as introduced - 91st Legislature (2019 - 2020) Posted on 05/09/2020 04:27pm
A bill for an act
relating to legislative enactments; making miscellaneous technical corrections to
laws and statutes; correcting erroneous, obsolete, and omitted text and references;
removing redundant, conflicting, and superseded provisions; amending Minnesota
Statutes 2018, sections 3.842, subdivision 2; 12.09, subdivision 10; 13.7905,
subdivisions 2, 3, 4a, 5, 6; 34.02; 60B.32, subdivision 5; 60B.38, subdivision 1;
60B.40, subdivision 2; 60B.46, subdivision 2; 62J.498, subdivision 1; 62J.4981,
subdivision 3; 62J.812; 88.01, subdivision 1; 88.17, subdivision 3; 97A.052,
subdivision 1; 97C.081, subdivision 10; 97C.825, subdivision 2; 103C.201,
subdivision 8; 103G.411; 115.72, subdivision 2; 116J.395, subdivision 3;
116J.8737, subdivision 8; 122A.40, subdivision 14; 123A.19, subdivisions 3, 5;
123A.75, subdivisions 2, 4; 124D.77; 124D.98, subdivision 3; 126C.13, subdivision
4; 137.38, subdivision 1; 144.292, subdivision 7; 144A.19, subdivision 2; 145.901,
subdivision 2; 146A.08, subdivision 4; 147.091, subdivision 6; 147A.13,
subdivision 6; 148.10, subdivision 1; 148.261, subdivision 5; 148.5194, subdivision
5; 148.754; 148B.5905; 148E.065, subdivision 1; 148E.075, subdivision 2;
148E.245, subdivision 5; 148F.09, subdivision 6; 151.01, subdivision 27a; 151.071,
subdivision 10; 155A.271, subdivision 2; 156.125, subdivision 3; 160.262,
subdivision 3; 160.266, subdivision 1b; 160.276, subdivision 2a; 161.082,
subdivision 2; 161.166, subdivision 2; 161.53; 169.18, subdivision 6; 169.791,
subdivision 5; 169A.03, subdivision 20; 171.02, subdivision 2a; 171.075,
subdivision 1; 171.17, subdivision 4; 171.175, subdivision 1; 171.187, subdivisions
1, 3; 174.30, subdivision 3; 216B.1641; 245.814, subdivision 2; 270A.03,
subdivision 8; 297E.02, subdivisions 1, 6; 298.28, subdivision 7a; 299A.11,
subdivision 1; 308A.711, subdivision 1; 326A.05, subdivision 1; 326A.14,
subdivision 1; 353G.08, subdivision 3; 504B.211, subdivision 2; 571.74; 576.21;
576.22; 576.29, subdivision 1; 576.42, subdivision 6; 609.2111; 609.224,
subdivision 3; 609.535, subdivision 6; 609.80; 609.891, subdivision 3; 609.902,
subdivision 4; 628.26; 629.344; 629.364; Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement,
sections 16A.968, subdivision 2; 28A.075; 116.155, subdivision 3; 116J.8737,
subdivision 5; 121A.335, subdivision 5; 122A.635, subdivision 2; 144G.50,
subdivision 2; 151.01, subdivision 27; 151.43; 151.441, subdivision 1; 152.126,
subdivision 6; 157.22; 169.881, subdivision 3; 169A.24, subdivision 1; 176.231,
subdivision 1; 245A.11, subdivision 7a; 245C.22, subdivision 5; 256B.85,
subdivision 2; 260B.331, subdivision 2; 290.0121, subdivision 3; 297A.75,
subdivision 1; 349.12, subdivision 25; 609.52, subdivision 1; Laws 2019, First
Special Session chapter 4, article 3, section 109; Laws 2019, First Special Session
chapter 11, article 3, section 23, subdivision 6; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2018,
sections 13.383, subdivision 9; 115.71, subdivision 4; 161.1231, subdivision 10;
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 13.7905, subdivision 7; Laws 2019,
chapter 37, section 1.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 3.842, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
The jurisdiction of the commission includes all rules as defined
in section 14.02, subdivision 4. The commission also has jurisdiction of rules filed with the
secretary of state in accordance with sections 14.38, deleted text begin subdivisions 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, anddeleted text end new text begin subdivisionnew text end
11; 14.386; and 14.388.
The commission may periodically review statutory exemptions to the rulemaking
provisions of this chapter.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 12.09, subdivision 10, is amended to read:
(a) The division must maintain and
administer an emergency management training curriculum. The division must make
emergency management training courses in this curriculum available to state employees
whose essential job duties involve emergency management.
(b) Each state agency that is assigned a role as a disaster or emergency response
organization in the state emergency operations plan must have at least one employee who
has completed the entire emergency management training curriculum maintained under this
section. If an agency is not in compliance with this paragraph deleted text begin as of August 1, 2008,deleted text end or if
all employees who have completed the curriculum leave the agency, the agency must
immediately file a plan with the division identifying how and when the agency will be in
compliance.
(c) On deleted text begin September 1, 2008, anddeleted text end January 15 deleted text begin ofdeleted text end each deleted text begin subsequentdeleted text end year, the commissioner
of public safety must report to legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety
issues on compliance with this section. The report must list state agencies that are in
compliance with this section and must summarize compliance efforts for state agencies not
yet in compliance.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 16A.968, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
(a) Subject to the limitations of
this subdivision, and upon request by the governing body of the city of Duluth as provided
in section 469.54, subdivision 3, paragraph deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (e)new text end , the commissioner may sell and issue
appropriation bonds of the state under this section for public purposes as provided by law.
(b) Proceeds of the appropriation bonds must be credited to a special appropriation
Duluth regional exchange district bond proceeds fund in the state treasury. All income from
investment of the bond proceeds, as estimated by the commissioner, is appropriated to the
commissioner for the payment of principal and interest on the appropriation bonds.
(c) Appropriation bonds may be issued in one or more issues or series on the terms and
conditions the commissioner determines to be in the best interests of the state, but the term
on any series of appropriation bonds may not exceed 25 years. The appropriation bonds of
each issue and series thereof shall be dated and bear interest and may be includable in or
excludable from the gross income of the owners for federal income tax purposes.
(d) At the time of or in anticipation of issuing the appropriation bonds, and at any time
thereafter, so long as the appropriation bonds are outstanding, the commissioner may enter
into agreements and ancillary arrangements relating to the appropriation bonds, including
but not limited to trust indentures, grant agreements, lease or use agreements, operating
agreements, management agreements, liquidity facilities, remarketing or dealer agreements,
letter of credit agreements, insurance policies, guaranty agreements, reimbursement
agreements, indexing agreements, or interest exchange agreements. Any payments made
or received according to the agreement or ancillary arrangement shall be made from or
deposited as provided in the agreement or ancillary arrangement. The determination of the
commissioner included in an interest exchange agreement that the agreement relates to an
appropriation bond shall be conclusive.
(e) The commissioner may enter into written agreements or contracts relating to the
continuing disclosure of information necessary to comply with or facilitate the issuance of
appropriation bonds in accordance with federal securities laws, rules, and regulations,
including Securities and Exchange Commission rules and regulations in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 17, section 240.15c 2-12. An agreement may be in the form of covenants
with purchasers and holders of appropriation bonds set forth in the order or resolution
authorizing the issuance of the appropriation bonds or a separate document authorized by
the order or resolution.
(f) The appropriation bonds are not subject to chapter 16C.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 28A.075, is amended to read:
(a) At the request of a local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardnew text end that licensed and
inspected grocery and convenience stores on January 1, 1999, the commissioner must enter
into agreements before January 1, 2001, with local deleted text begin boards of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardsnew text end
to delegate to the appropriate local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardnew text end the licensing
and inspection duties of the commissioner pertaining to retail food handlers that are grocery
or convenience stores. At the request of a local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardnew text end
that licensed and inspected part of any grocery or convenience store on January 1, 1999,
the commissioner must enter into agreements before July 1, 2001, with local deleted text begin boards of
healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardsnew text end to delegate to the appropriate local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin
community health boardnew text end the licensing and inspection duties of the commissioner pertaining
to retail food handlers that are grocery or convenience stores. At any time thereafter, the
commissioner may enter into an agreement with a local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health
boardnew text end that licensed and inspected all or part of any grocery or convenience store on January
1, 1999, to delegate to the appropriate local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardnew text end the
licensing and inspection duties of the commissioner pertaining to retail food handlers such
as grocery or convenience stores. Retail food handlers inspected under the state meat
inspection program of chapter 31A are exempt from delegation.
(b) A local deleted text begin board of healthdeleted text end new text begin community health boardnew text end must adopt an ordinance consistent
with the Minnesota Food Code, Minnesota Rules, chapter 4626, for all of its jurisdiction to
regulate retail food handlers and the ordinance (Food Code) must not be in conflict with
standards set in law or rule.
(c) A fee to recover the estimated costs of enforcement of this chapter must be established
by ordinance and must be fair, reasonable, and proportionate to the actual cost of the licensing
and inspection services. The fee must only be maintained and used for the estimated costs
of enforcing this chapter.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 34.02, is amended to read:
No person may manufacture, mix, or compound any soft drinks or other nonalcoholic
beverage, to be sold in bottles, barrels, kegs, jars, coolers, cans, glasses or tumblers, or other
containers, without first having obtained a license from the commissioner. License fees
shall be established in accordance with section 28A.05, deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (c). Sections 34.02
to 34.11 do not apply to beverages manufactured, mixed, or compounded in quantities of
one quart or less at one time.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 60B.32, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
If any lien deemed voidable under
subdivision 1, deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (b), has been dissolved by the furnishing of a bond or other
obligation, the surety on which has been indemnified directly or indirectly by the transfer
of or the creation of a lien upon any property of an insurer before the filing of a petition
under sections 60B.01 to 60B.61 which results in a liquidation order, the indemnifying
transfer or lien shall also be deemed voidable.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 60B.38, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
(a) Proof of claim shall consist of a verified
statement that includes all of the following that are applicable:
(1) The particulars of the claim, including the consideration given for it.
(2) The identity and amount of the security on the claim.
(3) The payments made on the debt, if any.
(4) That the sum claimed is justly owing and that there is no setoff, counterclaim, or
defense to the claim.
(5) Any right of priority of payment or other specific right asserted by the claimant.
(6) A copy of any written instrument which is the foundation of the claim.
(7) In the case of any third-party claim based on a liability policy issued by the insurer,
a conditional release of the insured pursuant to section 60B.40, subdivision 1.
(8) The name and address of the claimant and the claimant's attorney, if any.
(b) No claim need be considered or allowed if it does not contain all the information
under deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (a) which may be applicable. The liquidator may require that a
prescribed form be used and may require that other information and documents be included.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 60B.40, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Whether or not the third party files a claim, the insured may
file a claim on the insured's own behalf in the liquidation. If the insured fails to file a claim
by the date for filing claims specified in the order of liquidation or within 60 days after
mailing of the notice required by section 60B.26, subdivision 1, deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (b),
whichever is later, the insured is an unexcused late filer.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 60B.46, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
(a) Upon liquidation of a domestic mutual insurance company,
any assets held in excess of its liabilities and the amounts which may be paid to its members
as provided under deleted text begin clausedeleted text end new text begin paragraphnew text end (b) shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of
the general fund.
(b) The maximum amount payable upon liquidation to any member for and on account
of membership in a domestic mutual insurance company, in addition to the insurance benefits
promised in the policy, shall be the total of all premium payments made by the member
with interest at the legal rate compounded annually.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 62J.812, is amended to read:
(a) Each provider shall maintain a list of the services over $25 that correspond with the
provider's 25 most frequently billed current procedural terminology (CPT) codes, including
the provider's ten most commonly billed evaluation and management codes, and of the ten
most frequently billed CPT codes for preventive services. If the provider is associated with
a health care system, the health care system may develop the list of services required under
this paragraph for the providers within the health care system.
(b) For each service listed in paragraph (a), the provider shall disclose the provider's
charge, the average reimbursement rate received for the service from the provider's health
plan payers in the commercial insurance market, and, if applicable, the Medicare allowable
payment rate and the medical assistance fee-for-service payment rate. For purposes of this
paragraph, "provider's charge" means the dollar amount the provider charges to a patient
who has received the service and who is not covered by private or public health care
coverage.
(c) The list described in this subdivision must be updated annually and must be posted
in the provider's reception area of the clinic or office and made available on the provider's
website, if the provider maintains a website.
(d) For purposes of this deleted text begin subdivisiondeleted text end new text begin sectionnew text end , "provider" means a primary care provider
or clinic that specializes in family medicine, general internal medicine, gynecology, or
general pediatrics.
(e) No contract between a health plan company and a provider shall prohibit a provider
from disclosing the pricing information required under this section.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 88.01, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
For the purposes of new text begin this new text end chapter deleted text begin 88deleted text end , the terms defined in this
section have the meanings given them.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 88.17, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
The following special permits are required at all times,
including when the ground is snow-covered:
(a) Fire training. A permit to start a fire for the instruction and training of firefighters,
including liquid fuels training, may be given by the commissioner or agent of the
commissioner. Except for owners or operators conducting fire training in specialized
industrial settings pursuant to applicable federal, state, or local standards, owners or operators
conducting open burning for the purpose of instruction and training of firefighters with
regard to structures must use only fuel materials as outlined in the current edition of National
Fire Protection Association 1403, Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions, and obtain
the applicable live burn documents in accordance with the current edition of the Board of
Firefighter Training and Education's live burn plan established according to section 299N.02,
subdivision 3, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2).
(b) Permanent tree and brush open burning sites. A permit for the operation of a
permanent tree and brush burning site may be given by the commissioner or agent of the
commissioner. Applicants for a permanent open burning site permit shall submit a complete
application on a form provided by the commissioner. Existing permanent tree and brush
open burning sites must submit for a permit within 90 days of the passage of this statute for
a burning permit. New site applications must be submitted at least 90 days before the date
of the proposed operation of the permanent open burning site. The application must be
submitted to the commissioner and must contain:
(1) the name, address, and telephone number of all owners of the site proposed for use
as the permanent open burning site;
(2) if the operator for the proposed permanent open burning site is different from the
owner, the name, address, and telephone number of the operator;
(3) a general description of the materials to be burned, including the source and estimated
quantity, dimensions of the site and burn pile areas, hours and dates of operation, and
provisions for smoke management; and
(4) a topographic or similarly detailed map of the site and surrounding area within a
one-mile circumference showing all structures that might be affected by the operation of
the site.
Only trees, tree trimmings, or brush that cannot be disposed of by an alternative method
such as chipping, composting, or other method shall be permitted to be burned at a permanent
open burning site. A permanent tree and brush open burning site must be located and operated
so as not to create a nuisance or endanger water quality. The commissioner shall revoke the
permit or order actions to mitigate threats to public health, safety, and the environment in
the event that permit conditions are violated.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 97A.052, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
The peace officer training account is
created in the game and fish fund in the state treasury. Revenue from the portion of the
surcharges assessed to criminal and traffic offenders in section 357.021, subdivision 7,
new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (1), shall be deposited in the account. Money in the account may be
spent only for the purposes provided in subdivision 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 97C.081, subdivision 10, is amended to read:
For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings
given:
deleted text begin (a)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end "Permitted fishing contest" means an open water fishing contest or ice fishing
contest that requires a permit from the commissioner under subdivision 3.
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end "Large permitted fishing contest" means an open water fishing contest with more
than 50 boats or more than 100 participants that requires a permit from the commissioner
under subdivision 3.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end "Participant" means a person who is taking part in a fishing contest.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end "Permitted fishing contest day" means a day on a water body where a permitted
fishing contest is held. Two permitted fishing contests that are held on the same water body
on the same day count as two permitted fishing contest days.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end "Off-site weigh-in" means a weigh-in of fish from a fishing contest at a location
that is not adjacent to the waters listed on the fishing contest permit.
deleted text begin (f)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end "Prefishing" means fishing by participants of a permitted fishing contest prior to
the scheduled dates of the contest on waters listed on the fishing contest permit.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 97C.825, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
The following rules and restrictions shall apply
to all commercial fishing operations conducted in Lake of the Woods and Rainy Lake unless
otherwise changed by rule of the commissioner under authority of section 97A.045,
subdivision 4:
deleted text begin (a)deleted text end new text begin (1)new text end Any fish, except largemouth bass, smallmouth bass, rock bass, muskellunge,
crappies, sturgeon, and sunfish, may be taken subject to all other restrictions contained in
the game and fish laws.
deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (2)new text end Pound net mesh and staked trap net mesh may not be less than 2-1/2 inches nor
more than four inches stretch measure in the pound or crib.
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end Gill net mesh may not be less than four inches stretch measure, and may not be
more than 30 meshes in width.
deleted text begin (d)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end Fyke net mesh may not be less than 2-1/2 inches nor more than four inches stretch
measure in the pot or crib. Fyke nets may not have a hoop or opening more than six feet in
height, wings more than 100 feet in length, nor a lead more than 400 feet in length.
deleted text begin (e)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end Submerged trap net mesh may not be less than 2-1/2 inches nor more than three
inches stretch measure in the heart, pot, or crib. A submerged trap net may not have a pot
or crib exceeding 150 square feet in area, a lead exceeding 300 feet in length, nor a pot or
lead exceeding 12 feet in depth.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 103C.201, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
(a) The district shall be a
governmental subdivision of this state and a public body corporate and politic after the
actions in this subdivision are taken.
(b) If the state board determines that the operation of the proposed district within the
defined boundaries is administratively feasible, the state board must appoint supervisors to
act as the district board within 30 days after the district is established. A majority of the
supervisors' terms must expire after the next general election following deleted text begin theirdeleted text end new text begin the supervisors'new text end
appointments and the remaining supervisors' terms expire after the second general election
following deleted text begin theirdeleted text end new text begin the supervisors'new text end appointments.
(c) The appointed supervisors shall sign and present an application to the secretary of
state with the following recitals:
(1) a petition for the establishment of a district was filed with the state board;
(2) the proper proceedings were taken relating to the petition;
(3) the application is being filed to complete the organization of the district as a
governmental subdivision and a public body, corporate or politic;
(4) the state board has appointed the signers as supervisors;
(5) the name and official residence of each supervisor, with a certified copy of the
supervisor's appointment;
(6) the term of office of each supervisor;
(7) the name proposed for the district; and
(8) the location of the principal office of the district board.
(d) The application shall be subscribed and sworn to by each supervisor before an officer
authorized by state law to take oaths. The officer shall certify upon the application that the
officer has personal knowledge of the supervisors, that they are the supervisors named in
the application, and that each supervisor has signed the application in the officer's presence.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 103G.411, is amended to read:
If the state is a party in a civil action relating to the navigability or ownership of the bed
of a body of water, river, or stream, the commissioner, deleted text begin indeleted text end new text begin onnew text end behalf of the state, may agree
by written stipulation with a riparian owner who is a party to the action on the location of
the ordinary low-water mark on the riparian land of the party. After the stipulation is executed
by all parties, it must be presented to the judge of the district court where the action is
pending for approval. If the stipulation is approved, the judge shall make and enter an order
providing that the final judgment when entered shall conform to the location of the ordinary,
low-water mark as provided for in the stipulation as it relates to the parties to the stipulation.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 115.72, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
The commissioner of health and the agency shall
jointly adopt rules relating to the certification qualifications for each classification of water
supply system operators and wastewater facility operators, respectively. The rules must
provide for at least one annual examination for each class of certificate and must include,
but are not limited to:
(1) education requirements;
(2) education substitution provisions;
(3) experience requirements;
(4) experience substitution provisions;
(5) examination content requirements, testing procedures, and criteria for passing;
(6) certificate renewal requirements;
(7) schedules for submitting applications and fees; and
(8) reinstatement requirements for expired, suspended, or revoked certificates.
deleted text begin
The advisory council must be consulted before any rules are proposed under this
subdivision.
deleted text end
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 116.155, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
The following revenues shall be deposited in the general portion of
the remediation fund:
(1) response costs related to releases of hazardous substances, or pollutants or
contaminants, recovered under deleted text begin sectionsdeleted text end new text begin sectionnew text end 115B.17, subdivision 6; 115B.443; new text begin or
new text end 115B.444deleted text begin ,deleted text end or any other law;
(2) money paid to the agency or the Agriculture Department by voluntary parties who
have received technical or other assistance under sections 115B.17, subdivision 14, 115B.175
to 115B.179, and 115C.03, subdivision 9;
(3) money received in the form of gifts, grants, reimbursement, or appropriation from
any source for any of the purposes provided in subdivision 2, except federal grants; and
(4) interest accrued on the fund.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 116J.395, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Eligible applicants for grants awarded under this section
include:
(1) an incorporated business or a partnership;
(2) a political subdivision;
(3) an Indian tribe;
(4) a Minnesota nonprofit organization organized under chapter 317A; deleted text begin or
deleted text end
(5) a Minnesota cooperative association organized under chapter 308A or 308Bdeleted text begin .deleted text end new text begin ; or
new text end
new text begin
(6) a Minnesota limited liability corporation organized under chapter 322C, to expand
broadband access.
new text end
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 116J.8737, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
(a) A qualified investor or qualified fund is eligible for a credit
equal to 25 percent of the qualified investment in a qualified small business. Investments
made by a pass-through entity qualify for a credit only if the entity is a qualified fund. The
commissioner must not allocate more than $10,000,000 in credits to qualified investors or
qualified funds for the taxable years listed in paragraph (i). For each taxable year, 50 percent
must be allocated to credits for deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end investments in qualified greater
Minnesota businesses and minority-owned, women-owned, or veteran-owned qualified
small businesses in Minnesota. Any portion of a taxable year's credits that is reserved for
deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end investments in greater Minnesota businesses and minority-owned,
women-owned, or veteran-owned qualified small businesses in Minnesota that is not allocated
by September 30 of the taxable year is available for allocation to other credit applications
beginning on October 1. Any portion of a taxable year's credits that is not allocated by the
commissioner does not cancel and may be carried forward to subsequent taxable years until
all credits have been allocated.
(b) The commissioner may not allocate more than a total maximum amount in credits
for a taxable year to a qualified investor for the investor's cumulative qualified investments
as an individual qualified investor and as an investor in a qualified fund; for married couples
filing joint returns the maximum is $250,000, and for all other filers the maximum is
$125,000. The commissioner may not allocate more than a total of $1,000,000 in credits
over all taxable years for qualified investments in any one qualified small business.
(c) The commissioner may not allocate a credit to a qualified investor either as an
individual qualified investor or as an investor in a qualified fund if, at the time the investment
is proposed:
(1) the investor is an officer or principal of the qualified small business; or
(2) the investor, either individually or in combination with one or more members of the
investor's family, owns, controls, or holds the power to vote 20 percent or more of the
outstanding securities of the qualified small business.
A member of the family of an individual disqualified by this paragraph is not eligible for a
credit under this section. For a married couple filing a joint return, the limitations in this
paragraph apply collectively to the investor and spouse. For purposes of determining the
ownership interest of an investor under this paragraph, the rules under section 267(c) and
267(e) of the Internal Revenue Code apply.
(d) Applications for tax credits for 2010 must be made available on the department's
website by September 1, 2010, and the department must begin accepting applications by
September 1, 2010. Applications for subsequent years must be made available by November
1 of the preceding year.
(e) Qualified investors and qualified funds must apply to the commissioner for tax credits.
Tax credits must be allocated to qualified investors or qualified funds in the order that the
tax credit request applications are filed with the department. The commissioner must approve
or reject tax credit request applications within 15 days of receiving the application. The
investment specified in the application must be made within 60 days of the allocation of
the credits. If the investment is not made within 60 days, the credit allocation is canceled
and available for reallocation. A qualified investor or qualified fund that fails to invest as
specified in the application, within 60 days of allocation of the credits, must notify the
commissioner of the failure to invest within five business days of the expiration of the
60-day investment period.
