ARTICLE 1

APPROPRIATIONS

ARTICLE 2

PUBLIC SAFETY

new text begin [201.276] DUTIES OF SECRETARY OF STATE; INFORMATION ABOUT
VOTING RIGHTS.
new text end

204C.10 POLLING PLACE ROSTER; VOTER SIGNATURE CERTIFICATE;
VOTER RECEIPT.

new text begin [243.205] NOTICE OF RESTORATION OF RIGHT TO VOTE.
new text end

299A.706 ALCOHOL ENFORCEMENT ACCOUNT; APPROPRIATION.

new text begin [299A.783] STATEWIDE SEX TRAFFICKING INVESTIGATION
COORDINATOR.
new text end

299F.857 REDUCED CIGARETTE IGNITION PROPENSITY ACCOUNT.

340A.304 LICENSE SUSPENSION AND REVOCATION.

340A.417 SHIPMENTS INTO MINNESOTA.

new text begin [340A.550] DIRECT SHIPMENTS OF WINE; LICENSING, TAXATION,
AND RESTRICTIONS.
new text end

new text begin [340A.555] COMMON CARRIER REGULATIONS FOR DIRECT
SHIPMENTS OF WINE.
new text end

403.03 911 SERVICES TO BE PROVIDED.

634.20 EVIDENCE OF CONDUCT.

ARTICLE 3

CORRECTIONS

new text begin [13.856] OMBUDSMAN FOR CORRECTIONS; DATA.
new text end

new text begin [241.90] OFFICE OF OMBUDSMAN; CREATION; QUALIFICATIONS;
FUNCTION.
new text end

new text begin [241.91] DEFINITION.
new text end

new text begin [241.92] ORGANIZATION OF OFFICE OF OMBUDSMAN.
new text end

new text begin [241.93] POWERS OF OMBUDSMAN; INVESTIGATIONS; ACTION ON
COMPLAINTS; RECOMMENDATIONS.
new text end

new text begin [241.94] ACCESS BY OMBUDSMAN TO DATA.
new text end

new text begin [241.95] PUBLICATION OF RECOMMENDATIONS; REPORTS.
new text end

242.192 CHARGES TO COUNTIES.

new text begin [243.521] ADMINISTRATIVE AND DISCIPLINARY SEGREGATION.
new text end

new text begin [243.95] PRIVATE PRISON CONTRACTS PROHIBITED.
new text end

new text begin [244.049] INDETERMINATE SENTENCE RELEASE BOARD.
new text end

631.412 SAME SEX ESCORT FOR INMATES BEING TRANSFERRED.

new text begin [641.015] PLACEMENT IN PRIVATE PRISONS PROHIBITED.
new text end

new text begin [641.061] LOCAL CORRECTIONAL OFFICERS DISCIPLINE
PROCEDURES.
new text end

ARTICLE 4

LAW ENFORCEMENT

new text begin [611A.95] CERTIFICATIONS FOR VICTIMS OF CRIMES.
new text end

new text begin [626.19] USE OF UNMANNED AERIAL VEHICLES.
new text end

626.841 BOARD; MEMBERS.

new text begin [626.8433] EYEWITNESS IDENTIFICATION POLICIES REQUIRED.
new text end

new text begin [626.8435] PEACE OFFICER COMMUNITY POLICING EXCELLENCE
DATA.
new text end

new text begin [626.8474] INVESTIGATING SEXUAL ASSAULT CASES; POLICIES
REQUIRED.
new text end

ARTICLE 5

SEXUAL OFFENDERS

628.26 LIMITATIONS.

HF 2792

ARTICLE 1

APPROPRIATIONS

ARTICLE 2

PUBLIC SAFETY

new text begin [201.276] DUTIES OF SECRETARY OF STATE; INFORMATION ABOUT VOTING RIGHTS. new text end

204C.10 POLLING PLACE ROSTER; VOTER SIGNATURE CERTIFICATE; VOTER RECEIPT.

new text begin [243.205] NOTICE OF RESTORATION OF RIGHT TO VOTE. new text end

new text begin [201.276] DUTIES OF SECRETARY OF STATE; INFORMATION ABOUT
VOTING RIGHTS.
new text end

204C.10 POLLING PLACE ROSTER; VOTER SIGNATURE CERTIFICATE;
VOTER RECEIPT.

new text begin [243.205] NOTICE OF RESTORATION OF RIGHT TO VOTE.
new text end

new text begin [299A.783] STATEWIDE SEX TRAFFICKING INVESTIGATION
COORDINATOR.
new text end

new text begin [340A.550] DIRECT SHIPMENTS OF WINE; LICENSING, TAXATION,
AND RESTRICTIONS.
new text end

new text begin [340A.555] COMMON CARRIER REGULATIONS FOR DIRECT
SHIPMENTS OF WINE.
new text end

Section 1. new text beginAPPROPRIATIONS.
new text end

Sec. 2. new text beginSENTENCING GUIDELINES
new text end

Sec. 3. new text beginPUBLIC SAFETY
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

Sec. 4. new text beginPEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND
TRAINING (POST) BOARD
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

Sec. 5. new text beginPRIVATE DETECTIVE BOARD
new text end

Sec. 6. new text beginCORRECTIONS
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

Sec. 7. new text beginPUBLIC DEFENSE BOARD
new text end

Sec. 8. new text begin DISTRICT COURT
new text end

Sec. 9. new text beginDEPARTMENT OF HUMAN
SERVICES
new text end

Sec. 10.

Subd. 7.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 11. new text beginTRANSFER.
new text end

Section 1.

new text begin Subd. 36. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 2.

new text begin Subd. 2a. new text end

Sec. 3.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 4.

Sec. 5.

Sec. 6.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

Sec. 7.

Subd. 2.

Sec. 8.

Subd. 4.

Sec. 9.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 10.

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

Sec. 11.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 12.

Subd. 3.

Sec. 13.

Sec. 14.

Subd. 4.

Sec. 15.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 16.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 17.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 18.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 19.

new text begin Subd. 17c. new text end

Sec. 20.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 21.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 22.

Subd. 3.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 23.

Subd. 4.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 24.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 25.

Subd. 2.

Sec. 26.

Subd. 3.

Sec. 27.

Subd. 5.

Sec. 28.

Subd. 8.

Sec. 29.

Subd. 5.

Sec. 30.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 31. new text beginTASK FORCE ON MISSING AND MURDERED INDIGENOUS WOMEN.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

Sec. 32. new text beginINTERAGENCY OPIOID ENFORCEMENT COORDINATOR.
new text end

Sec. 33. new text beginREVISOR INSTRUCTION.
new text end

Section 1.

new text begin Subd. 12. new text end

Sec. 2.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

Sec. 3.

Subd. 3.

Sec. 4.

Subd. 1a.

Sec. 5.

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 6.

Subd. 12.

Sec. 7.

Subd. 3a.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 8.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 9.

Subd. 2.

Sec. 10.

Subd. 2.

Sec. 11.

Sec. 12.

Sec. 13.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

Sec. 14.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

Sec. 15.

Sec. 16.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

Sec. 17.

Sec. 18.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 19.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

Sec. 20.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 21.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

Sec. 22.

Subd. 5.

Sec. 23.

Subd. 5.

Sec. 24.

Sec. 25.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 26.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Subd. 11. new text end

new text begin Subd. 12. new text end

new text begin Subd. 13. new text end

new text begin Subd. 14. new text end

new text begin Subd. 15. new text end

Sec. 27.

Subd. 3a.

Sec. 28. new text beginCOORDINATED CRISIS RESPONSE PLAN.
new text end

Sec. 29. new text beginPILOT PROGRAM TO ADDRESS MENTAL HEALTH IN
CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

Sec. 30. new text beginREPEALER.
new text end

Section 1.

Subd. 4.

Sec. 2.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 3.

Subd. 7.

Sec. 4.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin Subd. 11. new text end

Sec. 6.

Sec. 7.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

Sec. 8.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

Sec. 9.

Sec. 10.

Subd. 3.

Sec. 11.

Subd. 4.

Sec. 12. new text beginPEACE OFFICER EXCELLENCE TASK FORCE.
new text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Section 1.

Subd. 10.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 2.

Subd. 11.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 3.

Subd. 12.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 4.

new text begin Subd. 24. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 5.

new text begin Subd. 25. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 6.

Subdivision 1.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 7.

Subdivision 1.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 8.

Subdivision 1.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 9.

Subdivision 1.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 10.

Subdivision 1.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 11.

Subd. 2.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 12.

Subd. 3.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 13.

Subd. 4.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 14.

Subd. 7.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 15.

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 16.

Subd. 3.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 17.

Subd. 4.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 18.

Subd. 9.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 19.

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 20.

Subd. 2.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 21.

Bill Text Versions

Section 1. new text beginAPPROPRIATIONS.new text end

Sec. 2. new text beginSENTENCING GUIDELINESnew text end

Sec. 3. new text beginPUBLIC SAFETYnew text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

new text begin Subd. 7. new text end

new text begin Subd. 8. new text end

new text begin Subd. 9. new text end

new text begin Subd. 10. new text end

Sec. 4. new text beginPEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND TRAINING (POST) BOARDnew text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

new text begin Subd. 5. new text end

new text begin Subd. 6. new text end

Sec. 5. new text beginPRIVATE DETECTIVE BOARDnew text end

Sec. 6. new text beginCORRECTIONSnew text end

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

new text begin Subd. 3. new text end

new text begin Subd. 4. new text end

Sec. 7. new text beginPUBLIC DEFENSE BOARDnew text end

Sec. 8. new text begin DISTRICT COURTnew text end

Sec. 9. new text beginDEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICESnew text end

Sec. 10.

Subd. 7.

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 11. new text beginTRANSFER.new text end

Section 1.

new text begin Subd. 36. new text end

new text begin EFFECTIVE DATE. new text end

Sec. 2.

new text begin Subd. 2a. new text end

Sec. 3.

Subdivision 1.

Sec. 4.

Sec. 5.

Sec. 6.

new text begin Subdivision 1. new text end

new text begin Subd. 2. new text end

Section 1. new text beginAPPROPRIATIONS.
new text end

Sec. 2. new text beginSENTENCING GUIDELINES
new text end

Sec. 3. new text beginPUBLIC SAFETY
new text end

Sec. 4. new text beginPEACE OFFICER STANDARDS AND
TRAINING (POST) BOARD
new text end

Sec. 5. new text beginPRIVATE DETECTIVE BOARD
new text end

Sec. 6. new text beginCORRECTIONS
new text end

Sec. 7. new text beginPUBLIC DEFENSE BOARD
new text end

Sec. 8. new text begin DISTRICT COURT
new text end

Sec. 9. new text beginDEPARTMENT OF HUMAN
SERVICES
new text end

Sec. 11. new text beginTRANSFER.
new text end

new text begin Total
Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Deficiency
new text end

new text begin Emergency Management
new text end

new text begin Criminal Apprehension
new text end

new text begin Fire Marshal
new text end

new text begin Firefighter Training and Education
Board
new text end

new text begin Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement
new text end

new text begin Office of Justice Programs
new text end

new text begin Emergency Communication Networks
new text end

new text begin Traffic Safety
new text end

new text begin Total
Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Deficiency
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Reimbursements
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Assistance
new text end

new text begin De-escalation Training
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Excellence Task Force
new text end

new text begin Total Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Correctional Institutions
new text end

new text begin Community Services
new text end

new text begin Operations Support
new text end

Office of Justice Programs

new text begin Direct wine shipments. new text end

new text begin Felony conviction; restoration of civil right to vote. new text end

Form.

new text begin Correctional facilities; designation of official. new text end

new text begin Notice requirement. new text end

new text begin Form of notice. new text end

new text begin Failure to provide notice. new text end

Railroad and pipeline safety account.

Assessments.

new text begin Annual transfer. new text end

new text begin Sex trafficking investigation coordinator. new text end

new text begin Coordinator's responsibilities. new text end

Authorized use, fee.

Off-sale license.

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin License requirements. new text end

new text begin Direct ship wineries; restrictions. new text end

new text begin Taxation. new text end

new text begin Private or nonpublic data; classification and sharing. new text end

new text begin Enforcement; penalties. new text end

new text begin Monthly report required. new text end

new text begin Record availability and retention. new text end

new text begin Penalty. new text end

new text begin Exemptions. new text end

new text begin Private or nonpublic data; classification and sharing. new text end

new text begin 911 telecommunicator. new text end

new text begin Emergency response services. new text end

new text begin Telephone cardiopulmonary resuscitation program. new text end

new text begin Monitoring and enforcing training requirements. new text end

new text begin Liability exemption. new text end

Restoration.

Burglary in the third degree.

Burglary in the fourth degree.

Definition.

deleted text beginStalkingdeleted text endnew text begin Harassmentnew text end crimes.

Aggravated violations.

deleted text beginPattern ofdeleted text end Stalking deleted text beginconductdeleted text end.

new text beginHarassment; new text endstalking; firearms.

Crime of violence.

new text begin Creation and duties. new text end

new text begin Membership. new text end

new text begin Officers; meetings. new text end

new text begin Report. new text end

new text begin Expiration. new text end

new text begin Mental health screening. new text end

new text begin Private data. new text end

new text begin Confidential data. new text end

new text begin Public data. new text end

new text begin Access to data. new text end

Group II salary limits.

Fees for ionizing radiation-producing equipment.

new text begin Exemption from examination requirements; operators of security screening
systems. new text end

Administration of opiate antagonists for drug overdose.

Commissioner, powers and duties.

Authorization.

Limitations.

Health care decisions.

new text begin Employee selection. new text end

new text begin Assistant ombudsman. new text end

new text begin Delegation of duties. new text end

new text begin Powers. new text end

new text begin Actions against ombudsman. new text end

new text begin Matters appropriate for investigation. new text end

new text begin Complaints. new text end

new text begin Investigation of adult local jails and detention facilities. new text end

new text begin Recommendations. new text end

new text begin Grants. new text end

new text begin Publication. new text end

new text begin Annual report. new text end

General searches.

new text begin Authorization. new text end

new text begin Conditions in segregated housing. new text end

new text begin Review of disciplinary segregation status. new text end

new text begin Graduated interventions. new text end

new text begin Mental health screening. new text end

new text begin Mental health care within segregated housing. new text end

new text begin Incentives for return to the general population. new text end

new text begin Discharge from segregated housing. new text end

new text begin Reporting. new text end

new text begin Establishment; membership. new text end

new text begin Terms; compensation. new text end

new text begin Quorum; administrative duties. new text end

new text begin Majority vote. new text end

new text begin Limitation. new text end

new text begin Report. new text end

Supervised release, life sentence.

Removal of data from system.

new text begin Placement prohibited. new text end

new text begin Contracts prohibited. new text end

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin Applicability. new text end

new text begin Formal statement; procedures. new text end

new text begin Place of formal statement. new text end

new text begin Complaint. new text end

new text begin Witnesses; investigative reports. new text end

new text begin Sessions. new text end

new text begin Record. new text end

new text begin Presence of attorney and union representative. new text end

new text begin Admissions. new text end

new text begin Disclosure of financial records. new text end

new text begin Release of photographs. new text end

new text begin Disciplinary letter. new text end

new text begin Retaliatory action prohibited. new text end

new text begin Rights not reduced. new text end

Intake procedure; approved mental health screening.

new text begin Pilot program established. new text end

new text begin Report. new text end

Reinstatement fee.

Driver services operating account.

Disbursement of surcharges by commissioner of management and
budget.

new text begin Definitions. new text end

new text begin Certification process. new text end

new text begin Certifying entity; designate agent. new text end

new text begin Disclosure prohibited; data classification. new text end

new text begin Application; definitions. new text end

new text begin Use of unmanned aerial vehicles limited. new text end

new text begin Authorized use. new text end

new text begin Limitations on use. new text end

new text begin Access by data subjects. new text end

new text begin Data classification; retention. new text end

new text begin Evidence. new text end

new text begin Remedies. new text end

new text begin Written policies required. new text end

new text begin Notice; disclosure of warrant. new text end

new text begin Reporting. new text end

new text begin Statewide model policy required. new text end

new text begin Agency policies required. new text end

new text begin Purpose. new text end

new text begin Annual data; submission. new text end

new text begin Data storage and access. new text end

new text begin Updated data. new text end

new text begin Confidentiality agreement prohibited. new text end

new text begin Data classification. new text end

new text begin Penalty for noncompliance. new text end

new text begin Board report. new text end

Concurrent jurisdiction.

Cooperative agreements.

new text begin Establishment; purpose. new text end

new text begin Members. new text end

new text begin Organization. new text end

new text begin Staff. new text end

new text begin Open meetings. new text end

new text begin Duties of task force. new text end

new text begin Report and recommendations. new text end

new text begin Expiration. new text end

new text beginCurrent or recent new text endposition of authority.

Sexual contact.

Sexual penetration.

new text begin Secondary school. new text end

new text begin Independent contractor. new text end

Crime defined.

Crime defined.

Crime defined.

Crime defined.

Crime defined.

Use of minor.

Operation or ownership of business.

Dissemination.

Conditional release term.

new text begin Mandatory minimum sentence. new text end

Dissemination prohibited.

Possession prohibited.

Conditional release term.

new text begin Mandatory minimum sentence. new text end

Definitions.

new text begin Total Appropriation new text end

new text begin Deficiency new text end

new text begin Emergency Management new text end

new text begin Criminal Apprehension new text end

new text begin Fire Marshal new text end

new text begin Firefighter Training and Education Board new text end

new text begin Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement new text end

new text begin Office of Justice Programs new text end

new text begin Emergency Communication Networks new text end

new text begin Traffic Safety new text end

new text begin Total Appropriation new text end

new text begin Deficiency new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Reimbursements new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Assistance new text end

new text begin De-escalation Training new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Excellence Task Force new text end

new text begin Total Appropriation new text end

new text begin Correctional Institutions new text end

new text begin Community Services new text end

new text begin Operations Support new text end

Office of Justice Programs

new text begin Direct wine shipments. new text end

new text begin Felony conviction; restoration of civil right to vote. new text end

Form.

new text begin Correctional facilities; designation of official. new text end

new text begin Notice requirement. new text end

new text begin Total
Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Deficiency
new text end

new text begin Emergency Management
new text end

new text begin Criminal Apprehension
new text end

new text begin Fire Marshal
new text end

new text begin Firefighter Training and Education
Board
new text end

new text begin Alcohol and Gambling Enforcement
new text end

new text begin Office of Justice Programs
new text end

new text begin Emergency Communication Networks
new text end

new text begin Traffic Safety
new text end

new text begin Total
Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Deficiency
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Reimbursements
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Training Assistance
new text end

new text begin De-escalation Training
new text end

new text begin Peace Officer Excellence Task Force
new text end

new text begin Total Appropriation
new text end

new text begin Correctional Institutions
new text end

new text begin Community Services
new text end

new text begin Operations Support
new text end

Engrossments	Comparisons
Introduction		Posted on 04/01/2019
1st Engrossment		Posted on 04/23/2019	compared with SF802 2nd Engrossment

Division Engrossments	Comparisons
1st Division Engrossment		Posted on 04/08/2019

A bill for an act
relating to public safety; modifying certain provisions relating to public safety;
corrections; law enforcement; sexual offenders; controlled substances; DWI;
vehicle operations; pretrial release; firearms; offender sentencing, probation, and
diversion; firefighters; statewide emergency communication; predatory offenders;
modifying ex-offender voting rights; enacting the Uniform Collateral Consequences
of Conviction Act; requiring reports; providing for task forces; providing for
criminal penalties; appropriating money for sentencing guidelines; public safety;
courts; corrections; Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) Board; private
detective board; Public Defense Board; human services; health; amending
Minnesota Statutes 2018, sections 13.6905, by adding a subdivision; 13.851, by
adding a subdivision; 15A.0815, subdivision 3; 84.91, subdivision 1; 86B.331,
subdivision 1; 144.121, subdivision 1a, by adding a subdivision; 151.37, subdivision
12; 152.021, subdivision 2a; 152.025, subdivisions 1, 2, 4; 152.0275; 152.18,
subdivision 1; 169.13, subdivisions 1, 2; 169.92, subdivision 4; 169A.03,
subdivision 18; 169A.37, subdivision 1; 169A.55, subdivision 2; 169A.60,
subdivisions 4, 5; 169A.63, by adding a subdivision; 171.07, subdivision 1a;
171.16, subdivisions 2, 3; 171.18, subdivision 1; 171.20, subdivision 4; 171.26,
subdivision 1; 171.29, subdivision 1; 201.014, by adding a subdivision; 201.071,
subdivision 1; 204C.10; 241.025, subdivisions 1, 2; 241.75, subdivision 2; 242.192;
243.166, subdivisions 1a, 1b, 2, 4, 4a, 4b, 4c, 5, 6, 7, 7a, by adding a subdivision;
243.48, subdivision 1; 244.05, subdivisions 4, 5; 244.09, subdivisions 5, 6, 8;
245C.22, by adding a subdivision; 245C.24, by adding a subdivision; 260B.176,
by adding a subdivision; 299A.12, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 299A.13; 299A.14,
subdivision 3; 299A.706; 299C.091, subdivision 5; 299C.093; 299N.01,
subdivisions 2, 3; 299N.02, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 299N.03, subdivisions 4, 5, 6, by
adding a subdivision; 299N.04; 299N.05, subdivisions 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 9; 299N.06;
340A.304; 340A.417; 357.021, subdivision 7; 364.07; 403.02, by adding a
subdivision; 403.03; 403.21, subdivision 7a; 403.36, subdivisions 1, 1b, 1c, 1d;
403.37, subdivision 12; 403.382, subdivisions 1, 8; 446A.083, subdivision 2;
480.15, by adding a subdivision; 590.01, subdivision 4; 590.11, subdivisions 1, 2,
5, 7; 609.106, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 609.115, by adding a
subdivision; 609.135, subdivisions 1a, 1c, 2, by adding subdivisions; 609.165,
subdivision 1; 609.2112, subdivision 1; 609.2113, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 609.341,
subdivisions 10, 11, 12, by adding subdivisions; 609.342, subdivision 1; 609.343,
subdivision 1; 609.344, subdivision 1; 609.345, subdivision 1; 609.3451,
subdivision 1; 609.3455, subdivision 2; 609.582, subdivisions 3, 4; 609.749,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 5, 8; 609A.02, by adding a subdivision; 609A.025; 611.365,
subdivisions 2, 3; 611.367; 611.368; 611A.039, subdivision 1; 617.246,
subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 7, by adding a subdivision; 617.247, subdivisions 3, 4, 9, by
adding a subdivision; 624.712, subdivision 5; 626.556, subdivision 2; 626.841;
626.93, subdivisions 3, 4; 628.26; 629.53; 631.412; 634.20; 638.02, subdivision
3; 641.15, subdivision 3a; Laws 2009, chapter 59, article 3, section 4, subdivision
9, as amended; Laws 2017, chapter 95, article 1, section 11, subdivision 7; article
3, section 30; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 152;
171; 201; 241; 243; 244; 260B; 299A; 340A; 611A; 626; 638; 641; repealing
Minnesota Statutes 2018, sections 152.027, subdivisions 3, 4; 299A.12, subdivision
4; 299A.18; 401.13; 609.349; 609B.050; 609B.100; 609B.101; 609B.102;
609B.103; 609B.104; 609B.105; 609B.106; 609B.107; 609B.108; 609B.109;
609B.110; 609B.111; 609B.112; 609B.113; 609B.120; 609B.121; 609B.122;
609B.123; 609B.124; 609B.125; 609B.126; 609B.127; 609B.128; 609B.129;
609B.130; 609B.132; 609B.133; 609B.134; 609B.135; 609B.136; 609B.139;
609B.140; 609B.141; 609B.142; 609B.143; 609B.144; 609B.146; 609B.147;
609B.148; 609B.149; 609B.1495; 609B.150; 609B.151; 609B.152; 609B.153;
609B.155; 609B.157; 609B.158; 609B.159; 609B.160; 609B.161; 609B.162;
609B.164; 609B.1641; 609B.1645; 609B.165; 609B.168; 609B.170; 609B.171;
609B.172; 609B.173; 609B.174; 609B.175; 609B.176; 609B.177; 609B.179;
609B.180; 609B.181; 609B.183; 609B.184; 609B.185; 609B.187; 609B.188;
609B.189; 609B.191; 609B.192; 609B.193; 609B.194; 609B.195; 609B.200;
609B.201; 609B.203; 609B.205; 609B.206; 609B.216; 609B.231; 609B.235;
609B.237; 609B.241; 609B.245; 609B.255; 609B.262; 609B.263; 609B.265;
609B.271; 609B.273; 609B.275; 609B.277; 609B.301; 609B.310; 609B.311;
609B.312; 609B.320; 609B.321; 609B.330; 609B.331; 609B.332; 609B.333;
609B.340; 609B.341; 609B.342; 609B.343; 609B.344; 609B.345; 609B.400;
609B.405; 609B.410; 609B.415; 609B.425; 609B.430; 609B.435; 609B.445;
609B.450; 609B.455; 609B.460; 609B.465; 609B.500; 609B.505; 609B.510;
609B.515; 609B.518; 609B.520; 609B.525; 609B.530; 609B.535; 609B.540;
609B.545; 609B.600; 609B.610; 609B.611; 609B.612; 609B.613; 609B.614;
609B.615; 609B.700; 609B.710; 609B.720; 609B.721; 609B.722; 609B.723;
609B.724; 609B.725.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

new text begin The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are appropriated to the agencies
and for the purposes specified in this article. The appropriations are from the general fund,
or another named fund, and are available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose.
The figures "2020" and "2021" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under
them are available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2020, or June 30, 2021, respectively.
"The first year" is fiscal year 2020. "The second year" is fiscal year 2021. "The biennium"
is fiscal years 2020 and 2021. Appropriations for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2019, are
effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 1,330,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 988,000
new text end

new text begin $651,000 the first year and $301,000 the
second year are to establish early discharge
targets. The base for this program is $223,000
beginning in fiscal year 2022.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 160,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 202,143,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 201,171,000
new text end

