language to be deleted (2) new language
Found 28 matches for foreign trained
relating to state government; appropriating money for jobs and economic development; modifying labor and industry; employment, economic development, and workforce development; unemployment insurance; miscellaneous provisions; commerce and consumer protection; utility regulation; energy and solar energy regulations; creating various renewable energy incentives; imposing penalties; increasing fees; requiring reports; authorizing rulemaking; appropriating money to various state boards, agencies, and departments;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 16B.122, subdivision 2; 16C.144, subdivision 2; 45.0135, subdivision 6; 60A.14, subdivision 1; 65B.84, subdivision 1; 116J.70, subdivision 2a; 116J.8731, subdivisions 2, 3, 8, 9; 116L.17, subdivision 4, by adding a subdivision; 116U.26; 136F.37; 154.001, by adding a subdivision; 154.003; 154.02; 154.05; 154.06; 154.065, subdivision 2; 154.07, subdivision 1; 154.08; 154.09; 154.10, subdivision 1; 154.11, subdivision 1; 154.12; 154.14; 154.15, subdivision 2; 154.26; 155A.23, subdivisions 3, 8, 11; 155A.25, subdivisions 1a, 4; 155A.27, subdivisions 4, 7, 10; 155A.29, subdivision 2; 155A.30, by adding a subdivision; 177.27, subdivision 4; 216B.16, subdivision 7b; 216B.1635; 216B.164, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 6, by adding subdivisions; 216B.1691, subdivision 2e, by adding a subdivision; 216B.1692, subdivisions 1, 8, by adding a subdivision; 216B.1695, subdivision 5, by adding a subdivision; 216B.2401; 216B.241, subdivisions 1, 1e, by adding a subdivision; 216B.2411, subdivision 3; 216C.05; 216C.435, subdivision 8, by adding a subdivision; 216C.436, subdivisions 2, 7, 8; 239.101, subdivision 3; 245.4712, subdivision 1; 268.051, subdivision 5; 268.07, subdivision 3b; 268.125, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 5; 268.136, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, by adding a subdivision; 268.23; 268A.13; 268A.14, subdivision 1; 298.22, subdivision 1; 298.28, subdivision 9c; 326.02, subdivision 5; 326A.04, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 7; 326A.10; 326B.081, subdivision 3; 326B.082, subdivision 11; 326B.093, subdivision 4; 326B.101; 326B.103, subdivision 11; 326B.121, subdivision 1; 326B.163, by adding subdivisions; 326B.184, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision; 326B.187; 326B.31, by adding a subdivision; 326B.33, subdivisions 19, 21; 326B.36, subdivision 7; 326B.37, by adding a subdivision; 326B.43, subdivision 2; 326B.49, subdivisions 2, 3; 326B.89, subdivision 1; 327B.04, subdivision 4; 341.21, subdivision 3a; 341.221; 341.27; 341.29; 341.30, subdivision 4; 341.32, subdivision 2; 341.321; 429.101, subdivision 2; 462.358, subdivision 2b; 462A.37, subdivision 1; 507.235, subdivision 2; 559.211, subdivision 2; Laws 2005, chapter 97, article 10, section 3; Laws 2006, chapter 269, section 2, as amended; Laws 2011, First Special Session chapter 2, article 2, section 3, subdivision 4; Laws 2012, chapter 201, article 1, section 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 3; 116C; 116J; 116L; 154; 155A; 161; 179; 216B; 216C; 268; 326B; 383D; 559; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 80G; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 116W.01; 116W.02; 116W.03; 116W.035; 116W.04; 116W.05; 116W.06; 116W.20; 116W.21; 116W.23; 116W.24; 116W.25; 116W.26; 116W.27; 116W.28; 116W.29; 116W.30; 116W.31; 116W.32; 116W.33; 116W.34; 155A.25, subdivision 1; 216B.1637; 237.012, subdivision 3; 326A.03, subdivisions 2, 5, 8; 326B.31, subdivisions 18, 19, 22; 326B.978, subdivision 4; 507.235, subdivision 4; Minnesota Rules, parts 1105.0600; 1105.2550; 1105.2700; 1307.0032; 3800.3520, subpart 5, items C, D; 3800.3602, subpart 2, item B.
BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:
"Business license" or "license" does not include the following:
(2) any license issued by a county, home rule charter city, statutory city, township, or other political subdivision;
(3) any license required to practice the following occupation regulated by the following sections:
(i) abstracters regulated pursuant to chapter 386;
(ii) accountants regulated pursuant to chapter 326A;
(iii) adjusters regulated pursuant to chapter 72B;
(iv) architects regulated pursuant to chapter 326;
(v) assessors regulated pursuant to chapter 270;
(vi) athletic trainers regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(vii) attorneys regulated pursuant to chapter 481;
(viii) auctioneers regulated pursuant to chapter 330;
(ix) barbers and cosmetologists regulated pursuant to chapter 154;
(x) boiler operators regulated pursuant to chapter
(xi) chiropractors regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xii) collection agencies regulated pursuant to chapter 332;
(xiii) dentists, registered dental assistants, and dental hygienists regulated pursuant to chapter 150A;
(xiv) detectives regulated pursuant to chapter 326;
(xv) electricians regulated pursuant to chapter
(xvi) mortuary science practitioners regulated pursuant to chapter 149A;
(xvii) engineers regulated pursuant to chapter 326;
(xviii) insurance brokers and salespersons regulated pursuant to chapter 60A;
(xix) certified interior designers regulated pursuant to chapter 326;
(xx) midwives regulated pursuant to chapter 147D;
(xxi) nursing home administrators regulated pursuant to chapter 144A;
(xxii) optometrists regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xxiii) osteopathic physicians regulated pursuant to chapter 147;
(xxiv) pharmacists regulated pursuant to chapter 151;
(xxv) physical therapists regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xxvi) physician assistants regulated pursuant to chapter 147A;
(xxvii) physicians and surgeons regulated pursuant to chapter 147;
(xxviii) plumbers regulated pursuant to chapter
(xxix) podiatrists regulated pursuant to chapter 153;
(xxx) practical nurses regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xxxi) professional fund-raisers regulated pursuant to chapter 309;
(xxxii) psychologists regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xxxiii) real estate brokers, salespersons, and others regulated pursuant to chapters 82 and 83;
(xxxiv) registered nurses regulated pursuant to chapter 148;
(xxxv) securities brokers, dealers, agents, and investment advisers regulated pursuant to chapter 80A;
(xxxvi) steamfitters regulated pursuant to chapter
(xxxvii) teachers and supervisory and support personnel regulated pursuant to chapter 125;
(xxxviii) veterinarians regulated pursuant to chapter 156;
(xxxix) water conditioning contractors and installers regulated pursuant to chapter
(xl) water well contractors regulated pursuant to chapter 103I;
(xli) water and waste treatment operators regulated pursuant to chapter 115;
(xlii) motor carriers regulated pursuant to chapter 221;
(xliii) professional firms regulated under chapter 319B;
(xliv) real estate appraisers regulated pursuant to chapter 82B;
(xlv) residential building contractors, residential remodelers, residential roofers, manufactured home installers, and specialty contractors regulated pursuant to chapter
(xlvi) licensed professional counselors regulated pursuant to chapter 148B;
(4) any driver's license required pursuant to chapter 171;
(5) any aircraft license required pursuant to chapter 360;
(6) any watercraft license required pursuant to chapter 86B;
(7) any license, permit, registration, certification, or other approval pertaining to a regulatory or management program related to the protection, conservation, or use of or interference with the resources of land, air, or water, which is required to be obtained from a state agency or instrumentality; and
(8) any pollution control rule or standard established by the Pollution Control Agency or any health rule or standard established by the commissioner of health or any licensing rule or standard established by the commissioner of human services.
The commissioner may issue an order requiring an employer to comply with sections 177.21 to 177.435, 181.02, 181.03, 181.031, 181.032, 181.101, 181.11, 181.12, 181.13, 181.14, 181.145, 181.15, 181.275, subdivision 2a, and 181.79, or with any rule promulgated under section 177.28. The commissioner shall issue an order requiring an employer to comply with sections 177.41 to 177.435 if the violation is repeated. For purposes of this subdivision only, a violation is repeated if at any time during the two years that preceded the date of violation, the commissioner issued an order to the employer for violation of sections 177.41 to 177.435 and the order is final or the commissioner and the employer have entered into a settlement agreement that required the employer to pay back wages that were required by sections 177.41 to 177.435. The department shall serve the order upon the employer or the employer's authorized representative in person or by certified mail at the employer's place of business. An employer who wishes to contest the order must file written notice of objection to the order with the commissioner within 15 calendar days after being served with the order. A contested case proceeding must then be held in accordance with sections 14.57 to 14.69. If, within 15 calendar days after being served with the order, the employer fails to file a written notice of objection with the commissioner, the order becomes a final order of the commissioner.
The provisions of sections 326.02 to 326.15 shall not apply to the preparation of plans and specifications for the erection, enlargement, or alteration of any building or other structure by any person, for that person's exclusive occupancy or use, unless such occupancy or use involves the public health or safety or the health or safety of the employees of said person, or of the buildings listed in section 326.03, subdivision 2, nor to any detailed or shop plans required to be furnished by a contractor to a registered engineer, landscape architect, architect, or certified interior designer, nor to any standardized manufactured product, nor to any construction superintendent supervising the execution of work designed by an architect, landscape architect, engineer, or certified interior designer licensed or certified in accordance with section 326.03, nor to the planning for and supervision of the construction and installation of work by an electrical contractor or master plumber as defined in and licensed pursuant to chapter 326B, where such work is within the scope of such licensed activity and not within the practice of professional engineering, or architecture, or where the person does not claim to be a certified interior designer as defined in subdivision 2, 3, or 4b.
"Applicable law" means the provisions of sections 181.723, 325E.66, 327.31 to 327.36,
and this chapter, and all rules, orders, stipulation agreements, settlements, compliance agreements, licenses, registrations, certificates, and permits adopted, issued, or enforced by the department under sections 181.723, 325E.66, 327.31 to 327.36, or this chapter.
(a) The commissioner may deny an application for a permit, license, registration, or certificate if the applicant does not meet or fails to maintain the minimum qualifications for holding the permit, license, registration, or certificate, or has any unresolved violations or unpaid fees or monetary penalties related to the activity for which the permit, license, registration, or certificate has been applied for or was issued.
(b) The commissioner may deny, suspend, limit, place conditions on, or revoke a person's permit, license, registration, or certificate, or censure the person holding the permit, license, registration, or certificate, if the commissioner finds that the person:
(1) committed one or more violations of the applicable law;
(2) submitted false or misleading information to the state in connection with activities for which the permit, license, registration, or certificate was issued, or in connection with the application for the permit, license, registration, or certificate;
(3) allowed the alteration or use of the person's own permit, license, registration, or certificate by another person;
(4) within the previous five years, was convicted of a crime in connection with activities for which the permit, license, registration, or certificate was issued;
(5) violated a final administrative order issued under subdivision 7
or a final stop order issued under subdivision 10, or injunctive relief issued under subdivision 9;
(6) failed to cooperate with a commissioner's request to give testimony, to produce documents, things, apparatus, devices, equipment, or materials, or to access property under subdivision 2;
(7) retaliated in any manner against any employee or person who is questioned by, cooperates with, or provides information to the commissioner or an employee or agent authorized by the commissioner who seeks access to property or things under subdivision 2;
(8) engaged in any fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest act or practice; or
(9) performed work in connection with the permit, license, registration, or certificate or conducted the person's affairs in a manner that demonstrates incompetence, untrustworthiness, or financial irresponsibility.
(c) If the commissioner revokes or denies a person's permit, license, registration, or certificate under paragraph (b), the person is prohibited from reapplying for the same type of permit, license, registration, or certificate for at least two years after the effective date of the revocation or denial. The commissioner may, as a condition of reapplication, require the person to obtain a bond or comply with additional reasonable conditions the commissioner considers necessary to protect the public.
(d) If a permit, license, registration, or certificate expires, or is surrendered, withdrawn, or terminated, or otherwise becomes ineffective, the commissioner may institute a proceeding under this subdivision within two years after the permit, license, registration, or certificate was last effective and enter a revocation or suspension order as of the last date on which the permit, license, registration, or certificate was in effect.
If the applicant receives a passing score on the examination and meets all other requirements for licensure, the commissioner must approve the application and notify the applicant of the approval within 60 days of the date of the passing score. The applicant must, within
90 days after the notification of approval, pay the license fee. Upon receipt of the license fee, the commissioner must issue the license. If the applicant does not pay the license fee within 90 days after the notification of approval, the commissioner will rescind the approval and must deny the application. If the applicant does not receive a passing score on the examination, the commissioner must deny the application. If the application is denied because of the applicant's failure to receive a passing score on the examination, then the applicant cannot submit a new application for the license until at least 30 days after the notification of denial.
The State Building Code governs the construction, reconstruction, alteration,
and repair of buildings and other structures to which the code is applicable. The commissioner shall administer and amend a state code of building construction which will provide basic and uniform performance standards, establish reasonable safeguards for health, safety, welfare, comfort, and security of the residents of this state and provide for the use of modern methods, devices, materials, and techniques which will in part tend to lower construction costs. The construction of buildings should be permitted at the least possible cost consistent with recognized standards of health and safety.
"Public building" means a building and its grounds the cost of which is paid for by the state or a state agency regardless of its cost, and a school district building project the cost of which is $100,000 or more.
(a) The State Building Code is the standard that applies statewide for the construction, reconstruction, alteration,
and repair of buildings and other structures of the type governed by the code.
(b) The State Building Code supersedes the building code of any municipality.
(c) The State Building Code does not apply to agricultural buildings except:
(2) translucent panels or other skylights without raised curbs shall be supported to have equivalent load-bearing capacity as the surrounding roof.
No person may construct, install, alter, or remove an elevator without first filing an application for a permit with the department or a municipality authorized by subdivision 4 to inspect elevators.