(f) All tax credit request applications filed with the department on the same day must
be treated as having been filed contemporaneously. If two or more qualified investors or
qualified funds file tax credit request applications on the same day, and the aggregate amount
of credit allocation claims exceeds the aggregate limit of credits under this section or the
lesser amount of credits that remain unallocated on that day, then the credits must be allocated
among the qualified investors or qualified funds who filed on that day on a pro rata basis
with respect to the amounts claimed. The pro rata allocation for any one qualified investor
or qualified fund is the product obtained by multiplying a fraction, the numerator of which
is the amount of the credit allocation claim filed on behalf of a qualified investor and the
denominator of which is the total of all credit allocation claims filed on behalf of all
applicants on that day, by the amount of credits that remain unallocated on that day for the
taxable year.
(g) A qualified investor or qualified fund, or a qualified small business acting on their
behalf, must notify the commissioner when an investment for which credits were allocated
has been made, and the taxable year in which the investment was made. A qualified fund
must also provide the commissioner with a statement indicating the amount invested by
each investor in the qualified fund based on each investor's share of the assets of the qualified
fund at the time of the qualified investment. After receiving notification that the investment
was made, the commissioner must issue credit certificates for the taxable year in which the
investment was made to the qualified investor or, for an investment made by a qualified
fund, to each qualified investor who is an investor in the fund. The certificate must state
that the credit is subject to revocation if the qualified investor or qualified fund does not
hold the investment in the qualified small business for at least three years, consisting of the
calendar year in which the investment was made and the two following years. The three-year
holding period does not apply if:
(1) the investment by the qualified investor or qualified fund becomes worthless before
the end of the three-year period;
(2) 80 percent or more of the assets of the qualified small business is sold before the end
of the three-year period;
(3) the qualified small business is sold before the end of the three-year period;
(4) the qualified small business's common stock begins trading on a public exchange
before the end of the three-year period; or
(5) the qualified investor dies before the end of the three-year period.
(h) The commissioner must notify the commissioner of revenue of credit certificates
issued under this section.
(i) The credit allowed under this subdivision is effective for each of the following taxable
years:
(1) taxable years beginning after December 31, 2018, and before January 1, 2020; and
(2) taxable years beginning after December 31, 2020, and before January 1, 2022.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 116J.8737, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
(a) Data contained in an application submitted to the
commissioner under subdivision 2, 3, or 4 are nonpublic data, or private data on individuals,
as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 9 or 12, except that the following data items are
public:
(1) the name, mailing address, telephone number, e-mail address, contact person's name,
and industry type of a qualified small business upon approval of the application and
certification by the commissioner under subdivision 2;
(2) the name of a qualified investor upon approval of the application and certification
by the commissioner under subdivision 3;
(3) the name of a qualified fund upon approval of the application and certification by
the commissioner under subdivision 4;
(4) for credit certificates issued under subdivision 5, the amount of the credit certificate
issued, amount of the deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end investment, the name of the deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end
investor or deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end fund that received the certificate, and the name of the
deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end small business in which the deleted text begin qualifyingdeleted text end new text begin qualifiednew text end investment was made;
(5) for credits revoked under subdivision 7, paragraph (a), the amount revoked and the
name of the qualified investor or qualified fund; and
(6) for credits revoked under subdivision 7, paragraphs (b) and (c), the amount revoked
and the name of the qualified small business.
(b) The following data, including data classified as nonpublic or private, must be provided
to the consultant for use in conducting the program evaluation under subdivision 10:
(1) the commissioner of employment and economic development shall provide data
contained in an application for certification received from a qualified small business, qualified
investor, or qualified fund, and any annual reporting information received on a qualified
small business, qualified investor, or qualified fund; and
(2) the commissioner of revenue shall provide data contained in any applicable tax
returns of a qualified small business, qualified investor, or qualified fund.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 121A.335, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
A school district or charter school that has tested its buildings for
the presence of lead shall make the results of the testing available to the public for review
and must notify parents of the availability of the information. School districts and charter
schools must follow the actions outlined in guidance from the commissioners of health and
education. If a test conducted under subdivision 3, paragraph (a), reveals the presence of
lead above a level where action should be taken as set by the guidance, the school district
or charternew text begin schoolnew text end must, within 30 days of receiving the test result, either remediate the
presence of lead to below the level set in guidance, verified by retest, or directly notify
parents of the test result. The school district or charter school must make the water source
unavailable until the hazard has been minimized.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 122A.40, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Any hearing held pursuant to this section must be held
upon appropriate and timely notice to the teacher, and any hearing held pursuant to
subdivision 9 or 13 must be private or public at the discretion of the teacher. deleted text begin A hearing held
pursuant to subdivision 11 must be public and may be consolidated by the school board.deleted text end At
the hearing, the board and the teacher may each be represented by counsel at each party's
own expense, and such counsel may examine and cross-examine witnesses and present
arguments. The board must first present evidence to sustain the grounds for termination or
discharge and then receive evidence presented by the teacher. Each party may then present
rebuttal evidence. Dismissal of the teacher must be based upon substantial and competent
evidence in the record. All witnesses shall be sworn upon oath administered by the presiding
officer of the board. The clerk of the board shall issue subpoenas for witnesses or the
production of records pertinent to the grounds upon the request of either the board or the
teacher. The board must employ a court reporter to record the proceedings at the hearing,
and either party may obtain a transcript of the hearing at its own expense.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 122A.635, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
(a) The Professional Educator Licensing and Standards
Board must award competitive grants under this section based on the following criteria:
(1) the number of teacher candidates being supported in the program who are of color
or who are American Indian;
(2) program outcomes, including graduation or program completion rates, licensure
rates, and placement rates and, for each outcome measure, the number of those teacher
candidates of color or who are American Indian; and
(3) the percent of racially and ethnically diverse teacher candidates enrolled in the
institution compared to:
(i) the total percent of students of color and American Indian students enrolled at the
institution, regardless of major; and
(ii) the percent of underrepresented racially and ethnically diverse teachers in the
economic development region of the state where the institution is located and where a
shortage of diverse teachers exists, as reported under section deleted text begin 127A.05, subdivision 6, ordeleted text end
122A.091, subdivision 5.
(b) The board must give priority in awarding grants under this section to institutions that
received grants under Laws 2017, First Special Session chapter 5, article 2, section 57,
subdivision 27, and have demonstrated continuing success at recruiting, retaining, graduating,
and inducting teacher candidates of color or who are American Indian. If the board awards
a competitive grant based on the criteria in paragraph (a) to a program that has not previously
received funding, the board must thereafter give priority to the program equivalent to other
programs given priority under this paragraph.
(c) The board must determine award amounts for maintenance and expansion of programs
based on the number of candidates supported by an applicant program, sustaining support
for those candidates, and funds available.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 123A.19, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) When an education district
board or a member board is filling a position resulting from implementation of the agreement,
the board may offer the position to a teacher currently employed by a member district
according to the exchange teacher provisions of section 122A.54.
(b) If the position is not filled by a currently employed teacher, the board must offer the
position to an available teacher in the order of seniority in fields of licensure on a combined
seniority list of all available teachers in the member districts. For the purpose of establishing
a combined seniority list, each district must be considered to have started school each year
on the same date. An available teacher is a teacher in a member district who:
(1) was placed on unrequested leave of absence by a member district, according to
section 122A.40, subdivision 10 deleted text begin or 11, or was terminated according to section 122A.41,
subdivision 14deleted text end , not more than one year before the initial formation of an education district
as a result of an intention to enter into an education district agreement;
(2) was placed on unrequested leave of absence by a member district, according to
section 122A.40, subdivision 10 deleted text begin or 11, or was terminated according to section 122A.41,
subdivision 14deleted text end , as a result of implementing the education district agreement, after the
formation of the education district; or
(3) is placed on unrequested leave of absence by a member district, according to section
122A.40, subdivision 10 deleted text begin or 11, or is terminated according to section 122A.41, subdivision
14deleted text end , as a result of implementing the education district, in the same year the position is filled.
(c) If no currently employed teacher or available teacher accepts the position, the board
may fill the position with any other teacher.
(d) Any teacher who has been placed on unrequested leave of absence or who has been
terminated has a right to a position only as long as the teacher has a right to reinstatement
in a member district under section 122A.40, subdivision 10 deleted text begin or 11, or 122A.41, subdivision
14deleted text end .
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 123A.19, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
When a school board that intends to enter into an education
district agreement, and at the time a board that has entered into an education district
agreement places a teacher on unrequested leave of absence, according to section 122A.40,
subdivision 10 deleted text begin or 11, or terminates a teacher's services under section 122A.41, subdivision
14deleted text end , the board must make a determination whether the placement or termination is a result
of implementing the education district agreement. That determination must be included in
the notice of proposed placement or termination, may be reviewed at a hearing upon request
of the teacher, and must be included in the notice of final action of the board. If the
determination is not disputed by the teacher before June 1 or the final date required for
action by the board, the teacher shall be deemed to acquiesce in the board's determination.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 123A.75, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
The organization certified as the exclusive bargaining
representative for the teachers in the particular preexisting district which employed the
largest proportion of the teachers who are assigned to a new employing district according
to subdivision 1 shall be certified as the exclusive bargaining representative for the teachers
assigned to that new employing district, until that organization is decertified or another
organization is certified in its place pursuant to sections 179A.01 to 179A.25. For purposes
of negotiation of a new contract with the board of the new employing district and the
certification of an exclusive bargaining representative for purposes of that negotiation, the
teachers assigned to that district shall be considered an appropriate unit of employees of
that district as of the date the county board orders its interlocutory order of dissolution and
attachment to be final and effective or as of the date the commissioner assigns an
identification number to a new district created by consolidation. During the school year
before the consolidation becomes effective, the newly elected board or the board of the
district to which a dissolved district is attached, may place teachers assigned to it on
unrequested leave of absence as provided in section 122A.40 according to: (a) a plan
negotiated in a new master contract between it and the exclusive bargaining representative
of the teachers assigned to it, or (b) if no such plan exists, an applicable plan negotiated in
the contract which according to this subdivision will temporarily govern the terms and
conditions of employment of teachers assigned to itdeleted text begin , or (c) if no plan exists pursuant to
either (a) or (b), the provisions of section 122A.40, subdivision 11, on the basis of a combined
seniority list of all teachers assigned to itdeleted text end .
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 123A.75, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Except as provided in this section, the
provisions of section 122A.40 or 122A.41 shall apply to the employment of each teacher
by the new employing district on the same basis as they would have applied to the
employment if the teacher had been employed by that new district before the effective date
of the consolidation or dissolution and attachment. deleted text begin For the purpose of applying the provisions
of subdivision 2, clause (c), and the provisions of section 122A.40, subdivision 11, each
district must be considered to have started school each year on the same date.
deleted text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 124D.77, is amended to read:
This section applies to a board of a district in which there are at least ten American
Indian children enrolled. The board must actively recruit teacher applicants who are American
Indian from the time it is reasonably expected that a position will become available until
the position is filled or September 1, whichever is earlier. Notwithstanding section 122A.40,
subdivision 7deleted text begin ,deleted text end new text begin ornew text end 10, deleted text begin or 11,deleted text end 122A.41, deleted text begin subdivisionsdeleted text end new text begin subdivisionnew text end 4 deleted text begin and 14deleted text end , any other law to
the contrary, or any provision of a contract entered into after May 7, 1988, to the contrary,
when placing a teacher on unrequested leave of absence, the board may retain a probationary
teacher or a teacher with less seniority in order to retain an American Indian teacher.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 124D.98, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
The growth aid for each school in a district that has submitted to
the commissioner its local literacy plan under section 120B.12, subdivision 4a, is equal to
the product of the school's growth allowance times the number of fourth grade pupils enrolled
at the school on October 1 of the previous fiscal year. A school's growth allowance is equal
to the percentage of students at that school making medium or high growth, under deleted text begin section
120B.299deleted text end new text begin subdivision 4new text end , on the fourth grade reading Minnesota Comprehensive Assessment,
averaged across the previous three test administrations, times $530.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 126C.13, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
For fiscal year 2015 and later, a district's general
education aid equals:
(1) general education revenue, excluding operating capital revenue, equity revenue, local
optional revenue, and transition revenue, minus the student achievement levy, multiplied
times the ratio of the actual amount of student achievement levy levied to the permitted
student achievement levy; plus
(2) operating capital aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 13b;
(3) equity aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 30; plus
(4) transition aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 33; plus
(5) shared time aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 7; plus
(6) referendum aid under section 126C.17, subdivisions 7 and 7a; plus
(7) online learning aid under section 124D.096; plus
(8) local optional aid according to section 126C.10, subdivision deleted text begin 2d, paragraph (d)deleted text end new text begin 2e,
paragraph (c)new text end .
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 126C.13, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
For fiscal year 2015 and later, a district's general
education aid equals:
(1) general education revenue, excluding operating capital revenue, equity revenue, local
optional revenue, and transition revenue, minus the student achievement levy, multiplied
times the ratio of the actual amount of student achievement levy levied to the permitted
student achievement levy; plus
(2) operating capital aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 13b;
(3) equity aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 30; plus
(4) transition aid under section 126C.10, subdivision 33; plus
(5) shared time aid under section deleted text begin 126C.10deleted text end new text begin 126C.01new text end , subdivision 7; plus
(6) referendum aid under section 126C.17, subdivisions 7 and 7a; plus
(7) online learning aid under section 124D.096; plus
(8) local optional aid according to section 126C.10, subdivision 2d, paragraph (d).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 137.38, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
If the Board of Regents accepts the amount transferred under
section 62J.692, subdivision 7, deleted text begin paragraph (b)deleted text end new text begin clause (1)new text end , to be used for the purposes described
in sections 137.38 to 137.40, it shall comply with the duties for which the transfer is made.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144A.19, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Membership terms, compensation of members, removal of members,
the filling of membership vacancies, fiscal year and reporting requirements, the provision
of staff, administrative services and office space, the review and processing of complaints,
the setting of board fees and other provisions relating to board operations for the board of
deleted text begin examinersdeleted text end new text begin executivesnew text end shall be as provided in chapter 214.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 144G.50, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
(a) The contract must include in a conspicuous place
and manner on the contract the legal name and the license number of the facility.
(b) The contract must include the name, telephone number, and physical mailing address,
which may not be a public or private post office box, of:
(1) the facility and contracted service provider when applicable;
(2) the licensee of the facility;
(3) the managing agent of the facility, if applicable; and
(4) the authorized agent for the facility.
(c) The contract must include:
(1) a disclosure of the category of assisted living facility license held by the facility and,
if the facility is not an assisted living facility with dementia care, a disclosure that it does
not hold an assisted living facility with dementia care license;
(2) a description of all the terms and conditions of the contract, including a description
of and any limitations to the housing or assisted living services to be provided for the
contracted amount;
(3) a delineation of the cost and nature of any other services to be provided for an
additional fee;
(4) a delineation and description of any additional fees the resident may be required to
pay if the resident's condition changes during the term of the contract;
(5) a delineation of the grounds under which the resident may be discharged, evicted,
or transferred or have services terminated;
(6) billing and payment procedures and requirements; and
(7) disclosure of the facility's ability to provide specialized diets.
(d) The contract must include a description of the facility's complaint resolution process
available to residents, including the name and contact information of the person representing
the facility who is designated to handle and resolve complaints.
(e) The contract must include a clear and conspicuous notice of:
(1) the right under section 144G.54 to appeal the termination of an assisted living contract;
(2) the facility's policy regarding transfer of residents within the facility, under what
circumstances a transfer may occur, and the circumstances under which resident consent is
required for a transfer;
(3) contact information for the Office of Ombudsman for Long-Term Care, the
Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities, and the Office of Health
Facility Complaints;
(4) the resident's right to obtain services from an unaffiliated service provider;
(5) a description of the facility's policies related to medical assistance waivers under
chapter 256S and section 256B.49 and the housing support program under chapter 256I,
including:
(i) whether the facility is enrolled with the commissioner of human services to provide
customized living services under medical assistance waivers;
(ii) whether the facility has an agreement to provide housing support under section
256I.04, subdivision 2, paragraph (b);
(iii) whether there is a limit on the number of people residing at the facility who can
receive customized living services or participate in the housing support program at any
point in time. If so, the limit must be provided;
(iv) whether the facility requires a resident to pay privately for a period of time prior to
accepting payment under medical assistance waivers or the housing support program, and
if so, the length of time that private payment is required;
(v) a statement that medical assistance waivers provide payment for services, but do not
cover the cost of rent;
(vi) a statement that residents may be eligible for assistance with rent through the housing
support program; and
(vii) a description of the rent requirements for people who are eligible for medical
assistance waivers but who are not eligible for assistance through the housing support
program;
(6) the contact information to obtain long-term care consulting services under section
256B.0911; and
(7) the toll-free phone number for the Minnesota Adult Abuse Reporting Center.
deleted text begin
(f) The contract must include a description of the facility's complaint resolution process
available to residents, including the name and contact information of the person representing
the facility who is designated to handle and resolve complaints.
deleted text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148.5194, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
All fees are nonrefundable. The commissioner shall only use fees
collected under this section for the purposes of administering this chapter. The legislature
must not transfer money generated by these fees from the state government special revenue
fund to the general fund. deleted text begin Surcharges collected by the commissioner of health under section
16E.22 are not subject to this subdivision.
deleted text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148E.065, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Nothing in this chapter may be construed to prevent
members of other professions or occupations from performing functions for which they are
qualified or licensed. This exception includes but is not limited to: licensed physicians,
registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, licensed psychologists, psychological
practitioners, probation officers, members of the clergy and Christian Science practitioners,
attorneys, marriage and family therapists, alcohol and drug counselors, professional
counselors, school counselors, and deleted text begin registereddeleted text end new text begin licensednew text end occupational therapists or deleted text begin certifieddeleted text end new text begin
licensednew text end occupational therapist assistants. These persons must not, however, hold themselves
out to the public by any title or description stating or implying that they are engaged in the
practice of social work, or that they are licensed to engage in the practice of social work.
Persons engaged in the practice of social work are not exempt from the board's jurisdiction
solely by the use of one of the titles in this subdivision.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148E.075, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
A licensee may apply for temporary leave license, emeritus inactive
license, or emeritus active license:
(1) at any time when currently licensed under section 148E.055deleted text begin , 148E.0555, 148E.0556,
or 148E.0557,deleted text end or when licensed as specified in this section, by submitting an application
form required by the board; or
(2) as an alternative to applying for the renewal of a license by so recording on the
application form required by the board and submitting the completed, signed application to
the board.
An application that is not completed or signed, or that is not accompanied by the correct
fee, must be returned to the applicant, along with any fee submitted, and is void. For
applications submitted electronically, a "signed application" means providing an attestation
as specified by the board.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 151.01, subdivision 27, is amended
to read:
"Practice of pharmacy" means:
(1) interpretation and evaluation of prescription drug orders;
(2) compounding, labeling, and dispensing drugs and devices (except labeling by a
manufacturer or packager of nonprescription drugs or commercially packaged legend drugs
and devices);
(3) participation in clinical interpretations and monitoring of drug therapy for assurance
of safe and effective use of drugs, including the performance of laboratory tests that are
waived under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988, United States Code,
title 42, section 263a et seq., provided that a pharmacist may interpret the results of laboratory
tests but may modify drug therapy only pursuant to a protocol or collaborative practice
agreement;
(4) participation in drug and therapeutic device selection; drug administration for first
dosage and medical emergencies; intramuscular and subcutaneous administration used for
the treatment of alcohol or opioid dependence; drug regimen reviews; and drug or
drug-related research;
(5) drug administration, through intramuscular and subcutaneous administration used
to treat mental illnesses as permitted under the following conditions:
(i) upon the order of a prescriber and the prescriber is notified after administration is
complete; or
(ii) pursuant to a protocol or collaborative practice agreement as defined by section
151.01, subdivisions 27b and 27c, and participation in the initiation, management,
modification, administration, and discontinuation of drug therapy is according to the protocol
or collaborative practice agreement between the pharmacist and a dentist, optometrist,
physician, podiatrist, or veterinarian, or an advanced practice registered nurse authorized
to prescribe, dispense, and administer under section 148.235. Any changes in drug therapy
or medication administration made pursuant to a protocol or collaborative practice agreement
must be documented by the pharmacist in the patient's medical record or reported by the
pharmacist to a practitioner responsible for the patient's care;
(6) participation in administration of influenza vaccines to all eligible individuals six
years of age and older and all other vaccines to patients 13 years of age and older by written
protocol with a physician licensed under chapter 147, a physician assistant authorized to
prescribe drugs under chapter 147A, or an advanced practice registered nurse authorized to
prescribe drugs under section 148.235, provided that:
(i) the protocol includes, at a minimum:
(A) the name, dose, and route of each vaccine that may be given;
(B) the patient population for whom the vaccine may be given;
(C) contraindications and precautions to the vaccine;
(D) the procedure for handling an adverse reaction;
(E) the name, signature, and address of the physician, physician assistant, or advanced
practice registered nurse;
(F) a telephone number at which the physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
registered nurse can be contacted; and
(G) the date and time period for which the protocol is valid;
(ii) the pharmacist has successfully completed a program approved by the Accreditation
Council for Pharmacy Education specifically for the administration of immunizations or a
program approved by the board;
(iii) the pharmacist utilizes the Minnesota Immunization Information Connection to
assess the immunization status of individuals prior to the administration of vaccines, except
when administering influenza vaccines to individuals age nine and older;
(iv) the pharmacist reports the administration of the immunization to the Minnesota
Immunization Information Connection; and
(v) the pharmacist complies with guidelines for vaccines and immunizations established
by the federal Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, except that a pharmacist
does not need to comply with those portions of the guidelines that establish immunization
schedules when administering a vaccine pursuant to a valid, patient-specific order issued
by a physician licensed under chapter 147, a physician assistant authorized to prescribe
drugs under chapter 147A, or an advanced practice nurse authorized to prescribe drugs
under section 148.235, provided that the order is consistent with the United States Food
and Drug Administration approved labeling of the vaccine;
(7) participation in the initiation, management, modification, and discontinuation of
drug therapy according to a written protocol or collaborative practice agreement between:
(i) one or more pharmacists and one or more dentists, optometrists, physicians, podiatrists,
or veterinarians; or (ii) one or more pharmacists and one or more physician assistants
authorized to prescribe, dispense, and administer under chapter 147A, or advanced practice
nurses authorized to prescribe, dispense, and administer under section 148.235. Any changes
in drug therapy made pursuant to a protocol or collaborative practice agreement must be
documented by the pharmacist in the patient's medical record or reported by the pharmacist
to a practitioner responsible for the patient's care;
(8) participation in the storage of drugs and the maintenance of records;
(9) patient counseling on therapeutic values, content, hazards, and uses of drugs and
devices;
(10) offering or performing those acts, services, operations, or transactions necessary
in the conduct, operation, management, and control of a pharmacy; and
(11) participation in the initiation, management, modification, and discontinuation of
therapy with opiate antagonists, as defined in section 604A.04, subdivision 1, pursuant to:
(i) a written protocol as allowed under clause deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end ; or
(ii) a written protocol with a community health board medical consultant or a practitioner
designated by the commissioner of health, as allowed under section 151.37, subdivision 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 151.01, subdivision 27a, is amended to read:
"Protocol" means:
(1) a specific written plan that describes the nature and scope of activities that a
pharmacist may engage in when initiating, managing, modifying, or discontinuing drug
therapy as allowed in subdivision 27, clause deleted text begin (6)deleted text end new text begin (7)new text end ; or
(2) a specific written plan that authorizes a pharmacist to administer vaccines and that
complies with subdivision 27, clause deleted text begin (5)deleted text end new text begin (6)new text end .