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
	new text begin 2019 new text end	new text begin 2020 new text end	new text begin 2021 new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 160,000 new text end	new text begin 108,637,000 new text end	new text begin 107,665,000 new text end
new text begin Special Revenue new text end		new text begin 13,251,000 new text end	new text begin 13,251,000 new text end
new text begin State Government Special Revenue new text end		new text begin 103,000 new text end	new text begin 103,000 new text end
new text begin Environmental new text end		new text begin 73,000 new text end	new text begin 73,000 new text end
new text begin Trunk Highway new text end		new text begin 2,429,000 new text end	new text begin 2,429,000 new text end
new text begin 911 Fund new text end		new text begin 77,650,000 new text end	new text begin 77,650,000 new text end

new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in the following
subdivisions.
new text end

new text begin $160,000 in fiscal year 2019 is to pay systems
costs related to license reinstatement fee
changes, driver diversion programs, and
ignition interlock.
new text end

4,668,000

4,418,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 3,745,000 new text end	new text begin 3,495,000 new text end
new text begin Environmental new text end	new text begin 73,000 new text end	new text begin 73,000 new text end
new text begin Special Revenue Fund new text end	new text begin 850,000 new text end	new text begin 850,000 new text end

new text begin (a) Hazmat and Chemical Assessment
Teams
new text end

new text begin $850,000 each year is from the fire safety
account in the special revenue fund. These
amounts must be used to fund the hazardous
materials and chemical assessment teams. Of
this amount, $100,000 the first year is for
cases for which there is no identified
responsible party.
new text end

new text begin (b) Supplemental Nonprofit Security Grants
new text end

new text begin $300,000 each year is for supplemental
nonprofit security grants under this paragraph.
new text end

new text begin Nonprofit organizations whose applications
for funding through the Federal Emergency
Management Agency's nonprofit security grant
program have been approved by the Division
of Homeland Security and Emergency
Management are eligible for grants under this
paragraph. No additional application shall be
required for grants under this paragraph, and
an application for a grant from the federal
program is also an application for funding
from the state supplemental program.
new text end

new text begin Eligible organizations may receive grants of
up to $75,000, except that the total received
by any individual from both the federal
nonprofit security grant program and the state
supplemental nonprofit security grant program
shall not exceed $75,000. Grants shall be
awarded in an order consistent with the
ranking given to applicants for the federal
nonprofit security grant program. No grants
under the state supplemental nonprofit security
grant program shall be awarded until the
announcement of the recipients and the
amount of the grants awarded under the federal
nonprofit security grant program.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner may use up to one percent
of the appropriation received under this
paragraph to pay costs incurred by the
department in administering the supplemental
nonprofit security grant program. This
program shall have a base of $150,000 in fiscal
year 2022 and $0 in fiscal year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (c) Emergency Responder Training; Autism
Spectrum Disorder
new text end

new text begin $250,000 the first year is for a grant or grants
to a person or entity to train emergency
responders and utilize applications for cell
phones and mobile electronic devices to
improve and de-escalate emergency
encounters and crisis situations with
individuals who have an autism spectrum
disorder or related disability, or other
nonvisible health issue, and to acquire these
applications. By February 15, 2023, the
commissioner shall report to the chairs and
ranking minority members of the senate and
house of representatives committees and
divisions having jurisdiction over criminal
justice policy and finance on how this
appropriation was spent and what results were
achieved.
new text end

new text begin (d) Local Government Emergency
Management
new text end

new text begin $300,000 each year is for the director of the
Homeland Security and Emergency
Management Division (HSEM) to award
grants to emergency management departments
for planning and preparedness activities
including capital purchases.
new text end

new text begin A grant in the amount of $20,000 shall be
awarded each fiscal year to each of the
following, subject to HSEM's final approval:
new text end

new text begin (1) 12 counties with two counties
recommended by each Homeland Security
Emergency Management Region;
new text end

new text begin (2) two tribal governments recommended by
the Indian Affairs Council; and
new text end

new text begin (3) one city of the first class chosen by HSEM.
new text end

new text begin Current local funding for emergency
management and preparedness activities may
not be supplanted by these additional state
funds. These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (e) Bomb Squad Reimbursements
new text end

new text begin $50,000 each year is for reimbursements to
local governments for bomb squad services.
new text end

new text begin (f) School Safety Center
new text end

new text begin $250,000 each year is to hire two additional
school safety specialists in the school safety
center.
new text end

63,229,000

62,974,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 60,793,000 new text end	new text begin 60,538,000 new text end
new text begin State Government Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 7,000 new text end	new text begin 7,000 new text end
new text begin Trunk Highway new text end	new text begin 2,429,000 new text end	new text begin 2,429,000 new text end

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin DWI Lab Analysis; Trunk Highway
Fund
new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section
161.20, subdivision 3, $2,429,000 each year
is from the trunk highway fund for laboratory
analysis related to driving-while-impaired
cases.
new text end

(b) FBI Cybersecurity Compliance

new text begin $1,501,000 the first year and $1,325,000 the
second year are for staff and technology costs
to meet FBI cybersecurity requirements. The
base for fiscal year 2022 and thereafter is
$1,175,000.
new text end

new text begin (c) Automated Fingerprint Identification
System
new text end

new text begin $1,500,000 each year is to replace the current
automated fingerprint identification system
with a new leased technology system.
new text end

new text begin (d) Equipment
new text end

new text begin $50,000 the first year is for information and
technology to receive and store data related
to complaints made against an employed peace
officer.
new text end

new text begin (e) Base Adjustment
new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the general fund base is
reduced by $19,000 in fiscal years 2022 and
2023.
new text end

6,622,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 6,622,000 new text end	new text begin 6,622,000 new text end

new text begin The special revenue fund appropriation is from
the fire safety account in the special revenue
fund and is for activities under Minnesota
Statutes, section 299F.012.
new text end

new text begin Inspections. new text end new text begin $300,000 each year is for
inspection of nursing homes and boarding care
facilities.
new text end

5,015,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 5,015,000 new text end	new text begin 5,015,000 new text end

new text begin The special revenue fund appropriation is from
the fire safety account in the special revenue
fund and is for activities under Minnesota
Statutes, section 299F.012.
new text end

(a) Firefighter Training and Education

new text begin $4,265,000 each year is for firefighter training
and education.
new text end

new text begin (b) Task Force 1
new text end

new text begin $500,000 each year is for the Minnesota Task
Force 1.
new text end

new text begin (c) Air Rescue
new text end

new text begin $250,000 each year is for the Minnesota Air
Rescue Team.
new text end

(d) Unappropriated Revenue

new text begin Any additional unappropriated money
collected in fiscal year 2019 is appropriated
to the commissioner of public safety for the
purposes of Minnesota Statutes, section
299F.012. The commissioner may transfer
appropriations and base amounts between
activities in this subdivision.
new text end

2,929,000

2,927,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 2,165,000 new text end	new text begin 2,163,000 new text end
new text begin Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 764,000 new text end	new text begin 764,000 new text end

new text begin $694,000 each year is from the alcohol
enforcement account in the special revenue
fund. Of this appropriation, $500,000 each
year shall be transferred to the general fund.
new text end

new text begin $70,000 each year is from the lawful gambling
regulation account in the special revenue fund.
new text end

new text begin $175,000 the first year and $165,000 the
second year are for costs related to
enforcement of laws regulating out-of-state
direct wine shippers.
new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the general fund base is
increased by $8,000 in fiscal years 2022 and
2023.
new text end

41,730,000

41,365,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 41,634,000 new text end	new text begin 41,269,000 new text end
new text begin State Government Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 96,000 new text end	new text begin 96,000 new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the general fund base is
increased by $2,000 in fiscal years 2022 and
2023.
new text end

(a) Administration Costs

new text begin Up to 2.5 percent of the grant funds
appropriated in this subdivision may be used
by the commissioner to administer the grant
program.
new text end

(b) Indigenous Women Task Force

new text begin $105,000 the first year and $45,000 the second
year are to convene a task force on the causes
and extent of victimization of indigenous
women and girls and strategies to reduce
violence. A report on policies and
recommendations to reduce and end violence
against indigenous women and girls is due to
the legislature on December 15, 2020. These
are onetime appropriations.
new text end

new text begin (c) Domestic Abuse Prevention Grants
new text end

new text begin $200,000 each year is for a grant to a domestic
abuse prevention program that provides
interdisciplinary, trauma-informed treatment
and evidence-informed intervention for
veterans and current or former service
members and their families affected by
domestic violence. The grantee must offer a
combination of services for perpetrators of
domestic violence and their families, including
individual and group therapy, evaluation and
research of programming, and short- and
long-term case management services to ensure
stabilization and increase their overall mental
health functioning and well-being. These
appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (d) Criminal Sexual Conduct Statutory
Reform Working Group
new text end

new text begin $20,000 the first year and $14,000 the second
year are to convene, administer, and
implement the criminal sexual conduct
statutory reform working group.
new text end

new text begin (e) Legal Representation for Children
new text end

new text begin $150,000 each year is for a grant to an
organization that provides legal representation
for children in need of protection or services
and children in out-of-home placement. The
grant is contingent upon a match in an equal
amount from nonstate funds. The match may
be in kind, including the value of volunteer
attorney time, or in cash, or a combination of
the two. These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (f) Youth Intervention Programs
new text end

new text begin $500,000 each year is for youth intervention
programs under Minnesota Statutes, section
299A.73. One-half of the money is for
community-based youth intervention programs
that work with African American and African
immigrant youth and may be used to:
new text end

new text begin (1) identify behaviors indicating that an
individual is vulnerable to committing or being
the victim of bullying or interfamily,
community, or domestic abuse;
new text end

new text begin (2) identify and assess factors and influences
that make African immigrant and African
American youth vulnerable to recruitment by
violent organizations including but not limited
to family dysfunction and cultural
disengagement;
new text end

new text begin (3) develop strategies to reduce and eliminate
abusive and bullying behaviors among youth
and adults within the African immigrant and
African American community;
new text end

new text begin (4) develop and implement strategies to reduce
and eliminate the factors and influences that
make African immigrant and African
American youth vulnerable to recruitment by
violent organizations;
new text end

new text begin (5) develop strategies, programs, and services
to educate parents and other family members
to recognize and address behaviors indicating
that youth are being recruited by violent
organizations; and
new text end

new text begin (6) develop strategies, programs, and services,
in collaboration with public entities and other
community and private organizations that
provide services to at-risk youth and families,
to reduce and eliminate bullying, abusive
behavior, and the vulnerability of African
immigrant and African American youth to
recruitment by violent organizations.
new text end

new text begin These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (g) Domestic Abuse Transformation
Programs
new text end

new text begin $783,000 each year is for grants to domestic
abuse transformation programs that
demonstrate meaningful and effective
programming to reduce and eliminate domestic
abuse within intimate partner relationships.
The requirements for grant recipients shall be
developed by the Office of Justice Programs
in consultation with stakeholders impacted by
domestic abuse and working to end domestic
abuse. The base in fiscal year 2022 is $0.
new text end

new text begin (h) Peace Officer Community Policing
Excellence Report Database
new text end

new text begin (1) $200,000 the first year is for a grant to a
qualified community-based research
organization to develop a system to classify
and report peace officer discipline by category,
severity, type, demographic data of those
involved in the incident, and any other factor
determined to be appropriate by the Peace
Officers Standards and Training Board. As
part of the system, the grant recipient must
develop and incorporate:
new text end

new text begin (i) a protocol to assign a unique identifier for
each peace officer;
new text end

new text begin (ii) safeguards to protect personal identifying
information of peace officers; and
new text end

new text begin (iii) guidelines for data retention and user audit
trails.
new text end

new text begin (2) The grant recipient, in consultation with
the stakeholder group identified in clause (3),
may recommend changes on how to adapt the
system under clause (1) to collect additional
policing data that corresponds with peace
officer interactions with the public generally
and suspects, arrests, and victims specifically.
new text end

new text begin (3) In developing the system described in
clause (1), the grant recipient shall consult
with:
new text end

new text begin (i) the superintendent of the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension;
new text end

new text begin (ii) the Peace Officer Standards and Training
Board;
new text end

new text begin (iii) the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers
Association;
new text end

new text begin (iv) the Minnesota Sheriff's Association;
new text end

new text begin (v) the Minnesota Chiefs of Police
Association; and
new text end

new text begin (vi) six community members appointed by the
commissioner of public safety, of which:
new text end

new text begin (A) at least two members must be from
communities represented by boards established
under section 257.0768;
new text end

new text begin (B) at least two members must be mental
health advocates; and
new text end

new text begin (C) at least two members must be advocates
for domestic abuse victims.
new text end

new text begin (4) The grant recipient and citizens must be
permitted ongoing direct access to the data
maintained in the system. Access to the data
under this clause must be strictly regulated
and monitored to ensure compliance with the
data privacy classifications assigned to the
data.
new text end

new text begin (i) Sex Trafficking Investigations
Coordinator
new text end

new text begin $100,000 each year is for a statewide Sex
Trafficking Investigations Coordinator.
new text end

new text begin (j) Cannabis Task Force
new text end

new text begin $100,000 the first year is to provide support
staff, office space, and administrative services
for the Cannabis Task Force.
new text end

new text begin (k) Safe and Secure Storage of Firearms
new text end

new text begin $100,000 each year is for grants to local or
state law enforcement agencies to support the
safe and secure storage of firearms.
new text end

new text begin (l) Community Policing Database
Maintenance
new text end

new text begin $50,000 the second year is for the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension to maintain the
community policing database. Any unused
amount remaining in the account on June 1 is
for a grant to a community-based research
organization to maintain and update software
to monitor peace officer discipline.
new text end

77,750,000

new text begin Appropriations by Fund new text end
new text begin General new text end	new text begin 100,000 new text end	new text begin 100,000 new text end
new text begin Special Revenue new text end	new text begin 77,650,000 new text end	new text begin 77,650,000 new text end

new text begin This appropriation is from the state
government special revenue fund for 911
emergency telecommunications services.
new text end

new text begin This appropriation includes funds for
information technology project services and
support subject to the provisions of Minnesota
Statutes, section 16E.0466. Any ongoing
information technology costs will be
incorporated into the service level agreement
and will be paid to the Office of MN.IT
Services by the Department of Public Safety
under the rates and mechanism specified in
that agreement.
new text end

(a) Public Safety Answering Points

new text begin $13,664,000 each year is to be distributed as
provided in Minnesota Statutes, section
403.113, subdivision 2.
new text end

(b) Medical Resource Communication Centers

new text begin $683,000 each year is for grants to the
Minnesota Emergency Medical Services
Regulatory Board for the Metro East and
Metro West Medical Resource
Communication Centers that were in operation
before January 1, 2000.
new text end

new text begin (c) Medical Resource Control Centers
new text end

new text begin $100,000 the first year and $100,000 the
second year are appropriated from the general
fund to the commissioner of public safety for
grants to the Minnesota Emergency Medical
Services Regulatory Board for the East Metro
and West Metro Medical Resource Control
Centers that were in operation before January
1, 2000. These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

(d) ARMER Debt Service

new text begin $23,261,000 each year is transferred to the
commissioner of management and budget to
pay debt service on revenue bonds issued
under Minnesota Statutes, section 403.275.
new text end

new text begin Any portion of this appropriation not needed
to pay debt service in a fiscal year may be used
by the commissioner of public safety to pay
cash for any of the capital improvements for
which bond proceeds were appropriated by
Laws 2005, chapter 136, article 1, section 9,
subdivision 8; or Laws 2007, chapter 54,
article 1, section 10, subdivision 8.
new text end

new text begin (e) ARMER State Backbone Operating
Costs
new text end

new text begin $9,675,000 each year is transferred to the
commissioner of transportation for costs of
maintaining and operating the statewide radio
system backbone.
new text end

new text begin (f) ARMER Improvements
new text end

new text begin $1,000,000 each year is to the Statewide
Emergency Communications Board for
improvements to those elements of the
statewide public safety radio and
communication system that support mutual
aid communications and emergency medical
services or provide interim enhancement of
public safety communication interoperability
in those areas of the state where the statewide
public safety radio and communication system
is not yet implemented, and grants to local
units of government to further the strategic
goals set forth by the Statewide Emergency
Communications Board strategic plan.
new text end

new text begin (g) Telephone Cardiopulmonary
Resuscitation Program
new text end

new text begin $50,000 the first year is appropriated from the
general fund for grants to reimburse public
safety answering points for the cost of 911
telecommunicator cardiopulmonary
resuscitation training. This is a onetime
appropriation.
new text end

200,000

100,000

new text begin $200,000 the first year and $100,000 the
second year are for a study to report on the
use of screening tests that measure the level
of marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinols in the
blood of a person stopped or arrested for
driving while impaired.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 500,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 10,563,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 10,316,000
new text end

new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in the following
subdivisions.
new text end

new text begin $500,000 in fiscal year 2019 is from the
general fund to pay for a projected deficiency
in operating expenses.
new text end

new text begin $2,859,000 each year is for reimbursements
to local governments for peace officer training
costs.
new text end

new text begin (a) $6,000,000 the first year is from the
general fund to the Peace Officer Standards
and Training Board for grants to support and
strengthen law enforcement training and
implement best practices. After January 2,
2021, these funds may only be used to
reimburse training expenses for peace officers
who are employed by law enforcement
agencies that the superintendent of the Bureau
of Criminal Apprehension has certified are:
new text end

new text begin (1) compliant with the Federal Bureau of
Investigation's National Incident-Based Report
System (NIBRS), which requires recording
the age, sex, and race of the arrestee and the
relationship of the arrestee and victim if this
information is known to the officer;
new text end

new text begin (2) in compliance with the peace officer
discipline reporting requirements established
in Minnesota Statutes, section 626.8435;
new text end

new text begin (3) in compliance with the Bureau of Criminal
Apprehension's use of force data collection
policy to include reporting whether the
incident was officer generated or in response
to a call for assistance; and
new text end

new text begin (4) in compliance with the report required by
Minnesota Statutes, sections 299C.22,
subdivision 2, and 626.553, subdivision 2.
This report includes the Federal Bureau of
Investigation's use of force data collection and
whether the incident was officer generated or
in response to a request for service.
new text end

new text begin The base for this activity is $6,000,000 in
fiscal years 2020, 2021, 2022, and 2023 and
$0 in fiscal year 2024 and thereafter.
new text end

new text begin (b) The superintendent of the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension may grant up to one
additional year for an agency to become
substantially compliant with NIBRS if the
agency establishes good cause for delayed
compliance.
new text end

new text begin (c) The superintendent of the Bureau of
Criminal Apprehension shall modify the
Supplemental Reporting System on the agency
submissions page to provide fields for
agencies to report the data required under
paragraph (a), clause (3).
new text end

new text begin $100,000 each year is for training state and
local community safety personnel in the use
of crisis de-escalation techniques. When
selecting a service provider for this training,
the board may consult with any postsecondary
institution, any state or local government
official, or any nongovernment authority the
board determines to be relevant. Among any
other criteria the board may establish, the
training provider must have a demonstrated
understanding of the transitions and challenges
that veterans may experience during their
re-entry into society following combat service.
The board must ensure that training
opportunities provided are reasonably
distributed statewide.
new text end

new text begin $250,000 the first year is to provide support
staff, office space, and administrative services
for the Peace Officer Excellence Task Force.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 277,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 277,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 633,129,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 655,572,000
new text end

new text begin The amounts that may be spent for each
purpose are specified in the following
subdivisions.
new text end

