Key: (1) language to be deleted (2) new language
An act
relating to state government; classifying or modifying certain provisions concerning data practices; requiring informed consent; amending definitions; allowing disclosure of certain data; allowing access to certain records; making technical changes; modifying certain provisions regarding transportation and health data; modifying certain provisions regarding criminal history records, criminal background checks, and other criminal justice data provisions; clarifying provisions regarding data on homestead and other tax applications; extending for six years the sunset provision for the newborn screening advisory committee; requiring a newborn screening program study; providing for destruction of data from mileage-based user fee pilot project; repealing the McGruff safe house program;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 13.37, subdivision 1; 13.386, subdivision 3; 13.43, subdivisions 2, 14; 13.4965, subdivision 3; 13.64, subdivision 2; 13.72, subdivision 10, by adding subdivisions; 144.966, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, by adding a subdivision; 171.07, subdivision 1a; 241.065, subdivision 4; 268.19, subdivision 1; 273.124, subdivision 13; 273.1315, subdivisions 1, 2; 290A.25; 299C.11, subdivision 1; 299C.46, subdivisions 1, 2, 2a, 3; 299F.035, subdivisions 1, 2; 299F.77; 340A.301, subdivision 2; 340A.402; 611.272; 611A.203, subdivision 4; 626.556, subdivision 7; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 13; 144; 273; 299C; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 299A.28.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
(a) The following data on an individual collected, maintained, or received by a government entity for notification purposes or as part of a subscription list for an entity's electronic periodic publications as requested by the individual are private data on individuals:
(1) telephone number;
(2) e-mail address; and
(3) Internet user name, password, Internet protocol address, and any other similar data related to the individual's online account or access procedures.
(b) Section 13.04, subdivision 2, does not apply to data classified under paragraph (a). Paragraph (a) does not apply to data submitted by an individual to the Campaign Finance Board to meet the legal requirements imposed by chapter 10A, to data submitted for purposes of making a public comment, or to data in a state agency's rulemaking e-mail list.
(c) Data provided under paragraph (a) may only be used for the specific purpose for which the individual provided the data.
This section is effective the day following final enactment and applies to data collected, maintained, or received before, on, or after that date.
As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(a) "Security information" means government data the disclosure of which the responsible authority determines would be likely to substantially jeopardize the security of information, possessions, individuals or property against theft, tampering, improper use, attempted escape, illegal disclosure, trespass, or physical injury. "Security information" includes crime prevention block maps and lists of volunteers who participate in community crime prevention programs and their home and mailing addresses and, telephone numbers, e-mail or other digital addresses, Internet communication services accounts information or similar accounts information, and global positioning system locations.
(b) "Trade secret information" means government data, including a formula, pattern, compilation, program, device, method, technique or process (1) that was supplied by the affected individual or organization, (2) that is the subject of efforts by the individual or organization that are reasonable under the circumstances to maintain its secrecy, and (3) that derives independent economic value, actual or potential, from not being generally known to, and not being readily ascertainable by proper means by, other persons who can obtain economic value from its disclosure or use.
(c) "Labor relations information" means management positions on economic and noneconomic items that have not been presented during the collective bargaining process or interest arbitration, including information specifically collected or created to prepare the management position.
(d) "Parking space leasing data" means the following government data on an applicant for, or lessee of, a parking space: residence address, home telephone number, beginning and ending work hours, place of employment, work telephone number, and location of the parking space.
(a) Unless otherwise expressly provided by law, genetic information about an individual:
(1) may be collected by a government entity, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 7a, or any other person only with the written informed consent of the individual;
(2) may be used only for purposes to which the individual has given written informed consent;
(3) may be stored only for a period of time to which the individual has given written informed consent; and
(4) may be disseminated only:
(i) with the individual's written informed consent; or
(ii) if necessary in order to accomplish purposes described by clause (2). A consent to disseminate genetic information under item (i) must be signed and dated. Unless otherwise provided by law, such a consent is valid for one year or for a lesser period specified in the consent.
(b) Newborn screening activities conducted under sections 144.125 to 144.128 are subject to paragraph (a). Other programs and activities governed under section 144.192 are not subject to paragraph (a).
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
(a) Except for employees described in subdivision 5 and subject to the limitations described in subdivision 5a, the following personnel data on current and former employees, volunteers, and independent contractors of a government entity is public:
(1) name; employee identification number, which must not be the employee's Social Security number; actual gross salary; salary range; terms and conditions of employment relationship; contract fees; actual gross pension; the value and nature of employer paid fringe benefits; and the basis for and the amount of any added remuneration, including expense reimbursement, in addition to salary;
(2) job title and bargaining unit; job description; education and training background; and previous work experience;
(3) date of first and last employment;
(4) the existence and status of any complaints or charges against the employee, regardless of whether the complaint or charge resulted in a disciplinary action;
(5) the final disposition of any disciplinary action together with the specific reasons for the action and data documenting the basis of the action, excluding data that would identify confidential sources who are employees of the public body;
(6) the complete terms of any agreement settling any dispute arising out of an employment relationship, including a buyout agreement as defined in section 123B.143, subdivision 2, paragraph (a); except that the agreement must include specific reasons for the agreement if it involves the payment of more than $10,000 of public money;
(7) work location; a work telephone number; badge number; work-related continuing education; and honors and awards received; and
(8) payroll time sheets or other comparable data that are only used to account for employee's work time for payroll purposes, except to the extent that release of time sheet data would reveal the employee's reasons for the use of sick or other medical leave or other not public data.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, a final disposition occurs when the government entity makes its final decision about the disciplinary action, regardless of the possibility of any later proceedings or court proceedings. Final disposition includes a resignation by an individual when the resignation occurs after the final decision of the government entity, or arbitrator. In the case of arbitration proceedings arising under collective bargaining agreements, a final disposition occurs at the conclusion of the arbitration proceedings, or upon the failure of the employee to elect arbitration within the time provided by the collective bargaining agreement. A disciplinary action does not become public data if an arbitrator sustains a grievance and reverses all aspects of any disciplinary action.
(c) The government entity may display a photograph of a current or former employee to a prospective witness as part of the government entity's investigation of any complaint or charge against the employee.
(d) A complainant has access to a statement provided by the complainant to a government entity in connection with a complaint or charge against an employee.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), clause (5), and subject to paragraph (f), upon completion of an investigation of a complaint or charge against a public official, or if a public official resigns or is terminated from employment while the complaint or charge is pending, all data relating to the complaint or charge are public, unless access to the data would jeopardize an active investigation or reveal confidential sources. For purposes of this paragraph, "public official" means:
(1) the head of a state agency and deputy and assistant state agency heads;
(2) members of boards or commissions required by law to be appointed by the governor or other elective officers;
(3) executive or administrative heads of departments, bureaus, divisions, or institutions within state government; and
(4) the following employees:
(i) the chief administrative officer, or the individual acting in an equivalent position, in all political subdivisions;
(ii) individuals required to be identified by a political subdivision pursuant to section 471.701;
(iii) in a city with a population of more than 7,500 or a county with a population of more than 5,000, individuals in a management capacity reporting directly to the chief administrative officer or the individual acting in an equivalent position: managers; chiefs; heads or directors of departments, divisions, bureaus, or boards; and any equivalent position; and
(iv) in a school district,: business managers,; human resource directors, and; athletic directors whose duties include at least 50 percent of their time spent in administration, personnel, supervision, and evaluation; chief financial officers; directors; individuals defined as superintendents, and principals, and directors under Minnesota Rules, part 3512.0100; and in a charter school, individuals employed in comparable positions.
(f) Data relating to a complaint or charge against an employee identified under paragraph (e), clause (4), are public only if:
(1) the complaint or charge results in disciplinary action or the employee resigns or is terminated from employment while the complaint or charge is pending; or
(2) potential legal claims arising out of the conduct that is the subject of the complaint or charge are released as part of a settlement agreement with another person.