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 151.43, is amended to read:
Sections 151.43 to deleted text begin 151.51deleted text end new text begin 151.471new text end apply to any person engaging in the wholesale
distribution of drugs within the state and to persons operating as third-party logistics
providers.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 151.441, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 152.126, subdivision 6, is amended
to read:
(a) Except as indicated in this subdivision,
the data submitted to the board under subdivision 4 is private data on individuals as defined
in section 13.02, subdivision 12, and not subject to public disclosure.
(b) Except as specified in subdivision 5, the following persons shall be considered
permissible users and may access the data submitted under subdivision 4 in the same or
similar manner, and for the same or similar purposes, as those persons who are authorized
to access similar private data on individuals under federal and state law:
(1) a prescriber or an agent or employee of the prescriber to whom the prescriber has
delegated the task of accessing the data, to the extent the information relates specifically to
a current patient, to whom the prescriber is:
(i) prescribing or considering prescribing any controlled substance;
(ii) providing emergency medical treatment for which access to the data may be necessary;
(iii) providing care, and the prescriber has reason to believe, based on clinically valid
indications, that the patient is potentially abusing a controlled substance; or
(iv) providing other medical treatment for which access to the data may be necessary
for a clinically valid purpose and the patient has consented to access to the submitted data,
and with the provision that the prescriber remains responsible for the use or misuse of data
accessed by a delegated agent or employee;
(2) a dispenser or an agent or employee of the dispenser to whom the dispenser has
delegated the task of accessing the data, to the extent the information relates specifically to
a current patient to whom that dispenser is dispensing or considering dispensing any
controlled substance and with the provision that the dispenser remains responsible for the
use or misuse of data accessed by a delegated agent or employee;
(3) a licensed pharmacist who is providing pharmaceutical care for which access to the
data may be necessary to the extent that the information relates specifically to a current
patient for whom the pharmacist is providing pharmaceutical care: (i) if the patient has
consented to access to the submitted data; or (ii) if the pharmacist is consulted by a prescriber
who is requesting data in accordance with clause (1);
(4) an individual who is the recipient of a controlled substance prescription for which
data was submitted under subdivision 4, or a guardian of the individual, parent or guardian
of a minor, or health care agent of the individual acting under a health care directive under
chapter 145C. For purposes of this clause, access by individuals includes persons in the
definition of an individual under section 13.02;
(5) personnel or designees of a health-related licensing board listed in section 214.01,
subdivision 2, or of the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board, assigned to conduct
a bona fide investigation of a complaint received by that board that alleges that a specific
licensee is impaired by use of a drug for which data is collected under subdivision 4, has
engaged in activity that would constitute a crime as defined in section 152.025, or has
engaged in the behavior specified in subdivision 5, paragraph (a);
(6) personnel of the board engaged in the collection, review, and analysis of controlled
substance prescription information as part of the assigned duties and responsibilities under
this section;
(7) authorized personnel of a vendor under contract with the state of Minnesota who are
engaged in the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the prescription
monitoring program as part of the assigned duties and responsibilities of their employment,
provided that access to data is limited to the minimum amount necessary to carry out such
duties and responsibilities, and subject to the requirement of de-identification and time limit
on retention of data specified in subdivision 5, paragraphs (d) and (e);
(8) federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities acting pursuant to a valid search
warrant;
(9) personnel of the Minnesota health care programs assigned to use the data collected
under this section to identify and manage recipients whose usage of controlled substances
may warrant restriction to a single primary care provider, a single outpatient pharmacy, and
a single hospital;
(10) personnel of the Department of Human Services assigned to access the data pursuant
to paragraph deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end ;
(11) personnel of the health professionals services program established under section
214.31, to the extent that the information relates specifically to an individual who is currently
enrolled in and being monitored by the program, and the individual consents to access to
that information. The health professionals services program personnel shall not provide this
data to a health-related licensing board or the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory
Board, except as permitted under section 214.33, subdivision 3; and
(12) personnel or designees of a health-related licensing board listed in section 214.01,
subdivision 2, assigned to conduct a bona fide investigation of a complaint received by that
board that alleges that a specific licensee is inappropriately prescribing controlled substances
as defined in this section.
(c) By July 1, 2017, every prescriber licensed by a health-related licensing board listed
in section 214.01, subdivision 2, practicing within this state who is authorized to prescribe
controlled substances for humans and who holds a current registration issued by the federal
Drug Enforcement Administration, and every pharmacist licensed by the board and practicing
within the state, shall register and maintain a user account with the prescription monitoring
program. Data submitted by a prescriber, pharmacist, or their delegate during the registration
application process, other than their name, license number, and license type, is classified
as private pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 12.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), beginning January 1, 2021, a prescriber or an agent
or employee of the prescriber to whom the prescriber has delegated the task of accessing
the data, must access the data submitted under subdivision 4 to the extent the information
relates specifically to the patient:
(1) before the prescriber issues an initial prescription order for a Schedules II through
IV opiate controlled substance to the patient; and
(2) at least once every three months for patients receiving an opiate for treatment of
chronic pain or participating in medically assisted treatment for an opioid addiction.
(e) Paragraph (d) does not apply if:
(1) the patient is receiving palliative care, or hospice or other end-of-life care;
(2) the patient is being treated for pain due to cancer or the treatment of cancer;
(3) the prescription order is for a number of doses that is intended to last the patient five
days or less and is not subject to a refill;
(4) the prescriber and patient have a current or ongoing provider/patient relationship of
a duration longer than one year;
(5) the prescription order is issued within 14 days following surgery or three days
following oral surgery or follows the prescribing protocols established under the opioid
prescribing improvement program under section 256B.0638;
(6) the controlled substance is prescribed or administered to a patient who is admitted
to an inpatient hospital;
(7) the controlled substance is lawfully administered by injection, ingestion, or any other
means to the patient by the prescriber, a pharmacist, or by the patient at the direction of a
prescriber and in the presence of the prescriber or pharmacist;
(8) due to a medical emergency, it is not possible for the prescriber to review the data
before the prescriber issues the prescription order for the patient; or
(9) the prescriber is unable to access the data due to operational or other technological
failure of the program so long as the prescriber reports the failure to the board.
(f) Only permissible users identified in paragraph (b), clauses (1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (9),
and (10), may directly access the data electronically. No other permissible users may directly
access the data electronically. If the data is directly accessed electronically, the permissible
user shall implement and maintain a comprehensive information security program that
contains administrative, technical, and physical safeguards that are appropriate to the user's
size and complexity, and the sensitivity of the personal information obtained. The permissible
user shall identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external risks to the security,
confidentiality, and integrity of personal information that could result in the unauthorized
disclosure, misuse, or other compromise of the information and assess the sufficiency of
any safeguards in place to control the risks.
(g) The board shall not release data submitted under subdivision 4 unless it is provided
with evidence, satisfactory to the board, that the person requesting the information is entitled
to receive the data.
(h) The board shall maintain a log of all persons who access the data for a period of at
least three years and shall ensure that any permissible user complies with paragraph (c)
prior to attaining direct access to the data.
(i) Section 13.05, subdivision 6, shall apply to any contract the board enters into pursuant
to subdivision 2. A vendor shall not use data collected under this section for any purpose
not specified in this section.
(j) The board may participate in an interstate prescription monitoring program data
exchange system provided that permissible users in other states have access to the data only
as allowed under this section, and that section 13.05, subdivision 6, applies to any contract
or memorandum of understanding that the board enters into under this paragraph.
(k) With available appropriations, the commissioner of human services shall establish
and implement a system through which the Department of Human Services shall routinely
access the data for the purpose of determining whether any client enrolled in an opioid
treatment program licensed according to chapter 245A has been prescribed or dispensed a
controlled substance in addition to that administered or dispensed by the opioid treatment
program. When the commissioner determines there have been multiple prescribers or multiple
prescriptions of controlled substances, the commissioner shall:
(1) inform the medical director of the opioid treatment program only that the
commissioner determined the existence of multiple prescribers or multiple prescriptions of
controlled substances; and
(2) direct the medical director of the opioid treatment program to access the data directly,
review the effect of the multiple prescribers or multiple prescriptions, and document the
review.
If determined necessary, the commissioner of human services shall seek a federal waiver
of, or exception to, any applicable provision of Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section
2.34, paragraph (c), prior to implementing this paragraph.
(l) The board shall review the data submitted under subdivision 4 on at least a quarterly
basis and shall establish criteria, in consultation with the advisory task force, for referring
information about a patient to prescribers and dispensers who prescribed or dispensed the
prescriptions in question if the criteria are met.
(m) The board shall conduct random audits, on at least a quarterly basis, of electronic
access by permissible users, as identified in paragraph (b), clauses (1), (2), (3), (6), (7), (9),
and (10), to the data in subdivision 4, to ensure compliance with permissible use as defined
in this section. A permissible user whose account has been selected for a random audit shall
respond to an inquiry by the board, no later than 30 days after receipt of notice that an audit
is being conducted. Failure to respond may result in deactivation of access to the electronic
system and referral to the appropriate health licensing board, or the commissioner of human
services, for further action. The board shall report the results of random audits to the chairs
and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health
and human services policy and finance and government data practices.
(n) A permissible user who has delegated the task of accessing the data in subdivision
4 to an agent or employee shall audit the use of the electronic system by delegated agents
or employees on at least a quarterly basis to ensure compliance with permissible use as
defined in this section. When a delegated agent or employee has been identified as
inappropriately accessing data, the permissible user must immediately remove access for
that individual and notify the board within seven days. The board shall notify all permissible
users associated with the delegated agent or employee of the alleged violation.
(o) A permissible user who delegates access to the data submitted under subdivision 4
to an agent or employee shall terminate that individual's access to the data within three
business days of the agent or employee leaving employment with the permissible user. The
board may conduct random audits to determine compliance with this requirement.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 155A.271, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
(a) Only a board-licensed school of
cosmetology, a postsecondary institution as defined in section 136A.103, paragraph (a), or
a board-recognized professional association organized under chapter 317A may be approved
by the board to offer continuing education for credit under subdivision 1, paragraph (a).
Continuing education under subdivision 1, paragraph (b), may be offered by a:
(1) board-licensed school of cosmetology;
(2) board-recognized professional association organized under chapter 317A; or
(3) board-licensed salon.
An approved school or professional association may offer web-based continuing education
instruction to achieve maximum involvement of licensees. Continuing education providers
are encouraged to offer classes available in foreign language formats.
(b) Board approval of any continuing education provider is valid for one calendar year
and is contingent upon submission and preapproval of the lesson plan or plans with learning
objectives for the class to be offered and the payment of the application fee in section
155A.25, subdivision 1a, paragraph (d), clause deleted text begin (11)deleted text end new text begin (10)new text end . The board shall maintain a list of
approved providers and courses on the board's website. The board may revoke authorization
of a continuing education provider at any time for just cause and the board may demand
return of documents required under subdivision 3.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 157.22, is amended to read:
This chapter does not apply to:
(1) interstate carriers under the supervision of the United States Department of Health
and Human Services;
(2) weddings, fellowship meals, or funerals conducted by a faith-based organization
using any building constructed and primarily used for religious worship or education;
(3) any building owned, operated, and used by a college or university in accordance
with health regulations promulgated by the college or university under chapter 14;
(4) any person, firm, or corporation whose principal mode of business is licensed under
sections 28A.04 and 28A.05, is exempt at that premises from licensure as a food or beverage
establishment; provided that the holding of any license pursuant to sections 28A.04 and
28A.05 shall not exempt any person, firm, or corporation from the applicable provisions of
this chapter or the rules of the state commissioner of health relating to food and beverage
service establishments;
(5) family day care homes and group family day care homes governed by sections
245A.01 to 245A.16;
(6) nonprofit senior citizen centers for the sale of home-baked goods;
(7) fraternal, sportsman, or patriotic organizations that are tax exempt under section
501(c)(3), 501(c)(4), 501(c)(6), 501(c)(7), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue
Code of 1986, or organizations related to, affiliated with, or supported by such fraternal,
sportsman, or patriotic organizations for events held in the building or on the grounds of
the organization and at which home-prepared food is donated by organization members for
sale at the events, provided:
(i) the event is not a circus, carnival, or fair;
(ii) the organization controls the admission of persons to the event, the event agenda, or
both; and
(iii) the organization's licensed kitchen is not used in any manner for the event;
(8) food not prepared at an establishment and brought in by individuals attending a
potluck event for consumption at the potluck event. An organization sponsoring a potluck
event under this clause may advertise the potluck event to the public through any means.
Individuals who are not members of an organization sponsoring a potluck event under this
clause may attend the potluck event and consume the food at the event. Licensed food
establishments other than schools cannot be sponsors of potluck events. A school may
sponsor and hold potluck events in areas of the school other than the school's kitchen,
provided that the school's kitchen is not used in any manner for the potluck event. For
purposes of this clause, "school" means a public school as defined in section 120A.05,
subdivisions 9, 11, 13, and 17, or a nonpublic school, church, or religious organization at
which a child is provided with instruction in compliance with sections 120A.22 and 120A.24.
Potluck event food shall not be brought into a licensed food establishment kitchen;
(9) a home school in which a child is provided instruction at home;
(10) school concession stands serving commercially prepared, nonpotentially hazardous
foods, as defined in Minnesota Rules, chapter 4626;
(11) group residential facilities of ten or fewer beds licensed by the commissioner of
human services under Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, provided the facility employs or
contracts with a certified food manager under Minnesota Rules, part 4626.2015;
(12) food served at fund-raisers or community events conducted in the building or on
the grounds of a faith-based organization, provided that a certified food manager, or a
volunteer trained in a food safety course, trains the food preparation workers in safe food
handling practices. This exemption does not apply to faith-based organizations at the state
agricultural society or county fairs or to faith-based organizations that choose to apply for
a license;
(13) food service events conducted following a disaster for purposes of feeding disaster
relief staff and volunteers serving commercially prepared, nonpotentially hazardous foods,
as defined in Minnesota Rules, chapter 4626;
(14) chili or soup served at a chili or soup cook-off fund-raiser conducted by a
community-based nonprofit organization, provided:
(i) the municipality where the event is located approves the event;
(ii) the sponsoring organization must develop food safety rules and ensure that participants
follow these rules; and
(iii) if the food is not prepared in a kitchen that is licensed or inspected, a visible sign
or placard must be posted that states: "These products are homemade and not subject to
state inspection."
Foods exempt under this clause must be labeled to accurately reflect the name and
address of the person preparing the foods; and
(15) a special event food stand or a seasonal temporary food stand provided:
(i) the stand is located on private property with the permission of the property owner;
(ii) the stand has gross receipts or contributions of $1,000 or less in a calendar year; and
(iii) the operator of the stand posts a sign or placard at the site that states "The products
sold at this stand are not subject to state inspection or regulation." if the stand offers for sale
potentially hazardous food as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 4626.0020, deleted text begin subdivisiondeleted text end new text begin
subpartnew text end 62.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 160.262, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
deleted text begin The departments and agencies
on the nonmotorized transportation advisory committee identified in section 174.37 must
provide information and advice for the bikeway design guidelines maintained by the
commissioner of transportation.deleted text end The commissioner may cooperate with and enter into
agreements with the United States government, any department of the state of Minnesota,
any unit of local government, any tribal government, or any public or private corporation
in order to effect the purposes of this section.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 160.266, subdivision 1b, is amended to read:
The commissioner of transportation must identify state
bicycle routes primarily on existing road right-of-way and trails. State bicycle routes must
be identified in cooperation with road and trail authorities, including the commissioner of
natural resourcesdeleted text begin , and with the advice of the advisory committee on nonmotorized
transportation under section 174.37deleted text end . In a metropolitan area, state bicycle routes must be
identified in coordination with the plans and priorities established by metropolitan planning
organizations, as defined in United States Code, title 23, section 134.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 160.276, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
The commissioner of transportation, by public negotiation or
bid, shall enter into agreements for the purposes of deleted text begin subdivisions 2a, 3a, and 8deleted text end new text begin this sectionnew text end .
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 161.082, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
By reason of insufficient funds in the county turnback
account to adequately repair and restore the former trunk highways or portions thereof that
have already reverted to counties, the commissioner of transportationdeleted text begin , after May 26, 1971,deleted text end
shall not revert to the counties any additional trunk highways or portions thereof until there
are adequate funds in such account to repair and restore such reverted highways to reasonable
standards, unless such reversion is necessary due to the constitutional limitations on the
mileage of the trunk highway system.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 161.166, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
If the appeal board recommends approval
of the final layout or does not submit its findings or recommendations within 60 days of
the hearing, in which case the deleted text begin thedeleted text end final layout is deemed approved, the commissioner may
prepare substantially similar final construction plans and proceed with the project. If the
final construction plans change access or traffic capacity or require additional acquisition
of right-of-way from the final layout approved by the appeal board, the commissioner shall
submit the portion of the final construction plan that shows the changes, to the governing
body for its approval or disapproval under section 161.164, subdivision 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 161.53, is amended to read:
(a) The commissioner may set aside in each fiscal year up to two percent of the total
amount of all funds appropriated to the commissioner other than county state-aid and
municipal state-aid highway funds for transportation research including public and private
research partnerships. The commissioner shall spend this money for (1) research to improve
the design, construction, maintenance, management, and environmental compatibility of
transportation systems, including research into and implementation of innovations in
bridge-monitoring technology and bridge inspection technology; bridge inspection techniques
and best practices; and the cost-effectiveness of deferred or lower cost highway and bridge
design and maintenance activities and their impacts on long-term trunk highway costs and
maintenance needs; (2) research on transportation policies that enhance energy efficiency
and economic development; (3) programs for implementing and monitoring research results;
and (4) development of transportation education and outreach activities.
(b) Of all funds appropriated to the commissioner other than state-aid funds, the
commissioner shall spend at least 0.1 percent, but not exceeding $2,000,000 in any fiscal
year, for research and related activities performed by the Center for Transportation Studies
of the University of Minnesota. The center shall establish a technology transfer and training
center for Minnesota transportation professionals. deleted text begin By June 30, 2018, the center shall conduct
research on transportation policy and economic competitiveness, including, but not limited
to, innovative transportation finance options and economic development, transportation
impacts of industry clusters and freight, and transportation technology impacts on economic
competitiveness.
deleted text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 169.18, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
(a) Upon a roadway designated and signposted for one-way
traffic as a one-way roadway, a vehicle shall be driven only in the direction designateddeleted text begin ;deleted text end new text begin .
new text end
(b) A vehicle passing around a rotary traffic island shall be driven only to the right of
such island.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 169.791, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Buses or other commercial vehicles operated by the Metropolitan
Council, commercial vehicles required to file proof of insurance pursuant to chapter 221,
and school buses as defined in section 171.01, subdivision deleted text begin 45deleted text end new text begin 46new text end , are exempt from this
section.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 169.881, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
(a) The commissioner may grant or deny a vehicle
platoon plan. The approved plan may include reasonable conditions and restrictions to
ensure public safety, minimize congestion, or prevent undue damage to roads or structures.
(b) The commissioner must provide written notice to the applicant and to the
commissioner of public safety if a plan is denied and deleted text begin listsdeleted text end new text begin must listnew text end the reasons for the denial.
The commissioner must approve or deny a plan within 60 days.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 169A.03, subdivision 20, is amended to read:
"Prior impaired driving conviction"
includes a prior conviction under:
(1) section 169A.20 (driving while impaired); 169A.31 (alcohol-related school bus or
Head Start bus driving); or 360.0752 (impaired aircraft operation);
(2) Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury,
substance-related offenses), subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6);
(3) Minnesota Statutes 1998, section 169.121 (driver under influence of alcohol or
controlled substance); 169.1211 (alcohol-related driving by commercial vehicle drivers);
or 169.129 (aggravated DWI-related violations; penalty);
(4) Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 84.91, subdivision 1, paragraph (a) (operating
snowmobile or all-terrain vehicle while impaired); or 86B.331, subdivision 1, paragraph
(a) (operating motorboat while impaired);
(5) Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury,
substance-related offenses), subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); subdivision 2, clauses (2) to
(6); subdivision 2a, clauses (2) to (6); subdivision 2b, clauses (2) to (6); subdivision 3,
clauses (2) to (6); or subdivision 4, clauses (2) to (6);
(6) section 609.2112, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6); 609.2113,
subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6), subdivision 2, clauses (2) to (6), or subdivision 3, clauses
(2) to (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6), or subdivision 2,
clauses (2) to (6); or
(7) an ordinance from this state, or a statute or ordinance from another state, in conformity
with any provision listed in clause (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6).
A "prior impaired driving conviction" also includes a prior juvenile adjudication that would
have been a prior impaired driving conviction if committed by an adult.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 169A.24, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
A person who violates section 169A.20 (driving while
impaired) is guilty of first-degree driving while impaired if the person:
(1) commits the violation within ten years of the first of three or more qualified prior
impaired driving incidents;
(2) has previously been convicted of a felony under this section; or
(3) has previously been convicted of a felony under:
(i) Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury,
substance-related offenses), subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6);
(ii) Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury,
substance-related offenses), subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); subdivision 2, clauses (2) to
(6); subdivision 2a, clauses (2) to (6); subdivision 3, clauses (2) to (6); or subdivision 4,
clauses (2) to (6);
(iii) section 609.2112, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6); 609.2113,
subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6), subdivision 2, clauses (2) to (6), or subdivision 3, clauses
(2) to (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6), or subdivision 2,
clauses (2) to (6); or
(iv) a statute from this state or another state in conformity with any provision listed in
item (i), (ii), or (iii).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.02, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Notwithstanding subdivision 2,
paragraph (b), the holder of a class D driver's license, without a school bus endorsement,
may operate a type A school bus or a multifunction school activity bus under the following
conditions:
(a) The operator is an employee of the entity that owns, leases, or contracts for the school
bus and is not solely hired to provide transportation services under this subdivision.
(b) The operator drives the school bus only from points of origin to points of destination,
not including home-to-school trips to pick up or drop off students.
(c) The operator is prohibited from using the eight-light system. Violation of this
paragraph is a misdemeanor.
(d) The operator's employer has adopted and implemented a policy that provides for
annual training and certification of the operator in:
(1) safe operation of the type of school bus the operator will be driving;
(2) understanding student behavior, including issues relating to students with disabilities;
(3) encouraging orderly conduct of students on the bus and handling incidents of
misconduct appropriately;
(4) knowing and understanding relevant laws, rules of the road, and local school bus
safety policies;
(5) handling emergency situations; and
(6) safe loading and unloading of students.
(e) A background check or background investigation of the operator has been conducted
that meets the requirements under section 122A.18, subdivision 8, or 123B.03 for teachers;
section 144.057 or chapter 245C for day care employees; or section 171.321, subdivision
3, for all other persons operating a school bus under this subdivision.
(f) Operators shall submit to a physical examination as required by section 171.321,
subdivision 2.
(g) The operator's driver's license is verified annually by the entity that owns, leases, or
contracts for the school bus.
(h) A person who sustains a conviction, as defined under section 609.02, of violating
section 169A.25, 169A.26, 169A.27, 169A.31, 169A.51, or 169A.52, or a similar statute
or ordinance of another state is precluded from operating a school bus for five years from
the date of conviction.
(i) A person who has ever been convicted of a disqualifying offense as defined in section
171.3215, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), may not operate a school bus under this subdivision.
(j) A person who sustains a conviction, as defined under section 609.02, of a fourth
moving offense in violation of chapter 169 is precluded from operating a school bus for one
year from the date of the last conviction.
(k) Students riding the school bus must have training required under section 123B.90,
subdivision 2.
(l) An operator must be trained in the proper use of child safety restraints as set forth in
the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration's "Guideline for the Safe Transportation
of Pre-school Age Children in School Buses," if child safety restraints are used by the
passengers.