(a) No person may operate an elevator without first obtaining an annual operating permit from the department or a municipality authorized by subdivision 4 to issue annual operating permits. A $100 annual operating permit fee must be paid to the department for each annual operating permit issued by the department, except that the original annual operating permit must be included in the permit fee for the initial installation of the elevator. Annual operating permits must be issued at 12-month intervals from the date of the initial annual operating permit. For each subsequent year, an owner must be granted an annual operating permit for the elevator upon the owner's or owner's agent's submission of a form prescribed by the commissioner and payment of the $100 fee. Each form must include the location of the elevator, the results of any periodic test required by the code, and any other criteria established by rule. An annual operating permit may be revoked by the commissioner upon an audit of the periodic testing results submitted with the application or a failure to comply with elevator code requirements, inspections, or any other law related to elevators. Except for an initial operating permit fee, hand-powered manlifts and electric endless belt manlifts are not subject to a subsequent operating permit fee.
(b) All elevators are subject to periodic inspections by the department or a municipality authorized by subdivision 4 to perform periodic inspections, except that hand-powered manlifts and electric endless belt manlifts are exempt from periodic inspections. Periodic inspections by the department shall be performed at the following intervals:
(1) a special purpose personnel elevator is subject to inspection not more than once every five years;
(2) an elevator located within a house of worship that does not have attached school facilities is subject to inspection not more than once every three years; and
(3) all other elevators are subject to inspection not more than once each year.
The commissioner may adopt rules for the following purposes:
(1) to establish minimum qualifications for elevator inspectors that must include possession of a current elevator constructor
electrician's license issued by the department and proof of successful completion of the national elevator industry education program examination or equivalent experience;
(2) to establish minimum qualifications for limited elevator inspectors;
(3) to establish criteria for the qualifications of elevator contractors;
(5) to establish procedures for appeals of decisions of the commissioner under chapter 14 and procedures allowing the commissioner, before issuing a decision, to seek advice from the elevator trade, building owners or managers, and others knowledgeable in the installation, construction, and repair of elevators; and
(6) to establish requirements for the registration of all elevators.
(a) Unless revoked or suspended under this chapter, all licenses issued or renewed under this section expire on the date specified in this subdivision. Master licenses expire March 1 of each odd-numbered year after issuance or renewal. Electrical contractor licenses expire March 1 of each even-numbered year after issuance or renewal. Technology system contractor and satellite system contractor licenses expire August 1 of each even-numbered year after issuance or renewal. All other personal licenses expire two years from the date of original issuance and every two years thereafter. Registrations of unlicensed individuals expire one year from the date of original issuance and every year thereafter.
(b) For purposes of calculating license fees and renewal license fees required under section 326B.092:
(1) the registration of an unlicensed individual under subdivision 12 shall be considered an entry level license;
(2) the following licenses shall be considered journeyman licenses: Class A journeyman electrician, Class B journeyman electrician, Class A installer, Class B installer,
elevator constructor, lineman, maintenance electrician, satellite system installer, and power limited technician;
(3) the following licenses shall be considered master licenses: Class A master electrician
, Class B master electrician , and master elevator constructor; and
(4) the following licenses shall be considered business licenses: Class A electrical contractor, Class B electrical contractor,
elevator contractor, satellite system contractor, and technology systems contractor.
(c) For each filing of a certificate of responsible person by an employer, the fee is $100.
(1) the individual is engaged in the maintenance and repair of electrical equipment, apparatus, and facilities that are owned or leased by the individual's employer and that are located within the limits of property operated, maintained, and either owned or leased by the individual's employer;
(2) the individual is supervised by:
(i) the responsible master electrician for a contractor who has contracted with the individual's employer to provide services for which a contractor's license is required; or
(ii) a licensed master electrician, a licensed maintenance electrician, an electrical engineer, or, if the maintenance and repair work is limited to technology circuits or systems work, a licensed power limited technician; and
(3) the individual's employer has on file with the commissioner a current certificate of responsible person, signed by the responsible master electrician of the contractor, the licensed master electrician, the licensed maintenance electrician, the electrical engineer, or the licensed power limited technician, and stating that the person signing the certificate is responsible for ensuring that the maintenance and repair work performed by the employer's employees complies with the Minnesota Electrical Act and the rules adopted under that act. The employer must pay a filing fee to file a certificate of responsible person with the commissioner. The certificate shall expire two years from the date of filing. In order to maintain a current certificate of responsible person, the employer must resubmit a certificate of responsible person, with a filing fee, no later than two years from the date of the previous submittal.
(b) Employees of a licensed electrical or technology systems contractor or other employer where provided with supervision by a master electrician in accordance with subdivision 1, or power limited technician in accordance with subdivision 7, paragraph (a), clause (1), are not required to hold a license under sections 326B.31 to 326B.399 for the planning, laying out, installing, altering, and repairing of technology circuits or systems except planning, laying out, or installing:
(1) in other than residential dwellings, class 2 or class 3 remote control circuits that control circuits or systems other than class 2 or class 3, except circuits that interconnect these systems through communication, alarm, and security systems are exempted from this paragraph;
(2) class 2 or class 3 circuits in electrical cabinets, enclosures, or devices containing physically unprotected circuits other than class 2 or class 3; or
(3) technology circuits or systems in hazardous classified locations as covered by chapter 5 of the National Electrical Code.
(c) Companies and their employees that plan, lay out, install, alter, or repair class 2 and class 3 remote control wiring associated with plug or cord and plug connected appliances other than security or fire alarm systems installed in a residential dwelling are not required to hold a license under sections 326B.31 to 326B.399.
(d) Heating, ventilating, air conditioning, and refrigeration contractors and their employees are not required to hold or obtain a license under sections 326B.31 to 326B.399 when performing heating, ventilating, air conditioning, or refrigeration work as described in section 326B.38.
(e) Employees of any electrical, communications, or railway utility, cable communications company as defined in section 238.02, or a telephone company as defined under section 237.01 or its employees, or of any independent contractor performing work on behalf of any such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company, shall not be required to hold a license under sections 326B.31 to 326B.399:
(1) while performing work on installations, materials, or equipment which are owned or leased, and operated and maintained by such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company in the exercise of its utility, antenna, or telephone function, and which
(i) are used exclusively for the generation, transformation, distribution, transmission, or metering of electric current, or the operation of railway signals, or the transmission of intelligence and do not have as a principal function the consumption or use of electric current or provided service by or for the benefit of any person other than such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company, and
(ii) are generally accessible only to employees of such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company or persons acting under its control or direction, and
(iii) are not on the load side of the service point or point of entrance for communication systems;
(2) while performing work on installations, materials, or equipment which are a part of the street lighting operations of such utility; or
(3) while installing or performing work on outdoor area lights which are directly connected to a utility's distribution system and located upon the utility's distribution poles, and which are generally accessible only to employees of such utility or persons acting under its control or direction.
(1) when owned or leased, operated and maintained by any employer whose maintenance electricians are exempt from licensing under sections 326B.31 to 326B.399, while performing electrical maintenance work only as defined by rule;
(2) when owned or leased, and operated and maintained by any electrical, communications, or railway utility, cable communications company as defined in section 238.02, or telephone company as defined under section 237.01, in the exercise of its utility, antenna, or telephone function; and
(i) are used exclusively for the generations, transformation, distribution, transmission, or metering of electric current, or the operation of railway signals, or the transmission of intelligence, and do not have as a principal function the consumption or use of electric current by or for the benefit of any person other than such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company; and
(ii) are generally accessible only to employees of such utility, cable communications company, or telephone company or persons acting under its control or direction; and
(iii) are not on the load side of the service point or point of entrance for communication systems;
(3) when used in the street lighting operations of an electrical utility;
(4) when used as outdoor area lights which are owned and operated by an electrical utility and which are connected directly to its distribution system and located upon the utility's distribution poles, and which are generally accessible only to employees of such utility or persons acting under its control or direction;
(5) when the installation, material, and equipment are in facilities subject to the jurisdiction of the federal Mine Safety and Health Act; or
(6) when the installation, material, and equipment is part of an elevator installation for which the elevator contractor, licensed under section
326B.33, is required to obtain a permit from the authority having jurisdiction as provided by section 326B.184, and the inspection has been or will be performed by an elevator inspector certified and licensed by the department. This exemption shall apply only to installations, material, and equipment permitted or required to be connected on the load side of the disconnecting means required for elevator equipment under National Electrical Code Article 620, and elevator communications and alarm systems within the machine room, car, hoistway, or elevator lobby.
The commissioner may enter into an agreement with a municipality, in which the municipality agrees to perform plan and specification reviews required to be performed by the commissioner under Minnesota Rules, part 4715.3130, if:
(a) the municipality has adopted:
(1) the plumbing code;
(2) an ordinance that requires plumbing plans and specifications to be submitted to, reviewed, and approved by the municipality, except as provided in paragraph (n);
(3) an ordinance that authorizes the municipality to perform inspections required by the plumbing code; and
(4) an ordinance that authorizes the municipality to enforce the plumbing code in its entirety, except as provided in paragraph (p);
(b) the municipality agrees to review plumbing plans and specifications for all construction for which the plumbing code requires the review of plumbing plans and specifications, except as provided in paragraph (n);
(c) the municipality agrees that, when it reviews plumbing plans and specifications under paragraph (b), the review will:
(1) reflect the degree to which the plans and specifications affect the public health and conform to the provisions of the plumbing code;
(2) ensure that there is no physical connection between water supply systems that are safe for domestic use and those that are unsafe for domestic use; and
(3) ensure that there is no apparatus through which unsafe water may be discharged or drawn into a safe water supply system;
(d) the municipality agrees to perform all inspections required by the plumbing code in connection with projects for which the municipality reviews plumbing plans and specifications under paragraph (b);
(e) the commissioner determines that the individuals who will conduct the inspections and the plumbing plan and specification reviews for the municipality do not have any conflict of interest in conducting the inspections and the plan and specification reviews;
(f) individuals who will conduct the plumbing plan and specification reviews for the municipality are:
(1) licensed master plumbers;
(2) licensed professional engineers; or
(3) individuals who are working under the supervision of a licensed professional engineer or licensed master plumber and who are licensed master or journeyman plumbers or hold a postsecondary degree in engineering;
(g) individuals who will conduct the plumbing plan and specification reviews for the municipality have passed a competency assessment required by the commissioner to assess the individual's competency at reviewing plumbing plans and specifications;
(h) individuals who will conduct the plumbing inspections for the municipality are licensed master or journeyman plumbers, or inspectors meeting the competency requirements established in rules adopted under section 326B.135;
(i) the municipality agrees to enforce in its entirety the plumbing code on all projects, except as provided in paragraph (p);
(j) the municipality agrees to keep official records of all documents received, including plans, specifications, surveys, and plot plans, and of all plan reviews, permits and certificates issued, reports of inspections, and notices issued in connection with plumbing inspections and the review of plumbing plans and specifications;
(k) the municipality agrees to maintain the records described in paragraph (j) in the official records of the municipality for the period required for the retention of public records under section 138.17, and shall make these records readily available for review at the request of the commissioner;
(l) the municipality and the commissioner agree that if at any time during the agreement the municipality does not have in effect the plumbing code or any of ordinances described in paragraph (a), or if the commissioner determines that the municipality is not properly administering and enforcing the plumbing code or is otherwise not complying with the agreement:
(1) the commissioner may, effective 14 days after the municipality's receipt of written notice, terminate the agreement;
(2) the municipality may challenge the termination in a contested case before the commissioner pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act; and
(3) while any challenge is pending under clause (2), the commissioner shall perform plan and specification reviews within the municipality under Minnesota Rules, part 4715.3130;
(m) the municipality and the commissioner agree that the municipality may terminate the agreement with or without cause on 90 days' written notice to the commissioner;
(n) the municipality and the commissioner agree that the municipality shall forward to the state for review all plumbing plans and specifications for the following types of projects within the municipality:
hospitals, nursing homes, supervised living facilities licensed for eight or more individuals, and similar health-care-related facilities regulated by the Minnesota Department of Health;
buildings owned by the federal or state government; and
(3) projects of a special nature for which department review is requested by either the municipality or the state;
(o) where the municipality forwards to the state for review plumbing plans and specifications, as provided in paragraph (n), the municipality shall not collect any fee for plan review, and the commissioner shall collect all applicable fees for plan review; and
(p) no municipality shall revoke, suspend, or place restrictions on any plumbing license issued by the state.
Plumbing system plans and specifications that are submitted to the commissioner for review shall be accompanied by the appropriate plan examination fees. If the commissioner determines, upon review of the plans, that inadequate fees were paid, the necessary additional fees shall be paid prior to plan approval. The commissioner shall charge the following fees for plan reviews and audits of plumbing installations for public, commercial, and industrial buildings:
(1) systems with both water distribution and drain, waste, and vent systems and having:
(i) 25 or fewer drainage fixture units, $150;
(ii) 26 to 50 drainage fixture units, $250;
(iii) 51 to 150 drainage fixture units, $350;
(iv) 151 to 249 drainage fixture units, $500;
(v) 250 or more drainage fixture units, $3 per drainage fixture unit to a maximum of $4,000; and
(vi) interceptors, separators, or catch basins, $70 per interceptor, separator, or catch basin design;
(2) building sewer service only, $150;
(3) building water service only, $150;
(4) building water distribution system only, no drainage system, $5 per supply fixture unit or $150, whichever is greater;
(5) storm drainage system, a minimum fee of $150 or:
(i) $50 per drain opening, up to a maximum of $500; and
(ii) $70 per interceptor, separator, or catch basin design;
(6) manufactured home park or campground, one to 25 sites, $300;
(7) manufactured home park or campground, 26 to 50 sites, $350;
(8) manufactured home park or campground, 51 to 125 sites, $400;
(9) manufactured home park or campground, more than 125 sites, $500;
(10) accelerated review, double the regular fee, one-half to be refunded if no response from the commissioner within 15 business days; and
(11) revision to previously reviewed or incomplete plans:
(i) review of plans for which the commissioner has issued two or more requests for additional information, per review, $100 or ten percent of the original fee, whichever is greater;
(ii) proposer-requested revision with no increase in project scope, $50 or ten percent of original fee, whichever is greater; and
(iii) proposer-requested revision with an increase in project scope, $50 plus the difference between the original project fee and the revised project fee.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "Gross annual receipts" means the total amount derived from residential contracting or residential remodeling activities, regardless of where the activities are performed, and must not be reduced by costs of goods sold, expenses, losses, or any other amount.
