<div class="xtend">
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.1.1"></a><var>1.1</var>A bill for an act<br />
            		
         </div><a id="pl.1.2"></a><var>1.2</var>relating to health and human services; modifying health care, human services <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.3"></a><var>1.3</var>operations, and continuing care provisions; modifying bond requirements for <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.4"></a><var>1.4</var>medical suppliers; requiring the commissioner to seek federal authority to amend <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.5"></a><var>1.5</var>the state Medicaid plan; modifying the criteria for stroke centers; making changes <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.6"></a><var>1.6</var>to home care provider licensing and compliance monitoring; requiring dementia <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.7"></a><var>1.7</var>care training; modifying personal care assistance provisions; modifying child <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.8"></a><var>1.8</var>care and foster care licensing provisions; amending mental and chemical health <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.9"></a><var>1.9</var>provisions; clarifying common entry point related to reports of maltreatment of <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.10"></a><var>1.10</var>vulnerable adults; making changes to the local public health system; modifying <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.11"></a><var>1.11</var>the licensure requirements for chiropractors, athletic trainers, occupational <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.12"></a><var>1.12</var>therapists, licensed professional clinical counselors, podiatry; modifying the <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.13"></a><var>1.13</var>certification agencies for doula certification; providing an exception for eyeglass <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.14"></a><var>1.14</var>prescription expiration date; requiring employers to report diverted narcotics; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.15"></a><var>1.15</var>regulating electronic cigarettes; exempting certain funeral establishments; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.16"></a><var>1.16</var>exempting dental facilities from diagnostic imaging accreditation; requiring a <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.17"></a><var>1.17</var>patient notice with mammogram results; requiring pharmacy benefit mangers <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.18"></a><var>1.18</var>to provide maximum allowable cost pricing to pharmacies; prohibiting  the use <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.19"></a><var>1.19</var>of tanning equipment for children under the age of 18; specifying the protocol <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.20"></a><var>1.20</var>for pharmacist administration of vaccines; requiring the commissioner of <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.21"></a><var>1.21</var>health to assess and report on the quality of care for ST elevation myocardial <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.22"></a><var>1.22</var>infarction; requiring AED devices to be registered with a registry; establishing <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.23"></a><var>1.23</var>a health care home advisory committee; authorizing the use of complementary <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.24"></a><var>1.24</var>and alternative health care practices; modifying provisions governing the <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.25"></a><var>1.25</var>Board of Dentistry; modifying provisions governing the Board of Pharmacy; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.26"></a><var>1.26</var>providing penalties; changing grounds for disciplinary action by the Board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.27"></a><var>1.27</var>Nursing; making changes to the health professionals services program; adding <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.28"></a><var>1.28</var>substances to the schedule for controlled substances; authorizing rulemaking; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.29"></a><var>1.29</var>changing fees; appropriating money;amending Minnesota Statutes 2012, <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.30"></a><var>1.30</var>sections 62J.497, subdivision 5; 144.413, subdivision 4; 144.4165; 144D.065; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.31"></a><var>1.31</var>145A.02, subdivisions 5, 15, by adding subdivisions; 145A.03, subdivisions 1, 2, <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.32"></a><var>1.32</var>4, 5, by adding a subdivision; 145A.04, as amended; 145A.05, subdivision 2; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.33"></a><var>1.33</var>145A.06, subdivisions 2, 5, 6, by adding subdivisions; 145A.07, subdivisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.34"></a><var>1.34</var>1, 2; 145A.08; 145A.11, subdivision 2; 145A.131; 146A.01, subdivision 6; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.35"></a><var>1.35</var>148.01, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision; 148.105, subdivision 1; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.36"></a><var>1.36</var>148.261, subdivisions 1, 4, by adding a subdivision; 148.6402, subdivision 17; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.37"></a><var>1.37</var>148.6404; 148.6430; 148.6432, subdivision 1; 148.7802, subdivisions 3, 9; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.38"></a><var>1.38</var>148.7803, subdivision 1; 148.7805, subdivision 1; 148.7808, subdivisions 1, 4; <br />
         		<a id="pl.1.39"></a><var>1.39</var>148.7812, subdivision 2; 148.7813, by adding a subdivision; 148.7814; 148.995, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.1"></a><var>2.1</var>subdivision 2; 148.996, subdivision 2; 148B.5301, subdivisions 2, 4; 149A.92, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.2"></a><var>2.2</var>by adding a subdivision; 150A.01, subdivision 8a; 150A.06, subdivisions 1, 1a, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.3"></a><var>2.3</var>1c, 1d, 2, 2a, 2d, 3, 8; 150A.091, subdivisions 3, 8, 16; 150A.10; 151.01; 151.06; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.4"></a><var>2.4</var>151.211; 151.26; 151.361, subdivision 2; 151.37, as amended; 151.44; 151.58, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.5"></a><var>2.5</var>subdivisions 2, 3, 5; 152.126, as amended; 153.16, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, by adding <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.6"></a><var>2.6</var>subdivisions; 214.09, subdivision 3; 214.32, by adding a subdivision; 214.33, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.7"></a><var>2.7</var>subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; 245A.02, subdivision 19; 245A.03, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.8"></a><var>2.8</var>subdivision 6a; 253B.092, subdivision 2; 254B.01, by adding a subdivision; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.9"></a><var>2.9</var>254B.05, subdivision 5; 256B.0654, subdivision 1; 256B.0659, subdivisions 11, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.10"></a><var>2.10</var>28; 256B.0751, by adding a subdivision; 256B.493, subdivision 1; 256B.5016, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.11"></a><var>2.11</var>subdivision 1; 256B.69, subdivision 16; 256D.01, subdivision 1e; 256G.02, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.12"></a><var>2.12</var>subdivision 6; 256I.03, subdivision 3; 256I.04, subdivision 2a; 260C.157, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.13"></a><var>2.13</var>subdivision 3; 260C.212, subdivision 2; 260C.215, subdivisions 4, 6, by adding <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.14"></a><var>2.14</var>a subdivision; 325H.05; 325H.09; 393.01, subdivisions 2, 7; 461.12; 461.18; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.15"></a><var>2.15</var>461.19; 609.685; 609.6855; 626.556, subdivision 11c, by adding a subdivision; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.16"></a><var>2.16</var>Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, sections 103I.205, subdivision 4; 144.1225, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.17"></a><var>2.17</var>subdivision 2; 144.493, subdivisions 1, 2; 144.494, subdivision 2; 144A.474, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.18"></a><var>2.18</var>subdivisions 8, 12; 144A.475, subdivision 3, by adding subdivisions; 144A.4799, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.19"></a><var>2.19</var>subdivision 3; 145A.06, subdivision 7; 146A.11, subdivision 1; 151.252, by <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.20"></a><var>2.20</var>adding a subdivision; 152.02, subdivision 2; 245A.1435; 245A.50, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.21"></a><var>2.21</var>5; 245D.33; 254A.035, subdivision 2; 254A.04; 256B.04, subdivision 21; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.22"></a><var>2.22</var>256B.0625, subdivision 9; 256B.0659, subdivision 21; 256B.0922, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.23"></a><var>2.23</var>1; 256B.093, subdivision 1; 256B.4912, subdivision 10; 256B.492; 256B.85, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.24"></a><var>2.24</var>subdivision 12; 256D.44, subdivision 5; 260.835, subdivision 2; 364.09; 626.557, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.25"></a><var>2.25</var>subdivision 9; Laws 2011, First Special Session chapter 9, article 7, section 7; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.26"></a><var>2.26</var>article 9, section 17; Laws 2013, chapter 108, article 7, section 60; proposing <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.27"></a><var>2.27</var>coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 144; 144D; 145; 146A; 150A; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.28"></a><var>2.28</var>151; 325H; 403; 611A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 145A.02, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.29"></a><var>2.29</var>subdivision 2; 145A.03, subdivisions 3, 6; 145A.09, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.30"></a><var>2.30</var>7; 145A.10, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5a, 7, 9, 10; 145A.12, subdivisions 1, 2, 7; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.31"></a><var>2.31</var>148.01, subdivision 3; 148.7808, subdivision 2; 148.7813; 256.01, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.32"></a><var>2.32</var>32; 325H.06; 325H.08; Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 148.6440; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.33"></a><var>2.33</var>Minnesota Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 3, 4b, 9b; 2500.4000; 9500.1126; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.34"></a><var>2.34</var>9500.1450, subpart 3; 9500.1452, subpart 3; 9500.1456; 9505.5300; 9505.5305; <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.35"></a><var>2.35</var>9505.5310; 9505.5315; 9505.5325; 9525.1580.<br />
         		<a id="pl.2.36"></a><var>2.36</var>BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.2.37"></a><var>2.37</var><b>ARTICLE 1</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.2.38"></a><var>2.38</var><b>HEALTH DEPARTMENT</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.1.1.0"></a><a id="pl.2.39"></a><var>2.39</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 62J.497, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.2.40"></a><var>2.40</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Electronic drug prior authorization standardization and transmission.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.2.41"></a><var>2.41</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(a) The commissioner of health, in consultation with the Minnesota e-Health Advisory <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.42"></a><var>2.42</var>Committee and the Minnesota Administrative Uniformity Committee, shall, by February <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.43"></a><var>2.43</var>15, 2010, identify an outline on how best to standardize drug prior authorization request <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.44"></a><var>2.44</var>transactions between providers and group purchasers with the goal of maximizing <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.45"></a><var>2.45</var>administrative simplification and efficiency in preparation for electronic transmissions.<br />
         		<a id="pl.2.46"></a><var>2.46</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) By January 1, 2014, the Minnesota Administrative Uniformity Committee shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.2.47"></a><var>2.47</var>develop the standard companion guide by which providers and group purchasers will <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.1"></a><var>3.1</var>exchange standard drug authorization requests using electronic data interchange standards, <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.2"></a><var>3.2</var>if available, with the goal of alignment with standards that are or will potentially be used <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.3"></a><var>3.3</var>nationally.<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.4"></a><var>3.4</var>(c) No later than January 1, 2015 2016, drug prior authorization requests must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.5"></a><var>3.5</var>accessible and submitted by health care providers, and accepted by group purchasers, <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.6"></a><var>3.6</var>electronically through secure electronic transmissions. Facsimile shall not be considered <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.7"></a><var>3.7</var>electronic transmission.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.2.0"></a><a id="pl.3.8"></a><var>3.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 103I.205, subdivision 4, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.9"></a><var>3.9</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.10"></a><var>3.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>License required.</b> (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), (c), (d), or (e), <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.11"></a><var>3.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>103I.401, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, or section 
         <statute_ref>103I.601, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, a person may not <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.12"></a><var>3.12</var>drill, construct, repair, or seal a well or boring unless the person has a well contractor's <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.13"></a><var>3.13</var>license in possession.<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.14"></a><var>3.14</var>(b) A person may construct, repair, and seal a monitoring well if the person:<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.15"></a><var>3.15</var>(1) is a professional engineer licensed under sections 
         <statute_ref>326.02</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>326.15</statute_ref> in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.16"></a><var>3.16</var>branches of civil or geological engineering;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.17"></a><var>3.17</var>(2) is a hydrologist or hydrogeologist certified by the American Institute of <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.18"></a><var>3.18</var>Hydrology;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.19"></a><var>3.19</var>(3) is a professional geoscientist licensed under sections 
         <statute_ref>326.02</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>326.15</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.20"></a><var>3.20</var>(4) is a geologist certified by the American Institute of Professional Geologists; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.21"></a><var>3.21</var>(5) meets the qualifications established by the commissioner in rule.<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.22"></a><var>3.22</var>A person must register with the commissioner as a monitoring well contractor on <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.23"></a><var>3.23</var>forms provided by the commissioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.24"></a><var>3.24</var>(c) A person may do the following work with a limited well/boring contractor's <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.25"></a><var>3.25</var>license in possession. A separate license is required for each of the six activities:<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.26"></a><var>3.26</var>(1) installing or repairing well screens or pitless units or pitless adaptors and well <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.27"></a><var>3.27</var>casings from the pitless adaptor or pitless unit to the upper termination of the well casing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.28"></a><var>3.28</var>(2) constructing, repairing, and sealing drive point wells or dug wells;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.29"></a><var>3.29</var>(3) installing well pumps or pumping equipment;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.30"></a><var>3.30</var>(4) sealing wells;<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.31"></a><var>3.31</var>(5) constructing, repairing, or sealing dewatering wells; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.32"></a><var>3.32</var>(6) constructing, repairing, or sealing bored geothermal heat exchangers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.3.33"></a><var>3.33</var>(d) A person may construct, repair, and seal an elevator boring with an elevator <br />
         		<a id="pl.3.34"></a><var>3.34</var>boring contractor's license.<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.1"></a><var>4.1</var>(e) Notwithstanding other provisions of this chapter requiring a license or <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.2"></a><var>4.2</var>registration, a license or registration is not required for a person who complies with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.3"></a><var>4.3</var>other provisions of this chapter if the person is:<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.4"></a><var>4.4</var>(1) an individual who constructs a well on land that is owned or leased by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.5"></a><var>4.5</var>individual and is used by the individual for farming or agricultural purposes or as the <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.6"></a><var>4.6</var>individual's place of abode; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.7"></a><var>4.7</var>(2) an individual who performs labor or services for a contractor licensed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.8"></a><var>4.8</var>registered under the provisions of this chapter in connection with the construction, sealing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.9"></a><var>4.9</var>or repair of a well or boring at the direction and under the personal supervision of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.10"></a><var>4.10</var>contractor licensed or registered under the provisions of this chapter; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.11"></a><var>4.11</var>(3) a licensed plumber who is repairing submersible pumps or water pipes associated <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.12"></a><var>4.12</var>with well water systems if the repair location is within an area where there is no licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.13"></a><var>4.13</var>or registered well contractor within 25 miles.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.3.0"></a><a id="pl.4.14"></a><var>4.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. <b>[144.1212] NOTICE TO PATIENT; MAMMOGRAM RESULTS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.4.15"></a><var>4.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definition.</b> For purposes of this section, "facility" has the meaning <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.16"></a><var>4.16</var>provided in United States Code, title 42, section 263b(a)(3)(A).<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.17"></a><var>4.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Required notice.</b> A facility at which a mammography examination is <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.18"></a><var>4.18</var>performed shall, if a patient is categorized by the facility as having heterogeneously <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.19"></a><var>4.19</var>dense breasts or extremely dense breasts based on the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.20"></a><var>4.20</var>System established by the American College of Radiology, include in the summary of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.21"></a><var>4.21</var>written report that is sent to the patient, as required by the federal Mammography Quality <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.22"></a><var>4.22</var>Standards Act, United States Code, title 42, section 263b, notice that the patient has dense <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.23"></a><var>4.23</var>breast tissue, that this may make it more difficult to detect cancer on a mammogram, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.24"></a><var>4.24</var>that it may increase her risk of breast cancer. The following language may be used:<br />
         		<a id="pl.4.25"></a><var>4.25</var>"Your mammogram shows that your breast tissue is dense. Dense breast tissue is <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.26"></a><var>4.26</var>relatively common and is found in more than 40 percent of women. However, dense <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.27"></a><var>4.27</var>breast tissue may make it more difficult to identify precancerous lesions or cancer through <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.28"></a><var>4.28</var>a mammogram and may also be associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. This <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.29"></a><var>4.29</var>information about the results of your mammogram is given to you to raise your own <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.30"></a><var>4.30</var>awareness and to help inform your conversations with your treating clinician who has <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.31"></a><var>4.31</var>received a report of your mammogram results. Together you can decide which screening <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.32"></a><var>4.32</var>options are right for you based on your mammogram results, individual risk factors, <br />
         		<a id="pl.4.33"></a><var>4.33</var>or physical examination."<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.4.0"></a><a id="pl.5.1"></a><var>5.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144.1225, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.2"></a><var>5.2</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.3"></a><var>5.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Accreditation required.</b> (a)(1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.4"></a><var>5.4</var> paragraphs (b) and (c), advanced diagnostic imaging services eligible for reimbursement <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.5"></a><var>5.5</var>from any source, including, but not limited to, the individual receiving such services <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.6"></a><var>5.6</var>and any individual or group insurance contract, plan, or policy delivered in this state, <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.7"></a><var>5.7</var>including, but not limited to, private health insurance plans, workers' compensation <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.8"></a><var>5.8</var>insurance, motor vehicle insurance, the State Employee Group Insurance Program <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.9"></a><var>5.9</var>(SEGIP), and other state health care programs, shall be reimbursed only if the facility at <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.10"></a><var>5.10</var>which the service has been conducted and processed is licensed pursuant to sections <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.5.11"></a><var>5.11</var>144.50
         </statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.56</statute_ref> or accredited by one of the following entities:<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.12"></a><var>5.12</var>(i) American College of Radiology (ACR);<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.13"></a><var>5.13</var>(ii) Intersocietal Accreditation Commission (IAC);<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.14"></a><var>5.14</var>(iii) the Joint Commission; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.15"></a><var>5.15</var>(iv) other relevant accreditation organization designated by the Secretary of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.16"></a><var>5.16</var>United States Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to United States Code, <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.17"></a><var>5.17</var>title 42, section 1395M.<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.18"></a><var>5.18</var>(2) All accreditation standards recognized under this section must include, but are <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.19"></a><var>5.19</var>not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.20"></a><var>5.20</var>(i) provisions establishing qualifications of the physician;<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.21"></a><var>5.21</var>(ii) standards for quality control and routine performance monitoring by a medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.22"></a><var>5.22</var>physicist;<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.23"></a><var>5.23</var>(iii) qualifications of the technologist, including minimum standards of supervised <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.24"></a><var>5.24</var>clinical experience;<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.25"></a><var>5.25</var>(iv) guidelines for personnel and patient safety; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.26"></a><var>5.26</var>(v) standards for initial and ongoing quality control using clinical image review <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.27"></a><var>5.27</var>and quantitative testing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.5.28"></a><var>5.28</var>(b) Any facility that performs advanced diagnostic imaging services and is eligible <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.29"></a><var>5.29</var>to receive reimbursement for such services from any source in paragraph (a), clause (1), <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.30"></a><var>5.30</var>must obtain licensure pursuant to sections 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.56</statute_ref> or accreditation pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.31"></a><var>5.31</var>paragraph (a) by August 1, 2013. Thereafter, all facilities that provide advanced diagnostic <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.32"></a><var>5.32</var>imaging services in the state must obtain licensure or accreditation prior to within <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.33"></a><var>5.33</var>six months of commencing operations and must, at all times, maintain either licensure <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.34"></a><var>5.34</var>pursuant to sections 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.56</statute_ref> or accreditation with an accrediting organization as <br />
         		<a id="pl.5.35"></a><var>5.35</var>provided in paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.6.1"></a><var>6.1</var>(c) Dental clinics or offices that perform diagnostic imaging through dental cone <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.2"></a><var>6.2</var>beam computerized tomography do not need to meet the accreditation or reporting <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.3"></a><var>6.3</var>requirements in this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.6.4"></a><var>6.4</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>The amendment to paragraph (b) is effective the day <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.5"></a><var>6.5</var>following final enactment. The amendment to paragraph (a) and paragraph (c) are <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.6"></a><var>6.6</var>effective retroactively from August 1, 2013.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.5.0"></a><a id="pl.6.7"></a><var>6.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144.493, subdivision 1, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.8"></a><var>6.8</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.6.9"></a><var>6.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Comprehensive stroke center.</b> A hospital meets the criteria for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.10"></a><var>6.10</var>comprehensive stroke center if the hospital has been certified as a comprehensive stroke <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.11"></a><var>6.11</var>center by the joint commission or another nationally recognized accreditation entity and <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.12"></a><var>6.12</var>the hospital participates in the Minnesota stroke registry program.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.6.0"></a><a id="pl.6.13"></a><var>6.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144.493, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.14"></a><var>6.14</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.6.15"></a><var>6.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Primary stroke center.</b> A hospital meets the criteria for a primary stroke <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.16"></a><var>6.16</var>center if the hospital has been certified as a primary stroke center by the joint commission <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.17"></a><var>6.17</var>or another nationally recognized accreditation entity and the hospital participates in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.18"></a><var>6.18</var>Minnesota stroke registry program.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.7.0"></a><a id="pl.6.19"></a><var>6.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144.494, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.20"></a><var>6.20</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.6.21"></a><var>6.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Designation.</b> A hospital that voluntarily meets the criteria for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.22"></a><var>6.22</var>comprehensive stroke center, primary stroke center, or acute stroke ready hospital may <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.23"></a><var>6.23</var>apply to the commissioner for designation, and upon the commissioner's review and <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.24"></a><var>6.24</var>approval of the application, shall be designated as a comprehensive stroke center, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.25"></a><var>6.25</var>primary stroke center, or an acute stroke ready hospital for a three-year period. If a <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.26"></a><var>6.26</var>hospital loses its certification as a comprehensive stroke center or primary stroke center <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.27"></a><var>6.27</var>from the joint commission or other nationally recognized accreditation entity, or no <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.28"></a><var>6.28</var>longer participates in the Minnesota stroke registry program, its Minnesota designation <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.29"></a><var>6.29</var>shall be immediately withdrawn. Prior to the expiration of the three-year designation, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.30"></a><var>6.30</var>hospital seeking to remain part of the voluntary acute stroke system may reapply to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.6.31"></a><var>6.31</var>commissioner for designation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.8.0"></a><a id="pl.6.32"></a><var>6.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. <b>[144.497] ST ELEVATION MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.7.1"></a><var>7.1</var>The commissioner of health shall assess and report on the quality of care provided in <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.2"></a><var>7.2</var>the state for ST elevation myocardial infarction response and treatment. The commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.3"></a><var>7.3</var>shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.4"></a><var>7.4</var>(1) utilize and analyze data provided by ST elevation myocardial infarction receiving <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.5"></a><var>7.5</var>centers to the ACTION Registry-Get with the guidelines or an equivalent data platform <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.6"></a><var>7.6</var>that does not identify individuals or associate specific ST elevation myocardial infarction <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.7"></a><var>7.7</var>heart attack events with an identifiable individual;<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.8"></a><var>7.8</var>(2) quarterly post a summary report of the data in aggregate form on the Department <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.9"></a><var>7.9</var>of Health Web site;<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.10"></a><var>7.10</var>(3) annually inform the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.11"></a><var>7.11</var>of progress toward improving the quality of care and patient outcomes for ST elevation <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.12"></a><var>7.12</var>myocardial infarctions; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.13"></a><var>7.13</var>(4) coordinate to the extent possible with national voluntary health organizations <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.14"></a><var>7.14</var>involved in ST elevation myocardial infarction heart attack quality improvement to <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.15"></a><var>7.15</var>encourage ST elevation myocardial infarction receiving centers to report data consistent <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.16"></a><var>7.16</var>with nationally recognized guidelines on the treatment of individuals with confirmed ST <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.17"></a><var>7.17</var>elevation myocardial infarction heart attacks within the state and encourage sharing of <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.18"></a><var>7.18</var>information among health care providers on ways to improve the quality of care of ST <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.19"></a><var>7.19</var>elevation myocardial infarction patients in Minnesota.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.9.0"></a><a id="pl.7.20"></a><var>7.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.474, subdivision 8, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.21"></a><var>7.21</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.22"></a><var>7.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Correction orders.</b> (a) A correction order may be issued whenever the <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.23"></a><var>7.23</var>commissioner finds upon survey or during a complaint investigation that a home care <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.24"></a><var>7.24</var>provider, a managerial official, or an employee of the provider is not in compliance with <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.25"></a><var>7.25</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>144A.43</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144A.482</statute_ref>. The correction order shall cite the specific statute and <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.26"></a><var>7.26</var>document areas of noncompliance and the time allowed for correction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.27"></a><var>7.27</var>(b) The commissioner shall mail copies of any correction order within 30 calendar <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.28"></a><var>7.28</var>days after an exit survey to the last known address of the home care provider, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.29"></a><var>7.29</var>electronically scan the correction order and e-mail it to the last known home care provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.30"></a><var>7.30</var>e-mail address, within 30 calendar days after the survey exit date. A copy of each <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.31"></a><var>7.31</var>correction order and copies of any documentation supplied to the commissioner shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.32"></a><var>7.32</var>kept on file by the home care provider, and public documents shall be made available for <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.33"></a><var>7.33</var>viewing by any person upon request. Copies may be kept electronically.<br />
         		<a id="pl.7.34"></a><var>7.34</var>(c) By the correction order date, the home care provider must document in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.7.35"></a><var>7.35</var>provider's records any action taken to comply with the correction order. The commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.1"></a><var>8.1</var>may request a copy of this documentation and the home care provider's action to respond <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.2"></a><var>8.2</var>to the correction order in future surveys, upon a complaint investigation, and as otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.3"></a><var>8.3</var>needed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.4"></a><var>8.4</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective August 1, 2014, and for current <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.5"></a><var>8.5</var>licensees as of December 31, 2013, on or after July 1, 2014, upon license renewal.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.10.0"></a><a id="pl.8.6"></a><var>8.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.474, subdivision 12, <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.7"></a><var>8.7</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.8"></a><var>8.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 12. <b>Reconsideration.</b> (a) The commissioner shall make available to home <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.9"></a><var>8.9</var>care providers a correction order reconsideration process. This process may be used <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.10"></a><var>8.10</var>to challenge the correction order issued, including the level and scope described in <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.11"></a><var>8.11</var>subdivision 11, and any fine assessed. During the correction order reconsideration <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.12"></a><var>8.12</var>request, the issuance for the correction orders under reconsideration are not stayed, but <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.13"></a><var>8.13</var>the department shall post information on the Web site with the correction order that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.14"></a><var>8.14</var>licensee has requested a reconsideration and that the review is pending.<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.15"></a><var>8.15</var>(b) A licensed home care provider may request from the commissioner, in writing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.16"></a><var>8.16</var>a correction order reconsideration regarding any correction order issued to the provider.<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.17"></a><var>8.17</var> The written request for reconsideration must be received by the commissioner within 15 <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.18"></a><var>8.18</var>calendar days of the correction order receipt date. The correction order reconsideration shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.19"></a><var>8.19</var>not be reviewed by any surveyor, investigator, or supervisor that participated in the writing <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.20"></a><var>8.20</var>or reviewing of the correction order being disputed. The correction order reconsiderations <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.21"></a><var>8.21</var>may be conducted in person, by telephone, by another electronic form, or in writing, as <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.22"></a><var>8.22</var>determined by the commissioner. The commissioner shall respond in writing to the request <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.23"></a><var>8.23</var>from a home care provider for a correction order reconsideration within 60 days of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.24"></a><var>8.24</var>date the provider requests a reconsideration. The commissioner's response shall identify <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.25"></a><var>8.25</var>the commissioner's decision regarding each citation challenged by the home care provider.<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.26"></a><var>8.26</var>(c) The findings of a correction order reconsideration process shall be one or more of <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.27"></a><var>8.27</var>the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.28"></a><var>8.28</var>(1) supported in full, the correction order is supported in full, with no deletion of <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.29"></a><var>8.29</var>findings to the citation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.30"></a><var>8.30</var>(2) supported in substance, the correction order is supported, but one or more <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.31"></a><var>8.31</var>findings are deleted or modified without any change in the citation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.32"></a><var>8.32</var>(3) correction order cited an incorrect home care licensing requirement, the correction <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.33"></a><var>8.33</var>order is amended by changing the correction order to the appropriate statutory reference;<br />
         		<a id="pl.8.34"></a><var>8.34</var>(4) correction order was issued under an incorrect citation, the correction order is <br />
         		<a id="pl.8.35"></a><var>8.35</var>amended to be issued under the more appropriate correction order citation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.1"></a><var>9.1</var>(5) the correction order is rescinded;<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.2"></a><var>9.2</var>(6) fine is amended, it is determined that the fine assigned to the correction order <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.3"></a><var>9.3</var>was applied incorrectly; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.4"></a><var>9.4</var>(7) the level or scope of the citation is modified based on the reconsideration.<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.5"></a><var>9.5</var>(d) If the correction order findings are changed by the commissioner, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.6"></a><var>9.6</var>commissioner shall update the correction order Web site.<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.7"></a><var>9.7</var>(e) This subdivision does not apply to temporary licensees.<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.8"></a><var>9.8</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective August 1, 2014, and for current <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.9"></a><var>9.9</var>licensees as of December 31, 2013, on or after July 1, 2014, upon license renewal.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.11.0"></a><a id="pl.9.10"></a><var>9.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.475, subdivision 3, <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.11"></a><var>9.11</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.12"></a><var>9.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Notice.</b> Prior to any suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew a license, <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.13"></a><var>9.13</var>the home care provider shall be entitled to notice and a hearing as provided by sections <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.9.14"></a><var>9.14</var>14.57
         </statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>14.69</statute_ref>. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the commissioner may, <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.15"></a><var>9.15</var>without a prior contested case hearing, temporarily suspend a license or prohibit delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.16"></a><var>9.16</var>of services by a provider for not more than 90 days if the commissioner determines that <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.17"></a><var>9.17</var>the health or safety of a consumer is in imminent danger, there are level 3 or 4 violations <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.18"></a><var>9.18</var>as defined in section 144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b), provided:<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.19"></a><var>9.19</var>(1) advance notice is given to the home care provider;<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.20"></a><var>9.20</var>(2) after notice, the home care provider fails to correct the problem;<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.21"></a><var>9.21</var>(3) the commissioner has reason to believe that other administrative remedies are not <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.22"></a><var>9.22</var>likely to be effective; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.23"></a><var>9.23</var>(4) there is an opportunity for a contested case hearing within the 90 30 days unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.24"></a><var>9.24</var>there is an extension granted by an administrative law judge pursuant to subdivision 3b.<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.25"></a><var>9.25</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>The amendments to this section are effective August 1, 2014, <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.26"></a><var>9.26</var>and for current licensees as of December 31, 2013, on or after July 1, 2014, upon license <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.27"></a><var>9.27</var>renewal.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.12.0"></a><a id="pl.9.28"></a><var>9.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.475, is amended by <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.29"></a><var>9.29</var>adding a subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.9.30"></a><var>9.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3a. <b>Hearing.</b>  Within 15 business days of receipt of the licensee's timely appeal <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.31"></a><var>9.31</var>of a sanction under this section, other than for a temporary suspension, the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.32"></a><var>9.32</var>shall request assignment of an administrative law judge. The commissioner's request must <br />
         		<a id="pl.9.33"></a><var>9.33</var>include a proposed date, time, and place of hearing. A hearing must be conducted by an <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.1"></a><var>10.1</var>administrative law judge pursuant to Minnesota Rules, parts 1400.8505 to 1400.8612, <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.2"></a><var>10.2</var>within 90 calendar days of the request for assignment, unless an extension is requested by <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.3"></a><var>10.3</var>either party and granted by the administrative law judge for good cause or for purposes of <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.4"></a><var>10.4</var>discussing settlement. In no case shall one or more extensions be granted for a total of <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.5"></a><var>10.5</var>more than 90 calendar days unless there is a criminal action pending against the licensee. <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.6"></a><var>10.6</var>If, while a licensee continues to operate pending an appeal of an order for revocation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.7"></a><var>10.7</var>suspension, or refusal to renew a license, the commissioner identifies one or more new <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.8"></a><var>10.8</var>violations of law that meet the requirements of level 3 or 4 violations as defined in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.9"></a><var>10.9</var>144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b), the commissioner shall act immediately to <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.10"></a><var>10.10</var>temporarily suspend the license under the provisions in subdivision 3.<br />
         		<a id="pl.10.11"></a><var>10.11</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective for appeals received on or after <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.12"></a><var>10.12</var>August 1, 2014.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.13.0"></a><a id="pl.10.13"></a><var>10.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.475, is amended by <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.14"></a><var>10.14</var>adding a subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.10.15"></a><var>10.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3b. <b>Temporary suspension expedited hearing.</b> (a) Within five business <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.16"></a><var>10.16</var>days of receipt of the license holder's timely appeal of a temporary suspension, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.17"></a><var>10.17</var>commissioner shall request assignment of an administrative law judge. The request must <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.18"></a><var>10.18</var>include a proposed date, time, and place of a hearing. A hearing must be conducted by an <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.19"></a><var>10.19</var>administrative law judge within 30 calendar days of the request for assignment, unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.20"></a><var>10.20</var>an extension is requested by either party and granted by the administrative law judge <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.21"></a><var>10.21</var>for good cause. The commissioner shall issue a notice of hearing by certified mail or <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.22"></a><var>10.22</var>personal service at least ten business days before the hearing. Certified mail to the last <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.23"></a><var>10.23</var>known address is sufficient. The scope of the hearing shall be limited solely to the issue of <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.24"></a><var>10.24</var>whether the temporary suspension should remain in effect and whether there is sufficient <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.25"></a><var>10.25</var>evidence to conclude that the licensee's actions or failure to comply with applicable laws <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.26"></a><var>10.26</var>are level 3 or 4 violations as defined in section 144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b).<br />
         		<a id="pl.10.27"></a><var>10.27</var>(b) The administrative law judge shall issue findings of fact, conclusions, and a <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.28"></a><var>10.28</var>recommendation within ten business days from the date of hearing. The parties shall have <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.29"></a><var>10.29</var>ten calendar days to submit exceptions to the administrative law judge's report. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.30"></a><var>10.30</var>record shall close at the end of the ten-day period for submission of exceptions. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.31"></a><var>10.31</var>commissioner's final order shall be issued within ten business days from the close of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.32"></a><var>10.32</var>record. When an appeal of a temporary immediate suspension is withdrawn or dismissed, <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.33"></a><var>10.33</var>the commissioner shall issue a final order affirming the temporary immediate suspension <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.34"></a><var>10.34</var>within ten calendar days of the commissioner's receipt of the withdrawal or dismissal. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.10.35"></a><var>10.35</var>license holder is prohibited from operation during the temporary suspension period.<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.1"></a><var>11.1</var>(c) When the final order under paragraph (b) affirms an immediate suspension, and a <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.2"></a><var>11.2</var>final licensing sanction is issued under subdivisions 1 and 2 and the licensee appeals that <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.3"></a><var>11.3</var>sanction, the licensee is prohibited from operation pending a final commissioner's order <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.4"></a><var>11.4</var>after the contested case hearing conducted under chapter 14.<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.5"></a><var>11.5</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective August 1, 2014.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.14.0"></a><a id="pl.11.6"></a><var>11.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 144A.4799, subdivision 3, <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.7"></a><var>11.7</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.8"></a><var>11.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Duties.</b> At the commissioner's request, the advisory council shall provide <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.9"></a><var>11.9</var>advice regarding regulations of Department of Health licensed home care providers in <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.10"></a><var>11.10</var>this chapter such as, including advice on the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.11"></a><var>11.11</var>(1) advice to the commissioner regarding community standards for home care <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.12"></a><var>11.12</var>practices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.13"></a><var>11.13</var>(2) advice to the commissioner on enforcement of licensing standards and whether <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.14"></a><var>11.14</var>certain disciplinary actions are appropriate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.15"></a><var>11.15</var>(3) advice to the commissioner about ways of distributing information to licensees <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.16"></a><var>11.16</var>and consumers of home care;<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.17"></a><var>11.17</var>(4) advice to the commissioner about training standards;<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.18"></a><var>11.18</var>(5) identify emerging issues and opportunities in the home care field, including the <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.19"></a><var>11.19</var>use of technology in home and telehealth capabilities; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.20"></a><var>11.20</var>(6) allowable home care licensing modifications and exemptions, including a method <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.21"></a><var>11.21</var>for an integrated license with an existing license for rural licensed nursing homes to <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.22"></a><var>11.22</var>provide limited home care services in an adjacent independent living apartment building <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.23"></a><var>11.23</var>owned by the licensed nursing home; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.24"></a><var>11.24</var>(7) perform other duties as directed by the commissioner.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.15.0"></a><a id="pl.11.25"></a><var>11.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 144D.065, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.26"></a><var>11.26</var><b>144D.065 TRAINING IN DEMENTIA CARE REQUIRED.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.11.27"></a><var>11.27</var>(a) If a housing with services establishment registered under this chapter has a <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.28"></a><var>11.28</var>special program or special care unit for residents with Alzheimer's disease or other <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.29"></a><var>11.29</var>dementias or advertises, markets, or otherwise promotes the establishment as providing<br />
         		<a id="pl.11.30"></a><var>11.30</var> services for persons with Alzheimer's disease or related disorders other dementias, whether <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.31"></a><var>11.31</var>in a segregated or general unit, the establishment's direct care staff and their supervisors <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.32"></a><var>11.32</var>must be trained in dementia care employees of the establishment and of the establishment's <br />
         		<a id="pl.11.33"></a><var>11.33</var>arranged home care provider must meet the following training requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.1"></a><var>12.1</var>(1) supervisors of direct-care staff must have at least eight hours of initial training on <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.2"></a><var>12.2</var>topics specified under paragraph (b) within 120 hours of the employment start date, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.3"></a><var>12.3</var>must have at least two hours of training on topics related to dementia care for each 12 <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.4"></a><var>12.4</var>months of employment thereafter;<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.5"></a><var>12.5</var>(2) direct-care employees must have completed at least eight hours of initial training  <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.6"></a><var>12.6</var>on topics specified under paragraph (b) within 160 hours of the employment start date. <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.7"></a><var>12.7</var>Until this initial training is complete, an employee must not provide direct care unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.8"></a><var>12.8</var>there is another employee on site who has completed the initial eight hours of training on <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.9"></a><var>12.9</var>topics related to dementia care and who can act as a resource and assist if issues arise. A <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.10"></a><var>12.10</var>trainer of the requirements under paragraph (b), or a supervisor meeting the requirements <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.11"></a><var>12.11</var>in paragraph (a), clause (1), must be available for consultation with the new employee until <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.12"></a><var>12.12</var>the training requirement is complete. Direct-care employees must have at least two hours <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.13"></a><var>12.13</var>of training on topics related to dementia for each 12 months of employment thereafter;<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.14"></a><var>12.14</var>(3) staff who do not provide direct care, including maintenance, housekeeping and <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.15"></a><var>12.15</var>food service staff must have at least four hours of initial training on topics specified under <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.16"></a><var>12.16</var>paragraph (b) within 160 hours of the employment start date, and must have at least two <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.17"></a><var>12.17</var>hours of training on topics related to dementia care for each 12 months of employment <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.18"></a><var>12.18</var>thereafter; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.19"></a><var>12.19</var>(4) new employees may satisfy the initial training requirements by producing written <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.20"></a><var>12.20</var>proof of previously completed required training within the past 18 months.<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.21"></a><var>12.21</var>(b) Areas of required training include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.22"></a><var>12.22</var>(1) an explanation of Alzheimer's disease and related disorders;<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.23"></a><var>12.23</var>(2) assistance with activities of daily living;<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.24"></a><var>12.24</var>(3) problem solving with challenging behaviors; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.25"></a><var>12.25</var>(4) communication skills.<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.26"></a><var>12.26</var>(c) The establishment shall provide to consumers in written or electronic form a <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.27"></a><var>12.27</var>description of the training program, the categories of employees trained, the frequency <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.28"></a><var>12.28</var>of training, and the basic topics covered. This information satisfies the disclosure <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.29"></a><var>12.29</var>requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>325F.72, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, clause (4).<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.30"></a><var>12.30</var>(d) Housing with services establishments not included in paragraph (a) that provide <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.31"></a><var>12.31</var>assisted living services under chapter 144G must meet the following training requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.12.32"></a><var>12.32</var>(1) supervisors of direct-care staff must have at least four hours of initial training on <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.33"></a><var>12.33</var>topics specified under paragraph (b) within 120 hours of the employment start date, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.34"></a><var>12.34</var>must have at least two hours of training on topics related to dementia care for each 12 <br />
         		<a id="pl.12.35"></a><var>12.35</var>months of employment thereafter;<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.1"></a><var>13.1</var>(2) direct-care employees must have completed at least four hours of initial training  <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.2"></a><var>13.2</var>on topics specified under paragraph (b) within 160 hours of the employment start date. <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.3"></a><var>13.3</var>Until this initial training is complete, an employee must not provide direct care unless there <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.4"></a><var>13.4</var>is another employee on site who has completed the initial four hours of training on topics <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.5"></a><var>13.5</var>related to dementia care and who can act as a resource and assist if issues arise. A trainer <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.6"></a><var>13.6</var>of the requirements under paragraph (b), or supervisor meeting the requirements under <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.7"></a><var>13.7</var>paragraph (a), clause (1), must be available for consultation with the new employee until <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.8"></a><var>13.8</var>the training requirement is complete. Direct-care employees must have at least two hours <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.9"></a><var>13.9</var>of training on topics related to dementia for each 12 months of employment thereafter;<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.10"></a><var>13.10</var>(3) staff who do not provide direct care, including maintenance, housekeeping and <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.11"></a><var>13.11</var>food service staff must have at least four hours of initial training on topics specified under <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.12"></a><var>13.12</var>paragraph (b) within 160 hours of the employment start date, and must have at least two <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.13"></a><var>13.13</var>hours of training on topics related to dementia care for each 12 months of employment <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.14"></a><var>13.14</var>thereafter; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.15"></a><var>13.15</var>(4) new employees may satisfy the initial training requirements by producing written <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.16"></a><var>13.16</var>proof of previously completed required training within the past 18 months.<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.17"></a><var>13.17</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2016.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.16.0"></a><a id="pl.13.18"></a><var>13.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. <b>[144D.10] MANAGER REQUIREMENTS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.13.19"></a><var>13.19</var>(a) The person primarily responsible for oversight and management of a housing <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.20"></a><var>13.20</var>with services establishment, as designated by the owner of the housing with services <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.21"></a><var>13.21</var>establishment, must obtain at least 30 hours of continuing education every two years of <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.22"></a><var>13.22</var>employment as the manager in topics relevant to the operations of the housing with services <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.23"></a><var>13.23</var>establishment and the needs of its tenants. Continuing education earned to maintain a <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.24"></a><var>13.24</var>professional license, such as nursing home administrator license, nursing license, social <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.25"></a><var>13.25</var>worker license, and real estate license, can be used to complete this requirement.<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.26"></a><var>13.26</var>(b) For managers of establishments identified in section 325F.72, this continuing <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.27"></a><var>13.27</var>education must include at least eight hours of documented training on the topics identified <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.28"></a><var>13.28</var>in section 144D.065, paragraph (b), within 160 hours of hire, and two hours of training <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.29"></a><var>13.29</var>these topics for each 12 months of employment thereafter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.13.30"></a><var>13.30</var>(c) For managers of establishments not covered by section 325F.72, but who provide <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.31"></a><var>13.31</var>assisted living services under chapter 144G, this continuing education must include at <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.32"></a><var>13.32</var>least four hours of documented training on the topics identified in section 144D.065, <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.33"></a><var>13.33</var>paragraph (b), within 160 hours of hire, and two hours of training on these topics for <br />
         		<a id="pl.13.34"></a><var>13.34</var>each 12 months of employment thereafter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.1"></a><var>14.1</var>(d) A statement verifying compliance with the continuing education requirement <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.2"></a><var>14.2</var>must be included in the housing with services establishment's annual registration to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.3"></a><var>14.3</var>commissioner of health. The establishment must maintain records for at least three years <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.4"></a><var>14.4</var>demonstrating that the person primarily responsible for oversight and management of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.5"></a><var>14.5</var>establishment has attended educational programs as required by this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.6"></a><var>14.6</var>(e) New managers may satisfy the initial dementia training requirements by producing <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.7"></a><var>14.7</var>written proof of previously completed required training within the past 18 months.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.8"></a><var>14.8</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2016.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.17.0"></a><a id="pl.14.9"></a><var>14.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. <b>[144D.11] EMERGENCY PLANNING.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.14.10"></a><var>14.10</var>(a) Each registered housing with services establishment must meet the following <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.11"></a><var>14.11</var>requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.12"></a><var>14.12</var>(1) have a written emergency disaster plan that contains a plan for evacuation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.13"></a><var>14.13</var>addresses elements of sheltering in-place, identifies temporary relocation sites, and details <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.14"></a><var>14.14</var>staff assignments in the event of a disaster or an emergency;<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.15"></a><var>14.15</var>(2) post an emergency disaster plan prominently;<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.16"></a><var>14.16</var>(3) provide building emergency exit diagrams to all tenants upon signing a lease;<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.17"></a><var>14.17</var>(4) post emergency exit diagrams on each floor; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.18"></a><var>14.18</var>(5) have a written policy and procedure regarding missing tenants.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.19"></a><var>14.19</var>(b) Each registered housing with services establishment must provide emergency <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.20"></a><var>14.20</var>and disaster training to all staff during the initial staff orientation and annually thereafter <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.21"></a><var>14.21</var>and must make emergency and disaster training available to all tenants annually. Staff <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.22"></a><var>14.22</var>who have not received emergency and disaster training are allowed to work only when <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.23"></a><var>14.23</var>trained staff are also working on site.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.24"></a><var>14.24</var>(c) Each registered housing with services location must conduct and document a fire <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.25"></a><var>14.25</var>drill or other emergency drill at least every six months. To the extent possible, drills must <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.26"></a><var>14.26</var>be coordinated with local fire departments or other community emergency resources.<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.27"></a><var>14.27</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2016.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.18.0"></a><a id="pl.14.28"></a><var>14.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 149A.92, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.29"></a><var>14.29</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.14.30"></a><var>14.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Scope.</b> Notwithstanding the requirements in section 149A.50, this section <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.31"></a><var>14.31</var>applies only to funeral establishments where human remains are present for the purpose <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.32"></a><var>14.32</var>of preparation and embalming, private viewings, visitations, services, and holding of <br />
         		<a id="pl.14.33"></a><var>14.33</var>human remains while awaiting final disposition. For the purpose of this subdivision, <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.1"></a><var>15.1</var>"private viewing" means viewing of a dead human body by persons designated in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.2"></a><var>15.2</var>149A.80, subdivision 2.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.1.19.0"></a><a id="pl.15.3"></a><var>15.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. <b>EVALUATION AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.15.4"></a><var>15.4</var>(a) The commissioner of health shall consult with the Alzheimer's Association, <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.5"></a><var>15.5</var>Aging Services of Minnesota, Care Providers of Minnesota, the ombudsman for long term <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.6"></a><var>15.6</var>care, and other stakeholders to evaluate the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.7"></a><var>15.7</var>(1) whether additional settings, provider types, licensed and unlicensed personnel, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.8"></a><var>15.8</var>health care services regulated by the commissioner should be required to comply with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.9"></a><var>15.9</var>training requirements in Minnesota Statutes, sections 144D.065, 144D.10, and 144D.11;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.10"></a><var>15.10</var>(2) cost implications for the groups or individuals identified in clause (1) to comply <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.11"></a><var>15.11</var>with the training requirements;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.12"></a><var>15.12</var>(3) dementia education options available;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.13"></a><var>15.13</var>(4) existing dementia training mandates under federal and state statutes and rules; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.14"></a><var>15.14</var>(5) the enforceability of Minnesota Statutes, sections 144D.065, 144D.10, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.15"></a><var>15.15</var>144D.11, and methods to determine compliance with the training requirements.<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.16"></a><var>15.16</var>(b) The commissioner shall report the evaluation to the chairs of the health and <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.17"></a><var>15.17</var>human services committees of the legislature no later than February 15, 2015, along with <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.18"></a><var>15.18</var>any recommendations for legislative changes.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.15.19"></a><var>15.19</var><b>ARTICLE 2</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.15.20"></a><var>15.20</var><b>PUBLIC HEALTH</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.2.1.0"></a><a id="pl.15.21"></a><var>15.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.22"></a><var>15.22</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.23"></a><var>15.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Areas of public health responsibility.</b> "Areas of public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.24"></a><var>15.24</var>responsibility" means:<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.25"></a><var>15.25</var>(1) assuring an adequate local public health infrastructure;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.26"></a><var>15.26</var>(2) promoting healthy communities and healthy behaviors;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.27"></a><var>15.27</var>(3) preventing the spread of communicable disease;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.28"></a><var>15.28</var>(4) protecting against environmental health hazards;<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.29"></a><var>15.29</var>(5) preparing for and responding to emergencies; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.30"></a><var>15.30</var>(6) assuring health services.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.2.0"></a><a id="pl.15.31"></a><var>15.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.15.32"></a><var>15.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Community health board.</b> "Community health board" means a board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.15.33"></a><var>15.33</var>health established, operating, and eligible for a the governing body for local public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.1"></a><var>16.1</var>grant under sections 
         <statute_ref>145A.09</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>145A.131</statute_ref>. in Minnesota. The community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.2"></a><var>16.2</var>may be comprised of a single county, multiple contiguous counties, or in a limited number <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.3"></a><var>16.3</var>of cases, a single city as specified in section 145A.03, subdivision 1. CHBs have the <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.4"></a><var>16.4</var>responsibilities and authority under this chapter. <br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.3.0"></a><a id="pl.16.5"></a><var>16.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.6"></a><var>16.6</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.7"></a><var>16.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6a. <b>Community health services administrator.</b> "Community health services <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.8"></a><var>16.8</var>administrator" means a person who meets personnel standards for the position established <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.9"></a><var>16.9</var>under section 145A.06, subdivision 3b, and is working under a written agreement with, <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.10"></a><var>16.10</var>employed by, or under contract with a community health board to provide public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.11"></a><var>16.11</var>leadership and to discharge the administrative and program responsibilities on behalf of <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.12"></a><var>16.12</var>the board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.4.0"></a><a id="pl.16.13"></a><var>16.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.14"></a><var>16.14</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.15"></a><var>16.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8a. <b>Local health department.</b> "Local health department" means an <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.16"></a><var>16.16</var>operational entity that is responsible for the administration and implementation of <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.17"></a><var>16.17</var>programs and services to address the areas of public health responsibility. It is governed <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.18"></a><var>16.18</var>by a community health board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.5.0"></a><a id="pl.16.19"></a><var>16.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.20"></a><var>16.20</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.21"></a><var>16.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8b. <b>Essential public health services.</b> "Essential public health services" <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.22"></a><var>16.22</var>means the public health activities that all communities should undertake. These services <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.23"></a><var>16.23</var>serve as the framework for the National Public Health Performance Standards. In <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.24"></a><var>16.24</var>Minnesota they refer to activities that are conducted to accomplish the areas of public <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.25"></a><var>16.25</var>health responsibility. The ten essential public health services are to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.26"></a><var>16.26</var>(1) monitor health status to identify and solve community health problems;<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.27"></a><var>16.27</var>(2) diagnose and investigate health problems and health hazards in the community;<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.28"></a><var>16.28</var>(3) inform, educate, and empower people about health issues;<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.29"></a><var>16.29</var>(4) mobilize community partnerships and action to identify and solve health <br />
         		<a id="pl.16.30"></a><var>16.30</var>problems;<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.31"></a><var>16.31</var>(5) develop policies and plans that support individual and community health efforts;<br />
         		<a id="pl.16.32"></a><var>16.32</var>(6) enforce laws and regulations that protect health and ensure safety;<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.1"></a><var>17.1</var>(7) link people to needed personal health services and assure the provision of health <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.2"></a><var>17.2</var>care when otherwise unavailable;<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.3"></a><var>17.3</var>(8) maintain a competent public health workforce;<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.4"></a><var>17.4</var>(9) evaluate the effectiveness, accessibility, and quality of personal and <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.5"></a><var>17.5</var>population-based health services; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.6"></a><var>17.6</var>(10) contribute to research seeking new insights and innovative solutions to health <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.7"></a><var>17.7</var>problems.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.6.0"></a><a id="pl.17.8"></a><var>17.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, subdivision 15, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.9"></a><var>17.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15. <b>Medical consultant.</b> "Medical consultant" means a physician licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.10"></a><var>17.10</var>to practice medicine in Minnesota who is working under a written agreement with, <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.11"></a><var>17.11</var>employed by, or on contract with a community health board of health to provide advice <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.12"></a><var>17.12</var>and information, to authorize medical procedures through standing orders protocols, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.13"></a><var>17.13</var>to assist a community health board of health and its staff in coordinating their activities <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.14"></a><var>17.14</var>with local medical practitioners and health care institutions.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.7.0"></a><a id="pl.17.15"></a><var>17.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.16"></a><var>17.16</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.17"></a><var>17.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15a. <b>Performance management.</b> "Performance management" means the <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.18"></a><var>17.18</var>systematic process of using data for decision making by identifying outcomes and <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.19"></a><var>17.19</var>standards; measuring, monitoring, and communicating progress; and engaging in quality <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.20"></a><var>17.20</var>improvement activities in order to achieve desired outcomes.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.8.0"></a><a id="pl.17.21"></a><var>17.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.02, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.22"></a><var>17.22</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.23"></a><var>17.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15b. <b>Performance measures.</b> "Performance measures" means quantitative <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.24"></a><var>17.24</var>ways to define and measure performance.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.9.0"></a><a id="pl.17.25"></a><var>17.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.26"></a><var>17.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Establishment; assignment of responsibilities.</b> (a) The governing <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.27"></a><var>17.27</var>body of a city or county must undertake the responsibilities of a community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.28"></a><var>17.28</var>of health or establish a board of health by establishing or joining a community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.29"></a><var>17.29</var>board according to paragraphs (b) to (f) and assign assigning to it the powers and duties of <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.30"></a><var>17.30</var>a board of health specified under section 145A.04.<br />
         		<a id="pl.17.31"></a><var>17.31</var>(b) A city council may ask a county or joint powers board of health to undertake <br />
         		<a id="pl.17.32"></a><var>17.32</var>the responsibilities of a board of health for the city's jurisdiction. A community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.1"></a><var>18.1</var>board must include within its jurisdiction a population of 30,000 or more persons or be <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.2"></a><var>18.2</var>composed of three or more contiguous counties.<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.3"></a><var>18.3</var>(c) A county board or city council within the jurisdiction of a community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.4"></a><var>18.4</var>board operating under sections 
         <statute_ref>145A.09</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>145A.131</statute_ref> is preempted from forming a board of<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.5"></a><var>18.5</var> community health board except as specified in section 
         <statute_ref>145A.10, subdivision 2</statute_ref> 145A.131.<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.6"></a><var>18.6</var>(d) A county board or a joint powers board that establishes a community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.7"></a><var>18.7</var>board and has or establishes an operational human services board under chapter 402 may <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.8"></a><var>18.8</var>assign the powers and duties of a community health board to a human services board. <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.9"></a><var>18.9</var>Eligibility for funding from the commissioner will be maintained if all requirements of <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.10"></a><var>18.10</var>sections 145A.03 and 145A.04 are met.<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.11"></a><var>18.11</var>(e) Community health boards established prior to January 1, 2014, including city <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.12"></a><var>18.12</var>community health boards, are eligible to maintain their status as community health boards <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.13"></a><var>18.13</var>as outlined in this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.14"></a><var>18.14</var>(f) A community health board may authorize, by resolution, the community <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.15"></a><var>18.15</var>health service administrator or other designated agent or agents to act on behalf of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.16"></a><var>18.16</var>community health board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.10.0"></a><a id="pl.18.17"></a><var>18.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.03, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.18"></a><var>18.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Joint powers </b><b>community health </b><b>board </b><b>of health</b><b>.</b> Except as preempted <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.19"></a><var>18.19</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.10, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, A county may establish a joint community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.20"></a><var>18.20</var>board of health by agreement with one or more contiguous counties, or a an existing city <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.21"></a><var>18.21</var>community health board may establish a joint community health board of health with one <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.22"></a><var>18.22</var>or more contiguous cities in the same county, or a city may establish a joint board of health <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.23"></a><var>18.23</var>with the existing city community health boards in the same county or counties within in<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.24"></a><var>18.24</var> which it is located. The agreements must be established according to section 
         <statute_ref>471.59</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.11.0"></a><a id="pl.18.25"></a><var>18.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.03, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.26"></a><var>18.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Membership; duties of chair.</b> A community health board of health must <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.27"></a><var>18.27</var>have at least five members, one of whom must be elected by the members as chair and one <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.28"></a><var>18.28</var>as vice-chair. The chair, or in the chair's absence, the vice-chair, must preside at meetings <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.29"></a><var>18.29</var>of the community health board of health and sign or authorize an agent to sign contracts and <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.30"></a><var>18.30</var>other documents requiring signature on behalf of the community health board of health.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.12.0"></a><a id="pl.18.31"></a><var>18.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.03, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.18.32"></a><var>18.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Meetings.</b> A community health board of health must hold meetings at least <br />
         		<a id="pl.18.33"></a><var>18.33</var>twice a year and as determined by its rules of procedure. The board must adopt written <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.1"></a><var>19.1</var>procedures for transacting business and must keep a public record of its transactions, <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.2"></a><var>19.2</var>findings, and determinations. Members may receive a per diem plus travel and other <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.3"></a><var>19.3</var>eligible expenses while engaged in official duties.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.13.0"></a><a id="pl.19.4"></a><var>19.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.03, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.5"></a><var>19.5</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.6"></a><var>19.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Community health board; eligibility for funding.</b> A community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.7"></a><var>19.7</var>board that meets the requirements of this section is eligible to receive the local public <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.8"></a><var>19.8</var>health grant under section 145A.131 and for other funds that the commissioner grants to <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.9"></a><var>19.9</var>community health boards to carry out public health activities.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.14.0"></a><a id="pl.19.10"></a><var>19.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.04, as amended by Laws 2013, chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.11"></a><var>19.11</var>43, section 21, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.12"></a><var>19.12</var><b>145A.04 POWERS AND DUTIES OF </b><b>COMMUNITY HEALTH </b><b>BOARD </b><b>OF </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.19.13"></a><var>19.13</var><b>HEALTH</b><b>.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.19.14"></a><var>19.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Jurisdiction; enforcement.</b> (a) A county or multicounty community <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.15"></a><var>19.15</var>health board of health has the powers and duties of a board of health for all territory within <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.16"></a><var>19.16</var>its jurisdiction not under the jurisdiction of a city board of health. Under the general <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.17"></a><var>19.17</var>supervision of the commissioner, the board shall enforce laws, regulations, and ordinances <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.18"></a><var>19.18</var>pertaining to the powers and duties of a board of health within its jurisdictional area<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.19"></a><var>19.19</var> general responsibility for development and maintenance of a system of community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.20"></a><var>19.20</var>services under local administration and within a system of state guidelines and standards.<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.21"></a><var>19.21</var>(b) Under the general supervision of the commissioner, the community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.22"></a><var>19.22</var>shall recommend the enforcement of laws, regulations, and ordinances pertaining to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.23"></a><var>19.23</var>powers and duties within its jurisdictional area. In the case of a multicounty or city <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.24"></a><var>19.24</var>community health board, the joint powers agreement under section 145A.03, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.25"></a><var>19.25</var>2, or delegation agreement under section 145A.07 shall clearly specify enforcement <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.26"></a><var>19.26</var>authorities.<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.27"></a><var>19.27</var>(c) A member of a community health board may not withdraw from a joint powers <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.28"></a><var>19.28</var>community health board during the first two calendar years following the effective <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.29"></a><var>19.29</var>date of the initial joint powers agreement. The withdrawing member must notify the <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.30"></a><var>19.30</var>commissioner and the other parties to the agreement at least one year before the beginning <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.31"></a><var>19.31</var>of the calendar year in which withdrawal takes effect.<br />
         		<a id="pl.19.32"></a><var>19.32</var>(d) The withdrawal of a county or city from a community health board does not <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.33"></a><var>19.33</var>affect the eligibility for the local public health grant of any remaining county or city for <br />
         		<a id="pl.19.34"></a><var>19.34</var>one calendar year following the effective date of withdrawal.<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.1"></a><var>20.1</var>(e) The local public health grant for a county or city that chooses to withdraw from <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.2"></a><var>20.2</var>a multicounty community health board shall be reduced by the amount of the local <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.3"></a><var>20.3</var>partnership incentive.<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.4"></a><var>20.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Duties.</b> Consistent with the guidelines and standards established under <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.5"></a><var>20.5</var>section 145A.06, the community health board shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.6"></a><var>20.6</var>(1) identify local public health priorities and implement activities to address the <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.7"></a><var>20.7</var>priorities and the areas of public health responsibility, which include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.8"></a><var>20.8</var>(i) assuring an adequate local public health infrastructure by maintaining the basic <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.9"></a><var>20.9</var>foundational capacities to a well-functioning public health system that includes data <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.10"></a><var>20.10</var>analysis and utilization; health planning; partnership development and community <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.11"></a><var>20.11</var>mobilization; policy development, analysis, and decision support; communication; and <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.12"></a><var>20.12</var>public health research, evaluation, and quality improvement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.13"></a><var>20.13</var>(ii) promoting healthy communities and healthy behavior through activities <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.14"></a><var>20.14</var>that improve health in a population, such as investing in healthy families; engaging <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.15"></a><var>20.15</var>communities to change policies, systems, or environments to promote positive health or <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.16"></a><var>20.16</var>prevent adverse health; providing information and education about healthy communities <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.17"></a><var>20.17</var>or population health status; and addressing issues of health equity, health disparities, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.18"></a><var>20.18</var>the social determinants to health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.19"></a><var>20.19</var>(iii) preventing the spread of communicable disease by preventing diseases that are <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.20"></a><var>20.20</var>caused by infectious agents through detecting acute infectious diseases, ensuring the <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.21"></a><var>20.21</var>reporting of infectious diseases, preventing the transmission of infectious diseases, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.22"></a><var>20.22</var>implementing control measures during infectious disease outbreaks;<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.23"></a><var>20.23</var>(iv) protecting against environmental health hazards by addressing aspects of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.24"></a><var>20.24</var>environment that pose risks to human health, such as monitoring air and water quality; <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.25"></a><var>20.25</var>developing policies and programs to reduce exposure to environmental health risks and <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.26"></a><var>20.26</var>promote healthy environments; and identifying and mitigating environmental risks such as <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.27"></a><var>20.27</var>food and waterborne diseases, radiation, occupational health hazards, and public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.28"></a><var>20.28</var>nuisances;<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.29"></a><var>20.29</var>(v) preparing and responding to emergencies by engaging in activities that prepare <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.30"></a><var>20.30</var>public health departments to respond to events and incidents and assist communities in <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.31"></a><var>20.31</var>recovery, such as providing leadership for public health preparedness activities with <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.32"></a><var>20.32</var>a community; developing, exercising, and periodically reviewing response plans for <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.33"></a><var>20.33</var>public health threats; and developing and maintaining a system of public health workforce <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.34"></a><var>20.34</var>readiness, deployment, and response; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.20.35"></a><var>20.35</var>(vi) assuring health services by engaging in activities such as assessing the <br />
         		<a id="pl.20.36"></a><var>20.36</var>availability of health-related services and health care providers in local communities, <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.1"></a><var>21.1</var>identifying gaps and barriers in services; convening community partners to improve <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.2"></a><var>21.2</var>community health systems; and providing services identified as priorities by the local <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.3"></a><var>21.3</var>assessment and planning process; <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.4"></a><var>21.4</var>(2) submit to the commissioner of health, at least every five years, a community <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.5"></a><var>21.5</var>health assessment and community health improvement plan, which shall be developed <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.6"></a><var>21.6</var>with input from the community and take into consideration the statewide outcomes, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.7"></a><var>21.7</var>areas of responsibility, and essential public health services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.8"></a><var>21.8</var>(3) implement a performance management process in order to achieve desired <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.9"></a><var>21.9</var>outcomes; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.10"></a><var>21.10</var>(4) annually report to the commissioner on a set of performance measures and be <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.11"></a><var>21.11</var>prepared to provide documentation of ability to meet the performance measures.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.12"></a><var>21.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Appointment of </b><b>agent</b><b> community health service (CHS) administrator</b><b>.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.21.13"></a><var>21.13</var>A community health board of health must appoint, employ, or contract with a person or <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.14"></a><var>21.14</var>persons CHS administrator to act on its behalf. The board shall notify the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.15"></a><var>21.15</var>of the agent's name, address, and phone number where the agent may be reached between <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.16"></a><var>21.16</var>board meetings CHS administrator's contact information and submit a copy of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.17"></a><var>21.17</var>resolution authorizing the agent CHS administrator to act as an agent on the board's behalf.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.18"></a><var>21.18</var> The resolution must specify the types of action or actions that the CHS administrator is <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.19"></a><var>21.19</var>authorized to take on behalf of the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.20"></a><var>21.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2a. <b>Appointment of medical consultant.</b> The community health board shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.21"></a><var>21.21</var>appoint, employ, or contract with a medical consultant to ensure appropriate medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.22"></a><var>21.22</var>advice and direction for the community health board and assist the board and its staff in <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.23"></a><var>21.23</var>the coordination of community health services with local medical care and other health <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.24"></a><var>21.24</var>services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.25"></a><var>21.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Employment; </b><b>medical consultant</b><b> employees</b><b>.</b> (a) A community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.26"></a><var>21.26</var>board of health may establish a health department or other administrative agency and may <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.27"></a><var>21.27</var>employ persons as necessary to carry out its duties.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.28"></a><var>21.28</var>(b) Except where prohibited by law, employees of the community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.29"></a><var>21.29</var>of health may act as its agents.<br />
         		<a id="pl.21.30"></a><var>21.30</var>(c) Employees of the board of health are subject to any personnel administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.31"></a><var>21.31</var>rules adopted by a city council or county board forming the board of health unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.32"></a><var>21.32</var>employees of the board are within the scope of a statewide personnel administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.33"></a><var>21.33</var>system. Persons employed by a county, city, or the state whose functions and duties are <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.34"></a><var>21.34</var>assumed by a community health board shall become employees of the board without <br />
         		<a id="pl.21.35"></a><var>21.35</var>loss in benefits, salaries, or rights.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.1"></a><var>22.1</var>(d) The board of health may appoint, employ, or contract with a medical consultant <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.2"></a><var>22.2</var>to receive appropriate medical advice and direction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.3"></a><var>22.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Acquisition of property; request for and acceptance of funds; </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.22.4"></a><var>22.4</var><b>collection of fees.</b> (a) A community health board of health may acquire and hold in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.5"></a><var>22.5</var>name of the county or city the lands, buildings, and equipment necessary for the purposes <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.6"></a><var>22.6</var>of sections 
         <statute_ref>145A.03</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>145A.131</statute_ref>. It may do so by any lawful means, including gifts, <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.7"></a><var>22.7</var>purchase, lease, or transfer of custodial control.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.8"></a><var>22.8</var>(b) A community health board of health may accept gifts, grants, and subsidies from <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.9"></a><var>22.9</var>any lawful source, apply for and accept state and federal funds, and request and accept <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.10"></a><var>22.10</var>local tax funds.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.11"></a><var>22.11</var>(c) A community health board of health may establish and collect reasonable fees <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.12"></a><var>22.12</var>for performing its duties and providing community health services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.13"></a><var>22.13</var>(d) With the exception of licensing and inspection activities, access to community <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.14"></a><var>22.14</var>health services provided by or on contract with the community health board of health must <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.15"></a><var>22.15</var>not be denied to an individual or family because of inability to pay.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.16"></a><var>22.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Contracts.</b> To improve efficiency, quality, and effectiveness, avoid <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.17"></a><var>22.17</var>unnecessary duplication, and gain cost advantages, a community health board of health<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.18"></a><var>22.18</var> may contract to provide, receive, or ensure provision of services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.19"></a><var>22.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Investigation; reporting and control of communicable diseases.</b> A <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.20"></a><var>22.20</var>community health board of health shall make investigations, or coordinate with any county <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.21"></a><var>22.21</var>board or city council within its jurisdiction to make investigations and reports and obey <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.22"></a><var>22.22</var>instructions on the control of communicable diseases as the commissioner may direct under <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.23"></a><var>22.23</var>section 
         <statute_ref>144.12</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>145A.06, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, or 
         <statute_ref>145A.07</statute_ref>. Community health boards of health<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.24"></a><var>22.24</var> must cooperate so far as practicable to act together to prevent and control epidemic diseases.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.25"></a><var>22.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6a. <b>Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps; planning.</b> A community <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.26"></a><var>22.26</var>health board of health receiving funding for emergency preparedness or pandemic <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.27"></a><var>22.27</var>influenza planning from the state or from the United States Department of Health and <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.28"></a><var>22.28</var>Human Services shall participate in planning for emergency use of volunteer health <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.29"></a><var>22.29</var>professionals through the Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps program of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.30"></a><var>22.30</var>Department of Health. A community health board of health shall collaborate on volunteer <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.31"></a><var>22.31</var>planning with other public and private partners, including but not limited to local or <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.32"></a><var>22.32</var>regional health care providers, emergency medical services, hospitals, tribal governments, <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.33"></a><var>22.33</var>state and local emergency management, and local disaster relief organizations.<br />
         		<a id="pl.22.34"></a><var>22.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6b. <b>Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps; agreements.</b> A <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.35"></a><var>22.35</var>community health board of health, county, or city participating in the Minnesota Responds <br />
         		<a id="pl.22.36"></a><var>22.36</var>Medical Reserve Corps program may enter into written mutual aid agreements for <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.1"></a><var>23.1</var>deployment of its paid employees and its Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.2"></a><var>23.2</var>volunteers with other community health boards of health, other political subdivisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.3"></a><var>23.3</var>within the state, or with tribal governments within the state. A community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.4"></a><var>23.4</var>of health may also enter into agreements with the Indian Health Services of the United <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.5"></a><var>23.5</var>States Department of Health and Human Services, and with boards of health, political <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.6"></a><var>23.6</var>subdivisions, and tribal governments in bordering states and Canadian provinces.<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.7"></a><var>23.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6c. <b>Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps; when mobilized.</b> When <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.8"></a><var>23.8</var>a community health board of health, county, or city finds that the prevention, mitigation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.9"></a><var>23.9</var>response to, or recovery from an actual or threatened public health event or emergency <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.10"></a><var>23.10</var>exceeds its local capacity, it shall use available mutual aid agreements. If the event or <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.11"></a><var>23.11</var>emergency exceeds mutual aid capacities, a community health board of health, county, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.12"></a><var>23.12</var>city may request the commissioner of health to mobilize Minnesota Responds Medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.13"></a><var>23.13</var>Reserve Corps volunteers from outside the jurisdiction of the community health board <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.14"></a><var>23.14</var>of health, county, or city.<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.15"></a><var>23.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6d. <b>Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps; liability coverage.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.23.16"></a><var>23.16</var>A Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteer responding to a request for <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.17"></a><var>23.17</var>training or assistance at the call of a community health board of health, county, or city<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.18"></a><var>23.18</var> must be deemed an employee of the jurisdiction for purposes of workers' compensation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.19"></a><var>23.19</var>tort claim defense, and indemnification.<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.20"></a><var>23.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Entry for inspection.</b> To enforce public health laws, ordinances or rules, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.21"></a><var>23.21</var>member or agent of a community health board of health, county, or city may enter a <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.22"></a><var>23.22</var>building, conveyance, or place where contagion, infection, filth, or other source or cause <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.23"></a><var>23.23</var>of preventable disease exists or is reasonably suspected.<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.24"></a><var>23.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Removal and abatement of public health nuisances.</b> (a) If a threat to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.25"></a><var>23.25</var>public health such as a public health nuisance, source of filth, or cause of sickness is found <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.26"></a><var>23.26</var>on any property, the community health board of health, county, city, or its agent shall order <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.27"></a><var>23.27</var>the owner or occupant of the property to remove or abate the threat within a time specified <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.28"></a><var>23.28</var>in the notice but not longer than ten days. Action to recover costs of enforcement under <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.29"></a><var>23.29</var>this subdivision must be taken as prescribed in section 
         <statute_ref>145A.08</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.30"></a><var>23.30</var>(b) Notice for abatement or removal must be served on the owner, occupant, or agent <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.31"></a><var>23.31</var>of the property in one of the following ways:<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.32"></a><var>23.32</var>(1) by registered or certified mail;<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.33"></a><var>23.33</var>(2) by an officer authorized to serve a warrant; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.23.34"></a><var>23.34</var>(3) by a person aged 18 years or older who is not reasonably believed to be a party to <br />
         		<a id="pl.23.35"></a><var>23.35</var>any action arising from the notice.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.1"></a><var>24.1</var>(c) If the owner of the property is unknown or absent and has no known representative <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.2"></a><var>24.2</var>upon whom notice can be served, the community health board of health, county, or city,<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.3"></a><var>24.3</var> or its agent, shall post a written or printed notice on the property stating that, unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.4"></a><var>24.4</var>threat to the public health is abated or removed within a period not longer than ten days, <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.5"></a><var>24.5</var>the community health board, county, or city will have the threat abated or removed at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.6"></a><var>24.6</var>expense of the owner under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.08</statute_ref> or other applicable state or local law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.7"></a><var>24.7</var>(d) If the owner, occupant, or agent fails or neglects to comply with the requirement <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.8"></a><var>24.8</var>of the notice provided under paragraphs (b) and (c), then the community health board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.9"></a><var>24.9</var>health, county, city, or its a designated agent of the board, county, or city shall remove or <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.10"></a><var>24.10</var>abate the nuisance, source of filth, or cause of sickness described in the notice from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.11"></a><var>24.11</var>property.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.12"></a><var>24.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Injunctive relief.</b> In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.13"></a><var>24.13</var>community health board of health, county, or city may bring an action in the court of <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.14"></a><var>24.14</var>appropriate jurisdiction to enjoin a violation of statute, rule, or ordinance that the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.15"></a><var>24.15</var>has power to enforce, or to enjoin as a public health nuisance any activity or failure to <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.16"></a><var>24.16</var>act that adversely affects the public health.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.17"></a><var>24.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Hindrance of enforcement prohibited; penalty.</b> It is a misdemeanor <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.18"></a><var>24.18</var>deliberately to deliberately hinder a member of a community health board of health, <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.19"></a><var>24.19</var>county or city, or its agent from entering a building, conveyance, or place where contagion, <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.20"></a><var>24.20</var>infection, filth, or other source or cause of preventable disease exists or is reasonably <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.21"></a><var>24.21</var>suspected, or otherwise to interfere with the performance of the duties of the board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.22"></a><var>24.22</var>health responsible jurisdiction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.23"></a><var>24.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Neglect of enforcement prohibited; penalty.</b> It is a misdemeanor for <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.24"></a><var>24.24</var>a member or agent of a community health board of health, county, or city to refuse or <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.25"></a><var>24.25</var>neglect to perform a duty imposed on a board of health an applicable jurisdiction by <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.26"></a><var>24.26</var>statute or ordinance.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.27"></a><var>24.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 12. <b>Other powers and duties established by law.</b> This section does not limit <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.28"></a><var>24.28</var>powers and duties of a community health board of health, county, or city prescribed in <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.29"></a><var>24.29</var>other sections.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.30"></a><var>24.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 13. <b>Recommended legislation.</b> The community health board may recommend <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.31"></a><var>24.31</var>local ordinances pertaining to community health services to any county board or city <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.32"></a><var>24.32</var>council within its jurisdiction and advise the commissioner on matters relating to public <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.33"></a><var>24.33</var>health that require assistance from the state, or that may be of more than local interest.<br />
         		<a id="pl.24.34"></a><var>24.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 14. <b>Equal access to services.</b> The community health board must ensure that <br />
         		<a id="pl.24.35"></a><var>24.35</var>community health services are accessible to all persons on the basis of need. No one shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.1"></a><var>25.1</var>be denied services because of race, color, sex, age, language, religion, nationality, inability <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.2"></a><var>25.2</var>to pay, political persuasion, or place of residence.<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.3"></a><var>25.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15. <b>State and local advisory committees.</b> (a) A state community <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.4"></a><var>25.4</var>health services advisory committee is established to advise, consult with, and make <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.5"></a><var>25.5</var>recommendations to the commissioner on the development, maintenance, funding, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.6"></a><var>25.6</var>evaluation of local public health services. Each community health board may appoint a <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.7"></a><var>25.7</var>member to serve on the committee. The committee must meet at least quarterly, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.8"></a><var>25.8</var>special meetings may be called by the committee chair or a majority of the members. <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.9"></a><var>25.9</var>Members or their alternates may be reimbursed for travel and other necessary expenses <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.10"></a><var>25.10</var>while engaged in their official duties.<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.11"></a><var>25.11</var>(b) Notwithstanding section 15.059, the State Community Health Services Advisory <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.12"></a><var>25.12</var>Committee does not expire.<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.13"></a><var>25.13</var>(c) The city boards or county boards that have established or are members of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.14"></a><var>25.14</var>community health board may appoint a community health advisory to advise, consult <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.15"></a><var>25.15</var>with, and make recommendations to the community health board on the duties under <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.16"></a><var>25.16</var>subdivision 1a.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.15.0"></a><a id="pl.25.17"></a><var>25.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.05, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.18"></a><var>25.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Animal control.</b> In addition to powers under sections 
         <statute_ref>35.67</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>35.69</statute_ref>, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.19"></a><var>25.19</var>county board, city council, or municipality may adopt ordinances to issue licenses or <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.20"></a><var>25.20</var>otherwise regulate the keeping of animals, to restrain animals from running at large, to <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.21"></a><var>25.21</var>authorize the impounding and sale or summary destruction of animals, and to establish <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.22"></a><var>25.22</var>pounds.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.16.0"></a><a id="pl.25.23"></a><var>25.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.24"></a><var>25.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Supervision of local enforcement.</b> (a) In the absence of provision for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.25"></a><var>25.25</var>community health board of health, the commissioner may appoint three or more persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.26"></a><var>25.26</var>to act as a board until one is established. The commissioner may fix their compensation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.27"></a><var>25.27</var>which the county or city must pay.<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.28"></a><var>25.28</var>(b) The commissioner by written order may require any two or more community <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.29"></a><var>25.29</var>health boards of health, counties, or cities to act together to prevent or control epidemic <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.30"></a><var>25.30</var>diseases.<br />
         		<a id="pl.25.31"></a><var>25.31</var>(c) If a community health board, county, or city fails to comply with section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, <br />
            		<a id="pl.25.32"></a><var>25.32</var>subdivision 6
         </statute_ref>, the commissioner may employ medical and other help necessary to control <br />
         		<a id="pl.25.33"></a><var>25.33</var>communicable disease at the expense of the board of health jurisdiction involved.<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.1"></a><var>26.1</var>(d) If the commissioner has reason to believe that the provisions of this chapter have <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.2"></a><var>26.2</var>been violated, the commissioner shall inform the attorney general and submit information <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.3"></a><var>26.3</var>to support the belief. The attorney general shall institute proceedings to enforce the <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.4"></a><var>26.4</var>provisions of this chapter or shall direct the county attorney to institute proceedings.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.17.0"></a><a id="pl.26.5"></a><var>26.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.6"></a><var>26.6</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.7"></a><var>26.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3a. <b>Assistance to community health boards.</b> The commissioner shall help <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.8"></a><var>26.8</var>and advise community health boards that ask for assistance in developing, administering, <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.9"></a><var>26.9</var>and carrying out public health services and programs. This assistance may consist of, <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.10"></a><var>26.10</var>but is not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.11"></a><var>26.11</var>(1) informational resources, consultation, and training to assist community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.12"></a><var>26.12</var>boards plan, develop, integrate, provide, and evaluate community health services; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.13"></a><var>26.13</var>(2) administrative and program guidelines and standards developed with the advice <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.14"></a><var>26.14</var>of the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.18.0"></a><a id="pl.26.15"></a><var>26.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.16"></a><var>26.16</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.17"></a><var>26.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3b. <b>Personnel standards.</b> In accordance with chapter 14, and in consultation <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.18"></a><var>26.18</var>with the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee, the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.19"></a><var>26.19</var>may adopt rules to set standards for administrative and program personnel to ensure <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.20"></a><var>26.20</var>competence in administration and planning.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.19.0"></a><a id="pl.26.21"></a><var>26.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.22"></a><var>26.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Deadly infectious diseases.</b> The commissioner shall promote measures <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.23"></a><var>26.23</var>aimed at preventing businesses from facilitating sexual practices that transmit deadly <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.24"></a><var>26.24</var>infectious diseases by providing technical advice to community health boards of health<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.25"></a><var>26.25</var> to assist them in regulating these practices or closing establishments that constitute <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.26"></a><var>26.26</var>a public health nuisance.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.20.0"></a><a id="pl.26.27"></a><var>26.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.28"></a><var>26.28</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.26.29"></a><var>26.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5a. <b>System-level performance management.</b> To improve public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.30"></a><var>26.30</var>and ensure the integrity and accountability of the statewide local public health system, <br />
         		<a id="pl.26.31"></a><var>26.31</var>the commissioner, in consultation with the State Community Health Services Advisory <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.1"></a><var>27.1</var>Committee, shall develop performance measures and implement a process to monitor <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.2"></a><var>27.2</var>statewide outcomes and performance improvement.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.21.0"></a><a id="pl.27.3"></a><var>27.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.06, subdivision 6, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.4"></a><var>27.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Health volunteer program.</b> (a) The commissioner may accept grants from <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.5"></a><var>27.5</var>the United States Department of Health and Human Services for the emergency system <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.6"></a><var>27.6</var>for the advanced registration of volunteer health professionals (ESAR-VHP) established <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.7"></a><var>27.7</var>under United States Code, title 42, section 247d-7b. The ESAR-VHP program as <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.8"></a><var>27.8</var>implemented in Minnesota is known as the Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps.<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.9"></a><var>27.9</var>(b) The commissioner may maintain a registry of volunteers for the Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.10"></a><var>27.10</var>Responds Medical Reserve Corps and obtain data on volunteers relevant to possible <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.11"></a><var>27.11</var>deployments within and outside the state. All state licensing and certifying boards <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.12"></a><var>27.12</var>shall cooperate with the Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps and shall verify <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.13"></a><var>27.13</var>volunteers' information. The commissioner may also obtain information from other states <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.14"></a><var>27.14</var>and national licensing or certifying boards for health practitioners.<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.15"></a><var>27.15</var>(c) The commissioner may share volunteers' data, including any data classified <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.16"></a><var>27.16</var>as private data, from the Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps registry with <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.17"></a><var>27.17</var>community health boards of health, cities or counties, the University of Minnesota's <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.18"></a><var>27.18</var>Academic Health Center or other public or private emergency preparedness partners, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.19"></a><var>27.19</var>tribal governments operating Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps units as needed <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.20"></a><var>27.20</var>for credentialing, organizing, training, and deploying volunteers. Upon request of another <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.21"></a><var>27.21</var>state participating in the ESAR-VHP or of a Canadian government administering a similar <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.22"></a><var>27.22</var>health volunteer program, the commissioner may also share the volunteers' data as needed <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.23"></a><var>27.23</var>for emergency preparedness and response.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.22.0"></a><a id="pl.27.24"></a><var>27.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 145A.06, subdivision 7, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.25"></a><var>27.25</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.26"></a><var>27.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b> Commissioner requests for health volunteers.</b> (a) When the <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.27"></a><var>27.27</var>commissioner receives a request for health volunteers from:<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.28"></a><var>27.28</var>(1) a local board of health community health board, county, or city according to <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.29"></a><var>27.29</var>section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 6c</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.30"></a><var>27.30</var>(2) the University of Minnesota Academic Health Center;<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.31"></a><var>27.31</var>(3) another state or a territory through the Interstate Emergency Management <br />
         		<a id="pl.27.32"></a><var>27.32</var>Assistance Compact authorized under section 
         <statute_ref>192.89</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.33"></a><var>27.33</var>(4) the federal government through ESAR-VHP or another similar program; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.27.34"></a><var>27.34</var>(5) a tribal or Canadian government;<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.1"></a><var>28.1</var>the commissioner shall determine if deployment of Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.2"></a><var>28.2</var>Corps volunteers from outside the requesting jurisdiction is in the public interest. If so, <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.3"></a><var>28.3</var>the commissioner may ask for Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteers to <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.4"></a><var>28.4</var>respond to the request. The commissioner may also ask for Minnesota Responds Medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.5"></a><var>28.5</var>Reserve Corps volunteers if the commissioner finds that the state needs health volunteers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.6"></a><var>28.6</var>(b) The commissioner may request Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.7"></a><var>28.7</var>volunteers to work on the Minnesota Mobile Medical Unit (MMU), or on other mobile <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.8"></a><var>28.8</var>or temporary units providing emergency patient stabilization, medical transport, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.9"></a><var>28.9</var>ambulatory care. The commissioner may utilize the volunteers for training, mobilization <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.10"></a><var>28.10</var>or demobilization, inspection, maintenance, repair, or other support functions for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.11"></a><var>28.11</var>MMU facility or for other emergency units, as well as for provision of health care services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.12"></a><var>28.12</var>(c) A volunteer's rights and benefits under this chapter as a Minnesota Responds <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.13"></a><var>28.13</var>Medical Reserve Corps volunteer is not affected by any vacation leave, pay, or other <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.14"></a><var>28.14</var>compensation provided by the volunteer's employer during volunteer service requested by <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.15"></a><var>28.15</var>the commissioner. An employer is not liable for actions of an employee while serving as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.16"></a><var>28.16</var>Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteer.<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.17"></a><var>28.17</var>(d) If the commissioner matches the request under paragraph (a) with Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.18"></a><var>28.18</var>Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteers, the commissioner shall facilitate deployment <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.19"></a><var>28.19</var>of the volunteers from the sending Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps units to <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.20"></a><var>28.20</var>the receiving jurisdiction. The commissioner shall track volunteer deployments and assist <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.21"></a><var>28.21</var>sending and receiving jurisdictions in monitoring deployments, and shall coordinate <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.22"></a><var>28.22</var>efforts with the division of homeland security and emergency management for out-of-state <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.23"></a><var>28.23</var>deployments through the Interstate Emergency Management Assistance Compact or <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.24"></a><var>28.24</var>other emergency management compacts.<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.25"></a><var>28.25</var>(e) Where the commissioner has deployed Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.26"></a><var>28.26</var>Corps volunteers within or outside the state, the provisions of paragraphs (f) and (g) must <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.27"></a><var>28.27</var>apply. Where Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteers were deployed <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.28"></a><var>28.28</var>across jurisdictions by mutual aid or similar agreements prior to a commissioner's call, <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.29"></a><var>28.29</var>the provisions of paragraphs (f) and (g) must apply retroactively to volunteers deployed <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.30"></a><var>28.30</var>as of their initial deployment in response to the event or emergency that triggered a <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.31"></a><var>28.31</var>subsequent commissioner's call.<br />
         		<a id="pl.28.32"></a><var>28.32</var>(f)(1) A Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteer responding to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.33"></a><var>28.33</var>request for training or assistance at the call of the commissioner must be deemed an <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.34"></a><var>28.34</var>employee of the state for purposes of workers' compensation and tort claim defense and <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.35"></a><var>28.35</var>indemnification under section 
         <statute_ref>3.736</statute_ref>, without regard to whether the volunteer's activity is <br />
         		<a id="pl.28.36"></a><var>28.36</var>under the direction and control of the commissioner, the division of homeland security <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.1"></a><var>29.1</var>and emergency management, the sending jurisdiction, the receiving jurisdiction, or of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.2"></a><var>29.2</var>hospital, alternate care site, or other health care provider treating patients from the public <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.3"></a><var>29.3</var>health event or emergency.<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.4"></a><var>29.4</var>(2) For purposes of calculating workers' compensation benefits under chapter 176, <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.5"></a><var>29.5</var>the daily wage must be the usual wage paid at the time of injury or death for similar services <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.6"></a><var>29.6</var>performed by paid employees in the community where the volunteer regularly resides, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.7"></a><var>29.7</var>the wage paid to the volunteer in the volunteer's regular employment, whichever is greater.<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.8"></a><var>29.8</var>(g) The Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteer must receive <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.9"></a><var>29.9</var>reimbursement for travel and subsistence expenses during a deployment approved by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.10"></a><var>29.10</var>commissioner under this subdivision according to reimbursement limits established for <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.11"></a><var>29.11</var>paid state employees. Deployment begins when the volunteer leaves on the deployment <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.12"></a><var>29.12</var>until the volunteer returns from the deployment, including all travel related to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.13"></a><var>29.13</var>deployment. The Department of Health shall initially review and pay those expenses to <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.14"></a><var>29.14</var>the volunteer. Except as otherwise provided by the Interstate Emergency Management <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.15"></a><var>29.15</var>Assistance Compact in section 
         <statute_ref>192.89</statute_ref> or agreements made thereunder, the department <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.16"></a><var>29.16</var>shall bill the jurisdiction receiving assistance and that jurisdiction shall reimburse the <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.17"></a><var>29.17</var>department for expenses of the volunteers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.18"></a><var>29.18</var>(h) In the event Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteers are <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.19"></a><var>29.19</var>deployed outside the state pursuant to the Interstate Emergency Management Assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.20"></a><var>29.20</var>Compact, the provisions of the Interstate Emergency Management Assistance Compact <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.21"></a><var>29.21</var>must control over any inconsistent provisions in this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.22"></a><var>29.22</var>(i) When a Minnesota Responds Medical Reserve Corps volunteer makes a claim <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.23"></a><var>29.23</var>for workers' compensation arising out of a deployment under this section or out of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.24"></a><var>29.24</var>training exercise conducted by the commissioner, the volunteer's workers compensation <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.25"></a><var>29.25</var>benefits must be determined under section 
         <statute_ref>176.011, subdivision 9</statute_ref>, clause (25), even if the <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.26"></a><var>29.26</var>volunteer may also qualify under other clauses of section 
         <statute_ref>176.011, subdivision 9</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.23.0"></a><a id="pl.29.27"></a><var>29.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.07, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.28"></a><var>29.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Agreements to perform duties of commissioner.</b> (a) The <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.29"></a><var>29.29</var>commissioner of health may enter into an agreement with any community health board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.30"></a><var>29.30</var>health, county, or city to delegate all or part of the licensing, inspection, reporting, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.31"></a><var>29.31</var>enforcement duties authorized under sections 
         <statute_ref>144.12</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>144.381</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.387</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>144.411</statute_ref> to <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.29.32"></a><var>29.32</var>144.417
         </statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>144.71</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.74</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 6</statute_ref>; provisions of chapter 103I pertaining <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.33"></a><var>29.33</var>to construction, repair, and abandonment of water wells; chapter 157; and sections 
         <statute_ref>327.14</statute_ref> <br />
         		<a id="pl.29.34"></a><var>29.34</var>to 
         <statute_ref>327.28</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.29.35"></a><var>29.35</var>(b) Agreements are subject to subdivision 3.<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.1"></a><var>30.1</var>(c) This subdivision does not affect agreements entered into under Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.2"></a><var>30.2</var>Statutes 1986, section 
         <statute_ref>145.031</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>145.55</statute_ref>, or 
         <statute_ref>145.918, subdivision 2</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.24.0"></a><a id="pl.30.3"></a><var>30.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.07, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.4"></a><var>30.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Agreements to perform duties of </b><b>community health </b><b>board </b><b>of health</b><b>.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.30.5"></a><var>30.5</var>A community health board of health may authorize a township board, city council, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.6"></a><var>30.6</var>county board within its jurisdiction to establish a board of health under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.03<br />
            		