460,026,000

475,654,000

new text begin (a) Base Adjustment
new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the base is increased by
$2,342,000 in fiscal year 2022 and $2,342,000
in fiscal year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (b) Prison Population
new text end

new text begin To account for projected prison population
changes, the base is increased by $1,910,000
in fiscal year 2022 and $3,641,000 in fiscal
year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text end new text begin Facility Staff Positions
new text end

new text begin $2,248,000 the first year and $5,433,000 the
second year are to add up to 110 full-time
equivalent positions for correctional officers
and six full-time equivalent positions for
corrections lieutenants located in correctional
facilities by fiscal year 2023. The base for
these positions shall be $8,087,000 for fiscal
year 2022 and $8,634,000 for fiscal year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (d) Staffing Recruitment and Retention
new text end

new text begin $4,000,000 each year is for staffing
recruitment and retention.
new text end

new text begin (e) new text end new text begin Offender Health Care
new text end

new text begin $2,072,000 the first year and $3,272,000 the
second year are to maintain full funding of the
offender health care contract.
new text end

new text begin (f) new text end new text begin Security
new text end

new text begin $5,700,000 the first year and $5,600,000 the
second year are to upgrade critical security
infrastructure and modernize critical security
systems. Of the second year amount,
$3,600,000 is onetime funding.
new text end

new text begin (g) new text end new text begin Safety and Security Staff
new text end

new text begin $891,000 the first year and $1,426,000 the
second year are to add full-time equivalent
positions deemed critical to facility safety and
security.
new text end

new text begin (h) Office of Ombudsman for Corrections
new text end

new text begin $900,000 each year is to reestablish and
operate the Office of Ombudsman for
Corrections.
new text end

new text begin (i) new text end new text begin Restrictive Housing Reform
new text end

new text begin $844,000 the first year and $1,688,000 the
second year are to implement restrictive
housing reforms that will reduce the risk of
future misconduct and comply with federal
guidelines and accreditation standards.
new text end

new text begin (j) new text end new text begin Offender Medical Services
new text end

new text begin $879,000 the first year and $2,160,000 the
second year are to expand and improve
offender medical services.
new text end

new text begin (k) new text end new text begin Juvenile Correction Management
new text end

new text begin $544,000 the first year and $206,000 the
second year are to replace the Juvenile
Correctional Management System. These are
onetime appropriations.
new text end

new text begin (l) new text end new text begin Opioid Treatment
new text end

new text begin To the extent of available funding, up to
$965,000 each year are from the opioid
stewardship fund to expand access to opioid
treatment and services for offenders, including
those who are being released to the
community.
new text end

141,145,000

146,459,000

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Base Adjustment
new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the base is increased by
$168,000 in fiscal year 2022 and $168,000 in
fiscal year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Pretrial Services and Supervision
new text end

new text begin $617,000 the first year and $1,234,000 the
second year are to provide pretrial services
and pretrial supervision to offenders.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text end new text begin Community Corrections Act Subsidy
new text end

new text begin $1,044,000 the first year and $2,088,000 the
second year are added to the Community
Corrections Act subsidy, as described in
Minnesota Statutes, section 401.14, to provide
pretrial services and pretrial supervision to
offenders.
new text end

new text begin $1,588,000 the first year and $3,176,000 the
second year are added to the Community
Corrections Act subsidy, as described in
Minnesota Statutes, section 401.14, to provide
intensive supervised release to offenders in
the community.
new text end

new text begin (d) new text end new text begin County Probation Officers
new text end

new text begin $64,000 the first year and $128,000 the second
year are for county probation officers
reimbursement as described in Minnesota
Statutes, section 244.19, subdivision 6, to
provide pretrial services and pretrial
supervision to offenders.
new text end

new text begin (e) new text end new text begin Intensive Supervision Agents
new text end

new text begin $912,000 the first year and $1,824,000 the
second year are to increase the number of
supervision agents for offenders on intensive
supervised release through the Department of
Corrections.
new text end

new text begin (f) new text end new text begin Integrated Offender Case Management
Services
new text end

new text begin $321,000 the first year and $831,000 the
second year are to expand and improve
integrated offender case management services.
$193,000 is added to the base in each of fiscal
years 2022 and 2023.
new text end

new text begin (g) new text end new text begin Victim Notification System Replacement
new text end

new text begin $300,000 the first year and $100,000 the
second year are to complete the replacement
of the Department of Corrections' Victim
Notification System. These appropriations are
onetime.
new text end

new text begin (h) new text end new text begin High-Risk Offenders
new text end

new text begin $1,500,000 each year is to provide electronic
monitoring services and transitional housing
for high-risk offenders under supervision by
the Department of Corrections.
new text end

new text begin (i) new text end new text begin Transportation Services to Children of
Incarcerated Parents
new text end

new text begin $150,000 each year is for grants to nonprofit
organizations to provide transportation
services to children of incarcerated parents at
up to three correctional facilities.
new text end

new text begin (j) Culturally Specific Reintegration
Services for Adult American Indian
Offenders
new text end

new text begin $425,000 each year is for grants to
community-based providers to deliver
culturally specific reintegration services for
adult American Indian offenders.
new text end

new text begin (k) Parenting Skills
new text end

new text begin $425,000 each year is to improve parenting
skills at four correctional facilities.
new text end

new text begin (l) Juvenile Justice Reform
new text end

new text begin (1) $280,000 each year is to provide juvenile
justice services and resources to Minnesota
counties.
new text end

new text begin (2) $220,000 each year is for grants to local
agencies to establish juvenile detention
alternatives.
new text end

new text begin (m) Alternatives to Incarceration
new text end

new text begin $240,000 each year is for grants to counties
that are not metropolitan counties as defined
in Minnesota Statutes, section 473.121,
subdivision 4, to facilitate access to
community treatment options under the
alternatives to incarceration program. These
appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (n) Mental Health Community Supervision
new text end

new text begin $400,000 each year is to award grants to two
or more counties for establishment of a mental
health community supervision caseload pilot
project. These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

new text begin (o) Exit from Supervised Release
new text end

new text begin $200,000 each year is for grants to government
agencies that supervise offenders placed on
probation to be used to connect offenders with
community treatment options including, but
not limited to, inpatient chemical dependency
treatment for the purpose of addressing and
correcting behavior that is, or is likely to result
in, a violation of the terms and conditions of
probation. Each fiscal year, these funds are
available only to entities outside the
seven-county metropolitan area until March
15. After March 15, entities inside the
seven-county metropolitan area also may apply
for grants. These appropriations are onetime.
new text end

31,958,000

33,459,000

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin Base Adjustment
new text end

new text begin To account for the base adjustments provided
in Laws 2018, chapter 211, article 21, section
1, paragraph (a), the base is increased by
$64,000 in fiscal year 2022 and $64,000 in
fiscal year 2023.
new text end

new text begin (b) new text end new text begin Critical Technology Needs
new text end

new text begin $3,100,000 the first year and $4,300,000 the
second year are to support critical technology
needs.
new text end

new text begin (c) new text end new text begin Staff Recruiting
new text end

new text begin $160,000 each year is to fund positions
responsible for recruiting staff to work for the
Department of Corrections.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 164,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 204,000
new text end

new text begin $164,000 the first year and $204,000 the
second year are for additional staffing
necessitated by changes to criminal vehicular
homicide and criminal vehicular operation
offenses.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 259,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 379,000
new text end

new text begin $259,000 the first year and $379,000 the
second year are for costs related to petitions
for an order of relief from one or more
collateral sanctions.
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 404,000
new text end

new text begin $
new text end

new text begin 461,000
new text end

new text begin $404,000 the first year and $461,000 the
second year are for costs related to petitions
for an order of relief from one or more
collateral sanctions.
new text end

Laws 2017, chapter 95, article 1, section 11, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

39,580,000

40,036,000

Appropriations by Fund
General	39,484,000	39,940,000
State Government Special Revenue	96,000	96,000

(a) OJP Administration Costs

Up to 2.5 percent of the grant funds
appropriated in this subdivision may be used
by the commissioner to administer the grant
program.

(b) Combating Terrorism Recruitment

$250,000 each year is for grants to local law
enforcement agencies to develop strategies
and make efforts to combat the recruitment of
Minnesota residents by terrorist organizations
such as ISIS and al-Shabaab. This is a onetime
appropriation.

$180,000 each year is for grants to state and
local units of government for the following
purposes:

(1) to support new or existing
multijurisdictional entities to investigate sex
trafficking crimes; and

(2) to provide technical assistance, including
training and case consultation, to law
enforcement agencies statewide.

(d) Pathway to Policing Reimbursement Grants

$400,000 the second year is for reimbursement
grants to local units of government that operate
pathway to policing programs intended to
bring persons with nontraditional backgrounds
into law enforcement. Applicants for
reimbursement grants may receive up to 50
percent of the cost of compensating and
training pathway to policing participants.
Reimbursement grants shall be proportionally
allocated based on the number of grant
applications approved by the commissioner.new text begin
This is a onetime appropriation.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

new text begin $453,000 in fiscal year 2020 and $474,000 in fiscal year 2021 and annually thereafter
are appropriated to the commissioner of management and budget for transfer to the driver
services account in the special revenue fund.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.6905, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin Data obtained and shared by the commissioner of
public safety relating to direct shipments of wine are governed by sections 340A.550 and
340A.555.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 201.014, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin An individual convicted
of a felony has the civil right to vote restored when the individual completes any incarceration
imposed and executed by the court for the offense, or upon sentencing if no incarceration
is imposed. If the individual is later incarcerated for the same offense, the individual's civil
right to vote is lost only during the period of incarceration.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 201.071, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Both paper and electronic voter registration applications must
contain the same information unless otherwise provided by law. A voter registration
application must contain spaces for the following required information: voter's first name,
middle name, and last name; voter's previous name, if any; voter's current address; voter's
previous address, if any; voter's date of birth; voter's municipality and county of residence;
voter's telephone number, if provided by the voter; date of registration; current and valid
Minnesota driver's license number or Minnesota state identification number, or if the voter
has no current and valid Minnesota driver's license or Minnesota state identification, the
last four digits of the voter's Social Security number; and voter's signature. The paper
registration application may include the voter's e-mail address, if provided by the voter. The
electronic voter registration application must include the voter's e-mail address. The
registration application may include the voter's interest in serving as an election judge, if
indicated by the voter. The application must also contain the following certification of voter
eligibility:

"I certify that I:

(1) will be at least 18 years old on election day;

(2) am a citizen of the United States;

(3) will have resided in Minnesota for 20 days immediately preceding election day;

(4) maintain residence at the address given on the registration form;

(5) am not under court-ordered guardianship in which the court order revokes my right
to vote;

(6) have not been found by a court to be legally incompetent to vote;

(7) deleted text beginhave the right to vote because, if I have been convicted of a felony, my felony sentence
has expired (been completed) or I have been discharged from my sentencedeleted text endnew text begin am not currently
incarcerated for a felony offensenew text end; and

(8) have read and understand the following statement: that giving false information is a
felony punishable by not more than five years imprisonment or a fine of not more than
$10,000, or both."

The certification must include boxes for the voter to respond to the following questions:

"(1) Are you a citizen of the United States?" and

"(2) Will you be 18 years old on or before election day?"

And the instruction:

"If you checked 'no' to either of these questions, do not complete this form."

The form of the voter registration application and the certification of voter eligibility
must be as provided in this subdivision and approved by the secretary of state. Voter
registration forms authorized by the National Voter Registration Act must also be accepted
as valid. The federal postcard application form must also be accepted as valid if it is not
deficient and the voter is eligible to register in Minnesota.

An individual may use a voter registration application to apply to register to vote in
Minnesota or to change information on an existing registration.

new text begin The secretary of state shall develop accurate and complete information in a single
publication about the voting rights of people who have been charged with or convicted of
a crime. This publication must be made available electronically to the state court administrator
for distribution to judges, court personnel, probation officers, and the commissioner of
corrections for distribution to corrections officials, parole and supervised release agents,
and the public.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 204C.10, is amended to read:

(a) An individual seeking to vote shall sign a polling place roster or voter signature
certificate which states that the individualnew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (1)new text end is at least 18 years of agedeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (2) isnew text end a citizen of the United Statesdeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (3)new text end has resided in Minnesota for 20 days immediately preceding the electiondeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (4)new text end maintains residence at the address showndeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (5)new text end is not under a guardianship in which the court order revokes the individual's right to
votedeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (6)new text end has not been found by a court of law to be legally incompetent to vote deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin;
new text end

new text begin (7)new text end has the right to vote because, if the individual was convicted of a felony, deleted text beginthe felony
sentence has expired or been completed ordeleted text end the individual has deleted text beginbeen discharged from the
sentence,deleted text endnew text begin completed the term of incarceration, if any, for the felony offense;
new text end

new text begin (8)new text end is registerednew text begin;new text end and

new text begin (9)new text end has not already voted in the election.

The roster must also state: "I understand that deliberately providing false information
is a felony punishable by not more than five years imprisonment and a fine of not more than
$10,000, or both."

(b) At the presidential nomination primary, the polling place roster must also state: "I
am in general agreement with the principles of the party for whose candidate I intend to
vote, and I understand that my choice of a party's ballot will be public information." This
statement must appear separately from the statements required in paragraph (a). The felony
penalty provided for in paragraph (a) does not apply to this paragraph.

(c) A judge may, before the applicant signs the roster or voter signature certificate,
confirm the applicant's name, address, and date of birth.

(d) After the applicant signs the roster or voter signature certificate, the judge shall give
the applicant a voter's receipt. The voter shall deliver the voter's receipt to the judge in
charge of ballots as proof of the voter's right to vote, and thereupon the judge shall hand to
the voter the ballot. The voters' receipts must be maintained during the time for notice of
filing an election contest.

(e) Whenever a challenged status appears on the polling place roster, an election judge
must ensure that the challenge is concealed or hidden from the view of any voter other than
the voter whose status is challenged.

new text begin The chief executive
officer of each state and local correctional facility shall designate an official within the
facility to provide the notice and application required under this section to persons to whom
the civil right to vote is restored by reason of the persons' release from actual incarceration.
The official shall maintain an adequate supply of voter registration applications and
informational materials for this purpose.
new text end

new text begin A notice of restoration of the civil right to vote and a
voter registration application must be provided as follows:
new text end

new text begin (1) the chief executive officer of each state and local correctional facility shall provide
the notice and application to a person being released from the facility following incarceration
for a felony-level offense; and
new text end

new text begin (2) a probation officer or supervised release agent shall provide the notice and application
to all individuals under correctional supervision for a felony-level offense.
new text end

new text begin The notice required by subdivision 2 must appear substantially
as follows:
new text end

new text begin "NOTICE OF RESTORATION OF YOUR RIGHT TO VOTE.
new text end

new text begin Your receipt of this notice today means that your right to vote in Minnesota has been
restored. Before you can vote on election day, you still need to register to vote. To register,
you may complete a voter registration application and return it to the Office of the Minnesota
Secretary of State. You may also register to vote in your polling place on election day. You
will not be permitted to cast a ballot until you register to vote. The first time you appear at
your polling place to cast a ballot, you may be required to provide proof of your current
residence."
new text end

new text begin A failure to provide proper notice as required by
this section does not prevent the restoration of the person's civil right to vote.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299A.55, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

(a) A railroad and pipeline safety
account is created in the special revenue fund. The account consists of funds collected under
subdivision 4 and funds donated, allotted, transferred, or otherwise provided to the account.

(b) deleted text begin$104,000deleted text endnew text begin $250,000new text end is annually appropriated from the railroad and pipeline safety
account to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency for environmental protection
activities related to railroad discharge preparedness under chapter 115E.

deleted text begin (c) $600,000 in fiscal year 2018 and $600,000 in fiscal year 2019 are appropriated from
the railroad and pipeline safety account to the commissioner of transportation for improving
safety at railroad grade crossings.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (d)deleted text endnew text begin (c)new text end Following the appropriation in deleted text beginparagraphsdeleted text endnew text begin paragraphnew text end (b) deleted text beginand (c)deleted text end, the remaining
money in the account is annually appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for the
purposes specified in subdivision 3.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299A.55, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

(a) The commissioner of public safety shall annually assess
$2,500,000 to railroad and pipeline companies based on the formula specified in paragraph
(b). The commissioner shall deposit funds collected under this subdivision in the railroad
and pipeline safety account under subdivision 2.

(b) The assessment for each railroad is 50 percent of the total annual assessment amount,
divided in equal proportion between applicable rail carriers based on route miles operated
in Minnesota. The assessment for each pipeline company is 50 percent of the total annual
assessment amount, divided in equal proportion between companies based on the yearly
aggregate gallons of oil and hazardous substance transported by pipeline in Minnesota.

deleted text begin (c) The assessments under this subdivision expire July 1, 2017.
deleted text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299A.706, is amended to read:

An alcohol enforcement account is created in the special revenue fund, consisting of
money credited to the account by law. Money in the account may be appropriated by law
for (1) costs of the Alcohol and Gambling Division related to administration and enforcement
of sections 340A.403, subdivision 4; 340A.414, subdivision 1a; deleted text beginanddeleted text end 340A.504, subdivision
7; new text beginand 340A.550, subdivisions 2, 4, 5, and 6; new text endand (2) costs of the State Patrol.

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299A.707, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin In fiscal year 2019 and each year thereafter, the commissioner
of management and budget shall transfer $461,000 from the general fund to the community
justice reinvestment account.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner of public
safety must appoint a statewide sex trafficking investigation coordinator who shall work in
the Office of Justice Programs. The coordinator must be a current or former law enforcement
officer or prosecutor with experience investigating or prosecuting trafficking-related offenses.
The coordinator must also have knowledge of services available to victims of sex trafficking
and Minnesota's child protection system. The coordinator serves at the pleasure of the
commissioner in the unclassified service.
new text end

new text begin The coordinator shall have the following duties:
new text end

new text begin (1) develop, coordinate, and facilitate training for law enforcement officers, prosecutors,
courts, child protection workers, social service providers, medical providers, and other
community members;
new text end

new text begin (2) establish standards for approved training and review compliance with those standards;
new text end

new text begin (3) coordinate and monitor multijurisdictional sex trafficking task forces;
new text end

new text begin (4) review, develop, promote, and monitor compliance with investigative protocols to
assure that law enforcement officers and prosecutors engage in best practices;
new text end

new text begin (5) provide technical assistance and advice related to the investigation and prosecution
of trafficking offenses and the treatment of victims;
new text end

new text begin (6) promote the efficient use of resources by addressing issues of deconfliction, providing
advice regarding questions of jurisdiction, and promoting the sharing of data between entities
investigating and prosecuting trafficking offenses;
new text end

new text begin (7) assist in the appropriate distribution of grants; and
new text end

new text begin (8) perform other duties necessary to ensure effective and efficient investigation and
prosecution of trafficking-related offenses.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299C.46, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

(a) The criminal justice data communications network
shall be used exclusively by:

(1) criminal justice agencies in connection with the performance of duties required by
law;

(2) agencies investigating federal security clearances of individuals for assignment or
retention in federal employment with duties related to national security, as required by
United States Code, title 5, section 9101;

(3) other agencies to the extent necessary to provide for protection of the public or
property in a declared emergency or disaster situation;

(4) noncriminal justice agencies statutorily mandated, by state or national law, to conduct
checks into state databases prior to disbursing licenses or providing benefits;

(5) the public authority responsible for child support enforcement in connection with
the performance of its duties;

(6) the public defender, as provided in section 611.272;

(7) a county attorney or the attorney general, as the county attorney's designee, for the
purpose of determining whether a petition for the civil commitment of a proposed patient
as a sexual psychopathic personality or as a sexually dangerous person should be filed, and
during the pendency of the commitment proceedings;

(8) an agency of the state or a political subdivision whose access to systems or services
provided from or through the bureau is specifically authorized by federal law or regulation
or state statute; and

(9) a court for access to data as authorized by federal law or regulation or state statute
and related to the disposition of a pending case.

(b) The commissioner of public safety shall establish a monthly network access charge
to be paid by each participating criminal justice agency. The network access charge shall
be a standard fee established for each terminal, computer, or other equipment directly
addressable by the data communications network, as follows: January 1, 1984 to December
31, 1984, $40 connect fee per month; January 1, 1985 and thereafter, $50 connect fee per
month.

(c) The commissioner of public safety is authorized to arrange for the connection of the
data communications network with the criminal justice information system of the federal
government, any state, or country for the secure exchange of information for any of the
purposes authorized in paragraph (a), clauses (1), (2), (3), (8) and (9).

(d) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a criminal justice agency that is not part
of the Minnesota judicial branch must:

(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of or
use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data;

(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;

(3) agree to pay any required fees; and

(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees
and contractors as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(e) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a criminal justice agency that is part of the
Minnesota judicial branch must:

(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of or
use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data to the extent
applicable and with the Rules of Public Access to Records of the Judicial Branch promulgated
by the Minnesota Supreme Court;

(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;

(3) agree to pay any required fees; and

(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees
and contractors as required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(f) Prior to establishing a secure connection, a noncriminal justice agency must:

(1) agree to comply with all applicable policies governing access to, submission of or
use of the data and Minnesota law governing the classification of the data;

(2) meet the bureau's security requirements;

(3) agree to pay any required fees; and

(4) conduct fingerprint-based state and national background checks on its employees
and contractors.

(g) Those noncriminal justice agencies that do not have a secure network connection
yet receive data either retrieved over the secure network by an authorized criminal justice
agency or as a result of a state or federal criminal history records check shall conduct a
background check as provided in paragraph (h) of those individuals who receive and review
the data to determine another individual's eligibility for employment, housing, a license, or
another legal right dependent on a statutorily mandated background checknew text begin and on any
contractor with access to the results of a federal criminal history records checknew text end.

(h) The background check required by paragraph (f) or (g) is accomplished by submitting
a request to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension that includes a
signed, written consent for the Minnesota and national criminal history records check,
fingerprints, and the required fee. The superintendent may exchange the fingerprints with
the Federal Bureau of Investigation for purposes of obtaining the individual's national
criminal history record information.

The superintendent shall return the results of the national criminal history records check to
the noncriminal justice agency to determine if the individual is qualified to have access to
state and federal criminal history record information or the secure network. An individual
is disqualified when the state and federal criminal history record information show any of
the disqualifiers that the individual will apply to the records of others.