(m) Annual certification of the requirements listed in this subdivision must be maintained
under separate file at the business location for each operator licensed under this subdivision
and subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (b)deleted text end new text begin (c)new text end , clause (5). The business manager, school board,
governing body of a nonpublic school, or any other entity that owns, leases, or contracts
for the school bus operating under this subdivision is responsible for maintaining these files
for inspection.
(n) The school bus must bear a current certificate of inspection issued under section
169.451.
(o) If the word "School" appears on the front and rear of the bus, the word "School"
must be covered by a sign that reads "Activities" when the bus is being operated under
authority of this subdivision.
(p) The type A-I school bus or multifunction school activity bus is designed to transport
15 or fewer passengers, including the driver.
(q) The school bus or multifunction school activity bus has a gross vehicle weight rating
of 14,500 pounds or less.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.075, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
An anatomical gift account is established in
the special revenue fund. The account deleted text begin consistdeleted text end new text begin consistsnew text end of funds donated under sections
168.013, subdivision 22, and 171.06, subdivision 2, and any other money donated, allotted,
transferred, or otherwise provided to the account. Money in the account is annually
appropriated to the commissioner for (1) grants under subdivision 2, and (2) administrative
expenses in implementing the donation and grant program.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.17, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
(a) As used in this
subdivision, "qualified prior impaired driving incident" has the meaning given in section
169A.03, subdivision 22.
(b) Upon receiving a record of a conviction for a violation of section 609.2112,
subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); 609.2113, subdivision 1, clause
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or subdivision 3, clause
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5),
or (6), or subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); the commissioner shall revoke the
driver's license or driving privileges of a person as follows:
(1) not less than ten years if the violation resulted in great bodily harm or death to another
and the person has two or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents within the past
ten years or three or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents, and with denial under
section 171.04, subdivision 1, clause (10), until rehabilitation is established according to
standards established by the commissioner;
(2) not less than eight years if the violation resulted in great bodily harm or death to
another and the person has a qualified prior impaired driving incident within the past ten
years;
(3) not less than six years if the violation resulted in great bodily harm or death to another;
(4) not less than six years if the violation resulted in bodily harm or substantial bodily
harm to another and the person has two or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents
within the past ten years or three or more qualified prior impaired driving incidents, and
with denial under section 171.04, subdivision 1, clause (10), until rehabilitation is established
according to standards established by the commissioner;
(5) not less than four years if the violation resulted in bodily harm or substantial bodily
harm to another and the person has a qualified prior impaired driving incident within the
past ten years; or
(6) not less than two years if the violation resulted in bodily harm or substantial bodily
harm to another.
(c) Section 169A.09 applies when determining the number of qualified prior impaired
driving incidents under this subdivision.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.175, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
The commissioner of public safety shall suspend
for 30 days the license of any person convicted or juvenile adjudicated delinquent for theft
of motor fuel under section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (1) or (18).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.187, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
The commissioner shall suspend the driver's license
of a person:
(1) for whom a peace officer has made the certification described in section 629.344
that probable cause exists to believe that the person violated section 609.2112, subdivision
1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); 609.2113, subdivision 1, clause (2), (3), (4),
(5), or (6); subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or subdivision 3, clause (2), (3),
(4), (5), or (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6), or
subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or
(2) who has been formally charged with a violation of section 609.20, 609.205, 609.2112,
609.2113, or 609.2114, resulting from the operation of a motor vehicle.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.187, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
If a person whose driver's license was suspended under subdivision 1
is later convicted of the underlying offense that resulted in the suspension and the
commissioner revokes the person's license, the commissioner shall credit the time accrued
under the suspension period toward the revocation period imposed under section 171.17,
subdivision 4, or for violations of section 609.20, 609.205, or 609.2112, subdivision 1,
new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (1), (7), or (8); 609.2113, subdivision 1, clause (1), (7), or (8);
subdivision 2, clause (1), (7), or (8); or subdivision 3, clause (1), (7), or (8); or 609.2114,
subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (1), (7), or (8), or subdivision 2, clause (1), (7), or (8).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 174.30, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) A special
transportation service that transports individuals occupying wheelchairs is subject to the
provisions of sections 299A.11 to deleted text begin 299A.18deleted text end new text begin 299A.17new text end concerning wheelchair securement
devices. The commissioners of transportation and public safety shall cooperate in the
enforcement of this section and sections 299A.11 to deleted text begin 299A.18deleted text end new text begin 299A.17new text end so that a single
inspection is sufficient to ascertain compliance with sections 299A.11 to deleted text begin 299A.18deleted text end new text begin 299A.17new text end
and with the standards adopted under this section. Representatives of the Department of
Transportation may inspect wheelchair securement devices in vehicles operated by special
transportation service providers to determine compliance with sections 299A.11 to deleted text begin 299A.18deleted text end new text begin
299A.17new text end and to issue certificates under section 299A.14, subdivision 4.
(b) In place of a certificate issued under section 299A.14, the commissioner may issue
a decal under subdivision 4 for a vehicle equipped with a wheelchair securement device if
the device complies with sections 299A.11 to deleted text begin 299A.18deleted text end new text begin 299A.17new text end and the decal displays the
information in section 299A.14, subdivision 4.
(c) For vehicles designated as protected transport under section 256B.0625, subdivision
17, paragraph (h), the commissioner of transportation, during the commissioner's inspection,
shall check to ensure the safety provisions contained in that paragraph are in working order.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 176.231, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
(a) Where death or serious injury occurs to an employee
during the course of employment, the employer shall report the injury or death to the
commissioner and insurer within 48 hours after its occurrence. Where any other injury
occurs which wholly or partly incapacitates the employee from performing labor or service
for more than three calendar days, the employer shall report the injury to the insurer on a
form prescribed by the commissioner within ten days from its occurrence.
(b) An insurer and self-insured employer shall report the injury to the commissioner no
later than 14 days from its occurrence. If an injury has not previously been required to be
reported, the insurer or self-insured employer must report the injury to the commissioner,
in the manner and format prescribed by the commissioner, no later than 14 days after the
date that:
(1) any document initiating a dispute is filed under this chapter;
(2) a rehabilitation consultation report or a rehabilitation plan is filed under this chapter;
or
(3) permanent partial disability is ascertainable under section 176.101, subdivision deleted text begin 3deleted text end new text begin 2anew text end .
(c) Where an injury has once been reported but subsequently death ensues, the employer
shall report the death to the commissioner and insurer within 48 hours after the employer
receives notice of this fact.
(d) An employer who provides notice to the Occupational Safety and Health Division
of the Department of Labor and Industry of a fatality within the eight-hour time frame
required by law, or of an inpatient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye, within the
24-hour time frame required by law, has satisfied the employer's obligation under paragraph
(a).
(e) At the time an injury is required to be reported under paragraph (b), the insurer or
self-insured employer must also specify whether the injury is covered by a collective
bargaining agreement approved by the commissioner under section 176.1812. Notice must
be provided in the format and manner prescribed by the commissioner.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 216B.1641, is amended to read:
(a) The public utility subject to section 116C.779 shall file by September 30, 2013, a
plan with the commission to operate a community solar garden program which shall begin
operations within 90 days after commission approval of the plan. Other public utilities may
file an application at their election. The community solar garden program must be designed
to offset the energy use of not less than five subscribers in each community solar garden
facility of which no single subscriber has more than a 40 percent interest. The owner of the
community solar garden may be a public utility or any other entity or organization that
contracts to sell the output from the community solar garden to the utility under section
216B.164. There shall be no limitation on the number or cumulative generating capacity of
community solar garden facilities other than the limitations imposed under section 216B.164,
subdivision 4c, or other limitations provided in law or regulations.
(b) A solar garden is a facility that generates electricity by means of a ground-mounted
or roof-mounted solar photovoltaic device whereby subscribers receive a bill credit for the
electricity generated in proportion to the size of their subscription. The solar garden must
have a nameplate capacity of no more than one megawatt. Each subscription shall be sized
to represent at least 200 watts of the community solar garden's generating capacity and to
supply, when combined with other distributed generation resources serving the premises,
no more than 120 percent of the average annual consumption of electricity by each subscriber
at the premises to which the subscription is attributed.
(c) The solar generation facility must be located in the service territory of the public
utility filing the plan. Subscribers must be retail customers of the public utility located in
the same county or a county contiguous to where the facility is located.
(d) The public utility must purchase from the community solar garden all energy generated
by the solar garden. The purchase shall be at the rate calculated under section 216B.164,
subdivision 10, or, until that rate for the public utility has been approved by the commission,
the applicable retail rate. A solar garden is eligible for any incentive programs offered under
deleted text begin eitherdeleted text end section 116C.7792 deleted text begin or section 216C.415deleted text end . A subscriber's portion of the purchase shall
be provided by a credit on the subscriber's bill.
(e) The commission may approve, disapprove, or modify a community solar garden
program. Any plan approved by the commission must:
(1) reasonably allow for the creation, financing, and accessibility of community solar
gardens;
(2) establish uniform standards, fees, and processes for the interconnection of community
solar garden facilities that allow the utility to recover reasonable interconnection costs for
each community solar garden;
(3) not apply different requirements to utility and nonutility community solar garden
facilities;
(4) be consistent with the public interest;
(5) identify the information that must be provided to potential subscribers to ensure fair
disclosure of future costs and benefits of subscriptions;
(6) include a program implementation schedule;
(7) identify all proposed rules, fees, and charges; and
(8) identify the means by which the program will be promoted.
(f) Notwithstanding any other law, neither the manager of nor the subscribers to a
community solar garden facility shall be considered a utility solely as a result of their
participation in the community solar garden facility.
(g) Within 180 days of commission approval of a plan under this section, a utility shall
begin crediting subscriber accounts for each community solar garden facility in its service
territory, and shall file with the commissioner of commerce a description of its crediting
system.
(h) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "subscriber" means a retail customer of a utility who owns one or more subscriptions
of a community solar garden facility interconnected with that utility; and
(2) "subscription" means a contract between a subscriber and the owner of a solar garden.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 245.814, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Coverage shall apply to all foster homes licensed by
the Department of Human Services, licensed by a federally recognized tribal government,
or established by the juvenile court and certified by the commissioner of corrections pursuant
to section 260B.198, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (3), item (v), to the extent that the
liability is not covered by the provisions of the standard homeowner's or automobile insurance
policy. The insurance shall not cover property owned by the individual foster home provider,
damage caused intentionally by a person over 12 years of age, or property damage arising
out of business pursuits or the operation of any vehicle, machinery, or equipment.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245A.11, subdivision 7a, is amended
to read:
(a) The commissioner may grant an applicant or
license holder an adult foster care or community residential setting license for a residence
that does not have a caregiver in the residence during normal sleeping hours as required
under Minnesota Rules, part 9555.5105, subpart 37, item B, or section 245D.02, subdivision
33b, but uses monitoring technology to alert the license holder when an incident occurs that
may jeopardize the health, safety, or rights of a foster care recipient. The applicant or license
holder must comply with all other requirements under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105
to 9555.6265, or applicable requirements under chapter 245D, and the requirements under
this subdivision. The license printed by the commissioner must state in bold and large font:
(1) that the facility is under electronic monitoring; and
(2) the telephone number of the county's common entry point for making reports of
suspected maltreatment of vulnerable adults under section 626.557, subdivision 9.
(b) Applications for a license under this section must be submitted directly to the
Department of Human Services licensing division. The licensing division must immediately
notify the county licensing agency. The licensing division must collaborate with the county
licensing agency in the review of the application and the licensing of the program.
(c) Before a license is issued by the commissioner, and for the duration of the license,
the applicant or license holder must establish, maintain, and document the implementation
of written policies and procedures addressing the requirements in paragraphs (d) through
(f).
(d) The applicant or license holder must have policies and procedures that:
(1) establish characteristics of target populations that will be admitted into the home,
and characteristics of populations that will not be accepted into the home;
(2) explain the discharge process when a resident served by the program requires
overnight supervision or other services that cannot be provided by the license holder due
to the limited hours that the license holder is on site;
(3) describe the types of events to which the program will respond with a physical
presence when those events occur in the home during time when staff are not on site, and
how the license holder's response plan meets the requirements in paragraph (e), clause (1)
or (2);
(4) establish a process for documenting a review of the implementation and effectiveness
of the response protocol for the response required under paragraph (e), clause (1) or (2).
The documentation must include:
(i) a description of the triggering incident;
(ii) the date and time of the triggering incident;
(iii) the time of the response or responses under paragraph (e), clause (1) or (2);
(iv) whether the response met the resident's needs;
(v) whether the existing policies and response protocols were followed; and
(vi) whether the existing policies and protocols are adequate or need modification.
When no physical presence response is completed for a three-month period, the license
holder's written policies and procedures must require a physical presence response drill to
be conducted for which the effectiveness of the response protocol under paragraph (e),
clause (1) or (2), will be reviewed and documented as required under this clause; and
(5) establish that emergency and nonemergency phone numbers are posted in a prominent
location in a common area of the home where they can be easily observed by a person
responding to an incident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.
(e) The license holder must document and include in the license application which
response alternative under clause (1) or (2) is in place for responding to situations that
present a serious risk to the health, safety, or rights of residents served by the program:
(1) response alternative (1) requires only the technology to provide an electronic
notification or alert to the license holder that an event is underway that requires a response.
Under this alternative, no more than ten minutes will pass before the license holder will be
physically present on site to respond to the situation; or
(2) response alternative (2) requires the electronic notification and alert system under
alternative (1), but more than ten minutes may pass before the license holder is present on
site to respond to the situation. Under alternative (2), all of the following conditions are
met:
(i) the license holder has a written description of the interactive technological applications
that will assist the license holder in communicating with and assessing the needs related to
the care, health, and safety of the foster care recipients. This interactive technology must
permit the license holder to remotely assess the well being of the resident served by the
program without requiring the initiation of the foster care recipient. Requiring the foster
care recipient to initiate a telephone call does not meet this requirement;
(ii) the license holder documents how the remote license holder is qualified and capable
of meeting the needs of the foster care recipients and assessing foster care recipients' needs
under item (i) during the absence of the license holder on site;
(iii) the license holder maintains written procedures to dispatch emergency response
personnel to the site in the event of an identified emergency; and
(iv) each resident's individualized plan of care, coordinated service and support plan
under sections 256B.0913, subdivision 8; 256B.092, subdivision 1b; 256B.49, subdivision
15; and 256S.10, if required, or individual resident placement agreement under Minnesota
Rules, part 9555.5105, subpart 19, if required, identifies the maximum response time, which
may be greater than ten minutes, for the license holder to be on site for that resident.
(f) Each resident's placement agreement, individual service agreement, and plan must
clearly state that the adult foster care or community residential setting license category is
a program without the presence of a caregiver in the residence during normal sleeping hours;
the protocols in place for responding to situations that present a serious risk to the health,
safety, or rights of residents served by the program under paragraph (e), clause (1) or (2);
and a signed informed consent from each resident served by the program or the person's
legal representative documenting the person's or legal representative's agreement with
placement in the program. If electronic monitoring technology is used in the home, the
informed consent form must also explain the following:
(1) how any electronic monitoring is incorporated into the alternative supervision system;
(2) the backup system for any electronic monitoring in times of electrical outages or
other equipment malfunctions;
(3) how the caregivers or direct support staff are trained on the use of the technology;
(4) the event types and license holder response times established under paragraph (e);
(5) how the license holder protects each resident's privacy related to electronic monitoring
and related to any electronically recorded data generated by the monitoring system. A
resident served by the program may not be removed from a program under this subdivision
for failure to consent to electronic monitoring. The consent form must explain where and
how the electronically recorded data is stored, with whom it will be shared, and how long
it is retained; and
(6) the risks and benefits of the alternative overnight supervision system.
The written explanations under clauses (1) to (6) may be accomplished through
cross-references to other policies and procedures as long as they are explained to the person
giving consent, and the person giving consent is offered a copy.
(g) Nothing in this section requires the applicant or license holder to develop or maintain
separate or duplicative policies, procedures, documentation, consent forms, or individual
plans that may be required for other licensing standards, if the requirements of this section
are incorporated into those documents.
(h) The commissioner may grant variances to the requirements of this section according
to section 245A.04, subdivision 9.
(i) For the purposes of paragraphs (d) through (h), "license holder" has the meaning
under section deleted text begin 245A.2deleted text end new text begin 245A.02new text end , subdivision 9, and additionally includes all staff, volunteers,
and contractors affiliated with the license holder.
(j) For the purposes of paragraph (e), the terms "assess" and "assessing" mean to remotely
determine what action the license holder needs to take to protect the well-being of the foster
care recipient.
(k) The commissioner shall evaluate license applications using the requirements in
paragraphs (d) to (f). The commissioner shall provide detailed application forms, including
a checklist of criteria needed for approval.
(l) To be eligible for a license under paragraph (a), the adult foster care or community
residential setting license holder must not have had a conditional license issued under section
245A.06 or any licensing sanction under section 245A.07 during the prior 24 months based
on failure to provide adequate supervision, health care services, or resident safety in the
adult foster care home or community residential setting.
(m) The commissioner shall review an application for an alternative overnight supervision
license within 60 days of receipt of the application. When the commissioner receives an
application that is incomplete because the applicant failed to submit required documents or
that is substantially deficient because the documents submitted do not meet licensing
requirements, the commissioner shall provide the applicant written notice that the application
is incomplete or substantially deficient. In the written notice to the applicant, the
commissioner shall identify documents that are missing or deficient and give the applicant
45 days to resubmit a second application that is substantially complete. An applicant's failure
to submit a substantially complete application after receiving notice from the commissioner
is a basis for license denial under section 245A.05. The commissioner shall complete
subsequent review within 30 days.
(n) Once the application is considered complete under paragraph (m), the commissioner
will approve or deny an application for an alternative overnight supervision license within
60 days.
(o) For the purposes of this subdivision, "supervision" means:
(1) oversight by a caregiver or direct support staff as specified in the individual resident's
place agreement or coordinated service and support plan and awareness of the resident's
needs and activities; and
(2) the presence of a caregiver or direct support staff in a residence during normal sleeping
hours, unless a determination has been made and documented in the individual's coordinated
service and support plan that the individual does not require the presence of a caregiver or
direct support staff during normal sleeping hours.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 245C.22, subdivision 5, is amended
to read:
(a) If the commissioner sets aside a disqualification under
this section, the disqualified individual remains disqualified, but may hold a license and
have direct contact with or access to persons receiving services. Except as provided in
paragraph (b), the commissioner's set-aside of a disqualification is limited solely to the
licensed program, applicant, or agency specified in the set aside notice under section 245C.23.
For personal care provider organizations, the commissioner's set-aside may further be limited
to a specific individual who is receiving services. For new background studies required
under section 245C.04, subdivision 1, paragraph (h), if an individual's disqualification was
previously set aside for the license holder's program and the new background study results
in no new information that indicates the individual may pose a risk of harm to persons
receiving services from the license holder, the previous set-aside shall remain in effect.
(b) If the commissioner has previously set aside an individual's disqualification for one
or more programs or agencies, and the individual is the subject of a subsequent background
study for a different program or agency, the commissioner shall determine whether the
disqualification is set aside for the program or agency that initiated the subsequent
background study. A notice of a set-aside under paragraph (c) shall be issued within 15
working days if all of the following criteria are met:
(1) the subsequent background study was initiated in connection with a program licensed
or regulated under the same provisions of law and rule for at least one program for which
the individual's disqualification was previously set aside by the commissioner;
(2) the individual is not disqualified for an offense specified in section 245C.15,
subdivision 1 or 2;
(3) the commissioner has received no new information to indicate that the individual
may pose a risk of harm to any person served by the program; and
(4) the previous set-aside was not limited to a specific person receiving services.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), clause (2), for an individual who is employed in the
substance use disorder field, if the commissioner has previously set aside an individual's
disqualification for one or more programs or agencies in the substance use disorder treatment
field, and the individual is the subject of a subsequent background study for a different
program or agency in the substance use disorder treatment field, the commissioner shall set
aside the disqualification for the program or agency in the substance use disorder treatment
field that initiated the subsequent background study when the criteria under paragraph (b),
clauses (1), (3), and (4), are met and the individual is not disqualified for an offense specified
in section deleted text begin 254C.15deleted text end new text begin 245C.15new text end , subdivision 1. A notice of a set-aside under paragraph (d) shall
be issued within 15 working days.
(d) When a disqualification is set aside under paragraph (b), the notice of background
study results issued under section 245C.17, in addition to the requirements under section
245C.17, shall state that the disqualification is set aside for the program or agency that
initiated the subsequent background study. The notice must inform the individual that the
individual may request reconsideration of the disqualification under section 245C.21 on the
basis that the information used to disqualify the individual is incorrect.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 256B.85, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this
subdivision have the meanings given.
(b) "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs" means eating, toileting, grooming, dressing,
bathing, mobility, positioning, and transferring.
(c) "Agency-provider model" means a method of CFSS under which a qualified agency
provides services and supports through the agency's own employees and policies. The agency
must allow the participant to have a significant role in the selection and dismissal of support
workers of their choice for the delivery of their specific services and supports.
(d) "Behavior" means a description of a need for services and supports used to determine
the home care rating and additional service units. The presence of Level I behavior is used
to determine the home care rating.
(e) "Budget model" means a service delivery method of CFSS that allows the use of a
service budget and assistance from a financial management services (FMS) provider for a
participant to directly employ support workers and purchase supports and goods.
(f) "Complex health-related needs" means an intervention listed in clauses (1) to (8) that
has been ordered by a physician, and is specified in a community deleted text begin services anddeleted text end support plan,
including:
(1) tube feedings requiring:
(i) a gastrojejunostomy tube; or
(ii) continuous tube feeding lasting longer than 12 hours per day;
(2) wounds described as:
(i) stage III or stage IV;
(ii) multiple wounds;
(iii) requiring sterile or clean dressing changes or a wound vac; or
(iv) open lesions such as burns, fistulas, tube sites, or ostomy sites that require specialized
care;
(3) parenteral therapy described as:
(i) IV therapy more than two times per week lasting longer than four hours for each
treatment; or
(ii) total parenteral nutrition (TPN) daily;
(4) respiratory interventions, including:
(i) oxygen required more than eight hours per day;
(ii) respiratory vest more than one time per day;
(iii) bronchial drainage treatments more than two times per day;
(iv) sterile or clean suctioning more than six times per day;
(v) dependence on another to apply respiratory ventilation augmentation devices such
as BiPAP and CPAP; and
(vi) ventilator dependence under section 256B.0651;
(5) insertion and maintenance of catheter, including:
(i) sterile catheter changes more than one time per month;
(ii) clean intermittent catheterization, and including self-catheterization more than six
times per day; or
(iii) bladder irrigations;
(6) bowel program more than two times per week requiring more than 30 minutes to
perform each time;
(7) neurological intervention, including:
(i) seizures more than two times per week and requiring significant physical assistance
to maintain safety; or
(ii) swallowing disorders diagnosed by a physician and requiring specialized assistance
from another on a daily basis; and
(8) other congenital or acquired diseases creating a need for significantly increased direct
hands-on assistance and interventions in six to eight activities of daily living.
(g) "Community first services and supports" or "CFSS" means the assistance and supports
program under this section needed for accomplishing activities of daily living, instrumental
activities of daily living, and health-related tasks through hands-on assistance to accomplish
the task or constant supervision and cueing to accomplish the task, or the purchase of goods
as defined in subdivision 7, clause (3), that replace the need for human assistance.
(h) "Community first services and supports service delivery plan" or "CFSS service
delivery plan" means a written document detailing the services and supports chosen by the
participant to meet assessed needs that are within the approved CFSS service authorization,
as determined in subdivision 8. Services and supports are based on the coordinated service
and support plan identified in section 256S.10.
