SF 4485

Introduction - 94th Legislature (2025 - 2026)

Posted on 03/18/2026 09:19 a.m.

A bill for an act
relating to health; establishing a psilocybin therapeutic use program; establishing
protections for registered patients, registered suppliers, registered facilitators, and
health care practitioners; authorizing rulemaking; authorizing civil actions;
establishing fees; classifying data; establishing an advisory committee; providing
criminal penalties; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024,
section 152.02, subdivisions 2, 5; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota
Statutes, chapter 152.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

ARTICLE 1

THERAPEUTIC USE OF PSILOCYBIN

Section 1. new text begin PURPOSE.
new text end

new text begin The purpose of this act is to establish a legal, regulated framework for the therapeutic
use of psilocybin by individuals who are 21 years of age or older with a licensed facilitator,
have been diagnosed with a qualifying medical condition, and meet the other requirements
for enrollment in the program.
new text end

Sec. 2.

new text begin [152.40] DEFINITIONS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Application. new text end

new text begin For purposes of sections 152.40 to 152.53, the following
terms have the meanings given.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Administration session. new text end

new text begin "Administration session" means a session supervised
by a registered facilitator during which a registered patient consumes and experiences the
effects of psilocybin.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Commissioner. new text end

new text begin "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Health care practitioner. new text end

new text begin "Health care practitioner" means a Minnesota-licensed
physician.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Integration session. new text end

new text begin "Integration session" means a meeting between a registered
patient and a registered facilitator that occurs after the completion of an administration
session.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Preparation session. new text end

new text begin "Preparation session" means a meeting between a
registered patient and a registered facilitator that occurs before an administration session.
Preparation session does not mean an initial consultation between a registered patient and
a registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, an inquiry from a registered patient to a
registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, or a registered facilitator's response to a
registered patient's inquiry regarding psilocybin use.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Program. new text end

new text begin "Program" means the psilocybin therapeutic use program established
in sections 152.40 to 152.53.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Program research institution. new text end

new text begin "Program research institution" means a
Minnesota nonprofit or academic institution that advises and assists with program data
collection for public health monitoring, training, continuing education, and ethical oversight
requirements.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Psilocybin. new text end

new text begin "Psilocybin" means any mushroom in raw, dried, or prepared form
that contains the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite, psilocin.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee or advisory
committee. new text end

new text begin "Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee" or "advisory committee" means
the advisory committee established in section 152.53.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 11. new text end

new text begin Qualifying medical condition. new text end

new text begin "Qualifying medical condition" means a
medical condition designated by the commissioner for which psilocybin shows evidence
for an appropriate therapeutic use, including but not limited to post-traumatic stress disorder,
depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, and chronic pain.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 12. new text end

new text begin Registered facilitator. new text end

new text begin "Registered facilitator" means an individual registered
with the commissioner to provide services in preparation sessions and integration sessions
and to supervise administration sessions.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 13. new text end

new text begin Registered patient. new text end

new text begin "Registered patient" means a Minnesota resident certified
by a health care practitioner as having a qualifying medical condition and enrolled in the
psilocybin therapeutic use program.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 14. new text end

new text begin Registered supplier. new text end

new text begin "Registered supplier" means an individual or entity
licensed by the state to cultivate psilocybin for facilitated use in administration sessions.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 15. new text end

new text begin Testing facility. new text end

new text begin "Testing facility" means a Minnesota entity certified by the
state to test the quality and dose of psilocybin to be used for treatment sessions.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 16. new text end

new text begin Treatment facility. new text end

new text begin "Treatment facility" means a Minnesota health clinic or
center that has been licensed by the state with appropriately trained staff and safety equipment
for facilitated sessions. For accommodations for homebound patients, treatment facilities
can be at the patient's home with a registered facilitator and appropriate safety equipment
provided by the registered facilitator.
new text end

Sec. 3.

new text begin [152.41] PSILOCYBIN THERAPEUTIC USE PROGRAM.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Establishment. new text end

new text begin The commissioner of health must establish and administer
a psilocybin therapeutic use program according to sections 152.40 to 152.53 in which
individuals 21 years of age or older who have a qualifying medical condition and meet the
other eligibility requirements may enroll in the program and are able to access and use
psilocybin with a registered facilitator at a treatment facility.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Rulemaking. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner must adopt rules to govern the operation
of the program. The rules must at least:
new text end

new text begin (1) specify the qualifying medical conditions that an individual must be diagnosed with
in order to enroll in the program, based on emerging evidence from scientific research and
clinical trials evaluated in the psychedelic medicine task force legislative report, including
but not limited to post-traumatic stress disorder, depression, substance use disorders, anxiety,
chronic pain, and other conditions where scientific evidence shows there may be therapeutic
benefit;
new text end

new text begin (2) specify testing standards in collaboration with the program research institution for
psilocybin mushrooms to ensure safety, appropriate dosing for treatment sessions, and
preventing diversion;
new text end

new text begin (3) establish a standardized questionnaire in collaboration with the program research
institution for use by health care practitioners to conduct health screenings of individuals
seeking to enroll in the program;
new text end

new text begin (4) establish a standardized formal risk assessment tool in collaboration with program
research for use by health care practitioners to evaluate identified contraindications in
individuals seeking to enroll in the program;
new text end

new text begin (5) establish qualifications in collaboration with the program research institution to
register with the commissioner as a facilitator, including any additional subjects for which
individuals must demonstrate competency and specify how individuals must demonstrate
competency in the required subjects; and
new text end

