1.1 	A bill for an act
1.2 	relating to health; establishing a psilocybin therapeutic use program; establishing 
1.3 	protections for registered patients, designated cultivators, registered facilitators, 
1.4 	and health care practitioners; authorizing rulemaking; authorizing civil actions; 
1.5 	establishing fees; classifying data; establishing an advisory committee; providing 
1.6 	criminal penalties; appropriating money;amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, 
1.7 	section 152.02, subdivisions 2, 5; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota 
1.8 	Statutes, chapter 152.
1.9 	BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:

1.10 	ARTICLE 1
1.11 	THERAPEUTIC USE OF PSILOCYBIN

1.12 	Section 1. PURPOSE.
 1.13 	The purpose of this act is to establish a legal, regulated framework for the therapeutic 
1.14 	use of psilocybin by individuals who are 21 years of age or older with a registered facilitator, 
1.15 	have been diagnosed with a qualifying medical condition, and meet the other requirements 
1.16 	for enrollment in the program.

1.17 	Sec. 2. [152.40] DEFINITIONS.
1.18 		Subdivision 1.Application. For the purposes of sections 152.40 to 152.53, the following 
1.19 	terms have the meanings given.
1.20 		Subd. 2.Administration session. "Administration session" means a session supervised 
1.21 	by a registered facilitator during which a registered patient consumes and experiences the 
1.22 	effects of psilocybin.
1.23 		Subd. 3.Commissioner. "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.
2.1 		Subd. 4.Integration session. "Integration session" means a meeting between a registered 
2.2 	patient and a registered facilitator that occurs after the completion of an administration 
2.3 	session.
2.4 		Subd. 5.Physician. "Physician" means a Minnesota-licensed physician.
2.5 		Subd. 6.Preparation session. "Preparation session" means a meeting between a 
2.6 	registered patient and a registered facilitator that occurs before an administration session. 
2.7 	Preparation session does not mean an initial consultation between a registered patient and 
2.8 	registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, an inquiry from a registered patient to a 
2.9 	registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, or a registered facilitator's response to a 
2.10 	registered patient's inquiry regarding psilocybin use.
2.11 		Subd. 7.Program. "Program" means the psilocybin therapeutic use program established 
2.12 	under sections 152.40 to 152.53.
2.13 		Subd. 8.Program research institution. "Program research institution" means a 
2.14 	Minnesota nonprofit or academic institution that advises and assists with program data 
2.15 	collection for public health monitoring, training, continuing education, and ethical oversight 
2.16 	requirements.
2.17 		Subd. 9.Psilocybin. "Psilocybin" means any mushroom, in raw, dried, or prepared form, 
2.18 	that contains the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite psilocin.
2.19 		Subd. 10.Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee or advisory 
2.20 	committee. "Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee" or "advisory committee" means 
2.21 	the advisory committee established under section 152.53.
2.22 		Subd. 11.Qualifying medical condition. "Qualifying medical condition" means a 
2.23 	medical condition designated by the commissioner for which psilocybin shows evidence 
2.24 	for an appropriate therapeutic use, including but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder, 
2.25 	depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, and chronic pain.
2.26 		Subd. 12.Registered facilitator. "Registered facilitator" means an individual registered 
2.27 	with the commissioner to provide services in preparation sessions and integration sessions 
2.28 	and to supervise administration sessions.
2.29 		Subd. 13.Registered patient. "Registered patient" means a Minnesota resident certified 
2.30 	by a physician as having a qualifying medical condition and enrolled in the psilocybin 
2.31 	therapeutic use program.
2.32 		Subd. 14.Registered supplier. "Registered supplier" means an individual or entity 
2.33 	licensed by the state to cultivate psilocybin for facilitated use in administration sessions.
3.1 		Subd. 15.Testing facility. "Testing facility" means a Minnesota entity certified by the 
3.2 	state to test the quality and dose of psilocybin to be used for treatment sessions.
3.3 		Subd. 16.Treatment facility. "Treatment facility" means a Minnesota health clinic or 
3.4 	center that has been licensed by the state with appropriately trained staff and safety equipment 
3.5 	for facilitated sessions. To accommodate homebound patients, a treatment facility may be 
3.6 	the homebound patient's residence with a registered facilitator and appropriate safety 
3.7 	equipment provided by the registered facilitator.

3.8 	Sec. 3. [152.41] PSILOCYBIN THERAPEUTIC USE PROGRAM.
3.9 		Subdivision 1.Establishment. The commissioner of health must establish and administer 
3.10 	a psilocybin therapeutic use program according to sections 152.40 to 152.53 in which 
3.11 	individuals age 21 and older who have a qualifying medical condition and meet the other 
3.12 	eligibility requirements may enroll in the program and are able to access and use psilocybin 
3.13 	with a registered facilitator at a treatment facility.
3.14 		Subd. 2.Rulemaking; commissioner of health. (a) The commissioner must adopt rules 
3.15 	to govern the operation of the program. The rules must at least:
3.16 	(1) specify the qualifying medical conditions that an individual must be diagnosed with 
3.17 	in order to enroll in the program, based upon emerging evidence from scientific research 
3.18 	and clinical trials evaluated in the psychedelic medicine task force legislative report, including 
3.19 	but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, 
3.20 	chronic pain, and other conditions where scientific evidence shows there may be therapeutic 
3.21 	benefit;
3.22 	(2) specify testing standards in collaboration with the program research institution for 
3.23 	psilocybin mushrooms to ensure safety, appropriate dosing for treatment sessions, and 
3.24 	preventing diversion;
3.25 	(3) establish a standardized questionnaire in collaboration with the program research 
3.26 	institution for use by physicians to conduct health screenings of individuals seeking to enroll 
3.27 	in the program;
3.28 	(4) establish a standardized formal risk assessment tool in collaboration with the program 
3.29 	research institution for use by physicians to evaluate identified contraindications in 
3.30 	individuals seeking to enroll in the program;
3.31 	(5) establish qualifications in collaboration with the program research institution to 
3.32 	register with the commissioner as a facilitator, including any additional subjects on which 
4.1 	individuals must demonstrate competency and how individuals must demonstrate competency 
4.2 	in the required subjects; and
4.3 	(6) establish qualifications to register with the commissioner as a cultivator in 
4.4 	collaboration with the program research institution, including any additional subjects on 
4.5 	which individuals must demonstrate competency in the required subjects and standards for 
4.6 	cultivation. Cultivators must work with testing facilities to ensure appropriate quality and 
4.7 	dosing of psilocybin prior to releasing to registered facilitators and patients for treatment.
4.8 	(b) The commissioner must consult with the advisory committee and the program research 
4.9 	institution in adopting rules under this subdivision.
4.10 	(c) Rules for which notice is published in the State Register before July 1, 2027, may 
4.11 	be adopted using the expedited rulemaking process in section 14.389. The notice of the 
4.12 	proposed rule for the items in paragraph (a) must be published in the State Register no later 
4.13 	than January 1, 2027.
4.14 		Subd. 3.Evaluation and research. (a) The commissioner must collect from registered 
4.15 	patients de-identified data on the frequency with which registered patients use psilocybin 
4.16 	in administration sessions, the qualifying medical conditions for which psilocybin is used, 
4.17 	outcomes from psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, and adverse effects of 
4.18 	psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, as well as any changes to utilization of 
4.19 	other health care, social services, or government funded programs. Registered patients and 
4.20 	registered facilitators must provide data to the commissioner in a form and manner specified 
4.21 	by the commissioner. The commissioner must use data collected under this paragraph to 
4.22 	evaluate the program and, in consultation with the advisory committee and in collaboration 
4.23 	with the program research institution, develop recommendations to improve the program. 
4.24 	A program research institution may consult and partner with federal health and research 
4.25 	institutions.
4.26 	(b) The commissioner may support research that investigates novel therapeutic uses of 
4.27 	psilocybin and psilocin. In determining whether to support research initiatives, the 
4.28 	commissioner must consider the recommendations of the task force authorized under Laws 
4.29 	2023, chapter 70, article 4, section 99.
4.30 		Subd. 4.Interagency agreement with Office of Cannabis Management. The 
4.31 	commissioner of the Department of Health must enter into an interagency agreement with 
4.32 	the director of the Office of Cannabis Management for administration of the psilocybin 
4.33 	therapeutic use program. The director of the Office of Cannabis Management must have 
4.34 	oversight over the following program functions:
5.1 	(1) registered patient registries;
5.2 	(2) registered facilitator licensing; and
5.3 	(3) cultivation and testing of mushrooms in raw, dried, or prepared form, that contained 
5.4 	the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite psilocin.