(i) "Consultation services" means a Minnesota health care program enrolled provider
organization that provides assistance to the participant in making informed choices about
CFSS services in general and self-directed tasks in particular, and in developing a
person-centered CFSS service delivery plan to achieve quality service outcomes.
(j) "Critical activities of daily living" means transferring, mobility, eating, and toileting.
(k) "Dependency" in activities of daily living means a person requires hands-on assistance
or constant supervision and cueing to accomplish one or more of the activities of daily living
every day or on the days during the week that the activity is performed; however, a child
may not be found to be dependent in an activity of daily living if, because of the child's age,
an adult would either perform the activity for the child or assist the child with the activity
and the assistance needed is the assistance appropriate for a typical child of the same age.
(l) "Extended CFSS" means CFSS services and supports provided under CFSS that are
included in the CFSS service delivery plan through one of the home and community-based
services waivers and as approved and authorized under chapter 256S and sections 256B.092,
subdivision 5, and 256B.49, which exceed the amount, duration, and frequency of the state
plan CFSS services for participants.
(m) "Financial management services provider" or "FMS provider" means a qualified
organization required for participants using the budget model under subdivision 13 that is
an enrolled provider with the department to provide vendor fiscal/employer agent financial
management services (FMS).
(n) "Health-related procedures and tasks" means procedures and tasks related to the
specific assessed health needs of a participant that can be taught or assigned by a
state-licensed health care or mental health professional and performed by a support worker.
(o) "Instrumental activities of daily living" means activities related to living independently
in the community, including but not limited to: meal planning, preparation, and cooking;
shopping for food, clothing, or other essential items; laundry; housecleaning; assistance
with medications; managing finances; communicating needs and preferences during activities;
arranging supports; and assistance with traveling around and participating in the community.
(p) "Lead agency" has the meaning given in section 256B.0911, subdivision 1a, paragraph
(e).
(q) "Legal representative" means parent of a minor, a court-appointed guardian, or
another representative with legal authority to make decisions about services and supports
for the participant. Other representatives with legal authority to make decisions include but
are not limited to a health care agent or an attorney-in-fact authorized through a health care
directive or power of attorney.
(r) "Level I behavior" means physical aggression towards self or others or destruction
of property that requires the immediate response of another person.
(s) "Medication assistance" means providing verbal or visual reminders to take regularly
scheduled medication, and includes any of the following supports listed in clauses (1) to
(3) and other types of assistance, except that a support worker may not determine medication
dose or time for medication or inject medications into veins, muscles, or skin:
(1) under the direction of the participant or the participant's representative, bringing
medications to the participant including medications given through a nebulizer, opening a
container of previously set-up medications, emptying the container into the participant's
hand, opening and giving the medication in the original container to the participant, or
bringing to the participant liquids or food to accompany the medication;
(2) organizing medications as directed by the participant or the participant's representative;
and
(3) providing verbal or visual reminders to perform regularly scheduled medications.
(t) "Participant" means a person who is eligible for CFSS.
(u) "Participant's representative" means a parent, family member, advocate, or other
adult authorized by the participant or participant's legal representative, if any, to serve as a
representative in connection with the provision of CFSS. This authorization must be in
writing or by another method that clearly indicates the participant's free choice and may be
withdrawn at any time. The participant's representative must have no financial interest in
the provision of any services included in the participant's CFSS service delivery plan and
must be capable of providing the support necessary to assist the participant in the use of
CFSS. If through the assessment process described in subdivision 5 a participant is
determined to be in need of a participant's representative, one must be selected. If the
participant is unable to assist in the selection of a participant's representative, the legal
representative shall appoint one. Two persons may be designated as a participant's
representative for reasons such as divided households and court-ordered custodies. Duties
of a participant's representatives may include:
(1) being available while services are provided in a method agreed upon by the participant
or the participant's legal representative and documented in the participant's CFSS service
delivery plan;
(2) monitoring CFSS services to ensure the participant's CFSS service delivery plan is
being followed; and
(3) reviewing and signing CFSS time sheets after services are provided to provide
verification of the CFSS services.
(v) "Person-centered planning process" means a process that is directed by the participant
to plan for CFSS services and supports.
(w) "Service budget" means the authorized dollar amount used for the budget model or
for the purchase of goods.
(x) "Shared services" means the provision of CFSS services by the same CFSS support
worker to two or three participants who voluntarily enter into an agreement to receive
services at the same time and in the same setting by the same employer.
(y) "Support worker" means a qualified and trained employee of the agency-provider
as required by subdivision 11b or of the participant employer under the budget model as
required by subdivision 14 who has direct contact with the participant and provides services
as specified within the participant's CFSS service delivery plan.
(z) "Unit" means the increment of service based on hours or minutes identified in the
service agreement.
(aa) "Vendor fiscal employer agent" means an agency that provides financial management
services.
(bb) "Wages and benefits" means the hourly wages and salaries, the employer's share
of FICA taxes, Medicare taxes, state and federal unemployment taxes, workers' compensation,
mileage reimbursement, health and dental insurance, life insurance, disability insurance,
long-term care insurance, uniform allowance, contributions to employee retirement accounts,
or other forms of employee compensation and benefits.
(cc) "Worker training and development" means services provided according to subdivision
18a for developing workers' skills as required by the participant's individual CFSS service
delivery plan that are arranged for or provided by the agency-provider or purchased by the
participant employer. These services include training, education, direct observation and
supervision, and evaluation and coaching of job skills and tasks, including supervision of
health-related tasks or behavioral supports.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 260B.331, subdivision 2, is amended
to read:
Whenever a child is placed in a group foster care
facility as provided in section 260B.198, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2) or (3), item
(v), the cost of providing the care shall, upon certification by the juvenile court, be paid
from the welfare fund of the county in which the proceedings were held. To reimburse the
counties for the costs of providing group foster care for delinquent children and to promote
the establishment of suitable group foster homes, the state shall quarterly, from funds
appropriated for that purpose, reimburse counties 50 percent of the costs not paid by federal
and other available state aids and grants. Reimbursement shall be prorated if the appropriation
is insufficient.
The commissioner of corrections shall establish procedures for reimbursement and certify
to the commissioner of management and budget each county entitled to receive state aid
under the provisions of this subdivision. Upon receipt of a certificate the commissioner of
management and budget shall issue a state payment to the county treasurer for the amount
due, together with a copy of the certificate prepared by the commissioner of corrections.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 270A.03, subdivision 8, is amended to read:
"Restitution" means money due to the victim of a crime or a
juvenile offense under an order of restitution issued by a court under section 609.10, or
609.125 as part of a sentence or as a condition of probation, or under an order entered by a
court under section 260B.198, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (5), following a finding
of delinquency.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 290.0121, subdivision 3, is amended
to read:
For taxable years beginning after December 31, 2019,
the commissioner must adjust for inflation the exemption amount in subdivision 1, paragraph
deleted text begin (a), clause (1)deleted text end new text begin (b)new text end , and the threshold amounts in subdivision 2, as provided in section 270C.22.
The statutory year is taxable year 2019. The amounts as adjusted must be rounded down to
the nearest $50 amount. If the amount ends in $25, the amount is rounded down to the
nearest $50 amount. The threshold amount for married individuals filing separate returns
must be one-half of the adjusted amount for married individuals filing joint returns.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 297A.75, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
The tax on the gross receipts from the sale of the following
exempt items must be imposed and collected as if the sale were taxable and the rate under
section 297A.62, subdivision 1, applied. The exempt items include:
(1) building materials for an agricultural processing facility exempt under section
297A.71, subdivision 13;
(2) building materials for mineral production facilities exempt under section 297A.71,
subdivision 14;
(3) building materials for correctional facilities under section 297A.71, subdivision 3;
(4) building materials used in a residence for veterans with a disability exempt under
section 297A.71, subdivision 11;
(5) elevators and building materials exempt under section 297A.71, subdivision 12;
(6) materials and supplies for qualified low-income housing under section 297A.71,
subdivision 23;
(7) materials, supplies, and equipment for municipal electric utility facilities under
section 297A.71, subdivision 35;
(8) equipment and materials used for the generation, transmission, and distribution of
electrical energy and an aerial camera package exempt under section 297A.68, subdivision
37;
(9) commuter rail vehicle and repair parts under section 297A.70, subdivision 3, paragraph
(a), clause (10);
(10) materials, supplies, and equipment for construction or improvement of projects and
facilities under section 297A.71, subdivision 40;
(11) materials, supplies, and equipment for construction, improvement, or expansion
ofdeleted text begin :
deleted text end
deleted text begin
(i) an aerospace defense manufacturing facility exempt under Minnesota Statutes 2014,
section 297A.71, subdivision 42;
deleted text end
deleted text begin (ii)deleted text end a biopharmaceutical manufacturing facility exempt under section 297A.71, subdivision
45;
deleted text begin
(iii) a research and development facility exempt under Minnesota Statutes 2014, section
297A.71, subdivision 46; and
deleted text end
deleted text begin
(iv) an industrial measurement manufacturing and controls facility exempt under
Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 297A.71, subdivision 47;
deleted text end
(12) enterprise information technology equipment and computer software for use in a
qualified data center exempt under section 297A.68, subdivision 42;
(13) materials, supplies, and equipment for qualifying capital projects under section
297A.71, subdivision 44, paragraph (a), clause (1), and paragraph (b);
(14) items purchased for use in providing critical access dental services exempt under
section 297A.70, subdivision 7, paragraph (c);
(15) items and services purchased under a business subsidy agreement for use or
consumption primarily in greater Minnesota exempt under section 297A.68, subdivision
44;
(16) building materials, equipment, and supplies for constructing or replacing real
property exempt under section 297A.71, subdivisions 49; 50, paragraph (b); and 51; and
(17) building materials, equipment, and supplies for qualifying capital projects under
section 297A.71, subdivision 52.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 297E.02, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
A tax is imposed on all lawful gambling other than (1) paper
or electronic pull-tab deals or games; (2) tipboard deals or games; (3) electronic linked
bingo; and (4) items listed in section 297E.01, subdivision 8, clauses (4) and (5), at the rate
of 8.5 percent on the gross receipts as defined in section 297E.01, subdivision 8, less prizes
actually paid. The tax imposed by this subdivision is in lieu of the tax imposed by section
297A.62 and all local taxes and license fees except a fee authorized under section 349.16,
subdivision 8, or a tax authorized under deleted text begin subdivision 5deleted text end new text begin section 349.213, subdivision 3new text end .
The tax imposed under this subdivision is payable by the organization or party conducting,
directly or indirectly, the gambling.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 297E.02, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
(a) In addition to the taxes imposed under
subdivision 1, a tax is imposed on the combined net receipts of the organization. As used
in this section, "combined net receipts" is the sum of the organization's gross receipts from
lawful gambling less gross receipts directly derived from the conduct of paper bingo, raffles,
and paddlewheels, as defined in section 297E.01, subdivision 8, and less the net prizes
actually paid, other than prizes actually paid for paper bingo, raffles, and paddlewheels, for
the fiscal year. The combined net receipts of an organization are subject to a tax computed
according to the following schedule:
If the combined net receipts for the fiscal year are: |
The tax is: |
|||
Not over $87,500 |
nine percent |
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Over $87,500, but not over $122,500 |
$7,875 plus 18 percent of the amount over $87,500, but not over $122,500 |
|||
Over $122,500, but not over $157,500 |
$14,175 plus 27 percent of the amount over $122,500, but not over $157,500 |
|||
Over $157,500 |
$23,625 plus 36 percent of the amount over $157,500 |
deleted text begin
(b) On or before April 1, 2016, the commissioner shall estimate the total amount of
revenue, including interest and penalties, that will be collected for fiscal year 2016 from
taxes imposed under this chapter. If the amount estimated by the commissioner equals or
exceeds $94,800,000, the commissioner shall certify that effective July 1, 2016, the rates
under this paragraph apply in lieu of the rates under paragraph (a) and shall publish a notice
to that effect in the State Register and notify each taxpayer by June 1, 2016. If the rates
under this section apply, the combined net receipts of an organization are subject to a tax
computed according to the following schedule:
deleted text end
deleted text begin
If the combined net receipts for the fiscal year are: deleted text end |
deleted text begin
The tax is: deleted text end |
|||
deleted text begin
Not over $87,500 deleted text end |
deleted text begin
8.5 percent deleted text end |
|||
deleted text begin
Over $87,500, but not over $122,500 deleted text end |
deleted text begin
$7,438 plus 17 percent of the amount over $87,500, but not over $122,500 deleted text end |
|||
deleted text begin
Over $122,500, but not over $157,500 deleted text end |
deleted text begin
$13,388 plus 25.5 percent of the amount over $122,500, but not over $157,500 deleted text end |
|||
deleted text begin
Over $157,500 deleted text end |
deleted text begin
$22,313 plus 34 percent of the amount over $157,500 deleted text end |
deleted text begin (c)deleted text end new text begin (b)new text end Gross receipts derived from sports-themed tipboards are exempt from taxation
under this section. For purposes of this paragraph, a sports-themed tipboard means a
sports-themed tipboard as defined in section 349.12, subdivision 34, under which the winning
numbers are determined by the numerical outcome of a professional sporting event.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 298.28, subdivision 7a, is amended to read:
(a) The following amounts must be allocated to the commissioner of Iron Range
resources and rehabilitation to be deposited in the Iron Range school consolidation and
cooperatively operated school account that is hereby created:
(1)(i) for distributions in 2015 through 2023, ten cents per taxable ton of the tax imposed
under section 298.24; and
(ii) for distributions beginning in 2024, five cents per taxable ton of the tax imposed
under section 298.24;
(2) the amount as determined under section 298.17, paragraph (b), clause (3);new text begin and
new text end
deleted text begin
(3)(i) for distributions in 2015, an amount equal to two-thirds of the increased tax
proceeds attributable to the increase in the implicit price deflator as provided in section
298.24, subdivision 1, with the remaining one-third to be distributed to the Douglas J.
Johnson economic protection trust fund;
deleted text end
deleted text begin
(ii) for distributions in 2016, an amount equal to two-thirds of the sum of the increased
tax proceeds attributable to the increase in the implicit price deflator as provided in section
298.24, subdivision 1, for distribution years 2015 and 2016, with the remaining one-third
to be distributed to the Douglas J. Johnson economic protection trust fund; and
deleted text end
deleted text begin
(iii) for distributions in 2017, 2018, and 2019, an amount equal to two-thirds of the sum
of the increased tax proceeds attributable to the increase in the implicit price deflator as
provided in section 298.24, subdivision 1, for distribution years 2015, 2016, and 2017, with
the remaining one-third to be distributed to the Douglas J. Johnson economic protection
trust fund; and
deleted text end
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (3)new text end any other amount as provided by law.
(b) Expenditures from this account may be approved as ongoing annual expenditures
and shall be made only to provide disbursements to assist school districts with the payment
of bonds that were issued for qualified school projects, or for any other school disbursement
as approved by the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation after consultation
with the Iron Range Resources and Rehabilitation Board. For purposes of this section,
"qualified school projects" means school projects within the taconite assistance area as
defined in section 273.1341, that were (1) approved, by referendum, after April 3, 2006;
and (2) approved by the commissioner of education pursuant to section 123B.71.
(c) Beginning in fiscal year 2019, the disbursement to school districts for payments for
bonds issued under section 123A.482, subdivision 9, must be increased each year to offset
any reduction in debt service equalization aid that the school district qualifies for in that
year, under section 123B.53, subdivision 6, compared with the amount the school district
qualified for in fiscal year 2018.
(d) No expenditure under this section shall be made unless approved by the commissioner
of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation after consultation with the Iron Range Resources
and Rehabilitation Board.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299A.11, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 308A.711, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Notwithstanding the
provisions of section 345.43, a cooperative may, in lieu of paying or delivering to the
commissioner of commerce the unclaimed property specified in its report of unclaimed
property, distribute the unclaimed property to a corporation or organization that is exempt
from taxation under section 290.05, subdivision 1, deleted text begin paragraphdeleted text end new text begin clausenew text end (b), or 2.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 326A.05, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
The board shall grant or renew permits to practice as a CPA
firm to entities that make application and demonstrate their qualifications in accordance
with this section.
(a) The following must hold a permit issued under this section:
(1) any firm with an office in this state performing attest services as defined in section
326A.01, subdivision 2;
(2) to the extent required by section 326A.10, paragraph (k), any firm with an office in
this state performing compilation services as defined in section 326A.01, subdivision 6;
(3) any firm with an office in this state that uses the title "CPA" or "CPA firm"; or
(4) any firm that does not have an office in this state but performs attest services as
described in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (1), deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end , or deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end , for a client
having its headquarters in this state.
(b) A firm possessing a valid permit from another state which does not have an office
in this state may perform services described in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, clause (2)
or (5), or subdivision 6, for a client having its headquarters in this state and may use the
title "CPA" or "CPA firm" without a permit issued under this section only if:
(1) it has the qualifications described in subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(2) as a condition to the renewal of the firm's permit issued by the other state, that state
requires a peer review which contains the requirements equivalent to subdivision 8,
paragraphs (a) and (e); and
(3) it performs the services through an individual who has been granted practice privileges
under section 326A.14.
(c) A firm possessing a valid permit from another state that does not have an office in
this state and which is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a), clause (4), or (b),
may perform other professional services while using the title "CPA" or "CPA firm" in this
state without a permit issued under this section only if the firm:
(1) has the qualifications described in subdivision 3, paragraph (b);
(2) performs the services through an individual who has been granted practice privileges
under section 326A.14; and
(3) can lawfully perform the services in the state where the individuals with practice
privileges have their principal place of business.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 326A.14, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
(a) An individual whose principal place of business is
not in this state and who holds a valid license in good standing as a certified public accountant
from any state which, upon verification, is in substantial equivalence with the certified
public accountant licensure requirements of section 326A.03, subdivisions 3, 4, and 6, shall
be presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and
shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a license.
Notwithstanding any contrary provision of this chapter, an individual who offers or renders
professional services, whether in person, by mail, telephone, or electronic means, under this
paragraph: (1) shall be granted practice privileges in this state; (2) is subject to the
requirements in paragraph (c); and (3) is not required to provide any notice or other
submission.
(b) An individual whose principal place of business is not in this state and who holds a
valid license in good standing as a certified public accountant from any state whose certified
public accountant licensure qualifications, upon verification, are not substantially equivalent
with the licensure requirements of section 326A.03, subdivisions 3, 4, and 6, shall be
presumed to have qualifications substantially equivalent to this state's requirements and
shall have all the privileges of licensees of this state without the need to obtain a license if
the individual obtains verification, as specified in board rule, that the individual's
qualifications are substantially equivalent to the licensure requirements of section 326A.03,
subdivisions 3, 4, and 6. For purposes of this paragraph, any individual who passed the
Uniform CPA Examination and holds a valid license issued by any other state prior to
January 1, 2009, is exempt from the education requirement in section 326A.03, subdivision
6, paragraph (a), provided the individual meets the education requirement in section 326A.03,
subdivision 3. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of this chapter, an individual who
offers or renders professional services, whether in person, by mail, telephone, or electronic
means, under this paragraph: (1) shall, after the verification specified by adopted rules, be
granted practice privileges in this state; (2) is subject to the requirements in paragraph (c);
and (3) is not required to provide any notice or other submission.
(c) An individual licensee of another state exercising the privilege afforded under this
section and the firm which employs that licensee are deemed to have consented, as a condition
of the grant of this privilege:
(1) to the personal and subject matter jurisdiction and disciplinary authority of the board;
(2) to comply with this chapter and the board's rules;
(3) to the appointment of the state board that issued the license as the licensee's agent
upon whom process may be served in any action or proceeding by this board against the
licensee; and
(4) to cease offering or rendering professional services in this state individually and on
behalf of a firm in the event the license issued by the state of the individual's principal place
of business is no longer valid or in good standing.
(d) An individual who has been granted practice privileges under this section who
performs attest services as defined in section 326A.01, subdivision 2, clause (1), deleted text begin (3)deleted text end new text begin (4)new text end , or
deleted text begin (4)deleted text end new text begin (5)new text end , for any entity with its headquarters in this state, may only do so through a firm which
has obtained a permit under section 326A.05.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 349.12, subdivision 25, is amended
to read:
(a) "Lawful purpose" means one or more of the following:
(1) any expenditure by or contribution to a 501(c)(3) or festival organization, as defined
in subdivision 15c, provided that the organization and expenditure or contribution are in
conformity with standards prescribed by the board under section 349.154, which standards
must apply to both types of organizations in the same manner and to the same extent;
(2) a contribution to or expenditure for goods and services for an individual or family
suffering from poverty, homelessness, or disability, which is used to relieve the effects of
that suffering;
(3) a contribution to a program recognized by the Minnesota Department of Human
Services for the education, prevention, or treatment of problem gambling;
(4) a contribution to or expenditure on a public or private nonprofit educational institution
registered with or accredited by this state or any other state;
(5) a contribution to an individual, public or private nonprofit educational institution
registered with or accredited by this state or any other state, or to a scholarship fund of a
nonprofit organization whose primary mission is to award scholarships, for defraying the
cost of education to individuals where the funds are awarded through an open and fair
selection process;
(6) activities by an organization or a government entity which recognize military service
to the United States, the state of Minnesota, or a community, subject to rules of the board,
provided that the rules must not include mileage reimbursements in the computation of the
per diem reimbursement limit and must impose no aggregate annual limit on the amount of
reasonable and necessary expenditures made to support:
(i) members of a military marching or color guard unit for activities conducted within
the state;
(ii) members of an organization solely for services performed by the members at funeral
services;
(iii) members of military marching, color guard, or honor guard units may be reimbursed
for participating in color guard, honor guard, or marching unit events within the state or
states contiguous to Minnesota at a per participant rate of up to $50 per diem; or
(iv) active military personnel and their immediate family members in need of support
services;
(7) recreational, community, and athletic facilities and activitiesnew text begin ,new text end intended primarily for
persons under age 21, provided that such facilities and activities do not discriminate on the
basis of gender and the organization complies with section 349.154, subdivision 3a;
(8) payment of local taxes authorized under this chapter, taxes imposed by the United
States on receipts from lawful gambling, the taxes imposed by section 297E.02, subdivisions
1, 5, and 6, and the tax imposed on unrelated business income by section 290.05, subdivision
3;
(9) payment of real estate taxes and assessments on permitted gambling premises owned
by the licensed organization paying the taxes, or wholly leased by a licensed veterans
organization under a national charter recognized under section 501(c)(19) of the Internal
Revenue Code;
(10) a contribution to the United States, this state or any of its political subdivisions, or
any agency or instrumentality thereof other than a direct contribution to a law enforcement
or prosecutorial agency;
(11) a contribution to or expenditure by a nonprofit organization which is a church or
body of communicants gathered in common membership for mutual support and edification
in piety, worship, or religious observances;
(12) an expenditure for citizen monitoring of surface water quality by individuals or
nongovernmental organizations that is consistent with section 115.06, subdivision 4, and
Minnesota Pollution Control Agency guidance on monitoring procedures, quality assurance
protocols, and data management, provided that the resulting data is submitted to the
Minnesota Pollution Control Agency for review and inclusion in the state water quality
database;
(13) a contribution to or expenditure on projects or activities approved by the
commissioner of natural resources for:
(i) wildlife management projects that benefit the public at large;
(ii) grant-in-aid trail maintenance and grooming established under sections 84.83 and
84.927, and other trails open to public use, including purchase or lease of equipment for
this purpose; and
(iii) supplies and materials for safety training and educational programs coordinated by
the Department of Natural Resources, including the Enforcement Division;
(14) conducting nutritional programs, food shelves, and congregate dining programs
primarily for persons who are age 62 or older or disabled;
(15) a contribution to a community arts organization, or an expenditure to sponsor arts
programs in the community, including but not limited to visual, literary, performing, or
musical arts;
(16) an expenditure by a licensed fraternal organization or a licensed veterans organization
for payment of water, fuel for heating, electricity, and sewer costs for:
(i) up to 100 percent for a building wholly owned or wholly leased by and used as the
primary headquarters of the licensed veteran or fraternal organization; or
(ii) a proportional amount subject to approval by the director and based on the portion
of a building used as the primary headquarters of the licensed veteran or fraternal
organization;
(17) expenditure by a licensed veterans organization of up to $5,000 in a calendar year
in net costs to the organization for meals and other membership events, limited to members
and spouses, held in recognition of military service. No more than $5,000 can be expended
in total per calendar year under this clause by all licensed veterans organizations sharing
the same veterans post home;
(18) payment of fees authorized under this chapter imposed by the state of Minnesota
to conduct lawful gambling in Minnesota;
(19) a contribution or expenditure to honor an individual's humanitarian service as
demonstrated through philanthropy or volunteerism to the United States, this state, or local
community;
(20) a contribution by a licensed organization to another licensed organization with prior
board approval, with the contribution designated to be used for one or more of the following
lawful purposes under this section: clauses (1) to (7), (11) to (15), (19), and (25);
(21) an expenditure that is a contribution to a parent organization, if the parent
organization: (i) has not provided to the contributing organization within one year of the
contribution any money, grants, property, or other thing of value, and (ii) has received prior
board approval for the contribution that will be used for a program that meets one or more
of the lawful purposes under subdivision 7a;
(22) an expenditure for the repair, maintenance, or improvement of real property and
capital assets owned by an organization, or for the replacement of a capital asset that can
no longer be repaired, with a fiscal year limit of five percent of gross profits from the
previous fiscal year, with no carryforward of unused allowances. The fiscal year is July 1
through June 30. Total expenditures for the fiscal year may not exceed the limit unless the
board has specifically approved the expenditures that exceed the limit due to extenuating
circumstances beyond the organization's control. An expansion of a building or bar-related
expenditures are not allowed under this provision.
