<a id="pl.1.3"></a><var>1.3</var>trauma system, home care, hearing instrument dispensers, Zika preparedness, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.4"></a><var>1.4</var>food, beverage, and lodging establishments, and body art technician license; <br/>
<a id="pl.1.5"></a><var>1.5</var>allowing electronic monitoring devices in residential care or services; requiring a <br/>
<a id="pl.1.6"></a><var>1.6</var>health carrier to update its Web site; adopting requirements for a medical faculty <br/>
<a id="pl.1.7"></a><var>1.7</var>license; changing provisions in the medical cannabis program; approving positive <br/>
<a id="pl.1.8"></a><var>1.8</var>support strategies and restrictive interventions in Minnesota Rules and making <br/>
<a id="pl.1.9"></a><var>1.9</var>conforming statutory changes; appropriating money and canceling a specific <br/>
<a id="pl.1.10"></a><var>1.10</var>appropriation;amending Minnesota Statutes 2014, sections 144.605, subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.1.11"></a><var>1.11</var>5; 144.608, subdivision 1; 144A.473, subdivision 2; 144A.475, subdivisions 3, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.12"></a><var>1.12</var>3b, by adding a subdivision; 144A.4791, by adding a subdivision; 144A.4792, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.13"></a><var>1.13</var>subdivision 13; 144A.4799, subdivisions 1, 3; 144A.482; 144D.01, subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.1.14"></a><var>1.14</var>2a; 144G.03, subdivisions 2, 4; 146B.01, subdivision 28; 146B.03, subdivisions <br/>
<a id="pl.1.15"></a><var>1.15</var>4, 6, 7, by adding a subdivision; 146B.07, subdivisions 1, 2; 152.22, subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.1.16"></a><var>1.16</var>14; 152.25, subdivisions 3, 4; 152.29, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; <br/>
<a id="pl.1.17"></a><var>1.17</var>152.36, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 153A.14, subdivisions 2d, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.18"></a><var>1.18</var>2h; 153A.15, subdivision 2a; 157.15, subdivision 14; 157.16, subdivision 4; <br/>
<a id="pl.1.19"></a><var>1.19</var>245.8251, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 252.275, subdivision 1a; <br/>
<a id="pl.1.20"></a><var>1.20</var>253B.03, subdivisions 1, 6a; 256B.0659, subdivision 3; 256B.0951, subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.1.21"></a><var>1.21</var>5; 256B.097, subdivision 4; 256B.77, subdivision 17; 626.5572, subdivision 2; <br/>
<a id="pl.1.22"></a><var>1.22</var>Minnesota Statutes 2015 Supplement, sections 62U.04, subdivision 11; 626.556, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.23"></a><var>1.23</var>subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters <br/>
<a id="pl.1.24"></a><var>1.24</var>62K; 144; 144D; 147; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 245.825, <br/>
<a id="pl.1.25"></a><var>1.25</var>subdivisions 1, 1b.<br/>
<a id="pl.1.26"></a><var>1.26</var>BE IT ENACTED BY THE LEGISLATURE OF THE STATE OF MINNESOTA:<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.1.0"></a><a id="pl.1.27"></a><var>1.27</var>    Section 1. <b>[62K.075] PROVIDER NETWORK NOTIFICATIONS.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.1.28"></a><var>1.28</var>A health carrier must update the carrier's Web site regarding any change in a <br/>
<a id="pl.1.29"></a><var>1.29</var>provider's network status within 24 hours of the change.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.2.0"></a><a id="pl.1.30"></a><var>1.30</var>    Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2015 Supplement, section 62U.04, subdivision 11, is <br/>
<a id="pl.1.31"></a><var>1.31</var>amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.2.1"></a><var>2.1</var>    Subd. 11. <b>Restricted uses of the all-payer claims data.</b> (a) Notwithstanding <br/>
<a id="pl.2.2"></a><var>2.2</var>subdivision 4, paragraph (b), and subdivision 5, paragraph (b), the commissioner or the <br/>
<a id="pl.2.3"></a><var>2.3</var>commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted under subdivisions 4 and 5 for <br/>
<a id="pl.2.4"></a><var>2.4</var>the following purposes:<br/>
<a id="pl.2.5"></a><var>2.5</var>(1) to evaluate the performance of the health care home program as authorized under <br/>
<a id="pl.2.6"></a><var>2.6</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>256B.0751, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, and 
         <statute_ref>256B.0752, subdivision 2</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.7"></a><var>2.7</var>(2) to study, in collaboration with the reducing avoidable readmissions effectively <br/>
<a id="pl.2.8"></a><var>2.8</var>(RARE) campaign, hospital readmission trends and rates;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.9"></a><var>2.9</var>(3) to analyze variations in health care costs, quality, utilization, and illness burden <br/>
<a id="pl.2.10"></a><var>2.10</var>based on geographical areas or populations;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.11"></a><var>2.11</var>(4) to evaluate the state innovation model (SIM) testing grant received by the <br/>
<a id="pl.2.12"></a><var>2.12</var>Departments of Health and Human Services, including the analysis of health care cost, <br/>
<a id="pl.2.13"></a><var>2.13</var>quality, and utilization baseline and trend information for targeted populations and <br/>
<a id="pl.2.14"></a><var>2.14</var>communities; and<br/>
<a id="pl.2.15"></a><var>2.15</var>(5) to compile one or more public use files of summary data or tables that must:<br/>
<a id="pl.2.16"></a><var>2.16</var>(i) be available to the public for no or minimal cost by March 1, 2016, and available <br/>
<a id="pl.2.17"></a><var>2.17</var>by Web-based electronic data download by June 30, 2019;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.18"></a><var>2.18</var>(ii) not identify individual patients, payers, or providers;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.19"></a><var>2.19</var>(iii) be updated by the commissioner, at least annually, with the most current data <br/>
<a id="pl.2.20"></a><var>2.20</var>available;<br/>
<a id="pl.2.21"></a><var>2.21</var>(iv) contain clear and conspicuous explanations of the characteristics of the data, <br/>
<a id="pl.2.22"></a><var>2.22</var>such as the dates of the data contained in the files, the absence of costs of care for uninsured <br/>
<a id="pl.2.23"></a><var>2.23</var>patients or nonresidents, and other disclaimers that provide appropriate context; and<br/>
<a id="pl.2.24"></a><var>2.24</var>(v) not lead to the collection of additional data elements beyond what is authorized <br/>
<a id="pl.2.25"></a><var>2.25</var>under this section as of June 30, 2015.<br/>
<a id="pl.2.26"></a><var>2.26</var>(b) The commissioner may publish the results of the authorized uses identified <br/>
<a id="pl.2.27"></a><var>2.27</var>in paragraph (a) so long as the data released publicly do not contain information or <br/>
<a id="pl.2.28"></a><var>2.28</var>descriptions in which the identity of individual hospitals, clinics, or other providers may <br/>
<a id="pl.2.29"></a><var>2.29</var>be discerned.<br/>
<a id="pl.2.30"></a><var>2.30</var>(c) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prohibit the commissioner from <br/>
<a id="pl.2.31"></a><var>2.31</var>using the data collected under subdivision 4 to complete the state-based risk adjustment <br/>
<a id="pl.2.32"></a><var>2.32</var>system assessment due to the legislature on October 1, 2015.<br/>
<a id="pl.2.33"></a><var>2.33</var>(d) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee may use the data submitted <br/>
<a id="pl.2.34"></a><var>2.34</var>under subdivisions 4 and 5 for the purpose described in paragraph (a), clause (3), until <br/>
<a id="pl.2.35"></a><var>2.35</var>July 1, 2016 2019.<br/>
<a id="pl.3.1"></a><var>3.1</var>(e) The commissioner shall consult with the all-payer claims database work group <br/>
<a id="pl.3.2"></a><var>3.2</var>established under subdivision 12 regarding the technical considerations necessary to create <br/>
<a id="pl.3.3"></a><var>3.3</var>the public use files of summary data described in paragraph (a), clause (5).<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.3.0"></a><a id="pl.3.4"></a><var>3.4</var>    Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144.605, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.3.5"></a><var>3.5</var>    Subd. 5. <b>Level IV designation.</b> (a) The commissioner shall grant the appropriate <br/>
<a id="pl.3.6"></a><var>3.6</var>level IV trauma hospital designation to a hospital that successfully completes the <br/>
<a id="pl.3.7"></a><var>3.7</var>designation process under paragraph (b).<br/>
<a id="pl.3.8"></a><var>3.8</var>(b) The hospital must complete and submit a self-reported survey and application to <br/>
<a id="pl.3.9"></a><var>3.9</var>the Trauma Advisory Council for review, verifying that the hospital meets the criteria as a <br/>
<a id="pl.3.10"></a><var>3.10</var>level IV trauma hospital. When the Trauma Advisory Council is satisfied the application <br/>
<a id="pl.3.11"></a><var>3.11</var>is complete, the council shall review the application and, if the council approves the <br/>
<a id="pl.3.12"></a><var>3.12</var>application, send a letter of recommendation to the commissioner for final approval and <br/>
<a id="pl.3.13"></a><var>3.13</var>designation. The commissioner shall grant a level IV designation and shall arrange a site <br/>
<a id="pl.3.14"></a><var>3.14</var>review visit within three years of the designation and every three years thereafter, to <br/>
<a id="pl.3.15"></a><var>3.15</var>coincide with the three-year reverification process. commissioner shall arrange a site <br/>
<a id="pl.3.16"></a><var>3.16</var>review visit. Upon successful completion of the site review, the review team shall make <br/>
<a id="pl.3.17"></a><var>3.17</var>written recommendations to the Trauma Advisory Council. If approved by the Trauma <br/>
<a id="pl.3.18"></a><var>3.18</var>Advisory Council, a letter of recommendation shall be sent to the commissioner for final <br/>
<a id="pl.3.19"></a><var>3.19</var>approval and designation.<br/>
<a id="pl.3.20"></a><var>3.20</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective October 1, 2016.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.4.0"></a><a id="pl.3.21"></a><var>3.21</var>    Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144.608, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.3.22"></a><var>3.22</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Trauma Advisory Council established.</b> (a) A Trauma Advisory <br/>
<a id="pl.3.23"></a><var>3.23</var>Council is established to advise, consult with, and make recommendations to the <br/>
<a id="pl.3.24"></a><var>3.24</var>commissioner on the development, maintenance, and improvement of a statewide trauma <br/>
<a id="pl.3.25"></a><var>3.25</var>system.<br/>
<a id="pl.3.26"></a><var>3.26</var>(b) The council shall consist of the following members:<br/>
<a id="pl.3.27"></a><var>3.27</var>(1) a trauma surgeon certified by the American Board of Surgery or the American <br/>
<a id="pl.3.28"></a><var>3.28</var>Osteopathic Board of Surgery who practices in a level I or II trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.3.29"></a><var>3.29</var>(2) a general surgeon certified by the American Board of Surgery or the American <br/>
<a id="pl.3.30"></a><var>3.30</var>Osteopathic Board of Surgery whose practice includes trauma and who practices in a <br/>
<a id="pl.3.31"></a><var>3.31</var>designated rural area as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (b);<br/>
<a id="pl.3.32"></a><var>3.32</var>(3) a neurosurgeon certified by the American Board of Neurological Surgery who <br/>
<a id="pl.3.33"></a><var>3.33</var>practices in a level I or II trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.1"></a><var>4.1</var>(4) a trauma program nurse manager or coordinator practicing in a level I or II <br/>
<a id="pl.4.2"></a><var>4.2</var>trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.3"></a><var>4.3</var>(5) an emergency physician certified by the American Board of Emergency Medicine <br/>
<a id="pl.4.4"></a><var>4.4</var>or the American Osteopathic Board of Emergency Medicine whose practice includes <br/>
<a id="pl.4.5"></a><var>4.5</var>emergency room care in a level I, II, III, or IV trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.6"></a><var>4.6</var>(6) a trauma program manager or coordinator who practices in a level III or IV <br/>
<a id="pl.4.7"></a><var>4.7</var>trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.8"></a><var>4.8</var>(7) a physician certified by the American Board of Family Medicine or the American <br/>
<a id="pl.4.9"></a><var>4.9</var>Osteopathic Board of Family Practice whose practice includes emergency department care <br/>
<a id="pl.4.10"></a><var>4.10</var>in a level III or IV trauma hospital located in a designated rural area as defined under <br/>
<a id="pl.4.11"></a><var>4.11</var>section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (b);<br/>
<a id="pl.4.12"></a><var>4.12</var>(8) a nurse practitioner, as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph <br/>
<a id="pl.4.13"></a><var>4.13</var>(h), or a physician assistant, as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph <br/>
<a id="pl.4.14"></a><var>4.14</var>(j), whose practice includes emergency room care in a level IV trauma hospital located in <br/>
<a id="pl.4.15"></a><var>4.15</var>a designated rural area as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (b);<br/>
<a id="pl.4.16"></a><var>4.16</var>(9) a pediatrician physician certified in pediatric emergency medicine by the <br/>
<a id="pl.4.17"></a><var>4.17</var>American Board of Pediatrics or certified in pediatric emergency medicine by the American <br/>
<a id="pl.4.18"></a><var>4.18</var>Board of Emergency Medicine or certified by the American Osteopathic Board of Pediatrics <br/>
<a id="pl.4.19"></a><var>4.19</var>whose practice primarily includes emergency department medical care in a level I, II, III, <br/>
<a id="pl.4.20"></a><var>4.20</var>or IV trauma hospital, or a surgeon certified in pediatric surgery by the American Board of <br/>
<a id="pl.4.21"></a><var>4.21</var>Surgery whose practice involves the care of pediatric trauma patients in a trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.22"></a><var>4.22</var>(10) an orthopedic surgeon certified by the American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery <br/>
<a id="pl.4.23"></a><var>4.23</var>or the American Osteopathic Board of Orthopedic Surgery whose practice includes trauma <br/>
<a id="pl.4.24"></a><var>4.24</var>and who practices in a level I, II, or III trauma hospital;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.25"></a><var>4.25</var>(11) the state emergency medical services medical director appointed by the <br/>
<a id="pl.4.26"></a><var>4.26</var>Emergency Medical Services Regulatory Board;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.27"></a><var>4.27</var>(12) a hospital administrator of a level III or IV trauma hospital located in a <br/>
<a id="pl.4.28"></a><var>4.28</var>designated rural area as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>144.1501, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (b);<br/>
<a id="pl.4.29"></a><var>4.29</var>(13) a rehabilitation specialist whose practice includes rehabilitation of patients <br/>
<a id="pl.4.30"></a><var>4.30</var>with major trauma injuries or traumatic brain injuries and spinal cord injuries as defined <br/>
<a id="pl.4.31"></a><var>4.31</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>144.661</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.4.32"></a><var>4.32</var>(14) an attendant or ambulance director who is an EMT, EMT-I, or EMT-P within <br/>
<a id="pl.4.33"></a><var>4.33</var>the meaning of section 
         <statute_ref>144E.001</statute_ref> and who actively practices with a licensed ambulance <br/>
<a id="pl.4.34"></a><var>4.34</var>service in a primary service area located in a designated rural area as defined under section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.4.35"></a><var>4.35</var>144.1501, subdivision 1
         </statute_ref>, paragraph (b); and<br/>
<a id="pl.4.36"></a><var>4.36</var>(15) the commissioner of public safety or the commissioner's designee.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.5.0"></a><a id="pl.5.1"></a><var>5.1</var>    Sec. 5. <b>[144.945] ZIKA PREPAREDNESS AND RESPONSE.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.5.2"></a><var>5.2</var>(a) To the extent funds are available, the commissioner of health shall undertake <br/>
<a id="pl.5.3"></a><var>5.3</var>the following statewide planning, coordination, preparation, and response activities <br/>
<a id="pl.5.4"></a><var>5.4</var>related to the Zika virus:<br/>
<a id="pl.5.5"></a><var>5.5</var>(1) maintain state and local public health readiness to address Zika-related public <br/>
<a id="pl.5.6"></a><var>5.6</var>health threats;<br/>
<a id="pl.5.7"></a><var>5.7</var>(2) conduct diagnostic tests of patients who meet criteria for Zika testing and <br/>
<a id="pl.5.8"></a><var>5.8</var>maintain enhanced laboratory surveillance activities related to Zika;<br/>
<a id="pl.5.9"></a><var>5.9</var>(3) engage in Zika surveillance activities, including evaluating patients for testing <br/>
<a id="pl.5.10"></a><var>5.10</var>based on criteria, advising health care providers on Zika virus research, providing <br/>
<a id="pl.5.11"></a><var>5.11</var>recommendations and interpretations of test results, and conducting Zika-related public <br/>
<a id="pl.5.12"></a><var>5.12</var>awareness and prevention activities; and<br/>
<a id="pl.5.13"></a><var>5.13</var>(4) conduct mosquito surveillance activities under section 144.95 to enhance <br/>
<a id="pl.5.14"></a><var>5.14</var>monitoring of areas where mosquitoes carrying the Zika virus may be found in Minnesota, <br/>
<a id="pl.5.15"></a><var>5.15</var>notwithstanding section 144.95, subdivision 10.<br/>
<a id="pl.5.16"></a><var>5.16</var>(b) The commissioner shall seek authority from the United States Centers for <br/>
<a id="pl.5.17"></a><var>5.17</var>Disease Control and Prevention to use federal Public Health Emergency Preparedness <br/>
<a id="pl.5.18"></a><var>5.18</var>grant funds for costs associated with Zika preparedness and response activities under this <br/>
<a id="pl.5.19"></a><var>5.19</var>section and shall seek additional federal funds for this purpose.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.6.0"></a><a id="pl.5.20"></a><var>5.20</var>    Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.473, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.5.21"></a><var>5.21</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Temporary license.</b> (a) For new license applicants, the commissioner <br/>
<a id="pl.5.22"></a><var>5.22</var>shall issue a temporary license for either the basic or comprehensive home care level. A <br/>
<a id="pl.5.23"></a><var>5.23</var>temporary license is effective for up to one year from the date of issuance. Temporary <br/>
<a id="pl.5.24"></a><var>5.24</var>licensees must comply with sections 
         <statute_ref>144A.43</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144A.482</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.5.25"></a><var>5.25</var>(b) During the temporary license year, the commissioner shall survey the temporary <br/>
<a id="pl.5.26"></a><var>5.26</var>licensee after the commissioner is notified or has evidence that the temporary licensee <br/>
<a id="pl.5.27"></a><var>5.27</var>is providing home care services.<br/>
<a id="pl.5.28"></a><var>5.28</var>(c) Within five days of beginning the provision of services, the temporary <br/>
<a id="pl.5.29"></a><var>5.29</var>licensee must notify the commissioner that it is serving clients. The notification to the <br/>
<a id="pl.5.30"></a><var>5.30</var>commissioner may be mailed or e-mailed to the commissioner at the address provided by <br/>
<a id="pl.5.31"></a><var>5.31</var>the commissioner. If the temporary licensee does not provide home care services during <br/>
<a id="pl.5.32"></a><var>5.32</var>the temporary license year, then the temporary license expires at the end of the year and <br/>
<a id="pl.5.33"></a><var>5.33</var>the applicant must reapply for a temporary home care license.<br/>
<a id="pl.5.34"></a><var>5.34</var>(d) A temporary licensee may request a change in the level of licensure prior to <br/>
<a id="pl.5.35"></a><var>5.35</var>being surveyed and granted a license by notifying the commissioner in writing and <br/>
<a id="pl.6.1"></a><var>6.1</var>providing additional documentation or materials required to update or complete the <br/>