5.5 	Sec. 4. [152.42] ELIGIBILITY AND ENROLLMENT IN PROGRAM.
5.6 		Subdivision 1.Registration system. The commissioner must administer a secure 
5.7 	registration system to track patients enrolled in the program while protecting their privacy.
5.8 		Subd. 2.Eligibility for enrollment. (a) To enroll in the program, an individual must:
5.9 	(1) be 21 years of age or older;
5.10 	(2) submit to the commissioner a written certification from a physician dated within 90 
5.11 	days of submission and verifying the individual's diagnosis with a qualifying medical 
5.12 	condition;
5.13 	(3) submit to the commissioner a written certification or certifications from one or more 
5.14 	physicians dated within 90 days of submission and verifying either:
5.15 	(i) that the detailed health screening conducted according to subdivision 3 did not identify 
5.16 	contraindications to the individual's use of psilocybin; or
5.17 	(ii) that the detailed health screening identified contraindications to the individual's use 
5.18 	of psilocybin but a physician conducted a further evaluation using a formal risk assessment 
5.19 	tool and determined the individual's identified contraindications should not preclude the 
5.20 	individual from using psilocybin; and
5.21 	(4) submit an application to the commissioner in a form and manner specified by the 
5.22 	commissioner.
5.23 	(b) Individuals may apply for enrollment in the program beginning January 1, 2027.
5.24 		Subd. 3.Health screening; evaluation. An individual who wishes to enroll in the 
5.25 	program must have a detailed health screening performed by a physician to identify whether 
5.26 	the individual has a qualifying medical condition and if any significant physical or mental 
5.27 	health conditions or medications that are contraindications to the use of psilocybin. 
5.28 	Contraindicated conditions may include but are not limited to cardiovascular disease, 
5.29 	psychosis, and bipolar disorders. Contraindicated medications include but are not limited 
5.30 	to lithium, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tramadol, and amphetamine stimulants. 
5.31 	If the physician determines in the screening that the individual has one or more 
6.1 	contraindications to the use of psilocybin, the individual must have the contraindication 
6.2 	further evaluated by a physician using a formal risk assessment tool. An individual who has 
6.3 	an additional evaluation performed may proceed with an application under subdivision 2 
6.4 	only if the physician performing the additional evaluation determines the individual's 
6.5 	identified contraindications should not preclude the individual from using psilocybin.
6.6 		Subd. 4.Informed consent. Upon receiving the individual's complete application and 
6.7 	certifications required under subdivision 2, the commissioner must provide the individual 
6.8 	with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, potential adverse 
6.9 	effects of psilocybin use, and possible interactions between psilocybin and other commonly 
6.10 	used drugs, along with a document, to be signed and returned by the individual, that the 
6.11 	individual has read and understood the information provided and wishes to enroll in the 
6.12 	program. An individual who wishes to proceed with the individual's application must sign 
6.13 	and date the informed consent form and return it to the commissioner.
6.14 		Subd. 5.Enrollment. The commissioner must approve or deny the individual's application 
6.15 	within 60 days after receiving the individual's informed consent form under subdivision 4. 
6.16 	Upon approval of an individual's application and receipt of the enrollment fee required 
6.17 	under section 152.52, the commissioner must register the individual in the program and 
6.18 	issue the individual a card that permits the registered patient to access psilocybin with a 
6.19 	registered facilitator at a treatment facility.
6.20 		Subd. 6.Renewal. (a) A registered patient's registration is valid for 12 months from the 
6.21 	date of issuance. A registered patient who wishes to renew the registration must, at least 60 
6.22 	days before the registration expires, submit an application for registration renewal; written 
6.23 	certifications that meet the requirements in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2) and 
6.24 	(3); and the fee required under section 152.52. The commissioner must approve or deny a 
6.25 	registered patient's renewal application within 60 days after receiving the complete 
6.26 	application and written certifications.
6.27 	(b) A registered patient whose registration expired less than 31 days ago may renew the 
6.28 	registration under paragraph (a). A registered patient whose registration expired 31 or more 
6.29 	days ago must apply for enrollment according to subdivision 2.
6.30 		Subd. 7.Permitted acts. (a) Subject to section 152.46, a registered patient is permitted 
6.31 	to:
6.32 	(1) designate a registered facilitator; and
6.33 	(2) consume the recommended amount at a treatment facility with an approved facilitator 
6.34 	according to the recommended dosing limit.
7.1 	(b) Subject to section 152.46, a registered supplier and testing facility registered with 
7.2 	the commissioner is permitted to cultivate and possess psilocybin, provided the cultivation 
7.3 	and testing is performed according to section 152.43 and the total amount possessed does 
7.4 	not exceed the limit designed by the program.
7.5 	(c) Subject to section 152.46, a registered facilitator is permitted, according to section 
7.6 	152.44, to obtain psilocybin from a registered supplier, transport psilocybin to the treatment 
7.7 	facility, provide services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration 
7.8 	sessions, and to administer psilocybin and supervise administration sessions of registered 
7.9 	patients.
7.10 	(d) No civil or criminal penalty shall be imposed on:
7.11 	(1) a registered patient solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (a);
7.12 	(2) a registered supplier and testing facility solely for engaging in an act listed in 
7.13 	paragraph (b); or
7.14 	(3) a registered facilitator solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (c).
7.15 		Subd. 8.Program initiation. The commissioner must approve an initial program 
7.16 	structured to include:
7.17 	(1) between 20 to 50 registered facilitators with experience either conducting clinical 
7.18 	trials with psilocybin or administering ketamine-assisted therapy;
7.19 	(2) at least three testing facilities; and
7.20 	(3) no more than 1,000 patients with qualifying medical conditions registered in the 
7.21 	program during the first three years of the program.
7.22 		Subd. 9.Program evaluation. The commissioner, in consultation with the advisory 
7.23 	committee and the program research institution, must evaluate the program at the end of 
7.24 	the three-year period.