(i) The expenditure must be related to the portion of the real property or capital asset
that must be made available for use free of any charge to other nonprofit organizations,
community groups, or service groups, and is used for the organization's primary mission or
headquarters.
(ii) An expenditure may be made to bring an existing building that the organization owns
into compliance with the Americans with Disabilities Act.
(iii) An organization may apply the amount that is allowed under item (ii) to the erection
or acquisition of a replacement building that is in compliance with the Americans with
Disabilities Act if the board has specifically approved the amount. The cost of the erection
or acquisition of a replacement building may not be made from gambling proceeds, except
for the portion allowed under this item;
(23) an expenditure for the acquisition or improvement of a capital asset with a cost
greater than $2,000, excluding real property, that will be used exclusively for lawful purposes
under this section if the board has specifically approved the amount;
(24) an expenditure for the acquisition, erection, improvement, or expansion of real
property, if the board has first specifically authorized the expenditure after finding that the
real property will be used exclusively for lawful purpose under this section;
(25) an expenditure, including a mortgage payment or other debt service payment, for
the erection or acquisition of a comparable building to replace an organization-owned
building that was destroyed or made uninhabitable by fire or catastrophe or to replace an
organization-owned building that was taken or sold under an eminent domain proceeding.
The expenditure may be only for that part of the replacement cost not reimbursed by
insurance for the fire or catastrophe or compensation not received from a governmental unit
under the eminent domain proceeding, if the board has first specifically authorized the
expenditure; or
(26) a contribution to a 501(c)(19) organization that does not have an organization license
under section 349.16 and is not affiliated with the contributing organization, and whose
owned or leased property is not a permitted premises under section 349.165. The 501(c)(19)
organization may only use the contribution for lawful purposes under this subdivision or
for the organization's primary mission. The 501(c)(19) organization may not use the
contribution for expansion of a building or for bar-related expenditures. A contribution may
not be made to a statewide organization representing a consortia of 501(c)(19) organizations.
(b) Expenditures authorized by the board under paragraph (a), clauses (24) and (25),
must be 51 percent completed within two years of the date of board approval; otherwise the
organization must reapply to the board for approval of the project. "Fifty-one percent
completed" means that the work completed must represent at least 51 percent of the value
of the project as documented by the contractor or vendor.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), "lawful purpose" does not include:
(1) any expenditure made or incurred for the purpose of influencing the nomination or
election of a candidate for public office or for the purpose of promoting or defeating a ballot
question;
(2) any activity intended to influence an election or a governmental decision-making
process;
(3) a contribution to a statutory or home rule charter city, county, or town by a licensed
organization with the knowledge that the governmental unit intends to use the contribution
for a pension or retirement fund; or
(4) a contribution to a 501(c)(3) organization or other entity with the intent or effect of
not complying with lawful purpose restrictions or requirements.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 353G.08, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
The assets of a lump-sum retirement
account or of a monthly benefit retirement account of the retirement fund may only be
disbursed for:
(1) the administrative expenses of the retirement plan;
(2) the investment expenses of the retirement fund;
(3) the service pensions payable under section 353G.10, 353G.11, 353G.14, or deleted text begin 353G.15deleted text end new text begin
353G.18new text end ;
(4) the survivor benefits payable under section 353G.12;
(5) the disability benefit coverage insurance premiums under section 353G.115; and
(6) a transfer of assets under section 353G.17.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 504B.211, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Except as provided in subdivision deleted text begin 5deleted text end new text begin 4new text end , a landlord may enter
the premises rented by a residential tenant only for a reasonable business purpose and after
making a good faith effort to give the residential tenant reasonable notice under the
circumstances of the intent to enter. A residential tenant may not waive and the landlord
may not require the residential tenant to waive the residential tenant's right to prior notice
of entry under this section as a condition of entering into or maintaining the lease.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 571.74, is amended to read:
The garnishment summons and notice to debtor must be substantially in the following
form. The notice to debtor must be in no smaller than 14-point type.
GARNISHMENT SUMMONS |
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STATE OF MINNESOTA |
DISTRICT COURT |
|
COUNTY OF
.
|
.
JUDICIAL DISTRICT
|
|
.
(Creditor)
|
||
.
(Debtor)
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UNPAID BALANCE
.
|
|
.
(Debtor's Address)
|
Date of Entry |
|
.
(Garnishee)
|
of Judgment (or) Subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 571.71deleted text begin , subd. 2deleted text end new text begin , clause (2) new text end |
GARNISHMENT SUMMONS
The State of Minnesota
To the Garnishee named above:
You are hereby summoned and required to serve upon the creditor's attorney (or the
creditor if not represented by an attorney) and on the debtor within 20 days after service of
this garnishment summons upon you, a written disclosure, of the nonexempt indebtedness,
money, or other property due or belonging to the debtor and owing by you or in your
possession or under your control and answers to all written interrogatories that are served
with the garnishment summons. However, if the garnishment is on earnings and the debtor
has garnishable earnings, you shall serve the completed disclosure form on the creditor's
attorney, or the creditor if not represented by an attorney, within ten days of the last payday
to occur within the 70 days after the date of the service of this garnishment summons.
"Payday" means the day which you pay earnings in the ordinary course of business. If the
debtor has no regular paydays, "payday" means the 15th day and the last day of each month.
Your disclosure need not exceed 110 percent of the amount of the creditor's claim that
remains unpaid.
You shall retain garnishable earnings, other indebtedness, money, or other property in
your possession in an amount not to exceed 110 percent of the creditor's claim until such
time as the creditor causes a writ of execution to be served upon you, until the debtor
authorizes you in writing to release the property to the creditor, or until the expiration of
...... days from the date of service of this garnishment summons upon you, at which time
you shall return the disposable earnings, other indebtedness, money, or other property to
the debtor.
EARNINGS
In the event you are summoned as a garnishee because you owe "earnings" (as defined
on the Earnings Garnishment Disclosure form attached to this Garnishment Summons, if
applicable) to the debtor, then you are required to serve upon the creditor's attorney, or the
creditor if not represented by an attorney, a written earnings disclosure form within the time
limit set forth above.
In the case of earnings you are further required to retain in your possession all unpaid
nonexempt disposable earnings owed or to be owed by you and earned or to be earned to
the debtor within the pay period in which this garnishment summons is served and within
all subsequent pay periods whose paydays (defined above) occur within the 70 days after
the date of service of this garnishment summons.
Any assignment of earnings made by the debtor to any party within ten days before the
receipt of the first garnishment on a debt is void. Any indebtedness to you incurred by the
debtor within the ten days before the receipt of the first garnishment on a debt may not be
set off against amounts otherwise subject to the garnishment.
You are prohibited by law from discharging or disciplining the debtor because the debtor's
earnings have been subject to garnishment.
This Garnishment Summons includes:
(check applicable box)
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Earnings garnishment (see attached Earnings Disclosure Form) |
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Nonearnings garnishment (see attached Nonearnings Disclosure Form) |
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Both Earnings and Nonearnings garnishment (see both attached Earnings and Nonearnings Disclosure Form) |
NOTICE TO DEBTOR
A Garnishment Summons, Earnings Garnishment Disclosure form, Nonwage Garnishment
Disclosure form, Garnishment Exemption Notices and/or written Interrogatories (strike out
if not applicable), copies of which are hereby served on you, were served upon the Garnishee
by delivering copies to the Garnishee. The Garnishee was paid $15.
Dated:
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Attorney for Creditor (or creditor) |
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Attorney I.D. No |
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 576.21, is amended to read:
(a) The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context requires
otherwise.
(b) "Court" means the district court in which the receivership is pending unless the
context requires otherwise.
(c) "Entity" means a person other than a natural person.
(d) "Executory contract" means a contract, including a lease, where the obligations of
both the respondent and the other party to the contract are unperformed to the extent that
the failure of either party to complete performance of its obligations would constitute a
material breach of the contract, thereby excusing the other party's performance of its
obligations under the contract.
(e) "Foreign receiver" means a receiver appointed in any foreign jurisdiction.
(f) "Foreign jurisdiction" means any state or federal jurisdiction other than that of this
state.
(g) "General receiver" means the receiver appointed in a general receivership.
(h) "General receivership" means a receivership over all or substantially all of the
nonexempt property of a respondent for the purpose of liquidation and distribution to
creditors and other parties in interest, including, without limitation, a receivership resulting
from the appointment of a receiver pursuant to section 302A.753, 308A.945, 308B.935, new text begin or
new text end 317A.753deleted text begin , or 322B.836deleted text end .
(i) "Lien" means a charge against or interest in property to secure payment of a debt or
the performance of an obligation, including any mortgage or security interest.
(j) "Limited receiver" means the receiver appointed in a limited receivership.
(k) "Limited receivership" means a receivership other than a general receivership.
(l) "Party" means a person who is a party within the meaning of the Minnesota Rules of
Civil Procedure in the action in which a receiver is appointed.
(m) "Party in interest" includes the respondent, any equity security holder in the
respondent, any person with an ownership interest in or lien on receivership property, and,
in a general receivership, any creditor of the respondent.
(n) "Person" has the meaning given it in section 645.44 and shall include limited liability
companies, limited liability partnerships, and other entities recognized under the laws of
this state.
(o) "Property" means all of respondent's right, title, and interest, both legal and equitable,
in real and personal property, regardless of the manner by which any of the same were or
are acquired. Property includes, but is not limited to, any proceeds, products, offspring,
rents, or profits of or from the property. Property does not include: (1) any power that the
respondent may exercise solely for the benefit of another person, or (2) property impressed
with a trust except to the extent that the respondent has a residual interest.
(p) "Receiver" means a person appointed by the court as the court's agent, and subject
to the court's direction, to take possession of, manage, and, if authorized by this chapter or
order of the court, dispose of receivership property.
(q) "Receivership" means the case in which the receiver is appointed, and, as the context
requires, the proceeding in which the receiver takes possession of, manages, or disposes of
the respondent's property.
(r) "Receivership property" means (1) in the case of a general receivership, all or
substantially all of the nonexempt property of the respondent, or (2) in the case of a limited
receivership, that property of the respondent identified in the order appointing the receiver,
or in any subsequent order.
(s) "Respondent" means the person over whose property the receiver is appointed.
(t) "State agent" and "state agency" means any office, department, division, bureau,
board, commission, or other agency of the state of Minnesota or of any subdivision thereof,
or any individual acting in an official capacity on behalf of any state agent or state agency.
(u) "Time of appointment" means the date and time specified in the first order of
appointment of a receiver or, if the date and time are not specified in the order of
appointment, the date and time that the court ruled on the motion for the appointment of a
receiver. Time of appointment does not mean any subsequent date or time, including the
execution of a written order, the filing or docketing of a written order, or the posting of a
bond.
(v) "Utility" means a person providing any service regulated by the Public Utilities
Commission.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 576.22, is amended to read:
(a) This chapter applies to receiverships provided for in section 576.25, subdivisions 2
to 6, and to receiverships:
(1) pursuant to section 193.147, in connection with a mortgage on an armory;
(2) pursuant to section 223.17, subdivision 8, paragraph (b), in connection with a
defaulting grain buyer;
(3) pursuant to section 232.22, subdivision 7, paragraph (c), in connection with a
defaulting public grain warehouse;
(4) pursuant to section 296A.22, in connection with nonpayment of tax;
(5) pursuant to sections 302A.751, 302A.753, 308A.941, 308A.945, 308B.931, 308B.935,
317A.751, new text begin and new text end 317A.753, deleted text begin 322B.833, and 322B.836,deleted text end or in an action relating to the dissolution
of a foreign entity with property within the state;
(6) pursuant to section 321.0703, in connection with the rights of a creditor of a partner
or transferee;
(7) pursuant to section 322.22, in connection with the rights of creditors of limited
partners;
(8) pursuant to section 323A.0504, in connection with a partner's transferable interest;
(9) pursuant to section 453.55, in connection with bonds and notes;
(10) pursuant to section 453A.05, in connection with bonds and notes;
(11) pursuant to section 513.47, in connection with a proceeding for relief with respect
to a transfer fraudulent as to a creditor or creditors;
(12) pursuant to section 514.06, in connection with the severance of a building and
resale;
(13) pursuant to section 515.23, in connection with an action by a unit owners' association
to foreclose a lien for nonpayment of delinquent assessments against condominium units;
(14) pursuant to section 518A.71, in connection with the failure to pay, or to provide
security for, maintenance or support payments;
(15) pursuant to section 559.17, in connection with assignments of rents; however, any
receiver appointed under section 559.17 shall be a limited receiver, and the court shall apply
the provisions of this chapter to the extent not inconsistent with section 559.17;
(16) pursuant to section 571.84, in connection with a garnishee in possession of property
subject to a garnishment proceeding;
(17) pursuant to section 575.05, in connection with property applied to judgment;
(18) pursuant to section 575.06, in connection with adverse claimants;
(19) pursuant to sections 582.05 to 582.10, in connection with mortgage foreclosures;
however, any receiver appointed under sections 582.05 to 582.10 shall be a limited receiver,
and the court shall apply the provisions of this chapter to the extent not inconsistent with
sections 582.05 to 582.10;
(20) pursuant to section 609.904, in connection with criminal penalties; or
(21) pursuant to section 609.907, in connection with preservation of property subject to
forfeiture.
(b) This chapter does not apply to any receivership in which the receiver is a state agency
or in which the receiver is appointed, controlled, or regulated by a state agency unless
otherwise provided by law.
(c) In receiverships not specifically referenced in paragraph (a) or (b), the court, in its
discretion, may apply provisions of this chapter to the extent not inconsistent with the statutes
establishing the receiverships.
(d) Unless explicitly displaced by this chapter, the provisions of other statutory law and
the principles of common law remain in full force and effect and supplement the provisions
of this chapter.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 576.29, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
(a) A receiver, whether general or limited, shall have the
following powers in addition to those specifically conferred by this chapter or otherwise by
statute, rule, or order of the court:
(1) the power to collect, control, manage, conserve, and protect receivership property;
(2) the power to incur and pay expenses incidental to the receiver's exercise of the powers
or otherwise in the performance of the receiver's duties;
(3) the power to assert rights, claims, causes of action, or defenses that relate to
receivership property; and
(4) the power to seek and obtain instruction from the court with respect to any matter
relating to the receivership property, the exercise of the receiver's powers, or the performance
of the receiver's duties.
(b) In addition to the powers provided in paragraph (a), a general receiver shall have the
power:
(1) to (i) assert, or when authorized by the court, to release, any rights, claims, causes
of action, or defenses of the respondent to the extent any rights, claims, causes of action,
or defenses are receivership property; (ii) maintain in the receiver's name or in the name of
the respondent any action to enforce any right, claim, cause of action, or defense; and (iii)
intervene in actions in which the respondent is a party for the purpose of exercising the
powers under this clause or requesting transfer of venue of the action to the court;
(2) to pursue any claim or remedy that may be asserted by a creditor of the respondent
under sections 513.41 to 513.51;
(3) to compel any person, including the respondent, and any party, by subpoena pursuant
to Rule 45 of the Minnesota Rules of Civil Procedure, to give testimony or to produce and
permit inspection and copying of designated books, documents, electronically stored
information, or tangible things with respect to receivership property or any other matter that
may affect the administration of the receivership;
(4) to operate any business constituting receivership property in the ordinary course of
the business, including using, selling, or leasing property of the business or otherwise
constituting receivership property; incurring and payment of expenses of the business or
other receivership property; and hiring employees and appointing officers to act on behalf
of the business;
(5) if authorized by an order of the court following notice and a hearing, to use, improve,
sell, or lease receivership property other than in the ordinary course of business; and
(6) if appointed pursuant to section 302A.753, 308A.945, 308B.935, new text begin or new text end 317A.753, deleted text begin or
322B.836,deleted text end to exercise all of the powers and authority provided by the section or order of
the court.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 576.42, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
The entry of an order appointing a receiver does not
operate as a stay of:
(1) the commencement or continuation of a criminal proceeding against the respondent;
(2) the commencement or continuation of an action or proceeding by a governmental
unit to enforce its police or regulatory power;
(3) the enforcement of a judgment, other than a money judgment, obtained in an action
or proceeding by a governmental unit to enforce its police or regulatory power, or with
respect to any licensure of the respondent;
(4) the establishment by a governmental unit of any tax liability and any appeal thereof;
(5) the commencement or continuation of an action or proceeding to establish paternity;
to establish or modify an order for alimony, maintenance, or support; or to collect alimony,
maintenance, or support under any order of a court;
(6) the exercise of a right of setoff;
(7) any act to maintain or continue the perfection of a lien on, or otherwise preserve or
protect rights in, receivership property, but only to the extent that the act was necessary to
preserve or protect the lien or other rights as they existed as of the time of the appointment.
If the act would require seizure of receivership property or commencement of an action
prohibited by a stay, the continued perfection shall instead be accomplished by filing a
notice in the court before which the receivership is pending and by serving the notice upon
the receiver and receiver's attorney, if any, within the time fixed by law for seizure or
commencement of the action;
(8) the commencement of a bankruptcy case under federal bankruptcy laws; or
(9) any other exception as provided in United States Code, title 11, section deleted text begin 326(b)deleted text end new text begin 362(b)new text end ,
as to the automatic stay in federal bankruptcy cases to the extent not inconsistent with any
provision in this section.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.2111, is amended to read:
(a) For purposes of sections 609.2111 to 609.2114, the terms defined in this subdivision
have the meanings given them.
(b) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning given in section 609.52, subdivision 1, and includes
attached trailers.
(c) "Controlled substance" has the meaning given in section 152.01, subdivision 4.
(d) "Intoxicating substance" has the meaning given in section 169A.03, subdivision 11a.
(e) "Qualified prior driving offense" includes a prior conviction:
(1) for a violation of section 169A.20 under the circumstances described in section
169A.24 or 169A.25;
(2) under section 609.2112, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6); 609.2113,
subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); 2, clauses (2) to (6); or 3, clauses (2) to (6); or 609.2114,
subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clauses (2) to (6); or 2, clauses (2) to (6);
(3) under Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); or
(4) under Minnesota Statutes 2006, section 609.21, subdivision 1, clauses (2) to (6); 2,
clauses (2) to (6); 2a, clauses (2) to (6); 2b, clauses (2) to (6); 3, clauses (2) to (6); or 4,
clauses (2) to (6).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.224, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section
609.221, 609.222, or 609.223, the court shall determine and make written findings on the
record as to whether:
(1) the defendant owns or possesses a firearm; and
(2) the firearm was used in any way during the commission of the assault.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in section 609.2242, subdivision 3, paragraph (c), a
person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1,
1992, of assault in the fifth degree if the offense was committed within three years of a
previous conviction under sections 609.221 to 609.224, unless three years have elapsed
from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any
other violation of new text begin this new text end section deleted text begin 609.224deleted text end . Property rights may not be abated but access may
be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a pistol in violation of this paragraph
is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 609.52, subdivision 1, is amended
to read:
In this section:
(1) "Property" means all forms of tangible property, whether real or personal, without
limitation including documents of value, electricity, gas, water, corpses, domestic animals,
dogs, pets, fowl, and heat supplied by pipe or conduit by municipalities or public utility
companies and articles, as defined in clause (4), representing trade secrets, which articles
shall be deemed for the purposes of Extra Session Laws 1967, chapter 15 to include any
trade secret represented by the article.
(2) "Movable property" is property whose physical location can be changed, including
without limitation things growing on, affixed to, or found in land.
(3) "Value" means the retail market value at the time of the theft, or if the retail market
value cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacement of the property within a reasonable
time after the theft, or in the case of a theft or the making of a copy of an article representing
a trade secret, where the retail market value or replacement cost cannot be ascertained, any
reasonable value representing the damage to the owner which the owner has suffered by
reason of losing an advantage over those who do not know of or use the trade secret. For a
check, draft, or other order for the payment of money, "value" means the amount of money
promised or ordered to be paid under the terms of the check, draft, or other order. For a
theft committed within the meaning of subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (5), items (i)
and (ii), if the property has been restored to the owner, "value" means the value of the use
of the property or the damage which it sustained, whichever is greater, while the owner was
deprived of its possession, but not exceeding the value otherwise provided herein. For a
theft committed within the meaning of subdivision 2, clause (9), if the property has been
restored to the owner, "value" means the rental value of the property, determined at the
rental rate contracted by the defendant or, if no rental rate was contracted, the rental rate
customarily charged by the owner for use of the property, plus any damage that occurred
to the property while the owner was deprived of its possession, but not exceeding the total
retail value of the property at the time of rental. For a theft committed within the meaning
of subdivision 2, clause (19), "value" means the difference between wages legally required
to be reported or paid to an employee and the amount actually reported or paid to the
employee.
(4) "Article" means any object, material, device or substance, including any writing,
record, recording, drawing, sample specimen, prototype, model, photograph, microorganism,
blueprint or map, or any copy of any of the foregoing.
(5) "Representing" means describing, depicting, containing, constituting, reflecting or
recording.
(6) "Trade secret" means information, including a formula, pattern, compilation, program,
device, method, technique, or process, that:
(i) derives independent economic value, actual or potential, from not being generally
known to, and not being readily ascertainable by proper means by, other persons who can
obtain economic value from its disclosure or use, and
(ii) is the subject of efforts that are reasonable under the circumstances to maintain its
secrecy.
(7) "Copy" means any facsimile, replica, photograph or other reproduction of an article,
and any note, drawing, or sketch made of or from an article while in the presence of the
article.
(8) "Property of another" includes property in which the actor is co-owner or has a lien,
pledge, bailment, or lease or other subordinate interest, property transferred by the actor in
circumstances which are known to the actor and which make the transfer fraudulent as
defined in section 513.44, property possessed pursuant to a short-term rental contract, and
property of a partnership of which the actor is a member, unless the actor and the victim
are husband and wife. It does not include property in which the actor asserts in good faith
a claim as a collection fee or commission out of property or funds recovered, or by virtue
of a lien, setoff, or counterclaim.