This paragraph and paragraph (e) do not authorize the release of data that are made not public under other law.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) When a report of alleged maltreatment of a student in a school facility, as defined in section 626.556, subdivision 2, paragraph (f), is made to the commissioner of education under section 626.556, data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are collected by the school facility about the person alleged to have committed maltreatment must be provided to the commissioner of education upon request for purposes of an assessment or investigation of the maltreatment report. Data received by the commissioner of education pursuant to these assessments or investigations are classified under section 626.556.
(b) Personnel data may be released for purposes of providing information to a parent, legal guardian, or custodian of a child under section 626.556, subdivision 7.
The classification and disclosure of certain information collected to determine eligibility of property for a homestead or other classification or benefit are governed by section sections 273.124, subdivision subdivisions 13, 13a, 13b, 13c, and 13d; 273.1245; and 273.1315.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) Security features of building plans, building specifications, and building drawings of state-owned facilities and non-state-owned facilities leased by the state are classified as nonpublic data when maintained by the Department of Administration and may be shared with anyone as needed to perform duties of the commissioner.
(b) Data maintained by the Department of Administration that identify an individual with a disability or a family member of an individual with a disability related to services funded by the federal Assistive Technology Act, United States Code, title 29, sections 3001 to 3007, for assistive technology device demonstrations, transition training, loans, reuse, or alternative financing are private data on individuals.
Personal, medical, financial, familial, or locational information data pertaining to applicants for or users of services providing transportation for the disabled or elderly, with the exception of the name of the applicant or user of the service, are private.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) When the Department of Transportation undertakes a construction manager/general contractor contract, as defined and authorized in sections 161.3207 to 161.3209, the provisions of this subdivision apply.
(b) When the commissioner of transportation solicits a request for qualifications:
(1) the following data are classified as protected nonpublic:
(i) the statement of qualifications scoring evaluation manual; and
(ii) the statement of qualifications evaluations;
(2) the statement of qualifications submitted by a potential construction manager/general contractor is classified as nonpublic data; and
(3) identifying information concerning the members of the Technical Review Committee is classified as private data.
(c) When the commissioner of transportation announces the short list of qualified construction managers/general contractors, the following data become public:
(1) the statement of qualifications scoring evaluation manual; and
(2) the statement of qualifications evaluations.
(d) When the commissioner of transportation solicits a request for proposals:
(1) the proposal scoring manual is classified as protected nonpublic data; and
(2) the following data are classified as nonpublic data:
(i) the proposals submitted by a potential construction manager/general contractor; and
(ii) the proposal evaluations.
(e) When the commissioner of transportation has completed the ranking of proposals and announces the selected construction manager/general contractor, the proposal evaluation score or rank and proposal evaluations become public data.
(f) When the commissioner of transportation conducts contract negotiations with a construction manager/general contractor, government data created, collected, stored, and maintained during those negotiations are nonpublic data until a construction manager/general contractor contract is fully executed.
(g) When the construction manager/general contractor contract is fully executed or when the commissioner of transportation decides to use another contract procurement process, other than the construction manager/general contractor authority, authorized under section 161.3209, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), all remaining data not already made public under this subdivision become public.
(h) If the commissioner of transportation rejects all responses to a request for proposals before a construction manager/general contractor contract is fully executed, all data, other than that data made public under this subdivision, retains its classification until a resolicitation of the request for proposals results in a fully executed construction manager/general contractor contract or a determination is made to abandon the project. If a resolicitation of proposals does not occur within one year of the announcement of the request for proposals, the remaining data become public.
(a) Data on applicants, users, and customers of public transit collected by or through the Metropolitan Council's personalized Web services or the regional fare collection system are private data on individuals. As used in this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given them:
(1) "regional fare collection system" means the fare collection system created and administered by the council that is used for collecting fares or providing fare cards or passes for transit services which includes:
(i) regular route bus service within the metropolitan area and paratransit service, whether provided by the council or by other providers of regional transit service;
(ii) light rail transit service within the metropolitan area;
(iii) rideshare programs administered by the council;
(iv) special transportation services provided under section 473.386; and
(v) commuter rail service;
(2) "personalized Web services" means services for which transit service applicants, users, and customers must establish a user account; and
(3) "metropolitan area" means the area defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2.
(b) The council may disseminate data on user and customer transaction history and fare card use to government entities, organizations, school districts, educational institutions, and employers that subsidize or provide fare cards to their clients, students, or employees. "Data on user and customer transaction history and fare card use" means:
(1) the date a fare card was used;
(2) the time a fare card was used;
(3) the mode of travel;
(4) the type of fare product used; and
(5) information about the date, time, and type of fare product purchased.
Government entities, organizations, school districts, educational institutions, and employers may use customer transaction history and fare card use data only for purposes of measuring and promoting fare card use and evaluating the cost-effectiveness of their fare card programs. If a user or customer requests in writing that the council limit the disclosure of transaction history and fare card use, the council may disclose only the card balance and the date a card was last used.
(c) The council may disseminate transit service applicant, user, and customer data to another government entity to prevent unlawful intrusion into government electronic systems, or as otherwise provided by law.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Biological specimen" means tissue, fluids, excretions, or secretions that contain human DNA originating from an identifiable individual, either living or deceased. Biological specimen does not include infectious agents or chemicals that are isolated from a specimen. Nothing in this section or section 13.386 is intended to limit the commissioner's ability to collect, use, store, or disseminate such isolated infectious agents or chemicals.
(c) "Health data" has the meaning given in section 13.3805, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (2).
(d) "Health oversight" means oversight of the health care system for activities authorized by law, limited to the following:
(1) audits;
(2) civil, administrative, or criminal investigations;
(3) inspections;
(4) licensure or disciplinary actions;
(5) civil, administrative, or criminal proceedings or actions; and
(6) other activities necessary for appropriate oversight of the health care system and persons subject to such governmental regulatory programs for which biological specimens or health data are necessary for determining compliance with program standards.
(e) "Individual" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 8. In addition, for a deceased individual, individual also means the representative of the decedent.
(f) "Person" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 10.
(g) "Program operations" means actions, testing, and procedures directly related to the operation of department programs, limited to the following:
(1) diagnostic and confirmatory testing;
(2) laboratory quality control assurance and improvement;
(3) calibration of equipment;
(4) evaluation and improvement of test accuracy;
(5) method development and validation;
(6) compliance with regulatory requirements; and
(7) continuity of operations to ensure that testing continues in the event of an emergency.
(h) "Public health practice" means actions related to disease, conditions, injuries, risk factors, or exposures taken to protect public health, limited to the following:
(1) monitoring the health status of a population;
(2) investigating occurrences and outbreaks;
(3) comparing patterns and trends;
(4) implementing prevention and control measures;
(5) conducting program evaluations and making program improvements;
(6) making recommendations concerning health for a population;
(7) preventing or controlling known or suspected diseases and injuries; and
(8) conducting other activities necessary to protect or improve the health of individuals and populations for which biological specimens or health data are necessary.
(i) "Representative of the decedent" has the meaning given in section 13.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (c).
(j) "Research" means activities that are not program operations, public health practice, or health oversight and is otherwise defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 46, subpart A, section 46.102(d).
(a) The commissioner may collect, use, store, and disseminate biological specimens and health data, genetic or other, as provided in this section and as authorized under any other provision of applicable law, including any rules adopted on or before June 30, 2013. Any rules adopted after June 30, 2013, must be consistent with the requirements of this section.
(b) The provisions in this section supplement other provisions of law and do not supersede or repeal other provisions of law applying to the collection, use, storage, or dissemination of biological specimens or health data.
(c) For purposes of this section, genetic information is limited to biological specimens and health data.