new text begin (6) establish qualifications to register with the commissioner as a cultivator in
collaboration with the program research institution, including any additional subjects for
which individuals must demonstrate competency in the required subjects and standards for
cultivation. Cultivators must work with testing facilities to ensure appropriate quality and
dosing of psilocybin before releasing psilocybin to registered facilitators and patients for
treatment.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner must consult with the advisory committee and the program research
institution in adopting rules under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (c) Rules for which notice is published in the State Register before July 1, 2027, may
be adopted using the expedited rulemaking process in section 14.389. The notice of the
proposed rule for the requirements in paragraph (a) must be published in the State Register
no later than January 1, 2027.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Evaluation and research. new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner must collect from registered
patients de-identified data on: (1) the frequency with which registered patients use psilocybin
in administration sessions; (2) the qualifying medical conditions for which psilocybin is
used; (3) the outcomes from psilocybin use experienced by registered patients; (4) adverse
effects of psilocybin use experienced by registered patients; and (5) any changes to utilization
by other health care, social services, or government-funded programs. Registered patients
and registered facilitators must provide data to the commissioner in a form and manner
specified by the commissioner. The commissioner must use data collected under this
paragraph to evaluate the program and, in consultation with the advisory committee and in
collaboration with the program research institution, develop recommendations to improve
the program. A program research institution may consult and partner with federal health
and research institutions.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner may support research that investigates novel therapeutic uses of
psilocybin and psilocin. In determining whether to support research initiatives, the
commissioner must consider the recommendations of the task force authorized under Laws
2023, chapter 70, article 4, section 99.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Interagency agreement with office of cannabis management. new text end

new text begin The
commissioner must enter into an interagency agreement with the commissioner of the Office
of Cannabis Management for administration of the psilocybin therapeutic use program. The
commissioner of the Office of Cannabis Management must have oversight over the following
program functions:
new text end

new text begin (1) registered patient registries;
new text end

new text begin (2) registered facilitator licensing; and
new text end

new text begin (3) cultivation and testing of mushrooms in raw, dried, or prepared form that contain
the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite, psilocin.
new text end

Sec. 4.

new text begin [152.42] ELIGIBILITY AND ENROLLMENT IN PROGRAM.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Registration system. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must administer a secure
registration system to track patients enrolled in the program while protecting patients'
privacy.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Eligibility for enrollment. new text end

new text begin (a) To enroll in the program, an individual must:
new text end

new text begin (1) be 21 years of age or older;
new text end

new text begin (2) submit to the commissioner a written certification from a health care practitioner
dated within 90 days of submission and verifying the individual's diagnosis with a qualifying
medical condition;
new text end

new text begin (3) submit to the commissioner a written certification or certifications from one or more
health care practitioners dated within 90 days of submission and verifying that either:
new text end

new text begin (i) the detailed health screening conducted according to subdivision 3 did not identify
contraindications to the individual's use of psilocybin; or
new text end

new text begin (ii) the detailed health screening identified contraindications to the individual's use of
psilocybin, but a health care practitioner conducted a further evaluation using a formal risk
assessment tool and determined that the individual's identified contraindications should not
preclude the individual from using psilocybin; and
new text end

new text begin (4) submit an application to the commissioner in a form and manner specified by the
commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (b) Individuals may apply for enrollment in the program beginning January 1, 2027.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Health screening; evaluation. new text end

new text begin An individual who wishes to enroll in the
program must have a detailed health screening performed by a health care practitioner to
identify whether the individual has a qualifying medical condition and if the individual has
any significant physical or mental health conditions or medications that are contraindications
to the use of psilocybin. Contraindicated conditions may include but are not limited to
cardiovascular disease, psychosis, and bipolar disorders. Contraindicated medications include
but are not limited to lithium, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tramadol, and
amphetamine stimulants. If the health care practitioner determines in the screening that the
individual has one or more contraindications to the use of psilocybin, the individual must
have the contraindication further evaluated by a health care practitioner using a formal risk
assessment tool. An individual who has an additional evaluation performed may proceed
with an application under subdivision 2 only if the health care practitioner performing the
additional evaluation determines that the individual's identified contraindications should
not preclude the individual from using psilocybin.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Informed consent. new text end

new text begin Upon receiving the individual's complete application and
certifications required under subdivision 2, the commissioner must provide the individual
with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, potential adverse
effects of psilocybin use, and possible interactions between psilocybin and other commonly
used drugs, along with a document, to be signed and returned by the individual, that the
individual has read and understood the information provided and wishes to enroll in the
program. An individual who wishes to proceed with the individual's application must sign
and date the informed consent form and return the form to the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Enrollment. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must approve or deny the individual's application
within 60 days after receiving the individual's informed consent form under subdivision 4.
Upon approval of an individual's application and receipt of the enrollment fee required
under section 152.52, the commissioner must register the individual in the program and
issue the individual a card that permits the registered patient to access psilocybin with a
registered facilitator at a treatment facility.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Renewal. new text end

new text begin (a) A registered patient's registration is valid for 12 months from the
date of issuance. A registered patient who wishes to renew the registration must submit, at
least 60 days before the registration expires: (1) an application for registration renewal; (2)
written certifications that meet the requirements in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2)
and (3); and (3) the fee required under section 152.52. The commissioner must approve or
deny a registered patient's renewal application within 60 days after receiving the complete
application and written certifications.
new text end

new text begin (b) A registered patient whose registration has been expired for less than 31 days may
renew the registration under paragraph (a). A registered patient whose registration has been
expired for 31 or more days must apply for enrollment according to subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Permitted acts. new text end

new text begin (a) Subject to section 152.46, a registered patient is permitted
to:
new text end

new text begin (1) designate a registered facilitator; and
new text end

new text begin (2) consume the recommended amount of psilocybin at a treatment center with an
approved facilitator according to the recommended dosing limit.
new text end

new text begin (b) Subject to section 152.46, a registered supplier and testing facility registered with
the commissioner is permitted to cultivate and possess psilocybin, provided the cultivation
and testing is performed according to section 152.43 and the total amount possessed does
not exceed the limit designated by the program.
new text end

new text begin (c) Subject to section 152.46, a registered facilitator is permitted, according to section
152.44, to obtain psilocybin from a registered supplier, transport psilocybin to the treatment
center, provide services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration sessions,
and administer psilocybin and supervise administration sessions of registered patients.
new text end

new text begin (d) No civil or criminal penalty shall be imposed on:
new text end

new text begin (1) a registered patient solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (a);
new text end

new text begin (2) a registered cultivator and testing facility solely for engaging in an act listed in
paragraph (b); or
new text end

new text begin (3) a registered facilitator solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (c).
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Program initiation. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must approve an initial program
structured to include:
new text end