7.25 	Sec. 5. [152.43] CULTIVATION.
7.26 		Subdivision 1.Cultivation authorized. (a) A registered patient and registered facilitator 
7.27 	may compensate a registered supplier who cultivates psilocybin for the program at a 
7.28 	registered facility. Compensating a registered supplier for cultivation under this paragraph 
7.29 	does not constitute the sale or commercial distribution of psilocybin.
7.30 	(b) Before cultivating psilocybin for the program, a registered supplier must register 
7.31 	with the commissioner.
8.1 	(c) A registered supplier must:
8.2 	(1) cultivate psilocybin only for licensed treatment facilities, registered facilitators, and 
8.3 	their registered patients in an amount that does not exceed the cultivation limit as established 
8.4 	by the commissioner of health; and
8.5 	(2) not cultivate psilocybin in an amount that exceeds the cultivation limit provided 
8.6 	under their license as designated by the commissioner.
8.7 		Subd. 2.Secure location. Cultivation by a licensed cultivator must take place at an 
8.8 	approved location in an enclosed locked space that is not accessible to the public or by 
8.9 	individuals under age 21 and contains on-site testing facilities for quality and potency testing.

8.10 	Sec. 6. [152.44] LOCATION AND FACILITATOR; ADMINISTRATION SESSIONS.
8.11 		Subdivision 1.Location. A registered patient may use psilocybin in an administration 
8.12 	session only:
8.13 	(1) at an approved private residence, including the curtilage or yard of the residence, 
8.14 	unless the property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property; or
8.15 	(2) at a licensed treatment facility, unless the property owner prohibits the use of 
8.16 	psilocybin on the property.
8.17 		Subd. 2.Registered facilitator. A registered facilitator must be physically present with 
8.18 	a registered patient during an administration session to supervise the registered patient's use 
8.19 	of psilocybin and to contact emergency services if necessary during the administration 
8.20 	session. As a condition of supervising an administration session for a registered patient, a 
8.21 	registered facilitator may require the registered patient to also participate in a preparation 
8.22 	session and an integration session with the registered facilitator. A registered facilitator may 
8.23 	charge a reasonable fee for the registered facilitator's services.
8.24 		Subd. 3.Informed consent. (a) Before a registered facilitator supervises a registered 
8.25 	patient's administration session, the registered facilitator must provide the registered patient 
8.26 	with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, what to expect 
8.27 	in an administration session, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, and possible 
8.28 	interactions between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs. Registered patients will 
8.29 	also be allowed to opt in for consent to data collection for program monitoring.
8.30 	(b) A registered patient who wishes to proceed with an administration session must sign 
8.31 	and date a document stating that the patient has been informed of and understands the 
9.1 	information provided according to paragraph (a). Registered facilitators must maintain the 
9.2 	signed informed consent documents for two years after receipt.
9.3 		Subd. 4.Chain of custody for psilocybin and psilocin. Before a registered patient's 
9.4 	administration session, a registered facilitator or registered patient must procure the 
9.5 	recommended dose of psilocybin from a registered supplier. At the time of exchange between 
9.6 	a registered supplier and a registered facilitator or registered patient, both the registered 
9.7 	supplier and registered facilitator or registered patient must attest to the exchange in a form 
9.8 	and manner specified by the commissioner, and which must include, at minimum, the 
9.9 	specific amount of psilocybin exchanged. Prior to an administration session, a registered 
9.10 	facilitator and registered patient must attest to the specific dose amount that will be used in 
9.11 	the administration session in a form and manner specified by the commissioner.

9.12 	Sec. 7. [152.45] REGISTERED FACILITATOR.
9.13 		Subdivision 1.Registration required; qualifications. An individual must register with 
9.14 	the commissioner as a facilitator in order to supervise administration sessions for registered 
9.15 	patients and to provide registered patients with services in preparation sessions and integration 
9.16 	sessions. In order to register as a facilitator, an individual must:
9.17 	(1) be 21 years of age or older;
9.18 	(2) possess a license as a mental health professional as defined in section 245I.02, 
9.19 	subdivision 27; and
9.20 	(3) demonstrate competency, in a manner determined by the commissioner and in 
9.21 	collaboration with the program research institution, on facilitator ethics; the safe use of 
9.22 	psilocybin; duties of a facilitator during preparation sessions, administration sessions, and 
9.23 	integration sessions; and other topics as determined by the commissioner and the program 
9.24 	research institution.
9.25 	An individual who holds a license, registration, or certification from a health-related licensing 
9.26 	board as defined in section 214.01, subdivision 2; from the Office of Emergency Medical 
9.27 	Services; or from the commissioner authorizing the individual to practice a health-related 
9.28 	occupation may also serve as a registered facilitator.
9.29 		Subd. 2.Application for registration; registration renewal. (a) An individual who 
9.30 	wishes to register as a facilitator must apply to the commissioner in a form and manner 
9.31 	specified by the commissioner.
9.32 	(b) A registration issued under this section is valid for 12 months from the date of 
9.33 	issuance. An individual who wishes to renew the individual's registration must apply for 
10.1 	registration renewal, in a form and manner specified by the commissioner, at least 60 days 
10.2 	before the individual's registration expires. In evaluating an application for registration 
10.3 	renewal, the commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner 
10.4 	under subdivision 3 and may decline to renew an individual's registration if the commissioner 
10.5 	determines, based on complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not 
10.6 	perform the duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner. The commissioner must 
10.7 	approve or deny a registered facilitator's renewal application within 60 days after receiving 
10.8 	the facilitator's complete application.
10.9 	(c) A registered facilitator whose registration expired less than 31 days ago may renew 
10.10 	the registration under paragraph (b). A registered facilitator whose registration expired 31 
10.11 	or more days ago must apply for registration according to paragraph (a), except the 
10.12 	commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner under subdivision 
10.13 	3 and may decline to register the individual if the commissioner determines, based on 
10.14 	complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the duties of a 
10.15 	facilitator in a safe or ethical manner.
10.16 	(d) Individuals may apply for registration as a facilitator beginning October 1, 2026.
10.17 		Subd. 3.Complaints. The commissioner must accept complaints from registered patients 
10.18 	and other interested individuals regarding a registered facilitator's failure to supervise an 
10.19 	administration session in a safe or ethical manner or failure to provide services in a 
10.20 	preparation session or an integration session in a safe or ethical manner.
10.21 		Subd. 4.List of registered facilitators. The commissioner must post on the Department 
10.22 	of Health website the names of and contact information for registered facilitators.

10.23 	Sec. 8. [152.46] LIMITATIONS.
10.24 	Nothing in sections 152.40 to 152.53 permits an individual to:
10.25 	(1) participate in the program if the individual is under 21 years of age;
10.26 	(2) sell psilocybin to an individual or engage in the distribution of psilocybin to anyone 
10.27 	not registered in the program;
10.28 	(3) establish a treatment facility on the grounds of a public school, as defined in section 
10.29 	120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, or a charter school governed by chapter 124E, including 
10.30 	all owned, rented, or leased facilities and all vehicles that a school district owns, leases, 
10.31 	rents, contracts for, or controls;
10.32 	(4) establish a treatment facility in a state correctional facility;
11.1 	(5) if the individual is a registered facilitator, provide psilocybin to an individual who 
11.2 	is not a registered patient or supervise the administration session of an individual who is 
11.3 	not a registered patient; or
11.4 	(6) if the individual is a registered supplier, cultivate psilocybin not intended for the 
11.5 	program for registered patients.

