering or monitoring a prescribed therapy necessary to control or prevent a communicable disease, or the monitoring of an individual's compliance with a health directive as defined in section 144.4172, subdivision 6.
(a) For new license applicants, the commissioner shall issue a temporary license for either the basic or comprehensive home care level. A temporary license is effective for one year from the date of issuance. Temporary licensees must comply with sections 144A.43 to 144A.482.
(b) During the temporary license year, the commissioner shall survey the temporary licensee after the commissioner is notified or has evidence that the temporary licensee is providing home care services.
(c) Within five days of beginning the provision of services, the temporary licensee must notify the commissioner that it is serving clients. The notification to the commissioner may be mailed or e-mailed to the commissioner at the address provided by the commissioner. If the temporary licensee does not provide home care services during the temporary license year, then the temporary license expires at the end of the year and the applicant must reapply for a temporary home care license.
(d) A temporary licensee may request a change in the level of licensure prior to being surveyed and granted a license by notifying the commissioner in writing and providing additional documentation or materials required to update or complete the changed temporary license application. The applicant must pay the difference between the application fees when changing from the basic level to the comprehensive level of licensure. No refund will be made if the provider chooses to change the license application to the basic level.
(e) If the temporary licensee notifies the commissioner that the licensee has clients within 45 days prior to the temporary license expiration, the commissioner may extend the temporary license for up to 60 days in order to allow the commissioner to complete the on-site survey required under this section and follow-up survey visits.
Prior to any suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew a license, the home care provider shall be entitled to notice and a hearing as provided by sections 14.57 to 14.69. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the commissioner may, without a prior contested case hearing, temporarily suspend a license or prohibit delivery of services by a provider for not more than 90 days if the commissioner determines that there are level 3 or 4 violations as defined in section 144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b), provided:
(1) advance notice is given to the home care provider;
(2) after notice, the home care provider fails to correct the problem;
(3) the commissioner has reason to believe that other administrative remedies are not likely to be effective; and
(4) there is an opportunity for a contested case hearing within the 30 days unless there is an extension granted by an administrative law judge pursuant to subdivision 3b.
(a) Within five business days of receipt of the license holder's timely appeal of a temporary suspension , the commissioner shall request assignment of an administrative law judge. The request must include a proposed date, time, and place of a hearing. A hearing must be conducted by an administrative law judge within 30 calendar days of the request for assignment, unless an extension is requested by either party and granted by the administrative law judge for good cause. The commissioner shall issue a notice of hearing by certified mail or personal service at least ten business days before the hearing. Certified mail to the last known address is sufficient. The scope of the hearing shall be limited solely to the issue of whether the temporary suspension should remain in effect and whether there is sufficient evidence to conclude that the licensee's actions or failure to comply with applicable laws are level 3 or 4 violations as defined in section 144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b).
(b) The administrative law judge shall issue findings of fact, conclusions, and a recommendation within ten business days from the date of hearing. The parties shall have ten calendar days to submit exceptions to the administrative law judge's report. The record shall close at the end of the ten-day period for submission of exceptions. The commissioner's final order shall be issued within ten business days from the close of the record. When an appeal of a temporary immediate suspension is withdrawn or dismissed, the commissioner shall issue a final order affirming the temporary immediate suspension within ten calendar days of the commissioner's receipt of the withdrawal or dismissal. The license holder is prohibited from operation during the temporary suspension period.
(c) When the final order under paragraph (b) affirms an immediate suspension, and a final licensing sanction is issued under subdivisions 1 and 2 and the licensee appeals that sanction, the licensee is prohibited from operation pending a final commissioner's order after the contested case hearing conducted under chapter 14.
There must be a current written or electronically recorded prescription as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 6800.0100, subpart 11a, for all prescribed medications that the comprehensive home care provider is managing for the client.
The commissioner of health shall appoint eight persons to a home care provider advisory council consisting of the following:
(1) three public members as defined in section 214.02 who shall be either persons who are currently receiving home care services or have family members receiving home care services, or persons who have family members who have received home care services within five years of the application date;
(2) three Minnesota home care licensees representing basic and comprehensive levels of licensure who may be a managerial official, an administrator, a supervising registered nurse, or an unlicensed personnel performing home care tasks;
(3) one member representing the Minnesota Board of Nursing; and
(4) one member representing the ombudsman for long-term care.