         </statute_ref><a id="pl.30.7"></a><var>30.7</var> and delegate to the board of health by agreement any powers or duties under sections <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.8"></a><var>30.8</var><statute_ref>145A.04</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>145A.07, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, and 
         <statute_ref>145A.08</statute_ref> carry out activities to fulfill community <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.9"></a><var>30.9</var>health board responsibilities. An agreement to delegate community health board powers <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.10"></a><var>30.10</var>and duties of a board of health to a county or city must be approved by the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.11"></a><var>30.11</var>and is subject to subdivision 3.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.25.0"></a><a id="pl.30.12"></a><var>30.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.08, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.13"></a><var>30.13</var><b>145A.08 ASSESSMENT OF COSTS; TAX LEVY AUTHORIZED.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.30.14"></a><var>30.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Cost of care.</b> A person who has or whose dependent or spouse has a <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.15"></a><var>30.15</var>communicable disease that is subject to control by the community health board of health is <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.16"></a><var>30.16</var>financially liable to the unit or agency of government that paid for the reasonable cost of <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.17"></a><var>30.17</var>care provided to control the disease under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.18"></a><var>30.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Assessment of costs of enforcement.</b> (a) If costs are assessed for <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.19"></a><var>30.19</var>enforcement of section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 8</statute_ref>, and no procedure for the assessment <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.20"></a><var>30.20</var>of costs has been specified in an agreement established under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.07</statute_ref>, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.21"></a><var>30.21</var>enforcement costs must be assessed as prescribed in this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.22"></a><var>30.22</var>(b) A debt or claim against an individual owner or single piece of real property <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.23"></a><var>30.23</var>resulting from an enforcement action authorized by section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 8</statute_ref>, must <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.24"></a><var>30.24</var>not exceed the cost of abatement or removal.<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.25"></a><var>30.25</var>(c) The cost of an enforcement action under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 8</statute_ref>, may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.26"></a><var>30.26</var>assessed and charged against the real property on which the public health nuisance, source <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.27"></a><var>30.27</var>of filth, or cause of sickness was located. The auditor of the county in which the action is <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.28"></a><var>30.28</var>taken shall extend the cost so assessed and charged on the tax roll of the county against the <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.29"></a><var>30.29</var>real property on which the enforcement action was taken.<br />
         		<a id="pl.30.30"></a><var>30.30</var>(d) The cost of an enforcement action taken by a town or city board of health under <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.31"></a><var>30.31</var>section 
         <statute_ref>145A.04, subdivision 8</statute_ref>, may be recovered from the county in which the town or <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.32"></a><var>30.32</var>city is located if the city clerk or other officer certifies the costs of the enforcement action <br />
         		<a id="pl.30.33"></a><var>30.33</var>to the county auditor as prescribed in this section. Taxes equal to the full amount of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.1"></a><var>31.1</var>enforcement action but not exceeding the limit in paragraph (b) must be collected by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.2"></a><var>31.2</var>county treasurer and paid to the city or town as other taxes are collected and paid.<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.3"></a><var>31.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Tax levy authorized.</b> A city council or county board that has formed or is <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.4"></a><var>31.4</var>a member of a community health board of health may levy taxes on all taxable property in <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.5"></a><var>31.5</var>its jurisdiction to pay the cost of performing its duties under this chapter.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.26.0"></a><a id="pl.31.6"></a><var>31.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 26. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.11, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.7"></a><var>31.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Levying taxes.</b> In levying taxes authorized under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.08, <br />
            		<a id="pl.31.8"></a><var>31.8</var>subdivision 3
         </statute_ref>, a city council or county board that has formed or is a member of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.9"></a><var>31.9</var>community health board must consider the income and expenditures required to meet <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.10"></a><var>31.10</var>local public health priorities established under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.10, subdivision 5a</statute_ref> 145A.04, <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.11"></a><var>31.11</var>subdivision 1a, clause (2), and statewide outcomes established under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.12, <br />
            		<a id="pl.31.12"></a><var>31.12</var>subdivision 7
         </statute_ref> 145A.04, subdivision 1a, clause (1).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.27.0"></a><a id="pl.31.13"></a><var>31.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 27. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 145A.131, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.14"></a><var>31.14</var><b>145A.131 LOCAL PUBLIC HEALTH GRANT.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.31.15"></a><var>31.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Funding formula for community health boards.</b> (a) Base funding <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.16"></a><var>31.16</var>for each community health board eligible for a local public health grant under section <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.17"></a><var>31.17</var><statute_ref>145A.09, subdivision 2</statute_ref> 145A.03, subdivision 7, shall be determined by each community <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.18"></a><var>31.18</var>health board's fiscal year 2003 allocations, prior to unallotment, for the following grant <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.19"></a><var>31.19</var>programs: community health services subsidy; state and federal maternal and child health <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.20"></a><var>31.20</var>special projects grants; family home visiting grants; TANF MN ENABL grants; TANF <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.21"></a><var>31.21</var>youth risk behavior grants; and available women, infants, and children grant funds in fiscal <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.22"></a><var>31.22</var>year 2003, prior to unallotment, distributed based on the proportion of WIC participants <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.23"></a><var>31.23</var>served in fiscal year 2003 within the CHS service area.<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.24"></a><var>31.24</var>(b) Base funding for a community health board eligible for a local public health grant <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.25"></a><var>31.25</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.09, subdivision 2</statute_ref> 145A.03, subdivision 7, as determined in paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.26"></a><var>31.26</var>(a), shall be adjusted by the percentage difference between the base, as calculated in <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.27"></a><var>31.27</var>paragraph (a), and the funding available for the local public health grant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.28"></a><var>31.28</var>(c) Multicounty or multicity community health boards shall receive a local <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.29"></a><var>31.29</var>partnership base of up to $5,000 per year for each county or city in the case of a multicity <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.30"></a><var>31.30</var>community health board included in the community health board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.31.31"></a><var>31.31</var>(d) The State Community Health Advisory Committee may recommend a formula to <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.32"></a><var>31.32</var>the commissioner to use in distributing state and federal funds to community health boards <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.33"></a><var>31.33</var>organized and operating under sections 
         <statute_ref>145A.09</statute_ref> 145A.03 to 
         <statute_ref>145A.131</statute_ref> to achieve locally <br />
         		<a id="pl.31.34"></a><var>31.34</var>identified priorities under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.12, subdivision 7</statute_ref>, by July 1, 2004 145A.04, <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.1"></a><var>32.1</var>subdivision 1a, for use in distributing funds to community health boards beginning <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.2"></a><var>32.2</var>January 1, 2006, and thereafter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.3"></a><var>32.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Local match.</b> (a) A community health board that receives a local public <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.4"></a><var>32.4</var>health grant shall provide at least a 75 percent match for the state funds received through <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.5"></a><var>32.5</var>the local public health grant described in subdivision 1 and subject to paragraphs (b) to (d).<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.6"></a><var>32.6</var>(b) Eligible funds must be used to meet match requirements. Eligible funds include <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.7"></a><var>32.7</var>funds from local property taxes, reimbursements from third parties, fees, other local funds, <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.8"></a><var>32.8</var>and donations or nonfederal grants that are used for community health services described <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.9"></a><var>32.9</var>in section 
         <statute_ref>145A.02, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.10"></a><var>32.10</var>(c) When the amount of local matching funds for a community health board is less <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.11"></a><var>32.11</var>than the amount required under paragraph (a), the local public health grant provided for <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.12"></a><var>32.12</var>that community health board under this section shall be reduced proportionally.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.13"></a><var>32.13</var>(d) A city organized under the provision of sections 
         <statute_ref>145A.09</statute_ref> 145A.03 to 
         <statute_ref>145A.131</statute_ref> <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.14"></a><var>32.14</var>that levies a tax for provision of community health services is exempt from any county <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.15"></a><var>32.15</var>levy for the same services to the extent of the levy imposed by the city.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.16"></a><var>32.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Accountability.</b> (a) Community health boards accepting local public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.17"></a><var>32.17</var>grants must document progress toward the statewide outcomes established in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.18"></a><var>32.18</var><statute_ref>145A.12, subdivision 7</statute_ref>, to maintain eligibility to receive the local public health grant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.19"></a><var>32.19</var> meet all of the requirements and perform all of the duties described in sections 145A.03 <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.20"></a><var>32.20</var>and 145A.04, to maintain eligibility to receive the local public health grant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.21"></a><var>32.21</var>(b) In determining whether or not the community health board is documenting <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.22"></a><var>32.22</var>progress toward statewide outcomes, the commissioner shall consider the following factors:<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.23"></a><var>32.23</var>(1) whether the community health board has documented progress to meeting <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.24"></a><var>32.24</var>essential local activities related to the statewide outcomes, as specified in the grant <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.25"></a><var>32.25</var>agreement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.26"></a><var>32.26</var>(2) the effort put forth by the community health board toward the selected statewide <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.27"></a><var>32.27</var>outcomes;<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.28"></a><var>32.28</var>(3) whether the community health board has previously failed to document progress <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.29"></a><var>32.29</var>toward selected statewide outcomes under this section;<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.30"></a><var>32.30</var>(4) the amount of funding received by the community health board to address the <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.31"></a><var>32.31</var>statewide outcomes; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.32"></a><var>32.32</var>(5) other factors as the commissioner may require, if the commissioner specifically <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.33"></a><var>32.33</var>identifies the additional factors in the commissioner's written notice of determination.<br />
         		<a id="pl.32.34"></a><var>32.34</var>(c) If the commissioner determines that a community health board has not by <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.35"></a><var>32.35</var>the applicable deadline documented progress toward the selected statewide outcomes <br />
         		<a id="pl.32.36"></a><var>32.36</var>established under section 
         <statute_ref>145.8821</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>145A.12, subdivision 7</statute_ref>, the commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.1"></a><var>33.1</var>notify the community health board in writing and recommend specific actions that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.2"></a><var>33.2</var>community health board should take over the following 12 months to maintain eligibility <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.3"></a><var>33.3</var>for the local public health grant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.4"></a><var>33.4</var>(d) During the 12 months following the written notification, the commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.5"></a><var>33.5</var>provide administrative and program support to assist the community health board in <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.6"></a><var>33.6</var>taking the actions recommended in the written notification.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.7"></a><var>33.7</var>(e) If the community health board has not taken the specific actions recommended by <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.8"></a><var>33.8</var>the commissioner within 12 months following written notification, the commissioner may <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.9"></a><var>33.9</var>determine not to distribute funds to the community health board under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.12, <br />
            		<a id="pl.33.10"></a><var>33.10</var>subdivision 2
         </statute_ref>, for the next fiscal year.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.11"></a><var>33.11</var>(f) If the commissioner determines not to distribute funds for the next fiscal year, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.12"></a><var>33.12</var>commissioner must give the community health board written notice of this determination <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.13"></a><var>33.13</var>and allow the community health board to appeal the determination in writing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.14"></a><var>33.14</var>(g) If the commissioner determines not to distribute funds for the next fiscal year <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.15"></a><var>33.15</var>to a community health board that has not documented progress toward the statewide <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.16"></a><var>33.16</var>outcomes and not taken the actions recommended by the commissioner, the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.17"></a><var>33.17</var>may retain local public health grant funds that the community health board would have <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.18"></a><var>33.18</var>otherwise received and directly carry out essential local activities to meet the statewide <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.19"></a><var>33.19</var>outcomes, or contract with other units of government or community-based organizations <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.20"></a><var>33.20</var>to carry out essential local activities related to the statewide outcomes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.21"></a><var>33.21</var>(h) If the community health board that does not document progress toward the <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.22"></a><var>33.22</var>statewide outcomes is a city, the commissioner shall distribute the local public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.23"></a><var>33.23</var>funds that would have been allocated to that city to the county in which the city is located, <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.24"></a><var>33.24</var>if that county is part of a community health board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.25"></a><var>33.25</var>(i) The commissioner shall establish a reporting system by which community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.26"></a><var>33.26</var>boards will document their progress toward statewide outcomes. This system will be <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.27"></a><var>33.27</var>developed in consultation with the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.28"></a><var>33.28</var>established in section 
         <statute_ref>145A.10, subdivision 10</statute_ref>, paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.29"></a><var>33.29</var>(b) By January 1 of each year, the commissioner shall notify community health <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.30"></a><var>33.30</var>boards of the performance-related accountability requirements of the local public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.31"></a><var>33.31</var>grant for that calendar year. Performance-related accountability requirements will be <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.32"></a><var>33.32</var>comprised of a subset of the annual performance measures and will be selected in <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.33"></a><var>33.33</var>consultation with the State Community Health Services Advisory Committee.<br />
         		<a id="pl.33.34"></a><var>33.34</var>(c) If the commissioner determines that a community health board has not met the <br />
         		<a id="pl.33.35"></a><var>33.35</var>accountability requirements, the commissioner shall notify the community health board in <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.1"></a><var>34.1</var>writing and recommend specific actions the community health board must take over the <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.2"></a><var>34.2</var>next six months in order to maintain eligibility for the Local Public Health Act grant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.3"></a><var>34.3</var>(d) Following the written notification in paragraph (c), the commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.4"></a><var>34.4</var>provide administrative and program support to assist the community health board as <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.5"></a><var>34.5</var>required in section 145A.06, subdivision 3a.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.6"></a><var>34.6</var>(e) The commissioner shall provide the community health board two months <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.7"></a><var>34.7</var>following the written notification to appeal the determination in writing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.8"></a><var>34.8</var>(f) If the community health board has not submitted an appeal within two months <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.9"></a><var>34.9</var>or has not taken the specific actions recommended by the commissioner within six <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.10"></a><var>34.10</var>months following written notification, the commissioner may elect to not reimburse <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.11"></a><var>34.11</var>invoices for funds submitted after the six-month compliance period and shall reduce by <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.12"></a><var>34.12</var>1/12 the community health board's annual award allocation for every successive month <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.13"></a><var>34.13</var>of noncompliance.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.14"></a><var>34.14</var>(g) The commissioner may retain the amount of funding that would have been <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.15"></a><var>34.15</var>allocated to the community health board and assume responsibility for public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.16"></a><var>34.16</var>activities in the geographic area served by the community health board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.17"></a><var>34.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Responsibility of commissioner to ensure a statewide public health </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.34.18"></a><var>34.18</var><b>system.</b> If a county withdraws from a community health board and operates as a board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.19"></a><var>34.19</var>health or If a community health board elects not to accept the local public health grant, <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.20"></a><var>34.20</var>the commissioner may retain the amount of funding that would have been allocated to <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.21"></a><var>34.21</var>the community health board using the formula described in subdivision 1 and assume <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.22"></a><var>34.22</var>responsibility for public health activities to meet the statewide outcomes in the geographic <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.23"></a><var>34.23</var>area served by the board of health or community health board. The commissioner may <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.24"></a><var>34.24</var>elect to directly provide public health activities to meet the statewide outcomes or contract <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.25"></a><var>34.25</var>with other units of government or with community-based organizations. If a city that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.26"></a><var>34.26</var>currently a community health board withdraws from a community health board or elects <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.27"></a><var>34.27</var>not to accept the local public health grant, the local public health grant funds that would <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.28"></a><var>34.28</var>have been allocated to that city shall be distributed to the county in which the city is <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.29"></a><var>34.29</var>located, if the county is part of a community health board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.34.30"></a><var>34.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Local public health priorities</b><b> Use of funds</b><b>.</b> Community health boards <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.31"></a><var>34.31</var>may use their local public health grant to address local public health priorities identified <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.32"></a><var>34.32</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>145A.10, subdivision 5a</statute_ref>. funds to address the areas of public health <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.33"></a><var>34.33</var>responsibility and local priorities developed through the community health assessment and <br />
         		<a id="pl.34.34"></a><var>34.34</var>community health improvement planning process.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.28.0"></a><a id="pl.34.35"></a><var>34.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 28. <b>REVISOR'S INSTRUCTION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.35.1"></a><var>35.1</var>(a) The revisor shall change the terms "board of health" or "local board of health" or <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.2"></a><var>35.2</var>any derivative of those terms to "community health board" where it appears in Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.3"></a><var>35.3</var>Statutes, sections 13.3805, subdivision 1, paragraph (b); 13.46, subdivision 2, paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.4"></a><var>35.4</var>(a), clause (24); 35.67; 35.68; 38.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (1); 121A.15, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.5"></a><var>35.5</var>subdivisions 7 and 8; 144.055, subdivision 1; 144.065; 144.12, subdivision 1; 144.225, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.6"></a><var>35.6</var>subdivision 2a; 144.3351; 144.383; 144.417, subdivision 3; 144.4172, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.7"></a><var>35.7</var>6; 144.4173, subdivision 2; 144.4174; 144.49, subdivision 1; 144.6581; 144A.471, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.8"></a><var>35.8</var>subdivision 9, clause (19); 145.9255, subdivision 2; 175.35; 308A.201, subdivision 14; <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.9"></a><var>35.9</var>375A.04, subdivision 1; and 412.221, subdivision 22, paragraph (c).<br />
         		<a id="pl.35.10"></a><var>35.10</var>(b) The revisor shall change the cross-reference from "145A.02, subdivision 2" <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.11"></a><var>35.11</var>to "145A.02, subdivision 5" where it appears in Minnesota Statutes, sections 13.3805, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.12"></a><var>35.12</var>subdivision 1, paragraph (b); 13.46, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (24); 35.67; 35.68; <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.13"></a><var>35.13</var>38.02, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), clause (1); 121A.15, subdivisions 7 and 8; 144.055, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.14"></a><var>35.14</var>subdivision 1; 144.065; 144.12, subdivision 1; 144.225, subdivision 2a; 144.3351; <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.15"></a><var>35.15</var>144.383; 144.417, subdivision 3; 144.4172, subdivision 6; 144.4173, subdivision 2; <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.16"></a><var>35.16</var>144.4174; 144.49, subdivision 1; 144A.471, subdivision 9, clause (19); 175.35; 308A.201, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.17"></a><var>35.17</var>subdivision 14; 375A.04, subdivision 1; and 412.221, subdivision 22, paragraph (c).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.2.29.0"></a><a id="pl.35.18"></a><var>35.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 29. <b> REPEALER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.35.19"></a><var>35.19</var>Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 145A.02, subdivision 2; 145A.03, subdivisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.20"></a><var>35.20</var>3 and 6; 145A.09, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7; 145A.10, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.21"></a><var>35.21</var>5a, 7, 9, and 10; and 145A.12, subdivisions 1, 2, and 7, are repealed. The revisor shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.22"></a><var>35.22</var>remove cross-references to these repealed sections and make changes necessary to correct <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.23"></a><var>35.23</var>punctuation, grammar, or structure of the remaining text.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.35.24"></a><var>35.24</var><b>ARTICLE 3</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.35.25"></a><var>35.25</var><b>HEALTH CARE</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.3.1.0"></a><a id="pl.35.26"></a><var>35.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.04, subdivision 21, <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.27"></a><var>35.27</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.35.28"></a><var>35.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 21. <b>Provider enrollment.</b> (a) If the commissioner or the Centers for <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.29"></a><var>35.29</var>Medicare and Medicaid Services determines that a provider is designated "high-risk," the <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.30"></a><var>35.30</var>commissioner may withhold payment from providers within that category upon initial <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.31"></a><var>35.31</var>enrollment for a 90-day period. The withholding for each provider must begin on the date <br />
         		<a id="pl.35.32"></a><var>35.32</var>of the first submission of a claim.<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.1"></a><var>36.1</var>(b) An enrolled provider that is also licensed by the commissioner under chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.2"></a><var>36.2</var>245A must designate an individual as the entity's compliance officer. The compliance <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.3"></a><var>36.3</var>officer must:<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.4"></a><var>36.4</var>(1) develop policies and procedures to assure adherence to medical assistance laws <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.5"></a><var>36.5</var>and regulations and to prevent inappropriate claims submissions;<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.6"></a><var>36.6</var>(2) train the employees of the provider entity, and any agents or subcontractors of <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.7"></a><var>36.7</var>the provider entity including billers, on the policies and procedures under clause (1);<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.8"></a><var>36.8</var>(3) respond to allegations of improper conduct related to the provision or billing of <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.9"></a><var>36.9</var>medical assistance services, and implement action to remediate any resulting problems;<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.10"></a><var>36.10</var>(4) use evaluation techniques to monitor compliance with medical assistance laws <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.11"></a><var>36.11</var>and regulations;<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.12"></a><var>36.12</var>(5) promptly report to the commissioner any identified violations of medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.13"></a><var>36.13</var>assistance laws or regulations; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.14"></a><var>36.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) within 60 days of discovery by the provider of a medical assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.15"></a><var>36.15</var>reimbursement overpayment, report the overpayment to the commissioner and make <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.16"></a><var>36.16</var>arrangements with the commissioner for the commissioner's recovery of the overpayment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.17"></a><var>36.17</var>The commissioner may require, as a condition of enrollment in medical assistance, that a <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.18"></a><var>36.18</var>provider within a particular industry sector or category establish a compliance program that <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.19"></a><var>36.19</var>contains the core elements established by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.20"></a><var>36.20</var>(c) The commissioner may revoke the enrollment of an ordering or rendering <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.21"></a><var>36.21</var>provider for a period of not more than one year, if the provider fails to maintain and, upon <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.22"></a><var>36.22</var>request from the commissioner, provide access to documentation relating to written orders <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.23"></a><var>36.23</var>or requests for payment for durable medical equipment, certifications for home health <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.24"></a><var>36.24</var>services, or referrals for other items or services written or ordered by such provider, when <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.25"></a><var>36.25</var>the commissioner has identified a pattern of a lack of documentation. A pattern means a <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.26"></a><var>36.26</var>failure to maintain documentation or provide access to documentation on more than one <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.27"></a><var>36.27</var>occasion. Nothing in this paragraph limits the authority of the commissioner to sanction a <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.28"></a><var>36.28</var>provider under the provisions of section 
         <statute_ref>256B.064</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.29"></a><var>36.29</var>(d) The commissioner shall terminate or deny the enrollment of any individual or <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.30"></a><var>36.30</var>entity if the individual or entity has been terminated from participation in Medicare or <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.31"></a><var>36.31</var>under the Medicaid program or Children's Health Insurance Program of any other state.<br />
         		<a id="pl.36.32"></a><var>36.32</var>(e) As a condition of enrollment in medical assistance, the commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.33"></a><var>36.33</var>require that a provider designated "moderate" or "high-risk" by the Centers for Medicare <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.34"></a><var>36.34</var>and Medicaid Services or the commissioner permit the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.35"></a><var>36.35</var>Services, its agents, or its designated contractors and the state agency, its agents, or its <br />
         		<a id="pl.36.36"></a><var>36.36</var>designated contractors to conduct unannounced on-site inspections of any provider location. <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.1"></a><var>37.1</var>The commissioner shall publish in the Minnesota Health Care Program Provider Manual a <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.2"></a><var>37.2</var>list of provider types designated "limited," "moderate," or "high-risk," based on the criteria <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.3"></a><var>37.3</var>and standards used to designate Medicare providers in Code of Federal Regulations, title <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.4"></a><var>37.4</var>42, section 424.518. The list and criteria are not subject to the requirements of chapter 14. <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.5"></a><var>37.5</var>The commissioner's designations are not subject to administrative appeal.<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.6"></a><var>37.6</var>(f) As a condition of enrollment in medical assistance, the commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.7"></a><var>37.7</var>require that a high-risk provider, or a person with a direct or indirect ownership interest in <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.8"></a><var>37.8</var>the provider of five percent or higher, consent to criminal background checks, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.9"></a><var>37.9</var>fingerprinting, when required to do so under state law or by a determination by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.10"></a><var>37.10</var>commissioner or the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services that a provider is <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.11"></a><var>37.11</var>designated high-risk for fraud, waste, or abuse.<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.12"></a><var>37.12</var>(g)(1) Upon initial enrollment, reenrollment, and notification of revalidation, all <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.13"></a><var>37.13</var>durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS) medical<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.14"></a><var>37.14</var> suppliers meeting the durable medical equipment provider and supplier definition in clause <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.15"></a><var>37.15</var>(3), operating in Minnesota and receiving Medicaid funds must purchase a surety bond <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.16"></a><var>37.16</var>that is annually renewed and designates the Minnesota Department of Human Services as <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.17"></a><var>37.17</var>the obligee, and must be submitted in a form approved by the commissioner. For purposes <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.18"></a><var>37.18</var>of this clause, the following medical suppliers are not required to obtain a surety bond: <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.19"></a><var>37.19</var>a federally qualified health center, a home health agency, the Indian Health Service, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.20"></a><var>37.20</var>pharmacy, and a rural health clinic.<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.21"></a><var>37.21</var>(2) At the time of initial enrollment or reenrollment, the provider agency durable <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.22"></a><var>37.22</var>medical equipment providers and suppliers defined in clause (3) must purchase a <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.23"></a><var>37.23</var>performance surety bond of $50,000. If a revalidating provider's Medicaid revenue in <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.24"></a><var>37.24</var>the previous calendar year is up to and including $300,000, the provider agency must <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.25"></a><var>37.25</var>purchase a performance surety bond of $50,000. If a revalidating provider's Medicaid <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.26"></a><var>37.26</var>revenue in the previous calendar year is over $300,000, the provider agency must purchase <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.27"></a><var>37.27</var>a performance surety bond of $100,000. The performance surety bond must allow for <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.28"></a><var>37.28</var>recovery of costs and fees in pursuing a claim on the bond.<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.29"></a><var>37.29</var>(3) "Durable medical equipment provider or supplier" means a medical supplier that <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.30"></a><var>37.30</var>can purchase medical equipment or supplies for sale or rental to the general public and <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.31"></a><var>37.31</var>is able to perform or arrange for necessary repairs to and maintenance of equipment <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.32"></a><var>37.32</var>offered for sale or rental.<br />
         		<a id="pl.37.33"></a><var>37.33</var>(h) The Department of Human Services may require a provider to purchase a <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.34"></a><var>37.34</var>performance surety bond as a condition of initial enrollment, reenrollment, reinstatement, <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.35"></a><var>37.35</var>or continued enrollment if: (1) the provider fails to demonstrate financial viability, (2) the <br />
         		<a id="pl.37.36"></a><var>37.36</var>department determines there is significant evidence of or potential for fraud and abuse by <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.1"></a><var>38.1</var>the provider, or (3) the provider or category of providers is designated high-risk pursuant <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.2"></a><var>38.2</var>to paragraph (a) and as per Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 455.450. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.3"></a><var>38.3</var>performance surety bond must be in an amount of $100,000 or ten percent of the provider's <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.4"></a><var>38.4</var>payments from Medicaid during the immediately preceding 12 months, whichever is <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.5"></a><var>38.5</var>greater. The performance surety bond must name the Department of Human Services as <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.6"></a><var>38.6</var>an obligee and must allow for recovery of costs and fees in pursuing a claim on the bond. <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.7"></a><var>38.7</var>This paragraph does not apply if the provider currently maintains a surety bond under the <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.8"></a><var>38.8</var>requirements in section 256B.0659 or 256B.85.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.2.0"></a><a id="pl.38.9"></a><var>38.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.0625, subdivision 9, <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.10"></a><var>38.10</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.11"></a><var>38.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Dental services.</b> (a) Medical assistance covers dental services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.12"></a><var>38.12</var>(b) Medical assistance dental coverage for nonpregnant adults is limited to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.13"></a><var>38.13</var>following services:<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.14"></a><var>38.14</var>(1) comprehensive exams, limited to once every five years;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.15"></a><var>38.15</var>(2) periodic exams, limited to one per year;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.16"></a><var>38.16</var>(3) limited exams;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.17"></a><var>38.17</var>(4) bitewing x-rays, limited to one per year;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.18"></a><var>38.18</var>(5) periapical x-rays;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.19"></a><var>38.19</var>(6) panoramic x-rays, limited to one every five years except (1) when medically <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.20"></a><var>38.20</var>necessary for the diagnosis and follow-up of oral and maxillofacial pathology and trauma <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.21"></a><var>38.21</var>or (2) once every two years for patients who cannot cooperate for intraoral film due to <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.22"></a><var>38.22</var>a developmental disability or medical condition that does not allow for intraoral film <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.23"></a><var>38.23</var>placement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.24"></a><var>38.24</var>(7) prophylaxis, limited to one per year;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.25"></a><var>38.25</var>(8) application of fluoride varnish, limited to one per year;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.26"></a><var>38.26</var>(9) posterior fillings, all at the amalgam rate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.27"></a><var>38.27</var>(10) anterior fillings;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.28"></a><var>38.28</var>(11) endodontics, limited to root canals on the anterior and premolars only;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.29"></a><var>38.29</var>(12) removable prostheses, each dental arch limited to one every six years;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.30"></a><var>38.30</var>(13) oral surgery, limited to extractions, biopsies, and incision and drainage of <br />
         		<a id="pl.38.31"></a><var>38.31</var>abscesses;<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.32"></a><var>38.32</var>(14) palliative treatment and sedative fillings for relief of pain; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.38.33"></a><var>38.33</var>(15) full-mouth debridement, limited to one every five years.<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.1"></a><var>39.1</var>(c) In addition to the services specified in paragraph (b), medical assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.2"></a><var>39.2</var>covers the following services for adults, if provided in an outpatient hospital setting or <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.3"></a><var>39.3</var>freestanding ambulatory surgical center as part of outpatient dental surgery:<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.4"></a><var>39.4</var>(1) periodontics, limited to periodontal scaling and root planing once every two years;<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.5"></a><var>39.5</var>(2) general anesthesia; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.6"></a><var>39.6</var>(3) full-mouth survey once every five years.<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.7"></a><var>39.7</var>(d) Medical assistance covers medically necessary dental services for children and <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.8"></a><var>39.8</var>pregnant women. The following guidelines apply:<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.9"></a><var>39.9</var>(1) posterior fillings are paid at the amalgam rate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.10"></a><var>39.10</var>(2) application of sealants are covered once every five years per permanent molar for <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.11"></a><var>39.11</var>children only;<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.12"></a><var>39.12</var>(3) application of fluoride varnish is covered once every six months; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.13"></a><var>39.13</var>(4) orthodontia is eligible for coverage for children only.<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.14"></a><var>39.14</var>(e) In addition to the services specified in paragraphs (b) and (c), medical assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.15"></a><var>39.15</var>covers the following services for adults:<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.16"></a><var>39.16</var>(1) house calls or extended care facility calls for on-site delivery of covered services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.17"></a><var>39.17</var>(2) behavioral management when additional staff time is required to accommodate <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.18"></a><var>39.18</var>behavioral challenges and sedation is not used;<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.19"></a><var>39.19</var>(3) oral or IV sedation, if the covered dental service cannot be performed safely <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.20"></a><var>39.20</var>without it or would otherwise require the service to be performed under general anesthesia <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.21"></a><var>39.21</var>in a hospital or surgical center; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.22"></a><var>39.22</var>(4) prophylaxis, in accordance with an appropriate individualized treatment plan, but <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.23"></a><var>39.23</var>no more than four times per year.<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.24"></a><var>39.24</var>(f) The commissioner shall not require prior authorization for the services included <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.25"></a><var>39.25</var>in paragraph (e), clauses (1) to (3), and shall prohibit managed care and county-based <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.26"></a><var>39.26</var>purchasing plans from requiring prior authorization for the services included in paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.27"></a><var>39.27</var>(e), clauses (1) to (3), when provided under sections 256B.69, 256B.692, and 256L.12.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.3.0"></a><a id="pl.39.28"></a><var>39.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.0751, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.29"></a><var>39.29</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.30"></a><var>39.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Health care homes advisory committee.</b> (a) The commissioners of <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.31"></a><var>39.31</var>health and human services shall establish a health care homes advisory committee to <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.32"></a><var>39.32</var>advise the commissioners on the ongoing statewide implementation of the health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.33"></a><var>39.33</var>homes program authorized in section 256B.072.<br />
         		<a id="pl.39.34"></a><var>39.34</var>(b) The commissioners shall establish an advisory committee that includes <br />
         		<a id="pl.39.35"></a><var>39.35</var>representatives of the health care professions such as primary care providers; nursing <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.1"></a><var>40.1</var>and care coordinators; certified health care home clinics with statewide representation; <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.2"></a><var>40.2</var>health plan companies; state agencies; employers; academic researchers; consumers; and <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.3"></a><var>40.3</var>organizations that work to improve health care quality in Minnesota. At least 25 percent <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.4"></a><var>40.4</var>of the committee members must be consumers or patients in health care homes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.5"></a><var>40.5</var>(c) The advisory committee shall advise the commissioners on ongoing <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.6"></a><var>40.6</var>implementation of the health care homes program, including, but not limited to, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.7"></a><var>40.7</var>following activities:<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.8"></a><var>40.8</var>(1) implementation of certified health care homes across the state on performance <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.9"></a><var>40.9</var>management and implementation of benchmarking;<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.10"></a><var>40.10</var>(2) implementation of modifications to the health care homes program based on <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.11"></a><var>40.11</var>results of the legislatively mandated health care home evaluation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.12"></a><var>40.12</var>(3) statewide solutions for engagement of employers and commercial payers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.13"></a><var>40.13</var>(4) potential modifications of the health care home rules or statutes;<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.14"></a><var>40.14</var>(5) consumer engagement, including patient and family-centered care, patient <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.15"></a><var>40.15</var>activation in health care, and shared decision making;<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.16"></a><var>40.16</var>(6) oversight for health care home subject matter task forces or workgroups; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.17"></a><var>40.17</var>(7) other related issues as requested by the commissioners.<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.18"></a><var>40.18</var>(d) The advisory committee shall have the ability to establish subcommittees on <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.19"></a><var>40.19</var>specific topics. The advisory committee is governed by section 15.059. Notwithstanding <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.20"></a><var>40.20</var>section 15.059, the advisory committee does not expire.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.4.0"></a><a id="pl.40.21"></a><var>40.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.69, subdivision 16, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.40.22"></a><var>40.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 16. <b>Project extension.</b> Minnesota Rules, parts 9500.1450; 9500.1451; <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.23"></a><var>40.23</var>9500.1452; 9500.1453; 9500.1454; 9500.1455; 9500.1456; 9500.1457; 9500.1458; <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.24"></a><var>40.24</var>9500.1459; 9500.1460; 9500.1461; 9500.1462; 9500.1463; and 9500.1464 are extended.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.5.0"></a><a id="pl.40.25"></a><var>40.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. <b>RULEMAKING; REDUNDANT PROVISION REGARDING </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.40.26"></a><var>40.26</var><b>TRANSITION LENSES.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.40.27"></a><var>40.27</var>The commissioner of human services shall amend Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0277, <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.28"></a><var>40.28</var>subpart 3, to remove transition lenses from the list of eyeglass services not eligible for <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.29"></a><var>40.29</var>payment under the medical assistance program. The commissioner may use the good <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.30"></a><var>40.30</var>cause exemption in Minnesota Statutes, section 14.388, subdivision 1, clause (4), to adopt <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.31"></a><var>40.31</var>rules under this section. Minnesota Statutes, section 14.386, does not apply except as <br />
         		<a id="pl.40.32"></a><var>40.32</var>provided in Minnesota Statutes, section 14.388.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.6.0"></a><a id="pl.40.33"></a><var>40.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. <b>FEDERAL APPROVAL.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.41.1"></a><var>41.1</var>By October 1, 2015, the commissioner of human services shall seek federal authority <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.2"></a><var>41.2</var>to operate the program in Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.78, under the state Medicaid <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.3"></a><var>41.3</var>plan, in accordance with United States Code, title 42, section 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI). <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.4"></a><var>41.4</var>To be eligible, an individual must have family income at or below 200 percent of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.5"></a><var>41.5</var>federal poverty guidelines, except that for an individual under age 21, only the income of <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.6"></a><var>41.6</var>the individual must be considered in determining eligibility. Services under this program <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.7"></a><var>41.7</var>must be available on a presumptive eligibility basis.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.7.0"></a><a id="pl.41.8"></a><var>41.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. <b>REVISOR'S INSTRUCTION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.41.9"></a><var>41.9</var>The revisor of statutes shall remove cross-references to the sections and parts <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.10"></a><var>41.10</var>repealed in section 8, paragraphs (a) and (b), wherever they appear in Minnesota Rules <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.11"></a><var>41.11</var>and shall make changes necessary to correct the punctuation, grammar, or structure of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.12"></a><var>41.12</var>remaining text and preserve its meanings.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.3.8.0"></a><a id="pl.41.13"></a><var>41.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. <b> REPEALER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.41.14"></a><var>41.14</var>(a) Minnesota Rules, parts 9500.1126; 9500.1450, subpart 3; 9500.1452, subpart <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.15"></a><var>41.15</var>3; and 9500.1456, are repealed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.41.16"></a><var>41.16</var>(b) Minnesota Rules, parts 9505.5300; 9505.5305; 9505.5310; 9505.5315; and <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.17"></a><var>41.17</var>9505.5325, are repealed contingent upon federal approval of the state Medicaid plan <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.18"></a><var>41.18</var>amendment under section 6. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.19"></a><var>41.19</var>of statutes when this occurs.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.41.20"></a><var>41.20</var><b>ARTICLE 4</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.41.21"></a><var>41.21</var><b>CONTINUING CARE</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.4.1.0"></a><a id="pl.41.22"></a><var>41.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.0654, subdivision 1, is amended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.23"></a><var>41.23</var>read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.41.24"></a><var>41.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> (a) "Complex private duty home care nursing care" <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.25"></a><var>41.25</var>means home care nursing services provided to recipients who are ventilator dependent or <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.26"></a><var>41.26</var>for whom a physician has certified that the recipient would meet the criteria for inpatient <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.27"></a><var>41.27</var>hospital intensive care unit (ICU) level of care meet the criteria for regular home care <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.28"></a><var>41.28</var>nursing and require life-sustaining interventions to reduce the risk of long-term injury <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.29"></a><var>41.29</var>or death.<br />
         		<a id="pl.41.30"></a><var>41.30</var>(b) "Private duty Home care nursing" means ongoing professional physician-ordered <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.31"></a><var>41.31</var>hourly  nursing services by a registered or licensed practical nurse including assessment, <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.32"></a><var>41.32</var>professional nursing tasks, and education, based on an assessment and physician orders <br />
         		<a id="pl.41.33"></a><var>41.33</var>to maintain or restore optimal health of the recipient. performed by a registered nurse or <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.1"></a><var>42.1</var>licensed practical nurse within the scope of practice as defined by the Minnesota Nurse <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.2"></a><var>42.2</var>Practice Act under sections 148.171 to 148.285, in order to maintain or restore a person's <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.3"></a><var>42.3</var>health.<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.4"></a><var>42.4</var>(c) "Private duty Home care nursing agency" means a medical assistance enrolled <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.5"></a><var>42.5</var>provider licensed under chapter 144A to provide private duty home care nursing services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.6"></a><var>42.6</var>(d) "Regular private duty home care nursing" means nursing services provided to <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.7"></a><var>42.7</var>a recipient who is considered stable and not at an inpatient hospital intensive care unit <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.8"></a><var>42.8</var>level of care, but may have episodes of instability that are not life threatening. home <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.9"></a><var>42.9</var>care nursing provided because:<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.10"></a><var>42.10</var>(1) the recipient requires more individual and continuous care than can be provided <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.11"></a><var>42.11</var>during a skilled nurse visit; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.12"></a><var>42.12</var>(2) the cares are outside of the scope of services that can be provided by a home <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.13"></a><var>42.13</var>health aide or personal care assistant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.14"></a><var>42.14</var>(e) "Shared private duty home care nursing" means the provision of home care <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.15"></a><var>42.15</var>nursing services by a private duty home care nurse to two recipients at the same time <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.16"></a><var>42.16</var>and in the same setting.<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.17"></a><var>42.17</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective July 1, 2014.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.2.0"></a><a id="pl.42.18"></a><var>42.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.0659, subdivision 11, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.19"></a><var>42.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Personal care assistant; requirements.</b> (a) A personal care assistant <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.20"></a><var>42.20</var>must meet the following requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.21"></a><var>42.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) be at least 18 years of age with the exception of persons who are 16 or 17 years <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.22"></a><var>42.22</var>of age with these additional requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.23"></a><var>42.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) supervision by a qualified professional every 60 days; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.24"></a><var>42.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) employment by only one personal care assistance provider agency responsible <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.25"></a><var>42.25</var>for compliance with current labor laws;<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.26"></a><var>42.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) be employed by a personal care assistance provider agency;<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.27"></a><var>42.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) enroll with the department as a personal care assistant after clearing a background <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.28"></a><var>42.28</var>study. Except as provided in subdivision 11a, before a personal care assistant provides <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.29"></a><var>42.29</var>services, the personal care assistance provider agency must initiate a background study on <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.30"></a><var>42.30</var>the personal care assistant under chapter 245C, and the personal care assistance provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.31"></a><var>42.31</var>agency must have received a notice from the commissioner that the personal care assistant <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.32"></a><var>42.32</var>is:<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.33"></a><var>42.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) not disqualified under section 
         <statute_ref>245C.14</statute_ref>; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.42.34"></a><var>42.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) is disqualified, but the personal care assistant has received a set aside of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.42.35"></a><var>42.35</var>disqualification under section 
         <statute_ref>245C.22</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.1"></a><var>43.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) be able to effectively communicate with the recipient and personal care <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.2"></a><var>43.2</var>assistance provider agency;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.3"></a><var>43.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) be able to provide covered personal care assistance services according to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.4"></a><var>43.4</var>recipient's personal care assistance care plan, respond appropriately to recipient needs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.5"></a><var>43.5</var>and report changes in the recipient's condition to the supervising qualified professional <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.6"></a><var>43.6</var>or physician;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.7"></a><var>43.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) not be a consumer of personal care assistance services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.8"></a><var>43.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) maintain daily written records including, but not limited to, time sheets under <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.9"></a><var>43.9</var>subdivision 12;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.10"></a><var>43.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) effective January 1, 2010, complete standardized training as determined <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.11"></a><var>43.11</var>by the commissioner before completing enrollment. The training must be available <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.12"></a><var>43.12</var>in languages other than English and to those who need accommodations due to <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.13"></a><var>43.13</var>disabilities. Personal care assistant training must include successful completion of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.14"></a><var>43.14</var>following training components: basic first aid, vulnerable adult, child maltreatment, <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.15"></a><var>43.15</var>OSHA universal precautions, basic roles and responsibilities of personal care assistants <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.16"></a><var>43.16</var>including information about assistance with lifting and transfers for recipients, emergency <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.17"></a><var>43.17</var>preparedness, orientation to positive behavioral practices, fraud issues, and completion of <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.18"></a><var>43.18</var>time sheets. Upon completion of the training components, the personal care assistant must <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.19"></a><var>43.19</var>demonstrate the competency to provide assistance to recipients;<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.20"></a><var>43.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) complete training and orientation on the needs of the recipient; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.21"></a><var>43.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) be limited to providing and being paid for up to 275 hours per month of personal <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.22"></a><var>43.22</var>care assistance services regardless of the number of recipients being served or the number <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.23"></a><var>43.23</var>of personal care assistance provider agencies enrolled with. The number of hours worked <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.24"></a><var>43.24</var>per day shall not be disallowed by the department unless in violation of the law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.25"></a><var>43.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) A legal guardian may be a personal care assistant if the guardian is not being paid <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.26"></a><var>43.26</var>for the guardian services and meets the criteria for personal care assistants in paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.27"></a><var>43.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) Persons who do not qualify as a personal care assistant include parents, <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.28"></a><var>43.28</var>stepparents, and legal guardians of minors; spouses; paid legal guardians of adults; family <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.29"></a><var>43.29</var>foster care providers, except as otherwise allowed in section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0625, subdivision 19a</statute_ref>; <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.30"></a><var>43.30</var>and staff of a residential setting. When the personal care assistant is a relative of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.31"></a><var>43.31</var>recipient, the commissioner shall pay 80 percent of the provider rate. This rate reduction is <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.32"></a><var>43.32</var>effective July 1, 2013. For purposes of this section, relative means the parent or adoptive <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.33"></a><var>43.33</var>parent of an adult child, a sibling aged 16 years or older, an adult child, a grandparent, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.43.34"></a><var>43.34</var>a grandchild.<br />
         		<a id="pl.43.35"></a><var>43.35</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.3.0"></a><a id="pl.44.1"></a><var>44.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.0659, subdivision 21, <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.2"></a><var>44.2</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.3"></a><var>44.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 21. <b>Requirements for provider enrollment of personal care assistance </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.44.4"></a><var>44.4</var><b>provider agencies.</b> (a) All personal care assistance provider agencies must provide, at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.5"></a><var>44.5</var>time of enrollment, reenrollment, and revalidation as a personal care assistance provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.6"></a><var>44.6</var>agency in a format determined by the commissioner, information and documentation that <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.7"></a><var>44.7</var>includes, but is not limited to, the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.8"></a><var>44.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the personal care assistance provider agency's current contact information <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.9"></a><var>44.9</var>including address, telephone number, and e-mail address;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.10"></a><var>44.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) proof of surety bond coverage. Upon new enrollment, or if the provider's <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.11"></a><var>44.11</var>Medicaid revenue in the previous calendar year is up to and including $300,000, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.12"></a><var>44.12</var>provider agency must purchase a performance surety  bond of $50,000. If the Medicaid <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.13"></a><var>44.13</var>revenue in the previous year is over $300,000, the provider agency must purchase a <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.14"></a><var>44.14</var>performance surety  bond of $100,000. The performance surety  bond must be in a form <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.15"></a><var>44.15</var>approved by the commissioner, must be renewed annually, and must allow for recovery of <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.16"></a><var>44.16</var>costs and fees in pursuing a claim on the bond;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.17"></a><var>44.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) proof of fidelity bond coverage in the amount of $20,000;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.18"></a><var>44.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) proof of workers' compensation insurance coverage;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.19"></a><var>44.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) proof of liability insurance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.20"></a><var>44.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) a description of the personal care assistance provider agency's organization <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.21"></a><var>44.21</var>identifying the names of all owners, managing employees, staff, board of directors, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.22"></a><var>44.22</var>the affiliations of the directors, owners, or staff to other service providers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.23"></a><var>44.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) a copy of the personal care assistance provider agency's written policies and <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.24"></a><var>44.24</var>procedures including: hiring of employees; training requirements; service delivery; <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.25"></a><var>44.25</var>and employee and consumer safety including process for notification and resolution <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.26"></a><var>44.26</var>of consumer grievances, identification and prevention of communicable diseases, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.27"></a><var>44.27</var>employee misconduct;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.28"></a><var>44.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) copies of all other forms the personal care assistance provider agency uses in <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.29"></a><var>44.29</var>the course of daily business including, but not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.30"></a><var>44.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) a copy of the personal care assistance provider agency's time sheet if the time <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.31"></a><var>44.31</var>sheet varies from the standard time sheet for personal care assistance services approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.32"></a><var>44.32</var>by the commissioner, and a letter requesting approval of the personal care assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.33"></a><var>44.33</var>provider agency's nonstandard time sheet;<br />
         		<a id="pl.44.34"></a><var>44.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) the personal care assistance provider agency's template for the personal care <br />
         		<a id="pl.44.35"></a><var>44.35</var>assistance care plan; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.1"></a><var>45.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iii) the personal care assistance provider agency's template for the written <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.2"></a><var>45.2</var>agreement in subdivision 20 for recipients using the personal care assistance choice <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.3"></a><var>45.3</var>option, if applicable;<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.4"></a><var>45.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) a list of all training and classes that the personal care assistance provider agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.5"></a><var>45.5</var>requires of its staff providing personal care assistance services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.6"></a><var>45.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) documentation that the personal care assistance provider agency and staff have <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.7"></a><var>45.7</var>successfully completed all the training required by this section;<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.8"></a><var>45.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(11) documentation of the agency's marketing practices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.9"></a><var>45.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(12) disclosure of ownership, leasing, or management of all residential properties <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.10"></a><var>45.10</var>that is used or could be used for providing home care services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.11"></a><var>45.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(13) documentation that the agency will use the following percentages of revenue <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.12"></a><var>45.12</var>generated from the medical assistance rate paid for personal care assistance services <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.13"></a><var>45.13</var>for employee personal care assistant wages and benefits: 72.5 percent of revenue in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.14"></a><var>45.14</var>personal care assistance choice option and 72.5 percent of revenue from other personal <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.15"></a><var>45.15</var>care assistance providers. The revenue generated by the qualified professional and the <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.16"></a><var>45.16</var>reasonable costs associated with the qualified professional shall not be used in making <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.17"></a><var>45.17</var>this calculation; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.18"></a><var>45.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(14) effective May 15, 2010, documentation that the agency does not burden <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.19"></a><var>45.19</var>recipients' free exercise of their right to choose service providers by requiring personal <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.20"></a><var>45.20</var>care assistants to sign an agreement not to work with any particular personal care <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.21"></a><var>45.21</var>assistance recipient or for another personal care assistance provider agency after leaving <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.22"></a><var>45.22</var>the agency and that the agency is not taking action on any such agreements or requirements <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.23"></a><var>45.23</var>regardless of the date signed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.24"></a><var>45.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Personal care assistance provider agencies shall provide the information specified <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.25"></a><var>45.25</var>in paragraph (a) to the commissioner at the time the personal care assistance provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.26"></a><var>45.26</var>agency enrolls as a vendor or upon request from the commissioner. The commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.27"></a><var>45.27</var>shall collect the information specified in paragraph (a) from all personal care assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.28"></a><var>45.28</var>providers beginning July 1, 2009.<br />
         		<a id="pl.45.29"></a><var>45.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) All personal care assistance provider agencies shall require all employees in <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.30"></a><var>45.30</var>management and supervisory positions and owners of the agency who are active in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.31"></a><var>45.31</var>day-to-day management and operations of the agency to complete mandatory training <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.32"></a><var>45.32</var>as determined by the commissioner before enrollment of the agency as a provider. <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.33"></a><var>45.33</var>Employees in management and supervisory positions and owners who are active in <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.34"></a><var>45.34</var>the day-to-day operations of an agency who have completed the required training as <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.35"></a><var>45.35</var>an employee with a personal care assistance provider agency do not need to repeat <br />
         		<a id="pl.45.36"></a><var>45.36</var>the required training if they are hired by another agency, if they have completed the <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.1"></a><var>46.1</var>training within the past three years. By September 1, 2010, the required training must <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.2"></a><var>46.2</var>be available with meaningful access according to title VI of the Civil Rights Act and <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.3"></a><var>46.3</var>federal regulations adopted under that law or any guidance from the United States Health <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.4"></a><var>46.4</var>and Human Services Department. The required training must be available online or by <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.5"></a><var>46.5</var>electronic remote connection. The required training must provide for competency testing. <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.6"></a><var>46.6</var>Personal care assistance provider agency billing staff shall complete training about <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.7"></a><var>46.7</var>personal care assistance program financial management. This training is effective July 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.8"></a><var>46.8</var>2009. Any personal care assistance provider agency enrolled before that date shall, if it <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.9"></a><var>46.9</var>has not already, complete the provider training within 18 months of July 1, 2009. Any new <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.10"></a><var>46.10</var>owners or employees in management and supervisory positions involved in the day-to-day <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.11"></a><var>46.11</var>operations are required to complete mandatory training as a requisite of working for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.12"></a><var>46.12</var>agency. Personal care assistance provider agencies certified for participation in Medicare <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.13"></a><var>46.13</var>as home health agencies are exempt from the training required in this subdivision. When <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.14"></a><var>46.14</var>available, Medicare-certified home health agency owners, supervisors, or managers must <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.15"></a><var>46.15</var>successfully complete the competency test.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.4.0"></a><a id="pl.46.16"></a><var>46.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.0659, subdivision 28, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.17"></a><var>46.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 28. <b>Personal care assistance provider agency; required documentation.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.46.18"></a><var>46.18</var>(a) Required documentation must be completed and kept in the personal care assistance <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.19"></a><var>46.19</var>provider agency file or the recipient's home residence. The required documentation <br />
         		<a id="pl.46.20"></a><var>46.20</var>consists of:<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.21"></a><var>46.21</var>(1) employee files, including:<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.22"></a><var>46.22</var>(i) applications for employment;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.23"></a><var>46.23</var>(ii) background study requests and results;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.24"></a><var>46.24</var>(iii) orientation records about the agency policies;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.25"></a><var>46.25</var>(iv) trainings completed with demonstration of competence;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.26"></a><var>46.26</var>(v) supervisory visits;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.27"></a><var>46.27</var>(vi) evaluations of employment; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.28"></a><var>46.28</var>(vii) signature on fraud statement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.29"></a><var>46.29</var>(2) recipient files, including:<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.30"></a><var>46.30</var>(i) demographics;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.31"></a><var>46.31</var>(ii) emergency contact information and emergency backup plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.32"></a><var>46.32</var>(iii) personal care assistance service plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.33"></a><var>46.33</var>(iv) personal care assistance care plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.34"></a><var>46.34</var>(v) month-to-month service use plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.46.35"></a><var>46.35</var>(vi) all communication records;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.1"></a><var>47.1</var>(vii) start of service information, including the written agreement with recipient; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.2"></a><var>47.2</var>(viii) date the home care bill of rights was given to the recipient;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.3"></a><var>47.3</var>(3) agency policy manual, including:<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.4"></a><var>47.4</var>(i) policies for employment and termination;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.5"></a><var>47.5</var>(ii) grievance policies with resolution of consumer grievances;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.6"></a><var>47.6</var>(iii) staff and consumer safety;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.7"></a><var>47.7</var>(iv) staff misconduct; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.8"></a><var>47.8</var>(v) staff hiring, service delivery, staff and consumer safety, staff misconduct, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.9"></a><var>47.9</var>resolution of consumer grievances;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.10"></a><var>47.10</var>(4) time sheets for each personal care assistant along with completed activity sheets <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.11"></a><var>47.11</var>for each recipient served; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.12"></a><var>47.12</var>(5) agency marketing and advertising materials and documentation of marketing <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.13"></a><var>47.13</var>activities and costs; and.<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.14"></a><var>47.14</var>(6) for each personal care assistant, whether or not the personal care assistant is <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.15"></a><var>47.15</var>providing care to a relative as defined in subdivision 11.<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.16"></a><var>47.16</var>(b) The commissioner may assess a fine of up to $500 on provider agencies that do <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.17"></a><var>47.17</var>not consistently comply with the requirements of this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.18"></a><var>47.18</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.5.0"></a><a id="pl.47.19"></a><var>47.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.0922, subdivision 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.20"></a><var>47.20</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.21"></a><var>47.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Essential community supports.</b> (a) The purpose of the essential <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.22"></a><var>47.22</var>community supports program is to provide targeted services to persons age 65 and older <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.23"></a><var>47.23</var>who need essential community support, but whose needs do not meet the level of care <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.24"></a><var>47.24</var>required for nursing facility placement under section 
         <statute_ref>144.0724, subdivision 11</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.25"></a><var>47.25</var>(b) Essential community supports are available not to exceed $400 per person per <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.26"></a><var>47.26</var>month. Essential community supports may be used as authorized within an authorization <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.27"></a><var>47.27</var>period not to exceed 12 months. Services must be available to a person who:<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.28"></a><var>47.28</var>(1) is age 65 or older;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.29"></a><var>47.29</var>(2) is not eligible for medical assistance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.30"></a><var>47.30</var>(3) has received a community assessment under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0911, subdivision 3a <br />
            		