11.6 	Sec. 9. [152.47] CRIMINAL AND CIVIL PROTECTIONS.
11.7 		Subdivision 1.Forfeiture. Psilocybin cultivated or obtained under sections 152.40 to 
11.8 	152.53 and associated property are not subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 
11.9 	609.5316.
11.10 		Subd. 2.Protections for public employees. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, 
11.11 	the commissioner, the governor of Minnesota, or an employee of any state agency may not 
11.12 	be held civilly or criminally liable for any injury, loss of property, personal injury, or death 
11.13 	caused by any act or omission while acting within the scope of their office or employment 
11.14 	under sections 152.40 to 152.53.
11.15 		Subd. 3.Search warrant. Federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities are 
11.16 	prohibited from accessing the patient registry under sections 152.40 to 152.53 except when 
11.17 	acting pursuant to a valid search warrant.
11.18 		Subd. 4.Evidence in criminal proceeding. No information contained in a report, 
11.19 	document, or registry or obtained from a patient under sections 152.40 to 152.53 may be 
11.20 	admitted as evidence in a criminal proceeding unless independently obtained or in connection 
11.21 	with a proceeding involving a violation of sections 152.40 to 152.53. Any person who 
11.22 	violates this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
11.23 		Subd. 5.Possession of registry card or application. The possession of a registry card 
11.24 	or application for enrollment in the program by an individual entitled to possess a registry 
11.25 	card or apply for enrollment in the program does not constitute probable cause or reasonable 
11.26 	suspicion, and shall not be used to support a search of the person or property of the individual 
11.27 	possessing the registry card or application, or otherwise subject the person or property of 
11.28 	the individual to inspection by any governmental agency.
11.29 		Subd. 6.Employment. An employer must not discriminate against a registered patient, 
11.30 	registered supplier, or registered facilitator in hiring, termination, or any term or condition 
11.31 	of employment, or otherwise penalize a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered 
11.32 	facilitator based on the lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services 
12.1 	in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or 
12.2 	use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless:
12.3 	(1) the employer's failure to act would violate federal law or regulations or would cause 
12.4 	the employer to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations; 
12.5 	or
12.6 	(2) the registered patient's use of psilocybin directly impacts the registered patient's job 
12.7 	performance or safety requirements of the registered patient's job position.
12.8 		Subd. 7.Housing. No landlord may refuse to lease to or evict a registered patient, 
12.9 	registered supplier, or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging in the psilocybin 
12.10 	program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the landlord's failure to do so would violate 
12.11 	federal law or regulations or would cause the landlord to lose a monetary or licensing-related 
12.12 	benefit under federal law or regulations.
12.13 		Subd. 8.Education. No school may refuse to enroll a registered patient or registered 
12.14 	supplier or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging with their respective treatment 
12.15 	or duties for the psilocybin program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the school's 
12.16 	failure to do so would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the school to lose 
12.17 	a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations.
12.18 		Subd. 9.Custody; visitation; parenting time. A registered patient, registered supplier, 
12.19 	or registered facilitator must not be denied custody of a minor child or visitation rights or 
12.20 	parenting time with a minor child based solely on the registered patient's, registered supplier's, 
12.21 	or registered facilitator's lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services 
12.22 	in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or 
12.23 	use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the registered patient's, designated 
12.24 	behavior creates an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as demonstrated by clear 
12.25 	and convincing evidence.
12.26 		Subd. 10.Action for damages. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, a 
12.27 	registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator who is injured by a violation 
12.28 	of subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 may bring an action for damages against a person who violates 
12.29 	subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9. A person who violates subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 is liable to the 
12.30 	registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator injured by the violation for 
12.31 	the greater of the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or registered facilitator's actual 
12.32 	damages or a civil penalty of $100, plus reasonable attorney fees.

13.1 	Sec. 10. [152.48] VIOLATIONS.
13.2 		Subdivision 1.Diversion by registered patient, registered supplier, or registered 
13.3 	facilitator. In addition to any other applicable penalty in law, a registered patient, registered 
13.4 	supplier, or registered facilitator who intentionally sells or otherwise transfers psilocybin 
13.5 	to a person other than a registered patient is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment 
13.6 	for not more than two years or by payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.
13.7 		Subd. 2.False statement. An individual who intentionally makes a false statement to 
13.8 	a law enforcement official about any fact or circumstance relating to the therapeutic use of 
13.9 	psilocybin to avoid arrest or prosecution is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by 
13.10 	imprisonment for not more than 90 days or by payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, 
13.11 	or both. The penalty is in addition to any other penalties that may apply for making a false 
13.12 	statement or for the possession, cultivation, or sale of psilocybin not protected by sections 
13.13 	152.40 to 152.53. If a person convicted of violating this subdivision is a registered patient, 
13.14 	registered supplier, or registered facilitator, the person is disqualified from further 
13.15 	participation under the program.

13.16 	Sec. 11. [152.49] PROTECTIONS FOR PHYSICIANS AND REGISTERED 
13.17 	FACILITATORS.
13.18 		Subdivision 1.Physicians. The Board of Medical Practice must not impose civil or 
13.19 	disciplinary penalties on, or limit or condition the practice of, a physician solely for certifying 
13.20 	that an individual has a diagnosis of a qualifying medical condition according to section 
13.21 	152.42, subdivision 2, or performing health screenings or additional evaluations according 
13.22 	to section 152.42, subdivision 3.
13.23 		Subd. 2.Registered facilitators. (a) A health-related licensing board; the Office of 
13.24 	Emergency Medical Services; or the commissioner must not impose civil or disciplinary 
13.25 	penalties on, or limit or condition the practice of, a registered facilitator who also holds a 
13.26 	license, registration, or certification from the health-related licensing board; Office of 
13.27 	Emergency Medical Services; or commissioner solely for obtaining and transporting 
13.28 	psilocybin for registered patients, providing services to registered patients in preparation 
13.29 	sessions and integration sessions, and administering psilocybin and supervising administration 
13.30 	sessions of registered patients, provided the services are provided or supervision is performed 
13.31 	according to sections 152.40 to 152.53. No existing disciplinary procedures for complaints 
13.32 	to the health licensing boards will be changed.
14.1 	(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), the health-related licensing boards include the 
14.2 	Board of Medical Practice, Board of Nursing, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work, 
14.3 	Board of Marriage and Family Therapy, and Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy.

14.4 	Sec. 12. [152.50] PUBLIC EDUCATION AND HARM REDUCTION.
14.5 		Subdivision 1.Public education program. The commissioner in collaboration with the 
14.6 	program research institution must develop and implement a public education program that 
14.7 	makes information available to the public on the responsible use of psilocybin, potential 
14.8 	risks of using psilocybin, harm reduction strategies related to psilocybin use, and mental 
14.9 	health resources related to psilocybin use.
14.10 		Subd. 2.Training programs for first responders. The commissioner in collaboration 
14.11 	with the program research institution must develop and offer training programs for emergency 
14.12 	medical responders, ambulance service personnel, peace officers, and other first responders 
14.13 	on best practices for handling situations involving the use of psilocybin. The training 
14.14 	programs must be developed and offered in coordination with the Office of Emergency 
14.15 	Medical Services, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, the Minnesota State 
14.16 	Patrol, and local law enforcement agencies.