(c) "Licensee" means a person licensed as a residential contractor or residential remodeler.
(d) "Residential real estate" means a new or existing building constructed for habitation by one to four families, and includes detached garages.
(e) "Fund" means the contractor recovery fund.
(f) "Owner" when used in connection with real property, means a person who has any legal or equitable interest in real property and includes a condominium or townhome association that owns common property located in a condominium building or townhome building or an associated detached garage. Owner does not include any real estate developer.
No application shall be granted nor license issued until the applicant proves to the commissioner that:
(a) the applicant has a permanent, established place of business at each licensed location. An "established place of business" means a permanent enclosed building other than a residence, or a commercial office space, either owned by the applicant or leased by the applicant for a term of at least one year, located in an area where zoning regulations allow commercial activity, and where the books, records and files necessary to conduct the business are kept and maintained. The owner of a licensed manufactured home park who resides in or adjacent to the park may use the residence as the established place of business required by this subdivision, unless prohibited by local zoning ordinance.
If a license is granted, the licensee may use unimproved lots and premises for sale, storage, and display of manufactured homes, if the licensee first notifies the commissioner in writing;
(b) if the applicant desires to sell, solicit or advertise the sale of new manufactured homes, it has a bona fide contract or franchise in effect with a manufacturer or distributor of the new manufactured home it proposes to deal in;
(c) the applicant has secured: (1) a surety bond in the amount of $20,000 for each agency and each subagency location that bears the applicant's name and the name under which the applicant will be licensed and do business in this state. Each bond is for the protection of consumer customers, and must be executed by the applicant as principal and issued by a surety company admitted to do business in this state. Each bond shall be exclusively for the purpose of reimbursing consumer customers and shall be conditioned upon the faithful compliance by the applicant with all of the laws and rules of this state pertaining to the applicant's business as a dealer or manufacturer, including sections 325D.44, 325F.67 and 325F.69, and upon the applicant's faithful performance of all its legal obligations to consumer customers; and (2) a certificate of liability insurance in the amount of $1,000,000 that provides aggregate coverage for the agency and each subagency location. In the event of a policy cancellation, the insurer shall send written notice to the commissioner at the same time that a cancellation request is received from or a notice is sent to the insured;
(d) the applicant has established a trust account as required by section 327B.08, subdivision 3, unless the applicant states in writing its intention to limit its business to selling, offering for sale, soliciting or advertising the sale of new manufactured homes; and
(e) the applicant has provided evidence of having had at least two years' prior experience in the sale of manufactured homes, working for a licensed dealer.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of labor and industry.
(a) The commissioner must appoint a Combative Sports Advisory Council to advise the commissioner on the administration of duties under this chapter.
(b) The council shall have nine members appointed by the commissioner. One member must be a retired judge of the Minnesota District Court, Minnesota Court of Appeals, Minnesota Supreme Court, the United States District Court for the District of Minnesota, or the Eighth Circuit Court of Appeals. At least four members must have knowledge of the boxing industry. At least four members must have knowledge of the mixed martial arts industry. The commissioner shall make serious efforts to appoint qualified women to serve on the council.
(c) Council members shall serve terms of four years with the terms ending on the first Monday in January.
(d) The council shall annually elect from its membership a chair.
The commissioner shall convene the first meeting of the council by July 1, 2012. The council shall elect a chair at its first meeting. Thereafter, Meetings shall be convened by the commissioner, or by the chair with the approval of the commissioner.
For the first appointments to the council, the commissioner shall appoint the members currently serving on the Combative Sports Commission established under section 341.22, to the council. The commissioner shall designate two of the members to serve until the first Monday in January 2013; two members to serve until the first Monday in January 2014; two members to serve until the first Monday in January 2015; and three members to serve until the first Monday in January 2016.
(g) Removal of members, filling of vacancies, and compensation of members shall be as provided in section 15.059.
The commissioner shall:
(1) issue, deny, renew, suspend, or revoke licenses;
(2) make and maintain records of its acts and proceedings including the issuance, denial, renewal, suspension, or revocation of licenses;
(3) keep public records of the council open to inspection at all reasonable times;
(4) develop rules to be implemented under this chapter;
(5) conform to the rules adopted under this chapter;
(6) develop policies and procedures for regulating mixed martial arts;
(7) immediately suspend an individual license for a medical condition, including but not limited to a medical condition resulting from an injury sustained during a match, bout, or contest that has been confirmed by the ringside physician. The medical suspension must be lifted after the commissioner receives written information from a physician licensed in the home state of the licensee indicating that the combatant may resume competition, and any other information that the commissioner may by rule require. Medical suspensions are not subject to section
The commissioner shall:
(1) have sole direction, supervision, regulation, control, and jurisdiction over all combative sport contests that are held within this state unless a contest is exempt from the application of this chapter under federal law;
(2) have sole control, authority, and jurisdiction over all licenses required by this chapter;
(3) grant a license to an applicant if, in the judgment of the commissioner, the financial responsibility, experience, character, and general fitness of the applicant are consistent with the public interest, convenience, or necessity and the best interests of combative sports and conforms with this chapter and the commissioner's rules
(a) Before the commissioner issues a license to a promoter, corporation, or other business entity, the applicant shall:
(1) provide the commissioner with a copy of any agreement between a combatant and the applicant that binds the applicant to pay the combatant a certain fixed fee or percentage of the gate receipts;
(2) show on the application the owner or owners of the applicant entity and the percentage of interest held by each owner holding a 25 percent or more interest in the applicant;
(3) provide the commissioner with a copy of the latest financial statement of the entity; and
(4) provide the commissioner with a copy or other proof acceptable to the commissioner of the insurance contract or policy required by this chapter.
(b) Before the commissioner issues a license to a promoter, the applicant shall deposit with the commissioner a cash bond or surety bond in an amount set by the commissioner. The bond shall be executed in favor of this state and shall be conditioned on the faithful performance by the promoter of the promoter's obligations under this chapter and the rules adopted under it. An applicant for a license as a promoter shall submit an application a minimum of six weeks before the combative sport contest is scheduled to occur.
(c) Before the commissioner issues a license to a combatant, the applicant shall submit to the commissioner
the results of a current medical examination on forms furnished or approved by the commissioner. The medical examination must include an ophthalmological and neurological examination, and documentation of test results for HBV, HCV, and HIV, and any other blood test as the commissioner by rule may require. The ophthalmological examination must be designed to detect any retinal defects or other damage or condition of the eye that could be aggravated by combative sports. The neurological examination must include an electroencephalogram or medically superior test if the combatant has been knocked unconscious in a previous contest. The commissioner may also order an electroencephalogram or other appropriate neurological or physical examination before any contest if it determines that the examination is desirable to protect the health of the combatant. The commissioner shall not issue a license to an applicant submitting positive test results for HBV, HCV, or HIV.
A license issued after July 1, 2007, is valid for one year from the date it is issued and may be renewed by filing an application for renewal with the commissioner and payment of the license fees established in section 341.321. An application for a license and renewal of a license must be on a form provided by the commissioner. There is a 30-day grace period during which a license may be renewed if a late filing penalty fee equal to the license fee is submitted with the regular license fee. A licensee that files late shall not conduct any activity regulated by this chapter until the commissioner has renewed the license. If the licensee fails to apply to the commissioner within the 30-day grace period, the licensee must apply for a new license under subdivision 1.
(a) The fee schedule for professional licenses issued by the commissioner is as follows:
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$400 for each initial license and each renewal;
(3) judges and knockdown judges,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
(5) ring announcers,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal; and
(10) ringside physicians,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal.
In addition to the license fee and the late filing penalty fee in section 341.32, subdivision 2, if applicable, an individual who applies for a professional license on the same day the combative sporting event is held shall pay a late fee of $100 plus the original license fee of
$45 at the time the application is submitted.
(b) The fee schedule for amateur licenses issued by the commissioner is as follows:
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$400 for each initial license and each renewal;
(3) judges and knockdown judges,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
(5) ring announcers,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal;
$25 for each initial license and each renewal;
$45 for each initial license and each renewal; and
(10) ringside physicians,
$45 for each initial license and each renewal.
(c) The commissioner shall establish a contest fee for each combative sport contest. The professional combative sport contest fee is $1,500 per event or not more than four percent of the gross ticket sales, whichever is greater, as determined by the commissioner when the combative sport contest is scheduled,
except that the amateur combative sport contest fee shall be $500 or not more than four percent of the gross ticket sales, whichever is greater. The commissioner shall consider the size and type of venue when establishing a contest fee. The commissioner may establish the maximum number of complimentary tickets allowed for each event by rule. A professional or amateur combative sport contest fee is nonrefundable.
(d) All fees and penalties collected by the commissioner must be deposited in the commissioner account in the special revenue fund.
the commissioner shall administer the fund as part of the Small Cities Development Block Grant Program
. funds shall be made available to local communities and recognized Indian tribal governments in accordance with the rules adopted for economic development grants in the small cities community development block grant program , except that All units of general purpose local government are eligible applicants for Minnesota investment funds. The commissioner may also make funds available within the department for eligible expenditures under subdivision 3, clause (2). A home rule charter or statutory city, county, or town may loan or grant money received from repayment of funds awarded under this section to a regional development commission, other regional entity, or statewide community capital fund as determined by the commissioner, to capitalize or to provide the local match required for capitalization of a regional or statewide revolving loan fund.
The money appropriated for this section may be used to:
(1) fund grants for infrastructure, loans, loan guarantees, interest buy-downs, and other forms of participation with private sources of financing, provided that a loan to a private enterprise must be for a principal amount not to exceed one-half of the cost of the project for which financing is sought;
(2) fund strategic investments in renewable energy market development, such as low interest loans for renewable energy equipment manufacturing, training grants to support renewable energy workforce, development of a renewable energy supply chain that represents and strengthens the industry throughout the state, and external marketing to garner more national and international investment into Minnesota's renewable sector. Expenditures in external marketing for renewable energy market development are not subject to the limitations in clause (1); and
(3) provide private entrepreneurs with training, other technical assistance, and financial assistance, as provided in the small cities development block grant program.
There is created a Minnesota investment fund disaster contingency account in the special revenue fund. Repayment of loan amounts to the local government unit under this section shall be forwarded to the commissioner and deposited in the disaster contingency account in the Minnesota investment fund to be appropriated by law for future disaster relief.
All awards under section 12A.07 are subject to the
following requirements. (a) Eligible applicants include the following:
(1) Applicants may be any business or nonprofit organization in the area included in the disaster declaration that was directly and adversely affected by the disaster. This includes: businesses, cooperatives, utilities, industrial, commercial, retail, and nonprofit organizations, including those nonprofits that provide residential, health care, child care, social, or other services on behalf of the Department of Human Services to residents included in the disaster area.
(2) Business applicants must be organized as a proprietorship, partnership, LLC, or a corporation.
(3) Applicants must have been in operation before the date of the disaster.
(b) Eligible activities. Loan funds may be used to assist businesses only in their recovery efforts but are not available to provide relief from economic losses. (c) Eligible costs. Eligible costs may include the following: repair of buildings, leasehold improvements, fixtures and/or equipment, loss of inventory, and cleanup costs. (d) Ineligible activities:
Ineligible applicants. Any applicants not meeting the eligibility requirements outlined in this subdivision are ineligible to receive recovery loan funds.
Ineligible activities. Funds may not be used for lending or investment operations, land speculation, or any activity deemed illegal by federal, state, or local law or ordinance.
Ineligible costs. Ineligible costs include but are not limited to: economic injury losses, relocation, management fees, financing costs, franchise fees, debt consolidation, moving costs, refinancing debt existing prior to the date of the disaster, and operating costs. (e) Loan application: (1) Application process. All parties seeking recovery loan funds must file an application with the local unit of government. Small Business Administration (SBA) application forms may be used. Applications must be transmitted in the form and manner prescribed by the commissioner. (f) Application information. Only completed applications will be reviewed for consideration. Submittal of the following information constitutes a complete application:
(1) Minnesota investment fund recovery loan fund application;
(2) business SBA disaster application, if applicable;
(3) regional development organization or responsible local government application, if applicable;
(4) administrative contact;
(5) business release for local government to review SBA damage assessment/loss verification, if applicable;
(6) proof of loss statement from insurer;
(7) construction cost estimates;
(8) invoices for work completed;
(9) quotes for equipment;
(10) proposed security;
(11) company historical financial statements for the 24 months immediately prior to the application date;
(12) credit check release;
(13) number of jobs to be retained;
(14) wages paid;
(15) amount of loan request;
(16) documentation of damages incurred;
(17) property taxes paid and current;
(18) judgments, liens, agreements, consent decrees, stipulations for settlements, or other such actions which would prevent the applicant from participating in any program administered by the responsible local, state, or regional government;
(19) compliance with all applicable local ordinances and plans;
(20) documentation through financial and tax records that the business was a viable operating entity at the time of the flood;
(21) business tax identification number; and
(22) other documentation as requested.
(g) Incomplete applications will be assigned pending status and the applicant will be informed in writing of the missing documentation. (h) Determination of eligibility. Applicant eligibility will be determined using criteria enumerated in paragraph (a). A credit check for the company and each of its principal owners may be conducted. An owner's encumbrance report will be completed by the Recorder's Office.
A grant recipient is eligible for assistance provided under this section only after the recipient has claimed all applicable private insurance and the recipient has utilized all other sources of applicable assistance available under the act appropriating funding for the grant.
(a) The film production jobs program is created. The program shall be operated by the Minnesota Film and TV Board with administrative oversight and control by the commissioner of
administration. The program shall make payment to producers of feature films, national television or Internet programs, documentaries, music videos, and commercials that directly create new film jobs in Minnesota. To be eligible for a payment, a producer must submit documentation to the Minnesota Film and TV Board of expenditures for production costs incurred in Minnesota that are directly attributable to the production in Minnesota of a film product.
The Minnesota Film and TV Board shall make recommendations to the commissioner of
administration about program payment, but the commissioner has the authority to make the final determination on payments. The commissioner's determination must be based on proper documentation of eligible production costs submitted for payments. No more than five percent of the funds appropriated for the program in any year may be expended for administration.