<a id="pl.6.2"></a><var>6.2</var>changed temporary license application. The applicant must pay the difference between <br/>
<a id="pl.6.3"></a><var>6.3</var>the application fees when changing from the basic level to the comprehensive level of <br/>
<a id="pl.6.4"></a><var>6.4</var>licensure. No refund will be made if the provider chooses to change the license application <br/>
<a id="pl.6.5"></a><var>6.5</var>to the basic level.<br/>
<a id="pl.6.6"></a><var>6.6</var>(e) If the temporary licensee notifies the commissioner that the licensee has clients <br/>
<a id="pl.6.7"></a><var>6.7</var>within 45 days prior to the temporary license expiration, the commissioner may extend the <br/>
<a id="pl.6.8"></a><var>6.8</var>temporary license for up to 60 days in order to allow the commissioner to complete the <br/>
<a id="pl.6.9"></a><var>6.9</var>on-site survey required under this section and follow-up survey visits.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.7.0"></a><a id="pl.6.10"></a><var>6.10</var>    Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.475, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.6.11"></a><var>6.11</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Notice.</b> (a) Prior to any suspension, revocation, or refusal to renew a <br/>
<a id="pl.6.12"></a><var>6.12</var>license, the home care provider shall be entitled to notice and a hearing as provided <br/>
<a id="pl.6.13"></a><var>6.13</var>by sections 
         <statute_ref>14.57</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>14.69</statute_ref>. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the <br/>
<a id="pl.6.14"></a><var>6.14</var>commissioner may, without a prior contested case hearing, temporarily suspend a license <br/>
<a id="pl.6.15"></a><var>6.15</var>or prohibit delivery of services by a provider for not more than 90 days, or issue a <br/>
<a id="pl.6.16"></a><var>6.16</var>conditional license if the commissioner determines that there are level 3 or 4 violations as <br/>
<a id="pl.6.17"></a><var>6.17</var>defined in section 
<statute_ref>144A.474, subdivision 11</statute_ref>, paragraph (b), that do not pose an imminent <br/>
<a id="pl.6.18"></a><var>6.18</var>risk of harm to the health or safety of persons in the provider's care, provided:<br/>
<a id="pl.6.19"></a><var>6.19</var>(1) advance notice is given to the home care provider;<br/>
<a id="pl.6.20"></a><var>6.20</var>(2) after notice, the home care provider fails to correct the problem;<br/>
<a id="pl.6.21"></a><var>6.21</var>(3) the commissioner has reason to believe that other administrative remedies are not <br/>
<a id="pl.6.22"></a><var>6.22</var>likely to be effective; and<br/>
<a id="pl.6.23"></a><var>6.23</var>(4) there is an opportunity for a contested case hearing within the 30 days unless <br/>
<a id="pl.6.24"></a><var>6.24</var>there is an extension granted by an administrative law judge pursuant to subdivision 3b.<br/>
<a id="pl.6.25"></a><var>6.25</var>(b) If the commissioner determines there are:<br/>
<a id="pl.6.26"></a><var>6.26</var>(1) level 4 violations; or<br/>
<a id="pl.6.27"></a><var>6.27</var>(2) violations that pose an imminent risk of harm to the health or safety of persons in <br/>
<a id="pl.6.28"></a><var>6.28</var>the provider's care,<br/>
<a id="pl.6.29"></a><var>6.29</var>the commissioner may immediately temporarily suspend a license, prohibit delivery of <br/>
<a id="pl.6.30"></a><var>6.30</var>services by a provider, or issue a conditional license without meeting the requirements of <br/>
<a id="pl.6.31"></a><var>6.31</var>paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (4).<br/>
<a id="pl.6.32"></a><var>6.32</var>For the purposes of this subdivision, "level 3" and "level 4" have the meanings given in <br/>
<a id="pl.6.33"></a><var>6.33</var>section 144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b).<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.8.0"></a><a id="pl.6.34"></a><var>6.34</var>    Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.475, subdivision 3b, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.7.1"></a><var>7.1</var>    Subd. 3b. <b>Temporary suspension</b><b> Expedited hearing.</b> (a) Within five business <br/>
<a id="pl.7.2"></a><var>7.2</var>days of receipt of the license holder's timely appeal of a temporary suspension or issuance <br/>
<a id="pl.7.3"></a><var>7.3</var>of a conditional license, the commissioner shall request assignment of an administrative <br/>
<a id="pl.7.4"></a><var>7.4</var>law judge. The request must include a proposed date, time, and place of a hearing. A <br/>
<a id="pl.7.5"></a><var>7.5</var>hearing must be conducted by an administrative law judge within 30 calendar days of the <br/>
<a id="pl.7.6"></a><var>7.6</var>request for assignment, unless an extension is requested by either party and granted by the <br/>
<a id="pl.7.7"></a><var>7.7</var>administrative law judge for good cause. The commissioner shall issue a notice of hearing <br/>
<a id="pl.7.8"></a><var>7.8</var>by certified mail or personal service at least ten business days before the hearing. Certified <br/>
<a id="pl.7.9"></a><var>7.9</var>mail to the last known address is sufficient. The scope of the hearing shall be limited solely <br/>
<a id="pl.7.10"></a><var>7.10</var>to the issue of whether the temporary suspension or issuance of a conditional license should <br/>
<a id="pl.7.11"></a><var>7.11</var>remain in effect and whether there is sufficient evidence to conclude that the licensee's <br/>
<a id="pl.7.12"></a><var>7.12</var>actions or failure to comply with applicable laws are level 3 or 4 violations as defined in <br/>
<a id="pl.7.13"></a><var>7.13</var>section 
         <statute_ref>144A.474, subdivision 11</statute_ref>, paragraph (b), or that there were violations that posed <br/>
<a id="pl.7.14"></a><var>7.14</var>an imminent risk of harm to the health and safety of persons in the provider's care.<br/>
<a id="pl.7.15"></a><var>7.15</var>(b) The administrative law judge shall issue findings of fact, conclusions, and a <br/>
<a id="pl.7.16"></a><var>7.16</var>recommendation within ten business days from the date of hearing. The parties shall <br/>
<a id="pl.7.17"></a><var>7.17</var>have ten calendar days to submit exceptions to the administrative law judge's report. <br/>
<a id="pl.7.18"></a><var>7.18</var>The record shall close at the end of the ten-day period for submission of exceptions. <br/>
<a id="pl.7.19"></a><var>7.19</var>The commissioner's final order shall be issued within ten business days from the close <br/>
<a id="pl.7.20"></a><var>7.20</var>of the record. When an appeal of a temporary immediate suspension or conditional <br/>
<a id="pl.7.21"></a><var>7.21</var>license is withdrawn or dismissed, the commissioner shall issue a final order affirming the <br/>
<a id="pl.7.22"></a><var>7.22</var>temporary immediate suspension or conditional license within ten calendar days of the <br/>
<a id="pl.7.23"></a><var>7.23</var>commissioner's receipt of the withdrawal or dismissal. The license holder is prohibited <br/>
<a id="pl.7.24"></a><var>7.24</var>from operation during the temporary suspension period.<br/>
<a id="pl.7.25"></a><var>7.25</var>(c) When the final order under paragraph (b) affirms an immediate suspension, and a <br/>
<a id="pl.7.26"></a><var>7.26</var>final licensing sanction is issued under subdivisions 1 and 2 and the licensee appeals that <br/>
<a id="pl.7.27"></a><var>7.27</var>sanction, the licensee is prohibited from operation pending a final commissioner's order <br/>
<a id="pl.7.28"></a><var>7.28</var>after the contested case hearing conducted under chapter 14.<br/>
<a id="pl.7.29"></a><var>7.29</var>(d) A licensee whose license is temporarily suspended must comply with the <br/>
<a id="pl.7.30"></a><var>7.30</var>requirements for notification and transfer of clients in subdivision 5. These requirements <br/>
<a id="pl.7.31"></a><var>7.31</var>remain if an appeal is requested.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.9.0"></a><a id="pl.7.32"></a><var>7.32</var>    Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.475, is amended by adding a <br/>
<a id="pl.7.33"></a><var>7.33</var>subdivision to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.7.34"></a><var>7.34</var>    Subd. 3c. <b>Immediate temporary suspension.</b> (a) In addition to any other <br/>
<a id="pl.7.35"></a><var>7.35</var>remedies provided by law, the commissioner may, without a prior contested case hearing, <br/>
<a id="pl.8.1"></a><var>8.1</var>immediately temporarily suspend a license or prohibit delivery of services by a provider <br/>
<a id="pl.8.2"></a><var>8.2</var>for not more than 90 days, or issue a conditional license, if the commissioner determines <br/>
<a id="pl.8.3"></a><var>8.3</var>that there are:<br/>
<a id="pl.8.4"></a><var>8.4</var>(1) level 4 violations; or<br/>
<a id="pl.8.5"></a><var>8.5</var>(2) violations that pose an imminent risk of harm to the health or safety of persons in <br/>
<a id="pl.8.6"></a><var>8.6</var>the provider's care.<br/>
<a id="pl.8.7"></a><var>8.7</var>(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "level 4" has the meaning given in section <br/>
<a id="pl.8.8"></a><var>8.8</var>144A.474, subdivision 11, paragraph (b).<br/>
<a id="pl.8.9"></a><var>8.9</var>(c) A notice stating the reasons for the immediate temporary suspension or <br/>
<a id="pl.8.10"></a><var>8.10</var>conditional license and informing the license holder of the right to an expedited hearing <br/>
<a id="pl.8.11"></a><var>8.11</var>under subdivision 3b, must be delivered by personal services to the address shown on the <br/>
<a id="pl.8.12"></a><var>8.12</var>application or the last known address of the license holder. The license holder may appeal <br/>
<a id="pl.8.13"></a><var>8.13</var>an order immediately temporarily suspending a license or issuing a conditional license. <br/>
<a id="pl.8.14"></a><var>8.14</var>The appeal must be made in writing by certified mail or personal service. If mailed, the <br/>
<a id="pl.8.15"></a><var>8.15</var>appeal must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within five calendar days after the <br/>
<a id="pl.8.16"></a><var>8.16</var>license holder receives notice. If an appeal is made by personal service, it must be received <br/>
<a id="pl.8.17"></a><var>8.17</var>by the commissioner within five calendar days after the license holder received the order.<br/>
<a id="pl.8.18"></a><var>8.18</var>(d) A license holder whose license is immediately temporarily suspended must <br/>
<a id="pl.8.19"></a><var>8.19</var>comply with the requirements for notification and transfer of clients in subdivision 5. <br/>
<a id="pl.8.20"></a><var>8.20</var>These requirements remain if an appeal is requested.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.10.0"></a><a id="pl.8.21"></a><var>8.21</var>    Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.4791, is amended by adding a <br/>
<a id="pl.8.22"></a><var>8.22</var>subdivision to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.8.23"></a><var>8.23</var>    Subd. 14. <b>Application of other law.</b> Home care providers may exercise the <br/>
<a id="pl.8.24"></a><var>8.24</var>authority and are subject to the protections in section 152.34.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.11.0"></a><a id="pl.8.25"></a><var>8.25</var>    Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.4792, subdivision 13, is amended to <br/>
<a id="pl.8.26"></a><var>8.26</var>read:<br/>
<a id="pl.8.27"></a><var>8.27</var>    Subd. 13. <b>Prescriptions.</b> There must be a current written or electronically recorded <br/>
<a id="pl.8.28"></a><var>8.28</var>prescription as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 6800.0100, subpart 11a section 151.01, <br/>
<a id="pl.8.29"></a><var>8.29</var>subdivision 16a, for all prescribed medications that the comprehensive home care provider <br/>
<a id="pl.8.30"></a><var>8.30</var>is managing for the client.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.12.0"></a><a id="pl.8.31"></a><var>8.31</var>    Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.4799, subdivision 1, is amended to <br/>
<a id="pl.8.32"></a><var>8.32</var>read:<br/>
<a id="pl.9.1"></a><var>9.1</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Membership.</b> The commissioner of health shall appoint eight <br/>
<a id="pl.9.2"></a><var>9.2</var>persons to a home care provider home care and assisted living program advisory council <br/>
<a id="pl.9.3"></a><var>9.3</var>consisting of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.9.4"></a><var>9.4</var>(1) three public members as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>214.02</statute_ref> who shall be either persons <br/>
<a id="pl.9.5"></a><var>9.5</var>who are currently receiving home care services or have family members receiving home <br/>
<a id="pl.9.6"></a><var>9.6</var>care services, or persons who have family members who have received home care services <br/>
<a id="pl.9.7"></a><var>9.7</var>within five years of the application date;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.8"></a><var>9.8</var>(2) three Minnesota home care licensees representing basic and comprehensive <br/>
<a id="pl.9.9"></a><var>9.9</var>levels of licensure who may be a managerial official, an administrator, a supervising <br/>
<a id="pl.9.10"></a><var>9.10</var>registered nurse, or an unlicensed personnel performing home care tasks;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.11"></a><var>9.11</var>(3) one member representing the Minnesota Board of Nursing; and<br/>
<a id="pl.9.12"></a><var>9.12</var>(4) one member representing the ombudsman for long-term care.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.13.0"></a><a id="pl.9.13"></a><var>9.13</var>    Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.4799, subdivision 3, is amended to <br/>
<a id="pl.9.14"></a><var>9.14</var>read:<br/>
<a id="pl.9.15"></a><var>9.15</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Duties.</b> (a) At the commissioner's request, the advisory council shall <br/>
<a id="pl.9.16"></a><var>9.16</var>provide advice regarding regulations of Department of Health licensed home care <br/>
<a id="pl.9.17"></a><var>9.17</var>providers in this chapter, including advice on the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.9.18"></a><var>9.18</var>(1) community standards for home care practices;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.19"></a><var>9.19</var>(2) enforcement of licensing standards and whether certain disciplinary actions <br/>
<a id="pl.9.20"></a><var>9.20</var>are appropriate;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.21"></a><var>9.21</var>(3) ways of distributing information to licensees and consumers of home care;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.22"></a><var>9.22</var>(4) training standards;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.23"></a><var>9.23</var>(5) identify identifying emerging issues and opportunities in the home care field, <br/>
<a id="pl.9.24"></a><var>9.24</var>including the use of technology in home and telehealth capabilities;<br/>
<a id="pl.9.25"></a><var>9.25</var>(6) allowable home care licensing modifications and exemptions, including a method <br/>
<a id="pl.9.26"></a><var>9.26</var>for an integrated license with an existing license for rural licensed nursing homes to <br/>
<a id="pl.9.27"></a><var>9.27</var>provide limited home care services in an adjacent independent living apartment building <br/>
<a id="pl.9.28"></a><var>9.28</var>owned by the licensed nursing home; and<br/>
<a id="pl.9.29"></a><var>9.29</var>(7) recommendations for studies using the data in section 62U.04, subdivision 4, <br/>
<a id="pl.9.30"></a><var>9.30</var>including but not limited to studies concerning costs related to dementia and chronic <br/>
<a id="pl.9.31"></a><var>9.31</var>disease among an elderly population over 60 and additional long-term care costs, as <br/>
<a id="pl.9.32"></a><var>9.32</var>described in section 62U.10, subdivision 6.<br/>
<a id="pl.9.33"></a><var>9.33</var>(7) (b) The advisory council shall perform other duties as directed by the <br/>
<a id="pl.9.34"></a><var>9.34</var>commissioner.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.14.0"></a><a id="pl.10.1"></a><var>10.1</var>    Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144A.482, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.10.2"></a><var>10.2</var><b>144A.482 REGISTRATION OF HOME MANAGEMENT PROVIDERS.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.10.3"></a><var>10.3</var>(a) For purposes of this section, a home management provider is a person or <br/>
<a id="pl.10.4"></a><var>10.4</var>organization that provides at least two of the following services: housekeeping, meal <br/>
<a id="pl.10.5"></a><var>10.5</var>preparation, and shopping to a person who is unable to perform these activities due to <br/>
<a id="pl.10.6"></a><var>10.6</var>illness, disability, or physical condition.<br/>
<a id="pl.10.7"></a><var>10.7</var>(b) A person or organization that provides only home management services may not <br/>
<a id="pl.10.8"></a><var>10.8</var>operate in the state without a current certificate of registration issued by the commissioner <br/>
<a id="pl.10.9"></a><var>10.9</var>of health. To obtain a certificate of registration, the person or organization must annually <br/>
<a id="pl.10.10"></a><var>10.10</var>submit to the commissioner the name, mailing and physical addresses, e-mail address, and <br/>
<a id="pl.10.11"></a><var>10.11</var>telephone number of the person or organization and a signed statement declaring that the <br/>
<a id="pl.10.12"></a><var>10.12</var>person or organization is aware that the home care bill of rights applies to their clients and <br/>
<a id="pl.10.13"></a><var>10.13</var>that the person or organization will comply with the home care bill of rights provisions <br/>
<a id="pl.10.14"></a><var>10.14</var>contained in section 
         <statute_ref>144A.44</statute_ref>. A person or organization applying for a certificate must <br/>
<a id="pl.10.15"></a><var>10.15</var>also provide the name, business address, and telephone number of each of the persons <br/>
<a id="pl.10.16"></a><var>10.16</var>responsible for the management or direction of the organization.<br/>
<a id="pl.10.17"></a><var>10.17</var>(c) The commissioner shall charge an annual registration fee of $20 for persons and <br/>
<a id="pl.10.18"></a><var>10.18</var>$50 for organizations. The registration fee shall be deposited in the state treasury and <br/>
<a id="pl.10.19"></a><var>10.19</var>credited to the state government special revenue fund.<br/>
<a id="pl.10.20"></a><var>10.20</var>(d) A home care provider that provides home management services and other home <br/>
<a id="pl.10.21"></a><var>10.21</var>care services must be licensed, but licensure requirements other than the home care bill of <br/>
<a id="pl.10.22"></a><var>10.22</var>rights do not apply to those employees or volunteers who provide only home management <br/>
<a id="pl.10.23"></a><var>10.23</var>services to clients who do not receive any other home care services from the provider. <br/>
<a id="pl.10.24"></a><var>10.24</var>A licensed home care provider need not be registered as a home management service <br/>
<a id="pl.10.25"></a><var>10.25</var>provider but must provide an orientation on the home care bill of rights to its employees <br/>
<a id="pl.10.26"></a><var>10.26</var>or volunteers who provide home management services.<br/>
<a id="pl.10.27"></a><var>10.27</var>(e) An individual who provides home management services under this section must, <br/>
<a id="pl.10.28"></a><var>10.28</var>within 120 days after beginning to provide services, attend an orientation session approved <br/>
<a id="pl.10.29"></a><var>10.29</var>by the commissioner that provides training on the home care bill of rights and an orientation <br/>
<a id="pl.10.30"></a><var>10.30</var>on the aging process and the needs and concerns of elderly and disabled persons.<br/>
<a id="pl.10.31"></a><var>10.31</var>(f) The commissioner may suspend or revoke a provider's certificate of registration <br/>
<a id="pl.10.32"></a><var>10.32</var>or assess fines for violation of the home care bill of rights. Any fine assessed for a <br/>
<a id="pl.10.33"></a><var>10.33</var>violation of the home care bill of rights by a provider registered under this section shall be <br/>
<a id="pl.10.34"></a><var>10.34</var>in the amount established in the licensure rules for home care providers. As a condition <br/>
<a id="pl.10.35"></a><var>10.35</var>of registration, a provider must cooperate fully with any investigation conducted by the <br/>
<a id="pl.10.36"></a><var>10.36</var>commissioner, including providing specific information requested by the commissioner on <br/>
<a id="pl.11.1"></a><var>11.1</var>clients served and the employees and volunteers who provide services. Fines collected <br/>