14.17 	Sec. 13. [152.51] DATA PRACTICES; ACCESS TO AND USE OF DATA.
14.18 	(a) Except for the data specified in section 152.45, subdivision 4, data submitted to the 
14.19 	commissioner under section 152.42, 152.43, or 152.45:
14.20 	(1) is private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, or nonpublic 
14.21 	data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 9; and
14.22 	(2) may only be used to comply with chapter 13, to comply with a request from the 
14.23 	legislative auditor or state auditors in the performance of official duties, and for purposes 
14.24 	specified in sections 152.40 to 152.53.
14.25 	(b) The data specified in paragraph (a) must not be combined or linked in any manner 
14.26 	with any other list, data set, or database, and must not be shared with any federal agency, 
14.27 	federal department, or federal entity unless specifically ordered by a state or federal court, 
14.28 	or as part of a federally approved research project for monitoring of the program where a 
14.29 	certificate of confidentiality is obtained by a federal agency to protect the identities of the 
14.30 	program registrants.

15.1 	Sec. 14. [152.52] FEES.
15.2 	(a) The commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from each patient whose 
15.3 	enrollment application or renewal application is approved by the commissioner.
15.4 	(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), if the patient provides evidence to the commissioner 
15.5 	of receiving Social Security disability insurance, Supplemental Security Income, or veterans 
15.6 	disability or railroad disability payments, or of being enrolled in medical assistance or 
15.7 	MinnesotaCare, the commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from the patient after 
15.8 	approving the patient's enrollment application or renewal application.
15.9 	(c) Fees collected under this section must be deposited in the state treasury and credited 
15.10 	to the state government special revenue fund. The commissioner may request appropriations 
15.11 	of fee revenue to distribute as grants to fund Minnesota-based research exploring the 
15.12 	effectiveness of psilocybin for additional conditions.

15.13 	Sec. 15. [152.53] PSYCHEDELIC MEDICINE ADVISORY COMMITTEE.
15.14 		Subdivision 1.Establishment. The commissioner must establish a Psychedelic Medicine 
15.15 	Advisory Committee to advise the commissioner on the operation of the psilocybin 
15.16 	therapeutic use program under sections 152.40 to 152.53.
15.17 		Subd. 2.Membership. (a) The advisory committee shall consist of:
15.18 	(1) ... members with knowledge or expertise regarding the therapeutic use of psilocybin 
15.19 	and other psychedelic medicines or regarding integration resources associated with the use 
15.20 	of psilocybin, as well as cultivation and testing of psilocybin. The commissioner must make 
15.21 	recommendations to the governor for members appointed under this clause, and the governor 
15.22 	must appoint members under this clause; and
15.23 	(2) one member representing Tribal Nations in the state, appointed by the Indian Affairs 
15.24 	Council.
15.25 	(b) Initial appointments must be made to the advisory committee by November 1, 2026.
15.26 		Subd. 3.Chairperson. Members of the advisory committee must elect a chairperson 
15.27 	from among the advisory committee's members.
15.28 		Subd. 4.Terms; compensation; removal of members. The advisory committee is 
15.29 	governed by section 15.059, except the advisory committee does not expire.
15.30 		Subd. 5.Meetings. The advisory committee must meet at least four times per year or at 
15.31 	the call of the chairperson. The initial meeting of the advisory committee must occur by 
15.32 	December 1, 2026, and must be called by the commissioner.
16.1 		Subd. 6.Staff support; office space; equipment. The commissioner must provide the 
16.2 	advisory committee with staff support, office space, and access to office equipment and 
16.3 	services.

16.4 	Sec. 16. APPROPRIATION.
 16.5 	$....... in fiscal year 2026 and $....... in fiscal year 2027 are appropriated from the general 
16.6 	fund to the commissioner of health for purposes of Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.40 to 
16.7 	152.53.