(b) For the purposes of this section:
(1) "production costs" means the cost of the following:
(i) a story and scenario to be used for a film;
(ii) salaries of talent, management, and labor, including payments to personal services corporations for the services of a performing artist;
(iii) set construction and operations, wardrobe, accessories, and related services;
(iv) photography, sound synchronization, lighting, and related services;
(v) editing and related services;
(vi) rental of facilities and equipment;
(vii) other direct costs of producing the film in accordance with generally accepted entertainment industry practice;
(2) "film" means a feature film, television or Internet
show, documentary, music video, or television commercial, whether on film, video, or digital media. Film does not include news, current events, public programming, or a program that includes weather or market reports; a talk show; a production with respect to a questionnaire or contest; a sports event or sports activity; a gala presentation or awards show; a finished production that solicits funds; or a production for which the production company is required under United States Code, title 18, section 2257, to maintain records with respect to a performer portrayed in a single-media or multimedia program.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Minnesota Film and TV Board may make reimbursements of: (1) up to
20 percent of film production costs for films that locate production outside the metropolitan area, as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, or that incur production costs in excess of $5,000,000 in the metropolitan area within a 12-month period; or (2) up to 15 percent of film production costs for films that incur production costs of $5,000,000 or less in the metropolitan area within a 12-month period.
The board must assess labor market data when conducting college program reviews. Colleges must provide prospective students with the job placement rate for graduates of technical and occupational programs offered at the colleges.
(a) County boards must provide or contract for sufficient community support services within the county to meet the needs of adults with serious and persistent mental illness who are residents of the county. Adults may be required to pay a fee according to section 245.481. The community support services program must be designed to improve the ability of adults with serious and persistent mental illness to:
work in a regular or supported work environment;
(2) handle basic activities of daily living;
(3) participate in leisure time activities;
(4) set goals and plans; and
(5) obtain and maintain appropriate living arrangements.
The community support services program must also be designed to reduce the need for and use of more intensive, costly, or restrictive placements both in number of admissions and length of stay.
(b) Community support services are those services that are supportive in nature and not necessarily treatment oriented, and include:
(1) conducting outreach activities such as home visits, health and wellness checks, and problem solving;
(2) connecting people to resources to meet their basic needs;
(3) finding, securing, and supporting people in their housing;
(4) attaining and maintaining health insurance benefits;
(5) assisting with job applications, finding and maintaining employment, and securing a stable financial situation;
(6) fostering social support, including support groups, mentoring, peer support, and other efforts to prevent isolation and promote recovery; and
(7) educating about mental illness, treatment, and recovery.
(c) Community support services shall use all available funding streams. The county shall maintain the level of expenditures for this program, as required under section 245.4835. County boards must continue to provide funds for those services not covered by other funding streams and to maintain an infrastructure to carry out these services.
(d) The commissioner shall collect data on community support services programs, including, but not limited to, demographic information such as age, sex, race, the number of people served, and information related to housing, employment, hospitalization, symptoms, and satisfaction with services.
The commissioner of employment and economic development, in cooperation with the commissioner of human services, shall develop a statewide program of grants as outlined in section 268A.14 to provide services for persons with mental illness in supported employment. Projects funded under this section must: (1) assist persons with mental illness in obtaining and retaining employment; (2) emphasize individual
community placements for clients; (3) ensure interagency collaboration at the local level between vocational rehabilitation field offices, county service agencies, community support programs operating under the authority of section 245.4712, and community rehabilitation providers, in assisting clients; and (4) involve clients in the planning, development, oversight, and delivery of support services. Project funds may not be used to provide services in segregated settings such as the center-based employment subprograms as defined in section 268A.01.
The commissioner of employment and economic development, in consultation with the commissioner of human services, shall develop a request for proposals which is consistent with the requirements of this section and section 268A.14 and which specifies the types of services that must be provided by grantees. Priority for funding shall be given to organizations
with experience in developing innovative employment support services for persons with mental illness. Each applicant for funds under this section shall submit an evaluation protocol as part of the grant application.
The commissioner of employment and economic development, in cooperation with the commissioner of human services, shall operate a statewide system to reimburse providers for employment support services for persons with mental illness. The system shall be operated to support employment programs and services where:
(1) services provided are readily accessible to all persons with mental illness so they can make progress toward economic self-sufficiency;
(2) services provided are made an integral part of all treatment and rehabilitation programs for persons with mental illness to ensure that they have the ability and opportunity to consider a variety of work options;
(3) programs help persons with mental illness form long-range plans for employment that fit their skills and abilities by ensuring that ongoing support, crisis management, placement, and career planning services are available;
(4) services provided give persons with mental illness the information needed to make informed choices about employment expectations and options, including information on the types of employment available in the local community, the types of employment services available, the impact of employment on eligibility for governmental benefits, and career options;
(5) programs assess whether persons with mental illness being serviced are satisfied with the services and outcomes. Satisfaction assessments shall address at least whether persons like their jobs, whether quality of life is improved, whether potential for advancement exists, and whether there are adequate support services in place;
(6) programs encourage persons with mental illness being served to be involved in employment support services issues by allowing them to participate in the development of individual rehabilitation plans and to serve on boards, committees, task forces, and review bodies that shape employment services policies and that award grants, and by encouraging and helping them to establish and participate in self-help and consumer advocacy groups;
(7) programs encourage employers to expand employment opportunities for persons with mental illness and, to maximize the hiring of persons with mental illness, educate employers about the needs and abilities of persons with mental illness and the requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act;
(8) programs encourage persons with mental illness, vocational rehabilitation professionals, and mental health professionals to learn more about current work incentive provisions in governmental benefits programs;
(9) programs establish and maintain linkages with a wide range of other programs and services, including educational programs, housing programs, economic assistance services, community support services, and clinical services to ensure that persons with mental illness can obtain and maintain employment;
(10) programs participate in ongoing training across agencies and service delivery systems so that providers in human services systems understand their respective roles, rules, and responsibilities and understand the options that exist for providing employment and community support services to persons with mental illness; and
(11) programs work with local communities to expand system capacity to provide access to employment services to all persons with mental illness who want them.
Funds granted by the board under this section may be used for any combination of the following, except as otherwise provided in this section:
(1) employment transition services such as developing readjustment plans for individuals; outreach and intake; early readjustment; job or career counseling; testing; orientation; assessment of skills and aptitudes; provision of occupational and labor market information; job placement assistance; job search; job development; prelayoff assistance; relocation assistance;
and programs provided in cooperation with employers or labor organizations to provide early intervention in the event of plant closings or substantial layoffs;
(2) support services, including assistance to help the participant relocate to employ existing skills; out-of-area job search assistance; family care assistance, including child care; commuting assistance; emergency housing and rental assistance; counseling assistance, including personal and financial; health care; emergency health assistance; emergency financial assistance; work-related tools and clothing; and other appropriate support services that enable a person to participate in an employment and training program with the goal of reemployment;
(3) specific, short-term training to help the participant enhance current skills in a similar occupation or industry; entrepreneurial training, customized training, or on-the-job training; basic and remedial education to enhance current skills; and literacy and work-related English training for non-English speakers; and
(4) long-term training in a new occupation or industry, including occupational skills training or customized training in an accredited program recognized by one or more relevant industries. Long-term training shall only be provided to dislocated workers whose skills are obsolete and who have no other transferable skills likely to result in employment at a comparable wage rate. Training shall only be provided for occupations or industries with reasonable expectations of job availability based on the service provider's thorough assessment of local labor market information where the individual currently resides or is willing to relocate. This clause shall not restrict training in personal services or other such industries.
(a) Each new taxpaying employer that does not qualify for an experience rating under subdivision 3, except new employers in a high experience rating industry, must be assigned, for a calendar year, a tax rate the higher of (1) one percent, or (2) the tax rate computed, to the nearest 1/100 of a percent, by dividing the total amount of unemployment benefits paid all applicants during the 48 calendar months ending on June 30 of the prior calendar year by the total taxable wages of all taxpaying employers during the same period, plus the applicable base tax rate and any additional assessments under subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
(b) Each new taxpaying employer in a high experience rating industry that does not qualify for an experience rating under subdivision 3, must be assigned, for a calendar year, a tax rate the higher of (1) that assigned under paragraph (a), or (2) the tax rate, computed to the nearest 1/100 of a percent, by dividing the total amount of unemployment benefits paid to all applicants from high experience rating industry employers during the 48 calendar months ending on June 30 of the prior calendar year by the total taxable wages of all high experience rating industry employers during the same period, to a maximum provided for under subdivision 3, paragraph (b), plus the applicable base tax rate and any additional assessments under subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
(c) An employer is considered to be in a high experience rating industry if:
(1) the employer is engaged in residential, commercial, or industrial construction, including general contractors;
(2) the employer is engaged in sand, gravel, or limestone mining;
(3) the employer is engaged in the manufacturing of concrete, concrete products, or asphalt; or
(4) the employer is engaged in road building, repair, or resurfacing, including bridge and tunnels and residential and commercial driveways and parking lots.
(d) Regardless of any law to the contrary, a taxpaying employer must be assigned a tax rate under this subdivision if
: (2) the employer has filed 14 consecutive quarterly "no wages paid" reports on wage detail under section 268.044.
(e) The commissioner must send to the new employer, by mail or electronic transmission, a determination of tax rate. An employer may appeal the determination of tax rate in accordance with the procedures in subdivision 6, paragraph (c).
(a) An application for unemployment benefits is effective the Sunday of the calendar week that the application was filed. An application for unemployment benefits may be backdated one calendar week before the Sunday of the week the application was actually filed if the applicant requests the backdating at the time the application is filed. An application may be backdated only if the applicant
had no employment during the period of the backdating. If an individual attempted to file an application for unemployment benefits, but was prevented from filing an application by the department, the application is effective the Sunday of the calendar week the individual first attempted to file an application.
(b) A benefit account established under subdivision 2 is effective the date the application for unemployment benefits was effective.
(c) A benefit account, once established, may later be withdrawn only if:
(1) the applicant has not been paid any unemployment benefits on that benefit account; and
(2) a new application for unemployment benefits is filed and a new benefit account is established at the time of the withdrawal.
A determination or amended determination of eligibility or ineligibility issued under section 268.101, that was sent before the withdrawal of the benefit account, remains in effect and is not voided by the withdrawal of the benefit account.
(d) An application for unemployment benefits is not allowed before the Sunday following the expiration of the benefit year on a prior benefit account. Except as allowed under paragraph (c), an applicant may establish only one benefit account each 52 calendar weeks.
Additional unemployment benefits are available if:
(1) MS 2008 [Expired, 2008 c 300 s 15]
(2)(i) at a facility that had 100 or more employees, the employer reduced operations, resulting within a one-month period in the layoff of 50 percent or more of the facility's work force, including reductions caused as a result of a major natural disaster declared by the president;
(ii) the employer has no expressed plan to resume operations that would lead to the reemployment of those employees in the immediate future; and
(iii) the seasonally adjusted unemployment rate in the county that the facility is located was ten percent or more during the month of the reduction or any of the three months before or after the month of the reduction
An applicant is eligible to receive additional unemployment benefits for any week during the applicant's benefit year if:
(1) for any week during which benefits are available under subdivision 1, clause (1):
(i) the applicant resides in a county that meets the requirements of subdivision 1, clause (1), and resided in that county each week that regular unemployment benefits were paid;
(ii) the applicant was not paid unemployment benefits for any week in the 12 months before the effective date of the applicant's benefit account;
(iii) the applicant meets the same eligibility requirements that are required for regular unemployment benefits under section 268.069; and
(iv) MS 2008 [Expired, 2008 c 300 s 17]
(2) the applicant was laid off from employment as a result of a reduction under subdivision 1, clause (2), or was laid off because of lack of work from that employer during the three-month period before, or the three-month period after, the month of the reduction under subdivision 1, clause (2); (3) the applicant meets the same eligibility requirements that are required for regular unemployment benefits under section 268.069; (4) the applicant has exhausted regular unemployment benefits under section 268.07, is not entitled to receive extended unemployment benefits under section 268.115, and is not entitled to receive unemployment benefits under any other state or federal law for that week; and (5) a majority of the applicant's wage credits were from the employer that had a reduction in operations under subdivision 1, clause (2).
An applicant's weekly additional unemployment benefit amount is the same as the applicant's weekly unemployment benefit amount
during the current benefit year under section 268.07.
the maximum amount of additional unemployment benefits available in the applicant's benefit year is one-half of the applicant's maximum amount of regular unemployment benefits available under section 268.07, subdivision 2. Extended unemployment benefits paid and unemployment benefits paid under any federal law other than regular unemployment benefits must be deducted from the maximum amount of additional unemployment benefits available.
(a) An employer may submit a proposed shared work plan for an employee group to the commissioner for approval in a manner and format set by the commissioner. The proposed agreement must include:
(1) a certified statement that the normal weekly hours of work of all of the proposed participating employees were full time but are now reduced, or will be reduced, with a corresponding reduction in pay, in order to prevent layoffs;
(2) the name and Social Security number of each participating employee;
a certified statement
of when each participating employee was first hired by the employer , which must be at least one year before the proposed agreement is submitted; (4) the hours of work each participating employee will work each week for the duration of the agreement, which must be at least 20 hours and no more than 32 hours per week, except that the agreement may provide for a uniform vacation shutdown of up to two weeks;
(5) the proposed duration of the agreement, which must be at least two months and not more than one year, although an agreement may be extended for up to an additional year upon approval of the commissioner; (6) a starting date beginning on a Sunday at least 15 calendar days after the date the proposed agreement is submitted; and (7) a signature of an owner or officer of the employer who is listed as an owner or officer on the employer's account under section 268.045. (b) An agreement may not be approved for an employer that:
(1) has any unemployment tax or reimbursements, including any interest, fees, or penalties, due but unpaid; or
(2) has the maximum experience rating provided for under section 268.051, subdivision 3.
(a) The commissioner must promptly review a proposed
agreement and notify the employer, by mail or electronic transmission, within 15 days of receipt, whether the proposal satisfies the requirements of this section. If the proposal does not comply with this section, the commissioner must specifically state why the proposal is not in compliance. If a proposed agreement complies with this section, it must be implemented according to its terms.