<a id="pl.11.2"></a><var>11.2</var>under this paragraph shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the fund <br/>
<a id="pl.11.3"></a><var>11.3</var>specified in the statute or rule in which the penalty was established.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.4"></a><var>11.4</var>(g) The commissioner may use any of the powers granted in sections 
         <statute_ref>144A.43</statute_ref> to <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.11.5"></a><var>11.5</var>144A.4798
         </statute_ref> to administer the registration system and enforce the home care bill of rights <br/>
<a id="pl.11.6"></a><var>11.6</var>under this section.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.15.0"></a><a id="pl.11.7"></a><var>11.7</var>    Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144D.01, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.11.8"></a><var>11.8</var>    Subd. 2a. <b>Arranged home care provider.</b> "Arranged home care provider" means <br/>
<a id="pl.11.9"></a><var>11.9</var>a home care provider licensed under Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668, chapter 144A that <br/>
<a id="pl.11.10"></a><var>11.10</var>provides services to some or all of the residents of a housing with services establishment <br/>
<a id="pl.11.11"></a><var>11.11</var>and that is either the establishment itself or another entity with which the establishment <br/>
<a id="pl.11.12"></a><var>11.12</var>has an arrangement.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.16.0"></a><a id="pl.11.13"></a><var>11.13</var>    Sec. 16. <b>[144D.12] HOME CARE AND HOUSING SERVICES ELECTRONIC </b><br/>
<a id="pl.11.14"></a><var>11.14</var><b>MONITORING.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.11.15"></a><var>11.15</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Definitions.</b> (a) The definitions in this subdivision apply to this <br/>
<a id="pl.11.16"></a><var>11.16</var>section.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.17"></a><var>11.17</var>(b) "Electronic monitoring device" means a video or audio broadcasting or recording <br/>
<a id="pl.11.18"></a><var>11.18</var>device that broadcasts or records activity or sounds occurring in a residence.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.19"></a><var>11.19</var>(c) "Home care provider" has the meaning given in section 144A.43, subdivision 4.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.20"></a><var>11.20</var>(d) "Housing with services establishment" has the meaning given in section <br/>
<a id="pl.11.21"></a><var>11.21</var>144D.01, subdivision 4, and includes an establishment providing assisted living services <br/>
<a id="pl.11.22"></a><var>11.22</var>under chapter 144G.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.23"></a><var>11.23</var>(e) "Legal representative" means a court-appointed guardian or individual with <br/>
<a id="pl.11.24"></a><var>11.24</var>current legal authority to make decisions about health services for a resident under a <br/>
<a id="pl.11.25"></a><var>11.25</var>health care directive or power of attorney.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.26"></a><var>11.26</var>(f) "Resident" means an individual receiving home care services from a home care <br/>
<a id="pl.11.27"></a><var>11.27</var>provider or health-related, supportive, or assisted living services from a housing with <br/>
<a id="pl.11.28"></a><var>11.28</var>services establishment. Resident includes a legal representative of a resident.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.29"></a><var>11.29</var>(g) "Residential care or services provider" or "provider" means a home care provider <br/>
<a id="pl.11.30"></a><var>11.30</var>or housing with services establishment.<br/>
<a id="pl.11.31"></a><var>11.31</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Electronic monitoring must be permitted.</b> A residential care or services <br/>
<a id="pl.11.32"></a><var>11.32</var>provider must allow a resident to install or use an electronic monitoring device that may <br/>
<a id="pl.11.33"></a><var>11.33</var>broadcast or record care or services given to the resident by the provider and that occur <br/>
<a id="pl.11.34"></a><var>11.34</var>within the private home, room, or unit of the resident in which the resident does not share <br/>
<a id="pl.12.1"></a><var>12.1</var>a home, room, or unit with another resident who does not consent to the installation or use <br/>
<a id="pl.12.2"></a><var>12.2</var>of an electronic monitoring device. The resident may elect whether to install the device in <br/>
<a id="pl.12.3"></a><var>12.3</var>plain view or in a manner where it is partially or fully hidden.<br/>
<a id="pl.12.4"></a><var>12.4</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Resident protections.</b> (a) A residential care or services provider must not:<br/>
<a id="pl.12.5"></a><var>12.5</var>(1) refuse to provide care or services to a potential resident, or change the terms of <br/>
<a id="pl.12.6"></a><var>12.6</var>or terminate care or services to a resident, based on the installation or use of an electronic <br/>
<a id="pl.12.7"></a><var>12.7</var>monitoring device as provided for under subdivision 2; or<br/>
<a id="pl.12.8"></a><var>12.8</var>(2) prevent or interfere with the permissible installation or use of an electronic <br/>
<a id="pl.12.9"></a><var>12.9</var>monitoring device by a resident as provided for under subdivision 2.<br/>
<a id="pl.12.10"></a><var>12.10</var>(b) A residential care or services provider must not require a resident to install or use <br/>
<a id="pl.12.11"></a><var>12.11</var>an electronic monitoring device or otherwise install or use an electronic monitoring device <br/>
<a id="pl.12.12"></a><var>12.12</var>in the private home, room, or unit of the resident without the written consent of the resident.<br/>
<a id="pl.12.13"></a><var>12.13</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Cost and installation.</b> (a) A resident who conducts electronic monitoring <br/>
<a id="pl.12.14"></a><var>12.14</var>must do so at the resident's own expense, including paying purchase, installation, <br/>
<a id="pl.12.15"></a><var>12.15</var>maintenance, and removal costs.<br/>
<a id="pl.12.16"></a><var>12.16</var>(b) If a resident installs an electronic monitoring device as provided for under <br/>
<a id="pl.12.17"></a><var>12.17</var>subdivision 2 that uses Internet technology for visual or audio monitoring, the resident <br/>
<a id="pl.12.18"></a><var>12.18</var>is responsible for contracting with an Internet service provider. A housing with services <br/>
<a id="pl.12.19"></a><var>12.19</var>establishment must make a reasonable attempt to accommodate the resident's installation <br/>
<a id="pl.12.20"></a><var>12.20</var>needs, including allowing access to the establishment's telecommunications or equipment <br/>
<a id="pl.12.21"></a><var>12.21</var>room. An establishment must not charge the resident a fee for the cost of electricity used by <br/>
<a id="pl.12.22"></a><var>12.22</var>an electronic monitoring device. Electronic monitoring device installations and supporting <br/>
<a id="pl.12.23"></a><var>12.23</var>services in a housing with services establishment must comply with the requirements of <br/>
<a id="pl.12.24"></a><var>12.24</var>the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 101 Life Safety Code (2015 edition).<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.17.0"></a><a id="pl.12.25"></a><var>12.25</var>    Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144G.03, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.12.26"></a><var>12.26</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Minimum requirements for assisted living.</b> (a) Assisted living shall <br/>
<a id="pl.12.27"></a><var>12.27</var>be provided or made available only to individuals residing in a registered housing with <br/>
<a id="pl.12.28"></a><var>12.28</var>services establishment. Except as expressly stated in this chapter, a person or entity <br/>
<a id="pl.12.29"></a><var>12.29</var>offering assisted living may define the available services and may offer assisted living to <br/>
<a id="pl.12.30"></a><var>12.30</var>all or some of the residents of a housing with services establishment. The services that <br/>
<a id="pl.12.31"></a><var>12.31</var>comprise assisted living may be provided or made available directly by a housing with <br/>
<a id="pl.12.32"></a><var>12.32</var>services establishment or by persons or entities with which the housing with services <br/>
<a id="pl.12.33"></a><var>12.33</var>establishment has made arrangements.<br/>
<a id="pl.12.34"></a><var>12.34</var>(b) A person or entity entitled to use the phrase "assisted living," according to <br/>
<a id="pl.12.35"></a><var>12.35</var>section 
         <statute_ref>144G.02</statute_ref>, subdivision 1, shall do so only with respect to a housing with services <br/>
<a id="pl.13.1"></a><var>13.1</var>establishment, or a service, service package, or program available within a housing with <br/>
<a id="pl.13.2"></a><var>13.2</var>services establishment that, at a minimum:<br/>
<a id="pl.13.3"></a><var>13.3</var>(1) provides or makes available health-related services under a class A or class F <br/>
<a id="pl.13.4"></a><var>13.4</var>home care license. At a minimum, health-related services must include:<br/>
<a id="pl.13.5"></a><var>13.5</var>(i) assistance with self-administration of medication, as defined in Minnesota Rules, <br/>
<a id="pl.13.6"></a><var>13.6</var>part 4668.0003, subpart 2a, medication management, or medication administration as <br/>
<a id="pl.13.7"></a><var>13.7</var>defined in Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0003, subpart 21a in section 144A.43; and<br/>
<a id="pl.13.8"></a><var>13.8</var>(ii) assistance with at least three of the following seven activities of daily living: <br/>
<a id="pl.13.9"></a><var>13.9</var>bathing, dressing, grooming, eating, transferring, continence care, and toileting.<br/>
<a id="pl.13.10"></a><var>13.10</var>All health-related services shall be provided in a manner that complies with applicable <br/>
<a id="pl.13.11"></a><var>13.11</var>home care licensure requirements in chapter 144A, and sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref>, and <br/>
<a id="pl.13.12"></a><var>13.12</var>Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.13"></a><var>13.13</var>(2) provides necessary assessments of the physical and cognitive needs of assisted <br/>
<a id="pl.13.14"></a><var>13.14</var>living clients by a registered nurse, as required by applicable home care licensure <br/>
<a id="pl.13.15"></a><var>13.15</var>requirements in chapter 144A, and sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref>, and Minnesota Rules, <br/>
<a id="pl.13.16"></a><var>13.16</var>chapter 4668;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.17"></a><var>13.17</var>(3) has and maintains a system for delegation of health care activities to unlicensed <br/>
<a id="pl.13.18"></a><var>13.18</var>assistive health care personnel by a registered nurse, including supervision and evaluation <br/>
<a id="pl.13.19"></a><var>13.19</var>of the delegated activities as required by applicable home care licensure requirements in <br/>
<a id="pl.13.20"></a><var>13.20</var>chapter 144A, and sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref>, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4668;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.21"></a><var>13.21</var>(4) provides staff access to an on-call registered nurse 24 hours per day, seven <br/>
<a id="pl.13.22"></a><var>13.22</var>days per week;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.23"></a><var>13.23</var>(5) has and maintains a system to check on each assisted living client at least daily;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.24"></a><var>13.24</var>(6) provides a means for assisted living clients to request assistance for health and <br/>
<a id="pl.13.25"></a><var>13.25</var>safety needs 24 hours per day, seven days per week, from the establishment or a person or <br/>
<a id="pl.13.26"></a><var>13.26</var>entity with which the establishment has made arrangements;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.27"></a><var>13.27</var>(7) has a person or persons available 24 hours per day, seven days per week, who <br/>
<a id="pl.13.28"></a><var>13.28</var>is responsible for responding to the requests of assisted living clients for assistance with <br/>
<a id="pl.13.29"></a><var>13.29</var>health or safety needs, who shall be:<br/>
<a id="pl.13.30"></a><var>13.30</var>(i) awake;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.31"></a><var>13.31</var>(ii) located in the same building, in an attached building, or on a contiguous campus <br/>
<a id="pl.13.32"></a><var>13.32</var>with the housing with services establishment in order to respond within a reasonable <br/>
<a id="pl.13.33"></a><var>13.33</var>amount of time;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.34"></a><var>13.34</var>(iii) capable of communicating with assisted living clients;<br/>
<a id="pl.13.35"></a><var>13.35</var>(iv) capable of recognizing the need for assistance;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.1"></a><var>14.1</var>(v) capable of providing either the assistance required or summoning the appropriate <br/>
<a id="pl.14.2"></a><var>14.2</var>assistance; and<br/>
<a id="pl.14.3"></a><var>14.3</var>(vi) capable of following directions;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.4"></a><var>14.4</var>(8) offers to provide or make available at least the following supportive services <br/>
<a id="pl.14.5"></a><var>14.5</var>to assisted living clients:<br/>
<a id="pl.14.6"></a><var>14.6</var>(i) two meals per day;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.7"></a><var>14.7</var>(ii) weekly housekeeping;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.8"></a><var>14.8</var>(iii) weekly laundry service;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.9"></a><var>14.9</var>(iv) upon the request of the client, reasonable assistance with arranging for <br/>
<a id="pl.14.10"></a><var>14.10</var>transportation to medical and social services appointments, and the name of or other <br/>
<a id="pl.14.11"></a><var>14.11</var>identifying information about the person or persons responsible for providing this <br/>
<a id="pl.14.12"></a><var>14.12</var>assistance;<br/>
<a id="pl.14.13"></a><var>14.13</var>(v) upon the request of the client, reasonable assistance with accessing community <br/>
<a id="pl.14.14"></a><var>14.14</var>resources and social services available in the community, and the name of or other <br/>
<a id="pl.14.15"></a><var>14.15</var>identifying information about the person or persons responsible for providing this <br/>
<a id="pl.14.16"></a><var>14.16</var>assistance; and<br/>
<a id="pl.14.17"></a><var>14.17</var>(vi) periodic opportunities for socialization; and<br/>
<a id="pl.14.18"></a><var>14.18</var>(9) makes available to all prospective and current assisted living clients information <br/>
<a id="pl.14.19"></a><var>14.19</var>consistent with the uniform format and the required components adopted by the <br/>
<a id="pl.14.20"></a><var>14.20</var>commissioner under section 
         <statute_ref>144G.06</statute_ref>. This information must be made available beginning <br/>
<a id="pl.14.21"></a><var>14.21</var>no later than six months after the commissioner makes the uniform format and required <br/>
<a id="pl.14.22"></a><var>14.22</var>components available to providers according to section 
         <statute_ref>144G.06</statute_ref>.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.18.0"></a><a id="pl.14.23"></a><var>14.23</var>    Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 144G.03, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.14.24"></a><var>14.24</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Nursing assessment.</b> (a) A housing with services establishment offering or <br/>
<a id="pl.14.25"></a><var>14.25</var>providing assisted living shall:<br/>
<a id="pl.14.26"></a><var>14.26</var>(1) offer to have the arranged home care provider conduct a nursing assessment by <br/>
<a id="pl.14.27"></a><var>14.27</var>a registered nurse of the physical and cognitive needs of the prospective resident and <br/>
<a id="pl.14.28"></a><var>14.28</var>propose a service agreement or service plan prior to the date on which a prospective <br/>
<a id="pl.14.29"></a><var>14.29</var>resident executes a contract with a housing with services establishment or the date on <br/>
<a id="pl.14.30"></a><var>14.30</var>which a prospective resident moves in, whichever is earlier; and<br/>
<a id="pl.14.31"></a><var>14.31</var>(2) inform the prospective resident of the availability of and contact information for <br/>
<a id="pl.14.32"></a><var>14.32</var>long-term care consultation services under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0911</statute_ref>, prior to the date on which a <br/>
<a id="pl.14.33"></a><var>14.33</var>prospective resident executes a contract with a housing with services establishment or the <br/>
<a id="pl.14.34"></a><var>14.34</var>date on which a prospective resident moves in, whichever is earlier.<br/>
<a id="pl.15.1"></a><var>15.1</var>(b) An arranged home care provider is not obligated to conduct a nursing assessment <br/>
<a id="pl.15.2"></a><var>15.2</var>by a registered nurse when requested by a prospective resident if either the geographic <br/>
<a id="pl.15.3"></a><var>15.3</var>distance between the prospective resident and the provider, or urgent or unexpected <br/>
<a id="pl.15.4"></a><var>15.4</var>circumstances, do not permit the assessment to be conducted prior to the date on which <br/>
<a id="pl.15.5"></a><var>15.5</var>the prospective resident executes a contract or moves in, whichever is earlier. When such <br/>
<a id="pl.15.6"></a><var>15.6</var>circumstances occur, the arranged home care provider shall offer to conduct a telephone <br/>
<a id="pl.15.7"></a><var>15.7</var>conference whenever reasonably possible.<br/>
<a id="pl.15.8"></a><var>15.8</var>(c) The arranged home care provider shall comply with applicable home care <br/>
<a id="pl.15.9"></a><var>15.9</var>licensure requirements in chapter 144A, and sections 
         <statute_ref>148.171</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>148.285</statute_ref>, and Minnesota <br/>
<a id="pl.15.10"></a><var>15.10</var>Rules, chapter 4668, with respect to the provision of a nursing assessment prior to the <br/>
<a id="pl.15.11"></a><var>15.11</var>delivery of nursing services and the execution of a home care service plan or service <br/>
<a id="pl.15.12"></a><var>15.12</var>agreement.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.19.0"></a><a id="pl.15.13"></a><var>15.13</var>    Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.01, subdivision 28, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.15.14"></a><var>15.14</var>    Subd. 28. <b>Supervision.</b> "Supervision" means the physical presence of a technician <br/>
<a id="pl.15.15"></a><var>15.15</var>licensed under this chapter while a body art procedure is being performed and includes:<br/>
<a id="pl.15.16"></a><var>15.16</var>(1) "direct supervision" where a licensed technician is physically present in the <br/>
<a id="pl.15.17"></a><var>15.17</var>establishment, and is within five feet and is in the line of sight of the temporary licensee <br/>
<a id="pl.15.18"></a><var>15.18</var>who is performing a body art procedure while the procedure is being performed; and<br/>
<a id="pl.15.19"></a><var>15.19</var>(2) "indirect supervision" where a licensed technician is physically present in the <br/>
<a id="pl.15.20"></a><var>15.20</var>establishment while a body art procedure is being performed by the temporary licensee.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.20.0"></a><a id="pl.15.21"></a><var>15.21</var>    Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.03, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.15.22"></a><var>15.22</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Licensure requirements.</b> (a) An applicant for licensure under this section <br/>
<a id="pl.15.23"></a><var>15.23</var>shall must submit to the commissioner on a form provided by the commissioner:<br/>
<a id="pl.15.24"></a><var>15.24</var>(1) proof that the applicant is over the age of 18;<br/>
<a id="pl.15.25"></a><var>15.25</var>    (2) the type of license the applicant is applying for;<br/>
<a id="pl.15.26"></a><var>15.26</var>(3) all fees required under section 
         <statute_ref>146B.10</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.15.27"></a><var>15.27</var>(4) proof of completing a minimum of 200 hours of supervised experience within <br/>
<a id="pl.15.28"></a><var>15.28</var>each area for which the applicant is seeking a license, and must include an affidavit from <br/>