When the individual is to have access to the secure network, the noncriminal justice agency
shall review the criminal history of each employee or contractor with the Criminal Justice
Information Services systems officer at the bureau, or the officer's designee, to determine
if the employee or contractor qualifies for access to the secure network. The Criminal Justice
Information Services systems officer or the designee shall make the access determination
based on Federal Bureau of Investigation policy and Bureau of Criminal Apprehension
policy.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299F.857, is amended to read:

The reduced cigarette ignition propensity account is established in the state treasury.
The account consists of all money recovered as penalties under section 299F.854 and fees
collected under section 299F.852, subdivision 5. The money must be deposited to the credit
of the account and, in addition to any other money made available for such purpose, is
appropriated to the state fire marshal for costs associated withnew text begin the development and
presentation of fire and life safety education programs throughout Minnesota, and all costs
associated withnew text end sections 299F.850 to 299F.859.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 340A.22, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

A microdistillery may be issued a license by the local licensing
authority for off-sale of distilled spiritsnew text begin, with the approval of the commissionernew text end. The license
may allow the sale of one 375 milliliter bottle per customer per day of product manufactured
on site, subject to the following requirements:

(1) off-sale hours of sale must conform to hours of sale for retail off-sale licensees in
the licensing municipality; and

(2) no brand may be sold at the microdistillery unless it is also available for distribution
by wholesalers.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 340A.304, is amended to read:

The commissioner shall revoke, or suspend for up to 60 days, a license issued under
section 340A.301 deleted text beginordeleted text endnew text begin,new text end 340A.302,new text begin or 340A.550,new text end or impose a fine of up to $2,000 for each
violation, on a finding that the licensee has violated a state law or rule of the commissioner
relating to the possession, sale, transportation, or importation of alcoholic beverages. A
license revocation or suspension under this section is a contested case under sections 14.57
to 14.69 of the Administrative Procedure Act.

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 340A.417, is amended to read:

(a) Notwithstanding section 297G.07, subdivision 2, or any provision of this chapternew text begin
except for section 340A.550new text end, a winery licensed in a state other than Minnesota, or a winery
located in Minnesota, may ship, for personal use and not for resale, not more than deleted text begintwo casesdeleted text endnew text begin
12 casesnew text end of wine, containing a maximum of nine liters per case, in any calendar year to any
resident of Minnesota age 21 or over. deleted text beginDelivery of a shipment under this section may not be
deemed a sale in this state.
deleted text end

(b) The shipping container of any wine sent under this section must be clearly marked
"Alcoholic Beverages: adult signature (over 21 years of age) required."

(c) It is not the intent of this section to impair the distribution of wine through distributors
or importing distributors, but only to permit shipments of wine for personal use.

(d) new text beginExcept for a violation of section 295.75 or chapters 297A and 297G, new text endno criminal
penalty may be imposed on a person for a violation of this sectionnew text begin or section 340A.550new text end
other than a violation described in paragraph (e) or (f). Whenever it appears to the
commissioner that any person has engaged in any act or practice constituting a violation of
this sectiondeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin or section 340A.550new text end and the violation is not within two years of any previous
violation of this section, the commissioner shall issue and cause to be served upon the person
an order requiring the person to cease and desist from violating this section. The order must
give reasonable notice of the rights of the person to request a hearing and must state the
reason for the entry of the order. Unless otherwise agreed between the parties, a hearing
shall be held not later than deleted text beginsevendeleted text endnew text begin 20new text end days after the request for the hearing is received by the
commissioner after which and within 20 days after the receipt of the administrative law
judge's report and subsequent exceptions and argument, the commissioner shall issue an
order vacating the cease and desist order, modifying it, or making it permanent as the facts
require. If no hearing is requested within 30 days of the service of the order, the order
becomes final and remains in effect until modified or vacated by the commissioner. All
hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 14. If the person
to whom a cease and desist order is issued fails to appear at the hearing after being duly
notified, the person shall be deemed in default, and the proceeding may be determined
against the person upon consideration of the cease and desist order, the allegations of which
may be deemed to be true.

(e) Any person who violates this sectionnew text begin or section 340A.550new text end within two years of a
violation for which a cease and desist order was issued under paragraph (d), is guilty of a
misdemeanor.

(f) Any person who commits a third or subsequent violation of this sectionnew text begin or section
340A.550new text end within any subsequent two-year period is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

new text begin (a) "Direct ship purchaser" means a person who purchases
wine for personal use and not for resale from a winery located in a state other than Minnesota
for delivery to a Minnesota address.
new text end

new text begin (b) "Direct ship winery" means a winery licensed in a state other than Minnesota that
manufactures and makes a retail sale of wine and ships the wine to a direct ship purchaser
as authorized under section 340A.417.
new text end

new text begin (a) A direct ship winery must apply to the commissioner
for a direct ship license. The commissioner must not issue a license under this section unless
the applicant:
new text end

new text begin (1) is a licensed winery in a state other than Minnesota and provides a copy of its current
license in any state in which it is licensed to manufacture wine;
new text end

new text begin (2) provides a shipping address list, including all addresses from which it intends to ship
wine;
new text end

new text begin (3) agrees to comply with the requirements of subdivision 4; and
new text end

new text begin (4) consents to the jurisdiction of the Departments of Public Safety and Revenue, the
courts of this state, and any statute, law, or rule in this state related to the administration or
enforcement of this section, including any provision authorizing the commissioners of public
safety and revenue to audit a direct ship winery for compliance with this and any related
section.
new text end

new text begin (b) A direct ship winery obtaining a license under this section must annually renew its
license by January 1 of each year and must inform the commissioner at the time of renewal
of any changes to the information previously provided in paragraph (a).
new text end

new text begin (c) The application fee for a license is $170. The fee for a license renewal is $170. The
commissioner must deposit all fees received under this subdivision in the alcohol enforcement
account in the special revenue fund established under section 299A.706.
new text end

new text begin (a) A direct ship winery may only ship
wine from an address provided to the commissioner as required in subdivision 2, paragraph
(a), clause (2), or through a third-party provider whose name and address the licensee
provided to the commissioner in its application for a license.
new text end

new text begin (b) A direct ship winery or its third-party provider may only ship wine from the direct
ship winery's own production.
new text end

new text begin A direct ship winery must:
new text end

new text begin (1) collect and remit the liquor gross receipts tax as required in section 295.75;
new text end

new text begin (2) apply for a permit as required in section 297A.83 and collect and remit the sales and
use tax imposed as required in chapter 297A;
new text end

new text begin (3) remit the tax as required in chapter 297G; and
new text end

new text begin (4) provide a statement to the commissioner, on a form prescribed by the commissioner,
detailing each shipment of wine made to a resident of this state and any other information
required by the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (a) Data collected,
created, or maintained by the commissioner as required under this section are classified as
private data on individuals or nonpublic data, as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 9
and 12.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner must share data classified as private or nonpublic under this
section with the commissioner of revenue for purposes of administering section 295.75 and
chapters 289A, 297A, and 297G.
new text end

new text begin Section 340A.417, paragraphs (d) to (f), apply to this
section.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

new text begin Each common carrier that contracts with a
winery under section 340A.417 for delivery of wine into this state must file with the
commissioner a monthly report of known wine shipments made by the carrier. The report
must be made in a form and manner as prescribed by the commissioner and must contain:
new text end

new text begin (1) the name of the common carrier making the report;
new text end

new text begin (2) the period of time covered by the report;
new text end

new text begin (3) the name and business address of the consignor;
new text end

new text begin (4) the name and address of the consignee;
new text end

new text begin (5) the weight of the package delivered to the consignee;
new text end

new text begin (6) a unique tracking number; and
new text end

new text begin (7) the date of delivery.
new text end

new text begin Upon written request by the commissioner,
any records supporting the report in subdivision 1 must be made available to the
commissioner within 30 days of the request. Any records containing information relating
to a required report must be retained and preserved for a period of two years, unless
destruction of the records prior to the end of the two-year period is authorized in writing
by the commissioner. All retained records must be open and available for inspection by the
commissioner upon written request. The commissioner must make the required reports
available to any law enforcement agency or regulatory body of any local government in
this state in which the common carrier making the report resides or does business.
new text end

new text begin If a common carrier willfully violates the requirement to report a
delivery as required under this section or violates any rule related to the administration and
enforcement of this section, the commissioner must notify the common carrier in writing
of the violation. The commissioner may impose a fine in an amount not to exceed $500 for
each subsequent violation.
new text end

new text begin This section does not apply to common carriers regulated as
provided by United States Code, title 49, section 10101, et. seq., or to rail
trailer-on-flatcar/container-on-flatcar (TOFC/COFC) service, as provided by Code of Federal
Regulations, title 49, section 1090.1, or highway TOFC/COFC service provided by a rail
carrier, either itself or jointly with a motor carrier, as part of continuous intermodal freight
transportation, including, without limitation, any other TOFC/COFC transportation as
defined under federal law.
new text end

new text begin (a) Data collected,
created, or maintained by the commissioner as required under subdivision 1, clauses (4) to
(6), are classified as private data on individuals or nonpublic data, as defined in section
13.02, subdivisions 9 and 12.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 403.02, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin "911 telecommunicator" means a person employed
by a public safety answering point, an emergency medical dispatch service provider, or
both, who is qualified to answer incoming emergency telephone calls or provide for the
appropriate emergency response either directly or through communication with the
appropriate public safety answering point.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 403.03, is amended to read:

Services available through a 911 system
must include police, firefighting, and emergency medical and ambulance services. Other
emergency and civil defense services may be incorporated into the 911 system at the
discretion of the public agency operating the public safety answering point. The 911 system
may include a referral to mental health crisis teams, where available.

new text begin (a) On or before July
1, 2021, every public safety answering point must maintain a telephone cardiopulmonary
resuscitation program by either:
new text end

new text begin (1) providing each 911 telecommunicator with training in cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
or
new text end

new text begin (2) transferring callers to another public safety answering point with 911
telecommunicators that have received training in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
new text end

new text begin (b) Training in cardiopulmonary resuscitation must, at a minimum, include:
new text end

new text begin (1) use of an evidence-based protocol or script for providing cardiopulmonary
resuscitation instruction that has been recommended by an academic institution or a nationally
recognized organization specializing in medical dispatch and, if the public safety answering
point has a medical director, approved by that medical director; and
new text end

new text begin (2) appropriate continuing education, as determined by the evidence-based protocol for
providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation instruction and, if the public safety answering
point has a medical director, approved by that medical director.
new text end

new text begin (c) A public safety answering point that transfers callers to another public safety
answering point must, at a minimum:
new text end

new text begin (1) use an evidence-based protocol for the identification of a person in need of
cardiopulmonary resuscitation;
new text end

new text begin (2) provide each 911 telecommunicator with appropriate training and continuing education
to identify a person in need of cardiopulmonary resuscitation through the use of an
evidence-based protocol; and
new text end

new text begin (3) ensure that any public safety answering point to which calls are transferred uses 911
telecommunicators who meet the training requirements under paragraph (b).
new text end

new text begin (d) Each public safety answering point shall conduct ongoing quality assurance of its
telephone cardiopulmonary resuscitation program.
new text end

new text begin The Statewide Emergency
Communications Board shall adopt protocols to ensure that operators of every public safety
answering point comply with subdivision 2.
new text end

new text begin (a) new text end new text begin If a caller refuses or is otherwise unwilling or unable
to provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation or receive telephone cardiopulmonary resuscitation
instruction, the 911 telecommunicator is not required to provide cardiopulmonary
resuscitation instruction and is immune from civil liability for any damages resulting from
the fact that such instruction was not provided.
new text end

new text begin (b) Telephone cardiopulmonary resuscitation instruction is a general duty to the public
rather than a special duty owed to individuals, and a 911 telecommunicator must exercise
judgment and discretion in performing actions including but not limited to:
new text end

new text begin (1) determining whether a particular situation requires instituting the cardiopulmonary
resuscitation program;
new text end

new text begin (2) determining whether a caller refuses or is otherwise unable or unwilling to provide
cardiopulmonary resuscitation or receive telephone cardiopulmonary resuscitation instruction;
new text end

new text begin (3) using and appropriately adapting an evidence-based protocol or script for providing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation instruction based on individual callers and emergency
situations presented by callers; and
new text end

new text begin (4) determining when to transfer a caller to another public safety answering point with
911 telecommunicators that have received training in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.165, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

deleted text beginWhendeleted text endnew text begin Except as provided in section 201.014, subdivision
2a, whennew text end a person has been deprived of civil rights by reason of conviction of a crime and
is thereafter discharged, such discharge shall restore the person to all civil rights and to full
citizenshipdeleted text begin, with full right to vote and hold office,deleted text end the same as if such conviction had not
taken place, and the order of discharge shall so provide.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.582, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

new text begin(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section,
new text end whoever enters a building without consent and with intent to steal or commit any felony or
gross misdemeanor while in the building, or enters a building without consent and steals or
commits a felony or gross misdemeanor while in the building, either directly or as an
accomplice, commits burglary in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both.

new text begin (b) Whoever enters a building while it is open to the public, other than a building
identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), with intent to steal while in the building, or enters
a building while it is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2,
paragraph (b), and steals while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits
burglary in the third degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five
years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if:
new text end

new text begin (1) the person enters the building within one year after being served with a valid civil
trespass notice instructing the person to leave the building and not return; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the person has been convicted within the preceding five years for an offense under
this section, section 256.98, 268.182, 609.24, 609.245, 609.52, 609.53, 609.625, 609.63,
609.631, or 609.821, or a statute from another state, the United States, or a foreign
jurisdiction, in conformity with any of those sections, and the person received a felony
sentence for the offense, or a sentence that was stayed under section 609.135 if the offense
to which a plea was entered would allow imposition of a felony sentence.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.582, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

new text begin(a) new text endWhoever enters a building without consent
and with intent to commit a misdemeanor other than to steal, or enters a building without
consent and commits a misdemeanor other than to steal while in the building, either directly
or as an accomplice, commits burglary in the fourth degree and may be sentenced to
imprisonment for not more than one year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000,
or both.

new text begin (b) Whoever enters a building while it is open to the public, other than a building
identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), with intent to steal while in the building, or enters
a building while it is open to the public, other than a building identified in subdivision 2,
paragraph (b), and steals while in the building, either directly or as an accomplice, commits
burglary in the fourth degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than one
year or to payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both if the person enters the building
within one year after being served with a valid civil trespass notice instructing the person
to leave the building and not return.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.749, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

As used in this section, deleted text begin"stalking"deleted text endnew text begin "harass"new text end means to engage
in conduct which the actor knows or has reason to know would cause the victim under the
circumstances to feel frightened, threatened, oppressed, persecuted, or intimidated, and
causes this reaction on the part of the victim regardless of the relationship between the actor
and victim.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.749, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

A person who deleted text beginstalksdeleted text endnew text begin harassesnew text end another by
committing any of the following acts is guilty of a gross misdemeanor:

(1) directly or indirectly, or through third parties, manifests a purpose or intent to injure
the person, property, or rights of another by the commission of an unlawful act;

(2) follows, monitors, or pursues another, whether in person or through any available
technological or other means;

(3) returns to the property of another if the actor is without claim of right to the property
or consent of one with authority to consent;

(4) repeatedly makes telephone calls, sends text messages, or induces a victim to make
telephone calls to the actor, whether or not conversation ensues;

(5) makes or causes the telephone of another repeatedly or continuously to ring;

(6) repeatedly mails or delivers or causes the delivery by any means, including
electronically, of letters, telegrams, messages, packages, through assistive devices for people
with vision impairments or hearing loss, or any communication made through any available
technologies or other objects;

(7) knowingly makes false allegations against a peace officer concerning the officer's
performance of official duties with intent to influence or tamper with the officer's
performance of official duties; or

(8) uses another's personal information, without consent, to invite, encourage, or solicit
a third party to engage in a sexual act with the person.

For purposes of this clause, "personal information" and "sexual act" have the meanings
given in section 617.261, subdivision 7.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.749, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

(a) A person who commits any of the following acts
is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or
to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both:

(1) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 because of the victim's or another's
actual or perceived race, color, religion, sex, sexual orientation, disability as defined in
section 363A.03, age, or national origin;

(2) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 by falsely impersonating another;

(3) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 and possesses a dangerous weapon
at the time of the offense;

(4) deleted text beginstalksdeleted text endnew text begin harassesnew text end another, as defined in subdivision 1, with intent to influence or
otherwise tamper with a juror or a judicial proceeding or with intent to retaliate against a
judicial officer, as defined in section 609.415, or a prosecutor, defense attorney, or officer
of the court, because of that person's performance of official duties in connection with a
judicial proceeding; or

(5) commits any offense described in subdivision 2 against a victim under the age of
18, if the actor is more than 36 months older than the victim.

(b) A person who commits any offense described in subdivision 2 against a victim under
the age of 18, if the actor is more than 36 months older than the victim, and the act is
committed with sexual or aggressive intent, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to
imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000,
or both.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.749, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

(a) A person who engages in deleted text begina pattern ofdeleted text end stalking
deleted text begin conductdeleted text end with respect to a single victim or one or more members of a single household which
the actor knows or has reason to know would cause the victim under the circumstances to
feel terrorized or to fear bodily harm and which does cause this reaction on the part of the
victim, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten
years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both.

(b) For purposes of this subdivision, deleted text begina "pattern of stalking conduct"deleted text endnew text begin "stalking"new text end means
two or more acts within a five-year period that violate or attempt to violate the provisions
of any of the following or a similar law of another state, the United States, the District of
Columbia, tribe, or United States territories:

(1) this section;

(2) sections 609.185 to 609.205 (first- to third-degree murder and first- and second-degree
manslaughter);

(3) section 609.713 (terroristic threats);

(4) section 609.224 (fifth-degree assault);

(5) section 609.2242 (domestic assault);

(6) section 518B.01, subdivision 14 (violations of domestic abuse orders for protection);

(7) section 609.748, subdivision 6 (violations of harassment restraining orders);

(8) section 609.605, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clauses (3), (4), and (7) (certain trespass
offenses);

(9) section 609.78, subdivision 2 (interference with an emergency call);

(10) section 609.79 (obscene or harassing telephone calls);

(11) section 609.795 (letter, telegram, or package; opening; harassment);

(12) section 609.582 (burglary);

(13) section 609.595 (damage to property);

(14) section 609.765 (criminal defamation);

(15) sections 609.342 to 609.3451 (first- to fifth-degree criminal sexual conduct); or

(16) section 629.75, subdivision 2 (violations of domestic abuse no contact orders).

(c) Words set forth in parentheses after references to statutory sections in paragraph (b)
are mere catchwords included solely for convenience in reference. They are not substantive
and may not be used to construe or limit the meaning of the cited statutory provision.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.749, subdivision 8, is amended to read:

(a) When a person is convicted of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin
harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end under this section and the court determines that the person
used a firearm in any way during commission of the crime, the court may order that the
person is prohibited from possessing any type of firearm for any period longer than three
years or for the remainder of the person's life. A person who violates this paragraph is guilty
of a gross misdemeanor. At the time of the conviction, the court shall inform the defendant
for how long the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm and that it is a gross
misdemeanor to violate this paragraph. The failure of the court to provide this information
to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the
gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), when a person is convicted of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin
harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end under this section, the court shall inform the defendant that
the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm for three years from the date of
conviction and that it is a gross misdemeanor offense to violate this prohibition. The failure
of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of
the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), a person is not entitled to possess a
pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1, 1996, of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin harassment ornew text end stalking
deleted text begin crimedeleted text end under this section, or to possess a firearm if the person has been convicted on or after
August 1, 2014, of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end under this section, unless three years
have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been
convicted of any other violation of this section. Property rights may not be abated but access
may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a firearm in violation of this
paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

(d) If the court determines that a person convicted of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end
under this section owns or possesses a firearm and used it in any way during the commission
of the crime, it shall order that the firearm be summarily forfeited under section 609.5316,
subdivision 3.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (d) and (g), when a person is convicted
of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end under this section, the court shall order the defendant to
transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally
licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully
receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary. A temporary firearm transfer
only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer
ownership or title. A defendant may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with
the defendant. If a defendant makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer
or law enforcement agency may charge the defendant a reasonable fee to store the person's
firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such
policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned
firearms. For temporary firearms transfers under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency,
federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the
quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to
the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period imposed under
this subdivision, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms
under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to a defendant
shall comply with state and federal law. If a defendant permanently transfers the defendant's
firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the defendant
and may charge the defendant a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is
not required to accept a person's firearm under this paragraph. The court shall order that the
person surrender all permits to carry and purchase firearms to the sheriff.

(f) A defendant who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (e) must file proof
of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third
party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that
the defendant permanently transferred the defendant's firearms to the third party or agreeing
to temporarily store the defendant's firearms until such time as the defendant is legally
permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and
model of all firearms transferred by the defendant to the third party. The third party shall
acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly
responsible under section 624.7144 if the defendant gains access to a transferred firearm
while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement
agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally
licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the defendant. The proof of transfer
must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include
the name of the defendant, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all
transferred firearms. The defendant shall provide the court with a signed and notarized
affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the
firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this
paragraph.

(g) When a person is convicted of deleted text beginadeleted text endnew text begin harassment ornew text end stalking deleted text begincrimedeleted text end under this section, the
court shall determine by a preponderance of the evidence if the person poses an imminent
risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk,
the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of
all firearms in the person's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due
care to preserve the quality and function of the defendant's firearms and shall return the
firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period,
provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or
federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the person,
transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully
receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph,
the agency shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the
firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for
affidavits or proofs of transfer established in paragraph (f). The agency shall file all affidavits
or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The
court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally
licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this
paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (e) and (f) as if accepting transfer from the defendant.
If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the defendant within
three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the defendant's firearms.
A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms,
provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal
of abandoned firearms.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 624.712, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

"Crime of violence" means: felony convictions of the
following offenses: sections 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the
second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first
degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.215 (aiding suicide and aiding
attempted suicide); 609.221 (assault in the first degree); 609.222 (assault in the second
degree); 609.223 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree);
609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242 (domestic assault); 609.2247 (domestic
assault by strangulation); 609.229 (crimes committed for the benefit of a gang); 609.235
(use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.245 (aggravated
robbery); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.322 (solicitation,
inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking); 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct
in the first degree); 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); 609.344 (criminal
sexual conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree);
609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child);
609.486 (commission of crime while wearing or possessing a bullet-resistant vest); 609.52
(involving theft of a firearm and theft involving the theft of a controlled substance, an
explosive, or an incendiary device); 609.561 (arson in the first degree); 609.562 (arson in
the second degree); 609.582, subdivision 1 or 2 (burglary in the first and second degrees);
609.66, subdivision 1e (drive-by shooting); 609.67 (unlawfully owning, possessing, operating
a machine gun or short-barreled shotgun); 609.71 (riot); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.749
deleted text begin (stalking)deleted text endnew text begin (harassment)new text end; 609.855, subdivision 5 (shooting at a public transit vehicle or
facility); and chapter 152 (drugs, controlled substances); and an attempt to commit any of
these offenses.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 634.20, is amended to read:

Evidence of domestic conduct by the accused against the victim of domestic conduct,
or against other family or household members, is admissible unless the probative value is
substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issue, or
misleading the jury, or by considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless
presentation of cumulative evidence. "Domestic conduct" includes, but is not limited to,
evidence of domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection under section 518B.01;
violation of a harassment restraining order under section 609.748; new text beginviolation of a domestic
abuse no contact order under section 629.75; new text endor violation of section 609.749 or 609.79,
subdivision 1. "Domestic abuse" and "family or household members" have the meanings
given under section 518B.01, subdivision 2.