         </statute_ref><a id="pl.47.31"></a><var>47.31</var>or 3b, and does not require the level of care provided in a nursing facility;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.32"></a><var>47.32</var>(4) meets the financial eligibility criteria for the alternative care program under <br />
         		<a id="pl.47.33"></a><var>47.33</var>section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0913, subdivision 4</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.47.34"></a><var>47.34</var>(5) has a community support plan; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.1"></a><var>48.1</var>(6) has been determined by a community assessment under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0911</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.2"></a><var>48.2</var>subdivision 3a or 3b, to be a person who would require provision of at least one of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.3"></a><var>48.3</var>following services, as defined in the approved elderly waiver plan, in order to maintain <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.4"></a><var>48.4</var>their community residence:<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.5"></a><var>48.5</var>(i) adult day services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.6"></a><var>48.6</var>(ii) caregiver support;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.7"></a><var>48.7</var>(ii) (iii) homemaker support;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.8"></a><var>48.8</var>(iii) (iv) chores;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.9"></a><var>48.9</var>(iv) (v) a personal emergency response device or system;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.10"></a><var>48.10</var>(v) (vi) home-delivered meals; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.11"></a><var>48.11</var>(vi) (vii) community living assistance as defined by the commissioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.12"></a><var>48.12</var>(c) The person receiving any of the essential community supports in this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.13"></a><var>48.13</var>must also receive service coordination, not to exceed $600 in a 12-month authorization <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.14"></a><var>48.14</var>period, as part of their community support plan.<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.15"></a><var>48.15</var>(d) A person who has been determined to be eligible for essential community <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.16"></a><var>48.16</var>supports must be reassessed at least annually and continue to meet the criteria in paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.17"></a><var>48.17</var>(b) to remain eligible for essential community supports.<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.18"></a><var>48.18</var>(e) The commissioner is authorized to use federal matching funds for essential <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.19"></a><var>48.19</var>community supports as necessary and to meet demand for essential community supports <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.20"></a><var>48.20</var>as outlined in subdivision 2, and that amount of federal funds is appropriated to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.21"></a><var>48.21</var>commissioner for this purpose.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.6.0"></a><a id="pl.48.22"></a><var>48.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.4912, subdivision 10, <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.23"></a><var>48.23</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.24"></a><var>48.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Enrollment requirements.</b> All (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.25"></a><var>48.25</var>the following home and community-based waiver providers must provide, at the time of <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.26"></a><var>48.26</var>enrollment and within 30 days of a request, in a format determined by the commissioner, <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.27"></a><var>48.27</var>information and documentation that includes, but is not limited to, the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.28"></a><var>48.28</var>(1) proof of surety bond coverage in the amount of $50,000 or ten percent of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.29"></a><var>48.29</var>provider's payments from Medicaid in the previous calendar year, whichever is greater;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.30"></a><var>48.30</var>(2) proof of fidelity bond coverage in the amount of $20,000; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.31"></a><var>48.31</var>(3) proof of liability insurance.:<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.32"></a><var>48.32</var>(1) waiver services providers required to meet the provider standards in chapter 245D;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.33"></a><var>48.33</var>(2) foster care providers whose services are funded by the elderly waiver or <br />
         		<a id="pl.48.34"></a><var>48.34</var>alternative care program;<br />
         		<a id="pl.48.35"></a><var>48.35</var>(3) fiscal support entities;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.1"></a><var>49.1</var>(4) adult day care providers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.2"></a><var>49.2</var>(5) providers of customized living services; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.3"></a><var>49.3</var>(6) residential care providers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.4"></a><var>49.4</var>(b) Providers of foster care services covered by section 245.814 are exempt from <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.5"></a><var>49.5</var>this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.6"></a><var>49.6</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.7.0"></a><a id="pl.49.7"></a><var>49.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.492, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.8"></a><var>49.8</var><b>256B.492 HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SETTINGS FOR PEOPLE </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.49.9"></a><var>49.9</var><b>WITH DISABILITIES.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.49.10"></a><var>49.10</var>(a) Individuals receiving services under a home and community-based waiver under <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.11"></a><var>49.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>256B.092</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>256B.49</statute_ref> may receive services in the following settings:<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.12"></a><var>49.12</var>(1) an individual's own home or family home;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.13"></a><var>49.13</var>(2) a licensed adult foster care or child foster care setting of up to five people or <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.14"></a><var>49.14</var>community residential setting of up to five people; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.15"></a><var>49.15</var>(3) community living settings as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>256B.49</statute_ref>, subdivision 23, where <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.16"></a><var>49.16</var>individuals with disabilities may reside in all of the units in a building of four or fewer <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.17"></a><var>49.17</var>units, and no more than the greater of four or 25 percent of the units in a multifamily <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.18"></a><var>49.18</var>building of more than four units, unless required by the Housing Opportunities for Persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.19"></a><var>49.19</var>with AIDS Program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.20"></a><var>49.20</var>(b) The settings in paragraph (a) must not:<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.21"></a><var>49.21</var>(1) be located in a building that is a publicly or privately operated facility that <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.22"></a><var>49.22</var>provides institutional treatment or custodial care;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.23"></a><var>49.23</var>(2) be located in a building on the grounds of or adjacent to a public or private <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.24"></a><var>49.24</var>institution;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.25"></a><var>49.25</var>(3) be a housing complex designed expressly around an individual's diagnosis or <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.26"></a><var>49.26</var>disability, unless required by the Housing Opportunities for Persons with AIDS Program;<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.27"></a><var>49.27</var>(4) be segregated based on a disability, either physically or because of setting <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.28"></a><var>49.28</var>characteristics, from the larger community; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.49.29"></a><var>49.29</var>(5) have the qualities of an institution which include, but are not limited to: <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.30"></a><var>49.30</var>regimented meal and sleep times, limitations on visitors, and lack of privacy. Restrictions <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.31"></a><var>49.31</var>agreed to and documented in the person's individual service plan shall not result in a <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.32"></a><var>49.32</var>residence having the qualities of an institution as long as the restrictions for the person are <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.33"></a><var>49.33</var>not imposed upon others in the same residence and are the least restrictive alternative, <br />
         		<a id="pl.49.34"></a><var>49.34</var>imposed for the shortest possible time to meet the person's needs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.1"></a><var>50.1</var>(c) The provisions of paragraphs (a) and (b) do not apply to any setting in which <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.2"></a><var>50.2</var>individuals receive services under a home and community-based waiver as of July 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.3"></a><var>50.3</var>2012, and the setting does not meet the criteria of this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.4"></a><var>50.4</var>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), a program in Hennepin County established as <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.5"></a><var>50.5</var>part of a Hennepin County demonstration project is qualified for the exception allowed <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.6"></a><var>50.6</var>under paragraph (c).<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.7"></a><var>50.7</var>(e) The commissioner shall submit an amendment to the waiver plan no later than <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.8"></a><var>50.8</var>December 31, 2012.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.8.0"></a><a id="pl.50.9"></a><var>50.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.493, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.10"></a><var>50.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Commissioner's duties; report.</b> The commissioner of human <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.11"></a><var>50.11</var>services shall solicit proposals for the conversion of services provided for persons with <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.12"></a><var>50.12</var>disabilities in settings licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.13"></a><var>50.13</var>community residential settings licensed under chapter 245D, to other types of community <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.14"></a><var>50.14</var>settings in conjunction with the closure of identified licensed adult foster care settings.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.9.0"></a><a id="pl.50.15"></a><var>50.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256B.5016, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.16"></a><var>50.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Managed care pilot.</b> The commissioner may initiate a capitated <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.17"></a><var>50.17</var>risk-based managed care option for services in an intermediate care facility for persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.18"></a><var>50.18</var>with developmental disabilities according to the terms and conditions of the federal <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.19"></a><var>50.19</var>agreement governing the managed care pilot. The commissioner may grant a variance <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.20"></a><var>50.20</var>to any of the provisions in sections 
         <statute_ref>256B.501</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>256B.5015</statute_ref> and Minnesota Rules, parts <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.21"></a><var>50.21</var>9525.1200 to 9525.1330 and 9525.1580.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.10.0"></a><a id="pl.50.22"></a><var>50.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.85, subdivision 12, <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.23"></a><var>50.23</var>is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.24"></a><var>50.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 12. <b>Requirements for enrollment of CFSS provider agencies.</b> (a) All CFSS <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.25"></a><var>50.25</var>provider agencies must provide, at the time of enrollment, reenrollment, and revalidation <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.26"></a><var>50.26</var>as a CFSS provider agency in a format determined by the commissioner, information and <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.27"></a><var>50.27</var>documentation that includes, but is not limited to, the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.28"></a><var>50.28</var>(1) the CFSS provider agency's current contact information including address, <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.29"></a><var>50.29</var>telephone number, and e-mail address;<br />
         		<a id="pl.50.30"></a><var>50.30</var>(2) proof of surety bond coverage. Upon new enrollment, or if the provider agency's <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.31"></a><var>50.31</var>Medicaid revenue in the previous calendar year is less than or equal to $300,000, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.32"></a><var>50.32</var>provider agency must purchase a performance surety bond of $50,000. If the provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.50.33"></a><var>50.33</var>agency's Medicaid revenue in the previous calendar year is greater than $300,000, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.1"></a><var>51.1</var>provider agency must purchase a performance surety bond of $100,000. The performance<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.2"></a><var>51.2</var> surety bond must be in a form approved by the commissioner, must be renewed annually, <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.3"></a><var>51.3</var>and must allow for recovery of costs and fees in pursuing a claim on the bond;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.4"></a><var>51.4</var>(3) proof of fidelity bond coverage in the amount of $20,000;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.5"></a><var>51.5</var>(4) proof of workers' compensation insurance coverage;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.6"></a><var>51.6</var>(5) proof of liability insurance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.7"></a><var>51.7</var>(6) a description of the CFSS provider agency's organization identifying the names <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.8"></a><var>51.8</var>of all owners, managing employees, staff, board of directors, and the affiliations of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.9"></a><var>51.9</var>directors, owners, or staff to other service providers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.10"></a><var>51.10</var>(7) a copy of the CFSS provider agency's written policies and procedures including: <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.11"></a><var>51.11</var>hiring of employees; training requirements; service delivery; and employee and consumer <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.12"></a><var>51.12</var>safety including process for notification and resolution of consumer grievances, <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.13"></a><var>51.13</var>identification and prevention of communicable diseases, and employee misconduct;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.14"></a><var>51.14</var>(8) copies of all other forms the CFSS provider agency uses in the course of daily <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.15"></a><var>51.15</var>business including, but not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.16"></a><var>51.16</var>(i) a copy of the CFSS provider agency's time sheet if the time sheet varies from <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.17"></a><var>51.17</var>the standard time sheet for CFSS services approved by the commissioner, and a letter <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.18"></a><var>51.18</var>requesting approval of the CFSS provider agency's nonstandard time sheet; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.19"></a><var>51.19</var>(ii) the CFSS provider agency's template for the CFSS care plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.20"></a><var>51.20</var>(9) a list of all training and classes that the CFSS provider agency requires of its <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.21"></a><var>51.21</var>staff providing CFSS services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.22"></a><var>51.22</var>(10) documentation that the CFSS provider agency and staff have successfully <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.23"></a><var>51.23</var>completed all the training required by this section;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.24"></a><var>51.24</var>(11) documentation of the agency's marketing practices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.25"></a><var>51.25</var>(12) disclosure of ownership, leasing, or management of all residential properties <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.26"></a><var>51.26</var>that are used or could be used for providing home care services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.27"></a><var>51.27</var>(13) documentation that the agency will use at least the following percentages of <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.28"></a><var>51.28</var>revenue generated from the medical assistance rate paid for CFSS services for employee <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.29"></a><var>51.29</var>personal care assistant wages and benefits: 72.5 percent of revenue from CFSS providers. <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.30"></a><var>51.30</var>The revenue generated by the support specialist and the reasonable costs associated with <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.31"></a><var>51.31</var>the support specialist shall not be used in making this calculation; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.51.32"></a><var>51.32</var>(14) documentation that the agency does not burden recipients' free exercise of their <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.33"></a><var>51.33</var>right to choose service providers by requiring personal care assistants to sign an agreement <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.34"></a><var>51.34</var>not to work with any particular CFSS recipient or for another CFSS provider agency after <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.35"></a><var>51.35</var>leaving the agency and that the agency is not taking action on any such agreements or <br />
         		<a id="pl.51.36"></a><var>51.36</var>requirements regardless of the date signed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.52.1"></a><var>52.1</var>(b) CFSS provider agencies shall provide to the commissioner the information <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.2"></a><var>52.2</var>specified in paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.52.3"></a><var>52.3</var>(c) All CFSS provider agencies shall require all employees in management and <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.4"></a><var>52.4</var>supervisory positions and owners of the agency who are active in the day-to-day <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.5"></a><var>52.5</var>management and operations of the agency to complete mandatory training as determined <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.6"></a><var>52.6</var>by the commissioner. Employees in management and supervisory positions and owners <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.7"></a><var>52.7</var>who are active in the day-to-day operations of an agency who have completed the required <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.8"></a><var>52.8</var>training as an employee with a CFSS provider agency do not need to repeat the required <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.9"></a><var>52.9</var>training if they are hired by another agency, if they have completed the training within <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.10"></a><var>52.10</var>the past three years. CFSS provider agency billing staff shall complete training about <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.11"></a><var>52.11</var>CFSS program financial management. Any new owners or employees in management <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.12"></a><var>52.12</var>and supervisory positions involved in the day-to-day operations are required to complete <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.13"></a><var>52.13</var>mandatory training as a requisite of working for the agency. CFSS provider agencies <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.14"></a><var>52.14</var>certified for participation in Medicare as home health agencies are exempt from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.15"></a><var>52.15</var>training required in this subdivision.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.11.0"></a><a id="pl.52.16"></a><var>52.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256D.01, subdivision 1e, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.52.17"></a><var>52.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1e. <b>Rules regarding emergency assistance.</b> The commissioner shall adopt <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.18"></a><var>52.18</var>rules under the terms of sections 
         <statute_ref>256D.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>256D.21</statute_ref> for general assistance, to require use <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.19"></a><var>52.19</var>of the emergency program under MFIP as the primary financial resource when available. <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.20"></a><var>52.20</var>The commissioner shall adopt rules for eligibility for general assistance of persons with <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.21"></a><var>52.21</var>seasonal income and may attribute seasonal income to other periods not in excess of one <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.22"></a><var>52.22</var>year from receipt by an applicant or recipient. General assistance payments may not be <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.23"></a><var>52.23</var>made for foster care, community residential settings licensed under chapter 245D, child <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.24"></a><var>52.24</var>welfare services, or other social services. Vendor payments and vouchers may be issued <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.25"></a><var>52.25</var>only as authorized in sections 
         <statute_ref>256D.05, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, and 
         <statute_ref>256D.09</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.12.0"></a><a id="pl.52.26"></a><var>52.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256D.44, subdivision 5, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.27"></a><var>52.27</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.52.28"></a><var>52.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Special needs.</b> In addition to the state standards of assistance established in <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.29"></a><var>52.29</var>subdivisions 1 to 4, payments are allowed for the following special needs of recipients of <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.30"></a><var>52.30</var>Minnesota supplemental aid who are not residents of a nursing home, a regional treatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.31"></a><var>52.31</var>center, or a group residential housing facility.<br />
         		<a id="pl.52.32"></a><var>52.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(a) The county agency shall pay a monthly allowance for medically prescribed <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.33"></a><var>52.33</var>diets if the cost of those additional dietary needs cannot be met through some other <br />
         		<a id="pl.52.34"></a><var>52.34</var>maintenance benefit. The need for special diets or dietary items must be prescribed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.1"></a><var>53.1</var>a licensed physician. Costs for special diets shall be determined as percentages of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.2"></a><var>53.2</var>allotment for a one-person household under the thrifty food plan as defined by the United <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.3"></a><var>53.3</var>States Department of Agriculture. The types of diets and the percentages of the thrifty <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.4"></a><var>53.4</var>food plan that are covered are as follows:<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.5"></a><var>53.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) high protein diet, at least 80 grams daily, 25 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.6"></a><var>53.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) controlled protein diet, 40 to 60 grams and requires special products, 100 percent <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.7"></a><var>53.7</var>of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.8"></a><var>53.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) controlled protein diet, less than 40 grams and requires special products, 125 <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.9"></a><var>53.9</var>percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.10"></a><var>53.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) low cholesterol diet, 25 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.11"></a><var>53.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) high residue diet, 20 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.12"></a><var>53.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) pregnancy and lactation diet, 35 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.13"></a><var>53.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) gluten-free diet, 25 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.14"></a><var>53.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) lactose-free diet, 25 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.15"></a><var>53.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) antidumping diet, 15 percent of thrifty food plan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.16"></a><var>53.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) hypoglycemic diet, 15 percent of thrifty food plan; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.17"></a><var>53.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(11) ketogenic diet, 25 percent of thrifty food plan.<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.18"></a><var>53.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Payment for nonrecurring special needs must be allowed for necessary home <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.19"></a><var>53.19</var>repairs or necessary repairs or replacement of household furniture and appliances using <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.20"></a><var>53.20</var>the payment standard of the AFDC program in effect on July 16, 1996, for these expenses, <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.21"></a><var>53.21</var>as long as other funding sources are not available.<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.22"></a><var>53.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) A fee for guardian or conservator service is allowed at a reasonable rate <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.23"></a><var>53.23</var>negotiated by the county or approved by the court. This rate shall not exceed five percent <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.24"></a><var>53.24</var>of the assistance unit's gross monthly income up to a maximum of $100 per month. If the <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.25"></a><var>53.25</var>guardian or conservator is a member of the county agency staff, no fee is allowed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.26"></a><var>53.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) The county agency shall continue to pay a monthly allowance of $68 for <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.27"></a><var>53.27</var>restaurant meals for a person who was receiving a restaurant meal allowance on June 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.28"></a><var>53.28</var>1990, and who eats two or more meals in a restaurant daily. The allowance must continue <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.29"></a><var>53.29</var>until the person has not received Minnesota supplemental aid for one full calendar month <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.30"></a><var>53.30</var>or until the person's living arrangement changes and the person no longer meets the criteria <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.31"></a><var>53.31</var>for the restaurant meal allowance, whichever occurs first.<br />
         		<a id="pl.53.32"></a><var>53.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) A fee of ten percent of the recipient's gross income or $25, whichever is less, <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.33"></a><var>53.33</var>is allowed for representative payee services provided by an agency that meets the <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.34"></a><var>53.34</var>requirements under SSI regulations to charge a fee for representative payee services. This <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.35"></a><var>53.35</var>special need is available to all recipients of Minnesota supplemental aid regardless of <br />
         		<a id="pl.53.36"></a><var>53.36</var>their living arrangement.<br />
         		<a id="pl.54.1"></a><var>54.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(f)(1) Notwithstanding the language in this subdivision, an amount equal to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.2"></a><var>54.2</var>maximum allotment authorized by the federal Food Stamp Program for a single individual <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.3"></a><var>54.3</var>which is in effect on the first day of July of each year will be added to the standards of <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.4"></a><var>54.4</var>assistance established in subdivisions 1 to 4 for adults under the age of 65 who qualify <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.5"></a><var>54.5</var>as shelter needy and are: (i) relocating from an institution, or an adult mental health <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.6"></a><var>54.6</var>residential treatment program under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0622</statute_ref>; (ii) eligible for the self-directed <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.7"></a><var>54.7</var>supports option as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0657, subdivision 2</statute_ref>; or (iii) home and <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.8"></a><var>54.8</var>community-based waiver recipients living in their own home or rented or leased apartment <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.9"></a><var>54.9</var>which is not owned, operated, or controlled by a provider of service not related by blood <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.10"></a><var>54.10</var>or marriage, unless allowed under paragraph (g).<br />
         		<a id="pl.54.11"></a><var>54.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) Notwithstanding subdivision 3, paragraph (c), an individual eligible for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.12"></a><var>54.12</var>shelter needy benefit under this paragraph is considered a household of one. An eligible <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.13"></a><var>54.13</var>individual who receives this benefit prior to age 65 may continue to receive the benefit <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.14"></a><var>54.14</var>after the age of 65.<br />
         		<a id="pl.54.15"></a><var>54.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) "Shelter needy" means that the assistance unit incurs monthly shelter costs that <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.16"></a><var>54.16</var>exceed 40 percent of the assistance unit's gross income before the application of this <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.17"></a><var>54.17</var>special needs standard. "Gross income" for the purposes of this section is the applicant's or <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.18"></a><var>54.18</var>recipient's income as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>256D.35, subdivision 10</statute_ref>, or the standard specified <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.19"></a><var>54.19</var>in subdivision 3, paragraph (a) or (b), whichever is greater. A recipient of a federal or <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.20"></a><var>54.20</var>state housing subsidy, that limits shelter costs to a percentage of gross income, shall not be <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.21"></a><var>54.21</var>considered shelter needy for purposes of this paragraph.<br />
         		<a id="pl.54.22"></a><var>54.22</var>(g) Notwithstanding this subdivision, to access housing and services as provided <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.23"></a><var>54.23</var>in paragraph (f), the recipient may choose housing that may be owned, operated, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.24"></a><var>54.24</var>controlled by the recipient's service provider. In a multifamily building of more than four <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.25"></a><var>54.25</var>units, the maximum number of units that may be used by recipients of this program shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.26"></a><var>54.26</var>be the greater of four units or 25 percent of the units in the building, unless required by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.27"></a><var>54.27</var>Housing Opportunities for Persons with AIDS Program. In multifamily buildings of four <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.28"></a><var>54.28</var>or fewer units, all of the units may be used by recipients of this program. When housing is <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.29"></a><var>54.29</var>controlled by the service provider, the individual may choose the individual's own service <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.30"></a><var>54.30</var>provider as provided in section 
         <statute_ref>256B.49, subdivision 23</statute_ref>, clause (3). When the housing is <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.31"></a><var>54.31</var>controlled by the service provider, the service provider shall implement a plan with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.32"></a><var>54.32</var>recipient to transition the lease to the recipient's name. Within two years of signing the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.33"></a><var>54.33</var>initial lease, the service provider shall transfer the lease entered into under this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.34"></a><var>54.34</var>to the recipient. In the event the landlord denies this transfer, the commissioner may <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.35"></a><var>54.35</var>approve an exception within sufficient time to ensure the continued occupancy by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.54.36"></a><var>54.36</var>recipient. This paragraph expires June 30, 2016.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.13.0"></a><a id="pl.55.1"></a><var>55.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256G.02, subdivision 6, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.2"></a><var>55.2</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Excluded time.</b> "Excluded time" means:<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.3"></a><var>55.3</var>(1) any period an applicant spends in a hospital, sanitarium, nursing home, shelter <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.4"></a><var>55.4</var>other than an emergency shelter, halfway house, foster home, community residential <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.5"></a><var>55.5</var>setting licensed under chapter 245D, semi-independent living domicile or services <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.6"></a><var>55.6</var>program, residential facility offering care, board and lodging facility or other institution <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.7"></a><var>55.7</var>for the hospitalization or care of human beings, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>144A.01</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.8"></a><var>55.8</var>or 
         <statute_ref>245A.02, subdivision 14</statute_ref>; maternity home, battered women's shelter, or correctional <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.9"></a><var>55.9</var>facility; or any facility based on an emergency hold under sections 
         <statute_ref>253B.05</statute_ref>, subdivisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.10"></a><var>55.10</var>1 and 2, and 
         <statute_ref>253B.07, subdivision 6</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.11"></a><var>55.11</var>(2) any period an applicant spends on a placement basis in a training and habilitation <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.12"></a><var>55.12</var>program, including: a rehabilitation facility or work or employment program as defined <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.13"></a><var>55.13</var>in section 
         <statute_ref>268A.01</statute_ref>; semi-independent living services provided under section 
         <statute_ref>252.275</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.14"></a><var>55.14</var>and Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.0500 to 9525.0660; or day training and habilitation <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.15"></a><var>55.15</var>programs and assisted living services; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.16"></a><var>55.16</var>(3) any placement for a person with an indeterminate commitment, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.17"></a><var>55.17</var>independent living.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.14.0"></a><a id="pl.55.18"></a><var>55.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256I.03, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.19"></a><var>55.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Group residential housing.</b> "Group residential housing" means a group <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.20"></a><var>55.20</var>living situation that provides at a minimum room and board to unrelated persons who <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.21"></a><var>55.21</var>meet the eligibility requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>256I.04</statute_ref>. This definition includes foster care <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.22"></a><var>55.22</var>settings or community residential settings for a single adult. To receive payment for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.23"></a><var>55.23</var>group residence rate, the residence must meet the requirements under section 
         <statute_ref>256I.04, <br />
            		<a id="pl.55.24"></a><var>55.24</var>subdivision 2a
         </statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.15.0"></a><a id="pl.55.25"></a><var>55.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256I.04, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.26"></a><var>55.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2a. <b>License required.</b> A county agency may not enter into an agreement with <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.27"></a><var>55.27</var>an establishment to provide group residential housing unless:<br />
         		<a id="pl.55.28"></a><var>55.28</var>(1) the establishment is licensed by the Department of Health as a hotel and <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.29"></a><var>55.29</var>restaurant; a board and lodging establishment; a residential care home; a boarding care <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.30"></a><var>55.30</var>home before March 1, 1985; or a supervised living facility, and the service provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.31"></a><var>55.31</var>for residents of the facility is licensed under chapter 245A. However, an establishment <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.32"></a><var>55.32</var>licensed by the Department of Health to provide lodging need not also be licensed to <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.33"></a><var>55.33</var>provide board if meals are being supplied to residents under a contract with a food vendor <br />
         		<a id="pl.55.34"></a><var>55.34</var>who is licensed by the Department of Health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.1"></a><var>56.1</var>(2) the residence is: (i) licensed by the commissioner of human services under <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.2"></a><var>56.2</var>Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5050 to 9555.6265; (ii) certified by a county human services <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.3"></a><var>56.3</var>agency prior to July 1, 1992, using the standards under Minnesota Rules, parts 9555.5050 <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.4"></a><var>56.4</var>to 9555.6265; or (iii) a residence licensed by the commissioner under Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.5"></a><var>56.5</var>parts 2960.0010 to 2960.0120, with a variance under section 
         <statute_ref>245A.04</statute_ref>, subdivision 9; or <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.6"></a><var>56.6</var>(iv) licensed by the commissioner of human services under chapter 245D;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.7"></a><var>56.7</var>(3) the establishment is registered under chapter 144D and provides three meals a <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.8"></a><var>56.8</var>day, or is an establishment voluntarily registered under section 
         <statute_ref>144D.025</statute_ref> as a supportive <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.9"></a><var>56.9</var>housing establishment; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.10"></a><var>56.10</var>(4) an establishment voluntarily registered under section 
         <statute_ref>144D.025</statute_ref>, other than <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.11"></a><var>56.11</var>a supportive housing establishment under clause (3), is not eligible to provide group <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.12"></a><var>56.12</var>residential housing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.13"></a><var>56.13</var>The requirements under clauses (1) to (4) do not apply to establishments exempt <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.14"></a><var>56.14</var>from state licensure because they are located on Indian reservations and subject to tribal <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.15"></a><var>56.15</var>health and safety requirements.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.16.0"></a><a id="pl.56.16"></a><var>56.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 626.557, subdivision 9, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.17"></a><var>56.17</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.18"></a><var>56.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Common entry point designation.</b> (a)  Each county board shall designate a <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.19"></a><var>56.19</var>common entry point for reports of suspected maltreatment, for use until the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.20"></a><var>56.20</var>of human services establishes a common entry point. Two or more county boards may <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.21"></a><var>56.21</var>jointly designate a single common entry point. The commissioner of human services shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.22"></a><var>56.22</var>establish a common entry point effective July 1, 2014 2015. The common entry point is <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.23"></a><var>56.23</var>the unit responsible for receiving the report of suspected maltreatment under this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.24"></a><var>56.24</var>(b) The common entry point must be available 24 hours per day to take calls from <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.25"></a><var>56.25</var>reporters of suspected maltreatment. The common entry point shall use a standard intake <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.26"></a><var>56.26</var>form that includes:<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.27"></a><var>56.27</var>(1) the time and date of the report;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.28"></a><var>56.28</var>(2) the name, address, and telephone number of the person reporting;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.29"></a><var>56.29</var>(3) the time, date, and location of the incident;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.30"></a><var>56.30</var>(4) the names of the persons involved, including but not limited to, perpetrators, <br />
         		<a id="pl.56.31"></a><var>56.31</var>alleged victims, and witnesses;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.32"></a><var>56.32</var>(5) whether there was a risk of imminent danger to the alleged victim;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.33"></a><var>56.33</var>(6) a description of the suspected maltreatment;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.34"></a><var>56.34</var>(7) the disability, if any, of the alleged victim;<br />
         		<a id="pl.56.35"></a><var>56.35</var>(8) the relationship of the alleged perpetrator to the alleged victim;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.1"></a><var>57.1</var>(9) whether a facility was involved and, if so, which agency licenses the facility;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.2"></a><var>57.2</var>(10) any action taken by the common entry point;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.3"></a><var>57.3</var>(11) whether law enforcement has been notified;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.4"></a><var>57.4</var>(12) whether the reporter wishes to receive notification of the initial and final <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.5"></a><var>57.5</var>reports; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.6"></a><var>57.6</var>(13) if the report is from a facility with an internal reporting procedure, the name, <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.7"></a><var>57.7</var>mailing address, and telephone number of the person who initiated the report internally.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.8"></a><var>57.8</var>(c) The common entry point is not required to complete each item on the form prior <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.9"></a><var>57.9</var>to dispatching the report to the appropriate lead investigative agency.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.10"></a><var>57.10</var>(d) The common entry point shall immediately report to a law enforcement agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.11"></a><var>57.11</var>any incident in which there is reason to believe a crime has been committed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.12"></a><var>57.12</var>(e) If a report is initially made to a law enforcement agency or a lead investigative <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.13"></a><var>57.13</var>agency, those agencies shall take the report on the appropriate common entry point intake <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.14"></a><var>57.14</var>forms and immediately forward a copy to the common entry point.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.15"></a><var>57.15</var>(f) The common entry point staff must receive training on how to screen and <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.16"></a><var>57.16</var>dispatch reports efficiently and in accordance with this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.17"></a><var>57.17</var>(g) The commissioner of human services shall maintain a centralized database <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.18"></a><var>57.18</var>for the collection of common entry point data, lead investigative agency data including <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.19"></a><var>57.19</var>maltreatment report disposition, and appeals data. The common entry point shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.20"></a><var>57.20</var>have access to the centralized database and must log the reports into the database and <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.21"></a><var>57.21</var>immediately identify and locate prior reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.22"></a><var>57.22</var>(h) When appropriate, the common entry point staff must refer calls that do not <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.23"></a><var>57.23</var>allege the abuse, neglect, or exploitation of a vulnerable adult to other organizations <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.24"></a><var>57.24</var>that might resolve the reporter's concerns.<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.25"></a><var>57.25</var>(i) A common entry point must be operated in a manner that enables the <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.26"></a><var>57.26</var>commissioner of human services to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.27"></a><var>57.27</var>(1) track critical steps in the reporting, evaluation, referral, response, disposition, <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.28"></a><var>57.28</var>and investigative process to ensure compliance with all requirements for all reports;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.29"></a><var>57.29</var>(2) maintain data to facilitate the production of aggregate statistical reports for <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.30"></a><var>57.30</var>monitoring patterns of abuse, neglect, or exploitation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.31"></a><var>57.31</var>(3) serve as a resource for the evaluation, management, and planning of preventative <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.32"></a><var>57.32</var>and remedial services for vulnerable adults who have been subject to abuse, neglect, <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.33"></a><var>57.33</var>or exploitation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.34"></a><var>57.34</var>(4) set standards, priorities, and policies to maximize the efficiency and effectiveness <br />
         		<a id="pl.57.35"></a><var>57.35</var>of the common entry point; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.57.36"></a><var>57.36</var>(5) track and manage consumer complaints related to the common entry point.<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.1"></a><var>58.1</var>(j) The commissioners of human services and health shall collaborate on the <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.2"></a><var>58.2</var>creation of a system for referring reports to the lead investigative agencies. This system <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.3"></a><var>58.3</var>shall enable the commissioner of human services to track critical steps in the reporting, <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.4"></a><var>58.4</var>evaluation, referral, response, disposition, investigation, notification, determination, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.5"></a><var>58.5</var>appeal processes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.6"></a><var>58.6</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.17.0"></a><a id="pl.58.7"></a><var>58.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Laws 2011, First Special Session chapter 9, article 7, section 7, the effective <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.8"></a><var>58.8</var>date, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.9"></a><var>58.9</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2014, for adults age 21 or <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.10"></a><var>58.10</var>older, and October 1, 2019, for children age 16 to before the child's 21st birthday.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.18.0"></a><a id="pl.58.11"></a><var>58.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Laws 2013, chapter 108, article 7, section 60, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.12"></a><var>58.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 60. <b>PROVIDER RATE AND GRANT INCREASE EFFECTIVE APRIL </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.58.13"></a><var>58.13</var><b>1, 2014.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.58.14"></a><var>58.14</var>(a) The commissioner of human services shall increase reimbursement rates, grants, <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.15"></a><var>58.15</var>allocations, individual limits, and rate limits, as applicable, by one percent for the rate <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.16"></a><var>58.16</var>period beginning April 1, 2014, for services rendered on or after those dates. County or <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.17"></a><var>58.17</var>tribal contracts for services specified in this section must be amended to pass through <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.18"></a><var>58.18</var>these rate increases within 60 days of the effective date.<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.19"></a><var>58.19</var>(b) The rate changes described in this section must be provided to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.20"></a><var>58.20</var>(1) home and community-based waivered services for persons with developmental <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.21"></a><var>58.21</var>disabilities or related conditions, including consumer-directed community supports, under <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.22"></a><var>58.22</var>Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.501</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.23"></a><var>58.23</var>(2) waivered services under community alternatives for disabled individuals, <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.24"></a><var>58.24</var>including consumer-directed community supports, under Minnesota Statutes, section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.58.25"></a><var>58.25</var>256B.49
         </statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.26"></a><var>58.26</var>(3) community alternative care waivered services, including consumer-directed <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.27"></a><var>58.27</var>community supports, under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.49</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.28"></a><var>58.28</var>(4) brain injury waivered services, including consumer-directed community <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.29"></a><var>58.29</var>supports, under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.49</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.30"></a><var>58.30</var>(5) home and community-based waivered services for the elderly under Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.58.31"></a><var>58.31</var>Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0915</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.58.32"></a><var>58.32</var>(6) nursing services and home health services under Minnesota Statutes, section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.58.33"></a><var>58.33</var>256B.0625, subdivision 6a
         </statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.1"></a><var>59.1</var>(7) personal care services and qualified professional supervision of personal care <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.2"></a><var>59.2</var>services under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0625, subdivisions 6a</statute_ref> and 19a;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.3"></a><var>59.3</var>(8) private duty nursing services under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0625, <br />
            		<a id="pl.59.4"></a><var>59.4</var>subdivision 7
         </statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.5"></a><var>59.5</var>(9) day training and habilitation services for adults with developmental disabilities <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.6"></a><var>59.6</var>or related conditions under Minnesota Statutes, sections 
         <statute_ref>252.40</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>252.46</statute_ref>, including the <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.7"></a><var>59.7</var>additional cost of rate adjustments on day training and habilitation services, provided as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.8"></a><var>59.8</var>social service, formerly funded under Minnesota Statutes 2010, chapter 256M;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.9"></a><var>59.9</var>(10) alternative care services under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0913</statute_ref>, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.10"></a><var>59.10</var>essential community supports under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.0922;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.11"></a><var>59.11</var>(11) living skills training programs for persons with intractable epilepsy who need <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.12"></a><var>59.12</var>assistance in the transition to independent living under Laws 1988, chapter 689;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.13"></a><var>59.13</var>(12) semi-independent living services (SILS) under Minnesota Statutes, section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.59.14"></a><var>59.14</var>252.275
         </statute_ref>, including SILS funding under county social services grants formerly funded <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.15"></a><var>59.15</var>under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 256M;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.16"></a><var>59.16</var>(13) consumer support grants under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256.476</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.17"></a><var>59.17</var>(14) family support grants under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>252.32</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.18"></a><var>59.18</var>(15) housing access grants under Minnesota Statutes, sections 
         <statute_ref>256B.0658</statute_ref> and <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.59.19"></a><var>59.19</var>256B.0917, subdivision 14
         </statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.20"></a><var>59.20</var>(16) self-advocacy grants under Laws 2009, chapter 101;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.21"></a><var>59.21</var>(17) technology grants under Laws 2009, chapter 79;<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.22"></a><var>59.22</var>(18) aging grants under Minnesota Statutes, sections 
         <statute_ref>256.975</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>256.977</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>256B.0917</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.23"></a><var>59.23</var>and 
         <statute_ref>256B.0928</statute_ref>; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.24"></a><var>59.24</var>(19) community support services for deaf and hard-of-hearing adults with mental <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.25"></a><var>59.25</var>illness who use or wish to use sign language as their primary means of communication <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.26"></a><var>59.26</var>under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256.01, subdivision 2</statute_ref>; and deaf and hard-of-hearing <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.27"></a><var>59.27</var>grants under Minnesota Statutes, sections 
         <statute_ref>256C.233</statute_ref> and 
         <statute_ref>256C.25</statute_ref>; Laws 1985, chapter 9; <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.28"></a><var>59.28</var>and Laws 1997, First Special Session chapter 5, section 20.<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.29"></a><var>59.29</var>(c) A managed care plan receiving state payments for the services in this section <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.30"></a><var>59.30</var>must include these increases in their payments to providers. To implement the rate increase <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.31"></a><var>59.31</var>in this section, capitation rates paid by the commissioner to managed care organizations <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.32"></a><var>59.32</var>under Minnesota Statutes, section 
         <statute_ref>256B.69</statute_ref>, shall reflect a one percent increase for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.33"></a><var>59.33</var>specified services for the period beginning April 1, 2014.<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.34"></a><var>59.34</var>(d) Counties shall increase the budget for each recipient of consumer-directed <br />
         		<a id="pl.59.35"></a><var>59.35</var>community supports by the amounts in paragraph (a) on the effective dates in paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.59.36"></a><var>59.36</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective April 1, 2014.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.19.0"></a><a id="pl.60.1"></a><var>60.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. <b>REVISOR'S INSTRUCTION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.60.2"></a><var>60.2</var>The revisor of statutes shall change the term "private duty nursing" or similar terms <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.3"></a><var>60.3</var>to "home care nursing" or similar terms, and shall change the term "private duty nurse" to <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.4"></a><var>60.4</var>"home care nurse," wherever these terms appear in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.5"></a><var>60.5</var>Rules. The revisor shall also make grammatical changes related to the changes in terms.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.4.20.0"></a><a id="pl.60.6"></a><var>60.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. <b> REPEALER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.60.7"></a><var>60.7</var>Minnesota Rules, part 9525.1580, is repealed.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.60.8"></a><var>60.8</var><b>ARTICLE 5</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.60.9"></a><var>60.9</var><b>CHILDREN AND FAMILIES</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.5.1.0"></a><a id="pl.60.10"></a><var>60.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 245A.02, subdivision 19, is amended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.11"></a><var>60.11</var>read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.12"></a><var>60.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 19. <b>Family day care and group family day care child age classifications.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.60.13"></a><var>60.13</var>(a) For the purposes of family day care and group family day care licensing under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.14"></a><var>60.14</var>chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.15"></a><var>60.15</var>(b) "Newborn" means a child between birth and six weeks old.<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.16"></a><var>60.16</var>(c) "Infant" means a child who is at least six weeks old but less than 12 months old.<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.17"></a><var>60.17</var>(d) "Toddler" means a child who is at least 12 months old but less than 24 months <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.18"></a><var>60.18</var>old, except that for purposes of specialized infant and toddler family and group family day <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.19"></a><var>60.19</var>care, "toddler" means a child who is at least 12 months old but less than 30 months old.<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.20"></a><var>60.20</var>(e) "Preschooler" means a child who is at least 24 months old up to the school age of <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.21"></a><var>60.21</var>being eligible to enter kindergarten within the next four months.<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.22"></a><var>60.22</var>(f) "School age" means a child who is at least of sufficient age to have attended the <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.23"></a><var>60.23</var>first day of kindergarten, or is eligible to enter kindergarten within the next four months<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.24"></a><var>60.24</var> five years of age, but is younger than 11 years of age.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.2.0"></a><a id="pl.60.25"></a><var>60.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 245A.1435, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.60.26"></a><var>60.26</var><b>245A.1435 REDUCTION OF RISK OF SUDDEN UNEXPECTED INFANT </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.60.27"></a><var>60.27</var><b>DEATH IN LICENSED PROGRAMS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.60.28"></a><var>60.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(a) When a license holder is placing an infant to sleep, the license holder must place <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.29"></a><var>60.29</var>the infant on the infant's back, unless the license holder has documentation from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.30"></a><var>60.30</var>infant's physician directing an alternative sleeping position for the infant. The physician <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.31"></a><var>60.31</var>directive must be on a form approved by the commissioner and must remain on file at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.60.32"></a><var>60.32</var>licensed location. An infant who independently rolls onto its stomach after being placed to <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.1"></a><var>61.1</var>sleep on its back may be allowed to remain sleeping on its stomach if the infant is at least <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.2"></a><var>61.2</var>six months of age or the license holder has a signed statement from the parent indicating <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.3"></a><var>61.3</var>that the infant regularly rolls over at home.<br />
         		<a id="pl.61.4"></a><var>61.4</var>(b) The license holder must place the infant in a crib directly on a firm mattress with <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.5"></a><var>61.5</var>a fitted sheet that is appropriate to the mattress size, that fits tightly on the mattress, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.6"></a><var>61.6</var>overlaps the underside of the mattress so it cannot be dislodged by pulling on the corner of <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.7"></a><var>61.7</var>the sheet with reasonable effort. The license holder must not place anything in the crib with <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.8"></a><var>61.8</var>the infant except for the infant's pacifier, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 16, <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.9"></a><var>61.9</var>part 1511. The requirements of this section apply to license holders serving infants younger <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.10"></a><var>61.10</var>than one year of age. Licensed child care providers must meet the crib requirements under <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.11"></a><var>61.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>245A.146</statute_ref>. A correction order shall not be issued under this paragraph unless there <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.12"></a><var>61.12</var>is evidence that a violation occurred when an infant was present in the license holder's care.<br />
         		<a id="pl.61.13"></a><var>61.13</var>(c) If an infant falls asleep before being placed in a crib, the license holder must <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.14"></a><var>61.14</var>move the infant to a crib as soon as practicable, and must keep the infant within sight of <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.15"></a><var>61.15</var>the license holder until the infant is placed in a crib. When an infant falls asleep while <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.16"></a><var>61.16</var>being held, the license holder must consider the supervision needs of other children in <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.17"></a><var>61.17</var>care when determining how long to hold the infant before placing the infant in a crib to <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.18"></a><var>61.18</var>sleep. The sleeping infant must not be in a position where the airway may be blocked or <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.19"></a><var>61.19</var>with anything covering the infant's face.<br />
         		<a id="pl.61.20"></a><var>61.20</var>(d) Placing a swaddled infant down to sleep in a licensed setting is not recommended <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.21"></a><var>61.21</var>for an infant of any age and is prohibited for any infant who has begun to roll over <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.22"></a><var>61.22</var>independently. However, with the written consent of a parent or guardian according to this <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.23"></a><var>61.23</var>paragraph, a license holder may place the infant who has not yet begun to roll over on its <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.24"></a><var>61.24</var>own down to sleep in a one-piece sleeper equipped with an attached system that fastens <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.25"></a><var>61.25</var>securely only across the upper torso, with no constriction of the hips or legs, to create a <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.26"></a><var>61.26</var>swaddle. Prior to any use of swaddling for sleep by a provider licensed under this chapter, <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.27"></a><var>61.27</var>the license holder must obtain informed written consent for the use of swaddling from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.28"></a><var>61.28</var>parent or guardian of the infant on a form provided by the commissioner and prepared in <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.29"></a><var>61.29</var>partnership with the Minnesota Sudden Infant Death Center.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.3.0"></a><a id="pl.61.30"></a><var>61.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 245A.50, subdivision 5, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.31"></a><var>61.31</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.61.32"></a><var>61.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Sudden unexpected infant death and abusive head trauma training.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.61.33"></a><var>61.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(a) License holders must document that before staff persons, caregivers, and helpers <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.34"></a><var>61.34</var>assist in the care of infants, they are instructed on the standards in section 
         <statute_ref>245A.1435</statute_ref> and <br />
         		<a id="pl.61.35"></a><var>61.35</var>receive training on reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death. In addition, <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.1"></a><var>62.1</var>license holders must document that before staff persons, caregivers, and helpers assist in <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.2"></a><var>62.2</var>the care of infants and children under school age, they receive training on reducing the <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.3"></a><var>62.3</var>risk of abusive head trauma from shaking infants and young children. The training in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.4"></a><var>62.4</var>subdivision may be provided as initial training under subdivision 1 or ongoing annual <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.5"></a><var>62.5</var>training under subdivision 7.<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.6"></a><var>62.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training required under this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.7"></a><var>62.7</var>must be at least one-half hour in length and must be completed in person at least once <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.8"></a><var>62.8</var>every two years. On the years when the license holder is not receiving the in-person <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.9"></a><var>62.9</var>training on sudden unexpected infant death reduction, the license holder must receive <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.10"></a><var>62.10</var>sudden unexpected infant death reduction training through a video of no more than one <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.11"></a><var>62.11</var>hour in length developed or approved by the commissioner., at a minimum, the training <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.12"></a><var>62.12</var>must address the risk factors related to sudden unexpected infant death, means of reducing <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.13"></a><var>62.13</var>the risk of sudden unexpected infant death in child care, and license holder communication <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.14"></a><var>62.14</var>with parents regarding reducing the risk of sudden unexpected infant death.<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.15"></a><var>62.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) Abusive head trauma training required under this subdivision must be at least <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.16"></a><var>62.16</var>one-half hour in length and must be completed at least once every year.,  at a minimum, <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.17"></a><var>62.17</var>the training must address the risk factors related to shaking infants and young children, <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.18"></a><var>62.18</var>means of reducing the risk of abusive head trauma in child care, and license holder <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.19"></a><var>62.19</var>communication with parents regarding reducing the risk of abusive head trauma.<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.20"></a><var>62.20</var>(d) Training for family and group family child care providers must be developed <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.21"></a><var>62.21</var>by the commissioner in conjunction with the Minnesota Sudden Infant Death Center and <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.22"></a><var>62.22</var>approved by the Minnesota Center for Professional Development. Sudden unexpected <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.23"></a><var>62.23</var>infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma training may be provided in a <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.24"></a><var>62.24</var>single course of no more than two hours in length.<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.25"></a><var>62.25</var>(e) Sudden unexpected infant death reduction training and abusive head trauma <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.26"></a><var>62.26</var>training required under this subdivision must be completed in person or as allowed under <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.27"></a><var>62.27</var>subdivision 10, clause (1) or (2), at least once every two years. On the years when the <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.28"></a><var>62.28</var>license holder is not receiving these trainings, training in person or as allowed under <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.29"></a><var>62.29</var>subdivision 10, clause (1) or (2), the license holder must receive sudden unexpected infant <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.30"></a><var>62.30</var>death reduction training and abusive head trauma training through a video of no more than <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.31"></a><var>62.31</var>one hour in length. The video must be developed or approved by the commissioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.32"></a><var>62.32</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2015.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.4.0"></a><a id="pl.62.33"></a><var>62.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 260C.212, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.62.34"></a><var>62.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Placement decisions based on best interests of the child.</b> (a) The <br />
         		<a id="pl.62.35"></a><var>62.35</var>policy of the state of Minnesota is to ensure that the child's best interests are met by <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.1"></a><var>63.1</var>requiring an individualized determination of the needs of the child and of how the selected <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.2"></a><var>63.2</var>placement will serve the needs of the child being placed. The authorized child-placing <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.3"></a><var>63.3</var>agency shall place a child, released by court order or by voluntary release by the parent <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.4"></a><var>63.4</var>or parents, in a family foster home selected by considering placement with relatives and <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.5"></a><var>63.5</var>important friends in the following order:<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.6"></a><var>63.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) with an individual who is related to the child by blood, marriage, or adoption; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.7"></a><var>63.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) with an individual who is an important friend with whom the child has resided or <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.8"></a><var>63.8</var>had significant contact.<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.9"></a><var>63.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Among the factors the agency shall consider in determining the needs of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.10"></a><var>63.10</var>child are the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.11"></a><var>63.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the child's current functioning and behaviors;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.12"></a><var>63.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) the medical needs of the child;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.13"></a><var>63.13</var>(3) the educational needs of the child;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.14"></a><var>63.14</var>(4) the developmental needs of the child;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.15"></a><var>63.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) the child's history and past experience;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.16"></a><var>63.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) the child's religious and cultural needs;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.17"></a><var>63.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) the child's connection with a community, school, and faith community;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.18"></a><var>63.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) the child's interests and talents;<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.19"></a><var>63.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) the child's relationship to current caretakers, parents, siblings, and relatives; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.20"></a><var>63.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) the reasonable preference of the child, if the court, or the child-placing agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.21"></a><var>63.21</var>in the case of a voluntary placement, deems the child to be of sufficient age to express <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.22"></a><var>63.22</var>preferences.<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.23"></a><var>63.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) Placement of a child cannot be delayed or denied based on race, color, or national <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.24"></a><var>63.24</var>origin of the foster parent or the child.<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.25"></a><var>63.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) Siblings should be placed together for foster care and adoption at the earliest <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.26"></a><var>63.26</var>possible time unless it is documented that a joint placement would be contrary to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.27"></a><var>63.27</var>safety or well-being of any of the siblings or unless it is not possible after reasonable <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.28"></a><var>63.28</var>efforts by the responsible social services agency. In cases where siblings cannot be placed <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.29"></a><var>63.29</var>together, the agency is required to provide frequent visitation or other ongoing interaction <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.30"></a><var>63.30</var>between siblings unless the agency documents that the interaction would be contrary to <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.31"></a><var>63.31</var>the safety or well-being of any of the siblings.<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.32"></a><var>63.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) Except for emergency placement as provided for in section 
         <statute_ref>245A.035</statute_ref>, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.33"></a><var>63.33</var>following requirements must be satisfied before the approval of a foster or adoptive <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.34"></a><var>63.34</var>placement in a related or unrelated home: (1) a completed background study is required<br />
         		<a id="pl.63.35"></a><var>63.35</var> under section 
         <statute_ref>245C.08</statute_ref> before the approval of a foster placement in a related or unrelated <br />
         		<a id="pl.63.36"></a><var>63.36</var>home; and (2) a completed review of the written home study required under section <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.1"></a><var>64.1</var>260C.215, subdivision 4, clause (5), or 260C.611, to assess the capacity of the prospective <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.2"></a><var>64.2</var>foster or adoptive parent to ensure the placement will meet the needs of the individual child.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.5.0"></a><a id="pl.64.3"></a><var>64.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 260C.215, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.4"></a><var>64.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Duties of commissioner.</b> The commissioner of human services shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.5"></a><var>64.5</var>(1) provide practice guidance to responsible social services agencies and child-placing <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.6"></a><var>64.6</var>agencies that reflect federal and state laws and policy direction on placement of children;<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.7"></a><var>64.7</var>(2) develop criteria for determining whether a prospective adoptive or foster family <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.8"></a><var>64.8</var>has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background;<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.9"></a><var>64.9</var>(3) provide a standardized training curriculum for adoption and foster care workers <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.10"></a><var>64.10</var>and administrators who work with children. Training must address the following objectives:<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.11"></a><var>64.11</var>(i) developing and maintaining sensitivity to all cultures;<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.12"></a><var>64.12</var>(ii) assessing values and their cultural implications;<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.13"></a><var>64.13</var>(iii) making individualized placement decisions that advance the best interests of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.14"></a><var>64.14</var>particular child under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.212, subdivision 2</statute_ref>; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.15"></a><var>64.15</var>(iv) issues related to cross-cultural placement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.16"></a><var>64.16</var>(4) provide a training curriculum for all prospective adoptive and foster families that <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.17"></a><var>64.17</var>prepares them to care for the needs of adoptive and foster children taking into consideration <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.18"></a><var>64.18</var>the needs of children outlined in section 
         <statute_ref>260C.212, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraph (b);<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.19"></a><var>64.19</var>(5) develop and provide to agencies a home study format to assess the capacities <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.20"></a><var>64.20</var>and needs of prospective adoptive and foster families. The format must address <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.21"></a><var>64.21</var>problem-solving skills; parenting skills; evaluate the degree to which the prospective <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.22"></a><var>64.22</var>family has the ability to understand and validate the child's cultural background, and other <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.23"></a><var>64.23</var>issues needed to provide sufficient information for agencies to make an individualized <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.24"></a><var>64.24</var>placement decision consistent with section 
         <statute_ref>260C.212</statute_ref>, subdivision 2. For a study of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.25"></a><var>64.25</var>prospective foster parent, the format must also address the capacity of the prospective <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.26"></a><var>64.26</var>foster parent to provide a safe, healthy, smoke-free home environment. If a prospective <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.27"></a><var>64.27</var>adoptive parent has also been a foster parent, any update necessary to a home study for <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.28"></a><var>64.28</var>the purpose of adoption may be completed by the licensing authority responsible for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.29"></a><var>64.29</var>foster parent's license. If a prospective adoptive parent with an approved adoptive home <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.30"></a><var>64.30</var>study also applies for a foster care license, the license application may be made with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.31"></a><var>64.31</var>same agency which provided the adoptive home study; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.64.32"></a><var>64.32</var>(6) consult with representatives reflecting diverse populations from the councils <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.33"></a><var>64.33</var>established under sections 
         <statute_ref>3.922</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>3.9223</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>3.9225</statute_ref>, and 
         <statute_ref>3.9226</statute_ref>, and other state, local, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.64.34"></a><var>64.34</var>community organizations.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.6.0"></a><a id="pl.65.1"></a><var>65.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 260C.215, subdivision 6, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.2"></a><var>65.2</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Duties of child-placing agencies.</b> (a) Each authorized child-placing <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.3"></a><var>65.3</var>agency must:<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.4"></a><var>65.4</var>(1) develop and follow procedures for implementing the requirements of section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.65.5"></a><var>65.5</var>260C.212, subdivision 2
         </statute_ref>, and the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States Code, title <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.6"></a><var>65.6</var>25, sections 1901 to 1923;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.7"></a><var>65.7</var>(2) have a written plan for recruiting adoptive and foster families that reflect the <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.8"></a><var>65.8</var>ethnic and racial diversity of children who are in need of foster and adoptive homes. <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.9"></a><var>65.9</var>The plan must include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.10"></a><var>65.10</var>(i) strategies for using existing resources in diverse communities;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.11"></a><var>65.11</var>(ii) use of diverse outreach staff wherever possible;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.12"></a><var>65.12</var>(iii) use of diverse foster homes for placements after birth and before adoption; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.13"></a><var>65.13</var>(iv) other techniques as appropriate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.14"></a><var>65.14</var>(3) have a written plan for training adoptive and foster families;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.15"></a><var>65.15</var>(4) have a written plan for employing staff in adoption and foster care who have <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.16"></a><var>65.16</var>the capacity to assess the foster and adoptive parents' ability to understand and validate a <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.17"></a><var>65.17</var>child's cultural and meet the child's individual needs, and to advance the best interests of <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.18"></a><var>65.18</var>the child, as required in section 
         <statute_ref>260C.212, subdivision 2</statute_ref>. The plan must include staffing <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.19"></a><var>65.19</var>goals and objectives;<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.20"></a><var>65.20</var>(5) ensure that adoption and foster care workers attend training offered or approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.21"></a><var>65.21</var>by the Department of Human Services regarding cultural diversity and the needs of special <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.22"></a><var>65.22</var>needs children; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.23"></a><var>65.23</var>(6) develop and implement procedures for implementing the requirements of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.24"></a><var>65.24</var>Indian Child Welfare Act and the Minnesota Indian Family Preservation Act.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.25"></a><var>65.25</var>(7) ensure that children in foster care are protected from the effects of secondhand <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.26"></a><var>65.26</var>smoke and that licensed foster homes maintain a smoke-free environment in compliance <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.27"></a><var>65.27</var>with subdivision 9.<br />
         		<a id="pl.65.28"></a><var>65.28</var>(b) In determining the suitability of a proposed placement of an Indian child, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.29"></a><var>65.29</var>standards to be applied must be the prevailing social and cultural standards of the Indian <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.30"></a><var>65.30</var>child's community, and the agency shall defer to tribal judgment as to suitability of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.31"></a><var>65.31</var>particular home when the tribe has intervened pursuant to the Indian Child Welfare Act.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.7.0"></a><a id="pl.65.32"></a><var>65.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 260C.215, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.65.33"></a><var>65.33</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.1"></a><var>66.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Preventing exposure to secondhand smoke for children in foster care.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.66.2"></a><var>66.2</var>(a) A child in foster care shall not be exposed to any type of secondhand smoke in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.3"></a><var>66.3</var>following settings:<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.4"></a><var>66.4</var>(1) a licensed foster home or any enclosed space connected to the home, including a <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.5"></a><var>66.5</var>garage, porch, deck, or similar space; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.6"></a><var>66.6</var>(2) a motor vehicle in which a foster child is transported.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.7"></a><var>66.7</var>(b) Smoking in outdoor areas on the premises of the home is permitted, except when <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.8"></a><var>66.8</var>a foster child is present and exposed to secondhand smoke.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.9"></a><var>66.9</var>(c) The home study required in subdivision 4, clause (5), must include a plan to <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.10"></a><var>66.10</var>maintain a smoke-free environment for foster children.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.11"></a><var>66.11</var>(d) If a foster parent fails to provide a smoke-free environment for a foster child, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.12"></a><var>66.12</var>child-placing agency must ask the foster parent to comply with a plan that includes training <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.13"></a><var>66.13</var>on the health risks of exposure to secondhand smoke. If the agency determines that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.14"></a><var>66.14</var>foster parent is unable to provide a smoke-free environment and that the home environment <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.15"></a><var>66.15</var>constitutes a health risk to a foster child, the agency must reassess whether the placement <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.16"></a><var>66.16</var>is based on the child's best interests consistent with section 260C.212, subdivision 2.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.17"></a><var>66.17</var>(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall delay the placement of a child with a relative, <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.18"></a><var>66.18</var>consistent with section 245A.035, unless the relative is unable to provide for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.19"></a><var>66.19</var>immediate health needs of the individual child.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.20"></a><var>66.20</var>(f) Nothing in this subdivision shall be interpreted to interfere with traditional or <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.21"></a><var>66.21</var>spiritual Native American or religious ceremonies involving the use of tobacco.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.8.0"></a><a id="pl.66.22"></a><var>66.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 626.556, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.23"></a><var>66.23</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.24"></a><var>66.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7a. <b>Mandatory guidance for screening reports.</b> Child protection intake <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.25"></a><var>66.25</var>workers, supervisors, and others involved with child protection screening shall follow the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.26"></a><var>66.26</var>guidance provided in the Department of Human Services Minnesota Child Maltreatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.27"></a><var>66.27</var>Screening Guidelines when screening maltreatment referrals, and, when notified by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.28"></a><var>66.28</var>commissioner of human services, shall immediately implement updated procedures and <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.29"></a><var>66.29</var>protocols.<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.30"></a><var>66.30</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.5.9.0"></a><a id="pl.66.31"></a><var>66.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 626.556, subdivision 11c, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.66.32"></a><var>66.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11c. <b>Welfare, court services agency, and school records maintained.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.66.33"></a><var>66.33</var>Notwithstanding sections 
         <statute_ref>138.163</statute_ref> and 
         <statute_ref>138.17</statute_ref>, records maintained or records derived <br />
         		<a id="pl.66.34"></a><var>66.34</var>from reports of abuse by local welfare agencies, agencies responsible for assessing or <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.1"></a><var>67.1</var>investigating the report, court services agencies, or schools under this section shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.2"></a><var>67.2</var>destroyed as provided in paragraphs (a) to (d) by the responsible authority.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.3"></a><var>67.3</var>(a) For family assessment cases and cases where an investigation results in no <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.4"></a><var>67.4</var>determination of maltreatment or the need for child protective services, the assessment or <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.5"></a><var>67.5</var>investigation records must be maintained for a period of four years. Records under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.6"></a><var>67.6</var>paragraph may not be used for employment, background checks, or purposes other than to <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.7"></a><var>67.7</var>assist in future risk and safety assessments.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.8"></a><var>67.8</var>(b) All records relating to reports which, upon investigation, indicate either <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.9"></a><var>67.9</var>maltreatment or a need for child protective services shall be maintained for at least ten <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.10"></a><var>67.10</var>years after the date of the final entry in the case record.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.11"></a><var>67.11</var>(c) All records regarding a report of maltreatment, including any notification of intent <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.12"></a><var>67.12</var>to interview which was received by a school under subdivision 10, paragraph (d), shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.13"></a><var>67.13</var>destroyed by the school when ordered to do so by the agency conducting the assessment or <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.14"></a><var>67.14</var>investigation. The agency shall order the destruction of the notification when other records <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.15"></a><var>67.15</var>relating to the report under investigation or assessment are destroyed under this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.16"></a><var>67.16</var>(d) Private or confidential data released to a court services agency under subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.17"></a><var>67.17</var>10h must be destroyed by the court services agency when ordered to do so by the local <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.18"></a><var>67.18</var>welfare agency that released the data. The local welfare agency or agency responsible for <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.19"></a><var>67.19</var>assessing or investigating the report shall order destruction of the data when other records <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.20"></a><var>67.20</var>relating to the assessment or investigation are destroyed under this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.21"></a><var>67.21</var>(e) For reports alleging child maltreatment that were not accepted for assessment <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.22"></a><var>67.22</var>or investigation, counties shall maintain sufficient information to identify repeat reports <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.23"></a><var>67.23</var>alleging maltreatment of the same child or children for 365 days from the date the report <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.24"></a><var>67.24</var>was screened out. The commissioner of human services shall specify to the counties the <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.25"></a><var>67.25</var>minimum information needed to accomplish this purpose. Counties shall enter this data <br />
         		<a id="pl.67.26"></a><var>67.26</var>into the state social services information system.<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.27"></a><var>67.27</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.67.28"></a><var>67.28</var><b>ARTICLE 6</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.67.29"></a><var>67.29</var><b>HEALTH-RELATED BOARDS</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.6.1.0"></a><a id="pl.67.30"></a><var>67.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 146A.01, subdivision 6, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.31"></a><var>67.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner.</b> (a)<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.32"></a><var>67.32</var> "Unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner" means a person who:<br />
         		<a id="pl.67.33"></a><var>67.33</var>(1) either:<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.1"></a><var>68.1</var>(i) is not licensed or registered by a health-related licensing board or the <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.2"></a><var>68.2</var>commissioner of health; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.3"></a><var>68.3</var>(ii) is licensed or registered by the commissioner of health or a health-related <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.4"></a><var>68.4</var>licensing board other than the Board of Medical Practice, the Board of Dentistry, the Board <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.5"></a><var>68.5</var>of Chiropractic Examiners, or the Board of Podiatric Medicine, but does not hold oneself <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.6"></a><var>68.6</var>out to the public as being licensed or registered by the commissioner or a health-related <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.7"></a><var>68.7</var>licensing board when engaging in complementary and alternative health care;<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.8"></a><var>68.8</var>(2) has not had a license or registration issued by a health-related licensing board <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.9"></a><var>68.9</var>or the commissioner of health revoked or has not been disciplined in any manner at any <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.10"></a><var>68.10</var>time in the past, unless the right to engage in complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.11"></a><var>68.11</var>practices has been established by order of the commissioner of health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.12"></a><var>68.12</var>(3) is engaging in complementary and alternative health care practices; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.13"></a><var>68.13</var>(4) is providing complementary and alternative health care services for remuneration <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.14"></a><var>68.14</var>or is holding oneself out to the public as a practitioner of complementary and alternative <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.15"></a><var>68.15</var>health care practices.<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.16"></a><var>68.16</var>(b) A health care practitioner licensed or registered by the commissioner or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.17"></a><var>68.17</var>health-related licensing board, who engages in complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.18"></a><var>68.18</var>while practicing under the practitioner's license or registration, shall be regulated by and <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.19"></a><var>68.19</var>be under the jurisdiction of the applicable health-related licensing board with regard to <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.20"></a><var>68.20</var>the complementary and alternative health care practices.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.2.0"></a><a id="pl.68.21"></a><var>68.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. <b>[146A.065] COMPLEMENTARY AND ALTERNATIVE HEALTH </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.68.22"></a><var>68.22</var><b>CARE PRACTICES BY LICENSED OR REGISTERED HEALTH CARE </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.68.23"></a><var>68.23</var><b>PRACTITIONERS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.68.24"></a><var>68.24</var>(a) A health care practitioner licensed or registered by the commissioner or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.25"></a><var>68.25</var>health-related licensing board, who engages in complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.26"></a><var>68.26</var>while practicing under the practitioner's license or registration, shall be regulated by and <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.27"></a><var>68.27</var>be under the jurisdiction of the applicable health-related licensing board with regard to <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.28"></a><var>68.28</var>the complementary and alternative health care practices.<br />
         		<a id="pl.68.29"></a><var>68.29</var>(b) A health care practitioner licensed or registered by the commissioner or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.30"></a><var>68.30</var>health-related licensing board shall not be subject to disciplinary action solely on the basis <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.31"></a><var>68.31</var>of utilizing complementary and alternative health care practices as defined in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.32"></a><var>68.32</var>146A.01, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), as a component of a patient's treatment, or for <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.33"></a><var>68.33</var>referring a patient to a complementary and alternative health care practitioner as defined in <br />
         		<a id="pl.68.34"></a><var>68.34</var>section 146A.01, subdivision 6.<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.1"></a><var>69.1</var>(c) A health care practitioner licensed or registered by the commissioner or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.2"></a><var>69.2</var>health-related licensing board who utilizes complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.3"></a><var>69.3</var>practices must provide patients receiving these services with a written copy of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.4"></a><var>69.4</var>complementary and alternative health care client bill of rights pursuant to section 146A.11.<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.5"></a><var>69.5</var>(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit or restrict the commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.6"></a><var>69.6</var>or a health-related licensing board from imposing disciplinary action for conduct that <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.7"></a><var>69.7</var>violates provisions of the applicable licensed or registered health care practitioner's <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.8"></a><var>69.8</var>practice act.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.3.0"></a><a id="pl.69.9"></a><var>69.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 146A.11, subdivision 1, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.10"></a><var>69.10</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.11"></a><var>69.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Scope.</b> (a) All unlicensed complementary and alternative health <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.12"></a><var>69.12</var>care practitioners shall provide to each complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.13"></a><var>69.13</var>client prior to providing treatment a written copy of the complementary and alternative <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.14"></a><var>69.14</var>health care client bill of rights. A copy must also be posted in a prominent location <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.15"></a><var>69.15</var>in the office of the unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner. <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.16"></a><var>69.16</var>Reasonable accommodations shall be made for those clients who cannot read or who <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.17"></a><var>69.17</var>have communication disabilities and those who do not read or speak English. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.18"></a><var>69.18</var>complementary and alternative health care client bill of rights shall include the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.19"></a><var>69.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the name, complementary and alternative health care title, business address, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.20"></a><var>69.20</var>telephone number of the unlicensed complementary and alternative health care practitioner;<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.21"></a><var>69.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) the degrees, training, experience, or other qualifications of the practitioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.22"></a><var>69.22</var>regarding the complimentary and alternative health care being provided, followed by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.23"></a><var>69.23</var>following statement in bold print:<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.24"></a><var>69.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;"THE STATE OF MINNESOTA HAS NOT ADOPTED ANY EDUCATIONAL <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.25"></a><var>69.25</var>AND TRAINING STANDARDS FOR UNLICENSED COMPLEMENTARY AND <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.26"></a><var>69.26</var>ALTERNATIVE HEALTH CARE PRACTITIONERS. THIS STATEMENT OF <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.27"></a><var>69.27</var>CREDENTIALS IS FOR INFORMATION PURPOSES ONLY.<br />
         		<a id="pl.69.28"></a><var>69.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Under Minnesota law, an unlicensed complementary and alternative health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.29"></a><var>69.29</var>practitioner may not provide a medical diagnosis or recommend discontinuance of <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.30"></a><var>69.30</var>medically prescribed treatments. If a client desires a diagnosis from a licensed physician, <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.31"></a><var>69.31</var>chiropractor, or acupuncture practitioner, or services from a physician, chiropractor, nurse, <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.32"></a><var>69.32</var>osteopath, physical therapist, dietitian, nutritionist, acupuncture practitioner, athletic <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.33"></a><var>69.33</var>trainer, or any other type of health care provider, the client may seek such services at <br />
         		<a id="pl.69.34"></a><var>69.34</var>any time.";<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.1"></a><var>70.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) the name, business address, and telephone number of the practitioner's <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.2"></a><var>70.2</var>supervisor, if any;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.3"></a><var>70.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) notice that a complementary and alternative health care client has the right to file a <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.4"></a><var>70.4</var>complaint with the practitioner's supervisor, if any, and the procedure for filing complaints;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.5"></a><var>70.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) the name, address, and telephone number of the office of unlicensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.6"></a><var>70.6</var>complementary and alternative health care practice and notice that a client may file <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.7"></a><var>70.7</var>complaints with the office;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.8"></a><var>70.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) the practitioner's fees per unit of service, the practitioner's method of billing <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.9"></a><var>70.9</var>for such fees, the names of any insurance companies that have agreed to reimburse the <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.10"></a><var>70.10</var>practitioner, or health maintenance organizations with whom the practitioner contracts to <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.11"></a><var>70.11</var>provide service, whether the practitioner accepts Medicare, medical assistance, or general <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.12"></a><var>70.12</var>assistance medical care, and whether the practitioner is willing to accept partial payment, <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.13"></a><var>70.13</var>or to waive payment, and in what circumstances;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.14"></a><var>70.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) a statement that the client has a right to reasonable notice of changes in services <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.15"></a><var>70.15</var>or charges;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.16"></a><var>70.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) a brief summary, in plain language, of the theoretical approach used by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.17"></a><var>70.17</var>practitioner in providing services to clients;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.18"></a><var>70.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) notice that the client has a right to complete and current information concerning <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.19"></a><var>70.19</var>the practitioner's assessment and recommended service that is to be provided, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.20"></a><var>70.20</var>the expected duration of the service to be provided;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.21"></a><var>70.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) a statement that clients may expect courteous treatment and to be free from <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.22"></a><var>70.22</var>verbal, physical, or sexual abuse by the practitioner;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.23"></a><var>70.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(11) a statement that client records and transactions with the practitioner are <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.24"></a><var>70.24</var>confidential, unless release of these records is authorized in writing by the client, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.25"></a><var>70.25</var>otherwise provided by law;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.26"></a><var>70.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(12) a statement of the client's right to be allowed access to records and written <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.27"></a><var>70.27</var>information from records in accordance with sections 
         <statute_ref>144.291</statute_ref> to 144.298;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.28"></a><var>70.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(13) a statement that other services may be available in the community, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.29"></a><var>70.29</var>where information concerning services is available;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.30"></a><var>70.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(14) a statement that the client has the right to choose freely among available <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.31"></a><var>70.31</var>practitioners and to change practitioners after services have begun, within the limits of <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.32"></a><var>70.32</var>health insurance, medical assistance, or other health programs;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.33"></a><var>70.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(15) a statement that the client has a right to coordinated transfer when there will <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.34"></a><var>70.34</var>be a change in the provider of services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.70.35"></a><var>70.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(16) a statement that the client may refuse services or treatment, unless otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.70.36"></a><var>70.36</var>provided by law; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.1"></a><var>71.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(17) a statement that the client may assert the client's rights without retaliation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.2"></a><var>71.2</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) This section does not apply to an unlicensed complementary and alternative <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.3"></a><var>71.3</var>health care practitioner who is employed by or is a volunteer in a hospital or hospice who <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.4"></a><var>71.4</var>provides services to a client in a hospital or under an appropriate hospice plan of care. <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.5"></a><var>71.5</var>Patients receiving complementary and alternative health care services in an inpatient <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.6"></a><var>71.6</var>hospital or under an appropriate hospice plan of care shall have and be made aware of <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.7"></a><var>71.7</var>the right to file a complaint with the hospital or hospice provider through which the <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.8"></a><var>71.8</var>practitioner is employed or registered as a volunteer.<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.9"></a><var>71.9</var>(c) This section does not apply to a health care practitioner licensed or registered by <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.10"></a><var>71.10</var>the commissioner of health or a health-related licensing board who utilizes complementary <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.11"></a><var>71.11</var>and alternative health care practices within the scope of practice of the health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.12"></a><var>71.12</var>practitioner's professional license.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.4.0"></a><a id="pl.71.13"></a><var>71.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.01, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.14"></a><var>71.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> For the purposes of sections 
         <statute_ref>148.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.10</statute_ref>:<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.15"></a><var>71.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) "chiropractic" is defined as the science of adjusting any abnormal articulations <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.16"></a><var>71.16</var>of the human body, especially those of the spinal column, for the purpose of giving <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.17"></a><var>71.17</var>freedom of action to impinged nerves that may cause pain or deranged function; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.18"></a><var>71.18</var> means the health care discipline that recognizes the innate recuperative power of the body <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.19"></a><var>71.19</var>to heal itself without the use of drugs or surgery by identifying and caring for vertebral <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.20"></a><var>71.20</var>subluxations and other abnormal articulations by emphasizing the relationship between <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.21"></a><var>71.21</var>structure and function as coordinated by the nervous system and how that relationship <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.22"></a><var>71.22</var>affects the preservation and restoration of health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.23"></a><var>71.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) "chiropractic services" means the evaluation and facilitation of structural, <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.24"></a><var>71.24</var>biomechanical, and neurological function and integrity through the use of adjustment, <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.25"></a><var>71.25</var>manipulation, mobilization, or other procedures accomplished by manual or mechanical <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.26"></a><var>71.26</var>forces applied to bones or joints and their related soft tissues for correction of vertebral <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.27"></a><var>71.27</var>subluxation, other abnormal articulations, neurological disturbances, structural alterations, <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.28"></a><var>71.28</var>or biomechanical alterations, and includes, but is not limited to, manual therapy and <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.29"></a><var>71.29</var>mechanical therapy as defined in section 146.23;<br />
         		<a id="pl.71.30"></a><var>71.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) "abnormal articulation" means the condition of opposing bony joint surfaces and <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.31"></a><var>71.31</var>their related soft tissues that do not function normally, including subluxation, fixation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.32"></a><var>71.32</var>adhesion, degeneration, deformity, dislocation, or other pathology that results in pain or <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.33"></a><var>71.33</var>disturbances within the nervous system, results in postural alteration, inhibits motion, <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.34"></a><var>71.34</var>allows excessive motion, alters direction of motion, or results in loss of axial loading <br />
         		<a id="pl.71.35"></a><var>71.35</var>efficiency, or a combination of these;<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.1"></a><var>72.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) "diagnosis" means the physical, clinical, and laboratory examination of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.2"></a><var>72.2</var>patient, and the use of diagnostic services for diagnostic purposes within the scope of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.3"></a><var>72.3</var>practice of  chiropractic described in sections 148.01 to 148.10;<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.4"></a><var>72.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) "diagnostic services" means clinical, physical, laboratory, and other diagnostic <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.5"></a><var>72.5</var>measures, including diagnostic imaging  that may be necessary to determine the presence <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.6"></a><var>72.6</var>or absence of a condition, deficiency, deformity, abnormality, or disease as a basis for <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.7"></a><var>72.7</var>evaluation of a health concern, diagnosis, differential diagnosis, treatment, further <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.8"></a><var>72.8</var>examination, or referral;<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.9"></a><var>72.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) "therapeutic services" means rehabilitative therapy as defined in Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.10"></a><var>72.10</var>Rules, part 2500.0100, subpart 11, and all of the therapeutic, rehabilitative, and preventive <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.11"></a><var>72.11</var>sciences and procedures for which the licensee was subject to examination under section <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.12"></a><var>72.12</var>148.06. When provided, therapeutic services must be performed within a practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.13"></a><var>72.13</var>where the primary focus is the provision of chiropractic services, to prepare the patient <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.14"></a><var>72.14</var>for chiropractic services, or to complement the provision of chiropractic services. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.15"></a><var>72.15</var>administration of therapeutic services is the responsibility of the treating chiropractor and <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.16"></a><var>72.16</var>must be rendered under the direct supervision of qualified staff;<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.17"></a><var>72.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) "acupuncture" means a modality of treating abnormal physical conditions <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.18"></a><var>72.18</var>by stimulating various points of the body or interruption of the cutaneous integrity <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.19"></a><var>72.19</var>by needle insertion to secure a reflex relief of the symptoms by nerve stimulation as <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.20"></a><var>72.20</var>utilized as an adjunct to chiropractic adjustment. Acupuncture may not be used as an <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.21"></a><var>72.21</var>independent therapy or separately from chiropractic services. Acupuncture is permitted <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.22"></a><var>72.22</var>under section 148.01 only after registration with the board which requires completion <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.23"></a><var>72.23</var>of a board-approved course of study and successful completion of a board-approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.24"></a><var>72.24</var>national examination on acupuncture. Renewal of registration shall require completion of <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.25"></a><var>72.25</var>board-approved continuing education requirements in acupuncture. The restrictions of <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.26"></a><var>72.26</var>section 147B.02, subdivision 2, apply to individuals registered to perform acupuncture <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.27"></a><var>72.27</var>under this section; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.28"></a><var>72.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) (8) "animal chiropractic diagnosis and treatment" means treatment that includes <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.29"></a><var>72.29</var>identifying and resolving vertebral subluxation complexes, spinal manipulation, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.30"></a><var>72.30</var>manipulation of the extremity articulations of nonhuman vertebrates. Animal chiropractic <br />
         		<a id="pl.72.31"></a><var>72.31</var>diagnosis and treatment does not include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.32"></a><var>72.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) performing surgery;<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.33"></a><var>72.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) dispensing or administering of medications; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.72.34"></a><var>72.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iii) performing traditional veterinary care and diagnosis.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.5.0"></a><a id="pl.72.35"></a><var>72.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.01, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.1"></a><var>73.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Exclusions.</b> The practice of chiropractic is not the practice of medicine, <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.2"></a><var>73.2</var>surgery, or osteopathy, or physical therapy.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.6.0"></a><a id="pl.73.3"></a><var>73.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.01, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.4"></a><var>73.4</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.5"></a><var>73.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Practice of chiropractic.</b> An individual licensed to practice under section <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.6"></a><var>73.6</var>148.06 is authorized to perform chiropractic services, acupuncture, therapeutic services, <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.7"></a><var>73.7</var>and to provide diagnosis and to render opinions pertaining to those services for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.8"></a><var>73.8</var>purpose of determining a course of action in the best interests of the patient, such as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.9"></a><var>73.9</var>treatment plan, appropriate referral, or both.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.7.0"></a><a id="pl.73.10"></a><var>73.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.105, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.11"></a><var>73.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Generally.</b> Any person who practices, or attempts to practice, <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.12"></a><var>73.12</var>chiropractic or who uses any of the terms or letters "Doctors of Chiropractic," <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.13"></a><var>73.13</var>"Chiropractor," "DC," or any other title or letters under any circumstances as to lead <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.14"></a><var>73.14</var>the public to believe that the person who so uses the terms is engaged in the practice of <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.15"></a><var>73.15</var>chiropractic, without having complied with the provisions of sections 
         <statute_ref>148.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.104</statute_ref>, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.16"></a><var>73.16</var>guilty of a gross misdemeanor; and, upon conviction, fined not less than $1,000 nor more <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.17"></a><var>73.17</var>than $10,000 or be imprisoned in the county jail for not less than 30 days nor more than <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.18"></a><var>73.18</var>six months or punished by both fine and imprisonment, in the discretion of the court. It is <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.19"></a><var>73.19</var>the duty of the county attorney of the county in which the person practices to prosecute. <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.20"></a><var>73.20</var>Nothing in sections 
         <statute_ref>148.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.105</statute_ref> shall be considered as interfering with any person:<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.21"></a><var>73.21</var>(1) licensed by a health-related licensing board, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>214.01, <br />
            		<a id="pl.73.22"></a><var>73.22</var>subdivision 2
         </statute_ref>, including psychological practitioners with respect to the use of hypnosis;<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.23"></a><var>73.23</var>(2) registered or licensed by the commissioner of health under section 
         <statute_ref>214.13</statute_ref>; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.24"></a><var>73.24</var>(3) engaged in other methods of healing regulated by law in the state of Minnesota;<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.25"></a><var>73.25</var>provided that the person confines activities within the scope of the license or other <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.26"></a><var>73.26</var>regulation and does not practice or attempt to practice chiropractic.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.8.0"></a><a id="pl.73.27"></a><var>73.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.6402, subdivision 17, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.73.28"></a><var>73.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 17. <b>Physical agent modalities.</b> "Physical agent modalities" mean modalities <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.29"></a><var>73.29</var>that use the properties of light, water, temperature, sound, or electricity to produce a <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.30"></a><var>73.30</var>response in soft tissue. The physical agent modalities referred to in sections 
         <statute_ref>148.6404<br />
            		