(a) The commissioner may collect, use, store, and disseminate biological specimens and health data to conduct program operations activities, public health practice activities, and health oversight activities. Unless required under other applicable law, consent of an individual is not required under this subdivision.
(b) With the approval of the commissioner, biological specimens may be disseminated to establish a diagnosis, to provide treatment, to identify persons at risk of illness, or to conduct an epidemiologic investigation to control or prevent the spread of serious disease, or to diminish an imminent threat to the public health.
(c) For purposes of Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments proficiency testing, the commissioner may disseminate de-identified biological specimens to state public health laboratories that agree, pursuant to contract, not to attempt to re-identify the biological specimens.
(d) Health data may be disseminated as provided in section 13.3805, subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
The commissioner may collect, use, store, and disseminate biological specimens and health data to conduct research in a manner that is consistent with the federal common rule for the protection of human subjects in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, part 46.
(a) The commissioner shall store health data according to section 138.17.
(b) The commissioner shall store biological specimens according to a specimen storage schedule. The commissioner shall develop the storage schedule by July 1, 2013, and post it on the department's Web site.
The commissioner shall establish appropriate security safeguards for the storage of biological specimens, with regard for the privacy of the individuals from whom the biological specimens originated, and store the biological specimens accordingly. When a biological specimen is disposed of, it must be destroyed in a way that prevents determining the identity of the individual from whom it originated.
The provisions of subdivisions 2; 3, paragraphs (a), (c), and (d); and 4 to 6 pertaining to the commissioner also apply to boards of health and community health boards organized under chapter 145A. These boards may also disseminate health data pursuant to section 13.3805, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (2).
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
By February 1, 2014, and annually after that date, the commissioner shall prepare an inventory of biological specimens, registries, and health data and databases collected or maintained by the commissioner. In addition to the inventory, the commissioner shall provide the schedules for storage of health data and biological specimens. The inventories must be listed in reverse chronological order beginning with the year 2012. The commissioner shall make the inventory and schedules available on the department's Web site and submit the inventory and schedules to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees of the legislature with jurisdiction over health policy and data practices issues.
(a) The commissioner of health shall establish a Newborn Hearing Screening Advisory Committee to advise and assist the Department of Health and the Department of Education in:
(1) developing protocols and timelines for screening, rescreening, and diagnostic audiological assessment and early medical, audiological, and educational intervention services for children who are deaf or hard-of-hearing;
(2) designing protocols for tracking children from birth through age three that may have passed newborn screening but are at risk for delayed or late onset of permanent hearing loss;
(3) designing a technical assistance program to support facilities implementing the screening program and facilities conducting rescreening and diagnostic audiological assessment;
(4) designing implementation and evaluation of a system of follow-up and tracking; and
(5) evaluating program outcomes to increase effectiveness and efficiency and ensure culturally appropriate services for children with a confirmed hearing loss and their families.
(b) The commissioner of health shall appoint at least one member from each of the following groups with no less than two of the members being deaf or hard-of-hearing:
(1) a representative from a consumer organization representing culturally deaf persons;
(2) a parent with a child with hearing loss representing a parent organization;
(3) a consumer from an organization representing oral communication options;
(4) a consumer from an organization representing cued speech communication options;
(5) an audiologist who has experience in evaluation and intervention of infants and young children;
(6) a speech-language pathologist who has experience in evaluation and intervention of infants and young children;
(7) two primary care providers who have experience in the care of infants and young children, one of which shall be a pediatrician;
(8) a representative from the early hearing detection intervention teams;
(9) a representative from the Department of Education resource center for the deaf and hard-of-hearing or the representative's designee;
(10) a representative of the Commission of Deaf, DeafBlind and Hard-of-Hearing Minnesotans;
(11) a representative from the Department of Human Services Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Services Division;
(12) one or more of the Part C coordinators from the Department of Education, the Department of Health, or the Department of Human Services or the department's designees;
(13) the Department of Health early hearing detection and intervention coordinators;
(14) two birth hospital representatives from one rural and one urban hospital;
(15) a pediatric geneticist;
(16) an otolaryngologist;
(17) a representative from the Newborn Screening Advisory Committee under this subdivision; and
(18) a representative of the Department of Education regional low-incidence facilitators.
The commissioner must complete the appointments required under this subdivision by September 1, 2007.
(c) The Department of Health member shall chair the first meeting of the committee. At the first meeting, the committee shall elect a chair from its membership. The committee shall meet at the call of the chair, at least four times a year. The committee shall adopt written bylaws to govern its activities. The Department of Health shall provide technical and administrative support services as required by the committee. These services shall include technical support from individuals qualified to administer infant hearing screening, rescreening, and diagnostic audiological assessments.
Members of the committee shall receive no compensation for their service, but shall be reimbursed as provided in section 15.059 for expenses incurred as a result of their duties as members of the committee.
(d) By February 15, 2015, and by February 15 of the odd-numbered years after that date, the commissioner shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and data privacy on the activities of the committee that have occurred during the past two years.
(d) (e) This subdivision expires June 30, 2013 2019.
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
All hospitals shall establish an early hearing detection and intervention (EHDI) program. Each EHDI program shall:
(1) in advance of any hearing screening testing, provide to the newborn's or infant's parents or parent information concerning the nature of the screening procedure, applicable costs of the screening procedure, the potential risks and effects of hearing loss, and the benefits of early detection and intervention;
(2) comply with parental consent election as described under section 144.125, subdivision 3 4;
(3) develop policies and procedures for screening and rescreening based on Department of Health recommendations;
(4) provide appropriate training and monitoring of individuals responsible for performing hearing screening tests as recommended by the Department of Health;
(5) test the newborn's hearing prior to discharge, or, if the newborn is expected to remain in the hospital for a prolonged period, testing shall be performed prior to three months of age or when medically feasible;
(6) develop and implement procedures for documenting the results of all hearing screening tests;
(7) inform the newborn's or infant's parents or parent, primary care physician, and the Department of Health according to recommendations of the Department of Health of the results of the hearing screening test or rescreening if conducted, or if the newborn or infant was not successfully tested. The hospital that discharges the newborn or infant to home is responsible for the screening; and
(8) collect performance data specified by the Department of Health.
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
(a) Notification to the parents or parent, primary care provider, and the Department of Health shall occur prior to discharge or no later than ten days following the date of testing. Notification shall include information recommended by the Department of Health and information regarding the right of the parent or legal guardian to discontinue storage of the test results and require destruction under paragraph (d).
(b) A physician, nurse, midwife, or other health professional attending a birth outside a hospital or institution shall provide information, orally and in writing, as established by the Department of Health, to parents regarding places where the parents may have their infant's hearing screened and the importance of the screening.
(c) The professional conducting the diagnostic procedure to confirm the hearing loss must report the results to the parents, primary care provider, and Department of Health according to the Department of Health recommendations.
(d) The Department of Health may store hearing screening and rescreening test results for a period of time not to exceed 18 years from the infant's date of birth.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d), a parent or legal guardian may instruct the Department of Health to discontinue storing hearing screening and rescreening test results by providing a signed and dated form requesting destruction of the test results. The Department of Health shall make necessary forms available on the department's Web site. If a parent or legal guardian instructs the Department of Health to discontinue storing hearing screening and rescreening test results, the Department of Health shall destroy the test results within one month of receipt of the instruction or within 25 months after it received the last test result, whichever is later.
Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, nothing in this section shall be construed as constituting newborn screening activities conducted under sections 144.125 to 144.128. Data collected by or submitted to the Department of Health pursuant to this section is not genetic information for purposes of section 13.386.