16.8 	ARTICLE 2
16.9 	SCHEDULING OF PSILOCYBIN

16.10 	Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
16.11 		Subd. 2.Schedule I. (a) Schedule I consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.
16.12 	(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the 
16.13 	following substances, including their analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of 
16.14 	isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, 
16.15 	and salts is possible:
16.16 	(1) acetylmethadol;
16.17 	(2) allylprodine;
16.18 	(3) alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levomethadyl 
16.19 	acetate);
16.20 	(4) alphameprodine;
16.21 	(5) alphamethadol;
16.22 	(6) alpha-methylfentanyl benzethidine;
16.23 	(7) betacetylmethadol;
16.24 	(8) betameprodine;
16.25 	(9) betamethadol;
16.26 	(10) betaprodine;
16.27 	(11) clonitazene;
16.28 	(12) dextromoramide;
16.29 	(13) diampromide;
17.1 	(14) diethyliambutene;
17.2 	(15) difenoxin;
17.3 	(16) dimenoxadol;
17.4 	(17) dimepheptanol;
17.5 	(18) dimethyliambutene;
17.6 	(19) dioxaphetyl butyrate;
17.7 	(20) dipipanone;
17.8 	(21) ethylmethylthiambutene;
17.9 	(22) etonitazene;
17.10 	(23) etoxeridine;
17.11 	(24) furethidine;
17.12 	(25) hydroxypethidine;
17.13 	(26) ketobemidone;
17.14 	(27) levomoramide;
17.15 	(28) levophenacylmorphan;
17.16 	(29) 3-methylfentanyl;
17.17 	(30) acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl;
17.18 	(31) alpha-methylthiofentanyl;
17.19 	(32) benzylfentanyl beta-hydroxyfentanyl;
17.20 	(33) beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl;
17.21 	(34) 3-methylthiofentanyl;
17.22 	(35) thenylfentanyl;
17.23 	(36) thiofentanyl;
17.24 	(37) para-fluorofentanyl;
17.25 	(38) morpheridine;
17.26 	(39) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;
17.27 	(40) noracymethadol;
18.1 	(41) norlevorphanol;
18.2 	(42) normethadone;
18.3 	(43) norpipanone;
18.4 	(44) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP);
18.5 	(45) phenadoxone;
18.6 	(46) phenampromide;
18.7 	(47) phenomorphan;
18.8 	(48) phenoperidine;
18.9 	(49) piritramide;
18.10 	(50) proheptazine;
18.11 	(51) properidine;
18.12 	(52) propiram;
18.13 	(53) racemoramide;
18.14 	(54) tilidine;
18.15 	(55) trimeperidine;
18.16 	(56) N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (acetyl fentanyl);
18.17 	(57) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1R,2R)-2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-
18.18 	methylbenzamide (U47700);
18.19 	(58) N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]furan-2-carboxamide (furanylfentanyl);
18.20 	(59) 4-(4-bromophenyl)-4-dimethylamino-1-phenethylcyclohexanol (bromadol);
18.21 	(60) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide (cyclopropyl 
18.22 	fentanyl);
18.23 	(61) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) (butyryl fentanyl);
18.24 	(62) 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) (MT-45);
18.25 	(63) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide (cyclopentyl 
18.26 	fentanyl);
18.27 	(64) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide (isobutyryl fentanyl);
18.28 	(65) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide (valeryl fentanyl);
19.1 	(66) N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide 
19.2 	(para-chloroisobutyryl fentanyl);
19.3 	(67) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide (para-fluorobutyryl 
19.4 	fentanyl);
19.5 	(68) N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide 
19.6 	(para-methoxybutyryl fentanyl);
19.7 	(69) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide (ocfentanil);
19.8 	(70) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide (4-fluoroisobutyryl 
19.9 	fentanyl or para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);
19.10 	(71) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide (acryl fentanyl or 
19.11 	acryloylfentanyl);
19.12 	(72) 2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (methoxyacetyl 
19.13 	fentanyl);
19.14 	(73) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide (ortho-fluorofentanyl 
19.15 	or 2-fluorofentanyl);
19.16 	(74) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide 
19.17 	(tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl);
19.18 	(75) Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, 
19.19 	esters and ethers, meaning any substance not otherwise listed under another federal 
19.20 	Administration Controlled Substance Code Number or not otherwise listed in this section, 
19.21 	and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under section 505 of the Federal Food, 
19.22 	Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 355, that is structurally related 
19.23 	to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:
19.24 	(i) replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether 
19.25 	or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;
19.26 	(ii) substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, 
19.27 	haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;
19.28 	(iii) substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, 
19.29 	hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;
19.30 	(iv) replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further 
19.31 	substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or
20.1 	(v) replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl group;
20.2 	(76) 1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3- 
20.3 	dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one (brorphine);
20.4 	(77) 4'-methyl acetyl fentanyl;
20.5 	(78) beta-hydroxythiofentanyl;
20.6 	(79) beta-methyl fentanyl;
20.7 	(80) beta'-phenyl fentanyl;
20.8 	(81) crotonyl fentanyl ((E)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbut-2-enamide);
20.9 	(82) cyclopropyl fentanyl 
20.10 	(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide);
20.11 	(83) fentanyl carbamate;
20.12 	(84) isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4 
20.13 	isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);
20.14 	(85) para-fluoro furanyl fentanyl;
20.15 	(86) para-methylfentanyl;
20.16 	(87) phenyl fentanyl;
20.17 	(88) ortho-fluoroacryl fentanyl;
20.18 	(89) ortho-fluorobutyryl fentanyl;
20.19 	(90) ortho-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl;
20.20 	(91) ortho-methyl acetylfentanyl;
20.21 	(92) thiofuranyl fentanyl;
20.22 	(93) metonitazene 
20.23 	(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);
20.24 	(94) metodesnitazene 
20.25 	(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);
20.26 	(95) etodesnitazene; etazene 
20.27 	(2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);
20.28 	(96) protonitazene 
20.29 	(N,N-diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);
21.1 	(97) butonitazene 
21.2 	(2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);
21.3 	(98) flunitazene 
21.4 	(N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine); and
21.5 	(99) N-pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne 
21.6 	(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole).
21.7 	(c) Opium derivatives. Any of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, 
21.8 	and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, 
21.9 	whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
21.10 	(1) acetorphine;
21.11 	(2) acetyldihydrocodeine;
21.12 	(3) benzylmorphine;
21.13 	(4) codeine methylbromide;
21.14 	(5) codeine-n-oxide;
21.15 	(6) cyprenorphine;
21.16 	(7) desomorphine;
21.17 	(8) dihydromorphine;
21.18 	(9) drotebanol;
21.19 	(10) etorphine;
21.20 	(11) heroin;
21.21 	(12) hydromorphinol;
21.22 	(13) methyldesorphine;
21.23 	(14) methyldihydromorphine;
21.24 	(15) morphine methylbromide;
21.25 	(16) morphine methylsulfonate;
21.26 	(17) morphine-n-oxide;
21.27 	(18) myrophine;
21.28 	(19) nicocodeine;
22.1 	(20) nicomorphine;
22.2 	(21) normorphine;
22.3 	(22) pholcodine; and
22.4 	(23) thebacon.
22.5 	(d) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any 
22.6 	quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers (whether optical, positional, 
22.7 	or geometric), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another 
22.8 	schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is 
22.9 	possible:
22.10 	(1) methylenedioxy amphetamine;
22.11 	(2) methylenedioxymethamphetamine;
22.12 	(3) methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (MDEA);
22.13 	(4) n-hydroxy-methylenedioxyamphetamine;
22.14 	(5) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOB);
22.15 	(6) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (2,5-DMA);
22.16 	(7) 4-methoxyamphetamine;
22.17 	(8) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;
22.18 	(9) alpha-ethyltryptamine;
22.19 	(10) bufotenine;
22.20 	(11) diethyltryptamine;
22.21 	(12) dimethyltryptamine;
22.22 	(13) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine;
22.23 	(14) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM);
22.24 	(15) ibogaine;
22.25 	(16) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);
22.26 	(17) mescaline;
22.27 	(18) parahexyl;
22.28 	(19) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
23.1 	(20) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
23.2 	(21) psilocybin;
23.3 	(22) psilocyn;
23.4 	(23) (21) tenocyclidine (TPCP or TCP);
23.5 	(24) (22) N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclohexylamine (PCE);
23.6 	(25) (23) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine (PCPy);
23.7 	(26) (24) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]-pyrrolidine (TCPy);
23.8 	(27) (25) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOC);
23.9 	(28) (26) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOET);
23.10 	(29) (27) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOI);
23.11 	(30) (28) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-B);
23.12 	(31) (29) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);
23.13 	(32) (30) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-D);
23.14 	(33) (31) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-E);
23.15 	(34) (32) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);
23.16 	(35) (33) 4-propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-P);
23.17 	(36) (34) 4-isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-4);
23.18 	(37) (35) 4-propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-7);
23.19 	(38) (36) 2-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofuro [2,3-f][1]benzofuran-4-yl)ethanamine 
23.20 	(2-CB-FLY);
23.21 	(39) (37) bromo-benzodifuranyl-isopropylamine (Bromo-DragonFLY);
23.22 	(40) (38) alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);
23.23 	(41) (39) N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (DiPT);
23.24 	(42) (40) 4-acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DMT);
23.25 	(43) (41) 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DET);
23.26 	(44) (42) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-propyltryptamine (4-HO-MPT);
23.27 	(45) (43) 4-hydroxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (4-HO-DPT);
24.1 	(46) (44) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (4-HO-DALT);
24.2 	(47) (45) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);
24.3 	(48) (46) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DiPT);
24.4 	(49) (47) 5-methoxy-α-methyltryptamine (5-MeO-AMT);
24.5 	(50) (48) 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DMT);
24.6 	(51) (49) 5-methylthio-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeS-DMT);
24.7 	(52) (50) 5-methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MiPT);
24.8 	(53) (51) 5-methoxy-α-ethyltryptamine (5-MeO-AET);
24.9 	(54) (52) 5-methoxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DPT);
24.10 	(55) (53) 5-methoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DET);
24.11 	(56) (54) 5-methoxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);
24.12 	(57) (55) methoxetamine (MXE);
24.13 	(58) (56) 5-iodo-2-aminoindane (5-IAI);
24.14 	(59) (57) 5,6-methylenedioxy-2-aminoindane (MDAI);
24.15 	(60) (58) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 
24.16 	(25B-NBOMe);
24.17 	(61) (59) 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 
24.18 	(25C-NBOMe);
24.19 	(62) (60) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine 
24.20 	(25I-NBOMe);
24.21 	(63) (61) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H);
24.22 	(64) (62) 2-(4-Ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-T-2);
24.23 	(65) (63) N,N-Dipropyltryptamine (DPT);
24.24 	(66) (64) 3-[1-(Piperidin-1-yl)cyclohexyl]phenol (3-HO-PCP);
24.25 	(67) (65) N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanamine (3-MeO-PCE);
24.26 	(68) (66) 4-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]morpholine (3-MeO-PCMo);
24.27 	(69) (67) 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine (methoxydine, 4-MeO-PCP);
25.1 	(70) (68) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)cyclohexan-1-one (N-Ethylnorketamine, 
25.2 	ethketamine, NENK);
25.3 	(71) (69) methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylamphetamine (MDDMA);
25.4 	(72) (70) 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl (4-AcO-MET); and
25.5 	(73) (71) 2-Phenyl-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (deschloroketamine).
25.6 	(e) Peyote. All parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii 
25.7 	Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of the plant, 
25.8 	and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, 
25.9 	its seeds or extracts. The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in Schedule I does not 
25.10 	apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies of the American Indian 
25.11 	Church, and members of the American Indian Church are exempt from registration. Any 
25.12 	person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the American Indian Church, 
25.13 	however, is required to obtain federal registration annually and to comply with all other 