         </statute_ref><a id="pl.73.31"></a><var>73.31</var> and 
         <statute_ref>148.6440</statute_ref> are superficial physical agent modalities, electrical stimulation devices, <br />
         		<a id="pl.73.32"></a><var>73.32</var>and ultrasound.<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.1"></a><var>74.1</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.9.0"></a><a id="pl.74.2"></a><var>74.2</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.6404, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.3"></a><var>74.3</var><b>148.6404 SCOPE OF PRACTICE.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.74.4"></a><var>74.4</var>The practice of occupational therapy by an occupational therapist or occupational <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.5"></a><var>74.5</var>therapy assistant includes, but is not limited to, intervention directed toward:<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.6"></a><var>74.6</var>(1) assessment and evaluation, including the use of skilled observation or <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.7"></a><var>74.7</var>the administration and interpretation of standardized or nonstandardized tests and <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.8"></a><var>74.8</var>measurements, to identify areas for occupational therapy services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.9"></a><var>74.9</var>(2) providing for the development of sensory integrative, neuromuscular, or motor <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.10"></a><var>74.10</var>components of performance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.11"></a><var>74.11</var>(3) providing for the development of emotional, motivational, cognitive, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.12"></a><var>74.12</var>psychosocial components of performance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.13"></a><var>74.13</var>(4) developing daily living skills;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.14"></a><var>74.14</var>(5) developing feeding and swallowing skills;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.15"></a><var>74.15</var>(6) developing play skills and leisure capacities;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.16"></a><var>74.16</var>(7) enhancing educational performance skills;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.17"></a><var>74.17</var>(8) enhancing functional performance and work readiness through exercise, range of <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.18"></a><var>74.18</var>motion, and use of ergonomic principles;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.19"></a><var>74.19</var>(9) designing, fabricating, or applying rehabilitative technology, such as selected <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.20"></a><var>74.20</var>orthotic and prosthetic devices, and providing training in the functional use of these devices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.21"></a><var>74.21</var>(10) designing, fabricating, or adapting assistive technology and providing training <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.22"></a><var>74.22</var>in the functional use of assistive devices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.23"></a><var>74.23</var>(11) adapting environments using assistive technology such as environmental <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.24"></a><var>74.24</var>controls, wheelchair modifications, and positioning;<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.25"></a><var>74.25</var>(12) employing physical agent modalities, in preparation for or as an adjunct to <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.26"></a><var>74.26</var>purposeful activity, within the same treatment session or to meet established functional <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.27"></a><var>74.27</var>occupational therapy goals, consistent with the requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>148.6440</statute_ref>; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.28"></a><var>74.28</var>(13) promoting health and wellness.<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.29"></a><var>74.29</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.10.0"></a><a id="pl.74.30"></a><var>74.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.6430, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.74.31"></a><var>74.31</var><b>148.6430 DELEGATION OF DUTIES; ASSIGNMENT OF TASKS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.74.32"></a><var>74.32</var>The occupational therapist is responsible for all duties delegated to the occupational <br />
         		<a id="pl.74.33"></a><var>74.33</var>therapy assistant or tasks assigned to direct service personnel. The occupational therapist <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.1"></a><var>75.1</var>may delegate to an occupational therapy assistant those portions of a client's evaluation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.2"></a><var>75.2</var>reevaluation, and treatment that, according to prevailing practice standards of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.3"></a><var>75.3</var>American Occupational Therapy Association, can be performed by an occupational <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.4"></a><var>75.4</var>therapy assistant. The occupational therapist may not delegate portions of an evaluation or <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.5"></a><var>75.5</var>reevaluation of a person whose condition is changing rapidly. Delegation of duties related <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.6"></a><var>75.6</var>to use of physical agent modalities to occupational therapy assistants is governed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.7"></a><var>75.7</var>section 
         <statute_ref>148.6440, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.75.8"></a><var>75.8</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.11.0"></a><a id="pl.75.9"></a><var>75.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.6432, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.75.10"></a><var>75.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Applicability.</b> If the professional standards identified in section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.75.11"></a><var>75.11</var>148.6430
         </statute_ref> permit an occupational therapist to delegate an evaluation, reevaluation, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.12"></a><var>75.12</var>treatment procedure, the occupational therapist must provide supervision consistent <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.13"></a><var>75.13</var>with this section. Supervision of occupational therapy assistants using physical agent <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.14"></a><var>75.14</var>modalities is governed by section 
         <statute_ref>148.6440, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.75.15"></a><var>75.15</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.12.0"></a><a id="pl.75.16"></a><var>75.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7802, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.75.17"></a><var>75.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Approved education program.</b> "Approved education program" means <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.18"></a><var>75.18</var>a university, college, or other postsecondary education program of athletic training <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.19"></a><var>75.19</var>that, at the time the student completes the program, is approved or accredited by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.20"></a><var>75.20</var>National Athletic Trainers Association Professional Education Committee, the National <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.21"></a><var>75.21</var>Athletic Trainers Association Board of Certification, or the Joint Review Committee on <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.22"></a><var>75.22</var>Educational Programs in Athletic Training in collaboration with the American Academy <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.23"></a><var>75.23</var>of Family Physicians, the American Academy of Pediatrics, the American Medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.24"></a><var>75.24</var>Association, and the National Athletic Trainers Association a nationally recognized <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.25"></a><var>75.25</var>accreditation agency for athletic training education programs approved by the board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.13.0"></a><a id="pl.75.26"></a><var>75.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7802, subdivision 9, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.75.27"></a><var>75.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Credentialing examination.</b> "Credentialing examination" means an <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.28"></a><var>75.28</var>examination administered by the National Athletic Trainers Association Board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.29"></a><var>75.29</var>Certification, or the board's recognized successor, for credentialing as an athletic trainer, <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.30"></a><var>75.30</var>or an examination for credentialing offered by a national testing service that is approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.75.31"></a><var>75.31</var>by the board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.14.0"></a><a id="pl.76.1"></a><var>76.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7803, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.2"></a><var>76.2</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Designation.</b> A person shall not use in connection with the person's <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.3"></a><var>76.3</var>name the words or letters registered athletic trainer; licensed athletic trainer; Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.4"></a><var>76.4</var>registered athletic trainer; athletic trainer; AT; ATR; or any words, letters, abbreviations, <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.5"></a><var>76.5</var>or insignia indicating or implying that the person is an athletic trainer, without a certificate <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.6"></a><var>76.6</var>of registration as an athletic trainer issued under sections 
         <statute_ref>148.7808</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.7810</statute_ref>. A student <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.7"></a><var>76.7</var>attending a college or university athletic training program must be identified as a "student <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.8"></a><var>76.8</var>athletic trainer an "athletic training student."<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.15.0"></a><a id="pl.76.9"></a><var>76.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7805, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.10"></a><var>76.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Creation;</b><b> Membership.</b> The Athletic Trainers Advisory Council <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.11"></a><var>76.11</var>is created and is composed of eight members appointed by the board. The advisory <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.12"></a><var>76.12</var>council consists of:<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.13"></a><var>76.13</var>(1) two public members as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>214.02</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.14"></a><var>76.14</var>(2) three members who, except for initial appointees, are registered athletic trainers, <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.15"></a><var>76.15</var>one being both a licensed physical therapist and registered athletic trainer as submitted by <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.16"></a><var>76.16</var>the Minnesota American Physical Therapy Association;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.17"></a><var>76.17</var>(3) two members who are medical physicians licensed by the state and have <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.18"></a><var>76.18</var>experience with athletic training and sports medicine; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.19"></a><var>76.19</var>(4) one member who is a doctor of chiropractic licensed by the state and has <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.20"></a><var>76.20</var>experience with athletic training and sports injuries.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.16.0"></a><a id="pl.76.21"></a><var>76.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7808, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.22"></a><var>76.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Registration.</b> The board may issue a certificate of registration as an <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.23"></a><var>76.23</var>athletic trainer to applicants who meet the requirements under this section. An applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.24"></a><var>76.24</var>for registration as an athletic trainer shall pay a fee under section 
         <statute_ref>148.7815</statute_ref> and file a <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.25"></a><var>76.25</var>written application on a form, provided by the board, that includes:<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.26"></a><var>76.26</var>(1) the applicant's name, Social Security number, home address and telephone <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.27"></a><var>76.27</var>number, business address and telephone number, and business setting;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.28"></a><var>76.28</var>(2) evidence satisfactory to the board of the successful completion of an education <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.29"></a><var>76.29</var>program approved by the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.30"></a><var>76.30</var>(3) educational background;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.31"></a><var>76.31</var>(4) proof of a baccalaureate or master's degree from an accredited college or <br />
         		<a id="pl.76.32"></a><var>76.32</var>university;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.33"></a><var>76.33</var>(5) credentials held in other jurisdictions;<br />
         		<a id="pl.76.34"></a><var>76.34</var>(6) a description of any other jurisdiction's refusal to credential the applicant;<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.1"></a><var>77.1</var>(7) a description of all professional disciplinary actions initiated against the applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.2"></a><var>77.2</var>in any other jurisdiction;<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.3"></a><var>77.3</var>(8) any history of drug or alcohol abuse, and any misdemeanor or felony conviction;<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.4"></a><var>77.4</var>(9) evidence satisfactory to the board of a qualifying score on a credentialing <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.5"></a><var>77.5</var>examination within one year of the application for registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.6"></a><var>77.6</var>(10) additional information as requested by the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.7"></a><var>77.7</var>(11) the applicant's signature on a statement that the information in the application is <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.8"></a><var>77.8</var>true and correct to the best of the applicant's knowledge and belief; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.9"></a><var>77.9</var>(12) the applicant's signature on a waiver authorizing the board to obtain access to <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.10"></a><var>77.10</var>the applicant's records in this state or any other state in which the applicant has completed <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.11"></a><var>77.11</var>an education program approved by the board or engaged in the practice of athletic training.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.17.0"></a><a id="pl.77.12"></a><var>77.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7808, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.13"></a><var>77.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Temporary registration.</b> (a) The board may issue a temporary registration <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.14"></a><var>77.14</var>as an athletic trainer to qualified applicants. A temporary registration is issued for <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.15"></a><var>77.15</var>one year 120 days. An athletic trainer with a temporary registration may qualify for <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.16"></a><var>77.16</var>full registration after submission of verified documentation that the athletic trainer has <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.17"></a><var>77.17</var>achieved a qualifying score on a credentialing examination within one year 120 days after <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.18"></a><var>77.18</var>the date of the temporary registration. A temporary registration may not be renewed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.19"></a><var>77.19</var>(b) Except as provided in subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (1), an applicant for <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.20"></a><var>77.20</var>a temporary registration must submit the application materials and fees for registration <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.21"></a><var>77.21</var>required under subdivision 1, clauses (1) to (8) and (10) to (12).<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.22"></a><var>77.22</var>(c) An athletic trainer with a temporary registration shall work only under the <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.23"></a><var>77.23</var>direct supervision of an athletic trainer registered under this section. No more than four<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.24"></a><var>77.24</var> two athletic trainers with temporary registrations shall work under the direction of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.25"></a><var>77.25</var>registered athletic trainer.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.18.0"></a><a id="pl.77.26"></a><var>77.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7812, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.27"></a><var>77.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Approved programs.</b> The board shall approve a continuing education <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.28"></a><var>77.28</var>program that has been approved for continuing education credit by the National Athletic <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.29"></a><var>77.29</var>Trainers Association Board of Certification, or the board's recognized successor.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.19.0"></a><a id="pl.77.30"></a><var>77.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7813, is amended by adding a <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.31"></a><var>77.31</var>subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.77.32"></a><var>77.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Discipline; reporting.</b> For the purposes of this chapter, registered athletic <br />
         		<a id="pl.77.33"></a><var>77.33</var>trainers and applicants are subject to sections 147.091 to 147.162.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.20.0"></a><a id="pl.78.1"></a><var>78.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.7814, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.2"></a><var>78.2</var><b>148.7814 APPLICABILITY.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.78.3"></a><var>78.3</var>Sections 
         <statute_ref>148.7801</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.7815</statute_ref> do not apply to persons who are certified as athletic <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.4"></a><var>78.4</var>trainers by the National Athletic Trainers Association Board of Certification or the board's <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.5"></a><var>78.5</var>recognized successor and come into Minnesota for a specific athletic event or series of <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.6"></a><var>78.6</var>athletic events with an individual or group.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.21.0"></a><a id="pl.78.7"></a><var>78.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.995, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.8"></a><var>78.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Certified doula.</b> "Certified doula" means an individual who has received <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.9"></a><var>78.9</var>a certification to perform doula services from the International Childbirth Education <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.10"></a><var>78.10</var>Association, the Doulas of North America (DONA), the Association of Labor Assistants <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.11"></a><var>78.11</var>and Childbirth Educators (ALACE), Birthworks, the Childbirth and Postpartum <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.12"></a><var>78.12</var>Professional Association (CAPPA), Childbirth International, or the International Center <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.13"></a><var>78.13</var>for Traditional Childbearing, or Commonsense Childbirth, Inc.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.22.0"></a><a id="pl.78.14"></a><var>78.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.996, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.15"></a><var>78.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Qualifications.</b> The commissioner shall include on the registry any <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.16"></a><var>78.16</var>individual who:<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.17"></a><var>78.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) submits an application on a form provided by the commissioner. The form must <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.18"></a><var>78.18</var>include the applicant's name, address, and contact information;<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.19"></a><var>78.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) maintains a current certification from one of the organizations listed in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.20"></a><var>78.20</var><statute_ref>146B.01, subdivision 2</statute_ref> 148.995, subdivision 2; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.21"></a><var>78.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) pays the fees required under section 
         <statute_ref>148.997</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.23.0"></a><a id="pl.78.22"></a><var>78.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148B.5301, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.23"></a><var>78.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Supervision.</b> (a) To qualify as a LPCC, an applicant must have completed <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.24"></a><var>78.24</var>4,000 hours of post-master's degree supervised professional practice in the delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.25"></a><var>78.25</var>of clinical services in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illnesses and disorders in <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.26"></a><var>78.26</var>both children and adults. The supervised practice shall be conducted according to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.27"></a><var>78.27</var>requirements in paragraphs (b) to (e).<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.28"></a><var>78.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) The supervision must have been received under a contract that defines clinical <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.29"></a><var>78.29</var>practice and supervision from a mental health professional as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245.462</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.30"></a><var>78.30</var>subdivision 18, clauses (1) to (6), or 
         <statute_ref>245.4871, subdivision 27</statute_ref>, clauses (1) to (6), or by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.31"></a><var>78.31</var>board-approved supervisor, who has at least two years of postlicensure experience in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.78.32"></a><var>78.32</var>delivery of clinical services in the diagnosis and treatment of mental illnesses and disorders.<br />
         		<a id="pl.78.33"></a><var>78.33</var> All supervisors must meet the supervisor requirements in Minnesota Rules, part 2150.5010.<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.1"></a><var>79.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) The supervision must be obtained at the rate of two hours of supervision per 40 <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.2"></a><var>79.2</var>hours of professional practice. The supervision must be evenly distributed over the course <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.3"></a><var>79.3</var>of the supervised professional practice. At least 75 percent of the required supervision <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.4"></a><var>79.4</var>hours must be received in person. The remaining 25 percent of the required hours may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.5"></a><var>79.5</var>received by telephone or by audio or audiovisual electronic device. At least 50 percent of <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.6"></a><var>79.6</var>the required hours of supervision must be received on an individual basis. The remaining <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.7"></a><var>79.7</var>50 percent may be received in a group setting.<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.8"></a><var>79.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) The supervised practice must include at least 1,800 hours of clinical client contact.<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.9"></a><var>79.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) The supervised practice must be clinical practice. Supervision includes the <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.10"></a><var>79.10</var>observation by the supervisor of the successful application of professional counseling <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.11"></a><var>79.11</var>knowledge, skills, and values in the differential diagnosis and treatment of psychosocial <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.12"></a><var>79.12</var>function, disability, or impairment, including addictions and emotional, mental, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.13"></a><var>79.13</var>behavioral disorders.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.24.0"></a><a id="pl.79.14"></a><var>79.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148B.5301, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.15"></a><var>79.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Conversion to licensed professional clinical counselor after August 1, </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.79.16"></a><var>79.16</var><b>2014.</b> After August 1, 2014, an individual licensed in the state of Minnesota as a licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.17"></a><var>79.17</var>professional counselor may convert to a LPCC by providing evidence satisfactory to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.18"></a><var>79.18</var>board that the applicant has met the requirements of subdivisions 1 and 2, subject to <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.19"></a><var>79.19</var>the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.20"></a><var>79.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the individual's license must be active and in good standing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.21"></a><var>79.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) the individual must not have any complaints pending, uncompleted disciplinary <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.22"></a><var>79.22</var>orders, or corrective action agreements; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.23"></a><var>79.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) the individual has paid the LPCC application and licensure fees required in <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.24"></a><var>79.24</var>section 
         <statute_ref>148B.53, subdivision 3</statute_ref>. (a) After August 1, 2014, an individual currently licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.25"></a><var>79.25</var>in the state of Minnesota as a licensed professional counselor may convert to a LPCC by <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.26"></a><var>79.26</var>providing evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has met the following <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.27"></a><var>79.27</var>requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.28"></a><var>79.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) is at least 18 years of age;<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.29"></a><var>79.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) has a license that is active and in good standing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.30"></a><var>79.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) has no complaints pending, uncompleted disciplinary order, or corrective action <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.31"></a><var>79.31</var>agreements;<br />
         		<a id="pl.79.32"></a><var>79.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) has completed a master's or doctoral degree program in counseling or a related <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.33"></a><var>79.33</var>field, as determined by the board, and whose degree was from a counseling program <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.34"></a><var>79.34</var>recognized by CACREP or from an institution of higher education that is accredited by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.79.35"></a><var>79.35</var>regional accrediting organization recognized by CHEA;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.1"></a><var>80.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) has earned 24 graduate-level semester credits or quarter-credit equivalents in <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.2"></a><var>80.2</var>clinical coursework which includes content in the following clinical areas:<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.3"></a><var>80.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) diagnostic assessment for child or adult mental disorders; normative development; <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.4"></a><var>80.4</var>and psychopathology, including developmental psychopathology;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.5"></a><var>80.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) clinical treatment planning with measurable goals;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.6"></a><var>80.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iii) clinical intervention methods informed by research evidence and community <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.7"></a><var>80.7</var>standards of practice;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.8"></a><var>80.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iv) evaluation methodologies regarding the effectiveness of interventions;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.9"></a><var>80.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(v) professional ethics applied to clinical practice; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.10"></a><var>80.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(vi) cultural diversity;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.11"></a><var>80.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) has demonstrated competence in professional counseling by passing the National <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.12"></a><var>80.12</var>Clinical Mental Health Counseling Examination (NCMHCE), administered by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.13"></a><var>80.13</var>National Board for Certified Counselors, Inc. (NBCC), and ethical, oral, and situational <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.14"></a><var>80.14</var>examinations as prescribed by the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.15"></a><var>80.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) has demonstrated, to the satisfaction of the board, successful completion of 4,000 <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.16"></a><var>80.16</var>hours of supervised, post-master's degree professional practice in the delivery of clinical <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.17"></a><var>80.17</var>services in the diagnosis and treatment of child and adult mental illnesses and disorders, <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.18"></a><var>80.18</var>which includes 1,800 direct client contact hours. A licensed professional counselor <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.19"></a><var>80.19</var>who has completed 2,000 hours of supervised post-master's degree clinical professional <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.20"></a><var>80.20</var>practice and who has independent practice status need only document 2,000 additional <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.21"></a><var>80.21</var>hours of supervised post-master's degree clinical professional practice, which includes 900 <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.22"></a><var>80.22</var>direct client contact hours; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.23"></a><var>80.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) has paid the LPCC application and licensure fees required in section 148B.53, <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.24"></a><var>80.24</var>subdivision 3.<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.25"></a><var>80.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) If the coursework in paragraph (a) was not completed as part of the degree <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.26"></a><var>80.26</var>program required by paragraph (a), clause (5), the coursework must be taken and passed <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.27"></a><var>80.27</var>for credit, and must be earned from a counseling program or institution that meets the <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.28"></a><var>80.28</var>requirements in paragraph (a), clause (5).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.25.0"></a><a id="pl.80.29"></a><var>80.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 153.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.30"></a><var>80.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>License requirements.</b> The board shall issue a license to practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.31"></a><var>80.31</var>podiatric medicine to a person who meets the following requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.80.32"></a><var>80.32</var>(a) The applicant for a license shall file a written notarized application on forms <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.33"></a><var>80.33</var>provided by the board, showing to the board's satisfaction that the applicant is of good <br />
         		<a id="pl.80.34"></a><var>80.34</var>moral character and satisfies the requirements of this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.1"></a><var>81.1</var>(b) The applicant shall present evidence satisfactory to the board of being a graduate <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.2"></a><var>81.2</var>of a podiatric medical school approved by the board based upon its faculty, curriculum, <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.3"></a><var>81.3</var>facilities, accreditation by a recognized national accrediting organization approved by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.4"></a><var>81.4</var>board, and other relevant factors.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.5"></a><var>81.5</var>(c) The applicant must have received a passing score on each part of the national board <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.6"></a><var>81.6</var>examinations, parts one and two, prepared and graded by the National Board of Podiatric <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.7"></a><var>81.7</var>Medical Examiners. The passing score for each part of the national board examinations, <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.8"></a><var>81.8</var>parts one and two, is as defined by the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.9"></a><var>81.9</var>(d) Applicants graduating after 1986 from a podiatric medical school shall present <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.10"></a><var>81.10</var>evidence satisfactory to the board of the completion of (1) one year of graduate, clinical <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.11"></a><var>81.11</var>residency or preceptorship in a program accredited by a national accrediting organization <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.12"></a><var>81.12</var>approved by the board or (2) other graduate training that meets standards equivalent to <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.13"></a><var>81.13</var>those of an approved national accrediting organization or school of podiatric medicine<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.14"></a><var>81.14</var> of successful completion of a residency program approved by a national accrediting <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.15"></a><var>81.15</var>podiatric medicine organization.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.16"></a><var>81.16</var>(e) The applicant shall appear in person before the board or its designated <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.17"></a><var>81.17</var>representative to show that the applicant satisfies the requirements of this section, <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.18"></a><var>81.18</var>including knowledge of laws, rules, and ethics pertaining to the practice of podiatric <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.19"></a><var>81.19</var>medicine. The board may establish as internal operating procedures the procedures or <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.20"></a><var>81.20</var>requirements for the applicant's personal presentation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.21"></a><var>81.21</var>(f) The applicant shall pay a fee established by the board by rule. The fee shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.22"></a><var>81.22</var>not be refunded.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.23"></a><var>81.23</var>(g) The applicant must not have engaged in conduct warranting disciplinary action <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.24"></a><var>81.24</var>against a licensee. If the applicant does not satisfy the requirements of this paragraph, <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.25"></a><var>81.25</var>the board may refuse to issue a license unless it determines that the public will be <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.26"></a><var>81.26</var>protected through issuance of a license with conditions and limitations the board considers <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.27"></a><var>81.27</var>appropriate.<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.28"></a><var>81.28</var>(h) Upon payment of a fee as the board may require, an applicant who fails to pass <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.29"></a><var>81.29</var>an examination and is refused a license is entitled to reexamination within one year of <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.30"></a><var>81.30</var>the board's refusal to issue the license. No more than two reexaminations are allowed <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.31"></a><var>81.31</var>without a new application for a license.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.26.0"></a><a id="pl.81.32"></a><var>81.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 26. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 153.16, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.33"></a><var>81.33</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.81.34"></a><var>81.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Relicensure after two-year lapse of practice; reentry program.</b> A <br />
         		<a id="pl.81.35"></a><var>81.35</var>podiatrist seeking licensure or reinstatement of a license after a lapse of continuous <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.1"></a><var>82.1</var>practice of podiatric medicine of greater than two years must reestablish competency by <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.2"></a><var>82.2</var>completing a reentry program approved by the board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.27.0"></a><a id="pl.82.3"></a><var>82.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 27. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 153.16, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.4"></a><var>82.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Applicants licensed in another state.</b> The board shall issue a license <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.5"></a><var>82.5</var>to practice podiatric medicine to any person currently or formerly licensed to practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.6"></a><var>82.6</var>podiatric medicine in another state who satisfies the requirements of this section:<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.7"></a><var>82.7</var>(a) The applicant shall satisfy the requirements established in subdivision 1.<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.8"></a><var>82.8</var>(b) The applicant shall present evidence satisfactory to the board indicating the <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.9"></a><var>82.9</var>current status of a license to practice podiatric medicine issued by the first state of <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.10"></a><var>82.10</var>licensure and all other states and countries in which the individual has held a license.<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.11"></a><var>82.11</var>(c) If the applicant has had a license revoked, engaged in conduct warranting <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.12"></a><var>82.12</var>disciplinary action against the applicant's license, or been subjected to disciplinary action, <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.13"></a><var>82.13</var>in another state, the board may refuse to issue a license unless it determines that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.14"></a><var>82.14</var>public will be protected through issuance of a license with conditions or limitations the <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.15"></a><var>82.15</var>board considers appropriate.<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.16"></a><var>82.16</var>(d) The applicant shall submit with the license application the following additional <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.17"></a><var>82.17</var>information for the five-year period preceding the date of filing of the application: (1) the <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.18"></a><var>82.18</var>name and address of the applicant's professional liability insurer in the other state; and (2) <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.19"></a><var>82.19</var>the number, date, and disposition of any podiatric medical malpractice settlement or award <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.20"></a><var>82.20</var>made to the plaintiff relating to the quality of podiatric medical treatment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.21"></a><var>82.21</var>(e) If the license is active, the applicant shall submit with the license application <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.22"></a><var>82.22</var>evidence of compliance with the continuing education requirements in the current state of <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.23"></a><var>82.23</var>licensure.<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.24"></a><var>82.24</var>(f) If the license is inactive, the applicant shall submit with the license application <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.25"></a><var>82.25</var>evidence of participation in one-half the same number of hours of acceptable continuing <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.26"></a><var>82.26</var>education required for biennial renewal, as specified under Minnesota Rules, up to five <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.27"></a><var>82.27</var>years. If the license has been inactive for more than two years, the amount of acceptable <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.28"></a><var>82.28</var>continuing education required must be obtained during the two years immediately before <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.29"></a><var>82.29</var>application or the applicant must provide other evidence as the board may reasonably <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.30"></a><var>82.30</var>require.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.28.0"></a><a id="pl.82.31"></a><var>82.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 28. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 153.16, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.82.32"></a><var>82.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Temporary permit.</b> Upon payment of a fee and in accordance with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.82.33"></a><var>82.33</var>rules of the board, the board may issue a temporary permit to practice podiatric medicine <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.1"></a><var>83.1</var>to a podiatrist engaged in a clinical residency or preceptorship for a period not to exceed <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.2"></a><var>83.2</var>12 months. A temporary permit may be extended under the following conditions:<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.3"></a><var>83.3</var>(1) the applicant submits acceptable evidence that the training was interrupted by <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.4"></a><var>83.4</var>circumstances beyond the control of the applicant and that the sponsor of the program <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.5"></a><var>83.5</var>agrees to the extension;<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.6"></a><var>83.6</var>(2) the applicant is continuing in a residency that extends for more than one year; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.7"></a><var>83.7</var>(3) the applicant is continuing in a residency that extends for more than two years.<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.8"></a><var>83.8</var> approved by a national accrediting organization. The temporary permit is renewed <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.9"></a><var>83.9</var>annually until the residency training requirements are completed or until the residency <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.10"></a><var>83.10</var>program is terminated or discontinued.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.29.0"></a><a id="pl.83.11"></a><var>83.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 29. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 153.16, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.12"></a><var>83.12</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.13"></a><var>83.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Continuing education.</b> (a) Every podiatrist licensed to practice in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.14"></a><var>83.14</var>state shall obtain 40 clock hours of continuing education in each two-year cycle of license <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.15"></a><var>83.15</var>renewal. All continuing education hours must be earned by verified attendance at or <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.16"></a><var>83.16</var>participation in a program or course sponsored by the Council on Podiatric Medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.17"></a><var>83.17</var>Education or approved by the board. In each two-year cycle, a maximum of eight hours of <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.18"></a><var>83.18</var>continuing education credits may be obtained through participation in online courses.<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.19"></a><var>83.19</var>(b) The number of continuing education hours required during the initial licensure <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.20"></a><var>83.20</var>period is that fraction of 40 hours, to the nearest whole hour, that is represented by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.21"></a><var>83.21</var>ratio of the number of days the license is held in the initial licensure period to 730 days.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.30.0"></a><a id="pl.83.22"></a><var>83.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 30. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 214.33, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.23"></a><var>83.23</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.24"></a><var>83.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Employer mandatory reporting.</b> (a) An employer of a person regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.25"></a><var>83.25</var>by a health-related licensing board, and a health care institution or other organization <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.26"></a><var>83.26</var>where the regulated person is engaged in providing services, must report to the appropriate <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.27"></a><var>83.27</var>licensing board that a regulated person has diverted narcotics or other controlled <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.28"></a><var>83.28</var>substances in violation of state or federal narcotics or controlled substance law if:<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.29"></a><var>83.29</var>(1) the employer, health care institution, or organization making the report has <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.30"></a><var>83.30</var>knowledge of the diversion; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.31"></a><var>83.31</var>(2) the regulated person has diverted narcotics or other controlled substances <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.32"></a><var>83.32</var>from the reporting employer, health care institution, or organization, or at the reporting <br />
         		<a id="pl.83.33"></a><var>83.33</var>institution or organization.<br />
         		<a id="pl.83.34"></a><var>83.34</var>(b) The requirement to report under this subdivision does not apply if:<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.1"></a><var>84.1</var>(1) the regulated person is self-employed;<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.2"></a><var>84.2</var>(2) the knowledge was obtained in the course of a professional-patient relationship <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.3"></a><var>84.3</var>and the patient is regulated by the health-related licensing board; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.4"></a><var>84.4</var>(3) knowledge of the diversion first becomes known to the employer, health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.5"></a><var>84.5</var>institution, or other organization, either from (i) an individual who is serving as a work <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.6"></a><var>84.6</var>site monitor approved by the health professional services program for the regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.7"></a><var>84.7</var>person who has self-reported to the health professional services program, and who <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.8"></a><var>84.8</var>has returned to work pursuant to a health professional services program participation <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.9"></a><var>84.9</var>agreement and monitoring plan; or (ii) the regulated person who has self-reported to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.10"></a><var>84.10</var>health professional services program and who has returned to work pursuant to the health <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.11"></a><var>84.11</var>professional services program participation agreement and monitoring plan.<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.12"></a><var>84.12</var>(c) Complying with subdivision 1 does not waive the requirement to report under <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.13"></a><var>84.13</var>this subdivision.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.6.31.0"></a><a id="pl.84.14"></a><var>84.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 31. <b> REPEALER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.84.15"></a><var>84.15</var>(a) Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 148.01, subdivision 3; 148.7808, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.16"></a><var>84.16</var>2; and 148.7813, are repealed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.17"></a><var>84.17</var>(b) Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 148.6440, is repealed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.18"></a><var>84.18</var>(c) Minnesota Rules, parts 2500.0100, subparts 3, 4b, and 9b; and 2500.4000, are <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.19"></a><var>84.19</var>repealed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.20"></a><var>84.20</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>Paragraph (b) is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.84.21"></a><var>84.21</var><b>ARTICLE 7</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.84.22"></a><var>84.22</var><b>CHEMICAL AND MENTAL HEALTH</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.7.1.0"></a><a id="pl.84.23"></a><var>84.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 245A.03, subdivision 6a, is amended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.24"></a><var>84.24</var>read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.25"></a><var>84.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6a. <b>Adult foster care homes serving people with mental illness; </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.84.26"></a><var>84.26</var><b>certification.</b> (a) The commissioner of human services shall issue a mental health <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.27"></a><var>84.27</var>certification for adult foster care homes licensed under this chapter and Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.28"></a><var>84.28</var>parts 9555.5105 to 9555.6265, that serve people with a primary diagnosis of mental <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.29"></a><var>84.29</var>illness where the home is not the primary residence of the license holder when a provider <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.30"></a><var>84.30</var>is determined to have met the requirements under paragraph (b). This certification is <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.31"></a><var>84.31</var>voluntary for license holders. The certification shall be printed on the license, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.84.32"></a><var>84.32</var>identified on the commissioner's public Web site.<br />
         		<a id="pl.84.33"></a><var>84.33</var>(b) The requirements for certification are:<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.1"></a><var>85.1</var>(1) all staff working in the adult foster care home have received at least seven hours <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.2"></a><var>85.2</var>of annual training under paragraph (c) covering all of the following topics:<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.3"></a><var>85.3</var>(i) mental health diagnoses;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.4"></a><var>85.4</var>(ii) mental health crisis response and de-escalation techniques;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.5"></a><var>85.5</var>(iii) recovery from mental illness;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.6"></a><var>85.6</var>(iv) treatment options including evidence-based practices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.7"></a><var>85.7</var>(v) medications and their side effects;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.8"></a><var>85.8</var>(vi)  suicide intervention, identifying suicide warning signs, and appropriate <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.9"></a><var>85.9</var>responses;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.10"></a><var>85.10</var>(vii) co-occurring substance abuse and health conditions; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.11"></a><var>85.11</var>(vii) (viii) community resources;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.12"></a><var>85.12</var>(2) a mental health professional, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245.462, subdivision 18</statute_ref>, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.13"></a><var>85.13</var>a mental health practitioner as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245.462, subdivision 17</statute_ref>, are available <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.14"></a><var>85.14</var>for consultation and assistance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.15"></a><var>85.15</var>(3) there is a plan and protocol in place to address a mental health crisis; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.16"></a><var>85.16</var>(4) there is a crisis plan for each individual's Individual Placement Agreement<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.17"></a><var>85.17</var> individual that identifies who is providing clinical services and their contact information, <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.18"></a><var>85.18</var>and includes an individual crisis prevention and management plan developed with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.19"></a><var>85.19</var>individual.<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.20"></a><var>85.20</var>(c) The training curriculum must be approved by the commissioner of human <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.21"></a><var>85.21</var>services and must include a testing component after training is completed. Training must <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.22"></a><var>85.22</var>be provided by a mental health professional or a mental health practitioner. Training may <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.23"></a><var>85.23</var>also be provided by an individual living with a mental illness or a family member of such <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.24"></a><var>85.24</var>an individual, who is from a nonprofit organization with a history of providing educational <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.25"></a><var>85.25</var>classes on mental illnesses approved by the Department of Human Services to deliver <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.26"></a><var>85.26</var>mental health training. Staff must receive three hours of training in the areas specified in <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.27"></a><var>85.27</var>paragraph (b), clause (1), items (i) and (ii), prior to working alone with residents. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.28"></a><var>85.28</var>remaining hours of mandatory training, including a review of the information in paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.29"></a><var>85.29</var>(b), clause (1), item (ii), must be completed within six months of the hire date. For <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.30"></a><var>85.30</var>programs licensed under chapter 245D, training under this section may be incorporated <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.31"></a><var>85.31</var>into the 30 hours of staff orientation required under section 245D.09, subdivision 4.<br />
         		<a id="pl.85.32"></a><var>85.32</var>(c) (d) License holders seeking certification under this subdivision must request <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.33"></a><var>85.33</var>this certification on forms provided by the commissioner and must submit the request to <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.34"></a><var>85.34</var>the county licensing agency in which the home is located. The county licensing agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.35"></a><var>85.35</var>must forward the request to the commissioner with a county recommendation regarding <br />
         		<a id="pl.85.36"></a><var>85.36</var>whether the commissioner should issue the certification.<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.1"></a><var>86.1</var>(d) (e) Ongoing compliance with the certification requirements under paragraph (b) <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.2"></a><var>86.2</var>shall be reviewed by the county licensing agency at each licensing review. When a county <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.3"></a><var>86.3</var>licensing agency determines that the requirements of paragraph (b) are not met, the county <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.4"></a><var>86.4</var>shall inform the commissioner, and the commissioner will remove the certification.<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.5"></a><var>86.5</var>(e) (f) A denial of the certification or the removal of the certification based on a <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.6"></a><var>86.6</var>determination that the requirements under paragraph (b) have not been met by the adult <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.7"></a><var>86.7</var>foster care license holder are not subject to appeal. A license holder that has been denied a <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.8"></a><var>86.8</var>certification or that has had a certification removed may again request certification when <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.9"></a><var>86.9</var>the license holder is in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.2.0"></a><a id="pl.86.10"></a><var>86.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 245D.33, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.11"></a><var>86.11</var><b>245D.33 ADULT MENTAL HEALTH CERTIFICATION STANDARDS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.86.12"></a><var>86.12</var>(a) The commissioner of human services shall issue a mental health certification <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.13"></a><var>86.13</var>for services licensed under this chapter when a license holder is determined to have met <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.14"></a><var>86.14</var>the requirements under section 245A.03, subdivision 6a, paragraph (b). This certification <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.15"></a><var>86.15</var>is voluntary for license holders. The certification shall be printed on the license and <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.16"></a><var>86.16</var>identified on the commissioner's public Web site.<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.17"></a><var>86.17</var>(b) The requirements for certification are:<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.18"></a><var>86.18</var>(1) all staff have received at least seven hours of annual training covering all of <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.19"></a><var>86.19</var>the following topics:<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.20"></a><var>86.20</var>(i) mental health diagnoses;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.21"></a><var>86.21</var>(ii) mental health crisis response and de-escalation techniques;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.22"></a><var>86.22</var>(iii) recovery from mental illness;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.23"></a><var>86.23</var>(iv) treatment options, including evidence-based practices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.24"></a><var>86.24</var>(v) medications and their side effects;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.25"></a><var>86.25</var>(vi) co-occurring substance abuse and health conditions; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.26"></a><var>86.26</var>(vii) community resources;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.27"></a><var>86.27</var>(2) a mental health professional, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245.462, subdivision 18</statute_ref>, or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.28"></a><var>86.28</var>mental health practitioner as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245.462, subdivision 17</statute_ref>, is available <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.29"></a><var>86.29</var>for consultation and assistance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.30"></a><var>86.30</var>(3) there is a plan and protocol in place to address a mental health crisis; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.31"></a><var>86.31</var>(4) each person's individual service and support plan identifies who is providing <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.32"></a><var>86.32</var>clinical services and their contact information, and includes an individual crisis prevention <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.33"></a><var>86.33</var>and management plan developed with the person.<br />
         		<a id="pl.86.34"></a><var>86.34</var>(c) (b) License holders seeking certification under this section must request this <br />
         		<a id="pl.86.35"></a><var>86.35</var>certification on forms and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.1"></a><var>87.1</var>(d) (c) If the commissioner finds that the license holder has failed to comply with <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.2"></a><var>87.2</var>the certification requirements under section 245A.03, subdivision 6a, paragraph (b), <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.3"></a><var>87.3</var>the commissioner may issue a correction order and an order of conditional license in <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.4"></a><var>87.4</var>accordance with section 
         <statute_ref>245A.06</statute_ref> or may issue a sanction in accordance with section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.87.5"></a><var>87.5</var>245A.07
         </statute_ref>, including and up to removal of the certification.<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.6"></a><var>87.6</var>(e) (d) A denial of the certification or the removal of the certification based on a <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.7"></a><var>87.7</var>determination that the requirements under section 245A.03, subdivision 6a, paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.8"></a><var>87.8</var>(b), have not been met is not subject to appeal. A license holder that has been denied a <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.9"></a><var>87.9</var>certification or that has had a certification removed may again request certification when <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.10"></a><var>87.10</var>the license holder is in compliance with the requirements of section 245A.03, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.11"></a><var>87.11</var>6a, paragraph (b).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.3.0"></a><a id="pl.87.12"></a><var>87.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 253B.092, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.13"></a><var>87.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Administration without judicial review.</b> Neuroleptic medications may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.14"></a><var>87.14</var>administered without judicial review in the following circumstances:<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.15"></a><var>87.15</var>(1) the patient has the capacity to make an informed decision under subdivision 4;<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.16"></a><var>87.16</var>(2) the patient does not have the present capacity to consent to the administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.17"></a><var>87.17</var>of neuroleptic medication, but prepared a health care directive under chapter 145C or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.18"></a><var>87.18</var>declaration under section 
         <statute_ref>253B.03, subdivision 6d</statute_ref>, requesting treatment or authorizing an <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.19"></a><var>87.19</var>agent or proxy to request treatment, and the agent or proxy has requested the treatment;<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.20"></a><var>87.20</var>(3) the patient has been prescribed neuroleptic medication prior to admission to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.21"></a><var>87.21</var>treatment facility, but lacks the capacity to consent to the administration of that neuroleptic <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.22"></a><var>87.22</var>medication; continued administration of the medication is in the patient's best interest; <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.23"></a><var>87.23</var>and the patient does not refuse administration of the medication. In this situation, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.24"></a><var>87.24</var>previously prescribed neuroleptic medication may be continued for up to 14 days while <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.25"></a><var>87.25</var>the treating physician:<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.26"></a><var>87.26</var>(i) is obtaining a substitute decision-maker appointed by the court under subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.27"></a><var>87.27</var>6; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.28"></a><var>87.28</var>(ii) is requesting an amendment to a current court order authorizing administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.29"></a><var>87.29</var>of neuroleptic medication;<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.30"></a><var>87.30</var>(4) a substitute decision-maker appointed by the court consents to the administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.31"></a><var>87.31</var>of the neuroleptic medication and the patient does not refuse administration of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.32"></a><var>87.32</var>medication; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.87.33"></a><var>87.33</var>(4) (5) the substitute decision-maker does not consent or the patient is refusing <br />
         		<a id="pl.87.34"></a><var>87.34</var>medication, and the patient is in an emergency situation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.4.0"></a><a id="pl.88.1"></a><var>88.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 254B.01, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.2"></a><var>88.2</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.3"></a><var>88.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Culturally specific program.</b> (a) "Culturally specific program" means a <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.4"></a><var>88.4</var>substance use disorder treatment service program that is recovery-focused and culturally <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.5"></a><var>88.5</var>specific when the program:<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.6"></a><var>88.6</var>(1) improves service quality to and outcomes of a specific population by advancing <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.7"></a><var>88.7</var>health equity to help eliminate health disparities; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.8"></a><var>88.8</var>(2) ensures effective, equitable, comprehensive, and respectful quality care services <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.9"></a><var>88.9</var>that are responsive to an individual within a specific population's values, beliefs and <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.10"></a><var>88.10</var>practices, health literacy, preferred language, and other communication needs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.11"></a><var>88.11</var>(b) A tribally licensed substance use disorder program that is designated as serving <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.12"></a><var>88.12</var>a culturally specific population by the applicable tribal government is deemed to satisfy <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.13"></a><var>88.13</var>this subdivision.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.5.0"></a><a id="pl.88.14"></a><var>88.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 254B.05, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.15"></a><var>88.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Rate requirements.</b> (a) The commissioner shall establish rates for <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.16"></a><var>88.16</var>chemical dependency services and service enhancements funded under this chapter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.17"></a><var>88.17</var>(b) Eligible chemical dependency treatment services include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.18"></a><var>88.18</var>(1) outpatient treatment services that are licensed according to Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.19"></a><var>88.19</var>parts 9530.6405 to 9530.6480, or applicable tribal license;<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.20"></a><var>88.20</var>(2) medication-assisted therapy services that are licensed according to Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.21"></a><var>88.21</var>Rules, parts 9530.6405 to 9530.6480 and 9530.6500, or applicable tribal license;<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.22"></a><var>88.22</var>(3) medication-assisted therapy plus enhanced treatment services that meet the <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.23"></a><var>88.23</var>requirements of clause (2) and provide nine hours of clinical services each week;<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.24"></a><var>88.24</var>(4) high, medium, and low intensity residential treatment services that are licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.25"></a><var>88.25</var>according to Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6405 to 9530.6480 and 9530.6505, or applicable <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.26"></a><var>88.26</var>tribal license which provide, respectively, 30, 15, and five hours of clinical services each <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.27"></a><var>88.27</var>week;<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.28"></a><var>88.28</var>(5) hospital-based treatment services that are licensed according to Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.29"></a><var>88.29</var>parts 9530.6405 to 9530.6480, or applicable tribal license and licensed as a hospital under <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.30"></a><var>88.30</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.56</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.31"></a><var>88.31</var>(6) adolescent treatment programs that are licensed as outpatient treatment programs <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.32"></a><var>88.32</var>according to Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6405 to 9530.6485, or as residential treatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.33"></a><var>88.33</var>programs according to Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, or applicable tribal license; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.88.34"></a><var>88.34</var>(7) room and board facilities that meet the requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>254B.05</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.88.35"></a><var>88.35</var>subdivision 1a.<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.1"></a><var>89.1</var>(c) The commissioner shall establish higher rates for programs that meet the <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.2"></a><var>89.2</var>requirements of paragraph (b) and the following additional requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.3"></a><var>89.3</var>(1) programs that serve parents with their children if the program meets the <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.4"></a><var>89.4</var>additional licensing requirement in Minnesota Rules, part 9530.6490, and provides child <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.5"></a><var>89.5</var>care that meets the requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>245A.03, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, during hours of <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.6"></a><var>89.6</var>treatment activity;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.7"></a><var>89.7</var>(2) culturally specific programs serving special populations as defined in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.8"></a><var>89.8</var>254B.01, subdivision 8, if the program meets the requirements in Minnesota Rules, part <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.9"></a><var>89.9</var>9530.6605, subpart 13;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.10"></a><var>89.10</var>(3) programs that offer medical services delivered by appropriately credentialed <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.11"></a><var>89.11</var>health care staff in an amount equal to two hours per client per week; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.12"></a><var>89.12</var>(4) programs that offer services to individuals with co-occurring mental health and <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.13"></a><var>89.13</var>chemical dependency problems if:<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.14"></a><var>89.14</var>(i) the program meets the co-occurring requirements in Minnesota Rules, part <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.15"></a><var>89.15</var>9530.6495;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.16"></a><var>89.16</var>(ii) 25 percent of the counseling staff are mental health professionals, as defined in <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.17"></a><var>89.17</var>section 
         <statute_ref>245.462, subdivision 18</statute_ref>, clauses (1) to (6), or are students or licensing candidates <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.18"></a><var>89.18</var>under the supervision of a licensed alcohol and drug counselor supervisor and licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.19"></a><var>89.19</var>mental health professional, except that no more than 50 percent of the mental health staff <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.20"></a><var>89.20</var>may be students or licensing candidates;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.21"></a><var>89.21</var>(iii) clients scoring positive on a standardized mental health screen receive a mental <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.22"></a><var>89.22</var>health diagnostic assessment within ten days of admission;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.23"></a><var>89.23</var>(iv) the program has standards for multidisciplinary case review that include a <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.24"></a><var>89.24</var>monthly review for each client;<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.25"></a><var>89.25</var>(v) family education is offered that addresses mental health and substance abuse <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.26"></a><var>89.26</var>disorders and the interaction between the two; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.27"></a><var>89.27</var>(vi) co-occurring counseling staff will receive eight hours of co-occurring disorder <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.28"></a><var>89.28</var>training annually.<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.29"></a><var>89.29</var>(d) Adolescent residential programs that meet the requirements of Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.30"></a><var>89.30</var>parts 2960.0580 to 2960.0700, are exempt from the requirements in paragraph (c), clause <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.31"></a><var>89.31</var>(4), items (i) to (iv).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.6.0"></a><a id="pl.89.32"></a><var>89.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 260C.157, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.89.33"></a><var>89.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Juvenile treatment screening team.</b> (a) The responsible social services <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.34"></a><var>89.34</var>agency shall establish a juvenile treatment screening team to conduct screenings and <br />
         		<a id="pl.89.35"></a><var>89.35</var>prepare case plans under this chapter, chapter 260D, and section 
         <statute_ref>245.487</statute_ref>, subdivision 3. <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.1"></a><var>90.1</var>Screenings shall be conducted within 15 days of a request for a screening, provided that if <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.2"></a><var>90.2</var>the screening is for the purpose of placement in mental health residential treatment and the <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.3"></a><var>90.3</var>child is enrolled in a prepaid health program under section 256B.69, the screening must <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.4"></a><var>90.4</var>be conducted within ten working days of a request. The team, which may be the team <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.5"></a><var>90.5</var>constituted under section 
         <statute_ref>245.4885</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>256B.092</statute_ref> or Minnesota Rules, parts 9530.6600 <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.6"></a><var>90.6</var>to 9530.6655, shall consist of social workers, juvenile justice professionals, persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.7"></a><var>90.7</var>with expertise in the treatment of juveniles who are emotionally disabled, chemically <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.8"></a><var>90.8</var>dependent, or have a developmental disability, and the child's parent, guardian, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.9"></a><var>90.9</var>permanent legal custodian under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 
         <statute_ref>260C.201, subdivision <br />
            		<a id="pl.90.10"></a><var>90.10</var>11
         </statute_ref>, or section 
         <statute_ref>260C.515, subdivision 4</statute_ref>. The team may be the same team as defined in <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.11"></a><var>90.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>260B.157, subdivision 3</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.90.12"></a><var>90.12</var>(b) The social services agency shall determine whether a child brought to its <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.13"></a><var>90.13</var>attention for the purposes described in this section is an Indian child, as defined in section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.90.14"></a><var>90.14</var>260C.007, subdivision 21
         </statute_ref>, and shall determine the identity of the Indian child's tribe, as <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.15"></a><var>90.15</var>defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260.755, subdivision 9</statute_ref>. When a child to be evaluated is an Indian child, <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.16"></a><var>90.16</var>the team provided in paragraph (a) shall include a designated representative of the Indian <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.17"></a><var>90.17</var>child's tribe, unless the child's tribal authority declines to appoint a representative. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.18"></a><var>90.18</var>Indian child's tribe may delegate its authority to represent the child to any other federally <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.19"></a><var>90.19</var>recognized Indian tribe, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260.755, subdivision 12</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.90.20"></a><var>90.20</var>(c) If the court, prior to, or as part of, a final disposition, proposes to place a child:<br />
         		<a id="pl.90.21"></a><var>90.21</var>(1) for the primary purpose of treatment for an emotional disturbance, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.22"></a><var>90.22</var>developmental disability, or chemical dependency in a residential treatment facility out <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.23"></a><var>90.23</var>of state or in one which is within the state and licensed by the commissioner of human <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.24"></a><var>90.24</var>services under chapter 245A; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.90.25"></a><var>90.25</var>(2) in any out-of-home setting potentially exceeding 30 days in duration, including a <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.26"></a><var>90.26</var>postdispositional placement in a facility licensed by the commissioner of corrections or <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.27"></a><var>90.27</var>human services, the court shall ascertain whether the child is an Indian child and shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.28"></a><var>90.28</var>notify the county welfare agency and, if the child is an Indian child, shall notify the Indian <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.29"></a><var>90.29</var>child's tribe. The county's juvenile treatment screening team must either: (i) screen and <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.30"></a><var>90.30</var>evaluate the child and file its recommendations with the court within 14 days of receipt <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.31"></a><var>90.31</var>of the notice; or (ii) elect not to screen a given case and notify the court of that decision <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.32"></a><var>90.32</var>within three working days.<br />
         		<a id="pl.90.33"></a><var>90.33</var>(d) The child may not be placed for the primary purpose of treatment for an <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.34"></a><var>90.34</var>emotional disturbance, a developmental disability, or chemical dependency, in a residential <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.35"></a><var>90.35</var>treatment facility out of state nor in a residential treatment facility within the state that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.90.36"></a><var>90.36</var>licensed under chapter 245A, unless one of the following conditions applies:<br />
         		<a id="pl.91.1"></a><var>91.1</var>(1) a treatment professional certifies that an emergency requires the placement <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.2"></a><var>91.2</var>of the child in a facility within the state;<br />
         		<a id="pl.91.3"></a><var>91.3</var>(2) the screening team has evaluated the child and recommended that a residential <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.4"></a><var>91.4</var>placement is necessary to meet the child's treatment needs and the safety needs of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.5"></a><var>91.5</var>community, that it is a cost-effective means of meeting the treatment needs, and that it <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.6"></a><var>91.6</var>will be of therapeutic value to the child; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.91.7"></a><var>91.7</var>(3) the court, having reviewed a screening team recommendation against placement, <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.8"></a><var>91.8</var>determines to the contrary that a residential placement is necessary. The court shall state <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.9"></a><var>91.9</var>the reasons for its determination in writing, on the record, and shall respond specifically <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.10"></a><var>91.10</var>to the findings and recommendation of the screening team in explaining why the <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.11"></a><var>91.11</var>recommendation was rejected. The attorney representing the child and the prosecuting <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.12"></a><var>91.12</var>attorney shall be afforded an opportunity to be heard on the matter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.91.13"></a><var>91.13</var>(e) When the county's juvenile treatment screening team has elected to screen and <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.14"></a><var>91.14</var>evaluate a child determined to be an Indian child, the team shall provide notice to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.15"></a><var>91.15</var>tribe or tribes that accept jurisdiction for the Indian child or that recognize the child as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.16"></a><var>91.16</var>member of the tribe or as a person eligible for membership in the tribe, and permit the <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.17"></a><var>91.17</var>tribe's representative to participate in the screening team.<br />
         		<a id="pl.91.18"></a><var>91.18</var>(f) When the Indian child's tribe or tribal health care services provider or Indian <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.19"></a><var>91.19</var>Health Services provider proposes to place a child for the primary purpose of treatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.20"></a><var>91.20</var>for an emotional disturbance, a developmental disability, or co-occurring emotional <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.21"></a><var>91.21</var>disturbance and chemical dependency, the Indian child's tribe or the tribe delegated by <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.22"></a><var>91.22</var>the child's tribe shall submit necessary documentation to the county juvenile treatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.23"></a><var>91.23</var>screening team, which must invite the Indian child's tribe to designate a representative to <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.24"></a><var>91.24</var>the screening team.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.7.7.0"></a><a id="pl.91.25"></a><var>91.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. <b>PILOT PROGRAM; NOTICE AND INFORMATION TO </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.91.26"></a><var>91.26</var><b>COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN SERVICES REGARDING PATIENTS </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.91.27"></a><var>91.27</var><b>COMMITTED TO COMMISSIONER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.91.28"></a><var>91.28</var>The commissioner of human services may create a pilot program that is designed to <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.29"></a><var>91.29</var>respond to issues raised in the February 2013 Office of the Legislative Auditor report on <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.30"></a><var>91.30</var>state-operated services. The pilot program may include no more than three counties to <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.31"></a><var>91.31</var>test the efficacy of providing notice and information to the commissioner when a petition <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.32"></a><var>91.32</var>is filed to commit a patient exclusively to the commissioner. The commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.33"></a><var>91.33</var>provide a status update to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.34"></a><var>91.34</var>committees with jurisdiction over civil commitment and human services issues, no later <br />
         		<a id="pl.91.35"></a><var>91.35</var>than January 15, 2015.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.92.1"></a><var>92.1</var><b>ARTICLE 8</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.92.2"></a><var>92.2</var><b>MISCELLANEOUS</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.8.1.0"></a><a id="pl.92.3"></a><var>92.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 144.413, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.92.4"></a><var>92.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Smoking.</b> "Smoking" means inhaling or exhaling smoke or vapor from <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.5"></a><var>92.5</var>any lighted or heated cigar, cigarette, pipe, or any other lighted or heated tobacco or <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.6"></a><var>92.6</var>plant product or electronic delivery device, as defined in section 609.685. Smoking also <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.7"></a><var>92.7</var>includes carrying holding a lighted or heated cigar, cigarette, pipe, or any other lighted or <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.8"></a><var>92.8</var>heated tobacco or plant product or electronic delivery device intended for inhalation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.2.0"></a><a id="pl.92.9"></a><var>92.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 144.4165, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.92.10"></a><var>92.10</var><b>144.4165 TOBACCO PRODUCTS PROHIBITED IN PUBLIC SCHOOLS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.92.11"></a><var>92.11</var>No person shall at any time smoke, chew, or otherwise ingest tobacco or a tobacco <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.12"></a><var>92.12</var>product, or inhale or exhale vapor from an electronic delivery device, in a public school, <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.13"></a><var>92.13</var>as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13</statute_ref>. This prohibition extends to all <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.14"></a><var>92.14</var>facilities, whether owned, rented, or leased, and all vehicles that a school district owns, <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.15"></a><var>92.15</var>leases, rents, contracts for, or controls. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the lighting of <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.16"></a><var>92.16</var>tobacco by an adult as a part of a traditional Indian spiritual or cultural ceremony. For <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.17"></a><var>92.17</var>purposes of this section, an Indian is a person who is a member of an Indian tribe as <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.18"></a><var>92.18</var>defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260.755 subdivision 12</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.3.0"></a><a id="pl.92.19"></a><var>92.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. <b>[145.7131] EXCEPTION TO EYEGLASS PRESCRIPTION </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.92.20"></a><var>92.20</var><b>EXPIRATION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.92.21"></a><var>92.21</var>Notwithstanding any practice to the contrary, in an emergency situation or in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.22"></a><var>92.22</var>case of lost glasses, an optometrist or physician may authorize a new pair of prescription <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.23"></a><var>92.23</var>eyeglasses using the prescription from the old lenses or the last prescription available.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.4.0"></a><a id="pl.92.24"></a><var>92.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. <b>[151.71] MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE COST PRICING.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.92.25"></a><var>92.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definition.</b> (a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.26"></a><var>92.26</var>apply.<br />
         		<a id="pl.92.27"></a><var>92.27</var>(b) "Health plan company" has the meaning provided in section 62Q.01, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.28"></a><var>92.28</var>4.<br />
         		<a id="pl.92.29"></a><var>92.29</var>(c) "Pharmacy benefit manager" means an entity doing business in this state that <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.30"></a><var>92.30</var>contracts to administer or manage prescription drug benefits on behalf of any health plan <br />
         		<a id="pl.92.31"></a><var>92.31</var>company that provides prescription drug benefits to residents of this state.<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.1"></a><var>93.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Pharmacy benefit manager contracts with pharmacies; maximum </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.93.2"></a><var>93.2</var><b>allowable cost pricing.</b> (a) In each contract between a pharmacy benefit manager and <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.3"></a><var>93.3</var>a pharmacy, the pharmacy shall be given the right to obtain from the pharmacy benefit <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.4"></a><var>93.4</var>manager a current list of the sources used to determine maximum allowable cost pricing. <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.5"></a><var>93.5</var>The pharmacy benefit manager shall update the pricing information at least every seven <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.6"></a><var>93.6</var>business days and provide a means by which contracted pharmacies may promptly review <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.7"></a><var>93.7</var>current prices in an electronic, print, or telephonic format within one business day at no <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.8"></a><var>93.8</var>cost to the pharmacy. A pharmacy benefit manager shall maintain a procedure to eliminate <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.9"></a><var>93.9</var>products from the list of drugs subject to maximum allowable cost pricing in a timely <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.10"></a><var>93.10</var>manner in order to remain consistent with changes in the marketplace.<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.11"></a><var>93.11</var>(b) In order to place a prescription drug on a maximum allowable cost list, a <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.12"></a><var>93.12</var>pharmacy benefit manager shall ensure that the drug is generally available for purchase by <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.13"></a><var>93.13</var>pharmacies in this state from a national or regional wholesaler and is not obsolete.<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.14"></a><var>93.14</var>(c) Each contract between a pharmacy benefit manager and a pharmacy must include <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.15"></a><var>93.15</var>a process to appeal, investigate, and resolve disputes regarding maximum allowable cost <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.16"></a><var>93.16</var>pricing that includes:<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.17"></a><var>93.17</var>(1) a 15-business day limit on the right to appeal following the initial claim;<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.18"></a><var>93.18</var>(2) a requirement that the appeal be investigated and resolved within seven business <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.19"></a><var>93.19</var>days after the appeal is received; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.20"></a><var>93.20</var>(3) a requirement that a pharmacy benefit manager provide a reason for any appeal <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.21"></a><var>93.21</var>denial and identify the national drug code of a drug that may be purchased by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.22"></a><var>93.22</var>pharmacy at a price at or below the maximum allowable cost price as determined by <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.23"></a><var>93.23</var>the pharmacy benefit manager.<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.24"></a><var>93.24</var>(d) If an appeal is upheld, the pharmacy benefit manager shall  make an adjustment <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.25"></a><var>93.25</var>to the maximum allowable cost price no later than one business day after the date of <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.26"></a><var>93.26</var>determination. The pharmacy benefit manager shall make the price adjustment applicable <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.27"></a><var>93.27</var>to all similarly situated network pharmacy providers as defined by the plan sponsor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.28"></a><var>93.28</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2015.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.5.0"></a><a id="pl.93.29"></a><var>93.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 254A.035, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.30"></a><var>93.30</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.93.31"></a><var>93.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Membership terms, compensation, removal and expiration.</b> The <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.32"></a><var>93.32</var>membership of this council shall be composed of 17 persons who are American Indians <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.33"></a><var>93.33</var>and who are appointed by the commissioner. The commissioner shall appoint one <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.34"></a><var>93.34</var>representative from each of the following groups: Red Lake Band of Chippewa Indians; <br />
         		<a id="pl.93.35"></a><var>93.35</var>Fond du Lac Band, Minnesota Chippewa Tribe; Grand Portage Band, Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.1"></a><var>94.1</var>Chippewa Tribe; Leech Lake Band, Minnesota Chippewa Tribe; Mille Lacs Band, <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.2"></a><var>94.2</var>Minnesota Chippewa Tribe; Bois Forte Band, Minnesota Chippewa Tribe; White Earth <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.3"></a><var>94.3</var>Band, Minnesota Chippewa Tribe; Lower Sioux Indian Reservation; Prairie Island Sioux <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.4"></a><var>94.4</var>Indian Reservation; Shakopee Mdewakanton Sioux Indian Reservation; Upper Sioux <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.5"></a><var>94.5</var>Indian Reservation; International Falls Northern Range; Duluth Urban Indian Community; <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.6"></a><var>94.6</var>and two representatives from the Minneapolis Urban Indian Community and two from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.7"></a><var>94.7</var>St. Paul Urban Indian Community. The terms, compensation, and removal of American <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.8"></a><var>94.8</var>Indian Advisory Council members shall be as provided in section 
         <statute_ref>15.059</statute_ref>. Notwithstanding <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.9"></a><var>94.9</var>section 15.059, subdivision 5, the council expires June 30, 2014 does not expire.<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.10"></a><var>94.10</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.6.0"></a><a id="pl.94.11"></a><var>94.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 254A.04, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.12"></a><var>94.12</var><b>254A.04 CITIZENS ADVISORY COUNCIL.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.94.13"></a><var>94.13</var>There is hereby created an Alcohol and Other Drug Abuse Advisory Council to <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.14"></a><var>94.14</var>advise the Department of Human Services concerning the problems of alcohol and <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.15"></a><var>94.15</var>other drug dependency and abuse, composed of ten members. Five members shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.16"></a><var>94.16</var>individuals whose interests or training are in the field of alcohol dependency and abuse; <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.17"></a><var>94.17</var>and five members whose interests or training are in the field of dependency and abuse of <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.18"></a><var>94.18</var>drugs other than alcohol. The terms, compensation and removal of members shall be as <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.19"></a><var>94.19</var>provided in section 
         <statute_ref>15.059</statute_ref>. Notwithstanding section 15.059, subdivision 5, the council <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.20"></a><var>94.20</var>expires June 30, 2014 does not expire. The commissioner of human services shall appoint <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.21"></a><var>94.21</var>members whose terms end in even-numbered years. The commissioner of health shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.22"></a><var>94.22</var>appoint members whose terms end in odd-numbered years.<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.23"></a><var>94.23</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.7.0"></a><a id="pl.94.24"></a><var>94.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 256B.093, subdivision 1, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.25"></a><var>94.25</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.26"></a><var>94.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>State traumatic brain injury program.</b> (a) The commissioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.27"></a><var>94.27</var>of human services shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.28"></a><var>94.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) maintain a statewide traumatic brain injury program;<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.29"></a><var>94.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) supervise and coordinate services and policies for persons with traumatic brain <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.30"></a><var>94.30</var>injuries;<br />
         		<a id="pl.94.31"></a><var>94.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) contract with qualified agencies or employ staff to provide statewide <br />
         		<a id="pl.94.32"></a><var>94.32</var>administrative case management and consultation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.1"></a><var>95.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) maintain an advisory committee to provide recommendations in reports to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.2"></a><var>95.2</var>commissioner regarding program and service needs of persons with brain injuries;<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.3"></a><var>95.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) investigate the need for the development of rules or statutes for the brain injury <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.4"></a><var>95.4</var>home and community-based services waiver; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.5"></a><var>95.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) investigate present and potential models of service coordination which can be <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.6"></a><var>95.6</var>delivered at the local level; and.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.7"></a><var>95.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) (b) The advisory committee required by paragraph (a), clause (4), must consist <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.8"></a><var>95.8</var>of no fewer than ten members and no more than 30 members. The commissioner shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.9"></a><var>95.9</var>appoint all advisory committee members to one- or two-year terms and appoint one <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.10"></a><var>95.10</var>member as chair. Notwithstanding section 
         <statute_ref>15.059, subdivision 5</statute_ref>, the advisory committee <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.11"></a><var>95.11</var>does not terminate until June 30, 2014 expire.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.12"></a><var>95.12</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.8.0"></a><a id="pl.95.13"></a><var>95.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 260.835, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.14"></a><var>95.14</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.15"></a><var>95.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Expiration.</b> Notwithstanding section 
         <statute_ref>15.059, subdivision 5</statute_ref>, the American <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.16"></a><var>95.16</var>Indian Child Welfare Advisory Council expires June 30, 2014 does not expire.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.17"></a><var>95.17</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.9.0"></a><a id="pl.95.18"></a><var>95.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 325H.05, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.19"></a><var>95.19</var><b>325H.05 POSTED WARNING REQUIRED.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.95.20"></a><var>95.20</var>(a) The facility owner or operator shall conspicuously post the warning sign signs<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.21"></a><var>95.21</var> described in paragraph paragraphs (b) and (c) within three feet of each tanning station. <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.22"></a><var>95.22</var>The sign must be clearly visible, not obstructed by any barrier, equipment, or other object, <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.23"></a><var>95.23</var>and must be posted so that it can be easily viewed by the consumer before energizing the <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.24"></a><var>95.24</var>tanning equipment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.25"></a><var>95.25</var>(b) The warning sign required in paragraph (a) shall have dimensions not less than <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.26"></a><var>95.26</var>eight inches by ten inches, and must have the following wording:<br />
         		