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
The department shall file, or contract to file, all photographs or electronically produced images obtained in the process of issuing drivers' licenses or Minnesota identification cards. The photographs or electronically produced images shall be private data pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 12. Notwithstanding section 13.04, subdivision 3, the department shall not be required to provide copies of photographs or electronically produced images to data subjects. The use of the files is restricted:
(1) to the issuance and control of drivers' licenses;
(2) to criminal justice agencies, as defined in section 299C.46, subdivision 2, for the investigation and prosecution of crimes, service of process, enforcement of no contact orders, location of missing persons, investigation and preparation of cases for criminal, juvenile, and traffic court, and supervision of offenders;
(3) to public defenders, as defined in section 611.272, for the investigation and preparation of cases for criminal, juvenile, and traffic courts; and
(4) to child support enforcement purposes under section 256.978; and
(5) to a county medical examiner or coroner as required by section 390.005 as necessary to fulfill the duties under sections 390.11 and 390.25.
(a) The Department of Corrections shall adopt procedures to provide for the orderly collection, entry, retrieval, and deletion of data contained in the statewide supervision system.
(b) The Department of Corrections shall establish and implement audit requirements to ensure that authorized users comply with applicable data practices laws governing access to and use of the data.
(a) Except as provided by this section, data gathered from any person under the administration of the Minnesota Unemployment Insurance Law are private data on individuals or nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 9 and 12, and may not be disclosed except according to a district court order or section 13.05. A subpoena is not considered a district court order. These data may be disseminated to and used by the following agencies without the consent of the subject of the data:
(1) state and federal agencies specifically authorized access to the data by state or federal law;
(2) any agency of any other state or any federal agency charged with the administration of an unemployment insurance program;
(3) any agency responsible for the maintenance of a system of public employment offices for the purpose of assisting individuals in obtaining employment;
(4) the public authority responsible for child support in Minnesota or any other state in accordance with section 256.978;
(5) human rights agencies within Minnesota that have enforcement powers;
(6) the Department of Revenue to the extent necessary for its duties under Minnesota laws;
(7) public and private agencies responsible for administering publicly financed assistance programs for the purpose of monitoring the eligibility of the program's recipients;
(8) the Department of Labor and Industry and the Division of Insurance Fraud Prevention in the Department of Commerce for uses consistent with the administration of their duties under Minnesota law;
(9) local and state welfare agencies for monitoring the eligibility of the data subject for assistance programs, or for any employment or training program administered by those agencies, whether alone, in combination with another welfare agency, or in conjunction with the department or to monitor and evaluate the statewide Minnesota family investment program by providing data on recipients and former recipients of food stamps or food support, cash assistance under chapter 256, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 119B, or medical programs under chapter 256B, 256D, or 256L;
(10) local and state welfare agencies for the purpose of identifying employment, wages, and other information to assist in the collection of an overpayment debt in an assistance program;
(11) local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies for the purpose of ascertaining the last known address and employment location of an individual who is the subject of a criminal investigation;
(12) the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement has access to data on specific individuals and specific employers provided the specific individual or specific employer is the subject of an investigation by that agency;
(13) the Department of Health for the purposes of epidemiologic investigations;
(14) the Department of Corrections for the purpose of case planning for preprobation and postprobation employment tracking of offenders sentenced to probation and preconfinement and postconfinement employment tracking of committed offenders for the purpose of case planning; and
(15) the state auditor to the extent necessary to conduct audits of job opportunity building zones as required under section 469.3201.
(b) Data on individuals and employers that are collected, maintained, or used by the department in an investigation under section 268.182 are confidential as to data on individuals and protected nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 3 and 13, and must not be disclosed except under statute or district court order or to a party named in a criminal proceeding, administrative or judicial, for preparation of a defense.
(c) Data gathered by the department in the administration of the Minnesota unemployment insurance program must not be made the subject or the basis for any suit in any civil proceedings, administrative or judicial, unless the action is initiated by the department.
(a) A person who meets the homestead requirements under subdivision 1 must file a homestead application with the county assessor to initially obtain homestead classification.
(b) The format and contents of a uniform homestead application shall be prescribed by the commissioner of revenue. The application must clearly inform the taxpayer that this application must be signed by all owners who occupy the property or by the qualifying relative and returned to the county assessor in order for the property to receive homestead treatment.
(c) Every property owner applying for homestead classification must furnish to the county assessor the Social Security number of each occupant who is listed as an owner of the property on the deed of record, the name and address of each owner who does not occupy the property, and the name and Social Security number of each owner's spouse who occupies the property. The application must be signed by each owner who occupies the property and by each owner's spouse who occupies the property, or, in the case of property that qualifies as a homestead under subdivision 1, paragraph (c), by the qualifying relative.
If a property owner occupies a homestead, the property owner's spouse may not claim another property as a homestead unless the property owner and the property owner's spouse file with the assessor an affidavit or other proof required by the assessor stating that the property qualifies as a homestead under subdivision 1, paragraph (e).
Owners or spouses occupying residences owned by their spouses and previously occupied with the other spouse, either of whom fail to include the other spouse's name and Social Security number on the homestead application or provide the affidavits or other proof requested, will be deemed to have elected to receive only partial homestead treatment of their residence. The remainder of the residence will be classified as nonhomestead residential. When an owner or spouse's name and Social Security number appear on homestead applications for two separate residences and only one application is signed, the owner or spouse will be deemed to have elected to homestead the residence for which the application was signed.
The Social Security numbers, state or federal tax returns or tax return information, including the federal income tax schedule F required by this section, or affidavits or other proofs of the property owners and spouses submitted under this or another section to support a claim for a property tax homestead classification are private data on individuals as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 12, but, notwithstanding that section, the private data may be disclosed to the commissioner of revenue, or, for purposes of proceeding under the Revenue Recapture Act to recover personal property taxes owing, to the county treasurer.
(d) If residential real estate is occupied and used for purposes of a homestead by a relative of the owner and qualifies for a homestead under subdivision 1, paragraph (c), in order for the property to receive homestead status, a homestead application must be filed with the assessor. The Social Security number of each relative and spouse of a relative occupying the property shall be required on the homestead application filed under this subdivision. If a different relative of the owner subsequently occupies the property, the owner of the property must notify the assessor within 30 days of the change in occupancy. The Social Security number of a relative or relative's spouse occupying the property is private data on individuals as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 12, but may be disclosed to the commissioner of revenue, or, for the purposes of proceeding under the Revenue Recapture Act to recover personal property taxes owing, to the county treasurer.
(e) The homestead application shall also notify the property owners that the application filed under this section will not be mailed annually and that if the property is granted homestead status for any assessment year, that same property shall remain classified as homestead until the property is sold or transferred to another person, or the owners, the spouse of the owner, or the relatives no longer use the property as their homestead. Upon the sale or transfer of the homestead property, a certificate of value must be timely filed with the county auditor as provided under section 272.115. Failure to notify the assessor within 30 days that the property has been sold, transferred, or that the owner, the spouse of the owner, or the relative is no longer occupying the property as a homestead, shall result in the penalty provided under this subdivision and the property will lose its current homestead status.
(f) If the homestead application is not returned within 30 days, the county will send a second application to the present owners of record. The notice of proposed property taxes prepared under section 275.065, subdivision 3, shall reflect the property's classification. If a homestead application has not been filed with the county by December 15, the assessor shall classify the property as nonhomestead for the current assessment year for taxes payable in the following year, provided that the owner may be entitled to receive the homestead classification by proper application under section 375.192.
(g) At the request of the commissioner, each county must give the commissioner a list that includes the name and Social Security number of each occupant of homestead property who is the property owner, property owner's spouse, qualifying relative of a property owner, or a spouse of a qualifying relative. The commissioner shall use the information provided on the lists as appropriate under the law, including for the detection of improper claims by owners, or relatives of owners, under chapter 290A.
(h) (a) If the commissioner finds that a property owner may be claiming a fraudulent homestead, the commissioner shall notify the appropriate counties. Within 90 days of the notification, the county assessor shall investigate to determine if the homestead classification was properly claimed. If the property owner does not qualify, the county assessor shall notify the county auditor who will determine the amount of homestead benefits that had been improperly allowed. For the purpose of this section subdivision, "homestead benefits" means the tax reduction resulting from the classification as a homestead under section 273.13, the taconite homestead credit under section 273.135, the residential homestead and agricultural homestead credits under section 273.1384, and the supplemental homestead credit under section 273.1391.