new text begin (1) between 20 to 50 registered facilitators with experience conducting clinical trials
with psilocybin or administering ketamine-assisted therapy;
new text end

new text begin (2) at least three testing facilities; and
new text end

new text begin (3) no more than 1,000 patients with qualifying medical conditions into the program
during the first three years.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Program evaluation. new text end

new text begin The commissioner, in consultation with the advisory
committee and the program research institution, must evaluate the program at the end of
the three-year period.
new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin [152.43] CULTIVATION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Cultivation authorized. new text end

new text begin (a) A registered patient and registered facilitator
may compensate a registered supplier who cultivates psilocybin for the program at a
registered facility. Compensating a registered supplier for cultivation under this subdivision
does not constitute the sale or commercial distribution of psilocybin.
new text end

new text begin (b) Before cultivating psilocybin for the program, a registered supplier must register
with the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (c) A registered supplier must:
new text end

new text begin (1) cultivate psilocybin only for approved treatment facilities, registered facilitators, and
registered patients in an amount that does not exceed the cultivation limit as established by
the commissioner of health; and
new text end

new text begin (2) not cultivate psilocybin in an amount that exceeds the cultivation limit provided
under the registered supplier's license as designated by the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Secure location. new text end

new text begin Cultivation by a licensed cultivator must take place at an
approved location in an enclosed and locked space that is not accessible to the public or to
individuals under 21 years of age and contains on-site testing facilities for quality and
potency testing.
new text end

Sec. 6.

new text begin [152.44] LOCATION AND FACILITATOR; ADMINISTRATION SESSIONS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Location. new text end

new text begin A registered patient may use psilocybin in an administration
session only at:
new text end

new text begin (1) an approved private residence, including the curtilage or yard of the residence, unless
the property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property; or
new text end

new text begin (2) a licensed treatment facility, unless the property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin
on the property.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Registered facilitator. new text end

new text begin A registered facilitator must be physically present with
a registered patient during an administration session to supervise the registered patient's use
of psilocybin and to contact emergency services if necessary during the administration
session. As a condition of supervising an administration session for a registered patient, a
registered facilitator may require the registered patient to also participate in a preparation
session and an integration session with the registered facilitator. A registered facilitator may
charge a reasonable fee for the registered facilitator's services.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Informed consent. new text end

new text begin (a) Before a registered facilitator supervises a registered
patient's administration session, the registered facilitator must provide the registered patient
with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, what to expect
in an administration session, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, and possible
interactions between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs. Registered patients will
also be allowed to opt in for consent to data collection to be used for program monitoring.
new text end

new text begin (b) A registered patient who wishes to proceed with an administration session must sign
and date a document stating that the patient has been informed of and understands the
information provided in paragraph (a). A registered facilitator must maintain a signed
informed consent document for two years after receipt.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Chain of custody for psilocybin and psilocin. new text end

new text begin Before a registered patient's
administration session, a registered facilitator or registered patient must procure the
recommended dose of psilocybin from a registered supplier. At the time of exchange between
a registered supplier and a registered facilitator or registered patient, both the registered
supplier and the registered facilitator or the registered patient must attest to the exchange
on a form and in a manner specified by the commissioner, which must include, at a minimum,
the specific amount of psilocybin exchanged. Before an administration session, a registered
facilitator and registered patient must attest to the specific dose amount of psilocybin that
will be used in the treatment session in a form and manner specified by the commissioner.
new text end

Sec. 7.

new text begin [152.45] REGISTERED FACILITATOR.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Registration required; qualifications. new text end

new text begin An individual must register with
the commissioner as a facilitator in order to supervise administration sessions for registered
patients and to provide registered patients with services in preparation sessions and integration
sessions. To register as a facilitator, an individual must:
new text end

new text begin (1) be 21 years of age or older;
new text end

new text begin (2) possess a license as a mental health professional as defined in section 245I.02,
subdivision 27; and
new text end

new text begin (3) demonstrate competency, in a manner determined by the commissioner in
collaboration with the program research institution on: (i) facilitator ethics; (ii) the safe use
of psilocybin; (iii) the duties of a facilitator during preparation sessions, administration
sessions, and integration sessions; and (iv) other topics as determined by the commissioner
and the program research institution.
new text end

new text begin An individual who holds a license, registration, or certification from a health-related licensing
board as defined in section 214.01, subdivision 2; from the Office of Emergency Medical
Services; or from the commissioner authorizing the individual to practice a health-related
occupation may also serve as a registered facilitator.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Application for registration; registration renewal. new text end

new text begin (a) An individual who
wishes to register as a facilitator must apply to the commissioner on a form and in a manner
specified by the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (b) A registration issued under this section is valid for 12 months from the date of
issuance. An individual who wishes to renew the individual's registration must apply for
registration renewal, on a form and in a manner specified by the commissioner, at least 60
days before the individual's registration expires. In evaluating an application for registration
renewal, the commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner
under subdivision 3 and may decline to renew an individual's registration if the commissioner
determines, based on complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not
perform the duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner. The commissioner must
approve or deny a registered facilitator's renewal application within 60 days after receiving
the facilitator's complete application.
new text end

new text begin (c) A registered facilitator whose registration has been expired for less than 31 days may
renew the registration under paragraph (b). A registered facilitator whose registration has
been expired for 31 or more days must apply for registration according to paragraph (a),
except the commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner under
subdivision 3 and may decline to register the individual if the commissioner determines,
based on complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the
duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner.
new text end

new text begin (d) Individuals may apply for registration as a facilitator beginning October 1, 2026.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Complaints. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must accept complaints from registered patients
and other interested individuals regarding a registered facilitator's failure to supervise an
administration session in a safe or ethical manner or failure to provide services in a
preparation session or an integration session in a safe or ethical manner.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin List of registered facilitators. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must post on the Department
of Health website the names and contact information of registered facilitators.
new text end

Sec. 8.