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.95.27"></a><var>95.27</var>"DANGER - ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION<br />
            		
         </div><a id="pl.95.28"></a><var>95.28</var>-Follow instructions.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.29"></a><var>95.29</var>-Avoid overexposure. As with natural sunlight, overexposure can cause eye and skin <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.30"></a><var>95.30</var>injury and allergic reactions. Repeated exposure may cause premature aging <br />
         		<a id="pl.95.31"></a><var>95.31</var>of the skin and skin cancer.<br />
         		<a id="pl.95.32"></a><var>95.32</var>-Wear protective eyewear.<br />
         		
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.95.33"></a><var>95.33</var>FAILURE TO USE PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR MAY RESULT<br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.96.1"></a><var>96.1</var>IN SEVERE BURNS OR LONG-TERM INJURY TO THE EYES.<br />
            		
         </div><a id="pl.96.2"></a><var>96.2</var>-Medications or cosmetics may increase your sensitivity to the ultraviolet radiation. <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.3"></a><var>96.3</var>Consult a physician before using sunlamp or tanning equipment if you are <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.4"></a><var>96.4</var>using medications or have a history of skin problems or believe yourself to be <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.5"></a><var>96.5</var>especially sensitive to sunlight."<br />
         		<a id="pl.96.6"></a><var>96.6</var>(c) All tanning facilities must prominently display a sign in a conspicuous place, <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.7"></a><var>96.7</var>at the point of sale, that states it is unlawful for a tanning facility or operator to allow a <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.8"></a><var>96.8</var>person under age 18 to use any tanning equipment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.10.0"></a><a id="pl.96.9"></a><var>96.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. <b>[325H.085] USE BY MINORS PROHIBITED.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.96.10"></a><var>96.10</var>A person under age 18 may not use any type of tanning equipment as defined by <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.11"></a><var>96.11</var>section 325H.01, subdivision 6, available in a tanning facility in this state.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.11.0"></a><a id="pl.96.12"></a><var>96.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 325H.09, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.96.13"></a><var>96.13</var><b>325H.09 PENALTY.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.96.14"></a><var>96.14</var>Any person who leases tanning equipment or who owns a tanning facility and who <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.15"></a><var>96.15</var>operates or permits the equipment or facility to be operated in noncompliance with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.16"></a><var>96.16</var>requirements of sections 
         <statute_ref>325H.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>325H.08</statute_ref> 325H.085 is guilty of a petty misdemeanor<br />
         		<a id="pl.96.17"></a><var>96.17</var> and shall be subject to a penalty of not less than $150 for the first violation and not more <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.18"></a><var>96.18</var>than $300 for each subsequent violation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.12.0"></a><a id="pl.96.19"></a><var>96.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 393.01, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.96.20"></a><var>96.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Selection of members, terms, vacancies.</b> Except in counties which <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.21"></a><var>96.21</var>contain a city of the first class and counties having a poor and hospital commission, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.22"></a><var>96.22</var>local social services agency shall consist of seven members, including the board of county <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.23"></a><var>96.23</var>commissioners, to be selected as herein provided; two members, one of whom shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.24"></a><var>96.24</var>a woman, shall be appointed by the commissioner of human services board of county <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.25"></a><var>96.25</var>commissioners, one each year for a full term of two years, from a list of residents, submitted <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.26"></a><var>96.26</var>by the board of county commissioners. As each term expires or a vacancy occurs by reason <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.27"></a><var>96.27</var>of death or resignation, a successor shall be appointed by the commissioner of human <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.28"></a><var>96.28</var>services board of county commissioners for the full term of two years or the balance of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.29"></a><var>96.29</var>unexpired term from a list of one or more, not to exceed three residents submitted by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.30"></a><var>96.30</var>board of county commissioners. The board of county commissioners may, by resolution <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.31"></a><var>96.31</var>adopted by a majority of the board, determine that only three of their members shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.32"></a><var>96.32</var>members of the local social services agency, in which event the local social services agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.96.33"></a><var>96.33</var>shall consist of five members instead of seven. When a vacancy occurs on the local social <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.1"></a><var>97.1</var>services agency by reason of the death, resignation, or expiration of the term of office of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.2"></a><var>97.2</var>member of the board of county commissioners, the unexpired term of such member shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.3"></a><var>97.3</var>be filled by appointment by the county commissioners. Except to fill a vacancy the term <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.4"></a><var>97.4</var>of office of each member of the local social services agency shall commence on the first <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.5"></a><var>97.5</var>Thursday after the first Monday in July, and continue until the expiration of the term <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.6"></a><var>97.6</var>for which such member was appointed or until a successor is appointed and qualifies. <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.7"></a><var>97.7</var>If the board of county commissioners shall refuse, fail, omit, or neglect to submit one <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.8"></a><var>97.8</var>or more nominees to the commissioner of human services for appointment to the local <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.9"></a><var>97.9</var>social services agency by the commissioner of human services, as herein provided, or to <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.10"></a><var>97.10</var>appoint the three members to the local social services agency, as herein provided, by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.11"></a><var>97.11</var>time when the terms of such members commence, or, in the event of vacancies, for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.12"></a><var>97.12</var>period of 30 days thereafter, the commissioner of human services is hereby empowered <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.13"></a><var>97.13</var>to and shall forthwith appoint residents of the county to the local social services agency. <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.14"></a><var>97.14</var>The commissioner of human services, on refusing to appoint a nominee from the list of <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.15"></a><var>97.15</var>nominees submitted by the board of county commissioners, shall notify the county board <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.16"></a><var>97.16</var>of such refusal. The county board shall thereupon nominate additional nominees. Before <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.17"></a><var>97.17</var>the commissioner of human services shall fill any vacancy hereunder resulting from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.18"></a><var>97.18</var>failure or refusal of the board of county commissioners of any county to act, as required <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.19"></a><var>97.19</var>herein, the commissioner of human services shall mail 15 days' written notice to the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.20"></a><var>97.20</var>of county commissioners of its intention to fill such vacancy or vacancies unless the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.21"></a><var>97.21</var>of county commissioners shall act before the expiration of the 15-day period.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.13.0"></a><a id="pl.97.22"></a><var>97.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 393.01, subdivision 7, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.97.23"></a><var>97.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Joint exercise of powers.</b> Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1 <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.24"></a><var>97.24</var>two or more counties may by resolution of their respective boards of county commissioners, <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.25"></a><var>97.25</var>agree to combine the functions of their separate local social services agency into one local <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.26"></a><var>97.26</var>social services agency to serve the two or more counties that enter into the agreement. <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.27"></a><var>97.27</var>Such agreement may be for a definite term or until terminated in accordance with its terms. <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.28"></a><var>97.28</var>When two or more counties have agreed to combine the functions of their separate local <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.29"></a><var>97.29</var>social services agency, a single local social services agency in lieu of existing individual <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.30"></a><var>97.30</var>local social services agency shall be established to direct the activities of the combined <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.31"></a><var>97.31</var>agency. This agency shall have the same powers, duties and functions as an individual local <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.32"></a><var>97.32</var>social services agency. The single local social services agency shall have representation <br />
         		<a id="pl.97.33"></a><var>97.33</var>from each of the participating counties with selection of the members to be as follows:<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.1"></a><var>98.1</var>(a) Each board of county commissioners entering into the agreement shall on an <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.2"></a><var>98.2</var>annual basis select one or two of its members to serve on the single local social services <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.3"></a><var>98.3</var>agency.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.4"></a><var>98.4</var>(b) Each board of county commissioners entering into the agreement shall in <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.5"></a><var>98.5</var>accordance with procedures established by the commissioner of human services, submit a <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.6"></a><var>98.6</var>list of names of three county residents, who shall not be county commissioners, to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.7"></a><var>98.7</var>commissioner of human services. The commissioner shall select one person from each <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.8"></a><var>98.8</var>county list county resident who is not a county commissioner to serve as a local social <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.9"></a><var>98.9</var>services agency member.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.10"></a><var>98.10</var>(c) The composition of the agency may be determined by the boards of county <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.11"></a><var>98.11</var>commissioners entering into the agreement providing that no less than one-third of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.12"></a><var>98.12</var>members are appointed as provided in clause (b).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.14.0"></a><a id="pl.98.13"></a><var>98.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. <b>[403.51] AUTOMATIC EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATION; </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.98.14"></a><var>98.14</var><b>REGISTRATION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.98.15"></a><var>98.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.16"></a><var>98.16</var>have the meanings given them.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.17"></a><var>98.17</var>(b) "Automatic external defibrillator" or "AED" means an electronic device designed <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.18"></a><var>98.18</var>and manufactured to operate automatically or semiautomatically for the purpose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.19"></a><var>98.19</var>delivering an electrical current to the heart of a person in sudden cardiac arrest.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.20"></a><var>98.20</var>(c) "AED registry" means a registry of AEDs that requires a maintenance program <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.21"></a><var>98.21</var>or package, and includes, but is not limited to: the Minnesota AED Registry, the National <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.22"></a><var>98.22</var>AED Registry, iRescU, or a manufacturer-specific program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.23"></a><var>98.23</var>(d) "Public Access AED" means an AED that is intended, by its markings or display, <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.24"></a><var>98.24</var>to be used or accessed by the public for the benefit of the general public that may be in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.25"></a><var>98.25</var>vicinity or location of that AED. It does not include an AED that is owned or used by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.26"></a><var>98.26</var>hospital, clinic, business, or organization that is intended to be used by staff and is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.27"></a><var>98.27</var>marked or displayed in a manner to encourage public access.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.28"></a><var>98.28</var>(e) "Maintenance program or package" means a program that will alert the AED <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.29"></a><var>98.29</var>owner when the AED has electrodes and batteries due to expire or replaces those expiring <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.30"></a><var>98.30</var>electrodes and batteries for the AED owner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.98.31"></a><var>98.31</var>(f) "Public safety agency" means local law enforcement, county sheriff, municipal <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.32"></a><var>98.32</var>police, tribal agencies, state law enforcement, fire departments, including municipal <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.33"></a><var>98.33</var>departments, industrial fire brigades, and nonprofit fire departments, joint powers agencies, <br />
         		<a id="pl.98.34"></a><var>98.34</var>and licensed ambulance services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.1"></a><var>99.1</var>(g) "Mobile AED" means an AED that (1) is purchased with the intent of being located <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.2"></a><var>99.2</var>in a vehicle, including, but not limited to, public safety agency vehicles; or (2) will not be <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.3"></a><var>99.3</var>placed in stationary storage, including, but not limited to, an AED used at an athletic event.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.4"></a><var>99.4</var>(h) "Private Use AED" means an AED that is not intended to be used or accessed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.5"></a><var>99.5</var>the public for the benefit of the general public. This may include, but is not limited to, <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.6"></a><var>99.6</var>AEDs found in private residences.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.7"></a><var>99.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Registration.</b> A person who purchases or obtains a Public Access AED <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.8"></a><var>99.8</var>shall register that device with an AED registry within 30 working days of receiving the <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.9"></a><var>99.9</var>AED.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.10"></a><var>99.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Required information.</b> A person registering a Public Access AED shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.11"></a><var>99.11</var>provide the following information for each AED:<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.12"></a><var>99.12</var>(1) AED manufacturer, model, and serial number;<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.13"></a><var>99.13</var>(2) specific location where the AED will be kept; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.14"></a><var>99.14</var>(3) the title, address, and telephone number of a person in management at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.15"></a><var>99.15</var>business or organization where the AED is located.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.16"></a><var>99.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Information changes.</b> The owner of a Public Access AED shall notify the <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.17"></a><var>99.17</var>owner's AED registry of any changes in the information that is required in the registration <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.18"></a><var>99.18</var>within 30 working days of the change occurring.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.19"></a><var>99.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Public Access AED requirements.</b> A Public Access AED:<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.20"></a><var>99.20</var>(1) may be inspected during regular business hours by a public safety agency with <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.21"></a><var>99.21</var>jurisdiction over the location of the AED;<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.22"></a><var>99.22</var>(2) must be kept in the location specified in the registration; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.23"></a><var>99.23</var>(3) must be reasonably maintained, including replacement of dead batteries and <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.24"></a><var>99.24</var>pads/electrodes, and comply with all manufacturer's recall and safety notices.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.25"></a><var>99.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Removal of AED.</b> An authorized agent of a public safety agency with <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.26"></a><var>99.26</var>jurisdiction over the location of the AED may direct the owner of a Public Access AED to <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.27"></a><var>99.27</var>comply with this section. The authorized agent of the public safety agency may direct <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.28"></a><var>99.28</var>the owner of the AED to remove the AED from its public access location and to remove <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.29"></a><var>99.29</var>or cover any public signs relating to that AED if it is determined that the AED is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.30"></a><var>99.30</var>ready for immediate use.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.31"></a><var>99.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Private Use AEDs.</b> The owner of a Private Use AED is not subject to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.32"></a><var>99.32</var>requirements of this section but is encouraged to maintain the AED in a consistent manner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.33"></a><var>99.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Mobile AEDs.</b> The owner of a Mobile AED is not subject to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.34"></a><var>99.34</var>requirements of this section but is encouraged to maintain the AED in a consistent manner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.99.35"></a><var>99.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Signs.</b> A person acquiring a Public Use AED is encouraged but is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.99.36"></a><var>99.36</var>required to post signs bearing the universal AED symbol in order to increase the ease of <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.1"></a><var>100.1</var>access by the public to the AED in the event of an emergency. A person may not post any <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.2"></a><var>100.2</var>AED sign or allow any AED sign to remain posted upon being ordered to remove or cover <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.3"></a><var>100.3</var>any AED signs by an authorized agent of a public safety agency.<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.4"></a><var>100.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Emergency response plans.</b> The owner of one or more Public Access <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.5"></a><var>100.5</var>AEDs shall develop an emergency response plan appropriate for the nature of the facility <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.6"></a><var>100.6</var>the AED is intended to serve.<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.7"></a><var>100.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Civil or criminal liability.</b> This section does not create any civil liability <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.8"></a><var>100.8</var>on the part of an AED owner or preclude civil liability under other law. Section 645.241 <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.9"></a><var>100.9</var>does not apply to this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.10"></a><var>100.10</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective August 1, 2014.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.15.0"></a><a id="pl.100.11"></a><var>100.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 461.12, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.12"></a><var>100.12</var><b>461.12 MUNICIPAL </b><b>TOBACCO</b><b> LICENSE</b><b> OF TOBACCO, </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.100.13"></a><var>100.13</var><b>TOBACCO-RELATED DEVICES, AND SIMILAR PRODUCTS</b><b>.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.100.14"></a><var>100.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Authorization.</b> A town board or the governing body of a home <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.15"></a><var>100.15</var>rule charter or statutory city may license and regulate the retail sale of tobacco and,<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.16"></a><var>100.16</var> tobacco-related devices, and electronic delivery devices as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>609.685, <br />
            		<a id="pl.100.17"></a><var>100.17</var>subdivision 1
         </statute_ref>, and nicotine and lobelia delivery products as described in section 609.6855, <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.18"></a><var>100.18</var>and establish a license fee for sales to recover the estimated cost of enforcing this chapter. <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.19"></a><var>100.19</var>The county board shall license and regulate the sale of tobacco and, tobacco-related <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.20"></a><var>100.20</var>devices, electronic delivery devices, and nicotine and lobelia products in unorganized <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.21"></a><var>100.21</var>territory of the county except on the State Fairgrounds and in a town or a home rule charter <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.22"></a><var>100.22</var>or statutory city if the town or city does not license and regulate retail sales of tobacco <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.23"></a><var>100.23</var>sales, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, and nicotine and lobelia <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.24"></a><var>100.24</var>delivery products. The State Agricultural Society shall license and regulate the sale of <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.25"></a><var>100.25</var>tobacco, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, and nicotine and lobelia <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.26"></a><var>100.26</var>delivery products on the State Fairgrounds. Retail establishments licensed by a town or <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.27"></a><var>100.27</var>city to sell tobacco, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, and nicotine and <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.28"></a><var>100.28</var>lobelia delivery products are not required to obtain a second license for the same location <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.29"></a><var>100.29</var>under the licensing ordinance of the county.<br />
         		<a id="pl.100.30"></a><var>100.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Administrative penalties; licensees.</b> If a licensee or employee of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.31"></a><var>100.31</var>licensee sells tobacco or, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, or nicotine <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.32"></a><var>100.32</var>or lobelia delivery products to a person under the age of 18 years, or violates any other <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.33"></a><var>100.33</var>provision of this chapter, the licensee shall be charged an administrative penalty of $75. <br />
         		<a id="pl.100.34"></a><var>100.34</var>An administrative penalty of $200 must be imposed for a second violation at the same <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.1"></a><var>101.1</var>location within 24 months after the initial violation. For a third violation at the same <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.2"></a><var>101.2</var>location within 24 months after the initial violation, an administrative penalty of $250 <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.3"></a><var>101.3</var>must be imposed, and the licensee's authority to sell tobacco, tobacco-related devices, <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.4"></a><var>101.4</var>electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products at that location must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.5"></a><var>101.5</var>suspended for not less than seven days. No suspension or penalty may take effect until the <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.6"></a><var>101.6</var>licensee has received notice, served personally or by mail, of the alleged violation and an <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.7"></a><var>101.7</var>opportunity for a hearing before a person authorized by the licensing authority to conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.8"></a><var>101.8</var>the hearing. A decision that a violation has occurred must be in writing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.101.9"></a><var>101.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Administrative penalty; individuals.</b> An individual who sells tobacco <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.10"></a><var>101.10</var>or, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.11"></a><var>101.11</var>products to a person under the age of 18 years must be charged an administrative penalty <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.12"></a><var>101.12</var>of $50. No penalty may be imposed until the individual has received notice, served <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.13"></a><var>101.13</var>personally or by mail, of the alleged violation and an opportunity for a hearing before a <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.14"></a><var>101.14</var>person authorized by the licensing authority to conduct the hearing. A decision that a <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.15"></a><var>101.15</var>violation has occurred must be in writing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.101.16"></a><var>101.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Minors.</b> The licensing authority shall consult with interested educators, <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.17"></a><var>101.17</var>parents, children, and representatives of the court system to develop alternative penalties <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.18"></a><var>101.18</var>for minors who purchase, possess, and consume tobacco or, tobacco-related devices, <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.19"></a><var>101.19</var>electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products. The licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.20"></a><var>101.20</var>authority and the interested persons shall consider a variety of options, including, but <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.21"></a><var>101.21</var>not limited to, tobacco free education programs, notice to schools, parents, community <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.22"></a><var>101.22</var>service, and other court diversion programs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.101.23"></a><var>101.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Compliance checks.</b> A licensing authority shall conduct unannounced <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.24"></a><var>101.24</var>compliance checks at least once each calendar year at each location where tobacco is, <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.25"></a><var>101.25</var>tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.26"></a><var>101.26</var>are sold to test compliance with section sections 609.685 and 609.6855. Compliance <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.27"></a><var>101.27</var>checks must involve minors over the age of 15, but under the age of 18, who, with the prior <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.28"></a><var>101.28</var>written consent of a parent or guardian, attempt to purchase tobacco or, tobacco-related <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.29"></a><var>101.29</var>devices, electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products under the <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.30"></a><var>101.30</var>direct supervision of a law enforcement officer or an employee of the licensing authority.<br />
         		<a id="pl.101.31"></a><var>101.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Defense.</b> It is an affirmative defense to the charge of selling tobacco <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.32"></a><var>101.32</var>or, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.33"></a><var>101.33</var>products to a person under the age of 18 years in violation of subdivision 2 or 3 that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.34"></a><var>101.34</var>licensee or individual making the sale relied in good faith upon proof of age as described <br />
         		<a id="pl.101.35"></a><var>101.35</var>in section 
         <statute_ref>340A.503, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.1"></a><var>102.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Judicial review.</b> Any person aggrieved by a decision under subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.2"></a><var>102.2</var>2 or 3 may have the decision reviewed in the district court in the same manner and <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.3"></a><var>102.3</var>procedure as provided in section 
         <statute_ref>462.361</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.4"></a><var>102.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Notice to commissioner.</b> The licensing authority under this section shall, <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.5"></a><var>102.5</var>within 30 days of the issuance of a license, inform the commissioner of revenue of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.6"></a><var>102.6</var>licensee's name, address, trade name, and the effective and expiration dates of the license. <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.7"></a><var>102.7</var>The commissioner of revenue must also be informed of a license renewal, transfer, <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.8"></a><var>102.8</var>cancellation, suspension, or revocation during the license period.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.16.0"></a><a id="pl.102.9"></a><var>102.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 461.18, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.10"></a><var>102.10</var><b>461.18 BAN ON SELF-SERVICE SALE OF PACKS; EXCEPTIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.102.11"></a><var>102.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Except in adult-only facilities.</b> (a) No person shall offer for sale <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.12"></a><var>102.12</var>tobacco or tobacco-related devices, or electronic delivery devices as defined in section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.102.13"></a><var>102.13</var>609.685, subdivision 1
         </statute_ref>, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products as described in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.14"></a><var>102.14</var>609.6855, in open displays which are accessible to the public without the intervention <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.15"></a><var>102.15</var>of a store employee.<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.16"></a><var>102.16</var>(b) [Expired August 28, 1997]<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.17"></a><var>102.17</var>(c) [Expired]<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.18"></a><var>102.18</var>(d) This subdivision shall not apply to retail stores which derive at least 90 percent <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.19"></a><var>102.19</var>of their revenue from tobacco and tobacco-related products devices and where the retailer <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.20"></a><var>102.20</var>ensures that no person younger than 18 years of age is present, or permitted to enter, at <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.21"></a><var>102.21</var>any time.<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.22"></a><var>102.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Vending machine sales prohibited.</b> No person shall sell tobacco products, <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.23"></a><var>102.23</var>electronic delivery devices, or nicotine or lobelia delivery products from vending <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.24"></a><var>102.24</var>machines. This subdivision does not apply to vending machines in facilities that cannot be <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.25"></a><var>102.25</var>entered at any time by persons younger than 18 years of age.<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.26"></a><var>102.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Federal regulations for cartons, multipacks.</b> Code of Federal <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.27"></a><var>102.27</var>Regulations, title 21, part 897.16(c), is incorporated by reference with respect to cartons <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.28"></a><var>102.28</var>and other multipack units.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.17.0"></a><a id="pl.102.29"></a><var>102.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 461.19, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.102.30"></a><var>102.30</var><b>461.19 EFFECT ON LOCAL ORDINANCE; NOTICE.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.102.31"></a><var>102.31</var>Sections 
         <statute_ref>461.12</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>461.18</statute_ref> do not preempt a local ordinance that provides for more <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.32"></a><var>102.32</var>restrictive regulation of sales of tobacco sales, tobacco-related devices, electronic delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.33"></a><var>102.33</var>devices, and nicotine and lobelia products. A governing body shall give notice of its <br />
         		<a id="pl.102.34"></a><var>102.34</var>intention to consider adoption or substantial amendment of any local ordinance required <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.1"></a><var>103.1</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>461.12</statute_ref> or permitted under this section. The governing body shall take <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.2"></a><var>103.2</var>reasonable steps to send notice by mail at least 30 days prior to the meeting to the last <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.3"></a><var>103.3</var>known address of each licensee or person required to hold a license under section 
         <statute_ref>461.12</statute_ref>. <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.4"></a><var>103.4</var>The notice shall state the time, place, and date of the meeting and the subject matter of <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.5"></a><var>103.5</var>the proposed ordinance.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.18.0"></a><a id="pl.103.6"></a><var>103.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.685, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.103.7"></a><var>103.7</var><b>609.685 SALE OF TOBACCO TO CHILDREN.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.103.8"></a><var>103.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> For the purposes of this section, the following terms <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.9"></a><var>103.9</var>shall have the meanings respectively ascribed to them in this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.103.10"></a><var>103.10</var>(a) "Tobacco" means cigarettes and any product containing, made, or derived from <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.11"></a><var>103.11</var>tobacco that is intended for human consumption, whether chewed, smoked, absorbed, <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.12"></a><var>103.12</var>dissolved, inhaled, snorted, sniffed, or ingested by any other means, or any component, <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.13"></a><var>103.13</var>part, or accessory of a tobacco product; including but not limited to cigars; cheroots; <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.14"></a><var>103.14</var>stogies; perique; granulated, plug cut, crimp cut, ready rubbed, and other smoking tobacco; <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.15"></a><var>103.15</var>snuff; snuff flour; cavendish; plug and twist tobacco; fine cut and other chewing tobaccos; <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.16"></a><var>103.16</var>shorts; refuse scraps, clippings, cuttings and sweepings of tobacco; and other kinds and <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.17"></a><var>103.17</var>forms of tobacco. Tobacco excludes any tobacco product that has been approved by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.18"></a><var>103.18</var>United States Food and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco-cessation product, as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.19"></a><var>103.19</var>tobacco-dependence product, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.20"></a><var>103.20</var>sold solely for such an approved purpose.<br />
         		<a id="pl.103.21"></a><var>103.21</var>(b) "Tobacco-related devices" means cigarette papers or pipes for smoking or <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.22"></a><var>103.22</var>other devices intentionally designed or intended to be used in a manner which enables <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.23"></a><var>103.23</var>the chewing, sniffing, smoking, or inhalation of vapors of tobacco or tobacco products. <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.24"></a><var>103.24</var>Tobacco-related devices include components of tobacco-related devices which may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.25"></a><var>103.25</var>marketed or sold separately.<br />
         		<a id="pl.103.26"></a><var>103.26</var>(c) "Electronic delivery device" means any product containing or delivering nicotine, <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.27"></a><var>103.27</var>lobelia, or any other substance intended for human consumption that can be used by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.28"></a><var>103.28</var>person to simulate smoking in the delivery of nicotine or any other substance through <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.29"></a><var>103.29</var>inhalation of vapor from the product. Electronic delivery device includes any component <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.30"></a><var>103.30</var>part of a product, whether or not marketed or sold separately. Electronic delivery device <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.31"></a><var>103.31</var>does not include any product that has been approved or certified by the United States Food <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.32"></a><var>103.32</var>and Drug Administration for sale as a tobacco-cessation product, as a tobacco-dependence <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.33"></a><var>103.33</var>product, or for other medical purposes, and is marketed and sold for such an approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.103.34"></a><var>103.34</var>purpose.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.1"></a><var>104.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Penalty to sell.</b> (a) Whoever sells tobacco, tobacco-related devices, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.2"></a><var>104.2</var>electronic delivery devices to a person under the age of 18 years is guilty of a misdemeanor <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.3"></a><var>104.3</var>for the first violation. Whoever violates this subdivision a subsequent time within five <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.4"></a><var>104.4</var>years of a previous conviction under this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.5"></a><var>104.5</var>(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this subdivision if the defendant <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.6"></a><var>104.6</var>proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant reasonably and in good faith <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.7"></a><var>104.7</var>relied on proof of age as described in section 
         <statute_ref>340A.503, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.8"></a><var>104.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Other offenses.</b> (a) Whoever furnishes tobacco, or tobacco-related <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.9"></a><var>104.9</var>devices, or electronic delivery devices to a person under the age of 18 years is guilty of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.10"></a><var>104.10</var>misdemeanor for the first violation. Whoever violates this paragraph a subsequent time is <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.11"></a><var>104.11</var>guilty of a gross misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.12"></a><var>104.12</var>(b) A person under the age of 18 years who purchases or attempts to purchase <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.13"></a><var>104.13</var>tobacco, or tobacco-related devices, or electronic delivery devices and who uses a driver's <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.14"></a><var>104.14</var>license, permit, Minnesota identification card, or any type of false identification to <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.15"></a><var>104.15</var>misrepresent the person's age, is guilty of a misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.16"></a><var>104.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Petty misdemeanor.</b> Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.17"></a><var>104.17</var>whoever possesses, smokes, chews, or otherwise ingests, purchases, or attempts to <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.18"></a><var>104.18</var>purchase tobacco or tobacco related, tobacco-related devices, or electronic delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.19"></a><var>104.19</var>devices and is under the age of 18 years is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.20"></a><var>104.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Effect on local ordinances.</b> Nothing in subdivisions 1 to 3 shall supersede <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.21"></a><var>104.21</var>or preclude the continuation or adoption of any local ordinance which provides for more <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.22"></a><var>104.22</var>stringent regulation of the subject matter in subdivisions 1 to 3.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.23"></a><var>104.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Exceptions.</b> (a) Notwithstanding subdivision 2, an Indian may furnish <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.24"></a><var>104.24</var>tobacco to an Indian under the age of 18 years if the tobacco is furnished as part of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.25"></a><var>104.25</var>traditional Indian spiritual or cultural ceremony. For purposes of this paragraph, an Indian <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.26"></a><var>104.26</var>is a person who is a member of an Indian tribe as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260.755, subdivision 12</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.27"></a><var>104.27</var>(b) The penalties in this section do not apply to a person under the age of 18 years <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.28"></a><var>104.28</var>who purchases or attempts to purchase tobacco or, tobacco-related devices, or electronic <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.29"></a><var>104.29</var>delivery devices while under the direct supervision of a responsible adult for training, <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.30"></a><var>104.30</var>education, research, or enforcement purposes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.104.31"></a><var>104.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Seizure of false identification.</b> A retailer may seize a form of identification <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.32"></a><var>104.32</var>listed in section 
         <statute_ref>340A.503, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, if the retailer has reasonable grounds to believe <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.33"></a><var>104.33</var>that the form of identification has been altered or falsified or is being used to violate any <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.34"></a><var>104.34</var>law. A retailer that seizes a form of identification as authorized under this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.104.35"></a><var>104.35</var>shall deliver it to a law enforcement agency within 24 hours of seizing it.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.19.0"></a><a id="pl.105.1"></a><var>105.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.6855, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.2"></a><var>105.2</var><b>609.6855 SALE OF NICOTINE DELIVERY PRODUCTS TO CHILDREN.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.105.3"></a><var>105.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Penalty to sell.</b> (a) Whoever sells to a person under the age of <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.4"></a><var>105.4</var>18 years a product containing or delivering nicotine or lobelia intended for human <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.5"></a><var>105.5</var>consumption, or any part of such a product, that is not tobacco or an electronic delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.6"></a><var>105.6</var>device as defined by section 
         <statute_ref>609.685</statute_ref>, is guilty of a misdemeanor for the first violation. <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.7"></a><var>105.7</var>Whoever violates this subdivision a subsequent time within five years of a previous <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.8"></a><var>105.8</var>conviction under this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.9"></a><var>105.9</var>(b) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this subdivision if the defendant <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.10"></a><var>105.10</var>proves by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant reasonably and in good faith <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.11"></a><var>105.11</var>relied on proof of age as described in section 
         <statute_ref>340A.503, subdivision 6</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.12"></a><var>105.12</var>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a product containing or delivering nicotine or <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.13"></a><var>105.13</var>lobelia intended for human consumption, or any part of such a product, that is not tobacco<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.14"></a><var>105.14</var> or an electronic delivery device as defined by section 
         <statute_ref>609.685</statute_ref>, may be sold to persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.15"></a><var>105.15</var>under the age of 18 if the product has been approved or otherwise certified for legal sale <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.16"></a><var>105.16</var>by the United States Food and Drug Administration for tobacco use cessation, harm <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.17"></a><var>105.17</var>reduction, or for other medical purposes, and is being marketed and sold solely for that <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.18"></a><var>105.18</var>approved purpose.<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.19"></a><var>105.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Other offense.</b> A person under the age of 18 years who purchases or <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.20"></a><var>105.20</var>attempts to purchase a product containing or delivering nicotine or lobelia intended for <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.21"></a><var>105.21</var>human consumption, or any part of such a product, that is not tobacco or an electronic <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.22"></a><var>105.22</var>delivery device as defined by section 
         <statute_ref>609.685</statute_ref>, and who uses a driver's license, permit, <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.23"></a><var>105.23</var>Minnesota identification card, or any type of false identification to misrepresent the <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.24"></a><var>105.24</var>person's age, is guilty of a misdemeanor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.105.25"></a><var>105.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Petty misdemeanor.</b> Except as otherwise provided in subdivisions 1 and <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.26"></a><var>105.26</var>2, whoever is under the age of 18 years and possesses, purchases, or attempts to purchase <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.27"></a><var>105.27</var>a product containing or delivering nicotine or lobelia intended for human consumption, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.28"></a><var>105.28</var>any part of such a product, that is not tobacco or an electronic delivery device as defined <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.29"></a><var>105.29</var>by section 
         <statute_ref>609.685</statute_ref>, is guilty of a petty misdemeanor.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.20.0"></a><a id="pl.105.30"></a><var>105.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. <b>[611A.199] NOTICE OF RIGHTS TO SEXUAL ASSAULT VICTIM.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.105.31"></a><var>105.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Notice required.</b> A hospital shall give a written notice about victim <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.32"></a><var>105.32</var>rights and available resources to a person seeking medical services in the hospital who <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.33"></a><var>105.33</var>reports to hospital staff or who evidences a sexual assault or other unwanted sexual <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.34"></a><var>105.34</var>contact or sexual penetration. The hospital shall make a good faith effort to provide <br />
         		<a id="pl.105.35"></a><var>105.35</var>this notice prior to medical treatment or the examination performed for the purpose <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.1"></a><var>106.1</var>of gathering evidence, subject to applicable federal and state laws and regulations <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.2"></a><var>106.2</var>regarding the provision of medical care, and in a manner that does not interfere with any <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.3"></a><var>106.3</var>medical screening examination or initiation of treatment necessary to stabilize a victim's <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.4"></a><var>106.4</var>emergency medical condition.<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.5"></a><var>106.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Contents of notice.</b> The commissioners of health and public safety, in <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.6"></a><var>106.6</var>consultation with sexual assault victim advocates and health care professionals, shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.7"></a><var>106.7</var>develop the notice required by subdivision 1. The notice must inform the victim, at a <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.8"></a><var>106.8</var>minimum, of:<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.9"></a><var>106.9</var>(1) the obligation under section 609.35 of the county where the criminal sexual <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.10"></a><var>106.10</var>conduct occurred to pay for the examination performed for the purpose of gathering <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.11"></a><var>106.11</var>evidence, that payment is not contingent on the victim reporting the criminal sexual conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.12"></a><var>106.12</var>to law enforcement, and that the victim may incur expenses for treatment of injuries; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.13"></a><var>106.13</var>(2) the victim's rights if the crime is reported to law enforcement, including the <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.14"></a><var>106.14</var>victim's right to apply for reparations under sections 611A.51 to 611A.68, information on <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.15"></a><var>106.15</var>how to apply for reparations, and information on how to obtain an order for protection or <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.16"></a><var>106.16</var>a harassment restraining order.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.21.0"></a><a id="pl.106.17"></a><var>106.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 21. Laws 2011, First Special Session chapter 9, article 9, section 17, is amended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.18"></a><var>106.18</var>read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.19"></a><var>106.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. <b>SIMPLIFICATION OF ELIGIBILITY AND ENROLLMENT </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.106.20"></a><var>106.20</var><b>PROCESS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.106.21"></a><var>106.21</var>(a) The commissioner of human services shall issue a request for information for an <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.22"></a><var>106.22</var>integrated service delivery system for health care programs, food support, cash assistance, <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.23"></a><var>106.23</var>and child care. The commissioner shall determine, in consultation with partners in <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.24"></a><var>106.24</var>paragraph (c), if the products meet departments' and counties' functions. The request for <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.25"></a><var>106.25</var>information may incorporate a performance-based vendor financing option in which the <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.26"></a><var>106.26</var>vendor shares the risk of the project's success. The health care system must be developed <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.27"></a><var>106.27</var>in phases with the capacity to integrate food support, cash assistance, and child care <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.28"></a><var>106.28</var>programs as funds are available. The request for information must require that the system:<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.29"></a><var>106.29</var>(1) streamline eligibility determinations and case processing to support statewide <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.30"></a><var>106.30</var>eligibility processing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.31"></a><var>106.31</var>(2) enable interested persons to determine eligibility for each program, and to apply <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.32"></a><var>106.32</var>for programs online in a manner that the applicant will be asked only those questions <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.33"></a><var>106.33</var>relevant to the programs for which the person is applying;<br />
         		<a id="pl.106.34"></a><var>106.34</var>(3) leverage technology that has been operational in other state environments with <br />
         		<a id="pl.106.35"></a><var>106.35</var>similar requirements; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.1"></a><var>107.1</var>(4) include Web-based application, worker application processing support, and the <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.2"></a><var>107.2</var>opportunity for expansion.<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.3"></a><var>107.3</var>(b) The commissioner shall issue a final report, including the implementation plan, <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.4"></a><var>107.4</var>to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.5"></a><var>107.5</var>over health and human services no later than January 31, 2012.<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.6"></a><var>107.6</var>(c) The commissioner shall partner with counties, a service delivery authority <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.7"></a><var>107.7</var>established under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 402A, the Office of Enterprise Technology, <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.8"></a><var>107.8</var>other state agencies, and service partners to develop an integrated service delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.9"></a><var>107.9</var>framework, which will simplify and streamline human services eligibility and enrollment <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.10"></a><var>107.10</var>processes. The primary objectives for the simplification effort include significantly <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.11"></a><var>107.11</var>improved eligibility processing productivity resulting in reduced time for eligibility <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.12"></a><var>107.12</var>determination and enrollment, increased customer service for applicants and recipients of <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.13"></a><var>107.13</var>services, increased program integrity, and greater administrative flexibility.<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.14"></a><var>107.14</var>(d) The commissioner, along with a county representative appointed by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.15"></a><var>107.15</var>Association of Minnesota Counties, shall report specific implementation progress to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.16"></a><var>107.16</var>legislature annually beginning May 15, 2012.<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.17"></a><var>107.17</var>(e) The commissioner shall work with the Minnesota Association of County Social <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.18"></a><var>107.18</var>Service Administrators and the Office of Enterprise Technology to develop collaborative <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.19"></a><var>107.19</var>task forces, as necessary, to support implementation of the service delivery components <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.20"></a><var>107.20</var>under this paragraph. The commissioner must evaluate, develop, and include as part <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.21"></a><var>107.21</var>of the integrated eligibility and enrollment service delivery framework, the following <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.22"></a><var>107.22</var>minimum components:<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.23"></a><var>107.23</var>(1) screening tools for applicants to determine potential eligibility as part of an <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.24"></a><var>107.24</var>online application process;<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.25"></a><var>107.25</var>(2) the capacity to use databases to electronically verify application and renewal <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.26"></a><var>107.26</var>data as required by law;<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.27"></a><var>107.27</var>(3) online accounts accessible by applicants and enrollees;<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.28"></a><var>107.28</var>(4) an interactive voice response system, available statewide, that provides case <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.29"></a><var>107.29</var>information for applicants, enrollees, and authorized third parties;<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.30"></a><var>107.30</var>(5) an electronic document management system that provides electronic transfer of <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.31"></a><var>107.31</var>all documents required for eligibility and enrollment processes; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.107.32"></a><var>107.32</var>(6) a centralized customer contact center that applicants, enrollees, and authorized <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.33"></a><var>107.33</var>third parties can use statewide to receive program information, application assistance, <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.34"></a><var>107.34</var>and case information, report changes, make cost-sharing payments, and conduct other <br />
         		<a id="pl.107.35"></a><var>107.35</var>eligibility and enrollment transactions.<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.1"></a><var>108.1</var>(f) (e) Subject to a legislative appropriation, the commissioner of human services <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.2"></a><var>108.2</var>shall issue a request for proposal for the appropriate phase of an integrated service delivery <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.3"></a><var>108.3</var>system for health care programs, food support, cash assistance, and child care.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.8.22.0"></a><a id="pl.108.4"></a><var>108.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 22. <b> REPEALER.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.108.5"></a><var>108.5</var>(a) Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 256.01, subdivision 32, is repealed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.6"></a><var>108.6</var>(b) Minnesota Statutes 2012, sections 325H.06; and 325H.08, are repealed.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.108.7"></a><var>108.7</var><b>ARTICLE 9</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.108.8"></a><var>108.8</var><b>HEALTH-RELATED LICENSING BOARDS</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.9.1.0"></a><a id="pl.108.9"></a><var>108.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.261, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.10"></a><var>108.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Grounds listed.</b> The board may deny, revoke, suspend, limit, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.11"></a><var>108.11</var>condition the license and registration of any person to practice professional, advanced <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.12"></a><var>108.12</var>practice registered, or practical nursing under sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref>, or to otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.13"></a><var>108.13</var>discipline a licensee or applicant as described in section 
         <statute_ref>148.262</statute_ref>. The following are <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.14"></a><var>108.14</var>grounds for disciplinary action:<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.15"></a><var>108.15</var>(1) Failure to demonstrate the qualifications or satisfy the requirements for a license <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.16"></a><var>108.16</var>contained in sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref> or rules of the board. In the case of a person <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.17"></a><var>108.17</var>applying for a license, the burden of proof is upon the applicant to demonstrate the <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.18"></a><var>108.18</var>qualifications or satisfaction of the requirements.<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.19"></a><var>108.19</var>(2) Employing fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a permit, license, <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.20"></a><var>108.20</var>or registration certificate to practice professional or practical nursing or attempting to <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.21"></a><var>108.21</var>subvert the licensing examination process. Conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.22"></a><var>108.22</var>the licensing examination process includes, but is not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.23"></a><var>108.23</var>(i) conduct that violates the security of the examination materials, such as removing <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.24"></a><var>108.24</var>examination materials from the examination room or having unauthorized possession of <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.25"></a><var>108.25</var>any portion of a future, current, or previously administered licensing examination;<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.26"></a><var>108.26</var>(ii) conduct that violates the standard of test administration, such as communicating <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.27"></a><var>108.27</var>with another examinee during administration of the examination, copying another <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.28"></a><var>108.28</var>examinee's answers, permitting another examinee to copy one's answers, or possessing <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.29"></a><var>108.29</var>unauthorized materials; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.30"></a><var>108.30</var>(iii) impersonating an examinee or permitting an impersonator to take the <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.31"></a><var>108.31</var>examination on one's own behalf.<br />
         		<a id="pl.108.32"></a><var>108.32</var>(3) Conviction of a felony or gross misdemeanor reasonably related to the practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.33"></a><var>108.33</var>of professional, advanced practice registered, or practical nursing. Conviction as used in <br />
         		<a id="pl.108.34"></a><var>108.34</var>this subdivision includes a conviction of an offense that if committed in this state would <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.1"></a><var>109.1</var>be considered a felony or gross misdemeanor without regard to its designation elsewhere, <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.2"></a><var>109.2</var>or a criminal proceeding where a finding or verdict of guilt is made or returned but the <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.3"></a><var>109.3</var>adjudication of guilt is either withheld or not entered.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.4"></a><var>109.4</var>(4) Revocation, suspension, limitation, conditioning, or other disciplinary action <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.5"></a><var>109.5</var>against the person's professional or practical nursing license or advanced practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.6"></a><var>109.6</var>registered nursing credential, in another state, territory, or country; failure to report to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.7"></a><var>109.7</var>board that charges regarding the person's nursing license or other credential are pending in <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.8"></a><var>109.8</var>another state, territory, or country; or having been refused a license or other credential by <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.9"></a><var>109.9</var>another state, territory, or country.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.10"></a><var>109.10</var>(5) Failure to or inability to perform professional or practical nursing as defined in <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.11"></a><var>109.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>148.171, subdivision 14</statute_ref> or 15, with reasonable skill and safety, including failure <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.12"></a><var>109.12</var>of a registered nurse to supervise or a licensed practical nurse to monitor adequately the <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.13"></a><var>109.13</var>performance of acts by any person working at the nurse's direction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.14"></a><var>109.14</var>(6) Engaging in unprofessional conduct, including, but not limited to, a departure <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.15"></a><var>109.15</var>from or failure to conform to board rules of professional or practical nursing practice that <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.16"></a><var>109.16</var>interpret the statutory definition of professional or practical nursing as well as provide <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.17"></a><var>109.17</var>criteria for violations of the statutes, or, if no rule exists, to the minimal standards of <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.18"></a><var>109.18</var>acceptable and prevailing professional or practical nursing practice, or any nursing <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.19"></a><var>109.19</var>practice that may create unnecessary danger to a patient's life, health, or safety. Actual <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.20"></a><var>109.20</var>injury to a patient need not be established under this clause.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.21"></a><var>109.21</var>(7) Failure of an advanced practice registered nurse to practice with reasonable <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.22"></a><var>109.22</var>skill and safety or departure from or failure to conform to standards of acceptable and <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.23"></a><var>109.23</var>prevailing advanced practice registered nursing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.24"></a><var>109.24</var>(8) Delegating or accepting the delegation of a nursing function or a prescribed <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.25"></a><var>109.25</var>health care function when the delegation or acceptance could reasonably be expected to <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.26"></a><var>109.26</var>result in unsafe or ineffective patient care.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.27"></a><var>109.27</var>(9) Actual or potential inability to practice nursing with reasonable skill and safety <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.28"></a><var>109.28</var>to patients by reason of illness, use of alcohol, drugs, chemicals, or any other material, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.29"></a><var>109.29</var>as a result of any mental or physical condition.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.30"></a><var>109.30</var>(10) Adjudication as mentally incompetent, mentally ill, a chemically dependent <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.31"></a><var>109.31</var>person, or a person dangerous to the public by a court of competent jurisdiction, within or <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.32"></a><var>109.32</var>without this state.<br />
         		<a id="pl.109.33"></a><var>109.33</var>(11) Engaging in any unethical conduct, including, but not limited to, conduct likely <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.34"></a><var>109.34</var>to deceive, defraud, or harm the public, or demonstrating a willful or careless disregard <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.35"></a><var>109.35</var>for the health, welfare, or safety of a patient. Actual injury need not be established under <br />
         		<a id="pl.109.36"></a><var>109.36</var>this clause.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.1"></a><var>110.1</var>(12) Engaging in conduct with a patient that is sexual or may reasonably be <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.2"></a><var>110.2</var>interpreted by the patient as sexual, or in any verbal behavior that is seductive or sexually <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.3"></a><var>110.3</var>demeaning to a patient, or engaging in sexual exploitation of a patient or former patient.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.4"></a><var>110.4</var>(13) Obtaining money, property, or services from a patient, other than reasonable <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.5"></a><var>110.5</var>fees for services provided to the patient, through the use of undue influence, harassment, <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.6"></a><var>110.6</var>duress, deception, or fraud.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.7"></a><var>110.7</var>(14) Revealing a privileged communication from or relating to a patient except when <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.8"></a><var>110.8</var>otherwise required or permitted by law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.9"></a><var>110.9</var>(15) Engaging in abusive or fraudulent billing practices, including violations of <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.10"></a><var>110.10</var>federal Medicare and Medicaid laws or state medical assistance laws.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.11"></a><var>110.11</var>(16) Improper management of patient records, including failure to maintain adequate <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.12"></a><var>110.12</var>patient records, to comply with a patient's request made pursuant to sections 
         <statute_ref>144.291</statute_ref> to <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.13"></a><var>110.13</var>144.298, or to furnish a patient record or report required by law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.14"></a><var>110.14</var>(17) Knowingly aiding, assisting, advising, or allowing an unlicensed person to <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.15"></a><var>110.15</var>engage in the unlawful practice of professional, advanced practice registered, or practical <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.16"></a><var>110.16</var>nursing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.17"></a><var>110.17</var>(18) Violating a rule adopted by the board, an order of the board, or a state or federal <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.18"></a><var>110.18</var>law relating to the practice of professional, advanced practice registered, or practical <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.19"></a><var>110.19</var>nursing, or a state or federal narcotics or controlled substance law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.20"></a><var>110.20</var>(19) Knowingly providing false or misleading information that is directly related <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.21"></a><var>110.21</var>to the care of that patient unless done for an accepted therapeutic purpose such as the <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.22"></a><var>110.22</var>administration of a placebo.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.23"></a><var>110.23</var>(20) Aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide in violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215</statute_ref> as <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.24"></a><var>110.24</var>established by any of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.25"></a><var>110.25</var>(i) a copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a felony in <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.26"></a><var>110.26</var>violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision 1</statute_ref> or 2;<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.27"></a><var>110.27</var>(ii) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for violating an <br />
         		<a id="pl.110.28"></a><var>110.28</var>injunction issued under section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision 4</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.29"></a><var>110.29</var>(iii) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, <br />
            		<a id="pl.110.30"></a><var>110.30</var>subdivision 5
         </statute_ref>; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.31"></a><var>110.31</var>(iv) a finding by the board that the person violated section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision <br />
            		<a id="pl.110.32"></a><var>110.32</var>1
         </statute_ref> or 2. The board shall investigate any complaint of a violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, <br />
            		<a id="pl.110.33"></a><var>110.33</var>subdivision 1
         </statute_ref> or 2.<br />
         		<a id="pl.110.34"></a><var>110.34</var>(21) Practicing outside the scope of practice authorized by section 
         <statute_ref>148.171, <br />
            		<a id="pl.110.35"></a><var>110.35</var>subdivision 5
         </statute_ref>, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, or 21.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.1"></a><var>111.1</var>(22) Practicing outside the specific field of nursing practice for which an advanced <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.2"></a><var>111.2</var>practice registered nurse is certified unless the practice is authorized under section 
         <statute_ref>148.284</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.3"></a><var>111.3</var>(23) Making a false statement or knowingly providing false information to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.4"></a><var>111.4</var>board, failing to make reports as required by section 
         <statute_ref>148.263</statute_ref>, or failing to cooperate with <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.5"></a><var>111.5</var>an investigation of the board as required by section 
         <statute_ref>148.265</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.6"></a><var>111.6</var>(24) Engaging in false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading advertising.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.7"></a><var>111.7</var>(25) Failure to inform the board of the person's certification status as a nurse <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.8"></a><var>111.8</var>anesthetist, nurse-midwife, nurse practitioner, or clinical nurse specialist.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.9"></a><var>111.9</var>(26) Engaging in clinical nurse specialist practice, nurse-midwife practice, nurse <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.10"></a><var>111.10</var>practitioner practice, or registered nurse anesthetist practice without current certification <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.11"></a><var>111.11</var>by a national nurse certification organization acceptable to the board, except during the <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.12"></a><var>111.12</var>period between completion of an advanced practice registered nurse course of study and <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.13"></a><var>111.13</var>certification, not to exceed six months or as authorized by the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.14"></a><var>111.14</var>(27) Engaging in conduct that is prohibited under section 
         <statute_ref>145.412</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.15"></a><var>111.15</var>(28) Failing to report employment to the board as required by section 
         <statute_ref>148.211, <br />
            		<a id="pl.111.16"></a><var>111.16</var>subdivision 2a
         </statute_ref>, or knowingly aiding, assisting, advising, or allowing a person to fail to <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.17"></a><var>111.17</var>report as required by section 
         <statute_ref>148.211, subdivision 2a</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.18"></a><var>111.18</var>(29) Discharge from the health professionals services program as described in <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.19"></a><var>111.19</var>sections 214.31 to 214.37, or any other alternative monitoring or diversion program for <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.20"></a><var>111.20</var>reasons other than satisfactory completion of the program as set forth in the participation <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.21"></a><var>111.21</var>agreement.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.2.0"></a><a id="pl.111.22"></a><var>111.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.261, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.23"></a><var>111.23</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.24"></a><var>111.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Conviction of a felony-level criminal sexual offense.</b> (a) Except as <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.25"></a><var>111.25</var>provided in paragraph (e), the board may not grant or renew a license to practice nursing <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.26"></a><var>111.26</var>to any person who has been convicted on or after August 1, 2014, of any of the provisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.27"></a><var>111.27</var>of sections 
         <statute_ref>609.342, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.343, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.344</statute_ref>, subdivision 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.28"></a><var>111.28</var>paragraphs (c) to (o), or 
         <statute_ref>609.345, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraphs (c) to (o), or a similar statute <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.29"></a><var>111.29</var>in another jurisdiction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.30"></a><var>111.30</var>(b) A license to practice nursing is automatically revoked if the licensee is convicted <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.31"></a><var>111.31</var>of an offense listed in paragraph (a) of this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.32"></a><var>111.32</var>(c) A license to practice nursing that has been denied or revoked under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.33"></a><var>111.33</var>subdivision is not subject to chapter 364.<br />
         		<a id="pl.111.34"></a><var>111.34</var>(d) For purposes of this subdivision, "conviction" means a plea of guilty, a verdict of <br />
         		<a id="pl.111.35"></a><var>111.35</var>guilty by a jury, or a finding of guilty by the court, unless the court stays imposition or <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.1"></a><var>112.1</var>execution of the sentence and final disposition of the case is accomplished at a nonfelony <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.2"></a><var>112.2</var>level.<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.3"></a><var>112.3</var>(e) The board may establish criteria whereby an individual convicted of an offense <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.4"></a><var>112.4</var>listed in paragraph (a) of this subdivision may become licensed provided that the criteria:<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.5"></a><var>112.5</var>(1) utilize a rebuttable presumption that the applicant is not suitable for licensing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.6"></a><var>112.6</var>(2) provide a standard for overcoming the presumption; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.7"></a><var>112.7</var>(3) require that a minimum of ten years has elapsed since the applicant's sentence <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.8"></a><var>112.8</var>was discharged.<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.9"></a><var>112.9</var>The board shall not consider an application under this paragraph if the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.10"></a><var>112.10</var>determines that the victim involved in the offense was a patient or a client of the applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.11"></a><var>112.11</var>at the time of the offense.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.3.0"></a><a id="pl.112.12"></a><var>112.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 148.261, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.13"></a><var>112.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Evidence.</b> In disciplinary actions alleging a violation of subdivision 1, <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.14"></a><var>112.14</var>clause (3) or (4), or subdivision 1a, a copy of the judgment or proceeding under the seal <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.15"></a><var>112.15</var>of the court administrator or of the administrative agency that entered the same shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.16"></a><var>112.16</var>admissible into evidence without further authentication and shall constitute prima facie <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.17"></a><var>112.17</var>evidence of the violation concerned.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.4.0"></a><a id="pl.112.18"></a><var>112.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.01, subdivision 8a, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.19"></a><var>112.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8a. <b>Resident dentist.</b> "Resident dentist" means a person who is licensed to <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.20"></a><var>112.20</var>practice dentistry as an enrolled graduate student or student of an advanced education <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.21"></a><var>112.21</var>program accredited by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.22"></a><var>112.22</var>Accreditation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.5.0"></a><a id="pl.112.23"></a><var>112.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. <b>[150A.055] ADMINISTRATION OF INFLUENZA IMMUNIZATIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.112.24"></a><var>112.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Practice of dentistry.</b> A person licensed to practice dentistry under <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.25"></a><var>112.25</var>sections 150A.01 to 150A.14 shall be deemed to be practicing dentistry while participating <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.26"></a><var>112.26</var>in the administration of an influenza vaccination.<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.27"></a><var>112.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Qualified dentists.</b> (a) The influenza immunization shall be administered <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.28"></a><var>112.28</var>only to patients 19 years of age and older and only by licensed dentists who:<br />
         		<a id="pl.112.29"></a><var>112.29</var>(1) have immediate access to emergency response equipment, including but not <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.30"></a><var>112.30</var>limited to oxygen administration equipment, epinephrine, and other allergic reaction <br />
         		<a id="pl.112.31"></a><var>112.31</var>response equipment; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.1"></a><var>113.1</var>(2) are trained in or have successfully completed a program approved by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.2"></a><var>113.2</var>Minnesota Board of Dentistry, specifically for the administration of immunizations. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.3"></a><var>113.3</var>training or program must include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.4"></a><var>113.4</var>(i) educational material on the disease of influenza and vaccination as prevention <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.5"></a><var>113.5</var>of the disease;<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.6"></a><var>113.6</var>(ii) contraindications and precautions;<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.7"></a><var>113.7</var>(iii) intramuscular administration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.8"></a><var>113.8</var>(iv) communication of risk and benefits of influenza vaccination and legal <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.9"></a><var>113.9</var>requirements involved;<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.10"></a><var>113.10</var>(v) reporting of adverse events;<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.11"></a><var>113.11</var>(vi) documentation required by federal law; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.12"></a><var>113.12</var>(vii) storage and handling of vaccines.<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.13"></a><var>113.13</var>(b) Any dentist giving influenza vaccinations under this section shall comply <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.14"></a><var>113.14</var>with guidelines established by the federal Advisory Committee on Immunization <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.15"></a><var>113.15</var>Practices relating to vaccines and immunizations, which includes, but is not limited to, <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.16"></a><var>113.16</var>vaccine storage and handling, vaccine administration and documentation, and vaccine <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.17"></a><var>113.17</var>contraindications and precautions.<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.18"></a><var>113.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Coordination of care.</b> After a dentist qualified under subdivision 2 has <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.19"></a><var>113.19</var>administered an influenza vaccine to a patient, the dentist shall report the administration of <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.20"></a><var>113.20</var>the immunization to the Minnesota Immunization Information Connection or otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.21"></a><var>113.21</var>notify the patient's primary physician or clinic of the administration of the immunization.<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.22"></a><var>113.22</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective January 1, 2015, and applies to <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.23"></a><var>113.23</var>influenza immunizations performed on or after that date.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.6.0"></a><a id="pl.113.24"></a><var>113.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.113.25"></a><var>113.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Dentists.</b> A person of good moral character who has graduated from <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.26"></a><var>113.26</var>a dental program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.27"></a><var>113.27</var>Dental Association, having submitted an application and fee as prescribed by the board, <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.28"></a><var>113.28</var>may be examined by the board or by an agency pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>150A.03, subdivision <br />
            		<a id="pl.113.29"></a><var>113.29</var>1
         </statute_ref>, in a manner to test the applicant's fitness to practice dentistry. A graduate of a dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.30"></a><var>113.30</var>college in another country must not be disqualified from examination solely because of <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.31"></a><var>113.31</var>the applicant's foreign training if the board determines that the training is equivalent to or <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.32"></a><var>113.32</var>higher than that provided by a dental college accredited by the Commission on Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.33"></a><var>113.33</var>Accreditation of the American Dental Association. In the case of examinations conducted <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.34"></a><var>113.34</var>pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>150A.03, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, applicants shall take the examination prior to <br />
         		<a id="pl.113.35"></a><var>113.35</var>applying to the board for licensure. The examination shall include an examination of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.1"></a><var>114.1</var>applicant's knowledge of the laws of Minnesota relating to dentistry and the rules of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.2"></a><var>114.2</var>board. An applicant is ineligible to retake the clinical examination required by the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.3"></a><var>114.3</var>after failing it twice until further education and training are obtained as specified by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.4"></a><var>114.4</var>board by rule. A separate, nonrefundable fee may be charged for each time a person applies. <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.5"></a><var>114.5</var>An applicant who passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.6"></a><var>114.6</var>professional ethical conduct requirements, and meets all other requirements of the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.7"></a><var>114.7</var>shall be licensed to practice dentistry and granted a general dentist license by the board.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.7.0"></a><a id="pl.114.8"></a><var>114.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.114.9"></a><var>114.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Faculty dentists.</b> (a) Faculty members of a school of dentistry must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.10"></a><var>114.10</var>licensed in order to practice dentistry as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>150A.05</statute_ref>. The board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.11"></a><var>114.11</var>issue to members of the faculty of a school of dentistry a license designated as either a <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.12"></a><var>114.12</var>"limited faculty license" or a "full faculty license" entitling the holder to practice dentistry <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.13"></a><var>114.13</var>within the terms described in paragraph (b) or (c). The dean of a school of dentistry and <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.14"></a><var>114.14</var>program directors of a Minnesota dental hygiene or dental assisting school accredited by <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.15"></a><var>114.15</var>the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association shall certify <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.16"></a><var>114.16</var>to the board those members of the school's faculty who practice dentistry but are not <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.17"></a><var>114.17</var>licensed to practice dentistry in Minnesota. A faculty member who practices dentistry as <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.18"></a><var>114.18</var>defined in section 
         <statute_ref>150A.05</statute_ref>, before beginning duties in a school of dentistry or a dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.19"></a><var>114.19</var>hygiene or dental assisting school, shall apply to the board for a limited or full faculty <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.20"></a><var>114.20</var>license. Pursuant to Minnesota Rules, chapter 3100, and at the discretion of the board, <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.21"></a><var>114.21</var>a limited faculty license must be renewed annually and a full faculty license must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.22"></a><var>114.22</var>renewed biennially. The faculty applicant shall pay a nonrefundable fee set by the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.23"></a><var>114.23</var>for issuing and renewing the faculty license. The faculty license is valid during the time <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.24"></a><var>114.24</var>the holder remains a member of the faculty of a school of dentistry or a dental hygiene or <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.25"></a><var>114.25</var>dental assisting school and subjects the holder to this chapter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.114.26"></a><var>114.26</var>(b) The board may issue to dentist members of the faculty of a Minnesota school <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.27"></a><var>114.27</var>of dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental assisting accredited by the Commission on Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.28"></a><var>114.28</var>Accreditation of the American Dental Association, a license designated as a limited <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.29"></a><var>114.29</var>faculty license entitling the holder to practice dentistry within the school and its affiliated <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.30"></a><var>114.30</var>teaching facilities, but only for the purposes of teaching or conducting research. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.31"></a><var>114.31</var>practice of dentistry at a school facility for purposes other than teaching or research is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.32"></a><var>114.32</var>allowed unless the dentist was a faculty member on August 1, 1993.<br />
         		<a id="pl.114.33"></a><var>114.33</var>(c) The board may issue to dentist members of the faculty of a Minnesota school <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.34"></a><var>114.34</var>of dentistry, dental hygiene, or dental assisting accredited by the Commission on Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.114.35"></a><var>114.35</var>Accreditation of the American Dental Association a license designated as a full faculty <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.1"></a><var>115.1</var>license entitling the holder to practice dentistry within the school and its affiliated teaching <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.2"></a><var>115.2</var>facilities and elsewhere if the holder of the license is employed 50 percent time or more by <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.3"></a><var>115.3</var>the school in the practice of teaching or research, and upon successful review by the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.4"></a><var>115.4</var>of the applicant's qualifications as described in subdivisions 1, 1c, and 4 and board rule. <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.5"></a><var>115.5</var>The board, at its discretion, may waive specific licensing prerequisites.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.8.0"></a><a id="pl.115.6"></a><var>115.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 1c, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.7"></a><var>115.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1c. <b>Specialty dentists.</b> (a) The board may grant a one or more specialty <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.8"></a><var>115.8</var>license licenses in the specialty areas of dentistry that are recognized by the American <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.9"></a><var>115.9</var>Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.10"></a><var>115.10</var>(b) An applicant for a specialty license shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.11"></a><var>115.11</var>(1) have successfully completed a postdoctoral specialty education program <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.12"></a><var>115.12</var>accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.13"></a><var>115.13</var>Association, or have announced a limitation of practice before 1967;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.14"></a><var>115.14</var>(2) have been certified by a specialty examining board approved by the Minnesota <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.15"></a><var>115.15</var>Board of Dentistry, or provide evidence of having passed a clinical examination for <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.16"></a><var>115.16</var>licensure required for practice in any state or Canadian province, or in the case of oral and <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.17"></a><var>115.17</var>maxillofacial surgeons only, have a Minnesota medical license in good standing;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.18"></a><var>115.18</var>(3) have been in active practice or a postdoctoral specialty education program or <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.19"></a><var>115.19</var>United States government service at least 2,000 hours in the 36 months prior to applying <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.20"></a><var>115.20</var>for a specialty license;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.21"></a><var>115.21</var>(4) if requested by the board, be interviewed by a committee of the board, which <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.22"></a><var>115.22</var>may include the assistance of specialists in the evaluation process, and satisfactorily <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.23"></a><var>115.23</var>respond to questions designed to determine the applicant's knowledge of dental subjects <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.24"></a><var>115.24</var>and ability to practice;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.25"></a><var>115.25</var>(5) if requested by the board, present complete records on a sample of patients <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.26"></a><var>115.26</var>treated by the applicant. The sample must be drawn from patients treated by the applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.27"></a><var>115.27</var>during the 36 months preceding the date of application. The number of records shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.28"></a><var>115.28</var>established by the board. The records shall be reasonably representative of the treatment <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.29"></a><var>115.29</var>typically provided by the applicant for each specialty area;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.30"></a><var>115.30</var>(6) at board discretion, pass a board-approved English proficiency test if English is <br />
         		<a id="pl.115.31"></a><var>115.31</var>not the applicant's primary language;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.32"></a><var>115.32</var>(7) pass all components of the National Board Dental Examinations;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.33"></a><var>115.33</var>(8) pass the Minnesota Board of Dentistry jurisprudence examination;<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.34"></a><var>115.34</var>(9) abide by professional ethical conduct requirements; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.115.35"></a><var>115.35</var>(10) meet all other requirements prescribed by the Board of Dentistry.<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.1"></a><var>116.1</var>(c) The application must include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.2"></a><var>116.2</var>(1) a completed application furnished by the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.3"></a><var>116.3</var>(2) at least two character references from two different dentists for each specialty <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.4"></a><var>116.4</var>area, one of whom must be a dentist practicing in the same specialty area, and the other<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.5"></a><var>116.5</var> from the director of the each specialty program attended;<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.6"></a><var>116.6</var>(3) a licensed physician's statement attesting to the applicant's physical and mental <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.7"></a><var>116.7</var>condition;<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.8"></a><var>116.8</var>(4) a statement from a licensed ophthalmologist or optometrist attesting to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.9"></a><var>116.9</var>applicant's visual acuity;<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.10"></a><var>116.10</var>(5) a nonrefundable fee; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.11"></a><var>116.11</var>(6) a notarized, unmounted passport-type photograph, three inches by three inches, <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.12"></a><var>116.12</var>taken not more than six months before the date of application.<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.13"></a><var>116.13</var>(d) A specialty dentist holding a one or more specialty license licenses is limited to <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.14"></a><var>116.14</var>practicing in the dentist's designated specialty area or areas. The scope of practice must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.15"></a><var>116.15</var>defined by each national specialty board recognized by the American Dental Association<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.16"></a><var>116.16</var> Commission on Dental Accreditation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.17"></a><var>116.17</var>(e) A specialty dentist holding a general dentist dental license is limited to practicing <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.18"></a><var>116.18</var>in the dentist's designated specialty area or areas if the dentist has announced a limitation <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.19"></a><var>116.19</var>of practice. The scope of practice must be defined by each national specialty board <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.20"></a><var>116.20</var>recognized by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.21"></a><var>116.21</var>(f) All specialty dentists who have fulfilled the specialty dentist requirements and <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.22"></a><var>116.22</var>who intend to limit their practice to a particular specialty area or areas may apply for <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.23"></a><var>116.23</var>a one or more  specialty license licenses.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.9.0"></a><a id="pl.116.24"></a><var>116.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 1d, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.25"></a><var>116.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1d. <b>Dental therapists.</b> A person of good moral character who has graduated <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.26"></a><var>116.26</var>with a baccalaureate degree or a master's degree from a dental therapy education program <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.27"></a><var>116.27</var>that has been approved by the board or accredited by the American Dental Association<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.28"></a><var>116.28</var> Commission on Dental Accreditation or another board-approved national accreditation <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.29"></a><var>116.29</var>organization may apply for licensure.<br />
         		<a id="pl.116.30"></a><var>116.30</var>The applicant must submit an application and fee as prescribed by the board and a <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.31"></a><var>116.31</var>diploma or certificate from a dental therapy education program. Prior to being licensed, <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.32"></a><var>116.32</var>the applicant must pass a comprehensive, competency-based clinical examination that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.33"></a><var>116.33</var>approved by the board and administered independently of an institution providing dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.34"></a><var>116.34</var>therapy education. The applicant must also pass an examination testing the applicant's <br />
         		<a id="pl.116.35"></a><var>116.35</var>knowledge of the Minnesota laws and rules relating to the practice of dentistry. An <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.1"></a><var>117.1</var>applicant who has failed the clinical examination twice is ineligible to retake the clinical <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.2"></a><var>117.2</var>examination until further education and training are obtained as specified by the board. A <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.3"></a><var>117.3</var>separate, nonrefundable fee may be charged for each time a person applies. An applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.4"></a><var>117.4</var>who passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.5"></a><var>117.5</var>ethical conduct requirements, and meets all the other requirements of the board shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.6"></a><var>117.6</var>be licensed as a dental therapist.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.10.0"></a><a id="pl.117.7"></a><var>117.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.117.8"></a><var>117.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Dental hygienists.</b> A person of good moral character, who has graduated <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.9"></a><var>117.9</var>from a dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.10"></a><var>117.10</var>the American Dental Association and established in an institution accredited by an agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.11"></a><var>117.11</var>recognized by the United States Department of Education to offer college-level programs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.12"></a><var>117.12</var>may apply for licensure. The dental hygiene program must provide a minimum of two <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.13"></a><var>117.13</var>academic years of dental hygiene education. The applicant must submit an application and <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.14"></a><var>117.14</var>fee as prescribed by the board and a diploma or certificate of dental hygiene. Prior to being <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.15"></a><var>117.15</var>licensed, the applicant must pass the National Board of Dental Hygiene examination and a <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.16"></a><var>117.16</var>board approved examination designed to determine the applicant's clinical competency. In <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.17"></a><var>117.17</var>the case of examinations conducted pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>150A.03, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, applicants <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.18"></a><var>117.18</var>shall take the examination before applying to the board for licensure. The applicant must <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.19"></a><var>117.19</var>also pass an examination testing the applicant's knowledge of the laws of Minnesota relating <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.20"></a><var>117.20</var>to the practice of dentistry and of the rules of the board. An applicant is ineligible to retake <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.21"></a><var>117.21</var>the clinical examination required by the board after failing it twice until further education <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.22"></a><var>117.22</var>and training are obtained as specified by board rule. A separate, nonrefundable fee may <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.23"></a><var>117.23</var>be charged for each time a person applies. An applicant who passes the examination in <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.24"></a><var>117.24</var>compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional ethical conduct requirements, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.25"></a><var>117.25</var>meets all the other requirements of the board shall be licensed as a dental hygienist.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.11.0"></a><a id="pl.117.26"></a><var>117.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.117.27"></a><var>117.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2a. <b>Licensed dental assistant.</b> A person of good moral character, who has <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.28"></a><var>117.28</var>graduated from a dental assisting program accredited by the Commission on Dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.29"></a><var>117.29</var>Accreditation of the American Dental Association, may apply for licensure. The applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.30"></a><var>117.30</var>must submit an application and fee as prescribed by the board and the diploma or <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.31"></a><var>117.31</var>certificate of dental assisting. In the case of examinations conducted pursuant to section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.117.32"></a><var>117.32</var>150A.03, subdivision 1
         </statute_ref>, applicants shall take the examination before applying to the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.33"></a><var>117.33</var>for licensure. The examination shall include an examination of the applicant's knowledge <br />
         		<a id="pl.117.34"></a><var>117.34</var>of the laws of Minnesota relating to dentistry and the rules of the board. An applicant is <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.1"></a><var>118.1</var>ineligible to retake the licensure examination required by the board after failing it twice <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.2"></a><var>118.2</var>until further education and training are obtained as specified by board rule. A separate, <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.3"></a><var>118.3</var>nonrefundable fee may be charged for each time a person applies. An applicant who <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.4"></a><var>118.4</var>passes the examination in compliance with subdivision 2b, abides by professional ethical <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.5"></a><var>118.5</var>conduct requirements, and meets all the other requirements of the board shall be licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.6"></a><var>118.6</var>as a dental assistant.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.12.0"></a><a id="pl.118.7"></a><var>118.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 2d, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.8"></a><var>118.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2d. <b>Continuing education and professional development waiver.</b> (a) The <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.9"></a><var>118.9</var>board shall grant a waiver to the continuing education requirements under this chapter for <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.10"></a><var>118.10</var>a licensed dentist, licensed dental therapist, licensed dental hygienist, or licensed dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.11"></a><var>118.11</var>assistant who documents to the satisfaction of the board that the dentist, dental therapist, <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.12"></a><var>118.12</var>dental hygienist, or licensed dental assistant has retired from active practice in the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.13"></a><var>118.13</var>and limits the provision of dental care services to those offered without compensation <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.14"></a><var>118.14</var>in a public health, community, or tribal clinic or a nonprofit organization that provides <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.15"></a><var>118.15</var>services to the indigent or to recipients of medical assistance, general assistance medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.16"></a><var>118.16</var>care, or MinnesotaCare programs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.17"></a><var>118.17</var>(b) The board may require written documentation from the volunteer and retired <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.18"></a><var>118.18</var>dentist, dental therapist, dental hygienist, or licensed dental assistant prior to granting <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.19"></a><var>118.19</var>this waiver.<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.20"></a><var>118.20</var>(c) The board shall require the volunteer and retired dentist, dental therapist, dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.21"></a><var>118.21</var>hygienist, or licensed dental assistant to meet the following requirements:<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.22"></a><var>118.22</var>(1) a licensee seeking a waiver under this subdivision must complete and document <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.23"></a><var>118.23</var>at least five hours of approved courses in infection control, medical emergencies, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.24"></a><var>118.24</var>medical management for the continuing education cycle; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.25"></a><var>118.25</var>(2) provide documentation of current CPR certification from completion of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.26"></a><var>118.26</var>American Heart Association healthcare provider course, or the American Red Cross <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.27"></a><var>118.27</var>professional rescuer course, or an equivalent entity.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.13.0"></a><a id="pl.118.28"></a><var>118.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.118.29"></a><var>118.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Waiver of examination.</b> (a) All or any part of the examination for <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.30"></a><var>118.30</var>dentists or dental hygienists, except that pertaining to the law of Minnesota relating to <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.31"></a><var>118.31</var>dentistry and the rules of the board, may, at the discretion of the board, be waived for an <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.32"></a><var>118.32</var>applicant who presents a certificate of having passed all components of the National Board <br />
         		<a id="pl.118.33"></a><var>118.33</var>Dental Examinations or evidence of having maintained an adequate scholastic standing <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.1"></a><var>119.1</var>as determined by the board, in dental school as to dentists, or dental hygiene school as <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.2"></a><var>119.2</var>to dental hygienists.<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.3"></a><var>119.3</var>(b) The board shall waive the clinical examination required for licensure for any <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.4"></a><var>119.4</var>dentist applicant who is a graduate of a dental school accredited by the Commission on <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.5"></a><var>119.5</var>Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, who has passed all components <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.6"></a><var>119.6</var>of the National Board Dental Examinations, and who has satisfactorily completed a <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.7"></a><var>119.7</var>Minnesota-based postdoctoral general dentistry residency program (GPR) or an advanced <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.8"></a><var>119.8</var>education in general dentistry (AEGD) program after January 1, 2004. The postdoctoral <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.9"></a><var>119.9</var>program must be accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.10"></a><var>119.10</var>Dental Association, be of at least one year's duration, and include an outcome assessment <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.11"></a><var>119.11</var>evaluation assessing the resident's competence to practice dentistry. The board may require <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.12"></a><var>119.12</var>the applicant to submit any information deemed necessary by the board to determine <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.13"></a><var>119.13</var>whether the waiver is applicable. The board may waive the clinical examination for an <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.14"></a><var>119.14</var>applicant who meets the requirements of this paragraph and has satisfactorily completed an <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.15"></a><var>119.15</var>accredited postdoctoral general dentistry residency program located outside of Minnesota.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.14.0"></a><a id="pl.119.16"></a><var>119.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.06, subdivision 8, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.17"></a><var>119.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Licensure by credentials.</b> (a) Any dental assistant may, upon application <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.18"></a><var>119.18</var>and payment of a fee established by the board, apply for licensure based on an evaluation <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.19"></a><var>119.19</var>of the applicant's education, experience, and performance record in lieu of completing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.20"></a><var>119.20</var>board-approved dental assisting program for expanded functions as defined in rule, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.21"></a><var>119.21</var>may be interviewed by the board to determine if the applicant:<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.22"></a><var>119.22</var>(1) has graduated from an accredited dental assisting program accredited by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.23"></a><var>119.23</var>Commission of on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, or is <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.24"></a><var>119.24</var>currently certified by the Dental Assisting National Board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.25"></a><var>119.25</var>(2) is not subject to any pending or final disciplinary action in another state or <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.26"></a><var>119.26</var>Canadian province, or if not currently certified or registered, previously had a certification <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.27"></a><var>119.27</var>or registration in another state or Canadian province in good standing that was not subject <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.28"></a><var>119.28</var>to any final or pending disciplinary action at the time of surrender;<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.29"></a><var>119.29</var>(3) is of good moral character and abides by professional ethical conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.30"></a><var>119.30</var>requirements;<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.31"></a><var>119.31</var>(4) at board discretion, has passed a board-approved English proficiency test if <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.32"></a><var>119.32</var>English is not the applicant's primary language; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.119.33"></a><var>119.33</var>(5) has met all expanded functions curriculum equivalency requirements of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.119.34"></a><var>119.34</var>Minnesota board-approved dental assisting program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.1"></a><var>120.1</var>(b) The board, at its discretion, may waive specific licensure requirements in <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.2"></a><var>120.2</var>paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.3"></a><var>120.3</var>(c) An applicant who fulfills the conditions of this subdivision and demonstrates the <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.4"></a><var>120.4</var>minimum knowledge in dental subjects required for licensure under subdivision 2a must <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.5"></a><var>120.5</var>be licensed to practice the applicant's profession.<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.6"></a><var>120.6</var>(d) If the applicant does not demonstrate the minimum knowledge in dental subjects <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.7"></a><var>120.7</var>required for licensure under subdivision 2a, the application must be denied. If licensure is <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.8"></a><var>120.8</var>denied, the board may notify the applicant of any specific remedy that the applicant could <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.9"></a><var>120.9</var>take which, when passed, would qualify the applicant for licensure. A denial does not <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.10"></a><var>120.10</var>prohibit the applicant from applying for licensure under subdivision 2a.<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.11"></a><var>120.11</var>(e) A candidate whose application has been denied may appeal the decision to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.12"></a><var>120.12</var>board according to subdivision 4a.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.15.0"></a><a id="pl.120.13"></a><var>120.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.091, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.14"></a><var>120.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Initial license or permit fees.</b> Along with the application fee, each of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.15"></a><var>120.15</var>following applicants shall submit a separate prorated initial license or permit fee. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.16"></a><var>120.16</var>prorated initial fee shall be established by the board based on the number of months of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.17"></a><var>120.17</var>applicant's initial term as described in Minnesota Rules, part 3100.1700, subpart 1a, not to <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.18"></a><var>120.18</var>exceed the following monthly nonrefundable fee amounts:<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.19"></a><var>120.19</var>(1) dentist or full faculty dentist, $14 times the number of months of the initial <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.20"></a><var>120.20</var>term $168;<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.21"></a><var>120.21</var>(2) dental therapist, $10 times the number of months of the initial term $120;<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.22"></a><var>120.22</var>(3) dental hygienist, $5 times the number of months of the initial term $60;<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.23"></a><var>120.23</var>(4) licensed dental assistant, $3 times the number of months of the initial term<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.24"></a><var>120.24</var> $36; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.25"></a><var>120.25</var>(5) dental assistant with a permit as described in Minnesota Rules, part 3100.8500, <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.26"></a><var>120.26</var>subpart 3, $1 times the number of months of the initial term $12.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.16.0"></a><a id="pl.120.27"></a><var>120.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.091, subdivision 8, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.28"></a><var>120.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Duplicate license or certificate fee.</b> Each applicant shall submit, with <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.29"></a><var>120.29</var>a request for issuance of a duplicate of the original license, or of an annual or biennial <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.30"></a><var>120.30</var>renewal certificate for a license or permit, a fee in the following amounts:<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.31"></a><var>120.31</var>(1) original dentist, full faculty dentist, dental therapist, dental hygiene, or dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.120.32"></a><var>120.32</var>assistant license, $35; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.33"></a><var>120.33</var>(2) annual or biennial renewal certificates, $10.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.120.34"></a><var>120.34</var>(3) wallet-sized license and renewal certificate, $15.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.17.0"></a><a id="pl.121.1"></a><var>121.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.091, subdivision 16, is amended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.2"></a><var>121.2</var>read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.3"></a><var>121.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 16. <b>Failure of professional development portfolio audit.</b> A licensee shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.4"></a><var>121.4</var>submit a fee as established by the board not to exceed the amount of $250 after failing two <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.5"></a><var>121.5</var>consecutive professional development portfolio audits and, thereafter, for each failed (a) If <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.6"></a><var>121.6</var>a licensee fails a professional development portfolio audit under Minnesota Rules, part <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.7"></a><var>121.7</var>3100.5300, the board is authorized to take the following actions:<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.8"></a><var>121.8</var>(1) for the first failure, the board may issue a warning to the licensee;<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.9"></a><var>121.9</var>(2) for the second failure within ten years, the board may assess a penalty of not <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.10"></a><var>121.10</var>more than $250; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.11"></a><var>121.11</var>(3) for any additional failures within the ten year period, the board may assess a <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.12"></a><var>121.12</var>penalty of not more than $1000.<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.13"></a><var>121.13</var>(b) In addition to the penalty fee, the board may initiate the complaint process to <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.14"></a><var>121.14</var>address multiple failed audits.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.18.0"></a><a id="pl.121.15"></a><var>121.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 150A.10, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.16"></a><var>121.16</var><b>150A.10 ALLIED DENTAL PERSONNEL.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.121.17"></a><var>121.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Dental hygienists.</b> Any licensed dentist, licensed dental therapist, <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.18"></a><var>121.18</var>public institution, or school authority may obtain services from a licensed dental hygienist. <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.19"></a><var>121.19</var>The licensed dental hygienist may provide those services defined in section 
         <statute_ref>150A.05, <br />
            		<a id="pl.121.20"></a><var>121.20</var>subdivision 1a
         </statute_ref>. The services provided shall not include the establishment of a final <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.21"></a><var>121.21</var>diagnosis or treatment plan for a dental patient. All services shall be provided under <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.22"></a><var>121.22</var>supervision of a licensed dentist. Any licensed dentist who shall permit any dental service <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.23"></a><var>121.23</var>by a dental hygienist other than those authorized by the Board of Dentistry, shall be deemed <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.24"></a><var>121.24</var>to be violating the provisions of sections 
         <statute_ref>150A.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>150A.12</statute_ref>, and any unauthorized dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.25"></a><var>121.25</var>service by a dental hygienist shall constitute a violation of sections 
         <statute_ref>150A.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>150A.12</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.26"></a><var>121.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Limited authorization for dental hygienists.</b> (a) Notwithstanding <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.27"></a><var>121.27</var>subdivision 1, a dental hygienist licensed under this chapter may be employed or retained <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.28"></a><var>121.28</var>by a health care facility, program, or nonprofit organization to perform dental hygiene <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.29"></a><var>121.29</var>services described under paragraph (b) without the patient first being examined by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.30"></a><var>121.30</var>licensed dentist if the dental hygienist:<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.31"></a><var>121.31</var>(1) has been engaged in the active practice of clinical dental hygiene for not less than <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.32"></a><var>121.32</var>2,400 hours in the past 18 months or a career total of 3,000 hours, including a minimum of <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.33"></a><var>121.33</var>200 hours of clinical practice in two of the past three years;<br />
         		<a id="pl.121.34"></a><var>121.34</var>(2) has entered into a collaborative agreement with a licensed dentist that designates <br />
         		<a id="pl.121.35"></a><var>121.35</var>authorization for the services provided by the dental hygienist;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.1"></a><var>122.1</var>(3) has documented participation in courses in infection control and medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.2"></a><var>122.2</var>emergencies within each continuing education cycle; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.3"></a><var>122.3</var>(4) maintains current CPR certification from completion of the American Heart <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.4"></a><var>122.4</var>Association healthcare provider course, or the American Red Cross professional rescuer <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.5"></a><var>122.5</var>course, or an equivalent entity.<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.6"></a><var>122.6</var>(b) The dental hygiene services authorized to be performed by a dental hygienist <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.7"></a><var>122.7</var>under this subdivision are limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.8"></a><var>122.8</var>(1) oral health promotion and disease prevention education;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.9"></a><var>122.9</var>(2) removal of deposits and stains from the surfaces of the teeth;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.10"></a><var>122.10</var>(3) application of topical preventive or prophylactic agents, including fluoride <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.11"></a><var>122.11</var>varnishes and pit and fissure sealants;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.12"></a><var>122.12</var>(4) polishing and smoothing restorations;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.13"></a><var>122.13</var>(5) removal of marginal overhangs;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.14"></a><var>122.14</var>(6) performance of preliminary charting;<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.15"></a><var>122.15</var>(7) taking of radiographs; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.16"></a><var>122.16</var>(8) performance of scaling and root planing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.17"></a><var>122.17</var>The dental hygienist may administer injections of local anesthetic agents or nitrous <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.18"></a><var>122.18</var>oxide inhalation analgesia as specifically delegated in the collaborative agreement with <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.19"></a><var>122.19</var>a licensed dentist. The dentist need not first examine the patient or be present. If the <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.20"></a><var>122.20</var>patient is considered medically compromised, the collaborative dentist shall review the <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.21"></a><var>122.21</var>patient record, including the medical history, prior to the provision of these services. <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.22"></a><var>122.22</var>Collaborating dental hygienists may work with unlicensed and licensed dental assistants <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.23"></a><var>122.23</var>who may only perform duties for which licensure is not required. The performance of <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.24"></a><var>122.24</var>dental hygiene services in a health care facility, program, or nonprofit organization as <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.25"></a><var>122.25</var>authorized under this subdivision is limited to patients, students, and residents of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.26"></a><var>122.26</var>facility, program, or organization.<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.27"></a><var>122.27</var>(c) A collaborating dentist must be licensed under this chapter and may enter into <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.28"></a><var>122.28</var>a collaborative agreement with no more than four dental hygienists unless otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.29"></a><var>122.29</var>authorized by the board. The board shall develop parameters and a process for obtaining <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.30"></a><var>122.30</var>authorization to collaborate with more than four dental hygienists. The collaborative <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.31"></a><var>122.31</var>agreement must include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.122.32"></a><var>122.32</var>(1) consideration for medically compromised patients and medical conditions for <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.33"></a><var>122.33</var>which a dental evaluation and treatment plan must occur prior to the provision of dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.122.34"></a><var>122.34</var>hygiene services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.1"></a><var>123.1</var>(2) age- and procedure-specific standard collaborative practice protocols, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.2"></a><var>123.2</var>recommended intervals for the performance of dental hygiene services and a period of <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.3"></a><var>123.3</var>time in which an examination by a dentist should occur;<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.4"></a><var>123.4</var>(3) copies of consent to treatment form provided to the patient by the dental hygienist;<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.5"></a><var>123.5</var>(4) specific protocols for the placement of pit and fissure sealants and requirements <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.6"></a><var>123.6</var>for follow-up care to assure the efficacy of the sealants after application; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.7"></a><var>123.7</var>(5) a procedure for creating and maintaining dental records for the patients that are <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.8"></a><var>123.8</var>treated by the dental hygienist. This procedure must specify where these records are <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.9"></a><var>123.9</var>to be located.<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.10"></a><var>123.10</var>The collaborative agreement must be signed and maintained by the dentist, the dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.11"></a><var>123.11</var>hygienist, and the facility, program, or organization; must be reviewed annually by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.12"></a><var>123.12</var>collaborating dentist and dental hygienist; and must be made available to the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.13"></a><var>123.13</var>upon request.<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.14"></a><var>123.14</var>(d) Before performing any services authorized under this subdivision, a dental <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.15"></a><var>123.15</var>hygienist must provide the patient with a consent to treatment form which must include a <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.16"></a><var>123.16</var>statement advising the patient that the dental hygiene services provided are not a substitute <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.17"></a><var>123.17</var>for a dental examination by a licensed dentist. If the dental hygienist makes any referrals <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.18"></a><var>123.18</var>to the patient for further dental procedures, the dental hygienist must fill out a referral form <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.19"></a><var>123.19</var>and provide a copy of the form to the collaborating dentist.<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.20"></a><var>123.20</var>(e) For the purposes of this subdivision, a "health care facility, program, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.21"></a><var>123.21</var>nonprofit organization" is limited to a hospital; nursing home; home health agency; group <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.22"></a><var>123.22</var>home serving the elderly, disabled, or juveniles; state-operated facility licensed by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.23"></a><var>123.23</var>commissioner of human services or the commissioner of corrections; and federal, state, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.24"></a><var>123.24</var>local public health facility, community clinic, tribal clinic, school authority, Head Start <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.25"></a><var>123.25</var>program, or nonprofit organization that serves individuals who are uninsured or who are <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.26"></a><var>123.26</var>Minnesota health care public program recipients.<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.27"></a><var>123.27</var>(f) For purposes of this subdivision, a "collaborative agreement" means a written <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.28"></a><var>123.28</var>agreement with a licensed dentist who authorizes and accepts responsibility for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.29"></a><var>123.29</var>services performed by the dental hygienist. The services authorized under this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.30"></a><var>123.30</var>and the collaborative agreement may be performed without the presence of a licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.31"></a><var>123.31</var>dentist and may be performed at a location other than the usual place of practice of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.32"></a><var>123.32</var>dentist or dental hygienist and without a dentist's diagnosis and treatment plan, unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.33"></a><var>123.33</var>specified in the collaborative agreement.<br />
         		<a id="pl.123.34"></a><var>123.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Dental assistants.</b> Every licensed dentist and dental therapist who uses the <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.35"></a><var>123.35</var>services of any unlicensed person for the purpose of assistance in the practice of dentistry <br />
         		<a id="pl.123.36"></a><var>123.36</var>or dental therapy shall be responsible for the acts of such unlicensed person while engaged <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.1"></a><var>124.1</var>in such assistance. The dentist or dental therapist shall permit the unlicensed assistant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.2"></a><var>124.2</var>perform only those acts which are authorized to be delegated to unlicensed assistants <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.3"></a><var>124.3</var>by the Board of Dentistry. The acts shall be performed under supervision of a licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.4"></a><var>124.4</var>dentist or dental therapist. A licensed dental therapist shall not supervise more than four <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.5"></a><var>124.5</var>registered licensed or unlicensed dental assistants at any one practice setting. The board <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.6"></a><var>124.6</var>may permit differing levels of dental assistance based upon recognized educational <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.7"></a><var>124.7</var>standards, approved by the board, for the training of dental assistants. The board may also <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.8"></a><var>124.8</var>define by rule the scope of practice of licensed and unlicensed dental assistants. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.9"></a><var>124.9</var>board by rule may require continuing education for differing levels of dental assistants, <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.10"></a><var>124.10</var>as a condition to their license or authority to perform their authorized duties. Any <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.11"></a><var>124.11</var>licensed dentist or dental therapist who permits an unlicensed assistant to perform any <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.12"></a><var>124.12</var>dental service other than that authorized by the board shall be deemed to be enabling an <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.13"></a><var>124.13</var>unlicensed person to practice dentistry, and commission of such an act by an unlicensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.14"></a><var>124.14</var>assistant shall constitute a violation of sections 
         <statute_ref>150A.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>150A.12</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.15"></a><var>124.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Dental technicians.</b> Every licensed dentist and dental therapist who uses <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.16"></a><var>124.16</var>the services of any unlicensed person, other than under the dentist's or dental therapist's <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.17"></a><var>124.17</var>supervision and within the same practice setting, for the purpose of constructing, altering, <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.18"></a><var>124.18</var>repairing or duplicating any denture, partial denture, crown, bridge, splint, orthodontic, <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.19"></a><var>124.19</var>prosthetic or other dental appliance, shall be required to furnish such unlicensed person <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.20"></a><var>124.20</var>with a written work order in such form as shall be prescribed by the rules of the board. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.21"></a><var>124.21</var>work order shall be made in duplicate form, a duplicate copy to be retained in a permanent <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.22"></a><var>124.22</var>file of the dentist or dental therapist at the practice setting for a period of two years, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.23"></a><var>124.23</var>the original to be retained in a permanent file for a period of two years by the unlicensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.24"></a><var>124.24</var>person in that person's place of business. The permanent file of work orders to be kept <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.25"></a><var>124.25</var>by the dentist, dental therapist, or unlicensed person shall be open to inspection at any <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.26"></a><var>124.26</var>reasonable time by the board or its duly constituted agent.<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.27"></a><var>124.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Restorative procedures.</b> (a) Notwithstanding subdivisions 1, 1a, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.28"></a><var>124.28</var>2, a licensed dental hygienist or licensed dental assistant may perform the following <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.29"></a><var>124.29</var>restorative procedures:<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.30"></a><var>124.30</var>(1) place, contour, and adjust amalgam restorations;<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.31"></a><var>124.31</var>(2) place, contour, and adjust glass ionomer;<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.32"></a><var>124.32</var>(3) adapt and cement stainless steel crowns; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.33"></a><var>124.33</var>(4) place, contour, and adjust class I and class V supragingival composite restorations <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.34"></a><var>124.34</var>where the margins are entirely within the enamel.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.124.35"></a><var>124.35</var>(5) place, contour, and adjust class II and class V supragingival composite <br />
         		<a id="pl.124.36"></a><var>124.36</var>restorations on primary teeth.<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.1"></a><var>125.1</var>(b) The restorative procedures described in paragraph (a) may be performed only if:<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.2"></a><var>125.2</var>(1) the licensed dental hygienist or licensed dental assistant has completed a <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.3"></a><var>125.3</var>board-approved course on the specific procedures;<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.4"></a><var>125.4</var>(2) the board-approved course includes a component that sufficiently prepares the <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.5"></a><var>125.5</var>licensed dental hygienist or licensed dental assistant to adjust the occlusion on the newly <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.6"></a><var>125.6</var>placed restoration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.7"></a><var>125.7</var>(3) a licensed dentist or licensed advanced dental therapist has authorized the <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.8"></a><var>125.8</var>procedure to be performed; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.9"></a><var>125.9</var>(4) a licensed dentist or licensed advanced dental therapist is available in the clinic <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.10"></a><var>125.10</var>while the procedure is being performed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.11"></a><var>125.11</var>(c) The dental faculty who teaches the educators of the board-approved courses <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.12"></a><var>125.12</var>specified in paragraph (b) must have prior experience teaching these procedures in an <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.13"></a><var>125.13</var>accredited dental education program.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.19.0"></a><a id="pl.125.14"></a><var>125.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 214.09, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.15"></a><var>125.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Compensation.</b> (a) Members of the boards may be compensated at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.16"></a><var>125.16</var>rate of $55 a day spent on board activities, when authorized by the board, plus expenses <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.17"></a><var>125.17</var>in Members of health-related licensing boards may be compensated at the rate of $75 a <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.18"></a><var>125.18</var>day spent on board activities and members of nonhealth-related licensing boards may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.19"></a><var>125.19</var>compensated at the rate of $55 a day spent on board activities when authorized by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.20"></a><var>125.20</var>board, plus expenses in the same manner and amount as authorized by the commissioner's <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.21"></a><var>125.21</var>plan adopted under section 
         <statute_ref>43A.18, subdivision 2</statute_ref>. Members who, as a result of time spent <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.22"></a><var>125.22</var>attending board meetings, incur child care expenses that would not otherwise have been <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.23"></a><var>125.23</var>incurred, may be reimbursed for those expenses upon board authorization.<br />
         		<a id="pl.125.24"></a><var>125.24</var>(b) Members who are state employees or employees of the political subdivisions <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.25"></a><var>125.25</var>of the state must not receive the daily payment for activities that occur during working <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.26"></a><var>125.26</var>hours for which they are also compensated by the state or political subdivision. However, <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.27"></a><var>125.27</var>a state or political subdivision employee may receive the daily payment if the employee <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.28"></a><var>125.28</var>uses vacation time or compensatory time accumulated in accordance with a collective <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.29"></a><var>125.29</var>bargaining agreement or compensation plan for board activity. Members who are state <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.30"></a><var>125.30</var>employees or employees of the political subdivisions of the state may receive the expenses <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.31"></a><var>125.31</var>provided for in this subdivision unless the expenses are reimbursed by another source. <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.32"></a><var>125.32</var>Members who are state employees or employees of political subdivisions of the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.33"></a><var>125.33</var>may be reimbursed for child care expenses only for time spent on board activities that <br />
         		<a id="pl.125.34"></a><var>125.34</var>are outside their working hours.<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.1"></a><var>126.1</var>(c) Each board must adopt internal standards prescribing what constitutes a day <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.2"></a><var>126.2</var>spent on board activities for purposes of making daily payments under this subdivision.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.20.0"></a><a id="pl.126.3"></a><var>126.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 214.32, is amended by adding a subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.4"></a><var>126.4</var>to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.5"></a><var>126.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Duties of a participating board.</b> Upon receiving a report from the program <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.6"></a><var>126.6</var>manager in accordance with section 214.33, subdivision 3, that a regulated person has been <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.7"></a><var>126.7</var>discharged from the program due to noncompliance based on allegations that the regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.8"></a><var>126.8</var>person has engaged in conduct that might cause risk to the public, the participating board <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.9"></a><var>126.9</var>may temporarily suspend the regulated person's professional license until the completion of <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.10"></a><var>126.10</var>a disciplinary investigation. The board must complete the disciplinary investigation within <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.11"></a><var>126.11</var>60 days of receipt of the report from the program. If the investigation is not completed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.12"></a><var>126.12</var>the board within 60 days, the temporary suspension shall be lifted, unless the regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.13"></a><var>126.13</var>person requests a delay in the disciplinary proceedings for any reason, upon which the <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.14"></a><var>126.14</var>temporary suspension shall remain in place until the completion of the investigation.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.21.0"></a><a id="pl.126.15"></a><var>126.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 214.33, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.16"></a><var>126.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Program manager.</b> (a) The program manager shall report to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.17"></a><var>126.17</var>appropriate participating board a regulated person who:<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.18"></a><var>126.18</var>(1)  does not meet program admission criteria,; <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.19"></a><var>126.19</var>(2) violates the terms of the program participation agreement, or;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.20"></a><var>126.20</var>(3)  leaves or is discharged from the program except upon fulfilling the terms for <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.21"></a><var>126.21</var>successful completion of the program as set forth in the participation agreement.;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.22"></a><var>126.22</var>(4) is subject to the provisions of sections 214.17 to 214.25;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.23"></a><var>126.23</var>(5) causes identifiable patient harm;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.24"></a><var>126.24</var>(6) unlawfully substitutes or adulterates medications;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.25"></a><var>126.25</var>(7) writes a prescription or causes a prescription to be dispensed in the name of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.26"></a><var>126.26</var>person, other than the prescriber, or veterinary patient for the personal use of the prescriber;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.27"></a><var>126.27</var>(8) alters a prescription without the knowledge of the prescriber for the purpose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.28"></a><var>126.28</var>obtaining a drug for personal use;<br />
         		<a id="pl.126.29"></a><var>126.29</var>(9) unlawfully uses a controlled or mood-altering substance or uses alcohol while <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.30"></a><var>126.30</var>providing patient care or during the period of time in which the regulated person may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.31"></a><var>126.31</var>contacted to provide patient care or is otherwise on duty, if current use is the reason for <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.32"></a><var>126.32</var>participation in the program or the use occurs while the regulated person is participating <br />
         		<a id="pl.126.33"></a><var>126.33</var>in the program; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.1"></a><var>127.1</var>The program manager shall report to the appropriate participating board a regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.2"></a><var>127.2</var>person who (10) is alleged to have committed violations of the person's practice act that <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.3"></a><var>127.3</var>are outside the authority of the health professionals services program as described in <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.4"></a><var>127.4</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>214.31</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>214.37</statute_ref>. <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.5"></a><var>127.5</var>(b) The program manager shall inform any reporting person of the disposition of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.6"></a><var>127.6</var>person's report to the program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.7"></a><var>127.7</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective August 1, 2014, and applies to <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.8"></a><var>127.8</var>violations that occur after the effective date.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.9.22.0"></a><a id="pl.127.9"></a><var>127.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 364.09, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.10"></a><var>127.10</var><b>364.09 EXCEPTIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.127.11"></a><var>127.11</var>(a) This chapter does not apply to the licensing process for peace officers; to law <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.12"></a><var>127.12</var>enforcement agencies as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>626.84, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (f); to fire <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.13"></a><var>127.13</var>protection agencies; to eligibility for a private detective or protective agent license; to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.14"></a><var>127.14</var>licensing and background study process under chapters 245A and 245C; to eligibility <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.15"></a><var>127.15</var>for school bus driver endorsements; to eligibility for special transportation service <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.16"></a><var>127.16</var>endorsements; to eligibility for a commercial driver training instructor license, which is <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.17"></a><var>127.17</var>governed by section 
         <statute_ref>171.35</statute_ref> and rules adopted under that section; to emergency medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.18"></a><var>127.18</var>services personnel, or to the licensing by political subdivisions of taxicab drivers, if the <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.19"></a><var>127.19</var>applicant for the license has been discharged from sentence for a conviction within the ten <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.20"></a><var>127.20</var>years immediately preceding application of a violation of any of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.21"></a><var>127.21</var>(1) sections 
         <statute_ref>609.185</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.21</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.221</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.223</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.342</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.3451</statute_ref>, or 
         <statute_ref>617.23</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.22"></a><var>127.22</var>subdivision 2 or 3;<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.23"></a><var>127.23</var>(2) any provision of chapter 152 that is punishable by a maximum sentence of <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.24"></a><var>127.24</var>15 years or more; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.25"></a><var>127.25</var>(3) a violation of chapter 169 or 169A involving driving under the influence, leaving <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.26"></a><var>127.26</var>the scene of an accident, or reckless or careless driving.<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.27"></a><var>127.27</var>This chapter also shall not apply to eligibility for juvenile corrections employment, where <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.28"></a><var>127.28</var>the offense involved child physical or sexual abuse or criminal sexual conduct.<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.29"></a><var>127.29</var>(b) This chapter does not apply to a school district or to eligibility for a license <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.30"></a><var>127.30</var>issued or renewed by the Board of Teaching or the commissioner of education.<br />
         		<a id="pl.127.31"></a><var>127.31</var>(c) Nothing in this section precludes the Minnesota Police and Peace Officers <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.32"></a><var>127.32</var>Training Board or the state fire marshal from recommending policies set forth in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.33"></a><var>127.33</var>chapter to the attorney general for adoption in the attorney general's discretion to apply to <br />
         		<a id="pl.127.34"></a><var>127.34</var>law enforcement or fire protection agencies.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.1"></a><var>128.1</var>(d) This chapter does not apply to a license to practice medicine that has been denied <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.2"></a><var>128.2</var>or revoked by the Board of Medical Practice pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>147.091, subdivision 1a</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.3"></a><var>128.3</var>(e) This chapter does not apply to any person who has been denied a license to <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.4"></a><var>128.4</var>practice chiropractic or whose license to practice chiropractic has been revoked by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.5"></a><var>128.5</var>board in accordance with section 
         <statute_ref>148.10, subdivision 7</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.6"></a><var>128.6</var>(f) This chapter does not apply to any license, registration, or permit that has <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.7"></a><var>128.7</var>been denied or revoked by the Board of Nursing in accordance with section 148.261, <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.8"></a><var>128.8</var>subdivision 1a.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.9"></a><var>128.9</var>(f) (g) This chapter does not supersede a requirement under law to conduct a <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.10"></a><var>128.10</var>criminal history background investigation or consider criminal history records in hiring <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.11"></a><var>128.11</var>for particular types of employment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.128.12"></a><var>128.12</var><b>ARTICLE 10</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.128.13"></a><var>128.13</var><b>BOARD OF PHARMACY</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.10.1.0"></a><a id="pl.128.14"></a><var>128.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.01, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.15"></a><var>128.15</var><b>151.01 DEFINITIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.128.16"></a><var>128.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Words, terms, and phrases.</b> Unless the language or context clearly <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.17"></a><var>128.17</var>indicates that a different meaning is intended, the following words, terms, and phrases, for <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.18"></a><var>128.18</var>the purposes of this chapter, shall be given the meanings subjoined to them.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.19"></a><var>128.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Pharmacy.</b> "Pharmacy" means an established a place of business in <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.20"></a><var>128.20</var>which prescriptions, prescription drugs, medicines, chemicals, and poisons are prepared, <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.21"></a><var>128.21</var>compounded, or dispensed, vended, or sold to or for the use of patients by or under <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.22"></a><var>128.22</var>the supervision of a pharmacist and from which related clinical pharmacy services are <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.23"></a><var>128.23</var>delivered.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.24"></a><var>128.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2a. <b>Limited service pharmacy.</b> "Limited service pharmacy" means a <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.25"></a><var>128.25</var>pharmacy that has been issued a restricted license by the board to perform a limited range <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.26"></a><var>128.26</var>of the activities that constitute the practice of pharmacy.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.27"></a><var>128.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Pharmacist.</b> The term "pharmacist" means an individual with a currently <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.28"></a><var>128.28</var>valid license issued by the Board of Pharmacy to practice pharmacy.<br />
         		<a id="pl.128.29"></a><var>128.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Drug.</b> The term "drug" means all medicinal substances and preparations <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.30"></a><var>128.30</var>recognized by the United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary, or any revision <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.31"></a><var>128.31</var>thereof, vaccines and biologicals, and all substances and preparations intended for external <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.32"></a><var>128.32</var>and internal use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.33"></a><var>128.33</var>humans or other animals, and all substances and preparations, other than food, intended to <br />
         		<a id="pl.128.34"></a><var>128.34</var>affect the structure or any function of the bodies of humans or other animals. The term drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.1"></a><var>129.1</var>shall also mean any compound, substance, or derivative that is not approved for human <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.2"></a><var>129.2</var>consumption by the United States Food and Drug Administration or specifically permitted <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.3"></a><var>129.3</var>for human consumption under Minnesota law and, when introduced into the body, induces <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.4"></a><var>129.4</var>an effect similar to that of a Schedule I or Schedule II controlled substance listed in <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.5"></a><var>129.5</var>section 152.02, subdivisions 2 and 3, or Minnesota Rules, parts 6800.4210 and 6800.4220, <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.6"></a><var>129.6</var>regardless of whether the substance is marketed for the purpose of human consumption.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.7"></a><var>129.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Medicine.</b> The term "medicine" means any remedial agent that has the <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.8"></a><var>129.8</var>property of curing, preventing, treating, or mitigating diseases, or that is used for that <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.9"></a><var>129.9</var>purpose.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.10"></a><var>129.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Poisons.</b> The term "poisons" means any substance which that, when <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.11"></a><var>129.11</var>introduced into the system, directly or by absorption, produces violent, morbid, or fatal <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.12"></a><var>129.12</var>changes, or which that destroys living tissue with which it comes in contact.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.13"></a><var>129.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Chemical.</b> The term "chemical" means all medicinal or industrial <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.14"></a><var>129.14</var>substances, whether simple or compound, or obtained through the process of the science <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.15"></a><var>129.15</var>and art of chemistry, whether of organic or inorganic origin.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.16"></a><var>129.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Board or </b><b>State</b><b> Board of Pharmacy.</b> The term "board" or "State Board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.17"></a><var>129.17</var>Pharmacy" means the Minnesota State Board of Pharmacy.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.18"></a><var>129.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Director.</b> The term "director" means the executive director of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.19"></a><var>129.19</var>Minnesota State Board of Pharmacy.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.20"></a><var>129.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Person.</b> The term "person" means an individual, firm, partnership, <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.21"></a><var>129.21</var>company, corporation, trustee, association, agency, or other public or private entity.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.22"></a><var>129.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 12. <b>Wholesale.</b> The term "wholesale" means and includes any sale for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.23"></a><var>129.23</var>purpose of resale.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.24"></a><var>129.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 13. <b>Commercial purposes.</b> The phrase "commercial purposes" means the <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.25"></a><var>129.25</var>ordinary purposes of trade, agriculture, industry, and commerce, exclusive of the practices <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.26"></a><var>129.26</var>of medicine and, pharmacy, and other health care professions.<br />
         		<a id="pl.129.27"></a><var>129.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 14. <b>Manufacturing.</b> The term "manufacturing" except in the case of bulk <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.28"></a><var>129.28</var>compounding, prepackaging or extemporaneous compounding within a pharmacy, means <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.29"></a><var>129.29</var>and includes the production, quality control and standardization by mechanical, physical, <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.30"></a><var>129.30</var>chemical, or pharmaceutical means, packing, repacking, tableting, encapsulating, labeling, <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.31"></a><var>129.31</var>relabeling, filling or by any other process, of all drugs, medicines, chemicals, or poisons, <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.32"></a><var>129.32</var>without exception, for medicinal purposes. preparation, propagation, conversion, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.33"></a><var>129.33</var>processing of a drug, either directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of natural <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.34"></a><var>129.34</var>origin or independently by means of chemical or biological synthesis. Manufacturing <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.35"></a><var>129.35</var>includes the packaging or repackaging of a drug, or the labeling or relabeling of <br />
         		<a id="pl.129.36"></a><var>129.36</var>the container of a drug, for resale by pharmacies, practitioners, or other persons. <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.1"></a><var>130.1</var>Manufacturing does not include the prepackaging, extemporaneous compounding, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.2"></a><var>130.2</var>anticipatory compounding of a drug within a licensed pharmacy or by a practitioner, <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.3"></a><var>130.3</var>nor the labeling of a container within a pharmacy or by a practitioner for the purpose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.4"></a><var>130.4</var>dispensing a drug to a patient pursuant to a valid prescription.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.5"></a><var>130.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 14a. <b>Manufacturer.</b> The term "manufacturer" means any person engaged <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.6"></a><var>130.6</var>in manufacturing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.7"></a><var>130.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 14b. <b>Outsourcing facility.</b> "Outsourcing facility" means a facility that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.8"></a><var>130.8</var>registered by the United States Food and Drug Administration pursuant to United States <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.9"></a><var>130.9</var>Code, title 21, section 353b.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.10"></a><var>130.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15. <b>Pharmacist intern.</b> The term "pharmacist intern" means (1) a natural <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.11"></a><var>130.11</var>person satisfactorily progressing toward the degree in pharmacy required for licensure, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.12"></a><var>130.12</var>(2) a graduate of the University of Minnesota College of Pharmacy, or other pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.13"></a><var>130.13</var>college approved by the board, who is registered by the State Board of Pharmacy for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.14"></a><var>130.14</var>purpose of obtaining practical experience as a requirement for licensure as a pharmacist, <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.15"></a><var>130.15</var>or (3) a qualified applicant awaiting examination for licensure.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.16"></a><var>130.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 15a. <b>Pharmacy technician.</b> The term "pharmacy technician" means a person <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.17"></a><var>130.17</var>not licensed as a pharmacist or a pharmacist intern, who assists the pharmacist in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.18"></a><var>130.18</var>preparation and dispensing of medications by performing computer entry of prescription <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.19"></a><var>130.19</var>data and other manipulative tasks. A pharmacy technician shall not perform tasks <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.20"></a><var>130.20</var>specifically reserved to a licensed pharmacist or requiring professional judgment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.21"></a><var>130.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 16. <b>Prescription</b><b> drug order</b><b>.</b> The term "prescription drug order" means a <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.22"></a><var>130.22</var>signed lawful written order, or an, oral, or electronic order reduced to writing, given by of<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.23"></a><var>130.23</var> a practitioner licensed to prescribe drugs for patients in the course of the practitioner's <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.24"></a><var>130.24</var>practice, issued for an individual patient and containing the following: the date of issue, <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.25"></a><var>130.25</var>name and address of the patient, name and quantity of the drug prescribed, directions <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.26"></a><var>130.26</var>for use, and the name and address of the prescriber. for a drug for a specific patient. <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.27"></a><var>130.27</var>Prescription drug orders for controlled substances must be prepared in accordance with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.28"></a><var>130.28</var>provisions of section 152.11 and the federal Controlled Substances Act and the regulations <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.29"></a><var>130.29</var>promulgated thereunder.<br />
         		<a id="pl.130.30"></a><var>130.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 16a. <b>Prescription.</b> The term "prescription" means a prescription drug order <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.31"></a><var>130.31</var>that is written or printed on paper, an oral order reduced to writing by a pharmacist, or an <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.32"></a><var>130.32</var>electronic order. To be valid, a prescription must be issued for an individual patient by <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.33"></a><var>130.33</var>a practitioner within the scope and usual course of the practitioner's practice, and must <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.34"></a><var>130.34</var>contain the date of issue, name and address of the patient, name and quantity of the drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.35"></a><var>130.35</var>prescribed, directions for use, the name and address of the practitioner, and a telephone <br />
         		<a id="pl.130.36"></a><var>130.36</var>number at which the practitioner can be reached. A prescription written or printed on <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.1"></a><var>131.1</var>paper that is given to the patient or an agent of the patient or that is transmitted by fax <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.2"></a><var>131.2</var>must contain the practitioner's manual signature. An electronic prescription must contain <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.3"></a><var>131.3</var>the practitioner's electronic signature.<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.4"></a><var>131.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 16b. <b>Chart order.</b> The term "chart order" means a prescription drug order for <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.5"></a><var>131.5</var>a drug that is to be dispensed by a pharmacist, or by a pharmacist intern under the direct <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.6"></a><var>131.6</var>supervision of a pharmacist, and administered by an authorized person only during the <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.7"></a><var>131.7</var>patient's stay in a hospital or long-term care facility. The chart order shall contain the name <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.8"></a><var>131.8</var>of the patient, another patient identifier such as birth date or medical record number, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.9"></a><var>131.9</var>drug ordered, and any directions that the practitioner may prescribe concerning strength, <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.10"></a><var>131.10</var>dosage, frequency, and route of administration. The manual or electronic signature of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.11"></a><var>131.11</var>practitioner must be affixed to the chart order at the time it is written or at a later date in <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.12"></a><var>131.12</var>the case of verbal chart orders.<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.13"></a><var>131.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 17. <b>Legend drug.</b> "Legend drug" means a drug which that is required by <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.14"></a><var>131.14</var>federal law to bear the following statement, "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.15"></a><var>131.15</var>without prescription." be dispensed only pursuant to the prescription of a licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.16"></a><var>131.16</var>practitioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.17"></a><var>131.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 18. <b>Label.</b> "Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic matter <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.18"></a><var>131.18</var>upon the immediate container of any drug or medicine; and a requirement made by or <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.19"></a><var>131.19</var>under authority of Laws 1969, chapter 933 that. Any word, statement, or other information <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.20"></a><var>131.20</var>appearing required by or under the authority of this chapter to appear on the label shall not <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.21"></a><var>131.21</var>be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.22"></a><var>131.22</var>appears appear on the outside container or wrapper, if any there be, of the retail package of <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.23"></a><var>131.23</var>such drug or medicine, or is be easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.24"></a><var>131.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 19. <b>Package.</b> "Package" means any container or wrapping in which any <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.25"></a><var>131.25</var>drug or medicine is enclosed for use in the delivery or display of that article to retail <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.26"></a><var>131.26</var>purchasers, but does not include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.27"></a><var>131.27</var>(a) shipping containers or wrappings used solely for the transportation of any such <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.28"></a><var>131.28</var>article in bulk or in quantity to manufacturers, packers, processors, or wholesale or <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.29"></a><var>131.29</var>retail distributors;<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.30"></a><var>131.30</var>(b) shipping containers or outer wrappings used by retailers to ship or deliver any <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.31"></a><var>131.31</var>such article to retail customers if such containers and wrappings bear no printed matter <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.32"></a><var>131.32</var>pertaining to any particular drug or medicine.<br />
         		<a id="pl.131.33"></a><var>131.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 20. <b>Labeling.</b> "Labeling" means all labels and other written, printed, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.34"></a><var>131.34</var>graphic matter (a) upon a drug or medicine or any of its containers or wrappers, or (b) <br />
         		<a id="pl.131.35"></a><var>131.35</var>accompanying such article.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.1"></a><var>132.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 21. <b>Federal act.</b> "Federal act" means the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.2"></a><var>132.2</var>Act, United States Code, title 21, section 301, et seq., as amended.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.3"></a><var>132.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 22. <b>Pharmacist in charge.</b> "Pharmacist in charge" means a duly licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.4"></a><var>132.4</var>pharmacist in the state of Minnesota who has been designated in accordance with the rules <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.5"></a><var>132.5</var>of the State Board of Pharmacy to assume professional responsibility for the operation <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.6"></a><var>132.6</var>of the pharmacy in compliance with the requirements and duties as established by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.7"></a><var>132.7</var>board in its rules.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.8"></a><var>132.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 23. <b>Practitioner.</b> "Practitioner" means a licensed doctor of medicine, licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.9"></a><var>132.9</var>doctor of osteopathy duly licensed to practice medicine, licensed doctor of dentistry, <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.10"></a><var>132.10</var>licensed doctor of optometry, licensed podiatrist, or licensed veterinarian. For purposes of <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.11"></a><var>132.11</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>151.15, subdivision 4</statute_ref>; 151.252, subdivision 3; 
         <statute_ref>151.37, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraphs <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.12"></a><var>132.12</var>(b), (e), and (f); and 
         <statute_ref>151.461</statute_ref>, "practitioner" also means a physician assistant authorized to <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.13"></a><var>132.13</var>prescribe, dispense, and administer under chapter 147A, or an advanced practice nurse <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.14"></a><var>132.14</var>authorized to prescribe, dispense, and administer under section 
         <statute_ref>148.235</statute_ref>. For purposes of <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.15"></a><var>132.15</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>151.15, subdivision 4</statute_ref>; 151.252, subdivision 3; 
         <statute_ref>151.37, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.16"></a><var>132.16</var>(b); and 
         <statute_ref>151.461</statute_ref>, "practitioner" also means a dental therapist authorized to dispense and <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.17"></a><var>132.17</var>administer under chapter 150A.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.18"></a><var>132.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 24. <b>Brand name.</b> "Brand name" means the registered trademark name given <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.19"></a><var>132.19</var>to a drug product by its manufacturer, labeler or distributor.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.20"></a><var>132.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 25. <b>Generic name.</b> "Generic name" means the established name or official <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.21"></a><var>132.21</var>name of a drug or drug product.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.22"></a><var>132.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 26. <b>Finished dosage form.</b> "Finished dosage form" means that form of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.23"></a><var>132.23</var>drug which that is or is intended to be dispensed or administered to the patient and requires <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.24"></a><var>132.24</var>no further manufacturing or processing other than packaging, reconstitution, or labeling.<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.25"></a><var>132.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 27. <b>Practice of pharmacy.</b> "Practice of pharmacy" means:<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.26"></a><var>132.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) interpretation and evaluation of prescription drug orders;<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.27"></a><var>132.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) compounding, labeling, and dispensing drugs and devices (except labeling by <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.28"></a><var>132.28</var>a manufacturer or packager of nonprescription drugs or commercially packaged legend <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.29"></a><var>132.29</var>drugs and devices);<br />
         		<a id="pl.132.30"></a><var>132.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) participation in clinical interpretations and monitoring of drug therapy for <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.31"></a><var>132.31</var>assurance of safe and effective use of drugs, including the performance of laboratory tests <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.32"></a><var>132.32</var>that are waived under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988, United <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.33"></a><var>132.33</var>States Code, title 42, section 263a et seq., provided that a pharmacist may interpret the <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.34"></a><var>132.34</var>results of laboratory tests but may modify drug therapy only pursuant to a protocol or <br />
         		<a id="pl.132.35"></a><var>132.35</var>collaborative practice agreement;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.1"></a><var>133.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) participation in drug and therapeutic device selection; drug administration for first <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.2"></a><var>133.2</var>dosage and medical emergencies; drug regimen reviews; and drug or drug-related research;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.3"></a><var>133.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) participation in administration of influenza vaccines to all eligible individuals ten <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.4"></a><var>133.4</var>years of age and older and all other vaccines to patients 18 years of age and older under <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.5"></a><var>133.5</var>standing orders from a physician licensed under chapter 147 or by written protocol with a <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.6"></a><var>133.6</var>physician licensed under chapter 147, a physician assistant authorized to prescribe drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.7"></a><var>133.7</var>under chapter 147A, or an advanced practice nurse authorized to prescribe drugs under <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.8"></a><var>133.8</var>section 148.235, provided that:<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.9"></a><var>133.9</var>(i) the protocol includes, at a minimum:<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.10"></a><var>133.10</var>(A) the name, dose, and route of each vaccine that may be given;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.11"></a><var>133.11</var>(B) the patient population for whom the vaccine may be given;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.12"></a><var>133.12</var>(C) contraindications and precautions to the vaccine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.13"></a><var>133.13</var>(D) the procedure for handling an adverse reaction;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.14"></a><var>133.14</var>(E) the name, signature, and address of the physician, physician assistant, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.15"></a><var>133.15</var>advanced nurse practitioner;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.16"></a><var>133.16</var>(F) a telephone number at which the physician, physician assistant, or advanced <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.17"></a><var>133.17</var>nurse practitioner can be contacted; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.18"></a><var>133.18</var>(G) the date and time period for which the protocol is valid;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.19"></a><var>133.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) (ii) the pharmacist is trained in has successfully completed a program approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.20"></a><var>133.20</var>by the American Accreditation Council of Pharmaceutical for Pharmacy Education <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.21"></a><var>133.21</var>specifically for the administration of immunizations or graduated from a college of <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.22"></a><var>133.22</var>pharmacy in 2001 or thereafter a program approved by the board; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.23"></a><var>133.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) (iii) the pharmacist reports the administration of the immunization to the patient's <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.24"></a><var>133.24</var>primary physician or clinic or to the Minnesota Immunization Information Connection; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.25"></a><var>133.25</var>(iv) the pharmacist complies with guidelines for vaccines and immunizations <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.26"></a><var>133.26</var>established by the federal Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, except that a <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.27"></a><var>133.27</var>pharmacist does not need to comply with those portions of the guidelines that establish <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.28"></a><var>133.28</var>immunization schedules when administering a vaccine pursuant to a valid, patient-specific <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.29"></a><var>133.29</var>order issued by a physician licensed under chapter 147, a physician assistant authorized to <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.30"></a><var>133.30</var>prescribe drugs under chapter 147A, or an advanced practice nurse authorized to prescribe <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.31"></a><var>133.31</var>drugs under section 148.235, provided that the order is consistent with the United States <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.32"></a><var>133.32</var>Food and Drug Administration approved labeling of the vaccine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.133.33"></a><var>133.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) participation in the practice of managing drug therapy and modifying initiation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.34"></a><var>133.34</var>management, modification, and discontinuation of drug therapy, according to section <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.35"></a><var>133.35</var><statute_ref>151.21, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, according to a written protocol or collaborative practice agreement <br />
         		<a id="pl.133.36"></a><var>133.36</var>between the specific pharmacist: (i) one or more pharmacists and the individual dentist, <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.1"></a><var>134.1</var>optometrist, physician, podiatrist, or veterinarian who is responsible for the patient's <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.2"></a><var>134.2</var>care and authorized to independently prescribe drugs one or more dentists, optometrists, <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.3"></a><var>134.3</var>physicians, podiatrists, or veterinarians; or (ii) one or more pharmacists and one or more <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.4"></a><var>134.4</var>physician assistants authorized to prescribe, dispense, and administer under chapter 147A, <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.5"></a><var>134.5</var>or advanced practice nurses authorized to prescribe, dispense, and administer under <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.6"></a><var>134.6</var>section 148.235. Any significant changes in drug therapy made pursuant to a protocol or <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.7"></a><var>134.7</var>collaborative practice agreement must be reported documented by the pharmacist to in<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.8"></a><var>134.8</var> the patient's medical record or reported by the pharmacist to a practitioner responsible <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.9"></a><var>134.9</var>for the patient's care;<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.10"></a><var>134.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) participation in the storage of drugs and the maintenance of records;<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.11"></a><var>134.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) responsibility for participation in patient counseling on therapeutic values, <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.12"></a><var>134.12</var>content, hazards, and uses of drugs and devices; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.13"></a><var>134.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) offering or performing those acts, services, operations, or transactions necessary <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.14"></a><var>134.14</var>in the conduct, operation, management, and control of a pharmacy.<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.15"></a><var>134.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 27a. <b>Protocol.</b> "Protocol" means:<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.16"></a><var>134.16</var>(1) a specific written plan that describes the nature and scope of activities that a <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.17"></a><var>134.17</var>pharmacist may engage in when initiating, managing, modifying, or discontinuing drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.18"></a><var>134.18</var>therapy as allowed in subdivision 27, clause (6); or<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.19"></a><var>134.19</var>(2) a specific written plan that authorizes a pharmacist to administer vaccines and <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.20"></a><var>134.20</var>that complies with subdivision 27, clause (5).<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.21"></a><var>134.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 27b. <b>Collaborative practice.</b> "Collaborative practice" means patient care <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.22"></a><var>134.22</var>activities, consistent with subdivision 27, engaged in by one or more pharmacists who <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.23"></a><var>134.23</var>have agreed to work in collaboration with one or more practitioners to initiate, manage, <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.24"></a><var>134.24</var>and modify drug therapy under specified conditions mutually agreed to by the pharmacists <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.25"></a><var>134.25</var>and practitioners.<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.26"></a><var>134.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 27c. <b>Collaborative practice agreement.</b> "Collaborative practice agreement" <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.27"></a><var>134.27</var>means a written and signed agreement between one or more pharmacists and one or more <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.28"></a><var>134.28</var>practitioners that allows the pharmacist or pharmacists to engage in collaborative practice.<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.29"></a><var>134.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 28. <b>Veterinary legend drug.</b> "Veterinary legend drug" means a drug that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.30"></a><var>134.30</var>required by federal law to bear the following statement: "Caution: Federal law restricts <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.31"></a><var>134.31</var>this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian." be dispensed only pursuant <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.32"></a><var>134.32</var>to the prescription of a licensed veterinarian.<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.33"></a><var>134.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 29. <b>Legend medical gas.</b> "Legend medical gas" means a liquid or gaseous <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.34"></a><var>134.34</var>substance used for medical purposes and that is required by federal law to bear the <br />
         		<a id="pl.134.35"></a><var>134.35</var>following statement: "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription."<br />
         		<a id="pl.134.36"></a><var>134.36</var> be dispensed only pursuant to the prescription of a licensed practitioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.1"></a><var>135.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 30. <b>Dispense or dispensing.</b> "Dispense or dispensing" means the preparation <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.2"></a><var>135.2</var>or delivery of a drug pursuant to a lawful order of a practitioner in a suitable container <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.3"></a><var>135.3</var>appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use by a patient or other individual <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.4"></a><var>135.4</var>entitled to receive the drug. interpretation, evaluation, and processing of a prescription <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.5"></a><var>135.5</var>drug order and includes those processes specified by the board in rule that are necessary <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.6"></a><var>135.6</var>for the preparation and provision of a drug to a patient or patient's agent in a suitable <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.7"></a><var>135.7</var>container appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to, or use by, a patient.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.8"></a><var>135.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 31. <b>Central service pharmacy.</b> "Central service pharmacy" means a <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.9"></a><var>135.9</var>pharmacy that may provide dispensing functions, drug utilization review, packaging, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.10"></a><var>135.10</var>labeling, or delivery of a prescription product to another pharmacy for the purpose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.11"></a><var>135.11</var>filling a prescription.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.12"></a><var>135.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 32. <b>Electronic signature.</b> "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.13"></a><var>135.13</var>symbol, or process attached to or associated with a record and executed or adopted by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.14"></a><var>135.14</var>person with the intent to sign the record.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.15"></a><var>135.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 33. <b>Electronic transmission.</b> "Electronic transmission" means transmission <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.16"></a><var>135.16</var>of information in electronic form.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.17"></a><var>135.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 34. <b>Health professional shortage area.</b> "Health professional shortage area" <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.18"></a><var>135.18</var>means an area designated as such by the federal Secretary of Health and Human Services, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.19"></a><var>135.19</var>as provided under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part 5, and United States Code, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.20"></a><var>135.20</var>title 42, section 254E.<br />
         		<a id="pl.135.21"></a><var>135.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 35. <b>Compounding.</b> "Compounding" means preparing, mixing, assembling, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.22"></a><var>135.22</var>packaging, and labeling a drug for an identified individual patient as a result of <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.23"></a><var>135.23</var>a practitioner's prescription drug order. Compounding also includes anticipatory <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.24"></a><var>135.24</var>compounding, as defined in this section, and the preparation of drugs in which all bulk <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.25"></a><var>135.25</var>drug substances and components are nonprescription substances. Compounding does <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.26"></a><var>135.26</var>not include mixing or reconstituting a drug according to the product's labeling or to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.27"></a><var>135.27</var>manufacturer's directions. Compounding does not include the preparation of a drug for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.28"></a><var>135.28</var>purpose of, or incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis, provided that the drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.29"></a><var>135.29</var>is not prepared for dispensing or administration to patients. All compounding, regardless <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.30"></a><var>135.30</var>of the type of product, must be done pursuant to a prescription drug order unless otherwise <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.31"></a><var>135.31</var>permitted in this chapter or by the rules of the board. Compounding does not include a <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.32"></a><var>135.32</var>minor deviation from such directions with regard to radioactivity, volume, or stability, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.33"></a><var>135.33</var>which is made by or under the supervision of a licensed nuclear pharmacist or a physician, <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.34"></a><var>135.34</var>and which is necessary in order to accommodate circumstances not contemplated in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.35"></a><var>135.35</var>manufacturer's instructions, such as the rate of radioactive decay or geographical distance <br />
         		<a id="pl.135.36"></a><var>135.36</var>from the patient.<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.1"></a><var>136.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 36. <b>Anticipatory compounding.</b> "Anticipatory compounding" means the <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.2"></a><var>136.2</var>preparation by a pharmacy of a supply of a compounded drug product that is sufficient to <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.3"></a><var>136.3</var>meet the short-term anticipated need of the pharmacy for the filling of prescription drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.4"></a><var>136.4</var>orders. In the case of practitioners only, anticipatory compounding means the preparation <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.5"></a><var>136.5</var>of a supply of a compounded drug product that is sufficient to meet the practitioner's <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.6"></a><var>136.6</var>short-term anticipated need for dispensing or administering the drug to patients treated <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.7"></a><var>136.7</var>by the practitioner. Anticipatory compounding is not the preparation of a compounded <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.8"></a><var>136.8</var>drug product for wholesale distribution.<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.9"></a><var>136.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 37. <b>Extemporaneous compounding.</b> "Extemporaneous compounding" <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.10"></a><var>136.10</var>means the compounding of a drug product pursuant to a prescription drug order for a specific <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.11"></a><var>136.11</var>patient that is issued in advance of the compounding. Extemporaneous compounding is <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.12"></a><var>136.12</var>not the preparation of a compounded drug product for wholesale distribution.<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.13"></a><var>136.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 38. <b>Compounded positron emission tomography drug.</b> "Compounded <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.14"></a><var>136.14</var>positron emission tomography drug" means a drug that:<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.15"></a><var>136.15</var>(1) exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei by the emission of <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.16"></a><var>136.16</var>positrons and is used for the purpose of providing dual photon positron emission <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.17"></a><var>136.17</var>tomographic diagnostic images;<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.18"></a><var>136.18</var>(2) has been compounded by or on the order of a practitioner in accordance with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.19"></a><var>136.19</var>relevant parts of Minnesota Rules, chapters 4731 and 6800, for a patient or for research, <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.20"></a><var>136.20</var>teaching, or quality control; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.21"></a><var>136.21</var>(3) includes any nonradioactive reagent, reagent kit, ingredient, nuclide generator, <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.22"></a><var>136.22</var>accelerator, target material, electronic synthesizer, or other apparatus or computer program <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.23"></a><var>136.23</var>to be used in the preparation of such a drug.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.2.0"></a><a id="pl.136.24"></a><var>136.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.06, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.25"></a><var>136.25</var><b>151.06 POWERS AND DUTIES.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.136.26"></a><var>136.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Generally; rules.</b> (a) Powers and duties. The Board of Pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.27"></a><var>136.27</var>shall have the power and it shall be its duty:<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.28"></a><var>136.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) to regulate the practice of pharmacy;<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.29"></a><var>136.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) to regulate the manufacture, wholesale, and retail sale of drugs within this state;<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.30"></a><var>136.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) to regulate the identity, labeling, purity, and quality of all drugs and medicines <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.31"></a><var>136.31</var>dispensed in this state, using the United States Pharmacopeia and the National Formulary, <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.32"></a><var>136.32</var>or any revisions thereof, or standards adopted under the federal act as the standard;<br />
         		<a id="pl.136.33"></a><var>136.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) to enter and inspect by its authorized representative any and all places where <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.34"></a><var>136.34</var>drugs, medicines, medical gases, or veterinary drugs or devices are sold, vended, given <br />
         		<a id="pl.136.35"></a><var>136.35</var>away, compounded, dispensed, manufactured, wholesaled, or held; it may secure samples <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.1"></a><var>137.1</var>or specimens of any drugs, medicines, medical gases, or veterinary drugs or devices <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.2"></a><var>137.2</var>after paying or offering to pay for such sample; it shall be entitled to inspect and make <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.3"></a><var>137.3</var>copies of any and all records of shipment, purchase, manufacture, quality control, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.4"></a><var>137.4</var>sale of these items provided, however, that such inspection shall not extend to financial <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.5"></a><var>137.5</var>data, sales data, or pricing data;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.6"></a><var>137.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) to examine and license as pharmacists all applicants whom it shall deem qualified <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.7"></a><var>137.7</var>to be such;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.8"></a><var>137.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) to license wholesale drug distributors;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.9"></a><var>137.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) to deny, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew take disciplinary action against any <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.10"></a><var>137.10</var>registration or license required under this chapter, to any applicant or registrant or licensee<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.11"></a><var>137.11</var> upon any of the following grounds: listed in section 151.071, and in accordance with <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.12"></a><var>137.12</var>the provisions of section 151.071;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.13"></a><var>137.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) fraud or deception in connection with the securing of such license or registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.14"></a><var>137.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ii) in the case of a pharmacist, conviction in any court of a felony;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.15"></a><var>137.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iii) in the case of a pharmacist, conviction in any court of an offense involving <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.16"></a><var>137.16</var>moral turpitude;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.17"></a><var>137.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(iv) habitual indulgence in the use of narcotics, stimulants, or depressant drugs; <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.18"></a><var>137.18</var>or habitual indulgence in intoxicating liquors in a manner which could cause conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.19"></a><var>137.19</var>endangering public health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.20"></a><var>137.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(v) unprofessional conduct or conduct endangering public health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.21"></a><var>137.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(vi) gross immorality;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.22"></a><var>137.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(vii) employing, assisting, or enabling in any manner an unlicensed person to <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.23"></a><var>137.23</var>practice pharmacy;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.24"></a><var>137.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(viii) conviction of theft of drugs, or the unauthorized use, possession, or sale thereof;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.25"></a><var>137.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(ix) violation of any of the provisions of this chapter or any of the rules of the State <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.26"></a><var>137.26</var>Board of Pharmacy;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.27"></a><var>137.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(x) in the case of a pharmacy license, operation of such pharmacy without a <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.28"></a><var>137.28</var>pharmacist present and on duty;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.29"></a><var>137.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(xi) in the case of a pharmacist, physical or mental disability which could cause <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.30"></a><var>137.30</var>incompetency in the practice of pharmacy;<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.31"></a><var>137.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(xii) in the case of a pharmacist, the suspension or revocation of a license to practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.32"></a><var>137.32</var>pharmacy in another state; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.33"></a><var>137.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(xiii) in the case of a pharmacist, aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide in <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.34"></a><var>137.34</var>violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215</statute_ref> as established by any of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.137.35"></a><var>137.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(A) a copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a felony in <br />
         		<a id="pl.137.36"></a><var>137.36</var>violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision 1</statute_ref> or 2;<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.1"></a><var>138.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(B) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for violating an <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.2"></a><var>138.2</var>injunction issued under section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision 4</statute_ref>;<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.3"></a><var>138.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(C) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, <br />
            		<a id="pl.138.4"></a><var>138.4</var>subdivision 5
         </statute_ref>; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.5"></a><var>138.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(D) a finding by the board that the person violated section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, subdivision <br />
            		<a id="pl.138.6"></a><var>138.6</var>1
         </statute_ref> or 2. The board shall investigate any complaint of a violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.215, <br />
            		<a id="pl.138.7"></a><var>138.7</var>subdivision 1
         </statute_ref> or 2;<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.8"></a><var>138.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) to employ necessary assistants and adopt rules for the conduct of its business;<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.9"></a><var>138.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) to register as pharmacy technicians all applicants who the board determines are <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.10"></a><var>138.10</var>qualified to carry out the duties of a pharmacy technician; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.11"></a><var>138.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) to perform such other duties and exercise such other powers as the provisions of <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.12"></a><var>138.12</var>the act may require.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.13"></a><var>138.13</var>(11) to enter and inspect any business to which it issues a license or registration.<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.14"></a><var>138.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Temporary suspension. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.15"></a><var>138.15</var>may, without a hearing, temporarily suspend a license for not more than 60 days if the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.16"></a><var>138.16</var>finds that a pharmacist has violated a statute or rule that the board is empowered to enforce <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.17"></a><var>138.17</var>and continued practice by the pharmacist would create an imminent risk of harm to others. <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.18"></a><var>138.18</var>The suspension shall take effect upon written notice to the pharmacist, specifying the <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.19"></a><var>138.19</var>statute or rule violated. At the time it issues the suspension notice, the board shall schedule <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.20"></a><var>138.20</var>a disciplinary hearing to be held under the Administrative Procedure Act. The pharmacist <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.21"></a><var>138.21</var>shall be provided with at least 20 days' notice of any hearing held under this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.22"></a><var>138.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) (b) Rules. For the purposes aforesaid, it shall be the duty of the board to make <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.23"></a><var>138.23</var>and publish uniform rules not inconsistent herewith for carrying out and enforcing <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.24"></a><var>138.24</var>the provisions of this chapter. The board shall adopt rules regarding prospective drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.25"></a><var>138.25</var>utilization review and patient counseling by pharmacists. A pharmacist in the exercise of <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.26"></a><var>138.26</var>the pharmacist's professional judgment, upon the presentation of a new prescription by a <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.27"></a><var>138.27</var>patient or the patient's caregiver or agent, shall perform the prospective drug utilization <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.28"></a><var>138.28</var>review required by rules issued under this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.138.29"></a><var>138.29</var>(d) (c) Substitution; rules. If the United States Food and Drug Administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.30"></a><var>138.30</var>(FDA) determines that the substitution of drugs used for the treatment of epilepsy or <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.31"></a><var>138.31</var>seizures poses a health risk to patients, the board shall adopt rules in accordance with <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.32"></a><var>138.32</var>accompanying FDA interchangeability standards regarding the use of substitution for <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.33"></a><var>138.33</var>these drugs. If the board adopts a rule regarding the substitution of drugs used for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.34"></a><var>138.34</var>treatment of epilepsy or seizures that conflicts with the substitution requirements of <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.35"></a><var>138.35</var>section 