<a id="pl.15.29"></a><var>15.29</var>the supervising licensed technician;<br/>
<a id="pl.15.30"></a><var>15.30</var>(5) proof of having satisfactorily completed coursework within the year preceding <br/>
<a id="pl.15.31"></a><var>15.31</var>application and approved by the commissioner on bloodborne pathogens, the prevention <br/>
<a id="pl.15.32"></a><var>15.32</var>of disease transmission, infection control, and aseptic technique. Courses to be considered <br/>
<a id="pl.15.33"></a><var>15.33</var>for approval by the commissioner may include, but are not limited to, those administered <br/>
<a id="pl.15.34"></a><var>15.34</var>by one of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.16.1"></a><var>16.1</var>(i) the American Red Cross;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.2"></a><var>16.2</var>(ii) United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA); or<br/>
<a id="pl.16.3"></a><var>16.3</var>(iii) the Alliance of Professional Tattooists; and<br/>
<a id="pl.16.4"></a><var>16.4</var>(6) any other relevant information requested by the commissioner.<br/>
<a id="pl.16.5"></a><var>16.5</var>The licensure requirements in this paragraph are effective for all applications for <br/>
<a id="pl.16.6"></a><var>16.6</var>new licenses received before January 1, 2017.<br/>
<a id="pl.16.7"></a><var>16.7</var>(b) An applicant for licensure under this section must submit to the commissioner <br/>
<a id="pl.16.8"></a><var>16.8</var>on a form provided by the commissioner:<br/>
<a id="pl.16.9"></a><var>16.9</var>(1) proof that the applicant is over the age of 18;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.10"></a><var>16.10</var>(2) the type of license the applicant is applying for;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.11"></a><var>16.11</var>(3) all fees required under section 146B.10;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.12"></a><var>16.12</var>(4) a log showing the completion of the required supervised experience described <br/>
<a id="pl.16.13"></a><var>16.13</var>under subdivision 12 that includes a list of each licensed technician who provided the <br/>
<a id="pl.16.14"></a><var>16.14</var>required supervision;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.15"></a><var>16.15</var>(5) a signed affidavit from each licensed technician who the applicant listed in <br/>
<a id="pl.16.16"></a><var>16.16</var>the log described in clause (4);<br/>
<a id="pl.16.17"></a><var>16.17</var>(6) proof of having satisfactorily completed a minimum of five hours of coursework, <br/>
<a id="pl.16.18"></a><var>16.18</var>within the year preceding application and approval by the commissioner, on bloodborne <br/>
<a id="pl.16.19"></a><var>16.19</var>pathogens, the prevention of disease transmission, infection control, and aseptic technique. <br/>
<a id="pl.16.20"></a><var>16.20</var>Courses to be considered for approval by the commissioner may include, but are not <br/>
<a id="pl.16.21"></a><var>16.21</var>limited to, those administered by one of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.16.22"></a><var>16.22</var>(i) the American Red Cross;<br/>
<a id="pl.16.23"></a><var>16.23</var>(ii) the United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA); or<br/>
<a id="pl.16.24"></a><var>16.24</var>(iii) the Alliance of Professional Tattooists; and<br/>
<a id="pl.16.25"></a><var>16.25</var>(7) any other relevant information requested by the commissioner.<br/>
<a id="pl.16.26"></a><var>16.26</var>The licensure requirements in this paragraph are effective for all applications for <br/>
<a id="pl.16.27"></a><var>16.27</var>new licenses received on or after January 1, 2017.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.21.0"></a><a id="pl.16.28"></a><var>16.28</var>    Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.03, subdivision 6, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.16.29"></a><var>16.29</var>    Subd. 6. <b>Licensure term; renewal.</b> (a) A technician's license is valid for two <br/>
<a id="pl.16.30"></a><var>16.30</var>years from the date of issuance and may be renewed upon payment of the renewal fee <br/>
<a id="pl.16.31"></a><var>16.31</var>established under section 
         <statute_ref>146B.10</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.16.32"></a><var>16.32</var>(b) At renewal, a licensee must submit proof of continuing education approved by <br/>
<a id="pl.16.33"></a><var>16.33</var>the commissioner in the areas identified in subdivision 4, clause (5).<br/>
<a id="pl.16.34"></a><var>16.34</var>(c) The commissioner shall notify the technician of the pending expiration of a <br/>
<a id="pl.16.35"></a><var>16.35</var>technician license at least 60 days prior to license expiration.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.22.0"></a><a id="pl.17.1"></a><var>17.1</var>    Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.03, subdivision 7, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.2"></a><var>17.2</var>    Subd. 7. <b>Temporary licensure.</b> (a) The commissioner may issue a temporary license <br/>
<a id="pl.17.3"></a><var>17.3</var>to an applicant who submits to the commissioner on a form provided by the commissioner:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.4"></a><var>17.4</var>(1) proof that the applicant is over the age of 18;<br/>
<a id="pl.17.5"></a><var>17.5</var>(2) all fees required under section 
         <statute_ref>148B.10</statute_ref>; and<br/>
<a id="pl.17.6"></a><var>17.6</var>(3) a letter from a licensed technician who has agreed to provide the supervision to <br/>
<a id="pl.17.7"></a><var>17.7</var>meet the supervised experience requirement under subdivision 4, clause (4).<br/>
<a id="pl.17.8"></a><var>17.8</var>(b) Upon completion of the required supervised experience, the temporary <br/>
<a id="pl.17.9"></a><var>17.9</var>licensee shall submit documentation of satisfactorily completing the requirements under <br/>
<a id="pl.17.10"></a><var>17.10</var>subdivision 4, clauses (3) and (4), and the applicable fee under section 
         <statute_ref>146B.10</statute_ref>. The <br/>
<a id="pl.17.11"></a><var>17.11</var>commissioner shall issue a new license in accordance with subdivision 4.<br/>
<a id="pl.17.12"></a><var>17.12</var>(c) A temporary license issued under this subdivision is valid for one year and <br/>
<a id="pl.17.13"></a><var>17.13</var>may be renewed for one additional year.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.23.0"></a><a id="pl.17.14"></a><var>17.14</var>    Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.03, is amended by adding a <br/>
<a id="pl.17.15"></a><var>17.15</var>subdivision to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.16"></a><var>17.16</var>    Subd. 12. <b>Required supervised experience.</b> An applicant for a body art technician <br/>
<a id="pl.17.17"></a><var>17.17</var>license must complete the following minimum supervised experience for licensure:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.18"></a><var>17.18</var>(1) for a tattoo technician license an applicant must complete a minimum of 200 <br/>
<a id="pl.17.19"></a><var>17.19</var>hours of tattoo experience under supervision;<br/>
<a id="pl.17.20"></a><var>17.20</var>(2) for a body piercing technician license an applicant must perform 250 body <br/>
<a id="pl.17.21"></a><var>17.21</var>piercings under direct supervision and 250 body piercings under indirect supervision; and<br/>
<a id="pl.17.22"></a><var>17.22</var>(3) for a dual body art technician license an applicant must complete a minimum of <br/>
<a id="pl.17.23"></a><var>17.23</var>200 hours of tattoo experience under supervision and perform 250 body piercings under <br/>
<a id="pl.17.24"></a><var>17.24</var>direct supervision and 250 body piercings under indirect supervision.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.24.0"></a><a id="pl.17.25"></a><var>17.25</var>    Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.07, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.26"></a><var>17.26</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Proof of age.</b> (a) A technician shall require proof of age from clients <br/>
<a id="pl.17.27"></a><var>17.27</var>who state they are 18 years of age or older before performing any body art procedure on a <br/>
<a id="pl.17.28"></a><var>17.28</var>client. Proof of age must be established by one of the following methods:<br/>
<a id="pl.17.29"></a><var>17.29</var>(1) a valid driver's license or identification card issued by the state of Minnesota or <br/>
<a id="pl.17.30"></a><var>17.30</var>another state that includes a photograph and date of birth of the individual;<br/>
<a id="pl.17.31"></a><var>17.31</var>(2) a valid military identification card issued by the United States Department of <br/>
<a id="pl.17.32"></a><var>17.32</var>Defense;<br/>
<a id="pl.17.33"></a><var>17.33</var>(3) a valid passport;<br/>
<a id="pl.17.34"></a><var>17.34</var>(4) a resident alien card; or<br/>
<a id="pl.18.1"></a><var>18.1</var>(5) a tribal identification card.<br/>
<a id="pl.18.2"></a><var>18.2</var>(b) Before performing any body art procedure, the technician must provide the client <br/>
<a id="pl.18.3"></a><var>18.3</var>with a disclosure and authorization form that indicates whether the client has:<br/>
<a id="pl.18.4"></a><var>18.4</var>(1) diabetes;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.5"></a><var>18.5</var>(2) a history of hemophilia;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.6"></a><var>18.6</var>(3) a history of skin diseases, skin lesions, or skin sensitivities to soap or disinfectants;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.7"></a><var>18.7</var>(4) a history of epilepsy, seizures, fainting, or narcolepsy;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.8"></a><var>18.8</var>(5) any condition that requires the client to take medications such as anticoagulants <br/>
<a id="pl.18.9"></a><var>18.9</var>that thin the blood or interfere with blood clotting; or<br/>
<a id="pl.18.10"></a><var>18.10</var>(6) any other information that would aid the technician in the body art procedure <br/>
<a id="pl.18.11"></a><var>18.11</var>process evaluation.<br/>
<a id="pl.18.12"></a><var>18.12</var>(c) The form must include a statement informing the client that the technician shall <br/>
<a id="pl.18.13"></a><var>18.13</var>not perform a body art procedure if the client fails to complete or sign the disclosure and <br/>
<a id="pl.18.14"></a><var>18.14</var>authorization form, and the technician may decline to perform a body art procedure if the <br/>
<a id="pl.18.15"></a><var>18.15</var>client has any identified health conditions.<br/>
<a id="pl.18.16"></a><var>18.16</var>    (d) The technician shall ask the client to sign and date the disclosure and <br/>
<a id="pl.18.17"></a><var>18.17</var>authorization form confirming that the information listed on the form is accurate.<br/>
<a id="pl.18.18"></a><var>18.18</var>(e) Before performing any body art procedure, the technician shall offer and make <br/>
<a id="pl.18.19"></a><var>18.19</var>available to the client personal draping, as appropriate.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.25.0"></a><a id="pl.18.20"></a><var>18.20</var>    Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 146B.07, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.18.21"></a><var>18.21</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Parent or legal guardian consent; prohibitions.</b> (a) A technician may <br/>
<a id="pl.18.22"></a><var>18.22</var>perform body piercings on an individual under the age of 18 if:<br/>
<a id="pl.18.23"></a><var>18.23</var>    (1)  the individual's parent or legal guardian is present and;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.24"></a><var>18.24</var>    (2) the individual's parent or legal guardian provides personal identification by <br/>
<a id="pl.18.25"></a><var>18.25</var>using one of the methods described in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (5), and <br/>
<a id="pl.18.26"></a><var>18.26</var>provides documentation that reasonably establishes that the individual is the parent or <br/>
<a id="pl.18.27"></a><var>18.27</var>legal guardian of the individual who is seeking the body piercing;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.28"></a><var>18.28</var>    (3) the individual seeking the body piercing provides proof of identification by <br/>
<a id="pl.18.29"></a><var>18.29</var>using one of the methods described in subdivision 1, paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (5), <br/>
<a id="pl.18.30"></a><var>18.30</var>a current student identification, or another official source that includes the name and <br/>
<a id="pl.18.31"></a><var>18.31</var>a photograph of the individual;<br/>
<a id="pl.18.32"></a><var>18.32</var>    (4)  a consent form and the authorization form under subdivision 1, paragraph (b) is <br/>
<a id="pl.18.33"></a><var>18.33</var>signed by the parent or legal guardian in the presence of the technician,; and<br/>
<a id="pl.18.34"></a><var>18.34</var>    (5) the piercing is not prohibited under paragraph (c).<br/>
<a id="pl.19.1"></a><var>19.1</var>    (b) No technician shall tattoo any individual under the age of 18 regardless of <br/>
<a id="pl.19.2"></a><var>19.2</var>parental or guardian consent.<br/>
<a id="pl.19.3"></a><var>19.3</var>    (c) No nipple or genital piercing, branding, scarification, suspension, subdermal <br/>
<a id="pl.19.4"></a><var>19.4</var>implantation, microdermal, or tongue bifurcation shall be performed by any technician on <br/>
<a id="pl.19.5"></a><var>19.5</var>any individual under the age of 18 regardless of parental or guardian consent.<br/>
<a id="pl.19.6"></a><var>19.6</var>    (d) No technician shall perform body art procedures on any individual who appears <br/>
<a id="pl.19.7"></a><var>19.7</var>to be under the influence of alcohol, controlled substances as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>152.01</statute_ref>, <br/>
<a id="pl.19.8"></a><var>19.8</var>subdivision 4, or hazardous substances as defined in rules adopted under chapter 182.<br/>
<a id="pl.19.9"></a><var>19.9</var>    (e) No technician shall perform body art procedures while under the influence of <br/>
<a id="pl.19.10"></a><var>19.10</var>alcohol, controlled substances as defined under section 
         <statute_ref>152.01, subdivision 4</statute_ref>, or hazardous <br/>
<a id="pl.19.11"></a><var>19.11</var>substances as defined in the rules adopted under chapter 182.<br/>
<a id="pl.19.12"></a><var>19.12</var>    (f) No technician shall administer anesthetic injections or other medications.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.26.0"></a><a id="pl.19.13"></a><var>19.13</var>    Sec. 26. <b>[147.0375] MEDICAL FACULTY LICENSE.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.19.14"></a><var>19.14</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Requirements.</b> The board shall issue a license to practice medicine <br/>
<a id="pl.19.15"></a><var>19.15</var>to any person who satisfies the requirements in paragraphs (a) to (g).<br/>
<a id="pl.19.16"></a><var>19.16</var>    (a) The applicant must satisfy all the requirements established in section 
<statute_ref>147.02, <br/>
<a id="pl.19.17"></a><var>19.17</var>subdivision 1
</statute_ref>, paragraphs (a), (e), (f), (g), and (h).<br/>
<a id="pl.19.18"></a><var>19.18</var>    (b) The applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant <br/>
<a id="pl.19.19"></a><var>19.19</var>is a graduate of a medical or osteopathic school approved by the board as equivalent <br/>
<a id="pl.19.20"></a><var>19.20</var>to accredited United States or Canadian schools based upon its faculty, curriculum, <br/>
<a id="pl.19.21"></a><var>19.21</var>facilities, accreditation, or other relevant data. If the applicant is a graduate of a medical or <br/>
<a id="pl.19.22"></a><var>19.22</var>osteopathic program that is not accredited by the Liaison Committee for Medical Education <br/>
<a id="pl.19.23"></a><var>19.23</var>or the American Osteopathic Association, the applicant may use the Federation of State <br/>
<a id="pl.19.24"></a><var>19.24</var>Medical Boards' Federation Credentials Verification Service (FCVS) or its successor. If <br/>
<a id="pl.19.25"></a><var>19.25</var>the applicant uses this service as allowed under this paragraph, the physician application <br/>
<a id="pl.19.26"></a><var>19.26</var>fee may be less than $200 but must not exceed the cost of administering this paragraph.<br/>
<a id="pl.19.27"></a><var>19.27</var>    (c) The applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the board of the completion <br/>
<a id="pl.19.28"></a><var>19.28</var>of two years of graduate, clinical medical training in a program located in the United <br/>
<a id="pl.19.29"></a><var>19.29</var>States, its territories, or Canada and accredited by a national accrediting organization <br/>
<a id="pl.19.30"></a><var>19.30</var>approved by the board. This requirement does not apply:<br/>
<a id="pl.19.31"></a><var>19.31</var>    (1) to an applicant who is admitted as a permanent immigrant to the United States on <br/>
<a id="pl.19.32"></a><var>19.32</var>or before October 1, 1991, as a person of exceptional ability in the sciences according to <br/>
<a id="pl.19.33"></a><var>19.33</var>Code of Federal Regulations, title 20, section 656.22(d);<br/>
<a id="pl.19.34"></a><var>19.34</var>    (2) to an applicant holding a valid license to practice medicine in another state or <br/>
<a id="pl.19.35"></a><var>19.35</var>country and issued a permanent immigrant visa after October 1, 1991, as a person of <br/>
<a id="pl.20.1"></a><var>20.1</var>extraordinary ability in the field of science or as an outstanding professor or researcher <br/>
<a id="pl.20.2"></a><var>20.2</var>according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 8, section 204.5(h) and (i), or a temporary <br/>
<a id="pl.20.3"></a><var>20.3</var>nonimmigrant visa or status as a person of extraordinary ability in the field of science <br/>
<a id="pl.20.4"></a><var>20.4</var>according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 8, section 214.2(o); or<br/>
<a id="pl.20.5"></a><var>20.5</var>    (3) to an applicant who is licensed in another state, has practiced five years without <br/>
<a id="pl.20.6"></a><var>20.6</var>disciplinary action in the United States, its territories, or Canada, has completed one year <br/>
<a id="pl.20.7"></a><var>20.7</var>of the graduate, clinical medical training required by this paragraph, and has passed the <br/>
<a id="pl.20.8"></a><var>20.8</var>Special Purpose Examination of the Federation of State Medical Boards within three <br/>
<a id="pl.20.9"></a><var>20.9</var>attempts in the 24 months before licensing.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.10"></a><var>20.10</var>    (d) The applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant <br/>
<a id="pl.20.11"></a><var>20.11</var>has been appointed to serve as a faculty member of a medical school accredited by the <br/>
<a id="pl.20.12"></a><var>20.12</var>Liaison Committee of Medical Education or an osteopathic medical school accredited <br/>
<a id="pl.20.13"></a><var>20.13</var>by the American Osteopathic Association.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.14"></a><var>20.14</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Medical school review.</b> The board may contract with any qualified person <br/>
<a id="pl.20.15"></a><var>20.15</var>or organization for the performance of a review or investigation, including site visits <br/>
<a id="pl.20.16"></a><var>20.16</var>if necessary, of any medical or osteopathic school prior to approving the school under <br/>
<a id="pl.20.17"></a><var>20.17</var>section 
<statute_ref>147.02, subdivision 1</statute_ref>, paragraph (b), or subdivision 1, paragraph (b), of this <br/>
<a id="pl.20.18"></a><var>20.18</var>section. To the extent possible, the board shall require the school being reviewed to pay <br/>
<a id="pl.20.19"></a><var>20.19</var>the costs of the review or investigation.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.20"></a><var>20.20</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Resignation or termination for the medical faculty position.</b> If a person <br/>
<a id="pl.20.21"></a><var>20.21</var>holding a license issued under this section resigns or is terminated from the academic <br/>
<a id="pl.20.22"></a><var>20.22</var>medical center in which the licensee is employed as a faculty member, the licensee <br/>
<a id="pl.20.23"></a><var>20.23</var>must notify the board in writing no later than 30 days after the date of termination or <br/>
<a id="pl.20.24"></a><var>20.24</var>resignation. Upon notification of resignation or termination, the board shall terminate <br/>