25.14 	requirements of law.
25.15 	(f) Central nervous system depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in 
25.16 	another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any 
25.17 	quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers 
25.18 	whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
25.19 	(1) mecloqualone;
25.20 	(2) methaqualone;
25.21 	(3) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), including its esters and ethers;
25.22 	(4) flunitrazepam;
25.23 	(5) 2-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (2-MeO-2-deschloroketamine, 
25.24 	methoxyketamine);
25.25 	(6) tianeptine;
25.26 	(7) clonazolam;
25.27 	(8) etizolam;
25.28 	(9) flubromazolam; and
25.29 	(10) flubromazepam.
25.30 	(g) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any 
25.31 	material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following 
26.1 	substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the 
26.2 	analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
26.3 	(1) aminorex;
26.4 	(2) cathinone;
26.5 	(3) fenethylline;
26.6 	(4) methcathinone;
26.7 	(5) methylaminorex;
26.8 	(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine;
26.9 	(7) N-benzylpiperazine (BZP);
26.10 	(8) methylmethcathinone (mephedrone);
26.11 	(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (methylone);
26.12 	(10) methoxymethcathinone (methedrone);
26.13 	(11) methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);
26.14 	(12) 3-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (3-FMC);
26.15 	(13) methylethcathinone (MEC);
26.16 	(14) 1-benzofuran-6-ylpropan-2-amine (6-APB);
26.17 	(15) dimethylmethcathinone (DMMC);
26.18 	(16) fluoroamphetamine;
26.19 	(17) fluoromethamphetamine;
26.20 	(18) α-methylaminobutyrophenone (MABP or buphedrone);
26.21 	(19) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone);
26.22 	(20) 2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)butan-1-one (4-MEMABP or BZ-6378);
26.23 	(21) 1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl) pentan-1-one (naphthylpyrovalerone or 
26.24 	naphyrone);
26.25 	(22) (alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone (alpha-PVP);
26.26 	(23) (RS)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-hexanone (4-Me-PHP or MPHP);
26.27 	(24) 2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-hexanophenone (Alpha-PHP);
26.28 	(25) 4-methyl-N-ethylcathinone (4-MEC);
27.1 	(26) 4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP);
27.2 	(27) 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone);
27.3 	(28) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone);
27.4 	(29) 4-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (4-FMC);
27.5 	(30) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone (ethylone);
27.6 	(31) alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (α-PBP);
27.7 	(32) 5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (5-APDB);
27.8 	(33) 1-phenyl-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-heptanone (PV8);
27.9 	(34) 6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (6-APDB);
27.10 	(35) 4-methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone (4-MEAPP);
27.11 	(36) 4'-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4'-chloro-PPP);
27.12 	(37) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)butan-1-one (dibutylone, bk-DMBDB);
27.13 	(38) 1-(3-chlorophenyl) piperazine (meta-chlorophenylpiperazine or mCPP);
27.14 	(39) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-pentan-1-one (N-ethylpentylone, ephylone);
27.15 	(40) any other substance, except bupropion or compounds listed under a different 
27.16 	schedule, that is structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 
27.17 	1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the 
27.18 	compound is further modified in any of the following ways:
27.19 	(i) by substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, 
27.20 	haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring 
27.21 	system by one or more other univalent substituents;
27.22 	(ii) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;
27.23 	(iii) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or 
27.24 	methoxybenzyl groups; or
27.25 	(iv) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;
27.26 	(41) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex (4,4'-DMAR; 
27.27 	4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine);
27.28 	(42) 4-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (4-chloro-A-PVP);
28.1 	(43) para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA), 
28.2 	1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine; and
28.3 	(44) N-ethylhexedrone.
28.4 	(h) Synthetic cannabinoids, including the following substances:
28.5 	(1) Naphthoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-napthoyl)indole 
28.6 	structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, 
28.7 	alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 
28.8 	2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any 
28.9 	extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of 
28.10 	naphthoylindoles include, but are not limited to:
28.11 	(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM-678);
28.12 	(ii) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073);
28.13 	(iii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-081);
28.14 	(iv) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200);
28.15 	(v) 1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-015);
28.16 	(vi) 1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019);
28.17 	(vii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122);
28.18 	(viii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-210);
28.19 	(ix) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398);
28.20 	(x) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM-2201).
28.21 	(2) Napthylmethylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 
28.22 	1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the 
28.23 	indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
28.24 	1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further 
28.25 	substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl 
28.26 	ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylmethylindoles include, but are not limited to:
28.27 	(i) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-175);
28.28 	(ii) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-184).
28.29 	(3) Naphthoylpyrroles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole 
28.30 	structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, 
29.1 	alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 
29.2 	2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any 
29.3 	extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of 
29.4 	naphthoylpyrroles include, but are not limited to, 
29.5 	(5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone (JWH-307).
29.6 	(4) Naphthylmethylindenes, which are any compounds containing a naphthylideneindene 
29.7 	structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
29.8 	cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 
29.9 	2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any 
29.10 	extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of 
29.11 	naphthylemethylindenes include, but are not limited to, 
29.12 	E-1-[1-(1-naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane (JWH-176).
29.13 	(5) Phenylacetylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-phenylacetylindole 
29.14 	structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, 
29.15 	alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 
29.16 	2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any 
29.17 	extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of 
29.18 	phenylacetylindoles include, but are not limited to:
29.19 	(i) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (RCS-8);
29.20 	(ii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250);
29.21 	(iii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-251);
29.22 	(iv) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203).
29.23 	(6) Cyclohexylphenols, which are compounds containing a 
29.24 	2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic 
29.25 	ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 
29.26 	1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not substituted 
29.27 	in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of cyclohexylphenols include, but are not 
29.28 	limited to:
29.29 	(i) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP 47,497);
29.30 	(ii) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (Cannabicyclohexanol 
29.31 	or CP 47,497 C8 homologue);
29.32 	(iii) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,2R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl] 
29.33 	-phenol (CP 55,940).
30.1 	(7) Benzoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(benzoyl)indole structure 
30.2 	with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, 
30.3 	cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 
30.4 	2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any 
30.5 	extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of 
30.6 	benzoylindoles include, but are not limited to:
30.7 	(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole (RCS-4);
30.8 	(ii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM-694);
30.9 	(iii) (4-methoxyphenyl-[2-methyl-1-(2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3-yl]methanone 
30.10 	(WIN 48,098 or Pravadoline).
30.11 	(8) Others specifically named:
30.12 	(i) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) 
30.13 	-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (HU-210);
30.14 	(ii) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) 
30.15 	-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (Dexanabinol or HU-211);
30.16 	(iii) 2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de] 
30.17 	-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);
30.18 	(iv) (1-pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144);
30.19 	(v) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone 
30.20 	(XLR-11);
30.21 	(vi) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
30.22 	(AKB-48(APINACA));
30.23 	(vii) N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
30.24 	(5-Fluoro-AKB-48);
30.25 	(viii) 1-pentyl-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (PB-22);
30.26 	(ix) 8-quinolinyl ester-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (5-Fluoro PB-22);
30.27 	(x) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
30.28 	(AB-PINACA);
30.29 	(xi) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]- 
30.30 	1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA);
31.1 	(xii) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H- 
31.2 	indazole-3-carboxamide(AB-CHMINACA);
31.3 	(xiii) (S)-methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate 
31.4 	(5-fluoro-AMB);
31.5 	(xiv) [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (THJ-2201);
31.6 	(xv) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone) 
31.7 	(FUBIMINA);
31.8 	(xvi) (7-methoxy-1-(2-morpholinoethyl)-N-((1S,2S,4R)-1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo 
31.9 	[2.2.1]heptan-2-yl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (MN-25 or UR-12);
31.10 	(xvii) 
31.11 	(S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide 
31.12 	(5-fluoro-ABICA);
31.13 	(xviii) 
31.14 	N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;
31.15 	(xix) 
31.16 	N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
31.17 	(xx) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
31.18 	(xxi) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1(cyclohexylmethyl) 
31.19 	-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (MAB-CHMINACA);
31.20 	(xxii) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxo-2-butanyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
31.21 	(ADB-PINACA);
31.22 	(xxiii) methyl (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate (FUB-AMB);
31.23 	(xxiv) 
31.24 	N-[(1S)-2-amino-2-oxo-1-(phenylmethyl)ethyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-Indazole-
31.25 	3-carboxamide (APP-CHMINACA);
31.26 	(xxv) quinolin-8-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (FUB-PB-22); and
31.27 	(xxvi) methyl N-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl]valinate (MMB-CHMICA).
31.28 	(9) Additional substances specifically named:
31.29 	(i) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[2,3-B]pyridine-3-carboxamide 
31.30 	(5F-CUMYL-P7AICA);
32.1 	(ii) 1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
32.2 	(4-CN-Cumyl-Butinaca);
32.3 	(iii) naphthalen-1-yl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1-H-indole-3-carboxylate (NM2201; CBL2201);
32.4 	(iv) 
32.5 	N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide 
32.6 	(5F-ABPINACA);
32.7 	(v) methyl-2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate 
32.8 	(MDMB CHMICA);
32.9 	(vi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate 
32.10 	(5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA);
32.11 	(vii) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl) 
32.12 	1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-FUBINACA);
32.13 	(viii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;
32.14 	(ix) (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;
32.15 	(x) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
32.16 	(xi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
32.17 	(xii) ethyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;
32.18 	(xiii) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3- methylbutanoate;
32.19 	(xiv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide; and
32.20 	(xv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide.
32.21 	(i) A controlled substance analog, to the extent that it is implicitly or explicitly intended 
32.22 	for human consumption.