         <statute_ref>151.21, subdivision 3</statute_ref>, the rule shall supersede the conflicting statute. If the rule <br />
         		<a id="pl.138.36"></a><var>138.36</var>proposed by the board would increase state costs for state public health care programs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.1"></a><var>139.1</var>the board shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate Health <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.2"></a><var>139.2</var>and Human Services Budget Division and the house of representatives Health Care and <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.3"></a><var>139.3</var>Human Services Finance Division the proposed rule and the increased cost associated <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.4"></a><var>139.4</var>with the proposed rule before the board may adopt the rule.<br />
         		<a id="pl.139.5"></a><var>139.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Disciplinary action</b><b> Cease and desist orders</b><b>.</b> It shall be grounds for <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.6"></a><var>139.6</var>disciplinary action by the Board of Pharmacy against the registration of the pharmacy if <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.7"></a><var>139.7</var>the Board of Pharmacy determines that any person with supervisory responsibilities at the <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.8"></a><var>139.8</var>pharmacy sets policies that prevent a licensed pharmacist from providing drug utilization <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.9"></a><var>139.9</var>review and patient counseling as required by rules adopted under subdivision 1. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.10"></a><var>139.10</var>Board of Pharmacy shall follow the requirements of chapter 14 in any disciplinary actions <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.11"></a><var>139.11</var>taken under this section. (a) Whenever it appears to the board that a person has engaged in <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.12"></a><var>139.12</var>an act or practice constituting a violation of a law, rule, or other order related to the duties <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.13"></a><var>139.13</var>and responsibilities entrusted to the board, the board may issue and cause to be served <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.14"></a><var>139.14</var>upon the person an order requiring the person to cease and desist from violations.<br />
         		<a id="pl.139.15"></a><var>139.15</var>(b) The cease and desist order must state the reasons for the issuance of the order <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.16"></a><var>139.16</var>and must give reasonable notice of the rights of the person to request a hearing before <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.17"></a><var>139.17</var>an administrative law judge. A hearing must be held not later than ten days after the <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.18"></a><var>139.18</var>request for the hearing is received by the board. After the completion of the hearing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.19"></a><var>139.19</var>the administrative law judge shall issue a report within ten days. Within 15 days after <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.20"></a><var>139.20</var>receiving the report of the administrative law judge, the board shall issue a further order <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.21"></a><var>139.21</var>vacating or making permanent the cease and desist order. The time periods provided in <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.22"></a><var>139.22</var>this provision may be waived by agreement of the executive director of the board and the <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.23"></a><var>139.23</var>person against whom the cease and desist order was issued. If the person to whom a cease <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.24"></a><var>139.24</var>and desist order is issued fails to appear at the hearing after being duly notified, the person <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.25"></a><var>139.25</var>is in default, and the proceeding may be determined against that person upon consideration <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.26"></a><var>139.26</var>of the cease and desist order, the allegations of which may be considered to be true. Unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.27"></a><var>139.27</var>otherwise provided, all hearings must be conducted according to chapter 14. The board <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.28"></a><var>139.28</var>may adopt rules of procedure concerning all proceedings conducted under this subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.139.29"></a><var>139.29</var>(c) If no hearing is requested within 30 days of service of the order, the cease and <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.30"></a><var>139.30</var>desist order will become permanent.<br />
         		<a id="pl.139.31"></a><var>139.31</var>(d) A cease and desist order issued under this subdivision remains in effect until <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.32"></a><var>139.32</var>it is modified or vacated by the board. The administrative proceeding provided by this <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.33"></a><var>139.33</var>subdivision, and subsequent appellate judicial review of that administrative proceeding, <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.34"></a><var>139.34</var>constitutes the exclusive remedy for determining whether the board properly issued the <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.35"></a><var>139.35</var>cease and desist order and whether the cease and desist order should be vacated or made <br />
         		<a id="pl.139.36"></a><var>139.36</var>permanent.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.1"></a><var>140.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1b. <b>Enforcement of violations of cease and desist orders.</b> (a) Whenever <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.2"></a><var>140.2</var>the board under subdivision 1a seeks to enforce compliance with a cease and desist <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.3"></a><var>140.3</var>order that has been made permanent, the allegations of the cease and desist order are <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.4"></a><var>140.4</var>considered conclusively established for purposes of proceeding under subdivision 1a for <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.5"></a><var>140.5</var>permanent or temporary relief to enforce the cease and desist order. Whenever the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.6"></a><var>140.6</var>under subdivision 1a seeks to enforce compliance with a cease and desist order when a <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.7"></a><var>140.7</var>hearing or hearing request on the cease and desist order is pending, or the time has not <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.8"></a><var>140.8</var>yet expired to request a hearing on whether a cease and desist order should be vacated or <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.9"></a><var>140.9</var>made permanent, the allegations in the cease and desist order are considered conclusively <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.10"></a><var>140.10</var>established for the purposes of proceeding under subdivision 1a for temporary relief to <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.11"></a><var>140.11</var>enforce the cease and desist order.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.12"></a><var>140.12</var>(b) Notwithstanding this subdivision or subdivision 1a, the person against whom <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.13"></a><var>140.13</var>the cease and desist order is issued and who has requested a hearing under subdivision 1a <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.14"></a><var>140.14</var>may, within 15 days after service of the cease and desist order, bring an action in Ramsey <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.15"></a><var>140.15</var>County District Court for issuance of an injunction to suspend enforcement of the cease <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.16"></a><var>140.16</var>and desist order pending a final decision of the board under subdivision 1a to vacate or <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.17"></a><var>140.17</var>make permanent the cease and desist order. The court shall determine whether to issue <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.18"></a><var>140.18</var>such an injunction based on traditional principles of temporary relief.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.19"></a><var>140.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Application.</b> In the case of a facility licensed or registered by the board, <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.20"></a><var>140.20</var>the provisions of subdivision 1 shall apply to an individual owner or sole proprietor and <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.21"></a><var>140.21</var>shall also apply to the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.22"></a><var>140.22</var>(1) In the case of a partnership, each partner thereof;<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.23"></a><var>140.23</var>(2) In the case of an association, each member thereof;<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.24"></a><var>140.24</var>(3) In the case of a corporation, each officer or director thereof and each shareholder <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.25"></a><var>140.25</var>owning 30 percent or more of the voting stock of such corporation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.26"></a><var>140.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Application of Administrative Procedure Act.</b> The board shall comply <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.27"></a><var>140.27</var>with the provisions of chapter 14, before it fails to issue, renew, suspends, or revokes any <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.28"></a><var>140.28</var>license or registration issued under this chapter.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.29"></a><var>140.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Reinstatement.</b> Any license or registration which has been suspended <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.30"></a><var>140.30</var>or revoked may be reinstated by the board provided the holder thereof shall pay all costs <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.31"></a><var>140.31</var>of the proceedings resulting in the suspension or revocation, and, in addition thereto, <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.32"></a><var>140.32</var>pay a fee set by the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.140.33"></a><var>140.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Costs; penalties.</b> The board may impose a civil penalty not exceeding <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.34"></a><var>140.34</var>$10,000 for each separate violation, the amount of the civil penalty to be fixed so as <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.35"></a><var>140.35</var>to deprive a licensee or registrant of any economic advantage gained by reason of <br />
         		<a id="pl.140.36"></a><var>140.36</var>the violation, to discourage similar violations by the licensee or registrant or any other <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.1"></a><var>141.1</var>licensee or registrant, or to reimburse the board for the cost of the investigation and <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.2"></a><var>141.2</var>proceeding, including, but not limited to, fees paid for services provided by the Office of <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.3"></a><var>141.3</var>Administrative Hearings, legal and investigative services provided by the Office of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.4"></a><var>141.4</var>Attorney General, court reporters, witnesses, reproduction of records, board members' <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.5"></a><var>141.5</var>per diem compensation, board staff time, and travel costs and expenses incurred by board <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.6"></a><var>141.6</var>staff and board members.<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.7"></a><var>141.7</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>Subdivisions 1a and 1b are effective August 1, 2014, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.8"></a><var>141.8</var>apply to violations occurring on or after that date.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.3.0"></a><a id="pl.141.9"></a><var>141.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 3. <b>[151.071] DISCIPLINARY ACTION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.141.10"></a><var>141.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Forms of disciplinary action.</b> When the board finds that a licensee, <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.11"></a><var>141.11</var>registrant, or applicant has engaged in conduct prohibited under subdivision 2, it may <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.12"></a><var>141.12</var>do one or more of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.13"></a><var>141.13</var>(1) deny the issuance of a license or registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.14"></a><var>141.14</var>(2) refuse to renew a license or registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.15"></a><var>141.15</var>(3) revoke the license or registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.16"></a><var>141.16</var>(4) suspend the license or registration;<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.17"></a><var>141.17</var>(5) impose limitations, conditions, or both on the license or registration, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.18"></a><var>141.18</var>but not limited to: the limitation of practice designated settings; the imposition of <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.19"></a><var>141.19</var>retraining or rehabilitation requirements; the requirement of practice under supervision; <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.20"></a><var>141.20</var>the requirement of participation in a diversion program such as that established pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.21"></a><var>141.21</var>section 214.31 or the conditioning of continued practice on demonstration of knowledge <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.22"></a><var>141.22</var>or skills by appropriate examination or other review of skill and competence;<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.23"></a><var>141.23</var>(6) impose a civil penalty not exceeding $10,000 for each separate violation, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.24"></a><var>141.24</var>amount of the civil penalty to be fixed so as to deprive a licensee or registrant of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.25"></a><var>141.25</var>economic advantage gained by reason of the violation, to discourage similar violations <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.26"></a><var>141.26</var>by the licensee or registrant or any other licensee or registrant, or to reimburse the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.27"></a><var>141.27</var>for the cost of the investigation and proceeding, including but not limited to, fees paid <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.28"></a><var>141.28</var>for services provided by the Office of Administrative Hearings, legal and investigative <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.29"></a><var>141.29</var>services provided by the Office of the Attorney General, court reporters, witnesses, <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.30"></a><var>141.30</var>reproduction of records, board members' per diem compensation, board staff time, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.31"></a><var>141.31</var>travel costs and expenses incurred by board staff and board members; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.32"></a><var>141.32</var>(7) reprimand the licensee or registrant.<br />
         		<a id="pl.141.33"></a><var>141.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Grounds for disciplinary action.</b> The following conduct is prohibited and <br />
         		<a id="pl.141.34"></a><var>141.34</var>is grounds for disciplinary action:<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.1"></a><var>142.1</var>(1) failure to demonstrate the qualifications or satisfy the requirements for a license <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.2"></a><var>142.2</var>or registration contained in this chapter or the rules of the board. The burden of proof is on <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.3"></a><var>142.3</var>the applicant to demonstrate such qualifications or satisfaction of such requirements;<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.4"></a><var>142.4</var>(2) obtaining a license by fraud or by misleading the board in any way during <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.5"></a><var>142.5</var>the application process or obtaining a license by cheating, or attempting to subvert <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.6"></a><var>142.6</var>the licensing examination process. Conduct that subverts or attempts to subvert the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.7"></a><var>142.7</var>licensing examination process includes, but is not limited to: (i) conduct that violates the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.8"></a><var>142.8</var>security of the examination materials, such as removing examination materials from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.9"></a><var>142.9</var>examination room or having unauthorized possession of any portion of a future, current, <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.10"></a><var>142.10</var>or previously administered licensing examination; (ii) conduct that violates the standard of <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.11"></a><var>142.11</var>test administration, such as communicating with another examinee during administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.12"></a><var>142.12</var>of the examination, copying another examinee's answers, permitting another examinee <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.13"></a><var>142.13</var>to copy one's answers, or possessing unauthorized materials; or (iii) impersonating an <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.14"></a><var>142.14</var>examinee or permitting an impersonator to take the examination on one's own behalf;<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.15"></a><var>142.15</var>(3) for a pharmacist, pharmacy technician, pharmacist intern, applicant for a <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.16"></a><var>142.16</var>pharmacist or pharmacy license, or applicant for a pharmacy technician or pharmacist <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.17"></a><var>142.17</var>intern registration, conviction of a felony reasonably related to the practice of pharmacy. <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.18"></a><var>142.18</var>Conviction as used in this subdivision includes a conviction of an offense that if committed <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.19"></a><var>142.19</var>in this state would be deemed a felony without regard to its designation elsewhere, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.20"></a><var>142.20</var>a criminal proceeding where a finding or verdict of guilt is made or returned but the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.21"></a><var>142.21</var>adjudication of guilt is either withheld or not entered thereon. The board may delay the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.22"></a><var>142.22</var>issuance of a new license or registration if the applicant has been charged with a felony <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.23"></a><var>142.23</var>until the matter has been adjudicated;<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.24"></a><var>142.24</var>(4) for a facility, other than a pharmacy, licensed or registered by the board, if an <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.25"></a><var>142.25</var>owner or applicant is convicted of a felony reasonably related to the operation of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.26"></a><var>142.26</var>facility. The board may delay the issuance of a new license or registration if the owner or <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.27"></a><var>142.27</var>applicant has been charged with a felony until the matter has been adjudicated;<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.28"></a><var>142.28</var>(5) for a controlled substance researcher, conviction of a felony reasonably related <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.29"></a><var>142.29</var>to controlled substances or to the practice of the researcher's profession. The board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.30"></a><var>142.30</var>delay the issuance of a registration if the applicant has been charged with a felony until <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.31"></a><var>142.31</var>the matter has been adjudicated;<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.32"></a><var>142.32</var>(6) disciplinary action taken by another state or by one of this state's health licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.33"></a><var>142.33</var>agencies:<br />
         		<a id="pl.142.34"></a><var>142.34</var>(i) revocation, suspension, restriction, limitation, or other disciplinary action against <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.35"></a><var>142.35</var>a license or registration in another state or jurisdiction, failure to report to the board that <br />
         		<a id="pl.142.36"></a><var>142.36</var>charges or allegations regarding the person's license or registration have been brought in <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.1"></a><var>143.1</var>another state or jurisdiction, or having been refused a license or registration by any other <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.2"></a><var>143.2</var>state or jurisdiction. The board may delay the issuance of a new license or registration if <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.3"></a><var>143.3</var>an investigation or disciplinary action is pending in another state or jurisdiction until the <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.4"></a><var>143.4</var>investigation or action has been dismissed or otherwise resolved; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.5"></a><var>143.5</var>(ii) revocation, suspension, restriction, limitation, or other disciplinary action against <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.6"></a><var>143.6</var>a license or registration issued by another of this state's health licensing agencies, failure <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.7"></a><var>143.7</var>to report to the board that charges regarding the person's license or registration have been <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.8"></a><var>143.8</var>brought by another of this state's health licensing agencies, or having been refused a <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.9"></a><var>143.9</var>license or registration by another of this state's health licensing agencies. The board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.10"></a><var>143.10</var>delay the issuance of a new license or registration if a disciplinary action is pending before <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.11"></a><var>143.11</var>another of this state's health licensing agencies until the action has been dismissed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.12"></a><var>143.12</var>otherwise resolved;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.13"></a><var>143.13</var>(7) for a pharmacist, pharmacy, pharmacy technician, or pharmacist intern, violation <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.14"></a><var>143.14</var>of any order of the board, of any of the provisions of this chapter or any rules of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.15"></a><var>143.15</var>board or violation of any federal, state, or local law or rule reasonably pertaining to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.16"></a><var>143.16</var>practice of pharmacy;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.17"></a><var>143.17</var>(8) for a facility, other than a pharmacy, licensed by the board, violations of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.18"></a><var>143.18</var>order of the board, of any of the provisions of this chapter or the rules of the board or <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.19"></a><var>143.19</var>violation of any federal, state, or local law relating to the operation of the facility;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.20"></a><var>143.20</var>(9) engaging in any unethical conduct; conduct likely to deceive, defraud, or harm <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.21"></a><var>143.21</var>the public, or demonstrating a willful or careless disregard for the health, welfare, or safety <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.22"></a><var>143.22</var>of a patient; or pharmacy practice that is professionally incompetent, in that it may create <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.23"></a><var>143.23</var>unnecessary danger to any patient's life, health, or safety, in any of which cases, proof <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.24"></a><var>143.24</var>of actual injury need not be established;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.25"></a><var>143.25</var>(10) aiding or abetting an unlicensed person in the practice of pharmacy, except <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.26"></a><var>143.26</var>that it is not a violation of this clause for a pharmacist to supervise a properly registered <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.27"></a><var>143.27</var>pharmacy technician or pharmacist intern if that person is performing duties allowed <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.28"></a><var>143.28</var>by this chapter or the rules of the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.29"></a><var>143.29</var>(11) for an individual licensed or registered by the board, adjudication as mentally ill <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.30"></a><var>143.30</var>or developmentally disabled, or as a chemically dependent person, a person dangerous <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.31"></a><var>143.31</var>to the public, a sexually dangerous person, or a person who has a sexual psychopathic <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.32"></a><var>143.32</var>personality, by a court of competent jurisdiction, within or without this state. Such <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.33"></a><var>143.33</var>adjudication shall automatically suspend a license for the duration thereof unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.34"></a><var>143.34</var>board orders otherwise;<br />
         		<a id="pl.143.35"></a><var>143.35</var>(12) for a pharmacist or pharmacy intern, engaging in unprofessional conduct as <br />
         		<a id="pl.143.36"></a><var>143.36</var>specified in the board's rules. In the case of a pharmacy technician, engaging in conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.1"></a><var>144.1</var>specified in board rules that would be unprofessional if it were engaged in by a pharmacist <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.2"></a><var>144.2</var>or pharmacist intern or performing duties specifically reserved for pharmacists under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.3"></a><var>144.3</var>chapter or the rules of the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.4"></a><var>144.4</var>(13) for a pharmacy, operation of the pharmacy without a pharmacist present and on <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.5"></a><var>144.5</var>duty except as allowed by a variance approved by the board;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.6"></a><var>144.6</var>(14) for a pharmacist, the inability to practice pharmacy with reasonable skill and <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.7"></a><var>144.7</var>safety to patients by reason of illness, drunkenness, use of drugs, narcotics, chemicals, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.8"></a><var>144.8</var>any other type of material or as a result of any mental or physical condition, including <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.9"></a><var>144.9</var>deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills. In the case of registered <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.10"></a><var>144.10</var>pharmacy technicians, pharmacist interns, or controlled substance researchers, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.11"></a><var>144.11</var>inability to carry out duties allowed under this chapter or the rules of the board with <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.12"></a><var>144.12</var>reasonable skill and safety to patients by reason of illness, drunkenness, use of drugs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.13"></a><var>144.13</var>narcotics, chemicals, or any other type of material or as a result of any mental or physical <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.14"></a><var>144.14</var>condition, including deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skills;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.15"></a><var>144.15</var>(15) for a pharmacist, pharmacy, pharmacist intern, pharmacy technician, medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.16"></a><var>144.16</var>gas distributor, or controlled substance researcher, revealing a privileged communication <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.17"></a><var>144.17</var>from or relating to a patient except when otherwise required or permitted by law;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.18"></a><var>144.18</var>(16) for a pharmacist or pharmacy, improper management of patient records, <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.19"></a><var>144.19</var>including failure to maintain adequate patient records, to comply with a patient's request <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.20"></a><var>144.20</var>made pursuant to sections 144.291 to 144.298, or to furnish a patient record or report <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.21"></a><var>144.21</var>required by law;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.22"></a><var>144.22</var>(17) paying, offering to pay, receiving, or agreeing to receive, a commission, rebate, <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.23"></a><var>144.23</var>kickback, or other form of remuneration, directly or indirectly, for the referral of patients <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.24"></a><var>144.24</var>or the dispensing of drugs or devices;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.25"></a><var>144.25</var>(18) engaging in abusive or fraudulent billing practices, including violations of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.26"></a><var>144.26</var>federal Medicare and Medicaid laws or state medical assistance laws or rules;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.27"></a><var>144.27</var>(19) engaging in conduct with a patient that is sexual or may reasonably be <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.28"></a><var>144.28</var>interpreted by the patient as sexual, or in any verbal behavior that is seductive or sexually <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.29"></a><var>144.29</var>demeaning to a patient;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.30"></a><var>144.30</var>(20) failure to make reports as required by section 151.072 or to cooperate with an <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.31"></a><var>144.31</var>investigation of the board as required by section 151.074;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.32"></a><var>144.32</var>(21) knowingly providing false or misleading information that is directly related <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.33"></a><var>144.33</var>to the care of a patient unless done for an accepted therapeutic purpose such as the <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.34"></a><var>144.34</var>dispensing and administration of a placebo;<br />
         		<a id="pl.144.35"></a><var>144.35</var>(22) aiding suicide or aiding attempted suicide in violation of section 609.215 as <br />
         		<a id="pl.144.36"></a><var>144.36</var>established by any of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.1"></a><var>145.1</var>(i) a copy of the record of criminal conviction or plea of guilty for a felony in <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.2"></a><var>145.2</var>violation of section 609.215, subdivision 1 or 2;<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.3"></a><var>145.3</var>(ii) a copy of the record of a judgment of contempt of court for violating an <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.4"></a><var>145.4</var>injunction issued under section 609.215, subdivision 4;<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.5"></a><var>145.5</var>(iii) a copy of the record of a judgment assessing damages under section 609.215, <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.6"></a><var>145.6</var>subdivision 5; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.7"></a><var>145.7</var>(iv) a finding by the board that the person violated section 609.215, subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.8"></a><var>145.8</var>1 or 2. The board shall investigate any complaint of a violation of section 609.215, <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.9"></a><var>145.9</var>subdivision 1 or 2;<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.10"></a><var>145.10</var>(23) for a pharmacist, practice of pharmacy under a lapsed or nonrenewed license. <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.11"></a><var>145.11</var>For a pharmacist intern, pharmacy technician, or controlled substance researcher, <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.12"></a><var>145.12</var>performing duties permitted to such individuals by this chapter or the rules of the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.13"></a><var>145.13</var>under a lapsed or nonrenewed registration. For a facility required to be licensed under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.14"></a><var>145.14</var>chapter, operation of the facility under a lapsed or nonrenewed license or registration; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.15"></a><var>145.15</var>(24) for a pharmacist, pharmacist intern, or pharmacy technician, termination <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.16"></a><var>145.16</var>or discharge from the health professional services program for reasons other than the <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.17"></a><var>145.17</var>satisfactory completion of the program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.18"></a><var>145.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Automatic suspension.</b> (a) A license or registration issued under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.19"></a><var>145.19</var>chapter to a pharmacist, pharmacist intern, pharmacy technician, or controlled substance <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.20"></a><var>145.20</var>researcher is automatically suspended if: (1) a guardian of a licensee or registrant is <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.21"></a><var>145.21</var>appointed by order of a court pursuant to sections 524.5-101 to 524.5-502, for reasons <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.22"></a><var>145.22</var>other than the minority of the licensee or registrant; or (2) the licensee or registrant is <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.23"></a><var>145.23</var>committed by order of a court pursuant to chapter 253B. The license or registration <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.24"></a><var>145.24</var>remains suspended until the licensee is restored to capacity by a court and, upon petition <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.25"></a><var>145.25</var>by the licensee or registrant, the suspension is terminated by the board after a hearing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.26"></a><var>145.26</var>(b) For a pharmacist, pharmacy intern, or pharmacy technician, upon notice to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.27"></a><var>145.27</var>board of a judgment of, or a plea of guilty to, a felony reasonably related to the practice <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.28"></a><var>145.28</var>of pharmacy, the license or registration of the regulated person may be automatically <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.29"></a><var>145.29</var>suspended by the board. The license or registration will remain suspended until, upon <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.30"></a><var>145.30</var>petition by the regulated individual and after a hearing, the suspension is terminated by <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.31"></a><var>145.31</var>the board. The board may indefinitely suspend or revoke the license or registration of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.32"></a><var>145.32</var>regulated individual if, after a hearing before the board, the board finds that the felonious <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.33"></a><var>145.33</var>conduct would cause a serious risk of harm to the public.<br />
         		<a id="pl.145.34"></a><var>145.34</var>(c) For a facility that is licensed or registered by the board, upon notice to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.35"></a><var>145.35</var>board that an owner of the facility is subject to a judgment of, or a plea of guilty to, <br />
         		<a id="pl.145.36"></a><var>145.36</var>a felony reasonably related to the operation of the facility, the license or registration of <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.1"></a><var>146.1</var>the facility may be automatically suspended by the board. The license or registration will <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.2"></a><var>146.2</var>remain suspended until, upon petition by the facility and after a hearing, the suspension <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.3"></a><var>146.3</var>is terminated by the board. The board may indefinitely suspend or revoke the license or <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.4"></a><var>146.4</var>registration of the facility if, after a hearing before the board, the board finds that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.5"></a><var>146.5</var>felonious conduct would cause a serious risk of harm to the public.<br />
         		<a id="pl.146.6"></a><var>146.6</var>(d) For licenses and registrations that have been suspended or revoked pursuant <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.7"></a><var>146.7</var>to paragraphs (a) and (b), the regulated individual may have a license or registration <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.8"></a><var>146.8</var>reinstated, either with or without restrictions, by demonstrating clear and convincing <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.9"></a><var>146.9</var>evidence of rehabilitation, as provided in section 364.03. If the regulated individual has <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.10"></a><var>146.10</var>the conviction subsequently overturned by court decision, the board shall conduct a <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.11"></a><var>146.11</var>hearing to review the suspension within 30 days after the receipt of the court decision. <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.12"></a><var>146.12</var>The regulated individual is not required to prove rehabilitation if the subsequent court <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.13"></a><var>146.13</var>decision overturns previous court findings of public risk.<br />
         		<a id="pl.146.14"></a><var>146.14</var>(e) For licenses and registrations that have been suspended or revoked pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.15"></a><var>146.15</var>paragraph (c), the regulated facility may have a license or registration reinstated, either with <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.16"></a><var>146.16</var>or without restrictions, conditions, or limitations, by demonstrating clear and convincing <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.17"></a><var>146.17</var>evidence of rehabilitation of the convicted owner, as provided in section 364.03. If the <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.18"></a><var>146.18</var>convicted owner has the conviction subsequently overturned by court decision, the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.19"></a><var>146.19</var>shall conduct a hearing to review the suspension within 30 days after receipt of the court <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.20"></a><var>146.20</var>decision. The regulated facility is not required to prove rehabilitation of the convicted <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.21"></a><var>146.21</var>owner if the subsequent court decision overturns previous court findings of public risk.<br />
         		<a id="pl.146.22"></a><var>146.22</var>(f) The board may, upon majority vote of a quorum of its appointed members, <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.23"></a><var>146.23</var>suspend the license or registration of a regulated individual without a hearing if the <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.24"></a><var>146.24</var>regulated individual fails to maintain a current name and address with the board, as <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.25"></a><var>146.25</var>described in paragraphs (h) and (i), while the regulated individual is: (1) under board <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.26"></a><var>146.26</var>investigation, and a notice of conference has been issued by the board; (2) party to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.27"></a><var>146.27</var>contested case with the board; (3) party to an agreement for corrective action with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.28"></a><var>146.28</var>board; or (4) under a board order for disciplinary action. The suspension shall remain <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.29"></a><var>146.29</var>in effect until lifted by the board to the board's receipt of a petition from the regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.30"></a><var>146.30</var>individual, along with the current name and address of the regulated individual.<br />
         		<a id="pl.146.31"></a><var>146.31</var>(g) The board may, upon majority vote of a quorum of its appointed members, <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.32"></a><var>146.32</var>suspend the license or registration of a regulated facility without a hearing if the regulated <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.33"></a><var>146.33</var>facility fails to maintain a current name and address of the owner of the facility with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.34"></a><var>146.34</var>board, as described in paragraphs (h) and (i), while the regulated facility is: (1) under <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.35"></a><var>146.35</var>board investigation, and a notice of conference has been issued by the board; (2) party <br />
         		<a id="pl.146.36"></a><var>146.36</var>to a contested case with the board; (3) party to an agreement for corrective action with <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.1"></a><var>147.1</var>the board; or (4) under a board order for disciplinary action. The suspension shall remain <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.2"></a><var>147.2</var>in effect until lifted by the board pursuant to the board's receipt of a petition from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.3"></a><var>147.3</var>regulated facility, along with the current name and address of the owner of the facility.<br />
         		<a id="pl.147.4"></a><var>147.4</var>(h) An individual licensed or registered by the board shall maintain a current name <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.5"></a><var>147.5</var>and home address with the board and shall notify the board in writing within 30 days of <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.6"></a><var>147.6</var>any change in name or home address. An individual regulated by the board shall also <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.7"></a><var>147.7</var>maintain a current business address with the board as required by section 214.073. For <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.8"></a><var>147.8</var>an individual, if a name change only is requested, the regulated individual must request <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.9"></a><var>147.9</var>a revised license or registration. The board may require the individual to substantiate <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.10"></a><var>147.10</var>the name change by submitting official documentation from a court of law or agency <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.11"></a><var>147.11</var>authorized under law to receive and officially record a name change. In the case of an <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.12"></a><var>147.12</var>individual, if an address change only is requested, no request for a revised license or <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.13"></a><var>147.13</var>registration is required. If the current license or registration of an individual has been lost, <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.14"></a><var>147.14</var>stolen, or destroyed, the individual shall provide a written explanation to the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.147.15"></a><var>147.15</var>(i) A facility licensed or registered by the board shall maintain a current name and <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.16"></a><var>147.16</var>address with the board. A facility shall notify the board in writing within 30 days of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.17"></a><var>147.17</var>change in name. A facility licensed or registered by the board but located outside of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.18"></a><var>147.18</var>state must notify the board within 30 days of an address change. A facility licensed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.19"></a><var>147.19</var>registered by the board and located within the state must notify the board at least 60 <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.20"></a><var>147.20</var>days in advance of a change of address that will result from the move of the facility to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.21"></a><var>147.21</var>different location and must pass an inspection at the new location as required by the board. <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.22"></a><var>147.22</var>If the current license or registration of a facility has been lost, stolen, or destroyed, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.23"></a><var>147.23</var>facility shall provide a written explanation to the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.147.24"></a><var>147.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Effective dates.</b> A suspension, revocation, condition, limitation, <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.25"></a><var>147.25</var>qualification, or restriction of a license or registration shall be in effect pending <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.26"></a><var>147.26</var>determination of an appeal. A revocation of a license pursuant to subdivision 1 is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.27"></a><var>147.27</var>appealable and shall remain in effect indefinitely.<br />
         		<a id="pl.147.28"></a><var>147.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Conditions on reissued license.</b> In its discretion, the board may restore <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.29"></a><var>147.29</var>and reissue a license or registration issued under this chapter, but as a condition thereof <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.30"></a><var>147.30</var>may impose any disciplinary or corrective measure that it might originally have imposed.<br />
         		<a id="pl.147.31"></a><var>147.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Temporary suspension of license for pharmacists.</b> In addition to any <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.32"></a><var>147.32</var>other remedy provided by law, the board may, without a hearing, temporarily suspend the <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.33"></a><var>147.33</var>license of a pharmacist if the board finds that the pharmacist has violated a statute or rule <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.34"></a><var>147.34</var>that the board is empowered to enforce and continued practice by the pharmacist would <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.35"></a><var>147.35</var>create a serious risk of harm to the public. The suspension shall take effect upon written <br />
         		<a id="pl.147.36"></a><var>147.36</var>notice to the pharmacist, specifying the statute or rule violated. The suspension shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.1"></a><var>148.1</var>remain in effect until the board issues a final order in the matter after a hearing. At the <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.2"></a><var>148.2</var>time it issues the suspension notice, the board shall schedule a disciplinary hearing to be <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.3"></a><var>148.3</var>held pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act. The pharmacist shall be provided with <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.4"></a><var>148.4</var>at least 20 days' notice of any hearing held pursuant to this subdivision. The hearing shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.5"></a><var>148.5</var>be scheduled to begin no later than 30 days after the issuance of the suspension order.<br />
         		<a id="pl.148.6"></a><var>148.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Temporary suspension of license for pharmacist interns, pharmacy </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.148.7"></a><var>148.7</var><b>technicians, and controlled substance researchers.</b> In addition to any other remedy <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.8"></a><var>148.8</var>provided by law, the board may, without a hearing, temporarily suspend the registration of <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.9"></a><var>148.9</var>a pharmacist intern, pharmacy technician, or controlled substance researcher if the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.10"></a><var>148.10</var>finds that the registrant has violated a statute or rule that the board is empowered to enforce <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.11"></a><var>148.11</var>and continued registration of the registrant would create a serious risk of harm to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.12"></a><var>148.12</var>public. The suspension shall take effect upon written notice to the registrant, specifying <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.13"></a><var>148.13</var>the statute or rule violated. The suspension shall remain in effect until the board issues a <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.14"></a><var>148.14</var>final order in the matter after a hearing. At the time it issues the suspension notice, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.15"></a><var>148.15</var>board shall schedule a disciplinary hearing to be held pursuant to the Administrative <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.16"></a><var>148.16</var>Procedure Act. The licensee or registrant shall be provided with at least 20 days' notice of <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.17"></a><var>148.17</var>any hearing held pursuant to this subdivision. The hearing shall be scheduled to begin no <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.18"></a><var>148.18</var>later than 30 days after the issuance of the suspension order.<br />
         		<a id="pl.148.19"></a><var>148.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Temporary suspension of license for pharmacies, drug wholesalers, </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.148.20"></a><var>148.20</var><b>drug manufacturers, medical gas manufacturers, and medical gas distributors.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.148.21"></a><var>148.21</var>In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the board may, without a hearing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.22"></a><var>148.22</var>temporarily suspend the license or registration of a pharmacy, drug wholesaler, drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.23"></a><var>148.23</var>manufacturer, medical gas manufacturer, or medical gas distributor if the board finds <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.24"></a><var>148.24</var>that the licensee or registrant has violated a statute or rule that the board is empowered <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.25"></a><var>148.25</var>to enforce and continued operation of the licensed facility would create a serious risk of <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.26"></a><var>148.26</var>harm to the public. The suspension shall take effect upon written notice to the licensee or <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.27"></a><var>148.27</var>registrant, specifying the statute or rule violated. The suspension shall remain in effect <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.28"></a><var>148.28</var>until the board issues a final order in the matter after a hearing. At the time it issues the <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.29"></a><var>148.29</var>suspension notice, the board shall schedule a disciplinary hearing to be held pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.30"></a><var>148.30</var>the Administrative Procedure Act. The licensee or registrant shall be provided with at <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.31"></a><var>148.31</var>least 20 days' notice of any hearing held pursuant to this subdivision. The hearing shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.32"></a><var>148.32</var>scheduled to begin no later than 30 days after the issuance of the suspension order.<br />
         		<a id="pl.148.33"></a><var>148.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Evidence.</b> In disciplinary actions alleging a violation of subdivision 2, <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.34"></a><var>148.34</var>clause (4), (5), (6), or (7), a copy of the judgment or proceeding under the seal of the court <br />
         		<a id="pl.148.35"></a><var>148.35</var>administrator or of the administrative agency that entered the same shall be admissible <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.1"></a><var>149.1</var>into evidence without further authentication and shall constitute prima facie evidence <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.2"></a><var>149.2</var>of the contents thereof.<br />
         		<a id="pl.149.3"></a><var>149.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Mental examination; access to medical data.</b> (a) If the board has <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.4"></a><var>149.4</var>probable cause to believe that an individual licensed or registered by the board falls under <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.5"></a><var>149.5</var>subdivision 2, clause (14), it may direct the individual to submit to a mental or physical <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.6"></a><var>149.6</var>examination. For the purpose of this subdivision, every licensed or registered individual is <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.7"></a><var>149.7</var>deemed to have consented to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed in <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.8"></a><var>149.8</var>writing by the board and further to have waived all objections to the admissibility of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.9"></a><var>149.9</var>examining practitioner's testimony or examination reports on the grounds that the same <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.10"></a><var>149.10</var>constitute a privileged communication. Failure of a licensed or registered individual to <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.11"></a><var>149.11</var>submit to an examination when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations against <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.12"></a><var>149.12</var>the individual, unless the failure was due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.13"></a><var>149.13</var>in which case a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.14"></a><var>149.14</var>presentation of evidence. Pharmacists affected under this paragraph shall at reasonable <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.15"></a><var>149.15</var>intervals be given an opportunity to demonstrate that they can resume the competent <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.16"></a><var>149.16</var>practice of the profession of pharmacy with reasonable skill and safety to the public. <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.17"></a><var>149.17</var>Pharmacist interns, pharmacy technicians, or controlled substance researchers affected <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.18"></a><var>149.18</var>under this paragraph shall at reasonable intervals be given an opportunity to demonstrate <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.19"></a><var>149.19</var>that they can competently resume the duties that can be performed, under this chapter or <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.20"></a><var>149.20</var>the rules of the board, by similarly registered persons with reasonable skill and safety to <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.21"></a><var>149.21</var>the public. In any proceeding under this paragraph, neither the record of proceedings nor <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.22"></a><var>149.22</var>the orders entered by the board shall be used against a licensed or registered individual <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.23"></a><var>149.23</var>in any other proceeding.<br />
         		<a id="pl.149.24"></a><var>149.24</var>(b) In addition to ordering a physical or mental examination, the board may, <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.25"></a><var>149.25</var>notwithstanding section 13.384, 144.651, or any other law limiting access to medical or <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.26"></a><var>149.26</var>other health data, obtain medical data and health records relating to an individual licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.27"></a><var>149.27</var>or registered by the board, or to an applicant for licensure or registration, without the <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.28"></a><var>149.28</var>individual's consent, if the board has probable cause to believe that the individual falls <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.29"></a><var>149.29</var>under subdivision 2, clause (14). The medical data may be requested from a provider, <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.30"></a><var>149.30</var>as defined in section 144.291, subdivision 2, paragraph (h), an insurance company, or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.31"></a><var>149.31</var>government agency, including the Department of Human Services. A provider, insurance <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.32"></a><var>149.32</var>company, or government agency shall comply with any written request of the board under <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.33"></a><var>149.33</var>this subdivision and is not liable in any action for damages for releasing the data requested <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.34"></a><var>149.34</var>by the board if the data are released pursuant to a written request under this subdivision, <br />
         		<a id="pl.149.35"></a><var>149.35</var>unless the information is false and the provider giving the information knew, or had reason <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.1"></a><var>150.1</var>to believe, the information was false. Information obtained under this subdivision is <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.2"></a><var>150.2</var>classified as private under sections 13.01 to 13.87.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.3"></a><var>150.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Tax clearance certificate.</b> (a) In addition to the provisions of subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.4"></a><var>150.4</var>1, the board may not issue or renew a license or registration if the commissioner of <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.5"></a><var>150.5</var>revenue notifies the board and the licensee or applicant for a license that the licensee or <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.6"></a><var>150.6</var>applicant owes the state delinquent taxes in the amount of $500 or more. The board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.7"></a><var>150.7</var>issue or renew the license or registration only if (1) the commissioner of revenue issues a <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.8"></a><var>150.8</var>tax clearance certificate, and (2) the commissioner of revenue or the licensee, registrant, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.9"></a><var>150.9</var>applicant forwards a copy of the clearance to the board. The commissioner of revenue <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.10"></a><var>150.10</var>may issue a clearance certificate only if the licensee, registrant, or applicant does not owe <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.11"></a><var>150.11</var>the state any uncontested delinquent taxes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.12"></a><var>150.12</var>(b) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.13"></a><var>150.13</var>(1) "Taxes" are all taxes payable to the commissioner of revenue, including penalties <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.14"></a><var>150.14</var>and interest due on those taxes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.15"></a><var>150.15</var>(2) "Delinquent taxes" do not include a tax liability if (i) an administrative or court <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.16"></a><var>150.16</var>action that contests the amount or validity of the liability has been filed or served, (ii) the <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.17"></a><var>150.17</var>appeal period to contest the tax liability has not expired, or (iii) the licensee or applicant <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.18"></a><var>150.18</var>has entered into a payment agreement to pay the liability and is current with the payments.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.19"></a><var>150.19</var>(c) In lieu of the notice and hearing requirements of subdivision 1, when a licensee, <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.20"></a><var>150.20</var>registrant, or applicant is required to obtain a clearance certificate under this subdivision, <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.21"></a><var>150.21</var>a contested case hearing must be held if the licensee or applicant requests a hearing in <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.22"></a><var>150.22</var>writing to the commissioner of revenue within 30 days of the date of the notice provided <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.23"></a><var>150.23</var>in paragraph (a). The hearing must be held within 45 days of the date the commissioner of <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.24"></a><var>150.24</var>revenue refers the case to the Office of Administrative Hearings. Notwithstanding any law <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.25"></a><var>150.25</var>to the contrary, the licensee or applicant must be served with 20 days' notice in writing <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.26"></a><var>150.26</var>specifying the time and place of the hearing and the allegations against the licensee or <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.27"></a><var>150.27</var>applicant. The notice may be served personally or by mail.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.28"></a><var>150.28</var>(d) A licensee or applicant must provide the licensee's or applicant's Social Security <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.29"></a><var>150.29</var>number and Minnesota business identification number on all license applications. Upon <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.30"></a><var>150.30</var>request of the commissioner of revenue, the board must provide to the commissioner of <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.31"></a><var>150.31</var>revenue a list of all licensees and applicants that includes the licensee's or applicant's <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.32"></a><var>150.32</var>name, address, Social Security number, and business identification number. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.33"></a><var>150.33</var>commissioner of revenue may request a list of the licensees and applicants no more than <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.34"></a><var>150.34</var>once each calendar year.<br />
         		<a id="pl.150.35"></a><var>150.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 12. <b>Limitation.</b> No board proceeding against a regulated person or facility <br />
         		<a id="pl.150.36"></a><var>150.36</var>shall be instituted unless commenced within seven years from the date of the commission <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.1"></a><var>151.1</var>of some portion of the offense or misconduct complained of except for alleged violations <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.2"></a><var>151.2</var>of subdivision 2, clause (21).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.4.0"></a><a id="pl.151.3"></a><var>151.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 4. <b>[151.072] REPORTING OBLIGATIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.151.4"></a><var>151.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Permission to report.</b> A person who has knowledge of any conduct <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.5"></a><var>151.5</var>constituting grounds for discipline under the provisions of this chapter or the rules of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.6"></a><var>151.6</var>board may report the violation to the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.151.7"></a><var>151.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Pharmacies.</b> A pharmacy located in this state must report to the board any <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.8"></a><var>151.8</var>discipline that is related to an incident involving conduct that would constitute grounds <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.9"></a><var>151.9</var>for discipline under the provisions of this chapter or the rules of the board, that is taken <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.10"></a><var>151.10</var>by the pharmacy or any of its administrators against a pharmacist, pharmacist intern, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.11"></a><var>151.11</var>pharmacy technician, including the termination of employment of the individual or the <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.12"></a><var>151.12</var>revocation, suspension, restriction, limitation, or conditioning of an individual's ability <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.13"></a><var>151.13</var>to practice or work at or on behalf of the pharmacy. The pharmacy shall also report the <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.14"></a><var>151.14</var>resignation of any pharmacist, pharmacist intern, or technician prior to the conclusion of <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.15"></a><var>151.15</var>any disciplinary proceeding, or prior to the commencement of formal charges but after the <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.16"></a><var>151.16</var>individual had knowledge that formal charges were contemplated or in preparation. Each <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.17"></a><var>151.17</var>report made under this subdivision must state the nature of the action taken and state in <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.18"></a><var>151.18</var>detail the reasons for the action. Failure to report violations as required by this subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.19"></a><var>151.19</var>is a basis for discipline pursuant to section 151.071, subdivision 2, clause (8).<br />
         		<a id="pl.151.20"></a><var>151.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Licensees and registrants of the board.</b> A licensee or registrant of <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.21"></a><var>151.21</var>the board shall report to the board personal knowledge of any conduct that the person <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.22"></a><var>151.22</var>reasonably believes constitutes grounds for disciplinary action under this chapter or <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.23"></a><var>151.23</var>the rules of the board by any pharmacist, pharmacist intern, pharmacy technician, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.24"></a><var>151.24</var>controlled substance researcher, including any conduct indicating that the person may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.25"></a><var>151.25</var>professionally incompetent, or may have engaged in unprofessional conduct or may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.26"></a><var>151.26</var>medically or physically unable to engage safely in the practice of pharmacy or to carry <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.27"></a><var>151.27</var>out the duties permitted to the person by this chapter or the rules of the board. Failure <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.28"></a><var>151.28</var>to report violations as required by this subdivision is a basis for discipline pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.29"></a><var>151.29</var>section 151.071, subdivision 2, clause (20).<br />
         		<a id="pl.151.30"></a><var>151.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Self-reporting.</b> A licensee or registrant of the board shall report to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.31"></a><var>151.31</var>board any personal action that would require that a report be filed with the board pursuant <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.32"></a><var>151.32</var>to subdivision 2.<br />
         		<a id="pl.151.33"></a><var>151.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Deadlines; forms.</b> Reports required by subdivisions 2 to 4 must be <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.34"></a><var>151.34</var>submitted not later than 30 days after the occurrence of the reportable event or transaction. <br />
         		<a id="pl.151.35"></a><var>151.35</var>The board may provide forms for the submission of reports required by this section, may <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.1"></a><var>152.1</var>require that reports be submitted on the forms provided, and may adopt rules necessary <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.2"></a><var>152.2</var>to assure prompt and accurate reporting.<br />
         		<a id="pl.152.3"></a><var>152.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Subpoenas.</b> The board may issue subpoenas for the production of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.4"></a><var>152.4</var>reports required by subdivisions 2 to 4 or any related documents.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.5.0"></a><a id="pl.152.5"></a><var>152.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 5. <b>[151.073] IMMUNITY.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.152.6"></a><var>152.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Reporting.</b> Any person, health care facility, business, or organization <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.7"></a><var>152.7</var>is immune from civil liability or criminal prosecution for submitting in good faith a report <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.8"></a><var>152.8</var>to the board under section 151.072 or for otherwise reporting in good faith to the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.9"></a><var>152.9</var>violations or alleged violations of this chapter or the rules of the board. All such reports <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.10"></a><var>152.10</var>are investigative data as defined in chapter 13.<br />
         		<a id="pl.152.11"></a><var>152.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Investigation.</b> (a) Members of the board and persons employed by the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.12"></a><var>152.12</var>or engaged on behalf of the board in the investigation of violations and in the preparation <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.13"></a><var>152.13</var>and management of charges or violations of this chapter of the rules of the board, or persons <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.14"></a><var>152.14</var>participating in the investigation or testifying regarding charges of violations, are immune <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.15"></a><var>152.15</var>from civil liability and criminal prosecution for any actions, transactions, or publications <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.16"></a><var>152.16</var>in the execution of, or relating to, their duties under this chapter or the rules of the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.152.17"></a><var>152.17</var>(b) Members of the board and persons employed by the board or engaged in <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.18"></a><var>152.18</var>maintaining records and making reports regarding adverse health care events are immune <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.19"></a><var>152.19</var>from civil liability and criminal prosecution for any actions, transactions, or publications <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.20"></a><var>152.20</var>in the execution of, or relating to, their duties under section 151.301.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.6.0"></a><a id="pl.152.21"></a><var>152.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 6. <b>[151.074] LICENSEE OR REGISTRANT COOPERATION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.152.22"></a><var>152.22</var>An individual who is licensed or registered by the board, who is the subject of an <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.23"></a><var>152.23</var>investigation by or on behalf of the board, shall cooperate fully with the investigation. <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.24"></a><var>152.24</var>An owner or employee of a facility that is licensed or registered by the board, when the <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.25"></a><var>152.25</var>facility is the subject of an investigation by or on behalf of the board, shall cooperate <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.26"></a><var>152.26</var>fully with the investigation. Cooperation includes responding fully and promptly to any <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.27"></a><var>152.27</var>question raised by, or on behalf of, the board relating to the subject of the investigation and <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.28"></a><var>152.28</var>providing copies of patient pharmacy records and other relevant records, as reasonably <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.29"></a><var>152.29</var>requested by the board, to assist the board in its investigation. The board shall maintain <br />
         		<a id="pl.152.30"></a><var>152.30</var>any records obtained pursuant to this section as investigative data pursuant to chapter 13.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.7.0"></a><a id="pl.152.31"></a><var>152.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 7. <b>[151.075] DISCIPLINARY RECORD ON JUDICIAL REVIEW.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.153.1"></a><var>153.1</var>Upon judicial review of any board disciplinary action taken under this chapter, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.2"></a><var>153.2</var>reviewing court shall seal the administrative record, except for the board's final decision, <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.3"></a><var>153.3</var>and shall not make the administrative record available to the public.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.8.0"></a><a id="pl.153.4"></a><var>153.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.211, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.153.5"></a><var>153.5</var><b>151.211 RECORDS OF PRESCRIPTIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.153.6"></a><var>153.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Retention of prescription drug orders.</b> All prescriptions dispensed<br />
         		<a id="pl.153.7"></a><var>153.7</var> prescription drug orders shall be kept on file at the location in from which such dispensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.8"></a><var>153.8</var>occurred of the ordered drug occurs for a period of at least two years. Prescription drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.9"></a><var>153.9</var>orders that are electronically prescribed must be kept on file in the format in which <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.10"></a><var>153.10</var>they were originally received. Written or printed prescription drug orders and verbal <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.11"></a><var>153.11</var>prescription drug orders reduced to writing, must be kept on file as received or transcribed, <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.12"></a><var>153.12</var>except that such orders may be kept in an electronic format as allowed by the board. <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.13"></a><var>153.13</var>Electronic systems used to process and store prescription drug orders must be compliant <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.14"></a><var>153.14</var>with the requirements of this chapter and the rules of the board. Prescription drug orders <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.15"></a><var>153.15</var>that are stored in an electronic format, as permitted by this subdivision, may be kept on <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.16"></a><var>153.16</var>file at a remote location provided that they are readily and securely accessible from the <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.17"></a><var>153.17</var>location at which dispensing of the ordered drug occurred.<br />
         		<a id="pl.153.18"></a><var>153.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Refill requirements.</b> No A prescription shall drug order may be refilled <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.19"></a><var>153.19</var>except only with the written, electronic, or verbal consent of the prescriber and in <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.20"></a><var>153.20</var>accordance with the requirements of this chapter, the rules of the board, and where <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.21"></a><var>153.21</var>applicable, section 152.11. The date of such refill must be recorded and initialed upon <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.22"></a><var>153.22</var>the original prescription drug order, or within the electronically maintained record of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.23"></a><var>153.23</var>original prescription drug order, by the pharmacist, pharmacist intern, or practitioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.24"></a><var>153.24</var>who refills the prescription.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.9.0"></a><a id="pl.153.25"></a><var>153.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 9. <b>[151.251] COMPOUNDING.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.153.26"></a><var>153.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Exemption from manufacturing licensure requirement.</b> Section <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.27"></a><var>153.27</var>151.252 shall not apply to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.153.28"></a><var>153.28</var>(1) a practitioner engaged in extemporaneous compounding, anticipatory <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.29"></a><var>153.29</var>compounding, or compounding not done pursuant to a prescription drug order when <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.30"></a><var>153.30</var>permitted by this chapter or the rules of the board; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.153.31"></a><var>153.31</var>(2) a pharmacy in which a pharmacist is engaged in extemporaneous compounding, <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.32"></a><var>153.32</var>anticipatory compounding, or compounding not done pursuant to a prescription drug order <br />
         		<a id="pl.153.33"></a><var>153.33</var>when permitted by this chapter or the rules of the board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.1"></a><var>154.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Compounded drug.</b> A drug product may be compounded under this <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.2"></a><var>154.2</var>section if a pharmacist or practitioner:<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.3"></a><var>154.3</var>(a) compounds the drug product using bulk drug substances, as defined in the federal <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.4"></a><var>154.4</var>regulations published in Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, section 207.3(a)(4):<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.5"></a><var>154.5</var>(1) that:<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.6"></a><var>154.6</var>(i) comply with the standards of an applicable United States Pharmacopoeia <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.7"></a><var>154.7</var>or National Formulary monograph, if a monograph exists, and the United States <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.8"></a><var>154.8</var>Pharmacopoeia chapter on pharmacy compounding;<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.9"></a><var>154.9</var>(ii) if such a monograph does not exist, are drug substances that are components of <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.10"></a><var>154.10</var>drugs approved for use in this country by the United States Food and Drug Administration; <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.11"></a><var>154.11</var>or<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.12"></a><var>154.12</var>(iii) if such a monograph does not exist and the drug substance is not a component of <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.13"></a><var>154.13</var>a drug approved for use in this country by the United States Food and Drug Administration, <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.14"></a><var>154.14</var>that appear on a list developed by the United States Food and Drug Administration through <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.15"></a><var>154.15</var>regulations issued by the secretary of the federal Department of Health and Human <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.16"></a><var>154.16</var>Services pursuant to section 503a of the Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act under paragraph (d);<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.17"></a><var>154.17</var>(2) that are manufactured by an establishment that is registered under section 360 <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.18"></a><var>154.18</var>of the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act, including a foreign establishment that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.19"></a><var>154.19</var>registered under section 360(i) of that act; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.20"></a><var>154.20</var>(3) that are accompanied by valid certificates of analysis for each bulk drug substance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.21"></a><var>154.21</var>(b) compounds the drug product using ingredients, other than bulk drug substances, <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.22"></a><var>154.22</var>that comply with the standards of an applicable United States Pharmacopoeia or National <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.23"></a><var>154.23</var>Formulary monograph, if a monograph exists, and the United States Pharmacopoeia <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.24"></a><var>154.24</var>chapters on pharmacy compounding;<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.25"></a><var>154.25</var>(c) does not compound a drug product that appears on a list published by the secretary <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.26"></a><var>154.26</var>of the federal Department of Health and Human Services in the Federal Register of drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.27"></a><var>154.27</var>products that have been withdrawn or removed from the market because such drug products <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.28"></a><var>154.28</var>or components of such drug products have been found to be unsafe or not effective;<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.29"></a><var>154.29</var>(d) does not compound any drug products that are essentially copies of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.30"></a><var>154.30</var>commercially available drug product; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.31"></a><var>154.31</var>(e) does not compound any drug product that has been identified pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.32"></a><var>154.32</var>United States Code, title 21, section 353a, as a drug product that presents demonstrable <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.33"></a><var>154.33</var>difficulties for compounding that reasonably demonstrate an adverse effect on the safety <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.34"></a><var>154.34</var>or effectiveness of that drug product.<br />
         		<a id="pl.154.35"></a><var>154.35</var>The term "essentially a copy of a commercially available drug product" does not <br />
         		<a id="pl.154.36"></a><var>154.36</var>include a drug product in which there is a change, made for an identified individual <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.1"></a><var>155.1</var>patient, that produces for that patient a significant difference, as determined by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.2"></a><var>155.2</var>prescribing practitioner, between the compounded drug and the comparable commercially <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.3"></a><var>155.3</var>available drug product.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.4"></a><var>155.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Exceptions.</b> This section shall not apply to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.5"></a><var>155.5</var>(1) compounded positron emission tomography drugs as defined in section 151.01, <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.6"></a><var>155.6</var>subdivision 38; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.7"></a><var>155.7</var>(2) radiopharmaceuticals.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.10.0"></a><a id="pl.155.8"></a><var>155.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 151.252, is amended by adding <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.9"></a><var>155.9</var>a subdivision to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.10"></a><var>155.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Outsourcing facility.</b> (a) No person shall act as an outsourcing facility <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.11"></a><var>155.11</var>without first obtaining a license from the board and paying any applicable manufacturer <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.12"></a><var>155.12</var>licensing fee specified in section 151.065.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.13"></a><var>155.13</var>(b) Application for an outsourcing facility license under this section shall be made <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.14"></a><var>155.14</var>in a manner specified by the board and may differ from the application required of other <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.15"></a><var>155.15</var>drug manufacturers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.16"></a><var>155.16</var>(c) No license shall be issued or renewed for an outsourcing facility unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.17"></a><var>155.17</var>applicant agrees to operate in a manner prescribed for outsourcing facilities by federal and <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.18"></a><var>155.18</var>state law and according to Minnesota Rules.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.19"></a><var>155.19</var>(d) No license shall be issued or renewed for an outsourcing facility unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.20"></a><var>155.20</var>applicant supplies the board with proof of such registration by the United States Food and <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.21"></a><var>155.21</var>Drug Administration as required by United States Code, title 21, section 353b.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.22"></a><var>155.22</var>(e) No license shall be issued or renewed for an outsourcing facility that is required <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.23"></a><var>155.23</var>to be licensed or registered by the state in which it is physically located unless the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.24"></a><var>155.24</var>applicant supplies the board with proof of such licensure or registration. The board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.25"></a><var>155.25</var>establish, by rule, standards for the licensure of an outsourcing facility that is not required <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.26"></a><var>155.26</var>to be licensed or registered by the state in which it is physically located.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.27"></a><var>155.27</var>(f) The board shall require a separate license for each outsourcing facility located <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.28"></a><var>155.28</var>within the state and for each outsourcing facility located outside of the state at which drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.29"></a><var>155.29</var>that are shipped into the state are prepared.<br />
         		<a id="pl.155.30"></a><var>155.30</var>(g) The board shall not issue an initial or renewed license for an outsourcing facility <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.31"></a><var>155.31</var>unless the facility passes an inspection conducted by an authorized representative of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.32"></a><var>155.32</var>board. In the case of an outsourcing facility located outside of the state, the board may <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.33"></a><var>155.33</var>require the applicant to pay the cost of the inspection, in addition to the license fee in <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.34"></a><var>155.34</var>section 151.065, unless the applicant furnishes the board with a report, issued by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.155.35"></a><var>155.35</var>appropriate regulatory agency of the state in which the facility is located or by the United <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.1"></a><var>156.1</var>States Food and Drug Administration, of an inspection that has occurred within the 24 <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.2"></a><var>156.2</var>months immediately preceding receipt of the license application by the board. The board <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.3"></a><var>156.3</var>may deny licensure unless the applicant submits documentation satisfactory to the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.4"></a><var>156.4</var>that any deficiencies noted in an inspection report have been corrected.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.11.0"></a><a id="pl.156.5"></a><var>156.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.26, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.156.6"></a><var>156.6</var><b>151.26 EXCEPTIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.156.7"></a><var>156.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Generally.</b> Nothing in this chapter shall subject a person duly <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.8"></a><var>156.8</var>licensed in this state to practice medicine, dentistry, or veterinary medicine, to inspection <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.9"></a><var>156.9</var>by the State Board of Pharmacy, nor prevent the person from administering drugs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.10"></a><var>156.10</var>medicines, chemicals, or poisons in the person's practice, nor prevent a duly licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.11"></a><var>156.11</var>practitioner from furnishing to a patient properly packaged and labeled drugs, medicines, <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.12"></a><var>156.12</var>chemicals, or poisons as may be considered appropriate in the treatment of such patient; <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.13"></a><var>156.13</var>unless the person is engaged in the dispensing, sale, or distribution of drugs and the board <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.14"></a><var>156.14</var>provides reasonable notice of an inspection.<br />
         		<a id="pl.156.15"></a><var>156.15</var>Except for the provisions of section 
         <statute_ref>151.37</statute_ref>, nothing in this chapter applies to or <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.16"></a><var>156.16</var>interferes with the dispensing, in its original package and at no charge to the patient, of <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.17"></a><var>156.17</var>a legend drug, other than a controlled substance, that was packaged by a manufacturer <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.18"></a><var>156.18</var>and provided to the dispenser for distribution dispensing as a professional sample, so <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.19"></a><var>156.19</var>long as the sample is prepared and distributed pursuant to Code of Federal Regulations, <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.20"></a><var>156.20</var>title 21, section 203, subpart D.<br />
         		<a id="pl.156.21"></a><var>156.21</var>Nothing in this chapter shall prevent the sale of drugs, medicines, chemicals, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.22"></a><var>156.22</var>poisons at wholesale to licensed physicians, dentists and veterinarians for use in their <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.23"></a><var>156.23</var>practice, nor to hospitals for use therein.<br />
         		<a id="pl.156.24"></a><var>156.24</var>Nothing in this chapter shall prevent the sale of drugs, chemicals, or poisons either <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.25"></a><var>156.25</var>at wholesale or retail for use for commercial purposes, or in the arts, nor interfere with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.26"></a><var>156.26</var>sale of insecticides, as defined in Minnesota Statutes 1974, section 
         <statute_ref>24.069</statute_ref>, and nothing in <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.27"></a><var>156.27</var>this chapter shall prevent the sale of common household preparations and other drugs, <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.28"></a><var>156.28</var>chemicals, and poisons sold exclusively for use for nonmedicinal purposes.; provided <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.29"></a><var>156.29</var>that this exception does not apply to any compound, substance, or derivative that is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.30"></a><var>156.30</var>approved for human consumption by the United States Food and Drug Administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.31"></a><var>156.31</var>or specifically permitted for human consumption under Minnesota law and, when <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.32"></a><var>156.32</var>introduced into the body, induces an effect similar to that of a Schedule I or Schedule II <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.33"></a><var>156.33</var>controlled substance listed in section 152.02, subdivisions 2 and 3, or Minnesota Rules, <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.34"></a><var>156.34</var>parts 6800.4210 and 6800.4220, regardless of whether the substance is marketed for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.156.35"></a><var>156.35</var>purpose of human consumption.<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.1"></a><var>157.1</var>Nothing in this chapter shall apply to or interfere with the vending or retailing of <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.2"></a><var>157.2</var>any nonprescription medicine or drug not otherwise prohibited by statute which that is <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.3"></a><var>157.3</var>prepackaged, fully prepared by the manufacturer or producer for use by the consumer, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.4"></a><var>157.4</var>labeled in accordance with the requirements of the state or federal Food and Drug Act; nor <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.5"></a><var>157.5</var>to the manufacture, wholesaling, vending, or retailing of flavoring extracts, toilet articles, <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.6"></a><var>157.6</var>cosmetics, perfumes, spices, and other commonly used household articles of a chemical <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.7"></a><var>157.7</var>nature, for use for nonmedicinal purposes.; provided that this exception does not apply <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.8"></a><var>157.8</var>to any compound, substance, or derivative that is not approved for human consumption <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.9"></a><var>157.9</var>by the United States Food and Drug Administration or specifically permitted for human <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.10"></a><var>157.10</var>consumption under Minnesota law that, when introduced into the body, induces an effect <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.11"></a><var>157.11</var>similar to that of a Schedule I or Schedule II controlled substance listed in section 152.02, <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.12"></a><var>157.12</var>subdivisions 2 and 3, or Minnesota Rules, parts 6800.4210 and 6800.4220, regardless of <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.13"></a><var>157.13</var>whether the substance is marketed for the purpose of human consumption. Nothing in <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.14"></a><var>157.14</var>this chapter shall prevent the sale of drugs or medicines by licensed pharmacists at a <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.15"></a><var>157.15</var>discount to persons over 65 years of age.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.12.0"></a><a id="pl.157.16"></a><var>157.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.361, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.17"></a><var>157.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>After January 1, 1983.</b> (a) No legend drug in solid oral dosage form <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.18"></a><var>157.18</var>may be manufactured, packaged or distributed for sale in this state after January 1, 1983 <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.19"></a><var>157.19</var>unless it is clearly marked or imprinted with a symbol, number, company name, words, <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.20"></a><var>157.20</var>letters, national drug code or other mark uniquely identifiable to that drug product. An <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.21"></a><var>157.21</var>identifying mark or imprint made as required by federal law or by the federal Food and <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.22"></a><var>157.22</var>Drug Administration shall be deemed to be in compliance with this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.23"></a><var>157.23</var>(b) The Board of Pharmacy may grant exemptions from the requirements of this <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.24"></a><var>157.24</var>section on its own initiative or upon application of a manufacturer, packager, or distributor <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.25"></a><var>157.25</var>indicating size or other characteristics which that render the product impractical for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.26"></a><var>157.26</var>imprinting required by this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.27"></a><var>157.27</var>(c) The provisions of clauses (a) and (b) shall not apply to any of the following:<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.28"></a><var>157.28</var>(1) Drugs purchased by a pharmacy, pharmacist, or licensed wholesaler prior to <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.29"></a><var>157.29</var>January 1, 1983, and held in stock for resale.<br />
         		<a id="pl.157.30"></a><var>157.30</var>(2) Drugs which are manufactured by or upon the order of a practitioner licensed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.31"></a><var>157.31</var>law to prescribe or administer drugs and which are to be used solely by the patient for <br />
         		<a id="pl.157.32"></a><var>157.32</var>whom prescribed.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.13.0"></a><a id="pl.158.1"></a><var>158.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.37, as amended by Laws 2013, chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.2"></a><var>158.2</var>43, section 30, Laws 2013, chapter 55, section 2, and Laws 2013, chapter 108, article <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.3"></a><var>158.3</var>10, section 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.158.4"></a><var>158.4</var><b>151.37 LEGEND DRUGS, WHO MAY PRESCRIBE, POSSESS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.158.5"></a><var>158.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Prohibition.</b> Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, it shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.6"></a><var>158.6</var>unlawful for any person to have in possession, or to sell, give away, barter, exchange, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.7"></a><var>158.7</var>distribute a legend drug.<br />
         		<a id="pl.158.8"></a><var>158.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Prescribing and filing.</b> (a) A licensed practitioner in the course of <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.9"></a><var>158.9</var>professional practice only, may prescribe, administer, and dispense a legend drug, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.10"></a><var>158.10</var>may cause the same to be administered by a nurse, a physician assistant, or medical <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.11"></a><var>158.11</var>student or resident under the practitioner's direction and supervision, and may cause a <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.12"></a><var>158.12</var>person who is an appropriately certified, registered, or licensed health care professional <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.13"></a><var>158.13</var>to prescribe, dispense, and administer the same within the expressed legal scope of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.14"></a><var>158.14</var>person's practice as defined in Minnesota Statutes. A licensed practitioner may prescribe a <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.15"></a><var>158.15</var>legend drug, without reference to a specific patient, by directing a licensed dietitian or <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.16"></a><var>158.16</var>licensed nutritionist, pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>148.634</statute_ref>; a nurse, pursuant to section 
         <statute_ref>148.235</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.17"></a><var>158.17</var>subdivisions 8 and 9; physician assistant; medical student or resident; or pharmacist <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.18"></a><var>158.18</var>according to section 151.01, subdivision 27, to adhere to a particular practice guideline or <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.19"></a><var>158.19</var>protocol when treating patients whose condition falls within such guideline or protocol, <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.20"></a><var>158.20</var>and when such guideline or protocol specifies the circumstances under which the legend <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.21"></a><var>158.21</var>drug is to be prescribed and administered. An individual who verbally, electronically, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.22"></a><var>158.22</var>otherwise transmits a written, oral, or electronic order, as an agent of a prescriber, shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.23"></a><var>158.23</var>not be deemed to have prescribed the legend drug. This paragraph applies to a physician <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.24"></a><var>158.24</var>assistant only if the physician assistant meets the requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>147A.18</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.158.25"></a><var>158.25</var>(b) The commissioner of health, if a licensed practitioner, or a person designated <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.26"></a><var>158.26</var>by the commissioner who is a licensed practitioner, may prescribe a legend drug to an <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.27"></a><var>158.27</var>individual or by protocol for mass dispensing purposes where the commissioner finds that <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.28"></a><var>158.28</var>the conditions triggering section 
         <statute_ref>144.4197</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>144.4198, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraph (b), exist. <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.29"></a><var>158.29</var>The commissioner, if a licensed practitioner, or a designated licensed practitioner, may <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.30"></a><var>158.30</var>prescribe, dispense, or administer a legend drug or other substance listed in subdivision 10 <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.31"></a><var>158.31</var>to control tuberculosis and other communicable diseases. The commissioner may modify <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.32"></a><var>158.32</var>state drug labeling requirements, and medical screening criteria and documentation, where <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.33"></a><var>158.33</var>time is critical and limited labeling and screening are most likely to ensure legend drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.34"></a><var>158.34</var>reach the maximum number of persons in a timely fashion so as to reduce morbidity <br />
         		<a id="pl.158.35"></a><var>158.35</var>and mortality.<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.1"></a><var>159.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) A licensed practitioner that dispenses for profit a legend drug that is to be <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.2"></a><var>159.2</var>administered orally, is ordinarily dispensed by a pharmacist, and is not a vaccine, must <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.3"></a><var>159.3</var>file with the practitioner's licensing board a statement indicating that the practitioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.4"></a><var>159.4</var>dispenses legend drugs for profit, the general circumstances under which the practitioner <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.5"></a><var>159.5</var>dispenses for profit, and the types of legend drugs generally dispensed. It is unlawful to <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.6"></a><var>159.6</var>dispense legend drugs for profit after July 31, 1990, unless the statement has been filed <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.7"></a><var>159.7</var>with the appropriate licensing board. For purposes of this paragraph, "profit" means (1) <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.8"></a><var>159.8</var>any amount received by the practitioner in excess of the acquisition cost of a legend drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.9"></a><var>159.9</var>for legend drugs that are purchased in prepackaged form, or (2) any amount received <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.10"></a><var>159.10</var>by the practitioner in excess of the acquisition cost of a legend drug plus the cost of <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.11"></a><var>159.11</var>making the drug available if the legend drug requires compounding, packaging, or other <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.12"></a><var>159.12</var>treatment. The statement filed under this paragraph is public data under section 
         <statute_ref>13.03</statute_ref>. <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.13"></a><var>159.13</var>This paragraph does not apply to a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine or a registered <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.14"></a><var>159.14</var>pharmacist. Any person other than a licensed practitioner with the authority to prescribe, <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.15"></a><var>159.15</var>dispense, and administer a legend drug under paragraph (a) shall not dispense for profit. <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.16"></a><var>159.16</var>To dispense for profit does not include dispensing by a community health clinic when the <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.17"></a><var>159.17</var>profit from dispensing is used to meet operating expenses.<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.18"></a><var>159.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) A prescription or drug order for the following drugs is not valid, unless it can <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.19"></a><var>159.19</var>be established that the prescription or drug order was based on a documented patient <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.20"></a><var>159.20</var>evaluation, including an examination, adequate to establish a diagnosis and identify <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.21"></a><var>159.21</var>underlying conditions and contraindications to treatment:<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.22"></a><var>159.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) controlled substance drugs listed in section 
         <statute_ref>152.02, subdivisions 3</statute_ref> to 5;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.23"></a><var>159.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) drugs defined by the Board of Pharmacy as controlled substances under section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.159.24"></a><var>159.24</var>152.02, subdivisions 7
         </statute_ref>, 8, and 12;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.25"></a><var>159.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) muscle relaxants;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.26"></a><var>159.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) centrally acting analgesics with opioid activity;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.27"></a><var>159.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) drugs containing butalbital; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.28"></a><var>159.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) phoshodiesterase type 5 inhibitors when used to treat erectile dysfunction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.29"></a><var>159.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) For the purposes of paragraph (d), the requirement for an examination shall be <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.30"></a><var>159.30</var>met if an in-person examination has been completed in any of the following circumstances:<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.31"></a><var>159.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the prescribing practitioner examines the patient at the time the prescription <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.32"></a><var>159.32</var>or drug order is issued;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.33"></a><var>159.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) the prescribing practitioner has performed a prior examination of the patient;<br />
         		<a id="pl.159.34"></a><var>159.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) another prescribing practitioner practicing within the same group or clinic as the <br />
         		<a id="pl.159.35"></a><var>159.35</var>prescribing practitioner has examined the patient;<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.1"></a><var>160.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) a consulting practitioner to whom the prescribing practitioner has referred the <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.2"></a><var>160.2</var>patient has examined the patient; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.3"></a><var>160.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) the referring practitioner has performed an examination in the case of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.4"></a><var>160.4</var>consultant practitioner issuing a prescription or drug order when providing services by <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.5"></a><var>160.5</var>means of telemedicine.<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.6"></a><var>160.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(f) Nothing in paragraph (d) or (e) prohibits a licensed practitioner from prescribing <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.7"></a><var>160.7</var>a drug through the use of a guideline or protocol pursuant to paragraph (a).<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.8"></a><var>160.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(g) Nothing in this chapter prohibits a licensed practitioner from issuing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.9"></a><var>160.9</var>prescription or dispensing a legend drug in accordance with the Expedited Partner Therapy <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.10"></a><var>160.10</var>in the Management of Sexually Transmitted Diseases guidance document issued by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.11"></a><var>160.11</var>United States Centers for Disease Control.<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.12"></a><var>160.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(h) Nothing in paragraph (d) or (e) limits prescription, administration, or dispensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.13"></a><var>160.13</var>of legend drugs through a public health clinic or other distribution mechanism approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.14"></a><var>160.14</var>by the commissioner of health or a board of health in order to prevent, mitigate, or treat <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.15"></a><var>160.15</var>a pandemic illness, infectious disease outbreak, or intentional or accidental release of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.16"></a><var>160.16</var>biological, chemical, or radiological agent.<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.17"></a><var>160.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(i) No pharmacist employed by, under contract to, or working for a pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.18"></a><var>160.18</var>licensed under section 
         <statute_ref>151.19, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, may dispense a legend drug based on a <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.19"></a><var>160.19</var>prescription that the pharmacist knows, or would reasonably be expected to know, is not <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.20"></a><var>160.20</var>valid under paragraph (d).<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.21"></a><var>160.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(j) No pharmacist employed by, under contract to, or working for a pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.22"></a><var>160.22</var>licensed under section 
         <statute_ref>151.19, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, may dispense a legend drug to a resident <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.23"></a><var>160.23</var>of this state based on a prescription that the pharmacist knows, or would reasonably be <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.24"></a><var>160.24</var>expected to know, is not valid under paragraph (d).<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.25"></a><var>160.25</var>(k) Nothing in this chapter prohibits the commissioner of health, if a licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.26"></a><var>160.26</var>practitioner, or, if not a licensed practitioner, a designee of the commissioner who is <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.27"></a><var>160.27</var>a licensed practitioner, from prescribing legend drugs for field-delivered therapy in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.28"></a><var>160.28</var>treatment of a communicable disease according to the Centers For Disease Control and <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.29"></a><var>160.29</var>Prevention Partner Services Guidelines.<br />
         		<a id="pl.160.30"></a><var>160.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2a. <b>Delegation.</b> A supervising physician may delegate to a physician assistant <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.31"></a><var>160.31</var>who is registered with the Board of Medical Practice and certified by the National <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.32"></a><var>160.32</var>Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants and who is under the supervising <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.33"></a><var>160.33</var>physician's supervision, the authority to prescribe, dispense, and administer legend drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.34"></a><var>160.34</var>and medical devices, subject to the requirements in chapter 147A and other requirements <br />
         		<a id="pl.160.35"></a><var>160.35</var>established by the Board of Medical Practice in rules.<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.1"></a><var>161.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Veterinarians.</b> A licensed doctor of veterinary medicine, in the course of <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.2"></a><var>161.2</var>professional practice only and not for use by a human being, may personally prescribe, <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.3"></a><var>161.3</var>administer, and dispense a legend drug, and may cause the same to be administered or <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.4"></a><var>161.4</var>dispensed by an assistant under the doctor's direction and supervision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.5"></a><var>161.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Research.</b> (a) Any qualified person may use legend drugs in the course <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.6"></a><var>161.6</var>of a bona fide research project, but cannot administer or dispense such drugs to human <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.7"></a><var>161.7</var>beings unless such drugs are prescribed, dispensed, and administered by a person lawfully <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.8"></a><var>161.8</var>authorized to do so.<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.9"></a><var>161.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Drugs may be dispensed or distributed by a pharmacy licensed by the board for <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.10"></a><var>161.10</var>use by, or administration to, patients enrolled in a bona fide research study that is being <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.11"></a><var>161.11</var>conducted pursuant to either an investigational new drug application approved by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.12"></a><var>161.12</var>United States Food and Drug Administration or that has been approved by an institutional <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.13"></a><var>161.13</var>review board. For the purposes of this subdivision only:<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.14"></a><var>161.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) a prescription drug order is not required for a pharmacy to dispense a research <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.15"></a><var>161.15</var>drug, unless the study protocol requires the pharmacy to receive such an order;<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.16"></a><var>161.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) notwithstanding the prescription labeling requirements found in this chapter or <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.17"></a><var>161.17</var>the rules promulgated by the board, a research drug may be labeled as required by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.18"></a><var>161.18</var>study protocol; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.19"></a><var>161.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) dispensing and distribution of research drugs by pharmacies shall not be <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.20"></a><var>161.20</var>considered compounding, manufacturing, or wholesaling under this chapter.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.21"></a><var>161.21</var>(4) a pharmacy may compound drugs for research studies as provided in <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.22"></a><var>161.22</var>this subdivision but must follow applicable standards established by United States <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.23"></a><var>161.23</var>Pharmacopeia, chapter 795 or 797, for nonsterile and sterile compounding, respectively.<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.24"></a><var>161.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) An entity that is under contract to a federal agency for the purpose of distributing <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.25"></a><var>161.25</var>drugs for bona fide research studies is exempt from the drug wholesaler licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.26"></a><var>161.26</var>requirements of this chapter. Any other entity is exempt from the drug wholesaler <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.27"></a><var>161.27</var>licensing requirements of this chapter if the board finds that the entity is licensed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.28"></a><var>161.28</var>registered according to the laws of the state in which it is physically located and it is <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.29"></a><var>161.29</var>distributing drugs for use by, or administration to, patients enrolled in a bona fide research <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.30"></a><var>161.30</var>study that is being conducted pursuant to either an investigational new drug application <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.31"></a><var>161.31</var>approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration or that has been approved <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.32"></a><var>161.32</var>by an institutional review board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.161.33"></a><var>161.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Exclusion for course of practice.</b> Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.34"></a><var>161.34</var>the sale to, or the possession of, a legend drug by licensed drug wholesalers, licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.161.35"></a><var>161.35</var>manufacturers, registered pharmacies, local detoxification centers, licensed hospitals, <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.1"></a><var>162.1</var>bona fide hospitals wherein animals are treated, or licensed pharmacists and licensed <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.2"></a><var>162.2</var>practitioners while acting within the course of their practice only.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.3"></a><var>162.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Exclusion for course of employment.</b> (a) Nothing in this chapter shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.4"></a><var>162.4</var>prohibit the possession of a legend drug by an employee, agent, or sales representative of <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.5"></a><var>162.5</var>a registered drug manufacturer, or an employee or agent of a registered drug wholesaler, <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.6"></a><var>162.6</var>or registered pharmacy, while acting in the course of employment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.7"></a><var>162.7</var>(b) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the following entities from possessing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.8"></a><var>162.8</var>legend drug for the purpose of disposing of the legend drug as pharmaceutical waste:<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.9"></a><var>162.9</var>(1) a law enforcement officer;<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.10"></a><var>162.10</var>(2) a hazardous waste transporter licensed by the Department of Transportation;<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.11"></a><var>162.11</var>(3) a facility permitted by the Pollution Control Agency to treat, store, or dispose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.12"></a><var>162.12</var>hazardous waste, including household hazardous waste;<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.13"></a><var>162.13</var>(4) a facility licensed by the Pollution Control Agency or a metropolitan county as a <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.14"></a><var>162.14</var>very small quantity generator collection program or a minimal generator;<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.15"></a><var>162.15</var>(5) a county that collects, stores, transports, or disposes of a legend drug pursuant to <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.16"></a><var>162.16</var>a program in compliance with applicable federal law or a person authorized by the county <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.17"></a><var>162.17</var>to conduct one or more of these activities; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.18"></a><var>162.18</var>(6) a sanitary district organized under chapter 115, or a special law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.19"></a><var>162.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Exclusion for prescriptions.</b> (a) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.20"></a><var>162.20</var>possession of a legend drug by a person for that person's use when it has been dispensed to <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.21"></a><var>162.21</var>the person in accordance with a valid prescription issued by a practitioner.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.22"></a><var>162.22</var>(b) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit a person, for whom a legend drug has <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.23"></a><var>162.23</var>been dispensed in accordance with a written or oral prescription by a practitioner, from <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.24"></a><var>162.24</var>designating a family member, caregiver, or other individual to handle the legend drug for <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.25"></a><var>162.25</var>the purpose of assisting the person in obtaining or administering the drug or sending <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.26"></a><var>162.26</var>the drug for destruction.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.27"></a><var>162.27</var>(c) Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit a person for whom a prescription drug has <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.28"></a><var>162.28</var>been dispensed in accordance with a valid prescription issued by a practitioner from <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.29"></a><var>162.29</var>transferring the legend drug to a county that collects, stores, transports, or disposes of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.30"></a><var>162.30</var>legend drug pursuant to a program in compliance with applicable federal law or to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.31"></a><var>162.31</var>person authorized by the county to conduct one or more of these activities.<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.32"></a><var>162.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Misrepresentation.</b> It is unlawful for a person to procure, attempt to <br />
         		<a id="pl.162.33"></a><var>162.33</var>procure, possess, or control a legend drug by any of the following means:<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.34"></a><var>162.34</var>(1) deceit, misrepresentation, or subterfuge;<br />
         		<a id="pl.162.35"></a><var>162.35</var>(2) using a false name; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.1"></a><var>163.1</var>(3) falsely assuming the title of, or falsely representing a person to be a manufacturer, <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.2"></a><var>163.2</var>wholesaler, pharmacist, practitioner, or other authorized person for the purpose of <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.3"></a><var>163.3</var>obtaining a legend drug.<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.4"></a><var>163.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Exclusion for course of laboratory employment.</b> Nothing in this chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.5"></a><var>163.5</var>shall prohibit the possession of a legend drug by an employee or agent of a registered <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.6"></a><var>163.6</var>analytical laboratory while acting in the course of laboratory employment.<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.7"></a><var>163.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Purchase of drugs and other agents by commissioner of health.</b> The <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.8"></a><var>163.8</var>commissioner of health, in preparation for and in carrying out the duties of sections <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.163.9"></a><var>163.9</var>144.05
         </statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>144.4197</statute_ref>, and 
         <statute_ref>144.4198, </statute_ref>may purchase, store, and distribute antituberculosis <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.10"></a><var>163.10</var>drugs, biologics, vaccines, antitoxins, serums, immunizing agents, antibiotics, antivirals, <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.11"></a><var>163.11</var>antidotes, other pharmaceutical agents, and medical supplies to treat and prevent <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.12"></a><var>163.12</var>communicable disease.<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.13"></a><var>163.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10a. <b>Emergency use authorizations.</b> Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.14"></a><var>163.14</var>the purchase, possession, or use of a legend drug by an entity acting according to an <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.15"></a><var>163.15</var>emergency use authorization issued by the United States Food and Drug Administration <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.16"></a><var>163.16</var>pursuant to United States Code, title 21, section 360.bbb-3. The entity must be specifically <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.17"></a><var>163.17</var>tasked in a public health response plan to perform critical functions necessary to support <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.18"></a><var>163.18</var>the response to a public health incident or event.<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.19"></a><var>163.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 11. <b>Complaint reporting</b><b> Exclusion for health care educational programs</b><b>.</b><br />
         		 <a id="pl.163.20"></a><var>163.20</var>The Board of Pharmacy shall report on a quarterly basis to the Board of Optometry any <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.21"></a><var>163.21</var>complaints received regarding the prescription or administration of legend drugs under <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.22"></a><var>163.22</var>section 
         <statute_ref>148.576</statute_ref>. Nothing in this section shall prohibit an accredited public or private <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.23"></a><var>163.23</var>postsecondary school from possessing a legend drug that is not a controlled substance <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.24"></a><var>163.24</var>listed in section 152.02, provided that:<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.25"></a><var>163.25</var>(a) the school is approved by the United States secretary of education in accordance <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.26"></a><var>163.26</var>with requirements of the Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended;<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.27"></a><var>163.27</var>(b) the school provides a course of instruction that prepares individuals for <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.28"></a><var>163.28</var>employment in a health care occupation or profession;<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.29"></a><var>163.29</var>(c) the school may only possess those drugs necessary for the instruction of such <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.30"></a><var>163.30</var>individuals; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.31"></a><var>163.31</var>(d) the drugs may only be used in the course of providing such instruction and are <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.32"></a><var>163.32</var>labeled by the purchaser to indicate that they are not to be administered to patients.<br />
         		<a id="pl.163.33"></a><var>163.33</var>Those areas of the school in which legend drugs are stored are subject to section <br />
         		<a id="pl.163.34"></a><var>163.34</var>151.06, subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clause (4).<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.14.0"></a><a id="pl.164.1"></a><var>164.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.44, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.2"></a><var>164.2</var><b>151.44 DEFINITIONS.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.164.3"></a><var>164.3</var>As used in sections 
         <statute_ref>151.43</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>151.51</statute_ref>, the following terms have the meanings given <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.4"></a><var>164.4</var>in paragraphs (a) to (h):<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.5"></a><var>164.5</var>(a) "Wholesale drug distribution" means distribution of prescription or <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.6"></a><var>164.6</var>nonprescription drugs to persons other than a consumer or patient or reverse distribution <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.7"></a><var>164.7</var>of such drugs, but does not include:<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.8"></a><var>164.8</var>(1) a sale between a division, subsidiary, parent, affiliated, or related company under <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.9"></a><var>164.9</var>the common ownership and control of a corporate entity;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.10"></a><var>164.10</var>(2) the purchase or other acquisition, by a hospital or other health care entity that is a <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.11"></a><var>164.11</var>member of a group purchasing organization, of a drug for its own use from the organization <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.12"></a><var>164.12</var>or from other hospitals or health care entities that are members of such organizations;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.13"></a><var>164.13</var>(3) the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.14"></a><var>164.14</var>drug by a charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.15"></a><var>164.15</var>Code of 1986, as amended through December 31, 1988, to a nonprofit affiliate of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.16"></a><var>164.16</var>organization to the extent otherwise permitted by law;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.17"></a><var>164.17</var>(4) the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.18"></a><var>164.18</var>among hospitals or other health care entities that are under common control;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.19"></a><var>164.19</var>(5) the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug or offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.20"></a><var>164.20</var>for emergency medical reasons;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.21"></a><var>164.21</var>(6) the sale, purchase, or trade of a drug, an offer to sell, purchase, or trade a drug, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.22"></a><var>164.22</var>the dispensing of a drug pursuant to a prescription;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.23"></a><var>164.23</var>(7) the transfer of prescription or nonprescription drugs by a retail pharmacy to <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.24"></a><var>164.24</var>another retail pharmacy to alleviate a temporary shortage;<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.25"></a><var>164.25</var>(8) the distribution of prescription or nonprescription drug samples by manufacturers <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.26"></a><var>164.26</var>representatives; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.27"></a><var>164.27</var>(9) the sale, purchase, or trade of blood and blood components.<br />
         		<a id="pl.164.28"></a><var>164.28</var>(b) "Wholesale drug distributor" means anyone engaged in wholesale drug <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.29"></a><var>164.29</var>distribution including, but not limited to, manufacturers; repackers repackagers; own-label <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.30"></a><var>164.30</var>distributors; jobbers; brokers; warehouses, including manufacturers' and distributors' <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.31"></a><var>164.31</var>warehouses, chain drug warehouses, and wholesale drug warehouses; independent <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.32"></a><var>164.32</var>wholesale drug traders; and pharmacies that conduct wholesale drug distribution. A <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.33"></a><var>164.33</var>wholesale drug distributor does not include a common carrier or individual hired primarily <br />
         		<a id="pl.164.34"></a><var>164.34</var>to transport prescription or nonprescription drugs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.1"></a><var>165.1</var>(c) "Manufacturer" means anyone who is engaged in the manufacturing, preparing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.2"></a><var>165.2</var>propagating, compounding, processing, packaging, repackaging, or labeling of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.3"></a><var>165.3</var>prescription drug has the meaning provided in section 151.01, subdivision 14b.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.4"></a><var>165.4</var>(d) "Prescription drug" means a drug required by federal or state law or regulation <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.5"></a><var>165.5</var>to be dispensed only by a prescription, including finished dosage forms and active <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.6"></a><var>165.6</var>ingredients subject to United States Code, title 21, sections 811 and 812.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.7"></a><var>165.7</var>(e) "Blood" means whole blood collected from a single donor and processed either <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.8"></a><var>165.8</var>for transfusion or further manufacturing.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.9"></a><var>165.9</var>(f) "Blood components" means that part of blood separated by physical or <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.10"></a><var>165.10</var>mechanical means.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.11"></a><var>165.11</var>(g) "Reverse distribution" means the receipt of prescription or nonprescription drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.12"></a><var>165.12</var>received from or shipped to Minnesota locations for the purpose of returning the drugs <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.13"></a><var>165.13</var>to their producers or distributors.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.14"></a><var>165.14</var>(h) "Reverse distributor" means a person engaged in the reverse distribution of drugs.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.15.0"></a><a id="pl.165.15"></a><var>165.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.58, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.16"></a><var>165.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Definitions.</b> For purposes of this section only, the terms defined in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.17"></a><var>165.17</var>subdivision have the meanings given.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.18"></a><var>165.18</var>(a) "Automated drug distribution system" or "system" means a mechanical system <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.19"></a><var>165.19</var>approved by the board that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.20"></a><var>165.20</var>administration, related to the storage, packaging, or dispensing of drugs, and collects, <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.21"></a><var>165.21</var>controls, and maintains all required transaction information and records.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.22"></a><var>165.22</var>(b) "Health care facility" means a nursing home licensed under section 
         <statute_ref>144A.02</statute_ref>; <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.23"></a><var>165.23</var>a housing with services establishment registered under section 
         <statute_ref>144D.01, subdivision 4</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.24"></a><var>165.24</var>in which a home provider licensed under chapter 144A is providing centralized storage <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.25"></a><var>165.25</var>of medications; or a community behavioral health hospital or Minnesota sex offender <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.26"></a><var>165.26</var>program facility operated by the Department of Human Services.<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.27"></a><var>165.27</var>(c) "Managing pharmacy" means a pharmacy licensed by the board that controls and <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.28"></a><var>165.28</var>is responsible for the operation of an automated drug distribution system.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.16.0"></a><a id="pl.165.29"></a><var>165.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.58, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.165.30"></a><var>165.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Authorization.</b> A pharmacy may use an automated drug distribution <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.31"></a><var>165.31</var>system to fill prescription drug orders for patients of a health care facility provided that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.32"></a><var>165.32</var>policies and procedures required by this section have been approved by the board. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.165.33"></a><var>165.33</var>automated drug distribution system may be located in a health care facility that is not at <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.1"></a><var>166.1</var>the same location as the managing pharmacy. When located within a health care facility, <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.2"></a><var>166.2</var>the system is considered to be an extension of the managing pharmacy.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.17.0"></a><a id="pl.166.3"></a><var>166.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 151.58, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.4"></a><var>166.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Operation of automated drug distribution systems.</b> (a) The managing <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.5"></a><var>166.5</var>pharmacy and the pharmacist in charge are responsible for the operation of an automated <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.6"></a><var>166.6</var>drug distribution system.<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.7"></a><var>166.7</var>(b) Access to an automated drug distribution system must be limited to pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.8"></a><var>166.8</var>and nonpharmacy personnel authorized to procure drugs from the system, except that field <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.9"></a><var>166.9</var>service technicians may access a system located in a health care facility for the purposes of <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.10"></a><var>166.10</var>servicing and maintaining it while being monitored either by the managing pharmacy, or a <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.11"></a><var>166.11</var>licensed nurse within the health care facility. In the case of an automated drug distribution <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.12"></a><var>166.12</var>system that is not physically located within a licensed pharmacy, access for the purpose <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.13"></a><var>166.13</var>of procuring drugs shall be limited to licensed nurses. Each person authorized to access <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.14"></a><var>166.14</var>the system must be assigned an individual specific access code. Alternatively, access to <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.15"></a><var>166.15</var>the system may be controlled through the use of biometric identification procedures. A <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.16"></a><var>166.16</var>policy specifying time access parameters, including time-outs, logoffs, and lockouts, <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.17"></a><var>166.17</var>must be in place.<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.18"></a><var>166.18</var>(c) For the purposes of this section only, the requirements of section 
         <statute_ref>151.215</statute_ref> are met <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.19"></a><var>166.19</var>if the following clauses are met:<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.20"></a><var>166.20</var>(1) a pharmacist employed by and working at the managing pharmacy, or at a <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.21"></a><var>166.21</var>pharmacy that is acting as a central services pharmacy for the managing pharmacy, <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.22"></a><var>166.22</var>pursuant to Minnesota Rules, part 6800.4075, must review, interpret, and approve all <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.23"></a><var>166.23</var>prescription drug orders before any drug is distributed from the system to be administered <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.24"></a><var>166.24</var>to a patient. A pharmacy technician may perform data entry of prescription drug orders <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.25"></a><var>166.25</var>provided that a pharmacist certifies the accuracy of the data entry before the drug can <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.26"></a><var>166.26</var>be released from the automated drug distribution system. A pharmacist employed by <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.27"></a><var>166.27</var>and working at the managing pharmacy must certify the accuracy of the filling of any <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.28"></a><var>166.28</var>cassettes, canisters, or other containers that contain drugs that will be loaded into the <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.29"></a><var>166.29</var>automated drug distribution system; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.30"></a><var>166.30</var>(2) when the automated drug dispensing system is located and used within the <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.31"></a><var>166.31</var>managing pharmacy, a pharmacist must personally supervise and take responsibility for all <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.32"></a><var>166.32</var>packaging and labeling associated with the use of an automated drug distribution system.<br />
         		<a id="pl.166.33"></a><var>166.33</var>(d) Access to drugs when a pharmacist has not reviewed and approved the <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.34"></a><var>166.34</var>prescription drug order is permitted only when a formal and written decision to allow such <br />
         		<a id="pl.166.35"></a><var>166.35</var>access is issued by the pharmacy and the therapeutics committee or its equivalent. The <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.1"></a><var>167.1</var>committee must specify the patient care circumstances in which such access is allowed, <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.2"></a><var>167.2</var>the drugs that can be accessed, and the staff that are allowed to access the drugs.<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.3"></a><var>167.3</var>(e) In the case of an automated drug distribution system that does not utilize bar <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.4"></a><var>167.4</var>coding in the loading process, the loading of a system located in a health care facility may <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.5"></a><var>167.5</var>be performed by a pharmacy technician, so long as the activity is continuously supervised, <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.6"></a><var>167.6</var>through a two-way audiovisual system by a pharmacist on duty within the managing <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.7"></a><var>167.7</var>pharmacy. In the case of an automated drug distribution system that utilizes bar coding <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.8"></a><var>167.8</var>in the loading process, the loading of a system located in a health care facility may be <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.9"></a><var>167.9</var>performed by a pharmacy technician or a licensed nurse, provided that the managing <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.10"></a><var>167.10</var>pharmacy retains an electronic record of loading activities.<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.11"></a><var>167.11</var>(f) The automated drug distribution system must be under the supervision of a <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.12"></a><var>167.12</var>pharmacist. The pharmacist is not required to be physically present at the site of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.13"></a><var>167.13</var>automated drug distribution system if the system is continuously monitored electronically <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.14"></a><var>167.14</var>by the managing pharmacy. A pharmacist on duty within a pharmacy licensed by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.15"></a><var>167.15</var>board must be continuously available to address any problems detected by the monitoring <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.16"></a><var>167.16</var>or to answer questions from the staff of the health care facility. The licensed pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.17"></a><var>167.17</var>may be the managing pharmacy or a pharmacy which is acting as a central services <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.18"></a><var>167.18</var>pharmacy, pursuant to Minnesota Rules, part 6800.4075, for the managing pharmacy.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.18.0"></a><a id="pl.167.19"></a><var>167.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2013 Supplement, section 152.02, subdivision 2, is <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.20"></a><var>167.20</var>amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.21"></a><var>167.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Schedule I.</b> (a) Schedule I consists of the substances listed in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.22"></a><var>167.22</var>subdivision.<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.23"></a><var>167.23</var>(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.24"></a><var>167.24</var>the following substances, including their analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.25"></a><var>167.25</var>of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the analogs, isomers, esters, <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.26"></a><var>167.26</var>ethers, and salts is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.27"></a><var>167.27</var>(1) acetylmethadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.28"></a><var>167.28</var>(2) allylprodine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.29"></a><var>167.29</var>(3) alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as <br />
         		<a id="pl.167.30"></a><var>167.30</var>levomethadyl acetate);<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.31"></a><var>167.31</var>(4) alphameprodine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.32"></a><var>167.32</var>(5) alphamethadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.33"></a><var>167.33</var>(6) alpha-methylfentanyl benzethidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.34"></a><var>167.34</var>(7) betacetylmethadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.167.35"></a><var>167.35</var>(8) betameprodine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.1"></a><var>168.1</var>(9) betamethadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.2"></a><var>168.2</var>(10) betaprodine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.3"></a><var>168.3</var>(11) clonitazene;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.4"></a><var>168.4</var>(12) dextromoramide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.5"></a><var>168.5</var>(13) diampromide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.6"></a><var>168.6</var>(14) diethyliambutene;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.7"></a><var>168.7</var>(15) difenoxin;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.8"></a><var>168.8</var>(16) dimenoxadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.9"></a><var>168.9</var>(17) dimepheptanol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.10"></a><var>168.10</var>(18) dimethyliambutene;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.11"></a><var>168.11</var>(19) dioxaphetyl butyrate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.12"></a><var>168.12</var>(20) dipipanone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.13"></a><var>168.13</var>(21) ethylmethylthiambutene;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.14"></a><var>168.14</var>(22) etonitazene;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.15"></a><var>168.15</var>(23) etoxeridine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.16"></a><var>168.16</var>(24) furethidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.17"></a><var>168.17</var>(25) hydroxypethidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.18"></a><var>168.18</var>(26) ketobemidone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.19"></a><var>168.19</var>(27) levomoramide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.20"></a><var>168.20</var>(28) levophenacylmorphan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.21"></a><var>168.21</var>(29) 3-methylfentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.22"></a><var>168.22</var>(30) acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.23"></a><var>168.23</var>(31) alpha-methylthiofentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.24"></a><var>168.24</var>(32) benzylfentanyl beta-hydroxyfentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.25"></a><var>168.25</var>(33) beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.26"></a><var>168.26</var>(34) 3-methylthiofentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.27"></a><var>168.27</var>(35) thenylfentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.28"></a><var>168.28</var>(36) thiofentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.29"></a><var>168.29</var>(37) para-fluorofentanyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.30"></a><var>168.30</var>(38) morpheridine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.31"></a><var>168.31</var>(39) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.32"></a><var>168.32</var>(40) noracymethadol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.33"></a><var>168.33</var>(41) norlevorphanol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.34"></a><var>168.34</var>(42) normethadone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.35"></a><var>168.35</var>(43) norpipanone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.168.36"></a><var>168.36</var>(44) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP);<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.1"></a><var>169.1</var>(45) phenadoxone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.2"></a><var>169.2</var>(46) phenampromide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.3"></a><var>169.3</var>(47) phenomorphan;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.4"></a><var>169.4</var>(48) phenoperidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.5"></a><var>169.5</var>(49) piritramide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.6"></a><var>169.6</var>(50) proheptazine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.7"></a><var>169.7</var>(51) properidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.8"></a><var>169.8</var>(52) propiram;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.9"></a><var>169.9</var>(53) racemoramide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.10"></a><var>169.10</var>(54) tilidine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.11"></a><var>169.11</var>(55) trimeperidine.;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.12"></a><var>169.12</var>(56) N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (acetyl fentanyl).<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.13"></a><var>169.13</var>(c) Opium derivatives. Any of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, <br />
         		<a id="pl.169.14"></a><var>169.14</var>and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, <br />
         		<a id="pl.169.15"></a><var>169.15</var>whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.16"></a><var>169.16</var>(1) acetorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.17"></a><var>169.17</var>(2) acetyldihydrocodeine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.18"></a><var>169.18</var>(3) benzylmorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.19"></a><var>169.19</var>(4) codeine methylbromide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.20"></a><var>169.20</var>(5) codeine-n-oxide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.21"></a><var>169.21</var>(6) cyprenorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.22"></a><var>169.22</var>(7) desomorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.23"></a><var>169.23</var>(8) dihydromorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.24"></a><var>169.24</var>(9) drotebanol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.25"></a><var>169.25</var>(10) etorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.26"></a><var>169.26</var>(11) heroin;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.27"></a><var>169.27</var>(12) hydromorphinol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.28"></a><var>169.28</var>(13) methyldesorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.29"></a><var>169.29</var>(14) methyldihydromorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.30"></a><var>169.30</var>(15) morphine methylbromide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.31"></a><var>169.31</var>(16) morphine methylsulfonate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.32"></a><var>169.32</var>(17) morphine-n-oxide;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.33"></a><var>169.33</var>(18) myrophine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.34"></a><var>169.34</var>(19) nicocodeine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.35"></a><var>169.35</var>(20) nicomorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.169.36"></a><var>169.36</var>(21) normorphine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.1"></a><var>170.1</var>(22) pholcodine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.2"></a><var>170.2</var>(23) thebacon.<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.3"></a><var>170.3</var>(d) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains <br />
         		<a id="pl.170.4"></a><var>170.4</var>any quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers (whether optical, <br />
         		<a id="pl.170.5"></a><var>170.5</var>positional, or geometric), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed <br />
         		<a id="pl.170.6"></a><var>170.6</var>in another schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of <br />
         		<a id="pl.170.7"></a><var>170.7</var>isomers is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.8"></a><var>170.8</var>(1) methylenedioxy amphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.9"></a><var>170.9</var>(2) methylenedioxymethamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.10"></a><var>170.10</var>(3) methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (MDEA);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.11"></a><var>170.11</var>(4) n-hydroxy-methylenedioxyamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.12"></a><var>170.12</var>(5) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOB);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.13"></a><var>170.13</var>(6) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (2,5-DMA);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.14"></a><var>170.14</var>(7) 4-methoxyamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.15"></a><var>170.15</var>(8) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.16"></a><var>170.16</var>(9) alpha-ethyltryptamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.17"></a><var>170.17</var>(10) bufotenine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.18"></a><var>170.18</var>(11) diethyltryptamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.19"></a><var>170.19</var>(12) dimethyltryptamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.20"></a><var>170.20</var>(13) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.21"></a><var>170.21</var>(14) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.22"></a><var>170.22</var>(15) ibogaine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.23"></a><var>170.23</var>(16) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.24"></a><var>170.24</var>(17) mescaline;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.25"></a><var>170.25</var>(18) parahexyl;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.26"></a><var>170.26</var>(19) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.27"></a><var>170.27</var>(20) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.28"></a><var>170.28</var>(21) psilocybin;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.29"></a><var>170.29</var>(22) psilocyn;<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.30"></a><var>170.30</var>(23) tenocyclidine (TPCP or TCP);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.31"></a><var>170.31</var>(24) N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclohexylamine (PCE);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.32"></a><var>170.32</var>(25) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine (PCPy);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.33"></a><var>170.33</var>(26) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]-pyrrolidine (TCPy);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.34"></a><var>170.34</var>(27) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOC);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.35"></a><var>170.35</var>(28) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOET);<br />
         		<a id="pl.170.36"></a><var>170.36</var>(29) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOI);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.1"></a><var>171.1</var>(30) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-B);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.2"></a><var>171.2</var>(31) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.3"></a><var>171.3</var>(32) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2-CD);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.4"></a><var>171.4</var>(33) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-E);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.5"></a><var>171.5</var>(34) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.6"></a><var>171.6</var>(35) 4-propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-P);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.7"></a><var>171.7</var>(36) 4-isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-4);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.8"></a><var>171.8</var>(37) 4-propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-7);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.9"></a><var>171.9</var>(38) 2-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofuro [2,3-f][1]benzofuran-4-yl)ethanamine <br />
         		<a id="pl.171.10"></a><var>171.10</var>(2-CB-FLY);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.11"></a><var>171.11</var>(39) bromo-benzodifuranyl-isopropylamine (Bromo-DragonFLY);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.12"></a><var>171.12</var>(40) alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.13"></a><var>171.13</var>(41) N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (DiPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.14"></a><var>171.14</var>(42) 4-acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DMT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.15"></a><var>171.15</var>(43) 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DET);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.16"></a><var>171.16</var>(44) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-propyltryptamine (4-HO-MPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.17"></a><var>171.17</var>(45) 4-hydroxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (4-HO-DPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.18"></a><var>171.18</var>(46) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (4-HO-DALT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.19"></a><var>171.19</var>(47) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.20"></a><var>171.20</var>(48) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DiPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.21"></a><var>171.21</var>(49) 5-methoxy-&#945;-methyltryptamine (5-MeO-AMT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.22"></a><var>171.22</var>(50) 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DMT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.23"></a><var>171.23</var>(51) 5-methylthio-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeS-DMT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.24"></a><var>171.24</var>(52) 5-methoxy-N-methyl-N-propyltryptamine (5-MeO-MiPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.25"></a><var>171.25</var>(53) 5-methoxy-&#945;-ethyltryptamine (5-MeO-AET);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.26"></a><var>171.26</var>(54) 5-methoxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DPT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.27"></a><var>171.27</var>(55) 5-methoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DET);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.28"></a><var>171.28</var>(56) 5-methoxy-N,N-diallytryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.29"></a><var>171.29</var>(57) methoxetamine (MXE);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.30"></a><var>171.30</var>(58) 5-iodo-2-aminoindane (5-IAI);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.31"></a><var>171.31</var>(59) 5,6-methylenedioxy-2-aminoindane (MDAI);<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.32"></a><var>171.32</var>(60) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]ethanamine <br />
         		<a id="pl.171.33"></a><var>171.33</var>(25I-NBOMe).<br />
         		<a id="pl.171.34"></a><var>171.34</var>(e) Peyote. All parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora <br />
         		<a id="pl.171.35"></a><var>171.35</var>williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part <br />
         		<a id="pl.171.36"></a><var>171.36</var>of the plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.1"></a><var>172.1</var>of the plant, its seeds or extracts. The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.2"></a><var>172.2</var>Schedule I does not apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.3"></a><var>172.3</var>of the American Indian Church, and members of the American Indian Church are exempt <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.4"></a><var>172.4</var>from registration. Any person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.5"></a><var>172.5</var>American Indian Church, however, is required to obtain federal registration annually and <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.6"></a><var>172.6</var>to comply with all other requirements of law.<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.7"></a><var>172.7</var>(f) Central nervous system depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.8"></a><var>172.8</var>in another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.9"></a><var>172.9</var>quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.10"></a><var>172.10</var>whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.11"></a><var>172.11</var>(1) mecloqualone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.12"></a><var>172.12</var>(2) methaqualone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.13"></a><var>172.13</var>(3) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), including its esters and ethers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.14"></a><var>172.14</var>(4) flunitrazepam.<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.15"></a><var>172.15</var>(g) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.16"></a><var>172.16</var>material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.17"></a><var>172.17</var>substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of <br />
         		<a id="pl.172.18"></a><var>172.18</var>the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.19"></a><var>172.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) aminorex;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.20"></a><var>172.20</var>(2) cathinone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.21"></a><var>172.21</var>(3) fenethylline;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.22"></a><var>172.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) methcathinone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.23"></a><var>172.23</var>(5) methylaminorex;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.24"></a><var>172.24</var>(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.25"></a><var>172.25</var>(7) N-benzylpiperazine (BZP);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.26"></a><var>172.26</var>(8) methylmethcathinone (mephedrone);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.27"></a><var>172.27</var>(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (methylone);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.28"></a><var>172.28</var>(10) methoxymethcathinone (methedrone);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.29"></a><var>172.29</var>(11) methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.30"></a><var>172.30</var>(12) fluoromethcathinone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.31"></a><var>172.31</var>(13) methylethcathinone (MEC);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.32"></a><var>172.32</var>(14) 1-benzofuran-6-ylpropan-2-amine (6-APB);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.33"></a><var>172.33</var>(15) dimethylmethcathinone (DMMC);<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.34"></a><var>172.34</var>(16) fluoroamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.35"></a><var>172.35</var>(17) fluoromethamphetamine;<br />
         		<a id="pl.172.36"></a><var>172.36</var>(18) &#945;-methylaminobutyrophenone (MABP or buphedrone);<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.1"></a><var>173.1</var>(19) &#946;-keto-N-methylbenzodioxolylpropylamine (bk-MBDB or butylone);<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.2"></a><var>173.2</var>(20) 2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)butan-1-one (4-MEMABP or BZ-6378);<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.3"></a><var>173.3</var>(21) naphthylpyrovalerone (naphyrone); and<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.4"></a><var>173.4</var>(22) (RS)-1-phenyl-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-pentanone (alpha-PVP or <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.5"></a><var>173.5</var>alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone;<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.6"></a><var>173.6</var>(23) (RS)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-hexanone (4-Me-PHP or <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.7"></a><var>173.7</var>MPHP); and<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.8"></a><var>173.8</var>(22) (24) any other substance, except bupropion or compounds listed under a <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.9"></a><var>173.9</var>different schedule, that is structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.10"></a><var>173.10</var>at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.11"></a><var>173.11</var>the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.12"></a><var>173.12</var>(i) by substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.13"></a><var>173.13</var>haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.14"></a><var>173.14</var>system by one or more other univalent substituents;<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.15"></a><var>173.15</var>(ii) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.16"></a><var>173.16</var>(iii) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.17"></a><var>173.17</var>methoxybenzyl groups; or<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.18"></a><var>173.18</var>(iv) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure.<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.19"></a><var>173.19</var>(h) Marijuana, tetrahydrocannabinols, and synthetic cannabinoids. Unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.20"></a><var>173.20</var>specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any natural or synthetic material, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.21"></a><var>173.21</var>compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the following substances, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.22"></a><var>173.22</var>their analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.23"></a><var>173.23</var>whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, or salts is possible:<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.24"></a><var>173.24</var>(1) marijuana;<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.25"></a><var>173.25</var>(2) tetrahydrocannabinols naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.26"></a><var>173.26</var>synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the cannabis plant or in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.27"></a><var>173.27</var>resinous extractives of the plant, or synthetic substances with similar chemical structure <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.28"></a><var>173.28</var>and pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the plant or resinous <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.29"></a><var>173.29</var>extract, including, but not limited to, 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, 6 cis or trans <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.30"></a><var>173.30</var>tetrahydrocannabinol, and 3,4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol;<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.31"></a><var>173.31</var>(3) synthetic cannabinoids, including the following substances:<br />
         		<a id="pl.173.32"></a><var>173.32</var>(i) Naphthoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-napthoyl)indole <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.33"></a><var>173.33</var>structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.34"></a><var>173.34</var>alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or <br />
         		<a id="pl.173.35"></a><var>173.35</var>2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.1"></a><var>174.1</var>extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.2"></a><var>174.2</var>naphthoylindoles include, but are not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.3"></a><var>174.3</var>(A) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM-678);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.4"></a><var>174.4</var>(B) 1-Butul-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.5"></a><var>174.5</var>(C) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-081);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.6"></a><var>174.6</var>(D) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.7"></a><var>174.7</var>(E) 1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-015);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.8"></a><var>174.8</var>(F) 1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.9"></a><var>174.9</var>(G) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.10"></a><var>174.10</var>(H) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-210);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.11"></a><var>174.11</var>(I) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.12"></a><var>174.12</var>(J) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM-2201).<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.13"></a><var>174.13</var>(ii) Napthylmethylindoles, which are any compounds containing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.14"></a><var>174.14</var>1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.15"></a><var>174.15</var>of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.16"></a><var>174.16</var>1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.17"></a><var>174.17</var>substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.18"></a><var>174.18</var>ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylmethylindoles include, but are not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.19"></a><var>174.19</var>(A) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-175);<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.20"></a><var>174.20</var>(B) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methan (JWH-184).<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.21"></a><var>174.21</var>(iii) Naphthoylpyrroles, which are any compounds containing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.22"></a><var>174.22</var>3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.23"></a><var>174.23</var>pyrrole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.24"></a><var>174.24</var>1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.25"></a><var>174.25</var>further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.26"></a><var>174.26</var>naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of naphthoylpyrroles include, but are not limited to, <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.27"></a><var>174.27</var>(5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone (JWH-307).<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.28"></a><var>174.28</var>(iv) Naphthylmethylindenes, which are any compounds containing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.29"></a><var>174.29</var>naphthylideneindene structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.30"></a><var>174.30</var>ring by an allkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.31"></a><var>174.31</var>1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.32"></a><var>174.32</var>substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.33"></a><var>174.33</var>ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylemethylindenes include, but are not limited to, <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.34"></a><var>174.34</var>E-1-[1-(1-naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane (JWH-176).<br />
         		<a id="pl.174.35"></a><var>174.35</var>(v) Phenylacetylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-phenylacetylindole <br />
         		<a id="pl.174.36"></a><var>174.36</var>structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.1"></a><var>175.1</var>alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.2"></a><var>175.2</var>2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.3"></a><var>175.3</var>any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.4"></a><var>175.4</var>phenylacetylindoles include, but are not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.5"></a><var>175.5</var>(A) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (RCS-8);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.6"></a><var>175.6</var>(B) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.7"></a><var>175.7</var>(C) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-251);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.8"></a><var>175.8</var>(D) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203).<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.9"></a><var>175.9</var>(vi) Cyclohexylphenols, which are compounds containing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.10"></a><var>175.10</var>2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.11"></a><var>175.11</var>of the phenolic ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.12"></a><var>175.12</var>1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.13"></a><var>175.13</var>substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of cyclohexylphenols include, <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.14"></a><var>175.14</var>but are not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.15"></a><var>175.15</var>(A) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP 47,497);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.16"></a><var>175.16</var>(B) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.17"></a><var>175.17</var>(Cannabicyclohexanol or CP 47,497 C8 homologue);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.18"></a><var>175.18</var>(C) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,2R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl] <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.19"></a><var>175.19</var>-phenol (CP 55,940).<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.20"></a><var>175.20</var>(vii) Benzoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(benzoyl)indole <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.21"></a><var>175.21</var>structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.22"></a><var>175.22</var>alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.23"></a><var>175.23</var>2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.24"></a><var>175.24</var>any extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.25"></a><var>175.25</var>benzoylindoles include, but are not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.26"></a><var>175.26</var>(A) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole (RCS-4);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.27"></a><var>175.27</var>(B) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM-694);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.28"></a><var>175.28</var>(C) (4-methoxyphenyl-[2-methyl-1-(2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3-yl]methanone <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.29"></a><var>175.29</var>(WIN 48,098 or Pravadoline).<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.30"></a><var>175.30</var>(viii) Others specifically named:<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.31"></a><var>175.31</var>(A) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.32"></a><var>175.32</var>-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (HU-210);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.33"></a><var>175.33</var>(B) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.34"></a><var>175.34</var>-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (Dexanabinol or HU-211);<br />
         		<a id="pl.175.35"></a><var>175.35</var>(C) 2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de] <br />
         		<a id="pl.175.36"></a><var>175.36</var>-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.1"></a><var>176.1</var>(D) (1-pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.2"></a><var>176.2</var>(E) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.3"></a><var>176.3</var>(XLR-11);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.4"></a><var>176.4</var>(F) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.5"></a><var>176.5</var>(AKB-48(APINACA));<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.6"></a><var>176.6</var>(G) N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.7"></a><var>176.7</var>(5-Fluoro-AKB-48);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.8"></a><var>176.8</var>(H) 1-pentyl-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (PB-22);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.9"></a><var>176.9</var>(I) 8-quinolinyl ester-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (5-Fluoro <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.10"></a><var>176.10</var>PB-22).;<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.11"></a><var>176.11</var>(J) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-pentyl-1H-indazole- <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.12"></a><var>176.12</var>3-carboxamide (AB-PINACA);<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.13"></a><var>176.13</var>(K) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]- <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.14"></a><var>176.14</var>1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA).<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.15"></a><var>176.15</var>(i) A controlled substance analog, to the extent that it is implicitly or explicitly <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.16"></a><var>176.16</var>intended for human consumption.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.19.0"></a><a id="pl.176.17"></a><var>176.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 152.126, as amended by Laws 2013, chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.18"></a><var>176.18</var>113, article 3, section 3, is amended to read:<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.19"></a><var>176.19</var><b>152.126 </b><b>CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES PRESCRIPTION ELECTRONIC </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.176.20"></a><var>176.20</var><b>REPORTING SYSTEM</b><b> PRESCRIPTION MONITORING PROGRAM</b><b>.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.176.21"></a><var>176.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> (a) For purposes of this section, the terms defined in <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.22"></a><var>176.22</var>this subdivision have the meanings given.<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.23"></a><var>176.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(a) (b) "Board" means the Minnesota State Board of Pharmacy established under <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.24"></a><var>176.24</var>chapter 151.<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.25"></a><var>176.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) (c) "Controlled substances" means those substances listed in section 
         <statute_ref>152.02</statute_ref>, <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.26"></a><var>176.26</var>subdivisions 3 to 5 6, and those substances defined by the board pursuant to section <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.176.27"></a><var>176.27</var>152.02, subdivisions 7
         </statute_ref>, 8, and 12. For the purposes of this section, controlled substances <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.28"></a><var>176.28</var>includes tramadol and butalbital.<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.29"></a><var>176.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) (d) "Dispense" or "dispensing" has the meaning given in section 
         <statute_ref>151.01, <br />
            		<a id="pl.176.30"></a><var>176.30</var>subdivision 30
         </statute_ref>. Dispensing does not include the direct administering of a controlled <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.31"></a><var>176.31</var>substance to a patient by a licensed health care professional.<br />
         		<a id="pl.176.32"></a><var>176.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) (e) "Dispenser" means a person authorized by law to dispense a controlled <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.33"></a><var>176.33</var>substance, pursuant to a valid prescription. For the purposes of this section, a dispenser <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.34"></a><var>176.34</var>does not include a licensed hospital pharmacy that distributes controlled substances for <br />
         		<a id="pl.176.35"></a><var>176.35</var>inpatient hospital care, a licensed pharmacy, located on the same premises as a residential <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.1"></a><var>177.1</var>hospice, when the licensed pharmacy is dispensing controlled substances to be used <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.2"></a><var>177.2</var>by an individual who is a resident of the hospice or a veterinarian who is dispensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.3"></a><var>177.3</var>prescriptions under section 
         <statute_ref>156.18</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.4"></a><var>177.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) (f) "Prescriber" means a licensed health care professional who is authorized to <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.5"></a><var>177.5</var>prescribe a controlled substance under section 
         <statute_ref>152.12, subdivision 1</statute_ref> or 2.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.6"></a><var>177.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(f) (g) "Prescription" has the meaning given in section 
         <statute_ref>151.01, subdivision 16</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.7"></a><var>177.7</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 1a. <b>Treatment of intractable pain.</b> This section is not intended to limit or <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.8"></a><var>177.8</var>interfere with the legitimate prescribing of controlled substances for pain. No prescriber <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.9"></a><var>177.9</var>shall be subject to disciplinary action by a health-related licensing board for prescribing a <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.10"></a><var>177.10</var>controlled substance according to the provisions of section 
         <statute_ref>152.125</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.11"></a><var>177.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 2. <b>Prescription electronic reporting system.</b> (a) The board shall establish <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.12"></a><var>177.12</var>by January 1, 2010, an electronic system for reporting the information required under <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.13"></a><var>177.13</var>subdivision 4 for all controlled substances dispensed within the state.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.14"></a><var>177.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) The board may contract with a vendor for the purpose of obtaining technical <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.15"></a><var>177.15</var>assistance in the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of the electronic <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.16"></a><var>177.16</var>reporting system.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.17"></a><var>177.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 3. <b>Prescription </b><b>Electronic Reporting</b><b> </b><b>Monitoring Program </b><b>Advisory </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.177.18"></a><var>177.18</var><b>Committee</b><b> Task Force</b><b>.</b> (a) The board shall convene may appoint an advisory committee. <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.19"></a><var>177.19</var>The committee must include task force consisting of at least one representative of:<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.20"></a><var>177.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) the Department of Health;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.21"></a><var>177.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) the Department of Human Services;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.22"></a><var>177.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) each health-related licensing board that licenses prescribers;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.23"></a><var>177.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) a professional medical association, which may include an association of pain <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.24"></a><var>177.24</var>management and chemical dependency specialists;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.25"></a><var>177.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) a professional pharmacy association;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.26"></a><var>177.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) a professional nursing association;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.27"></a><var>177.27</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) a professional dental association;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.28"></a><var>177.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) a consumer privacy or security advocate; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.29"></a><var>177.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) a consumer or patient rights organization.; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.30"></a><var>177.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) an association of medical examiners and coroners.<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.31"></a><var>177.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) The advisory committee task force shall advise the board on the development and <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.32"></a><var>177.32</var>operation of the electronic reporting system prescription monitoring program, including, <br />
         		<a id="pl.177.33"></a><var>177.33</var>but not limited to:<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.34"></a><var>177.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) technical standards for electronic prescription drug reporting;<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.35"></a><var>177.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) proper analysis and interpretation of prescription monitoring data; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.177.36"></a><var>177.36</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) an evaluation process for the program; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.1"></a><var>178.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) criteria for the unsolicited provision of prescription monitoring data by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.2"></a><var>178.2</var>board to prescribers and dispensers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.3"></a><var>178.3</var>(c) The task force is governed by section 15.059. Notwithstanding section 15.059, <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.4"></a><var>178.4</var>subdivision 5, the task force shall not expire.<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.5"></a><var>178.5</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 4. <b>Reporting requirements; notice.</b> (a) Each dispenser must submit the <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.6"></a><var>178.6</var>following data to the board or its designated vendor, subject to the notice required under <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.7"></a><var>178.7</var>paragraph (d):<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.8"></a><var>178.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) name of the prescriber;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.9"></a><var>178.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) national provider identifier of the prescriber;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.10"></a><var>178.10</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) name of the dispenser;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.11"></a><var>178.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) national provider identifier of the dispenser;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.12"></a><var>178.12</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) prescription number;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.13"></a><var>178.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) name of the patient for whom the prescription was written;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.14"></a><var>178.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) address of the patient for whom the prescription was written;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.15"></a><var>178.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) date of birth of the patient for whom the prescription was written;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.16"></a><var>178.16</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(9) date the prescription was written;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.17"></a><var>178.17</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(10) date the prescription was filled;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.18"></a><var>178.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(11) name and strength of the controlled substance;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.19"></a><var>178.19</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(12) quantity of controlled substance prescribed;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.20"></a><var>178.20</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(13) quantity of controlled substance dispensed; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.21"></a><var>178.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(14) number of days supply.<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.22"></a><var>178.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) The dispenser must submit the required information by a procedure and in a <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.23"></a><var>178.23</var>format established by the board. The board may allow dispensers to omit data listed in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.24"></a><var>178.24</var>subdivision or may require the submission of data not listed in this subdivision provided <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.25"></a><var>178.25</var>the omission or submission is necessary for the purpose of complying with the electronic <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.26"></a><var>178.26</var>reporting or data transmission standards of the American Society for Automation in <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.27"></a><var>178.27</var>Pharmacy, the National Council on Prescription Drug Programs, or other relevant national <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.28"></a><var>178.28</var>standard-setting body.<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.29"></a><var>178.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) A dispenser is not required to submit this data for those controlled substance <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.30"></a><var>178.30</var>prescriptions dispensed for:<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.31"></a><var>178.31</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) individuals residing in licensed skilled nursing or intermediate care facilities;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.32"></a><var>178.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) individuals receiving assisted living services under chapter 144G or through a <br />
         		<a id="pl.178.33"></a><var>178.33</var>medical assistance home and community-based waiver;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.34"></a><var>178.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) individuals receiving medication intravenously;<br />
         		<a id="pl.178.35"></a><var>178.35</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) individuals receiving hospice and other palliative or end-of-life care; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.1"></a><var>179.1</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) individuals receiving services from a home care provider regulated under chapter <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.2"></a><var>179.2</var>144A.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.3"></a><var>179.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) individuals residing in a health care facility as defined in section 151.58, <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.4"></a><var>179.4</var>subdivision 2, paragraph (b), when a drug is distributed through the use of an automated <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.5"></a><var>179.5</var>drug distribution system according to section 151.58; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.6"></a><var>179.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) individuals receiving a drug sample that was packaged by a manufacturer and <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.7"></a><var>179.7</var>provided to the dispenser for dispensing as a professional sample pursuant to Code of <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.8"></a><var>179.8</var>Federal Regulations, title 21, section 203, subpart D.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.9"></a><var>179.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) A dispenser must not submit data under this subdivision unless provide to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.10"></a><var>179.10</var>patient for whom the prescription was written a conspicuous notice of the reporting <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.11"></a><var>179.11</var>requirements of this section is given to the patient for whom the prescription was written<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.12"></a><var>179.12</var> and notice that the information may be used for program administration purposes.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.13"></a><var>179.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 5. <b>Use of data by board.</b> (a) The board shall develop and maintain a database <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.14"></a><var>179.14</var>of the data reported under subdivision 4. The board shall maintain data that could identify <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.15"></a><var>179.15</var>an individual prescriber or dispenser in encrypted form. Except as otherwise allowed <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.16"></a><var>179.16</var>under subdivision 6, the database may be used by permissible users identified under <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.17"></a><var>179.17</var>subdivision 6 for the identification of:<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.18"></a><var>179.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) individuals receiving prescriptions for controlled substances from prescribers <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.19"></a><var>179.19</var>who subsequently obtain controlled substances from dispensers in quantities or with a <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.20"></a><var>179.20</var>frequency inconsistent with generally recognized standards of use for those controlled <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.21"></a><var>179.21</var>substances, including standards accepted by national and international pain management <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.22"></a><var>179.22</var>associations; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.23"></a><var>179.23</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) individuals presenting forged or otherwise false or altered prescriptions for <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.24"></a><var>179.24</var>controlled substances to dispensers.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.25"></a><var>179.25</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) No permissible user identified under subdivision 6 may access the database <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.26"></a><var>179.26</var>for the sole purpose of identifying prescribers of controlled substances for unusual or <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.27"></a><var>179.27</var>excessive prescribing patterns without a valid search warrant or court order.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.28"></a><var>179.28</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) No personnel of a state or federal occupational licensing board or agency may <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.29"></a><var>179.29</var>access the database for the purpose of obtaining information to be used to initiate or <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.30"></a><var>179.30</var>substantiate a disciplinary action against a prescriber when the disciplinary action relates <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.31"></a><var>179.31</var>to allegations involving unusual or excessive prescribing of the drugs for which data <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.32"></a><var>179.32</var>is collected under subdivision 4.<br />
         		<a id="pl.179.33"></a><var>179.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) Data reported under subdivision 4 shall be retained by the board in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.34"></a><var>179.34</var>databasefor a 12-month period, and shall be removed from the database no later than 12 <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.35"></a><var>179.35</var>months from the last day of the month during which the data was received. made available <br />
         		<a id="pl.179.36"></a><var>179.36</var>to permissible users for a 12-month period beginning the day the data was received and <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.1"></a><var>180.1</var>ending 12 months from the last day of the month in which the data was received, except <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.2"></a><var>180.2</var>that permissible users defined in subdivision 6, paragraph (b), clauses (6) and (7), may <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.3"></a><var>180.3</var>use all data collected under this section for the purposes of administering, operating, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.4"></a><var>180.4</var>maintaining the prescription monitoring program and conducting trend analyses and other <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.5"></a><var>180.5</var>studies necessary to evaluate the effectiveness of the program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.6"></a><var>180.6</var>(e) The board shall not retain data reported under subdivision 4 for a period longer <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.7"></a><var>180.7</var>than five years from the date the data was received.<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.8"></a><var>180.8</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 6. <b>Access to reporting system data.</b> (a) Except as indicated in this <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.9"></a><var>180.9</var>subdivision, the data submitted to the board under subdivision 4 is private data on <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.10"></a><var>180.10</var>individuals as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>13.02, subdivision 12</statute_ref>, and not subject to public disclosure.<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.11"></a><var>180.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Except as specified in subdivision 5, the following persons shall be considered <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.12"></a><var>180.12</var>permissible users and may access the data submitted under subdivision 4 in the same or <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.13"></a><var>180.13</var>similar manner, and for the same or similar purposes, as those persons who are authorized <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.14"></a><var>180.14</var>to access similar private data on individuals under federal and state law:<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.15"></a><var>180.15</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) a prescriber or an agent or employee of the prescriber to whom the prescriber has <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.16"></a><var>180.16</var>delegated the task of accessing the data, to the extent the information relates specifically to <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.17"></a><var>180.17</var>a current patient, to whom the prescriber is prescribing or considering prescribing any <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.18"></a><var>180.18</var>controlled substance or to whom the prescriber is providing other medical treatment for <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.19"></a><var>180.19</var>which access to the data may be necessary  and with the provision that the prescriber remains <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.20"></a><var>180.20</var>responsible for the use or misuse of data accessed by a delegated agent or employee;<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.21"></a><var>180.21</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) a dispenser or an agent or employee of the dispenser to whom the dispenser has <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.22"></a><var>180.22</var>delegated the task of accessing the data, to the extent the information relates specifically <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.23"></a><var>180.23</var>to a current patient to whom that dispenser is dispensing or considering dispensing any <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.24"></a><var>180.24</var>controlled substance and with the provision that the dispenser remains responsible for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.25"></a><var>180.25</var>use or misuse of data accessed by a delegated agent or employee;<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.26"></a><var>180.26</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) a licensed pharmacist who is providing pharmaceutical care for which access to <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.27"></a><var>180.27</var>the data may be necessary to the extent that the information relates specifically to a current <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.28"></a><var>180.28</var>patient for whom the pharmacist is providing pharmaceutical care;<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.29"></a><var>180.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) (4) an individual who is the recipient of a controlled substance prescription for <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.30"></a><var>180.30</var>which data was submitted under subdivision 4, or a guardian of the individual, parent or <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.31"></a><var>180.31</var>guardian of a minor, or health care agent of the individual acting under a health care <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.32"></a><var>180.32</var>directive under chapter 145C;<br />
         		<a id="pl.180.33"></a><var>180.33</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(4) (5) personnel of the a health-related licensing board specifically listed in section <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.34"></a><var>180.34</var>214.01, subdivision 2, or the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board, assigned to <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.35"></a><var>180.35</var>conduct a bona fide investigation of a complaint received by that board alleging that a <br />
         		<a id="pl.180.36"></a><var>180.36</var> specific licensee is impaired by use of a drug for which data is collected under subdivision <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.1"></a><var>181.1</var>4, has engaged in activity that would constitute a crime as defined in section 152.025, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.2"></a><var>181.2</var>has engaged in the behavior specified in section 152.126, subdivision 5, paragraph (a);<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.3"></a><var>181.3</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(5) (6) personnel of the board engaged in the collection, review, and analysis<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.4"></a><var>181.4</var> of controlled substance prescription information as part of the assigned duties and <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.5"></a><var>181.5</var>responsibilities under this section;<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.6"></a><var>181.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(6) (7) authorized personnel of a vendor under contract with the board state of <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.7"></a><var>181.7</var>Minnesota who are engaged in the design, implementation, operation, and maintenance of <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.8"></a><var>181.8</var>the electronic reporting system prescription monitoring program as part of the assigned <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.9"></a><var>181.9</var>duties and responsibilities of their employment, provided that access to data is limited to <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.10"></a><var>181.10</var>the minimum amount necessary to carry out such duties and responsibilities;<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.11"></a><var>181.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(7) (8) federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities acting pursuant to a <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.12"></a><var>181.12</var>valid search warrant;<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.13"></a><var>181.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(8) (9) personnel of the medical assistance program Minnesota health care programs <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.14"></a><var>181.14</var>assigned to use the data collected under this section to identify and manage recipients <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.15"></a><var>181.15</var>whose usage of controlled substances may warrant restriction to a single primary care <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.16"></a><var>181.16</var>physician provider, a single outpatient pharmacy, or and a single hospital; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.17"></a><var>181.17</var>(9) (10) personnel of the Department of Human Services assigned to access the <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.18"></a><var>181.18</var>data pursuant to paragraph (h).;<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.19"></a><var>181.19</var>(11) a coroner or medical examiner, or an agent or employee of the coroner or <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.20"></a><var>181.20</var>medical examiner to whom the coroner or medical examiner has delegated the task of <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.21"></a><var>181.21</var>accessing the data, conducting an investigation pursuant to section 390.11, and with the <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.22"></a><var>181.22</var>provision that the coroner or medical examiner remains responsible for the use or misuse <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.23"></a><var>181.23</var>of data accessed by a delegated agent or employee; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.24"></a><var>181.24</var>(12) personnel of the health professionals services program established under <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.25"></a><var>181.25</var>section 214.31, to the extent that the information relates specifically to an individual who <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.26"></a><var>181.26</var>is currently enrolled in and being monitored by the program. The health professionals <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.27"></a><var>181.27</var>services program personnel shall not provide this data to a health-related licensing board <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.28"></a><var>181.28</var>or the Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board, except as permitted under section <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.29"></a><var>181.29</var>214.33, subdivision 3. <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.30"></a><var>181.30</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;For purposes of clause (3) (4), access by an individual includes persons in the <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.31"></a><var>181.31</var>definition of an individual under section 
         <statute_ref>13.02</statute_ref>.<br />
         		<a id="pl.181.32"></a><var>181.32</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(c) Any A permissible user identified in paragraph (b), who clauses (1), (2), (3), (6), <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.33"></a><var>181.33</var>(7), (9), (10), and (11) may directly accesses access the data electronically,. If the data <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.34"></a><var>181.34</var>is directly accessed electronically, the permissible user shall implement and maintain a <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.35"></a><var>181.35</var>comprehensive information security program that contains administrative, technical, <br />
         		<a id="pl.181.36"></a><var>181.36</var>and physical safeguards that are appropriate to the user's size and complexity, and the <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.1"></a><var>182.1</var>sensitivity of the personal information obtained. The permissible user shall identify <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.2"></a><var>182.2</var>reasonably foreseeable internal and external risks to the security, confidentiality, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.3"></a><var>182.3</var>integrity of personal information that could result in the unauthorized disclosure, misuse, <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.4"></a><var>182.4</var>or other compromise of the information and assess the sufficiency of any safeguards in <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.5"></a><var>182.5</var>place to control the risks.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.6"></a><var>182.6</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(d) The board shall not release data submitted under this section subdivision 4 unless <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.7"></a><var>182.7</var>it is provided with evidence, satisfactory to the board, that the person requesting the <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.8"></a><var>182.8</var>information is entitled to receive the data.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.9"></a><var>182.9</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(e) The board shall not release the name of a prescriber without the written consent <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.10"></a><var>182.10</var>of the prescriber or a valid search warrant or court order. The board shall provide a <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.11"></a><var>182.11</var>mechanism for a prescriber to submit to the board a signed consent authorizing the release <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.12"></a><var>182.12</var>of the prescriber's name when data containing the prescriber's name is requested.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.13"></a><var>182.13</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(f) (e) The board shall maintain a log of all persons who access the data for a period <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.14"></a><var>182.14</var>of at least three years and shall ensure that any permissible user complies with paragraph <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.15"></a><var>182.15</var>(c) prior to attaining direct access to the data.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.16"></a><var>182.16</var>(g) (f) Section 
         <statute_ref>13.05, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, shall apply to any contract the board enters into <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.17"></a><var>182.17</var>pursuant to subdivision 2. A vendor shall not use data collected under this section for <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.18"></a><var>182.18</var>any purpose not specified in this section.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.19"></a><var>182.19</var>(g) The board may participate in an interstate prescription monitoring program data <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.20"></a><var>182.20</var>exchange system provided that permissible users in other states have access to the data <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.21"></a><var>182.21</var>only as allowed under this section, and that section 13.05, subdivision 6, applies to any <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.22"></a><var>182.22</var>contract or memorandum of understanding that the board enters into under this paragraph.<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.23"></a><var>182.23</var>(h) With available appropriations, the commissioner of human services shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.24"></a><var>182.24</var>establish and implement a system through which the Department of Human Services shall <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.25"></a><var>182.25</var>routinely access the data for the purpose of determining whether any client enrolled in <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.26"></a><var>182.26</var>an opioid treatment program licensed according to chapter 245A has been prescribed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.27"></a><var>182.27</var>dispensed a controlled substance in addition to that administered or dispensed by the <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.28"></a><var>182.28</var>opioid treatment program. When the commissioner determines there have been multiple <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.29"></a><var>182.29</var>prescribers or multiple prescriptions of controlled substances, the commissioner shall:<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.30"></a><var>182.30</var>(1) inform the medical director of the opioid treatment program only that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.31"></a><var>182.31</var>commissioner determined the existence of multiple prescribers or multiple prescriptions of <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.32"></a><var>182.32</var>controlled substances; and<br />
         		<a id="pl.182.33"></a><var>182.33</var>(2) direct the medical director of the opioid treatment program to access the data <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.34"></a><var>182.34</var>directly, review the effect of the multiple prescribers or multiple prescriptions, and <br />
         		<a id="pl.182.35"></a><var>182.35</var>document the review.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.1"></a><var>183.1</var>If determined necessary, the commissioner of human services shall seek a federal waiver <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.2"></a><var>183.2</var>of, or exception to, any applicable provision of Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, part <br />
         		