The county auditor shall send a notice to the person who owned the affected property at the time the homestead application related to the improper homestead was filed, demanding reimbursement of the homestead benefits plus a penalty equal to 100 percent of the homestead benefits. The person notified may appeal the county's determination by serving copies of a petition for review with county officials as provided in section 278.01 and filing proof of service as provided in section 278.01 with the Minnesota Tax Court within 60 days of the date of the notice from the county. Procedurally, the appeal is governed by the provisions in chapter 271 which apply to the appeal of a property tax assessment or levy, but without requiring any prepayment of the amount in controversy. If the amount of homestead benefits and penalty is not paid within 60 days, and if no appeal has been filed, the county auditor shall certify the amount of taxes and penalty to the county treasurer. The county treasurer will add interest to the unpaid homestead benefits and penalty amounts at the rate provided in section 279.03 for real property taxes becoming delinquent in the calendar year during which the amount remains unpaid. Interest may be assessed for the period beginning 60 days after demand for payment was made.
If the person notified is the current owner of the property, the treasurer may add the total amount of homestead benefits, penalty, interest, and costs to the ad valorem taxes otherwise payable on the property by including the amounts on the property tax statements under section 276.04, subdivision 3. The amounts added under this paragraph to the ad valorem taxes shall include interest accrued through December 31 of the year preceding the taxes payable year for which the amounts are first added. These amounts, when added to the property tax statement, become subject to all the laws for the enforcement of real or personal property taxes for that year, and for any subsequent year.
If the person notified is not the current owner of the property, the treasurer may collect the amounts due under the Revenue Recapture Act in chapter 270A, or use any of the powers granted in sections 277.20 and 277.21 without exclusion, to enforce payment of the homestead benefits, penalty, interest, and costs, as if those amounts were delinquent tax obligations of the person who owned the property at the time the application related to the improperly allowed homestead was filed. The treasurer may relieve a prior owner of personal liability for the homestead benefits, penalty, interest, and costs, and instead extend those amounts on the tax lists against the property as provided in this paragraph to the extent that the current owner agrees in writing. On all demands, billings, property tax statements, and related correspondence, the county must list and state separately the amounts of homestead benefits, penalty, interest and costs being demanded, billed or assessed.
(i) (b) Any amount of homestead benefits recovered by the county from the property owner shall be distributed to the county, city or town, and school district where the property is located in the same proportion that each taxing district's levy was to the total of the three taxing districts' levy for the current year. Any amount recovered attributable to taconite homestead credit shall be transmitted to the St. Louis County auditor to be deposited in the taconite property tax relief account. Any amount recovered that is attributable to supplemental homestead credit is to be transmitted to the commissioner of revenue for deposit in the general fund of the state treasury. The total amount of penalty collected must be deposited in the county general fund.
(j) (c) If a property owner has applied for more than one homestead and the county assessors cannot determine which property should be classified as homestead, the county assessors will refer the information to the commissioner. The commissioner shall make the determination and notify the counties within 60 days.
(k) In addition to lists of homestead properties, the commissioner may ask the counties to furnish lists of all properties and the record owners. The Social Security numbers and federal identification numbers that are maintained by a county or city assessor for property tax administration purposes, and that may appear on the lists retain their classification as private or nonpublic data; but may be viewed, accessed, and used by the county auditor or treasurer of the same county for the limited purpose of assisting the commissioner in the preparation of microdata samples under section 270C.12. The commissioner shall use the information provided on the lists as appropriate under the law, including for the detection of improper claims by owners, or relatives of owners, under chapter 290A.
(l) On or before April 30 each year beginning in 2007, each county must provide the commissioner with the following data for each parcel of homestead property by electronic means as defined in section 289A.02, subdivision 8:
(i) (1) the property identification number assigned to the parcel for purposes of taxes payable in the current year;
(ii) (2) the name and Social Security number of each occupant of homestead property who is the property owner, property owner's spouse, qualifying relative of a property owner, or spouse of a qualifying relative;
(iii) (3) the classification of the property under section 273.13 for taxes payable in the current year and in the prior year;
(iv) (4) an indication of whether the property was classified as a homestead for taxes payable in the current year because of occupancy by a relative of the owner or by a spouse of a relative;
(v) (5) the property taxes payable as defined in section 290A.03, subdivision 13, for the current year and the prior year;
(vi) (6) the market value of improvements to the property first assessed for tax purposes for taxes payable in the current year;
(vii) (7) the assessor's estimated market value assigned to the property for taxes payable in the current year and the prior year;
(viii) (8) the taxable market value assigned to the property for taxes payable in the current year and the prior year;
(ix) (9) whether there are delinquent property taxes owing on the homestead;
(x) (10) the unique taxing district in which the property is located; and
(xi) (11) such other information as the commissioner decides is necessary.
The commissioner shall use the information provided on the lists as appropriate under the law, including for the detection of improper claims by owners, or relatives of owners, under chapter 290A.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
The following data are private or nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 9 and 12, when they are submitted to a county or local assessor under section 273.124, 273.13, or another section, to support a claim for the property tax homestead classification under section 273.13, or other property tax classification or benefit:
(1) Social Security numbers;
(2) copies of state or federal income tax returns; and
(3) state or federal income tax return information, including the federal income tax schedule F.
The assessor shall disclose the data described in subdivision 1 to the commissioner of revenue as provided by law. The assessor shall also disclose all or portions of the data described in subdivision 1 to the county treasurer solely for the purpose of proceeding under the Revenue Recapture Act to recover personal property taxes owing.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Any property owner seeking classification and assessment of the owner's homestead as class 1b property pursuant to section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b), on or before October 1, 2008, shall file with the commissioner of revenue a 1b homestead declaration, on a form prescribed by the commissioner. The declaration shall contain the following information:
(a) (1) the information necessary to verify that on or before June 30 of the filing year, the property owner or the owner's spouse satisfies the requirements of section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b), for 1b classification; and
(b) (2) any additional information prescribed by the commissioner.
The declaration must be filed on or before October 1 to be effective for property taxes payable during the succeeding calendar year. The declaration and any supplementary information received from the property owner pursuant to this subdivision shall be subject to chapter 270B. If approved by the commissioner, the declaration remains in effect until the property no longer qualifies under section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b). Failure to notify the commissioner within 30 days that the property no longer qualifies under that paragraph because of a sale, change in occupancy, or change in the status or condition of an occupant shall result in the penalty provided in section 273.124, subdivision 13 13b, computed on the basis of the class 1b benefits for the property, and the property shall lose its current class 1b classification.
The commissioner shall provide to the assessor on or before November 1 a listing of the parcels of property qualifying for 1b classification.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) Any property owner seeking classification and assessment of the owner's homestead as class 1b property pursuant to section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b), after October 1, 2008, shall file with the county assessor a class 1b homestead declaration, on a form prescribed by the commissioner of revenue. The declaration must contain the following information:
(1) the information necessary to verify that, on or before June 30 of the filing year, the property owner or the owner's spouse satisfies the requirements of section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b), for class 1b classification; and
(2) any additional information prescribed by the commissioner.
(b) The declaration must be filed on or before October 1 to be effective for property taxes payable during the succeeding calendar year. The Social Security numbers and income and medical information received from the property owner pursuant to this subdivision are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02. If approved by the assessor, the declaration remains in effect until the property no longer qualifies under section 273.13, subdivision 22, paragraph (b). Failure to notify the assessor within 30 days that the property no longer qualifies under that paragraph because of a sale, change in occupancy, or change in the status or condition of an occupant shall result in the penalty provided in section 273.124, subdivision 13 13b, computed on the basis of the class 1b benefits for the property, and the property shall lose its current class 1b classification.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Annually, the commissioner of revenue shall furnish a list to the county assessor containing the names and Social Security numbers of persons who have applied for both homestead classification under section 273.13 and a property tax refund as a renter under this chapter.