32.23 	Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
32.24 		Subd. 5.Schedule IV. (a) Schedule IV consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.
32.25 	(b) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, 
32.26 	any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic 
32.27 	drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities 
32.28 	as follows:
32.29 	(1) not more than one milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine 
32.30 	sulfate per dosage unit;
33.1 	(2) dextropropoxyphene (Darvon and Darvocet);
33.2 	(3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and 
33.3 	geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers (including tramadol);
33.4 	(4) eluxadoline;
33.5 	(5) pentazocine; and
33.6 	(6) butorphanol (including its optical isomers).
33.7 	(c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any 
33.8 	material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following 
33.9 	substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the 
33.10 	salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
33.11 	(1) alfaxalone (5α-pregnan-3α-ol-11,20-dione);
33.12 	(2) alprazolam;
33.13 	(3) barbital;
33.14 	(4) bromazepam;
33.15 	(5) camazepam;
33.16 	(6) carisoprodol;
33.17 	(7) chloral betaine;
33.18 	(8) chloral hydrate;
33.19 	(9) chlordiazepoxide;
33.20 	(10) clobazam;
33.21 	(11) clonazepam;
33.22 	(12) clorazepate;
33.23 	(13) clotiazepam;
33.24 	(14) cloxazolam;
33.25 	(15) delorazepam;
33.26 	(16) diazepam;
33.27 	(17) dichloralphenazone;
33.28 	(18) estazolam;
34.1 	(19) ethchlorvynol;
34.2 	(20) ethinamate;
34.3 	(21) ethyl loflazepate;
34.4 	(22) fludiazepam;
34.5 	(23) flurazepam;
34.6 	(24) fospropofol;
34.7 	(25) halazepam;
34.8 	(26) haloxazolam;
34.9 	(27) ketazolam;
34.10 	(28) loprazolam;
34.11 	(29) lorazepam;
34.12 	(30) lormetazepam mebutamate;
34.13 	(31) medazepam;
34.14 	(32) meprobamate;
34.15 	(33) methohexital;
34.16 	(34) methylphenobarbital;
34.17 	(35) midazolam;
34.18 	(36) nimetazepam;
34.19 	(37) nitrazepam;
34.20 	(38) nordiazepam;
34.21 	(39) oxazepam;
34.22 	(40) oxazolam;
34.23 	(41) paraldehyde;
34.24 	(42) petrichloral;
34.25 	(43) phenobarbital;
34.26 	(44) pinazepam;
34.27 	(45) prazepam;
35.1 	(46) quazepam;
35.2 	(47) suvorexant;
35.3 	(48) temazepam;
35.4 	(49) tetrazepam;
35.5 	(50) triazolam;
35.6 	(51) zaleplon;
35.7 	(52) zolpidem;
35.8 	(53) zopiclone;
35.9 	(54) brexanolone (3α-hydroxy-5α-pregnan-20-one);
35.10 	(55) lemborexant;
35.11 	(56) remimazolam (4H-imidazol[1,2-a][1,4]benzodiazepine4-propionic acid).
35.12 	(d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the 
35.13 	following substance including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the 
35.14 	existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible: fenfluramine.
35.15 	(e) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any 
35.16 	material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following 
35.17 	substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, 
35.18 	isomers, and salts of isomers:
35.19 	(1) cathine (norpseudoephedrine);
35.20 	(2) diethylpropion;
35.21 	(3) fencamfamine;
35.22 	(4) fenproporex;
35.23 	(5) mazindol;
35.24 	(6) mefenorex;
35.25 	(7) modafinil;
35.26 	(8) pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);
35.27 	(9) phentermine;
35.28 	(10) pipradol;
36.1 	(11) sibutramine;
36.2 	(12) SPA (1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane);
36.3 	(13) serdexmethylphenidate;
36.4 	(14) solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl car-bamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-, 
36.5 	carbamate (ester)).
36.6 	(f) lorcaserin.
36.7 	(g) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any 
36.8 	quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, whether optical, positional, 
36.9 	or geometric, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another 
36.10 	schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is 
36.11 	possible:
36.12 	(1) psilocybin; and
36.13 	(2) psilocin.

	ARTICLE 1	THERAPEUTIC USE OF PSILOCYBIN........	Page.Ln 1.10	
	ARTICLE 2	SCHEDULING OF PSILOCYBIN........	Page.Ln 16.8