new text begin [152.46] LIMITATIONS.
new text end

new text begin Nothing in sections 152.40 to 152.53 permits an individual to:
new text end

new text begin (1) participate in the program if the individual is under 21 years of age;
new text end

new text begin (2) sell psilocybin to an individual or engage in the distribution of psilocybin to anyone
not registered in the program;
new text end

new text begin (3) establish treatment centers on the grounds of a public school, as defined in section
120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, or a charter school governed by chapter 124E, including
all owned, rented, or leased facilities and all vehicles that a school district owns, leases,
rents, contracts for, or controls;
new text end

new text begin (4) establish treatment centers in a state correctional facility;
new text end

new text begin (5) if the individual is a registered facilitator, provide psilocybin to an individual who
is not a registered patient or supervise the administration session of an individual who is
not a registered patient; or
new text end

new text begin (6) if the individual is a registered supplier, cultivate psilocybin not intended to be used
in the program for registered patients.
new text end

Sec. 9.

new text begin [152.47] CRIMINAL AND CIVIL PROTECTIONS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Forfeiture. new text end

new text begin Psilocybin cultivated or obtained under sections 152.40 to
152.53 and associated property are not subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531 to
609.5316.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Protections for public employees. new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding any law to the contrary,
the commissioner, the governor of Minnesota, or an employee of any state agency may not
be held civilly or criminally liable for any injury, loss of property, personal injury, or death
caused by any act or omission while acting within the scope of their office or employment
under sections 152.40 to 152.53.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Search warrant. new text end

new text begin Federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities are
prohibited from accessing the patient registry under sections 152.40 to 152.53 except when
acting pursuant to a valid search warrant.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Evidence in criminal proceeding. new text end

new text begin No information contained in a report,
document, or registry or obtained from a patient under sections 152.40 to 152.53 may be
admitted as evidence in a criminal proceeding unless independently obtained or in connection
with a proceeding involving a violation of sections 152.40 to 152.53. Any person who
violates this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Possession of registry card or application. new text end

new text begin The possession of a registry card
or application for enrollment in the program by an individual entitled to possess a registry
card or apply for enrollment in the program does not constitute probable cause or reasonable
suspicion and shall not be used to support a search of the person or property of the individual
possessing the registry card or application, or otherwise subject the person or property of
the individual to inspection by any governmental agency.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Employment. new text end

new text begin An employer must not discriminate against a registered patient,
registered supplier, or registered facilitator in hiring, termination, or any term or condition
of employment or otherwise penalize a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered
facilitator based on the lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services
in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or
use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless:
new text end

new text begin (1) the employer's failure to act would violate federal law or regulations or would cause
the employer to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations;
or
new text end

new text begin (2) the registered patient's use of psilocybin directly impacts the registered patient's job
performance or safety requirements of the registered patient's job position.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Housing. new text end

new text begin No landlord may refuse to lease to or evict a registered patient,
registered supplier, or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging in the psilocybin
program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the landlord's failure to do so would violate
federal law or regulations or would cause the landlord to lose a monetary or licensing-related
benefit under federal law or regulations.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Education. new text end

new text begin No school may refuse to enroll a registered patient, registered
supplier, or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging with their respective treatment
or duties for the psilocybin program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the school's
failure to do so would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the school to lose
a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Custody; visitation; parenting time. new text end

new text begin A registered patient, registered supplier,
or registered facilitator must not be denied custody of a minor child or visitation rights or
parenting time with a minor child based solely on the registered patient's, registered supplier's,
or registered facilitator's lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services
in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or
use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless a registered patient's designated
behavior creates an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as demonstrated by clear
and convincing evidence.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Action for damages. new text end

new text begin In addition to any other remedy provided by law, a
registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator who is injured by a violation
of subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 may bring an action for damages against a person who violates
subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9. A person who violates subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 is liable to the
registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator injured by the violation for
the greater of the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or registered facilitator's actual
damages or a civil penalty of $100, plus reasonable attorney fees.
new text end

Sec. 10.

new text begin [152.48] VIOLATIONS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Diversion by registered patient, registered supplier, or registered
facilitator. new text end

new text begin In addition to any other applicable penalty in law, a registered patient, registered
supplier, or registered facilitator who intentionally sells or otherwise transfers psilocybin
to a person other than a registered patient is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment
for not more than two years or by payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin False statement. new text end

new text begin An individual who intentionally makes a false statement to
a law enforcement official about any fact or circumstance relating to the therapeutic use of
psilocybin to avoid arrest or prosecution is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by
imprisonment for not more than 90 days or by payment of a fine of not more than $1,000,
or both. The penalty is in addition to any other penalties that may apply for making a false
statement or for the possession, cultivation, or sale of psilocybin not protected by sections
152.40 to 152.53. If a person convicted of violating this subdivision is a registered patient,
registered supplier, or registered facilitator, the person is disqualified from further
participation under the program.
new text end

Sec. 11.

new text begin [152.49] PROTECTIONS FOR HEALTH CARE PRACTITIONERS AND
REGISTERED FACILITATORS.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Health care practitioners. new text end

new text begin The Board of Medical Practice or Board of
Nursing must not impose civil or disciplinary penalties on, or limit or condition the practice
of, a health care practitioner licensed by the Board of Medical Practice or Board of Nursing
solely for certifying that an individual has a diagnosis of a qualifying medical condition
under section 152.42, subdivision 2, or performing health screenings or additional evaluations
under section 152.42, subdivision 3.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Registered facilitators. new text end

new text begin (a) A health-related licensing board, the Office of
Emergency Medical Services, or the commissioner must not impose civil or disciplinary
penalties on, or limit or condition the practice of, a registered facilitator who also holds a
license, registration, or certification from the health-related licensing board, the Office of
Emergency Medical Services, or the commissioner solely for obtaining and transporting
psilocybin for registered patients, providing services to registered patients in preparation
sessions and integration sessions, or administering psilocybin and supervising administration
sessions of registered patients, provided the services are provided or supervision is performed
under sections 152.40 to 152.53. No existing disciplinary procedures for complaints to the
health licensing boards shall be changed.
new text end

new text begin (b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), the health-related licensing boards include the
Board of Medical Practice, Board of Nursing, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work,
Board of Marriage and Family Therapy, and Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy.
new text end

Sec. 12.