Within 90 days of the notification, the county assessor shall investigate to determine if the homestead classification was improperly claimed. If the property owner does not qualify, the county assessor shall notify the county auditor who will determine the amount of homestead benefits that has been improperly allowed. For the purpose of this section, "homestead benefits" has the meaning given in section 273.124, subdivision 13, paragraph (h) 13b. The county auditor shall send a notice to persons who owned the affected property at the time the homestead application related to the improper homestead was filed, demanding reimbursement of the homestead benefits plus a penalty equal to 100 percent of the homestead benefits. The person notified may appeal the county's determination with the Minnesota Tax Court within 60 days of the date of the notice from the county as provided in section 273.124, subdivision 13, paragraph (h) 13b.
If the amount of homestead benefits and penalty is not paid within 60 days, and if no appeal has been filed, the county auditor shall certify the amount of taxes and penalty to the county treasurer. The county treasurer will add interest to the unpaid homestead benefits and penalty amounts at the rate provided for delinquent personal property taxes for the period beginning 60 days after demand for payment was made until payment. If the person notified is the current owner of the property, the treasurer may add the total amount of benefits, penalty, interest, and costs to the real estate taxes otherwise payable on the property in the following year. If the person notified is not the current owner of the property, the treasurer may collect the amounts due under the Revenue Recapture Act in chapter 270A, or use any of the powers granted in sections 277.20 and 277.21 without exclusion, to enforce payment of the benefits, penalty, interest, and costs, as if those amounts were delinquent tax obligations of the person who owned the property at the time the application related to the improperly allowed homestead was filed. The treasurer may relieve a prior owner of personal liability for the benefits, penalty, interest, and costs, and instead extend those amounts on the tax lists against the property for taxes payable in the following year to the extent that the current owner agrees in writing.
Any amount of homestead benefits recovered by the county from the property owner shall be distributed to the county, city or town, and school district where the property is located in the same proportion that each taxing district's levy was to the total of the three taxing districts' levy for the current year. Any amount recovered attributable to taconite homestead credit shall be transmitted to the St. Louis County auditor to be deposited in the taconite property tax relief account. Any amount recovered that is attributable to supplemental homestead credit is to be transmitted to the commissioner of revenue for deposit in the general fund of the state treasury. The total amount of penalty collected must be deposited in the county general fund.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) Each sheriff and chief of police shall furnish the bureau, upon such form as the superintendent shall prescribe, with such finger and thumb prints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data as may be requested or required by the superintendent of the bureau, which must be taken under the provisions of section 299C.10. In addition, sheriffs and chiefs of police shall furnish this identification data to the bureau for individuals found to have been convicted of a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor, within the ten years immediately preceding their arrest. When the bureau learns that an individual who is the subject of a background check has used, or is using, identifying information, including, but not limited to, name and date of birth, other than those listed on the criminal history, the bureau may add the new identifying information to the criminal history when supported by fingerprints.
(b) No petition under chapter 609A is required if the person has not been convicted of any felony or gross misdemeanor, either within or without the state, within the period of ten years immediately preceding the determination of all pending criminal actions or proceedings in favor of the arrested person, and either of the following occurred:
(1) all charges were dismissed prior to a determination of probable cause; or
(2) the prosecuting authority declined to file any charges and a grand jury did not return an indictment.
Where these conditions are met, the bureau or agency shall, upon demand, return to destroy the arrested person person's finger and thumb prints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data, and all copies and duplicates of them.
(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), upon the determination of all pending criminal actions or proceedings in favor of the arrested person, and the granting of the petition of the arrested person under chapter 609A, the bureau shall seal finger and thumb prints, photographs, distinctive physical mark identification data, information on known aliases and street names, and other identification data, and all copies and duplicates of them if the arrested person has not been convicted of any felony or gross misdemeanor, either within or without the state, within the period of ten years immediately preceding such determination.
The commissioner of public safety shall establish a criminal justice data communications network which that will enable the interconnection of the criminal justice agencies within the state provide secure access to systems and services available from or through the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The commissioner of public safety is authorized to lease or purchase facilities and equipment as may be necessary to establish and maintain the data communications network.
For the purposes of sections 299C.46 to 299C.49, "criminal justice agency" means an agency of the state or an agency of a political subdivision or the federal government charged with detection, enforcement, prosecution, adjudication or incarceration in respect to the criminal or traffic laws of this state. This definition also includes all sites identified and licensed as a detention facility by the commissioner of corrections under section 241.021 and those federal agencies that serve part or all of the state from an office located outside the state.
For the purposes of sections 299C.46 to 299C.49, "noncriminal justice agency" means an agency of a the state or an agency of a political subdivision of a the state charged with the responsibility of performing checks of state databases connected to the criminal justice data communications network.
(a) The criminal justice data communications network shall be used exclusively by:
(1) criminal justice agencies in connection with the performance of duties required by law;
(2) agencies investigating federal security clearances of individuals for assignment or retention in federal employment with duties related to national security, as required by Public Law 99-169 United States Code, title 5, section 9101;
(3) other agencies to the extent necessary to provide for protection of the public or property in an a declared emergency or disaster situation;
(4) noncriminal justice agencies statutorily mandated, by state or national law, to conduct checks into state databases prior to disbursing licenses or providing benefits;
(5) the public authority responsible for child support enforcement in connection with the performance of its duties;
(6) the public defender, as provided in section 611.272; and
(7) a county attorney or the attorney general, as the county attorney's designee, for the purpose of determining whether a petition for the civil commitment of a proposed patient as a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually dangerous person should be filed, and during the pendency of the commitment proceedings;
(8) an agency of the state or a political subdivision whose access to systems or services provided from or through the bureau is specifically authorized by federal law or regulation or state statute; and
(9) a court for access to data as authorized by federal law or regulation or state statute and related to the disposition of a pending case.
(b) The commissioner of public safety shall establish a monthly network access charge to be paid by each participating criminal justice agency. The network access charge shall be a standard fee established for each terminal, computer, or other equipment directly addressable by the data communications network, as follows: January 1, 1984 to December 31, 1984, $40 connect fee per month; January 1, 1985 and thereafter, $50 connect fee per month.
(c) The commissioner of public safety is authorized to arrange for the connection of the data communications network with the criminal justice information system of the federal government, any adjacent state, or Canada country for the secure exchange of information for any of the purposes authorized in paragraph (a), clauses (1), (2), (3), (8) and (9).
(d) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a criminal justice agency that is not part of the Minnesota judicial branch must:
(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of or use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data;
(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;
(3) agree to pay any required fees; and
(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees and contractors as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(e) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a criminal justice agency that is part of the Minnesota judicial branch must:
(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of, or use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data to the extent applicable and with the Rules of Public Access to Records of the Judicial Branch promulgated by the Minnesota Supreme Court;
(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;
(3) agree to pay any required fees; and
(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees and contractors as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(f) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a noncriminal justice agency must:
(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of or use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data;
(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;
(3) agree to pay any required fees; and
(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees and contractors.
(g) Those noncriminal justice agencies that do not have a secure network connection yet receive data either retrieved over the secure network by an authorized criminal justice agency or as a result of a state or federal criminal history records check shall conduct a background check as provided in paragraph (h) of those individuals who receive and review the data to determine another individual's eligibility for employment, housing, a license, or another legal right dependent on a statutorily-mandated background check.
(h) The background check required by paragraph (f) or (g) is accomplished by submitting a request to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension that includes a signed, written consent for the Minnesota and national criminal history records check, fingerprints, and the required fee. The superintendent may exchange the fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of obtaining the individual's national criminal history record information.