At the commissioner's request, the advisory council shall provide advice regarding regulations of Department of Health licensed home care providers in this chapter, including advice on the following:
(1) community standards for home care practices;
(2) enforcement of licensing standards and whether certain disciplinary actions are appropriate;
(3) ways of distributing information to licensees and consumers of home care;
(4) training standards;
(5) identify emerging issues and opportunities in the home care field, including the use of technology in home and telehealth capabilities;
(6) allowable home care licensing modifications and exemptions, including a method for an integrated license with an existing license for rural licensed nursing homes to provide limited home care services in an adjacent independent living apartment building owned by the licensed nursing home; and
(7) perform other duties as directed by the commissioner.
(a) For purposes of this section, a home management provider is a person or organization that provides at least two of the following services: housekeeping, meal preparation, and shopping to a person who is unable to perform these activities due to illness, disability, or physical condition.
(b) A person or organization that provides only home management services may not operate in the state without a current certificate of registration issued by the commissioner of health. To obtain a certificate of registration, the person or organization must annually submit to the commissioner the name, mailing and physical addresses, e-mail address, and telephone number of the person or organization and a signed statement declaring that the person or organization is aware that the home care bill of rights applies to their clients and that the person or organization will comply with the home care bill of rights provisions contained in section 144A.44. A person or organization applying for a certificate must also provide the name, business address, and telephone number of each of the persons responsible for the management or direction of the organization.
(c) The commissioner shall charge an annual registration fee of $20 for persons and $50 for organizations. The registration fee shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the state government special revenue fund.
(d) A home care provider that provides home management services and other home care services must be licensed, but licensure requirements other than the home care bill of rights do not apply to those employees or volunteers who provide only home management services to clients who do not receive any other home care services from the provider. A licensed home care provider need not be registered as a home management service provider but must provide an orientation on the home care bill of rights to its employees or volunteers who provide home management services.
(e) An individual who provides home management services under this section must, within 120 days after beginning to provide services, attend an orientation session approved by the commissioner that provides training on the home care bill of rights and an orientation on the aging process and the needs and concerns of elderly and disabled persons.
(f) The commissioner may suspend or revoke a provider's certificate of registration or assess fines for violation of the home care bill of rights. Any fine assessed for a violation of the home care bill of rights by a provider registered under this section shall be in the amount established in the licensure rules for home care providers. As a condition of registration, a provider must cooperate fully with any investigation conducted by the commissioner, including providing specific information requested by the commissioner on clients served and the employees and volunteers who provide services. Fines collected under this paragraph shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the fund specified in the statute or rule in which the penalty was established.
(g) The commissioner may use any of the powers granted in sections 144A.43 to 144A.4798 to administer the registration system and enforce the home care bill of rights under this section.
"Arranged home care provider" means a home care provider licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668, that provides services to some or all of the residents of a housing with services establishment and that is either the establishment itself or another entity with which the establishment has an arrangement.
(a) Assisted living shall be provided or made available only to individuals residing in a registered housing with services establishment. Except as expressly stated in this chapter, a person or entity offering assisted living may define the available services and may offer assisted living to all or some of the residents of a housing with services establishment. The services that comprise assisted living may be provided or made available directly by a housing with services establishment or by persons or entities with which the housing with services establishment has made arrangements.
(b) A person or entity entitled to use the phrase "assisted living," according to section 144G.02, subdivision 1, shall do so only with respect to a housing with services establishment, or a service, service package, or program available within a housing with services establishment that, at a minimum:
(1) provides or makes available health-related services under a class A or class F home care license. At a minimum, health-related services must include:
(i) assistance with self-administration of medication as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0003, subpart 2a, or medication administration as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0003, subpart 21a; and
(ii) assistance with at least three of the following seven activities of daily living: bathing, dressing, grooming, eating, transferring, continence care, and toileting.