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

new text begin (a) By September 1, 2019, the commissioner, in
consultation with the Minnesota Indian Affairs Council, shall appoint members to the Task
Force on Missing and Murdered Indigenous Women to advise the commissioner and report
to the legislature on recommendations to reduce and end violence against indigenous women
and girls in Minnesota, including members of the two spirit community. The task force may
also serve as a liaison between the commissioner and agencies and nongovernmental
organizations that provide services to victims, victims' families, and victims' communities.
Task force members may receive expense reimbursement as specified in Minnesota Statutes,
section 15.059, subdivision 6.
new text end

new text begin (b) The Task Force on Missing and Murdered Indigenous Women must examine and
report on the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) the systemic causes behind violence that indigenous women and girls experience,
including patterns and underlying factors that explain why disproportionately high levels
of violence occur against indigenous women and girls, including underlying historical,
social, economic, institutional, and cultural factors which may contribute to the violence;
new text end

new text begin (2) appropriate methods for tracking and collecting data on violence against indigenous
women and girls, including data on missing and murdered indigenous women and girls;
new text end

new text begin (3) policies and institutions such as policing, child welfare, coroner practices, and other
governmental practices that impact violence against indigenous women and girls and the
investigation and prosecution of crimes of gender violence against indigenous people;
new text end

new text begin (4) measures necessary to address and reduce violence against indigenous women and
girls; and
new text end

new text begin (5) measures to help victims, victims' families, and victims' communities prevent and
heal from violence that occurs against indigenous women and girls.
new text end

new text begin (c) For the purposes of this section, "commissioner" means the commissioner of public
safety and "nongovernmental organizations" means nonprofit, nongovernmental organizations
that provide legal, social, or other community services.
new text end

new text begin (a) To the extent practicable, the Task Force on Missing and
Murdered Indigenous Women shall consist of the following individuals, or their designees,
who are knowledgeable in crime victims' rights or violence protection and, unless otherwise
specified, members shall be appointed by the commissioner:
new text end

new text begin (1) two members of the senate, one appointed by the majority leader and one appointed
by the minority leader;
new text end

new text begin (2) two members of the house of representatives, one appointed by the speaker of the
house and one appointed by the minority leader;
new text end

new text begin (3) two representatives from among the following:
new text end

new text begin (i) the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association;
new text end

new text begin (ii) the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association;
new text end

new text begin (iii) the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension;
new text end

new text begin (iv) the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers Association; or
new text end

new text begin (v) a peace officer who works for and resides on a federally recognized American Indian
reservation in Minnesota;
new text end

new text begin (4) one or more representatives from among the following:
new text end

new text begin (i) the Minnesota County Attorneys Association;
new text end

new text begin (ii) the United States Attorney's Office; or
new text end

new text begin (iii) a judge or attorney working in juvenile court;
new text end

new text begin (5) a county coroner or a representative from a statewide coroner's association or a
representative of the Department of Health;
new text end

new text begin (6) one representative from each of the 11 federally recognized tribal governments, with
a preference for individuals who work with victims of violence or their families; and
new text end

new text begin (7) four or more representatives from among the following:
new text end

new text begin (i) a tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides legal services to indigenous
women and girls;
new text end

new text begin (ii) a tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides advocacy or counseling for
indigenous women and girls who have been victims of violence;
new text end

new text begin (iii) a tribal, statewide, or local organization that provides services to indigenous women
and girls;
new text end

new text begin (iv) the Minnesota Indian Women's Sexual Assault Coalition;
new text end

new text begin (v) Mending the Sacred Hoop;
new text end

new text begin (vi) an Indian health organization or agency; or
new text end

new text begin (vii) an indigenous woman who is a survivor of gender violence.
new text end

new text begin (b) Members of the task force serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority or until
the task force expires. Vacancies in commissioner appointed positions shall be filled by the
commissioner consistent with the qualifications of the vacating member required by this
subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (a) The task force members shall annually elect a chair
and vice-chair from among the task force's members, and may elect other officers as
necessary. The task force shall meet at least quarterly, or upon the call of its chair, and may
hold meetings throughout the state. The task force shall meet sufficiently enough to
accomplish the tasks identified in this section. Meetings of the task force are subject to
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13D. The task force shall seek out and enlist the cooperation
and assistance of nongovernmental organizations, community and advocacy organizations
working with the American Indian community, and academic researchers and experts,
specifically those specializing in violence against indigenous women and girls, representing
diverse communities disproportionately affected by violence against women and girls, or
focusing on issues related to gender violence and violence against indigenous women and
girls.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner shall convene the first meeting of the task force no later than
October 1, 2019, and shall provide meeting space and administrative assistance as necessary
for the task force to conduct its work.
new text end

new text begin The task force shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members
of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety, human services, and state
government on the work of the task force, including but not limited to the issues to be
examined in subdivision 1, and shall include in the report institutional policies and practices
or proposed institutional policies and practices that are effective in reducing gender violence
and increasing the safety of indigenous women and girls. The report shall include
recommendations to reduce and end violence against indigenous women and girls and help
victims and communities heal from gender violence and violence against indigenous women
and girls. The report shall be submitted to the legislative committees by December 15, 2020.
new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 15.059, the task force
expires December 31, 2020.
new text end

new text begin The governor is encouraged to appoint an interagency opioid enforcement coordinator
to perform the following duties:
new text end

new text begin (1) coordinate the statewide response to opioid abuse;
new text end

new text begin (2) develop, coordinate, and facilitate training for law enforcement officers, prosecutors,
courts, child protection workers, social service providers, medical providers, and other
community members;
new text end

new text begin (3) promote the efficient use of resources; and
new text end

new text begin (4) consult with local government officials, representatives from other states, and federal
officials to monitor local and national trends relating to opioid abuse and responses to that
abuse.
new text end

new text begin The revisor of statutes shall make any cross-reference changes, language changes, or
both to Minnesota Statutes made necessary by section 24.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 13.851, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin The treatment of data collected by a sheriff or local
corrections agency related to individuals who may have a mental illness is governed by
section 641.15, subdivision 3a.
new text end

new text begin The following data maintained by the ombudsman for
corrections are classified as private data, pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 12:
new text end

new text begin (1) all data on individuals pertaining to contacts made by clients seeking the assistance
of the ombudsman, except as specified in subdivisions 2 and 3;
new text end

new text begin (2) data recorded from personal and phone conversations and in correspondence between
the ombudsman's staff and persons interviewed during the course of an investigation;
new text end

new text begin (3) client index cards;
new text end

new text begin (4) case assignment data; and
new text end

new text begin (5) monthly closeout data.
new text end

new text begin The written summary of the investigation maintained by
the ombudsman is, to the extent it identifies individuals, classified as confidential data,
pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 3.
new text end

new text begin The following data maintained by the ombudsman are classified
as public data pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 15:
new text end

new text begin (1) client name;
new text end

new text begin (2) client location; and
new text end

new text begin (3) the inmate identification number assigned by the Department of Corrections.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman for corrections has access to corrections and
detention data and medical data as provided under section 241.94.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 15A.0815, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

The salary for a position listed in this subdivision shall
not exceed 120 percent of the salary of the governor. This limit must be adjusted annually
on January 1. The new limit must equal the limit for the prior year increased by the percentage
increase, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers from October of the
second prior year to October of the immediately prior year. The commissioner of management
and budget must publish the limit on the department's website. This subdivision applies to
the following positions:

Executive director of Gambling Control Board;

Commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation;

Commissioner, Bureau of Mediation Services;

Ombudsman for mental health and developmental disabilities;

new text begin Ombudsman for corrections;
new text end

Chair, Metropolitan Council;

School trust lands director;

Executive director of pari-mutuel racing; and

Commissioner, Public Utilities Commission.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.121, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:

(a) A facility with ionizing
radiation-producing equipment must pay an annual initial or annual renewal registration
fee consisting of a base facility fee of $100 and an additional fee for each radiation source,
as follows:

(1)	medical or veterinary equipment	$	100
(2)	dental x-ray equipment	$	40
(3)	x-ray equipment not used on humans or animals	$	100
(4)	devices with sources of ionizing radiation not used on humans or animals	$	100
new text begin (5) new text end	new text begin security screening system new text end	new text begin $ new text end	new text begin 100 new text end

(b) A facility with radiation therapy and accelerator equipment must pay an annual
registration fee of $500. A facility with an industrial accelerator must pay an annual
registration fee of $150.

new text begin (d) For purposes of this section, a security screening system means radiation-producing
equipment designed and used for security screening of humans who are in the custody of a
correctional or detention facility, and used by the facility to image and identify contraband
items concealed within or on all sides of a human body. For purposes of this section, a
correctional or detention facility is a facility licensed under section 241.021 and operated
by a state agency or political subdivision charged with detection, enforcement, or
incarceration in respect to state criminal and traffic laws.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 144.121, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin (a) An employee of a correctional or detention facility who operates a security
screening system and the facility in which the system is being operated are exempt from
the requirements of subdivisions 5 and 6.
new text end

new text begin (b) An employee of a correctional or detention facility who operates a security screening
system and the facility in which the system is being operated must meet the requirements
of a variance to Minnesota Rules, parts 4732.0305 and 4732.0565, issued under Minnesota
Rules, parts 4717.7000 to 4717.7050. This paragraph expires on December 31 of the year
that the permanent rules adopted by the commissioner governing security screening systems
are published in the State Register.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 151.37, subdivision 12, is amended to read:

(a) A licensed
physician, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse authorized to prescribe drugs
pursuant to section 148.235, or a licensed physician assistant authorized to prescribe drugs
pursuant to section 147A.18 may authorize the following individuals to administer opiate
antagonists, as defined in section 604A.04, subdivision 1:

(1) an emergency medical responder registered pursuant to section 144E.27;

(2) a peace officer as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraphs (c) and (d);
deleted text begin and
deleted text end

(3) new text beginemployees of a correctional facility; and
new text end

new text begin (4) new text endstaff of community-based health disease prevention or social service programs.

(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, opiate antagonists may be administered by one
of these individuals only if:

(1) the licensed physician, licensed physician assistant, or licensed advanced practice
registered nurse has issued a standing order to, or entered into a protocol with, the individual;
and

(2) the individual has training in the recognition of signs of opiate overdose and the use
of opiate antagonists as part of the emergency response to opiate overdose.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 241.01, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:

The commissioner of corrections has the
following powers and duties:

(a) To accept persons committed to the commissioner by the courts of this state for care,
custody, and rehabilitation.

(b) To determine the place of confinement of committed persons in a correctional facility
or other facility of the Department of Corrections and to prescribe reasonable conditions
and rules for their employment, conduct, instruction, and discipline within or outside the
facility.new text begin After July 1, 2019, the commissioner shall not allow inmates to be housed in facilities
that are not owned and operated by the state, a local unit of government, or a group of local
units of government.new text end Inmates shall not exercise custodial functions or have authority over
other inmates.

(d) To administer, maintain, and inspect all state correctional facilities.

(e) To transfer authorized positions and personnel between state correctional facilities
as necessary to properly staff facilities and programs.

(f) To utilize state correctional facilities in the manner deemed to be most efficient and
beneficial to accomplish the purposes of this section, but not to close the Minnesota
Correctional Facility-Stillwater or the Minnesota Correctional Facility-St. Cloud without
legislative approval. The commissioner may place juveniles and adults at the same state
minimum security correctional facilities, if there is total separation of and no regular contact
between juveniles and adults, except contact incidental to admission, classification, and
mental and physical health care.

(g) To organize the department and employ personnel the commissioner deems necessary
to discharge the functions of the department, including a chief executive officer for each
facility under the commissioner's control who shall serve in the unclassified civil service
and may, under the provisions of section 43A.33, be removed only for cause.

(h) To define the duties of these employees and to delegate to them any of the
commissioner's powers, duties and responsibilities, subject to the commissioner's control
and the conditions the commissioner prescribes.

(i) To annually develop a comprehensive set of goals and objectives designed to clearly
establish the priorities of the Department of Corrections. This report shall be submitted to
the governor commencing January 1, 1976. The commissioner may establish ad hoc advisory
committees.

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 241.025, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

The commissioner of corrections may appoint peace
officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), who shall serve in the
classified service subject to the provisions of section 43A.01, subdivision 2, and establish
a law enforcement agency, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (f), known
as the Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit, to perform the duties necessary
to make statewide arrests under sections 629.30 and 629.34. The jurisdiction of the law
enforcement agency is limited to the new text beginactivities related to the new text endarrest of Department of
Corrections' discretionary and statutory released violators and Department of Corrections'
escapees.new text begin The Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension Unit may exercise general
law enforcement duties upon request for assistance from a law enforcement agency and
subject to availability and resources of the Department of Corrections Fugitive Apprehension
Unit.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 241.025, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

The initial processing of a person arrested by the fugitive
apprehension unit for an offense deleted text beginwithin the agency's jurisdictiondeleted text end is the responsibility of the
fugitive apprehension unit unless otherwise directed by the law enforcement agency with
primary jurisdiction. A subsequent investigation is the responsibility of the law enforcement
agency of the jurisdiction in which a new crime is committed.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 241.75, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

The medical director of the Department of Corrections
may make a health care decision for an inmate incarcerated in a state correctional facility
new text begin or placed in an outside facility on conditional medical release new text endif the inmate's attending
physician determines that the inmate lacks decision-making capacity and:

(1) there is not a documented health care agent designated by the inmate or the health
care agent is not reasonably available to make the health care decision;

(2) if there is a documented health care directive, the decision is consistent with that
directive;

(3) the decision is consistent with reasonable medical practice and other applicable law;
and

(4) the medical director has made a good faith attempt to consult with the inmate's next
of kin or emergency contact person in making the decision, to the extent those persons are
reasonably available.

new text begin The Office of Ombudsman for the Department of Corrections is hereby created. The
ombudsman shall serve at the pleasure of the governor in the unclassified service, shall be
selected without regard to political affiliation, and shall be a person highly competent and
qualified to analyze questions of law, administration, and public policy. No person may
serve as ombudsman while holding any other public office. The ombudsman for corrections
shall be accountable to the governor and shall have the authority to investigate decisions,
acts, and other matters of the Department of Corrections so as to promote the highest
attainable standards of competence, efficiency, and justice in the administration of
corrections.
new text end

new text begin For the purposes of sections 241.90 to 241.95, "administrative agency" or "agency"
means any division, official, or employee of the Department of Corrections, including the
commissioner of corrections, charged with the care and custody of inmates and any regional
or local correctional facility licensed or inspected by the commissioner of corrections,
whether public or private, established and operated for the detention and confinement of
adults or juveniles, including but not limited to programs or facilities operating under chapter
401, secure juvenile detention facilities, municipal holding facilities, juvenile temporary
holdover facilities, regional or local jails, lockups, work houses, work farms, and detention
facilities, but does not include:
new text end

new text begin (1) any court or judge;
new text end

new text begin (2) any member of the senate or house of representatives;
new text end

new text begin (3) the governor or the governor's personal staff;
new text end

new text begin (4) any instrumentality of the federal government;
new text end

new text begin (5) any interstate compact; or
new text end

new text begin (6) any person responsible for the supervision of offenders placed on supervised release,
parole, or probation.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may select, appoint, and compensate
out of available funds assistants and employees as deemed necessary to discharge
responsibilities. The ombudsman and full-time staff shall be members of the Minnesota
State Retirement Association.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may appoint an assistant ombudsman
in the unclassified service.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may delegate to staff members any of
the ombudsman's authority or duties except the duty of formally making recommendations
to an administrative agency or reports to the Office of the Governor or to the legislature.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may:
new text end

new text begin (1) prescribe the methods by which complaints are to be made, reviewed, and acted
upon; provided, however, that the ombudsman may not levy a complaint fee;
new text end

new text begin (2) determine the scope and manner of investigations to be made;
new text end

new text begin (3) except as otherwise provided, determine the form, frequency, and distribution of
conclusions, recommendations, and proposals; provided, however, that the governor or a
representative may, at any time the governor deems necessary, request and receive
information from the ombudsman. Neither the ombudsman nor any member of the
ombudsman's staff shall be compelled to testify or to produce evidence in any judicial or
administrative proceeding with respect to any matter involving the exercise of the
ombudsman's official duties except as may be necessary to enforce the provisions of sections
241.90 to 241.95;
new text end

new text begin (4) investigate, upon a complaint or upon personal initiative, any action of an
administrative agency;
new text end

new text begin (5) request and be given access to information in the possession of an administrative
agency deemed necessary for the discharge of responsibilities;
new text end

new text begin (6) examine the records and documents of an administrative agency;
new text end

new text begin (7) enter and inspect, at any time, premises within the control of an administrative agency;
new text end

new text begin (8) subpoena any person to appear, give testimony, or produce documentary or other
evidence that the ombudsman deems relevant to a matter under inquiry, and may petition
the appropriate state court to seek enforcement with the subpoena; provided, however, that
any witness at a hearing or before an investigation shall possess the same privileges reserved
to a witness in the courts or under the laws of this state;
new text end

new text begin (9) bring an action in an appropriate state court to provide the operation of the powers
provided in this subdivision. The ombudsman may use the services of legal assistance to
Minnesota prisoners for legal counsel. The provisions of sections 241.90 to 241.95 are in
addition to other provisions of law under which any remedy or right of appeal or objection
is provided for any person, or any procedure provided for inquiry or investigation concerning
any matter. Nothing in sections 241.90 to 241.95 shall be construed to limit or affect any
other remedy or right of appeal or objection nor shall it be deemed part of an exclusionary
process; and
new text end

new text begin (10) be present at commissioner of corrections parole, supervised release, and parole
revocation hearings and deliberations.
new text end

new text begin No proceeding or civil action except removal
from office or a proceeding brought pursuant to chapter 13 shall be commenced against the
ombudsman for actions taken under the provisions of sections 241.90 to 241.95, unless the
act or omission is actuated by malice or is grossly negligent.
new text end

new text begin (a) In selecting matters for attention,
the ombudsman should particularly address actions of an administrative agency that may
be:
new text end

new text begin (1) contrary to law or rule;
new text end

new text begin (2) unreasonable, unfair, oppressive, or inconsistent with any policy or judgment of an
administrative agency;
new text end

new text begin (3) mistaken in law or arbitrary in the ascertainment of facts;
new text end

new text begin (4) unclear or inadequately explained when reasons should have been revealed; or
new text end

new text begin (5) inefficiently performed.
new text end

new text begin (b) The ombudsman may also be concerned with strengthening procedures and practices
that lessen the risk that objectionable actions of the administrative agency will occur.
new text end

new text begin (a) The ombudsman may receive a complaint from any source
concerning an action of an administrative agency. The ombudsman may, on personal motion
or at the request of another, investigate any action of an administrative agency.
new text end

new text begin (b) The ombudsman may exercise powers without regard to the finality of any action of
an administrative agency; however, the ombudsman may require a complainant to pursue
other remedies or channels of complaint open to the complainant before accepting or
investigating the complaint.
new text end

new text begin (c) After completing investigation of a complaint, the ombudsman shall inform the
complainant, the administrative agency, and the official or employee of the action taken.
new text end

new text begin (d) A letter to the ombudsman from a person in an institution under the control of an
administrative agency shall be forwarded immediately and unopened to the ombudsman's
office. A reply from the ombudsman to the person shall be promptly delivered unopened
to the person after its receipt by the institution.
new text end

new text begin (e) No complainant shall be punished nor shall the general condition of the complainant's
confinement or treatment be unfavorably altered as a result of the complainant having made
a complaint to the ombudsman.
new text end

new text begin Either the
ombudsman or the jail inspection unit of the Department of Corrections may investigate
complaints involving local adult jails and detention facilities. The ombudsman and
Department of Corrections must enter into an arrangement with one another that ensures
they are not duplicating services.
new text end

new text begin (a) If, after duly considering a complaint and whatever
material the ombudsman deems pertinent, the ombudsman is of the opinion that the complaint
is valid, the ombudsman may recommend that an administrative agency should:
new text end

new text begin (1) consider the matter further;
new text end

new text begin (2) modify or cancel its actions;
new text end

new text begin (3) alter a ruling;
new text end

new text begin (4) explain more fully the action in question; or
new text end

new text begin (5) take any other step that the ombudsman recommends to the administrative agency
involved.
new text end

new text begin If the ombudsman so requests, the agency shall, within the time the ombudsman specifies,
inform the ombudsman about the action taken on the ombudsman's recommendations or
the reasons for not complying with it.
new text end

new text begin (b) If the ombudsman has reason to believe that any public official or employee has
acted in a manner warranting criminal or disciplinary proceedings, the ombudsman may
refer the matter to the appropriate authorities.
new text end

new text begin (c) If the ombudsman believes that an action upon which a valid complaint is founded
has been dictated by a statute, and that the statute produces results or effects that are unfair
or otherwise objectionable, the ombudsman shall bring to the attention of the governor and
the legislature the ombudsman's view concerning desirable statutory change.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may apply for and receive grants from public and
private entities for purposes of carrying out the ombudsman's powers and duties under
sections 241.90 to 241.95.
new text end

new text begin Notwithstanding section 13.384 or 13.85, the ombudsman has access to corrections and
detention data and medical data maintained by an agency and classified as private data on
individuals or confidential data on individuals when access to the data is necessary for the
ombudsman to perform the powers under section 241.93.
new text end

new text begin The ombudsman may publish conclusions and suggestions
by transmitting them to the Office of the Governor. Before announcing a conclusion or
recommendation that expressly or impliedly criticizes an administrative agency or any
person, the ombudsman shall consult with that agency or person. When publishing an opinion
adverse to an administrative agency or any person, the ombudsman shall include in the
publication any statement of reasonable length made to the ombudsman by that agency or
person in defense or mitigation of the action.
new text end

new text begin In addition to whatever reports the ombudsman may make on
an ad hoc basis, the ombudsman shall report to the governor and the senate and house
committee chairs and ranking minority members for the committees and divisions with
fiscal and policy jurisdiction over public safety and corrections at the end of each year on
the ombudsman's functions during the preceding year.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 242.192, is amended to read:

The commissioner shall charge counties or other appropriate jurisdictions 65 percent of
the per diem cost of confinement, excluding educational costs and nonbillable service, of
juveniles at the Minnesota Correctional Facility-Red Wing and of juvenile females committed
to the commissioner of corrections. This charge applies to juveniles committed to the
commissioner of corrections and juveniles admitted to the Minnesota Correctional
Facility-Red Wing under established admissions criteria. This charge applies to both counties
that participate in the Community Corrections Act and those that do not. The commissioner
shall determine the per diem cost of confinement based on projected population, pricing
incentives, new text beginand new text endmarket conditionsdeleted text begin, and the requirement that expense and revenue balance
out over a period of two yearsdeleted text end. All money received under this section must be deposited in
the state treasury and credited to the general fund.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 243.48, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

The commissioner of corrections, the governor,
lieutenant governor, members of the legislature, deleted text beginanddeleted text end state officersnew text begin, and the ombudsman for
correctionsnew text end may visit the inmates at pleasure, but no other persons without permission of
the chief executive officer of the facility, under rules prescribed by the commissioner. A
moderate fee may be required of visitors, other than those allowed to visit at pleasure. All
fees so collected shall be reported and remitted to the commissioner of management and
budget under rules as the commissioner may deem proper, and when so remitted shall be
placed to the credit of the general fund.

new text begin In any adult correctional facility under the control of the
commissioner of corrections, the commissioner may require an inmate to be placed on
disciplinary segregation status for rule violations or on administrative segregation status
when the continued presence of the inmate in general population would pose a serious threat
to life, property, self, staff, or other inmates or to the security or orderly running of the
institution. Inmates pending investigation for trial on a criminal act or pending transfer may
be included, provided the warden's written approval is sought and granted within seven
business days of placing the inmate in restrictive housing under this provision. The warden
of each facility must document any time approval is granted and the reason for it, and submit
a quarterly report to the commissioner of corrections.
new text end

new text begin The restrictive housing unit shall provide
living conditions that are approximate to those offenders in general population, including
reduced lighting during nighttime hours.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner of corrections
shall receive notification of all inmates with consecutive placement in a restrictive housing
setting for more than 30 days. This notification shall occur on a monthly basis. In the event
an inmate is placed into restrictive housing for more than 120 days, the reason for the
placement and the behavior management plan for the inmate shall be submitted to the
commissioner of corrections.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall design and implement a
continuum of interventions, including informal sanctions, administrative segregation, formal
discipline, disciplinary segregation, and step-down management. The commissioner shall
implement a method of due process for all offenders with formal discipline proceedings.
new text end

new text begin (a) If it is apparent that the inmate is exhibiting
serious symptoms of a mental illness that prevents the inmate from understanding or fully
participating in the disciplinary process, a mental health professional shall be consulted
regarding appropriate treatment and placement. For other inmates placed in a restrictive
setting, an inmate shall be screened by a health services staff member within 24 hours of
placement in a restrictive housing setting. If the screening indicates symptoms of a mental
illness, a qualified mental health professional shall be consulted regarding appropriate
treatment and placement. The health services staff member shall document any time an
inmate screens in for symptoms of a mental health illness and whether or not the health
services staff member connected with a mental health professional.
new text end

new text begin (b) If mental health staff believe the inmate's behavior may be more appropriately treated
through alternative interventions or programming, or determine that the inmate's actions
were the result of mental illness, this information must be considered during the disciplinary
process.
new text end

new text begin A health services staff member
shall perform a daily wellness round in the restrictive housing setting. If a health services
staff member indicates symptoms of a mental illness, a qualified mental health professional
shall be consulted regarding appropriate treatment and placement.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner shall
design and implement a system of incentives so that an inmate who demonstrates appropriate
behavior can earn additional privileges and an accelerated return to the general population.
new text end

new text begin An inmate shall not be released into the
community directly from a stay in restrictive housing for 60 or more days absent a compelling
reason. In cases where there is a compelling reason, the commissioner of corrections or
deputy commissioner shall directly authorize the inmate's release into the community from
restrictive housing.
new text end

new text begin (a) By January 15, 2020, and by January 15 each year thereafter,
the commissioner of corrections shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members
of the house of representatives and senate committees and divisions with jurisdiction over
public safety and judiciary on the status of the implementation of the provisions in this
section. This report shall include but not be limited to data regarding:
new text end

new text begin (1) the number of inmates in each institution placed in restrictive housing during the
past year;
new text end

new text begin (2) the ages of inmates placed in restrictive housing during the past year;
new text end

new text begin (3) the number of inmates transferred from restrictive housing to the mental health unit;
new text end

new text begin (4) disciplinary sanctions by infraction;
new text end

new text begin (5) the lengths of terms served in restrictive housing, including terms served
consecutively; and
new text end

new text begin (6) the number of inmates by race in restrictive housing.
new text end

new text begin (b) The Department of Corrections shall submit a qualitative report detailing outcomes,
measures, and challenges to implementation of a step-down management program by April
1, 2020.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner may not contract with privately owned and operated prisons for the
care, custody, and rehabilitation of offenders committed to the custody of the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

new text begin (a) The Indeterminate Sentence Release
Board is established to review eligible cases and make release decisions for inmates serving
indeterminate sentences under the authority of the commissioner.
new text end

new text begin (b) The board shall consist of five members as follows:
new text end

new text begin (1) four persons appointed by the governor from two recommendations of each of the
majority leaders and minority leaders of the house of representatives and the senate; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the commissioner of corrections who shall serve as chair.
new text end

new text begin (c) The members appointed from the legislative recommendations must meet the
following qualifications at a minimum:
new text end

new text begin (1) a bachelor's degree;
new text end

new text begin (2) five years of experience in corrections, a criminal justice or community corrections
field, rehabilitation programming, behavioral health, or criminal law; and
new text end

new text begin (3) demonstrated knowledge of victim issues and correctional processes.
new text end

new text begin (a) Members of the board shall serve four-year staggered
terms except that the terms of the initial members of the board must be as follows:
new text end

new text begin (1) two members must be appointed for terms that expire January 1, 2022; and
new text end

new text begin (2) two members must be appointed for terms that expire January 1, 2024.
new text end

new text begin (b) A member is eligible for reappointment.
new text end

new text begin (c) Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same manner as the initial appointments
under subdivision 1.
new text end

new text begin (d) Member compensation and removal of members on the board shall be as provided
in section 15.0575.
new text end

new text begin (a) The majority of members constitutes a
quorum.
new text end

new text begin (b) The commissioner of corrections shall provide the board with all other personnel,
supplies, equipment, office space, and other administrative services necessary and incident
to the discharge of the functions of the board.
new text end

new text begin An inmate may not be placed on supervised release unless a
majority of the board members present vote in favor of the action.
new text end

new text begin Nothing in this section supersedes the commissioner's authority
to revoke an inmate's release for a violation of the inmate's terms of release or impairs the
power of the Board of Pardons to grant a pardon or commutation in any case.
new text end

new text begin On or before February 15 each year, the board shall submit to the
legislative committees with jurisdiction over criminal justice policy a written report detailing
the number of inmates reviewed and identifying persons granted release in the preceding
year. The report shall also include the board's recommendations for policy modifications
that influence the board's duties.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 244.05, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

(a) new text beginUpon a majority vote of the board
members present,new text end the deleted text begincommissioner of correctionsdeleted text endnew text begin boardnew text end may, under rules promulgated by
the commissioner, give supervised release to an inmate serving a mandatory life sentence
under section 609.185, paragraph (a), clause (3), (5), or (6); 609.3455, subdivision 3 or 4;
609.385; or Minnesota Statutes 2004, section 609.109, subdivision 3, after the inmate has
served the minimum term of imprisonment specified in subdivision 4.

(b) The deleted text begincommissionerdeleted text endnew text begin boardnew text end shall require the preparation of a community investigation
report and shall consider the findings of the report when making a supervised release decision
under this subdivision. The report shall reflect the sentiment of the various elements of the
community toward the inmate, both at the time of the offense and at the present time. The
report shall include the views of the sentencing judge, the prosecutor, any law enforcement
personnel who may have been involved in the case, and any successors to these individuals
who may have information relevant to the supervised release decision. The report shall also
include the views of the victim and the victim's family unless the victim or the victim's
family chooses not to participate.

(c) The commissioner shall make reasonable efforts to notify the victim, in advance, of
the time and place of the inmate's supervised release review hearing. The victim has a right
to submit an oral or written statement at the review hearing. The statement may summarize
the harm suffered by the victim as a result of the crime and give the victim's recommendation
on whether the inmate should be given supervised release at this time. The deleted text begincommissionerdeleted text endnew text begin
boardnew text end must consider the victim's statement when making the supervised release decision.

(d) When considering whether to give supervised release to an inmate serving a life
sentence under section 609.3455, subdivision 3 or 4, the deleted text begincommissionerdeleted text endnew text begin boardnew text end shall consider,
at a minimum, the following: the risk the inmate poses to the community if released, the
inmate's progress in treatment, the inmate's behavior while incarcerated, psychological or
other diagnostic evaluations of the inmate, the inmate's criminal history, and any other
relevant conduct of the inmate while incarcerated or before incarceration. The deleted text begincommissionerdeleted text endnew text begin
boardnew text end may not give supervised release to the inmate unless:

(1) while in prison:

(i) the inmate has successfully completed appropriate sex offender treatment;

(ii) the inmate has been assessed for chemical dependency needs and, if appropriate, has
successfully completed chemical dependency treatment; and

(iii) the inmate has been assessed for mental health needs and, if appropriate, has
successfully completed mental health treatment; and

(2) a comprehensive individual release plan is in place for the inmate that ensures that,
after release, the inmate will have suitable housing and receive appropriate aftercare and
community-based treatment. The comprehensive plan also must include a postprison
employment or education plan for the inmate.

(e) As used in this subdivisiondeleted text begin,deleted text endnew text begin:
new text end

new text begin (1) "board" means the Indeterminate Sentence Release Board under section 244.049;
and
new text end

new text begin (2)new text end "victim" means the individual who suffered harm as a result of the inmate's crime
or, if the individual is deceased, the deceased's surviving spouse or next of kin.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 299C.091, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Notwithstanding section 138.17, the bureau
shall destroy data entered into the system when three years have elapsed since the data were
entered into the system, except as otherwise provided in this subdivision. If the bureau has
information that the individual has been convicted as an adult, or has been adjudicated or
has a stayed adjudication as a juvenile for an offense that would be a crime if committed
by an adult, since entry of the data into the system, the data must be maintained until three
years have elapsed since the last record of a conviction or adjudication or stayed adjudication
of the individualdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin, except that if the individual is committed to the custody of the
commissioner of corrections and the commissioner documents activities meeting the criminal
gang identification criteria that take place while the individual is confined in a state
correctional facility, the three-year period begins after release from incarceration. new text endUpon
request of the law enforcement agency that submitted data to the system, the bureau shall
destroy the data regardless of whether three years have elapsed since the data were entered
into the system.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 631.412, is amended to read:

new text begin (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), new text endwhen a sheriff or other correctional officer has
custody of a person charged with or convicted of a crime and transfers that person more
than 100 miles, that sheriff or other correctional officer shall provide the transferee with a
custodial escort of the same sex as the transferee. A sheriff may employ, when the occasion
exists, a suitable person to carry out this section. The expenses of the person's employment
must be paid out of county funds not otherwise appropriated.

new text begin (b) A sheriff or other correctional officer is not required to provide a same sex escort if:
(1) the vehicle used to transport the transferee has video and audio recording equipment
installed; (2) the vehicle's video and audio recording equipment is operational and positioned
to record the portion of the vehicle where the transferee is held during the transfer; and (3)
the video and audio equipment records the duration of the transfer. A recording of an inmate
transfer made under this paragraph must be maintained by the sheriff or agency employing
the correctional officer for at least 12 months after the date of the transfer.
new text end

new text begin After August 1, 2019, a sheriff shall not allow
inmates committed to the custody of the sheriff to be housed in facilities that are not owned
and operated by a local government or a group of local units of government.
new text end

new text begin The county board may not authorize the sheriff to
contract with privately owned and operated prisons for the care, custody, and rehabilitation
of offenders committed to the custody of the sheriff.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

new text begin (a) For purposes of this section, the terms defined in this
subdivision have the meanings given them.
new text end

new text begin (b) "Correctional officer" or "officer" means a person employed in a security capacity
by a local correctional or detention facility.
new text end

new text begin (c) "Exclusive representative" means an employee organization which has been certified
by the commissioner of the Bureau of Mediation Services to meet and negotiate with an
employer on behalf of all employees in the appropriate unit.
new text end

new text begin (d) "Formal statement" means the questioning of an officer in the course of obtaining a
recorded, stenographic, or signed statement to be used as evidence in a disciplinary
proceeding against the officer.
new text end

new text begin This section applies to local correctional authorities.
new text end

new text begin A formal statement of a correctional officer
must be taken according to subdivisions 4 to 15.
new text end

new text begin A formal statement must be taken at a facility of
the employing or investigating agency or at a place agreed to by the investigating individual
and the investigated correctional officer and exclusive representative.
new text end

new text begin A correctional officer's formal statement may not be taken unless
a written complaint signed by the complainant stating the complainant's knowledge is filed
with the employing or investigating agency and the correctional officer and exclusive
representative have been given a summary of the allegations.
new text end

new text begin Upon request, the investigating agency or
the correctional officer shall provide the other party with a list of witnesses the agency or
correctional officer expects to testify at an administrative hearing or arbitration authorized
to recommend, approve, or order discipline and the substance of the testimony. A party is
entitled to copies of any witness statements in the possession of the other party and an officer
is entitled to a copy of the investigating agency's investigative report, provided that any
references in a witness statement or investigative report that would reveal the identity of
confidential informants need not be disclosed except for good cause shown upon order of
the person presiding over the administrative hearing or arbitration.
new text end

new text begin Sessions at which a formal statement is taken must be of reasonable
duration and must give the correctional officer reasonable periods for rest and personal
necessities. When practicable, sessions must be held during the correctional officer's regularly
scheduled work shift. If the session is not held during the correctional officer's regularly
scheduled work shift, the correctional officer must be paid by the employing agency at the
officer's current compensation rate for time spent attending the session. Notification of a
formal statement must also be provided to the correctional officer's exclusive representative
and the exclusive representative shall be allowed to be present during the session.
new text end

new text begin A complete record of sessions at which a formal statement is taken
must be made by electronic recording or otherwise. A complete copy or transcript must be
provided to the correctional officer and the officer's exclusive representative without charge
or undue delay. The session may be recorded by the investigating officer and by the
correctional officer under investigation.
new text end

new text begin The correctional officer
whose formal statement is taken has the right to have a union representative or an attorney
retained by the officer, or both, present during the session. The correctional officer may
request the presence of a union representative, attorney, or both, at any time before or during
the session. When a request under this subdivision is made, no formal statement may be
taken until a reasonable opportunity is provided for the correctional officer to obtain the
presence of a union representative or attorney.
new text end

new text begin Before an officer's formal statement is taken, the officer shall
be advised in writing or on the record that admissions made in the course of the formal
statement may be used as evidence of misconduct or as a basis for discipline.
new text end

new text begin No employer may require an officer to
produce or disclose the officer's personal financial records except pursuant to a valid search
warrant or subpoena.
new text end

new text begin No local correctional facility or governmental unit
may publicly release photographs of an officer without the written permission of the officer,
except that the facility or unit may display a photograph of an officer to a prospective witness
as part of an agency or unit investigation.
new text end

new text begin No disciplinary letter or reprimand may be included in
an officer's personnel record unless the officer has been given a copy of the letter or
reprimand.
new text end

new text begin No officer may be discharged, disciplined,
or threatened with discharge or discipline as retaliation for or solely by reason of the officer's
exercise of the rights provided by this section.
new text end

new text begin The rights of officers provided by this section are in
addition to and do not diminish the rights and privileges of officers that are provided under
an applicable collective bargaining agreement or any other applicable law.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 641.15, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:

new text begin(a)new text end As part of its
intake procedure for new deleted text beginprisonersdeleted text endnew text begin inmatesnew text end, the sheriff or local corrections shall use a mental
health screening tool approved by the commissioner of corrections in consultation with the
commissioner of human services and local corrections staff to identify persons who may
have mental illness.

new text begin (b) Names of persons who have screened positive or may have a mental illness may be
shared with the local county social services agency. The jail may refer an offender to county
personnel of the welfare system, as defined in section 13.46, subdivision 1, paragraph (c),
in order to arrange for services upon discharge and may share private data on the offender
as necessary to:
new text end

new text begin (1) provide assistance in filling out an application for medical assistance or
MinnesotaCare;
new text end

new text begin (2) make a referral for case management as provided under section 245.467, subdivision
4;
new text end

new text begin (3) provide assistance in obtaining a state photo identification;
new text end

new text begin (4) secure a timely appointment with a psychiatrist or other appropriate community
mental health provider;
new text end

new text begin (5) provide prescriptions for a 30-day supply of all necessary medications; or
new text end

new text begin (6) coordinate behavioral health services.
new text end

new text begin (c) Notwithstanding section 138.17, if an offender is referred to a government entity
within the welfare system pursuant to paragraph (b), and the offender refuses all services
from the entity, the entity must, within 15 days of the refusal, destroy all private data on
the offender that it created or received because of the referral.
new text end

new text begin (a) By January 15, 2021, the commissioner of corrections shall develop and implement
a coordinated crisis response plan to support facility, central office, and field services staff.
new text end

new text begin (b) In developing the response plan, the commissioner may consult with the Department
of Corrections Office of Special Investigations, the Department of Corrections Victim
Assistance Program, human resources offices, facility and field services administration,
peer support programs, county attorneys, victim witness coordinators, community based
victim advocates, the Crime Victim Reparations Board, employee assistance programs,
offices or organizations assisting with workers' compensation claims and benefits, mental
health services, central office administration, and supervisors.
new text end

new text begin (c) To increase support to staff in crisis, the coordinated crisis response plan shall, at a
minimum, include the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) a protocol establishing collaboration between the offices, services, and organizations
identified in paragraph (b);
new text end

new text begin (2) a process to develop and implement individualized support plans based on the
identified needs of staff members in crisis;
new text end

new text begin (3) identification or development of training on trauma-informed victim and crisis
response; and
new text end

new text begin (4) a plan to implement training on trauma-informed victim and crisis response including
initial training, refresher courses, and training for new employees.
new text end

new text begin The commissioner of corrections shall
establish and administer a pilot program in Minnesota Correctional Facility-Stillwater to
address mental health issues among correctional officers and inmates. The program shall
offer, at a minimum, support to correctional officers through skill refreshers, mental health
training and techniques, and mental health services. The program shall conduct, at a
minimum, mental health interventions for inmates and educate inmates on mental health
resources available to them. The pilot program is from July 1, 2019, to June 30, 2020.
new text end

new text begin By October 1, 2020, the commissioner shall report to the legislative
committees with jurisdiction over corrections on the impact and outcomes of the program.
new text end

new text begin Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 401.13, new text end new text begin is repealed.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.20, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

(a) Before the license is reinstated, (1) an individual whose
driver's license has been suspended under section 171.16, subdivisions 2 and 3; 171.175;
171.18; or 171.182, or who has been disqualified from holding a commercial driver's license
under section 171.165, and (2) an individual whose driver's license has been suspended
under section 171.186 and who is not exempt from such a fee, must pay a fee of $20.

(b) Before the license is reinstated, an individual whose license has been suspended
under sections 169.791 to 169.798 must pay a $20 reinstatement fee.

(c) When fees are collected by a licensing agent appointed under section 171.061, a
handling charge is imposed in the amount specified under section 171.061, subdivision 4.
The reinstatement fee and surcharge must be deposited in an approved state depository as
directed under section 171.061, subdivision 4.

deleted text begin (d) Reinstatement fees collected under paragraph (a) for suspensions under sections
171.16, subdivision 3, and 171.18, subdivision 1, clause (10), must be deposited in the
special revenue fund and are appropriated to the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board
for peace officer training reimbursement to local units of government.
deleted text end

deleted text begin (e)deleted text endnew text begin (d)new text end A suspension may be rescinded without fee for good cause.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 171.26, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

All money received under this
chapter must be paid into the state treasury and credited to the driver services operating
account in the special revenue fund specified under sections 299A.705, except as provided
in subdivision 2; 171.06, subdivision 2a; 171.07, subdivision 11, paragraph (g); deleted text begin171.20,
subdivision 4, paragraph (d);deleted text end and 171.29, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 357.021, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)deleted text begin, (c), anddeleted text endnew text begin tonew text end (d), the commissioner of
management and budget shall disburse surcharges received under subdivision 6 and section
97A.065, subdivision 2, as follows:

(1) one percent shall be credited to the peace officer training account in the game and
fish fund to provide peace officer training for employees of the Department of Natural
Resources who are licensed under sections 626.84 to 626.863, and who possess peace officer
authority for the purpose of enforcing game and fish laws;new text begin and
new text end

deleted text begin (2) 39 percent shall be credited to the peace officers training account in the special
revenue fund; and
deleted text end

deleted text begin (3) 60deleted text endnew text begin (2) 99new text end percent shall be credited to the general fund.

(b) The commissioner of management and budget shall credit $3 of each surcharge
received under subdivision 6 and section 97A.065, subdivision 2, to the general fund.

(c) In addition to any amounts credited under paragraph (a), the commissioner of
management and budget shall credit $47 of each surcharge received under subdivision 6
and section 97A.065, subdivision 2, and the $12 parking surcharge, to the general fund.