new text begin [152.50] PUBLIC EDUCATION AND HARM REDUCTION.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Public education program. new text end

new text begin The commissioner, in collaboration with
the program research institution, must develop and implement a public education program
that makes information available to the public on the responsible use of psilocybin, potential
risks of using psilocybin, harm reduction strategies related to psilocybin use, and mental
health resources related to psilocybin use.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Training programs for first responders. new text end

new text begin The commissioner, in collaboration
with the program research institution, must develop and offer training programs for
emergency medical responders, ambulance service personnel, peace officers, and other first
responders on best practices for handling situations involving the use of psilocybin. The
training programs must be developed and offered in coordination with the Office of
Emergency Medical Services, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, the Minnesota
State Patrol, and local law enforcement agencies.
new text end

Sec. 13.

new text begin [152.51] DATA PRACTICES; ACCESS TO AND USE OF DATA.
new text end

new text begin (a) Except for the data specified in section 152.45, subdivision 4, data submitted to the
commissioner under section 152.42, 152.43, or 152.45:
new text end

new text begin (1) is private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, or nonpublic
data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 9; and
new text end

new text begin (2) may only be used to comply with chapter 13, to comply with a request from the
legislative auditor or state auditors in the performance of official duties, and for purposes
specified in sections 152.40 to 152.53.
new text end

new text begin (b) The data specified in paragraph (a) must not be combined or linked in any manner
with any other list, data set, or database and must not be shared with any federal agency,
federal department, or federal entity unless specifically ordered by a state or federal court,
or as part of a federally approved research project for monitoring of the program where a
certificate of confidentiality is obtained by a federal agency to protect the identities of the
program registrants.
new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin [152.52] FEES.
new text end

new text begin (a) The commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from each patient whose
enrollment application or renewal application is approved by the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), if the patient provides evidence to the commissioner
of receiving Social Security disability insurance, Supplemental Security Income, or veterans
disability or railroad disability payments, or of being enrolled in medical assistance or
MinnesotaCare, the commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from the patient after
approving the patient's enrollment application or renewal application.
new text end

new text begin (c) Fees collected under this section must be deposited in the state treasury and credited
to the state government special revenue fund. The commissioner may request appropriations
of fee revenue to distribute as grants to fund Minnesota-based research exploring the
effectiveness of psilocybin for additional conditions.
new text end

Sec. 15.

new text begin [152.53] PSYCHEDELIC MEDICINE ADVISORY COMMITTEE.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Establishment. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must establish a Psychedelic Medicine
Advisory Committee to advise the commissioner on the operation of the psilocybin
therapeutic use program under sections 152.40 to 152.53.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Membership. new text end

new text begin (a) The advisory committee shall consist of:
new text end

new text begin (1) ... members with knowledge or expertise regarding the therapeutic use of psilocybin
and other psychedelic medicines, integration resources associated with the use of psilocybin,
and cultivation and testing of psilocybin. The commissioner must make recommendations
to the governor for members appointed under this clause, and the governor must appoint
members under this clause; and
new text end

new text begin (2) one member representing Tribal Nations in the state, appointed by the Indian Affairs
Council.
new text end

new text begin (b) Initial appointments must be made to the advisory committee by November 1, 2026.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Chairperson. new text end

new text begin Members of the advisory committee must elect a chairperson
from among the advisory committee's members.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Terms; compensation; removal of members. new text end

new text begin The advisory committee is
governed by section 15.059, except the advisory committee does not expire.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Meetings. new text end

new text begin The advisory committee must meet at least four times per year or at
the call of the chairperson. The initial meeting of the advisory committee must occur by
December 1, 2026, and must be called by the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Staff support; office space; equipment. new text end

new text begin The commissioner must provide the
advisory committee with staff support, office space, and access to office equipment and
services.
new text end

Sec. 16. new text begin APPROPRIATION.
new text end

new text begin $....... in fiscal year 2026 and $....... in fiscal year 2027 are appropriated from the general
fund to the commissioner of health for purposes of Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.40 to
152.53.
new text end

ARTICLE 2

SCHEDULING OF PSILOCYBIN

Section 1.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2.

Schedule I.

(a) Schedule I consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.

(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the
following substances, including their analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of
isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the analogs, isomers, esters, ethers,
and salts is possible:

(1) acetylmethadol;

(2) allylprodine;

(3) alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levomethadyl
acetate);

(4) alphameprodine;

(5) alphamethadol;

(6) alpha-methylfentanyl benzethidine;

(7) betacetylmethadol;

(8) betameprodine;

(9) betamethadol;

(10) betaprodine;

(11) clonitazene;

(12) dextromoramide;

(13) diampromide;

(14) diethyliambutene;

(15) difenoxin;

(16) dimenoxadol;

(17) dimepheptanol;

(18) dimethyliambutene;

(19) dioxaphetyl butyrate;

(20) dipipanone;

(21) ethylmethylthiambutene;

(22) etonitazene;

(23) etoxeridine;

(24) furethidine;

(25) hydroxypethidine;

(26) ketobemidone;

(27) levomoramide;

(28) levophenacylmorphan;

(29) 3-methylfentanyl;

(30) acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl;

(31) alpha-methylthiofentanyl;

(32) benzylfentanyl beta-hydroxyfentanyl;

(33) beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl;

(34) 3-methylthiofentanyl;

(35) thenylfentanyl;

(36) thiofentanyl;

(37) para-fluorofentanyl;

(38) morpheridine;

(39) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;

(40) noracymethadol;

(41) norlevorphanol;

(42) normethadone;

(43) norpipanone;

(44) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP);

(45) phenadoxone;

(46) phenampromide;

(47) phenomorphan;

(48) phenoperidine;

(49) piritramide;

(50) proheptazine;

(51) properidine;

(52) propiram;

(53) racemoramide;

(54) tilidine;

(55) trimeperidine;

(56) N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (acetyl fentanyl);

(57) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1R,2R)-2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-
methylbenzamide (U47700);

(58) N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]furan-2-carboxamide (furanylfentanyl);

(59) 4-(4-bromophenyl)-4-dimethylamino-1-phenethylcyclohexanol (bromadol);