<a id="pl.20.25"></a><var>20.25</var>the medical license.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.26"></a><var>20.26</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Reporting obligation.</b> A person holding a license issued under this section <br/>
<a id="pl.20.27"></a><var>20.27</var>is subject to the reporting obligations of section 147.111.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.28"></a><var>20.28</var>    Subd. 5. <b>Limitation of practice.</b>  A person issued a license under this section may <br/>
<a id="pl.20.29"></a><var>20.29</var>only practice medicine within the clinical setting of the academic medical center where <br/>
<a id="pl.20.30"></a><var>20.30</var>the licensee is an appointed faculty member or within a physician group practice affiliated <br/>
<a id="pl.20.31"></a><var>20.31</var>with the academic medical center.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.32"></a><var>20.32</var>    Subd. 6. <b>Continuing education.</b> The licensee must meet the continuing education <br/>
<a id="pl.20.33"></a><var>20.33</var>requirements under Minnesota Rules, chapter 5605.<br/>
<a id="pl.20.34"></a><var>20.34</var>    Subd. 7. <b>Expiration.</b> This section expires July 1, 2018.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.27.0"></a><a id="pl.20.35"></a><var>20.35</var>    Sec. 27. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.22, subdivision 14, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.21.1"></a><var>21.1</var>    Subd. 14. <b>Qualifying medical condition.</b> "Qualifying medical condition" means a <br/>
<a id="pl.21.2"></a><var>21.2</var>diagnosis of any of the following conditions:<br/>
<a id="pl.21.3"></a><var>21.3</var>(1) cancer, if the underlying condition or treatment produces one or more of the <br/>
<a id="pl.21.4"></a><var>21.4</var>following:<br/>
<a id="pl.21.5"></a><var>21.5</var>(i) severe or chronic pain;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.6"></a><var>21.6</var>(ii) nausea or severe vomiting; or<br/>
<a id="pl.21.7"></a><var>21.7</var>(iii) cachexia or severe wasting;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.8"></a><var>21.8</var>(2) glaucoma;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.9"></a><var>21.9</var>(3) human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immune deficiency syndrome;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.10"></a><var>21.10</var>(4) Tourette's syndrome;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.11"></a><var>21.11</var>(5) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.12"></a><var>21.12</var>(6) seizures, including those characteristic of epilepsy;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.13"></a><var>21.13</var>(7) severe and persistent muscle spasms, including those characteristic of multiple <br/>
<a id="pl.21.14"></a><var>21.14</var>sclerosis;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.15"></a><var>21.15</var>(8) inflammatory bowel disease, including Crohn's disease;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.16"></a><var>21.16</var>(9) terminal illness, with a probable life expectancy of under one year, if the illness <br/>
<a id="pl.21.17"></a><var>21.17</var>or its treatment produces one or more of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.21.18"></a><var>21.18</var>(i) severe or chronic pain;<br/>
<a id="pl.21.19"></a><var>21.19</var>(ii) nausea or severe vomiting; or<br/>
<a id="pl.21.20"></a><var>21.20</var>(iii) cachexia or severe wasting; or<br/>
<a id="pl.21.21"></a><var>21.21</var>(10) any other medical condition or its treatment approved by the commissioner.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.28.0"></a><a id="pl.21.22"></a><var>21.22</var>    Sec. 28. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.25, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.21.23"></a><var>21.23</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Deadlines.</b> (a) The commissioner shall adopt rules necessary for the <br/>
<a id="pl.21.24"></a><var>21.24</var>manufacturer to begin distribution of medical cannabis to patients under the registry <br/>
<a id="pl.21.25"></a><var>21.25</var>program by July 1, 2015, and have notice of proposed rules published in the State Register <br/>
<a id="pl.21.26"></a><var>21.26</var>prior to January 1, 2015.<br/>
<a id="pl.21.27"></a><var>21.27</var>(b) The commissioner shall, by November 1, 2014, advise the public and the cochairs <br/>
<a id="pl.21.28"></a><var>21.28</var>of the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research established under section <br/>
<a id="pl.21.29"></a><var>21.29</var><statute_ref>152.36</statute_ref> if the commissioner is unable to register two manufacturers by the December 1, <br/>
<a id="pl.21.30"></a><var>21.30</var>2014, deadline. The commissioner shall provide a written statement as to the reason or <br/>
<a id="pl.21.31"></a><var>21.31</var>reasons the deadline will not be met. Upon request of the commissioner, the task force <br/>
<a id="pl.21.32"></a><var>21.32</var>shall extend the deadline by six months, but may not extend the deadline more than once.<br/>
<a id="pl.21.33"></a><var>21.33</var>(c) If notified by a manufacturer that distribution to patients may not begin by <br/>
<a id="pl.21.34"></a><var>21.34</var>the July 1, 2015, deadline, the commissioner shall advise the public and the cochairs <br/>
<a id="pl.21.35"></a><var>21.35</var>of the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research. Upon notification by the <br/>
<a id="pl.22.1"></a><var>22.1</var>commissioner, the task force shall extend the deadline by six months, but may not extend <br/>
<a id="pl.22.2"></a><var>22.2</var>the deadline more than once.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.29.0"></a><a id="pl.22.3"></a><var>22.3</var>    Sec. 29. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.25, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.22.4"></a><var>22.4</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Reports.</b> (a) The commissioner shall provide regular updates to the task <br/>
<a id="pl.22.5"></a><var>22.5</var>force and to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with <br/>
<a id="pl.22.6"></a><var>22.6</var>jurisdiction over health and human services, public safety, judiciary, and civil law on <br/>
<a id="pl.22.7"></a><var>22.7</var>medical cannabis therapeutic research regarding any changes in federal law or regulatory <br/>
<a id="pl.22.8"></a><var>22.8</var>restrictions regarding the use of medical cannabis.<br/>
<a id="pl.22.9"></a><var>22.9</var>(b) The commissioner may submit medical research based on the data collected <br/>
<a id="pl.22.10"></a><var>22.10</var>under sections 
         <statute_ref>152.22</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>152.37</statute_ref> to any federal agency with regulatory or enforcement <br/>
<a id="pl.22.11"></a><var>22.11</var>authority over medical cannabis to demonstrate the effectiveness of medical cannabis for <br/>
<a id="pl.22.12"></a><var>22.12</var>treating a qualifying medical condition.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.30.0"></a><a id="pl.22.13"></a><var>22.13</var>    Sec. 30. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.29, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.22.14"></a><var>22.14</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Manufacturer; distribution.</b> (a) A manufacturer shall require that <br/>
<a id="pl.22.15"></a><var>22.15</var>employees licensed as pharmacists pursuant to chapter 151 be the only employees to <br/>
<a id="pl.22.16"></a><var>22.16</var>distribute give final approval for the distribution of medical cannabis to a patient.<br/>
<a id="pl.22.17"></a><var>22.17</var>(b) A manufacturer may dispense medical cannabis products, whether or not the <br/>
<a id="pl.22.18"></a><var>22.18</var>products have been manufactured by the manufacturer, but is not required to dispense <br/>
<a id="pl.22.19"></a><var>22.19</var>medical cannabis products.<br/>
<a id="pl.22.20"></a><var>22.20</var>(c) Prior to distribution of any medical cannabis, the manufacturer shall:<br/>
<a id="pl.22.21"></a><var>22.21</var>(1) verify that the manufacturer has received the registry verification from the <br/>
<a id="pl.22.22"></a><var>22.22</var>commissioner for that individual patient;<br/>
<a id="pl.22.23"></a><var>22.23</var>(2) verify that the person requesting the distribution of medical cannabis is the patient, <br/>
<a id="pl.22.24"></a><var>22.24</var>the patient's registered designated caregiver, or the patient's parent or legal guardian listed <br/>
<a id="pl.22.25"></a><var>22.25</var>in the registry verification using the procedures described in section 
         <statute_ref>152.11, subdivision 2d</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.22.26"></a><var>22.26</var>(3) assign a tracking number to any medical cannabis distributed from the <br/>
<a id="pl.22.27"></a><var>22.27</var>manufacturer;<br/>
<a id="pl.22.28"></a><var>22.28</var>(4) ensure that any employee of the manufacturer licensed as a pharmacist pursuant to <br/>
<a id="pl.22.29"></a><var>22.29</var>chapter 151 has consulted with the patient to determine the proper dosage for the individual <br/>
<a id="pl.22.30"></a><var>22.30</var>patient after reviewing the ranges of chemical compositions of the medical cannabis and <br/>
<a id="pl.22.31"></a><var>22.31</var>the ranges of proper dosages reported by the commissioner. For purposes of this clause, a <br/>
<a id="pl.22.32"></a><var>22.32</var>consultation may be conducted remotely using a videoconference, so long as the employee <br/>
<a id="pl.22.33"></a><var>22.33</var>providing the consultation is able to confirm the identity of the patient, the consultation <br/>
<a id="pl.23.1"></a><var>23.1</var>occurs while the patient is at a distribution facility, and the consultation adheres to patient <br/>
<a id="pl.23.2"></a><var>23.2</var>privacy requirements that apply to health care services delivered through telemedicine;<br/>
<a id="pl.23.3"></a><var>23.3</var>(5) properly package medical cannabis in compliance with the United States <br/>
<a id="pl.23.4"></a><var>23.4</var>Poison Prevention Packing Act regarding child-resistant packaging and exemptions for <br/>
<a id="pl.23.5"></a><var>23.5</var>packaging for elderly patients, and label distributed medical cannabis with a list of all <br/>
<a id="pl.23.6"></a><var>23.6</var>active ingredients and individually identifying information, including:<br/>
<a id="pl.23.7"></a><var>23.7</var>(i) the patient's name and date of birth;<br/>
<a id="pl.23.8"></a><var>23.8</var>(ii) the name and date of birth of the patient's registered designated caregiver or, <br/>
<a id="pl.23.9"></a><var>23.9</var>if listed on the registry verification, the name of the patient's parent or legal guardian, <br/>
<a id="pl.23.10"></a><var>23.10</var>if applicable;<br/>
<a id="pl.23.11"></a><var>23.11</var>(iii) the patient's registry identification number;<br/>
<a id="pl.23.12"></a><var>23.12</var>(iv) the chemical composition of the medical cannabis; and<br/>
<a id="pl.23.13"></a><var>23.13</var>(v) the dosage; and<br/>
<a id="pl.23.14"></a><var>23.14</var>(6) ensure that the medical cannabis distributed contains a maximum of a 30-day <br/>
<a id="pl.23.15"></a><var>23.15</var>supply of the dosage determined for that patient.<br/>
<a id="pl.23.16"></a><var>23.16</var>(d) A manufacturer shall require any employee of the manufacturer who is <br/>
<a id="pl.23.17"></a><var>23.17</var>transporting medical cannabis or medical cannabis products to a distribution facility to <br/>
<a id="pl.23.18"></a><var>23.18</var>carry identification showing that the person is an employee of the manufacturer.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.31.0"></a><a id="pl.23.19"></a><var>23.19</var>    Sec. 31. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.29, is amended by adding a subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.23.20"></a><var>23.20</var>to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.23.21"></a><var>23.21</var>    Subd. 3a. <b>Transportation of medical cannabis; staffing.</b> A medical cannabis <br/>
<a id="pl.23.22"></a><var>23.22</var>manufacturer may staff a transport motor vehicle with only one employee if the medical <br/>
<a id="pl.23.23"></a><var>23.23</var>cannabis manufacturer is transporting medical cannabis to either a certified laboratory for <br/>
<a id="pl.23.24"></a><var>23.24</var>the purpose of testing or a facility for the purpose of disposal. If the medical cannabis <br/>
<a id="pl.23.25"></a><var>23.25</var>manufacturer is transporting medical cannabis for any other purpose or destination, the <br/>
<a id="pl.23.26"></a><var>23.26</var>transport motor vehicle must be staffed with a minimum of two employees as required by <br/>
<a id="pl.23.27"></a><var>23.27</var>rules adopted by the commissioner.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.32.0"></a><a id="pl.23.28"></a><var>23.28</var>    Sec. 32. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.36, is amended by adding a subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.23.29"></a><var>23.29</var>to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.23.30"></a><var>23.30</var>    Subd. 1a. <b>Administration.</b> The commissioner of health shall provide administrative <br/>
<a id="pl.23.31"></a><var>23.31</var>and technical support to the task force.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.33.0"></a><a id="pl.23.32"></a><var>23.32</var>    Sec. 33. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 152.36, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.1"></a><var>24.1</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Impact assessment.</b> The task force shall hold hearings to conduct an <br/>
<a id="pl.24.2"></a><var>24.2</var>assessment that evaluates evaluate the impact of the use of medical cannabis and evaluates <br/>
<a id="pl.24.3"></a><var>24.3</var>Minnesota's activities and other states' activities involving medical cannabis, and offer <br/>
<a id="pl.24.4"></a><var>24.4</var>analysis of including, but not limited to:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.5"></a><var>24.5</var>    (1) program design and implementation;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.6"></a><var>24.6</var>    (2) the impact on the health care provider community;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.7"></a><var>24.7</var>    (3) patient experiences;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.8"></a><var>24.8</var>    (4) the impact on the incidence of substance abuse;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.9"></a><var>24.9</var>    (5) access to and quality of medical cannabis and medical cannabis products;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.10"></a><var>24.10</var>    (6) the impact on law enforcement and prosecutions;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.11"></a><var>24.11</var>    (7) public awareness and perception; and<br/>
<a id="pl.24.12"></a><var>24.12</var>    (8) any unintended consequences.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.34.0"></a><a id="pl.24.13"></a><var>24.13</var>    Sec. 34. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 153A.14, subdivision 2d, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.14"></a><var>24.14</var>    Subd. 2d. <b>Certification renewal notice.</b> Certification must be renewed annually. <br/>
<a id="pl.24.15"></a><var>24.15</var>The commissioner shall mail a renewal notice to the dispenser's last known address on <br/>
<a id="pl.24.16"></a><var>24.16</var>record with the commissioner by September 1 of each year. The notice must include a <br/>
<a id="pl.24.17"></a><var>24.17</var>renewal application and notice of fees required for renewal. A dispenser is not relieved <br/>
<a id="pl.24.18"></a><var>24.18</var>from meeting the renewal deadline on the basis that the dispenser did not receive the <br/>
<a id="pl.24.19"></a><var>24.19</var>renewal notice. In renewing a certificate, a dispenser shall follow the procedures for <br/>
<a id="pl.24.20"></a><var>24.20</var>applying for a certificate specified in subdivision 1.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.35.0"></a><a id="pl.24.21"></a><var>24.21</var>    Sec. 35. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 153A.14, subdivision 2h, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.22"></a><var>24.22</var>    Subd. 2h. <b>Certification by examination.</b> An applicant must achieve a passing score, <br/>
<a id="pl.24.23"></a><var>24.23</var>as determined by the commissioner, on an examination according to paragraphs (a) to (c).<br/>
<a id="pl.24.24"></a><var>24.24</var>(a) The examination must include, but is not limited to:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.25"></a><var>24.25</var>(1) A written examination approved by the commissioner covering the following <br/>
<a id="pl.24.26"></a><var>24.26</var>areas as they pertain to hearing instrument selling:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.27"></a><var>24.27</var>(i) basic physics of sound;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.28"></a><var>24.28</var>(ii) the anatomy and physiology of the ear;<br/>
<a id="pl.24.29"></a><var>24.29</var>(iii) the function of hearing instruments; and<br/>
<a id="pl.24.30"></a><var>24.30</var>(iv) the principles of hearing instrument selection.<br/>
<a id="pl.24.31"></a><var>24.31</var>(2) Practical tests of proficiency in the following techniques as they pertain to <br/>
<a id="pl.24.32"></a><var>24.32</var>hearing instrument selling:<br/>
<a id="pl.24.33"></a><var>24.33</var>(i) pure tone audiometry, including air conduction testing and bone conduction <br/>
<a id="pl.24.34"></a><var>24.34</var>testing;<br/>
<a id="pl.25.1"></a><var>25.1</var>(ii) live voice or recorded voice speech audiometry including speech recognition <br/>
<a id="pl.25.2"></a><var>25.2</var>(discrimination) testing, most comfortable loudness level, and uncomfortable loudness <br/>
<a id="pl.25.3"></a><var>25.3</var>measurements of tolerance thresholds;<br/>
<a id="pl.25.4"></a><var>25.4</var>(iii) masking when indicated;<br/>
<a id="pl.25.5"></a><var>25.5</var>(iv) recording and evaluation of audiograms and speech audiometry to determine <br/>
<a id="pl.25.6"></a><var>25.6</var>proper selection and fitting of a hearing instrument;<br/>
<a id="pl.25.7"></a><var>25.7</var>(v) taking ear mold impressions;<br/>
<a id="pl.25.8"></a><var>25.8</var>(vi) using an otoscope for the visual observation of the entire ear canal; and<br/>
<a id="pl.25.9"></a><var>25.9</var>(vii) state and federal laws, rules, and regulations.<br/>
<a id="pl.25.10"></a><var>25.10</var>(b) The practical examination shall be administered by the commissioner at least <br/>
<a id="pl.25.11"></a><var>25.11</var>twice a year.<br/>
<a id="pl.25.12"></a><var>25.12</var>(c) An applicant must achieve a passing score on all portions of the examination <br/>
<a id="pl.25.13"></a><var>25.13</var>within a two-year period. An applicant who does not achieve a passing score on all <br/>
<a id="pl.25.14"></a><var>25.14</var>portions of the examination within a two-year period must retake the entire examination <br/>
<a id="pl.25.15"></a><var>25.15</var>and achieve a passing score on each portion of the examination. An applicant who does not <br/>
<a id="pl.25.16"></a><var>25.16</var>apply for certification within one year of successful completion of the examination must <br/>
<a id="pl.25.17"></a><var>25.17</var>retake the examination and achieve a passing score on each portion of the examination. <br/>
<a id="pl.25.18"></a><var>25.18</var>An applicant may not take any part of the practical examination more than three times in <br/>
<a id="pl.25.19"></a><var>25.19</var>a two-year period.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.36.0"></a><a id="pl.25.20"></a><var>25.20</var>    Sec. 36. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 153A.15, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.25.21"></a><var>25.21</var>    Subd. 2a. <b>Hearings.</b> If the commissioner proposes to take action against the <br/>
<a id="pl.25.22"></a><var>25.22</var>dispenser as described in subdivision 2, the commissioner must first notify the person <br/>
<a id="pl.25.23"></a><var>25.23</var>against whom the action is proposed to be taken and provide the person with an <br/>
<a id="pl.25.24"></a><var>25.24</var>opportunity to request a hearing under the contested case provisions of chapter 14. Service <br/>
<a id="pl.25.25"></a><var>25.25</var>of a notice of disciplinary action may be made personally or by certified mail, return <br/>
<a id="pl.25.26"></a><var>25.26</var>receipt requested. If the person does not request a hearing by notifying the commissioner <br/>
<a id="pl.25.27"></a><var>25.27</var>within 30 days after service of the notice of the proposed action, the commissioner may <br/>