(b) The commissioner may
reject an agreement if the commissioner has cause to believe the proposal is not submitted for the purpose of preventing layoffs due to lack of work.
(a) An applicant, in order to be paid unemployment benefits under this section, must meet all of the requirements under section 268.069, subdivision 1. The following do not apply to an applicant
under this section:
the deductible earnings provision of section 268.085, subdivision 5;
(2) the restriction under
section 268.085, subdivision 6, if the applicant works exactly 32 hours in a week;
(3) the requirement of being available for suitable employment; and
(4) the requirement of actively seeking suitable employment.
(b) An applicant is ineligible for unemployment benefits under this section for any week, if
: (1) the applicant works more than 32 hours in a week in employment with one or more employer ; or (2) the applicant works more hours in a week for the shared work employer than the reduced weekly hours provided for in the agreement.
The weekly benefit amount and maximum amount of unemployment benefits available are computed according to section 268.07, except that
an applicant is paid a reduced amount in direct proportion to the reduction in hours from the normal weekly hours.
(a) An employer may cancel
an agreement at any time upon seven calendar days' notice to the commissioner in a manner and format prescribed by the commissioner. The cancellation must be signed by an owner or officer of the employer.
(b) An employer that cancels an agreement must provide written notice to each participating employee in the group of the cancellation at the time notice is sent to the commissioner. (c) If an employer cancels an agreement before the expiration date provided for in subdivision 1, a new agreement may not be entered into with that employer under this section for at least 60 calendar days. (d) The commissioner may immediately cancel any agreement if the commissioner determines the agreement was based upon false information or the employer is in breach of the contract. The commissioner must immediately send written notice of cancellation to the employer. An employer that receives notice of cancellation by the commissioner must provide written notice to each participating employer in the group of the cancellation. In the event that the United States Department of Labor determines that any provision of the Minnesota Unemployment Insurance Law , or any other provision of Minnesota Statutes relating to the unemployment insurance program, is not in conformity with the requirements of federal law, the provision has no force or effect ; but If only a portion of the provision, or the application to any person or circumstances, is held not in conformity, the remainder of the provision and the application of the provision to other persons or circumstances are not affected.
This section is effective July 1, 2012, except the amendments to paragraph (d) are effective for penalties
imposed on or after July 1, 2013.
(a) Whenever practicable, a public entity shall:
(1) purchase uncoated office paper and printing paper;
(2) purchase recycled content paper with at least ten percent postconsumer material by weight;
(3) purchase paper which has not been dyed with colors, excluding pastel colors;
(4) purchase recycled content paper that is manufactured using little or no chlorine bleach or chlorine derivatives;
(5) use no more than two colored inks, standard or processed, except in formats where they are necessary to convey meaning;
(6) use reusable binding materials or staples and bind documents by methods that do not use glue;
(7) use soy-based inks;
(8) produce reports, publications, and periodicals that are readily recyclable within the state resource recovery program
(b) Paragraph (a), clause (1), does not apply to coated paper that is made with at least 50 percent postconsumer material.
(c) A public entity shall print documents on both sides of the paper where commonly accepted publishing practices allow.
(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), clause (2), and section 16B.121, copier paper purchased by a state agency must contain at least ten percent postconsumer material by fiber content.
(a) The fees collected, as required in this chapter, chapter 214, and the rules of the board, shall be paid to the board. The board shall deposit the fees in the general fund in the state treasury.
(b) The board shall charge the following fees:
(1) examination and certificate, registered barber, $85;
(2) examination and certificate, apprentice, $80;
(3) examination, instructor, $180; (4) certificate, instructor, $65; (5) temporary teacher or apprentice permit, $80; (6) renewal of license, registered barber, $80; (7) renewal of license, apprentice, $70; (8) renewal of license, instructor, $80; (9) renewal of temporary teacher permit, $65; (10) student permit, $45;
(11) initial shop registration, $85; (12) initial school registration, $1,030; (13) renewal shop registration, $85; (14) renewal school registration, $280; (15) restoration of registered barber license, $95; (16) restoration of apprentice license, $90; (17) restoration of shop registration, $105; (18) change of ownership or location, $55; (19) duplicate license, $40; and (20) home study course, $95
Any one or any combination of the following practices when done upon the head and neck for cosmetic purposes and not for the treatment of disease or physical or mental ailments and when done for payment directly or indirectly or without payment for the public generally constitutes the practice of barbering within the meaning of sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26: to shave, trim the beard, cut or bob the hair of any person of either sex for compensation or other reward received by the person performing such service or any other person; to give facial and scalp massage or treatments with oils, creams, lotions, or other preparations either by hand or mechanical appliances; to singe, shampoo the hair, or apply hair tonics; or to apply cosmetic preparations, antiseptics, powders, oils, clays, or lotions to scalp, face, or neck.
A person is qualified to receive a certificate of registration as a registered barber:
(1) who is qualified under the provisions of section 154.06;
(2) who has practiced as a registered apprentice for a period of 12 months under the immediate personal supervision of a registered barber; and
(3) who has passed an examination conducted by the board to determine fitness to practice barbering.
An applicant for a certificate of registration to practice as a registered barber who fails to pass the examination conducted by the board shall continue to practice as an apprentice for an additional
two months before being again entitled to take the examination for a registered barber.
A person is qualified to receive a certificate of registration as a registered apprentice:
(1) who has completed at least ten grades of an approved school;
(2) who has graduated from a barber school approved by
the board; and
(3) who has passed an examination conducted by the board to determine fitness to practice as a registered apprentice.
An applicant for
a certificate of registration to practice as an apprentice who fails to pass the examination conducted by the board is required to complete a further course of study of at least 500 hours, of not more than eight hours in any one working day, in a barber school approved by the board.
A certificate of registration of an apprentice shall be valid for four years
from the date the certificate of registration is issued by the board and shall not be renewed. During the four-year period the certificate of registration shall remain in full force and effect only if the apprentice complies with all the provisions of sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26, including the payment of an annual fee, and the rules of the board.
If a registered apprentice, during the term in which the certificate of registration is in effect, enters full-time active duty in the armed forces of the United States of America, the expiration date of the certificate of registration shall be extended by a period of time equal to the period or periods of active duty.
A person is qualified to receive a certificate of registration as an instructor of barbering who:
(1) is a graduate
from an approved high school, or its equivalent, as determined by examination by the Department of Education;
qualified for a teacher's or instructor's vocational certificate;
(3) has at least three years experience as a registered barber in this state, or its equivalent as determined by the board; and
(4) has passed an examination conducted by the board to determine fitness to instruct in barbering.
A certificate of registration under this section is provisional until a teacher's or instructor's vocational certificate has been issued by the Department of Education. A provisional certificate of registration is valid for 30 days and is not renewable.
No barber school shall be approved by the board unless it requires, as a prerequisite to admission, ten grades of an approved school or its equivalent, as determined by an examination conducted by the commissioner of education, which shall issue a certificate that the student has passed the required examination, and unless it requires, as a prerequisite to graduation, a course of instruction of at least 1,500 hours, of not more than eight hours in any one working day. The course of instruction must include the following subjects: scientific fundamentals for barbering; hygiene; practical study of the hair, skin, muscles, and nerves; structure of the head, face, and neck; elementary chemistry relating to sterilization and antiseptics; diseases of the skin, hair, and glands; massaging and manipulating the muscles of the face and neck; haircutting; shaving; trimming the beard; bleaching, tinting and dyeing the hair; and the chemical straightening of hair.
Each applicant for an examination shall:
(1) make application to the Board of Barber Examiners on blank forms prepared and furnished by it, the application to contain proof under the applicant's oath of the particular qualifications of the applicant;
furnish to the board two five-inch x three-inch signed photographs of the applicant, one to accompany the application and one to be returned to the applicant, to be presented to the board when the applicant appears for examination; and
(3) pay to the board the required fee
The board shall conduct examinations of applicants for certificates of registration to practice as barbers and apprentices not more than six times each year, at such time and place as the board may determine. an affidavit
shall be filed with the board by the proprietor of a barber school that students applying to take the apprentice examination have completed 1,500 hours in a barber school registered with the board.
The examination of applicants for certificates of registration as barbers and apprentices shall include
both a practical demonstration and a written and oral test and embrace the subjects usually taught in barber schools registered with the board.
Each applicant for an initial certificate of registration shall make application to the board on forms prepared and furnished by the board with proof under oath of the particular qualifications of each applicant. This application shall be accompanied by a fee prescribed by law or the rules of the board to defray the expenses of making investigation and for the examination of such applicant.
A person who meets all of the requirements for barber registration in sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26 and either has a license, certificate of registration, or an equivalent as a practicing barber or instructor of barbering from another state or country which in the discretion of the board has substantially the same requirements for registering barbers and instructors of barbering as required by sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26 or can prove by sworn affidavits practice as a barber or instructor of barbering in another state or country for at least five years immediately prior to making application in this state, shall, upon payment of the required fee, be issued a certificate of registration without examination
, provided that the other state or country grants the same privileges to holders of Minnesota certificates of registration.
A person who meets all of the requirements for registration as a barber in sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26 and who has a license, a certificate of registration, or its equivalent as an apprentice in a state or country which in the discretion of the board has substantially the same requirements for registration as an apprentice as is provided by sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26, shall, upon payment of the required fee, be issued a certificate of registration without examination
, provided that the other state or country grants the same privileges to holders of Minnesota certificates of registration.
Every holder of a certificate of registration as a registered barber or registered apprentice or temporary apprentice permit shall display
it in a conspicuous place adjacent to or near the chair where work is performed. Every holder of a certificate of registration as an instructor of barbering or as a barber school, of a temporary permit as an instructor of barbering , and of a shop registration card shall display it in a conspicuous place accessible to the public.
A registered barber or a registered apprentice who has not renewed a certificate of registration may be reinstated within
one year of such failure to renew without examination upon the payment of the required restoration fee. A registered instructor of barbering who has not renewed a certificate of registration may be reinstated within three years of such failure to renew without examination upon payment of the required restoration fee. All registered barbers and registered apprentices who allow their certificates of registration to lapse for more than one year shall be required to reexamine before being issued a certificate of registration. All registered instructors of barbering who allow their certificates of registration to lapse for more than three years shall be required to reexamine before being issued a certificate of registration.
The governing body of any city of this state may regulate by ordinance the opening and closing hours of barber shops within its municipal limits.
"Cosmetology" is the practice of personal services, for compensation, for the cosmetic care of the hair, nails, and skin. These services include cleaning, conditioning, shaping, reinforcing, coloring and enhancing the body surface in the areas of the head, scalp, face, arms, hands, legs,
and feet, except where these services are performed by a barber under sections 154.001, 154.002, 154.003, 154.01 to 154.161, 154.19 to 154.21, and 154.24 to 154.26.
A "manager" is any person who conducts, operates, or manages a cosmetology school or salon and who also instructs in or provides any services, as defined in subdivision 3.
An "instructor" is any person employed by a school to prepare and present the theoretical and practical education of cosmetology to persons who seek to practice cosmetology.
The fee schedule for licensees is as follows
for licenses issued after June 30, 2010, and prior to July 1, 2013:
(a) Three-year license fees:
manicurist, or esthetician:
(i) $90 for each initial license and a $40 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $130; and
(ii) $60 for each renewal and a $15 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $75;
(2) instructor or manager:
(i) $120 for each initial license and a $40 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $160; and
(ii) $90 for each renewal and a $15 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $105;
(i) $130 for each initial license and a $100 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $230; and
(ii) $100 for each renewal and a $50 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $150; and
(i) $1,500 for each initial license and a $1,000 nonrefundable initial license application fee, for a total of $2,500; and
(ii) $1,500 for each renewal and a $500 nonrefundable renewal application fee, for a total of $2,000.
(1) reinspection fee, variable;
(2) manager and owner with lapsed practitioner, $150 each;
(3) expired cosmetologist, manicurist, esthetician, manager, school manager, and instructor license, $45; and (4) expired salon or school license, $50.
(c) Administrative fees:
(1) certificate of identification, $20;
(2) name change, $20;
(3) letter of license verification, $30;
(4) duplicate license, $20;
(5) processing fee, $10;
(6) special event permit, $75 per year; and
(7) registration of hair braiders, $20 per year.
The board shall, in a manner determined by the board and without the need for rulemaking under chapter 14, phase in changes to initial and renewal license expiration dates so that by January 1, 2014:
(1) individual licenses expire on the last day of the licensee's birth month of the year due; and
(2) salon licenses expire on the last day of the month of initial licensure of the year due.
Appropriate standardized tests shall be used and shall include subject matter relative to the application of Minnesota law. In every case, the primary consideration shall be to safeguard the health and safety of consumers by determining the competency of the applicants to provide the services indicated.
Renewal of license shall be for a period of three years under conditions and process established by rule.
A nonresident cosmetologist, manicurist, or esthetician may be licensed in Minnesota if the individual has completed cosmetology school in a state or country with the same or greater school hour requirements, has an active license in that state or country, and has passed the Minnesota-specific written operator examination for cosmetologist, manicurist, or esthetician. If a test is used to verify the qualifications of Previous trained Next cosmetologists, the test should be translated into the nonresident's native language within the limits of available resources. Licenses shall not be issued under this subdivision for managers or instructors.
(a) The conditions and process by which a salon is licensed shall be established by the board by rule. In addition to those requirements, no license shall be issued unless the board first determines that the conditions in clauses (1) to (5) have been satisfied:
(1) compliance with all local and state laws, particularly relating to matters of sanitation, health, and safety;
(2) the employment of a manager, as defined in section 155A.23, subdivision 8;
(3) inspection and licensing prior to the commencing of business;
(4) if applicable, evidence of compliance with section 176.182; and (5) evidence of continued professional liability insurance coverage of at least $25,000 for each claim and $50,000 total coverage for each policy year for each operator.
(b) A licensed esthetician or manicurist who complies with the health, safety, sanitation, inspection, and insurance rules promulgated by the board to operate a salon solely for the performance of those personal services defined in section 155A.23, subdivision 5, in the case of an esthetician, or subdivision 7, in the case of a manicurist.
(1) The office of the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation is created as an agency in the executive branch of state government. The governor shall appoint the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation under section 15.06.