(60) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide (cyclopropyl
fentanyl);

(61) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) (butyryl fentanyl);

(62) 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) (MT-45);

(63) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide (cyclopentyl
fentanyl);

(64) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide (isobutyryl fentanyl);

(65) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide (valeryl fentanyl);

(66) N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide
(para-chloroisobutyryl fentanyl);

(67) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide (para-fluorobutyryl
fentanyl);

(68) N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide
(para-methoxybutyryl fentanyl);

(69) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide (ocfentanil);

(70) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide (4-fluoroisobutyryl
fentanyl or para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);

(71) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide (acryl fentanyl or
acryloylfentanyl);

(72) 2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (methoxyacetyl
fentanyl);

(73) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide (ortho-fluorofentanyl
or 2-fluorofentanyl);

(74) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide
(tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl);

(75) Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers,
esters and ethers, meaning any substance not otherwise listed under another federal
Administration Controlled Substance Code Number or not otherwise listed in this section,
and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under section 505 of the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 355, that is structurally related
to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:

(i) replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether
or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;

(ii) substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo,
haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(iii) substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether,
hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(iv) replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further
substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or

(v) replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl group;

(76) 1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-
dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one (brorphine);

(77) 4'-methyl acetyl fentanyl;

(78) beta-hydroxythiofentanyl;

(79) beta-methyl fentanyl;

(80) beta'-phenyl fentanyl;

(81) crotonyl fentanyl ((E)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbut-2-enamide);

(82) cyclopropyl fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide);

(83) fentanyl carbamate;

(84) isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4
isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(85) para-fluoro furanyl fentanyl;

(86) para-methylfentanyl;

(87) phenyl fentanyl;

(88) ortho-fluoroacryl fentanyl;

(89) ortho-fluorobutyryl fentanyl;

(90) ortho-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl;

(91) ortho-methyl acetylfentanyl;

(92) thiofuranyl fentanyl;

(93) metonitazene
(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(94) metodesnitazene
(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(95) etodesnitazene; etazene
(2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);

(96) protonitazene
(N,N-diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(97) butonitazene
(2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);

(98) flunitazene
(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine); and

(99) N-pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne
(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole).

(c) Opium derivatives. Any of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers,
and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule,
whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) acetorphine;

(2) acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) benzylmorphine;

(4) codeine methylbromide;

(5) codeine-n-oxide;

(6) cyprenorphine;

(7) desomorphine;

(8) dihydromorphine;

(9) drotebanol;

(10) etorphine;

(11) heroin;

(12) hydromorphinol;

(13) methyldesorphine;

(14) methyldihydromorphine;

(15) morphine methylbromide;

(16) morphine methylsulfonate;

(17) morphine-n-oxide;

(18) myrophine;

(19) nicocodeine;

(20) nicomorphine;

(21) normorphine;

(22) pholcodine; and

(23) thebacon.

(d) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any
quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers (whether optical, positional,
or geometric), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another
schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is
possible:

(1) methylenedioxy amphetamine;

(2) methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(3) methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (MDEA);

(4) n-hydroxy-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(5) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOB);

(6) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (2,5-DMA);

(7) 4-methoxyamphetamine;

(8) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(9) alpha-ethyltryptamine;

(10) bufotenine;

(11) diethyltryptamine;

(12) dimethyltryptamine;

(13) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine;

(14) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM);

(15) ibogaine;

(16) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);

(17) mescaline;

(18) parahexyl;

(19) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(20) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

deleted text begin (21) psilocybin;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (22) psilocyn;
deleted text end

deleted text begin (23) deleted text end new text begin (21) new text end tenocyclidine (TPCP or TCP);

deleted text begin (24) deleted text end new text begin (22) new text end N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclohexylamine (PCE);

deleted text begin (25) deleted text end new text begin (23) new text end 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine (PCPy);

deleted text begin (26) deleted text end new text begin (24) new text end 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]-pyrrolidine (TCPy);

deleted text begin (27) deleted text end new text begin (25) new text end 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOC);

deleted text begin (28) deleted text end new text begin (26) new text end 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOET);

deleted text begin (29) deleted text end new text begin (27) new text end 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOI);

deleted text begin (30) deleted text end new text begin (28) new text end 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-B);

deleted text begin (31) deleted text end new text begin (29) new text end 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);

deleted text begin (32) deleted text end new text begin (30) new text end 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-D);

deleted text begin (33) deleted text end new text begin (31) new text end 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-E);

deleted text begin (34) deleted text end new text begin (32) new text end 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);

deleted text begin (35) deleted text end new text begin (33) new text end 4-propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-P);

deleted text begin (36) deleted text end new text begin (34) new text end 4-isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-4);

deleted text begin (37) deleted text end new text begin (35) new text end 4-propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-7);

deleted text begin (38) deleted text end new text begin (36) new text end 2-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofuro [2,3-f][1]benzofuran-4-yl)ethanamine
(2-CB-FLY);

deleted text begin (39) deleted text end new text begin (37) new text end bromo-benzodifuranyl-isopropylamine (Bromo-DragonFLY);

deleted text begin (40) deleted text end new text begin (38) new text end alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

deleted text begin (41) deleted text end new text begin (39) new text end N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (DiPT);

deleted text begin (42) deleted text end new text begin (40) new text end 4-acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DMT);

deleted text begin (43) deleted text end new text begin (41) new text end 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DET);

deleted text begin (44) deleted text end new text begin (42) new text end 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-propyltryptamine (4-HO-MPT);

deleted text begin (45) deleted text end new text begin (43) new text end 4-hydroxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (4-HO-DPT);

deleted text begin (46) deleted text end new text begin (44) new text end 4-hydroxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (4-HO-DALT);

deleted text begin (47) deleted text end new text begin (45) new text end 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);

deleted text begin (48) deleted text end new text begin (46) new text end 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DiPT);

deleted text begin (49) deleted text end new text begin (47) new text end 5-methoxy-α-methyltryptamine (5-MeO-AMT);

deleted text begin (50) deleted text end new text begin (48) new text end 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DMT);