         <statute_ref><a id="pl.183.3"></a><var>183.3</var>2.34
         </statute_ref>, item (c), prior to implementing this paragraph.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.4"></a><var>183.4</var>(i) The board may provide data submitted under subdivision 4 for public research, <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.5"></a><var>183.5</var>policy, or education purposes, but only after the removal of any information that is likely <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.6"></a><var>183.6</var>to reveal the identity of the patient, prescriber, or dispenser who is the subject of the data.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.7"></a><var>183.7</var>(j) The board shall review the data submitted under subdivision 4 on at least a <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.8"></a><var>183.8</var>quarterly basis and shall establish criteria, in consultation with the advisory task force, <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.9"></a><var>183.9</var>for referring information about a patient to prescribers and dispensers who prescribed or <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.10"></a><var>183.10</var>dispensed the prescriptions in question if the criteria are met.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.11"></a><var>183.11</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 7. <b>Disciplinary action.</b> (a) A dispenser who knowingly fails to submit data to <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.12"></a><var>183.12</var>the board as required under this section is subject to disciplinary action by the appropriate <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.13"></a><var>183.13</var>health-related licensing board.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.14"></a><var>183.14</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) A prescriber or dispenser authorized to access the data who knowingly discloses <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.15"></a><var>183.15</var>the data in violation of state or federal laws relating to the privacy of health care data <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.16"></a><var>183.16</var>shall be subject to disciplinary action by the appropriate health-related licensing board, <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.17"></a><var>183.17</var>and appropriate civil penalties.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.18"></a><var>183.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 8. <b>Evaluation and reporting.</b> (a) The board shall evaluate the prescription <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.19"></a><var>183.19</var>electronic reporting system to determine if the system is negatively impacting appropriate <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.20"></a><var>183.20</var>prescribing practices of controlled substances. The board may contract with a vendor to <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.21"></a><var>183.21</var>design and conduct the evaluation.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.22"></a><var>183.22</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) The board shall submit the evaluation of the system to the legislature by July <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.23"></a><var>183.23</var>15, 2011.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.24"></a><var>183.24</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 9. <b>Immunity from liability; no requirement to obtain information.</b> (a) A <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.25"></a><var>183.25</var>pharmacist, prescriber, or other dispenser making a report to the program in good faith <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.26"></a><var>183.26</var>under this section is immune from any civil, criminal, or administrative liability, which <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.27"></a><var>183.27</var>might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of the report, or on the basis that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.28"></a><var>183.28</var>pharmacist or prescriber did or did not seek or obtain or use information from the program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.29"></a><var>183.29</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(b) Nothing in this section shall require a pharmacist, prescriber, or other dispenser <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.30"></a><var>183.30</var>to obtain information about a patient from the program, and the pharmacist, prescriber, <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.31"></a><var>183.31</var>or other dispenser, if acting in good faith, is immune from any civil, criminal, or <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.32"></a><var>183.32</var>administrative liability that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for requesting, <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.33"></a><var>183.33</var>receiving, or using information from the program.<br />
         		<a id="pl.183.34"></a><var>183.34</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Subd. 10. <b>Funding.</b> (a) The board may seek grants and private funds from nonprofit <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.35"></a><var>183.35</var>charitable foundations, the federal government, and other sources to fund the enhancement <br />
         		<a id="pl.183.36"></a><var>183.36</var>and ongoing operations of the prescription electronic reporting system monitoring <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.1"></a><var>184.1</var>program established under this section. Any funds received shall be appropriated to the <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.2"></a><var>184.2</var>board for this purpose. The board may not expend funds to enhance the program in a way <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.3"></a><var>184.3</var>that conflicts with this section without seeking approval from the legislature.<br />
         		<a id="pl.184.4"></a><var>184.4</var>(b) Notwithstanding any other section, the administrative services unit for the <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.5"></a><var>184.5</var>health-related licensing boards shall apportion between the Board of Medical Practice, the <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.6"></a><var>184.6</var>Board of Nursing, the Board of Dentistry, the Board of Podiatric Medicine, the Board of <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.7"></a><var>184.7</var>Optometry, the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and the Board of Pharmacy an amount to <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.8"></a><var>184.8</var>be paid through fees by each respective board. The amount apportioned to each board <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.9"></a><var>184.9</var>shall equal each board's share of the annual appropriation to the Board of Pharmacy <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.10"></a><var>184.10</var>from the state government special revenue fund for operating the prescription electronic <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.11"></a><var>184.11</var>reporting system monitoring program under this section. Each board's apportioned share <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.12"></a><var>184.12</var>shall be based on the number of prescribers or dispensers that each board identified in <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.13"></a><var>184.13</var>this paragraph licenses as a percentage of the total number of prescribers and dispensers <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.14"></a><var>184.14</var>licensed collectively by these boards. Each respective board may adjust the fees that the <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.15"></a><var>184.15</var>boards are required to collect to compensate for the amount apportioned to each board by <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.16"></a><var>184.16</var>the administrative services unit.<br />
         		<a id="pl.184.17"></a><var>184.17</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.10.20.0"></a><a id="pl.184.18"></a><var>184.18</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 20. <b>STUDY REQUIRED; PRESCRIPTION MONITORING PROGRAM </b><br />
         		<a id="pl.184.19"></a><var>184.19</var><b>DATABASE.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.184.20"></a><var>184.20</var>The Board of Pharmacy, in collaboration with the Prescription Monitoring Program <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.21"></a><var>184.21</var>Advisory Task Force, shall study program database and report to the chairs and ranking <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.22"></a><var>184.22</var>minority members of the senate health and human services policy and finance division and <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.23"></a><var>184.23</var>the house of representatives health and human services policy and finance committees by <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.24"></a><var>184.24</var>December 15, 2014, with recommendations on whether or not to (1) require the use of <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.25"></a><var>184.25</var>the prescription monitoring by prescribers when prescribing or considering prescribing, <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.26"></a><var>184.26</var>and pharmacists when dispensing or considering dispensing, a controlled substance as <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.27"></a><var>184.27</var>defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 152.126, subdivision 1, paragraph (c); and (2) <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.28"></a><var>184.28</var>allow for the use of the prescription monitoring program database to identify potentially <br />
         		<a id="pl.184.29"></a><var>184.29</var>inappropriate prescribing of controlled substances.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.11.0.0"></a><div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.184.30"></a><var>184.30</var><b>ARTICLE 11</b><br />
            		