(2) The commissioner may hold other positions or appointments that are not incompatible with duties as commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation. The commissioner may appoint a deputy commissioner. All expenses of the commissioner, including the payment of staff and other assistance as may be necessary, must be paid out of the amounts appropriated by section 298.28 or otherwise made available by law to the commissioner.
(3) When the commissioner determines that distress and unemployment exists or may exist in the future in any county by reason of the removal of natural resources or a possibly limited use of natural resources in the future and any resulting decrease in employment, the commissioner may use whatever amounts of the appropriation made to the commissioner of revenue in section 298.28 that are determined to be necessary and proper in the development of the remaining resources of the county and in the vocational training and rehabilitation of its residents, except that the amount needed to cover cost overruns awarded to a contractor by an arbitrator in relation to a contract awarded by the commissioner or in effect after July 1, 1985, is appropriated from the general fund. For the purposes of this section, "development of remaining resources" includes, but is not limited to, the promotion of tourism.
0.20 cent per taxable ton must be paid to the city of Eveleth for distribution in
2007 through 2011 only, to be used for the support of the Hockey Hall of Fame, provided that it continues to operate in that city, and provided that the city of Eveleth certifies to the St. Louis County auditor that it has received donations for the support of the Hockey Hall of Fame from professional hockey organizations or other donors in an amount at least equal to the amount of the distribution under this subdivision. If the Hockey Hall of Fame ceases to operate in the city of Eveleth prior to receipt of the distribution in either year, and the governing body of the city determines that it is unlikely to resume operation there within a six-month period, the distribution under this subdivision shall be made to the Iron Range Resources and Rehabilitation Board. If the amount of the distribution authorized under this subdivision exceeds the total amount of donations for the support of the Hockey Hall of Fame during the 12-month period ending 30 days before the date of the distribution, the amount by which 0.20 cent per ton exceeds the donations shall be distributed to the Iron Range Resources and Rehabilitation Board.
(a) Certificates must be initially issued and renewed
for periods of not more than three years but in any event must expire on December 31 in the year prescribed by the board by rule. Applications for certificates must be made in the form, and in the case of applications for renewal between the dates, specified by the board in rule. The board shall grant or deny an application no later than 90 days after the application is filed in proper form. If the applicant seeks the opportunity to show that issuance or renewal of a certificate was mistakenly denied, or if the board is unable to determine whether it should be granted or denied, the board may issue to the applicant a provisional certificate that expires 90 days after its issuance, or when the board determines whether or not to issue or renew the certificate for which application was made, whichever occurs first.
(b) Certificate holders who do not provide professional services and do not use the certified public accountant designation in any manner are not required to renew their certificates provided they have notified the board as provided in board rule and comply with the requirements for nonrenewal as specified in board rule.
(c) Applications for renewal of a certificate that are complete and timely filed with the board and are not granted or denied by the board before January 1 are renewed on a provisional basis as of January 1 and for 90 days thereafter, or until the board grants or denies the renewal of the certificate, whichever occurs first, provided the licensee meets the requirements in this chapter and rules adopted by the board.
(a) With regard to an applicant who must obtain a certificate in this state because the applicant does not qualify under the substantial equivalency standard in section 326A.14, subdivision 1, the board shall issue a certificate to a holder of a certificate, license, or permit issued by another state upon a showing that:
(1) the applicant passed the examination required for issuance of a certificate in this state;
(2) the applicant had four years of experience of the type described in section 326A.03, subdivision 6, paragraph (b)
, if application is made on or after July 1, 2006, or section 326A.03, subdivision 8, if application is made before July 1, 2006; or the applicant meets equivalent requirements prescribed by the board by rule, after passing the examination upon which the applicant's certificate was based and within the ten years immediately preceding the application;
(3) if the applicant's certificate, license, or permit was issued more than four years prior to the application for issuance of an initial certificate under this subdivision, that the applicant has fulfilled the requirements of continuing professional education that would have been applicable under subdivision 4; and
(4) the applicant has met the qualifications prescribed by the board by rule.
(b) A certificate holder licensed by another state who establishes a principal place of business in this state shall request the issuance of a certificate from the board prior to establishing the principal place of business. The board shall issue a certificate to the person if the person's individual certified public accountant qualifications, upon verification, are substantially equivalent to the certified public accountant licensure requirements of this chapter or the person meets equivalent requirements as the board prescribes by rule. Residents of this state who provide professional services in this state at an office location in this state shall be considered to have their principal place of business in this state.
The board shall charge a fee for each application for initial issuance or renewal of a certificate under this section .
(1) the Previous foreign Next authority that granted the designation makes similar provision to allow a person who holds a valid certificate issued by this state to obtain the Previous foreign Next authority's comparable designation;
(ii) entitles the holder to issue reports upon financial statements; and
(3) the applicant:
(ii) has, within the ten years immediately preceding the application, completed an experience requirement that is generally equivalent to the requirement in section 326A.03, subdivision 6, paragraph (b),
if application is made on or after July 1, 2006, or section 326A.03, subdivision 8, if application is made before July 1, 2006, in the jurisdiction that granted the
designation; completed four years of professional experience in this state; or met equivalent requirements prescribed by the board by rule; and
(iii) passed a uniform qualifying examination in national standards and an examination on the laws, regulations, and code of ethical conduct in effect in this state as the board prescribes by rule.
(a) Only a licensee and individuals who have been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 may issue a report on financial statements of any person, firm, organization, or governmental unit that results from providing attest services, or offer to render or render any attest service. Only a certified public accountant, an individual who has been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14, a CPA firm, or, to the extent permitted by board rule, a person registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may issue a report on financial statements of any person, firm, organization, or governmental unit that results from providing compilation services or offer to render or render any compilation service. These restrictions do not prohibit any act of a public official or public employee in the performance of that person's duties or prohibit the performance by any nonlicensee of other services involving the use of accounting skills, including the preparation of tax returns, management advisory services, and the preparation of financial statements without the issuance of reports on them. Nonlicensees may prepare financial statements and issue nonattest transmittals or information on them which do not purport to be in compliance with the Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS). Nonlicensees registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may, to the extent permitted by board rule, prepare financial statements and issue nonattest transmittals or information on them.
(b) Licensees and individuals who have been granted practice privileges under section 326A.14 performing attest or compilation services must provide those services in accordance with professional standards. To the extent permitted by board rule, registered accounting practitioners performing compilation services must provide those services in accordance with standards specified in board rule.
(c) A person who does not hold a valid certificate issued under section 326A.04 or a practice privilege granted under section 326A.14 shall not use or assume the title "certified public accountant," the abbreviation "CPA," or any other title, designation, words, letters, abbreviation, sign, card, or device tending to indicate that the person is a certified public accountant.
(d) A firm shall not provide attest services or assume or use the title "certified public accountants," the abbreviation "CPA's," or any other title, designation, words, letters, abbreviation, sign, card, or device tending to indicate that the firm is a CPA firm unless (1) the firm has complied with section 326A.05, and (2) ownership of the firm is in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted by the board.
(e) A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit issued under section 326A.04 or 326A.05 or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use the title "certified accountant," "chartered accountant," "enrolled accountant," "licensed accountant," "registered accountant," "accredited accountant," "accounting practitioner," "public accountant," "licensed public accountant," or any other title or designation likely to be confused with the title "certified public accountant," or use any of the abbreviations "CA," "LA," "RA," "AA," "PA," "AP," "LPA," or similar abbreviation likely to be confused with the abbreviation "CPA." The title "enrolled agent" or "EA" may only be used by individuals so designated by the Internal Revenue Service.
(f) Persons registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may use the title "registered accounting practitioner" or the abbreviation "RAP." A person who does not hold a valid registration under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), shall not assume or use such title or abbreviation.
(g) Except to the extent permitted in paragraph (a), nonlicensees may not use language in any statement relating to the financial affairs of a person or entity that is conventionally used by licensees in reports on financial statements. In this regard, the board shall issue by rule safe harbor language that nonlicensees may use in connection with such financial information. A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit, or a registration issued under section 326A.04, 326A.05, or 326A.06, paragraph (b), or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use any title or designation that includes the word "accountant" or "accounting" in connection with any other language, including the language of a report, that implies that the person or firm holds such a certificate, permit, or registration or has special competence as an accountant. A person or firm that does not hold a valid certificate or permit issued under section 326A.04 or 326A.05 or has not otherwise complied with section 326A.04 or 326A.05 as required in this chapter shall not assume or use any title or designation that includes the word "auditor" in connection with any other language, including the language of a report, that implies that the person or firm holds such a certificate or permit or has special competence as an auditor. However, this paragraph does not prohibit any officer, partner, member, manager, or employee of any firm or organization from affixing that person's own signature to any statement in reference to the financial affairs of such firm or organization with any wording designating the position, title, or office that the person holds, nor prohibit any act of a public official or employee in the performance of the person's duties as such.
(h) No person holding a certificate or registration or firm holding a permit under this chapter shall use a professional or firm name or designation that is misleading about the legal form of the firm, or about the persons who are partners, officers, members, managers, or shareholders of the firm, or about any other matter. However, names of one or more former partners, members, managers, or shareholders may be included in the name of a firm or its successor.
(i) Paragraphs (a) to (h) do not apply to a person or firm holding a certification, designation, degree, or license granted in a Previous foreign Next country entitling the holder to engage in the practice of public accountancy or its equivalent in that country, if:
(1) the activities of the person or firm in this state are limited to the provision of professional services to persons or firms who are residents of, governments of, or business entities of the country in which the person holds the entitlement;
(2) the person or firm performs no attest or compilation services and issues no reports with respect to the financial statements of any other persons, firms, or governmental units in this state; and
(3) the person or firm does not use in this state any title or designation other than the one under which the person practices in the Previous foreign Next country, followed by a translation of the title or designation into English, if it is in a different language, and by the name of the country.
(k) No individual licensee may issue a report in standard form upon a compilation of financial information through any form of business that does not hold a valid permit issued under section 326A.05, unless the report discloses the name of the business through which the individual is issuing the report, and the individual:
(1) signs the compilation report identifying the individual as a certified public accountant;
(2) meets the competency requirement provided in applicable standards; and
(3) undergoes no less frequently than once every three years, a peer review conducted in a manner specified by the board in rule, and the review includes verification that the individual has met the competency requirements set out in professional standards for such services.
(l) No person registered under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), may issue a report in standard form upon a compilation of financial information unless the board by rule permits the report and the person:
(1) signs the compilation report identifying the individual as a registered accounting practitioner;
(2) meets the competency requirements in board rule; and
(3) undergoes no less frequently than once every three years a peer review conducted in a manner specified by the board in rule, and the review includes verification that the individual has met the competency requirements in board rule.
(m) Nothing in this section prohibits a practicing attorney or firm of attorneys from preparing or presenting records or documents customarily prepared by an attorney or firm of attorneys in connection with the attorney's professional work in the practice of law.
(n) The board shall adopt rules that place limitations on receipt by a licensee or a person who holds a registration under section 326A.06, paragraph (b), of:
(1) contingent fees for professional services performed; and
(2) commissions or referral fees for recommending or referring to a client any product or service.
(o) Anything in this section to the contrary notwithstanding, it shall not be a violation of this section for a firm not holding a valid permit under section 326A.05 and not having an office in this state to provide its professional services in this state so long as it complies with the applicable requirements of section 326A.05, subdivision 1.
(a) The regulations may require that a reasonable portion of the buildable land, as defined by municipal ordinance, of any proposed subdivision be dedicated to the public or preserved for public use as streets, roads, sewers, electric, gas, and water facilities, storm water drainage and holding areas or ponds and similar utilities and improvements, parks, recreational facilities as defined in section 471.191, playgrounds, trails, wetlands, or open space. The requirement must be imposed by ordinance or under the procedures established in section 462.353, subdivision 4a.
(b) If a municipality adopts the ordinance or proceeds under section 462.353, subdivision 4a, as required by paragraph (a), the municipality must adopt a capital improvement budget and have a parks and open space plan or have a parks, trails, and open space component in its comprehensive plan subject to the terms and conditions in this paragraph and paragraphs (c) to (i).
(c) The municipality may choose to accept a cash fee as set by ordinance from the applicant for some or all of the new lots created in the subdivision, based on the average fair market value of the unplatted land for which park fees have not already been paid that is, no later than at the time of final approval or under the city's adopted comprehensive plan, to be served by municipal sanitary sewer and water service or community septic and private well as authorized by state law. For purposes of redevelopment on developed land, the municipality may choose to accept a cash fee based on fair market value of the land no later than the time of final approval.
(d) In establishing the portion to be dedicated or preserved or the cash fee, the regulations shall give due consideration to the open space, recreational, or common areas and facilities open to the public that the applicant proposes to reserve for the subdivision.
(e) The municipality must reasonably determine that it will need to acquire that portion of land for the purposes stated in this subdivision as a result of approval of the subdivision.
(f) Cash payments received must be placed by the municipality in a special fund to be used only for the purposes for which the money was obtained.
(g) Cash payments received must be used only for the acquisition and development or improvement of parks, recreational facilities, playgrounds, trails, wetlands, or open space based on the approved park systems plan. Cash payments must not be used for ongoing operation or maintenance of parks, recreational facilities, playgrounds, trails, wetlands, or open space.
(h) The municipality must not deny the approval of a subdivision based solely on an inadequate supply of parks, open spaces, trails, or recreational facilities within the municipality.
(i) Previously subdivided property from which a park dedication has been received, being resubdivided with the same number of lots, is exempt from park dedication requirements. If, as a result of resubdividing the property, the number of lots is increased, then the park dedication or per-lot cash fee must apply only to the net increase of lots.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Abandoned property" has the meaning given in section 117.025, subdivision 5.
(c) "Community land trust" means an entity that meets the requirements of section 462A.31, subdivisions 1 and 2.
(d) "Debt service" means the amount payable in any fiscal year of principal, premium, if any, and interest on housing infrastructure bonds and the fees, charges, and expenses related to the bonds.
(e) "Foreclosed property" means residential property where foreclosure proceedings have been initiated or have been completed and title transferred or where title is transferred in lieu of foreclosure.