deleted text begin (51) deleted text end new text begin (49) new text end 5-methylthio-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeS-DMT);

deleted text begin (52) deleted text end new text begin (50) new text end 5-methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MiPT);

deleted text begin (53) deleted text end new text begin (51) new text end 5-methoxy-α-ethyltryptamine (5-MeO-AET);

deleted text begin (54) deleted text end new text begin (52) new text end 5-methoxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DPT);

deleted text begin (55) deleted text end new text begin (53) new text end 5-methoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DET);

deleted text begin (56) deleted text end new text begin (54) new text end 5-methoxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);

deleted text begin (57) deleted text end new text begin (55) new text end methoxetamine (MXE);

deleted text begin (58) deleted text end new text begin (56) new text end 5-iodo-2-aminoindane (5-IAI);

deleted text begin (59) deleted text end new text begin (57) new text end 5,6-methylenedioxy-2-aminoindane (MDAI);

deleted text begin (60) deleted text end new text begin (58) new text end 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25B-NBOMe);

deleted text begin (61) deleted text end new text begin (59) new text end 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25C-NBOMe);

deleted text begin (62) deleted text end new text begin (60) new text end 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25I-NBOMe);

deleted text begin (63) deleted text end new text begin (61) new text end 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H);

deleted text begin (64) deleted text end new text begin (62) new text end 2-(4-Ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-T-2);

deleted text begin (65) deleted text end new text begin (63) new text end N,N-Dipropyltryptamine (DPT);

deleted text begin (66) deleted text end new text begin (64) new text end 3-[1-(Piperidin-1-yl)cyclohexyl]phenol (3-HO-PCP);

deleted text begin (67) deleted text end new text begin (65) new text end N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanamine (3-MeO-PCE);

deleted text begin (68) deleted text end new text begin (66) new text end 4-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]morpholine (3-MeO-PCMo);

deleted text begin (69) deleted text end new text begin (67) new text end 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine (methoxydine, 4-MeO-PCP);

deleted text begin (70) deleted text end new text begin (68) new text end 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)cyclohexan-1-one (N-Ethylnorketamine,
ethketamine, NENK);

deleted text begin (71) deleted text end new text begin (69) new text end methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylamphetamine (MDDMA);

deleted text begin (72) deleted text end new text begin (70) new text end 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl (4-AcO-MET); and

deleted text begin (73) deleted text end new text begin (71) new text end 2-Phenyl-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (deschloroketamine).

(e) Peyote. All parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii
Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of the plant,
and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant,
its seeds or extracts. The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in Schedule I does not
apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies of the American Indian
Church, and members of the American Indian Church are exempt from registration. Any
person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the American Indian Church,
however, is required to obtain federal registration annually and to comply with all other
requirements of law.

(f) Central nervous system depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any
quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers
whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone;

(3) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), including its esters and ethers;

(4) flunitrazepam;

(5) 2-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (2-MeO-2-deschloroketamine,
methoxyketamine);

(6) tianeptine;

(7) clonazolam;

(8) etizolam;

(9) flubromazolam; and

(10) flubromazepam.

(g) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the
analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) aminorex;

(2) cathinone;

(3) fenethylline;

(4) methcathinone;

(5) methylaminorex;

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine;

(7) N-benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(8) methylmethcathinone (mephedrone);

(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (methylone);

(10) methoxymethcathinone (methedrone);

(11) methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);

(12) 3-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (3-FMC);

(13) methylethcathinone (MEC);

(14) 1-benzofuran-6-ylpropan-2-amine (6-APB);

(15) dimethylmethcathinone (DMMC);

(16) fluoroamphetamine;

(17) fluoromethamphetamine;

(18) α-methylaminobutyrophenone (MABP or buphedrone);

(19) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone);

(20) 2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)butan-1-one (4-MEMABP or BZ-6378);

(21) 1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl) pentan-1-one (naphthylpyrovalerone or
naphyrone);

(22) (alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone (alpha-PVP);

(23) (RS)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-hexanone (4-Me-PHP or MPHP);

(24) 2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-hexanophenone (Alpha-PHP);

(25) 4-methyl-N-ethylcathinone (4-MEC);

(26) 4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP);

(27) 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone);

(28) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone);

(29) 4-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (4-FMC);

(30) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone (ethylone);

(31) alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (α-PBP);

(32) 5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (5-APDB);

(33) 1-phenyl-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-heptanone (PV8);

(34) 6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (6-APDB);

(35) 4-methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone (4-MEAPP);

(36) 4'-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4'-chloro-PPP);

(37) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)butan-1-one (dibutylone, bk-DMBDB);

(38) 1-(3-chlorophenyl) piperazine (meta-chlorophenylpiperazine or mCPP);

(39) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-pentan-1-one (N-ethylpentylone, ephylone);

(40) any other substance, except bupropion or compounds listed under a different
schedule, that is structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the
1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the
compound is further modified in any of the following ways:

(i) by substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy,
haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring
system by one or more other univalent substituents;

(ii) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;

(iii) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or
methoxybenzyl groups; or

(iv) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;

(41) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex (4,4'-DMAR;
4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine);

(42) 4-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (4-chloro-A-PVP);

(43) para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA),
1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine; and

(44) N-ethylhexedrone.

(h) Synthetic cannabinoids, including the following substances:

(1) Naphthoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-napthoyl)indole
structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl,
alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or
2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any
extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of
naphthoylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM-678);

(ii) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073);

(iii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-081);

(iv) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200);

(v) 1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-015);

(vi) 1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019);

(vii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122);

(viii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-210);

(ix) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398);

(x) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM-2201).

(2) Napthylmethylindoles, which are any compounds containing a
1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the
indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,
1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further
substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl
ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylmethylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-175);

(ii) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-184).

(3) Naphthoylpyrroles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole
structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl,
alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or
2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any
extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of
naphthoylpyrroles include, but are not limited to,
(5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone (JWH-307).

(4) Naphthylmethylindenes, which are any compounds containing a naphthylideneindene
structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,
cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or
2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any
extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of
naphthylemethylindenes include, but are not limited to,
E-1-[1-(1-naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane (JWH-176).