(9) "Services" include but are not limited to labor, professional services, transportation
services, electronic computer services, the supplying of hotel accommodations, restaurant
services, entertainment services, advertising services, telecommunication services, and the
supplying of equipment for use including rental of personal property or equipment.
(10) "Motor vehicle" means a self-propelled device for moving persons or property or
pulling implements from one place to another, whether the device is operated on land, rails,
water, or in the air.
(11) "Motor fuel" has the meaning given in section 604.15, subdivision 1.
(12) "Retailer" has the meaning given in section 604.15, subdivision 1.
(13) "Wage theft" occurs when an employer with intent to defraud:
(i) fails to pay an employee all wages, salary, gratuities, earnings, or commissions at the
employee's rate or rates of pay or at the rate or rates required by law, including any applicable
statute, regulation, rule, ordinance, government resolution or policy, contract, or other legal
authority, whichever rate of pay is greater;
(ii) directly or indirectly causes any employee to give a receipt for wages for a greater
amount than that actually paid to the employee for services rendered;
(iii) directly or indirectly demands or receives from any employee any rebate or refund
from the wages owed the employee under contract of employment with the employer; or
(iv) makes or attempts to make it appear in any manner that the wages paid to any
employee were greater than the amount actually paid to the employee.
(14) "Employer" means any individual, partnership, association, corporation, business
trust, or any person or group of persons acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an
employer in relation to an employee.
(15) "Employee" means any individual employed by an employer.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.535, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
A drawee
shall release the information specified below to any state, county, or local law enforcement
or prosecuting authority which certifies in writing that it is investigating or prosecuting a
complaint against the drawer under this section or section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph
(a), new text end clause (3), item (i), and that 15 days have elapsed since the mailing of the notice of
dishonor required by subdivisions 3 and 8. This subdivision applies to the following
information relating to the drawer's account:
(1) documents relating to the opening of the account by the drawer and to the closing
of the account;
(2) notices regarding nonsufficient funds, overdrafts, and the dishonor of any check
drawn on the account within a period of six months of the date of request;
(3) periodic statements mailed to the drawer by the drawee for the periods immediately
prior to, during, and subsequent to the issuance of any check which is the subject of the
investigation or prosecution; or
(4) the last known home and business addresses and telephone numbers of the drawer.
The drawee shall release all of the information described in clauses (1) to (4) that it
possesses within ten days after receipt of a request conforming to all of the provisions of
this subdivision. The drawee may not impose a fee for furnishing this information to law
enforcement or prosecuting authorities.
A drawee is not liable in a criminal or civil proceeding for releasing information in
accordance with this subdivision.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.80, is amended to read:
Whoever does any of the following is guilty of a
misdemeanor:
(1) intentionally and with the purpose of making or aiding in an unauthorized connection
as prohibited by section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (12), to a licensed cable
communications system as defined in chapter 238 lends, offers, or gives to another any
instrument, apparatus, equipment, or device designed to make an unauthorized connection,
or plan, specification or instruction for making an unauthorized connection, without receiving
or seeking to receive money or any other thing of value in exchange; or
(2) intentionally tampers with, removes or injures any cable, wire, or other component
of a licensed cable communications system as defined in chapter 238; or
(3) intentionally and without claim of right interrupts a service of a licensed cable
communications system as defined in chapter 238.
Whoever sells or rents, or offers or advertises
for sale or rental, any instrument, apparatus, equipment, or device designed to make an
unauthorized connection as prohibited by section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a),
new text end clause (12), to a licensed cable communications system as defined in chapter 238, or a plan,
specification, or instructions for making an unauthorized connection, is guilty of a felony
and may be sentenced to not more than three years of imprisonment or a fine of not more
than $5,000, or both.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.891, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) A person who violates subdivision 1 in a manner that
creates a risk to public health and safety is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be
sentenced to imprisonment for a term of not more than one year or to payment of a fine of
not more than $3,000, or both.
(b) A person who violates subdivision 1 in a manner that compromises the security of
data that are protected under section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (8), or are
not public data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 8a, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor
and may be sentenced under paragraph (a).
(c) A person who violates subdivision 1 and gains access to personal data is guilty of a
gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced under paragraph (a).
(d) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent misdemeanor violation of
subdivision 1 within five years is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced
under paragraph (a).
(e) A person who violates subdivision 1 by accessing, or attempting to access, an
electronic terminal through opening, or attempting to open, any panel or access door without
authorization is guilty of a gross misdemeanor and may be sentenced under paragraph (a).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.902, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
"Criminal act" means conduct constituting, or a conspiracy or
attempt to commit, a felony violation of chapter 152, or a felony violation of section 297D.09;
299F.79; 299F.80; 299F.82; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.221; 609.222;
609.223; 609.2231; 609.228; 609.235; 609.245; 609.25; 609.27; 609.322; 609.342; 609.343;
609.344; 609.345; 609.42; 609.48; 609.485; 609.495; 609.496; 609.497; 609.498; 609.52,
subdivision 2, if the offense is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (1), if the property is
a firearm, clause (3)(b), or clause (3)(d)(v); section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a),
new text end clause (1) or (4); 609.527, if the crime is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (4); 609.528,
if the crime is punishable under subdivision 3, clause (4); 609.53; 609.561; 609.562; 609.582,
subdivision 1 or 2; 609.668, subdivision 6, paragraph (a); 609.67; 609.687; 609.713; 609.86;
609.894, subdivision 3 or 4; 609.895; 624.713; 624.7191; or 626A.02, subdivision 1, if the
offense is punishable under section 626A.02, subdivision 4, paragraph (a). "Criminal act"
also includes conduct constituting, or a conspiracy or attempt to commit, a felony violation
of section 609.52, subdivision 2, clause (3), (4), (15), or (16), if the violation involves an
insurance company as defined in section 60A.02, subdivision 4, a nonprofit health service
plan corporation regulated under chapter 62C, a health maintenance organization regulated
under chapter 62D, or a fraternal benefit society regulated under chapter 64B.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 628.26, is amended to read:
(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be
found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.
(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made
at any time after the commission of the offense.
(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at
any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the
time of the offense.
(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18
years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2),
shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission
of the offense.
(e) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.322 and 609.342 to 609.345,
if the victim was under the age of 18 years at the time the offense was committed, shall be
found or made and filed in the proper court within the later of nine years after the commission
of the offense or three years after the offense was reported to law enforcement authorities.
(f) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraph (e), indictments or complaints for
violation of sections 609.322 and 609.342 to 609.344 may be found or made and filed in
the proper court at any time after commission of the offense, if physical evidence is collected
and preserved that is capable of being tested for its DNA characteristics. If this evidence is
not collected and preserved and the victim was 18 years old or older at the time of the
offense, the prosecution must be commenced within nine years after the commission of the
offense.
(g) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.466 and 609.52, subdivision
2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (3), item (iii), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court
within six years after the commission of the offense.
(h) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.2335, 609.52, subdivision 2,
new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (3), items (i) and (ii), (4), (15), or (16), 609.631, or 609.821, where
the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000, or for violation of section
609.527 where the offense involves eight or more direct victims or the total combined loss
to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000, shall be found or made and filed in
the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(i) Except for violations relating to false material statements, representations or omissions,
indictments or complaints for violations of section 609.671 shall be found or made and filed
in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(j) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.561 to 609.563, shall be found
or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.
(k) In all other cases, indictments or complaints shall be found or made and filed in the
proper court within three years after the commission of the offense.
(l) The limitations periods contained in this section shall exclude any period of time
during which the defendant was not an inhabitant of or usually resident within this state.
(m) The limitations periods contained in this section for an offense shall not include any
period during which the alleged offender participated under a written agreement in a pretrial
diversion program relating to that offense.
(n) The limitations periods contained in this section shall not include any period of time
during which physical evidence relating to the offense was undergoing DNA analysis, as
defined in section 299C.155, unless the defendant demonstrates that the prosecuting or law
enforcement agency purposefully delayed the DNA analysis process in order to gain an
unfair advantage.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 629.344, is amended to read:
If a peace officer determines that probable cause exists to believe that a person has
violated section 609.2112, subdivision 1, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6);
609.2113, subdivision 1, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4),
(5), or (6); or subdivision 3, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or 609.2114, subdivision 1,
new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or (6); or subdivision 2, clause (2), (3), (4), (5), or
(6), the officer shall certify this determination and notify the commissioner of public safety.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 629.364, is amended to read:
(a) The following persons shall arrest, with or without a warrant, a person found
committing an offense described in section 609.52, subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (4):
(1) a conductor or other employee on a railway car or train;
(2) a captain, clerk, or other employee on a boat;
(3) a station agent at a depot;
(4) an officer of a fair or fairground; or
(5) a proprietor or employee of a public resort.
(b) A person not required to make an arrest under paragraph (a) may arrest, with or
without a warrant, a person found committing an offense described in section 609.52,
subdivision 2, new text begin paragraph (a), new text end clause (4).
(c) A person making an arrest under paragraph (a) or (b) shall take the arrested person
to the proper law enforcement authorities and have a written complaint issued against that
person. A person making an arrest under paragraph (a) or (b) has the same authority in all
respects as a peace officer with a warrant, including the power to summon assistance. The
person shall also arrest the person injured by reason of the offense, and take that person
before a court, which shall require that person to give security for appearance as a witness
on trial of the case.
(d) A victim of an offense described in section 609.52 who testifies at trial against the
person arrested for the offense shall receive the fee for travel and attendance provided in
section 357.24.
Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 4, article 3, section 109, is amended
to read:
Until the Pollution Control Agency amends rules for storm water, Minnesota Rules, part
7090.1010, subpart 1, item B, subitem (1), applies only to the portions of a city, a town,
and unorganized areas of counties that are designated as urbanized under Code of Federal
Regulations, title 40, section deleted text begin 122.26 (2)(9)(i)(A)deleted text end new text begin 122.26 (a)(9)(i)(A)new text end , and other platted areas
within that jurisdiction.
Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 11, article 3, section 23, subdivision
6, is amended to read:
(a) For grants to school
districts for Grow Your Own new teacher programs:
$ |
1,500,000 |
..... |
deleted text begin
2018
deleted text end
new text begin
2020 new text end |
|
$ |
1,500,000 |
..... |
deleted text begin
2019
deleted text end
new text begin
2021 new text end |
(b) The grants are for school districts with more than 30 percent minority students for
a Board of Teaching-approved nonconventional teacher residency pilot program. The
program must provide tuition scholarships or stipends to enable school district employees
or community members affiliated with a school district who seek an education license to
participate in a nonconventional teacher preparation program. School districts that receive
funds under this subdivision are strongly encouraged to recruit candidates of color and
American Indian candidates to participate in the Grow Your Own new teacher programs.
Districts or schools providing financial support may require a commitment as determined
by the district to teach in the district or school for a reasonable amount of time that does
not exceed five years.
(c) School districts and charter schools may also apply for grants to develop innovative
expanded Grow Your Own programs that encourage secondary school students to pursue
teaching, including developing and offering dual-credit postsecondary course options in
schools for "Introduction to Teaching" or "Introduction to Education" courses consistent
with Minnesota Statutes, section 124D.09, subdivision 10.
(d) Programs must annually report to the commissioner by the date determined by the
commissioner on their activities under this section, including the number of participants,
the percentage of participants who are of color or who are American Indian, and an
assessment of program effectiveness, including participant feedback, areas for improvement,
the percentage of participants continuing to pursue teacher licensure, and the number of
participants hired in the school or district as teachers after completing preparation programs.
(e) The department may retain up to three percent of the appropriation amount to monitor
and administer the grant program.
(f) Any balance in the first year does not cancel but is available in the second year.
new text begin
In chapter 383C of Minnesota Statutes, the revisor shall replace the range reference,
"383C.03 to 383C.059" with "383C.03 to 383C.056."
new text end
new text begin
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.383,
subdivision 9,
new text end
new text begin
is repealed.
new text end
new text begin
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 115.71, subdivision
4,
new text end
new text begin
is repealed.
new text end
new text begin
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 161.1231, subdivision
10,
new text end
new text begin
is repealed.
new text end
new text begin
Laws 2019, chapter 37, section 1,
new text end
new text begin
is repealed.
new text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 62J.498, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
(a) The following definitions apply to sections 62J.498 to
62J.4982:
(b) "Clinical data repository" means a real time database that consolidates data from a
variety of clinical sources to present a unified view of a single patient and is used by a
state-certified health information exchange service provider to enable health information
exchange among health care providers that are not related health care entities as defined in
section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end . This does not include clinical data that
are submitted to the commissioner for public health purposes required or permitted by law,
including any rules adopted by the commissioner.
(c) "Clinical transaction" means any meaningful use transaction or other health
information exchange transaction that is not covered by section 62J.536.
(d) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
(e) "Health care provider" or "provider" means a health care provider or provider as
defined in section 62J.03, subdivision 8.
(f) "Health data intermediary" means an entity that provides the technical capabilities
or related products and services to enable health information exchange among health care
providers that are not related health care entities as defined in section 144.291, subdivision
2, paragraph deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end . This includes but is not limited to: health information service providers
(HISP), electronic health record vendors, and pharmaceutical electronic data intermediaries
as defined in section 62J.495.
(g) "Health information exchange" means the electronic transmission of health-related
information between organizations according to nationally recognized standards.
(h) "Health information exchange service provider" means a health data intermediary
or health information organization.
(i) "Health information organization" means an organization that oversees, governs, and
facilitates health information exchange among health care providers that are not related
health care entities as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end , to improve
coordination of patient care and the efficiency of health care delivery.
(j) "HITECH Act" means the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical
Health Act as defined in section 62J.495.
(k) "Major participating entity" means:
(1) a participating entity that receives compensation for services that is greater than 30
percent of the health information organization's gross annual revenues from the health
information exchange service provider;
(2) a participating entity providing administrative, financial, or management services to
the health information organization, if the total payment for all services provided by the
participating entity exceeds three percent of the gross revenue of the health information
organization; and
(3) a participating entity that nominates or appoints 30 percent or more of the board of
directors or equivalent governing body of the health information organization.
(l) "Master patient index" means an electronic database that holds unique identifiers of
patients registered at a care facility and is used by a state-certified health information
exchange service provider to enable health information exchange among health care providers
that are not related health care entities as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph
deleted text begin (j)deleted text end new text begin (k)new text end . This does not include data that are submitted to the commissioner for public health
purposes required or permitted by law, including any rules adopted by the commissioner.
(m) "Meaningful use" means use of certified electronic health record technology to
improve quality, safety, and efficiency and reduce health disparities; engage patients and
families; improve care coordination and population and public health; and maintain privacy
and security of patient health information as established by the Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services and the Minnesota Department of Human Services pursuant to sections
4101, 4102, and 4201 of the HITECH Act.
(n) "Meaningful use transaction" means an electronic transaction that a health care
provider must exchange to receive Medicare or Medicaid incentives or avoid Medicare
penalties pursuant to sections 4101, 4102, and 4201 of the HITECH Act.
(o) "Participating entity" means any of the following persons, health care providers,
companies, or other organizations with which a health information organization or health
data intermediary has contracts or other agreements for the provision of health information
exchange services:
(1) a health care facility licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56, a nursing home
licensed under sections 144A.02 to 144A.10, and any other health care facility otherwise
licensed under the laws of this state or registered with the commissioner;
(2) a health care provider, and any other health care professional otherwise licensed
under the laws of this state or registered with the commissioner;
(3) a group, professional corporation, or other organization that provides the services of
individuals or entities identified in clause (2), including but not limited to a medical clinic,
a medical group, a home health care agency, an urgent care center, and an emergent care
center;
(4) a health plan as defined in section 62A.011, subdivision 3; and
(5) a state agency as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 17.
(p) "Reciprocal agreement" means an arrangement in which two or more health
information exchange service providers agree to share in-kind services and resources to
allow for the pass-through of clinical transactions.
(q) "State-certified health data intermediary" means a health data intermediary that has
been issued a certificate of authority to operate in Minnesota.
(r) "State-certified health information organization" means a health information
organization that has been issued a certificate of authority to operate in Minnesota.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 62J.4981, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) A health
information organization must obtain a certificate of authority from the commissioner and
demonstrate compliance with the criteria in paragraph (c).
(b) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, an organization may apply for a certificate
of authority to establish and operate a health information organization under this section.
No person shall establish or operate a health information organization in this state, nor sell
or offer to sell, or solicit offers to purchase or receive advance or periodic consideration in
conjunction with a health information organization or health information contract unless
the organization has a certificate of authority under this section.
(c) In issuing the certificate of authority, the commissioner shall determine whether the
applicant for the certificate of authority has demonstrated that the applicant meets the
following minimum criteria:
(1) the entity is a legally established organization;
(2) appropriate insurance, including liability insurance, for the operation of the health
information organization is in place and sufficient to protect the interest of the public and
participating entities;
(3) strategic and operational plans address governance, technical infrastructure, legal
and policy issues, finance, and business operations in regard to how the organization will
expand to support providers in achieving health information exchange goals over time;
(4) the entity addresses the parameters to be used with participating entities and other
health information exchange service providers for clinical transactions, compliance with
Minnesota law, and interstate health information exchange trust agreements;
(5) the entity's board of directors or equivalent governing body is composed of members
that broadly represent the health information organization's participating entities and
consumers;
(6) the entity maintains a professional staff responsible to the board of directors or
equivalent governing body with the capacity to ensure accountability to the organization's
mission;
(7) the organization is compliant with national certification and accreditation programs
designated by the commissioner;
(8) the entity maintains the capability to query for patient information based on national
standards. The query capability may utilize a master patient index, clinical data repository,
or record locator service as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (i)deleted text end new text begin (j)new text end . The
entity must be compliant with the requirements of section 144.293, subdivision 8, when
conducting clinical transactions;
(9) the organization demonstrates interoperability with all other state-certified health
information organizations using nationally recognized standards;
(10) the organization demonstrates compliance with all privacy and security requirements
required by state and federal law; and
(11) the organization uses financial policies and procedures consistent with generally
accepted accounting principles and has an independent audit of the organization's financials
on an annual basis.
(d) Health information organizations that have obtained a certificate of authority must:
(1) meet the requirements established for connecting to the National eHealth Exchange;
(2) annually submit strategic and operational plans for review by the commissioner that
address:
(i) progress in achieving objectives included in previously submitted strategic and
operational plans across the following domains: business and technical operations, technical
infrastructure, legal and policy issues, finance, and organizational governance;
(ii) plans for ensuring the necessary capacity to support clinical transactions;
(iii) approach for attaining financial sustainability, including public and private financing
strategies, and rate structures;
(iv) rates of adoption, utilization, and transaction volume, and mechanisms to support
health information exchange; and
(v) an explanation of methods employed to address the needs of community clinics,
critical access hospitals, and free clinics in accessing health information exchange services;
(3) enter into reciprocal agreements with all other state-certified health information
organizations and state-certified health data intermediaries to enable access to patient data,
and for the transmission and receipt of clinical transactions. Reciprocal agreements must
meet the requirements in subdivision 5;
(4) participate in statewide shared health information exchange services as defined by
the commissioner to support interoperability between state-certified health information
organizations and state-certified health data intermediaries; and
(5) comply with additional requirements for the certification or recertification of health
information organizations that may be established by the commissioner.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.292, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
(a) If a provider, as defined in
section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , clause (1), reasonably determines that the
information is detrimental to the physical or mental health of the patient, or is likely to cause
the patient to inflict self harm, or to harm another, the provider may withhold the information
from the patient and may supply the information to an appropriate third party or to another
provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , clause (1). The
other provider or third party may release the information to the patient.
(b) A provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , clause
(3), shall release information upon written request unless, prior to the request, a provider,
as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , clause (1), has designated
and described a specific basis for withholding the information as authorized by paragraph
(a).
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 145.901, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
(a) The commissioner of health has access to medical data as
defined in section 13.384, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), medical examiner data as defined
in section 13.83, subdivision 1, and health records created, maintained, or stored by providers
as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , without the consent of the
subject of the data, and without the consent of the parent, spouse, other guardian, or legal
representative of the subject of the data, when the subject of the data is a woman who died
during a pregnancy or within 12 months of a fetal death, a live birth, or other termination
of a pregnancy.
The commissioner has access only to medical data and health records related to deaths
that occur on or after July 1, 2000.
(b) The provider or responsible authority that creates, maintains, or stores the data shall
furnish the data upon the request of the commissioner. The provider or responsible authority
may charge a fee for providing the data, not to exceed the actual cost of retrieving and
duplicating the data.
(c) The commissioner shall make a good faith reasonable effort to notify the parent,
spouse, other guardian, or legal representative of the subject of the data before collecting
data on the subject. For purposes of this paragraph, "reasonable effort" means one notice
is sent by certified mail to the last known address of the parent, spouse, guardian, or legal
representative informing the recipient of the data collection and offering a public health
nurse support visit if desired.
(d) The commissioner does not have access to coroner or medical examiner data that
are part of an active investigation as described in section 13.83.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 146A.08, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
(a) If the commissioner has probable
cause to believe that an unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner
has engaged in conduct prohibited by subdivision 1, paragraph (h), (i), (j), or (k), the
commissioner may issue an order directing the practitioner to submit to a mental or physical
examination or chemical dependency evaluation. For the purpose of this subdivision, every
unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner is deemed to have
consented to submit to a mental or physical examination or chemical dependency evaluation
when ordered to do so in writing by the commissioner and further to have waived all
objections to the admissibility of the testimony or examination reports of the health care
provider performing the examination or evaluation on the grounds that the same constitute
a privileged communication. Failure of an unlicensed complementary and alternative health
care practitioner to submit to an examination or evaluation when ordered, unless the failure
was due to circumstances beyond the practitioner's control, constitutes an admission that
the unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner violated subdivision
1, paragraph (h), (i), (j), or (k), based on the factual specifications in the examination or
evaluation order and may result in a default and final disciplinary order being entered after
a contested case hearing. An unlicensed complementary and alternative health care
practitioner affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be given an opportunity
to demonstrate that the practitioner can resume the provision of complementary and
alternative health care practices with reasonable safety to clients. In any proceeding under
this paragraph, neither the record of proceedings nor the orders entered by the commissioner
shall be used against an unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner
in any other proceeding.
(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination or chemical dependency
evaluation, the commissioner may, notwithstanding section 13.384; 144.651; 595.02; or
any other law limiting access to medical or other health data, obtain medical data and health
records relating to an unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner
without the practitioner's consent if the commissioner has probable cause to believe that a
practitioner has engaged in conduct prohibited by subdivision 1, paragraph (h), (i), (j), or
(k). The medical data may be requested from a provider as defined in section 144.291,
subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance company, or a government agency, including
the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance company, or government agency
shall comply with any written request of the commissioner under this subdivision and is
not liable in any action for damages for releasing the data requested by the commissioner
if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this subdivision, unless the
information is false and the person or organization giving the information knew or had
reason to believe the information was false. Information obtained under this subdivision is
private data under section 13.41.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 147.091, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
(a) If the board has probable
cause to believe that a regulated person comes under subdivision 1, paragraph (1), it may
direct the person to submit to a mental or physical examination. For the purpose of this
subdivision every regulated person is deemed to have consented to submit to a mental or
physical examination when directed in writing by the board and further to have waived all
objections to the admissibility of the examining physicians' testimony or examination reports
on the ground that the same constitute a privileged communication. Failure of a regulated
person to submit to an examination when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations
against the person, unless the failure was due to circumstance beyond the person's control,
in which case a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or
presentation of evidence. A regulated person affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable
intervals be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the person can resume the competent
practice of the regulated profession with reasonable skill and safety to the public.