         </div>
         <div class="xtend_ce"><a id="pl.184.31"></a><var>184.31</var><b>APPROPRIATIONS</b><br />
            		
         </div><br />
         		<a id="bill.11.1.0"></a><table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.184.32"></a><var>184.32</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td colspan="4" align="center"><b>APPROPRIATIONS</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.184.33"></a><var>184.33</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td colspan="4" align="center"><b>Available for the Year</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.1"></a><var>185.1</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td colspan="4" align="center"><b>Ending June 30</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.2"></a><var>185.2</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td></td>
               <td align="center"><b>2014</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td></td>
               <td align="center"><b>2015</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table>
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.3"></a><var>185.3</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3">Section 1. <b>APPROPRIATIONS</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="right"><b>$</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="right"></td>
               <td><b>$</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="right"></td>
            </tr>
         </table>
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.4"></a><var>185.4</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">8,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.5"></a><var>185.5</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.6"></a><var>185.6</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.7"></a><var>185.7</var>member per diem payments and licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.8"></a><var>185.8</var>activity.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.9"></a><var>185.9</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Chiropractic Examiners</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">10,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.10"></a><var>185.10</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.11"></a><var>185.11</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.12"></a><var>185.12</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.13"></a><var>185.13</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Dentistry</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">39,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.14"></a><var>185.14</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.15"></a><var>185.15</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.16"></a><var>185.16</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.17"></a><var>185.17</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Dietetics and Nutrition Practice</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">1,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.18"></a><var>185.18</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.19"></a><var>185.19</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.20"></a><var>185.20</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.21"></a><var>185.21</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Marriage and Family Therapy</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">4,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.22"></a><var>185.22</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.23"></a><var>185.23</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.24"></a><var>185.24</var>member per diem payments and licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.25"></a><var>185.25</var>activity.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.26"></a><var>185.26</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Medical Practice</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">38,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.27"></a><var>185.27</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.28"></a><var>185.28</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.29"></a><var>185.29</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.185.30"></a><var>185.30</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Nursing</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">266,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.185.31"></a><var>185.31</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.185.32"></a><var>185.32</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.1"></a><var>186.1</var>member per diem payments and licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.2"></a><var>186.2</var>activity.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.3"></a><var>186.3</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Nursing Home Administrators</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">2,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.4"></a><var>186.4</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.5"></a><var>186.5</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.6"></a><var>186.6</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.7"></a><var>186.7</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Optometry</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">1,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.8"></a><var>186.8</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.9"></a><var>186.9</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.10"></a><var>186.10</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.11"></a><var>186.11</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Pharmacy</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">2,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.12"></a><var>186.12</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.13"></a><var>186.13</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.14"></a><var>186.14</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.15"></a><var>186.15</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Physical Therapy</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">4,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.16"></a><var>186.16</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.17"></a><var>186.17</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.18"></a><var>186.18</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.19"></a><var>186.19</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Podiatric Medicine</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">1,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.20"></a><var>186.20</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.21"></a><var>186.21</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.22"></a><var>186.22</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.23"></a><var>186.23</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Psychology</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">15,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.24"></a><var>186.24</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.25"></a><var>186.25</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.26"></a><var>186.26</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.27"></a><var>186.27</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Social Work</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">17,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.186.28"></a><var>186.28</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.29"></a><var>186.29</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.30"></a><var>186.30</var>member per diem payments and licensing <br />
         		<a id="pl.186.31"></a><var>186.31</var>activity.<br />
         		
         <table>
            <col width="50px"></col>
            <col width="21.5"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <col width="2.5"></col>
            <col width="12"></col>
            <tr>
               <td><a id="pl.186.32"></a><var>186.32</var><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td colspan="3"><b>Board of Veterinary Medicine</b><br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">-0-<br />
                  		
               </td>
               <td align="center"></td>
               <td align="right">2,000<br />
                  		
               </td>
            </tr>
         </table><a id="pl.187.1"></a><var>187.1</var>This appropriation is from the state <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.2"></a><var>187.2</var>government special revenue fund for board <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.3"></a><var>187.3</var>member per diem payments.<br />
         		<br />
         		<a id="bill.11.2.0"></a><a id="pl.187.4"></a><var>187.4</var>&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Sec. 2. <b>APPROPRIATION.</b><br />
         		<a id="pl.187.5"></a><var>187.5</var>(a) $210,000 in fiscal year 2015 is appropriated from the state government special <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.6"></a><var>187.6</var>revenue fund to the Board of Pharmacy to implement changes to the prescription monitoring <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.7"></a><var>187.7</var>program. The base for this appropriation is $171,000 in fiscal years 2016 and 2017.<br />
         		<a id="pl.187.8"></a><var>187.8</var>(b) $5,000 in fiscal year 2015 is appropriated from the state government special <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.9"></a><var>187.9</var>revenue fund to the Board of Pharmacy for costs attributable to the board's cease and <br />
         		<a id="pl.187.10"></a><var>187.10</var>desist authority.<br />
         		
      </div>