The superintendent shall return the results of the national criminal history records check to the noncriminal justice agency to determine if the individual is qualified to have access to state and federal criminal history record information or the secure network. An individual is disqualified when the state and federal criminal history record information show any of the disqualifiers that the individual will apply to the records of others.
When the individual is to have access to the secure network, the noncriminal justice agency shall review the criminal history of each employee or contractor with the Criminal Justice Information Services systems officer at the bureau, or the officer's designee, to determine if the employee or contractor qualifies for access to the secure network. The Criminal Justice Information Services systems officer or the designee shall make the access determination based on Federal Bureau of Investigation policy and Bureau of Criminal Apprehension policy.
For purposes of this section the following terms have the meaning given.
(a) "Applicant for employment" means an individual who seeks either county or city employment or has applied to serve as a volunteer in the county or city.
(b) "Applicant for licensure" means the individual seeks a license issued by the county or city which is not subject to a federal- or state-mandated background check.
(c) "Authorized law enforcement agency" means the county sheriff for checks conducted for county purposes, the police department for checks conducted for city purposes, or the county sheriff for checks conducted for city purposes where there is no police department.
(d) "Criminal history check" means retrieval of criminal history data via the secure network described in section 299C.46.
(e) "Criminal history data" means adult convictions and adult open arrests less than one year old found in the Minnesota computerized criminal history repository.
(f) "Informed consent" has the meaning given in section 13.05, subdivision 4, paragraph (d).
(a) The criminal history check authorized by this section shall not be used in place of a statutorily-mandated or authorized background check.
(b) An authorized law enforcement agency may conduct a criminal history check of an individual who is an applicant for employment or applicant for licensure. Prior to conducting the criminal history check, the authorized law enforcement agency must receive the informed consent of the individual.
(c) The authorized law enforcement agency shall not disseminate criminal history data and must maintain it securely with the agency's office. The authorized law enforcement agency can indicate whether the applicant for employment or applicant for licensure has a criminal history that would prevent hire, acceptance as a volunteer to a hiring authority, or would prevent the issuance of a license to the department that issues the license.
(a) The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(b) "Minnesota criminal history data" has the meaning given in section 13.87 means adult convictions and juvenile adjudications.
(c) "Criminal justice agency" has the meaning given in section 299C.46, subdivision 2.
(d) "Fire department" has the meaning given in section 299N.01, subdivision 2.
(e) (d) "Private data" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 12.
(a) The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, in consultation with the state fire marshal, shall develop and implement a plan for fire departments to have access to criminal history data A background check must be conducted on all applicants for employment and may be conducted on current employees at a fire department. The fire chief must conduct a Minnesota criminal history record check. For applicants for employment who have lived in Minnesota for less than five years, or on the request of the fire chief, a national criminal history record check must also be conducted.
(b) The plan must include:
(1) security procedures to prevent unauthorized use or disclosure of private data; and
(2) a procedure for the hiring or employing authority in each fire department to fingerprint job applicants or employees, submit requests to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, and obtain state and federal criminal history data reports for a nominal fee.
(b) For a Minnesota criminal history record check, the fire chief must either (i) submit the signed informed consent of the applicant or employee and the required fee to the superintendent, or (ii) submit the signed informed consent to the chief of police. The superintendent or chief must retrieve Minnesota criminal history data and provide the data to the fire chief for review.
(c) For a national criminal history record check, the fire chief must submit the signed informed consent and fingerprints of the applicant or employee, and the required fee, to the superintendent. The superintendent may exchange the fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation to obtain the individual's national criminal history record information. The superintendent must return the results of the national criminal history record check to the fire chief for the purpose of determining if the applicant is qualified to be employed or if a current employee is able to retain the employee's position.
The following persons shall not be entitled to receive an explosives license or permit:
(1) a person under the age of 18 years;
(2) a person who has been convicted in this state or elsewhere of a crime of violence, as defined in section 299F.72, subdivision 1b, unless ten years have elapsed since the person's civil rights have been restored or the sentence has expired, whichever occurs first, and during that time the person has not been convicted of any other crime of violence. For purposes of this section, crime of violence includes crimes in other states or jurisdictions that would have been crimes of violence if they had been committed in this state;
(3) a person who is or has ever been confined or committed in Minnesota or elsewhere as a person who is mentally ill, developmentally disabled, or mentally ill and dangerous to the public, as defined in section 253B.02, to a treatment facility, unless the person possesses a certificate of a medical doctor or psychiatrist licensed in Minnesota, or other satisfactory proof, that the person is no longer suffering from this disability;
(4) a person who has been convicted in Minnesota or elsewhere for the unlawful use, possession, or sale of a controlled substance other than conviction for possession of a small amount of marijuana, as defined in section 152.01, subdivision 16, or who is or has ever been hospitalized or committed for treatment for the habitual use of a controlled substance or marijuana, as defined in sections 152.01 and 152.02, unless the person possesses a certificate of a medical doctor or psychiatrist licensed in Minnesota, or other satisfactory proof, that the person has not abused a controlled substance or marijuana during the previous two years; and
(5) a person who has been confined or committed to a treatment facility in Minnesota or elsewhere as chemically dependent, as defined in section 253B.02, unless the person has completed treatment.
(a) For licenses issued by the commissioner under section 299F.73, the applicant for licensure must provide the commissioner with all of the information required by Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, section 25.7. The commissioner shall forward the information to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension so that criminal records, histories and warrant information on the applicant can be retrieved from the Minnesota Crime Information System and the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, as well as the civil commitment records maintained by the Department of Human Services. The results must be returned to the commissioner to determine if the individual applicant is qualified to receive a license.
(b) For permits issued by a county sheriff or chief of police under section 299F.75, the applicant for a permit must provide the county sheriff or chief of police with all of the information required by Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, section 25.7. The county sheriff or chief of police must check, by means of electronic data transfer, criminal records, histories and warrant information on each applicant through the Minnesota Crime Information System and the National Instant Criminal Background Check System, as well as the civil commitment records maintained by the Department of Human Services. The county sheriff or chief of police shall use the results of the query to determine if the individual applicant is qualified to receive a permit.
(a) Licenses under this section may be issued only to a person who:
(1) is of good moral character and repute;
(2) is 21 years of age or older;
(3) has not had a license issued under this chapter revoked within five years of the date of license application, or to any person who at the time of the violation owns any interest, whether as a holder of more than five percent of the capital stock of a corporation licensee, as a partner or otherwise, in the premises or in the business conducted thereon, or to a corporation, partnership, association, enterprise, business, or firm in which any such person is in any manner interested; and
(4) has not been convicted within five years of the date of license application of a felony, or of a willful violation of a federal or state law, or local ordinance governing the manufacture, sale, distribution, or possession for sale or distribution of alcoholic beverages. The Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement Division may require that fingerprints be taken and may forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a criminal history check.
(b) In order to determine if an individual has a felony or willful violation of federal or state law governing the manufacture, sale, distribution, or possession for sale or distribution of an alcoholic beverage, the applicant for a license to manufacture or sell at wholesale must provide the commissioner with their signed, written informed consent to conduct a background check. The commissioner may query the Minnesota criminal history repository for records on the applicant. If the commissioner conducts a national criminal history record check, the commissioner must obtain fingerprints from the applicant and forward them and the required fee to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The superintendent may exchange the fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of obtaining the applicant's national criminal history record information. The superintendent shall return the results of the national criminal history records check to the commissioner for the purpose of determining if the applicant is qualified to receive a license.
No retail license may be issued to:
(1) a person under 21 years of age;
(2) a person who has had an intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor license revoked within five years of the license application, or to any person who at the time of the violation owns any interest, whether as a holder of more than five percent of the capital stock of a corporation licensee, as a partner or otherwise, in the premises or in the business conducted thereon, or to a corporation, partnership, association, enterprise, business, or firm in which any such person is in any manner interested;
(3) a person not of good moral character and repute; or
(4) a person who has a direct or indirect interest in a manufacturer, brewer, or wholesaler.