All health-related services shall be provided in a manner that complies with applicable home care licensure requirements in chapter 144A, sections 148.171 to 148.285, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668;
(2) provides necessary assessments of the physical and cognitive needs of assisted living clients by a registered nurse, as required by applicable home care licensure requirements in chapter 144A, sections 148.171 to 148.285, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668;
(3) has and maintains a system for delegation of health care activities to unlicensed assistive health care personnel by a registered nurse, including supervision and evaluation of the delegated activities as required by applicable home care licensure requirements in chapter 144A, sections 148.171 to 148.285, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668;
(4) provides staff access to an on-call registered nurse 24 hours per day, seven days per week;
(5) has and maintains a system to check on each assisted living client at least daily;
(6) provides a means for assisted living clients to request assistance for health and safety needs 24 hours per day, seven days per week, from the establishment or a person or entity with which the establishment has made arrangements;
(7) has a person or persons available 24 hours per day, seven days per week, who is responsible for responding to the requests of assisted living clients for assistance with health or safety needs, who shall be:
(ii) located in the same building, in an attached building, or on a contiguous campus with the housing with services establishment in order to respond within a reasonable amount of time;
(iii) capable of communicating with assisted living clients;
(iv) capable of recognizing the need for assistance;
(v) capable of providing either the assistance required or summoning the appropriate assistance; and
(vi) capable of following directions;
(8) offers to provide or make available at least the following supportive services to assisted living clients:
(i) two meals per day;
(ii) weekly housekeeping;
(iii) weekly laundry service;
(iv) upon the request of the client, reasonable assistance with arranging for transportation to medical and social services appointments, and the name of or other identifying information about the person or persons responsible for providing this assistance;
(v) upon the request of the client, reasonable assistance with accessing community resources and social services available in the community, and the name of or other identifying information about the person or persons responsible for providing this assistance; and
(vi) periodic opportunities for socialization; and
(9) makes available to all prospective and current assisted living clients information consistent with the uniform format and the required components adopted by the commissioner under section 144G.06. This information must be made available beginning no later than six months after the commissioner makes the uniform format and required components available to providers according to section 144G.06.
(a) A housing with services establishment offering or providing assisted living shall:
(1) offer to have the arranged home care provider conduct a nursing assessment by a registered nurse of the physical and cognitive needs of the prospective resident and propose a service agreement or service plan prior to the date on which a prospective resident executes a contract with a housing with services establishment or the date on which a prospective resident moves in, whichever is earlier; and
(2) inform the prospective resident of the availability of and contact information for long-term care consultation services under section 256B.0911, prior to the date on which a prospective resident executes a contract with a housing with services establishment or the date on which a prospective resident moves in, whichever is earlier.
(b) An arranged home care provider is not obligated to conduct a nursing assessment by a registered nurse when requested by a prospective resident if either the geographic distance between the prospective resident and the provider, or urgent or unexpected circumstances, do not permit the assessment to be conducted prior to the date on which the prospective resident executes a contract or moves in, whichever is earlier. When such circumstances occur, the arranged home care provider shall offer to conduct a telephone conference whenever reasonably possible.
(c) The arranged home care provider shall comply with applicable home care licensure requirements in chapter 144A, sections 148.171 to 148.285, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668, with respect to the provision of a nursing assessment prior to the delivery of nursing services and the execution of a home care service plan or service agreement.
"Supervision" means the physical presence of a technician licensed under this chapter while a body art procedure is being performed
An applicant for licensure under this section shall submit to the commissioner on a form provided by the commissioner:
(1) proof that the applicant is over the age of 18;
(2) the type of license the applicant is applying for;
(3) all fees required under section 146B.10;
(4) proof of completing a minimum of 200 hours of supervised experience within each area for which the applicant is seeking a license, and must include an affidavit from the supervising licensed technician;
(5) proof of having satisfactorily completed coursework within the year preceding application and approved by the commissioner on bloodborne pathogens, the prevention of disease transmission, infection control, and aseptic technique. Courses to be considered for approval by the commissioner may include, but are not limited to, those administered by one of the following:
(i) the American Red Cross;
(ii) United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA); or
(iii) the Alliance of Professional Tattooists; and
(6) any other relevant information requested by the commissioner.
(a) A technician's license is valid for two years from the date of issuance and may be renewed upon payment of the renewal fee established under section 146B.10.
(b) At renewal, a licensee must submit proof of continuing education approved by the commissioner in the areas identified in subdivision 4, clause (5).
(a) The commissioner may issue a temporary license to an applicant who submits to the commissioner on a form provided by the commissioner:
(1) proof that the applicant is over the age of 18;
(2) all fees required under section 148B.10; and
(3) a letter from a licensed technician who has agreed to provide the supervision to meet the supervised experience requirement under subdivision 4, clause (4).
(b) Upon completion of the required supervised experience, the temporary licensee shall submit documentation of satisfactorily completing the requirements under subdivision 4, clauses (3) and (4), and the applicable fee under section 146B.10. The commissioner shall issue a new license in accordance with subdivision 4.
(c) A temporary license issued under this subdivision is valid for one year and may be renewed for one additional year.
(a) A technician shall require proof of age before performing any body art procedure on a client. Proof of age must be established by one of the following methods:
(1) a valid driver's license or identification card issued by the state of Minnesota or another state that includes a photograph and date of birth of the individual;
(2) a valid military identification card issued by the United States Department of Defense;
(3) a valid passport;
(4) a resident alien card; or
(5) a tribal identification card.