<a id="pl.25.28"></a><var>25.28</var>proceed with the action without a hearing.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.37.0"></a><a id="pl.25.29"></a><var>25.29</var>    Sec. 37. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 157.15, subdivision 14, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.25.30"></a><var>25.30</var>    Subd. 14. <b>Special event food stand.</b> "Special event food stand" means a food and <br/>
<a id="pl.25.31"></a><var>25.31</var>beverage service establishment which is used in conjunction with celebrations and special <br/>
<a id="pl.25.32"></a><var>25.32</var>events, and which operates no more than three times annually for no more than ten total <br/>
<a id="pl.25.33"></a><var>25.33</var>days within the applicable license period.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.38.0"></a><a id="pl.26.1"></a><var>26.1</var>    Sec. 38. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 157.16, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.26.2"></a><var>26.2</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Posting requirements.</b> Every food and beverage service establishment, <br/>
<a id="pl.26.3"></a><var>26.3</var>for-profit youth camp, hotel, motel, lodging establishment, public pool, or resort must <br/>
<a id="pl.26.4"></a><var>26.4</var>have the original license posted in a conspicuous place at the establishment. Mobile food <br/>
<a id="pl.26.5"></a><var>26.5</var>units, food carts, and seasonal temporary food stands shall be issued decals with the <br/>
<a id="pl.26.6"></a><var>26.6</var>initial license and each calendar year with license renewals. The current license year <br/>
<a id="pl.26.7"></a><var>26.7</var>decal must be placed on the unit or stand in a location determined by the commissioner. <br/>
<a id="pl.26.8"></a><var>26.8</var>Decals are not transferable.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.39.0"></a><a id="pl.26.9"></a><var>26.9</var>    Sec. 39. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 245.8251, is amended by adding a <br/>
<a id="pl.26.10"></a><var>26.10</var>subdivision to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.26.11"></a><var>26.11</var>    Subd. 1a. <b>Legislative approval.</b> Minnesota Rules, chapter 9544, positive support <br/>
<a id="pl.26.12"></a><var>26.12</var>strategies and restrictive interventions is approved.<br/>
<a id="pl.26.13"></a><var>26.13</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.40.0"></a><a id="pl.26.14"></a><var>26.14</var>    Sec. 40. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 245.8251, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.26.15"></a><var>26.15</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Data collection.</b> (a) The commissioner shall, with stakeholder input, <br/>
<a id="pl.26.16"></a><var>26.16</var>identify data elements specific to incidents of emergency use of manual restraint and <br/>
<a id="pl.26.17"></a><var>26.17</var>positive support transition plans for persons receiving services from licensed facilities <br/>
<a id="pl.26.18"></a><var>26.18</var>and licensed services under chapter 245D and in licensed facilities and licensed services <br/>
<a id="pl.26.19"></a><var>26.19</var>serving persons with a developmental disability or related condition as defined in <br/>
<a id="pl.26.20"></a><var>26.20</var>Minnesota Rules, part 9525.0016, subpart 2, effective January 1, 2014. Licensed facilities <br/>
<a id="pl.26.21"></a><var>26.21</var>and licensed services shall report the data in a format and at a frequency determined by the <br/>
<a id="pl.26.22"></a><var>26.22</var>commissioner of human services to the commissioner and the Office of the Ombudsman <br/>
<a id="pl.26.23"></a><var>26.23</var>for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.<br/>
<a id="pl.26.24"></a><var>26.24</var>(b) Beginning July 1, 2013, licensed facilities and licensed services regulated under <br/>
<a id="pl.26.25"></a><var>26.25</var>Minnesota Rules, parts 9525.2700 to 9525.2810, shall submit data regarding the use of all <br/>
<a id="pl.26.26"></a><var>26.26</var>controlled procedures identified in Minnesota Rules, part 9525.2740, in a format and at <br/>
<a id="pl.26.27"></a><var>26.27</var>a frequency determined by the commissioner to the commissioner and the Office of the <br/>
<a id="pl.26.28"></a><var>26.28</var>Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.<br/>
<a id="pl.26.29"></a><var>26.29</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.41.0"></a><a id="pl.26.30"></a><var>26.30</var>    Sec. 41. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 252.275, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.26.31"></a><var>26.31</var>    Subd. 1a. <b>Service requirements.</b> The methods, materials, and settings used to <br/>
<a id="pl.26.32"></a><var>26.32</var>provide semi-independent living services to a person must be designed to:<br/>
<a id="pl.27.1"></a><var>27.1</var>(1) increase the person's independence in performing tasks and activities by teaching <br/>
<a id="pl.27.2"></a><var>27.2</var>skills that reduce dependence on caregivers;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.3"></a><var>27.3</var>(2) provide training in an environment where the skill being taught is typically used;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.4"></a><var>27.4</var>(3) increase the person's opportunities to interact with nondisabled individuals who <br/>
<a id="pl.27.5"></a><var>27.5</var>are not paid caregivers;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.6"></a><var>27.6</var>(4) increase the person's opportunities to use community resources and participate in <br/>
<a id="pl.27.7"></a><var>27.7</var>community activities, including recreational, cultural, and educational resources, stores, <br/>
<a id="pl.27.8"></a><var>27.8</var>restaurants, religious services, and public transportation;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.9"></a><var>27.9</var>(5) increase the person's opportunities to develop decision-making skills and to make <br/>
<a id="pl.27.10"></a><var>27.10</var>informed choices in all aspects of daily living, including:<br/>
<a id="pl.27.11"></a><var>27.11</var>(i) selection of service providers;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.12"></a><var>27.12</var>(ii) goals and methods;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.13"></a><var>27.13</var>(iii) location and decor of residence;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.14"></a><var>27.14</var>(iv) roommates;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.15"></a><var>27.15</var>(v) daily routines;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.16"></a><var>27.16</var>(vi) leisure activities; and<br/>
<a id="pl.27.17"></a><var>27.17</var>(vii) personal possessions;<br/>
<a id="pl.27.18"></a><var>27.18</var>(6) provide daily schedules, routines, environments and interactions similar to those <br/>
<a id="pl.27.19"></a><var>27.19</var>of nondisabled individuals of the same chronological age; and<br/>
<a id="pl.27.20"></a><var>27.20</var>(7) comply with section 
         <statute_ref>245.825, subdivision 1</statute_ref> 245.8251 and the rules promulgated <br/>
<a id="pl.27.21"></a><var>27.21</var>pursuant to section 245.8251, subdivision 1.<br/>
<a id="pl.27.22"></a><var>27.22</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.42.0"></a><a id="pl.27.23"></a><var>27.23</var>    Sec. 42. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 253B.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.27.24"></a><var>27.24</var>    Subdivision 1. <b>Restraints.</b> (a) A patient has the right to be free from restraints. <br/>
<a id="pl.27.25"></a><var>27.25</var>Restraints shall not be applied to a patient in a treatment facility unless the head of the <br/>
<a id="pl.27.26"></a><var>27.26</var>treatment facility, a member of the medical staff, or a licensed peace officer who has custody <br/>
<a id="pl.27.27"></a><var>27.27</var>of the patient determines that they are necessary for the safety of the patient or others.<br/>
<a id="pl.27.28"></a><var>27.28</var>(b) Restraints shall not be applied to patients with developmental disabilities except <br/>
<a id="pl.27.29"></a><var>27.29</var>as permitted under section 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251 and rules of the commissioner of human <br/>
<a id="pl.27.30"></a><var>27.30</var>services. Consent must be obtained from the person or person's guardian except for <br/>
<a id="pl.27.31"></a><var>27.31</var>emergency procedures as permitted under rules of the commissioner adopted under <br/>
<a id="pl.27.32"></a><var>27.32</var>section 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251.<br/>
<a id="pl.27.33"></a><var>27.33</var>(c) Each use of a restraint and reason for it shall be made part of the clinical record <br/>
<a id="pl.27.34"></a><var>27.34</var>of the patient under the signature of the head of the treatment facility.<br/>
<a id="pl.28.1"></a><var>28.1</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.43.0"></a><a id="pl.28.2"></a><var>28.2</var>    Sec. 43. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 253B.03, subdivision 6a, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.3"></a><var>28.3</var>    Subd. 6a. <b>Consent for treatment for developmental disability.</b> A patient with <br/>
<a id="pl.28.4"></a><var>28.4</var>a developmental disability, or the patient's guardian, has the right to give or withhold <br/>
<a id="pl.28.5"></a><var>28.5</var>consent before:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.6"></a><var>28.6</var>(1) the implementation of any aversive or deprivation procedure restrictive <br/>
<a id="pl.28.7"></a><var>28.7</var>interventions except for emergency procedures use of manual restraint permitted in rules <br/>
<a id="pl.28.8"></a><var>28.8</var>of the commissioner adopted under section 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251; or<br/>
<a id="pl.28.9"></a><var>28.9</var>(2) the administration of psychotropic medication.<br/>
<a id="pl.28.10"></a><var>28.10</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.44.0"></a><a id="pl.28.11"></a><var>28.11</var>    Sec. 44. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 256B.0659, subdivision 3, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.12"></a><var>28.12</var>    Subd. 3. <b>Noncovered personal care assistance services.</b> (a) Personal care assistance <br/>
<a id="pl.28.13"></a><var>28.13</var>services are not eligible for medical assistance payment under this section when provided:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.14"></a><var>28.14</var>    (1) by the recipient's spouse, parent of a recipient under the age of 18, paid legal <br/>
<a id="pl.28.15"></a><var>28.15</var>guardian, licensed foster provider, except as allowed under section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0652, subdivision <br/>
<a id="pl.28.16"></a><var>28.16</var>10
         </statute_ref>, or responsible party;<br/>
<a id="pl.28.17"></a><var>28.17</var>    (2) in order to meet staffing or license requirements in a residential or child care <br/>
<a id="pl.28.18"></a><var>28.18</var>setting;<br/>
<a id="pl.28.19"></a><var>28.19</var>    (3) solely as a child care or babysitting service; or<br/>
<a id="pl.28.20"></a><var>28.20</var>    (4) without authorization by the commissioner or the commissioner's designee.<br/>
<a id="pl.28.21"></a><var>28.21</var>    (b) The following personal care services are not eligible for medical assistance <br/>
<a id="pl.28.22"></a><var>28.22</var>payment under this section when provided in residential settings:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.23"></a><var>28.23</var>    (1) when the provider of home care services who is not related by blood, marriage, <br/>
<a id="pl.28.24"></a><var>28.24</var>or adoption owns or otherwise controls the living arrangement, including licensed or <br/>
<a id="pl.28.25"></a><var>28.25</var>unlicensed services; or<br/>
<a id="pl.28.26"></a><var>28.26</var>    (2) when personal care assistance services are the responsibility of a residential or <br/>
<a id="pl.28.27"></a><var>28.27</var>program license holder under the terms of a service agreement and administrative rules.<br/>
<a id="pl.28.28"></a><var>28.28</var>    (c) Other specific tasks not covered under paragraph (a) or (b) that are not eligible <br/>
<a id="pl.28.29"></a><var>28.29</var>for medical assistance reimbursement for personal care assistance services under this <br/>
<a id="pl.28.30"></a><var>28.30</var>section include:<br/>
<a id="pl.28.31"></a><var>28.31</var>    (1) sterile procedures;<br/>
<a id="pl.28.32"></a><var>28.32</var>    (2) injections of fluids and medications into veins, muscles, or skin;<br/>
<a id="pl.28.33"></a><var>28.33</var>    (3) home maintenance or chore services;<br/>
<a id="pl.29.1"></a><var>29.1</var>    (4) homemaker services not an integral part of assessed personal care assistance <br/>
<a id="pl.29.2"></a><var>29.2</var>services needed by a recipient;<br/>
<a id="pl.29.3"></a><var>29.3</var>    (5) application of restraints or implementation of procedures restrictive interventions <br/>
<a id="pl.29.4"></a><var>29.4</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251;<br/>
<a id="pl.29.5"></a><var>29.5</var>    (6) instrumental activities of daily living for children under the age of 18, except <br/>
<a id="pl.29.6"></a><var>29.6</var>when immediate attention is needed for health or hygiene reasons integral to the personal <br/>
<a id="pl.29.7"></a><var>29.7</var>care services and the need is listed in the service plan by the assessor; and<br/>
<a id="pl.29.8"></a><var>29.8</var>    (7) assessments for personal care assistance services by personal care assistance <br/>
<a id="pl.29.9"></a><var>29.9</var>provider agencies or by independently enrolled registered nurses.<br/>
<a id="pl.29.10"></a><var>29.10</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.45.0"></a><a id="pl.29.11"></a><var>29.11</var>    Sec. 45. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 256B.0951, subdivision 5, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.29.12"></a><var>29.12</var>    Subd. 5. <b>Variance of certain standards prohibited.</b> The safety standards, rights, <br/>
<a id="pl.29.13"></a><var>29.13</var>or procedural protections under chapter 245C and sections 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251; 
         <statute_ref>245.91</statute_ref> to <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.29.14"></a><var>29.14</var>245.97
         </statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>245A.09, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraph (c), clauses (2) and (5); 
         <statute_ref>245A.12</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>245A.13</statute_ref>; <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.29.15"></a><var>29.15</var>252.41, subdivision 9
         </statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>256B.092, subdivisions 1b, clause (7)</statute_ref>, and 10; 
         <statute_ref>626.556</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>626.557</statute_ref>, <br/>
<a id="pl.29.16"></a><var>29.16</var>and procedures for the monitoring of psychotropic medications shall not be varied <br/>
<a id="pl.29.17"></a><var>29.17</var>under the alternative quality assurance licensing system. The commission may make <br/>
<a id="pl.29.18"></a><var>29.18</var>recommendations to the commissioners of human services and health or to the legislature <br/>
<a id="pl.29.19"></a><var>29.19</var>regarding alternatives to or modifications of the rules and procedures referenced in this <br/>
<a id="pl.29.20"></a><var>29.20</var>subdivision.<br/>
<a id="pl.29.21"></a><var>29.21</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.46.0"></a><a id="pl.29.22"></a><var>29.22</var>    Sec. 46. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 256B.097, subdivision 4, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.29.23"></a><var>29.23</var>    Subd. 4. <b>Regional quality councils.</b> (a) The commissioner shall establish, as <br/>
<a id="pl.29.24"></a><var>29.24</var>selected by the State Quality Council, regional quality councils of key stakeholders, <br/>
<a id="pl.29.25"></a><var>29.25</var>including regional representatives of:<br/>
<a id="pl.29.26"></a><var>29.26</var>    (1) disability service recipients and their family members;<br/>
<a id="pl.29.27"></a><var>29.27</var>    (2) disability service providers;<br/>
<a id="pl.29.28"></a><var>29.28</var>    (3) disability advocacy groups; and<br/>
<a id="pl.29.29"></a><var>29.29</var>    (4) county human services agencies and staff from the Department of Human <br/>
<a id="pl.29.30"></a><var>29.30</var>Services and Ombudsman for Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities.<br/>
<a id="pl.29.31"></a><var>29.31</var>    (b) Each regional quality council shall:<br/>
<a id="pl.29.32"></a><var>29.32</var>    (1) direct and monitor the community-based, person-directed quality assurance <br/>
<a id="pl.29.33"></a><var>29.33</var>system in this section;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.1"></a><var>30.1</var>    (2) approve a training program for quality assurance team members under clause (13);<br/>
<a id="pl.30.2"></a><var>30.2</var>    (3) review summary reports from quality assurance team reviews and make <br/>
<a id="pl.30.3"></a><var>30.3</var>recommendations to the State Quality Council regarding program licensure;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.4"></a><var>30.4</var>    (4) make recommendations to the State Quality Council regarding the system;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.5"></a><var>30.5</var>    (5) resolve complaints between the quality assurance teams, counties, providers, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.6"></a><var>30.6</var>persons receiving services, their families, and legal representatives;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.7"></a><var>30.7</var>    (6) analyze and review quality outcomes and critical incident data reporting <br/>
<a id="pl.30.8"></a><var>30.8</var>incidents of life safety concerns immediately to the Department of Human Services <br/>
<a id="pl.30.9"></a><var>30.9</var>licensing division;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.10"></a><var>30.10</var>    (7) provide information and training programs for persons with disabilities and their <br/>
<a id="pl.30.11"></a><var>30.11</var>families and legal representatives on service options and quality expectations;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.12"></a><var>30.12</var>    (8) disseminate information and resources developed to other regional quality <br/>
<a id="pl.30.13"></a><var>30.13</var>councils;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.14"></a><var>30.14</var>    (9) respond to state-level priorities;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.15"></a><var>30.15</var>    (10) establish regional priorities for quality improvement;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.16"></a><var>30.16</var>    (11) submit an annual report to the State Quality Council on the status, outcomes, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.17"></a><var>30.17</var>improvement priorities, and activities in the region;<br/>
<a id="pl.30.18"></a><var>30.18</var>    (12) choose a representative to participate on the State Quality Council and assume <br/>
<a id="pl.30.19"></a><var>30.19</var>other responsibilities consistent with the priorities of the State Quality Council; and<br/>
<a id="pl.30.20"></a><var>30.20</var>    (13) recruit, train, and assign duties to members of quality assurance teams, taking <br/>
<a id="pl.30.21"></a><var>30.21</var>into account the size of the service provider, the number of services to be reviewed, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.22"></a><var>30.22</var>the skills necessary for the team members to complete the process, and ensure that no <br/>
<a id="pl.30.23"></a><var>30.23</var>team member has a financial, personal, or family relationship with the facility, program, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.24"></a><var>30.24</var>or service being reviewed or with anyone served at the facility, program, or service. <br/>
<a id="pl.30.25"></a><var>30.25</var>Quality assurance teams must be comprised of county staff, persons receiving services <br/>
<a id="pl.30.26"></a><var>30.26</var>or the person's families, legal representatives, members of advocacy organizations, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.27"></a><var>30.27</var>providers, and other involved community members. Team members must complete <br/>
<a id="pl.30.28"></a><var>30.28</var>the training program approved by the regional quality council and must demonstrate <br/>