(5) Phenylacetylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-phenylacetylindole
structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl,
alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or
2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any
extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of
phenylacetylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (RCS-8);

(ii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250);

(iii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-251);

(iv) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203).

(6) Cyclohexylphenols, which are compounds containing a
2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic
ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl,
1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not substituted
in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of cyclohexylphenols include, but are not
limited to:

(i) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP 47,497);

(ii) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (Cannabicyclohexanol
or CP 47,497 C8 homologue);

(iii) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,2R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl]
-phenol (CP 55,940).

(7) Benzoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(benzoyl)indole structure
with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl,
cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or
2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any
extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of
benzoylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole (RCS-4);

(ii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM-694);

(iii) (4-methoxyphenyl-[2-methyl-1-(2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3-yl]methanone
(WIN 48,098 or Pravadoline).

(8) Others specifically named:

(i) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)
-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (HU-210);

(ii) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)
-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (Dexanabinol or HU-211);

(iii) 2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]
-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);

(iv) (1-pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144);

(v) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
(XLR-11);

(vi) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(AKB-48(APINACA));

(vii) N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(5-Fluoro-AKB-48);

(viii) 1-pentyl-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (PB-22);

(ix) 8-quinolinyl ester-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (5-Fluoro PB-22);

(x) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(AB-PINACA);

(xi) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]-
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA);

(xii) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-
indazole-3-carboxamide(AB-CHMINACA);

(xiii) (S)-methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate
(5-fluoro-AMB);

(xiv) [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (THJ-2201);

(xv) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone)
(FUBIMINA);

(xvi) (7-methoxy-1-(2-morpholinoethyl)-N-((1S,2S,4R)-1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo
[2.2.1]heptan-2-yl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (MN-25 or UR-12);

(xvii)
(S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide
(5-fluoro-ABICA);

(xviii)
N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;

(xix)
N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;

(xx) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xxi) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1(cyclohexylmethyl)
-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (MAB-CHMINACA);

(xxii) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxo-2-butanyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(ADB-PINACA);

(xxiii) methyl (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate (FUB-AMB);

(xxiv)
N-[(1S)-2-amino-2-oxo-1-(phenylmethyl)ethyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-Indazole-
3-carboxamide (APP-CHMINACA);

(xxv) quinolin-8-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (FUB-PB-22); and

(xxvi) methyl N-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl]valinate (MMB-CHMICA).

(9) Additional substances specifically named:

(i) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[2,3-B]pyridine-3-carboxamide
(5F-CUMYL-P7AICA);

(ii) 1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(4-CN-Cumyl-Butinaca);

(iii) naphthalen-1-yl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1-H-indole-3-carboxylate (NM2201; CBL2201);

(iv)
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(5F-ABPINACA);

(v) methyl-2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
(MDMB CHMICA);

(vi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
(5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA);

(vii) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)
1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-FUBINACA);

(viii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;

(ix) (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;

(x) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xii) ethyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xiii) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3- methylbutanoate;

(xiv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide; and

(xv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide.

(i) A controlled substance analog, to the extent that it is implicitly or explicitly intended
for human consumption.

Sec. 2.

Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5.

Schedule IV.

(a) Schedule IV consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.

(b) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule,
any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic
drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities
as follows:

(1) not more than one milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine
sulfate per dosage unit;

(2) dextropropoxyphene (Darvon and Darvocet);

(3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and
geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers (including tramadol);

(4) eluxadoline;

(5) pentazocine; and

(6) butorphanol (including its optical isomers).

(c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following
substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the
salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) alfaxalone (5α-pregnan-3α-ol-11,20-dione);

(2) alprazolam;

(3) barbital;

(4) bromazepam;

(5) camazepam;

(6) carisoprodol;

(7) chloral betaine;

(8) chloral hydrate;

(9) chlordiazepoxide;

(10) clobazam;

(11) clonazepam;

(12) clorazepate;

(13) clotiazepam;

(14) cloxazolam;

(15) delorazepam;

(16) diazepam;

(17) dichloralphenazone;

(18) estazolam;

(19) ethchlorvynol;

(20) ethinamate;

(21) ethyl loflazepate;

(22) fludiazepam;

(23) flurazepam;

(24) fospropofol;

(25) halazepam;

(26) haloxazolam;

(27) ketazolam;

(28) loprazolam;

(29) lorazepam;

(30) lormetazepam mebutamate;

(31) medazepam;

(32) meprobamate;

(33) methohexital;

(34) methylphenobarbital;

(35) midazolam;

(36) nimetazepam;

(37) nitrazepam;

(38) nordiazepam;

(39) oxazepam;

(40) oxazolam;

(41) paraldehyde;

(42) petrichloral;

(43) phenobarbital;

(44) pinazepam;

(45) prazepam;

(46) quazepam;

(47) suvorexant;

(48) temazepam;

(49) tetrazepam;

(50) triazolam;

(51) zaleplon;

(52) zolpidem;

(53) zopiclone;

(54) brexanolone (3α-hydroxy-5α-pregnan-20-one);

(55) lemborexant;

(56) remimazolam (4H-imidazol[1,2-a][1,4]benzodiazepine4-propionic acid).

(d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the
following substance including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the
existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible: fenfluramine.

(e) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any
material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following
substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts,
isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) cathine (norpseudoephedrine);

(2) diethylpropion;

(3) fencamfamine;

(4) fenproporex;

(5) mazindol;

(6) mefenorex;

(7) modafinil;

(8) pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);

(9) phentermine;

(10) pipradol;

(11) sibutramine;

(12) SPA (1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane);

(13) serdexmethylphenidate;

(14) solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl car-bamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-,
carbamate (ester)).

(f) lorcaserin.

new text begin (g) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any
quantity of the following substances; the substances' analogs; salts; isomers, whether optical,
positional, or geometric; and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed
in another schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of
isomers is possible:
new text end

new text begin (1) psilocybin; and
new text end

new text begin (2) psilocin.
new text end