(b) Before performing any body art procedure, the technician must provide the client with a disclosure and authorization form that indicates whether the client has:
(2) a history of hemophilia;
(3) a history of skin diseases, skin lesions, or skin sensitivities to soap or disinfectants;
(4) a history of epilepsy, seizures, fainting, or narcolepsy;
(5) any condition that requires the client to take medications such as anticoagulants that thin the blood or interfere with blood clotting; or
(6) any other information that would aid the technician in the body art procedure process evaluation.
(c) The form must include a statement informing the client that the technician shall not perform a body art procedure if the client fails to complete or sign the disclosure and authorization form, and the technician may decline to perform a body art procedure if the client has any identified health conditions.
(d) The technician shall ask the client to sign and date the disclosure and authorization form confirming that the information listed on the form is accurate.
(e) Before performing any body art procedure, the technician shall offer and make available to the client personal draping, as appropriate.
(a) A technician may perform body piercings on an individual under the age of 18 if
the individual's parent or legal guardian is present and
a consent form and the authorization form under subdivision 1, paragraph (b) is signed by the parent or legal guardian in the presence of the technician, and
the piercing is not prohibited under paragraph (c).
(b) No technician shall tattoo any individual under the age of 18 regardless of parental or guardian consent.
(c) No nipple or genital piercing, branding, scarification, suspension, subdermal implantation, microdermal, or tongue bifurcation shall be performed by any technician on any individual under the age of 18 regardless of parental or guardian consent.
(d) No technician shall perform body art procedures on any individual who appears to be under the influence of alcohol, controlled substances as defined in section 152.01, subdivision 4, or hazardous substances as defined in rules adopted under chapter 182.
(e) No technician shall perform body art procedures while under the influence of alcohol, controlled substances as defined under section 152.01, subdivision 4, or hazardous substances as defined in the rules adopted under chapter 182.
(f) No technician shall administer anesthetic injections or other medications.
"Qualifying medical condition" means a diagnosis of any of the following conditions:
(1) cancer, if the underlying condition or treatment produces one or more of the following:
(i) severe or chronic pain;
(ii) nausea or severe vomiting; or
(iii) cachexia or severe wasting;
(3) human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immune deficiency syndrome;
(4) Tourette's syndrome;
(5) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;
(6) seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy;
(7) severe and persistent muscle spasms, including those characteristic of multiple sclerosis;
(8) Crohn's disease;
(9) terminal illness, with a probable life expectancy of under one year, if the illness or its treatment produces one or more of the following:
(i) severe or chronic pain;
(ii) nausea or severe vomiting; or
(iii) cachexia or severe wasting; or
(10) any other medical condition or its treatment approved by the commissioner.
(a) The commissioner shall adopt rules necessary for the manufacturer to begin distribution of medical cannabis to patients under the registry program by July 1, 2015, and have notice of proposed rules published in the State Register prior to January 1, 2015.
(b) The commissioner shall, by November 1, 2014, advise the public and the cochairs of the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research established under section 152.36 if the commissioner is unable to register two manufacturers by the December 1, 2014, deadline. The commissioner shall provide a written statement as to the reason or reasons the deadline will not be met. Upon request of the commissioner, the task force shall extend the deadline by six months, but may not extend the deadline more than once.
(c) If notified by a manufacturer that distribution to patients may not begin by the July 1, 2015, deadline, the commissioner shall advise the public and the cochairs of the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research. Upon notification by the commissioner, the task force shall extend the deadline by six months, but may not extend the deadline more than once.
(a) The commissioner shall provide regular updates to the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research regarding any changes in federal law or regulatory restrictions regarding the use of medical cannabis.
(b) The commissioner may submit medical research based on the data collected under sections 152.22 to 152.37 to any federal agency with regulatory or enforcement authority over medical cannabis to demonstrate the effectiveness of medical cannabis for treating a qualifying medical condition.
(a) A manufacturer shall require that employees licensed as pharmacists pursuant to chapter 151 be the only employees to distribute the medical cannabis to a patient.
(b) A manufacturer may dispense medical cannabis products, whether or not the products have been manufactured by the manufacturer, but is not required to dispense medical cannabis products.