<a id="pl.30.29"></a><var>30.29</var>performance-based competency. Team members may be paid a per diem and reimbursed <br/>
<a id="pl.30.30"></a><var>30.30</var>for expenses related to their participation in the quality assurance process.<br/>
<a id="pl.30.31"></a><var>30.31</var>    (c) The commissioner shall monitor the safety standards, rights, and procedural <br/>
<a id="pl.30.32"></a><var>30.32</var>protections for the monitoring of psychotropic medications and those identified under <br/>
<a id="pl.30.33"></a><var>30.33</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251; 
         <statute_ref>245.91</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>245.97</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>245A.09, subdivision 2</statute_ref>, paragraph (c), <br/>
<a id="pl.30.34"></a><var>30.34</var>clauses (2) and (5); 
         <statute_ref>245A.12</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>245A.13</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>252.41, subdivision 9</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>256B.092, subdivision 1b</statute_ref>, <br/>
<a id="pl.30.35"></a><var>30.35</var>clause (7); 
         <statute_ref>626.556</statute_ref>; and 
         <statute_ref>626.557</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.1"></a><var>31.1</var>    (d) The regional quality councils may hire staff to perform the duties assigned in <br/>
<a id="pl.31.2"></a><var>31.2</var>this subdivision.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.3"></a><var>31.3</var>    (e) The regional quality councils may charge fees for their services.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.4"></a><var>31.4</var>    (f) The quality assurance process undertaken by a regional quality council consists of <br/>
<a id="pl.31.5"></a><var>31.5</var>an evaluation by a quality assurance team of the facility, program, or service. The process <br/>
<a id="pl.31.6"></a><var>31.6</var>must include an evaluation of a random sample of persons served. The sample must be <br/>
<a id="pl.31.7"></a><var>31.7</var>representative of each service provided. The sample size must be at least five percent but <br/>
<a id="pl.31.8"></a><var>31.8</var>not less than two persons served. All persons must be given the opportunity to be included <br/>
<a id="pl.31.9"></a><var>31.9</var>in the quality assurance process in addition to those chosen for the random sample.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.10"></a><var>31.10</var>    (g) A facility, program, or service may contest a licensing decision of the regional <br/>
<a id="pl.31.11"></a><var>31.11</var>quality council as permitted under chapter 245A.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.12"></a><var>31.12</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.47.0"></a><a id="pl.31.13"></a><var>31.13</var>    Sec. 47. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 256B.77, subdivision 17, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.31.14"></a><var>31.14</var>    Subd. 17. <b>Approval of alternatives.</b> The commissioner may approve alternatives to <br/>
<a id="pl.31.15"></a><var>31.15</var>administrative rules if the commissioner determines that appropriate alternative measures <br/>
<a id="pl.31.16"></a><var>31.16</var>are in place to protect the health, safety, and rights of enrollees and to assure that services <br/>
<a id="pl.31.17"></a><var>31.17</var>are of sufficient quality to produce the outcomes described in the personal support plans. <br/>
<a id="pl.31.18"></a><var>31.18</var>Prior approved waivers, if needed by the demonstration project, shall be extended. The <br/>
<a id="pl.31.19"></a><var>31.19</var>commissioner shall not waive the rights or procedural protections under sections 
         <statute_ref>245.825 <br/>
<a id="pl.31.20"></a><var>31.20</var></statute_ref>245.8251; 
         <statute_ref>245.91</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>245.97</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>252.41, subdivision 9</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>256B.092, subdivision 10</statute_ref>; 
         <statute_ref>626.556</statute_ref>; <br/>
<a id="pl.31.21"></a><var>31.21</var>and 
         <statute_ref>626.557</statute_ref>; or procedures for the monitoring of psychotropic medications. Prohibited <br/>
<a id="pl.31.22"></a><var>31.22</var>practices as defined in statutes and rules governing service delivery to eligible individuals <br/>
<a id="pl.31.23"></a><var>31.23</var>are applicable to services delivered under this demonstration project.<br/>
<a id="pl.31.24"></a><var>31.24</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.48.0"></a><a id="pl.31.25"></a><var>31.25</var>    Sec. 48. Minnesota Statutes 2015 Supplement, section 626.556, subdivision 2, is <br/>
<a id="pl.31.26"></a><var>31.26</var>amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.31.27"></a><var>31.27</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Definitions.</b> As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings <br/>
<a id="pl.31.28"></a><var>31.28</var>given them unless the specific content indicates otherwise:<br/>
<a id="pl.31.29"></a><var>31.29</var>    (a) "Accidental" means a sudden, not reasonably foreseeable, and unexpected <br/>
<a id="pl.31.30"></a><var>31.30</var>occurrence or event which:<br/>
<a id="pl.31.31"></a><var>31.31</var>    (1) is not likely to occur and could not have been prevented by exercise of due <br/>
<a id="pl.31.32"></a><var>31.32</var>care; and<br/>
<a id="pl.32.1"></a><var>32.1</var>    (2) if occurring while a child is receiving services from a facility, happens when the <br/>
<a id="pl.32.2"></a><var>32.2</var>facility and the employee or person providing services in the facility are in compliance <br/>
<a id="pl.32.3"></a><var>32.3</var>with the laws and rules relevant to the occurrence or event.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.4"></a><var>32.4</var>    (b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of human services.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.5"></a><var>32.5</var>    (c) "Facility" means:<br/>
<a id="pl.32.6"></a><var>32.6</var>    (1) a licensed or unlicensed day care facility, residential facility, agency, hospital, <br/>
<a id="pl.32.7"></a><var>32.7</var>sanitarium, or other facility or institution required to be licensed under sections 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref> to <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.32.8"></a><var>32.8</var>144.58
         </statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>241.021</statute_ref>, or 
         <statute_ref>245A.01</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>245A.16</statute_ref>, or chapter 245D;<br/>
<a id="pl.32.9"></a><var>32.9</var>    (2) a school as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>120A.05, subdivisions 9</statute_ref>, 11, and 13; and chapter <br/>
<a id="pl.32.10"></a><var>32.10</var>124E; or<br/>
<a id="pl.32.11"></a><var>32.11</var>    (3) a nonlicensed personal care provider organization as defined in section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.32.12"></a><var>32.12</var>256B.0625, subdivision 19a
         </statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.13"></a><var>32.13</var>    (d) "Family assessment" means a comprehensive assessment of child safety, risk of <br/>
<a id="pl.32.14"></a><var>32.14</var>subsequent child maltreatment, and family strengths and needs that is applied to a child <br/>
<a id="pl.32.15"></a><var>32.15</var>maltreatment report that does not allege sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment. <br/>
<a id="pl.32.16"></a><var>32.16</var>Family assessment does not include a determination as to whether child maltreatment <br/>
<a id="pl.32.17"></a><var>32.17</var>occurred but does determine the need for services to address the safety of family members <br/>
<a id="pl.32.18"></a><var>32.18</var>and the risk of subsequent maltreatment.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.19"></a><var>32.19</var>    (e) "Investigation" means fact gathering related to the current safety of a child <br/>
<a id="pl.32.20"></a><var>32.20</var>and the risk of subsequent maltreatment that determines whether child maltreatment <br/>
<a id="pl.32.21"></a><var>32.21</var>occurred and whether child protective services are needed. An investigation must be used <br/>
<a id="pl.32.22"></a><var>32.22</var>when reports involve sexual abuse or substantial child endangerment, and for reports of <br/>
<a id="pl.32.23"></a><var>32.23</var>maltreatment in facilities required to be licensed under chapter 245A or 245D; under <br/>
<a id="pl.32.24"></a><var>32.24</var>sections 
         <statute_ref>144.50</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>144.58</statute_ref> and 
         <statute_ref>241.021</statute_ref>; in a school as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>120A.05, <br/>
<a id="pl.32.25"></a><var>32.25</var>subdivisions 9
         </statute_ref>, 11, and 13, and chapter 124E; or in a nonlicensed personal care provider <br/>
<a id="pl.32.26"></a><var>32.26</var>association as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>256B.0625, subdivision 19a</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.27"></a><var>32.27</var>    (f) "Mental injury" means an injury to the psychological capacity or emotional <br/>
<a id="pl.32.28"></a><var>32.28</var>stability of a child as evidenced by an observable or substantial impairment in the child's <br/>
<a id="pl.32.29"></a><var>32.29</var>ability to function within a normal range of performance and behavior with due regard to <br/>
<a id="pl.32.30"></a><var>32.30</var>the child's culture.<br/>
<a id="pl.32.31"></a><var>32.31</var>    (g) "Neglect" means the commission or omission of any of the acts specified under <br/>
<a id="pl.32.32"></a><var>32.32</var>clauses (1) to (9), other than by accidental means:<br/>
<a id="pl.32.33"></a><var>32.33</var>    (1) failure by a person responsible for a child's care to supply a child with necessary <br/>
<a id="pl.32.34"></a><var>32.34</var>food, clothing, shelter, health, medical, or other care required for the child's physical or <br/>
<a id="pl.32.35"></a><var>32.35</var>mental health when reasonably able to do so;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.1"></a><var>33.1</var>    (2) failure to protect a child from conditions or actions that seriously endanger the <br/>
<a id="pl.33.2"></a><var>33.2</var>child's physical or mental health when reasonably able to do so, including a growth delay, <br/>
<a id="pl.33.3"></a><var>33.3</var>which may be referred to as a failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and <br/>
<a id="pl.33.4"></a><var>33.4</var>is due to parental neglect;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.5"></a><var>33.5</var>    (3) failure to provide for necessary supervision or child care arrangements <br/>
<a id="pl.33.6"></a><var>33.6</var>appropriate for a child after considering factors as the child's age, mental ability, physical <br/>
<a id="pl.33.7"></a><var>33.7</var>condition, length of absence, or environment, when the child is unable to care for the <br/>
<a id="pl.33.8"></a><var>33.8</var>child's own basic needs or safety, or the basic needs or safety of another child in their care;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.9"></a><var>33.9</var>    (4) failure to ensure that the child is educated as defined in sections 
         <statute_ref>120A.22</statute_ref> and <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.33.10"></a><var>33.10</var>260C.163, subdivision 11
         </statute_ref>, which does not include a parent's refusal to provide the parent's <br/>
<a id="pl.33.11"></a><var>33.11</var>child with sympathomimetic medications, consistent with section 
         <statute_ref>125A.091, subdivision 5</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.12"></a><var>33.12</var>    (5) nothing in this section shall be construed to mean that a child is neglected solely <br/>
<a id="pl.33.13"></a><var>33.13</var>because the child's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the child's care in <br/>
<a id="pl.33.14"></a><var>33.14</var>good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means or prayer for treatment or care of <br/>
<a id="pl.33.15"></a><var>33.15</var>disease or remedial care of the child in lieu of medical care; except that a parent, guardian, <br/>
<a id="pl.33.16"></a><var>33.16</var>or caretaker, or a person mandated to report pursuant to subdivision 3, has a duty to report <br/>
<a id="pl.33.17"></a><var>33.17</var>if a lack of medical care may cause serious danger to the child's health. This section does <br/>
<a id="pl.33.18"></a><var>33.18</var>not impose upon persons, not otherwise legally responsible for providing a child with <br/>
<a id="pl.33.19"></a><var>33.19</var>necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or medical care, a duty to provide that care;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.20"></a><var>33.20</var>    (6) prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>253B.02</statute_ref>, <br/>
<a id="pl.33.21"></a><var>33.21</var>subdivision 2, used by the mother for a nonmedical purpose, as evidenced by withdrawal <br/>
<a id="pl.33.22"></a><var>33.22</var>symptoms in the child at birth, results of a toxicology test performed on the mother at <br/>
<a id="pl.33.23"></a><var>33.23</var>delivery or the child at birth, medical effects or developmental delays during the child's <br/>
<a id="pl.33.24"></a><var>33.24</var>first year of life that medically indicate prenatal exposure to a controlled substance, or the <br/>
<a id="pl.33.25"></a><var>33.25</var>presence of a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder;<br/>
<a id="pl.33.26"></a><var>33.26</var>    (7) "medical neglect" as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260C.007, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, clause (5);<br/>
<a id="pl.33.27"></a><var>33.27</var>    (8) chronic and severe use of alcohol or a controlled substance by a parent or <br/>
<a id="pl.33.28"></a><var>33.28</var>person responsible for the care of the child that adversely affects the child's basic needs <br/>
<a id="pl.33.29"></a><var>33.29</var>and safety; or<br/>
<a id="pl.33.30"></a><var>33.30</var>    (9) emotional harm from a pattern of behavior which contributes to impaired <br/>
<a id="pl.33.31"></a><var>33.31</var>emotional functioning of the child which may be demonstrated by a substantial and <br/>
<a id="pl.33.32"></a><var>33.32</var>observable effect in the child's behavior, emotional response, or cognition that is not <br/>
<a id="pl.33.33"></a><var>33.33</var>within the normal range for the child's age and stage of development, with due regard to <br/>
<a id="pl.33.34"></a><var>33.34</var>the child's culture.<br/>
<a id="pl.33.35"></a><var>33.35</var>(h) "Nonmaltreatment mistake" means:<br/>
<a id="pl.34.1"></a><var>34.1</var>(1) at the time of the incident, the individual was performing duties identified in the <br/>
<a id="pl.34.2"></a><var>34.2</var>center's child care program plan required under Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0045;<br/>
<a id="pl.34.3"></a><var>34.3</var>(2) the individual has not been determined responsible for a similar incident that <br/>
<a id="pl.34.4"></a><var>34.4</var>resulted in a finding of maltreatment for at least seven years;<br/>
<a id="pl.34.5"></a><var>34.5</var>(3) the individual has not been determined to have committed a similar <br/>
<a id="pl.34.6"></a><var>34.6</var>nonmaltreatment mistake under this paragraph for at least four years;<br/>
<a id="pl.34.7"></a><var>34.7</var>(4) any injury to a child resulting from the incident, if treated, is treated only with <br/>
<a id="pl.34.8"></a><var>34.8</var>remedies that are available over the counter, whether ordered by a medical professional or <br/>
<a id="pl.34.9"></a><var>34.9</var>not; and<br/>
<a id="pl.34.10"></a><var>34.10</var>(5) except for the period when the incident occurred, the facility and the individual <br/>
<a id="pl.34.11"></a><var>34.11</var>providing services were both in compliance with all licensing requirements relevant to the <br/>
<a id="pl.34.12"></a><var>34.12</var>incident.<br/>
<a id="pl.34.13"></a><var>34.13</var>This definition only applies to child care centers licensed under Minnesota <br/>
<a id="pl.34.14"></a><var>34.14</var>Rules, chapter 9503. If clauses (1) to (5) apply, rather than making a determination of <br/>
<a id="pl.34.15"></a><var>34.15</var>substantiated maltreatment by the individual, the commissioner of human services shall <br/>
<a id="pl.34.16"></a><var>34.16</var>determine that a nonmaltreatment mistake was made by the individual.<br/>
<a id="pl.34.17"></a><var>34.17</var>    (i) "Operator" means an operator or agency as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>245A.02</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.34.18"></a><var>34.18</var>    (j) "Person responsible for the child's care" means (1) an individual functioning <br/>
<a id="pl.34.19"></a><var>34.19</var>within the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child such as a <br/>
<a id="pl.34.20"></a><var>34.20</var>parent, guardian, or other person having similar care responsibilities, or (2) an individual <br/>
<a id="pl.34.21"></a><var>34.21</var>functioning outside the family unit and having responsibilities for the care of the child <br/>
<a id="pl.34.22"></a><var>34.22</var>such as a teacher, school administrator, other school employees or agents, or other lawful <br/>
<a id="pl.34.23"></a><var>34.23</var>custodian of a child having either full-time or short-term care responsibilities including, <br/>
<a id="pl.34.24"></a><var>34.24</var>but not limited to, day care, babysitting whether paid or unpaid, counseling, teaching, <br/>
<a id="pl.34.25"></a><var>34.25</var>and coaching.<br/>
<a id="pl.34.26"></a><var>34.26</var>    (k) "Physical abuse" means any physical injury, mental injury, or threatened injury, <br/>
<a id="pl.34.27"></a><var>34.27</var>inflicted by a person responsible for the child's care on a child other than by accidental <br/>
<a id="pl.34.28"></a><var>34.28</var>means, or any physical or mental injury that cannot reasonably be explained by the child's <br/>
<a id="pl.34.29"></a><var>34.29</var>history of injuries, or any aversive or deprivation procedures, or regulated interventions, <br/>
<a id="pl.34.30"></a><var>34.30</var>that have not been authorized under section 
         <statute_ref>125A.0942 </statute_ref>or 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251.<br/>
<a id="pl.34.31"></a><var>34.31</var>    Abuse does not include reasonable and moderate physical discipline of a child <br/>
<a id="pl.34.32"></a><var>34.32</var>administered by a parent or legal guardian which does not result in an injury. Abuse does <br/>
<a id="pl.34.33"></a><var>34.33</var>not include the use of reasonable force by a teacher, principal, or school employee as <br/>
<a id="pl.34.34"></a><var>34.34</var>allowed by section 
         <statute_ref>121A.582</statute_ref>. Actions which are not reasonable and moderate include, but <br/>
<a id="pl.34.35"></a><var>34.35</var>are not limited to, any of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.34.36"></a><var>34.36</var>    (1) throwing, kicking, burning, biting, or cutting a child;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.1"></a><var>35.1</var>    (2) striking a child with a closed fist;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.2"></a><var>35.2</var>    (3) shaking a child under age three;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.3"></a><var>35.3</var>    (4) striking or other actions which result in any nonaccidental injury to a child <br/>
<a id="pl.35.4"></a><var>35.4</var>under 18 months of age;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.5"></a><var>35.5</var>    (5) unreasonable interference with a child's breathing;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.6"></a><var>35.6</var>    (6) threatening a child with a weapon, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>609.02, subdivision 6</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.7"></a><var>35.7</var>    (7) striking a child under age one on the face or head;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.8"></a><var>35.8</var>    (8) striking a child who is at least age one but under age four on the face or head, <br/>
<a id="pl.35.9"></a><var>35.9</var>which results in an injury;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.10"></a><var>35.10</var>    (9) purposely giving a child poison, alcohol, or dangerous, harmful, or controlled <br/>
<a id="pl.35.11"></a><var>35.11</var>substances which were not prescribed for the child by a practitioner, in order to control or <br/>