(d) If the Ramsey County Board of Commissioners authorizes imposition of the additional
$1 surcharge provided for in subdivision 6, paragraph (a), the court administrator in the
Second Judicial District shall transmit the surcharge to the commissioner of management
and budget. The $1 special surcharge is deposited in a Ramsey County surcharge account
in the special revenue fund and amounts in the account are appropriated to the trial courts
for the administration of the petty misdemeanor diversion program operated by the Second
Judicial District Ramsey County Violations Bureau.

new text begin For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
meanings given:
new text end

new text begin (1) "certifying entity" means a state or local law enforcement agency;
new text end

new text begin (2) "criminal activity" means qualifying criminal activity pursuant to section
101(a)(15)(U)(iii) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, and includes the attempt,
conspiracy, or solicitation to commit such crimes; and
new text end

new text begin (3) "certification" means any certification or statement required by federal immigration
law including, but not limited to, the information required by United States Code, title 8,
section 1184(p), and United States Code, title 8, section 1184(o), including current United
States Citizenship and Immigration Services Form I-918, Supplement B, and United States
Citizenship and Immigration Services Form I-914, Supplement B, and any successor forms.
new text end

new text begin (a) A certifying entity shall process a certification
requested by a victim of criminal activity or a representative of the victim, including but
not limited to the victim's attorney, family member, or domestic violence or sexual assault
violence advocate, within the time period prescribed in paragraph (b).
new text end

new text begin (b) A certifying entity shall process the certification within 60 days of request, unless
the victim is in removal proceedings, in which case the certification shall be processed
within 14 days of request. Requests for expedited certification must be affirmatively raised
at the time of the request.
new text end

new text begin (c) An active investigation, the filing of charges, or a prosecution or conviction are not
required for the victim of criminal activity to request and obtain the certification.
new text end

new text begin (a) The head of a certifying entity shall
designate an agent to perform the following responsibilities:
new text end

new text begin (1) timely process requests for certification;
new text end

new text begin (2) provide outreach to victims of criminal activity to inform them of the entity's
certification process; and
new text end

new text begin (3) keep a written or electronic record of all certification requests and responses.
new text end

new text begin (b) All certifying entities shall implement a language access protocol for
non-English-speaking victims of criminal activity.
new text end

new text begin (a) A certifying entity is prohibited
from disclosing the immigration status of a victim of criminal activity or representative
requesting the certification, except to comply with federal law or legal process, or if
authorized by the victim of criminal activity or representative requesting the certification.
new text end

new text begin (b) Data provided to a certifying entity under this section is classified as private data
pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 12.
new text end

new text begin Subdivisions 1, 2, and 4 are effective the day following final
enactment. Subdivision 3 is effective July 1, 2019.
new text end

new text begin (a) This section applies to law enforcement
agencies that maintain, use, or plan to use an unmanned aerial vehicle in investigations, for
training, or in response to emergencies, incidents, and requests for service.
new text end

new text begin (b) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
new text end

new text begin (1) "law enforcement agency" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision 1;
and
new text end

new text begin (2) "unmanned aerial vehicle" or "UAV" means an aircraft that is operated without the
possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft.
new text end

new text begin Except as provided in subdivision
3, a law enforcement agency may not operate a UAV without a search warrant issued under
this chapter.
new text end

new text begin (a) A law enforcement agency may use a UAV during or
immediately after an emergency situation that involves the risk of death or serious physical
harm to a person.
new text end

new text begin (b) A law enforcement agency may use a UAV over a public event where there is a
substantial risk to the safety of participants or bystanders. If a law enforcement agency
collects information under this paragraph, it must document each use, connect each
deployment to a unique case number, and provide a description of the facts giving rise to a
substantial risk.
new text end

new text begin (c) A law enforcement agency may operate a UAV to counter a high risk of a terrorist
attack by a specific individual or organization if the agency determines that credible
intelligence indicates this risk.
new text end

new text begin (d) A law enforcement agency may use a UAV to prevent the loss of life and property
in natural or man-made disasters and to facilitate the operational planning, rescue, and
recovery operations in the aftermath of these disasters.
new text end

new text begin (e) A law enforcement agency may use a UAV for officer training purposes.
new text end

new text begin (f) A law enforcement agency may operate a UAV for a non-law-enforcement purpose
at the request of a government entity, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 7a, provided
that the government entity makes the request in writing and specifies the reason for the
request and proposed period of use.
new text end

new text begin (a) A law enforcement agency operating a UAV must fully
comply with all Federal Aviation Administration requirements and guidelines.
new text end

new text begin (b) The governing body overseeing the law enforcement agency must approve the
agency's acquisition of a UAV.
new text end

new text begin (c) Unless specifically authorized in a warrant, a law enforcement agency must use a
UAV to collect data only on a clearly and narrowly defined target and avoid data collection
on individuals, homes, or areas other than the defined target.
new text end

new text begin (d) A law enforcement agency may not deploy a UAV with facial recognition or other
biometric-matching technology unless expressly authorized by a warrant.
new text end

new text begin (e) A law enforcement agency may not equip a UAV with weapons.
new text end

new text begin (f) A law enforcement agency may not use a UAV to collect data on public protests or
demonstrations unless expressly authorized by a warrant or an exception applies under
subdivision 3. A law enforcement agency must document which exception applies or whether
a warrant was obtained.
new text end

new text begin An individual who is the subject of data collected
through use of a UAV has access to the data. If the individual requests a copy of the
recording, data on other individuals who do not consent to its release must be redacted from
the copy.
new text end

new text begin (a) Data collected by a UAV are private data
on individuals or nonpublic data, subject to the following:
new text end

new text begin (1) UAV data may be disclosed as necessary in an emergency situation under subdivision
3, paragraph (a);
new text end

new text begin (2) UAV data may be disclosed to the government entity making a request for UAV use
under subdivision 3, paragraph (f);
new text end

new text begin (3) UAV data that are criminal investigative data are governed by section 13.82,
subdivision 7; and
new text end

new text begin (4) UAV data that are not public data under other provisions of chapter 13 retain that
classification.
new text end

new text begin (b) Section 13.04, subdivision 2, does not apply to data collected by a UAV.
new text end

new text begin (c) Notwithstanding section 138.17, the data must be deleted by a UAV as soon as
possible, and in no event later than seven days after collection unless the data is part of an
active criminal investigation.
new text end

new text begin Information obtained or collected by a law enforcement agency in
violation of this section is not admissible as evidence in a criminal, administrative, or civil
proceeding against the data subject.
new text end

new text begin An aggrieved party may initiate a civil action against a law
enforcement agency to obtain all appropriate relief to prevent or remedy a violation of this
section, including remedies available under chapter 13.
new text end

new text begin The chief officer of every state and local law
enforcement agency that uses or plans to use a UAV must establish and enforce a written
policy governing UAV use. The agency must post the written policy on its website if the
agency has a website.
new text end

new text begin (a) Within a reasonable time but not later than
90 days after the court unseals a warrant under this subdivision, the issuing or denying judge
shall cause to be served on the persons named in the warrant and the application an inventory
that shall include notice of:
new text end

new text begin (1) the fact of the issuance of the warrant or the application;
new text end

new text begin (2) the date of the issuance and the period of authorized, approved, or disapproved
collection of information, or the denial of the application; and
new text end

new text begin (3) the fact that during the period information was or was not collected.
new text end

new text begin (b) A warrant authorizing collection of information with a UAV must direct that:
new text end

new text begin (1) the warrant be sealed for a period of 90 days or until the objective of the warrant has
been accomplished, whichever is shorter; and
new text end

new text begin (2) the warrant be filed with the court administrator within ten days of the expiration of
the warrant.
new text end

new text begin (c) The prosecutor may request that the warrant, supporting affidavits, and any order
granting the request not be filed. An order must be issued granting the request in whole or
in part if, from affidavits, sworn testimony, or other evidence, the court finds reasonable
grounds exist to believe that filing the warrant may cause the search or a related search to
be unsuccessful, create a substantial risk of injury to an innocent person, or severely hamper
an ongoing investigation.
new text end

new text begin (d) The warrant must direct that following the commencement of any criminal proceeding
using evidence obtained in or as a result of the search, the supporting application or affidavit
must be filed either immediately or at any other time as the court directs. Until such filing,
the documents and materials ordered withheld from filing must be retained by the judge or
the judge's designee.
new text end

new text begin (a) By January 15 of each year, each law enforcement agency that
deploys a UAV shall report to the commissioner of public safety the following information
for the preceding calendar year:
new text end

new text begin (1) the number of times a UAV was deployed, organized by the types of incidents and
the types of justification for deployment;
new text end

new text begin (2) the number of criminal investigations aided by the deployment of UAVs;
new text end

new text begin (3) the number of deployments of UAVs for reasons other than criminal investigations;
and
new text end

new text begin (4) the total cost of the agency's UAV program.
new text end

new text begin (b) By June 15 of each year, the commissioner of public safety shall compile a full and
complete report summarizing the information submitted to the commissioner under paragraph
(a), and submit the report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and
house of representatives committees having jurisdiction over criminal justice and public
safety issues and make the report public on the department's website.
new text end

new text begin (c) By January 15 of each year, any judge who has issued a warrant under this section
that expired during the preceding year, or who has denied approval during that year, shall
report to the state court administrator:
new text end

new text begin (1) the fact that a warrant or extension was applied for;
new text end

new text begin (2) the kind of warrant or extension applied for;
new text end

new text begin (3) the fact that the warrant or extension was granted as applied for, was modified, or
was denied;
new text end

new text begin (4) the period of UAV use authorized by the warrant and the number and duration of
any extensions of the warrant;
new text end

new text begin (5) the offense specified in the warrant or application or extension of a warrant; and
new text end

new text begin (6) the identity of the law enforcement agency making the application and the person
authorizing the application.
new text end

new text begin (d) By June 15 of each year, the state court administrator shall transmit to the chairs and
ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees having
jurisdiction over criminal justice and public safety issues and post on the supreme court's
website a full and complete report concerning the number of applications for warrants
authorizing or approving operation of UAVs or disclosure of information from the operation
of UAVs under this section and the number of warrants and extensions granted or denied
under this section during the preceding calendar year. The report must include a summary
and analysis of the data required to be filed with the state court administrator by paragraph
(c).
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 626.841, is amended to read:

The Board of Peace Officer Standards and Training shall be composed of the following
deleted text begin 15deleted text endnew text begin 17new text end members:

(1) two members to be appointed by the governor from among the county sheriffs in
Minnesota;

(2) four members to be appointed by the governor from among peace officers in
Minnesota municipalities, at least two of whom shall be chiefs of police;

(3) two members to be appointed by the governor from among peace officers, at least
one of whom shall be a member of the Minnesota State Patrol Association;

(4) the superintendent of the Minnesota Bureau of Criminal Apprehension or a designee;

(5) two members appointed by the governor from among peace officers, or former peace
officers, who are currently employed on a full-time basis in a professional peace officer
education program;

(6) two members to be appointed by the governor, one member to be appointed from
among administrators of Minnesota colleges or universities that offer professional peace
officer education, and one member to be appointed from among the elected city officials in
statutory or home rule charter cities of under 5,000 population outside the metropolitan
area, as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2; and

(7) deleted text begintwodeleted text endnew text begin fournew text end members appointed by the governor from among the general publicnew text begin, of
which at least one member must be a representative of a statewide crime victim coalition
and at least two members must be residents of a county other than a metropolitan county
as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 4new text end.

A chair shall be appointed by the governor from among the members. In making
appointments the governor shall strive to achieve representation from among the geographic
areas of the state.

new text begin By November 1, 2019, the board, in
consultation with stakeholders, shall develop a model policy that articulates best practices
for eyewitness identification and promotes uniform practices statewide. The board shall
distribute this model policy to all chief law enforcement officers. At a minimum, the policy
must require that:
new text end

new text begin (1) a person administering a lineup be unaware of the suspect's identity, or, if that is not
practical, the person be shielded so as to prevent the person from seeing which lineup
member is being viewed by the eyewitness;
new text end

new text begin (2) before the procedure, the eyewitness be instructed that the perpetrator may or may
not be in the lineup;
new text end

new text begin (3) nonsuspect "fillers" used in the lineup match the eyewitness's description of the
perpetrator; and
new text end

new text begin (4) immediately after an identification is made, the eyewitness provide a statement in
the eyewitness's own words that articulates the level of the eyewitness's confidence in the
identification.
new text end

new text begin By February 1, 2020, the chief law enforcement
officers of every state and local law enforcement agency shall adopt and implement a written
policy on eyewitness identification practices that is identical or substantially similar to the
model policy developed under subdivision 1.
new text end

new text begin The purpose of this section is:
new text end

new text begin (1) to create data profiles for stakeholders to conduct needs assessments and make
appropriate recommendations to drive improvements in police effectiveness, efficiency,
training, supervision, procedural justice, accountability, and community relations;
new text end

new text begin (2) for police departments to more effectively manage their risks and improve
transparency; and
new text end

new text begin (3) for community members and advocates, as well as policy-makers, decision-makers,
and funders to have access to accurate relevant information to help improve policing practices
in Minnesota.
new text end

new text begin (a) Beginning January 15, 2020, and annually
thereafter, the chief law enforcement officer of a law enforcement agency that receives
grants from the Peace Officers Standards and Training Board for peace officer training
assistance under article 1, section 4, subdivision 4, shall submit the following data regarding
peace officers employed by the law enforcement agency in the previous calendar year to
the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension:
new text end

new text begin (1) the unique identifier of an employed peace officer;
new text end

new text begin (2) the existence and status of a complaint made against an employed peace officer
including:
new text end

new text begin (i) the peace officer's unique identifier;
new text end

new text begin (ii) the nature of the complaint;
new text end

new text begin (iii) whether the complaint was filed by a member of the public, a law enforcement
agency, or another source;
new text end

new text begin (iv) whether the complaint resulted in disciplinary action;
new text end

new text begin (v) the final disposition of a complaint when disciplinary action was taken including:
new text end

new text begin (A) the specific reason for the action taken; and
new text end

new text begin (B) data documenting the basis of the action taken, except that data that would identify
confidential sources who are employees of the public body shall not be disclosed; and
new text end

new text begin (vi) the final disposition of any complaint:
new text end

new text begin (A) determined to be unfounded or otherwise not sustained;
new text end

new text begin (B) for which a peace officer was later exonerated; or
new text end

new text begin (C) which resulted in a nondisciplinary resolution including, but not limited to, employee
counseling;
new text end

new text begin (3) the unique identifier of any peace officer pending criminal prosecution, excluding
traffic violations;
new text end

new text begin (4) the unique identifier of any peace officer who was terminated due to substantiated
findings of officer misconduct and a summary of the basis for that termination; and
new text end

new text begin (5) the unique identifier of any peace officer, other than one terminated for performance
issues during a probationary period, whose employment was terminated by resignation in
lieu of termination as a result of officer misconduct, and a summary of the basis for the
action.
new text end

new text begin (b) For purposes of this section "complaint" means all allegations involving:
new text end

new text begin (1) public-reported misconduct;
new text end

new text begin (2) excessive force;
new text end

new text begin (3) the integrity or truthfulness of an officer;
new text end

new text begin (4) violations of the law; and
new text end

new text begin (5) sexual misconduct or harassment.
new text end

new text begin (c) The reporting requirements in paragraph (a) are in addition to any other officer
discipline reporting requirements established in law.
new text end

new text begin (a) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension may store
the data collected under this section on the agency's servers.
new text end

new text begin (b) The Peace Officers Standards and Training Board must have direct access to the data
collected under this section.
new text end

new text begin Within 30 days of final disposition of a complaint, as defined
in section 13.43, subdivision 2, paragraph (b), the chief law enforcement officer of the law
enforcement agency that employs the officer shall submit a supplemental report containing
the information identified in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (5).
new text end

new text begin Law enforcement agencies and political
subdivisions are prohibited from entering into a confidentiality agreement that would prevent
disclosure of the data identified in subdivision 2 to the board. Any such confidentiality
agreement is void as to the requirements of this section.
new text end

new text begin Data received by the board pursuant to subdivisions 2 and
3 is private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12. This classification
does not restrict the board's authority to publish summary data as defined in section 13.02,
subdivision 19.
new text end

new text begin For agencies that receive peace officer training
reimbursements from the Police Officer Standards and Training Board under article 1,
section 4, subdivision 4, substantial noncompliance with the reporting requirements of
subdivisions 2 and 3 shall serve as a bar to further reimbursements under article 1, section
4, subdivision 4, , and the board may require the agency to refund the state for grants received
during the period of noncompliance. For purposes of this section, "substantial
noncompliance" means a failure to (1) meet the deadlines established in subdivisions 2 and
3, and (2) respond to two subsequent requests from the board.
new text end

new text begin At least annually, the board shall publish a summary of data
submitted pursuant to subdivisions 1 and 2. The summary shall be available on the board's
website and shall be included in any written publication reporting board activities. The
summary shall exclude peace officers' names and license numbers and any other not public
data as defined by section 13.02, subdivision 8a.
new text end

new text begin (a) By January 1, 2020, the chief law enforcement officer of every state and local law
enforcement agency must develop, adopt, and implement a written policy governing the
investigation of sexual assault cases within the agency. In the development of a policy, each
law enforcement agency shall consult with local sexual assault counselors, domestic abuse
advocates, community organizations, and other law enforcement agencies with expertise
in the recognition and handling of sexual assault cases. A law enforcement agency may
adopt the model policy created by the board in lieu of developing its own policy under this
provision. At a minimum, a law enforcement policy must address each of the procedures
covered in the board's model policy. The chief law enforcement officer must ensure that
each peace officer investigating a sexual assault case follows the agency's policy.
new text end

new text begin (b) Every state and local law enforcement agency must certify to the board by January
1, 2020, that it has adopted a written policy in compliance with this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (c) The board must assist the chief law enforcement officer of each state and local law
enforcement agency in developing and implementing policies under this subdivision.
new text end

new text begin (d) The board may impose licensing sanctions and seek injunctive relief under section
214.11 for failure to adopt a policy in compliance with the requirements of this section.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 626.93, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

If the requirements of subdivision 2 are met deleted text beginand the
tribe enters into a cooperative agreement pursuant to subdivision 4deleted text end, the tribe deleted text beginshall havedeleted text endnew text begin hasnew text end
concurrent jurisdictional authority under this section with the local county sheriff within
the geographical boundaries of the tribe's reservation to enforce state criminal law.

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 626.93, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

In order to coordinate, define, and regulate the
provision of law enforcement services and to provide for mutual aid and cooperation,
governmental units and the tribe deleted text beginshalldeleted text endnew text begin maynew text end enter into agreements under section 471.59. For
the purposes of entering into these agreements, the tribe deleted text beginshall bedeleted text endnew text begin isnew text end considered a
"governmental unit" as that term is defined in section 471.59, subdivision 1.

new text begin There is established a Peace Officer Excellence
Task Force. The purpose of the task force is to study the laws, rules, contracts, and policies
that govern the employer-employee relationship between political subdivisions and peace
officers.
new text end

new text begin (a) The task force must consist of:
new text end

new text begin (1) two members of the house of representatives, one appointed by the speaker of the
house and one appointed by the minority leader;
new text end

new text begin (2) two members of the senate, one appointed by the majority leader and one appointed
by the minority leader;
new text end

new text begin (3) the attorney general, or a designee;
new text end

new text begin (4) the executive director of the Minnesota Peace Officer Standards and Training Board,
or a designee;
new text end

new text begin (5) the commissioner of public safety, or a designee;
new text end

new text begin (6) the commissioner of the Minnesota Bureau of Mediation Services;
new text end

new text begin (7) one representative from the Minnesota Chiefs of Police Association;
new text end

new text begin (8) one representative from the Minnesota Sheriffs Association;
new text end

new text begin (9) two representatives from the Minnesota Peace and Police Officers Association, one
of whom must be employed by a law enforcement agency located outside of the seven-county
metropolitan area;
new text end

new text begin (10) one representative from the League of Minnesota Cities;
new text end

new text begin (11) one representative from the Association of Minnesota Counties;
new text end

new text begin (12) two representatives from organized labor, including at least one representative of
an organization comprised of peace officers; and
new text end

new text begin (13) two members of the public appointed by the governor.
new text end

new text begin (b) Unless otherwise specified, members will be appointed by the commissioner of
public safety. Appointments must be made no later than July 1, 2019. Members of the task
force shall not be compensated or receive reimbursement for expenses, except for
compensation or expense reimbursements received in the member's ordinary scope of
employment.
new text end

new text begin (c) Vacancies shall be filled by the appointing authority consistent with the requirements
of the position that becomes open.
new text end

new text begin (a) The executive director of the Peace Officer Standards and
Training Board shall convene the first meeting of the task force no later than August 1,
2019.
new text end

new text begin (b) The members of the task force may elect a chair and other officers as the members
deem necessary.
new text end

new text begin (c) The task force shall meet at least monthly, with one meeting devoted to collecting
input from the public and local units of government that employ peace officers.
new text end

new text begin The executive director of the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board
shall provide support staff, office space, and administrative services for the task force.
new text end

new text begin Except as otherwise provided in this section, the task force is
subject to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13D. A meeting of the task force occurs when a
quorum is present and the members receive information, discuss, or take action on any
matter relating to the duties of the task force. The task force may conduct meetings as
provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 13D.015 or 13D.02. The task force may conduct
meetings at any location in the state that is appropriate for the purposes of the task force as
long as the location is open and accessible to the public. For legislative members of the task
force, enforcement of this subdivision is governed by Minnesota Statutes, section 3.055,
subdivision 2. For nonlegislative members of the task force, enforcement of this subdivision
is governed by Minnesota Statutes, section 13D.06, subdivisions 1 and 2.
new text end

new text begin The task force must review, assess, and make
recommendations for reforms to the laws, rules, contracts, and policies that govern the
employer-employee relationship between political subdivisions and peace officers. In
formulating recommendations, the task force must seek to balance the employment rights
of peace officers and the need for chief law enforcement officers and political subdivisions
to maintain the integrity and excellence of peace officers they employ.
new text end

new text begin By January 15, 2020, the task force shall
prepare and submit to the chairs and ranking minority members of the committees and
divisions of the house of representatives and senate with jurisdiction over public safety and
labor and employment a report that summarizes the activities of the task force, issues
identified by the task force, reform recommendations to address the issues, and
recommendations for legislative action, if needed.
new text end

new text begin The task force expires upon submission of the report required by
subdivision 6.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective the day following final enactment.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.341, subdivision 10, is amended to read:

"new text beginCurrent or recent new text endposition of
authority" includes but is not limited to any person who is a parent or acting in the place of
a parent and charged withnew text begin or assumesnew text end any of a parent's rights, duties or responsibilities to
a child, or a person who is charged withnew text begin or assumesnew text end any duty or responsibility for the health,
welfare, or supervision of a child, either independently or through another, no matter how
brief, at the time ofnew text begin or within 120 days immediately precedingnew text end the act. For the purposes of
subdivision 11, "position of authority" includes a psychotherapist.new text begin For the purposes of
sections 609.344, subdivision 1, paragraph (e), clause (2), and 609.345, subdivision 1,
paragraph (e), clause (2), the term extends to a person having the described authority over
a student in a secondary school who is at least 16 but less than 21 years of age under the
circumstances described in those two clauses.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.341, subdivision 11, is amended to read:

(a) "Sexual contact," for the purposes of sections 609.343,
subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (f), and 609.345, subdivision 1, clauses (a) to (e), and (h) to
(o), includes any of the following acts committed without the complainant's consent, except
in those cases where consent is not a defense, and committed with sexual or aggressive
intent:

(i) the intentional touching by the actor of the complainant's intimate parts, or

(ii) the touching by the complainant of the actor's, the complainant's, or another's intimate
parts effected by a person in a new text begincurrent or recent new text endposition of authority, or by coercion, or by
inducement if the complainant is under 13 years of age or mentally impaired, or

(iii) the touching by another of the complainant's intimate parts effected by coercion or
by a person in a new text begincurrent or recent new text endposition of authority, or

(iv) in any of the cases above, the touching of the clothing covering the immediate area
of the intimate parts, or

(v) the intentional touching with seminal fluid or sperm by the actor of the complainant's
body or the clothing covering the complainant's body.