In any proceeding under this paragraph, neither the record of proceedings nor the orders
entered by the board shall be used against a regulated person in any other proceeding.
(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical or
other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a regulated person or
applicant without the person's or applicant's consent if the board has probable cause to
believe that a regulated person comes under subdivision 1, paragraph (1). The medical data
may be requested from a provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph
deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance company, or a government agency, including the Department of Human
Services. A provider, insurance company, or government agency shall comply with any
written request of the board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages
for releasing the data requested by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written
request under this subdivision, unless the information is false and the provider giving the
information knew, or had reason to believe, the information was false. Information obtained
under this subdivision is classified as private under sections 13.01 to 13.87.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 147A.13, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
(a) If the board has probable
cause to believe that a physician assistant comes under subdivision 1, clause (1), it may
direct the physician assistant to submit to a mental or physical examination. For the purpose
of this subdivision, every physician assistant licensed under this chapter is deemed to have
consented to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed in writing by the
board and further to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the examining
physicians' testimony or examination reports on the ground that the same constitute a
privileged communication. Failure of a physician assistant to submit to an examination
when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations against the physician assistant,
unless the failure was due to circumstance beyond the physician assistant's control, in which
case a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation
of evidence. A physician assistant affected under this subdivision shall at reasonable intervals
be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the physician assistant can resume competent
practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients. In any proceeding under this subdivision,
neither the record of proceedings nor the orders entered by the board shall be used against
a physician assistant in any other proceeding.
(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding sections 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical or
other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a licensee or applicant
without the licensee's or applicant's consent if the board has probable cause to believe that
a physician assistant comes under subdivision 1, clause (1).
The medical data may be requested from a provider, as defined in section 144.291,
subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance company, or a government agency, including
the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance company, or government agency
shall comply with any written request of the board under this subdivision and is not liable
in any action for damages for releasing the data requested by the board if the data are released
pursuant to a written request under this subdivision, unless the information is false and the
provider giving the information knew, or had reason to believe, the information was false.
Information obtained under this subdivision is classified as private under chapter 13.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148.10, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
(a) The state Board of Chiropractic Examiners may refuse to
grant, or may revoke, suspend, condition, limit, restrict or qualify a license to practice
chiropractic, or may cause the name of a person licensed to be removed from the records
in the office of the court administrator of the district court for:
(1) advertising that is false or misleading; that violates a rule of the board; or that claims
the cure of any condition or disease;
(2) the employment of fraud or deception in applying for a license or in passing the
examination provided for in section 148.06 or conduct which subverts or attempts to subvert
the licensing examination process;
(3) the practice of chiropractic under a false or assumed name or the impersonation of
another practitioner of like or different name;
(4) the conviction of a crime involving moral turpitude;
(5) the conviction, during the previous five years, of a felony reasonably related to the
practice of chiropractic;
(6) habitual intemperance in the use of alcohol or drugs;
(7) practicing under a license which has not been renewed;
(8) advanced physical or mental disability;
(9) the revocation or suspension of a license to practice chiropractic; or other disciplinary
action against the licensee; or the denial of an application for a license by the proper licensing
authority of another state, territory or country; or failure to report to the board that charges
regarding the person's license have been brought in another state or jurisdiction;
(10) the violation of, or failure to comply with, the provisions of sections 148.01 to
148.105, the rules of the state Board of Chiropractic Examiners, or a lawful order of the
board;
(11) unprofessional conduct;
(12) being unable to practice chiropractic with reasonable skill and safety to patients by
reason of illness, professional incompetence, senility, drunkenness, use of drugs, narcotics,
chemicals or any other type of material, or as a result of any mental or physical condition,
including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills. If the board has
probable cause to believe that a person comes within this clause, it shall direct the person
to submit to a mental or physical examination. For the purpose of this clause, every person
licensed under this chapter shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or
physical examination when directed in writing by the board and further to have waived all
objections to the admissibility of the examining physicians' testimony or examination reports
on the ground that the same constitute a privileged communication. Failure of a person to
submit to such examination when directed shall constitute an admission of the allegations,
unless the failure was due to circumstances beyond the person's control, in which case a
default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of
evidence. A person affected under this clause shall at reasonable intervals be afforded an
opportunity to demonstrate that the person can resume the competent practice of chiropractic
with reasonable skill and safety to patients.
In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may, notwithstanding
section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to health data, obtain health data
and health records relating to a licensee or applicant without the licensee's or applicant's
consent if the board has probable cause to believe that a doctor of chiropractic comes under
this clause. The health data may be requested from a provider, as defined in section 144.291,
subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance company, or a government agency, including
the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance company, or government agency
shall comply with any written request of the board under this subdivision and is not liable
in any action for damages for releasing the data requested by the board if the data are released
pursuant to a written request under this subdivision, unless the information is false and the
provider or entity giving the information knew, or had reason to believe, the information
was false. Information obtained under this subdivision is classified as private under sections
13.01 to 13.87.
In any proceeding under this clause, neither the record of proceedings nor the orders
entered by the board shall be used against a person in any other proceeding;
(13) aiding or abetting an unlicensed person in the practice of chiropractic, except that
it is not a violation of this clause for a doctor of chiropractic to employ, supervise, or delegate
functions to a qualified person who may or may not be required to obtain a license or
registration to provide health services if that person is practicing within the scope of the
license or registration or delegated authority;
(14) improper management of health records, including failure to maintain adequate
health records as described in clause (18), to comply with a patient's request made under
sections 144.291 to 144.298 or to furnish a health record or report required by law;
(15) failure to make reports required by section 148.102, subdivisions 2 and 5, or to
cooperate with an investigation of the board as required by section 148.104, or the submission
of a knowingly false report against another doctor of chiropractic under section 148.10,
subdivision 3;
(16) splitting fees, or promising to pay a portion of a fee or a commission, or accepting
a rebate;
(17) revealing a privileged communication from or relating to a patient, except when
otherwise required or permitted by law;
(18) failing to keep written chiropractic records justifying the course of treatment of the
patient, including, but not limited to, patient histories, examination results, test results, and
x-rays. Unless otherwise required by law, written records need not be retained for more
than seven years and x-rays need not be retained for more than four years;
(19) exercising influence on the patient or client in such a manner as to exploit the patient
or client for financial gain of the licensee or of a third party which shall include, but not be
limited to, the promotion or sale of services, goods, or appliances;
(20) gross or repeated malpractice or the failure to practice chiropractic at a level of
care, skill, and treatment which is recognized by a reasonably prudent chiropractor as being
acceptable under similar conditions and circumstances; or
(21) delegating professional responsibilities to a person when the licensee delegating
such responsibilities knows or has reason to know that the person is not qualified by training,
experience, or licensure to perform them.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clause (2), conduct that subverts or attempts to
subvert the licensing examination process includes, but is not limited to: (1) conduct that
violates the security of the examination materials, such as removing examination materials
from the examination room or having unauthorized possession of any portion of a future,
current, or previously administered licensing examination; (2) conduct that violates the
standard of test administration, such as communicating with another examinee during
administration of the examination, copying another examinee's answers, permitting another
examinee to copy one's answers, or possessing unauthorized materials; or (3) impersonating
an examinee or permitting an impersonator to take the examination on one's own behalf.
(c) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clauses (4) and (5), conviction as used in these
subdivisions includes a conviction of an offense that if committed in this state would be
deemed a felony without regard to its designation elsewhere, or a criminal proceeding where
a finding or verdict of guilt is made or returned but the adjudication of guilt is either withheld
or not entered.
(d) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clauses (4), (5), and (6), a copy of the judgment
or proceeding under seal of the administrator of the court or of the administrative agency
which entered the same shall be admissible into evidence without further authentication
and shall constitute prima facie evidence of its contents.
(e) For the purposes of paragraph (a), clause (11), unprofessional conduct means any
unethical, deceptive or deleterious conduct or practice harmful to the public, any departure
from or the failure to conform to the minimal standards of acceptable chiropractic practice,
or a willful or careless disregard for the health, welfare or safety of patients, in any of which
cases proof of actual injury need not be established. Unprofessional conduct shall include,
but not be limited to, the following acts of a chiropractor:
(1) gross ignorance of, or incompetence in, the practice of chiropractic;
(2) engaging in conduct with a patient that is sexual or may reasonably be interpreted
by the patient as sexual, or in any verbal behavior that is seductive or sexually demeaning
to a patient;
(3) performing unnecessary services;
(4) charging a patient an unconscionable fee or charging for services not rendered;
(5) directly or indirectly engaging in threatening, dishonest, or misleading fee collection
techniques;
(6) perpetrating fraud upon patients, third-party payors, or others, relating to the practice
of chiropractic, including violations of the Medicare or Medicaid laws or state medical
assistance laws;
(7) advertising that the licensee will accept for services rendered assigned payments
from any third-party payer as payment in full, if the effect is to give the impression of
eliminating the need of payment by the patient of any required deductible or co-payment
applicable in the patient's health benefit plan. As used in this clause, "advertise" means
solicitation by the licensee by means of handbills, posters, circulars, motion pictures, radio,
newspapers, television, or in any other manner. In addition to the board's power to punish
for violations of this clause, violation of this clause is also a misdemeanor;
(8) accepting for services rendered assigned payments from any third-party payer as
payment in full, if the effect is to eliminate the need of payment by the patient of any required
deductible or co-payment applicable in the patient's health benefit plan, except as hereinafter
provided; and
(9) any other act that the board by rule may define.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148.261, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
The board may take the following
actions if it has probable cause to believe that grounds for disciplinary action exist under
subdivision 1, clause (9) or (10):
(a) It may direct the applicant or nurse to submit to a mental or physical examination or
chemical dependency evaluation. For the purpose of this subdivision, when a nurse licensed
under sections 148.171 to 148.285 is directed in writing by the board to submit to a mental
or physical examination or chemical dependency evaluation, that person is considered to
have consented and to have waived all objections to admissibility on the grounds of privilege.
Failure of the applicant or nurse to submit to an examination when directed constitutes an
admission of the allegations against the applicant or nurse, unless the failure was due to
circumstances beyond the person's control, and the board may enter a default and final order
without taking testimony or allowing evidence to be presented. A nurse affected under this
paragraph shall, at reasonable intervals, be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the
competent practice of professional, advanced practice registered, or practical nursing can
be resumed with reasonable skill and safety to patients. Neither the record of proceedings
nor the orders entered by the board in a proceeding under this paragraph, may be used
against a nurse in any other proceeding.
(b) It may, notwithstanding sections 13.384, 144.651, 595.02, or any other law limiting
access to medical or other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a
registered nurse, advanced practice registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or applicant
for a license without that person's consent. The medical data may be requested from a
provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance
company, or a government agency, including the Department of Human Services. A provider,
insurance company, or government agency shall comply with any written request of the
board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing the
data requested by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this
subdivision unless the information is false and the provider giving the information knew,
or had reason to believe, the information was false. Information obtained under this
subdivision is classified as private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148.754, is amended to read:
(a) If the board has probable cause to believe that a licensee comes under section 148.75,
paragraph (a), clause (2), it may direct the licensee to submit to a mental or physical
examination. For the purpose of this paragraph, every licensee is deemed to have consented
to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed in writing by the board and
further to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the examining physicians'
testimony or examination reports on the ground that they constitute a privileged
communication. Failure of the licensee to submit to an examination when directed constitutes
an admission of the allegations against the person, unless the failure was due to circumstances
beyond the person's control, in which case a default and final order may be entered without
the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. A licensee affected under this paragraph
shall, at reasonable intervals, be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the person can
resume the competent practice of physical therapy with reasonable skill and safety to the
public.
(b) In any proceeding under paragraph (a), neither the record of proceedings nor the
orders entered by the board shall be used against a licensee in any other proceeding.
(c) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical or
other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a licensee or applicant
without the person's or applicant's consent if the board has probable cause to believe that
the person comes under paragraph (a). The medical data may be requested from a provider,
as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance company, or a
government agency, including the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance
company, or government agency shall comply with any written request of the board under
this paragraph and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing the data requested
by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this paragraph,
unless the information is false and the provider giving the information knew, or had reason
to believe, the information was false. Information obtained under this paragraph is classified
as private under sections 13.01 to 13.87.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148B.5905, is amended to read:
(a) If the board has probable cause to believe section 148B.59, paragraph (a), clause (9),
applies to a licensee or applicant, the board may direct the person to submit to a mental,
physical, or chemical dependency examination or evaluation. For the purpose of this section,
every licensee and applicant is deemed to have consented to submit to a mental, physical,
or chemical dependency examination or evaluation when directed in writing by the board
and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the examining professionals'
testimony or examination reports on the grounds that the testimony or examination reports
constitute a privileged communication. Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to an
examination when directed by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against
the person, unless the failure was due to circumstances beyond the person's control, in which
case a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation
of evidence. A licensee or applicant affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals
be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the person can resume the competent practice
of licensed professional counseling with reasonable skill and safety to the public. In any
proceeding under this paragraph, neither the record of proceedings nor the orders entered
by the board shall be used against a licensee or applicant in any other proceeding.
(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical or
other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a licensee or applicant
without the licensee's or applicant's consent if the board has probable cause to believe that
section 148B.59, paragraph (a), clause (9), applies to the licensee or applicant. The medical
data may be requested from a provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2,
paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end ; an insurance company; or a government agency, including the Department
of Human Services. A provider, insurance company, or government agency shall comply
with any written request of the board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action
for damages for releasing the data requested by the board if the data are released pursuant
to a written request under this subdivision, unless the information is false and the provider
giving the information knew, or had reason to believe, the information was false. Information
obtained under this subdivision is classified as private under sections 13.01 to 13.87.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148E.245, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
(a) In addition to ordering a physical or mental
examination or chemical dependency evaluation, and notwithstanding section 13.384,
144.651, 595.02, or any other statute limiting access to health records, the board or a
designated member of the board acting on behalf of the board may subpoena physical,
mental, and chemical dependency health records relating to an applicant or licensee without
the applicant's or licensee's consent if the board has:
(1) probable cause to believe that the applicant or licensee has violated chapter 214, a
statute or rule enforced by the board, or an order issued by the board; and
(2) reason to believe that the records are relevant and necessary to the investigation.
(b) An applicant, licensee, insurance company, government agency, health care facility,
or provider as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , must comply
with any subpoena of the board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for
damages for releasing information subpoenaed by the board under this subdivision unless
the information provided is false and the person or entity providing the information knew
or had reason to know that the information was false.
(c) Information on individuals obtained under this subdivision must be treated as
investigative data under section 13.41 and be classified as confidential data.
(d) If an applicant, licensee, person, or entity does not comply with any subpoena of the
board under this subdivision, the board may institute a proceeding in any district court to
enforce the board's subpoena.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 148F.09, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
(a) If the board has probable
cause to believe that an applicant or licensee is unable to practice alcohol and drug counseling
with reasonable skill and safety due to a mental or physical illness or condition, the board
may direct the individual to submit to a mental, physical, or chemical dependency
examination or evaluation.
(1) For the purposes of this section, every licensee and applicant is deemed to have
consented to submit to a mental, physical, or chemical dependency examination or evaluation
when directed in writing by the board and to have waived all objections to the admissibility
of the examining professionals' testimony or examination reports on the grounds that the
testimony or examination reports constitute a privileged communication.
(2) Failure of a licensee or applicant to submit to an examination when directed by the
board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the person, unless the failure was
due to circumstances beyond the person's control, in which case a default and final order
may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence.
(3) A licensee or applicant affected under this subdivision shall at reasonable intervals
be given an opportunity to demonstrate that the licensee or applicant can resume the
competent practice of licensed alcohol and drug counseling with reasonable skill and safety
to the public.
(4) In any proceeding under this subdivision, neither the record of proceedings nor the
orders entered by the board shall be used against the licensee or applicant in any other
proceeding.
(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may,
notwithstanding section 13.384 or sections 144.291 to 144.298, or any other law limiting
access to medical or other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to a
licensee or applicant without the licensee's or applicant's consent if the board has probable
cause to believe that subdivision 1, clause (9), applies to the licensee or applicant. The
medical data may be requested from:
(1) a provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end ;
(2) an insurance company; or
(3) a government agency, including the Department of Human Services.
(c) A provider, insurance company, or government agency must comply with any written
request of the board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages for
releasing the data requested by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request
under this subdivision, unless the information is false and the provider giving the information
knew, or had reason to believe, the information was false.
(d) Information obtained under this subdivision is private data on individuals as defined
in section 13.02, subdivision 12.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 151.071, subdivision 10, is amended to read:
(a) If the board receives a
complaint and has probable cause to believe that an individual licensed or registered by the
board falls under subdivision 2, clause (14), it may direct the individual to submit to a mental
or physical examination. For the purpose of this subdivision, every licensed or registered
individual is deemed to have consented to submit to a mental or physical examination when
directed in writing by the board and further to have waived all objections to the admissibility
of the examining practitioner's testimony or examination reports on the grounds that the
same constitute a privileged communication. Failure of a licensed or registered individual
to submit to an examination when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations against
the individual, unless the failure was due to circumstances beyond the individual's control,
in which case a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or
presentation of evidence. Pharmacists affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable
intervals be given an opportunity to demonstrate that they can resume the competent practice
of the profession of pharmacy with reasonable skill and safety to the public. Pharmacist
interns, pharmacy technicians, or controlled substance researchers affected under this
paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be given an opportunity to demonstrate that they can
competently resume the duties that can be performed, under this chapter or the rules of the
board, by similarly registered persons with reasonable skill and safety to the public. In any
proceeding under this paragraph, neither the record of proceedings nor the orders entered
by the board shall be used against a licensed or registered individual in any other proceeding.
(b) Notwithstanding section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical
or other health data, the board may obtain medical data and health records relating to an
individual licensed or registered by the board, or to an applicant for licensure or registration,
without the individual's consent when the board receives a complaint and has probable cause
to believe that the individual is practicing in violation of subdivision 2, clause (14), and the
data and health records are limited to the complaint. The medical data may be requested
from a provider, as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , an insurance
company, or a government agency, including the Department of Human Services. A provider,
insurance company, or government agency shall comply with any written request of the
board under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing the
data requested by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this
subdivision, unless the information is false and the provider giving the information knew,
or had reason to believe, the information was false. Information obtained under this
subdivision is classified as private under sections 13.01 to 13.87.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 156.125, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
In addition to ordering a physical or
mental examination and notwithstanding sections 13.384, 144.291 to 144.298, 144.651, or
595.02, or any other law limiting access to medical or other health records, the board may
authorize obtaining data and health records relating to a regulated person without the
regulated person's consent if the executive director has probable cause to believe that grounds
exist under section 156.081, subdivision 2, clause (3) or (13), against the regulated person.
A regulated person, insurance company, health care facility, provider as defined in section
144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph deleted text begin (h)deleted text end new text begin (i)new text end , or government agency shall comply with any
written request under this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing
the data requested if the data are released in accordance with a written request made under
this subdivision. Information on individuals obtained under this subdivision is investigative
data under section 13.41.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.7905, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
(a) Workers' Compensation Division.
Disclosure of proceedings of the Workers' Compensation Division is governed by deleted text begin sectiondeleted text end new text begin
sectionsnew text end 175.10new text begin ; 176.231, subdivision 9b; and 176.2611, subdivision 6new text end .
(b) Computer access to data. Computer access to and electronic data interchange of
data maintained by the Department of Labor and Industry are governed by section 175.171.
(c) Reporters. Disclosure of the names of certain persons supplying information to the
Department of Labor and Industry is prohibited by sections 175.24 and 175.27.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.7905, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
(a) Loggers; payroll data. Data sharing of payroll
data by the commissioner of labor and industry with a workers' compensation insurer or the
Workers' Compensation Insurance Association, is governed by section 176.130, subdivision
5.
(b) Medical data. Access to medical data in connection with a workers' compensation
claim is governed by section 176.138.
(c) Employment status. Data sharing, between the commissioner of labor and industry
and other persons, regarding the employment status of individuals, is governed by section
176.181, subdivision 8.
(d) Identity of reporters. Access to the identity of anyone reporting that an employer
may not have workers' compensation insurance is governed by section 176.184, subdivision
5.
(e) Report of death or injury to labor and industry. Access to a report deleted text begin of worker
injury or death during the course of employment filed by an employer under section 176.231deleted text end new text begin
related to a workers' compensation injury under chapter 176new text end is governed by sections 176.231,
subdivisions 8 and deleted text begin 9deleted text end new text begin 9a to 9cnew text end , and 176.234.
new text begin
(f) Investigative and enforcement data. Classification of data related to a department
workers' compensation enforcement action or investigation is governed by section 176.231,
subdivision 9c, paragraph (c).
new text end
new text begin
(g) Disputes. Certain documents filed with or issued by the Department of Labor and
Industry or the Office of Administrative Hearings related to workers' compensation disputes
are classified under sections 176.231 and 176.2611.
new text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.7905, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:
Data
in new text begin registration new text end applications deleted text begin anddeleted text end new text begin , innew text end required documentation submitted to the commissioner
of labor and industry by deleted text begin independent contractorsdeleted text end new text begin persons who perform public or private
sector commercial or residential building construction or improvement services, and in
registration certificates issued by the commissionernew text end are classified under section 326B.701,
subdivision 8.
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.7905, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
(a) Disclosure of lie detector tests. Disclosure of lie
detector tests is governed by section 181.76.
(b) Identity of employees making complaints.The disclosure of the identity of
employees making certain complaints is also governed by section 181.932, subdivision 2.
(c) Employee drug and alcohol test results.Test results and other information acquired
in the drug and alcohol testing process, with respect to public sector employees and
applicants, are classified by section 181.954, subdivision 2, and access to them is governed
by section 181.954, subdivision 3.
new text begin
(d) Data provided to licensing agencies, contracting agencies, and employees. Data
provided to licensing agencies, contracting agencies, and employees when the commissioner
issues an order to comply or resolves a compliance order through settlement or other final
disposition is governed by section 177.27, subdivision 11.
new text end
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.7905, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Certain data gathered or prepared by the
commissioner of labor and industry as part of occupational safety and health inspections new text begin or
reports new text end are classified under sections 182.659, subdivision 8, new text begin 182.663, subdivision 4, new text end and
182.668, subdivision 2.
new text begin
Minnesota Statutes 2019 Supplement, section 13.7905, subdivision 7,
new text end
new text begin
is repealed.
new text end
Repealed Minnesota Statutes: 20-6121
(a) Disciplinary data generally. Data held by the Board of Marriage and Family Therapy in connection with disciplinary matters are classified under sections 148B.04 and 148B.175, subdivisions 2 and 5.
(b) Reports of violations. Certain reports of violations submitted to the Board of Marriage and Family Therapy are classified under section 148B.08.
(c) Client records. Client records of a patient cared for by a marriage and family therapist who is under review by the Board of Marriage and Family Therapy are classified under sections 148B.09 and 148B.11.
Certain documents filed with or issued by the Department of Labor and Industry or the Office of Administrative Hearings related to the workers' compensation modernization program are classified under section 176.2611.
"Council" means the Water and Wastewater Treatment Operators Advisory Council established by section 115.741.
Subdivisions 1 to 8 are effective June 6, 1985. Subdivision 9 is effective the day after compliance with section 645.021, subdivision 3, by the governing body of the city of Minneapolis.
Repealed Minnesota Session Laws: 20-6121
Laws 2019, chapter 37, section 1
Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 161.14, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
new text begin That segment of marked Trunk Highway 25 from marked Trunk Highway 7 to Carver County State-Aid Highway 30 is designated as "Captain Jeffrey Vollmer Memorial Highway." Subject to section 161.139, the commissioner shall adopt a suitable design to mark this highway and erect appropriate signs. new text end