<a id="pl.35.12"></a><var>35.12</var>punish the child; or other substances that substantially affect the child's behavior, motor <br/>
<a id="pl.35.13"></a><var>35.13</var>coordination, or judgment or that results in sickness or internal injury, or subjects the <br/>
<a id="pl.35.14"></a><var>35.14</var>child to medical procedures that would be unnecessary if the child were not exposed <br/>
<a id="pl.35.15"></a><var>35.15</var>to the substances;<br/>
<a id="pl.35.16"></a><var>35.16</var>    (10) unreasonable physical confinement or restraint not permitted under section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.35.17"></a><var>35.17</var>609.379
         </statute_ref>, including but not limited to tying, caging, or chaining; or<br/>
<a id="pl.35.18"></a><var>35.18</var>    (11) in a school facility or school zone, an act by a person responsible for the child's <br/>
<a id="pl.35.19"></a><var>35.19</var>care that is a violation under section 
         <statute_ref>121A.58</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.35.20"></a><var>35.20</var>    (l) "Practice of social services," for the purposes of subdivision 3, includes but is <br/>
<a id="pl.35.21"></a><var>35.21</var>not limited to employee assistance counseling and the provision of guardian ad litem and <br/>
<a id="pl.35.22"></a><var>35.22</var>parenting time expeditor services.<br/>
<a id="pl.35.23"></a><var>35.23</var>    (m) "Report" means any communication received by the local welfare agency, <br/>
<a id="pl.35.24"></a><var>35.24</var>police department, county sheriff, or agency responsible for child protection pursuant to <br/>
<a id="pl.35.25"></a><var>35.25</var>this section that describes neglect or physical or sexual abuse of a child and contains <br/>
<a id="pl.35.26"></a><var>35.26</var>sufficient content to identify the child and any person believed to be responsible for the <br/>
<a id="pl.35.27"></a><var>35.27</var>neglect or abuse, if known.<br/>
<a id="pl.35.28"></a><var>35.28</var>    (n) "Sexual abuse" means the subjection of a child by a person responsible for the <br/>
<a id="pl.35.29"></a><var>35.29</var>child's care, by a person who has a significant relationship to the child, as defined in <br/>
<a id="pl.35.30"></a><var>35.30</var>section 
         <statute_ref>609.341</statute_ref>, or by a person in a position of authority, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>609.341</statute_ref>, <br/>
<a id="pl.35.31"></a><var>35.31</var>subdivision 10, to any act which constitutes a violation of section 
         <statute_ref>609.342</statute_ref> (criminal sexual <br/>
<a id="pl.35.32"></a><var>35.32</var>conduct in the first degree), 
         <statute_ref>609.343</statute_ref> (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree), <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.35.33"></a><var>35.33</var>609.344
         </statute_ref> (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree), 
         <statute_ref>609.345</statute_ref> (criminal sexual conduct <br/>
<a id="pl.35.34"></a><var>35.34</var>in the fourth degree), or 
         <statute_ref>609.3451</statute_ref> (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree). Sexual <br/>
<a id="pl.35.35"></a><var>35.35</var>abuse also includes any act which involves a minor which constitutes a violation of <br/>
<a id="pl.35.36"></a><var>35.36</var>prostitution offenses under sections 
         <statute_ref>609.321</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.324</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>617.246</statute_ref>. Sexual abuse includes <br/>
<a id="pl.36.1"></a><var>36.1</var>threatened sexual abuse which includes the status of a parent or household member <br/>
<a id="pl.36.2"></a><var>36.2</var>who has committed a violation which requires registration as an offender under section <br/>
<a id="pl.36.3"></a><var>36.3</var>243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b), or required registration under section <br/>
<a id="pl.36.4"></a><var>36.4</var>243.166, subdivision 1b, paragraph (a) or (b).<br/>
<a id="pl.36.5"></a><var>36.5</var>    (o) "Substantial child endangerment" means a person responsible for a child's care, <br/>
<a id="pl.36.6"></a><var>36.6</var>by act or omission, commits or attempts to commit an act against a child under their <br/>
<a id="pl.36.7"></a><var>36.7</var>care that constitutes any of the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.36.8"></a><var>36.8</var>    (1) egregious harm as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260C.007, subdivision 14</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.9"></a><var>36.9</var>    (2) abandonment under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.301, subdivision 2</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.10"></a><var>36.10</var>    (3) neglect as defined in paragraph (g), clause (2), that substantially endangers the <br/>
<a id="pl.36.11"></a><var>36.11</var>child's physical or mental health, including a growth delay, which may be referred to as <br/>
<a id="pl.36.12"></a><var>36.12</var>failure to thrive, that has been diagnosed by a physician and is due to parental neglect;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.13"></a><var>36.13</var>    (4) murder in the first, second, or third degree under section 
         <statute_ref>609.185</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.19</statute_ref>, or <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.36.14"></a><var>36.14</var>609.195
         </statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.15"></a><var>36.15</var>    (5) manslaughter in the first or second degree under section 
         <statute_ref>609.20</statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>609.205</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.16"></a><var>36.16</var>    (6) assault in the first, second, or third degree under section 
         <statute_ref>609.221</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>609.222</statute_ref>, or <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.36.17"></a><var>36.17</var>609.223
         </statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.18"></a><var>36.18</var>    (7) solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution under section 
         <statute_ref>609.322</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.19"></a><var>36.19</var>    (8) criminal sexual conduct under sections 
         <statute_ref>609.342</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.3451</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.20"></a><var>36.20</var>    (9) solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct under section 
         <statute_ref>609.352</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.21"></a><var>36.21</var>    (10) malicious punishment or neglect or endangerment of a child under section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.36.22"></a><var>36.22</var>609.377
         </statute_ref> or 
         <statute_ref>609.378</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.23"></a><var>36.23</var>    (11) use of a minor in sexual performance under section 
         <statute_ref>617.246</statute_ref>; or<br/>
<a id="pl.36.24"></a><var>36.24</var>    (12) parental behavior, status, or condition which mandates that the county attorney <br/>
<a id="pl.36.25"></a><var>36.25</var>file a termination of parental rights petition under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.503, subdivision 2</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.36.26"></a><var>36.26</var>    (p) "Threatened injury" means a statement, overt act, condition, or status that <br/>
<a id="pl.36.27"></a><var>36.27</var>represents a substantial risk of physical or sexual abuse or mental injury. Threatened <br/>
<a id="pl.36.28"></a><var>36.28</var>injury includes, but is not limited to, exposing a child to a person responsible for the <br/>
<a id="pl.36.29"></a><var>36.29</var>child's care, as defined in paragraph (j), clause (1), who has:<br/>
<a id="pl.36.30"></a><var>36.30</var>    (1) subjected a child to, or failed to protect a child from, an overt act or condition <br/>
<a id="pl.36.31"></a><var>36.31</var>that constitutes egregious harm, as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>260C.007, subdivision 14</statute_ref>, or a <br/>
<a id="pl.36.32"></a><var>36.32</var>similar law of another jurisdiction;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.33"></a><var>36.33</var>    (2) been found to be palpably unfit under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.301</statute_ref>, subdivision 1, paragraph <br/>
<a id="pl.36.34"></a><var>36.34</var>(b), clause (4), or a similar law of another jurisdiction;<br/>
<a id="pl.36.35"></a><var>36.35</var>    (3) committed an act that has resulted in an involuntary termination of parental rights <br/>
<a id="pl.36.36"></a><var>36.36</var>under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.301</statute_ref>, or a similar law of another jurisdiction; or<br/>
<a id="pl.37.1"></a><var>37.1</var>    (4) committed an act that has resulted in the involuntary transfer of permanent <br/>
<a id="pl.37.2"></a><var>37.2</var>legal and physical custody of a child to a relative under Minnesota Statutes 2010, section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.37.3"></a><var>37.3</var>260C.201, subdivision 11
         </statute_ref>, paragraph (d), clause (1), section 
         <statute_ref>260C.515, subdivision 4</statute_ref>, or a <br/>
<a id="pl.37.4"></a><var>37.4</var>similar law of another jurisdiction.<br/>
<a id="pl.37.5"></a><var>37.5</var>A child is the subject of a report of threatened injury when the responsible social <br/>
<a id="pl.37.6"></a><var>37.6</var>services agency receives birth match data under paragraph (q) from the Department of <br/>
<a id="pl.37.7"></a><var>37.7</var>Human Services.<br/>
<a id="pl.37.8"></a><var>37.8</var>(q) Upon receiving data under section 
         <statute_ref>144.225, subdivision 2b</statute_ref>, contained in a <br/>
<a id="pl.37.9"></a><var>37.9</var>birth record or recognition of parentage identifying a child who is subject to threatened <br/>
<a id="pl.37.10"></a><var>37.10</var>injury under paragraph (p), the Department of Human Services shall send the data to the <br/>
<a id="pl.37.11"></a><var>37.11</var>responsible social services agency. The data is known as "birth match" data. Unless the <br/>
<a id="pl.37.12"></a><var>37.12</var>responsible social services agency has already begun an investigation or assessment of the <br/>
<a id="pl.37.13"></a><var>37.13</var>report due to the birth of the child or execution of the recognition of parentage and the <br/>
<a id="pl.37.14"></a><var>37.14</var>parent's previous history with child protection, the agency shall accept the birth match <br/>
<a id="pl.37.15"></a><var>37.15</var>data as a report under this section. The agency may use either a family assessment or <br/>
<a id="pl.37.16"></a><var>37.16</var>investigation to determine whether the child is safe. All of the provisions of this section <br/>
<a id="pl.37.17"></a><var>37.17</var>apply. If the child is determined to be safe, the agency shall consult with the county <br/>
<a id="pl.37.18"></a><var>37.18</var>attorney to determine the appropriateness of filing a petition alleging the child is in need <br/>
<a id="pl.37.19"></a><var>37.19</var>of protection or services under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.007, subdivision 6</statute_ref>, clause (16), in order to <br/>
<a id="pl.37.20"></a><var>37.20</var>deliver needed services. If the child is determined not to be safe, the agency and the county <br/>
<a id="pl.37.21"></a><var>37.21</var>attorney shall take appropriate action as required under section 
         <statute_ref>260C.503</statute_ref>, subdivision 2.<br/>
<a id="pl.37.22"></a><var>37.22</var>    (r) Persons who conduct assessments or investigations under this section shall take <br/>
<a id="pl.37.23"></a><var>37.23</var>into account accepted child-rearing practices of the culture in which a child participates <br/>
<a id="pl.37.24"></a><var>37.24</var>and accepted teacher discipline practices, which are not injurious to the child's health, <br/>
<a id="pl.37.25"></a><var>37.25</var>welfare, and safety.<br/>
<a id="pl.37.26"></a><var>37.26</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.49.0"></a><a id="pl.37.27"></a><var>37.27</var>    Sec. 49. Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 626.5572, subdivision 2, is amended to read:<br/>
<a id="pl.37.28"></a><var>37.28</var>    Subd. 2. <b>Abuse.</b> "Abuse" means:<br/>
<a id="pl.37.29"></a><var>37.29</var>(a) An act against a vulnerable adult that constitutes a violation of, an attempt to <br/>
<a id="pl.37.30"></a><var>37.30</var>violate, or aiding and abetting a violation of:<br/>
<a id="pl.37.31"></a><var>37.31</var>(1) assault in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections 
         <statute_ref>609.221</statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.224</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.37.32"></a><var>37.32</var>(2) the use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>609.235</statute_ref>;<br/>
<a id="pl.37.33"></a><var>37.33</var>(3) the solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution as defined in section <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.37.34"></a><var>37.34</var>609.322
         </statute_ref>; and<br/>
<a id="pl.38.1"></a><var>38.1</var>(4) criminal sexual conduct in the first through fifth degrees as defined in sections <br/>
<statute_ref><a id="pl.38.2"></a><var>38.2</var>609.342
         </statute_ref> to 
         <statute_ref>609.3451</statute_ref>.<br/>
<a id="pl.38.3"></a><var>38.3</var>A violation includes any action that meets the elements of the crime, regardless of <br/>
<a id="pl.38.4"></a><var>38.4</var>whether there is a criminal proceeding or conviction.<br/>
<a id="pl.38.5"></a><var>38.5</var>(b) Conduct which is not an accident or therapeutic conduct as defined in this <br/>
<a id="pl.38.6"></a><var>38.6</var>section, which produces or could reasonably be expected to produce physical pain or <br/>
<a id="pl.38.7"></a><var>38.7</var>injury or emotional distress including, but not limited to, the following:<br/>
<a id="pl.38.8"></a><var>38.8</var>(1) hitting, slapping, kicking, pinching, biting, or corporal punishment of a <br/>
<a id="pl.38.9"></a><var>38.9</var>vulnerable adult;<br/>
<a id="pl.38.10"></a><var>38.10</var>(2) use of repeated or malicious oral, written, or gestured language toward a <br/>
<a id="pl.38.11"></a><var>38.11</var>vulnerable adult or the treatment of a vulnerable adult which would be considered by a <br/>
<a id="pl.38.12"></a><var>38.12</var>reasonable person to be disparaging, derogatory, humiliating, harassing, or threatening;<br/>
<a id="pl.38.13"></a><var>38.13</var>(3) use of any aversive or deprivation procedure, unreasonable confinement, or <br/>
<a id="pl.38.14"></a><var>38.14</var>involuntary seclusion, including the forced separation of the vulnerable adult from other <br/>
<a id="pl.38.15"></a><var>38.15</var>persons against the will of the vulnerable adult or the legal representative of the vulnerable <br/>
<a id="pl.38.16"></a><var>38.16</var>adult; and<br/>
<a id="pl.38.17"></a><var>38.17</var>(4) use of any aversive or deprivation procedures for persons with developmental <br/>
<a id="pl.38.18"></a><var>38.18</var>disabilities or related conditions not authorized under section 
         <statute_ref>245.825</statute_ref> 245.8251.<br/>
<a id="pl.38.19"></a><var>38.19</var>(c) Any sexual contact or penetration as defined in section 
         <statute_ref>609.341</statute_ref>, between a <br/>
<a id="pl.38.20"></a><var>38.20</var>facility staff person or a person providing services in the facility and a resident, patient, <br/>
<a id="pl.38.21"></a><var>38.21</var>or client of that facility.<br/>
<a id="pl.38.22"></a><var>38.22</var>(d) The act of forcing, compelling, coercing, or enticing a vulnerable adult against <br/>
<a id="pl.38.23"></a><var>38.23</var>the vulnerable adult's will to perform services for the advantage of another.<br/>
<a id="pl.38.24"></a><var>38.24</var>(e) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason <br/>
<a id="pl.38.25"></a><var>38.25</var>that the vulnerable adult or a person with authority to make health care decisions for <br/>
<a id="pl.38.26"></a><var>38.26</var>the vulnerable adult under sections 
         <statute_ref>144.651</statute_ref>, 
         <statute_ref>144A.44</statute_ref>, chapter 145B, 145C or 252A, or <br/>
<a id="pl.38.27"></a><var>38.27</var>section 
         <statute_ref>253B.03</statute_ref> or 524.5-313, refuses consent or withdraws consent, consistent with that <br/>
<a id="pl.38.28"></a><var>38.28</var>authority and within the boundary of reasonable medical practice, to any therapeutic <br/>
<a id="pl.38.29"></a><var>38.29</var>conduct, including any care, service, or procedure to diagnose, maintain, or treat the <br/>
<a id="pl.38.30"></a><var>38.30</var>physical or mental condition of the vulnerable adult or, where permitted under law, to <br/>
<a id="pl.38.31"></a><var>38.31</var>provide nutrition and hydration parenterally or through intubation. This paragraph does <br/>
<a id="pl.38.32"></a><var>38.32</var>not enlarge or diminish rights otherwise held under law by:<br/>
<a id="pl.38.33"></a><var>38.33</var>(1) a vulnerable adult or a person acting on behalf of a vulnerable adult, including an <br/>
<a id="pl.38.34"></a><var>38.34</var>involved family member, to consent to or refuse consent for therapeutic conduct; or<br/>
<a id="pl.38.35"></a><var>38.35</var>(2) a caregiver to offer or provide or refuse to offer or provide therapeutic conduct.<br/>
<a id="pl.39.1"></a><var>39.1</var>(f) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason <br/>
<a id="pl.39.2"></a><var>39.2</var>that the vulnerable adult, a person with authority to make health care decisions for the <br/>
<a id="pl.39.3"></a><var>39.3</var>vulnerable adult, or a caregiver in good faith selects and depends upon spiritual means <br/>
<a id="pl.39.4"></a><var>39.4</var>or prayer for treatment or care of disease or remedial care of the vulnerable adult in lieu <br/>
<a id="pl.39.5"></a><var>39.5</var>of medical care, provided that this is consistent with the prior practice or belief of the <br/>
<a id="pl.39.6"></a><var>39.6</var>vulnerable adult or with the expressed intentions of the vulnerable adult.<br/>
<a id="pl.39.7"></a><var>39.7</var>(g) For purposes of this section, a vulnerable adult is not abused for the sole reason <br/>
<a id="pl.39.8"></a><var>39.8</var>that the vulnerable adult, who is not impaired in judgment or capacity by mental or <br/>
<a id="pl.39.9"></a><var>39.9</var>emotional dysfunction or undue influence, engages in consensual sexual contact with:<br/>
<a id="pl.39.10"></a><var>39.10</var>(1) a person, including a facility staff person, when a consensual sexual personal <br/>
<a id="pl.39.11"></a><var>39.11</var>relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship; or<br/>
<a id="pl.39.12"></a><var>39.12</var>(2) a personal care attendant, regardless of whether the consensual sexual personal <br/>
<a id="pl.39.13"></a><var>39.13</var>relationship existed prior to the caregiving relationship.<br/>
<a id="pl.39.14"></a><var>39.14</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.50.0"></a><a id="pl.39.15"></a><var>39.15</var>    Sec. 50. <b>APPROPRIATION.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.39.16"></a><var>39.16</var>$24,000 is appropriated in fiscal year 2017 to the commissioner of health to <br/>
<a id="pl.39.17"></a><var>39.17</var>administer the task force on medical cannabis therapeutic research under Minnesota <br/>
<a id="pl.39.18"></a><var>39.18</var>Statutes, section 152.36, and for the task force to conduct the impact assessment on the <br/>
<a id="pl.39.19"></a><var>39.19</var>use of cannabis for medicinal purposes.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.51.0"></a><a id="pl.39.20"></a><var>39.20</var>    Sec. 51. <b>APPROPRIATION CANCELLATION.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.39.21"></a><var>39.21</var>Effective July 1, 2016, the appropriation in Laws 2014, chapter 311, section 21, <br/>
<a id="pl.39.22"></a><var>39.22</var>subdivision 2, of $24,000 to the Legislative Coordinating Commission is canceled to the <br/>
<a id="pl.39.23"></a><var>39.23</var>general fund.<br/>
<br/>
<a id="bill.0.52.0"></a><a id="pl.39.24"></a><var>39.24</var>    Sec. 52. <b> REPEALER.</b><br/>
<a id="pl.39.25"></a><var>39.25</var>Minnesota Statutes 2014, section 245.825, subdivisions 1 and 1b, are repealed.<br/>
<a id="pl.39.26"></a><var>39.26</var><b>EFFECTIVE DATE.</b>This section is effective the day following final enactment.<br/>