(b) "Sexual contact," for the purposes of sections 609.343, subdivision 1, clauses (g)
and (h), and 609.345, subdivision 1, clauses (f) and (g), includes any of the following acts
committed with sexual or aggressive intent:

(i) the intentional touching by the actor of the complainant's intimate parts;

(ii) the touching by the complainant of the actor's, the complainant's, or another's intimate
parts;

(iii) the touching by another of the complainant's intimate parts;

(iv) in any of the cases listed above, touching of the clothing covering the immediate
area of the intimate parts; or

(v) the intentional touching with seminal fluid or sperm by the actor of the complainant's
body or the clothing covering the complainant's body.

(c) "Sexual contact with a person under 13" means the intentional touching of the
complainant's bare genitals or anal opening by the actor's bare genitals or anal opening with
sexual or aggressive intent or the touching by the complainant's bare genitals or anal opening
of the actor's or another's bare genitals or anal opening with sexual or aggressive intent.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.341, subdivision 12, is amended to read:

"Sexual penetration" means any of the following acts
committed without the complainant's consent, except in those cases where consent is not a
defense, whether or not emission of semen occurs:

(1) sexual intercourse, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal intercourse; or

(2) any intrusion however slight into the genital or anal openings:

(i) of the complainant's body by any part of the actor's body or any object used by the
actor for this purpose;

(ii) of the complainant's body by any part of the body of the complainant, by any part
of the body of another person, or by any object used by the complainant or another person
for this purpose, when effected by a person in a new text begincurrent or recent new text endposition of authority, or
by coercion, or by inducement if the child is under 13 years of age or mentally impaired;
or

(iii) of the body of the actor or another person by any part of the body of the complainant
or by any object used by the complainant for this purpose, when effected by a person in a
new text begin current or recent new text endposition of authority, or by coercion, or by inducement if the child is under
13 years of age or mentally impaired.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.341, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin For the purposes of sections 609.344 and 609.345,
"secondary school" means a public or nonpublic school, church or religious organization,
or home school where a student may legally fulfill the compulsory instruction requirements
of section 120A.22.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.341, is amended by adding a subdivision to
read:

new text begin For the purposes of sections 609.344 and 609.345,
"independent contractor" means any person who contracts with or is a volunteer for a
secondary school or any person employed by a business which contracts with a secondary
school.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.342, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

A person who engages in sexual penetration with another
person, or in sexual contact with a person under 13 years of age as defined in section 609.341,
subdivision 11, paragraph (c), is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the first degree if any
of the following circumstances exists:

(b) the complainant is at least 13 years of age but less than 16 years of age and the actor
is more than 48 months older than the complainant and in anew text begin current or recentnew text end position of
authority over the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to
the act by the complainant is a defense;

(c) circumstances existing at the time of the act cause the complainant to have a
reasonable fear of imminent great bodily harm to the complainant or another;

(d) the actor is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a
manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses
or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;

(e) the actor causes personal injury to the complainant, and either of the following
circumstances exist:

(i) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish deleted text beginsexual penetrationdeleted text endnew text begin the actnew text end; or

(ii) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired,
mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;

(f) the actor is aided or abetted by one or more accomplices within the meaning of section
609.05, and either of the following circumstances exists:

(i) an accomplice uses force or coercion to cause the complainant to submit; or

(ii) an accomplice is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned
in a manner to lead the complainant reasonably to believe it to be a dangerous weapon and
uses or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;

(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was
under 16 years of age at the time of the deleted text beginsexual penetrationdeleted text endnew text begin actnew text end. Neither mistake as to the
complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense; or

(h) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was under
16 years of age at the time of the deleted text beginsexual penetrationdeleted text endnew text begin actnew text end, and:

(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the deleted text beginpenetrationdeleted text endnew text begin actnew text end;

(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or

(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.

Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is
a defense.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.343, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

A person who engages in sexual contact with another
person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the second degree if any of the following
circumstances exists:

(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is more than 36 months older
than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by
the complainant is a defense. In a prosecution under this clause, the state is not required to
prove that the sexual contact was coerced;

(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than
48 months older than the complainant and in anew text begin current or recentnew text end position of authority over
the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the
complainant is a defense;

(c) circumstances existing at the time of the act cause the complainant to have a
reasonable fear of imminent great bodily harm to the complainant or another;

(d) the actor is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned in a
manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and uses
or threatens to use the dangerous weapon to cause the complainant to submit;

(e) the actor causes personal injury to the complainant, and either of the following
circumstances exist:

(i) the actor uses force or coercion to accomplish the sexual contact; or

(ii) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired,
mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;

(f) the actor is aided or abetted by one or more accomplices within the meaning of section
609.05, and either of the following circumstances exists:

(i) an accomplice uses force or coercion to cause the complainant to submit; or

(ii) an accomplice is armed with a dangerous weapon or any article used or fashioned
in a manner to lead the complainant to reasonably believe it to be a dangerous weapon and
uses or threatens to use the weapon or article to cause the complainant to submit;

(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was
under 16 years of age at the time of the sexual contact. Neither mistake as to the complainant's
age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense; or

(h) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was under
16 years of age at the time of the sexual contact, and:

(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the contact;

(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or

(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.

Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is
a defense.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.344, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

A person who engages in sexual penetration with another
person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the third degree if any of the following
circumstances exists:

(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is no more than 36 months
older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the
act by the complainant shall be a defense;

(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than
24 months older than the complainant. In any such case if the actor is no more than deleted text begin120deleted text end new text begin36new text end
months older than the complainant, it shall be an affirmative defense, which must be proved
by a preponderance of the evidence, that the actor reasonably believes the complainant to
be 16 years of age or older. In all other cases, mistake as to the complainant's age shall not
be a defense. consent by the complainant is not a defense;

(d) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired,
mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;

(e)new text begin(1)new text end the complainant is at least 16 but less than 18 years of age and the actor is more
than 48 months older than the complainant and in anew text begin current or recentnew text end position of authority
over the complainantnew text begin, or (2) the complainant is at least 16 years of age but less than 21 years
of age and a student in a secondary school who has not graduated and received a diploma
and the actor is an employee or independent contractor of the secondary school and in a
current or recent position of authority over the complainantnew text end. Neither mistake as to the
complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;

(f) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was
at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration. Neither mistake
as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;

(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was at
least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual penetration, and:

(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the penetration;

(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or

(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.

Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is
a defense;

(h) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient of the psychotherapist
and the sexual penetration occurred:

(i) during the psychotherapy session; or

(ii) outside the psychotherapy session if an ongoing psychotherapist-patient relationship
exists.

Consent by the complainant is not a defense;

(i) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a former patient of the
psychotherapist and the former patient is emotionally dependent upon the psychotherapist;

(j) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient or former patient and
the sexual penetration occurred by means of therapeutic deception. Consent by the
complainant is not a defense;

(k) the actor accomplishes the sexual penetration by means of deception or false
representation that the penetration is for a bona fide medical purpose. Consent by the
complainant is not a defense;

(l) the actor is or purports to be a member of the clergy, the complainant is not married
to the actor, and:

(i) the sexual penetration occurred during the course of a meeting in which the
complainant sought or received religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort from the actor
in private; or

(ii) the sexual penetration occurred during a period of time in which the complainant
was meeting on an ongoing basis with the actor to seek or receive religious or spiritual
advice, aid, or comfort in private. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;

(m) the actor is an employee, independent contractor, or volunteer of a state, county,
city, or privately operated adult or juvenile correctional system, or secure treatment facility,
or treatment facility providing services to clients civilly committed as mentally ill and
dangerous, sexually dangerous persons, or sexual psychopathic personalities, including, but
not limited to, jails, prisons, detention centers, or work release facilities, and the complainant
is a resident of a facility or under supervision of the correctional system. Consent by the
complainant is not a defense;

(n) the actor provides or is an agent of an entity that provides special transportation
service, the complainant used the special transportation service, and the sexual penetration
occurred during or immediately before or after the actor transported the complainant. Consent
by the complainant is not a defense; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(o) the actor performs massage or other bodywork for hire, the complainant was a user
of one of those services, and nonconsensual sexual penetration occurred during or
immediately before or after the actor performed or was hired to perform one of those services
for the complainantdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin (p) the actor is a peace officer, as defined in section 626.84, and the peace officer
physically or constructively restrains the complainant or the complainant does not reasonably
feel free to leave the peace officer's presence. Consent by the complainant is not a defense.
This paragraph does not apply to any penetration of the mouth, genitals, or anus during a
lawful search.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.345, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

A person who engages in sexual contact with another
person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree if any of the following
circumstances exists:

(a) the complainant is under 13 years of age and the actor is no more than 36 months
older than the complainant. Neither mistake as to the complainant's age or consent to the
act by the complainant is a defense. In a prosecution under this clause, the state is not
required to prove that the sexual contact was coerced;

(b) the complainant is at least 13 but less than 16 years of age and the actor is more than
48 months older than the complainant or in anew text begin current or recentnew text end position of authority over
the complainant. Consent by the complainant to the act is not a defense. deleted text beginIn any such case,
if the actor is no more than 120 months older than the complainant, it shall be an affirmative
defense which must be proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the actor reasonably
believes the complainant to be 16 years of age or older. In all other cases,deleted text end new text beginNeither new text endmistake
as to the complainant's age deleted text beginshall not bedeleted text endnew text begin nor consent to the act by the complainant shall benew text end
a defense;

(d) the actor knows or has reason to know that the complainant is mentally impaired,
mentally incapacitated, or physically helpless;

(f) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant and the complainant was
at least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual contact. Neither mistake as to
the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is a defense;

(g) the actor has a significant relationship to the complainant, the complainant was at
least 16 but under 18 years of age at the time of the sexual contact, and:

(i) the actor or an accomplice used force or coercion to accomplish the contact;

(ii) the complainant suffered personal injury; or

(iii) the sexual abuse involved multiple acts committed over an extended period of time.

Neither mistake as to the complainant's age nor consent to the act by the complainant is
a defense;

(h) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient of the psychotherapist
and the sexual contact occurred:

(i) during the psychotherapy session; or

(ii) outside the psychotherapy session if an ongoing psychotherapist-patient relationship
exists. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;

(i) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a former patient of the
psychotherapist and the former patient is emotionally dependent upon the psychotherapist;

(j) the actor is a psychotherapist and the complainant is a patient or former patient and
the sexual contact occurred by means of therapeutic deception. Consent by the complainant
is not a defense;

(k) the actor accomplishes the sexual contact by means of deception or false representation
that the contact is for a bona fide medical purpose. Consent by the complainant is not a
defense;

(1) the actor is or purports to be a member of the clergy, the complainant is not married
to the actor, and:

(i) the sexual contact occurred during the course of a meeting in which the complainant
sought or received religious or spiritual advice, aid, or comfort from the actor in private; or

(ii) the sexual contact occurred during a period of time in which the complainant was
meeting on an ongoing basis with the actor to seek or receive religious or spiritual advice,
aid, or comfort in private. Consent by the complainant is not a defense;

(n) the actor provides or is an agent of an entity that provides special transportation
service, the complainant used the special transportation service, the complainant is not
married to the actor, and the sexual contact occurred during or immediately before or after
the actor transported the complainant. Consent by the complainant is not a defense; deleted text beginor
deleted text end

(o) the actor performs massage or other bodywork for hire, the complainant was a user
of one of those services, and nonconsensual sexual contact occurred during or immediately
before or after the actor performed or was hired to perform one of those services for the
complainantdeleted text begin.deleted text endnew text begin; or
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 609.3451, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

A person is guilty of criminal sexual conduct in the fifth
degree:

(1) if the person engages in nonconsensual sexual contact; or

(2) the person engages in masturbation or lewd exhibition of the genitals in the presence
of a minor under the age of 16, knowing or having reason to know the minor is present.

For purposes of this section, "sexual contact" has the meaning given in section 609.341,
subdivision 11, paragraph (a), clauses (i), (iv), and (v)deleted text begin, but does not include the intentional
touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the buttocksdeleted text end. Sexual contact also
includes the intentional removal or attempted removal of clothing covering the complainant's
intimate parts or undergarments, and the nonconsensual touching by the complainant of the
actor's intimate parts, effected by the actor, if the action is performed with sexual or
aggressive intent.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.246, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

It is unlawful for a person to promote, employ, use or permit a
minor to engage in or assist others to engage minors in posing or modeling alone or with
others in any sexual performance or pornographic work if the person knows or has reason
to know that the conduct intended is a sexual performance or a pornographic work.

Any person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to
imprisonment for not more than deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000
for the first offense and $40,000 for a second or subsequent offense, or both.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.246, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

A person who owns or operates a business
in which a pornographic work, as defined in this section, is disseminated to an adult or a
minor or is reproduced, and who knows the content and character of the pornographic work
disseminated or reproduced, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000 for the first
offense and $40,000 for a second or subsequent offense, or both.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.246, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

A person who, knowing or with reason to know its content and
character, disseminates for profit to an adult or a minor a pornographic work, as defined in
this section, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than
deleted text begin tendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000 for the first offense and
$40,000 for a second or subsequent offense, or both.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.246, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence
otherwise applicable to the offense or any provision of the sentencing guidelines, when a
court commits a person to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for violating this
section, the court shall provide that after the person has been released from prison, the
commissioner shall place the person on conditional release for deleted text beginfivedeleted text endnew text begin tennew text end years. If the person
has previously been convicted of a violation of this section, section 609.342, 609.343,
609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, 609.3453, or 617.247, or any similar statute of the United
States, this state, or any state, the commissioner shall place the person on conditional release
for deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years. The terms of conditional release are governed by section 609.3455,
subdivision 8.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.246, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin A person convicted under this section must
serve a minimum of six months of incarceration. If the person has a prior conviction under
this section or section 617.247, or is required to register as a predatory offender, the person
must serve a minimum of 12 months of incarceration.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.247, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

(a) A person who disseminates pornographic work
to an adult or a minor, knowing or with reason to know its content and character, is guilty
of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than deleted text beginsevendeleted text endnew text begin tennew text end years and a
fine of not more than $10,000 for a first offense and for not more than deleted text begin15deleted text endnew text begin 20new text end years and a
fine of not more than $20,000 for a second or subsequent offense.

(b) A person who violates paragraph (a) is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to
imprisonment for not more than deleted text begin15deleted text endnew text begin 20new text end years if the violation occurs when the person is a
registered predatory offender under section 243.166.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.247, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

(a) A person who possesses a pornographic work or a
computer disk or computer or other electronic, magnetic, or optical storage system or a
storage system of any other type, containing a pornographic work, knowing or with reason
to know its content and character, is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment
for not more than deleted text beginfivedeleted text endnew text begin sevennew text end years and a fine of not more than deleted text begin$5,000deleted text endnew text begin $7,500new text end for a first
offense and for not more than deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years and a fine of not more than deleted text begin$10,000deleted text endnew text begin $15,000new text end for
a second or subsequent offense.

(b) A person who violates paragraph (a) is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to
imprisonment for not more than deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years if the violation occurs when the person is a
registered predatory offender under section 243.166.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.247, subdivision 9, is amended to read:

Notwithstanding the statutory maximum sentence
otherwise applicable to the offense or any provision of the sentencing guidelines, when a
court commits a person to the custody of the commissioner of corrections for violating this
section, the court shall provide that after the person has been released from prison, the
commissioner shall place the person on conditional release for deleted text beginfivedeleted text endnew text begin tennew text end years. If the person
has previously been convicted of a violation of this section, section 609.342, 609.343,
609.344, 609.345, 609.3451, 609.3453, or 617.246, or any similar statute of the United
States, this state, or any state, the commissioner shall place the person on conditional release
for deleted text begintendeleted text endnew text begin 15new text end years. The terms of conditional release are governed by section 609.3455,
subdivision 8.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 617.247, is amended by adding a subdivision
to read:

new text begin A person convicted under this section must
serve a minimum of six months of incarceration. If the person has a prior conviction under
this section or section 617.246, or is required to register as a predatory offender, the person
must serve a minimum of 12 months of incarceration.
new text end

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019, and applies to crimes
committed on or after that date.
new text end

Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 626.556, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings
given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:

(a) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected occurrence
or event which:

(1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due care; and

(2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the
facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance with
the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.

(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.

(1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, certified license-exempt child care center,
residential facility, agency, hospital, sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to
be licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58, 241.021, or 245A.01 to 245A.16, or chapter
144H, 245D, or 245H;

(2) a school as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13; and chapter 124E;
or

(3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section 256B.0625,
subdivision 19a.

(d) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of
subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child
maltreatment report that does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment.
Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment
occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members
and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.

(e) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child and the
risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment occurred and
whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used when reports
involve sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment, and for reports of maltreatment in
facilities required to be licensed or certified under chapter 245A, 245D, or 245H; under
sections 144.50 to 144.58 and 241.021; in a school as defined in section 120A.05,
subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider
association as defined in section 256B.0625, subdivision 19a.

(f) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional stability
of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's ability to
function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to the child's
culture.

(g) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under
clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:

(1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary
food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or
mental health when reasonably able to do so;

(2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the child's
physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, which
may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due
to parental neglect;

(3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements appropriate
for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical condition,
length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the child's own basic
needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;

(4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 120A.22 and
260C.163, subdivision 11, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's
child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 125A.091, subdivision
5;

(5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely
because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in good
faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of disease or
remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, or caretaker,
or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report if a lack of
medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does not impose
upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with necessary food,
clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;

(6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 253B.02, subdivision
2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal symptoms in
the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at delivery or the
child at birth, medical effects or developmental delays during the child's first year of life
that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, or the presence of a
fetal alcohol spectrum disorder;

(7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (5);

(8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or person
responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs and safety;
or

(9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired emotional
functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and observable effect
in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not within the normal range
for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to the child's culture.

(h) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:

(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the
center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;

(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that resulted
in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;

(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar nonmaltreatment
mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;

(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with
remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or
not; and

(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual
providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the
incident.

This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter
9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of substantiated
maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall determine that a
nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.

(i) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 245A.02.

(j) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning within
the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a parent, guardian,
or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual functioning outside
the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a teacher, school
administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful custodian of a child having
either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, but not limited to, day care,
babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, and coaching.

(k) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury,
inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental
means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's
history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions,
that have not been authorized under section 125A.0942 or 245.825.

Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child
administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does
not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as allowed
by section 121A.582. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but are not
limited to, any of the following:

(1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;

(2) striking a child with a closed fist;

(3) shaking a child under age three;

(4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child under 18
months of age;

(5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;

(6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6;

(7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;

(8) striking a child who is at least age one but under age four on the face or head, which
results in an injury;

(9) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled
substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or
punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor
coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the child
to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed to the
substances;

(10) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section 609.379,
including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or

(11) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's
care that is a violation under section 121A.58.

(l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is not
limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and
parenting time expeditor services.

(m) "Report" means any communication received by the local welfare agency, police
department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for child protection pursuant to this section
that describes neglect or physical or sexual abuse of a child and contains sufficient content
to identify the child and any person believed to be responsible for the neglect or abuse, if
known.

(n) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the child's
care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in section 609.341,
or by a person in a new text begincurrent or recent new text endposition of authority, as defined in section 609.341,
subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 609.342 (criminal sexual
conduct in the first degree), 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), 609.344
(criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth
degree), or 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual abuse also includes
any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of prostitution offenses under
sections 609.321 to 609.324 or 617.246. Effective May 29, 2017, sexual abuse includes all
reports of known or suspected child sex trafficking involving a child who is identified as a
victim of sex trafficking. Sexual abuse includes child sex trafficking as defined in section
609.321, subdivisions 7a and 7b. Sexual abuse includes threatened sexual abuse which
includes the status of a parent or household member who has committed a violation which
requires registration as an offender under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or
(b), or required registration under section 243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).

(o) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, by
act or omission, commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their care that
constitutes any of the following:

(1) egregious harm as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14;

(2) abandonment under section 260C.301, subdivision 2;

(3) neglect as defined in paragraph (g), clause (2), that substantially endangers the child's
physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as failure to
thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;

(4) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.185, 609.19, or 609.195;

(5) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 609.20 or 609.205;

(6) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 609.221, 609.222, or 609.223;

(7) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 609.322;

(8) criminal sexual conduct under sections 609.342 to 609.3451;

(9) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 609.352;

(10) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section 609.377
or 609.378;

(11) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 617.246; or

(12) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney file
a termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.

(p) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that represents
a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened injury includes,
but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the child's care, as defined
in paragraph (j), clause (1), who has:

(1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition that
constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 14, or a similar law
of another jurisdiction;

(2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 260C.301, subdivision 1, paragraph
(b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;

(3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights
under section 260C.301, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or

(4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent legal and
physical custody of a child to a relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 260C.201,
subdivision 11, paragraph (d), clause (1), section 260C.515, subdivision 4, or a similar law
of another jurisdiction.

A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the responsible social services
agency receives birth match data under paragraph (q) from the Department of Human
Services.

(q) Upon receiving data under section 144.225, subdivision 2b, contained in a birth
record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to threatened injury
under paragraph (p), the Department of Human Services shall send the data to the responsible
social services agency. The data is known as "birth match" data. Unless the responsible
social services agency has already begun an investigation or assessment of the report due
to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of parentage and the parent's previous
history with child protection, the agency shall accept the birth match data as a report under
this section. The agency may use either a family assessment or investigation to determine
whether the child is safe. All of the provisions of this section apply. If the child is determined
to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county attorney to determine the appropriateness
of filing a petition alleging the child is in need of protection or services under section
260C.007, subdivision 6, clause (16), in order to deliver needed services. If the child is
determined not to be safe, the agency and the county attorney shall take appropriate action
as required under section 260C.503, subdivision 2.

(r) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take into
account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates and
accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, welfare,
and safety.

new text begin This section is effective August 1, 2019.
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Minnesota Statutes 2018, section 628.26, is amended to read:

(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be
found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.

(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made
at any time after the commission of the offense.

(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at
any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the
time of the offense.

(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18
years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2),
shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission
of the offense.

(e) Indictments or compl

new text begin APPROPRIATIONS
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new text begin Available for the Year
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new text begin Ending June 30
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new text begin 2019
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new text begin 2020
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new text begin 2021
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