(c) Prior to distribution of any medical cannabis, the manufacturer shall:
(1) verify that the manufacturer has received the registry verification from the commissioner for that individual patient;
(2) verify that the person requesting the distribution of medical cannabis is the patient, the patient's registered designated caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian listed in the registry verification using the procedures described in section 152.11, subdivision 2d;
(3) assign a tracking number to any medical cannabis distributed from the manufacturer;
(4) ensure that any employee of the manufacturer licensed as a pharmacist pursuant to chapter 151 has consulted with the patient to determine the proper dosage for the individual patient after reviewing the ranges of chemical compositions of the medical cannabis and the ranges of proper dosages reported by the commissioner;
(5) properly package medical cannabis in compliance with the United States Poison Prevention Packing Act regarding child-resistant packaging and exemptions for packaging for elderly patients, and label distributed medical cannabis with a list of all active ingredients and individually identifying information, including:
(i) the patient's name and date of birth;
(ii) the name and date of birth of the patient's registered designated caregiver or, if listed on the registry verification, the name of the patient's parent or legal guardian, if applicable;
(iii) the patient's registry identification number;
(iv) the chemical composition of the medical cannabis; and
(v) the dosage; and
(6) ensure that the medical cannabis distributed contains a maximum of a 30-day supply of the dosage determined for that patient.
(d) A manufacturer shall require any employee of the manufacturer who is transporting medical cannabis or medical cannabis products to a distribution facility to carry identification showing that the person is an employee of the manufacturer.
The task force shall hold hearings to conduct an assessment that evaluates the impact of the use of medical cannabis and evaluates Minnesota's activities and other states' activities involving medical cannabis, and offer analysis of:
(1) program design and implementation;
(2) the impact on the health care provider community;
(3) patient experiences;
(4) the impact on the incidence of substance abuse;
(5) access to and quality of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products;
(6) the impact on law enforcement and prosecutions;
(7) public awareness and perception; and
(8) any unintended consequences.
Certification must be renewed annually. The commissioner shall mail a renewal notice to the dispenser's last known address by September 1 of each year. The notice must include a renewal application and notice of fees required for renewal. A dispenser is not relieved from meeting the renewal deadline on the basis that the dispenser did not receive the renewal notice. In renewing a certificate, a dispenser shall follow the procedures for applying for a certificate specified in subdivision 1.
An applicant must achieve a passing score, as determined by the commissioner, on an examination according to paragraphs (a) to (c).
(a) The examination must include, but is not limited to:
(1) A written examination approved by the commissioner covering the following areas as they pertain to hearing instrument selling:
(i) basic physics of sound;
(ii) the anatomy and physiology of the ear;
(iii) the function of hearing instruments; and
(iv) the principles of hearing instrument selection.
(2) Practical tests of proficiency in the following techniques as they pertain to hearing instrument selling:
(i) pure tone audiometry, including air conduction testing and bone conduction testing;
(ii) live voice or recorded voice speech audiometry including speech recognition (discrimination) testing, most comfortable loudness level, and uncomfortable loudness measurements of tolerance thresholds;
(iii) masking when indicated;
(iv) recording and evaluation of audiograms and speech audiometry to determine proper selection and fitting of a hearing instrument;
(v) taking ear mold impressions;
(vi) using an otoscope for the visual observation of the entire ear canal; and
(vii) state and federal laws, rules, and regulations.
(b) The examination shall be administered by the commissioner at least twice a year.
(c) An applicant must achieve a passing score on all portions of the examination within a two-year period. An applicant who does not achieve a passing score on all portions of the examination within a two-year period must retake the entire examination and achieve a passing score on each portion of the examination. An applicant who does not apply for certification within one year of successful completion of the examination must retake the examination and achieve a passing score on each portion of the examination. An applicant may not take any part of the examination more than three times in a two-year period.
If the commissioner proposes to take action against the dispenser as described in subdivision 2, the commissioner must first notify the person against whom the action is proposed to be taken and provide the person with an opportunity to request a hearing under the contested case provisions of chapter 14. If the person does not request a hearing by notifying the commissioner within 30 days after service of the notice of the proposed action, the commissioner may proceed with the action without a hearing.
"Special event food stand" means a food and beverage service establishment which is used in conjunction with celebrations and special events, and which operates no more than three times annually for no more than ten total days.
Every food and beverage service establishment, for-profit youth camp, hotel, motel, lodging establishment, public pool, or resort must have the license posted in a conspicuous place at the establishment. Mobile food units, food carts, and seasonal temporary food stands shall be issued decals with the initial license and each calendar year with license renewals. The current license year decal must be placed on the unit or stand in a location determined by the commissioner. Decals are not transferable.
Presented to the governor May 24, 2016
Signed by the governor May 31, 2016, 10:19 a.m.
Official Publication of the State of Minnesota
Revisor of Statutes