(f) "Housing infrastructure bonds" means bonds issued by the agency under this chapter that are qualified 501(c)(3) bonds, within the meaning of Section 145(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, or are tax-exempt bonds that are not private activity bonds, within the meaning of Section 141(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, for the purpose of financing or refinancing affordable housing authorized under this chapter.
(g) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
(h) "Supportive housing" means housing that is not time-limited and provides or coordinates with linkages to services necessary for residents to maintain housing stability and maximize opportunities for education and employment.
The Minneapolis Park and Recreation Board and the Minneapolis City Council may jointly
exercise the powers conferred under Minnesota Statutes, section 462.358, with respect to requiring that a reasonable portion of land be dedicated to the public or imposing a dedication fee on new housing units and new commercial and industrial development in the city, wherever located, for public parks, playgrounds, recreational facilities, wetlands, trails, or open space. The dedication of land or dedication fee must be imposed by an ordinance jointly enacted by the park board and the city council. The ordinance may exclude senior housing and affordable housing from paying the fee or the dedication of land. The provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section 462.358, subdivisions 2b, paragraph (b), and 2c, apply to the imposition, application , and use of the dedication of land or the dedication fee.
The insurance fraud prevention account is created in the state treasury. Money received from assessments under subdivision 7 is deposited in the account. Money in this fund is appropriated to the commissioner of commerce for the purposes specified in this section and sections 60A.951 to 60A.956.
In addition to the fees and charges provided for examinations, the following fees must be paid to the commissioner for deposit in the general fund:
(a) by township mutual fire insurance companies;
(1) for filing certificate of incorporation $25 and amendments thereto, $10;
(2) for filing annual statements, $15;
(3) for each annual certificate of authority, $15;
(4) for filing bylaws $25 and amendments thereto, $10;
(1) for filing an application for an initial certification of authority to be admitted to transact business in this state, $1,500;
(2) for filing certified copy of certificate of articles of incorporation, $100;
(3) for filing annual statement, $225;
(4) for filing certified copy of amendment to certificate or articles of incorporation, $100;
(5) for filing bylaws, $75 or amendments thereto, $75;
(6) for each company's certificate of authority, $575, annually;
(c) the following general fees apply:
(1) for each certificate, including certified copy of certificate of authority, renewal, valuation of life policies, corporate condition or qualification, $25;
(2) for each copy of paper on file in the commissioner's office 50 cents per page, and $2.50 for certifying the same;
(4) for valuing the policies of life insurance companies, one cent per $1,000 of insurance so valued, provided that the fee shall not exceed $13,000 per year for any company. The commissioner may, in lieu of a valuation of the policies of any Previous foreign life insurance company admitted, or applying for admission, to do business in this state, accept a certificate of valuation from the company's own actuary or from the commissioner of insurance of the state or territory in which the company is domiciled;
(5) for receiving and filing certificates of policies by the company's actuary, or by the commissioner of insurance of any other state or territory, $50;
(6) for each appointment of an agent filed with the commissioner,
(7) for filing forms, rates, and compliance certifications under section 60A.315, $140 per filing, or $125 per filing when submitted via electronic filing system. Filing fees may be paid on a quarterly basis in response to an invoice. Billing and payment may be made electronically;
(8) for annual renewal of surplus lines insurer license, $300.
The commissioner shall adopt rules to define filings that are subject to a fee.
(a) The commissioner of commerce shall:
(1) develop and sponsor the implementation of statewide plans, programs, and strategies to combat automobile theft, improve the administration of the automobile theft laws, and provide a forum for identification of critical problems for those persons dealing with automobile theft;
(2) coordinate the development, adoption, and implementation of plans, programs, and strategies relating to interagency and intergovernmental cooperation with respect to automobile theft enforcement;
(3) annually audit the plans and programs that have been funded in whole or in part to evaluate the effectiveness of the plans and programs and withdraw funding should the commissioner determine that a plan or program is ineffective or is no longer in need of further financial support from the fund;
(4) develop a plan of operation including:
(i) an assessment of the scope of the problem of automobile theft, including areas of the state where the problem is greatest;
(ii) an analysis of various methods of combating the problem of automobile theft;
(iii) a plan for providing financial support to combat automobile theft;
(iv) a plan for eliminating car hijacking; and
(v) an estimate of the funds required to implement the plan; and
(5) distribute money, in consultation with the commissioner of public safety, pursuant to subdivision 3 from the automobile theft prevention special revenue account for automobile theft prevention activities, including:
(i) paying the administrative costs of the program;
(ii) providing financial support to the State Patrol and local law enforcement agencies for automobile theft enforcement teams;
(iii) providing financial support to state or local law enforcement agencies for programs designed to reduce the incidence of automobile theft and for improved equipment and techniques for responding to automobile thefts;
(iv) providing financial support to local prosecutors for programs designed to reduce the incidence of automobile theft;
(v) providing financial support to judicial agencies for programs designed to reduce the incidence of automobile theft;
(vi) providing financial support for neighborhood or community organizations or business organizations for programs designed to reduce the incidence of automobile theft and to educate people about the common methods of automobile theft, the models of automobiles most likely to be stolen, and the times and places automobile theft is most likely to occur; and
(vii) providing financial support for automobile theft educational and training programs for state and local law enforcement officials, driver and vehicle services exam and inspections staff, and members of the judiciary.
(b) The commissioner may not spend in any fiscal year more than ten percent of the money in the fund for the program's administrative and operating costs. The commissioner is annually appropriated and must distribute the amount of the proceeds credited to the automobile theft prevention special revenue account each year, less the transfer of $1,300,000 each year to the general fund described in section 168A.40, subdivision 4.
(a) An inspection fee is imposed (1) on petroleum products when received by the first licensed distributor, and (2) on petroleum products received and held for sale or use by any person when the petroleum products have not previously been received by a licensed distributor. The petroleum inspection fee is $1 for every 1,000 gallons received. The commissioner of revenue shall collect the fee. The revenue from
81 cents of the fee is appropriated to the commissioner of commerce for the cost of operations of the Division of Weights and Measures, petroleum supply monitoring, and to make grants to providers of low-income weatherization services to install renewable energy equipment in households that are eligible for weatherization assistance under Minnesota's weatherization assistance program state plan. The remainder of the fee must be deposited in the general fund.
(b) The commissioner of revenue shall credit a person for inspection fees previously paid in error or for any material exported or sold for export from the state upon filing of a report as prescribed by the commissioner of revenue.
(c) The commissioner of revenue may collect the inspection fee along with any taxes due under chapter 296A.
(a) A vendee who fails to record a contract for deed, as required by subdivision 1, is subject to a civil penalty, payable under subdivision 5, equal to two percent of the principal amount of the contract debt. Payments of the penalty shall be deposited in the general fund of the county. The penalty may be enforced as a lien against the vendee's interest in the property.
(b) A person receiving an assignment of a vendee's interest in a contract for deed who fails to record the assignment as required by subdivision 1 is subject to a civil penalty, payable under subdivision 5, equal to two percent of the original principal amount of the contract debt. Payments of the penalty must be deposited in the general fund of the county. The penalty may be enforced as a lien against the vendee's interest in the property.
The remedies provided in this section are in addition to and do not limit other rights or remedies available to purchasers or vendors of real estate.
$375,000 each year is for additional compliance efforts with unclaimed property. The commissioner may issue contracts for these services.
This additional amount shall be added to the base budget for fiscal years 2014 and 2015 only. The enhanced unclaimed property compliance program shall sunset June 30, 2015.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the commission may approve a tariff mechanism for the automatic annual adjustment of charges for the Minnesota jurisdictional costs of
(i) new transmission facilities that have been separately filed and reviewed and approved by the commission under section 216B.243 or are certified as a priority project or deemed to be a priority transmission project under section 216B.2425;
charges incurred by a utility that accrue from other transmission owners' regionally planned transmission projects that have been determined by the
Midwest Independent System Operator to benefit the utility , as provided for under a federally approved tariff.
(b) Upon filing by a public utility or utilities providing transmission service, the commission may approve, reject, or modify, after notice and comment, a tariff that:
(1) allows the utility to recover on a timely basis the costs net of revenues of facilities approved under section 216B.243 or certified or deemed to be certified under section 216B.2425 or exempt from the requirements of section 216B.243;
(2) allows the charges incurred
by a utility that accrue from other transmission owners' regionally planned transmission projects that have been determined by the Midwest Independent System Operator to benefit the utility , as provided for under a federally approved tariff. These charges must be reduced or offset by revenues received by the utility and by amounts the utility charges to other regional transmission owners, to the extent those revenues and charges have not been otherwise offset;
allows a return on investment at the level approved in the utility's last general rate case, unless a different return is found to be consistent with the public interest;
(4) provides a current return on construction work in progress, provided that recovery from Minnesota retail customers for the allowance for funds used during construction is not sought through any other mechanism; (5) allows for recovery of other expenses if shown to promote a least-cost project option or is otherwise in the public interest; (6) allocates project costs appropriately between wholesale and retail customers; (7) provides a mechanism for recovery above cost, if necessary to improve the overall economics of the project or projects or is otherwise in the public interest; and (8) terminates recovery once costs have been fully recovered or have otherwise been reflected in the utility's general rates.
(c) A public utility may file annual rate adjustments to be applied to customer bills paid under the tariff approved in paragraph (b). In its filing, the public utility shall provide:
(1) a description of and context for the facilities included for recovery;
(2) a schedule for implementation of applicable projects;
(3) the utility's costs for these projects;
(4) a description of the utility's efforts to ensure the lowest costs to ratepayers for the project; and
(5) calculations to establish that the rate adjustment is consistent with the terms of the tariff established in paragraph (b).
(d) Upon receiving a filing for a rate adjustment pursuant to the tariff established in paragraph (b), the commission shall approve the annual rate adjustments provided that, after notice and comment, the costs included for recovery through the tariff were or are expected to be prudently incurred and achieve transmission system improvements at the lowest feasible and prudent cost to ratepayers.
(a) "Gas utility" means a public utility as defined in section 216B.02, subdivision 4, that furnishes natural gas service to retail customers.
(b) "Gas utility infrastructure costs" or "GUIC" means gas utility projects that:
(1) do not serve to increase revenues by directly connecting the infrastructure replacement to new customers;
(2) are in service but were not included in the gas utility's rate base in its most recent general rate case
replace or modify existing infrastructure if the replacement or modification does not constitute a betterment, unless the betterment is required by a political subdivision, as evidenced by specific documentation from the government entity requiring the replacement or modification of infrastructure.
(c) "Gas utility projects" means
replacement of natural gas facilities located in the public right-of-way required by the construction or improvement of a highway, road, street, public building, or other public work by or on behalf of the United States, the state of Minnesota, or a political subdivision
(a) The commission may approve a gas utility's petition for a rate schedule to recover GUIC under this section . A gas utility may petition the commission to recover a rate of return, income taxes on the rate of return, incremental property taxes, plus incremental depreciation expense associated with GUIC. (b) The filing is subject to the following:
(1) A gas utility may submit a filing under this section no more than once per year.
(2) A gas utility must file sufficient information to satisfy the commission regarding the proposed GUIC or be subject to denial by the commission. The information includes, but is not limited to:
(i) the government entity ordering the gas utility project and the purpose for which the project is undertaken;
(ii) the location, description, and costs associated with the project;
(iii) a description of the costs, and salvage value, if any, associated with the existing infrastructure replaced or modified as a result of the project;
(iv) the proposed rate design and an explanation of why the proposed rate design is in the public interest;
(v) the magnitude and timing of any known future gas utility projects that the utility may seek to recover under this section;
(vi) the magnitude of GUIC in relation to the gas utility's base revenue as approved by the commission in the gas utility's most recent general rate case, exclusive of gas purchase costs and transportation charges;
(vii) the magnitude of GUIC in relation to the gas utility's capital expenditures since its most recent general rate case;
(viii) the amount of time since the utility last filed a general rate case and the utility's reasons for seeking recovery outside of a general rate case; and
(ix) documentation supporting the calculation of the GUIC.
The commission may issue orders and adopt rules necessary to implement and administer this section.
Each electric utility must submit to the commission and the legislative committees with primary jurisdiction over energy policy a report containing an estimation of the rate impact of activities of the electric utility necessary to comply with this section. The rate impact estimate must be for wholesale rates and, if the electric utility makes retail sales, the estimate shall also be for the impact on the electric utility's retail rates. Those activities include, without limitation, energy purchases, generation facility acquisition and construction, and transmission improvements. An initial report must be submitted within 150 days of May 28, 2011. After the initial report, a report must be updated and submitted as part of each integrated resource plan or plan modification filed by the electric utility under section 216B.2422. The reporting obligation of an electric utility under this subdivision expires December 31, 2025, for an electric utility subject to subdivision 2a, paragraph (a), and December 31, 2020, for an electric utility subject to subdivision 2a, paragraph (b).
Projects that may be approved for the emissions reduction-rate rider allowed in this section must:
(1) be installed on existing large electric generating power plants, as defined in section 216B.2421, subdivision 2, clause (1), that are located in the state and that are currently not subject to emissions limitations for new power plants under the federal Clean Air Act, United States Code, title 42, section 7401 et seq.;
(2) not increase the capacity of the existing electric generating power plant more than ten percent or more than 100 megawatts, whichever is greater; and
(3) result in the existing plant either:
(i) complying with applicable new source review standards under the federal Clean Air Act; or
(ii) emitting air contaminants at levels substantially lower than allowed for new facilities by the applicable new source performance standards under the federal Clean Air Act; or
(iii) reducing emissions from current levels at a unit to the lowest cost-effective level when, due to the age or condition of the generating unit, the public utility demonstrates that it would not be cost-effective to reduce emissions to the levels in item (i) or (ii).
This section is effective until December 31,
2015, and applies to plans, projects, and riders approved before that date and modifications made to them after that date.
The utility may begin recovery of costs that have been incurred by the utility in connection with implementation of the project in the next rate case following an advance determination of prudence. The commission shall review the costs incurred by the utility for the project. The utility must show that the project costs are reasonable and necessary, and demonstrate its efforts to ensure the lowest reasonable project costs. Notwithstanding the commission's prior determination of prudence, it may accept, modify, or reject any of the project costs. The commission may determine whether to require an allowance for funds used during construction offset.