In addition, no new retail license may be issued to, and the governing body of a municipality may refuse to renew the license of, a person who, within five years of the license application, has been convicted of a felony or a willful violation of a federal or state law or local ordinance governing the manufacture, sale, distribution, or possession for sale or distribution of an alcoholic beverage. The Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement Division or licensing authority may require that fingerprints be taken and forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of a criminal history check.
(a) A retail liquor license may be issued by a city, a county, or the commissioner. The chief of police is responsible for the background checks prior to a city issuing a retail liquor license. A county sheriff is responsible for the background checks prior to the county issuing a retail liquor license and for those cities that do not have a police department. The commissioner is responsible for the background checks prior to the state issuing a retail liquor license.
(b) The applicant for a retail license must provide the appropriate authority with the applicant's signed, written informed consent to conduct a background check. The appropriate authority is authorized to query the Minnesota criminal history repository for records on the applicant. If the appropriate authority conducts a national criminal history records check, the appropriate authority must obtain fingerprints from the applicant and forward the fingerprints and the required fee to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The superintendent may exchange the fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of obtaining the applicant's national criminal history record information. The superintendent shall return the results of the national criminal history records check to the appropriate authority for the purpose of determining if the applicant is qualified to receive a license.
The district public defender, the state public defender, or an attorney working for a public defense corporation under section 611.216 has access to the criminal justice data communications network described in section 299C.46, as provided in this section. Access to data under this section is limited to data necessary to prepare criminal cases in which the public defender has been appointed as follows:
(1) access to data about witnesses in a criminal case shall be limited to records of criminal convictions, custody status, custody history, aliases and known monikers, race, probation status, identity of probation officer, and booking photos; and
(2) access to data regarding the public defender's own client which includes, but is not limited to, criminal history data under section 13.87; juvenile offender data under section 299C.095; warrant information data under section 299C.115; incarceration data under section 299C.14; conditional release data under section 241.065; and diversion program data under section 299C.46, subdivision 5.
The public defender has access to data under this section, whether accessed via the integrated search service as defined in section 13.873 or other methods. The public defender does not have access to law enforcement active investigative data under section 13.82, subdivision 7; data protected under section 13.82, subdivision 17; confidential arrest warrant indices data under section 13.82, subdivision 19; or data systems maintained by a prosecuting attorney. The public defender has access to the data at no charge, except for the monthly network access charge under section 299C.46, subdivision 3, paragraph (b), and a reasonable installation charge for a terminal. Notwithstanding section 13.87, subdivision 3; 299C.46, subdivision 3, paragraph (b); 299C.48, or any other law to the contrary, there shall be no charge to public defenders for Internet access to the criminal justice data communications network.
(a) The domestic fatality review team shall collect, review, and analyze death certificates and death data, including investigative reports, medical and counseling records, victim service records, employment records, child abuse reports, or other information concerning domestic violence deaths, survivor interviews and surveys, and other information deemed by the team as necessary and appropriate concerning the causes and manner of domestic violence deaths.
(b) The review team has access to the following not public data, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 8a, relating to a case being reviewed by the team: inactive law enforcement investigative data under section 13.82; autopsy records and coroner or medical examiner investigative data under section 13.83; hospital, public health, or other medical records of the victim under section 13.384; records under section 13.46, created by social service agencies that provided services to the victim, the alleged perpetrator, or another victim who experienced or was threatened with domestic abuse by the perpetrator; and child maltreatment records under section 626.556, relating to the victim or a family or household member of the victim. Access to medical records under this paragraph also includes records governed by sections 144.291 to 144.298. The review team has access to corrections and detention data as provided in section 13.85.
(c) As part of any review, the domestic fatality review team may compel the production of other records by applying to the district court for a subpoena, which will be effective throughout the state according to the Rules of Civil Procedure.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
(a) An oral report shall be made immediately by telephone or otherwise. An oral report made by a person required under subdivision 3 to report shall be followed within 72 hours, exclusive of weekends and holidays, by a report in writing to the appropriate police department, the county sheriff, the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report, or the local welfare agency, unless the appropriate agency has informed the reporter that the oral information does not constitute a report under subdivision 10. The local welfare agency shall determine if the report is accepted for an assessment or investigation as soon as possible but in no event longer than 24 hours after the report is received. Any report shall be of sufficient content to identify the child, any person believed to be responsible for the abuse or neglect of the child if the person is known, the nature and extent of the abuse or neglect and the name and address of the reporter. If requested, the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall inform the reporter within ten days after the report is made, either orally or in writing, whether the report was accepted for assessment or investigation. Written reports received by a police department or the county sheriff shall be forwarded immediately to the local welfare agency or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report. The police department or the county sheriff may keep copies of reports received by them. Copies of written reports received by a local welfare department or the agency responsible for assessing or investigating the report shall be forwarded immediately to the local police department or the county sheriff.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the commissioner of education must inform the parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the child who is the subject of a report of alleged maltreatment in a school facility within ten days of receiving the report, either orally or in writing, whether the commissioner is assessing or investigating the report of alleged maltreatment.
(c) Regardless of whether a report is made under this subdivision, as soon as practicable after a school receives information regarding an incident that may constitute maltreatment of a child in a school facility, the school shall inform the parent, legal guardian, or custodian of the child that an incident has occurred that may constitute maltreatment of the child, when the incident occurred, and the nature of the conduct that may constitute maltreatment.
(d) A written copy of a report maintained by personnel of agencies, other than welfare or law enforcement agencies, which are subject to chapter 13 shall be confidential. An individual subject of the report may obtain access to the original report as provided by subdivision 11.
(a) The commissioner of health, in consultation with the medical research and advocacy groups identified in paragraph (b), shall review the newborn screening programs in Minnesota Statutes, section 144.125, and evaluate the scientific and medical validity of a comprehensive and sustainable long-term storage and use plan for the test results under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.125. The commissioner shall consider the following:
(1) peer-reviewed medical research into the diagnosis and treatment of heritable and congenital disease;
(2) strategies for education of parents and families about the utility of advancing new knowledge through research on blood spots and test data made possible by long-term storage and use;
(3) plans and protocols for clinical and research access to test result data;
(4) minimizing the administrative burden on hospitals and health care providers in the operation of the newborn screening program;
(5) the adequacy of current law on the standard retention period for test results under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.125, subdivision 6; and
(6) privacy concerns associated with parental consent options and long-term storage and use of blood samples and test data.
(b) As part of the evaluation, the commissioner shall consult with medical research and data privacy experts, including, but not limited to, specialists in metabolic care, immunology, pediatrics, epidemiology, nutrition, pulmonology, cardiology, endocrinology, hematology, hearing care, and medical genetics, as well as patient advocacy and data privacy groups.
(c) By February 1, 2014, the commissioner shall submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees and divisions with primary jurisdiction on health and human services and data privacy on comprehensive and sustainable long-term storage and usage of the test results.
(d) The commissioner shall conduct the evaluation required under this section within existing appropriations.
This section is effective July 1, 2013.
Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 138.17, data classified as not public pursuant to a temporary classification of the commissioner of administration related to the mileage-based user fee pilot project established by Laws 2007, chapter 143, article 1, section 3, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (1), shall be destroyed no later than July 31, 2013. This section does not apply to summary data on types of vehicles used and road usage, provided that the data do not identify participants or contain other characteristics that could uniquely identify participants.
This section is effective the day following final enactment.
Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 299A.28, is repealed.
Presented to the governor May 21, 2013
Signed by the governor May 23, 2013, 11:15 a.m.
Official Publication of the State of Minnesota
Revisor of Statutes