Sections 1 and 2 shall expire on June 30,
"Qualifying real property" means a single-family or multifamily residential dwelling, or a commercial or industrial building, that the implementing entity has determined, after review of an energy audit or renewable energy system feasibility study, can be benefited by installation of energy improvements.
A financing program must:
(1) impose requirements and conditions on financing arrangements to ensure timely repayment;
(2) require an energy audit or renewable energy system feasibility study to be conducted on the qualifying real property and reviewed by the implementing entity prior to approval of the financing;
(3) require the inspection of all installations and a performance verification of at least ten percent of the energy improvements financed by the program;
require that all cost-effective energy improvements be made to a qualifying real property prior to, or in conjunction with, an applicant's repayment of financing for energy improvements for that property;
(5) have energy improvements financed by the program performed by licensed contractors as required by chapter 326B or other law or ordinance; (6) require disclosures to borrowers by the implementing entity of the risks involved in borrowing, including the risk of foreclosure if a tax delinquency results from a default; (7) provide financing only to those who demonstrate an ability to repay; (8) not provide financing for a qualifying real property in which the owner is not current on mortgage or real property tax payments; (9) require a petition to the implementing entity by all owners of the qualifying real property requesting collections of repayments as a special assessment under section 429.101; (10) provide that payments and assessments are not accelerated due to a default and that a tax delinquency exists only for assessments not paid when due; and (11) require that liability for special assessments related to the financing runs with the qualifying real property.
An implementing entity that finances an energy improvement under this section must:
(1) secure payment with a lien against the
benefited qualifying real property; and
(2) collect repayments as a special assessment as provided for in section 429.101 or by charter.
If the implementing entity is an authority, the local government that authorized the authority to act as implementing entity shall impose and collect special assessments necessary to pay debt service on bonds issued by the implementing entity under subdivision 8, and shall transfer all collections of the assessments upon receipt to the authority.
(a) An implementing entity may issue revenue bonds as provided in chapter 475 for the purposes of this section.
(b) The bonds must be payable as to both principal and interest solely from the revenues from the assessments established in subdivision 7.
(c) No holder of bonds issued under this subdivision may compel any exercise of the taxing power of the implementing entity that issued the bonds to pay principal or interest on the bonds, and if the implementing entity is an authority, no holder of the bonds may compel any exercise of the taxing power of the local government. Bonds issued under this subdivision are not a debt or obligation of the issuer or any local government that issued them, nor is the payment of the bonds enforceable out of any money other than the revenue pledged to the payment of the bonds.
Any special assessment levied under subdivision 1 shall be payable in a single installment, or by up to ten equal annual installments as the council may provide. With
this exception, sections 429.061, 429.071, and 429.081 shall apply to assessments made under this section.
This section as well as any rules promulgated by the commission to implement this section or the Public Utility Regulatory Policies Act of 1978, Public Law 95-617, Statutes at Large, volume 92, page 3117, and the Federal Energy Regulatory Commission regulations thereunder, Code of Federal Regulations, title 18, part 292, shall apply to all Minnesota electric utilities, including cooperative electric associations and municipal electric utilities.
(a) For a qualifying facility having less than 40-kilowatt capacity, the customer shall be billed for the net energy supplied by the utility according to the applicable rate schedule for sales to that class of customer. In the case of net input into the utility system by a qualifying facility having less than 40-kilowatt capacity, compensation to the customer shall be at a per kilowatt-hour rate determined under paragraph
(b) or (c).
In setting rates, the commission shall consider the fixed distribution costs to the utility not otherwise accounted for in the basic monthly charge and shall ensure that the costs charged to the qualifying facility are not discriminatory in relation to the costs charged to other customers of the utility. The commission shall set the rates for net input into the utility system based on avoided costs as defined in the Code of Federal Regulations, title 18, section 292.101, paragraph (b)(6), the factors listed in Code of Federal Regulations, title 18, section 292.304, and all other relevant factors.
(c) Notwithstanding any provision in this chapter to the contrary, a qualifying facility having less than 40-kilowatt capacity may elect that the compensation for net input by the qualifying facility into the utility system shall be at the average retail utility energy rate. "Average retail utility energy rate" is defined as the average of the retail energy rates, exclusive of special rates based on income, age, or energy conservation, according to the applicable rate schedule of the utility for sales to that class of customer. (d) If the qualifying facility is interconnected with a nongenerating utility which has a sole source contract with a municipal power agency or a generation and transmission utility, the nongenerating utility may elect to treat its purchase of any net input under this subdivision as being made on behalf of its supplier and shall be reimbursed by its supplier for any additional costs incurred in making the purchase. Qualifying facilities having less than 40-kilowatt capacity may, at the customer's option, elect to be governed by the provisions of subdivision 4.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), this subdivision shall apply to all qualifying facilities having 40-kilowatt capacity or more as well as qualifying facilities as defined in subdivision 3 which elect to be governed by its provisions.
(b) The utility to which the qualifying facility is interconnected shall purchase all energy and capacity made available by the qualifying facility. The qualifying facility shall be paid the utility's full avoided capacity and energy costs as negotiated by the parties, as set by the commission, or as determined through competitive bidding approved by the commission. The full avoided capacity and energy costs to be paid a qualifying facility that generates electric power by means of a renewable energy source are the utility's least cost renewable energy facility or the bid of a competing supplier of a least cost renewable energy facility, whichever is lower, unless the commission's resource plan order, under section 216B.2422, subdivision 2, provides that the use of a renewable resource to meet the identified capacity need is not in the public interest.
(c) For all qualifying facilities having 30-kilowatt capacity or more, the utility shall, at the qualifying facility's or the utility's request, provide wheeling or exchange agreements wherever practicable to sell the qualifying facility's output to any other Minnesota utility having generation expansion anticipated or planned for the ensuing ten years. The commission shall establish the methods and procedures to insure that except for reasonable wheeling charges and line losses, the qualifying facility receives the full avoided energy and capacity costs of the utility ultimately receiving the output.
(d) The commission shall set rates for electricity generated by renewable energy.
(a) The commission shall promulgate rules to implement the provisions of this section. The commission shall also establish a uniform statewide form of contract for use between utilities and a qualifying facility having less than
40-kilowatt capacity .
(b) The commission shall require the qualifying facility to provide the utility with reasonable access to the premises and equipment of the qualifying facility if the particular configuration of the qualifying facility precludes disconnection or testing of the qualifying facility from the utility side of the interconnection with the utility remaining responsible for its personnel.
(c) The uniform statewide form of contract shall be applied to all new and existing interconnections established between a utility and a qualifying facility having less than 40-kilowatt capacity, except that existing contracts may remain in force until
written notice of election that the uniform statewide contract form applies is given by either party to the other, with the notice being of the shortest time period permitted under the existing contract for termination of the existing contract by either party, but not less than ten nor longer than 30 days.
(a) Electricity generated by a facility constructed with funds provided under this section and using an eligible renewable energy source may be counted toward the renewable energy objectives in section 216B.1691, subject to the provisions of that section.
(b) Two or more entities may pool resources under this section to provide assistance jointly to proposed eligible renewable energy projects. The entities shall negotiate and agree among themselves for allocation of benefits associated with a project, such as the ability to count energy generated by a project toward a utility's renewable energy objectives under section 216B.1691. The entities shall provide a summary of the allocation of benefits to the commissioner. A utility may spend funds under this section for projects in Minnesota that are outside the service territory of the utility.
it is the energy policy of the state of Minnesota to achieve annual energy savings equal to 1.5 percent of annual retail energy sales of electricity and natural gas
directly through energy conservation improvement programs and rate design, and indirectly through energy codes and appliance standards, programs designed to transform the market or change consumer behavior, energy savings resulting from efficiency improvements to the utility infrastructure and system, and other efforts to promote energy efficiency and energy conservation.
The legislature finds and declares that continued growth in demand for energy will cause severe social and economic dislocations, and that the state has a vital interest in providing for: increased efficiency in energy consumption, the development and use of renewable energy resources wherever possible, and the creation of an effective energy forecasting, planning, and education program.
The legislature further finds and declares that the protection of life, safety, and financial security for citizens during an energy crisis is of paramount importance.
Therefore, the legislature finds that it is in the public interest to review, analyze, and encourage those energy programs that will minimize the need for annual increases in fossil fuel consumption by 1990 and the need for additional electrical generating plants, and provide for an optimum combination of energy sources consistent with environmental protection and the protection of citizens.
The legislature intends to monitor, through energy policy planning and implementation, the transition from historic growth in energy demand to a period when demand for traditional fuels becomes stable and the supply of renewable energy resources is readily available and adequately utilized.
It is the energy policy of the state of Minnesota that:
(1) the per capita use of fossil fuel as an energy input be reduced by 15 percent by the year 2015, through increased reliance on energy efficiency and renewable energy alternatives; and (2) 25 percent of the total energy used in the state be derived from renewable energy resources by the year 2025.
The commissioner may enter into a guaranteed energy-savings agreement with a qualified provider if:
(1) the qualified provider is selected through a competitive process in accordance with the guaranteed energy-savings program guidelines within the Department of Administration;
(2) the qualified provider agrees to submit an engineering report prior to the execution of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement. The cost of the engineering report may be considered as part of the implementation costs if the commissioner enters into a guaranteed energy-savings agreement with the provider;
(3) the term of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement shall not exceed
15 years from the date of final installation;
(4) the commissioner finds that the amount it would spend on the utility cost-savings measures recommended in the engineering report will not exceed the amount to be saved in utility operation and maintenance costs over
15 years from the date of implementation of utility cost-savings measures;
(5) the qualified provider provides a written guarantee that the annual utility, operation, and maintenance cost savings during the term of the guaranteed energy-savings agreement will meet or exceed the annual payments due under a lease purchase agreement. The qualified provider shall reimburse the state for any shortfall of guaranteed utility, operation, and maintenance cost savings; and
(6) the qualified provider gives a sufficient bond in accordance with section 574.26 to the commissioner for the faithful implementation and installation of the utility cost-savings measures.
For purposes of this section and section 216B.16, subdivision 6b, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(a) "Commission" means the Public Utilities Commission.
(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce.
(c) "Department" means the Department of Commerce.
(d) "Energy conservation" means demand-side management of energy supplies resulting in a net reduction in energy use. Load management that reduces overall energy use is energy conservation.
(e) "Energy conservation improvement" means a project that results in energy efficiency or energy conservation. Energy conservation improvement may include waste heat
recovery converted into electricity but does not include electric utility infrastructure projects approved by the commission under section 216B.1636.
(f) "Energy efficiency" means measures or programs, including energy conservation measures or programs, that target consumer behavior, equipment, processes, or devices designed to produce either an absolute decrease in consumption of electric energy or natural gas or a decrease in consumption of electric energy or natural gas on a per unit of production basis without a reduction in the quality or level of service provided to the energy consumer.
(g) "Gross annual retail energy sales" means annual electric sales to all retail customers in a utility's or association's Minnesota service territory or natural gas throughput to all retail customers, including natural gas transportation customers, on a utility's distribution system in Minnesota. For purposes of this section, gross annual retail energy sales exclude:
(1) gas sales to:
(i) a large energy facility;
(ii) a large customer facility whose natural gas utility has been exempted by the commissioner under subdivision 1a, paragraph (b), with respect to natural gas sales made to the large customer facility; and
(iii) a commercial gas customer facility whose natural gas utility has been exempted by the commissioner under subdivision 1a, paragraph (c), with respect to natural gas sales made to the commercial gas customer facility; and
(2) electric sales to a large customer facility whose electric utility has been exempted by the commissioner under subdivision 1a, paragraph (b), with respect to electric sales made to the large customer facility.
(h) "Investments and expenses of a public utility" includes the investments and expenses incurred by a public utility in connection with an energy conservation improvement, including but not limited to:
(1) the differential in interest cost between the market rate and the rate charged on a no-interest or below-market interest loan made by a public utility to a customer for the purchase or installation of an energy conservation improvement;
(2) the difference between the utility's cost of purchase or installation of energy conservation improvements and any price charged by a public utility to a customer for such improvements.
(i) "Large customer facility" means all buildings, structures, equipment, and installations at a single site that collectively (1) impose a peak electrical demand on an electric utility's system of not less than 20,000 kilowatts, measured in the same way as the utility that serves the customer facility measures electrical demand for billing purposes or (2) consume not less than 500 million cubic feet of natural gas annually. In calculating peak electrical demand, a large customer facility may include demand offset by on-site cogeneration facilities and, if engaged in mineral extraction, may aggregate peak energy demand from the large customer facility's mining and processing operations.
(j) "Large energy facility" has the meaning given it in section 216B.2421, subdivision 2, clause (1).
(k) "Load management" means an activity, service, or technology to change the timing or the efficiency of a customer's use of energy that allows a utility or a customer to respond to wholesale market fluctuations or to reduce peak demand for energy or capacity.
(l) "Low-income programs" means energy conservation improvement programs that directly serve the needs of low-income persons, including low-income renters.
(m) "Qualifying utility" means a utility that supplies the energy to a customer that enables the customer to qualify as a large customer facility.
(n) "Waste heat recovery converted into electricity" means an energy recovery process that converts otherwise lost energy from the heat of exhaust stacks or pipes used for engines or manufacturing or industrial processes, or the reduction of high pressure in water or gas pipelines.
(a) The commissioner may, by order, approve and make grants for applied research and development projects of general applicability that identify new technologies or strategies to maximize energy savings, improve the effectiveness of energy conservation programs, or document the carbon dioxide reductions from energy conservation programs. When approving projects, the commissioner shall consider proposals and comments from utilities and other interested parties. The commissioner may assess up to $3,600,000 annually for the purposes of this subdivision. The assessments must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the energy and conservation account created under subdivision 2a. An assessment made under this subdivision is not subject to the cap on assessments provided by section 216B.62, or any other law.
(b) The commissioner, as part of the assessment authorized under paragraph (a), shall annually assess and grant up to $500,000 for the purpose of subdivision 9.
Presented to the governor May 21, 2013
Signed by the governor May 23, 2013, 11:16 a.m.
Copyright © 2013 by the Revisor of Statutes, State of Minnesota. All rights reserved.